Page Range | 14565-14732 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 14731 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to Somalia | |
83 FR 14727 - World Autism Awareness Day, 2018 | |
83 FR 14639 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
83 FR 14682 - Sunshine Act: Notice of Public Meeting | |
83 FR 14682 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
83 FR 14650 - American Samoa; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
83 FR 14642 - Request for Nominations for Board of Governors of the Patient-Centered Outcomes Research Institute (PCORI) | |
83 FR 14712 - Notice of Intent To Rule on Request To Release Airport Property at the South Valley Regional Airport, Salt Lake City, UT | |
83 FR 14718 - 2018 Data Call Under the Terrorism Risk Insurance Program | |
83 FR 14722 - Advisory Committee on Women Veterans, Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14638 - Notification of a Public Teleconference of the Chartered Clean Air Scientific Advisory Committee (CASAC) and the CASAC Sulfur Oxides Panel | |
83 FR 14636 - Human Studies Review Board; Notification of Public Meetings | |
83 FR 14715 - Noise Exposure Map Notice; Shreveport Regional Airport; Shreveport, Louisiana | |
83 FR 14603 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Pacific Cod by Catcher Vessels Using Trawl Gear in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
83 FR 14652 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
83 FR 14580 - Reclassification of Targets for the Production of Tritium and Related Development and Production Technology Initially Classified Under the 0Y521 Series | |
83 FR 14655 - Notice of Annual Factors for Determining Public Housing Agency Administrative Fees for the Section 8 Housing Choice Voucher, Mainstream, and Moderate Rehabilitation Programs | |
83 FR 14629 - Defense Acquisition University Board of Visitors; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
83 FR 14629 - Defense Health Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
83 FR 14670 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Desert Land Entry Application | |
83 FR 14670 - Notice of Filing of Plat Survey; Eastern States | |
83 FR 14645 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Federal Hotel and Motel Fire Safety Declaration Form | |
83 FR 14651 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
83 FR 14646 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
83 FR 14611 - Children's Online Privacy Protection Rule Safe Harbor Proposed Self-Regulatory Guidelines; the Entertainment Software Rating Board's COPPA Safe Harbor Program Application To Modify Program Requirements | |
83 FR 14627 - BE-45: Quarterly Survey of Insurance Transactions by U.S. Insurance Companies With Foreign Persons | |
83 FR 14722 - Notice of Open Public Hearing | |
83 FR 14721 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; IRS Taxpayer Burden Surveys | |
83 FR 14671 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection Report of Firearms Transactions-Demand 2 (ATF Form 5300.5) | |
83 FR 14622 - Notice of Intent To Certify Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (Virginia); Request for Comments | |
83 FR 14630 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Application for the Educational Flexibility (Ed-Flex) Program | |
83 FR 14631 - Meeting Notice; EAC Board of Advisors | |
83 FR 14631 - Meeting Notice | |
83 FR 14716 - Parts and Accessories Necessary for Safe Operation; Stoneridge, Inc. Application for an Exemption | |
83 FR 14718 - Minority Depository Institutions Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 14584 - New Animal Drugs; Approval of New Animal Drug Applications; Changes of Sponsorship; Change of a Sponsor's Name and Address | |
83 FR 14643 - Agency Information Collection Request. 60-Day Public Comment Request | |
83 FR 14633 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
83 FR 14631 - NC 102 Project LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
83 FR 14632 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
83 FR 14634 - Increasing Market and Planning Efficiency and Enhancing Resilience Through Improved Software; Notice of Technical Conference: Increasing Real-Time and Day-Ahead Market Efficiency and Enhancing Resilience Through Improved Software | |
83 FR 14711 - Notice of Business Roundtable Meeting on U.S.-Japan Infrastructure Partnership in Third Countries | |
83 FR 14705 - Notifications of Proposed Export Licenses to the Congress | |
83 FR 14640 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request | |
83 FR 14639 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request | |
83 FR 14676 - Advisory Committee for Mathematical and Physical Sciences; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14639 - Meeting of the Broadband Deployment Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 14723 - Advisory Committee on Minority Veterans; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14667 - South Bay Salt Pond Restoration Project, Phase 2, Eden Landing Ecological Reserve; Draft Environmental Impact Statement/Environmental Impact Report | |
83 FR 14666 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife; Availability of Proposed Low-Effect Habitat Conservation Plan for the Sand Skink, Orange County, FL | |
83 FR 14671 - Meeting of the Compact Council for the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact | |
83 FR 14678 - Proposal Review Panel for International Science and Engineering; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14674 - Proposal Review Panel for Materials Research; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14589 - Defense Support of Civil Authorities | |
83 FR 14588 - Defense Support of Civilian Law Enforcement Agencies | |
83 FR 14675 - Proposal Review Panel for Materials Research; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14672 - Proposal Review Panel for Materials Research; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14673 - Proposal Review Panel for Materials Research; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14677 - Proposal Review Panel for Materials Research; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14623 - Notice of Availability of the Alabama Trustee Implementation Group Draft Restoration Plan II/Environmental Assessment: Wetlands, Coastal and Nearshore Habitats, Habitat Projects on Federally Managed Lands, Nutrient Reduction (Nonpoint Source), Sea Turtles, Marine Mammals, Birds, and Oysters | |
83 FR 14622 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 14642 - Liposome Drug Products: Chemistry, Manufacturing, and Controls; Human Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability; and Labeling Documentation; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 14711 - WTO Dispute Settlement Proceeding Regarding India-Export Related Measures | |
83 FR 14589 - Safety Zone; Vigor Industrial Drydock Movement, West Duwamish Waterway; Seattle, WA | |
83 FR 14565 - Assessment Regulations | |
83 FR 14678 - Agency Forms Submitted for OMB Review, Request for Comments | |
83 FR 14605 - Notice of Regulatory Review | |
83 FR 14683 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Modify the Disclosure Services Offered To Certain New Listings | |
83 FR 14690 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Create a New Rule 1081, To Amend Electronic Market Maker Obligations and Quoting Requirements for Electronic ROTs, Which Will Be Defined To Include SQTs, RSQTs, Directed SQTs, Directed RSQTs, Specialists, and Remote Specialists | |
83 FR 14685 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Amending Rules Regarding Market-Maker Quoting Obligations | |
83 FR 14698 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 3 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 3, To List and Trade Shares of the Hartford Schroders Tax-Aware Bond ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E | |
83 FR 14644 - Notice of Meeting for the Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee (ISMICC) | |
83 FR 14703 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Clarify the Requirements for Delivery of a Contrary Exercise Advice | |
83 FR 14696 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Exchange's Provisions for Excluding a Day From Its Volume Calculations for Purposes of Determining Volume Based Pricing | |
83 FR 14689 - Notice of Applications for Deregistration Under Section 8(f) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 | |
83 FR 14625 - BE-9: Quarterly Survey of Foreign Airline Operators' Revenues and Expenses in the United States | |
83 FR 14627 - BE-29: Annual Survey of Foreign Ocean Carriers' Expenses in the United States | |
83 FR 14626 - BE-37: Quarterly Survey of U.S. Airline Operators' Foreign Revenues and Expenses | |
83 FR 14628 - BE-125: Quarterly Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property With Foreign Persons | |
83 FR 14644 - National Library of Medicine; Amended; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 14597 - Air Quality Designations for the 2010 Sulfur Dioxide (SO2 | |
83 FR 14591 - Air Plan Approval; South Carolina; Update to Materials Incorporated by Reference | |
83 FR 14637 - Adequacy Status of the Sheboygan County, Wisconsin Area for the Submitted 2008 Ozone Standard Attainment Demonstration for Transportation Conformity Purposes | |
83 FR 14637 - Proposed CERCLA Administrative Cost Recovery Settlement; Gould Electronics Inc., New Hampshire Dioxane Site, Atkinson/Hampstead, New Hampshire | |
83 FR 14635 - Public Water System Supervision Program Revision for the State of Montana | |
83 FR 14574 - Amendment, Revocation, and Establishment of Class D and E Airspace; Enid Vance AFB, OK; Enid Woodring Municipal Airport, OK; Enid, OK; and Vance AFB, OK | |
83 FR 14580 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; Selinsgrove, PA | |
83 FR 14608 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Ellijay, GA | |
83 FR 14610 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Eastover, SC and Sumter, SC | |
83 FR 14576 - Amendment of Class B Airspace Description; St. Louis, MO | |
83 FR 14583 - Energy Labeling Rule; Correction | |
83 FR 14606 - Airworthiness Directives; Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited Helicopters | |
83 FR 14716 - Office of Commercial Space Transportation: Notice of Availability and Request for Comment on the Draft Environmental Assessment (EA) for Issuing a Reentry License to SpaceX for Landing the Dragon Spacecraft in the Gulf of Mexico | |
83 FR 14713 - Noise Exposure Map Notice; Receipt of Noise Compatibility Program and Request for Review: Jackson Hole Airport, Jackson, WY | |
83 FR 14714 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of Renewed Approval of Information Collection: Protection of Voluntarily Submitted Information | |
83 FR 14568 - Airworthiness Directives; Piper Aircraft, Inc. | |
83 FR 14613 - Release of Information From Department of Veterans Affairs' Records |
Natural Resources Conservation Service
Economic Analysis Bureau
Industry and Security Bureau
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
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Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Final rule; technical amendments.
The FDIC is making technical amendments to its rules governing deposit insurance assessments. The FDIC believes that the amendments will have little or no effect on the deposit insurance assessments for insured depository institutions (IDIs), and any potential effect would result in lower assessments. The first technical amendment makes clear that small bank assessment credits will be applied for assessment periods in which the reserve ratio of the Deposit Insurance Fund (DIF) is at least 1.38 percent instead of, as currently provided, just when the ratio exceeds 1.38 percent. The second technical amendment removes a data item from the assessment regulations that most small banks can no longer report on the Consolidated Report of Income and Condition (Call Report). The third technical amendment re-incorporates, for assessment purposes, the capital definitions and ratio thresholds used for prompt corrective action (PCA) that were inadvertently removed in a 2016 rulemaking.
Effective April 5, 2018.
Nefretete Smith, Counsel, Legal Division, (202) 898-6851 or
The FDIC is correcting a drafting error regarding a provision of the deposit insurance assessment regulations that governs the use of assessment credits for small banks.
The FDIC also is making a technical edit to update a cross reference in the same subsection. Currently, the subsection refers to section 327.9. However, as of June 30, 2016, § 327.9 ceased to be in effect, and the operative section is now § 327.16. As a result, the reference is being updated to refer to § 327.16.
The Loan Mix Index (LMI), which measures the relative riskiness of a bank's loan portfolio, is one of the measures used in the assessment regulations to calculate an established small bank's
Effective March 31, 2017, as part of an initiative to reduce Call Report burden for community banks, the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) added a new and streamlined Call Report form (FFIEC 051) for banks that have less than $1 billion in total assets and no foreign offices. The FFIEC also revised the general Call Report form (FFIEC 041) for banks with no foreign offices. As part of that initiative, the FFIEC removed the line item for reporting loans to foreign governments from Call Report form FFIEC 041 and excluded the item from the new Call Report form FFIEC 051. The Call Report form for banks with both foreign and domestic offices (FFIEC 031), however, still includes a line item for reporting loans to foreign governments.
Because most small banks are no longer able to report these loans as a separate item on the Call Report, the FDIC is removing Loans to Foreign Governments from the calculation of the LMI in the established small bank deposit insurance pricing methodology.
The FDIC is making technical amendments to reinsert PCA capital ratios and ratio thresholds used to define capital categories (
Since the implementation of the risk-based deposit insurance assessment system in 1993, the FDIC has used the same capital ratios and ratio thresholds to define capital categories for deposit insurance assessment purposes as those used for PCA purposes, except that capital categories defined for assessment purposes rely solely on capital ratios. When the FDIC implemented the risk-based deposit insurance assessment system in 1993, it chose not to incorporate other supervisory information, such as enforcement orders, used to define capital categories for PCA purposes because this information was more appropriately considered with regard to supervisory evaluations, which were (and continue to be) a separate component of assessment pricing.
To remedy the error that resulted from the Small Bank Pricing rule, the FDIC is amending its regulations to reincorporate the PCA capital ratios and ratio thresholds into the deposit insurance assessment system. The technical amendment aligns the regulatory text with the FDIC's intent to “maintain[ ] the consistency between capital evaluations for deposit insurance assessment purposes and capital ratios and ratio thresholds for PCA purposes that has existed since the creation of the risk-based assessment system over 20 years ago.”
In the preamble to the Minimum Reserve Ratio final rule, which is incorporated here by reference, the FDIC described its anticipated economic effects.
The FDIC estimates that the removal of Loans to Foreign Governments from the LMI will have virtually no economic effect. Because the FFIEC removed the line item for reporting loans to foreign governments from Call Report form FFIEC 041 and excluded the item from the new Call Report form FFIEC 051, the inclusion of loans to foreign governments in the LMI no longer helps to differentiate the relative riskiness of a bank's loan portfolio for the purposes of calculating its risk-based assessment rate. Further, based on FDIC data, from 2011 through 2016, when all banks could report the item, fewer than 10 small banks reported a balance for loans to foreign governments and official institutions in a given year. During 2017, only one bank out of the 5,746 established small banks (and out of 26 small banks that filed the FFIEC 031) reported a balance for Loans to Foreign Governments, and the resulting effect on the bank's assessment rate was immaterial. Therefore, for any bank that holds these loans and files the FFIEC 031, the amendment would either have no effect or would reduce the bank's assessment rate. Removal of the loan category would not affect banks that file FFIEC 041 or 051 because they have not been able to report loans in this category as a separate item since December 31, 2016.
The FDIC expects that these technical amendments will not have any economic effect. In practice and consistent with the FDIC's intent when it adopted the Capital Conforming Amendments final rule, the FDIC has relied solely on capital ratios to determine a bank's capital category for deposit insurance assessment purposes. Also consistent with longstanding practice, the FDIC has not considered enforcement orders or other specific supervisory findings that might reclassify a bank to a lower capital category. Thus, the technical amendments clarify that any bank that meets the PCA ratio thresholds in the capital rules will not be reclassified for
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), an agency may, for good cause, find (and incorporate the finding and a brief statement of reasons therefore in the rules issued) that notice and public comment procedure thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. The FDIC finds that notice and comment procedures are unnecessary under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), as this rule consists only of technical amendments that are minor and will have no substantive effect on the public. First, regarding the technical amendments on the use of small bank credits, this rule aligns the regulatory text with the intent of that final rule. Second, regarding the technical amendment to the LMI in the small bank pricing methodology, the amendment in this rule aligns with FFIEC's changes to Call Report forms to reduce reporting burden for community banks, and is immaterial because the inclusion of loans to foreign governments in the LMI currently affects only one bank's assessment rate (resulting in an insignificant amount). Moreover, these loans no longer help to differentiate the relative riskiness of an established small bank's loan portfolio. Third, regarding the technical amendments relating to definitions of capital categories, this rule aligns the regulatory text with the intent of the Capital Conforming Amendments and Small Bank Pricing final rules to incorporate the PCA capital ratios and ratio thresholds in the capital rules into the definitions of capital categories used in the deposit insurance assessment system, but without including the PCA provisions that permit a bank to be reclassified to a lower capital category for reasons other than capital ratios. The amendments regarding the definitions of capital categories will not affect the assessment rate of any bank.
Considering the circumstances mentioned above, the FDIC has determined that publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking and providing opportunity for comment is unnecessary.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) of the APA, the required publication or service of a substantive rule shall be made not less than 30 days before its effective date, except, among other things, as provided by the agency for good cause found and published with the rule. As explained above, the FDIC finds that this rule consists only of technical amendments that are minor and will have no substantive effect on the public. Also, because delaying the effective date of these technical amendments would serve no purpose, the FDIC finds good cause to make this rule effective upon publication.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) does not apply to a rulemaking where a general notice of proposed rulemaking is not required.
Moreover, certain types of rules, such as rules of particular applicability relating to rates or corporate or financial structures, or practices relating to such rates or structures, are expressly excluded from the definition of “rule” for purposes of the RFA. This rule, and the technical amendments in this rule, relate directly to the rates imposed on IDIs for deposit insurance and to the assessment system that measures risk and determines each IDI's assessment rate.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that the final rule is not a major rule within the meaning of the relevant sections of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996,
The Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act (RCDRIA) requires that the FDIC, in determining the effective date and administrative compliance requirements of new regulations that impose additional reporting, disclosure, or other requirements on IDIs, consider, consistent with principles of safety and soundness and the public interest, any administrative burdens that such regulations would place on depository institutions, including small depository institutions, and customers or depository institutions, as well as the benefits of such regulations.
The FDIC has determined that RCDRIA does not apply to the rule because the technical amendments do not impose additional reporting, disclosures, or other requirements on IDIs.
In accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521, the FDIC may not conduct or sponsor, and a respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The FDIC reviewed the rule and concludes that the technical amendments do not create any new, or revise any existing, collections of information pursuant to PRA. Therefore, no submission will be made to OMB.
The FDIC has determined that the final rule will not affect family well-being within the meaning of section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, enacted as part of the Omnibus Consolidated and Emergency Supplemental Appropriations Act of 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681).
Section 722 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, Public Law 106-102, 113 Stat. 1338, 1471 (Nov. 12, 1999), requires the Federal banking agencies to use plain language in all proposed and final rulemakings published in the
Bank deposit insurance; Banks, Banking; Savings associations.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, chapter III of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
12 U.S.C. 1441, 1813, 1815, 1817-19, 1821.
(z)
(c) * * *
(3) * * *
(i)
(11) * * *
(i) The FDIC shall apply assessment credits awarded under paragraph (c) of this section to an institution's deposit insurance assessments, as calculated under §§ 327.9 and 327.16, only for assessment periods in which the reserve ratio of the DIF is at least 1.38 percent.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) * * *
(B)
(c) * * *
(2)
By order of the Board of Directors.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2018-02-05 for certain Piper Aircraft, Inc. Models PA-28-140, PA-28-150, PA-28-151, PA-28-160, PA-28-161, PA-28-180, PA-28-181, PA-28-236, PA-28-201T, PA-28R-180, PA-28R-200, PA-28R-201, PA-28R-201T, PA-28RT-201, and PA-28RT-201T airplanes. AD 2018-02-
This AD is effective April 20, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of April 20, 2018.
We must receive any comments on this AD by May 21, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Piper Aircraft, Inc., 2926 Piper Drive, Vero Beach, FL 32960; telephone: (772) 567-4361; internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Boyce Jones, Aerospace Engineer, Atlanta ACO Branch, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; phone: (404) 474-5535; fax: (404) 474-5606; email:
We issued AD 2018-02-05, Amendment 39-19158 (83 FR 3064, January 23, 2018), (“AD 2018-02-05”), for certain Piper Aircraft, Inc. Models PA-28-140, PA-28-150, PA-28-151, PA-28-160, PA-28-161, PA-28-180, PA-28-181, PA-28-236, PA-28-201T, PA-28R-180, PA-28R-200, PA-28R-201, PA-28R-201T, PA-28RT-201, and PA-28RT-201T airplanes. AD 2018-02-05 required inspecting the fuel tank selector cover to verify the left and right fuel tank selector placards are located at the 12:00 and 3:00 clock positions, respectively, and replacing those that are improperly located with new placards. AD 2018-02-05 resulted from a quality control issue that resulted in the installation of fuel tank selector covers with the placement of the left and right fuel tank selector placards installed in reverse. We issued AD 2018-02-05 to prevent fuel management error. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in fuel starvation and loss of engine power in flight.
Since we issued AD 2018-02-05, we have determined that the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate will be allowed to perform the preflight check of the fuel tank selector placards.
We reviewed Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1309A, dated March 6, 2018. The service bulletin describes procedures for doing a preflight check of the fuel tank selector cover to verify the left and right fuel tank selector placards are located in the proper positions, and replacing those that are improperly located with a new placard. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This AD requires doing a preflight check of the fuel tank selector cover to verify the left and right fuel tank selector placards are located at the proper positions and replacing those that are improperly located with new placards. The preflight check required in this AD may be performed by the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate and must be entered into the airplane records showing compliance with this AD in accordance with 14 CFR 43.9 (a)(1)-(4) and 14 CFR 91.417(a)(2)(v). The record must be maintained as required by 14 CFR 91.417, 121.380, or 135.439.
The FAA previously determined that the risk to the flying public justified waiving notice and comment prior to the adoption of AD 2018-02-05. This AD is being issued to relieve the maintenance requirements found in 2018-02-05, by changing the inspection of the fuel tank selector cover to a preflight check, while also allowing for various fuel selector clocking configurations. Because the substance of AD 2018-02-05 remains the same, but for the relieving aspects noted in this AD, we find good cause that notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary. In addition, for the reasons stated above, we find that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments before it becomes effective. However, we invite you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We estimate that this AD affects 17,957 airplanes, of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Since this AD allows the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate to perform the required preflight check of the fuel tank selector placards, there is a reduction in cost associated with this AD.
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that will be required based on the results of the preflight check of the left and right fuel tank selector placards for proper installation inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this replacement:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to small airplanes, gliders, balloons, airships, domestic business jet transport airplanes, and associated appliances to the Director of the Policy and Innovation Division.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends part 39 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR part 39) as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective April 20, 2018.
This AD replaces 2018-02-05, Amendment 39-19158 (83 FR 3064, January 23, 2018) (“AD 2018-02-05”).
This AD applies to the following Piper Aircraft, Inc. airplane models and serial numbers (S/Ns) that are certificated in any category:
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC)/Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 11, Placard and Markings.
This AD was prompted by our determination to change the inspection of the fuel tank selector cover to a preflight check and allows for various fuel selector clocking configurations. We are issuing this AD to allow the pilot to do a preflight check of the fuel selector placards.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Before further flight after April 20, 2018 (the effective date of this AD), check the left and right fuel selector cover placards for proper installation using the Appendix to this AD. If the fuel selector placards are properly installed, no further action is required. The preflight check of the fuel selector cover may be performed by the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate and must be entered into the airplane records showing compliance with this AD in accordance with 14 CFR 43.9 (a)(1)-(4) and 14 CFR 91.417(a)(2)(v). The record must be maintained as required by 14 CFR 91.417, 121.380, or 135.439.
If improper (reversed clock positions) installation of the left and right fuel selector placards is found during the preflight check of the fuel selector cover required in paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, fabricate and install temporary left and right fuel selector placards using Part II of Piper SB No. 1309A, dated March 6, 2018. In lieu of installing the temporary placards required by this paragraph, you may install the permanent placards specified in paragraph (i) of this AD. An FAA-approved licensed mechanic authorized to do maintenance is required to do any fabrication and installation of the fuel selector placards required in this AD.
Within the next 100 hours time-in-service (TIS) after April 20, 2018 (the effective date of this AD), replace the temporary placard installed in paragraph (h) of this AD with permanent left and right fuel selector placards using Part III of Piper SB No. 1309A, dated March 6, 2018, unless already done in lieu of installing the temporary placards specified in paragraph (h) of this AD.
This AD allows credit for doing the actions required in paragraphs (g) through (i) of this AD using Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1309, dated October 10, 2017, if done before the effective date of this AD in compliance with AD 2018-02-05.
A special flight permit is allowed for this AD per 14 CFR 39.23 with the following limitations: Flights are not to exceed a total of 100 hours TIS with temporary placards installed.
(1) The Manager, Atlanta ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) AMOCs approved for AD 2018-02-05 are not approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
For more information about this AD, contact Boyce Jones, Aerospace Engineer, Atlanta ACO Branch, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; phone: (404) 474-5535; fax: (404) 474-5606; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1309A, dated March 6, 2018.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Piper Aircraft, Inc. service information identified in this AD, contact Piper Aircraft, Inc., 2926 Piper Drive, Vero Beach, FL 32960; telephone: (772) 567-4361; internet:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Policy and Innovation Division, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
(1) Compare the currently installed fuel selector cover against the covers shown in Figure 2, View A-A:
(a) If the currently installed fuel selector cover
(b) If the currently installed fuel selector cover
(2) Compare the currently installed fuel selector cover to the illustration in Figure 2, View A-A. Examine all placards for proper placement, with specific emphasis on the location of the placards labeled L TANK and R TANK.
(a) If the placards are in the proper locations, then no further action is required. Compliance with this part AD 2018-07-03 must be documented by the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot
(b) If replacement is required, proceed to either paragraph (h) and (i) of AD 2018-07-03.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action: Removes the Class D airspace for Enid Woodring Municipal Airport, OK, and Enid Vance AFB, OK; establishes Class D airspace for Enid Woodring Regional Airport, Enid, OK, and Vance AFB, OK; amends the Class E airspace designated as a surface area for Enid Woodring Regional Airport; establishes Class E airspace designated as a surface area for Vance AFB; removes the Class E airspace designated as an extension of Class D and Class E surface areas at Enid Woodring Municipal Airport, OK, and Enid Vance AFB, OK; establishes Class E airspace designated as an extension of Class D and Class E surface areas at Enid Woodring Regional Airport and Vance AFB; and amends the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Enid Woodring Regional Airport and Vance AFB. Due to the differing operating hours of the two airports, the airspace descriptions are being separated for safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at these airports. Additionally, airspace redesign is necessary to accommodate new instrument procedures at Enid Woodring Regional Airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, July 19, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class D and Class E airspace in the Enid, OK, area to support IFR operations.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The description for the Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D or Class E surface area at Enid Woodring Regional Airport, Enid, OK, has been updated to include the radial and width information for the extensions that was inadvertently omitted from the NPRM.
The description for the Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D or Class E surface area at Vance AFB, OK, has been updated to include the radial and width information for the extensions that was inadvertently omitted from the NPRM.
The airspace description for the Class D airspace at Vance AFB, OK, has been simplified to provide a clearer description of the airspace.
The airspace description for the Class E airspace designated as a surface area at Vance AFB, OK, has been simplified to provide a clearer description of the airspace.
The eastern boundary for the Class E airspace area extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface for Enid, OK, has been changed from “8.7 miles east and west of Vance AFB” to “9.1 miles east and 8.7 miles west of Vance AFB” to fully contain the new southern Class E airspace area designated as an extension to Class D or Class E surface areas at Enid Woodring Regional Airport within this airspace. Additionally, the exclusionary language in the airspace description is no longer required and has been removed.
Additionally, the geographic coordinates for Vance AFB are being updated to coincide with a recent change to the FAA aeronautical database.
Except for the changes noted above, the actions in this final rule are the same as published in the NPRM.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is amending Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by:
Removing the Class D airspace at Enid Vance AFB, OK;
Removing the Class D airspace at Enid Woodring Municipal Airport, OK;
Establishing Class D airspace at Enid Woodring Regional Airport, Enid, OK, within a 4.5-mile radius of the airport;
Establishing Class D airspace at Vance AFB, OK, within a 5.1-mile radius of the airport;
Amending the Class E airspace designated as a surface area within a 4.5-mile radius (increased from a 4.1-mile radius) of Enid Woodring Regional Airport, Enid, OK, removing the airspace within a 5.1-mile radius of Vance AFB, and removing references to Vance AFB from the airspace description;
Establishing Class E airspace designated as a surface area within a 5.1-mile radius of Vance AFB, OK;
Removing the Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D or Class E surface area at Enid Vance AFB, OK;
Removing the Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D or Class E surface area at Enid Woodring Municipal Airport, OK;
Establishing Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D or Class E surface area at Enid Woodring Regional Airport, Enid, OK, within 2.4 miles each side of the 347° radial of the Woodring VOR/DME extending from the 4.5-mile radius of the airport to 7 miles north of the airport, and within 2.4 miles each side of the 177° radial of the Woodring VOR/DME extending from the 4.5-mile radius to 7 miles south of the airport;
Establishing Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D or Class E surface area at Vance AFB, OK, with a segment 1.3 miles each side of the 188° radial of the Vance VORTAC extending from the 5.1-mile radius to 6.1 miles south of the airport; and
Amending the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Enid, OK, within 9.1 miles east (increased from 8.7 miles) and 8.7 miles east of Vance AFB, and within a 7-mile radius (increasing from a 6.6-mile radius) of Enid Woodring Regional Airport, removing the Woodring VOR/DME extensions, and updating the name of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
The FAA has determined that due to the differing operating hours of the two airports, the airspace descriptions should be separated for safety and management of IFR operations at these airports. Also, after an airspace review of the Enid Woodring Regional Airport, the FAA found airspace redesign was necessary at Enid Woodring Regional Airport to accommodate new instrument procedures at the airport and for the safety and management of IFR operations at this airport.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,800 feet within a 4.5-mile radius of Enid Woodring Regional Airport, excluding that portion of airspace west of long. 97°51′01″ W. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,800 feet within a 5.1-mile radius of Vance AFB, excluding the Enid, OK, Class D and Class E airspace designated as surface areas. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace within a 4.5-mile radius of Enid Woodring Regional Airport excluding that portion of airspace west of long.
That airspace within a 5.1-mile radius of Vance AFB, excluding the Enid, OK, Class D and Class E airspace designated as surface areas. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 2.4 miles each side of the 347° radial of the Woodring VOR/DME extending from the 4.5-mile radius of Enid Woodring Regional Airport to 7 miles north of the airport, and within 2.4 miles each side of the 177° radial of the Woodring VOR/DME extending from the 4.5-mile radius of the airport to 7 miles south of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 1.3 miles each side of the 188° radial of the Vance VORTAC extending from the 5.1-mile radius of Vance AFB to 6.1 miles south of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within 9.1 miles east and 8.7 miles west of Vance AFB extending to 15.2 miles north and south of Vance AFB, and within a 7-mile radius of Enid Woodring Regional Airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule, technical amendment.
This action amends the description of the St. Louis, MO, Class B airspace area by changing the references for defining the center point of the airspace from the Cardinal VHF Omnidirectional Range/Distance Measuring Equipment (VOR/DME) to “Point of Origin” due to the planned decommissioning of the Cardinal, MO, VOR/DME. The St. Louis Class B airspace description is edited further to update the St. Louis Lambert International Airport name, St. Charles County Smartt Airport name, and airport reference point (ARP) geographic coordinates for the airports to match the current information in the FAA's aeronautical database. The Creve Coeur Airport ARP and St. Louis Lambert International Airport Instrument Landing System (ILS) Runway 30L Localizer geographic coordinates are also updated to match the FAA's aeronautical database. In addition, the airspace description is edited throughout to improve accuracy and clarity. These changes are editorial only and do not alter the current charted boundaries, altitudes, or ATC procedures for the St. Louis, MO, Class B airspace area.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Colby Abbott, Airspace Policy Group, Office of Airspace Services, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority.
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it makes editorial corrections to an existing Class B airspace description to maintain accuracy.
The St. Louis Class B airspace area was established as a “Terminal Control Area (TCA)” on January 1, 1974 (38 FR 31286, November 13, 1973). In 1993, as part of the Airspace Reclassification Final Rule (56 FR 65638, December 17, 1991), the term “terminal control area” was replaced by “Class B airspace area.” When the St. Louis TCA was established, the airspace was designed using the latitude/longitude position of the ASR antenna on the St. Louis International Airport as the center point. In 2006, the FAA amended the, then, St. Louis Class B airspace to ensure containment of large, turbine-powered aircraft operations to and from the “new” Runway 11/29 at the Lambert-St. Louis International Airport (71 FR 7848,
As part of the FAA's VOR Minimum Operating Network (VOR MON) program
Additionally, the FAA is making several other administrative updates to the Class B description to enhance the accuracy of the description and to clearly define each of the sub-areas that make up the Class B airspace area.
Class B airspace designations are published in paragraph 3000 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class B airspace designations listed in this document will be subsequently published in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is amending Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by editing the description of the St. Louis, MO, Class B airspace (as published in FAA Order 7400.11B) to remove references to the “Cardinal VOR/DME” and replace them with “Point of Origin” for defining the center point of the airspace. The Point of Origin uses the same geographic latitude/longitude coordinates of the Cardinal VOR/DME location. The FAA is taking this action so that the currently charted boundaries of the Class B airspace area are not affected by the planned decommissioning of the Cardinal VOR/DME.
The Class B airspace description is also edited to update the “Lambert-St. Louis International Airport” name to “St. Louis Lambert International Airport” and the “St. Charles Municipal Airport” name to “St. Charles County Smartt Airport.” Additionally, the geographic coordinates for the St. Louis Lambert International Airport ARP are updated from “lat. 38°44′50″ N., long. 90°21′41″ W.” to “lat. 38°44′55″ N., long. 90°22′12″ W.”; the geographic coordinates for the St. Charles County Smartt Airport ARP are updated from “lat. 38°50′55″ N., long. 90°30′00″ W.” to “lat. 38°55′47″ N., long. 90°25′48″ W.”; the geographic coordinates for the Creve Coeur Airport ARP are updated from “lat. 38°43′36″ N., long. 90°30′30″ W.” to “lat. 38°43′38″ N., long. 90°30′30″ W.”; and the geographic coordinates for the St. Louis Lambert International Airport ILS Runway 30L Localizer are updated from “lat. 38°45′17″ N., long. 90°22′52″ W.” to “lat. 38°45′19″ N., long. 90°22′56″ W.” These airport name and geographic coordinate updates are made to match the data currently contained in the FAA's aeronautical database.
Lastly, the Class B airspace description is also edited to describe each existing sub-area as an independent area to improve the clarity of the Class B airspace area description overall.
