Page Range | 36231-36463 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
80 FR 36463 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to the Western Balkans | |
80 FR 36461 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to North Korea | |
80 FR 36457 - Father's Day, 2015 | |
80 FR 36345 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 36346 - Designation of Nepal for Temporary Protected Status | |
80 FR 36306 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Michigan; Infrastructure SIP Requirements for the 2008 Ozone, 2010 NO2 | |
80 FR 36395 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “The Wrath of the Gods: Masterpieces by Michelangelo, Titian and Rubens” Exhibition | |
80 FR 36395 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Picasso Sculpture” Exhibition | |
80 FR 36320 - Purified Carboxymethylcellulose From Finland: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2013-2014 | |
80 FR 36319 - Hand Trucks and Certain Parts Thereof From the People's Republic of China: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2013-2014 | |
80 FR 36353 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Rent Reform Demonstration (Task Order 2) | |
80 FR 36351 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Voucher Management System (VMS) | |
80 FR 36352 - Notice of Emergency Approval Submission of Proposed Information Collection to OMB; Emergency Comment Request Pay for Success Demonstration Application | |
80 FR 36316 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 36321 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; NIST SURF Program Student Applicant Information | |
80 FR 36336 - Registration Review; Dockets Opened for Review and Comment | |
80 FR 36335 - Proposed Consent Decree, Clean Air Act Citizen Suit | |
80 FR 36323 - Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act Provisions; General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Application for Exempted Fishing Permits | |
80 FR 36399 - Denial of Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
80 FR 36397 - Hours of Service of Drivers: B.R. Kreider & Son, Inc.'s Application for Exemption | |
80 FR 36365 - Thomas Saporito on Behalf of Saprodani Associates | |
80 FR 36341 - Submission to OMB for Review; Federal Acquisition Regulation; Reporting Executive Compensation and First-Tier Subcontract Awards | |
80 FR 36356 - Minority Depository Institution Preservation Program | |
80 FR 36401 - Applications for Exemption | |
80 FR 36340 - Commission To Eliminate Child Abuse and Neglect Fatalities; Announcement of Meeting | |
80 FR 36395 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
80 FR 36341 - Notice of the General Services Administration's Labor-Management Relations Council Meeting | |
80 FR 36249 - Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic; 2015 Commercial Accountability Measure and Closure for Atlantic Dolphin | |
80 FR 36398 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
80 FR 36343 - Federal Acquisition Regulation; Information Collection; Authorized Negotiators | |
80 FR 36250 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Atka Mackerel in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
80 FR 36305 - Per Diem Paid to States for Care of Eligible Veterans in State Homes; Correction | |
80 FR 36344 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 36364 - Notice of Permit Applications Received Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 | |
80 FR 36251 - Petition To Amend the Reporting Requirements for Research Facilities Under the Animal Welfare Act Regulations | |
80 FR 36317 - In the Matter of: Armin Shir Mohammadi, 22505 Rio Aliso Drive, Lake Forest, CA 92630-5514; Order Denying Export Privileges | |
80 FR 36339 - Information Collections Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
80 FR 36332 - Cameron LNG, LLC, Notice of Intent to Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Planned Cameron Lng Expansion Project, and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
80 FR 36329 - Pershing County Water Conservation District, Nevada; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
80 FR 36334 - Independent Power Producers of New York, Inc. v. New York Independent System Operator, Inc.; Notice of Compliance Filing | |
80 FR 36328 - Soldier Canyon Filter Plant; Notice of Preliminary Determination of a Qualifying Conduit Hydropower Facility and Soliciting Comments and Motions To Intervene | |
80 FR 36328 - PacifiCorp Energy; Notice of Intent To Prepare a Draft and Final Environmental Assessment and Revised Procedural Schedule | |
80 FR 36333 - Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.; Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date | |
80 FR 36331 - Florida Gas Transmission Company LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
80 FR 36330 - Combined Notice Of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 36327 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
80 FR 36401 - Notice of Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
80 FR 36354 - Notice of Public Meeting | |
80 FR 36247 - Designation of Areas for Air Quality Planning Purposes | |
80 FR 36247 - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories | |
80 FR 36393 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Request | |
80 FR 36252 - Regulatory Publication and Review Under the Economic Growth and Regulatory Paperwork Reduction Act of 1996 | |
80 FR 36264 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Newberry, MI | |
80 FR 36355 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Work Opportunity Tax Credit and Welfare-to-Work Tax Credit | |
80 FR 36363 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
80 FR 36242 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Connecticut; Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
80 FR 36306 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Connecticut; Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
80 FR 36265 - Proposed Amendment of Class D Airspace and Revocation of Class E Airspace; Columbus, Ohio State University Airport, OH, and Amendment of Class E Airspace; Columbus, OH | |
80 FR 36262 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Iron Mountain, MI | |
80 FR 36239 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Pennsylvania; Revision to Allegheny County Regulations for Establishing Permit Fees | |
80 FR 36385 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change Amending Sections 312.03(b) and 312.04 of the NYSE Listed Company Manual To Exempt Early Stage Companies From Having To Obtain Shareholder Approval Before Issuing Shares for Cash to Related Parties, Affiliates of Related Parties or Entities In Which a Related Party has a Substantial Interest | |
80 FR 36372 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Relating to the Listing and Trading of Shares of Newfleet Multi-Sector Unconstrained Bond ETF under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 | |
80 FR 36388 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Series 4 Examination Program | |
80 FR 36386 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Instituting Proceedings to Determine Whether to Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Rules 6.74A and 6.74B | |
80 FR 36380 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Order Granting Approval of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 3 Thereto, Relating to the Listing and Trading of Shares of the ALPS Enhanced Put Write Strategy ETF Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 | |
80 FR 36391 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees for Use of BATS Exchange, Inc. | |
80 FR 36367 - Amplify Investments LLC and Amplify ETF Trust; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 36322 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 36323 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 36344 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 36346 - National Institute on Aging; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 36344 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 36402 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel GABRA; Invitation for Public Comments | |
80 FR 36325 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; School Climate Surveys (SCLS) Benchmark Study 2016 | |
80 FR 36350 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Monthly Report on Naturalization Papers, Form N-4, Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection | |
80 FR 36236 - Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan Loan Guarantees Issued Under the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2015-Standard Terms and Conditions | |
80 FR 36280 - Transmission Operations Reliability Standards and Interconnection Reliability Operations and Coordination Reliability Standards | |
80 FR 36293 - Revisions to Emergency Operations Reliability Standards; Revisions to Undervoltage Load Shedding Reliability Standards; Revisions to the Definition of “Remedial Action Scheme” and Related Reliability Standards | |
80 FR 36234 - Revised Exhibit Submission Requirements for Commission Hearings | |
80 FR 36334 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 36326 - Sage Grouse Energy Project, LLC (Complainant v. PacifiCorp (Respondent); Notice of Amended Complaint | |
80 FR 36331 - Western Area Power Administration; Notice of Filing | |
80 FR 36326 - Texas Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Application | |
80 FR 36404 - Notice of Receipt of Petition for Decision That Nonconforming 2008 Cadillac Escalade Multipurpose Vehicles Are Eligible for Importation | |
80 FR 36406 - Tireco, Inc., Receipt of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
80 FR 36403 - Tesla Motors, Inc., Receipt of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
80 FR 36231 - Cotton Research and Promotion Program: Procedures for Conduct of Sign-up Period | |
80 FR 36363 - Committee Management; Notice of Reestablishment | |
80 FR 36355 - Notice of Lodging Proposed Consent Decree | |
80 FR 36366 - Pendency of Request for Exemption From the Bond/Escrow Requirement Relating to the Sale of Assets by an Employer Who Contributes to a Multiemployer Plan; Harrington Air Systems, LLC and J.C. Cannistraro, LLC | |
80 FR 36248 - General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; GSAR Case 2006-G506; Environmental, Conservation, Occupational Safety and Drug-Free Workplace | |
80 FR 36301 - Issue Price Definition for Tax-Exempt Bonds | |
80 FR 36338 - Pesticides; Risk Management Approach To Identifying Options for Protecting the Monarch Butterfly; Notice of Availability and Public Comment Opportunity | |
80 FR 36315 - Banda de Lupinus albus doce (BLAD); Proposed Pesticide Tolerance; Technical Correction | |
80 FR 36255 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 36318 - Citric Acid and Certain Citrate Salts From Canada and the People's Republic of China: Continuation of the Antidumping Duty Orders on Canada and the People's Republic of China, and Continuation of the Countervailing Duty Order on the People's Republic of China | |
80 FR 36258 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 36407 - Treasury Public Engagement Pages | |
80 FR 36231 - Removal of Recovery Accountability and Transparency Board Regulations | |
80 FR 36246 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; State of New Mexico; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2008 Ozone and 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standards and Interstate Transport of Fine Particulate Matter Air Pollution Affecting Visibility | |
80 FR 36314 - Notification of Submission to the Secretaries of Agriculture and Health and Human Services; Pesticides; Revisions to Minimum Risk Exemption | |
80 FR 36261 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Stockton, CA | |
80 FR 36409 - Biorefinery, Renewable Chemical, and Biobased Product Manufacturing Assistance Program | |
80 FR 36267 - Amendment to the Privacy of Consumer Financial Information Rule Under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Rural Business-Cooperative Service
Rural Utilities Service
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Children and Families Administration
National Institutes of Health
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
Land Management Bureau
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Transit Administration
Maritime Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this page for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, reminders, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Recovery Accountability and Transparency Board.
Final rule.
The Recovery Accountability and Transparency Board (Board) previously issued regulations pertaining to the Privacy Act of 1974, Public Information and Requests, and the Board's Official Seal. These are the only Board issued regulations codified in the Code of Federal Regulations. On September 30, 2015, the Board is required by the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, as amended, to terminate. After that date, because the Board will cease to exist, there will be no need for the Board's regulations. Accordingly, this final rule removes the Board's regulations from the Code of Federal Regulations effective September 30, 2015.
This rule is effective September 30, 2015.
Atticus J. Reaser, General Counsel, (202) 254-7900.
Chapter II of Title 4 of the Code of Federal Regulations contains all regulations previously issued by the Board, including: (1) Regulations pertaining to the Privacy Act of 1974 in Part 200; (2) regulations pertaining to Public Information and Requests in Part 201; and (3) regulations pertaining to the Board's Official Seal in Part 202. These are the only Board issued regulations codified in the Code of Federal Regulations. Section 1530 of the Board's enabling legislation, the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, Public Law 111-5, as amended, requires that the Board terminate on September 30, 2015. After that date, because the Board will cease to exist, there will be no need for the Board's regulations or Chapter II of Title 4 of the Code of Federal Regulations. Through this final rule, the Board's regulations and Chapter II of Title 4 are removed from the Code of Federal Regulations effective September 30, 2015.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b), the Board finds good cause exists for waiving the general notice of proposed rulemaking and opportunity for public comment as to this rule. Notice and comment before the effective date are being waived because this rule and the resulting removal of the Board's regulations arise out of a matter regarding which the Board has no discretion—namely, the termination of the Board on September 30, 2015. As the Board has no discretion, public comment is unnecessary.
The Board has reviewed this rule to ensure its consistency with the regulatory philosophy and principles set forth in Executive Orders 12866 and 13563. The Board has determined that this rule is non-significant within the meaning of Executive Order 12866. Therefore, this rule is not required to be and has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
These proposed regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis as provided by the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, is not required.
These proposed regulations impose no additional reporting and recordkeeping requirements. Therefore, clearance by the Office of Management and Budget is not required.
This rule does not have Federalism implications, as set forth in Executive Order 13132. It will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
The Board has determined that this rule is not a major rule as defined by the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 804. The rule is being submitted to both Houses of Congress and the Comptroller General in accordance with the Congressional Review Act.
Administrative practice and procedure, Privacy, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Freedom of information, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Official seal.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble and pursuant to sec. 1530, Public Law. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115 (as amended) and general rulemaking authority, the Recovery Accountability and Transparency Board amends title 4 of the Code of Federal Regulations by removing Chapter II in its entirety, consisting of parts 200, 201, and 202.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final rule.
This rule amends the rules and regulations regarding the procedures for the conduct of a sign-up period for eligible cotton producers and importers to request a continuance referendum on the 1991 amendments to the Cotton Research and Promotion Order (Order) provided in the 1990 amendments to the Cotton Research and Promotion Act (Act). The amendments update various dates, name changes, addresses, and make other administrative changes.
Shethir M. Riva, Chief, Research and Promotion Staff, Cotton and Tobacco Program, Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA, 100 Riverside Parkway, Suite 101, Fredericksburg, Virginia 22406, telephone (540) 361-2726, facsimile (540) 361-1199, or email at
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health, and safety effects, distributive impacts and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. This action has been designated as a “non-significant regulatory action” under § 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has waived the review process.
This action has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. The review reveals that this rule would not have substantial and direct effects on Tribal governments and would not have significant tribal implications.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. It is not intended to have retroactive effect.
The Cotton Research and Promotion Act (7 U.S.C. 2101-2118) (Act) provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 12 of the Act, any person subject to an order may file with the Secretary of Agriculture (Secretary) a petition stating that the order, any provision of the plan, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and requesting a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such person is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, the Secretary would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the District Court of the United States in any district in which the person is an inhabitant, or has his principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review the Secretary's ruling, provided a complaint is filed within 20 days from the date of the entry of ruling.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) [5 U.S.C. 601-612], the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has examined the economic impact of this rule on small entities. The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such action so that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. The Small Business Administration defines, in 13 CFR part 121, small agricultural producers as those having annual receipts of no more than $750,000 and small agricultural service firms (importers) as having receipts of no more than $7,000,000. In 2014, an estimated 16,000 producers, and approximately 20,000 importers were subject to the order. The majority of these producers and importers are small businesses under the criteria established by the Small Business Administration.
There are no Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
Only those eligible persons who are in favor of conducting a referendum would need to participate in the sign-up period. Of the 46,220 total valid ballots received in the 1991 referendum, 27,879, or 60 percent, favored the amendments to the Order, and 18,341, or 40 percent, opposed the amendments to the Order. This rule will provide those persons who are not in favor of the continuance of the Order amendments an opportunity to request a continuance referendum.
The eligibility and participation requirements for producers and importers are substantially the same as the rules that established the eligibility and participation requirements for the 1991 referendum, and for the 1997, 2001, and 2007 sign-up periods. The sign-ups in 1997, 2001, and 2007 sign-ups did not generate the required number of signatures to hold another referendum. The amendments in this action would update various dates, name changes, addresses, and make other miscellaneous changes.
The sign-up procedures would not impose a substantial burden or have a significant impact on persons subject to the Order, because participation is not mandatory, not all persons subject to the Order are expected to participate, and USDA will determine producer and importer eligibility. The information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act are minimal.
The information collections proposed by this rule will be carried out under the OMB Control Number 0581-0093. This rule will not add to the overall burden currently approved by OMB and assigned OMB Control Number 0581-0093 under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35). This OMB Control Number is referenced in section 1205.541 of the regulations.
The 1991 amendments to the Cotton Research and Promotion Order (7 CFR part 1205) were implemented following the July 1991 referendum. The amendments were provided for in the 1990 amendments to the Cotton Research and Promotion Act (7 U.S.C. 2101-2118). These amendments provided for: (1) Importer representation on the Cotton Board by an appropriate number of persons, to be determined by USDA, who import cotton or cotton products into the U.S., and whom USDA selects from nominations submitted by importer organizations certified by USDA; (2) assessments levied on imported cotton and cotton products at a rate determined in the same manner as for U.S. cotton; (3) increasing the amount USDA can be reimbursed for the conduct of a referendum from $200,000 to $300,000; (4) reimbursing government agencies that assist in administering the collection of assessments on imported cotton and cotton products; and (5) terminating the right of producers to demand a refund of assessments.
On May 29, 2013, USDA issued a determination based on its review (78 FR 32228), not to conduct a referendum regarding the 1991 amendments to the Order; however, the Act provides that USDA shall nevertheless conduct a referendum at the request of 10 percent or more of the total number of eligible producers and importers that voted in the most recent referendum. The Act provides for a sign-up period during
Pursuant to section 8(c) of the Act, the sign-up period will be provided for all eligible producers and importers. Eligible cotton producers will be provided the opportunity to sign-up to request a continuance referendum in person at the county Farm Service Agency (FSA) office where their farm is located. If a producer's land is in more than one county, the producer shall sign-up at the county office where FSA administratively maintains and processes the producer's farm records. Producers may alternatively request a sign-up form in the mail from the same office or through the USDA, AMS Web site:
Eligible importers would be provided the opportunity to sign up to request a continuance referendum by downloading a form from the AMS Web site, or request a sign-up form by contacting
Such request must be accompanied by a copy of the U.S. Customs and Border Protection form 7501 showing payment of a cotton assessment for calendar year 2014. Requests and supporting documentation should be mailed to USDA, AMS, Cotton and Tobacco Program, Attention: Cotton Sign-Up, P.O. Box 23181, Washington, DC 20077-8249.
The sign-up period will be from August 3, 2015, through August 14, 2015. Producer and importer forms shall only be counted if received by USDA during the stated sign-up period.
Section 8(c)(2) of the Act provides that if USDA determines, based on the results of the sign-up, that 10 percent or more of the total number of eligible producers and importers that voted in the most recent 1991 referendum (
This rule amends the procedures for the conduct of the current sign-up period. The current rules and regulations provide for sections on definitions, supervision of the sign-up period, eligibility, participation in the sign-up period, counting requests, reporting results and instructions and forms.
In §§ 1205.20, 1205.26, and 1205.27 “calendar year 2006” changes to “calendar year 2014.” Also, in § 1205.26, eligible persons are further defined to ensure that all producers that planted cotton during 2014 will be eligible to participate in the sign-up period. In §§ 1205.27, 1205.28, and 1205.29 sign-up period conduct dates, FSA reporting dates, and mailing addresses are updated. Under § 1205.27(b), AMS will post information in its Web site rather than mailing a form to each known importer. Before the start of the sign-up period, AMS will post sign-up information, including sign-up forms, on its Web site:
A proposed rule with a request for comments was published in the
This rule amends the subpart pertaining to established procedures for use during the sign-up period. Accordingly, AMS is amending the regulations as proposed in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking with additional changes to the sign-up dates and the FSA reporting dates to take into account the effective date of this final rule.
Advertising, Agricultural research, Cotton, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 1205 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 2101-2118.
The term
(a) * * *
(1) any person who was engaged in the production of Upland cotton during calendar year 2014; and
(2) any person who was an importer of Upland cotton and imported Upland cotton in excess of the value of $2.00 per line item entry during calendar year 2014.
The sign-up period will be from August 3, 2015, until August 14, 2015. Those persons who favor the conduct of a continuance referendum and who wish to request that USDA conduct such a referendum may do so by submitting such request in accordance with this section. All requests must be received by the appropriate USDA office by August 14, 2015.
(a) Before the sign-up period begins, FSA shall establish a list of known, eligible, Upland cotton producers in the county that it serves during the representative period, and AMS shall also establish a list of known, eligible Upland cotton importers.
(b) Before the start of the sign-up period, AMS will post sign-up information, including sign-up forms,
(c) Each person on the county FSA office lists may participate in the sign-up period. Eligible producers must date and sign their name on the “County FSA Office Sign-up Sheet.” A person whose name does not appear on the county FSA office list may participate in the sign-up period. Such person must be identified on FSA-578 during the representative period or provide documentation that demonstrates that the person was a cotton producer during the representative period. Cotton producers not listed on the FSA-578 shall submit at least one sales receipt for cotton they planted during the representative period. Cotton producers must make requests to the county FSA office where the producer's farm is located. If the producer's land is in more than one county, the producer shall make request at the county office where FSA administratively maintains and processes the producer's farm records. It is the responsibility of the person to provide the information needed by the county FSA office to determine eligibility. It is not the responsibility of the county FSA office to obtain this information. If any person whose name does not appear on the county FSA office list fails to provide at least one sales receipt for the cotton they produced during the representative period, the county FSA office shall determine that such person is ineligible to participate in the sign-up period, and shall note “ineligible” in the remarks section next to the person's name on the county FSA office sign-up sheet. In lieu of personally appearing at a county FSA office, eligible producers may request a sign-up form from the county FSA office where the producer's farm is located. If the producer's land is in more than one county, the producer shall make the request for the sign-up form at the county office where FSA administratively maintains and processes the producer's farm records. Such request must be accompanied by a copy of at least one sales receipt for cotton they produced during the representative period. The appropriate FSA office must receive all completed forms and supporting documentation by August 14, 2015.
County FSA offices and FSA, Deputy Administrator for Field Operations (DAFO), shall begin counting requests no later than August 14, 2015. * * *
(a) Each county FSA office shall prepare and transmit to the state FSA office, by August 21, 2015, a written report of the number of eligible producers who requested the conduct of a referendum, and the number of ineligible persons who made requests.
(b) DAFO shall prepare, by August 21, 2015, a written report of the number of eligible importers who requested the conduct of a referendum, and the number of ineligible persons who made requests.
(c) Each state FSA office shall, by August 21, 2015, forward all county reports to DAFO. By August 28, 2015, DAFO shall forward its report of the total number of eligible producers and importers that requested a continuance referendum, through the sign-up period, to the Deputy Administrator, Cotton and Tobacco Program, Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA, 100 Riverside Parkway, Suite 101, Fredericksburg, Virginia 22406.
7 U.S.C. 2101-2118.
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, DOE.
Final rule.
In this Final Rule, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is amending Rule 508 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure to eliminate the requirement that participants in Commission trial-type evidentiary hearings must provide paper copies of all exhibits introduced as evidence. The Final Rule will facilitate a shift toward electronic hearing procedures which should improve the efficiency and administrative convenience of the Commission hearing process, reduce the burden and expense associated with paper exhibits, and facilitate the compilation and transmittal of the hearing record to the Commission in electronic format.
This rule will become effective July 24, 2015.
Karin Herzfeld, Office of the General Counsel, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, Telephone: (202) 502-8459.
1. In this Final Rule, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is amending Rule 508 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
2. The Federal government has set a goal to substitute electronic means of communication and information storage for paper. For example, the Government Paperwork Elimination Act directed agencies to provide for the optional use and acceptance of electronic documents and signatures, and electronic record-keeping, where practical.
3. On September 21, 2000, the Commission issued Order No. 619, which implemented the use of the Internet for submission of certain documents to the Commission for filing.
4. Section 385.508 of the Commission's regulations currently requires that “[a]ny participant who seeks to have an exhibit admitted into evidence must provide one copy of the exhibit to the presiding officer and two copies to the reporter, not later than the time that the exhibit is marked for identification.”
5. The administrative law judges recently adopted a revised practice for handling exhibits and creating the Exhibit List that removes the need for providing paper copies at the hearing. Under this policy, within seven days of the end of the hearing, participants must file (via eFiling) a “Joint Exhibit List” and each sponsoring party must file (via eFiling) the “Official Copies” of each exhibit that was offered into evidence and admitted or rejected.
All electronically-filed exhibits must comply with eFiling file format requirements.
For exhibits that have not previously been provided to the participants, such exhibits must still be provided to the participants at the hearing.
6. In this Final Rule, the Commission is therefore eliminating the requirement that participants provide one paper copy of each exhibit to the presiding officer and two paper copies to the court reporter.
7. Certain collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
8. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.
9. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA)
10. Accordingly, the Commission certifies that this Final Rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. An analysis under the RFA is not required.
11. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
12. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
13. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
14. This Final Rule is effective July 24, 2015. The Commission has determined, with the concurrence of the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, that this rule is not a “major rule” as defined in section 351 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996.
Exhibits.
By the Commission.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Commission amends Part 385, Chapter I, Title 18,
5 U.S.C. 551-557; 15 U.S.C. 717-717z, 3301-3432; 16 U.S.C. 792-828c, 2601-2645; 28 U.S.C. 2461; 31 U.S.C. 3701, 9701; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352, 16441, 16451-16463; 49 U.S.C. 60502; 49 App. U.S.C. 1-85 (1988).
(a)
(2) The presiding officer will cause each exhibit offered by a participant to be marked for identification.
Agency for International Development (USAID).
Final rule.
This regulation prescribes the procedures and standard terms and conditions applicable to loan guarantees to be issued for the benefit of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan pursuant to Section 7034(r) of the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2015.
Effective June 23, 2015.
D. Bruce McPherson, Office of General Counsel, U.S. Agency for International Development, Washington, DC 20523-6601; tel. 202-712-1611, fax 202-216-3055.
Pursuant to Section 7034(r) of the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2015 (Div. J, Pub. L. 113-235), the United States of America, acting through the U.S. Agency for International Development, may issue certain loan guarantees applicable to sums borrowed by the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan (the “Borrower”), not exceeding an aggregate total of U.S. $1.5 billion in principal amount. Upon issuance, the loan guarantees shall ensure the Borrower's repayment of 100% of principal and interest due under such loans, and the full faith and credit of the United States of America shall be pledged for the full payment and performance of such guarantee obligations.
This rulemaking document is not subject to rulemaking under 5 U.S.C. 553 or to regulatory review under Executive Order 12866 because it involves a foreign affairs function of the United States. The provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Foreign aid, Foreign relations, Guaranteed loans, Loan programs—foreign relations.
Accordingly, a new Part 238 is added to Title 22, Chapter II, of the Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
Sec. 7034(r) of the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2015 (Div. J, Pub. L. 113-235).
The purpose of the regulations in this part is to prescribe the procedures and standard terms and conditions applicable to loan guarantees issued for the benefit of the Borrower, pursuant to section 7034(r) of the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2015 (Div. J, Pub. L. 113-235). The loan guarantees will be issued as provided herein pursuant to the Loan Guarantee Agreement, dated May 31, 2015, between the United States of America and the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan (the “Loan Guarantee Agreement”). The loan guarantee will apply to sums borrowed during a period beginning on the date that the Loan Guarantee Agreement enters into force and ending thirty days after such date, not exceeding an aggregate total of one billion five hundred million United States Dollars ($1,500,000,000) in principal amount. The loan guarantees shall ensure the Borrower's repayment of 100% of principal and interest due under such loans. The full faith and credit of the United States of America is pledged for the full payment and performance of such guarantee obligations.
Wherever used in the standard terms and conditions set out in this part:
(1) Defaulted Payment unpaid as of the Date of Application,
(2) Further Guaranteed Payments unpaid as of the Date of Application, and
(3) Interest accrued and unpaid at the Interest Rate(s) specified in the Eligible Note(s) on the Defaulted Payment and Further Guaranteed Payments, in each case from the date of default with respect to such payment to and including the date on which full payment thereof is made to the Noteholder.
Subject to the terms and conditions set out in this part, the United States of America, acting through USAID, guarantees to Noteholders the Borrower's repayment of 100 percent of principal and interest due on each series of Eligible Notes. Under the Guarantee, USAID agrees to pay to any Noteholder compensation in Dollars equal to such
(a) Eligible Notes only are guaranteed hereunder. Notes, in order to achieve Eligible Note status:
(1) Must be signed on behalf of the Borrower, manually or in facsimile, by a duly authorized representative of the Borrower;
(2) Must contain a certificate of authentication manually executed by a Fiscal Agent whose appointment by the Borrower is consented to by USAID in the Fiscal Agency Agreement; and
(3) Shall be approved and authenticated by USAID by either:
(i) The affixing by USAID on the Notes of a guarantee legend incorporating these Standard Terms and Conditions signed on behalf of USAID by either a manual signature or a facsimile signature of an authorized representative of USAID or
(ii) The delivery by USAID to the Fiscal Agent of a guarantee certificate incorporating these Standard Terms and Conditions signed on behalf of USAID by either a manual signature or a facsimile signature of an authorized representative of USAID.
(b) The authorized USAID representatives for purposes of the regulations in this part whose signature(s) shall be binding on USAID shall include the USAID Chief and Deputy Chief Financial Officer, Assistant Administrator and Deputy, Bureau for Economic Growth, Education, and Environment, Director and Deputy Director, Office of Development Credit, and such other individual(s) designated in a certificate executed by an authorized USAID Representative and delivered to the Fiscal Agent. The certificate of authentication of the Fiscal Agent issued pursuant to the Fiscal Agency Agreement shall, when manually executed by the Fiscal Agent, be conclusive evidence binding on USAID that an Eligible Note has been duly executed on behalf of the Borrower and delivered.
After issuance of the Guarantee, the Guarantee will be an unconditional, full faith and credit obligation of the United States of America and will not be affected or impaired by any subsequent condition or event. This non-impairment of the guarantee provision shall not, however, be operative with respect to any loss arising out of fraud or misrepresentation for which the claiming Noteholder is responsible or of which it had knowledge at the time it became a Noteholder. In particular and without limitation, the Guarantee shall not be affected or impaired by:
(a) Any defect in the authorization, execution, delivery or enforceability of any agreement or other document executed by a Noteholder, USAID, the Fiscal Agent or the Borrower in connection with the transactions contemplated by this Guarantee or
(b) The suspension or termination of the program pursuant to which USAID is authorized to guarantee the Eligible Notes.