Because this action is a minor editorial change that does not alter the currently charted boundaries, altitudes, or ATC procedures for the St. Louis Lambert International Airport, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C § 553(b) are unnecessary and contrary to the public interest.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this regulation: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action of amending the description of the St. Louis, MO, Class B airspace area by changing the references for defining the center point of the airspace from the Cardinal VHF Omnidirectional Range/Distance Measuring Equipment (VOR/DME) to “Point of Origin” due to the planned decommissioning of the Cardinal, MO, VOR/DME, qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act and its agency-specific implementing regulations in FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” regarding categorical exclusions for procedural actions at paragraph 5-6.5.a, which categorically excludes from full environmental impact review rulemaking actions that designate or modify classes of airspace areas, airways, routes, and reporting points. This airspace action is an editorial change only and is not expected to result in any potentially significant environmental impacts. In accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, paragraph 5-2 regarding Extraordinary Circumstances, this action has been reviewed for factors and circumstances in which a normally categorically excluded action may have a significant environmental impact requiring further analysis, and it is determined that no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f),106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule, correction.
This action corrects a final rule published in the
Effective 0901 UTC, May 24, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA published a final rule in the
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, in the
On page 9182, column 3, line 27, remove
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Final rule.
In this rule, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) amends the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) to impose a license requirement on exports and reexports of specified target assemblies and components for the production of tritium under new Export Control Classification Number (ECCN) 1A231, and for the related “production” technology for 1A231 commodities covered under ECCNs 1E001 and 1E201. The items identified in this rule are controlled for nuclear nonproliferation (NP) Column 1 and anti-terrorism (AT) Column 1 reasons. These new classifications are the result of a U.S. Government proposal submitted and agreed to by members of the relevant multilateral regime, the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), in June 2017. This final rule, as required under the 0Y521 procedure and in fulfillment of multilateral commitments, implements the multilateral control for the items adopted by the NSG.
This rule is effective April 5, 2018.
Steven Clagett, Director, Nuclear and Missile Technology Controls Division, Office of Nonproliferation and Treaty Compliance, by phone at (202) 482-1641, or by email at
In 2012, BIS established the temporary classification ECCN 0Y521 series (encompassing ECCNs 0A521, 0B521, 0C521, 0D521, and 0E521) to identify items that warrant control on the Commerce Control List (CCL) because the items provide at least a significant military or intelligence advantage to the United States or for foreign policy reasons, but are not yet identified in an existing ECCN (77 FR 22191; April 13, 2012).
The license requirements and policies for the ECCN 0Y521 series appear in § 742.6(a)(7) of the EAR, and items classified under the series appear in supplement No. 5 to part 774. Consistent with the procedure established in the April 13, 2012, rule, the Department of Commerce, with the concurrence of the Departments of Defense and State and in consultation with the Department of Energy, determined that targets made of or containing lithium “specially designed” for the production of tritium by insertion in the core of a nuclear reactor (“targets”) and the related “development” and “production” technology met the criteria for inclusion in the series. Controls on the targets and related technologies under 0Y521 series ECCNs 0A521 and 0E521, respectively, were published in an interim final rule, with request for comments, on August 8, 2016 (81 FR 52326). The items were controlled for regional stability (RS) Column 1 reasons to all destinations except Canada, and a case-by-case review policy applied to license applications. The only license exception available for these items was License Exception GOV (Governments, international organizations, international inspections under the Chemical Weapons Convention, and the International Space Station (GOV)), which applies to all ECCN 0Y521 items if within the scope of § 740.11(b)(2)(ii) (Exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) made by or consigned to a department or agency of the U.S. Government), as provided in § 740.2(a)(14). See also supplement No. 5 to part 774. BIS did not receive any comments in response to the August 8, 2016 rule.
Subsequent to the 0Y521 classification, and, as required by § 742.6(a)(7)(iii), within one calendar year of the August 8, 2016 rule providing for the temporary 0Y521
In this rule, BIS amends the EAR to add a new ECCN, 1A231, for specified target assemblies and components for the production of tritium, and to impose a license requirement on exports and reexports of items classified thereunder. ECCN 1A231 will be inserted between ECCNs 1A227 and 1A290 on the CCL. Specifically, this rule imposes a license requirement on exports and reexports of such items if they are either (a.) target assemblies made of or containing lithium enriched in the lithium-6 isotope “specially designed” for the production of tritium through irradiation, including insertion in a nuclear reactor; or (b.) components “specially designed” for the target assemblies specified in Item paragraph a. of new ECCN 1A231. A Technical Note to paragraph b. provides that components “specially designed” for target assemblies for the production of tritium may include lithium pellets, tritium getters, and specially-coated cladding.
In addition, pursuant to this rule, the related “production” technology for the items controlled under the new ECCN 1A231 entry is classified under existing ECCNs 1E001 and 1E201. Consequently, a reference to ECCN 1A231 has been added to the headings of ECCN 1E001 and ECCN 1E201 and to the License Requirements section of ECCN 1E001. The items classified under new ECCN 1A231 and under existing ECCNs 1E001 and 1E201 in this rule are controlled for nuclear nonproliferation (NP) Column 1 and anti-terrorism (AT) Column 1 reasons.
License Exception availability for items specified under new ECCN 1A231, and the related technology specified under existing ECCNs 1E001 and 1E201, is consistent with Category 1 NP controlled end items and related technology and provisions, as described in § 742.3 of the EAR.
Applications for licenses to export and reexport the target assemblies and components covered under ECCN 1A231 and the related technology controlled under ECCNs 1E001 and 1E201 will be reviewed using the factors described in paragraph (b)—Licensing policy—of § 742.3 of the EAR, which include: The appropriateness of the stated end-use, including specifically for the stated end-user; the items' significance for nuclear purposes; whether the items are to be used in certain specified types of research; the types of assurances or guarantees given against use for nuclear explosive purposes or proliferation; whether any party to the transaction has been engaged in clandestine or illegal procurement activities; whether an application for a license to export or reexport to the end-user has previously been denied or whether the end-user has previously diverted items to unauthorized activities which were received under a license, a license exception, or shipped with no license required; whether the transaction would present an unacceptable risk of diversion to a nuclear explosive activity or unsafeguarded nuclear fuel-cycle activity, as described in § 744.2(a) of the EAR; and consideration of factors related to the nonproliferation credentials of the importing country.
Finally, in this rule, BIS amends the EAR to make a conforming change. Specifically, BIS amends supplement No. 5 to part 774—Items Classified Under ECCNs 0A521, 0B521, 0C521, 0D521 and 0E521—to remove the existing references to the targets under “0A521. Systems, Equipment and Components.”, and the related technology under “0E521. Technology.”
Although the Export Administration Act of 1979 expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013) and as extended by the Notice of August 15, 2017, 82 FR 39005 (August 16, 2017), has continued the Export Administration Regulations in effect under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act. BIS continues to carry out the provisions of the Export Administration Act of 1979, as appropriate and to the extent permitted by law, pursuant to Executive Order 13222, as amended by Executive Order 13637.
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866. This rule is not an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866.
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined under Executive Order 13132.
4. The provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) requiring prior notice, the opportunity for public comment and a delay in effective date are inapplicable
Further, BIS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). Immediate implementation of these changes, based upon a description agreed to by the U.S. and its multilateral export control regime allies, will allow BIS to continue to prevent exports of these items to users and for uses that pose threats to the security interests to the United States or its allies particularly in relation to nuclear nonproliferation and anti-terrorism. If BIS delayed this rule to allow for a 30-day delay in effectiveness, the resulting delay in implementation would afford an opportunity for the export of these items to users and uses that pose such threats, thereby undermining the purpose of the rule. In addition, no comments were submitted in response to the preceding interim final rule of August 8, 2016 (81 FR 52326). Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, part 774 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730-774) is amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4601
a. Target assemblies made of or containing lithium enriched in the lithium-6 isotope “specially designed” for the “production” of tritium through irradiation, including insertion in a nuclear reactor;
b. Components “specially designed” for the target assemblies specified in item a.
Components “specially designed” for target assemblies for the “production” of tritium may include lithium pellets, tritium getters, and specially-coated cladding.
See § 743.1 of the EAR for reporting requirements for exports under License Exceptions, and Validated End-User authorizations.
(1) Items controlled for MT reasons; or
(2) Exports and reexports to destinations outside of those countries listed in Country Group A:5 (See Supplement No. 1 to part 740 of the EAR) of “technology” for the “development” or production” of the following:
(a) Items controlled by 1C001; or
(b) Items controlled by 1A002.a which are composite structures or laminates having an organic “matrix” and being made from materials listed under 1C010.c or 1C010.d.
Federal Trade Commission (“FTC” or “Commission”).
Final rule; correcting amendment.
The Federal Trade Commission (“Commission”) is issuing a correction to the Energy Labeling Rule to replace regulatory language inadvertently removed.
Effective April 5, 2018.
Hampton Newsome, Attorney, Division of Enforcement, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, Washington, DC 20580 (202-326-2889).
The Commission is correcting 16 CFR part 305 to replace language in § 305.15(b) inadvertently removed by amendments published on November 2, 2015 (80 FR 67285, 67299; effective November 2, 2017).
Advertising, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Labeling, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons discussed above, part 305 of title 16 is corrected by making the following correcting amendment:
42 U.S.C. 6294.
(b)
(1)
(i) The light output of each lamp included in the package, expressed as “Brightness” in average initial lumens rounded to the nearest five; and
(ii) The estimated annual energy cost of each lamp included in the package,
(2)
(3)
(i) The light output of each lamp included in the package, expressed as “Brightness” in average initial lumens rounded to the nearest five;
(ii) The estimated annual energy cost of each lamp included in the package based on the average initial wattage, a usage rate of 3 hours per day and 11 cents ($0.11) per kWh and explanatory text as illustrated in Prototype Label 6 in appendix L of this part;
(iii) The life, as defined in § 305.2(w), of each lamp included in the package, expressed in years rounded to the nearest tenth (based on 3 hours operation per day);
(iv) The correlated color temperature of each lamp included in the package, as measured in degrees Kelvin and expressed as “Light Appearance” and by a number and a marker in the form of a scale as illustrated in Prototype Label 6 to appendix L of this part placed proportionately on the scale where the left end equals 2,600 K and the right end equals 6,600 K;
(v) The wattage, as defined in § 305.2(hh), for each lamp included in the package, expressed as energy used in average initial wattage;
(vi) The ENERGY STAR logo as illustrated in Prototype Label 6 to appendix L of this part for certified products, if desired by the manufacturer or private labeler. Only manufacturers or private labelers that have signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Department of Energy or the Environmental Protection Agency may add the ENERGY STAR logo to labels on certified covered products; such manufacturers or private labelers may add the ENERGY STAR logo to labels only on those products that are covered by the Memorandum of Understanding;
(vii) The design voltage of each lamp included in the package, if other than 120 volts;
(viii) For any general service lamp containing mercury, the following statement: “Contains Mercury For more on clean up and safe disposal, visit
(ix) No marks or information other than that specified in this part shall appear on the Lighting Facts label.
(4)
(i) The Lighting Facts information shall be set off in a box by use of hairlines and shall be all black or one color type, printed on a white or other neutral contrasting background whenever practical.
(ii) All information within the Lighting Facts label shall utilize:
(A) Arial or an equivalent type style;
(B) Upper and lower case letters;
(C) Leading as indicated in Prototype Label 6 in appendix L of this part;
(D) Letters that never touch;
(E) The box and hairlines separating information as illustrated in Prototype Labels 6 in appendix L of this part; and
(F) The minimum font sizes and line thicknesses as illustrated in Prototype Label 6 in appendix L of this part.
(5)
(6)
(7)
(i) The lamp's average initial lumens, expressed as a number rounded to the nearest five, adjacent to the word “lumens,” both provided in minimum 8 point font; and
(ii) For general service lamps containing mercury, the following statement: “Mercury disposal:
By direction of the Commission.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is amending the animal drug regulations to reflect application-related actions for new animal drug applications (NADAs) and abbreviated new animal drug applications (ANADAs) during October, November, and December 2017. FDA is informing the public of the availability of summaries of the basis of approval and of environmental review documents, where applicable. The animal drug regulations are also being amended to reflect changes of sponsorship of applications and a change of a sponsor's name and address.
This rule is effective April 5, 2018.
George K. Haibel, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-6), Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-5689,
FDA is amending the animal drug regulations to reflect approval actions for NADAs and ANADAs during October, November, and December 2017, as listed in table 1. In addition, FDA is informing the public of the availability, where applicable, of documentation of environmental review required under the National Environmental Policy Act and, for actions requiring review of safety or effectiveness data, summaries of the basis of approval (FOI Summaries) under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA). These public documents may be seen in the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. Persons with access to the internet may obtain these documents at the CVM FOIA Electronic Reading Room:
Aratana Therapeutics, Inc., 11400 Tomahawk Creek Pkwy., Leawood, KS 66211 has informed FDA that it has transferred ownership of, and all rights and interest in, the following application to Elanco US, Inc., 2500 Innovation Way, Greenfield, IN 46140:
Strategic Veterinary Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 100 NW Airport Rd., St. Joseph, MO 64503 has informed FDA that it has transferred ownership of, and all rights and interest in, the following applications to HQ Specialty Pharma Corp., 120 Rte. 17 North, suite 130, Paramus, NJ 07652:
Ridley Block Operations Inc., 424 North Riverfront Dr., P.O. Box 8500, Mankato, MN 56002-8500 has informed FDA that it has transferred ownership of, and all rights and interest in, the following applications to Ridley USA, Inc., 111 W Cherry St., suite 500, Mankato, MN 56001:
Ridley U.S. Holdings, Inc., 424 North Riverfront Dr., P.O. Box 8500, Mankato, MN 56002-8500 has informed FDA that it has transferred ownership of, and all rights and interest in, the following application to Ridley USA, Inc., 111 W Cherry St., suite 500, Mankato, MN 56001:
Accordingly, the animal drug regulations are being amended to reflect these changes of sponsorship. Following these withdrawals of approval, neither Ridley Block Operations, Inc. nor Ridley U.S. Holdings, Inc. is the sponsor of an approved application. Accordingly, these firms will be removed from the list of sponsors of approved applications in § 510.600(c) (21 CFR 510.600(c)).
This final rule is issued under section 512(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C.360b(i)), which requires
Although denominated a rule pursuant to the FD&C Act, this document does not meet the definition of “rule” in 5 U.S.C. 804(3)(A) because it is a “rule of particular applicability.” Therefore, it is not subject to the congressional review requirements in 5 U.S.C. 801-808. Likewise, this is not a rule subject to Executive Order 12866, which defines a rule as “an agency statement of general applicability and future effect, which the agency intends to have the force and effect of law, that is designed to implement, interpret, or prescribe law or policy or to describe the procedure or practice requirements of an agency.”
Administrative practice and procedure, Animal drugs, Labeling, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Animal drugs.
Animal drugs, Animal feeds.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR parts 510, 520, 522, 526, and 558 are amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 360b, 371, 379e.
The revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(2) * * *
21 U.S.C. 360b.
(b) * * *
(1) Nos. 016592 and 058198 for use as in paragraph (e) of this section.
(2) No. 061623 for use as in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(A), (e)(1)(ii), (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(4) of this section.
21 U.S.C. 360b.
(b)
(1) No. 054771 for use as in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Nos. 026637 and 051311 for use as in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(A), (c)(1)(ii)(A), (c)(1)(iii) and (c)(2) of this section.
(c)
(A) An initial intramuscular dosage of 3 to 4.5 milligrams per pound (mg/lb) of body weight for diagnostic purposes; 4.5 to 6 mg/lb of body weight for minor procedures of short duration such as repair of lacerations and wounds, castrations, and other procedures requiring mild to moderate analgesia. Supplemental doses when required should be less than the initial dose and the total dose given should not exceed 12 mg/lb of body weight. The maximum total safe dose is 13.6 mg/lb of body weight.
(B) Administer intravenously at 1 to 2 mg/lb (2.2 to 4.4 mg/kg) body weight to effect for induction of anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic.
(ii)
(B) Intravenous administration in dogs for induction of anesthesia followed by maintenance with an inhalant anesthetic.
(iii)
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
21 U.S.C. 360b.
21 U.S.C. 354, 360b, 360ccc, 360ccc-1, 371.
(e) * * *
(1) * * *
(e) * * *
(2) * * *
Under Secretary of Defense for Policy, DoD.
Final rule.
This final rule removes the Department of Defense (DoD) regulation concerning defense support of civilian law enforcement agencies. This part establishes DoD policy, assigns responsibilities, and provides procedures to key DoD individuals who provide support to Federal, State, Tribal, and local civilian law enforcement agencies within the United States, including the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and any territory or possession of the United
This rule is effective on April 5, 2018.
James (Coach) Ross at 571-256-8325.
It has been determined that publication of this CFR part removal for public comment is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to public interest since it is based on removing DoD internal policies and procedures that are publicly available on the Department's issuance website.
DoD internal guidance concerning defense support of civilian law enforcement agencies will continue to be published in DoD Instruction 3025.21, “Defense Support of Civilian Law Enforcement Agencies,” available at
This rule is not significant under Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” therefore, E.O. 13771, “Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs” does not apply.
Armed forces, Law enforcement.
Under Secretary of Defense for Policy, DoD.
Final rule.
This final rule removes the Department of Defense (DoD) regulation concerning defense support of civil authorities. This part contains DoD policy and assigns responsibilities for Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA). This part also authorizes immediate response authority for providing DSCA, when requested, and authorizes emergency authority for the use of military force, under dire situations. The content of the rule is internal to DoD and does not require codification. The part will be removed.
This rule is effective on April 5, 2018.
Tom Lacrosse at 571-256-8319.
It has been determined that publication of this CFR part removal for public comment is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to public interest since it is based on removing DoD internal policies and procedures that are publicly available on the Department's issuance website.
DoD internal guidance concerning defense support of special events will continue to be published in DoD Directive 3025.18, “Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA),” available at
This rule is not significant under Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” therefore, E.O. 13771, “Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs” does not apply.
Armed forces, Civil defense.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a safety zone in the West Duwamish Waterway in Seattle, Washington for scheduled drydock movements at Vigor Industrial. The safety zone is necessary to ensure the safety of the maritime public and workers involved in the drydock movements. The safety zone will prohibit any person or vessel from entering or remaining in the safety zone when a notice of enforcement is issued, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or a Designated Representative.
This rule is effective May 7, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Lieutenant Commander Christina Sullivan, Waterways Management Division, Sector Puget Sound, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 206-217-6051, email
The Coast Guard periodically receives notification from Vigor Industrial regarding their scheduled drydock movements in the West Duwamish Waterway, and has established temporary safety zones to ensure the safety of the maritime public during Vigor Industrial's operations. The Coast
On November 16, 2016, the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled Safety Zone; Vigor Industrial Drydock Movement, West Duwamish Waterway; Seattle, WA (81 FR 80621). There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to this safety zone. During the comment period that ended January 17, 2017, we received no comments.
The Coast Guard is establishing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. Coast Guard Captains of the Port are granted authority to establish safety and security zones in 33 CFR 1.05-1(f) for safety and environmental purposes as described in 33 CFR part 165.
Due to the dangers involved with a large, slow moving drydock that will be maneuvering close to the shore, the Coast Guard is establishing a short term safety zone that is activated on a notice of enforcement to ensure the safety of the workers involved as well as the maritime public during Vigor Industrial's operations.
As noted above, we received no comments on our NPRM published November 16, 2016. There is one change in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM.
We changed the proposed language in § 165.1340(b)(2) as follows: In the first sentence of paragraph (b)(2), the word “consult” is changed to “communicate.” The second sentence of paragraph (b)(2) remains unchanged. This change is intended to clarify that consultation occurs once the Coast Guard receives sufficient information from Vigor Industrial and the Muckleshoot Tribe that there are impacts to treaty fishing activities.
This rule establishes a safety zone encompassing all waters in a rectangle approximately 450-yards-by-500-yards at the mouth of the West Duwamish Waterway as it empties into Elliot Bay in Seattle, Washington. The safety zone is adjacent to the north-eastern tip of Harbor Island in Seattle, WA, and will only be enforced after a notice of enforcement has been issued by the Captain of the Port, Sector Puget Sound. In addition to issuing a notice of enforcement to be published in the
To request permission to enter the zone during the times set out by the notice of enforcement, contact the Joint Harbor Operations Center at 206-217-6001 or the Vessel Traffic Service Puget Sound on VHF Channel 14. If permission for entry is granted vessels will be required proceed at a minimum speed for navigation.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, and duration of the safety zone. This safety zone will impact a small designated area of the West Duwamish Waterway for less than 6 hours per occurrence. From 2005 through 2015, there were a total of 10 instances in which the Coast Guard issued a safety zone for the movement of the Vigor Dry Dock. Moreover, the Coast Guard will issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone, and the rule allows vessels to seek permission to enter the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132.
This rule was determined to have potential tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal
If you believe this rule has additional implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.1D, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves the establishment of a safety zone to ensure the safety of the maritime public. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and record keeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(2) In order to reach an agreeable timeframe that avoids impacts to treaty fishing activities, the Coast Guard will communicate with the Muckleshoot Tribe and Vigor Industrial once it receives notification from Vigor Industrial concerning drydock movements that require the enforcement of the safety zone. If agreement is not reached, the Coast Guard, as a federal trustee, will conduct consultation with the Muckleshoot Tribe to ensure Vigor movements will avoid Treaty impacts.
(c)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule; notification of administrative change.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is updating the materials that are incorporated by reference (IBR) into the South Carolina state implementation plan (SIP). The regulations affected by this update have been previously submitted by South Carolina and approved by EPA. This update affects the materials that are available for public inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) and the EPA Regional Office.
This action is effective April 5, 2018.
SIP materials which are incorporated by reference into 40 CFR part 52 are available for inspection at the following locations: Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, GA 30303; and the National Archives and Records Administration. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Sean Lakeman, Air Regulatory
Each state has a SIP containing the control measures and strategies used to attain and maintain the national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). The SIP is extensive, containing such elements as air pollution control regulations, emission inventories, monitoring networks, attainment demonstrations, and enforcement mechanisms.
Each state must formally adopt the control measures and strategies in the SIP after the public has had an opportunity to comment on them and then submit the proposed SIP revisions to EPA. Once these control measures and strategies are approved by EPA, and after notice and comment, they are incorporated into the federally-approved SIP and are identified in part 52—“Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans,” title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (40 CFR part 52). The full text of the state regulation approved by EPA is not reproduced in its entirety in 40 CFR part 52, but is “incorporated by reference.” This means that EPA has approved a given state regulation with a specific effective date. The public is referred to the location of the full text version should they want to know which measures are contained in a given SIP. The information provided allows EPA and the public to monitor the extent to which a state implements a SIP to attain and maintain the NAAQS and to take enforcement action if necessary.
The SIP is a living document which the state can revise as necessary to address the unique air pollution problems in the state. Therefore, EPA from time to time must take action on proposed revisions containing new and/or revised state regulations. A submission from a state can revise one or more rules in their entirety or portions of rules, or even change a single word. The state indicates the changes in the submission (such as, by using redline/strikethrough) and EPA then takes action on the requested changes. EPA establishes a docket for its actions using a unique Docket Identification Number, which is listed in each action. These dockets and the complete submission are available for viewing on
On May 22, 1997 (62 FR 27968), EPA revised the procedures for incorporating by reference, into the Code of Federal Regulations, materials approved by EPA into each state SIP. These changes revised the format for the identification of the SIP in 40 CFR part 52, streamlined the mechanisms for announcing EPA approval of revisions to a SIP, and streamlined the mechanisms for EPA's updating of the IBR information contained for each SIP in 40 CFR part 52. The revised procedures also called for EPA to maintain “SIP Compilations” that contain the federally-approved regulations and source specific permits submitted by each state agency. These SIP Compilations are contained in 3-ring binders and are updated primarily on an annual basis. Under the revised procedures, EPA must periodically publish an informational document in the rules section of the
This action represents EPA's publication of the South Carolina SIP Compilation update, appearing in 40 CFR part 52: specifically, the materials in paragraph (c) and (d) at 40 CFR 52.2120. In addition, notice is provided of the following corrections to the table in paragraph (C) of § 52.2120, as described below:
A. Reformatting the Table by combining the “EPA approval date” and “
B. Correcting typographical errors, state effective dates, EPA approval dates and
1. Under the “State effective date” and “EPA approval date” the 2-digit year was changed to reflect a 4-digit year (for consistency) and numerous
2. Under Regulation No. 62.1, “Section IV” the State effective date was revised to read “6/27/2014” and EPA approval date was revised to read “8/21/2017, 82 FR 39537.”
3. Under Regulation No. 62.1, “Section IV” the State effective date was revised to read “6/27/2014” and EPA approval date was revised to read “8/21/2017, 82 FR 39537.”
4. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
5. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
5. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
6. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
7. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
8. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
9. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
10. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
11. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
12. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
13. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
14. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
15. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
16. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
17. Under Regulation No. 62.5, “Standard No. 6” and subentries for “Sections I—III” the entries were removed from the table because they had previously been disapproved and the original approval rescinded from the SIP.
18. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
19. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
20. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
21. Under Regulation No. 62.5,
22. Footnote 1 was removed and inserted in the explanation column under Regulation No. 62.5,
EPA has determined that this action falls under the “good cause” exemption in section 553(b)(3)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) which, upon finding “good cause,” authorizes agencies to dispense with public participation and section 553(d)(3) which allows an agency to make an action effective immediately (thereby avoiding the 30-day delayed effective date otherwise provided for in the APA). This administrative action simply codifies provisions which are already in effect as a matter of law in Federal and approved state programs and corrects typographical errors appearing in the CFR. Under section 553(b)(3)(B) of the APA, an agency may find good cause where procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Public comment for this administrative action is “unnecessary” and “contrary to the public interest” since the codification (and typographical corrections) only reflect existing law. Immediate notice of this action in the
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of previously EPA-approved regulations promulgated by South Carolina and federally effective prior to October 1, 2017. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this notice of administrative change for the state of South Carolina does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because it does not have substantial direct effects on an Indian Tribe. The Catawba Indian Nation Reservation is located within the South Carolina portion of the bi-state Charlotte Area. Pursuant to the Catawba Indian Claims Settlement Act, S.C. Code Ann. 27-16-120, “all state and local environmental laws and regulations apply to the [Catawba Indian Nation] and Reservation and are fully enforceable by all relevant state and local agencies and authorities.” EPA notes this action will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
EPA also believes that the provisions of section 307(b)(1) of the CAA pertaining to petitions for judicial review are not applicable to this action. This is because prior EPA rulemaking actions for each individual component of the South Carolina SIP compilations previously afforded interested parties the opportunity to file a petition for judicial review in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit within 60 days of such rulemaking action. Thus, EPA believes judicial review of this action under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA is not available.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(b)
(2) EPA Region 4 certifies that the rules/regulations provided by EPA in the SIP compilation at the addresses in paragraph (b)(3) of this section are an exact duplicate of the officially promulgated State rules/regulations which have been approved as part of the State Implementation Plan as of the dates referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) Copies of the materials incorporated by reference may be inspected at the Region 4 EPA Office at 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, GA 30303. To obtain the material, please call (404) 562-9022. You may inspect the material with an EPA approval date prior to October 1, 2017, for South Carolina at the National Archives and Records Administration. For information on the availability of this material at NARA go to:
(c)
(d)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is withdrawing the designation of Unclassifiable for the Citrus County, Florida, area that the EPA originally promulgated on December 21, 2017, and is establishing a designation of Attainment/Unclassifiable for that area as part of promulgating initial air quality designations for certain areas in the United States (U.S.) for the 2010 sulfur dioxide (SO
This final rule is effective on April 9, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2017-0003. All documents in the docket are listed in the index at
In addition, the EPA has established a website for the initial SO
For general questions concerning this action, please contact Liz Etchells, U.S. EPA, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Air Quality Policy Division, C539-01, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, telephone (919) 541-0253, email at
Region IV—Twunjala Bradley, telephone (404) 562-9352, email at
The public may inspect the rule and state-specific technical support information at the following locations:
The information can also be reviewed online at
The following is an outline of the Preamble.
The following are abbreviations of terms used in the preamble.
On December 21, 2017, the Administrator of the EPA promulgated a third round of initial air quality designations for certain areas in the U.S. for the 2010 SO
The December 2017 action provided that these designations be effective 90 days from the date of publication in the
The December 2017 action was based on application of the EPA's nationwide analytical approach and technical analysis, including evaluation of monitoring data and air quality modeling, to determine the appropriate designation based on the weight of evidence for each area, which are hereby incorporated by reference into this supplement of that action (
Modification to the initial designation for this area does not represent a “redesignation” because this change is a withdrawal of the initial designation prior to its effective date and issuance of a new initial designation. We are making this change to reflect the most recent 3 years of complete, quality-assured, and certified data that have become available prior to the effective date of the designations.
In the December 2017 action, we also stated that if certified 2017 data indicated a violation of the standard in an area we initially designated as Attainment/Unclassifiable or Unclassifiable, the EPA would evaluate the reason for the violation and determine the appropriate course of action, including the possibility of redesignation to Nonattainment. No states submitted certified 2017 data by February 28, 2018, to indicate a violation of the standard in any area initially designated as Attainment/Unclassifiable or Unclassifiable.
On August 22, 2017, the EPA indicated an intent to designate a portion of Citrus County, Florida as Nonattainment based on the most recent three years, at that time, of complete, quality-assured, certified data from a monitor (2014-2016) indicating a
The state of Florida submitted complete, quality-assured, and certified air quality monitoring data for calendar year 2017 to the EPA by the prescribed deadline of February 28, 2018. The Florida Department of Environmental Protection (DEP) submitted a data certification letter and reports, which can be found in the docket,
Based on complete, quality-assured and certified air quality monitoring data from 2017 submitted by Florida DEP prior to the prescribed February 28, 2018, deadline, and modeling showing attainment of the 1-hour SO
The effective date of designation of the area addressed in this action is April 9, 2018, the same effective date as the December 2017 final action (83 FR 1098). The EPA is making these changes without notice and comment in accordance with section 107(d)(2) of the CAA, which exempts the promulgation of these designations from the notice and comment provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA). Section 553(d) of the APA generally provides that rulemakings shall not be effective less than 30 days after publication except where the agency finds good cause for an earlier date. 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1) and (3). Were the EPA not to expedite the effective date of today's action, and instead make the effective date 30 days after publication, there would be confusion regarding the appropriate designation for the affected area in Florida, and the state and the EPA would likely have to expend unnecessary time and resources at a later time to resolve that confusion. The effective date for this action is, therefore, justified because the EPA finds that there is good cause to make the rule effective immediately because it is in the public interest to avoid the potential delay and waste of resources associated with allowing the designations in the December 2017 action to go into effect for this area and the rule does not contain new requirements for which affected entities need time to prepare.
During the public comment period for the third round of designations, Sierra Club submitted comments alleging that once the EPA provides a NAAQS designation for an area no later than December 31, 2017, it can only redesignate that area by following the applicable legal provisions for redesignation in section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA.
The “legal deadline” of December 31, 2017, Sierra Club refers to is a consent decree deadline by which the EPA must
When the EPA establishes a new or revised NAAQS, the CAA requires the EPA to designate all areas of the U.S. as either Nonattainment, Attainment, or Unclassifiable. Area designations address environmental justice concerns by ensuring that the public is properly informed about the air quality in an area. In locations where air quality does not meet the NAAQS, the CAA requires relevant state authorities to initiate appropriate air quality management actions to ensure that all those residing, working, attending school, or otherwise present in those areas are protected, regardless of minority and economic status. This action includes a revision to the December 21, 2017, designation for the Citrus County, Florida area based on the availability of recent air quality data showing that the area meets the 2010 SO
This action is exempt from review by the Office of Management and Budget because it responds to the CAA requirement to promulgate air quality designations after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS.
This action is not an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because actions such as air quality designations after promulgating a new or revised NAAQS are exempt under Executive Order 12866.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA. This action fulfills the non-discretionary duty for the EPA to promulgate air quality designations after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS and does not contain any information collection activities.
This designation action under CAA section 107(d) is not subject to the RFA. The RFA applies only to rules subject to notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements under the APA, 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other statute. Section 107(d)(2)(B) of the CAA explicitly provides that designations are exempt from the notice-and-comment provisions of the APA. In addition, designations under CAA section 107(d) are not among the list of actions that are subject to the notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements of CAA section 307(d).
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538 and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local, or tribal governments, or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. The division of responsibility between the federal government and the states for purposes of implementing the NAAQS is established under the CAA.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175. This action concerns the designation of certain areas in the U.S. for the 2010 SO
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not establish an environmental standard intended to mitigate health or safety risks.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes that this action does not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994). The documentation for this determination is contained in Section VI of this preamble, “Environmental Justice Concerns.”
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the U.S. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Section 307(b)(1) of the CAA indicates which Federal Courts of Appeal have venue for petitions of review of final actions by the EPA. This section provides, in part, that petitions for review must be filed in the Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit: (i) When the agency action consists of “nationally applicable regulations promulgated, or final actions taken, by the Administrator,” or (ii) when such action is locally or regionally applicable, if “such action is based on a determination of nationwide scope or effect and if in taking such action the Administrator finds and publishes that such action is based on such a determination.”
This final action withdrawing the designation and promulgating a new initial designation of one area for the 2010 SO
For the same reasons discussed above that make the final rule nationally applicable, the Administrator also is finding that this supplemental final action is based on a determination of nationwide scope and effect for the purposes of CAA section 307(b)(1). As previously explained in the December 2017 final action, in the report on the 1977 Amendments that revised section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, Congress noted that the Administrator's determination that an action is of “nationwide scope or effect” would be appropriate for any action that has a scope or effect beyond a single judicial circuit. H.R. Rep. No. 95-294 at 323, 324,
Thus, any petitions for review of this supplemental final action must be filed in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit within 60 days from the date this supplemental final action is published in the
Air pollution control, National parks, Wilderness areas.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 40 CFR part 81 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401,
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area (BSAI). This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the B season apportionment of the 2018 Pacific cod total allowable catch allocated to catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), April 3, 2018, through 1200 hours, A.l.t., June 10, 2018.
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The B season apportionment of the 2018 Pacific cod total allowable catch (TAC) allocated to catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI is 4,425 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (83 FR 8365, February 27, 2018).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that the B season apportionment of the 2018 Pacific cod TAC allocated to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI will soon be reached. Therefore, the Regional Administrator is establishing a directed fishing allowance of 3,425 mt and is setting aside the remaining 1,000 mt as incidental catch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator finds that this directed fishing allowance has been reached. Consequently, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI.
After the effective date of this closure the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the closure of directed fishing for Pacific cod by catcher vessels using trawl gear in the BSAI. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of March 30, 2018.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Housing Finance Agency.
Request for comment.
The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) is issuing a notice of a regulatory review to be conducted in accordance with the process set forth in its Regulatory Review Plan published in February 2012, and requesting comments on how its regulations may be made more effective and less burdensome.
Written comments on this notice of regulatory review must be received no later than June 4, 2018.
You may submit your comments, identified by “Regulatory Review [No. 2018-N-03]”, by any of the following methods:
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All comments received will be posted without change on FHFA's website at
Ellen S. Bailey, Managing Associate General Counsel,
FHFA was established by the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law 110-289, to supervise and regulate the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae), the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac) (together, the Enterprises), the Federal Home Loan Banks (the Banks), and the Office of Finance of the Federal Home Loan Bank System (OF). In 2012, FHFA developed its Regulatory Review Plan (Review Plan) after considering principles set forth in Executive Order 13579, “Regulation and Independent Regulatory Agencies” (July 11, 2011).
Under its Review Plan, FHFA reviews its regulations at least every five years, except for those regulations that were adopted or substantially amended within the two years prior to issuance of a Notice of Regulatory Review and rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice. The Review Plan suggests factors that commenters should consider to assist FHFA, including factors related to legal, regulatory, or market developments, regulatory overlap, less burdensome alternatives, and clarity of regulatory requirements.
FHFA's first regulatory review was initiated by a Notice of Regulatory Review and request for comments in April 2013,
FHFA evaluated all of the comments that it received and determined that some amendments were warranted. Recent rulemakings to amend FHFA's regulations on new business activities and affordable housing programs of the Banks included proposed amendments that addressed concerns raised in the Banks' joint comment letter.
Consistent with its Review Plan, FHFA's next regulatory review must begin not later than five years after its prior review, or by March or April 2018. All current regulations—except, as noted, rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice, or regulations adopted or substantially amended since April 2016 (meaning, within the past two years)—are subject to review. Members of the public may comment on recently adopted or amended regulations, and FHFA will take those comments into account as appropriate. FHFA does not anticipate responding to individual comments.
FHFA's regulations are published in Chapter XII of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, except for those regulations of predecessor agencies which FHFA has not yet moved.
FHFA hereby requests comment on its regulations for purposes of improving their effectiveness and reducing their burden. Factors that FHFA's Review Plan identifies as relevant to the review, and which FHFA suggests should guide commenters, are:
(1) Legal or regulatory developments—including new laws, executive orders, or judicial decisions that have been adopted since the promulgation of a regulation—that make a regulation inefficient, obsolete, contrary to controlling legal precedent, or unduly burdensome;
(2) Marketplace developments, technological evolution, and related changes that may have rendered a regulation, in whole or in part, inefficient, outmoded, or outdated;
(3) The extent to which provisions of the regulation are written in plain language or need clarification;
(4) Compelling evidence that a consolidation of two or more regulations, elimination of a duplicative regulation, or other revision to regulatory requirements would facilitate compliance by Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, the Banks, or OF with the regulation, or would improve supervision by FHFA of Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, the Banks, or OF; and
(5) Demonstration of a better alternative method to effect a regulatory purpose or requirement, supported by compelling evidence of significantly less intrusive means or of a substantially more efficient method of accomplishing the same supervisory purpose.
In accordance with FHFA's Review Plan, the 2018 regulatory review process will be conducted by the FHFA Office of General Counsel, which will review all comments received. FHFA's Office of General Counsel consults with other FHFA offices and divisions. A review and report of findings and recommendations will be provided to the FHFA Director on a timely basis. The report of findings and recommendations will be privileged and confidential. After receiving the report of findings and recommendations, the Director will determine what steps may be necessary to relieve any unnecessary burden, including amendment to or repeal of existing regulations or issuance of less formal guidance.
The 2018 FHFA regulatory review is not a formal or informal rulemaking proceeding under the Administrative Procedure Act, and creates no right of action against FHFA. FHFA's determination whether to conduct or not to conduct a review of a regulation and any determination, finding, or recommendation resulting from any review is not a final agency action and therefore is not subject to judicial review.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2017-13-03 for Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited (Bell) Model 429 helicopters. AD 2017-13-03 requires adding an identification number to life-limited rod ends that do not have a serial number (S/N). Since we issued AD 2017-13-03, an additional life-limited rod end was identified that is affected by the same unsafe condition. This proposed AD would retain the requirements of AD 2017-13-03 and revise the Applicability paragraph by adding that rod end. The actions of this proposed AD are intended to address an unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by June 4, 2018.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
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You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
For service information identified in this proposed rule, contact Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited, 12,800 Rue de l'Avenir, Mirabel, Quebec J7J1R4; telephone (450) 437-2862 or (800) 363-8023; fax (450) 433-0272; or at
Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
We invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from adopting the proposals in this document. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit only one time.
We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, we will consider all comments we receive on or before the closing date for comments. We will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. We may change this proposal in light of the comments we receive.
We issued AD 2017-13-03, Amendment 39-18933 (82 FR 28397, June 22, 2017) (AD 2017-13-03) for Bell Model 429 helicopters, S/N 57001 through 57260, with a pylon restraint spring assembly (spring assembly) forward rod end assembly (rod end) part number (P/N) 427-010-210-105 installed. AD 2017-13-03 requires cleaning and marking each forward rod end with the S/N of the spring assembly. AD 2017-13-03 also prohibits the installation of forward rod end P/N 427-010-210-105 on any helicopter unless it has been marked. The requirements of AD 2017-13-03 are intended to prevent a forward rod end from remaining in service after reaching its life limit which could result in failure of the forward rod end and subsequent loss of control of a helicopter.
Since we issued AD 2017-13-03, an additional life-limited rod end P/N has been identified that is affected by the same unsafe condition. Aft rod end P/N 427-010-210-105 also needs to be marked with the S/N of the spring assembly since it does not have a S/N.
Accordingly, Transport Canada, which is the aviation authority for Canada, issued AD No. CF-2015-15R1, Revision 1, dated July 28, 2017, to correct this unsafe condition for Bell Model 429 helicopters, S/Ns 57001 through 57260. Transport Canada advises that, per its regulations, life-limited parts must be marked with their P/N and S/N. Transport Canada further states that spring assembly rod end P/Ns 427-010-210-105 and -109 have a life limit of 5,000 hours; however, they are not serialized, causing difficulties in tracking accumulated air time. According to Transport Canada, this condition could result in a rod end remaining in service beyond its life limit. Therefore, the Transport Canada AD requires adding identification markings on each spring assembly rod end.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of Canada and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with Canada, Transport Canada, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in its AD. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all known relevant information and determined that an unsafe condition is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We reviewed Bell Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin 429-15-19, dated February 26, 2015, for Model 429 helicopters. This service information specifies procedures for permanently marking each forward and aft rod end with the S/N of the spring assembly. This service information applies to certain serial-numbered helicopters, as subsequent helicopters will have these actions performed during the manufacturing process.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We also reviewed Bell Helicopter Maintenance Manual BHT-429-MM-1, Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations Schedule, Revision 26, approved September 9, 2016, which specifies airworthiness life limits and inspection intervals for parts installed on Model 429 helicopters.
This proposed AD would require cleaning and marking each forward and aft rod end with the S/N of the spring assembly. This proposed AD would also prohibit installing forward rod end P/N 427-010-210-105 and aft rod end P/N 427-010-210-109 on any helicopter unless it has been marked in accordance with this proposed AD.
We estimate that this proposed AD would affect 75 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. Labor costs are estimated at $85 per work-hour.
Marking the rod ends would take about 0.5 work-hour for an estimated cost of $43 per helicopter and $3,225 for the U.S. fleet. Replacing a rod end that has exceeded its life limit would take about 3 work-hours and required parts will cost about $4,100 for an estimated cost of $4,355 per rod end.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this proposed AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Model 429 helicopters, serial number 57001 through 57260, with a pylon restraint spring assembly (spring assembly) forward rod end assembly (rod end) part number (P/N) 427-010-210-105 or aft rod end P/N 427-010-210-109 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a rod end remaining in service after reaching its life limit. This condition could result in failure of a rod end and subsequent loss of control of a helicopter.
This AD replaces AD 2017-13-03, Amendment 39-18933 (82 FR 28397, June 22, 2017).
We must receive comments by June 4, 2018.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Within 140 hours time-in-service, clean and identify each rod end with the spring assembly serial number in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraphs 3. through 8., of Bell Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin 429-15-19, dated February 26, 2015.
(2) Do not install a forward rod end P/N 427-010-210-105 or an aft rod end P/N 427-010-210-109 on any helicopter unless it has been marked with a serial number in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
(1) Bell Helicopter Maintenance Manual BHT-429-MM-1, Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations Schedule, Revision 26, approved September 9, 2016, which is not incorporated by reference, contains additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Bell Helicopter Textron Canada Limited, 12,800 Rue de l'Avenir, Mirabel, Quebec J7J1R4; telephone (450) 437-2862 or (800) 363-8023; fax (450) 433-0272; or at
(2) The subject of this AD is addressed in Transport Canada AD No. CF-2015-15R1, Revision 1, dated July 28, 2017. You may view the Transport Canada AD on the internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 5101, Standard Practices/Structures.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Ellijay, GA, to accommodate new area navigation (RNAV) global positioning system (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures (SIAPs) serving Gilmer County Airport. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this airport.
Comments must be received on or before May 21, 2018.
Send comments on this rule to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg. Ground Floor, Rm. W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826.You must identify the Docket No. FAA-2017-0217; Airspace Docket No. 17-ASO-4, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit and review received comments through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except federal holidays.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Av., College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This proposed rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority, as it would establish Class E airspace at Gilmer County Airport, Ellijay, GA, to support IFR operations in standard instrument approach procedures at this airport.
Interested persons are invited to comment on this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (FAA-2017-0217 and Airspace Docket No. 17-ASO-4) and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. You may also submit comments through the internet at
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-0217; Airspace Docket No. 17-ASO-4.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded from and comments submitted through
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is considering an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to establish Class E airspace at Ellijay, GA providing the controlled airspace required to support the new RNAV (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures for Gilmer County Airport. Controlled airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.3-mile radius of the airport would be established for IFR operations.
Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979) and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal would be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.3-mile radius of Gilmer County Airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class D airspace and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at McEntire Joint National Guard Base (JNGB), Eastover, SC, to accommodate airspace reconfiguration due to the decommissioning of the McEntire non-directional radio beacon (NDB) and cancellation of the NDB approach. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport. This action also would update the geographic coordinates of the McEntire JNGB, Shaw AFB, and Sumter Airport, Sumter, SC, and update the names of McEntire JNGB and Sumter Airport. Also, an editorial change would be made to the airspace designation in both Class D and E airspace.
Comments must be received on or before May 21, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to: The U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001; telephone: (800) 647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify the Docket No. FAA-2018-0131; Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-4, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D and Class E airspace at McEntire JNGB, Shaw AFB, and Sumter Airport, Eastover and Sumter, SC, to support IFR operations at these airports.
Interested persons are invited to comment on this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (Docket No. FAA-2018-0131 and Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-4) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2018-0131; Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-4.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this document may be changed in light of the comments received. All comments submitted will be available for examination in the public docket both before and after the comment closing date. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA proposes an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to amend Class D airspace and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of McEntire JNGB, due to the decommissioning of the McEntire NDB, and cancellation of the NDB approach. The changes would enhance the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport.
The geographic coordinates of the McEntire JNGB, Shaw AFB, Sumter Airport, Sumter, SC, and the McEntire JNGB TACAN also would be adjusted to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database, and the airport names would be updated to McEntire JNGB (formerly McEntire ANGB), and Sumter Airport (formerly Sumter Municipal Airport). Also, this action would update the name of the McEntire ANGB TACAN navigation aid to the McEntire JNGB TACAN.
Finally, an editorial change would be made to the airspace designation removing the city from the airport name associated with McEntire JNGB and Shaw AFB to comply with a recent change to FAA Order 7400.2L, Procedures for Handling Airspace Matters.
Class D and E airspace designations are published in Paragraphs 5000 and 6005, respectively of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,800 feet MSL within a 4.5-mile radius of Mc Entire JNGB. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 10-mile radius of Shaw AFB and within a 6.8-mile radius of McEntire JNGB and within 3 miles each side of McEntire JNGB TACAN 138° radial, extending from the 6.8-mile radius to 12 miles southeast of the TACAN and within a 7-mile radius of Sumter Airport; excluding that airspace contained within Restricted Area R-6002 when it is in use.
Federal Trade Commission (FTC or Commission).
Notification of modifications to guidelines, requesting public comment.
The Federal Trade Commission publishes this notification and request for public comment concerning proposed modifications to Entertainment Software Rating Board's (“ESRB”) Commission-approved self-regulatory guidelines, under the “safe harbor” provision of the Children's Online Privacy Protection Rule.
Written comments must be received by May 9, 2018.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Shameka L. Walker, Attorney, (202) 326-2570, Division of Privacy and Identity Protection, Federal Trade Commission, Washington, DC 20580.
On October 20, 1999, the Commission issued its final Rule pursuant to the Children's Online Privacy Protection Act, 15 U.S.C. 6501
Pursuant to Section 312.11 of the Rule, ESRB submitted proposed self-regulatory guidelines to the Commission that the FTC approved in 2001. ESRB subsequently updated its guidelines to comply with the revised Rule, which became effective on July 1, 2013. ESRB is now seeking to modify its Commission-approved Safe Harbor program requirements. The text of the proposed modified program requirements is available on the Commission's website, at
The Commission is seeking comment on various aspects of ESRB's proposed modified program requirements, and is particularly interested in receiving comment on the questions that follow. These questions are designed to assist the public and should not be construed as a limitation on the issues on which public comment may be submitted. Each response should cite the number and subsection of the question being answered. For all comments submitted, please provide any relevant data, statistics, or any other evidence, upon which those comments are based.
1. Please provide comments on any or all of the proposed modifications to ESRB's program requirements. For each provision commented on please describe (a) the impact of the provision(s), including benefits and costs, if any, and (b) what alternatives, if any, should be considered, as well as the costs and benefits of those alternatives.
2. Are the mechanisms used to assess operators' compliance with the proposed modified program requirements effective?
3. Are the incentives for operators' compliance with the proposed modified program requirements effective?
4. Please provide comments on any other issue deemed relevant to this matter.
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before May 9, 2018. Write “ESRB Application for Modifications to Safe Harbor Program Requirements, Project No. P024526” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the public Commission website, at
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you file your comment on paper, write “ESRB Application for Modifications to Safe Harbor Program Requirements, Project No. P024526” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite CC-5610 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW, 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
Because your comment will be placed on the publicly accessible FTC website at
Once your comment has been posted on the public FTC website—as legally required by FTC Rule 4.9(b)—we cannot redact or remove your comment from the FTC website, unless you submit a confidentiality request that meets the requirements for such treatment under FTC Rule 4.9(c), and the General Counsel grants that request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is
Visit the Commission website at
By direction of the Commission.
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Proposed rule.
This document amends the Department of Veterans Affairs' (VA) regulations governing the submission and processing of requests for information under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and the Privacy Act in order to reorganize, streamline, and clarify existing regulations.
Comments must be received on or before June 4, 2018.
Written comments may be submitted through
Catherine Nachmann, Attorney, Office of General Counsel (024), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-7742 (this is not a toll-free number).
VA's authority for publishing this proposed rule reads as follows: 5 U.S.C. 552, 552a, 38 U.S.C. 501(a), unless otherwise noted. The FOIA, codified at 5 U.S.C. 552, requires an agency to publish public guidance regarding its implementation of the statute, such as rules of procedure and substantive rules of general applicability. The Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, codified at 5 U.S.C. 552a, requires an agency to publish its rules and procedures implementing that statute. Section 501(a) of title 38, U.S.C., authorizes the Secretary of Veterans Affairs to prescribe rules and regulations to carry out the laws administered by VA.
We propose to update VA's regulations pertaining to the release of information from VA claimant records; the regulations are codified at 38 CFR 1.500 through 1.527. Specifically, VA proposes to amend 38 CFR 1.519 regarding the release of lists of names and addresses.
In addition, we propose to amend VA's regulations pertaining to release of information under the FOIA. VA's current FOIA regulations are codified at 38 CFR 1.550 through 1.562. We propose to update these regulations to ensure compliance with the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016, Public Law 114-185, streamline existing procedures based on our experience administering the FOIA, clarify portions of the regulations to make the regulations and VA's implementing procedures consistent with applicable law and easier for the public to understand, eliminate inherent conflict, ensure that the Department's intent is clear with regard to the agency's processing of requests for records and information under these statutes, and generally reorganize provisions as necessary.
We have also made minor, non-substantive changes to the regulations to correct typographical or grammatical errors and make the language of the text generally more consistent.
Finally, we propose to amend VA's regulations pertaining to the release of information from claimant records protected under the Privacy Act of 1974; the regulations are codified at 38 CFR 1.575 through 1.584. Specifically, we propose to amend 38 CFR 1.577(c) and 1.577(e) pertaining to VA's procedures regarding requests for access to records and fees, respectively, and 38 CFR 1.580 pertaining to administrative review of denials of requests for amendment of records.
Current § 1.519(c) provides, in part, that the Associate Deputy Assistant Secretary for Information Resources Management, with the concurrence of the General Counsel (emphasis added), is authorized to release names and addresses of present or former personnel of the armed services and their dependents from VA records to organizations under specific circumstances outlined in that section. Current § 1.519(e) provides that a denial of a request for the release of names and addresses of present or former personnel of the armed services and their dependents from VA records may be appealed to the General Counsel.
We propose to amend § 1.519(c) to delete the requirement that the General Counsel concur in a release of names and addresses; this requirement inherently conflicts with the General Counsel's authority to address appeals in these cases. As it stands, the regulation requires the General Counsel to be involved in the initial determination and address the appeal regarding the release of information. In order to preserve the integrity of the appeals process, however, the General Counsel should review the request for the first time on appeal. Removing the requirement that the General Counsel concur in the determination of Information Resources Management in these cases would resolve this conflict.
We propose to make minor stylistic changes throughout the regulations as necessary that have no substantive effect. We also propose more specific and substantive revisions as outlined below.
Current § 1.552(a) contains the internet address established by VA to obtain information regarding VA's FOIA processing and information that VA makes electronically available under the FOIA. The internet address has changed since the last publication of VA's FOIA regulations. Proposed § 1.552(a), therefore, would replace the existing internet address with the new, current internet address.
Current § 1.554(a) covers FOIA requests submitted by letter or fax and contains general information regarding the submission of requests; the provision advises,
Current § 1.554(b) covers FOIA requests submitted by email, including circumstances under which signature requirements are triggered. Current § 1.554(c) addresses requirements when requesting records pertaining to another individual.
Proposed § 1.554(a) would address requests by letter and fax and would delete the redundant reference to internet information regarding the availability of VA FOIA contacts. Proposed § 1.554(b) would address requests by email. Proposed § 1.554(a) and § 1.554(b) would contain administrative details such as where to send FOIA requests and would remove signature requirements. Proposed § 1.554(c) would address the content of requests by letter, fax and email and would address the circumstances under which a signature requirement is triggered and options for providing a signature; specifically, proposed § 1.554(c) would require the requester to comply with the verification of identity requirements set forth in § 1.577 of 38 CFR part 1 when seeking records about himself or herself. Proposed § 1.554(c) also would provide that if the requester is seeking records not covered by the Privacy Act, but which the requester believes may pertain to him or her, the requester may provide proof of identity, such as by a notarized, signed statement affirming his or her identity or a declaration made in compliance with 28 U.S.C. 1746. Further, proposed § 1.554(c) would require that if the requester is seeking records pertaining to another individual who is the record subject, whether by letter, fax, or email, the requester may obtain greater access to the records, if he or she provides satisfactory authorization to act on behalf of the record subject. Proposed §§ 1.554(a) through (c), would be synthesized and reorganized to make it easier for the public to understand and to clarify this portion of the regulations.
In proposed §§ 1.554(d)(2) and (d)(4), we would make a minor stylistic revision to use numerals only rather than both numerals and words.
Current § 1.554(e) addresses circumstances in which a FOIA fee issue is unresolved. Proposed § 1.554(e) streamlines and organizes the language to make it easier for the public to understand.
Current § 1.556(c)(1) contains VA procedures with regard to FOIA requests that involve “unusual circumstances,” including notification when the agency is extending the 20-day response time limit by 10 or more days. Proposed § 1.556(c)(1) would provide that in cases where an extension of more than 10 days is needed, the FOIA Officer also must advise the requester that the VA FOIA Liaison is available to assist in any disputes between the requester and VA (as required by the FOIA) and that the requester has the right to seek dispute resolution from the Office of Government Information Services (as required by the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016). In proposed § 1.556(c)(1) and § 1.556(d)(3), we would also make a minor stylistic revision to eliminate use of numerals and written words in favor of using only numerals.
Current § 1.557 addresses the agency's procedures regarding responses to requests, including the agency's acknowledgment and timing of responses and adverse determinations. Current § 1.557(a) addresses the FOIA Officer's responsibility to assign a number to the request and acknowledge the FOIA request. Proposed § 1.557(a) adds specific provisions that the FOIA Officer will advise the requester of the assigned FOIA request number and how the requester may obtain the status of his or her request.
Current § 1.557(c) addresses time limits for processing requests. Proposed § 1.557(c) would streamline and clarify this provision. Current § 1.557(d) addresses adverse determinations of requests. We propose to add a new provision at § 1.557(d) to address grants of requests in full and to redesignate current § 1.557(d) as § 1.557(e) and revise § 1.557(e). In addition to complying with the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016, these amendments would provide clarification and make the section easier to understand.
Current § 1.558(c)(3) provides for notification to both the submitter of information and the requester when a final decision is made regarding release of business information. We propose to clarify § 1.558(c)(3) to ensure that the requirements of the submitter notification process are met and to make it easier for the public to understand. We also propose to delete the last sentence of current § 1.558(c)(3), which would become unnecessary based on the clarifications made in the proposed revision.
We propose to make a minor stylistic revision to § 1.558(e)(3) to use only the numeral 10 rather than using the written form of the numeral and the numeral as in current § 1.558(e)(3).
Current § 1.559 addresses the agency's procedures for filing administrative appeals of adverse determinations under the FOIA. Current § 1.559(b) through § 1.559(d) include the requirements for an appeal by letter and email and the time limit and content of the appeal, including the requirement for identity verification when the appeal involves records protected by a confidentiality statute; the latter requirement is contained in both paragraphs (b) and (c). We propose to streamline § 1.559(b) through § 1.559(d) by deleting redundancy in paragraphs (b) and (c) and by including requirements applicable to all appeals in paragraph (d); the proposed revisions would make the section more organized and easier for the public to understand. The proposed revision would also provide other means by which an individual could provide verification of his or her identity; the proposed revision in this regard would make it more efficient and easier for requesters to provide identity verification.
Current § 1.559(d) establishes a 60-day period within which to file an appeal and describes the information that should be included in an appeal. Proposed § 1.559(d) would extend the appeal period to 90 days in accordance with the FOIA Improvement Act. In addition, current § 1.559(d) describes the titles of individuals within the VA Office of General Counsel responsible
Current § 1.561(a) provides the general requirements for charging fees under the FOIA. We propose to amend § 1.561(a) to eliminate unnecessary references to other paragraphs of the section and streamline the regulation.
Current § 1.561(b)(3) uses the term “salary” when referring to the employee performing the work. We propose to revise § 1.561(b)(3) to replace the term “salary” with “hourly wage” to clarify the meaning and to provide consistency in the regulations. In addition, we propose to revise the description of direct costs so as to eliminate redundancy in the paragraph.
Current § 1.561(d)(2) provides information on the cost of duplication by paper copy and provides that for other types of duplication, VA will charge for the direct costs of the duplication. Proposed § 1.561(d)(2) would delete the references to the specific cost of duplication or other services in § 1.561(d)(2) and instead, would include those costs in the schedule of fees set forth in proposed § 1.561(g)(1); the proposed revision would eliminate redundancy and confusion. Proposed § 1.561(d)(2) would include language advising requesters that only one copy of duplicated records will be provided.
Current § 1.561(e) provides for limitations on charging fees; parts of the section contain information that is redundant of other sections. Proposed § 1.561(e) would streamline the regulation in order to eliminate repetitive portions (
Current § 1.561(f) contains a table describing fees that each category of requester may be charged. The table does not include duplication fee information as it pertains to electronic media; we propose to add this information to § 1.561(f).
Current § 1.561(g) contains information regarding fee assessments that is redundant of other sections of the FOIA regulations. In addition, current § 1.561(g)(1) provides a fee schedule that includes reference to “DC locality payment” and specific grades of Federal employees. In proposed § 1.561(g), we would eliminate references to specific forms of potential costs and would instead refer to direct costs and the requester's fee category; the revision would eliminate redundancy and add consistency to the provision. In proposed § 1.561(g)(1), we would add specific-cost information in order to synthesize fee elements as much as possible into one provision. We would also eliminate the reference to DC locality pay in § 1.561(g)(1); locality pay is based on where the employee performing the work is located and would not be tied to one particular locality. In addition, the proposed change would clarify the section generally and make it consistent with other parts of the regulation by providing that the assessment of a fee is based on the hourly salary of the employee performing the work, which would include the particular locality pay of that employee. The references to the specific job type of the employee involved would be eliminated as unnecessary and confusing. Overall, the proposed revisions would make the section easier to understand and more consistent with the remainder of this section.
Current § 561(g)(1) includes a provision that fees are charged in quarter hour increments. The proposed revision would eliminate the text of current § 561(g)(1). Current § 561(g)(2) contains the schedule of fees. In view of the elimination of the text of current § 561(g)(1), current § 561(g)(2) would become § 561(g)(1). Section 561(g)(2) would be reserved.
Current § 1.561(h) addresses notification to the requester of a fee estimate. We propose to streamline and clarify this section.
Current §§ 1.561(i) and (l)(3),(5) address charges for other services and advance payments, respectively. We propose to make minor stylistic revisions to §§ 1.561(i) and (l)(3),(5) in order to clarify the meaning of the sections and make the sections consistent with the other sections.
Current § 1.561(n) sets forth the requirements for a fee waiver or reduction; proposed § 1.561(n) would clarify that if a FOIA Officer communicates with a requester to seek necessary additional information, the fee-waiver request will be closed if the information is not received within 10 days of the request for additional information. Proposed § 1.561(n) also would provide that if the fee waiver is denied or closed, the underlying FOIA request will be processed in accordance with applicable provisions.
Current § 1.577(c) provides that the VA staff office having jurisdiction over the records involved in a request will establish appropriate disclosure procedures. Proposed § 1.577(c) would specify that access requests for Privacy Act records or information must be sent to the staff office that maintains the records and refer the individual to the system of record notice in order to identify the office to which the request should be sent.
Current § 1.577(e) describes the fees to be charged for providing an individual a copy of his or her records and contains a fee table that includes an outdated reference to “direct cost.” Proposed § 1.577(e) would provide the correct reference to direct cost. Current § 1.577(e) includes no provision for the waiver of fees totaling less than $25.00. Currently, § 1.561(g) provides for the waiver of fees totaling under $25.00 under the Privacy Act; § 1.561(g), however, is in the FOIA section of VA regulations. Proposed § 1.577(e) would include the waiver language of fees of $25.00 or less in the Privacy Act regulations. The revision would make it easier for record subjects to find relevant information when making a Privacy Act request. Finally, proposed § 1.577(e) would include a clarification that the first 100 pages are provided free of charge whether provided in paper or an electronic medium.
Current § 1.580 provides that upon denial of a request for access or amendment to VA records, the requester will be advised of the decision in writing and will be provided appeal rights to OGC; the regulation does not distinguish between a written response and the lack of a response. As a result, OGC receives appeals from individuals who have received no response from the component or staff office; OGC directs these communications back to the originating office to respond. The proposed amendment clarifies that § 1.580 applies to a written denial of the request and not to the absence of a response to the request. The proposed revision represents an effort to effectuate an expeditious review of the
We also propose to correct a typographical error in the first sentence of § 1.580,
This document contains no provisions constituting a collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs hereby certifies that this proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612. This proposed rule concerns the procedures for requesting information from VA and the payment of certain fees for processing such requests. The fees prescribed by this proposed rule will generally comprise only an insignificant portion of a small entity's expenditures. Therefore, this proposed rule is exempt, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), from the initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, defines “significant regulatory action” to mean any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: “(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this Executive order.”
VA has examined the economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this regulatory action, and it has been determined not to be a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866. This proposed rule is not expected to be an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this proposed rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in an expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any year. This proposed rule would have no such effect on state, local, and tribal governments, or on the private sector.
There is no Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number for the program affected by this proposed rule.
Administrative practice and procedure, Archives and records, Cemeteries, Claims, Courts, Crime, Flags, Freedom of information, Government contracts, Government employees, Government property, infants and children, Inventions and patents, Parking, Penalties, Privacy, Reporting and Recordkeeping requirements, Seals and insignia, Security measures, and Wages.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Jacquelyn Hayes-Byrd, Deputy Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on March 19, 2018, for publication.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, VA proposes to amend 38 CFR part 1 as follows:
38 U.S.C. 501(a), and as noted in specific sections.
(c) The Associate Deputy Assistant Secretary for Information Resources Management is authorized to release lists of names and addresses to organizations which have applied for such lists in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, if he or she finds that the purpose for which the organization desires the names and addresses is directly connected with conduct of programs and the utilization of benefits under title 38 U.S.C. Lists of names and addresses authorized to be released pursuant to this paragraph shall not duplicate lists released to other elements, segments, or chapters of the same organization.
(a) Additional information. Information regarding VA's FOIA and Privacy Act process generally, including how to file FOIA requests, and information made available by VA under the FOIA, is available at the following internet address:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) * * *
(2) Requests for voluminous amounts of records may be placed in a complex track of a multitrack processing system pursuant to § 1.556(b); such requests also may meet the criteria for “unusual circumstances,” which are processed in accordance with § 1.556(c) and may require more than 20 business days to process despite the agency's exercise of due diligence.
(4) The time limit for VA to process the FOIA request will not start until the FOIA Officer determines that the requester has reasonably described the records sought in the FOIA request. If the FOIA Officer seeks additional clarification regarding the request and does not receive the requester's written response within 30 calendar days of the date of its communication with the requester, he or she will conclude that the requester is no longer interested in pursuing the request and will close VA's files on the request.
(e)
(c) * * *
(1) FOIA Officers may encounter “unusual circumstances,” where it is not possible to meet the statutory time limits for processing the request. In such cases, the FOIA Officer will extend the 20-business day time limit for 10 more business days and notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances and the date by which it expects to complete processing of the request. Where an extension of more than 10 business days is needed, the FOIA Officer will notify the requester in writing and will include in the notice the following: An opportunity to modify the request so that it may be processed within the identified time limit; an opportunity to arrange an alternative time period with the FOIA Officer for processing the request or a modified request; notice of the availability of the agency FOIA Liaison, and the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services. Unusual circumstances consist of the following:
(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or components other than the office processing the request;
(ii) The need to search for, collect and examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records that are the subject of a single request; or
(iii) The need for consultation with another agency or among two or more
(d) * * *
(3) Within 10 calendar days of its receipt of a request for expedited processing, the FOIA Officer shall determine whether to grant the request and will provide the requester written notice of the decision. If the FOIA Officer grants a request for expedited processing, the FOIA Officer shall give the request priority and process it as soon as practicable. If the FOIA Officer denies the request for expedited processing, the requester may appeal the denial, which appeal shall be addressed expeditiously.