A Noteholder may assign, transfer or pledge an Eligible Note to any Person. Any such assignment, transfer or pledge shall be effective on the date that the name of the new Noteholder is entered on the Note Register required to be maintained by the Fiscal Agent pursuant to the Fiscal Agency Agreement. USAID shall be entitled to treat the Persons in whose names the Eligible Notes are registered as the owners thereof for all purposes of the Guarantee, and USAID shall not be affected by notice to the contrary.
Failure of the Fiscal Agent to perform any of its obligations pursuant to the Fiscal Agency Agreement shall not impair any Noteholder's rights under the Guarantee but may be the subject of action for damages against the Fiscal Agent by USAID as a result of such failure or neglect. A Noteholder may appoint the Fiscal Agent to make demand for payment on its behalf under the Guarantee.
At any time after an Event of Default, as this term is defined in an Eligible Note, any Noteholder hereunder, or the Fiscal Agent on behalf of a Noteholder hereunder, may file with USAID an Application for Compensation in the form provided in Appendix A to this part. USAID shall pay or cause to be paid to any such Applicant any compensation specified in such Application for Compensation that is due to the Applicant pursuant to the Guarantee as a Loss of Investment not later than the Guarantee Payment Date. In the event that USAID receives any other notice of an Event of Default, USAID may pay any compensation that is due to any Noteholder pursuant to the Guarantee, whether or not such Noteholder has filed with USAID an Application for Compensation in respect of such amount.
Eligible Notes shall not be subject to acceleration, in whole or in part, by USAID, the Noteholder or any other party. USAID shall not have the right to pay any amounts in respect of the Eligible Notes other than in accordance with the original payment terms of such Eligible Notes.
If a Noteholder shall, as a result of USAID paying compensation under the Guarantee, receive an excess payment, it shall refund the excess to USAID.
In the event of payment by USAID to a Noteholder under the Guarantee, USAID shall be subrogated to the extent of such payment to all of the rights of such Noteholder against the Borrower under the related Note.
After payment by USAID to an Applicant hereunder, USAID shall have exclusive power to prosecute all claims related to rights to receive payments under the Eligible Notes to which it is thereby subrogated. If a Noteholder continues to have an interest in the outstanding Eligible Notes, such Noteholder and USAID shall consult with each other with respect to their respective interests in such Eligible Notes and the manner of and responsibility for prosecuting claims.
No Noteholder will consent to any change or waiver of any provision of any document contemplated by the Guarantee without the prior written consent of USAID.
Any controversy or claim between USAID and a Noteholder arising out of the Guarantee shall be settled by arbitration to be held in Washington, DC in accordance with the then prevailing rules of the American Arbitration Association, and judgment on the award rendered by the arbitrators may be entered in any court of competent jurisdiction.
Any communication to USAID pursuant to the Guarantee shall be in writing in the English language, shall refer to the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan Loan Guarantee Number inscribed on the Eligible Note and shall be complete on the day it shall be actually received by USAID at the Office of Development Credit, Bureau for Economic Growth, Education and Environment, United States Agency for International Development, Washington, DC 20523-0030. Other addresses may be substituted for the above upon the giving of notice of such substitution to each Noteholder by first class mail at the address set forth in the Note Register.
The Guarantee shall be governed by and construed in accordance with the laws of the United States of America governing contracts and commercial transactions of the United States Government.
Gentlemen: You are hereby advised that payment of $__ (consisting of $__ of principal, $__ of interest and $__ in Further Guaranteed Payments, as defined in § 238.2 of the Standard Terms and Conditions of the above-mentioned Guarantee) was due on __, 20 __, on $__ Principal Amount of Notes issued by Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan (the “Borrower”) held by the undersigned. Of such amount $__ was not received on such date and has not been received by the undersigned at the date hereof. In accordance with the terms and provisions of the above-mentioned Guarantee, the undersigned hereby applies, under § 238.8 of said Guarantee, for payment of $__, representing $__, the Principal Amount of the presently outstanding Note(s) of the Borrower held by the undersigned that was due and payable on __ and that remains unpaid, and $__, the Interest Amount on such Note(s) that was due and payable by the Borrower on __ and that remains unpaid, and $__ in Further Guaranteed Payments,
All capitalized terms herein that are not otherwise defined shall have the meanings assigned to such terms in the Standard Terms and Conditions of the above-mentioned Guarantee.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. This revision pertains to the Air Pollution Control portion of the Allegheny County Health Department (ACHD) rules and regulations and consists of changes to the regulations establishing installation permit application and administration fees and open burning permit application fees. EPA is approving these revisions to Pennsylvania's SIP in accordance with the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This final rule is effective on July 24, 2015.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2014-0886. All documents in the docket are listed in the
Paul T. Wentworth, P.E. at: (215) 814-2183, or by email at
On March 9, 2015 (80 FR 12374), EPA published a document in the
The SIP revision consists of changes to ACHD regulations in Article XXI for installation permit fees and open burning permit fees, including revisions to section 2102.10, entitled “Installation Permit Application and Administration Fees,” and to section 2105.50, entitled “Open Burning and Administration Fees.” The changes replace provisions containing fixed monetary amounts for permit fees provided for installation and open burning permits in sections 2102.10 and 2105.5 with language that
EPA received one anonymous comment on the proposed approval for the Pennsylvania SIP of revisions to ACHD's regulations. A summary of the comment and our response follows.
CAA section 110(a)(2)(L) regarding permit fee requirements for SIPs provides in pertinent part that the SIP shall “require the owner and operator of each major stationary source to pay the permitting authority, as a condition of any permit required under this chapter, a fee sufficient to cover” the reasonable costs of reviewing and acting on permit applications and the reasonable costs of implementing and enforcing the terms and conditions of any such permits. Section 110(a)(2)(L) further requires such provisions for SIPs until the major source fee requirements are superseded with respect to such sources by EPA's approval of a fee program under Title V of the CAA.
In the NPR, EPA proposed to approve for the Pennsylvania SIP certain revisions to Allegheny County's regulations which deleted fixed fees for certain required installation permits and open burning permits from the ACHD regulations and replaced such fixed fees with provisions stating that installation and open burning permit fees required for owners and operators of certain pollutant emitting stationary sources would be set by Allegheny County factoring in the degree of technical and regulatory difficulty for categories of installation permits. EPA proposed to approve the revisions as meeting requirements for permit fees in CAA section 110(a)(2)(L). In the proposal, EPA inadvertently did not include the verbatim text of CAA section 110(a)(2)(L) in providing the explanation for our proposed approval of Allegheny County's regulations. However, the revisions to sections 2102.10 and 2105.50 of Article XXI of Allegheny County's regulations satisfy CAA section 110(a)(2)(L) because the revised provisions in sections 2102.10 and 2015.50 clearly require the owner and operator of certain air pollutant-emitting sources to pay to Allegheny County, the local permitting authority, a fee sufficient to cover reasonable costs to review and act upon permit applications and reasonable costs for Allegheny County to implement and enforce permit terms and conditions. The revisions to sections 2102.10 and 2105.50 simply remove a fixed monetary fee that owners and operators of certain sources would need to pay for installation and open burning permits and replace the fixed fee with applicable criteria for Allegheny County to determine the value of the fee for owners or operators to obtain required installation and open burning permits. The provisions of Allegheny County's regulations still require the payment of a fee for certain installation and open burning permits which would meet requirements in section 110(a)(2)(L) for SIPs to include provisions for payment of such fees.
EPA is unsure of the relevance of the quote from EPA's Infrastructure SIP Guidance included in the comment. The Infrastructure SIP Guidance at pages 56-57 states: “Currently, every state has an EPA-approved fee program under CAA Title V. However, the fee program is not required to be part of the EPA approved SIP.” This language clearly refers to the EPA-approved fee program under CAA Title V for
EPA is approving as a revision to the Pennsylvania SIP the August 30, 2010 SIP submittal from PADEP consisting of changes to the ACHD regulations establishing installation permit application and administration fee requirements and open burning permit application fee requirements in Allegheny County.
In this, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the Allegheny County Regulations described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by August 24, 2015. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action pertaining to the Air Pollution Control portion of the Allegheny County Rules and Regulations, which revises the regulations establishing installation permit application and administration fees, as well as open burning permit application fees may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Connecticut. The revision updates state regulations containing ambient air quality standards (AAQS) to be consistent with EPA's national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). The intended effect of this action is to approve these regulations into the Connecticut SIP. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This direct final rule will be effective August 24, 2015, unless EPA receives adverse comments by July 24, 2015. If adverse comments are received, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R01-OAR-2014-0881, by one of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
In addition, copies of the state's submittal are available for public inspection during normal business hours, by appointment at the state environmental agency: The Bureau of Air Management, Department of Energy and Environmental Protection, State Office Building, 79 Elm Street, Hartford, CT 06106-1630.
David Mackintosh, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail Code OEP05-02), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone 617-918-1584, facsimile 617-918-0584, email
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
EPA is approving a SIP revision submitted by the State of Connecticut on April 22, 2014 concerning updates to Connecticut's AAQS. The Connecticut AAQS, set out in Regulations of Connecticut State Agencies (RCSA) section 22a-174-24, were amended to be consistent with the NAAQS set out in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 40 CFR part 50. Connecticut also revised the definitions of “ambient air quality standard” and “PM 10” in RCSA subsections 22a-174-1(10) and 22a-174-1(88), respectively, and revised references to RCSA section 22a-174-24 in RCSA subsections 22a-174-3a(k)(5) and 22a-174-28(a)(5).
Section 109 of the CAA directs EPA to establish NAAQS requisite to protect public health with an adequate margin of safety (primary standard) and for the protection of public welfare (secondary standard). Section 109(d)(1) of the CAA requires EPA to complete a thorough review of the NAAQS at 5-year intervals and promulgate new standards when appropriate. Additionally, Section 107 of the CAA requires the establishment of air quality control regions for the purpose of implementing the NAAQS.
On October 17, 2006 (71 FR 61144), EPA revised the primary and secondary 24-hour NAAQS for fine particulate matter (PM
On March 27, 2008 (73 FR 16436), EPA revised the NAAQS for ozone, setting the level of the primary and secondary 8-hour standard to 0.075 parts per million. This final ozone standard rule became effective on May 27, 2008.
On November 12, 2008 (73 FR 66964), EPA revised the NAAQS for lead, setting the level of the primary and secondary standard to 0.15 micrograms per cubic meter and revised the averaging time to a rolling 3-month period with a maximum (not-to-be-exceeded) form, evaluated over a 3-year period. The final lead standard rule became effective on January 12, 2009.
On February 9, 2010 (75 FR 6474), EPA revised the NAAQS for oxides of nitrogen as measured by nitrogen dioxide (NO
On June 22, 2010 (75 FR 35520), EPA revised the NAAQS for oxides of sulfur as measured by sulfur dioxide (SO
On January 15, 2013 (78 FR 3086), EPA revised the primary PM
On April 22, 2014, Connecticut submitted a SIP revision to update its ambient air quality standards set out in RCSA section 22a-174-24, definitions in RCSA subsections 22a-174-1(10) and 22a-174-1(88), and references in RCSA subsections 22a-174-3a(k)(5) and 22a-174-28(a)(5).
On December 14, 2014, Connecticut withdrew RCSA subsection 22a-174-24(m), ambient air quality standard for dioxin, from its April 22, 2014 SIP submittal.
Connecticut's April 22, 2014 SIP submittal includes revised RCSA section 22a-174-24, “Connecticut primary and secondary ambient air quality standards.” This regulation has been revised to explicitly incorporate the new NAAQS discussed above. Specifically, Connecticut adopted the following substantive changes:
1. The sulfur dioxide primary 1-hour standard of 75 parts per billion; and
2. The PM
3. The PM
4. The PM
5. The PM
6. The ozone primary and secondary 8-hour standards of 0.075 parts per million;
7. The nitrogen dioxide primary 1-hour standard of 100 parts per billion; and
8. The lead primary and secondary rolling 3-month average standards of 0.15 micrograms per cubic meter.
Connecticut's April 22, 2014 SIP revision also includes Connecticut's revised definitions of the terms “ambient air quality standard” and “PM 10” in RCSA section 22a-174-1, “Definitions.” These definitions have been revised to reference 40 CFR part 50 and 40 CFR part 50, appendix J, respectively. In addition, Connecticut's SIP submittal includes minor edits to subsection (k)(5) of RCSA section 22a-174-3a, “Permit to Construct and Operate Stationary Sources.” Subsection (k)(5) has been updated to reference the defined term “AAQS.” Finally, in Connecticut's SIP submittal, the definition of “control period” in
Connecticut's air quality standards rule, RCSA section 22a-174-24, as well as amendments to this rule, have been previously approved into the Connecticut SIP, with the most recent approval occurring on December 13, 1985 (50 FR 50906). The other rules for which amendments were included in Connecticut's April 24, 2014 SIP revision have also been previously approved into the Connecticut SIP, with the most recent approvals occurring on May 10, 2011 (76 FR 26933) for RCSA sections 22a-174-1 and 22a-174-3a, and on September 28, 1999 (64 FR 67188) for RCSA section 22a-174-28. EPA has reviewed Connecticut's revisions to its ambient air quality standards, definitions, and references and has determined they are consistent with the federal NAAQS in 40 CFR part 50. Connecticut's revised RCSA section 22a-174-24 includes additional and more stringent air quality standards than the previous SIP-approved version of the rule. Thus, the revised RCSA section 22a-174-24 satisfies the anti-back sliding requirements in Section 110(l) of the CAA and we are approving Connecticut's revised rule into the Connecticut SIP.
EPA is approving, and incorporating into the Connecticut SIP, the following regulations submitted by Connecticut on April 22, 2014: In RCSA section 22a-174-1, entitled “Definitions,” the amendment of subdivisions (10) and (88); in RCSA section 22a-174-3a, entitled “Permit to Construct and Operate Stationary Sources,” the amendment of subdivision (k)(5); RCSA section 22a-174-24, entitled “Connecticut primary and secondary ambient air quality standards,” with the exception of subsection (m), “Connecticut primary ambient air quality standard for dioxin,” which Connecticut withdrew from its SIP submittal; and in RCSA section 22a-174-28, entitled, “Oxygenated Gasoline,” the amendment of subdivision (a)(5).