(a)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the adverse determination;
(2) A brief statement of the reason(s) for the denial, including any FOIA exemptions applied by the FOIA Officer in denying the request;
(3) The amount of information withheld in number of pages or other reasonable form of estimation; an estimate is not necessary if the volume is indicated on redacted pages disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest provided by an applicable exemption;
(4) Notice that the requester may appeal the adverse determination and a description of the requirements for an appeal under § 1.559 of this part; and
(5) Notice that the requester may seek assistance or dispute resolution services from the appropriate VA FOIA Liaison or dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
(c) * * *
(3) Whenever the FOIA Officer notifies the submitter of VA's intent to disclose over the submitter's objections, the FOIA Officer will also notify the requester by separate correspondence.
(e)
(1) A statement of the reason(s) why each of the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;
(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and
(3) A specified disclosure date of not less than 10 days from the date of the notice (to allow the submitter time to take necessary legal action).
(b)
(c)
(d)
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a)
(b) * * *
(3)
(d) * * *
(2)
(3) * * *
(e)
(2) VA charges fees in quarter hour increments; no search or review fee will be charged for a quarter hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
(3) VA may provide free copies of records or free services in response to an official request from another government agency or a congressional office and when a component head or designee determines that doing so will assist in providing medical care to a VA patient or will otherwise assist in the performance of VA's mission.
(4)(i) If VA fails to comply with the time limit to respond to a request, it may not charge search fees, or, in cases of requests from requesters described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraph (e)(4)(ii)-(iv).
(ii) If VA has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and has provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
(iii) If VA has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, VA may charge search fees, or in the case of requesters described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken: VA must provide timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and must discuss with the requester via written mail, email or telephone (and later confirmed in writing) (or have made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the component may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
(iv) if a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
(e)(5) [Removed]
(e)(6) [Removed]
(f) The following table summarizes the chargeable fees for each category of requester.
(g)
(1) Schedule of fees:
VA will charge fees consistent with the salary scale published by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
(2) Reserved.
(h)
(2) When a FOIA Officer determines or estimates that the fees to be charged under this section will amount to more than $25.00 or the amount set by OMB fee guidelines, whichever is higher, the FOIA Officer will notify the requester in writing of the actual or estimated amount of fees and ask the requester to provide written assurance of the payment of all fees or fees up to a designated amount, unless he or she has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. Any such agreement to pay the fees shall be memorialized in writing. When the requester does not provide sufficient information upon which VA can identify a fee category (see paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this section), or a clarification is otherwise required regarding a fee, the FOIA Officer may notify the requester and seek clarification; the notification to the requester will state that if a written response is not received within 10 days, the request will be closed. The timeline for responding to the request will be tolled and no further work will be done on the request until the fee issue has been resolved.
(i)
(l) * * *
(3) Where the requester previously has failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to VA within 30 days of the date of billing, a FOIA Officer may require the requester to pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest as specified in this section, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee, before the FOIA Officer begins to process a new request or continues to process a pending request from that requester.
(5) In cases in which a FOIA Officer requires advance payment or payment is due under this section, the time for responding to the request will be tolled and further work will not be done on the request until the required payment is received.
(n)
(c) The VA component or staff office having jurisdiction over the records subject to the Privacy Act request will establish appropriate disclosure procedures, including notifying the individual who filed the Privacy Act request of the time, place, and conditions under which the VA will comply with the request, in accordance with applicable laws and regulations. Access requests for Privacy Act records or information must be sent to the staff office that maintains the records; the individual seeking access may consult the system of record notice (
(e) Fees to be charged, if any, to any individual for making copies of his or her record shall not include the cost of and search for and review of the record. Fees under $25.00 shall be waived. Fees to be charged are as follows:
(a) Upon consideration and denial of a request under § 1.577 or § 1.579 of this section, the responsible VA official or designated employee will inform the requester
(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the adverse determination;
(2) A brief statement of the reason(s) for the denial and the policy upon which the denial is based; and
(3) Notice that the requester may appeal the adverse determination under § 1.580(b) of this part to the Office of General Counsel (providing the address as follows: Office of General Counsel (024), 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420), and instructions on what information is required for an appeal, which includes why the individual disagrees with the initial denial with specific attention to one or more of the four standards (
(b) The final agency decision in appeals of adverse determinations described in paragraph (a) will be made by the designated official within the Office of General Counsel (024).
(c) A written denial must have occurred in order to appeal to OGC. An absence of a response to an access
The Department of Agriculture will submit the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 on or after the date of publication of this notice. Comments are requested regarding: (1) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC; New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full effect if received by May 7, 2018. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling (202) 720-8681.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Notice and Request for Comments.
AMS is asking for comments on the quality of services provided by this Delegated State: Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (Virginia). The realignment of offices within the U.S. Department of Agriculture authorized by the Secretary's Memorandum dated November 14, 2017, eliminates the Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyard Administration (GIPSA) as a standalone agency. The grain inspection activities formerly part of GIPSA are now organized under AMS.
Comments must be received by May 7, 2018.
Submit comments concerning this Notice using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Mark Wooden, 816-659-8413,
Section 7(e)(2)(A) of the United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA) designates that if the Secretary determines, pursuant to paragraph (3) of Section 7(e), that a State agency is qualified to perform official inspection, meets the criteria in subsection (f)(1)(A) of Section 7, and (i) was performing official inspection at an export port location under this chapter on July 1, 1976, or (ii)(I) performed official inspection at an export port location at any time prior to July 1, 1976, (II) was designated under subsection (f) of Section 7 on December 22, 1982, to perform official inspections at locations other than export port locations, and (III) operates in a State from which total annual exports do not exceed, as determined by the Secretary, five per centum of the total amount of grain exported from the United States annually, the Secretary may delegate authority to the State agency to perform all or specified functions involving official inspection (other than appeal inspection) at export port locations within the State, including export port locations which may in the future be established, subject to such rules, regulations, instructions, and oversight as the Secretary may prescribe, and any such official inspection shall continue to be the direct responsibility of the Secretary. Any such delegation may be revoked by the Secretary, at the discretion of the Secretary, at any time upon notice to the State agency without opportunity for a hearing. Under Section 7(e) of the USGSA, every five years, the Secretary shall certify that each State agency with a delegation of authority is meeting the criteria described in subsection (f)(1)(A). Delegations shall be renewed according to the criteria and procedures set forth in Section 7(e)(2)(B) of the USGSA.
Pursuant to Section 7(e)(2) of the USGSA, the following export port locations in the State of Virginia are assigned to this State agency.
In Virginia:
All export port locations in the State of Virginia.
We are publishing this Notice to provide interested persons the opportunity to comment on the quality of services provided by the State of Virginia. We are particularly interested in receiving comments citing reasons and pertinent data supporting or objecting to the delegation of the applicant. Submit all comments to Mark Wooden at the above address or at
We consider comments and other available information when determining certification.
7 U.S.C. 71-87k.
Natural Resources Conservation Service (NRCS), Agriculture.
Notice of availability.
In accordance with the Oil Pollution Act (OPA) of 1990 and the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the
The Alabama TIG will consider public comments received on or before May 4, 2018.
On April 20, 2010, the mobile offshore drilling unit,
The
The DWH Trustees are—
The DWH Trustees reached and finalized a settlement of their natural resource damage claims with BP in a Consent Decree
This restoration planning activity is proceeding in accordance with the
In December 2016, as part of its restoration planning efforts, the Alabama TIG asked the public for project ideas that could benefit Wetlands, Coastal, and Nearshore Habitats; Habitat Projects on Federally Managed Lands, Nutrient Reduction (Nonpoint Source), Sea Turtles, Marine Mammals, Birds, and Oysters in the Alabama Restoration Area. The project submissions received through this process, along with projects previously submitted during prior restoration planning processes, resulted in the project alternatives evaluated in the draft RP II/EA.
The draft RP II/EA is being released in accordance with the OPA NRDA regulations in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 15 CFR part 990, and the NEPA (42 U.S.C. Sec. 4321
The draft RP II/EA also evaluates No Action Alternatives for each of the Restoration Types.
The Alabama TIG has determined that the restoration projects and monitoring and adaptive management activities proposed for funding are appropriate to partially compensate for the injuries for these Restoration Types described in PDARP/PEIS. In the draft RP II/EA, the Alabama TIG presents to the public its plan for providing partial compensation to the public for natural resources and ecological services injured or lost in Alabama as a result of the Deepwater Horizon Oil Spill. The projects described in the draft RP II/EA are most appropriate for addressing injuries to: Wetlands, Coastal and Nearshore Habitats; Habitat Projects on Federally Managed Lands, Nutrient Reduction (Nonpoint Source), Sea Turtles, Marine Mammals, Birds, and Oysters, and as monitoring and adaptive management activities.
The public is encouraged to review and comment on the draft RP II/EA. As described above, a public meeting is scheduled to facilitate the public review and comment process. After the close of the public comment period, the Alabama TIG will consider and address the comments received before issuing a final RP II/EA. A summary of comments received, the Alabama TIG's responses, and any revisions to the document, as appropriate, will be included in the final document.
The Alabama TIG seeks public review and comment on the draft RP II/EA. Before including your address, telephone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be publicly available at any time.
The documents included in the Administrative Record can be viewed electronically at the following location:
The authority of this action is the OPA of 1990 (33 U.S.C. Sec. 2701
Bureau of Economic Analysis, Commerce.
Notice of reporting requirements.
By this Notice, the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA), Department of Commerce, is informing the public that it is conducting the mandatory survey titled Quarterly Survey of Foreign Airline Operators' Revenues and Expenses in the United States (BE-9). The data collected on the BE-9 survey are needed to measure U.S. trade in transport services and to analyze the impact of U.S. trade on the U.S. and foreign economies. This survey is authorized by the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act.
Christopher Stein, Chief, Services Surveys Branch (BE-50), Balance of Payments Division, Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233; phone (301) 278-9189; or via email at
Through this Notice, BEA publishes the reporting requirements for the BE-9 survey form. As noted below, all entities required to respond to this mandatory survey will be contacted by BEA. Entities must submit the completed survey forms within 45 days after the end of each calendar quarter. This Notice is being issued in conformance with the rule BEA issued on April 24, 2012 (77 FR 24373), establishing guidelines for collecting data on international trade in services and direct investment through notices, rather than through rulemaking. Additional information about BEA's collection of data on international trade in services and direct investment can be found in the 2012 rule, the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act (22 U.S.C. 3101
Notice of specific reporting requirements, including who is to report, the information to be reported, the manner of reporting, and the time and place of filing reports, will be mailed to those required to complete this survey.
(b) Entities required to report will be contacted individually by BEA. Entities not contacted by BEA have no reporting responsibilities.
This data collection has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act and assigned control number 0608-0068. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by OMB. Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 6 hours per response. Additional information regarding this burden estimate may be viewed at
22 U.S.C. 3101-3108.
Bureau of Economic Analysis, Commerce.
Notice of reporting requirements.
By this Notice, the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA), Department of Commerce, is informing the public that it is conducting the mandatory survey titled Quarterly Survey of U.S. Airline Operators' Foreign Revenues and Expenses (BE-37). The data collected on the BE-37 survey are needed to measure U.S. trade in transport services and to analyze the impact of U.S. trade on the U.S. and foreign economies. This survey is authorized by the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act.
Christopher Stein, Chief, Services Surveys Branch (BE-50), Balance of Payments Division, Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233; phone (301) 278-9189; or via email at
Through this Notice, BEA publishes the reporting requirements for the BE-37 survey form. As noted below, all entities required to respond to this mandatory survey will be contacted by BEA. Entities must submit the completed survey forms within 45 days after the end of each calendar quarter. This Notice is being issued in conformance with the rule BEA issued on April 24, 2012 (77 FR 24373), establishing guidelines for collecting data on international trade in services and direct investment through notices, rather than through rulemaking. Additional information about BEA's collection of data on international trade in services and direct investment can be found in the 2012 rule, the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act (22 U.S.C. 3101
Notice of specific reporting requirements, including who is to report, the information to be reported, the manner of reporting, and the time and place of filing reports, will be mailed to those required to complete this survey.
(b) Entities required to report will be contacted individually by BEA. Entities not contacted by BEA have no reporting responsibilities.
This data collection has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act and assigned control number 0608-0011. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by OMB. Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 4 hours per response. Additional information regarding this burden estimate may be viewed at
22 U.S.C. 3101-3108.
Bureau of Economic Analysis, Commerce.
Notice of reporting requirements.
By this Notice, the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA), Department of Commerce, is informing the public that it is conducting the mandatory survey titled Annual Survey of Foreign Ocean Carriers' Expenses in the United States (BE-29). The data collected on the BE-29 survey are needed to measure U.S. trade in transport services and to analyze the impact of U.S. trade on the U.S. and foreign economies. This survey is authorized by the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act.
Christopher Stein, Chief, Services Surveys Branch (BE-50), Balance of Payments Division, Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233; phone (301) 278-9189; or via email at
Through this Notice, BEA publishes the reporting requirements for the BE-29 survey form. As noted below, all entities required to respond to this mandatory survey will be contacted by BEA. Entities must submit the completed survey forms within 90 days after the end of each calendar year. This Notice is being issued in conformance with the rule BEA issued on April 24, 2012 (77 FR 24373), establishing guidelines for collecting data on international trade in services and direct investment through notices, rather than through rulemaking. Additional information about BEA's collection of data on international trade in services and direct investment can be found in the 2012 rule, the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act (22 U.S.C. 3101
Notice of specific reporting requirements, including who is to report, the information to be reported, the manner of reporting, and the time and place of filing reports, will be mailed to those required to complete this survey.
(b) Entities required to report will be contacted individually by BEA. Entities not contacted by BEA have no reporting responsibilities.
This data collection has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act and assigned control number 0608-0012. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by OMB. Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 3 hours per response. Additional information regarding this burden estimate may be viewed at
22 U.S.C. 3101-3108.
Bureau of Economic Analysis, Commerce.
Notice of reporting requirements.
By this Notice, the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA), Department of Commerce, is informing the public that it is conducting the mandatory survey titled Quarterly Survey of Insurance Transactions by U.S. Insurance Companies with Foreign Persons (BE-45). The data collected on the BE-45 survey are needed to measure U.S. trade in insurance services and to analyze the impact of U.S. trade on the U.S. and foreign economies. This survey is authorized by the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act.
Christopher Stein, Chief, Services Surveys Branch (BE-50), Balance of Payments Division, Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233; phone (301) 278-9189; or via email at
Through this Notice, BEA publishes the reporting requirements for the BE-45 survey form. As noted below, all entities required to respond to this mandatory survey will be contacted by BEA. Entities must submit the completed survey forms within 60 days after the end of each calendar quarter, except for the final quarter of the calendar year when reports must be filed within 90 days. This Notice is being issued in conformance with the rule BEA issued on April 24, 2012 (77 FR 24373), establishing guidelines for collecting data on international trade in
Notice of specific reporting requirements, including who is to report, the information to be reported, the manner of reporting, and the time and place of filing reports, will be mailed to those required to complete this survey.
(b) Entities required to report will be contacted individually by BEA. Entities not contacted by BEA have no reporting responsibilities.
This data collection has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act and assigned control number 0608-0066. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by OMB. Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 8 hours per response. Additional information regarding this burden estimate may be viewed at
22 U.S.C. 3101-3108.
Bureau of Economic Analysis, Commerce.
Notice of reporting requirements.
By this Notice, the Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA), Department of Commerce, is informing the public that it is conducting the mandatory survey titled Quarterly Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property with Foreign Persons (BE-125). The data collected on the BE-125 survey are needed to measure U.S. trade in services and to analyze the impact of U.S. trade on the U.S. and foreign economies. This survey is authorized by the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act.
Christopher Stein, Chief, Services Surveys Branch (BE-50), Balance of Payments Division, Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233; phone (301) 278-9189; or via email at
Through this Notice, BEA publishes the reporting requirements for the BE-125 survey form. As noted below, all entities required to respond to this mandatory survey will be contacted by BEA. Entities must submit the completed survey forms within 45 days after the end of each fiscal quarter, except for the final quarter of the entity's fiscal year when reports must be filed within 90 days. This Notice is being issued in conformance with the rule BEA issued on April 24, 2012 (77 FR 24373), establishing guidelines for collecting data on international trade in services and direct investment through notices, rather than through rulemaking. Additional information about BEA's collection of data on international trade in services and direct investment can be found in the 2012 rule, the International Investment and Trade in Services Survey Act (22 U.S.C. 3101
Notice of specific reporting requirements, including who is to report, the information to be reported, the manner of reporting, and the time and place of filing reports, will be mailed to those required to complete this survey.
(b) Entities required to report will be contacted individually by BEA. Entities not contacted by BEA have no reporting responsibilities.
This data collection has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act and assigned control number 0608-0067. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by OMB. Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 16 hours per response. Additional information regarding this burden estimate may be viewed at
22 U.S.C. 3101-3108.
Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisitions and Sustainment, Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Defense Acquisition University Board of Visitors will take place.
Open to the public Wednesday, May 16, 2018 from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
DAU Midwest, 3100 Research Blvd., Kettering, OH 45420.
Christen Goulding, (703) 805-5412 (Voice), (703) 805-5909 (Facsimile),
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Defense Health Board will take place.
Open to the public Monday, April 23, 2018 from 9:00 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. Open to the public Monday, April 23, 2018 from 1:30 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.
The address of the open meeting is the Gatehouse, 8111 Gatehouse Road, Room 345, Falls Church, Virginia 22042 (registration requested; see guidance in
CAPT Juliann Althoff, Medical Corps, US Navy, (703) 681-6653 (Voice), (703) 681-9539 (Facsimile),
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
Availability of Materials for the Meeting: Additional information, including the agenda, is available at the
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education (OESE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a new information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 4, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Melissa Siry, 202-260-0926.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
U.S. Election Assistance Commission.
Notice of Rescheduled Public Meeting for EAC Standards Board.
Thursday, April 19, 2018, 8:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m. and Friday, April 20, 2018, 8:00-11:45 a.m. [Executive Board Sessions: Thursday, April 19, 2018, 8:30 a.m. and 7:30 p.m. (administrative business only)]
Hyatt Regency Coral Gables, 50 Alhambra Plaza, Coral Gables, FL 33134, Phone: (305) 441-1234.
Bryan Whitener, Telephone: (301) 563-3961.
The Standards Board will conduct committee breakout sessions and hear committee reports. The Executive Board of the Standards Board may appoint Standards Board committee members and chairs, and consider other administrative matters.
Members of the public may submit relevant written statements to the Standards Board with respect to the meeting no later than 5:00 p.m. EDT on Thursday, April 12, 2018. Statements may be sent via email at
This meeting will be open to the public.
U.S. Election Assistance Commission.
Notice of rescheduled public meeting for EAC Board of Advisors.
The Board of Advisors will conduct committee breakout sessions and hear committee reports. The Board of Advisors will elect officers, appoint Board of Advisors committee members and chairs, and consider other administrative matters.
This meeting will be open to the public.
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of NC 102 Project LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is April 19, 2018.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the website that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following foreign utility company status filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that Commission staff will convene a technical conference on June 26, 27, and 28, 2018 to discuss opportunities for increasing real-time and day-ahead market efficiency and enhancing the resilience of the bulk power system through improved software. A detailed agenda with the list of and times for the selected speakers will be published on the Commission's website
Staff has held eight similar conferences in this proceeding, all focused on enhancing market efficiency. The Commission has recently initiated a proceeding in Docket No. AD18-7 to explore bulk power system resilience issues and intends to expand the scope of the 2018 conference to include opportunities for enhancing resilience through improved software. As in past conferences, this conference will bring together experts from diverse backgrounds and experiences, including electric system operators, software developers, government, research centers and academia for the purposes of stimulating discussion, sharing information, and identifying fruitful avenues for research concerning the technical aspects of improved software for increasing efficiency and resilience.
This conference is intended to build on the discussions initiated in the previous Commission staff technical conferences on increasing market and planning efficiency through improved software. A number of the topics that have been discussed during previous conferences have relevance to resilience in addition to market efficiency. Staff will be facilitating a discussion to explore research and operational advances with respect to market modeling that appear to have significant promise for potential efficiency improvements. Given the priority the Commission places on resilience, presentations that also discuss research and operational advances that could enhance resilience of the bulk power system are encouraged. Broadly, such topics fall into the following categories:
(1) Improvements to the representation of physical constraints that are either not currently modeled or currently modeled using mathematical approximations (
(2) Consideration of uncertainty to better maximize expected market surplus (
(3) Improvements to the ability to identify and use flexibility in the existing systems (
(4) Improvements to the duality interpretations of the economic dispatch model, with the goal of enabling the calculation of prices which represent better equilibrium and incentives for efficient entry and exit;
(5) Limitations of current electricity market software due to its interaction with hardware; and
(6) Other improvements in algorithms, model formulations, or hardware that may allow for increases in market efficiency and enhanced resilience.
Within these or related subject areas, we encourage presentations that discuss best modeling practices, existing modeling practices that need improvement, any advances made since last year's conference, or related perspectives on increasing market efficiency and resilience through improved power systems modeling.
The technical conference will be held at the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission headquarters, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426. All interested participants are invited to attend, and participants with ideas for relevant presentations are invited to nominate themselves to speak at the conference.
Speaker nominations must be submitted on or before April 20, 2018 through the Commission's website
Although registration is not required for general attendance by United States citizens, we encourage those planning to attend the conference to register through the Commission's website.
We strongly encourage attendees who are not citizens of the United States to register for the conference by June 1, 2018, in order to avoid any delay associated with being processed by FERC security.
The Commission will accept comments following the conference, with a deadline of July 31, 2018.
There is an eSubscription link on the Commission's website that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
A WebEx will be available. Off-site participants interested in listening via teleconference or listening and viewing the presentations through WebEx must register at
FERC conferences are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations please send an email to
For further information about these conferences, please contact:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
Public notice is hereby given that the state of Montana has revised its Public Water System Supervision (PWSS) Program by adopting federal regulations for the Revised Total Coliform Rule (RTCR) that correspond to the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations (NPDWR). The EPA has reviewed Montana's regulations and determined they are no less stringent than the federal regulations. The EPA is proposing to approve Montana's primacy revision for the RTCR.
This approval action does not extend to public water systems in Indian country. Please see Supplementary Information, Item B.
Any member of the public is invited to request a public hearing on this determination by May 7, 2018. Please see
Requests for a public hearing should be addressed to: Robert Clement, Drinking Water Unit B (8WP-SDB), EPA, Region 8, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, CO 80202-1129.
All documents relating to this determination are available for inspection at: EPA, Region 8, Drinking Water Unit (7th Floor), 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado.
Robert Clement, Drinking Water Unit B (8WP-SDB), EPA, Region 8, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, CO 80202-1129, phone 303-312-6653.
In accordance with the provisions of section 1413 of the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA), 42 U.S.C. 300g-2, and 40 CFR 142.13, public notice is hereby given that the state of Montana has revised its PWSS program by adopting federal regulations for the RTCR that correspond to the NPDWR in 40 CFR parts 141 and 142. The EPA has reviewed Montana's regulations and determined they are no less stringent than the federal regulations. The EPA is proposing to approve Montana's primacy revision for the RTCR.
This approval action does not extend to public water systems in Indian country as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1151. Please see
States with primary PWSS enforcement authority must comply with the requirements of 40 CFR part 142 to maintain primacy. They must adopt regulations that are at least as stringent as the NPDWRs at 40 CFR parts 141 and 142, as well as adopt all new and revised NPDWRs in order to retain primacy (40 CFR 142.12(a)).
EPA's approval of the drinking water standards Montana submitted extends to public water systems in Montana with the exception of those public water systems that are within Indian country, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1151. Indian country lands within the exterior boundaries of the following Indian reservations located within Montana: The Blackfeet, Crow, Flathead, Fort Belknap, Fort Peck, Northern Cheyenne and Rocky Boys Indian Reservations; any land held in trust by the United States for an Indian tribe; and any other areas which are “Indian country” within the meaning of 18 U.S.C. 1151. EPA or eligible Indian tribes, as appropriate, will retain PWSS program responsibilities over public water systems in Indian country.
Any member of the public may request a hearing on this determination within thirty (30) days of this notice. All requests shall include the following information: Name, address, and telephone number of the individual, organization, or other entity requesting a hearing; a brief statement of interest and information to be submitted at the hearing; and a signature of the interested individual or responsible official, if made on behalf of an organization or other entity. Frivolous or insubstantial requests for a hearing may be denied by the RA.
Notice of any hearing shall be given not less than fifteen (15) days prior to the time scheduled for the hearing and will be made by the RA in the
Please bring this notice to the attention of any persons known by you to have an interest in this determination.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Office of the Science Advisor announces two separate public meetings of the Human Studies Review Board (HSRB) to advise the Agency on the ethical and scientific review of research involving human subjects.
A virtual public meeting will be held on Tuesday, April 24, 2018, Wednesday, April 25, 2018, and Thursday, April 26, 2018 from 1:00 p.m. to approximately 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time on all dates. A separate, subsequent teleconference meeting is planned for Thursday, June 14, 2018, from 2:00 p.m. to approximately 3:30 p.m. Eastern Time for the HSRB to finalize its Final Report of the April 24-26, 2018 meeting and review other possible topics.
All of these meetings will be conducted entirely by telephone and on the internet using Adobe Connect. For detailed access information visit the HSRB website:
Any member of the public who wishes to receive further information should contact the HSRB Designated Federal Official (DFO), Thomas O'Farrell on telephone number (202) 564-8451; fax number: (202) 564-2070; email address:
The HSRB encourages the public's input. You may participate in these meetings by following the instructions in this section.
1.
2.
The HSRB is a Federal advisory committee operating in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act 5 U.S.C. App.2 § 9. The HSRB provides advice, information, and recommendations on issues related to scientific and ethical aspects of third-party human subjects research that are submitted to the Office of Pesticide Programs (OPP) to be used for regulatory purposes.
The Agenda and meeting materials for these topics will be available in advance of the meeting at
On June 14, 2018, the HSRB will review and finalize their draft Final Report from the April 24-26, 2018 meeting, in addition to other topics that may come before the Board. The HSRB may also discuss planning for future HSRB meetings. The agenda and the draft report will be available prior to the meeting at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of finding of adequacy.
In this notice, the EPA is notifying the public that we find the motor vehicle emissions budgets (MVEBs) for volatile organic compounds (VOCs
This finding is applicable April 20, 2018.
Michael Leslie, Environmental Engineer, Control Strategies Section (AR-18J), Air Programs Branch, Air and Radiation Division, United States Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 353-6680,
Throughout this document, whenever “we”, “us” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
This notice is an announcement of a finding that we have already made. On January 17, 2018, EPA sent a letter to the Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources stating that the 2017 and 2018 MVEBs contained in the Attainment Demonstration for the 2008 Ozone Standard for Sheboygan County are adequate for transportation conformity purposes. Receipt of these MVEBs was announced on EPA's transportation conformity website, and no comments were submitted. The finding is available at EPA's conformity website:
The 2017 and 2018 MVEBs, in tons per day (tpd), for VOCs and NO
Transportation conformity is required by section 176(c) of the Clean Air Act. EPA's conformity rule requires that transportation plans, programs, and projects conform to state air quality implementation plans and establishes the criteria and procedures for determining whether or not they do conform. Conformity to a State Implementation Plan (SIP) means that transportation activities will not produce new air quality violations, worsen existing violations, or delay timely attainment of the national ambient air quality standards.
The criteria by which we determine whether a SIP's MVEBs are adequate for transportation conformity purposes are outlined in 40 CFR 93.118(e)(4). Please note that an adequacy review is separate from EPA's completeness review, and is also a separate action from EPA's evaluation of and decision whether to approve a proposed SIP revision.
42 U.S.C. 7401-7671 q.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of proposed settlement; request for public comments.
In accordance with section 122(i) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation, and Liability Act, as amended (“CERCLA”), notice is hereby given of a proposed administrative Settlement Agreement for recovery of Past Response Costs, as defined in the Settlement Agreement, under CERCLA section 122(h) of CERCLA, concerning the New Hampshire Dioxane Site, located in Atkinson and Hampstead, New Hampshire with Gould Electronics Inc. The settlement requires Gould Electronics Inc. to pay $1,900,000, plus interest on that amount calculated from March 28, 2016 through the date of payment, to the Hazardous Substance Superfund.
Comments must be submitted by May 7, 2018.
Comments should be addressed to John Hultgren, Enforcement Counsel, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100 (OES04-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912 and should refer to:
A copy of the proposed Settlement Agreement may be obtained from John Hultgren, Enforcement Counsel, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100 (OES04-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912; (617) 918-1761;
For 30 days following the date of publication of this notice, the Agency will receive written comments relating to the settlement. The United States will consider all comments received and may modify or withdraw its consent to the settlement if comments received disclose facts or considerations which indicate that the settlement is inappropriate, improper, or inadequate. The Agency's response to any comments received will be available for public inspection at 5 Post Office Square, Boston, MA 02109-3912.
The proposed Settlement Agreement includes a covenant from EPA not to sue or take administrative action against Gould Electronics Inc. pursuant to section 107(a) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9607(a), to recover Past Response Costs, and protection for Gould Electronics, Inc. from contribution actions or claims as provided by sections 113(f)(2) and 122(h)(4) of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. Section 9613(f)(2) and 9622(h)(4). The settlement has been approved by the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Science Advisory Board (SAB) Staff Office announces a public teleconference of the Chartered Clean Air Scientific Advisory Committee (CASAC) and CASAC Sulfur Oxides Panel to discuss the CASAC draft reviews of the EPA's
The teleconference will be held on Friday, April 20, 2018, from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. (Eastern Time).
The public teleconference will be held by telephone only.
Any member of the public wishing to obtain information concerning the public meeting may contact Mr. Aaron Yeow, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), EPA Science Advisory Board Staff Office (1400R), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20460; by telephone at (202) 564-2050 or at
The CASAC was established pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA) Amendments of 1977, codified at 42 U.S.C. 7409(d)(2), to review air quality criteria and National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and recommend any new NAAQS and revisions of existing criteria and NAAQS as may be appropriate. The CASAC is a Federal Advisory Committee chartered under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C., App. 2. Section 109(d)(1) of the CAA requires that the Agency periodically review and revise, as appropriate, the air quality criteria and the NAAQS for the six “criteria” air pollutants, including sulfur oxides. EPA is currently reviewing the primary (health-based) NAAQS for sulfur dioxide (SO
Pursuant to FACA and EPA policy, notice is hereby given that the Chartered CASAC and the CASAC Sulfur Oxides Panel will hold a public teleconference to discuss the draft CASAC reviews of the EPA's
Federal advisory committees and panels, including scientific advisory committees, provide independent advice to EPA. Members of the public can submit relevant comments on the topic of this advisory activity, including the charge to the panel and the EPA review documents, and/or the group conducting the activity, for the CASAC to consider as it develops advice for EPA. Input from the public to the CASAC will have the most impact if it provides specific scientific or technical information or analysis for CASAC panels to consider, or if it relates to the clarity or accuracy of the technical information. Members of the public wishing to provide comment should follow the instructions below to submit comments.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
In this document, the Commission announces and provides an agenda for the next meeting of Broadband Deployment Advisory Committee (BDAC).
Wednesday, April 25, 2018. The meeting will come to order at 9:00 a.m.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW, Room TW-C305, Washington, DC 20554.
Brian Hurley, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), at (202) 418-2220 or
This meeting is open to members of the general public. The FCC will accommodate as many participants as possible; however, admittance will be limited to seating availability. The Commission will also provide audio and/or video coverage of the meeting over the internet from the FCC's web page at
Open captioning will be provided for this event. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. Requests for such accommodations should be submitted via email to
This agenda may be modified at the discretion of the BDAC Chair and the DFO.
Tuesday, April 10, 2018 at 10:00 a.m.
999 E Street NW, Washington, DC
This meeting will be closed to the public.
Compliance matters pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 30109.
Information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to have a considerable adverse effect on the implementation of a proposed Commission action.
Matters concerning participation in civil actions or proceedings or arbitration.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
Notice, request for comment.
The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) invites comment on a proposal to extend for three years, with revision, the Recordkeeping and Disclosure Requirements Associated with Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (CFPB) Regulation M (Consumer Leasing) (FR M; OMB No. 7100-0202).
Comments must be submitted on or before June 4, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by
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•
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Additionally, commenters may send a copy of their comments to the OMB Desk Officer—Shagufta Ahmed—Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503 or by fax to (202) 395-6974.
A copy of the PRA OMB submission, including the proposed reporting form and instructions, supporting statement, and other documentation will be placed into OMB's public docket files, once approved. These documents will also be made available on the Federal Reserve Board's public website at:
Federal Reserve Board Clearance Officer—Nuha Elmaghrabi—Office of the Chief Data Officer, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551 (202) 452-3829. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD) users may contact (202) 263-4869, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC, 20551.
On June 15, 1984, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) delegated to the Board authority under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) to approve of and assign OMB control numbers to collection of information requests and requirements conducted or sponsored by the Board. In exercising this delegated authority, the Board is directed to take every reasonable step to solicit comment. In determining whether to approve a collection of information, the Board will consider all comments received from the public and other agencies.
The Board invites public comment on the following information collection, which is being reviewed under authority delegated by the OMB under the PRA. Comments are invited on the following:
a. Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the Federal Reserve's functions; including whether the information has practical utility;
b. The accuracy of the Federal Reserve's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
c. Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
d. Ways to minimize the burden of information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
e. Estimates of capital or startup costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
Notice, request for comment.
The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) invites comment on a proposal to extend for three years, without revision, the voluntary Federal Reserve Clearance for Board Public website Usability Surveys (FR 3076, OMB No. 7100-0366). On June 15, 1984, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) delegated to the Board authority under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) to approve of and assign OMB control numbers to collection of information requests and requirements conducted or sponsored by the Board. In exercising this delegated authority, the Board is directed to take every reasonable step to solicit comment. In determining whether to approve a collection of information, the Board will consider all comments received from the public and other agencies.
Comments must be submitted on or before June 4, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by FR 3076, by any of the following methods:
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All public comments are available from the Board's website at
Additionally, commenters may send a copy of their comments to the OMB Desk Officer—Shagufta Ahmed—Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503 or by fax to (202) 395-6974.
A copy of the PRA OMB submission, including the proposed reporting form and instructions, supporting statement, and other documentation will be placed into OMB's public docket files, once approved. These documents will also be made available on the Federal Reserve Board's public website at:
Federal Reserve Board Clearance Officer—Nuha Elmaghrabi—Office of the Chief Data Officer, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551 (202) 452-3829. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD) users may contact (202) 263-4869, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
The Board invites public comment on the following information collection, which is being reviewed under authority delegated by the OMB under the PRA. Comments are invited on the following:
a. Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the Federal Reserve's functions; including whether the information has practical utility;
b. The accuracy of the Federal Reserve's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
c. Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
d. Ways to minimize the burden of information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
e. Estimates of capital or startup costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
At the end of the comment period, the comments and recommendations received will be analyzed to determine the extent to which the Federal Reserve should modify the proposal prior to giving final approval.
The FR 3076 may seek information from users or potential users of various Board web pages, including press releases, data releases and downloads, reports, supervision manuals, brochures, new web pages, audio, video, and use of social media. Information gathered may also include general input on users' interests and needs, feedback on website navigation and layout, distribution channels, or other factors which may affect the ability of users to locate and access content online.
Qualitative surveys conducted using the FR 3076 would include data gathering methods such as focus groups and individual interviews. Quantitative surveys conducted using the FR 3076 would include surveys conducted online or via mobile device, by phone or by mail, emails, or a combination of these methods. The Board may contract with an outside vendor to conduct focus groups, interviews, or surveys, or the Board may collect the data directly. As the Board's public website continues to evolve, the Board may seek input from users or potential users of Board's public website on questions such as the following:
• Did you find the content and layout relevant and of value?
• How did you find the content you were looking for?
• Was the navigation useful?
• How did you learn about the content?
• How did you access the content? (
• What suggestions do you have for improving the format and appearance of online presentation? (
• What other information would be of value to enhance the online tool or information?
Government Accountability Office (GAO).
Request for letters of nomination and resumes.
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act gave the Comptroller General of the United States responsibility for appointing 19 members to the Board of Governors of the Patient-Centered Outcomes Research Institute. In addition, the Directors of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality and the National Institutes of Health, or their designees, are members of the Board. As the result of terms ending in September 2018, GAO is accepting nominations in the following categories required in statute: A physician, a nurse, a representative of patients and health care consumers, a representative of private payers, a representative of a state or a federal health program or agency, and a representative of pharmaceutical, device, or diagnostic manufacturers or developers. Nominations should be sent to the email or mailing address listed below. Acknowledgement of submissions will be provided within a week of submission.
Letters of nomination and resumes should be submitted no later than May 4, 2018, to ensure adequate opportunity for review and consideration of nominees prior to appointment.
Submit letters of nomination and resumes by either of the following methods: Email:
Rashmi Agarwal at (202) 512-4077 or
[Sec. 6301 and Sec. 10602, Pub. L. 111-148].
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Liposome Drug Products: Chemistry, Manufacturing, and Controls; Human Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability; and Labeling Documentation.” This guidance document finalizes the revised draft of the same name that published on October 30, 2015. This guidance provides recommendations to applicants on the chemistry, manufacturing, and controls (CMC); pharmacokinetics and bioavailability; and labeling documentation for liposome drug products submitted in new drug applications (NDAs) and abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs), reviewed by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER).
The announcement of the guidance is published in the
You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Richard T. Lostritto, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 4132, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-1697.
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Liposome Drug Products: Chemistry, Manufacturing, and Controls; Human Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability; and Labeling Documentation.” This guidance provides recommendations to applicants on the CMC, human pharmacokinetics and bioavailability, and labeling documentation for liposome drug products submitted in NDAs and ANDAs reviewed by CDER. Although this guidance does not intend to provide recommendations specific to liposome drug products to be marketed under biologics license applications (BLAs), many scientific principles described in this guidance may also apply to these products.
In the
The guidance does not provide recommendations on clinical efficacy and safety studies, nonclinical pharmacology and/or toxicology studies, liposome formulations of vaccine adjuvants or biologics, or drug-lipid complexes.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Liposome Drug Products: Chemistry, Manufacturing, and Controls; Human Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability; and Labeling Documentation.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 314 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0001.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the document at either
Office of the Secretary, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Health and Human Services, is publishing the following summary of a proposed collection for public comment.
Comments on the ICR must be received on or before June 4, 2018.
Submit your comments to
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the document identifier 0990-0438-60D and project title for reference, to
Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including any of the following subjects: (1) The necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
The likely respondents would be the estimated 85 TPP grantees. TPP grantees will report all of the data to OAH twice per year.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Board of Regents of the National Library of Medicine, May 8, 2018, 9:00 a.m. to May 9, 2018, 12:00 p.m., National Library of Medicine, Building 38, 2nd Floor, The Donald A.B. Lindberg Room, 8600 Rockville Pike, Bethesda, MD, 20892 which was published in the
The meeting will be open to the public on May 9, 2018 from 9:00 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. and will then be closed from 10:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m., to review intramural programs and projects. The meeting is partially closed to the public.
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The Secretary of Health and Human Services (Secretary), in accordance with section 6031 of the 21st Century Cures Act, announces a meeting of the Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee (ISMICC).
The meeting is open to the public and will include information on federal efforts related to serious mental illness (SMI) and serious emotional disturbance (SED), including data evaluation, and recommendations for action. Committee members will also discuss ISMICC member relationship to implementation workgroups, establishing the prevalence of SMI and SED, communication with non-federal organizations to engage non-federal support for ISMICC, and future meetings.
June 8, 2018/9:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m. (EDT).
The meeting will be held at the Hubert H. Humphrey Building, 200 Independence Avenue SW, Room 800, Washington, DC 20201.
The meeting can be accessed via webcast at
The public comment section is scheduled for 1:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT), and individuals interested in submitting a comment, must notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Ms. Pamela Foote, on or before May 24, 2018 via email to:
Two minutes will be allotted for each approved public comment as time permits. Written comments received in advance of the meeting will be included in the official record of the meeting.
Substantive meeting information and a roster of Committee members is available at the Committee's website
The ISMICC was established on March 15, 2017, in accordance with section 6031 of the 21st Century Cures Act, and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App., as amended, to report to the Secretary, Congress, and any other relevant federal department or agency on advances in serious mental illness (SMI) and serious emotional disturbance (SED), research related to the prevention of, diagnosis of, intervention in, and treatment and recovery of SMIs, SEDs, and advances in access to services and support for adults with SMI or children with SED. In addition, the ISMICC will evaluate the effect federal programs related to serious mental illness have on public health, including public health outcomes such as (A) rates of suicide, suicide attempts, incidence and prevalence of SMIs, SEDs, and substance use disorders, overdose, overdose deaths, emergency hospitalizations, emergency room boarding, preventable emergency room visits, interaction with the criminal
This ISMICC consists of federal members listed below or their designees, and non-federal public members.
The ISMICC is required to meet twice per year.
Pamela Foote, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, 14E53C, Rockville, MD 20857; telephone: 240-276-1279; email:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice and request for comments.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before May 7, 2018.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Information Management Division, 500 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
Comments may be submitted as indicated in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final Notice.
New or modified Base (1-percent annual chance) Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, and/or regulatory floodways (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations) as shown on the indicated Letter of Map Revision (LOMR) for each of the communities listed in the table below are finalized. Each LOMR revises the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and in some cases the Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, currently in effect for the listed communities. The flood hazard determinations modified by each LOMR will be used to calculate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and their contents.
Each LOMR was finalized as in the table below.
Each LOMR is available for inspection at both the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the table below and online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) makes the final flood hazard determinations as shown in the LOMRs for each community listed in the table below. Notice of these modified flood hazard determinations has been published in newspapers of local circulation and 90 days have elapsed since that publication. The Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation has resolved any appeals resulting from this notification.
The modified flood hazard determinations are made pursuant to section 206 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
The new or modified flood hazard information is the basis for the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of being already in effect in order to remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
This new or modified flood hazard information, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities.
This new or modified flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings, and for the contents in those buildings. The changes in flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.
Interested lessees and owners of real property are encouraged to review the final flood hazard information available at the address cited below for each community or online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the territory of American Samoa (FEMA-4357-DR), dated March 2, 2018, and related determinations.
The declaration was issued March 2, 2018.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated March 2, 2018, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Benigno Bern Ruiz, of FEMA is appointed to act as the
The following areas of the territory of American Samoa have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before July 5, 2018.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1813, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location
Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of modified system of records.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) proposes to modify and reissue a current DHS system of records titled, “Department of Homeland Security/ALL-011 Biographies and Awards.” This system of records allows DHS to collect and maintain biographical information about current and former DHS employees, contractors, and other non-DHS individuals that attend Departmental meetings or receive awards. Information pertaining to Departmental performance-based award recipients who are DHS employees is covered under “U.S. Office of Personnel Management/GOVT-2 Employee Performance File System Records”.
Submit comments on or before May 7, 2018. This modified system will be effective upon publication. New or modified routine uses will become effective May 7, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number DHS-2018-0008 by one of the following methods:
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For general and privacy questions, please contact: Philip S. Kaplan,
DHS is modifying and reissuing this system of records notice (SORN) to (1) expand the purpose to include reviewing and distributing biographical information on DHS award recipients and attendees of conferences or other public meetings; (2) expand the categories of individuals to include all DHS employees and contractors as well as members of the public receiving awards from DHS or attending conferences or meetings; (3) expand the categories of records to include individual contact information, nomination information, and identity documentation; (4) modify routine use (E) and add routine use (F) to comply with Office of Management and Budget (OMB) guidance pertaining to data breach procedures; (5) modify routine use (I) to expand the language to include awardee information disseminated to the public; and (6) add a new routine use (J) to encompass the release of information to assist in employment decisions or to issue clearances, licenses, or other benefits with which the information may be relevant. Finally, the Department has updated the retention schedule for records contained in this system. This notice also includes non-substantive changes to simplify the formatting and text of the previous published notice. This modified system will be included in DHS's inventory of record systems.
DHS is modifying and reissuing this SORN to expand the purpose, categories of individuals, and categories of records, and to update the retention schedule. DHS is also expanding and adding to the routine uses, as well as making non-substantive changes to the text and formatting of this SORN to align with previously published DHS SORNs.
DHS is expanding the purpose of this system beyond collecting biographic and award information on DHS employees, DHS contractors, and other non-DHS individuals for disclosure to the media and public. DHS may use biographic information submitted by these individuals when considering or
DHS is modifying this SORN to expand and clarify the categories of records covered by this system. DHS may collect contact information and the professional background, education, qualifications, and academic achievements of non-DHS individuals who are award nominees or recipients and DHS employees or contractors nominated or awarded non-performance-based awards. Individuals may opt to include information beyond professional qualifications, such as hobbies and personal interests. All biographic information is submitted directly from the individual or is publicly available and confirmed by the individual. This system of records does not include information and records on Departmental performance-based award recipients who are DHS employees and contractors that are covered for separate purposes elsewhere in the
DHS is expanding and clarifying the categories of individuals of this system to include non-DHS individuals, DHS employees, and contractors who have provided biographic information for public meetings or conferences.
DHS is modifying routine use (E) and adding routine use (F) to conform to OMB Memorandum M-17-12 “Preparing for and Responding to a Breach of Personally Identifiable Information” (January 3, 2017). DHS is expanding the language of routine use (I) (disclosures to audiences) to include awardee information disseminated on public-facing websites, conferences, press releases, or other media. DHS is adding new routine use (J) to permit disclosures to an appropriate Federal, state, local, tribal, foreign, or international agency, if the information is relevant and necessary to a requesting agency's decision concerning the hiring or retention of an individual, or issuance of a security clearance, license, contract, grant, delegation or designation of authority, or other benefit, or if the information is relevant and necessary to a DHS decision concerning the hiring or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the reporting of an investigation of an employee, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, delegation or designation of authority, or other benefit and disclosure is appropriate to the proper performance of the official duties of the person making the request. All routine uses after routine use (F) have been renumbered to account for the additional routine use. Lastly, DHS is making non-substantive changes to the text and formatting of this SORN to align with previously published DHS SORNs.
Consistent with DHS's information sharing mission, information covered by DHS/ALL-011 Department of Homeland Security Biographies and Awards system of records may be shared with other DHS Components that have a need to know the information to carry out their national security, law enforcement, immigration, intelligence, or other homeland security functions. In addition, DHS may share information with appropriate Federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, foreign, or international government agencies consistent with the routine uses set forth in this SORN.
This modified system will be included in DHS's inventory of record systems.
The Privacy Act embodies fair information practice principles in a statutory framework governing the means by which Federal Government agencies collect, maintain, use, and disseminate individuals' records. The Privacy Act applies to information that is maintained in a “system of records.” A “system of records” is a group of any records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. In the Privacy Act, an individual is defined to encompass U.S. citizens and lawful permanent residents. Additionally, the Judicial Redress Act (JRA) provides a covered person with a statutory right to make requests for access and amendment to covered records, as defined by the JRA, along with judicial review for denials of such requests. In addition, the JRA prohibits disclosures of covered records, except as otherwise permitted by the Privacy Act.
Below is the description of the DHS/ALL-011 Biographies and Awards System of Records.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), DHS has provided a report of this system of records to the OMB and to Congress.
Department of Homeland Security/ALL-011 Biographies and Awards.
Unclassified.
Records are maintained at several Headquarters locations and in Component offices of the Department of Homeland Security, in both Washington, DC and field locations.
For DHS Headquarters Components, the System Manager is the Deputy Chief Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer, Department of Homeland Security, Washington, DC 20528. For Components of DHS, the System Manager can be found at
5 U.S.C. 4502 et seq., 5 U.S.C. 301, 5 U.S.C. 4103, 44 U.S.C. 3101, Public Law 107-296, Executive Order (E.O.) 9830, and E.O. 12107.
The purpose of this system is to (1) collect and use biographic information on professional background, education, qualifications, and academic achievements of DHS employees, DHS contractors, and non-DHS individuals as background information to consider and publicly recognize DHS awardees and nominees; (2) aid DHS in setting up and conducting meetings with DHS and contractor employees; and (3) create information materials for publication outside of the Department as part of public events, conferences, and meetings.
Categories of individuals within this system include:
1. Current and former DHS employees, contractors, and other non-DHS individuals who are award nominators, recipients, or nominees. This category of individuals does not include DHS employees who receive Departmental employment performance-based awards as that information is covered for the purposes pursuant to “OPM/GOVT-2 Employee Performance File System Records.”
2. Non-DHS individuals who attend meetings with DHS personnel who provide biographic information to aid DHS in setting up and conducting such meetings.
• Full name;
• Date of birth;
• Place of birth;
• Photo;
• Work history and experience;
• Education;
• Military experience, if applicable;
• Civic duties and previous awards;
• Immigration history, to include date of naturalization;
• Hometown;
• Hobbies and personal interests;
• Job title;
• Name and job title of Supervisor;
• Personal and/or Professional phone numbers;
• Personal and/or Professional email addresses;
• Personal and/or Professional addresses;
• Employee/Contractor identification or badge number;
• Identity documentation;
• Professional qualifications, beyond what is described in OPM-approved position description;
• Type of award for which received/nominated for (
• Name of the nominating official;
• Nomination materials including a summary of outstanding accomplishments, distinguished service, or extraordinary valor to make him or her eligible for an award;
• Published factual account of the nominee's accomplishments; and
• Other information directly relevant to the award that may be collected and distributed to the public.
Records are obtained directly from DHS employees, contractors, and non-DHS individuals who have submitted biographies to DHS or have been selected or nominated for a DHS award; the nominating individual or organization; or other sources available to the general public.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act, all or a portion of the records or information contained in this system may be disclosed outside DHS as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) as follows:
A. To the Department of Justice (DOJ), including the U.S. Attorneys Offices, or other Federal agency conducting litigation or proceedings before any court, adjudicative, or administrative body, when it is relevant or necessary to the litigation and one of the following is a party to the litigation or has an interest in such litigation:
1. DHS or any component thereof;
2. Any employee or former employee of DHS in his/her official capacity;
3. Any employee or former employee of DHS in his/her individual capacity, only when DOJ or DHS has agreed to represent the employee; or
4. The United States or any agency thereof.
B. To a congressional office from the record of an individual in response to an inquiry from that congressional office made at the request of the individual to whom the record pertains.
C. To the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) or General Services Administration pursuant to records management inspections being conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.
D. To an agency or organization for the purpose of performing audit or oversight operations as authorized by law, but only such information as is necessary and relevant to such audit or oversight function.
E. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) DHS suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) DHS has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, DHS (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with DHS's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
F. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when DHS determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary and otherwise compatible with the purpose of collection to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.
G. To contractors and their agents, grantees, experts, consultants, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for DHS, when necessary to accomplish an agency function related to this system of records. Individuals provided information under this routine use are subject to the same Privacy Act requirements and limitations on disclosure as are applicable to DHS officers and employees.
H. To unions recognized as exclusive bargaining representatives of the individual under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978, 5 U.S.C. 7111 and 7114, the Merit Systems Protection Board, arbitrators, the Federal Labor Relations Authority, and other parties responsible for the administration of the Federal labor-management program for the purpose of processing any corrective actions, grievances, conducting administrative hearings or appeals, or if needed in the performance of other authorized duties.
I. To audiences attending a particular event, conference, or meeting when the biographies of speakers are used as background in introductions or other informational material, and to the public when used to recognize individuals for awards not covered pursuant to an OPM SORN or used to recognize non-DHS individuals.
J. To an appropriate Federal, state, local, tribal, foreign, or international agency, if the information is relevant and necessary to a requesting agency's decision concerning the hiring or retention of an individual, or issuance of a security clearance, license, contract, grant, delegation or designation of authority, or other benefit, or if the information is relevant and necessary to a DHS decision concerning the hiring or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the reporting of an investigation of an employee, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, delegation or designation of authority, or other benefit and disclosure is appropriate to the proper performance of the official duties of the person making the request.
K. To the news media and the public, with the approval of the Chief Privacy Officer in consultation with counsel, when there exists a legitimate public interest in the disclosure of the information, when disclosure is necessary to preserve confidence in the integrity of DHS, or when disclosure is necessary to demonstrate the accountability of DHS's officers, employees, or individuals covered by the system, except to the extent the Chief Privacy Officer determines that release of the specific information in the context of a particular case would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
DHS stores records in this system electronically or on paper in secure facilities in a locked drawer behind a locked door. The records may be stored on magnetic disc, tape, and digital media.
DHS retrieves records by name, job title, date of naturalization, award title, and location where the individual resides or works.
DHS retains and disposes of records in accordance with NARA General Records Schedule (GRS) 2.2, item 30. Employee awards files (excluding records relating to Department-level awards and awards for non-DHS individuals) will be destroyed when two years old or two years after award is approved or disapproved, whichever is later, but longer retention is authorized if required for a business use. Individual Components may develop separate retention schedules in consultation with NARA. Records pertaining to Department-level awards and all awards for non-DHS individuals must be scheduled by submitting an SF 115, Request for Records Disposition Authority, to NARA. Records pertaining to biographies for meetings and speaking engagements are retained and disposed of in accordance with NARA GRS 6.4, item 10. Records will be destroyed when three years old, or no longer needed, whichever is later.
DHS safeguards records in this system according to applicable rules and policies, including all applicable DHS automated systems security and access policies. DHS has imposed strict controls to minimize the risk of compromising the stored information. Access to the computer system containing the records in this system is limited to those individuals who have a need to know the information in furtherance of the performance of their official duties, and who have appropriate clearances or permissions.
Individuals seeking access to and notification of any record contained in this system of records, or seeking to contest its content, may submit a request in writing to the Chief Privacy Officer and Chief FOIA Officer, whose contact information can be found at
When an individual is seeking records about himself or herself from this system of records or any other Departmental system of records, the individual's request must conform with the Privacy Act regulations set forth in 6 CFR part 5. The individual must first verify his/her identity, meaning that the individual must provide his/her full name, current address, and date and place of birth. The individual must sign the request, and the individual's signature must either be notarized or submitted under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization. While no specific form is required, an individual may obtain forms for this purpose from the Chief Privacy Officer and Chief FOIA Officer,
• Explain why the individual believes the Department would have information on him/her;
• Identify which component(s) of the Department the individual believes may have the information about him/her;
• Specify when the individual believes the records would have been created; and
• Provide any other information that will help the FOIA staff determine which DHS component agency may have responsive records;
If an individual's request is seeking records pertaining to another living individual, the first individual must include a statement from the second individual certifying his/her agreement for the first individual to access his/her records. Without the above information, the component(s) may not be able to conduct an effective search, and the individual's request may be denied due to lack of specificity or lack of compliance with applicable regulations.
For records covered by the Privacy Act or covered JRA records, see “Record Access Procedures” above.
See “Record Access Procedures.”
None.
DHS/ALL-011 Department of Homeland Security Biographies and Awards, 73 FR 66654 (Nov. 10, 2008).
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, HUD.
Notice.
This Notice announces the monthly per unit fee rates for use in determining the on-going administrative fees for housing agencies administering the Housing Choice Voucher (HCV), 5 Year Mainstream, and Moderate Rehabilitation programs, including Single Room Occupancy, during calendar year (CY) 2018.
Miguel A. Fontánez, Director, Housing Voucher Financial Management Division, Office of Public Housing and Voucher Programs, Office of Public and Indian Housing, Department of Housing and Urban Development, Room 4222, 451 Seventh Street SW, Washington, DC 20410-8000, telephone number 202-402-2934. (This is not a toll-free number). Hearing or speech impaired individuals may call TTY number 1-800-877-8337.
This Notice provides the Department's methodology used to determine the CY 2018 administrative fee rates by area, which the Office of Housing Voucher Programs (OHVP) will use to compensate public housing agencies (PHA) for administering the HCV programs.
For CY 2018, in accordance with the Continuing Resolution (or
Two fee rates are provided for each PHA. The first rate, Column A, applies to the first 7200 voucher unit months leased in CY 2018. The second rate, Column B, applies to all remaining voucher unit months leased in CY 2018. In years prior to 2010, a Column C rate was also established, which applied to all voucher unit months leased in dwelling units owned by the PHA. For CY 2018, as in recent years, there are no Column C administrative fee rates. Fees for leasing HA-owned units will be earned in the same manner and at the same Column A and Column B rates as for all other Voucher leasing.
The fee rates established for CY 2018, using the standard procedures, in some cases resulted in fee rates lower than those established for CY 2017. In those cases, the affected PHAs are being held harmless at the CY 2017 fee rates.
The fee rates for each PHA are generally those rates covering the fee areas in which each PHA has the greatest proportion of its participants, based on Public Housing Information Center (PIC) data submitted by the PHA. In some cases, PHAs have participants in more than one fee area. If such a PHA so chooses, the PHA may request that the Department establish a blended fee rate schedule that will consider proportionately all areas in which participants are located. Once a blended rate schedule is established, it will be used to determine the PHA's fee eligibility for all months in CY 2018. The PHAs will be advised via the 2018 HCV Funding Implementation Notice of when they may apply for blended fee rates and the deadline date for submitting such requests.
PHAs that operate over a large geographic area, defined as multiple counties, may request a higher administrative fee rate if eligible under the circumstance which will be described in the CY 2018 HCV Funding Implementation Notice. This notice will advise the PHAs when to apply for higher fee rates and the deadline date for such requests.
Accordingly, the Department issues the monthly per voucher unit fee rates to be used to determine PHA administrative fee eligibility for the programs identified in this Notice. These fee rates are posted on HUD's website at:
Any questions concerning this Notice should be directed to the PHA's assigned representative at the Financial Management Center or to the Financial Management Division at
Where an MTW Agency has an alternative formula for calculating HCV Administrative Fees in Attachment A of their MTW Agreements, HUD will continue to calculate the HCV Administrative Fees in accordance with that MTW Agreement provision.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received an application for an incidental take permit (ITP) under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended. Meritage Homes of Florida, Inc., is requesting a 5-year ITP for take of the sand skink, which is federally listed as a threatened species. We request public comments on the permit application and accompanying proposed habitat conservation plan as well as on our preliminary determination that the plan qualifies as low effect under the National Environmental Policy Act. To make this determination, we used our environmental action statement and low-effect screening form, which are also available for review.
To ensure consideration, please send your written comments by May 7, 2018.
You may submit written comments and request copies of the application, habitat conservation plan, environmental action statement, or low-effect screening form by any one of the following methods:
Erin M. Gawera, telephone: (904) 731-3121; email:
Section 9 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531
Regulations governing incidental take permits for endangered and threatened wildlife species are at 50 CFR 17.22 and 17.32, respectively. In addition to meeting other criteria, the take authorized by an incidental take permit must not jeopardize the existence of federally listed fish, wildlife, or plants.
Meritage Homes of Florida, Inc. (the Applicant), is requesting an incidental take permit (ITP) to take sand skink (
We have determined that the Applicant's proposed plan, including the proposed mitigation and minimization measures, would have minor or negligible effects on the covered species and the environment so as to be “low effect” and qualify for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
We will evaluate the HCP and comments we receive to determine whether the ITP application meets the requirements of section 10(a) of the ESA. We will also conduct an intra-Service consultation to evaluate take of the sand skink in accordance with section 7 of the ESA. We will use the results of this consultation, in combination with the above findings, in our analysis of whether or not to issue the ITP. If the requirements are met, we will issue ITP number TE59063C-0 to the Applicant.
If you wish to comment on the permit application, HCP, or associated documents, you may submit comments by any one of the methods listed above in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the ESA and NEPA regulation 40 CFR 1506.6.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for public comments; announcement of meeting.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, in coordination with the California Department of Fish and Wildlife and the California State Coastal Conservancy, announce the availability of a Draft Environmental Impact Statement/Environmental Impact Report (DEIS/EIR) for Phase 2 of the South Bay Salt Pond Restoration Project at the Eden Landing Ecological Reserve in Alameda County, California. The DEIS/EIR, which we prepared in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, describes and analyzes the alternatives identified for Phase 2 of the South Bay Salt Pond Restoration Project.
We will accept comments received or postmarked on or before May 21, 2018. A public meeting will be held on May 8, 2018, from 6 p.m. to 8 p.m. (see
Persons needing reasonable accommodations in order to attend and participate in the public meeting should contact Ariel Ambruster, by email at
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○ San Francisco Bay National Wildlife Refuge Complex Headquarters, 1 Marshlands Road, Fremont, CA 94555.
○ The following libraries:
California State University, East Bay Library, 25800 Carlos Bee Blvd., Hayward, CA 94542.
Fremont Main Library, 2400 Stevenson Blvd., Fremont, CA 94538.
Hayward Public Library, Central Library, 835 C St., Hayward, CA 94541.
Natural Resources Library, U.S. Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street NW, Washington, DC 20240.
Union City Library, 34007 Alvarado-Niles Rd., Union City, CA 94587.
For how to view comments on the draft EIS from the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), or for information on EPA's role in the EIS process, see EPA's Role in the EIS Process under
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To have your name added to our mailing list, contact Ariel Ambruster (see
Brenda Buxton, Deputy Project Manager, State Coastal Conservancy, (510) 286-1015.
In coordination with the California Department of Fish and Wildlife (CDFW) and the California State Coastal Conservancy, we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, announce the availability of a Draft Environmental Impact Statement/Environmental Impact Report (DEIS/EIR) for Phase 2 of the South Bay Salt Pond Restoration Project (SBSP) at the Eden Landing Ecological Reserve (Eden Landing) in Alameda County, California. Phase 2 activities would occur within 11 ponds located between Old Alameda Creek and Alameda Creek Flood Control Channel. These ponds are organized by their similarities and location within the Phase 2 project area into three subgroups: the Bay Ponds (E1, E2, E4, and E7), the Inland Ponds (E5, E6, and E6C), and the Southern Ponds (E1C, E2C, E4C, and E5C). The DEIS/EIR, which we prepared in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
The EPA is charged under section 309 of the CAA to review all Federal agencies' environmental impact statements (EISs) and to comment on the adequacy and the acceptability of the environmental impacts of proposed actions in the EISs.
EPA also serves as the repository (EIS database) for EISs prepared by Federal agencies and provides notice of their availability in the
The EPA notice of availability is the start of the public comment period for draft EISs, and the start of the 30-day “wait period” for final EISs, during which agencies are generally required to wait 30 days before making a decision on a proposed action. For more information, see
In December 2007, the USFWS and CDFW published a Final EIS/EIR for the South Bay Salt Pond (SBSP) Restoration Project (December 19, 2007; 72 FR 71937). The overall SBSP restoration area includes 15,100 acres, which the USFWS and the CDFW acquired from Cargill, Inc. in 2003. The lands acquired from Cargill are divided into three pond complexes: The Ravenswood Pond complex, in San Mateo County, managed by the USFWS; the Alviso Pond complex, also managed by the USFWS, which is mostly in Santa Clara County, with five ponds in Alameda County; and the Eden Landing Pond complex, in Alameda County, which is owned and managed by the CDFW. The SBSP Restoration Project presented in the Final EIS/EIR was both programmatic, covering a 50-year period, and project-level, addressing the specific components and implementation of Phase 1.
In January 2008, we signed a Record of Decision selecting the Tidal Emphasis Alternative (Alternative C) for implementation. This alternative will result in 90 percent of the USFWS's and CDFW's ponds being restored to tidal wetlands and 10 percent converted to managed ponds. Under Phase 1 of Alternative C, we restored ponds E8A, E8X, E9, E12, and E13 at the Eden Landing complex; A6, A8, A16, and A17 at the Alviso complex; and SF2 at the Ravenswood complex. We also added several trails, interpretive features, a kayak launch, and other recreational access points. Construction was completed on the USFWS ponds in 2013 and on the CDFW ponds in 2016.
We now propose restoration or enhancement of over 2,270 acres of former salt ponds in the second phase of the SBSP Restoration Project at Eden Landing. In the DEIS/EIR, we provide project level analysis of proposed restoration or enhancement of portions of Eden Landing, specifically at the Bay Ponds (E1, E2, E4, and E7), the Inland Ponds (E5, E6, E6C), and the Southern Ponds (E1C, E2C, E4C, and E5C). These ponds are illustrated on the SBSP Restoration Project website at
Phase 2 of the SBSP Restoration Project is intended to restore and enhance tidal wetlands and managed pond habitats in South San Francisco Bay while simultaneously providing flood risk management and wildlife-oriented public access and recreation. In this Phase 2 document, we would continue habitat restoration activities and public access opportunities in the CDFW pond complex, while maintaining or improving current levels of flood risk management in the surrounding communities.
We consider a range of alternatives and their impacts in the DEIS/EIR, including a No Action Alternative. The range of alternatives include varying approaches to restoring tidal marshes (including number and location of breaches, other levee modifications, and beneficial reuse of dredged material), habitat enhancements (islands, transition zones, and channels), modifications to existing levees and berms to maintain or improve flood risk management, and recreation and public access components (trails, boardwalks, and viewing platforms) which correspond to the project objectives. The alternatives are described below.
Under Alternative Eden A (the No Action Alternative), no new activities would be implemented as part of Phase 2. The ponds would continue to be monitored and managed through the activities described in the Adaptive Management Plan (AMP) and in accordance with current CDFW practices. The high priority levees that function as inland flood risk management would continue to be maintained as appropriate and with consultation with the Alameda County Flood Control and Water Conservation District (ACFCWCD).
Alternative Eden B would breach and lower levees to restore the ponds to tidal marsh and thereby improve the ecological function of the ponds. The easternmost levees would be improved to provide flood risk management to the inland communities. The internal levees along the J-ponds and other ACFCWCD-owned channels would also be improved, as needed. The tidal marsh habitats would also be enhanced by placing dredged material to raise pond bottoms, using remnant levees as habitat islands, constructing habitat transition zones, excavating pilot channels to enhance water circulation, and increasing connectivity for anadromous fish habitat. Root wads and logs would be used to prevent erosion on the Bay side of Pond E2. Water control structures would be used during the transition of the Southern Ponds into tidal marsh. Implementation of this alternative would increase wildlife-oriented public access and recreational opportunities in the region. A piped connection from the Alameda County Water District's nearby Aquifer Reclamation Program wells would be added to deliver brackish groundwater and water habitat transition zones in the Inland and Southern Ponds. Finally, a piped connection with the adjacent Union Sanitary District (USD) would be added to deliver treated wastewater from that facility and deliver it onto the habitat transition zone that would be built in the Inland Ponds. This would water the vegetation on that feature and also add a salinity gradient to the marsh that would form there.