The EPA is publishing this action without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If the EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a document withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. The EPA will not institute a second comment period on the proposed rule. All parties interested in commenting on the proposed rule should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the Regulations of Connecticut State Agencies described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Lead, National ambient air quality standards, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(106) Revisions to the State Implementation Plan submitted by the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection on April 22, 2014.
(i) Incorporation by reference.
(A) Regulations of Connecticut State Agencies Section 22a-174-1(10) and (88), as published in the Connecticut Law Journal on July 1, 2014, effective April 15, 2014.
(B) Regulations of Connecticut State Agencies Section 22a-174-3a(k)(5), as published in the Connecticut Law Journal on July 1, 2014, effective April 15, 2014.
(C) Regulations of Connecticut State Agencies Section 22a-174-24, “Connecticut primary and secondary ambient air quality standards,” with the exceptions of subsections (a), (c), (g), (j), and (m), as published in the Connecticut Law Journal on July 1, 2014, effective April 15, 2014.
(D) Regulations of Connecticut State Agencies (RCSA) Section 22a-174-28 (a)(5), as published in the Connecticut Law Journal on July 1, 2014, effective April 15, 2014.
3. In § 52.385, Table 52.385 is amended by adding new entries for existing state citations “22a-174-1”, “22a-174-3a”, “22a-174-24”, and “22a-174-28” to read as follows:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) submittal from the State of New Mexico pertaining to the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the 2008 National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS or standards) for Ozone (O
This final rule is effective on July 24, 2015.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2014-0270. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Sherry Fuerst, (214) 665-6454,
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
The background for today's action is discussed in detail in our March 26, 2015, proposal (80 FR 15963). In that rulemaking action, we proposed to approve (1) an August 27, 2013, SIP submittal from the State of New Mexico pertaining to the implementation, maintenance and enforcement of the 2008 ozone NAAQS, (2) a March 12, 2014, SIP submittal pertaining to the implementation, maintenance and enforcement of the 2008 nitrogen dioxide NAAQS, and; (3) that the November 27, 2012 and October 9, 2014 final SIP actions pertaining to the interstate transport requirement for visibility protection meet the requirement for the 2006 PM 2.5 NAAQS. The public comment period for the March 26, 2015, proposal (80 FR 15963) expired on April 27, 2015, and we did not receive any comments concerning our proposal. Therefore, we are finalizing our proposed action.
We are approving the (1) August 27, 2013, SIP submittal from the State of New Mexico pertaining to the implementation, maintenance and enforcement of the 2008 ozone NAAQS, (2) March 12, 2014, SIP submittal pertaining to the implementation, maintenance and enforcement of the 2008 nitrogen dioxide NAAQS, and; (3) the November 27, 2012 and October 9, 2014 final SIP actions pertaining to the interstate transport requirement for visibility protection as meeting the requirement for the 2006 PM 2.5 NAAQS.
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by August 24, 2015. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purpose of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The revision and additions reads as follows:
(e) * * *
In Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 63 (§ 63.8980 to end of part 63), revised as of July 1, 2014, on page 244, in § 63.10686, paragraph (e) is reinstated to read as follows:
(e) You must monitor the capture system and PM control device required by this subpart, maintain records, and submit reports according to the compliance assurance monitoring requirements in 40 CFR part 64. The exemption in 40 CFR 64.2(b)(1)(i) for emissions limitations or standards proposed after November 15, 1990 under section 111 or 112 of the CAA does not apply. In lieu of the deadlines for submittal in 40 CFR 64.5, you must submit the monitoring information required by 40 CFR 64.4 to the applicable permitting authority for approval by no later than the compliance date for your affected source for this subpart and operate according to the approved plan by no later than 180 days after the date of approval by the permitting authority.
In Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 81 to 84, revised as of July 1, 2014, on page 150, in § 81.305, in the table entitled “California—NO
Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).
Final rule.
The General Services Administration (GSA) is issuing a final rule to amend the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) to update the text and clauses regarding Hazardous Materials Identification and Material Safety Data.
Mr. Kevin Funk, Procurement Analyst, at 215-446-4860, for clarification of content. For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat Division at 202-501-4755. Please cite GSAR Case 2006-G506.
GSA published a proposed rule in 2009 to update the text and clauses regarding Hazardous Materials Identification and Material Safety Data. A second proposed rule was issued in the
The final rule changes the title of Part 523 to “Environment, Energy and Water Efficiency, Renewable Energy Technologies, Occupational Safety, and Drug-Free Workplace,” to correspond to the title in FAR Part 23. The title for Subpart 523.3 is changed to “Hazardous Material Identification and Material Safety Data” to be consistent with the corresponding FAR subpart.
In addition, this final rule adds a new hazardous materials clause, GSAR clause 552.223-73. GSAR clause 552.223-73 Preservation, Packaging, Packing, Marking and Labeling of Hazardous Materials (HAZMAT) For Shipments is added to require compliance by contractors regarding preservation, packaging, packing, marking, and labeling of hazardous materials. This clause is also added to the Provision and Clause Matrixes.
The GSAR provision at 552.212-72, Contract Terms and Conditions Required to Implement Statutes or Executive Orders Applicable to GSA Acquisition of Commercial Items, is updated to include the new hazardous material clause 552.223-73.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under section 6(b) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
The General Services Administration certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
This final rule does not contain any information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).
Government procurement.
Therefore, GSA amends 48 CFR parts 523 and 552 as set forth below:
40 U.S.C. 121(c).
523.303 Contract clauses.
(c) Insert 552.223-73, Preservation, Packaging, Packing, Marking and Labeling of Hazardous Materials (HAZMAT) for Shipments, in solicitations and contracts for packaged items containing hazardous materials.
40 U.S.C. 121(c).
(b)
As prescribed in 523.303(c), insert the following clause:
(a)
(b) Preservation, packaging, packing, marking and labeling of hazardous materials for export shipment outside the United States in all transport modes shall comply with the following, as applicable:
(1) International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code as established by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
(2) U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) Hazardous Material Regulation (HMR) 49 CFR parts 171 through 180. (Note: Classifications permitted by the HMR, but not permitted by the IMDG code, such as Consumer Commodities classed as ORM-D, shall be packaged in accordance with the IMDG Code and dual-marked with both Consumer Commodity and IMDG marking and labeling.)
(3) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Regulation 29 CFR part 1910.1200.
(4) International Air Transport Association (IATA), Dangerous Goods Regulation and/or International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Technical Instructions.
(5) AFMAN 24-204, Air Force Inter-Service Manual, Preparing Hazardous Materials For Military Air Shipments.
(6) Any preservation, packaging, packing, marking and labeling requirements contained elsewhere in this solicitation and contract.
(c) Preservation, packaging, packing, marking and labeling of hazardous materials for domestic shipments within the United States in all transport modes shall comply with the following; as applicable:
(1) U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) Hazardous Material Regulation (HMR) 49 CFR parts 171 through 180.
(2) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Regulation 29 CFR part 1910.1200.
(3) Any preservation, packaging, packing, marking and labeling requirements contained elsewhere in this solicitation and contract.
(d) Hazardous Material Packages designated for outside the United States destinations through Forwarding Points, Distribution Centers, or Container Consolidation Points (CCPs) shall comply with the IMDG, IATA, ICAO or AFMAN 24-204 codes, as applicable.
(e) The test certification data showing compliance with performance-oriented packaging or UN-approved packaging requirements shall be made available to GSA contract administration/management representatives or regulatory inspectors upon request.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS implements accountability measures (AMs) for the commercial sector for Atlantic dolphin (dolphin) in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) off the Atlantic states (Maine through the east coast of Florida) for the 2015 fishing year through this temporary rule. Commercial landings for dolphin, as estimated by the Science and Research Director, are projected to reach the commercial annual catch limit (ACL) by June 24, 2015. Therefore, NMFS closes the commercial sector for dolphin on June 24, 2015, through the remainder of the fishing year in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) of the Atlantic. This closure is necessary to protect the dolphin resource.
This rule is effective 12:01 a.m., local time, June 24, 2015, until 12:01 a.m., local time, January 1, 2016.
Catherine Hayslip, NMFS Southeast Regional Office, telephone: 727-824-5305, email:
The dolphin and wahoo fishery off the Atlantic states is managed under the Fishery Management Plan for the Dolphin and Wahoo Fishery of the Atlantic (FMP). The FMP was prepared by the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council, in cooperation with the Mid-Atlantic and New England Fishery Management Councils, and is implemented under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) by regulations at 50 CFR part 622.
The commercial ACL for dolphin is 1,157,001 lb (524,807 kg), round weight. Under 50 CFR 622.280(a)(l)(i), NMFS is required to close the commercial sector for dolphin when the commercial ACL has been reached, or is projected to be reached, by filing a notification to that effect with the Office of the Federal Register. NMFS has determined that the commercial ACL has been reached and that the commercial sector for dolphin should close on June 24, 2015. Therefore, this temporary rule implements an AM to close the commercial sector for dolphin in the EEZ off the Atlantic states (Maine through the east coast of Florida), effective 12:01 a.m., local time June 24, 2015.
The operator of a vessel with a valid commercial vessel permit for dolphin on board must have landed and bartered, traded, or sold such species prior to 12:01 a.m., local time, June 24, 2015. During the closure, the bag and possession limits specified in 50 CFR 622.277(a)(1) apply to all harvest or possession of dolphin in or from the Atlantic EEZ. Additionally, these bag and possession limits apply in the Atlantic EEZ (Maine through the east coast of Florida) on board a vessel for which a valid Federal commercial or charter vessel/headboat permit for dolphin and wahoo has been issued, without regard to where such species were harvested,
The Regional Administrator, Southeast Region, NMFS, has determined this temporary rule is necessary for the conservation and management of dolphin off the Atlantic states and is consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable laws.
This action is taken under 50 CFR 622.280(a)(1)(i) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
These measures are exempt from the procedures of the Regulatory Flexibility Act because the temporary rule is issued without opportunity for prior notice and comment.
This action responds to the best scientific information available. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries,
For the aforementioned reasons, the AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effectiveness of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Atka mackerel in the Central Aleutian district (CAI) of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area (BSAI) by vessels participating in the BSAI trawl limited access fishery. This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the 2015 total allowable catch (TAC) of Atka mackerel in this area allocated to vessels participating in the BSAI trawl limited access fishery.
Effective 1200 hrs, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), June 20, 2015, through 2400 hrs, A.l.t., December 31, 2015.
Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2015 TAC of Atka mackerel, in the CAI, allocated to vessels participating in the BSAI trawl limited access fishery was established as a directed fishing allowance of 1,511 metric tons by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator finds that this directed fishing allowance has been reached. Consequently, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Atka mackerel in the CAI by vessels participating in the BSAI trawl limited access fishery.
After the effective dates of this closure, the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, (AA) finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such a requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the closure of the Atka mackerel directed fishery in the CAI for vessels participating in the BSAI trawl limited access fishery. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of June 18, 2015. The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of petition.
We are notifying the public that the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) has received a petition requesting that we amend the regulations to require that research facilities include information about the uses of animals in the annual report they submit to APHIS. We are making this petition available to the public and soliciting comments regarding any issues raised by the petition that we should consider.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before August 24, 2015.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
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The petition and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Dr. Carol Clarke, Research Program Manager, USDA, APHIS, Animal Care, 4700 River Road Unit 84, Riverdale, MD 20737-1234; (301) 851-3724.
The Animal Welfare Act (AWA, 7 U.S.C. 2131
Regulations and standards promulgated under the AWA are contained in title 9 of the Code of Federal Regulations, parts 1, 2, and 3 (referred to collectively below as the AWA regulations). Part 1 contains definitions of terms used within parts 2 and 3. Part 2 contains licensing and registration regulations, regulations specific to research facilities, and regulations governing veterinary care, animal identification, recordkeeping, access for inspection, confiscation of animals, and handling, among other requirements. Within part 2, subpart C contains the regulations specific to research facilities.
The regulations in paragraph (a) of § 2.36 require that the reporting facility be the segment of the research facility, or that department, agency, or instrumentality of the United States, that uses or intends to use live animals in research, tests, experiments, or for teaching. Each reporting facility is required to submit an annual report
Under § 2.36, the annual report is required to assure that professionally acceptable standards governing the care, treatment, and use of animals, including appropriate use of anesthetic, analgesic, and tranquilizing drugs, were used prior to, during, and following actual procedures, and that each principal investigator has considered alternatives to painful procedures. The annual report is also required to assure that the facility is adhering to the standards and regulations under the AWA. Exceptions to the standards and regulations are required to be attached to the annual report as a summary that includes a brief explanation as well as the species and number of animals affected.
In addition, the regulations require the annual report to state the location of all facilities where animals were housed or used in actual research, testing, teaching, or experimentation, or held for these purposes.
The regulations also require the annual report to include the common names and numbers of animals involved in procedures for which: (1) No pain, distress, or use of pain-relieving drugs was involved; (2) appropriate anesthetic, analgesic, or tranquilizing drugs were provided where there was accompanying pain or distress to the animals; or (3) pain and distress was involved and the use of appropriate anesthetic, analgesic, or tranquilizing drugs for relief would have adversely affected the procedures, results, or interpretation of the teaching, research, experiments, surgery, or tests. An explanation of the procedures producing pain or distress in these animals and the reasons such drugs were not used is required to be attached to the annual report.
Lastly, the annual report is required under the regulations to include the common names and numbers of animals being bred, conditioned, or held for use in teaching, testing, research, experiments, or surgery, but not yet used for such purposes.
APHIS received a petition from the National Anti-Vivisection Society (referred to below as NAVS) dated December 15, 2014. In the petition, NAVS stated that the online Animal
We are making this petition available to the public and soliciting comments to help determine what action, if any, to take in response to this request. The petition and any comments submitted are available for review as indicated under
1. Should APHIS amend the regulations to require research facilities that use animals for teaching, testing, and experimentation to provide specific information about how regulated animals are used (for example, for safety testing, teaching purposes, or disease research)? Would reporting this information improve animal welfare? If so, how?
2. If research facilities were required to report the purposes of their animal research activities, what types of information should be provided, and why?
3. What might be the effects, if any, on research facilities if they are required to collect and report this additional information?
4. Does the annual reporting form currently required to be used by research facilities capture sufficient information? If not, what information is missing?
We encourage the submission of scientific data, studies, or research to support your comments and position. We also invite data on the costs and benefits associated with any recommendations. We will consider all comments we receive.
7 U.S.C. 2131-2159; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.7.
National Credit Union Administration.
Notice of regulatory review; request for comments.
The NCUA Board (Board) is continuing its comprehensive review of its regulations to identify outdated, unnecessary, or burdensome regulatory requirements imposed on federally insured credit unions, as contemplated by section 2222 of the Economic Growth and Regulatory Paperwork Reduction Act of 1996 (EGRPRA). This second decennial review of regulations began when the Board issued its first EGRPRA notice on May 22, 2014, covering the two categories of “Applications and Reporting” and “Powers and Activities.” The second notice followed, covering the three categories of “Agency Programs,” “Capital,” and “Consumer Protection,” which was published on December 19, 2014. The Board continues the review process with the publication of this third notice, covering the next three categories of rules: “Corporate Credit Unions,” “Directors, Officers and Employees,” and “Money Laundering.” This review presents a significant opportunity to consider the possibilities for burden reduction in groups of similar regulations. The Board welcomes comment on the categories, the order of review, and all other aspects of this initiative in order to maximize the review's effectiveness.
Comment must be received on or before September 22, 2015.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (Please send comments by one method only):
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Ross P. Kendall, Special Counsel to the General Counsel, at the above address, or telephone: (703) 518-6562.
This second decennial review of regulations began when the Board issued its first EGRPRA notice on May 22, 2014, covering the two categories of “Applications and Reporting” and “Powers and Activities.”
Congress enacted EGRPRA
NCUA is not technically required to participate in the EGRPRA review process, since NCUA is not an “appropriate Federal banking agency” as specified in EGRPRA. In keeping with the spirit of the law, however, the Board has once again elected to participate in the review process. Thus, NCUA has participated along with the Agencies in the planning process, but has developed its own regulatory categories that are comparable with those developed by the Agencies. Because of the unique circumstances of federally insured credit unions and their members, the Board is issuing a separate notice from the Agencies. NCUA's notice is consistent and comparable with the Agencies' notice, except on issues that are unique to credit unions. One such unique issue, corporate credit unions, is included in this third notice.
In accordance with the objectives of EGRPRA, the Board asks the public to identify areas of its regulations that are outdated, unnecessary, or unduly burdensome. In addition to this third notice, the Board will issue one more notice for comment later on during 2015. The EGRPRA review supplements and complements the reviews of regulations that NCUA conducts under other laws and its internal policies.
As the Board noted in its initial EGRPRA notice, the creation of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) resulted in the transfer to it of responsibility for certain consumer protection rules that had previously been the responsibility of the Agencies and/or NCUA, such as Regulation Z and rules governing consumer privacy. Because the CFPB is not covered by EGRPRA or required to participate in this regulatory review process, the Agencies and NCUA excluded certain consumer protection regulations from the scope of the current review.
EGRPRA contemplates a two-part regulatory response. First, NCUA will publish in the
EGRPRA further requires the FFIEC to submit a report to the Congress within 30 days after NCUA and the Agencies publish the comment summary and analysis in the
The regulatory review contemplated by EGRPRA provides a significant opportunity for the public and the Board to consider groups of related regulations and identify possibilities for streamlining. The EGRPRA review's overall focus on the totality of regulations will offer a new perspective in identifying opportunities to reduce regulatory burden. For example, the EGRPRA review may facilitate the identification of regulatory requirements that are no longer consistent with the way business is conducted and that therefore might be eliminated. Of course, reducing regulatory burden must be consistent with ensuring the continued safety and soundness of federally insured credit unions and appropriate consumer protections.
EGRPRA also recognizes that burden reduction must be consistent with NCUA's statutory mandates, many of which currently require certain regulations. One of the significant aspects of the EGRPRA review program is the recognition that effective burden reduction in certain areas may require legislative change. The Board will be soliciting comment on, and reviewing the comments and regulations carefully for, the relationship among burden reduction, regulatory requirements, and statutory mandates. This will be a key aspect of the report to Congress.
The Board views the approach of considering the relationship of regulatory and statutory change on regulatory burden, in concert with EGRPRA's provisions calling for grouping regulations by type, to provide the potential for particularly effective burden reduction. The Board believes the EGRPRA review can also significantly contribute to its on-going efforts to reduce regulatory burden. Since 1987, a formally adopted NCUA policy has required the Board to review each of its regulations at least once every three years with a view toward eliminating, simplifying, or otherwise easing the burden of each regulation.
The Board is particularly sensitive to the impact of agency rules on small institutions. In 2013, the Board formally increased the threshold for meeting the “small” classification to having assets of $50 million or less.
EGRPRA contemplates the categorization of regulations by “type.” During the initial decennial review, the Board developed and published for comment ten categories for NCUA's rules, including some that had been issued jointly with the Agencies. The Board believes these initial categories worked well for the purpose of presenting a framework for the review and so has retained them for this second review.
As the Board noted during the initial decennial review, although there are other possible ways of categorizing its rules, these ten categories “are logical groupings that are not so broad such that the number of regulations presented in any one category would overwhelm potential commenters. The categories also reflect recognized areas of industry interest and specialization or are particularly critical to the health of the credit union system.” As was also noted during the initial review, some regulations, such as lending, pertain to more than one category and are included in all applicable categories.
The Board remains convinced that publishing its rules for public comment separately from the Agencies is the most effective method for achieving EGRPRA's burden reduction goals for federally insured credit unions. Owing to differences in the credit union system as compared to the banking system, there is not a direct, category by category, correlation between NCUA's rules and those of the Agencies. For example, credit unions deal with issues such as membership, credit union service organizations, and corporate credit unions, all of which are unique to credit union operations. Similarly, certain categories identified by the Agencies have limited or no applicability in the credit union sector, such as community reinvestment, international operations, and securities. The categories developed by the Board and the Agencies reflect these differences. The Board intends to maintain comparability with the Agencies' notices to the extent there is overlap or similarity in the issues and the categories.
After the conclusion of the comment period for each EGRPRA notice published in the
The Board has prepared two charts to assist public understanding of the organization of its review. The first chart, set forth at Section V.A. below, presents the three categories of regulations on which NCUA is requesting burden reduction recommendations in this notice. The three categories are shown in the left column. In the middle column are the subject matters that fall within the categories and in the far right column are the regulatory citations. The second chart, set forth at Section V.B. below, presents the remaining two categories in alphabetical order in a similar format.
The Board seeks public comment on regulations within the following three categories—“Corporate Credit Unions,” “Directors, Officers, and Employees,” and “Money Laundering”— that may impose outdated, unnecessary, or unduly burdensome regulatory requirements on federally insured credit unions. Comments that cite particular provisions or language, and provide reasons why such provisions should be changed, would be most helpful to NCUA's review efforts. Suggested alternative provisions or language, where appropriate, would also be helpful. If the implementation of a comment would require modifying a statute that underlies the regulation, the comment should, if possible, identify the needed statutory change.
Specific issues for commenters to consider. While all comments related to any aspect of the EGRPRA review are welcome, the Board specifically invites comment on the following issues:
• Need and purpose of the regulations. Do the regulations in these categories fulfill current needs? Has industry or other circumstances changed since a regulation was written such that the regulation is no longer necessary? Have there been shifts within the industry or consumer actions that suggest a re-focus of the underlying regulations? Do any of the regulations in these categories impose burdens not required by their authorizing statutes?
• Need for statutory change. Do the statutes impose unnecessary requirements? Are any of the statutory requirements underlying these categories redundant, conflicting or otherwise unduly burdensome? If so, how should the statutes be amended?
• Overarching approaches/flexibility of the regulatory standards. Generally, is there a different approach to regulating that the Board could use that would achieve statutory goals while imposing less burden? Do any of the regulations in these categories or the statutes underlying them impose unnecessarily inflexible requirements?
• Effect of the regulations on competition. Do any of the regulations in these categories or the statutes underlying them create competitive disadvantages for credit unions compared to another part of the financial services industry? If so, how should these regulations be amended?
• Reporting, recordkeeping and disclosure requirements. Do any of the regulations in these categories or the statutes underlying them impose particularly burdensome reporting, recordkeeping or disclosure requirements? Are any of these requirements similar enough in purpose and use so that they could be consolidated? What, if any, of these requirements could be fulfilled electronically to reduce their burden? Please provide specific recommendations.
• Consistency and redundancy. Do any of the regulations in these categories impose inconsistent or redundant regulatory requirements that are not warranted by the circumstances?
• Clarity. Are the regulations in these categories and the underlying statutes drafted in clear and easily understood language? Are there specific regulations or underlying statutes that need clarification?
• Scope of rules. Is the scope of each rule in these categories consistent with the intent of the underlying statute(s)?
• Burden on small insured institutions. The Board has a particular interest in minimizing burden on small insured credit unions (those with less than $50 million in assets). NCUA solicits comment on whether any regulations within these categories should be continued without change, amended or rescinded in order to minimize any significant economic impact the regulations may have on a substantial number of small federally insured credit unions.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2005-01-09, which applies to certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, and 747SR series airplanes. AD 2005-01-09 requires a one-time detailed inspection for discrepancies of the frame web and inner chords on the forward edge frame of the number 5 main entry door cutout, and corrective action if necessary. Since we issued AD 2005-01-09, additional cracking was found in the same area after completion of the one-time detailed inspection. This proposed AD would add repetitive high frequency eddy current inspections for cracking of the frame inner chords (forward and aft), and corrective action if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct discrepancies of the frame web and inner chords, which could result in cracking, subsequent severing of the frame, and consequent rapid depressurization of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 10, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On December 27, 2004, we issued AD 2005-01-09, Amendment 39-13933 (70 FR 1340, January 7, 2005), for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, and 747SR series airplanes. AD 2005-01-09 requires a one-time inspection for discrepancies of the frame web and inner chords on the forward edge frame of the number 5 main entry door cutout, and corrective action if necessary. AD 2005-01-09 resulted from a report of cracking of the frame web and inner chords on the forward edge frame of the number 5 main entry door. We issued AD 2005-01-09 to find and fix discrepancies of the frame web and inner chords, which could result in cracking, subsequent severing of the frame, and consequent rapid depressurization of the airplane.
Since we issued AD 2005-01-09, Amendment 39-13933 (70 FR 1340, January 7, 2005), additional cracking was found in the same area after completion of the one-time detailed inspection required by AD 2005-01-09.
We reviewed and approved Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015. The service information describes procedures for a one-time detailed inspection and repetitive surface high frequency eddy current inspections of the Station 2231 frame inner chords (forward and aft), and repair of discrepancies. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
On August 16, 2013, we issued AD 2013-17-08, Amendment 39-17572 (78 FR 57053, September 17, 2013), for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, and 747SR series airplanes. AD 2013-17-08 requires repetitive inspections to find cracking of the web, strap, inner chords, inner chord angle of the forward edge frame of the number 5 main entry door cutouts; the frame segment between stringers 16 and 31; repair if necessary; and repetitive inspections for cracking of repairs. AD 2013-17-08 resulted from multiple reports of cracking outside of the previous inspection areas and a report of a crack that initiated at the aft edge of the inner chord rather than initiating at a fastener location. We issued AD 2013-17-08 to detect and correct such cracks, which could cause damage to the adjacent body structure and could result in depressurization of the airplane in flight.
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
Although this proposed AD does not explicitly restate the requirements of AD 2005-01-09, Amendment 39-13933 (70 FR 1340, January 7, 2005), this proposed AD would retain all of the requirements. Those requirements are referenced in the service information identified previously, which, in turn, is referenced in paragraph (g) of this proposed AD. This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Difference Between this Proposed AD and the Service Bulletin.” Refer to this service information for information on the procedures and compliance times.
Although Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015, specifies that operators may contact the manufacturer for disposition of certain repair conditions, this proposed AD would require repairing those conditions in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 174 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide a cost estimate for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this AD action by August 10, 2015.
This AD replaces AD 2005-01-09, Amendment 39-13933 (70 FR 1340, January 7, 2005).
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-100, -100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, and 747SR series airplanes; certificated in any category; as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by reports of additional cracking found in the same area after completion of the one-time detailed inspection. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct discrepancies of the frame web and inner chords, which could result in cracking, subsequent severing of the frame, and consequent rapid depressurization of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Do the applicable actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), (g)(3), and (g)(4) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015, except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD.
(1) At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015, do a detailed inspection for nicks, scratches, or gouges of the Station 2231 frame inner chords, forward and aft, at stringer 26 at the edge and side of the inner chords.
(2) At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015, except as required by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD: Do a surface high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection for cracks of the frame inner chords, forward and aft.
(3) Based on the findings from the inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, do all applicable corrective actions, before further flight.
(4) Repeat the HFEC inspection specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015.
(1) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015, specifies a compliance time “after the release of Revision 1 of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2015, specifies to contact Boeing for repair instructions: Before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for inspections required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, if those inspections were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2494, dated September 18, 2003, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2005-01-09, Amendment 39-13933 (70 FR 1340, January 7, 2005).
(2) This paragraph provides credit for inspections required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, if those inspections were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2450, Revision 7, dated November 2, 2011, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2013-17-08, Amendment 39-17572 (78 FR 57053, September 17, 2013).
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved for AD 2005-01-09, Amendment 39-13933 (70 FR 1340, January 7, 2005), are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of a crack of the forward leg of the left front spar lower chord and cracks on the lower wing skin at three fastener holes common to the nacelle outboard side load fitting. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections for cracks on the front spar lower chord, inspar skin, and wing skin, and corrective action if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the forward leg of the front spar lower chord, inspar skin, and wing skin common to the nacelle outboard side load fitting, which could adversely affect the structural integrity of the wing.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 10, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
• Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Delivery: Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Alan Pohl, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6450; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We received a report of a crack on the forward leg of the left front spar lower chord at wing buttock line (WBL) 177. The front spar lower chord was removed, repaired, and reinstalled. Upon additional inspection of the repaired spar chord installation, cracks were also discovered on the lower wing
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014. The service information describes procedures for repetitive inspections for cracks on the left and right wing front spar lower chord, inspar skin, and wing skin and corrective action if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of these same type designs.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” Refer to this service information for details on the procedures and compliance times.
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this proposed AD. “Corrective actions” are actions that correct or address any condition found. Corrective actions in an AD could include, for example, repairs.