Alternative Eden C would retain the Inland and Southern Ponds as managed ponds, and the Bay Ponds would be restored to tidal marsh. A mid-complex levee would be constructed mostly by improving existing internal levees along the Inland Ponds, the J-Ponds, and Pond E1C of the Southern Ponds. Several water control structures would be placed within the Inland and Southern Ponds so that a variety of pond characteristics could be modified as necessary to support a range of pond-dependent wildlife. This alternative would implement many of the same habitat enhancements as Alternative Eden B, but in different locations. For example, the habitat transition zone would be built against the mid-complex levee, and the excavated pilot channels would also be in different places. Similar recreational opportunities would be created under this alternative, but additional trails have been proposed. These include a set of trails along, and a bridge across, the Old Alameda Creek. These trails would end at the Alvarado Salt Works at a new viewing platform. This alternative also proposes to build a bridge to extend the Bay Trail spine over the Alameda Creek Flood Control Channel beyond the Eden Landing Ecological Reserve boundary.
Alternative Eden D would restore the ponds to tidal marsh in a staged approach. Similar to Alternative Eden C, a mid-complex levee would be constructed; however this levee would be temporary. The first stage of this alternative would restore the Bay Ponds to tidal marsh and retain the Inland and Southern Ponds as managed ponds using the temporary mid-complex levee and water control structures. These water control structures would be installed in the Inland and Southern Ponds while they are managed ponds. Once tidal marsh becomes established in the Bay Ponds, the Inland and Southern Ponds would likely be restored to tidal marsh by removing the water control structures and introducing tidal flows to the Inland and Southern Ponds. This end result would be much like Alternative Eden C. However, if ongoing wildlife monitoring conducted under the AMP shows that the pond-associated wildlife species continue to require pond habitat, the Inland Ponds and Southern Ponds could be retained in that managed pond configuration indefinitely. The end result in that case would be much like Alternative Eden C. The proposed recreational features for this alternative are identical to Alternative Eden B, which includes extending the Bay Trail spine through southern Eden Landing on top of improved internal levees and also adding a viewing platform.
We are conducting environmental review in accordance with the requirements of NEPA, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321
We request that you send comments only by one of the methods described in
In addition to providing written comments, the public is encouraged to attend a public meeting on (see
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) is proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 4, 2018.
Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management, 1849 C Street, NW, Room 2134LM, Washington DC 20240, Attention: Jean Sonneman; by email to
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Brenda Wilhight by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the BLM; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the BLM enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the BLM minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of official filing.
The plats of survey described below are scheduled to be officially filed in the Bureau of land Management (BLM), Eastern States Office, Washington, DC, 30 days from the date of this publication. The surveys, executed at the request of the Eastern Regional Office of the BIA and the Southeastern States Field Office of the BLM, are necessary for the management of these lands.
Unless there are protests of this action, the filing of the plat described in this notice will happen on May 7, 2018.
Written notices protesting this survey must be sent to the State Director, BLM Eastern States, Suite 950, 20 M Street SE, Washington DC, 20003.
Dominica VanKoten, Chief Cadastral Surveyor for Eastern States; (202) 912-7756; email:
The plat, incorporating the field notes of the dependent resurvey of a portion of the 1805 and 1820 Choctaw Treaty boundaries, a portion of the north and east boundaries, a portion of the subdivisional lines, and the survey of tract 37 in Township 9 North, Range 17 West, St. Stephens Meridian, in the State of Mississippi; accepted August 31, 2017.
The plat, incorporating the field notes describe the dependent resurvey of a portion of the east boundary, a portion of the subdivisional lines, the survey of the subdivision of section 13, and the metes and bounds survey of land held in trust for the Mississippi Band of Choctaw Indians, within section 13, T. 11 N., R. 13 E., Choctaw Meridian, in the State of Mississippi, accepted September 29, 2017.
A person or party who wishes to protest the above survey must file a written notice of protest within 30 calendar days from the date of this publication at the address listed in the
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, please be aware that your entire protest, including your personal identifying information may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
A copy of the described plat will be placed in the open files, and available to the public as a matter of information.
43 U.S.C. Chap. 3.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection OMB 1140-0024 (Report of Firearms Transactions—Demand 2—ATF Form 5300.5) is being revised due to a reduction in burden, since there is a decrease in the number of respondents, responses, and total burden hours from the previous renewal in 2015. The proposed information collection is also being published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until June 4, 2018.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any additional information, please contact Ed Stely, Branch Chief, Tracing Operations and Records Management Branch, National Tracing Center Division either by mail at 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
Meeting notice.
The purpose of this notice is to announce a meeting of the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Council (Council) created by the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Act of 1998 (Compact). Thus far, the Federal Government and 31
The United States Attorney General appointed 15 persons from state and federal agencies to serve on the Council. The Council will prescribe system rules and procedures for the effective and proper operation of the Interstate Identification Index system for noncriminal justice purposes.
Matters for discussion are expected to include:
The meeting will be open to the public on a first-come, first-seated basis. Any member of the public wishing to file a written statement with the Council or wishing to address this session of the Council should notify the Federal Bureau Of Investigation (FBI) Compact Officer, Mrs. Chasity S. Anderson at (304) 625-2803, at least 24 hours prior to the start of the session. The notification should contain the individual's name and corporate designation, consumer affiliation, or government designation, along with a short statement describing the topic to be addressed and the time needed for the presentation. Individuals will ordinarily be allowed up to 15 minutes to present a topic.
The Council will meet in open session from 10 a.m. until 5 p.m., on May 16, 2018 and 9 a.m. until 12:30 p.m. on May 17, 2018.
The meeting will take place at the Sheraton Norfolk Waterside Hotel, 777 Waterside Hotel, Norfolk, Virginia, telephone 757-622-6664.
Inquiries may be addressed to Mrs. Chasity S. Anderson, FBI Compact Officer, Module D3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306, telephone 304-625-2803, facsimile 304-625-2868.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub., L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
Meeting Information:
Meeting opening and FACA briefing.
Discussion of confidential, pre-decisional NSF action plans regarding a large facility.
Adjourn.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
The RRB invites comments on the proposed collections of information to determine (1) the practical utility of the collections; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the collections; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information that is the subject of collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of collections on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments to the RRB or OIRA must contain the OMB control number of the ICR. For proper consideration of your comments, it is best if the RRB and OIRA receive them within 30 days of the publication date.
Under Section 9 of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA) and Section 6 of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA), the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) maintains for each railroad employee, a record of compensation paid to that employee by all railroad employers for whom the employee worked after 1936. This record, which is used by the RRB to determine eligibility for, and amount of, benefits due under the laws it administers, is conclusive as to the amount of compensation paid to an employee during such period(s) covered by the report(s) of the compensation by the employee's railroad employer(s), except in cases when an employee files a protest pertaining to his or her reported compensation within the statute of
To enable the RRB to establish and maintain the record of compensation, employers are required to file with the RRB, reports of their employees' compensation, in such manner and form and at such times as the RRB prescribes. Railroad employers' reports and responsibilities are prescribed in 20 CFR 209. The RRB currently utilizes Form BA-3,
Employers currently have the option of submitting BA-3 and BA-4 reports electronically by CD-ROM, secure Email, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), or online via the RRB's Employer Reporting System (ERS).
The information collection also includes RRB Form BA-12, Application for Employer Reporting internet Access, and Form G-440, Report Specifications Sheet. Form BA-12 is completed by railroad employers to obtain system access to ERS. Once access is obtained, authorized employees may submit reporting forms online to the RRB. The form determines what degree of access (view/only, data entry/modification or approval/submission) is appropriate for that employee. It is also used to terminate an employee's access to ERS. Form G-440, Report Specifications Sheet, serves as a certification document for Forms BA-3 and BA-4 as well as other RRB employer reporting forms (Form BA-6a, BA-6 Address Report (OMB 3220-0005), Form BA-9, Report of Separation Allowance or Severance Pay (OMB 3220-0173) and Form BA-11, Report of Gross Earnings (OMB 3220-0132)). It records the type of medium the report was submitted on, and serves as a summary recapitulation sheet for reports filed on paper.
The burden estimate for the ICR is as follows:
Under Section 2(g) of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act, benefits that accrued but were not paid because of the death of the employee shall be paid to the same individual(s) to whom benefits are payable under Section 6(a)(1) of the Railroad Retirement Act. The provisions relating to the payment of such benefits are prescribed in 20 CFR 325.5 and 20 CFR 335.5. The RRB provides Form UI-63, Application for Benefits Due But Unpaid at Death, to those applying for the accrued sickness or unemployment benefits unpaid at the death of the employee and for obtaining the information needed to identify the proper payee. One response is requested of each respondent. Completion is required to obtain a benefit.
The burden estimate for the ICR is as follows:
Under Section 7(d) of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA), the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) administers the Medicare program for persons covered by the railroad retirement system. The RRB uses Form AA-6, Employee Application for Medicare; Form AA-7, Spouse/Divorced Spouse Application for Medicare; and Form AA-8, Widow/Widower Application for Medicare; to obtain the information needed to determine whether individuals who have not yet filed for benefits under the RRA are qualified for Medicare payments provided under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.
Further, in order to determine if a qualified railroad retirement beneficiary who is claiming supplementary medical insurance coverage under Medicare is entitled to a Special Enrollment Period (SEP) and/or premium surcharge relief because of coverage under an Employer Group Health Plan (EGHP), the RRB needs to obtain information regarding the claimant's EGHP coverage, if any. The RRB uses Form RL-311-F, Evidence of Coverage Under An Employer Group Health Plan, to obtain the basic information needed to establish EGHP coverage for a qualified railroad retirement beneficiary.
Completion of the forms is required to obtain a benefit. One response is requested of each respondent.
Under Section 3(f)(3) of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA), the total monthly benefits payable to a railroad employee and his/her family are guaranteed to be no less than the amount which would be payable if the employee's railroad service had been covered by the Social Security Act. This is referred to as the Social Security Overall Minimum Guarantee, which is prescribed in 20 CFR 229. To administer this provision, the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) requires information about a retired employee's spouse and child(ren) who would not be eligible for benefits under the RRA but would be eligible for benefits under the Social Security Act if the employee's railroad service had been covered by that Act. The RRB obtains the required information by the use of Forms G-319, Statement Regarding Family and Earnings for Special Guaranty Computation, and G-320, Student Questionnaire for Special Guaranty Computation. One response is
Under Section 2 of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA), a railroad employee's retirement annuity or an annuity paid to the spouse of a railroad employee is subject to work deductions in the Tier II component of the annuity and any employee supplemental annuity for any month in which the annuitant works for a Last Pre-Retirement Non-Railroad Employer (LPE). The LPE is defined as the last person, company, or institution, other than a railroad employer, that employed an employee or spouse annuitant. In addition, the employee, spouse, or divorced spouse Tier I annuity benefit is subject to work deductions under Section 2(f)(1) of the RRA for earnings from any non-railroad employer that are over the annual exempt amount. The regulations pertaining to non-payment of annuities by reason of work and LPE are contained in 20 CFR 230.1 and 230.2.
The RRB utilizes Form RL-231-F, Request to Non-Railroad Employer for Information About Annuitant's Work and Earnings, to obtain the information needed to determine if a work deduction should be applied because an annuitant worked in non-railroad employment after the annuity beginning date. One response is requested of each respondent. Completion is voluntary. The RRB proposes no changes to Form RL-231-F.
The burden estimate for the ICR is as follows:
In order to carry out the financial interchange provisions of section 7(c)(2) of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA), the RRB obtains annually from railroad employer's the gross earnings for their employees on a one-percent basis,
The gross earnings information is essential in determining the tax amounts involved in the financial interchange with the Social Security Administration and Centers for
The RRB utilizes Form BA-11 to obtain gross earnings information from railroad employers. Employers have the option of preparing and submitting BA-11 reports online via the RRB's Employer Reporting System or on paper (or in like format) on magnetic tape cartridges, by File Transfer Protocol (FTP), or secure Email. The online BA-11 includes the option to file a “negative report” (no employees, or no employees with the digits “30”). Completion is mandatory. One response is requested of each respondent.
The burden estimate for the ICR is as follows:
Comments regarding the information collection should be addressed to Brian Foster, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611-1275 or
Notice is hereby given that the Railroad Retirement Board will hold a meeting on April 18, 2018, 10:00 a.m. at the Board's meeting room on the 8th floor of its headquarters building, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611. The agenda for this meeting follows:
(1) Executive Committee Reports
The person to contact for more information is Martha Rico-Parra, Secretary to the Board, Phone No. 312-751-4920.
For The Board.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission Fixed Income Market Structure Advisory Committee (“FIMSAC”) will hold a public meeting on Monday, April 9, 2018 at 9:30 a.m.
The meeting will be held in Multi-Purpose Room LL-006 at the Commission's headquarters, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC.
The meeting will begin at 9:30 a.m. and will be open to the public. Seating will be on a first-come, first-served basis. Doors will open at 9:00 a.m. Visitors will be subject to security checks. The meeting will be webcast on the Commission's website at
On March 15, 2018, the Commission published notice of the Committee meeting (Release No. 34-82884), indicating that the meeting is open to the public and inviting the public to submit written comments to the Committee. This Sunshine Act notice is being issued because a majority of the Commission may attend the meeting.
The agenda for the meeting will focus on updates and presentations from the three FIMSAC subcommittees.
For further information, please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to modify the disclosure services provided under IM-5900-7 to certain new listings. While these amendments are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated the proposed amendments to be operative for new listings on or after April 23, 2018.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Nasdaq offers complimentary services under IM-5900-7 to companies listing on the Nasdaq Global and Global Select Markets in connection with an initial public offering (other than a company listed under IM-5101-2), upon emerging from bankruptcy, in connection with a spin-off or carve-out from another company, or in conjunction with a business combination that satisfies the conditions in Nasdaq IM-5101-2(b) (“Eligible New Listings”) and to companies (other than a company listed under IM-5101-2) switching their listing from the New York Stock Exchange (“NYSE”) to the Global or Global Select Markets (“Eligible Switches”).
As part of the Service Package, Eligible New Listings and Eligible Switches with a market capitalization less than $750 million currently receive a $15,000 annual stipend for disclosure services; Eligible New Listings and Eligible Switches with a market capitalization of $750 million or more currently receive a $20,000 annual stipend for disclosure services. These stipends can be used “for disclosure services for earnings or other press releases, including photographs, and filing of EDGAR and XBRL reports.” Customers have indicated that the annual stipend makes it difficult for them to know what specifically they will receive and also to compare the Nasdaq Service Package with similar offerings from competitors. Based on this feedback, Nasdaq proposes to modify the disclosure services offered so that instead of an annual stipend to spend on any disclosure services, companies instead will receive a pre-determined package of disclosure services for earnings or other press releases and the filing of related regulatory reports.
The proposed rule change will be operative for new listings on or after April 23, 2018. Companies that list before that date will continue to receive services as described in the current rule.
Nasdaq also proposes to make non-substantive changes to the rule text to specify that the 2016 package is no longer the current package of for companies listing on or after April 23, 2018, and to clarify which package is provided to a company with exactly $750 million market capitalization.
Nasdaq believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
Nasdaq faces competition in the market for listing services,
Nasdaq represents, and this proposed rule change will help ensure, that individual listed companies are not given specially negotiated packages of products or services to list, or remain listed, which the Commission has previously stated would raise unfair discrimination issues under the Act.
Further, the disclosure services offered in the Services Package reflect the current competitive environment for exchange listings among national securities exchanges, and is appropriate and consistent with Section 6(b)(8) in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, based on customer feedback, Nasdaq believes that the revised rule will be more transparent to customers and better enable customers to compare offerings from various exchanges. Nasdaq also believes that this enhanced transparency will promote just and equitable principles of trade as required by Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
Finally, Nasdaq notes that the proposed non-substantive changes to the rule text to specify that the 2016 package is no longer the current package for companies listing on or after April 23, 2018, and to clarify which package is provided to a company with exactly $750 million market capitalization are consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act because they will clarify the rule without making any substantive change.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As noted above, Nasdaq faces competition in the market for listing services, and competes, in part, by offering valuable services to companies. Nasdaq believes that the proposed rule change will make the rule text more transparent to customers and better enable customers to compare offerings from various exchanges, which reflects that competition, but does not impose any burden on the competition with other exchanges.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend rules regarding Market-Maker quoting obligations. (additions are
(a)-(bbb) (No change).
(ccc) With respect to a Market-Maker who is obligated to provide continuous electronic quotes on the Hybrid Trading System (“Hybrid Market-Maker”), the Hybrid Market-Maker shall be deemed to have provided “continuous electronic quotes” if the Hybrid Market-Maker provides electronic two-sided quotes for 90% of the time that the Hybrid Market-Maker is required to provide electronic quotes in an appointed option class on a given trading day during the applicable trading session. Compliance with this quoting obligation applies to all of a Hybrid Market-Maker's appointed classes collectively (with respect to each Market-Maker type as the Hybrid Market-Maker is approved to act). The Exchange will determine compliance by a Hybrid Market-Maker with this quoting obligation on a monthly basis. However, determining compliance with this obligation on a monthly basis does not relieve a Hybrid Market-Maker from meeting this obligation on a daily basis, nor does it prohibit the Exchange from taking disciplinary action against a Hybrid Market-Maker for failing to meet this obligation each trading day.
If a technical failure or limitation of a system of the Exchange prevents the Hybrid Market-Maker from maintaining, or prevents the Hybrid Market-Maker from communicating to the Exchange, timely and accurate electronic quotes in a class, the duration of such failure shall not be considered in determining whether the Hybrid Market-Maker has satisfied the 90% quoting standard with respect to that option class. The Exchange may consider other exceptions to this continuous electronic quote obligation based on demonstrated legal or regulatory requirements or other mitigating circumstances.
(ddd)-(cccc) (No change).
(a)-(c) (No change).
(d) Market-Making Obligations in Applicable Hybrid Classes
The following obligations in this paragraph (d) are only applicable to Market-Makers trading classes on the Cboe Options Hybrid System and only in those Hybrid classes. Unless otherwise provided in this Rule, Market-Makers trading classes on the Hybrid System remain subject to all obligations imposed by Cboe Options Rule 8.7. To the extent another obligation contained elsewhere in Rule 8.7 is inconsistent with an obligation contained in paragraph (d) of Rule 8.7 with respect to a class trading on Hybrid, this paragraph (d) shall govern trading in the Hybrid class.
For Regular Trading Hours, these requirements are applicable on a per class basis, except as set forth in paragraph (ii)(B) below, depending upon the percentage of volume a Market-Maker transacts in an appointed class during Regular Trading Hours electronically versus in open outcry. With respect to making this determination, the Exchange will monitor a Market-Maker's trading activity in each appointed class during Regular Trading Hours every calendar quarter to determine whether it exceeds the threshold established in paragraph (d)(i). If a Market-Maker exceeds the threshold established below, the obligations contained in (d)(ii) will be effective the next calendar quarter.
For a period of ninety (90) days commencing immediately after a class begins trading on the Hybrid system, the provisions of paragraph (d)(i) shall govern trading in that class.
(i) (No change).
(ii) Market-Maker Trades More Than 20% Contract Volume in an Appointed Class Electronically:
If a Market-Maker on the Cboe Options Hybrid System transacts more than 20% of the Market-Maker's contract volume electronically in an appointed Hybrid class during Regular Trading Hours during any calendar quarter, commencing the next calendar quarter the Market-Maker will be subject to the following quoting obligations in that class for as long as the Market-Maker maintains an appointment in that class:
(A) (No change).
(B) Continuous Electronic Quoting Obligation: A Market-Maker will be required to maintain continuous electronic quotes (as defined in Rule 1.1(ccc)) in 60% of the non-adjusted option series of the Market-Maker's appointed classes that have a time to expiration of less than nine months. Compliance with this quoting obligation applies to all of a Market-Maker's appointed classes collectively (for which it must maintain continuous electronic quotes pursuant to this paragraph (ii)(B)). The Exchange will determine compliance by a Market-Maker with this quoting obligation on a monthly basis. However, determining compliance with this quoting obligation on a monthly basis does not relieve a Market-Maker from meeting this obligation on a daily basis, nor does it prohibit the Exchange from taking disciplinary action against a Market-Maker for failing to meet this obligation each trading day. The initial size of a Market-Maker's quote must be for the minimum number of contracts determined by the Exchange on a class by class basis, which minimum shall be at least one contract. This obligation does not apply to intra-day add-on series on the day during which such series are added for trading.
(C) (No change).
(iii)-(iv) (No change).
(a)-(c) (No change).
(d) Quoting Obligations: The Preferred Market-Maker must comply with the quoting obligations applicable to its Market-Maker type under Exchange rules and must provide continuous electronic quotes (as defined in Rule 1.1(ccc)) in at least the lesser of 99% of the non-adjusted option series that have a time to expiration of less than nine months or 100% of the non-adjusted option series that have a time to expiration of less than nine months minus one call-put pair, with the term “call-put pair” referring to one call and one put that cover the same underlying instrument and have the same expiration date and exercise price. This obligation does not apply to intra-day add-on series on the day during which such series are added for trading. Compliance with this quoting obligation applies to all of a Preferred Market-Maker's classes for which it receives Preferred Market-Maker orders collectively. The Exchange will determine compliance by a Preferred Market-Maker with this quoting obligation on a monthly basis. However, determining compliance with this obligation on a monthly basis does not relieve a Preferred Market-Maker from meeting this quoting obligation on a daily basis, nor does it prohibit the Exchange from taking
(a) (No change).
(b) LMM Obligations: Each LMM must fulfill all the obligations of a Market-Maker under the Rules and satisfy each of the following requirements:
(i) provide continuous electronic quotes (as defined in Rule 1.1 (ccc)) in at least the lesser of 99% of the non-adjusted option series or 100% of the non-adjusted option series minus one call-put pair, with the term “call-put pair” referring to one call and one put that cover the same underlying instrument and have the same expiration date and exercise price. This obligation does not apply to intra-day add-on series on the day during which such series are added for trading. Compliance with this quoting obligation applies to all of an LMM's appointed classes on each platform collectively. The Exchange will determine compliance by an LMM with this quoting obligation on a monthly basis. However, determining compliance with this obligation on a monthly basis does not relieve an LMM from meeting this obligation on a daily basis, nor does it prohibit the Exchange from taking disciplinary action against an LMM for failing to meet this obligation each trading day. In option classes in which both an On-Floor LMM and an Off-Floor DPM or Off-Floor LMM have been appointed, the On-Floor LMM will not be obligated to comply with this paragraph (b)(i) and instead will be obligated to comply with the obligations of Market-Makers in Rule 8.7(d). [. ]In an option class in which the Exchange appointed an On-Floor LMM that has open-outcry obligations only, that On-Floor LMM will not be obligated to comply with this paragraph (b)(i) and instead will be obligated to comply with the obligations of Market-Makers in Rule 8.7(d) and have a designee in the class's crowd on the trading floor for the entire trading day (except for a de minimis amount of time).
(ii)-(viii) (No change).
(c)-(d) (No change).
(a) Dealer Transactions. Each DPM must fulfill all of the obligations of a Market-Maker under the Rules, and must satisfy each of the following requirements in respect of each of the securities allocated to the DPM. To the extent that there is any inconsistency between the specific obligations of a DPM set forth in subparagraphs (a)(i) through (a)(xi) of this Rule and the general obligations of a Market-Maker under the Rules, subparagraphs (a)(i) through (a)(xi) of this Rule will govern. Each DPM must:
(i) provide continuous electronic quotes (as defined in Rule 1.1(ccc)) in at least the lesser of 99% of the non-adjusted option series or 100% of the non-adjusted option series minus one call-put pair, with the term “call-put pair” referring to one call and one put that cover the same underlying instrument and have the same expiration date and exercise price, and assure that its disseminated market quotations are accurate. This obligation does not apply to intra-day add-on series on the day during which such series are added for trading. Compliance with this quoting obligation applies to all of a DPM's allocated classes collectively. The Exchange will determine compliance by a DPM with this quoting obligation on a monthly basis. However, determining compliance with this obligation on a monthly basis does not relieve a DPM from meeting this obligation on a daily basis, nor does it prohibit the Exchange from taking disciplinary action against DPM for failing to meet this obligation each trading day.
(ii)-(x) (No change).
(b)-(e) (No change).
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, and B below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Cboe Options Rules 8.7(d)(ii)(B), 8.13(d), 8.15(b)(i), and 8.85(a)(i) set forth continuous electronic quoting obligations of Market-Makers, Preferred Market-Makers (“PMMs”), Lead Market-Makers (“LMMs”), and Designated Primary Market-Makers (“DPMs”), respectively. Additionally, Rule 1.1(ccc) defines continuous electronic quotes as that term is used in those rules. Rule 8.1 defines a Market-Maker as an individual Trading Permit Holder or a TPH organization that is registered with the Exchange for the purpose of making transactions as a dealer-specialist on the Exchange in accordance with the provisions of Chapter VIII of the Rules. PMMs, LMMs, and DPMs are types of Market-Makers.
Historically, Cboe Options has interpreted the term “Market-Maker” with respect to continuous quoting obligations to apply on an individual basis. This interpretation is consistent with the previous definition of Market-Maker—Cboe Options Rule 8.1 previously defined a Market-Maker as an individual member or nominee of a member organization.
After the Exchange amended its rules to state a Market-Maker may also be a TPH organization, it continued its interpretation of the term “Market-Maker” as referring to an individual Market-Maker with respect to continuous quoting obligations. This is implied by Rule 8.7, Interpretation and Policy .03(B)(i), which states the in-person requirements for Market-Makers in Hybrid 3.0 classes set forth in paragraph (B) may be satisfied by Market-Makers individually or collectively with the Market-Makers of the same TPH organization. In the filing in which the Exchange proposed to adopt that provision, the Exchange indicated it was proposing that provision in response to the Exchange's expansion of the definition of Market-Maker to include TPH organizations.
Cboe Options proposes to modify its interpretation of the term “Market-Maker” with respect to Market-Maker continuous electronic quoting obligations and instead interpret the term Market-Maker in a manner consistent with its definition, which includes both individuals and TPH organizations. Specifically, the proposed rule change amends the above-referenced rules regarding continuous electronic quoting obligations to state Market-Maker (or PMM, LMM, or DPM, as applicable) continuous electronic quoting obligations may be satisfied by Market-Makers either individually or collectively with Market-Makers of the same TPH organization. The Exchange believes it is reasonable to interpret the term Market-Maker with respect to continuous electronic quoting in this manner, as that is consistent with the current definition. The proposed interpretation is consistent with the current structure of TPH organizations registered as Market-Makers (as currently all individual Market-Makers are affiliated with a TPH organization, and thus TPH organizations are ultimately responsible for those Market-Makers) and will ensure a more consistent application of the definition of Market-Maker within the Cboe Rules.
Additionally, the proposed interpretation provides Market-Makers with flexibility to quote in their appointed classes in a manner consistent with their business operations, particularly in classes with a large number of series. For example, the Exchange intends to convert trading of SPX options from the Hybrid 3.0 trading platform to the Hybrid trading system. There are currently over 7,000 series within the SPX option group trading on the Hybrid 3.0 platform, on which Market-Makers may not stream electronic quotes. Upon conversion of SPX to Hybrid, Market-Makers will be able to select electronic appointments in this group and stream electronic quotes, subject to continuous electronic quoting obligations in Rule 8.7(d). Given the large number of SPX series, the Exchange understands a Market-Maker firm may decide to have individuals associated with the firm submit SPX quotes in different series using different acronyms. On an aggregate basis, the quotes submitted through those various acronyms would satisfy the firm's electronic quoting obligations. For example, a Market-Maker firm has acronyms ABC, DEF, and GHI registered for three individuals associated with that firm. The firm's plan is for these individuals to stream quotes in class XYZ as follows: ABC will quote in the near three month series (months one through three), DEF will quote in the middle three month series (months four through six), and GHI will quote in the far three month series (months seven through nine).
Modifying the interpretation of the term Market-Maker to apply on a firm basis with respect to continuous electronic quoting obligations is also consistent with rules of other exchanges. For example, under the rules of Cboe-affiliated options exchanges Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX Options”) and Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc. (“EDGX Options”), a Market-Maker by definition may only be an entity,
While the proposed rule change is a modification of a current interpretation to Exchange rules, the Exchange proposes to include the interpretation in the applicable rules to provide clarity to Market-Makers regarding their obligations.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the proposed interpretation is consistent with the current definition of Market-Maker, which provides a Market-Maker may be an individual or a TPH organization. The proposed interpretation is also consistent with the current structure of TPH organizations registered as Market-Makers (as all individual Market-Makers are currently associated with TPH organizations) and will ensure a more consistent application of the definition of Market-Maker within the Cboe Rules.
The Exchange does not propose to modify continuous electronic quoting
The proposed interpretation removes impediments to and perfects the mechanisms of a free and open market and national market system, because other exchanges (
Cboe Options does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change will not impose any burden on intramarket competition, because the modified interpretation will apply in the same manner to all Market-Makers subject to continuous electronic quoting obligations and is consistent with the current definition of Market-Maker. The Exchange does not propose to modify continuous electronic quoting obligations, and does not believe the proposed modification to the interpretation of the term Market-Maker in those rules will diminish Market-Makers' obligations to provide continuous electronic quotes in a significant percentage of series for a significant part of the trading day, and thus does not impact the balance of Market-Maker obligations and benefits. Rather, the proposed interpretation provides Market-Makers with flexibility to quote in their appointed classes in a manner consistent with their business operations, particularly in classes with a large number of series. The Exchange believes this may benefit efficiency of Market-Makers' quoting operations, particularly in those classes, as they can manage their quoting operations as they deem appropriate based on the nature of their businesses.
The proposed rule change regarding the interpretation of the term Market-Maker will not impose any burden on intermarket competition, because the modified interpretation of the term Market-Maker to mean TPH organization where applicable is consistent with that of other options exchanges, as noted above. Cboe Options is modifying its interpretation of the term Market-Maker with respect to continuous electronic quoting obligations to mean TPH organization where applicable in order to provide greater harmonization between the rules of the Cboe-affiliated Exchanges and simplify the regulatory requirements of Market-Makers subject to Market-Maker continuous electronic quoting obligations across multiple Cboe-affiliated Exchanges. Additionally, the proposed interpretation is consistent with the Exchange's in-person quoting requirements.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The following is a notice of applications for deregistration under section 8(f) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 for the month of March 2018. A copy of each application may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
The Commission: Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Shawn Davis, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6413 or Chief Counsel's Office at (202) 551-6821; SEC, Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-8010.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to create a new Rule 1081, to amend electronic quoting for electronic ROTs, which will be defined to include SQTs, RSQTs, Directed SQTs, Directed RSQTs, Specialists and Remote Specialists.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of this rule change is to reserve the current quoting obligations in Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D) and adopt new Phlx Rule 1081, which is currently reserved, to amend the current obligations of electronic ROTs on Phlx. The Exchange proposes to entitle Phlx Rule 1081, “Electronic Market Maker Obligations and Quoting” and adopt certain rule text similar to NASDAQ BX, Inc. (“BX”) Rules at Chapter VII, Section 5 and quoting obligations similar to BX Rules at Chapter VII, Section 6which [sic] describes the obligations of market makers. The Exchange notes that these obligations apply to quotations by of [sic] SQTs, RSQTs, Directed SQTs, Directed RSQTs, Specialists (hereinafter, “electronic ROTs”) electronically through the Exchange's System.
The Exchange proposes to adopt new sections (a) and (b) of Phlx Rule 1081 to specify the various obligations of electronic ROTs on Phlx. In registering as an electronic ROT, member organization [sic] commits to various obligations. Generally, the Exchange proposes to indicate that an electronic ROT's transactions, in its market making capacity,
Proposed Phlx Rule 1081(a) provides, ordinarily during trading hours,
Similar to BX Rules at Chapter VII, Section 5(c), Phlx proposes in Phlx Rule 1081(b) to provide, “If Phlx Regulation finds any substantial or continued failure to engage in a course of dealings as specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the electronic ROT will be subject to disciplinary action or suspension or revocation of registration in one or more of the securities in which the electronic ROT is registered. Nothing in this rule will limit any other power of the Board under these Rules, or procedures of Phlx with respect to the registration of an ROT or in respect of any violation by an ROT pursuant to this rule.”
The Exchange proposes to amend the current market making quoting obligations at Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D)(1). Currently, Phlx requires that in addition to the other requirements for ROTs set forth in Rule 1014, with some exceptions (
Currently, with respect to a Specialist, Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D)(2) requires the Specialist (including the RSQT functioning as a Remote Specialist in particular options) quote two-sided markets in the lesser of 99% of the series or 100% of the series minus one call-put pair in each option in which such Specialist is assigned. To satisfy the requirement of this subparagraph (D)(2) with respect to quoting a series, the Specialist must quote such series 90% of the trading day (as a percentage of the total number of minutes in such trading day) or such higher percentage as the Exchange may announce in advance. These obligations apply collectively to all appointed issues of the Specialist, rather than on an issue-by-issue basis. Compliance with this obligation is determined on a monthly basis. However, determining compliance with the continuous quoting requirement on a monthly basis does not relieve the Specialist (including the RSQT functioning as a Remote Specialist in particular options) of the obligation to provide continuous two-sided quotes on a daily basis, nor does it prohibit the Exchange from taking disciplinary action against the Specialist (including the RSQT functioning as a Remote Specialist in particular options) for failing to meet the continuous quoting obligation each trading day. Finally, the Exchange may consider exceptions to the requirement to quote 90% (or higher) of the trading day based on demonstrated legal or regulatory requirements or other mitigating circumstances.