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, specifies to contact the manufacturer for instructions on how to repair certain conditions, but this proposed AD would require repairing those conditions in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
For Group 2 and 3 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, paragraph (h) of this proposed AD specifies repeating the detailed inspection for cracks on the left and right wing front spar lower chord and inspar skin inspection, except in areas repaired in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which steps in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these steps from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD compliance. The steps identified as RC (required for compliance) in any service information identified previously have a direct effect on detecting, preventing, resolving, or eliminating an identified unsafe condition.
For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the following provisions apply: (1) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD, and an AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures; and (2) steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 331 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the actions specified for the Group 1 airplane in this proposed AD.
We also have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 10, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by a report of a crack in the forward leg of the left front spar lower chord and cracks on the lower wing skin at three fastener holes common to the nacelle outboard side load fitting. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the forward leg of the front spar lower chord, inspar skin, and wing skin common to the nacelle outboard side load fitting, which could adversely affect the structural integrity of the wing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For Group 1 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014: Within 120 days after the effective date of this AD, do inspections of the left and right wing front spar lower chord and inspar skin, and the left and right wing nacelle outboard side load fitting fastener holes common to the front spar lower chord and skin, and do all applicable corrective actions, using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
For Group 2 and 3 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014: Except as provided by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in Table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, do a detailed inspection for cracks on the left and right wing front spar lower chord and inspar skin, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, except as specified in paragraph (j)(2) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the inspection thereafter at the applicable interval specified in Table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, except in areas repaired in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
For Group 3 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014: Except as provided by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in Table 2 or Table 3 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, do the actions specified in paragraphs (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD. Repeat the inspection specified in either paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this AD thereafter at the applicable interval specified in Table 2 or Table 3 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014.
(1) Do an HFEC open hole probe inspection for cracks of the left and right wing nacelle outboard side load fitting fastener holes common to the front spar lower chord and skin, and perform all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with Part 2, Option 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, except as provided by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(2) Do an HFEC surface probe inspection for cracks in the wing inspar skin, and perform all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with Part 2, Option 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, except as provided by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1) Where paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time “after the effective date of this AD.”
(2) Although Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1323, dated December 5, 2014, specifies to contact Boeing for repair instructions, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD requires repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD: For service information that
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Alan Pohl, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6450; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify Class D airspace, Class E surface area airspace, and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface, at Stockton Metropolitan Airport, Stockton, CA. After a biennial review, and the decommissioning of the Manteca VHF omnidirectional radio range and distance measuring equipment (VOR/DME), the FAA found it necessary to amend the airspace areas for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations for Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) at the airport.
Comments must be received on or before August 10, 2015.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-1622; Airspace Docket No. 15-AWP-9, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15. For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
Rob Riedl, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4534.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the U.S. Code. Subtitle 1, Section 106, describes the authority for the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend controlled airspace at Stockton Metropolitan Airport, Stockton, CA.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-1622/Airspace Docket No. 15-AWP-9.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014. FAA Order 7400.9Y is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class D airspace, Class E surface area airspace, and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Stockton Metropolitan Airport, Stockton, CA. Decommissioning of the Manteca VOR/DME and subsequent review of the airspace revealed that airspace redesign is necessary for the safety and management of IFR operations for standard instrument approach procedures at the airport. The Class D and Class E surface areas would be expanded to within a 4.5-mile radius of Stockton Metropolitan Airport. The Class D extension to the southeast would be removed as it is no longer required for aircraft arriving and departing under IFR operations. Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface would be modified to within a 7-mile radius of Stockton Metropolitan Airport.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.9Y, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this proposed regulation; (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified this proposed rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1E, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
(lat. 37°53′39″ N., long. 121°14′18″ W.)
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2500 MSL within a 4.5 mile radius of Stockton Metropolitan Airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
(lat. 37°53′39″ N., long. 121°14′18″ W.)
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 4.5 mile radius of Stockton Metropolitan Airport.
(lat. 37°53′39″ N., long. 121°14′18″ W.)
(lat. 37°53′04″ N., long. 121°13′18″ W.)
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of the Stockton Metropolitan Airport point in space coordinates at lat. 37°53′04″ N., long. 121°13′18″ W. That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface bounded on the east by long. 120°04′04″ W., on the southeast by a line extending from lat. 37°52′00″ N., long. 120°04′04″ W.; to lat. 37°38′00″ N., long. 121°00′04″ W., on the south by lat. 37°38′00″ N., on the west by long. 121°37′04″ W., and on the north by lat. 38°07′00″ N.; excluding that airspace within Restricted Area R-2531 when active.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace at the Iron Mountain VHF Omni-Directional Radio Range/Distance Measuring Equipment (VOR/DME), Iron Mountain, MI, to facilitate vectoring of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) aircraft under control of Minneapolis Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC). The FAA is proposing this action to enhance the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations within the National Airspace System (NAS).
Comments must be received on or before August 10, 2015.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001. You must
FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15. For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC, 20591; telephone: 202-267-8783.
Raul Garza, Jr., Central Service Center, Operations Support Group, Federal Aviation Administration, Southwest Region, 2601 Meacham Blvd., Fort Worth, TX 76137; telephone: 817-222-4075.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace at the Iron Mountain VOR/DME navigation aid, Iron Mountain, MI.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-1871/Airspace Docket No. 15-AGL-10.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (202) 267-9677, to request a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014. FAA Order 7400.9Y is publicly available as listed in the
This action proposes to amend Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR), Part 71 by establishing Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface at the Iron Mountain VOR/DME navigation aid, Iron Mountain, MI. This action would contain aircraft while in IFR conditions under control of Minneapolis ARTCC by safely vectoring aircraft from en route airspace to terminal areas.
Class E airspace areas are published in Paragraph 6006 of FAA Order 7400.9Y, August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document would be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1E, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within an area bounded by lat. 47°50′56″ N., long. 089°40′18″ W.; to lat. 46°51′42″ N., long. 090°20′18″ W.; to IWD VORTAC, to IMT VOR/DME, to lat. 46°53′22″ N., long. 088°21′39″ W.; to lat. 47°01′28″ N., long. 086°59′15″ W.; to lat. 47°05′20″ N., long. 087°00′05″ W.; to lat. 47°54′59″ N., long. 088°46′22″ W., thence to the point of beginning clockwise via a 27-mile DME arc south of the YQT VOR/DME, excluding that airspace within Federal airways and within Canadian airspace.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace at the Newberry VHF Omni-Directional Radio Range/Distance Measuring Equipment (VOR/DME), Newberry, MI, to facilitate vectoring of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) aircraft under control of Minneapolis Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC). The FAA is proposing this action to enhance the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations within the National Airspace System (NAS).
Comments must be received on or before August 10, 2015.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001. You must identify the docket number FAA-2015-1869/Airspace Docket No. 15-AGL-9, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15. For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: 202-267-8783.
Raul Garza, Jr., Central Service Center, Operations Support Group, Federal Aviation Administration, Southwest Region, 2601 Meacham Blvd., Fort Worth, TX 76137; telephone: 817-222-4075.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish controlled airspace at the Newberry VOR/DME navigation aid, Newberry, MI.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-1869/Airspace Docket No. 15-AGL-9.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (202) 267-9677, to request a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014. FAA Order 7400.9Y is publicly available as listed in the
This action proposes to amend Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR), Part 71 by establishing Class E en route domestic airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface at the Newberry VOR/DME navigation aid, Newberry, MI. This action would contain aircraft while in IFR conditions under control of Minneapolis ARTCC by safely vectoring aircraft from en route airspace to terminal areas.
Class E airspace areas are published in Paragraph 6006 of FAA Order 7400.9Y, August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document would be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1E, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within an area bounded by lat. 46°56′52″ N., long. 086°25′28″ W.; to lat. 45°44′17″ N., long. 086°27′14″ W.; to lat. 45°43′49″ N., long. 085°20′28″ W.; to lat. 46°29′29″ N., long. 084°50′40″ W.; to lat. 46°45′16″ N., long. 085°39′13″ W., thence to the point of beginning, excluding that airspace within Federal airways and within Canadian airspace.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class D and Class E airspace and remove Class E airspace in the Columbus, OH, area. Decommissioning of the non-directional radio beacon (NDB) and/or cancellation of NDB approaches at Ohio State University Airport, Columbus, OH, has made this action necessary for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the airport. Also, the geographic coordinates of the airport, as well as the Port Columbus International Airport, will be updated.
0901 UTC. Comments must be received on or before August 10, 2015.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001. You must identify the docket number FAA-2015-1649/Airspace Docket No. 15-AGL-6, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15. For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: 202-267-8783.
Roger Waite, Central Service Center, Operations Support Group, Federal Aviation Administration, Southwest Region, 2601 Meacham Blvd., Fort Worth, TX 76137; telephone: (817) 321-7652.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the U.S. Code. Subtitle 1, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend controlled airspace at Ohio State University Airport, Columbus, OH.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-1649/Airspace Docket No. 15-AGL-6.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (202) 267-9677, to request a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Y, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014. FAA Order 7400.9Y is publicly available as listed in the
This action proposes to amend Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR), Part 71 by modifying Class D and E airspace in the Columbus, OH, area. Decommissioning of the Dan Scott NDB navigation aid and cancellation of the NDB approach at Ohio State University Airport has made this action necessary. Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D would be removed as it is no longer required. Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Port Columbus International Airport would be reconfigured due to the Dan Scott NDB decommissioning. The geographic coordinates of Ohio State University Airport and Port Columbus International Airport would be updated to coincide with the FAAs aeronautical database.
Class D and E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 5000, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.9Y, dated August 6, 2014, and effective September 15, 2014, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1E, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120, E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,400 feet MSL within a 4-mile radius of Ohio State University Airport, excluding that airspace within the Port Columbus International Airport, OH, Class C airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective dates and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Port Columbus International Airport, and within 3.3 miles either side of the 094° bearing from Port Columbus International Airport extending from the 7-mile radius to 12.1 miles east of the airport, and within a 7-mile radius of Rickenbacker International Airport, and within 4 miles either side of the 045° bearing from Rickenbacker International Airport extending from the 7-mile radius to 12.5 miles northeast of the airport, and within a 6.5-mile radius of Ohio State University Airport, and within a 7.4-mile radius of Bolton Field Airport, and within a 6.4-mile radius of Fairfield County Airport, and within a 6.5-mile radius of Darby Dan Airport, excluding that airspace within the London, OH, Class E airspace area.
Federal Trade Commission (FTC or Commission).
Notice of proposed rulemaking; Request for public comment.
The FTC proposes to amend the Privacy of Consumer Financial Information Rule (Privacy Rule or Rule), which among other things requires that certain motor vehicle dealers provide an annual disclosure of their privacy policies to their customers by hand delivery, mail, electronic delivery, or, alternatively through a Web site, but only with the consent of the consumer. The amendment would allow motor vehicle dealers instead to notify their customers that a privacy policy is available on their Web site, under certain circumstances. The amendment would also revise the scope and definitions in this rule in light of the transfer of part of the Commission's rulemaking authority to the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB or the Bureau) in the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, but retains certain examples for purposes of the FTC's Safeguards Rule.
Comments must be received on or before August 31, 2015.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Steven Toporoff, (202) 326-3135, Attorney, Division of Privacy and Identity Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20580.
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
The Commission proposes to revise its Privacy Rule, 16 CFR part 313, in two ways. First, in light of the transfer of rulemaking authority for certain financial institutions to the Bureau, the Commission proposes to revise the explanation of the scope of the Rule and to tailor the examples provided in the Rule's
The Commission believes that the proposed changes are consistent with those issued by the Bureau, and will help avoid consumer confusion and ensure that the requirements for motor vehicle dealers covered by the Rule are consistent with the GLBA's privacy provisions for other financial institutions. Such changes may also streamline the flow of information to consumers, while easing the burden on motor vehicle dealers of providing annual notices. The Commission invites comment on the proposed rule revisions generally and on the specific issues outlined throughout Section IV. In addition, the Commission requests comment on whether, and the extent to which, the FTC's Privacy Rule applicable to motor vehicle dealers should be consistent with the rule adopted by the Bureau, or if there are elements that should differ.
The Commission seeks comment on the proposal through August 17, 2015.
The GLBA was enacted in 1999.
Rulemaking authority to implement the GLBA's privacy provisions was initially spread among many agencies. The Federal Reserve Board (Board), the Office of Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), and the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS) jointly adopted final rules to implement the notice requirements of the GLBA in 2000.
In 2011, the Dodd-Frank Act
Despite the transfer of general rulemaking authority for the Privacy Rule to the CFPB, the Commission and other agencies retained their existing enforcement authority under the GLBA.
As noted, the GLBA and the FTC Privacy Rule require that certain covered motor vehicle dealers provide consumers with notices describing their privacy policies. Section 503 of the GLBA and 16 CFR 313.4 require covered entities to provide an initial notice of these policies, and then “provide a clear and conspicuous notice to customers that accurately reflects [their] privacy policies and practices
Section 502 of the GLBA and 16 CFR 313.6(a)(6) require that initial and annual notices inform customers of their right to opt out of the sharing of nonpublic personal information with some types of nonaffiliated third parties. For example, a customer has the right to opt out of allowing a motor vehicle dealer to sell her name and address to a nonaffiliated auto insurance company. On the other hand, a motor vehicle dealer is not required to allow consumers to opt out of the dealer's sharing involving third-party service providers, joint marketing arrangements, maintenance and servicing of accounts, securitization, law enforcement and compliance, reporting to consumer reporting agencies, and certain other activities that are specified in the statute and regulation.
Motor vehicle dealers also may include in the annual privacy notice information about certain consumer opt-out rights related to affiliate sharing under the FCRA. First, section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the FCRA allows the sharing of a consumer's information among affiliates, but only if the consumer is notified of such sharing and is given an opportunity to opt out.
Second, section 624 of the FCRA and 16 CFR 680 (the Affiliate Marketing Rule) provide that an affiliate of a motor vehicle dealer that receives certain information
Finally, § 313.6(a)(8) of the Privacy Rule requires that the notices also briefly describe how motor vehicle dealers protect the nonpublic personal information they collect and maintain.
In December 2011, the Bureau issued a Request for Information seeking specific suggestions for streamlining regulations that were transferred to the Bureau from other Federal agencies (Streamlining RFI), including the annual privacy notice requirement.
The Bureau received numerous comments from industry urging the Bureau to eliminate or reduce the annual notice requirement.
In November of 2013, the Bureau published a study assessing the effects of certain deposit regulations on financial institutions' operations.
The Commission adopted the scope and definitions in the existing Privacy Rule at a time when it had rulemaking authority for the Privacy Rule over a broader group of non-bank “financial institutions” as defined by the GLBA. While the Dodd-Frank Act did not change the Commission's
Although the Dodd-Frank Act altered the Commission's rulemaking authority with respect to the Privacy Rule, it did not alter the Commission's rulemaking authority for the GLBA's Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information, at 16 CFR part 314 (the Safeguards Rule). For the Safeguards Rule, the Commission continues to have rulemaking authority over a broad range of non-bank financial institutions. The Safeguards Rule, however, incorporates by reference the definitions contained in the Privacy Rule, including all of the examples of financial institutions listed in the existing Privacy Rule.
The Commission also proposes changes to the Privacy Rule provisions governing how motor vehicle dealers should deliver annual privacy notices. These changes are consistent with changes adopted by the Bureau for those financial institutions subject to the Bureau's rulemaking authority. Under certain limited circumstances, these changes to the Privacy Rule would allow motor vehicle dealers to convey clearly and conspicuously—through another mandated or legally permissible notice or disclosure—that their privacy notice is available on their Web site (hereafter, the alternative delivery method).
The Commission anticipates that use of the alternative delivery method that meets the requirements discussed below could inform customers of their motor vehicle dealer's privacy policies effectively and at a lower cost than the current widespread method of mailing annual privacy notices. The cost savings could benefit both consumers and businesses.
The Commission has also considered the potential impact of its proposed rule change on consumer privacy. The proposal would not affect the actual collection or use of consumers' nonpublic personal information by motor vehicle dealers, and consumers would continue to get the information and opt-out rights they are entitled to under the statute. Moreover, the proposal would enable consumers to review a motor vehicle dealer's policy at her own convenience any time during the year. For example, a motor vehicle dealer choosing to use the alternative method would have to post the privacy notice continuously on its Web site, thus enabling consumers to access the privacy notice throughout the year rather than having to wait for an annual mailing.
Section 313.1(b) outlines the scope of the Privacy Rule. The existing Rule describes the types of entities to which the Privacy Rule was applicable prior to the enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act. Those entities included—but were not limited to—financial institutions such as “payday” lenders, mortgage brokers, check cashers, and tax preparation firms, but did not include entities that were subject to the rulemaking authority of another agency.
The Commission seeks to revise the Privacy Rule to make clear that it applies only to motor vehicle dealers. Accordingly, the Commission proposes to revise § 313.1(b) to remove examples of entities to which the FTC's Privacy Rule no longer applies. The Commission also proposes to remove the reference in the Privacy Rule's scope to “other persons.” Although the Commission continues to have enforcement authority over “other persons” covered by the CFPB's rule, the Commission no longer has rulemaking authority for the Privacy Rule over “other persons.” In addition, the Commission proposes to eliminate from § 313.1(b) the note indicating that: (1) The Privacy Rule does not modify, limit, or supersede the standards under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), and (2) if a financial institution that is an institution of higher education is in compliance with the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) and its implementing regulations, such institution shall be deemed in compliance with 16 CFR part 313. The Commission believes it unlikely that this note is applicable to motor vehicle dealers but requests comment as to whether motor vehicle dealers ever engage in practices that require them to comply with HIPAA or FERPA. In addition, the Commission invites general comment on the proposed changes to the description of the scope of the Privacy Rule.
The
First, for purposes of the Privacy Rule, proposed § 313.3(e)(2) no longer includes, as examples of “
Second, for purposes of the Privacy Rule, proposed § 313.3(i)(2) no longer includes, as examples of a “
Third, for purposes of the Privacy Rule, proposed § 313.3(i)(2) no longer includes, as examples of “
Fourth, for purposes of the Privacy Rule, proposed § 313.3(k)(2) no longer includes, as examples of “
Fifth, for purposes of the Privacy Rule, proposed § 313.3(k)(5) no longer includes as examples of “
The existing Privacy Rule generally defines “
The Commission requests comment on the proposed changes to the definition of “
Section 313.9(a) of the Rule requires that motor vehicle dealers provide initial and annual privacy notices so that each consumer “can reasonably be expected” to receive actual notice in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically. Section 313.9(b) provides examples of delivery methods that would result in reasonable expectation of actual notice, including hand delivery and delivery by mail. The examples also include posting on a Web site for customers who: (1) Conduct transactions electronically, and (2) acknowledge receipt of the notice as a necessary step to obtaining a particular financial product or service.
The Commission seeks information concerning the effect on customer privacy rights if motor vehicle dealers were to use the alternative delivery method rather than their current delivery methods. Relatedly, the Commission requests comment on how often customers currently read annual privacy notices under the Privacy Rule and how frequently the notices would be read if they were provided pursuant to the proposed alternative delivery method. The Commission further requests comment on whether the proposed alternative delivery method would be effective in reducing the burden on motor vehicle dealers of mailing hard copy privacy notices. In particular, the Commission requests information regarding how many annual privacy notices motor vehicle dealers provide.
Lastly, the Commission notes that the current Rule prescribes certain circumstances under which motor vehicle dealers can provide privacy notices electronically or via online posting. For example, the Rule allows covered entities to provide notices electronically if the consumer agrees or to provide notice online if the consumer is required to acknowledge receipt of the notice.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i) describes the circumstances under which a motor vehicle dealer may use the alternative delivery method summarized above.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(A) would set forth the first condition for using the alternative delivery method: That the motor vehicle dealer must not share the customer's information with nonaffiliated third parties in a manner that triggers the opt-out requirement under the GLBA. Thus, for example, a motor vehicle dealer may use the alternative delivery method if it shares the customer's information with nonaffiliated third parties as permitted by §§ 313.13 (for joint marketing), 313.14 (for processing and servicing transactions), and 313.15 (with consent, or for security purposes, fraud prevention, legal purposes or fiduciary purposes). It may not use the alternative delivery method, for example, if it shares the customer's nonpublic personal information with a nonaffiliated insurance company for marketing purposes. The Commission believes the alternative delivery method will generally reduce the burden of compliance for motor vehicle dealers, while still mandating the use of the current delivery method to ensure that customers have direct notice of their opt-out rights, where they exist.
The Commission invites comment on the number of motor vehicle dealers that would not be able to take advantage of the alternative delivery method because they share data with nonaffiliated third parties. The Commission further invites comment on whether customers with opt-out rights pursuant to the Privacy Rule should continue to receive the annual privacy notice pursuant to the current delivery method or if motor vehicle dealers should be able to utilize the proposed alternative delivery method for such customers.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(B) would set forth the second condition for using the alternative delivery method for the annual privacy notice: That the motor vehicle dealer not include on its annual notice an opt-out under section
The Commission invites comment on the extent to which different motor vehicle dealers provide a FCRA section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) opt-out and thus would be precluded from using the proposed alternative delivery method. The Commission further invites comment as to whether customers with opt-out rights under this section of the FCRA benefit from receiving the annual privacy notice pursuant to the current delivery method or could receive the notice via the proposed alternative delivery method.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(C) would contain the third condition for using the alternative delivery method, related to the requirements of section 624 of the FCRA
In contrast to the FCRA section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) notice and opt-out right concerning affiliate
The Commission proposes—under § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(C)—that a motor vehicle dealer that is required to provide a notice and opt out under the Affiliate Marketing Rule may use the alternative delivery method, provided that the motor vehicle dealer has previously satisfied the Affiliate Marketing Rule requirements or does not use the annual privacy notice as the sole means of providing notice to customers of that opt-out right.
The Commission invites comment on the extent to which motor vehicle dealers include the Affiliate Marketing Rule opt-out on their Privacy Rule privacy notices and thus would be precluded from using the proposed alternative delivery method. The Commission further invites comment on whether imposing this condition on using the alternative delivery method is beneficial to consumers.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(D) would present the fourth condition for using the alternative delivery method: That the substantive information a motor vehicle dealer is required to convey on its annual privacy notice has not changed since the immediately previous privacy notice (whether initial, annual, or revised) to the customer.
• The categories of nonpublic personal information that the motor vehicle dealer collects (§ 313.6(a)(1) and (a)(4));
• the categories of nonpublic personal information that the motor vehicle dealer discloses (§ 313.6(a)(2));
• the categories of affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom the motor vehicle dealer discloses nonpublic personal information, other than to parties that administer or enforce transactions, service or process financial products, or maintain or service accounts, under § 313.14 and to parties for security, fraud prevention, legal purposes, or similar purposes under § 313.15 (§ 313.6(a)(3));
• if the motor vehicle dealer discloses nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party for joint marketing as set forth under § 313.13, a separate statement of the categories of information disclosed and the categories of third parties to whom the disclosures were made (§ 313.6(a)(5));
• the motor vehicle dealer's policies and practices with respect to protecting the confidentiality and security of nonpublic personal information (§ 313.6(a)(8)); and
• the description of the purpose for sharing with service providers and other entities that conduct fraud prevention, security, or similar services (§ 313.6(a)(9)).
The Commission emphasizes that a motor vehicle dealer would be precluded from using the alternative delivery method only if it made substantive changes to the information disclosed on the previous written notice sent to the consumer. Stylistic changes in the wording of the notice that do not denote a change in practices would not prevent a motor vehicle dealer from using the alternative delivery method. Nor would the proposed section prohibit a motor vehicle dealer from using the alternative delivery method if the dealer eliminated categories of information it disclosed or categories of
The Commission invites comment about the effect on customers of conditioning availability of the alternative delivery method on there being no change from the previous year's notice. The Commission further invites comment on how often motor vehicle dealers change their privacy notice such that they would be precluded from using the proposed alternative delivery method. Lastly, the Commission invites comment on the extent to which a motor vehicle dealer's changing its data security policy should preclude it, like financial institutions covered by Regulation P, from using the proposed alternative delivery method.
The last condition for use of the alternative delivery method, which would be set forth in proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(E), requires that the motor vehicle dealer use the model privacy form for its annual privacy notice. Currently, the Privacy Rule does not require use of the model notice because the statute under which it was promulgated only required that regulators give financial institutions the
However, the Commission proposes to permit use of the alternative delivery method only if a motor vehicle dealer uses the model privacy form for its annual privacy notice. This approach would likely incentivize use of the model notice, which consumer research has shown to be effective in communicating information.
The Commission notes that the model form accommodates information that may be required by state or international law, as applicable, in a box called “Other important information.”
The Commission contemplates that adoption of the model privacy form may require changes to the wording and layout of the privacy notice, but not to the information conveyed. Thus, adoption of the model notice would not constitute a change to the prior year's notice that would preclude use of the alternative delivery method under proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(D).
Finally, the Commission generally invites comment on the conditions in proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(i)(A) through (E) and whether any of those conditions should not be required or whether other conditions should be added.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii) sets forth the mechanics of the alternative delivery method for annual notices.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(A) would set forth the first component of the alternative delivery method: that a motor vehicle dealer inform the customer of the availability of the annual privacy notice on its Web site. Under this proposed subsection, a motor vehicle dealer must clearly and conspicuously convey, not less than annually—on an account statement, coupon book, or notice or disclosure the institution is required or expressly permitted to use under any other provision of law—three pieces of information: (1) That its privacy notice has not changed, (2) that the notice is available on its Web site, and (3) that a hard copy of the notice will be mailed to customers if they call to request one.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(A) states that this notice must be “clear and conspicuous,” which is defined as meaning “reasonably understandable” and “designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information.”
Although the Commission proposes to require that motor vehicle dealers convey this “notice of availability” not less than annually, they may elect to convey it more often (
As noted, proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(A) would require the notice of availability to be conveyed on an account statement, coupon book, or notice or disclosure the motor vehicle dealer is required or expressly and specifically permitted to issue under any other provision of law. An account statement would include periodic statements or billing statements. A coupon book refers to a book of payment coupons typically included with an installment loan. The Commission believes customers are likely to read account statements or coupon books that directly concern the status of their account.
A “notice or disclosure the institution is required or expressly and specifically permitted to issue under any other provision of law” would include
The Commission further notes that where two or more motor vehicle dealers provide a joint privacy notice pursuant to § 313.9(f), the proposal would require each motor vehicle dealer to separately provide the notice of availability. The Commission invites comment on how often motor vehicle dealers jointly provide privacy notices and whether the proposed alternative delivery method would be feasible for such jointly issued notices.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(A) also would require the institution to state on the notice of availability that its privacy policy has not changed, which, as discussed in detail below, is a condition that a dealer must satisfy in order to be able to use the alternative delivery method. This proposed requirement can help customers assess whether they are interested in reading the policy. This statement would always be accurate if the alternative delivery method is used correctly, since a motor vehicle dealer could not use the alternative delivery method if its annual privacy notice had changed.
The proposal would further require that the statement include a specific web address that takes customers directly to the page where the privacy notice is available. The section also would require that the web address conveyed on the notice of availability provide the customer with direct access to the page that contains the privacy notice, so that the customer need not click on any additional links.
Next, proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(A) would require that the notice of availability include a telephone number that a customer can call to request a hard copy of the annual privacy notice. This number need not be a dedicated number established for this purpose alone. This requirement is intended to assist customers who do not have internet access or would prefer to receive a hard copy of the privacy notice. The Commission encourages motor vehicle dealers that already maintain a toll-free number to use that number in the statement required by § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(A), to simplify the process for a customer to call and request a mailed copy of the privacy notice.
As an alternative, the Commission invites comment on whether the approach used for notice of availability for motor vehicle dealers should differ from that for the financial institutions covered by Regulation P. Specifically, the Commission seeks comment on the advantages and disadvantages of requiring motor vehicle dealers to provide a dedicated telephone number for privacy notice requests so that customers can easily request a hard copy of the notice without navigating a complicated automated telephone menu. The Commission also invites comment on whether it should require a dedicated toll-free number for this purpose.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(B) would set forth the second component of the alternative delivery method: that the motor vehicle dealer post its current privacy notice continuously and in a clear and conspicuous manner on a page of the institution's Web site on which the only content is the privacy notice. The Commission believes that, were the notice included on a page with other content, such as other disclosures or promotions for products, that content could detract from the prominence of the notice and make it less likely that a customer would actually read it.
This section would further require that the Web page that contains the privacy notice be accessible to the customer without requiring the customer to provide any information such as a login name or password or agree to any conditions to access the page. This provision is intended to make accessing the privacy notice on an institution's Web site as simple and straightforward as possible.