Currently, Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D)(3) provides that SQTs, RSQTs and the Specialist assigned in an option shall submit electronic quotations with a size of not less than the minimum number of contracts determined by the Exchange on a class by class basis, which minimum shall be at least one contract. Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D)(4) provides that notwithstanding the foregoing, SQTs, DSQTs, RSQTs
The Exchange proposes to amend its electronic quoting requirements at proposed Phlx Rule 1081(c). The Exchange notes that electronic ROTs must enter bids and offers for the options to which it is registered, except in an assigned options series listed intra-day on the Exchange. The Exchange notes that intra-day [sic] add of a series would be counted the following trading day (next business day after the intra-day add of a series was listed) when the option series would be available for a full trading day.
Further, the proposed rule text notes, as is the case today, on a daily basis an SQT and RSQT would be obligated to meet certain quoting requirements. An SQT or RSQT who is also the Specialist will be held to the Specialist obligations in options series in which the Specialist is assigned and will be held to SQT and RSQT obligations in all other options series where assigned. An SQT or RSQT who receives a Directed Order shall be held to the standard of a Directed SQT or Directed RSQT, as appropriate. This is the case today, although the current rule text does not state specifically that each obligation is separate. The Exchange's proposed rule text at Phlx Rule 1081(c) is not contained in the current rule, but is the current practice on Phlx. This additional detail is being added to the text of the proposed rule to further clarify the manner in which the quoting obligations are applied.
With respect to electronic ROTs, similar to the existing Phlx language at Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D)(3), the Exchange proposes to continue to require the best bid and best offer entered by an electronic ROT to have a size of not less than the minimum number of contracts determined by the Exchange on a class by class basis, which minimum shall be at least one (1) contract. Further, the rule text specifies at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(i) that an electronic ROT's bid and offer for a series of options contracts shall be accompanied by the number of contracts at that price the electronic ROT is willing to buy or sell.
The Exchange proposes language at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii) that requires an electronic ROT that enters a bid (offer) in a series of an option in which he is registered on Phlx to enter an offer (bid).
Proposed Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(A) provides that SQTs and RSQTs, associated with the same member organization, are collectively required to provide two-sided quotations in 60% of the cumulative number of seconds, or such higher percentage as Phlx may announce in advance, for which that member organization's assigned options series are open for trading. The Exchange includes proposed rule text at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(D), which provides that the obligation at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(A) would be calculated by (i) taking the total number of seconds the member organization disseminates quotes in each assigned options series, excluding Quarterly Option Series, any Adjusted Option Series, and any option series with an expiration of nine months or greater for SQTs, RSQTs, Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs; and (ii) dividing that time by the eligible total number of seconds each assigned option series is open for trading that day. SQTs and RSQTs would not be required to quote Quarterly Option Series, any Adjusted Options Series, and any option series with an expiration of nine months or greater. Further, the rule text notes that quoting is not required in every assigned options series. Compliance with this requirement is determined by reviewing the aggregate of quoting in assigned options series for the member organization.
The current Phlx rule requires SQTs and RSQTs to quote 60% of the series 90% of the trading day.
The Exchange is defining an Adjusted Options Series as an option series wherein one option contract in the series represents the delivery of other than 100 shares of underlying stock or Exchange-Traded Fund Shares. This definition at Proposed Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(A)(i) is the same definition that is currently in Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D)(4).
Proposed Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(B) provides that Specialists (including Remote Specialists), associated with the same member organization, are collectively required to provide two-sided quotations in 90% of the cumulative number of seconds, or such higher percentage as Phlx may announce in advance, for which that member organization's assigned options series are open for trading. The Exchange includes proposed rule text at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(D), which provides that the obligation at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(B) would be calculated by (i) taking the total number of seconds the member organization disseminates quotes in each assigned options series; and (ii) dividing that time by the eligible total number of seconds each assigned option series is open for trading that day. Further, the rule text notes that quoting is not required in every assigned options series.
This is an amendment from the current Phlx requirement which requires a Specialist to quote two-sided markets in the lesser of 99% of the series or 100% of the series minus one call-put pair in each option in which the Specialist is assigned. Today, the Specialist must quote such series 90% of the trading day (as a percentage of the total number of minutes in such trading day) or such higher percentage as the Exchange may announce in advance.
Today, Phlx Rule 1014(b)(ii)(D)(4) provides an exception from the quoting obligations in Quarterly Option Series, Adjusted Options Series, and any option series until the time for expiration for such series is less than nine months, for SQTs, DSQTs, RSQTs, and DRSQTs. This exception does not apply to Specialists or Remote Specialists because they are not listed as an excepted class. The Exchange's proposal continues to require Specialists and Remote Specialists to quote in Quarterly Option Series, Adjusted Options Series, and any option series until the time for expiration for such series is less than nine months where assigned.
Proposed Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(C) provides Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs, associated with the same member organization, are collectively required to provide two-sided quotations in 90% of the cumulative number of seconds, or such higher percentage as Phlx may announce in advance, for which that member organization's assigned options series are open for trading. The Exchange includes proposed rule text at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(D), which provides that the obligation at Phlx Rule 1081(c)(ii)(C) would be calculated by (i) taking the total number of seconds the member organization disseminates quotes in each assigned options series, excluding Quarterly Option Series, any Adjusted Options Series, and any option series with an expiration of nine months or greater for SQTs, RSQTs, Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs; and (ii) dividing that time by the eligible total number of seconds each assigned option series is open for trading that day. Further, the rule text notes that quoting is not required in every assigned options series.
The proposed provisions amend the current Phlx requirement which requires a Directed ROT to quote two-sided markets in the lesser of 99% of the series listed on the Exchange or 100% of the series listed on the Exchange minus one call-put pair, in each case in at least 60% of the options in which such DSQT or DRSQT is assigned. Whenever a DSQT or DRSQT enters a quotation in an option in which such DSQT or DRSQT is assigned, such DSQT or DRSQT must maintain until the close of that trading day quotations for the lesser of 99% of the series of the option listed on the Exchange or 100% of the series of the option listed on the Exchange minus one call-put pair. The Exchange desires to lower the requirement to conform to BX's requirement for Directed Market Makers in BX Rules at Chapter VII, Section 15(iii). The Exchange notes that Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs continue to have heightened quoting requirements as compared to electronic ROTs, which heightened obligations allow for the Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs to receive certain participation rights.
For purposes of the quoting obligations specified in proposed Rule 1081(c)(ii)(C) a member organization shall be considered directed in all assigned options once the member organization receives a Directed Order in any option in which they are
As is the case today, Phlx Regulation may consider exceptions to the above-referenced requirement to quote based on demonstrated legal or regulatory requirements or other mitigating circumstances. For purposes of the Exchange's surveillance of member organization compliance with this rule, the Exchange may determine compliance on a monthly basis. The Exchange's monthly compliance evaluation of the quoting requirement does not relieve a member organization of the obligation to provide two-sided quotes on a daily basis, nor will it prohibit the Exchange from taking disciplinary action against a member organization for failing to meet the quoting obligation each trading day.
Example for calculating quoting for an electronic ROT:
Market Maker firm A (“MM A”) has Badges 1, 2 and 3. MM A has permission to quote underlying U which has options U1, U2, U3, U4, and U5. MM A also has permission to quote underlyings V and W.
The Total quote percentage for MM A is:
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that its proposed rule change provides further detail as to obligations of electronic ROTs on Phlx. The Exchange's proposed obligations, which are similar to BX Rules at Chapter VII, Section 5, delineate examples of the type of activity that constitutes a course of dealings reasonably calculated to contribute to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market. This proposal is consistent with the Act because it removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by
With respect to the quoting obligations, the Exchange's proposal seeks to conform the quoting obligations to that of BX's Rules.
The Exchange's proposal that SQTs and RSQTs, associated with the same member organization, are collectively required to provide two-sided quotations in 60% of the cumulative number of seconds, or such higher percentage as Phlx may announce in advance, for which that member organization's assigned options series are open for trading seeks to promote just and equitable principles of trade, and to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities by aligning Phlx's Rules with quoting obligations on BX. The Exchange notes that electronic ROTs are required to abide by the Exchange's obligations in order to contribute to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market.
The proposal supports the quality of the Exchange's market by helping to ensure that electronic ROTs will continue to be obligated to quote in a percentage of their assigned series. Ultimately, the benefit the proposed rule change confers upon electronic ROTs is offset by the continued responsibilities to provide significant liquidity to the market to the benefit of market participants. Despite the reduction, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule text is consistent with the Act because the quoting obligations are similar to quoting obligations on BX today.
Further, the Exchange's proposal to amend the quoting obligations for Specialists and electronic Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs is consistent with the Act because despite lowering the current obligations, the Exchange continues to impose higher quoting obligations on Specialists and electronic Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs as compared to SQTs and RSQTs because they are entitled to certain allocation benefits that other ROTs are not entitled to today. Phlx Rule 1014(g)(vii) provides for the allocation method for electronic ROTs on Phlx after the Specialist Participation Entitlement has been applied and Phlx Rule 1014(g)(viii) provides for the allocation method in the case of directed orders to the electronic Directed SQT and Directed RSQT, and such allocation will depend on the number of electronic ROTs present. The Specialist receives an entitlement after all Customer orders have been fully executed provided the Specialist's bid/offer is at or improves on the Exchange's disseminated price and up to the Specialist's displayed size.
Finally the proposed rule text serves to provide more specificity to members regarding the manner in which quoting obligations are calculated.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Electronic ROTs will continue to be entitled to certain allocations, similar to today. Electronic ROTs, unlike other market participants, have obligations which the Exchange has memorialized within the proposed rule text. The Exchange believes that treating Electronic ROTs differently than other market participants does not impose an undue burden on competition because Electronic ROTs provide liquidity to the market which benefits market participants who interact with that liquidity. The Exchange requires Electronic ROTs today to maintain fair and orderly markets. The Exchange believes the allocation benefits are commensurate with the quoting obligations imposed on Electronic ROTs. Additionally, the Exchange believes that the varying quoting requirements as between electronic ROTs and Specialists and electronic Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs does not impose an undue burden on competition because while electronic ROTs will be subject to lower quoting requirements as compared to Specialists and electronic Directed SQTs and Directed RSQTs, they will also be entitled to lower allocations.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's provisions for excluding a day from its volume calculations for purposes of determining volume based pricing.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's provisions for excluding a day from its volume calculations for purposes of determining volume based pricing. The Exchange is standardizing its practice for removing a day from volume calculations in the fee schedule with its affiliated options exchanges, Nasdaq ISE, LLC (“ISE), Nasdaq GEMX, LLC (“GEMX”), and Nasdaq MRX, LLC (“MRX”) (collectively, the “Nasdaq ISE Markets”).
To avoid penalizing members when aberrant low volume days result from systems or other issues at the Exchange, or where the Exchange closes early for holiday observance, the Exchange has language in its pricing schedule allowing it to exclude certain days from its average daily volume (“ADV”) or other volume calculations. Currently, language in the Exchange's pricing schedule provides that, for purposes of determining average daily volume or volume-based pricing, any day that the market is not open for the entire trading day will be excluded from such calculation. The Exchange proposes to adopt language for Phlx options
The Nasdaq ISE Markets adopted the language on instructing members to route away to prevent situations where days that have artificially lower volume could not be excluded, for example, because the exchange experienced an issue in the morning that did not carry over into the trading day. Like the Nasdaq ISE Markets, the Exchange believes that it should have the flexibility to exclude days if members have been instructed to send their orders elsewhere, regardless of whether the issue that resulted in this instruction ultimately impacts the availability of the Exchange for trading.
In addition, to avoid penalizing members that step up and trade on a day that the Exchange is experiencing difficulties, the Nasdaq ISE Markets only remove days from their ADV calculations for members that would have a lower ADV or percentage of industry volume with the day included. This provision would also be helpful on the Exchange as it would ensure that members that continue to execute a large volume of contracts are not inadvertently disadvantaged when the Exchange removes a day from its ADV calculation.
Furthermore, the proposed language applies to ADV calculations or calculation based on a percentage of industry volume, and not for other volume-based pricing, as members do not benefit when a day is removed for straight volume accumulations. Again, the Exchange believes that the approach of the Nasdaq ISE Markets would be beneficial for the Exchange as it counts volume executed during an excluded day for purposes of straight volume accumulations. Unlike the Nasdaq ISE Markets, however, the Exchange has fees that are based on a percentage of industry volume. As such, the Exchange is including language in its rule that accounts for these calculations by explicitly mentioning that days may be removed from these calculations, and including language that explains that the day will be moved from both the numerator of the calculation and the denominator of the calculation. Removing the day from both the numerator and denominator of the calculation will ensure that members benefit from this rule as removing the day from the numerator only (
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is reasonable and equitable as it provides a new framework for removing days from the Exchange's volume calculations that the Exchange believes is beneficial to members and consistent with similar provisions already in place on its affiliated options exchanges, with the one exception described above for fees based on a percentage of industry volume. The proposed rule change would allow the Exchange to remove a day from its ADV calculations in more circumstances,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is designed to standardize the Exchange's practice for removing days from its ADV calculations with its affiliated options exchanges, with one exception that accounts for fees based on a percentage of industry volume. The Exchange believes that the proposed modifications to its ADV calculations are pro-competitive and will result in lower total costs to end users, a positive outcome of competitive markets. The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct their order flow to competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and rebates to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed fee changes reflect this competitive environment.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-Phlx-2018-27 and should be submitted on
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On October 11, 2017, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange” or “NYSE Arca”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade Shares of the Fund under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares. The Fund is a series of the Hartford Funds Exchange-Traded Trust (“Trust”), which is registered with the Commission as an open-end management investment company.
Hartford Funds Management Company, LLC (“Manager”) will be the investment manager to the Fund, and Schroder Investment Management North America Inc. (“Sub-Adviser”) will be the sub-adviser to the Fund and perform the daily investment of the assets for the Fund.
According to the Exchange, the Fund will seek total return on an after-tax basis and will seek to achieve its investment objective by investing in a diversified portfolio of fixed income debt instruments of varying maturities.
Under normal market conditions,
The fixed income debt instruments in which the Fund may invest as part of its principal investment strategy are securities issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government and its agencies, government-sponsored enterprise securities, corporate bonds, agency mortgage-backed securities (including “to be announced” or “TBA” transactions), agency asset-backed securities (“ABS”), “Municipal Securities” (as described below), sovereign debt, and debt securities issued by supranational organizations. They may pay fixed, variable, or floating interest rates.
The Fund may invest in the following Municipal Securities: General obligation bonds, revenue (or limited obligation) bonds, private activity (or industrial development) bonds, bonds that are collateralized with agency and/or
While the Fund, under normal market conditions, will invest principally in the securities and financial instruments described above, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in the securities and financial instruments described below.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign non-agency ABS, which are securities backed by a pool of some underlying asset, including but not limited to home equity loans, installment sale contracts, credit card receivables, or other assets.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign non-agency mortgage-related securities. Mortgage-related securities may be composed of one or more classes and may be structured either as pass-through securities or collateralized debt obligations (which include collateralized bond obligations and collateralized loan obligations).
The Fund may invest in U.S. exchange-traded closed-end funds and exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”).
The Fund may engage actively in transactions in derivatives (futures, options, swaps, and forward rate agreements) as described below. The Fund will normally use derivatives to supplement the effective management of its duration profile, to gain exposure to particular securities or markets, in connection with hedging transactions, or for purposes of efficient portfolio management, including managing cash flows or as part of the Fund's risk management process.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign exchange-traded and OTC put and call options. The Fund may engage in options transactions on any security, index, or instrument in which it may invest.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign exchange-traded and OTC currency options.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign exchange-traded futures contracts and options on futures contracts with respect to equity and debt securities, foreign currencies, aggregates of equity and debt securities (aggregates are composites of equity or debt securities that are not tied to a commonly known index), interest rates, indices, commodities, and other financial instruments.
The Fund may enter into the following U.S. exchange-traded, foreign exchange-traded, and OTC swaps: Commodity swaps; total return swaps; currency swaps; credit default swaps (“CDS”); CDS index swaps (“CDX”); asset swaps; inflation swaps; event-linked swaps; interest rate swaps; swaps on specific securities or indices; and swaps on rates (such as mortgage prepayment rates). The Fund may invest in U.S. exchange-traded and OTC municipal derivatives (
The Fund may enter into forward rate agreements.
The Fund may invest in inflation-protected debt securities.
The Fund may hold fixed income restricted securities, which are securities that cannot be offered for public resale unless registered under the applicable securities laws or that have a contractual restriction that prohibits or limits their resale.
With respect to any of the Fund's investments, the Fund may invest in when-issued and delayed delivery securities and forward commitments.
The Exchange represents that the Fund's investments will be consistent with its investment goal and will not be used to provide multiple returns of a benchmark or to produce leveraged returns.
With respect to the Fund's investments in Municipal Securities, under normal market conditions, except for periods of high cash inflows or outflows,
1. The Fund will have a minimum of 20 non-affiliated issuers;
2. No single Municipal Securities issuer will account for more than 10% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio;
3. No individual bond will account for more than 5% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio;
4. The Fund will limit its investments in Municipal Securities of any one state or U.S. territory to 25% of the Fund's total assets, except that up to and including 40% of the Fund's total assets may be invested in Municipal Securities of issuers in each of California, New York, and Texas;
5. The Fund's investments in Municipal Securities will be diversified among issuers in at least 10 states and U.S. territories; and
6. The Fund will be diversified among a minimum of five different sectors of the Municipal Securities market.
The Exchange states that pre-refunded bonds will be excluded from the above limits given that they have a high level of credit quality and liquidity.
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, which includes generic listing requirements for Managed Fund Shares. According to the Exchange, the Fund's portfolio will not meet all of the generic listing requirements of Commentary .01 to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. Specifically, the Exchange states that the Fund's portfolio will meet all such requirements except for those set forth in Commentary .01(b)(1) with respect to Municipal Securities.
Commentary .01(b)(1) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E requires that, on both an initial and continuing basis, components that in the aggregate account for at least 75% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio each have a minimum original principal amount outstanding of $100 million or more. The Exchange states that the Fund would not meet this requirement, as a
The Exchange represents that, other than Commentary .01(b)(1) with respect to Municipal Securities, the Fund's portfolio will meet all other requirements of NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 3, is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
As noted above, the Fund's investments in Municipal Securities would not comply with Commentary .01(b)(1) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange represents that the Fund would invest in various types of fixed income debt instruments, including Municipal Securities. According to the Exchange, permitting the Shares to be listed and traded on the Exchange, notwithstanding that, as a result principally of the Fund's investments in Municipal Securities, the Fund would not comply with Commentary .01(b)(1), would provide the Fund with greater ability to select from a broad range of fixed income securities that would support the Fund's investment goal.
The Commission notes that, as proposed, under normal market conditions, except for periods of high cash inflows or outflows, the Fund will satisfy the following criteria with respect to Municipal Securities: (1) The Fund will have a minimum of 20 non-affiliated issuers; (2) no single Municipal Securities issuer will account for more than 10% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio; (3) no individual bond will account for more than 5% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio; (4) the Fund will limit its investments in Municipal Securities of any one state or U.S. territory to 25% of the Fund's total assets, except that up to and including 40% of the Fund's total assets may be invested in Municipal Securities of issuers in each of California, New York, and Texas; (5) the Fund's investments in Municipal Securities will be diversified among issuers in at least 10 states and U.S. territories; and (6) the Fund will be diversified among a minimum of five different sectors of the Municipal Securities market.
The Commission also finds that the proposal is consistent with Section 11A(a)(1)(C)(iii) of the Act,
Quotation and last sale information for ETFs will be available via the CTA high-speed line, and from the national securities exchanges on which they are listed. U.S. exchange-traded options quotation and last sale information is available via the Options Price Reporting Authority. Foreign exchange-traded options, U.S. and foreign exchange-traded futures contracts and options on futures contracts, U.S. and foreign exchange-traded swaps (if applicable), and exchange-traded municipal derivatives price information is available from the applicable U.S. or foreign exchange and major market data vendors. Quotation information from brokers and dealers or pricing services will be available for Municipal Securities. Price information for money market funds and other investment company securities (other than ETFs) will be available from the applicable investment company's website and from market data vendors. Pricing information regarding fixed income debt instruments, cash equivalents, OTC options, OTC swaps, swaptions, restricted securities, non-agency ABS, non-agency mortgage-related securities, forward rate agreements, OTC municipal derivatives, CDX, and inflation-protected debt securities will generally be available through nationally recognized data service providers through subscription agreements. One source of price information for municipal securities is the Electronic Municipal Market Access, which is administered by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
In addition, the Fund's website will include the Fund's prospectus and additional data relating to net asset value (“NAV”) and other applicable quantitative information.
The Commission also believes that the proposal is reasonably designed to promote fair disclosure of information that may be necessary to price the Shares appropriately and to prevent trading when a reasonable degree of transparency cannot be assured. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio (as defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(2)) will be made available to all market participants at the same time. Trading in the Shares will be halted if the circuit-breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E have been reached. Trading also may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. Moreover, trading in the Shares will be subject to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which the Shares may be halted.
The Exchange states that it has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees. The Exchange states that neither the Manager nor the Sub-Adviser is registered as a broker-dealer, but each is affiliated with a broker-dealer. The Exchange states that the Manager and Sub-Adviser each has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to such broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition of and/or changes to the Fund's portfolio.
The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. In support of this proposal, the Exchange represents that:
(1) Other than Commentary .01(b)(1) with respect to Municipal Securities, the Fund will meet all the requirements of NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Fund's investments in Municipal Securities will be subject to the requirements described in Section II.C. above.
(2) A minimum of 100,000 Shares will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange.
(3) Trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, or by regulatory staff of the Exchange, and these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and federal securities laws applicable to trading on the Exchange.
(4) The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, ETFs, exchange-traded closed-end funds, exchange-traded municipal derivatives, certain exchange-traded options, and certain exchange-traded futures with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group, and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading in the Shares, ETFs, exchange-traded closed-end funds, exchange-traded municipal derivatives, certain exchange-traded options, and certain exchange-traded futures from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares, ETFs, exchange-traded closed-end funds, exchange-traded municipal derivatives, certain exchange-traded options, and certain exchange-traded futures from markets and other entities with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to FINRA's Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine. FINRA also can access data obtained from the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board relating to municipal bond trading activity for surveillance purposes in connection with trading in the Shares.
(5) Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Bulletin will discuss: (a) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in creation unit aggregations (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (b) NYSE Arca Rule 9.2-E(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its Equity Trading Permit Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (c) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Early and Late Trading Sessions when an updated iNAV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (d) how information regarding the iNAV and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (e) the requirement that Equity Trading Permit Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (f) trading information.
(6) The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions.
(7) For initial and continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act.
(8) The Fund's investments will be consistent with its investment goal and will not be used to provide multiple returns of a benchmark or to produce leveraged returns.
The Exchange represents that all statements and representations made in the filing regarding: (1) The description of the portfolio or reference asset; (2) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets; or (3) the applicability of Exchange listing rules specified in the rule filing constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange. In addition, the issuer must notify the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor
This approval order is based on all of the Exchange's statements and representations, including those set forth above and in Amendment No. 3.
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 3, is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning whether Amendment No. 3 is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 3, prior to the thirtieth day after the date of publication of notice of the filing of Amendment No. 3 in the
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the rules of the Nasdaq Options Market LLC (“NOM”), at Chapter VIII, Exercises and Deliveries.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to correct Chapter VIII, Exercises and Deliveries, Section 1, Exercise of Options Contracts, to clarify the requirements for delivery of a Contrary Exercise Advice. Section 1(b) currently provides that option holders desiring to exercise or not exercise expiring options must either (i) take no action and allow exercise determinations to be made in accordance with the Options Clearing Corporation's Ex-by-Ex procedure where applicable, or (ii) submit a “Contrary Exercise Advice” to the Options Clearing Corporation through the participant's clearing firm. In actual practice, however, an option holder delivers a Contrary Exchange Advice to the Exchange, not to the Options Clearing Corporation. The Exchange therefore proposes to replace the words “Options Clearing Corporation through the participants clearing firm” in Section 1(b)(ii) with a reference to the Exchange and make similar, conforming changes to Section 1(e)(i). As amended, Section 1(b) would be consistent with Nasdaq ISE Rule 1100(b) which directs option holders to submit Contrary Exercise Advices to the Exchange (not to the Options Clearing Corporation).
The Exchange proposes to further replace the words “by the deadline specified in paragraph (d) below” with the words “as specified in paragraph (d) below” given that paragraph (d) contains a number of requirements associated with submission of Contrary Exercise Advices in addition to the deadline. As revised, Section (b)(ii) tracks the language of ISE Rule 1100(b)(ii) which permits an options holder desiring to exercise or not
Finally, the Exchange proposes to make a number of nonsubstantive revisions to Chapter VIII which are designed simply to facilitate administration of the rules. References to “NOM” and to “Nasdaq Regulation” are proposed to be replaced with references to “the Exchange.”
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule changes will apply equally to all option holders desiring to exercise options under the NOM rules. Further, the proposed changes merely correct an incorrect reference to OCC and conform the wording of the rule more closely to that of a NOM rule for the sake of administrative convenience. The Exchange does not intend for or expect that such changes will have any impact on competition.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Department of State.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the Department of State has forwarded the attached Notifications of Proposed Export Licenses to the Congress on the dates indicated on the attachments.
Mr. Anthony M. Dearth Directorate of Defense Trade Controls, Department of State, telephone (202) 663-2836; e-mail
Pursuant to sections 36(c) and 36(d), and in compliance with section 36(f), of the Arms Export Control Act. Section 36(f) of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) mandates that notifications to the Congress pursuant to sections 36(c) and 36(d) must be published in a timely manner in the
Following are such notifications to the Congress:
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $50,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the continued export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the operational support, maintenance, and overhaul of F110-GE-100/100B/129/129B/129C/129D/129E/132/132A aircraft engines, used in F-15 and F-16 aircraft to the Republic of Turkey.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and components abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of various machine guns and spare barrels to the United Arab Emirates.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of M16A4 rifles, spare parts, accessories, and training to the United Arab Emirates.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of technical data, defense services, and manufacturing know-how to the Republic of Korea to support the design and manufacture of Controllable Pitch Propellers and Shafting Systems for the Korean KDX-III Batch II Destroyer program.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and components abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of M4A1 carbines with flash and sound suppressors, associated components and equipment to the Republic of Tunisia.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of 50,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to United Arab Emirates to establish a Patriot Weapon System Additional Equipment and Spares Program.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms and accessories controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of pistols to El Salvador.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) and 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad and the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $50,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to support the manufacture and maintenance of South Korea's T-50 aircraft program for ultimate end-use by the Kingdom of Thailand, Royal Air Force.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) and (d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of proposed license amendment for export for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad and the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data and defense services to support the establishment of an F-35 aircraft Final Assembly and Checkout (FACO) facility in Nagoya, Japan for end-use by the Japan Air Self Defense Force.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of M1500 bolt action rifles in various calibers and accessories to Argentina for commercial resale.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of 5.56mm carbines with extra magazines and parts to Malaysia.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of semi-automatic rifles, semi-automatic pistols, and magazines to Peru.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting, certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to the United Kingdom for the manufacture and assembly of F135 engine parts and components.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Sections 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $14,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the procurement of CH-47F (SG) Chinook helicopters and associated spare parts, support equipment, defense articles, and services for end-use by the Ministry of Defence, Republic of Singapore.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license amendment for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles to Australia to support the P-8 Production, Sustainment, and Follow-on Development Memorandum of Understanding.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of light machine guns with spare barrels, ammunition, and accessories to Indonesia.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $25,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of 2000 lb. Tritonal filled MK84 bombs to the Government of Israel.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of fully automatic rifles, semi-automatic pistols, and silencers with extra magazines and accessories to Indonesia.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of 9mm semi-automatic pistols to Canada.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to the United Kingdom and Germany to support the integration, installation, operation, testing, and use of Inertial Measurement Units in the Paveway Program.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts and components abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of rifles and accessories to Bahrain.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license amendment for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $50,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of Inertial Measurement Units to be Republic of Korea for integration into 2.75 inch guided rockets for end-use by the United Arab Emirates Armed Forces.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services, in the amount of $50,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of Intelligence and Surveillance Aircraft and associated Ground Stations to the Republic of Algeria.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of Model 249, 5.56 caliber machine guns, Model M2 HB QCB, .50 caliber machine guns, and accessories to the United Arab Emirates.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though
Pursuant to Section 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of technical data, defense services, and manufacturing know-how to the Republic of Korea to support the design and manufacture of Programmers and Digital Cockpit Display Units for ALE-47(V) Threat Adaptive Countermeasures Dispenser System (TACDS) to be used in Korean Utility Helicopters of the South Korean Army.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of technical data, defense services, and manufacturing know-how to Canada to support the manufacture and delivery of constituent material of plasma spray powder for use in certain U.S. military ceramic coatings.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearm parts and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of 5.56mm upper receiver assemblies, barrel assemblies, and accessories to the United Arab Emirates.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms parts and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of M60 and M2HB machine guns, MK19 grenade machine guns, and associated components for the Tunisian Ministry of Defense.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations,
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data and defense services to Australia to support the depot level maintenance of F404-GE-400 engines installed on F-18 aircraft.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms, parts, and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of automatic carbines, M16A1 rifles, grenade launcher, sound and flash suppressors, scopes, maintenance training, and parts and accessories for Bahrain.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, defense services in the amount of $50,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data and defense services to Saudi Arabia in support of the assembly and integration of cannons onto weapons stations for further integration onto pickup trucks and patrol boats for end-use by the Ministry of Interior, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearm parts and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of Machine Gun Reflex Sights to Jordan.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) and (d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad and the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to Japan to support the manufacture, integration, installation and assembly of the Japanese Patriot PAC-3 missile program.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to Canada to support the design, development, demonstration, qualification, assembly, manufacture, processing, analysis, test, and modification of Tube-launched, Optically-tracked, Wirelessly-guided (TOW) Launch Motor propellant for the TOW Weapon System.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Sections 36 (c) and 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, we are transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad and the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the manufacture of F404 and F414 aircraft engine components in Canada to supply General Electric Aviation's production lines in the United States.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) and 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, we are transmitting certification of proposed license amendment for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the manufacture of PAC-3 Missile Segment Command and Launch System for the Japanese PATRIOT Growth Program.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services in the amount of $100,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to Japan to support the integration, installation, operation, training, testing, maintenance, and repair of KC-767 tanker.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(d) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services for the manufacture of significant military equipment abroad.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services to the Republic of Korea to support the manufacture, integration, installation, and testing of the Electro-Optical Tracking System II.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Pursuant to Section 36(c) of the Arms Export Control Act, I am transmitting certification of a proposed license for the export of firearms parts, and accessories abroad controlled under Category I of the United States Munitions List in the amount of $1,000,000 or more.
The transaction contained in the attached certification involves the export of various caliber finished replacement barrels and various caliber rifle barrel blanks for commercial resale to Canada.
The United States government is prepared to license the export of these items having taken into account political, military, economic, human rights, and arms control considerations.
More detailed information is contained in the formal certification which, though unclassified, contains business information submitted to the Department of State by the applicant, publication of which could cause competitive harm to the United States firm concerned.
Department of State.
Notice of meeting.
Notice is hereby given of a business roundtable meeting with U.S. and Japanese industry. The meeting will take place on Monday, April 23, 2018, at the U.S. Department of State (2201 C Street NW, Washington, DC 20520). The meeting will be on the U.S.-Japan Infrastructure Partnership in Third Countries. The partnership is intended to assist U.S. and Japanese industry to expand business opportunities in the Indo-Pacific region and to help Indo-Pacific nations secure quality, best value infrastructure that meets their social and economic goals. This roundtable discussion advances our decision under the U.S.-Japan Economic Dialogue to strengthen U.S.-Japan public and private sector partnerships on third country infrastructure projects.
Members of the public may participate in the meeting, subject to meeting room capacity and the instructions of the Chair. Registration will begin promptly at 8:00 a.m. and the meeting is expected to last approximately nine hours. An RSVP is required by 5:00 p.m. on Friday, April 13. To request more information about the meeting or the partnership, to RSVP, and to make any requests for reasonable accommodation, email
The meeting will be held April 23, 2018. Please RSVP and submit any requests for reasonable accommodation by April 13, 2018.
Ms. Heather Dresser, Foreign Affairs Officer, Office of Japan Affairs, email:
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice with request for comments.
The Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) is providing notice that on March 14, 2018, the United States requested consultations with India under the
Although USTR will accept any comments received during the course of
USTR strongly prefers electronic submissions made through the Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Assistant General Counsel Ross Bidlingmaier (202) 395-9409 or David Lee (202) 395-9511.
USTR is providing notice that consultations have been requested pursuant to the WTO
On March 14, 2018, the United States requested consultations concerning certain Indian export subsidies provided through: (1) The Export Oriented Units Scheme and sector specific schemes, including Electronics Hardware Technology Parks Scheme, (2) the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme, (3) the Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme, (4) Special Economic Zones, and (5) a duty-free imports for exporters program.