The Commission invites comment regarding the prevalence of motor vehicle dealers that currently maintain Web sites, whether they currently post the Privacy Rule notice on those Web sites, and if they do not, how costly it would be to do so. The Commission additionally seeks comment on whether motor vehicle dealers provide different privacy notices for different groups of customers, such that posting multiple privacy notices on the dealer's Web site may create confusion as to which is the relevant privacy notice that is applicable to a particular customer. The Commission seeks comment on the relative benefit or harm to customers of accessing the privacy notice on a motor vehicle dealer's Web site as proposed. Lastly, the Commission invites comment as to whether motor vehicle dealers should be required to provide specific reminder information to a consumer about that consumer's previously established preferences—for example, whether the consumer has already opted out—via a login and password-protected section of the Web site.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(C) would set forth the third component of the alternative delivery method: That the motor vehicle dealer mail its current privacy notice to those customers who request it by telephone within ten calendar days of such request. The Commission proposes this requirement to assist customers without internet access and customers with internet access who would prefer to receive a hard copy of the notice. This requirement makes clear that a motor vehicle dealer may not, for example, wait to mail the privacy notice with another document, such as a quarterly
The Commission invites comment on the cost associated with mailing privacy notices on request, and whether mailing of the privacy notice within ten calendar days of a request is feasible for motor vehicle dealers. The Commission further requests comment on whether requiring mailing within ten calendar days is sufficient to ensure that customers receive privacy notices in a timely manner.
Proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(iii) would provide an example of a notice of availability that satisfies § 313.9(c)(2)(ii)(A). The Commission intends this example to provide clear guidance on permissible content for the notice of availability to facilitate compliance. The content of the example notice of availability in proposed § 313.9(c)(2)(iii) draws from language in the existing model privacy notice in Part 313, App. A, which was previously subject to consumer testing.
The Commission invites comment on whether the proposed example notice of availability for motor vehicle dealers should differ from that for financial institutions covered by Regulation P. In particular, the Commission is interested in comment on: (1) Whether the proposed example notice of availability would make the alternative delivery method more feasible for motor vehicle dealers to implement, (2) whether the elements not specifically required by the rule should be so required, and (3) whether the proposed language would be effective in informing customers of the availability of the privacy notice.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, requires each agency to consider the potential impact of its regulations on small entities, including small businesses, small governmental units, and small not-for-profit organizations. The RFA generally requires an agency to conduct an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) and a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) of any rule subject to notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements, unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
An IRFA is not required here because the proposal, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Commission does not expect the proposal to impose costs on small entities. All methods of compliance under current law will remain available to small entities if the proposal is adopted. Thus, a small entity that is in compliance with current law need not take any different or additional action if the proposal is adopted. In addition, as discussed above, the Commission believes that the proposed alternative method would allow many motor vehicle dealers to reduce their costs.
Accordingly, the Commission certifies that this proposal, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA),
This proposal would amend 16 CFR part 313. The collections of information related to the Privacy Rule have been previously reviewed and approved by OMB in accordance with the PRA and assigned OMB Control Number 3084-0121.
As explained below, the proposed amendments do not modify or add to information collection requirements that were previously approved by OMB. Under this proposal, a motor vehicle dealer will be permitted, but not required, to use an alternative delivery method for the annual privacy notice if:
• It does not share information with nonaffiliated third parties other than for purposes covered by the exclusions allowed under the Privacy Rule;
• It does not include on its annual privacy notice an opt-out under section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the FCRA;
• The annual privacy notice is not the only method used to satisfy the requirements of section 624 of the FCRA and 16 CFR part 680, if applicable;
• Certain information it is required to convey on its annual privacy notice has not changed since it provided the immediately prior privacy notice; and
• It uses the Privacy Rule model privacy form for its annual privacy notice.
Under the proposed alternative delivery method, the motor vehicle dealer would have to:
• Convey at least annually on another notice or disclosure that its privacy notice is available on its Web site and will be mailed upon request to a specified telephone number. Among other things, the dealer would have to include a specific web address that takes the customer directly to the privacy notice;
• Post its current privacy notice continuously on a page of its Web site that contains only the privacy notice, without requiring a login or any conditions to access the page; and
• Mail its current privacy notice to customers who request it by telephone within ten calendar days of such request.
Under the existing clearance, the FTC has attributed to itself the estimated burden regarding all motor vehicle dealers and then shares equally the remaining estimated PRA burden with the Bureau for other types of financial institutions for which both agencies have enforcement authority regarding the GLBA Privacy Rule.
The Commission does not believe that this proposed rule would impose any new or substantively revised collections of information as defined by the PRA. Rather, the Commission believes that the proposed amendment would have the overall effect of reducing the currently cleared estimated burden for the information collections associated with the Privacy Rule annual privacy notice.
By definition, the expected cost savings to motor vehicle dealers from the proposed revisions to § 313.9(c) is the expected number of annual privacy notices that would be provided through the proposed alternative delivery method multiplied by the expected reduction in the cost per-notice from using the alternative delivery method. The first step in estimating the expected cost savings to motor vehicle dealers from proposed § 313.9(c)(2) would be to identify the motor vehicle dealers whose current information sharing practices would allow them to use the proposed alternative method. The Commission would then need to determine their currents costs for providing the annual privacy notices and the expected costs of providing these notices under proposed § 313.9(c)(2).
In order to reach such an estimate for financial institutions, the Commission looked to the Bureau's rulemaking. The Bureau performed a number of analyses and outreach activities to approximate the expected cost savings for financial institutions. After examining 125 banks selected through random sampling, the Bureau found that the overall average rate at which banks' information sharing practices would make them eligible for using the alternative delivery method if other conditions were met is 80%.
The Commission does not have precise data on the number of annual privacy notices motor vehicle dealers currently provide to directly compute the total number of annual privacy notices that would no longer be sent; however, in the Commission's proposal to extend the current PRA clearance for the Privacy Rule,
The Commission believes that the one-time cost for some motor vehicle dealers to adopt the alternative delivery method is minimal. Motor vehicle dealers that already use the model form and would adopt the alternative delivery method would incur minor one-time legal, programming and training costs. These dealers would have to communicate on a notice or disclosure they already issue under any other provision of law that the privacy notice is available. The expense of adding this notification would be minor. Staff may need some additional training in storing copies of the model form and sending it to customers on request. Motor vehicle dealers that do not use the model form would incur a one-time cost to create one. However, since the promulgation of the model privacy form in 2009, an Online Form Builder has existed that any institution can use to readily create a unique, customized privacy notice using the model form template.
The Commission has determined that the proposed rule does not contain any new or substantively revised information collection requirements as defined by the PRA and that the burden estimate for the previously-approved information collections should be reduced as explained above. The Commission welcomes comments on these determinations or any other aspect of the proposal for purposes of the PRA. Comments should be submitted as outlined in the
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before August 31, 2015. Write “Amendment to the Privacy of Consumer Financial Information Rule, 16 CFR part 313, Project No. R411016” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the Commission Web site, at
Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment doesn't include any sensitive personal information, such as Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment doesn't include any sensitive health information, including medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, do not include any “[t]rade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential,” as discussed in section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2). In particular, do not include competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
If you want the Commission to give your comment confidential treatment, you must file it in paper form, with a request for confidential treatment, and you have to follow the procedure explained in FTC Rule 4.9(c), 16 CFR 4.9(c).
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you file your comment on paper, write “Amendment to the Privacy of Consumer Financial Information Rule, 16 CFR part 313, Project No. R411016” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite CC-5610 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
Visit the Commission Web site at
Consumer protection, Motor vehicle dealers, Privacy, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Trade practices.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Commission proposes to amend 16 CFR part 313, as set forth below:
15 U.S.C. 6801
(b)
(e)(1)
(2)
(ii) An individual who provides nonpublic personal information to you in order to obtain a determination about whether he or she may qualify for a loan to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes is a consumer of a financial service, regardless of whether the loan is extended.
(iii) If you hold ownership or servicing rights to an individual's loan that is used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, the individual is your consumer, even if you hold those rights in conjunction with one or more other institutions. (The individual is also a consumer with respect to the other financial institutions involved.) An individual who has a loan in which you have ownership or servicing rights is your consumer, even if you, or another institution with those rights, hire an agent to collect on the loan.
(iv) An individual who is a consumer of another financial institution is not your consumer solely because you act as agent for, or provide processing or other services to, that financial institution.
(v) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she is a participant or a beneficiary of an employee benefit plan that you sponsor or for which you act as a trustee or fiduciary.
(3)
(ii) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she has designated you as trustee for a trust.
(iii) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she is a beneficiary of a trust for which you are a trustee.
(i)(1)
(2)
(
(
(
(
(
(
(B) A consumer also has a continuing relationship with you, for purposes of 16 CFR part 314, if the consumer:
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(ii)
(
(
(
(B) For purposes of 16 CFR part 314, a consumer also does not have a continuing relationship with you if:
(
(
(
(k)(1)
(2)
(3)
(ii) A personal property or real estate appraiser is a financial institution because real and personal property appraisal is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(2)(i) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(iii) A career counselor that specializes in providing career counseling services to individuals currently employed by or recently displaced from a financial organization, individuals who are seeking employment with a financial organization, or individuals who are currently employed by or seeking placement with the finance, accounting or audit departments of any company is a financial institution because such career counseling activities are financial activities listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(9)(iii) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(iv) A business that prints and sells checks for consumers, either as its sole business or as one of its product lines, is a financial institution because printing and selling checks is a financial activity that is listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(10)(ii) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(v) A business that regularly wires money to and from consumers is a financial institution because transferring money is a financial activity referenced in section 4(k)(4)(A) of the Bank Holding Company Act and regularly providing that service demonstrates that the business is significantly engaged in that activity.
(vi) A check cashing business is a financial institution because cashing a check is exchanging money, which is a financial activity listed in section 4(k)(4)(A) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(vii) An accountant or other tax preparation service that is in the business of completing income tax returns is a financial institution because tax preparation services is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(6)(vi) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(G) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(viii) A business that operates a travel agency in connection with financial services is a financial institution because operating a travel agency in connection with financial services is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 211.5(d)(15) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(G) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(ix) An entity that provides real estate settlement services is a financial institution because providing real estate settlement services is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(2)(viii) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(x) A mortgage broker is a financial institution because brokering loans is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(1) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(xi) An investment advisory company and a credit counseling service are each financial institutions because providing financial and investment advisory services are financial activities referenced in section 4(k)(4)(C) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(4)
(i) Any person or entity with respect to any financial activity that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1
(ii) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or any entity chartered and operating under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001
(iii) Institutions chartered by Congress specifically to engage in securitizations, secondary market sales (including sales of servicing rights) or similar transactions related to a transaction of a consumer, as long as such institutions do not sell or transfer nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party other than as permitted by §§ 313.14 and 313.15 of this Part.
(iv) Entities that engage in financial activities but that are not significantly engaged in those financial activities.
(5)
(6)
(ii) A retailer is not a financial institution merely because it accepts payment in the form of cash, checks, or credit cards that it did not issue.
(iii) A merchant is not a financial institution merely because it allows an individual to “run a tab.”
(iv) A grocery store is not a financial institution merely because it allows individuals to whom it sells groceries to cash a check, or write a check for a higher amount than the grocery purchase and obtain cash in return.
(q) For purposes of 16 CFR part 313,
(c)
(i) The customer uses your Web site to access financial products and services electronically and agrees to receive notices at the Web site, and you post your current privacy notice continuously in a clear and conspicuous manner on the Web site; or
(ii) The customer has requested that you refrain from sending any information regarding the customer relationship, and your current privacy notice remains available to the customer upon request.
(2)
(A) You do not disclose the customer's nonpublic personal information with nonaffiliated third parties other than for purposes under §§ 313.13, 313.14, and 313.15;
(B) You do not include on your annual privacy notice pursuant to § 313.6(a)(7) an opt out under section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(d)(2)(A)(iii));
(C) The requirements of section 624 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s-3) and Part 680 of this chapter, if applicable, have been satisfied previously or the annual privacy notice is not the only notice provided to satisfy such requirements;
(D) The information you are required to convey on your annual privacy notice pursuant to § 313.6(a)(1) through (5), (8), and (9) has not changed since you provided the immediately previous privacy notice (whether initial, annual or revised) to the customer, other than to eliminate categories of information you disclose or categories of third parties to whom you disclose information; and
(E) You use the model privacy form in the appendix to this part for your annual privacy notice.
(ii) For an annual privacy notice that meets the requirements in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, you satisfy the requirement in § 313.5(a)(1) to provide a notice if you:
(A) Convey in a clear and conspicuous manner not less than annually on an account statement, coupon book, or a notice or disclosure you are required or expressly and specifically permitted to issue under any other provision of law that your privacy notice is available on your Web site and will be mailed to the customer upon request by telephone. The statement must state that your privacy notice has not changed and must include a specific Web address that takes the customer directly to the page where the privacy notice is posted and a designated telephone number for the customer to request that it be mailed;
(B) Post your current privacy notice continuously in a clear and conspicuous manner on a page of your Web site that contains only the privacy notice, without requiring the customer to provide any information such as a login name or password or agree to any conditions to access the page; and
(C) Mail your current privacy notice to those customers who request it by telephone within ten days of the request.
(iii) An example of a statement that satisfies paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section is: “Privacy Notice” in boldface or otherwise emphasized: Privacy Notice—Federal law requires us to tell you how we collect, share, and protect your personal information. Our privacy policy has not changed and you may review our policy and practices with respect to your personal information at [Web address] or we will mail you a free copy upon request if you call us at [telephone number].
By direction of the Commission.
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, DOE.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Commission proposes to approve revisions to the Transmission Operations and Interconnection Reliability Operations and Coordination Reliability Standards, developed by the North American Electric Reliability Corporation, which the Commission has certified as the Electric Reliability Organization responsible for developing and enforcing mandatory Reliability Standards.
Comments are due August 24, 2015.
Comments, identified by docket number, may be filed in the following ways:
•
•
1. Pursuant to section 215 of the Federal Power Act (FPA),
2. The Commission also proposes to find that NERC has adequately addressed the concerns raised by the Commission in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (Remand NOPR) issued in November 2013.
3. While proposing to approve the TOP and IRO Reliability Standards, below the Commission seeks clarifying comments addressing four issues: (A) Possible inconsistencies in identifying IROLs; (B) monitoring of non-bulk electric system facilities; (C) removal of the load-serving entity as an applicable entity for proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3; and (D) data exchange capabilities. Based on comments and information received on these issues, the Commission may issue directives as appropriate.
4. Section 215 of the FPA requires