The United States alleges that India is providing prohibited export subsidies contrary to Articles 3.1(a) and 3.2 of the
USTR invites written comments concerning the issues raised in this dispute. All submissions must be in English and sent electronically via
To submit comments via
The
For any comments submitted electronically containing business confidential information, the file name of the business confidential version should begin with the characters “BC”. Any page containing business confidential information must be clearly marked “BUSINESS CONFIDENTIAL” on the top of that page and the submission should clearly indicate, via brackets, highlighting, or other means, the specific information that is business confidential. If you request business confidential treatment, you must certify in writing that disclosure of the information would endanger trade secrets or profitability, and that the information would not customarily be released to the public. Filers of submissions containing business confidential information also must submit a public version of their comments. The file name of the public version should begin with the character “P”. The “BC” and “P” should be followed by the name of the person or entity submitting the comments or rebuttal comments. If these procedures are not sufficient to protect business confidential information or otherwise protect business interests, please contact Sandy McKinzy at (202) 395-9483 to discuss whether alternative arrangements are possible.
USTR may determine that information or advice contained in a comment, other than business confidential information, is confidential in accordance with section 135(g)(2) of the Trade Act of 1974 (19 U.S.C. 2155(g)(2)). If a submitter believes that information or advice is confidential, s/he must clearly designate the information or advice as confidential and mark it as “SUBMITTED IN CONFIDENCE” at the top and bottom of the cover page and each succeeding page, and provide a non-confidential summary of the information or advice.
Pursuant to section 127(e) of the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (19 U.S.C. 3537(e)), USTR will maintain a docket on this dispute settlement proceeding, docket number USTR-2018-0004, accessible to the public at
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice and request for comment.
The FAA proposes to rule and invite public comment on the release of land at the South Valley Regional Airport, Salt Lake City, UT.
Comments must be received on or before May 7, 2018.
Comments on this application may be mailed or delivered to the FAA at the following address: Mr. John P. Bauer, Manager, Federal Aviation Administration, Northwest Mountain Region, Airports Division, Denver Airports District Office, 26805 E 68th Avenue, Suite 224, Denver, CO 80249-6361.
In addition, one copy of any comments submitted to the FAA must
Mr. Marc Miller, Colorado State Engineer/Compliance Specialist, Federal Aviation Administration, Northwest Mountain Region, Denver Airports District Office, 26805 E 68th Avenue, Suite 224, Denver, CO 80249-6361, (303) 342-1282.
The request to release property may be reviewed, by appointment, in person at this same location.
The FAA invites public comment on the request to release property at the South Valley Regional Airport under the provisions of the AIR 21 (49 U.S.C. 47107(h)(2)).
On March 23, 2018, the FAA determined that the request to release property at the South Valley Regional Airport submitted by the Salt Lake City Department of Airports meets the procedural requirements of the Federal Aviation Administration.
The following is a brief overview of the request:
The Salt Lake City Department of Airports is proposing the release from the terms, conditions, reservations, and restrictions on approximately 4.26 acres of federally obligated land at the South Valley Regional Airport. A small portion of the New Bingham Highway will be re-routed from inside of the Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) to the outside and west of the RPZ. This portion of the New Bingham Highway, now inside the RPZ, will be vacated and turned over to airport ownership and maintenance. An additional action is to improve and widen the existing 7800 South Right-of-way. Slivers of land will be needed to accommodate the proposed street widening improvements through this area (0.903 acres) and is included in the overall land release request.
The property release conveyance will include appropriate continuing right of flight and continuing restriction clauses that will prohibit any activity on the land that would interfere with or be a hazard to the flight of aircraft over the land or to and from the airport, or that interferes with air navigation and communications facilities serving the airport.
Any person may inspect, by appointment, the request in person at the FAA office listed above under
In addition, any person may, upon appointment and request, inspect the application, notice and other documents germane to the application in person at the Salt Lake City Department of Airports.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Noise Exposure Map notice and receipt of Noise Compatibility Program and request for review.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces its determination that the Noise Exposure Maps submitted by the Jackson Hole Airport Board for the Jackson Hole Airport in Jackson, Wyoming, under the provisions of the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act and FAA's ensuing regulations, are in compliance with applicable requirements. The FAA also announces that it is reviewing a proposed Noise Compatibility Program that was submitted for the Jackson Hole Airport under FAA's regulations in conjunction with the Noise Exposure Maps, and that this program will be approved or disapproved on or before September 19, 2018.
The applicability date of the FAA's determination on the Noise Exposure Maps and of the start of its review of the associated Noise Compatibility Program is March 23, 2018. The public comment period ends May 22, 2018.
Ms. Kandice Krull at the Federal Aviation Administration, Denver Airports District Office, 26805 E 68th Ave, Suite 224, Denver, Colorado 80249-6361, Telephone 303-342-1261, Email
This notice announces that the FAA finds that the Noise Exposure Maps submitted for the Jackson Hole Airport are in compliance with applicable requirements of Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 150, applicable March 23, 2018. Furthermore, FAA is reviewing a proposed Noise Compatibility Program for the Jackson Hole Airport that which be approved or disapproved on or before September 19, 2018. This notice also announces the availability of this Program for public review and comment.
Under 49 U.S.C., section 47503, Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act (the Act), an airport operator may submit to the FAA Noise Exposure Maps which meet applicable regulations and which depict non-compatible land uses as of the date of submission of such maps, a description of projected aircraft operations, and the ways in which such operations will affect such maps. The Act requires such maps to be developed in consultation with interested parties in the local community, government agencies, and persons using the airport.
An airport operator who has submitted Noise Exposure Maps that are found by FAA to be in compliance with the requirements of part 150, promulgated pursuant to the Act, may submit a Noise Compatibility Program for FAA approval which sets forth the measures the operator has taken or proposes to take to reduce existing non-compatible uses and prevent the introduction of additional non-compatible uses.
The Jackson Hole Airport Board submitted to the FAA on March 21, 2018 Noise Exposure Maps, descriptions and other documentation that were produced during the Jackson Hole Airport part 150 Study conducted between September 9, 2013 and March 21, 2018. It was requested that the FAA review this material as the Noise Exposure Maps, as described in section 47503 of the Act, and that the noise mitigation measures, to be implemented jointly by the airport and surrounding communities, be approved as a Noise Compatibility Program under section 47504 of the Act.
The FAA has completed its review of the Noise Exposure Maps and accompanying documentation submitted by the Jackson Airport Board. The documentation that constitutes the “Noise Exposure Maps” as defined in CFR part 150 section 150.7 includes: Jackson Hole Airport 14 CFR part 150 Study Update, Updated Noise Exposure Maps, Figure 1-3 Airport Layout, Figure 1-7 Noise Monitor Sites, Figure 1-8 Generalized Existing Zoning, Figure 4-3 Modeled South Flow Flight Tracks, Figure 4-4 Modeled North Flight Tracks, Figure 4-7 2014 Noise Exposure Map on Existing Land Use, and Figure 9-1 2020 Noise Exposure Map on Future Land Use. The FAA has determined that these Noise Exposure Maps and accompanying documentation are in compliance with applicable
The FAA's determination on an airport operator's Noise Exposure Maps is limited to a finding that the maps were developed in accordance with the procedures contained in Appendix A of CFR part 150. Such determination does not constitute approval of the airport operator's data, information or plans, or a commitment to approve a Noise Compatibility Program or to fund implementation of that Program. If questions arise concerning the precise relationship of specific properties to noise exposure contours depicted on a Noise Exposure Map submitted under section 47503 of the Act, it should be noted that the FAA is not involved in any way in determining the relative locations of specific properties with regard to the depicted noise exposure contours, or in interpreting the Noise Exposure Maps to resolve questions concerning, for example, which properties should be covered by the provisions of section 47506 of the Act. These functions are inseparable from the ultimate land use control and planning responsibilities of local government. These local responsibilities are not changed in any way under part 150 or through FAA's review of Noise Exposure Maps. Therefore, the responsibility for the detailed overlaying of noise exposure contours onto the map depicting properties on the surface rests exclusively with the airport operator that submitted those maps, or those public agencies and planning agencies with which consultation is required under section 47503 of the Act. The FAA has relied on the certification by the airport operator, under section 150.21 of part 150, that the statutorily required consultation has been accomplished.
The FAA has formally received the Noise Compatibility Program for the Jackson Hole Airport, also effective on March 23, 2018. Preliminary review of the submitted material indicates that it conforms to the requirements for the submittal of Noise Compatibility Programs, but that further review will be necessary prior to approval or disapproval of the program. The formal review period, limited by law to a maximum of 180 days, will be completed on or before September 19, 2018.
The FAA's detailed evaluation will be conducted under the provisions of part 150, section 150.33. The primary considerations in the evaluation process are whether the proposed measures may reduce the level of aviation safety, create an undue burden on interstate or foreign commerce, or be reasonably consistent with obtaining the goal of reducing existing non-compatible land uses and preventing the introduction of additional non-compatible land uses. Interested persons are invited to comment on the proposed program with specific reference to these factors. All comments, other than those properly addressed to local land use authorities, will be considered by the FAA to the extent practicable.
Copies of the full Noise Exposure Map documentation and the proposed Noise Compatibility Program are available for examination at the following locations:
Questions may be directed to the individual named above under the heading,
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection.
Written comments should be submitted by June 4, 2018.
Send comments to the FAA at the following address: Barbara Hall, Federal Aviation Administration, ASP-110, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177.
Barbara Hall by email at:
To encourage people to voluntarily submit desired information, § 40123 was added to Title 49, United States Code, in the Federal Aviation Reauthorization Act of 1996. Section 40123 allows the Administrator, through FAA regulations, to protect from disclosure voluntarily provided information relating to safety and security issues. This rule imposes a negligible paperwork burden for certificate holders and fractional ownership programs that choose to submit a letter notifying the Administrator that they wish to participate in a current program.
The purpose of part 193 is to encourage the aviation community to voluntarily share information with the FAA so that the agency may work cooperatively with industry to identify modifications to rules, policies, and procedures needed to improve safety, security, and efficiency of the National Airspace System. FAA programs that are covered under part 193 are Voluntary Safety Reporting Programs, Air Traffic and Technical Operations Safety Action programs, the Flight Operational
The number of respondents has greatly increased since the initial approval of this information collection. In order to accurately reflect the burden of this information collection going forward, the FAA has included total current participants in the programs.
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces its determination that the noise exposure maps submitted by the Shreveport Airport Authority for Shreveport Regional Airport are in compliance with applicable requirements.
DOT/FAA Southwest Region, Tim Tandy, Environmental Protection Specialist, ASW-640D, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, Texas 76177. Telephone (817) 222-5644.
This notice announces that the FAA finds that the noise exposure maps submitted for Shreveport Regional Airport are in compliance with applicable requirements of Part 150, effective March 23, 2018. Under 49 U.S.C. 47503 of the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”), an airport operator may submit to the FAA noise exposure maps which meet applicable regulations and which depict non-compatible land uses as of the date of submission of such maps, a description of projected aircraft operations, and the ways in which such operations will affect such maps. The Act requires such maps to be developed in consultation with interested and affected parties in the local community, government agencies, and persons using the airport. An airport operator who has submitted noise exposure maps that are found by FAA to be in compliance with the requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) Part 150, promulgated pursuant to the Act, may submit a noise compatibility program for FAA approval which sets forth the measures the operator has taken or proposes to take to reduce existing non-compatible uses and prevent the introduction of additional non-compatible uses. The FAA has completed its review of the noise exposure maps and accompanying documentation submitted by Shreveport Airport Authority. The documentation that constitutes the “noise exposure maps” as defined in section 150.7 of Part 150 includes:
Chapters 2 and 3 of “14 CFR Pat 150 Noise Exposure Maps, October 2015”; Exhibit 1 (2014 Noise Exposure Map), Exhibit 2 (2020 Noise Exposure Map), Exhibit 2-1 (Shreveport Regional Airport and Immediate Environs), Exhibit 2-1 (Shreveport Regional Airport Aerial View), Exhibit 2-3 (Instrument Landing System/Localizer Approaches), Exhibit 2-4 (Area Navigation Approaches), Exhibit 3-1 (Runway 6 Arrival Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-2 (Runway 6 Departure Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-3 (Runway 14 Arrival Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-4 (Runway 14 Departure Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-5 (Runway 24 Arrival Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-6 (Runway 24 Departure Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-7 (Runway 32 Arrival Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-8 (Runway 32 Departure Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-9 (Touch and Go Flight Tracks), Exhibit 3-10 (Shreveport Regional Airport Aircraft Maintenance Runup Areas, Exhibit 3-11 (2014 Noise Exposure), Exhibit 3-12 (2020 Forecast Noise Exposure), Exhibit 3-13 (Comparison of 2004 and 2014 Noise Exposure), Exhibit 3-14 (Comparative Noise Footprints for Six Most Common Aircraft Types—2004 and 2014); Table 2-1 (Current and Recommended Optimum Runway Lengths), Table 2-2 (Summary of Historical and Forecast Passengers), Table 2-3 (Summary of Historical and Forecast Air Cargo), Table 2-4 (Historical and Forecast Aircraft Operations), Table 2-5 (Instrument Approach Procedures at Shreveport Regional Airport), Table 3-1 (Annual Aircraft Operations by Month—2014), Table 3-2 (Annual Aircraft Operations by INM Aircraft Type, User Category—2014), Table 3-3 (Calculation of Normalization Factors for Deriving Annual Operations by Aircraft Type), Table 3-4 (Aircraft Operations by Aircraft Category, Operation Type, and Time of Day—2014), Table 3-5 (Average Annual Day Aircraft Operations by INM Aircraft Type and Time of Day, Itinerant Operations—2014), Table 3-6 (Average Annual Day Aircraft Operations by INM Aircraft Type and Time of Day, Local Operations—2014), Table 3-7 (Arrival Runway Use Percentages—2014), Table 3-8 (Departure Runway Use Percentages—2014), Table 3-9 (Touch and Go Runway Use Percentages—2014), Table 3-10 (INM Departure Stage Lengths Categories), Table 3-11 (Aircraft Flight Profile Stage Length Percentages by INM Aircraft Type), Table 3-12 (Engine Maintenance Runup Data Used for Noise Modeling—2014), Table 3-13 (Annual Operations Summary—2020), Table 3-14 (Activity Percentage by Aircraft Category, Operation Type, and Time of Day—2020), Table 3-15 (Annual Aircraft Operations by Aircraft Category, Operation Type, and Time of Day—2020), Table 3-16 (Average Annual Day Aircraft Operations by INM Aircraft Type and Time of Day, Itinerant Operations—2020), Table 3-17 (Average Annual Day Aircraft Operations by INM Aircraft Type and Time of Day, Local Operations—2020), Table 3-18 (Departure Stage Length Proportions by Aircraft Category—2020), Table 3-19 (Engine Maintenance Runup Data Used for Noise Modeling—2020). The FAA has determined that these noise exposure maps and accompanying documentation are in compliance with applicable requirements. This determination is effective on March 23, 2018.
FAA's determination on an airport operator's noise exposure maps is limited to a finding that the maps were developed in accordance with the procedures contained in appendix A of FAR Part 150. Such determination does not constitute approval of the applicant's data, information or plans, or a commitment to approve a noise compatibility program or to fund the implementation of that program. If questions arise concerning the precise relationship of specific properties to noise exposure contours depicted on a
Copies of the full noise exposure map documentation and of the FAA's evaluation of the maps are available for examination at the following locations: Federal Aviation Administration, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, Texas; Henry L. Thompson, Director of Airports, Shreveport Airport Authority, 5103 Hollywood Avenue, Shreveport, LA 71109. Questions may be directed to the individual named above under the heading
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT.
Notice of availability and request for comment.
In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA), Council on Environmental Quality NEPA implementing regulations, and FAA Order 1050.1F,
Comments must be received on or before May 4, 2018.
Comments should be mailed to Daniel Czelusniak, Environmental Protection Specialist, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20591. Comments may also be submitted by email to
Daniel Czelusniak, Environmental Specialist, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20591; phone (202) 267-5924; email
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT) is the lead agency. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration and U.S. Air Force are cooperating agencies.
The FAA is evaluating SpaceX's proposal to conduct Dragon landings in the Gulf of Mexico, which would require the FAA to issue a reentry license. SpaceX has two versions of Dragon: Dragon-1 and Dragon-2. Dragon-1 is used for cargo missions to the International Space Station (ISS). SpaceX intends that Dragon-2 will eventually be used to transport astronauts to the ISS. Under the Proposed Action, the FAA would issue a reentry license to SpaceX, which would authorize SpaceX to conduct up to six Dragon landing operations per year in the Gulf of Mexico. Each landing operation would include orbital reentry, splashdown, and recovery.
Alternatives under consideration include the Proposed Action and the No Action Alternative. Under the No Action Alternative, the FAA would not issue a reentry license to SpaceX for Dragon reentry and splashdown in the Gulf of Mexico. SpaceX would continue to conduct Dragon reentries and splashdowns in the Pacific Ocean authorized under an FAA reentry license.
The Draft EA evaluates the potential environmental impacts from the Proposed Action and No Action Alternative on air quality; climate; noise and noise-compatible land use; Department of Transportation Act, section 4(f); biological resources (including aquatic plants and animals and special status species); coastal resources; water resources; natural resources and energy supply; and hazardous materials, solid waste, and pollution prevention. Potential cumulative impacts are also addressed in this EA.
The FAA has posted the Draft EA on the FAA Office of Commercial Space Transportation website:
The FAA encourages all interested parties to provide comments concerning the scope and content of the Draft EA by May 4, 2018. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, be advised that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask the FAA in your comment to withhold from public review your personal identifying information, the FAA cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) requests public comment on an exemption application from Stoneridge, Inc. (Stoneridge) to allow motor carriers to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) with the company's MirrorEye
Comments must be received on or before May 7, 2018.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket ID FMCSA-2018-0141 using any of the following methods:
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Mr. Luke W. Loy, Vehicle and Roadside Operations Division, Office of Carrier, Driver, and Vehicle Safety, MC-PSV, (202) 366-0676, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
Under Agency regulations, FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews the safety analyses and the public comments and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
Stoneridge has applied for an exemption from 49 CFR 393.80(a) to allow its MirrorEye
Section 393.80(a) of the FMCSRs requires that each bus, truck, and truck-tractor be equipped with two rear-vision mirrors, one at each side. The mirrors must be positioned to reflect to the driver a view of the highway to the rear, and the area along both sides of the CMV. Section 393.80(a) cross-references NTHSA's standards for mirrors on motor vehicles (49 CFR 571.111, Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard [FMVSS] No. 111). Paragraph S7.1 of FMVSS No. 111 provides requirements for mirrors on multipurpose passenger vehicles and trucks with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) greater than 4,536 kg and less than 11,340 kg and each bus, other than a school bus, with a GVWR of more than 4,536 kg. Paragraph S8.1 provides requirements for mirrors on multipurpose passenger vehicles and trucks with a GVWR of 11,340 kg or more.
The MirrorEye
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Stoneridge also believes use of its CMS may help to reduce driver fatigue by requiring less head movement by drivers compared to the number of head movement needed to use conventional mirrors. The company claims that use of its CMS provides improved fuel economy because the housing for the system is more aerodynamic than the conventional mirrors required by § 393.80(a).
The exemption would apply to all CMV operators driving vehicles with the MirrorEye
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136(e), FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on Stoneridge's application for an exemption from 49 CFR 393.80(a). All comments received before the close of business on the comment closing date indicated at the beginning of this notice will be considered and will be available for examination in the docket at the location listed under the
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) announces a meeting of the Minority Depository Institutions Advisory Committee (MDIAC).
The OCC MDIAC will hold a public meeting on Tuesday, April 24, 2018, beginning at 8:30 a.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT).
The OCC will hold the April 24, 2018 meeting of the MDIAC at the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20219.
Beverly Cole, Designated Federal Officer and Deputy Comptroller for Compliance Supervision Management, (202) 649-6862, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219.
By this notice, the OCC is announcing that the MDIAC will convene a meeting at 8:30 a.m. EDT on Tuesday, April 24, 2018, at the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20219. Agenda items will include current topics of interest to the industry. The purpose of the meeting is for the MDIAC to advise the OCC on steps the agency may be able to take to ensure the continued health and viability of minority depository institutions and other issues of concern to minority depository institutions. Members of the public may submit written statements to the MDIAC by any one of the following methods:
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The OCC must receive written statements no later than 5:00 p.m. EDT on Tuesday, April 17, 2018. Members of the public who plan to attend the meeting should contact the OCC by 5:00 p.m. EDT on Tuesday, April 17, 2018, to inform the OCC of their desire to attend the meeting and to provide information that will be required to facilitate entry into the meeting. Members of the public may contact the OCC via email at
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Data Collection.
Pursuant to the Terrorism Risk Insurance Act of 2002 (TRIA),
Participating insurers must register and submit data no later than May 15, 2018.
Participating insurers will register through a website that has been established for this data call. After registration, insurers will receive data collection forms through a secure file transfer portal, and they will submit the requested data through the same secure portal. Participating insurers can register for the 2018 TRIP Data Call at
Richard Ifft, Senior Insurance Regulatory Policy Analyst, Federal Insurance Office, Room 1410, Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20220, at (202) 622-2922 (this is not a toll-free number), or Lindsey Baldwin, Senior Policy Analyst, Federal Insurance Office, Room 1410, Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20220, at (202) 622-3220 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons who have difficulty hearing or speaking may access these numbers via TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339.
TRIA created the Program within the U.S. Department of the Treasury (Treasury) to address disruptions in the market for terrorism risk insurance, to help ensure the continued availability and affordability of commercial property and casualty insurance for terrorism risk, and to allow for the private markets to stabilize and build insurance capacity to absorb any future losses for terrorism events. The Program has been reauthorized on a number of occasions, most recently in the Terrorism Risk Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2015 (2015 Reauthorization Act).
On November 28, 2017, Treasury published the data collection forms that it proposed to use for the 2018 TRIP Data Call, and invited the public to provide comments concerning these forms.
For purposes of the 2018 Data Call, and for the first time, FIO, state insurance regulators, and the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) coordinated and developed a consolidated data call mechanism designed to meet the regulatory objectives of both Treasury and state insurance regulators. The approach relies upon joint reporting templates derived from prior reporting templates used by Treasury, which were subject to minor changes based upon experience gained from the 2017 data call, coordination with state insurance regulators and the NAIC, and public comments. Commenters were appreciative of the consolidated data call for 2018, which will allow insurers to satisfy most of their terrorism risk insurance reporting obligations for Treasury and state regulators through submission of the same data to each entity.
Insurers subject to the consolidated data call will report on a group basis, unless they are not part of a group, in which case they will report on an individual company basis. Insurers with property exposures will also be required to submit to state insurance regulators, on an individual company basis, an additional supplement focusing on the property lines of insurance subject to the Program. This supplement calls for data with respect to geographic exposures by ZIP code. Questions about the submission of data to state regulators or the property supplement should be directed to the appropriate state insurance regulator or the NAIC.
For the 2018 data call, Treasury will again work with the National Council on Compensation Insurance (NCCI) and the California Workers' Compensation Insurance Rating Bureau (California WCIRB) to provide (either directly or through other workers' compensation rating bureaus), on behalf of participating insurers, the workers' compensation insurance elements of the data call relating to premium and payroll information. The data aggregator used by Treasury will provide such insurers with reporting templates that do not require them to report this workers' compensation data. Reporting insurers that only write workers' compensation policies are still required to register for the data call, provide general company information, and provide data related to private reinsurance. The remaining data received from NCCI and/or the California WCIRB will be merged with the information provided by the insurers.
Commenters primarily provided specific suggestions concerning individual data elements and/or the instructions concerning those elements. In response to these comments, Treasury has revised the data collection forms and/or instructions with respect to the following: The treatment of policyholder deductibles;
One commenter urged FIO and state regulators to adopt a single reporting template for alien surplus lines insurers.
In summary, Treasury is making five changes that will affect all categories of insurers. First, all reporting templates will now include a standalone cyber insurance worksheet. Second, the reinsurance worksheet that is required for non-small insurers, alien surplus lines insurers, and captive insurers will also include a new modeled loss question.
There are also a number of template changes that are specific to individual insurer categories. For the 2018 data call, an insurer will qualify as a small insurer if it had both
Non-small insurers will no longer be required to complete a separate worksheet on package/multiline policies. The non-small insurer template will be completed by insurance groups (or individual insurers not affiliated with a group) that had either a 2016 policyholder surplus or 2016 direct earned premium in TRIP-eligible lines of insurance equal to or greater than $700 million, and that are not subject to reporting on the captive insurer or alien surplus lines insurer reporting templates. Otherwise, insurers defined as non-small insurers for the 2018 data call will report the same information to Treasury (on a group basis) and state insurance regulators (also on a group basis), except with respect to property coverages. For property coverages, non-small insurers will also provide additional reporting on an individual company basis in a property supplement submitted solely to state insurance regulators.
Captive insurers will no longer be required to complete a separate worksheet for workers' compensation deductible policies, as this information will now be collected on the general premium worksheet. Captive insurers are defined in 31 CFR 50.4(g) as insurers licensed under the captive insurance laws or regulations of any state. Captive insurers that wrote policies in TRIP-eligible lines of insurance during the reporting period are required to register and submit data to Treasury, unless they did not provide their insureds with any terrorism risk insurance subject to the Program.
The reporting template for alien surplus lines insurers does not contain additional changes specific to those insurers. Alien surplus lines insurers are defined in 31 CFR 50.4(o)(1)(i)(B) as insurers not licensed or admitted to engage in the business of providing primary or excess insurance in any state, but that are eligible surplus line insurers listed on the NAIC Quarterly Listing of Alien Insurers. Alien surplus lines insurers that are part of a larger group classified as a non-small insurer or a small insurer should report to Treasury as part of the group, using the appropriate template. Therefore, the alien surplus lines insurer template should only be used by an alien surplus lines insurer that is not part of a larger group subject to the 2018 data call. As noted above, insurers defined as alien surplus lines insurers for the 2018 data call will continue to be required to submit data to state insurance regulators on an individual basis, even if part of a larger group.
One commenter appreciated the inclusion of a new modeled loss scenario, and encouraged FIO to consider a scenario in the future that involves locations that are not located in urban areas, but nonetheless benefit from TRIA (
Several commenters also requested that Treasury issue certain supplemental materials to assist in the data submission process, such as the inclusion of a comprehensive list of ZIP codes that define the areas identified on the Geographic Exposures (Nationwide) worksheet
One commenter asked Treasury to consider eliminating from the data call the lines of coverage that are less likely to be triggered in the event of an act of terrorism, noting that Treasury is not obligated to collect data on all TRIP-eligible lines.
One commenter requested that Treasury hold training for the 2018 data call within two (2) weeks following the issuance of the templates, and recommended holding four (4) separate training sessions corresponding to the four (4) reporting templates that will be used by insurers (Alien Surplus Lines Insurers, Captive Insurers, Insurer (Non-Small) Groups or Companies, and Small Insurers).
For the 2018 TRIP Data Call, which covers the reporting period of January 1, 2017 to December 31, 2017, Treasury will continue to use four different data collection templates.
Similar to last year, Treasury, through an insurance statistical aggregator, will accept group or insurer registration forms through
Copies of the instructions and data collection forms are available on Treasury's website in read-only format. Reporting insurers will obtain the fillable reporting forms directly from the data aggregator after registering for the data collection process.
Reporting insurers are required to register and submit complete data to Treasury no later than May 15, 2018. Because of the timing and content of Treasury's 2018 report to Congress, no extensions will be granted. Reporting insurers can ask the data aggregator questions about registration, form completion, and submission through
All data submitted to the aggregator is subject to the confidentiality and data protection provisions of TRIA and the Program Rules, as well as to section 552 of title 5, United States Code, including any exceptions thereunder. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, (44 U.S.C 3501
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
Comments should be received on or before May 7, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Jennifer Quintana by emailing
The information collected via the IRS Burden Surveys will be used by IRS to support or achieve several important goals:
44 U.S.C. 3501
U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission.
Notice of open public hearing.
Notice is hereby given of the following hearing of the U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission.
The Commission is mandated by Congress to investigate, assess, and report to Congress annually on “the national security implications of the economic relationship between the United States and the People's Republic of China.” Pursuant to this mandate, the Commission will hold a public hearing in Washington, DC on April 26, 2018 on “China's Agricultural Policies: Trade, Investment, Safety, and Innovation.”
The hearing is scheduled for Thursday, April 26, 2018 from 9:00 a.m. to 1:20 p.m.
TBD, Washington, DC. A detailed agenda for the hearing will be posted on the Commission's website at
Any member of the public seeking further information concerning the hearing should contact Leslie Tisdale, 444 North Capitol Street NW, Suite 602, Washington DC 20001; telephone: 202-624-1496, or via email at
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice that the Advisory Committee on Women Veterans will meet on May 8-10, 2018, at VA Central Office, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Conference Room 930, Washington, DC 20420. The meeting will be held from 8:30 a.m. to 12:15 p.m. on Tuesday, May 8 and Wednesday, May 9. On Thursday, May 10, the meeting will be held from 8:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. The meeting is open to the public.
The purpose of the Committee is to advise the Secretary of Veterans Affairs regarding the needs of women Veterans with respect to health care, rehabilitation, compensation, outreach, and other programs and activities administered by VA designed to meet such needs. The Committee makes recommendations to the Secretary regarding such programs and activities.
The agenda will include updates from the Veterans Health Administration, the Veterans Benefits Administration, National Cemetery Administration, and Staff Offices, as well as updates on recommendations from the 2016 Report of the Advisory Committee on Women Veterans.
No time will be allocated at this meeting for receiving oral presentations from the public. Interested parties should provide written comments for review by the Committee to Ms. Shannon L. Middleton, VA Center for Women Veterans (00W), 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, or email at
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice that the Advisory Committee on Minority Veterans will be held in Saint Louis, Missouri from April 17-19, 2018, at the below times and locations:
On April 17, from 8:45 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., at the New Mexico VA Health Care System—John Cochran Division, Bldg. 2, Education Wing, Room 141 & 142, 915 North Grand Blvd., St. Louis, Missouri.
On April 18, from 9:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m., at the Jefferson National Cemetery, 2900 Sheridan Road, Saint Louis, MO; from 4:30 p.m. to 6:30 p.m., conducting a Town Hall Meeting at the Harris-Stowe State University (HSSU) William L. Clay Sr. Early Childhood Center's Professional Development Auditorium—Room 204, 3026 Laclede Ave., Saint Louis, MO.
On April 19, from 8:30 a.m. to 4:45 p.m., at the VA St. Louis Health Care System—John Cochran Division, Bldg. 2, Education Wing, Room 141 & 142, 915 North Grand Blvd., Saint Louis, MO.
The purpose of the Committee is to advise the Secretary on the administration of VA benefits and services to minority Veterans, to assess the needs of minority Veterans and to evaluate whether VA compensation and pension, medical and rehabilitation services, memorial services outreach, and other programs are meeting those needs.
The Committee will make recommendations to the Secretary regarding such activities subsequent to the meeting.
On the morning of April 17 from 8:45 a.m. to 11:00 a.m., the Committee will meet in open session with key staff at the VA Saint Louis Health Care System—John Cochran Division to discuss services, benefits, delivery challenges, and successes. From 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m., the Committee will convene a closed session in order to protect patient privacy as the Committee tours the VA Health Care System. In the afternoon from 1:45 p.m. to 3:30 p.m., the Committee will reconvene as the Committee is briefed by senior Veterans Benefits Administration staff from the Saint Louis Regional Benefit Office. From 3:30 p.m. to 4:30 p.m., the Committee will conduct an after action review of the site visit.
On the morning of April 18 from 9:00 a.m. to 11:30 a.m., the Committee will convene in open session at the Jefferson Barracks National Cemetery followed by a tour of the cemetery. The Committee will meet with key staff to discuss services, benefits, delivery challenges and successes. In the evening, the Committee will hold a Veterans Town Hall meeting beginning at 4:30 p.m., at the Harris-Stowe State University (HSSU) William L. Clay Sr. Early Childhood Center in the Professional Development Auditorium—Room204.
On the morning of April 19 from 8:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m., the Committee will convene in open session at the VA Saint Louis Health Care System—John Cochran Division to conduct an exit briefing with leadership from the VA Saint Louis Health Care System, Saint Louis Regional Benefit Office, and Jefferson Barracks National Cemetery. In the afternoon from 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m., the Committee will work on drafting recommendations for the annual report to the Secretary.
Sessions are open to the public, except when the Committee is conducting tours of VA facilities, participating in off-site events, and participating in workgroup sessions. Tours of VA facilities are closed, to protect from disclosure Veterans' information the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Time will be allocated for receiving public comments on April 19, at 10 a.m. Public comments will be limited to three minutes each. Individuals wishing to make oral statements before the Committee will be accommodated on a first-come first serve basis. Individuals who speak are invited to submit a 1-2 page summaries of their comments at the time of the meeting for inclusion in the official record. The Committee will accept written comments from interested parties on issues outlined in the meeting agenda, as well as other issues affecting minority Veterans. Such comments should be sent to Ms. Juanita Mullen, Advisory Committee on Minority Veterans, Center for Minority Veterans (00M), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, or email at
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |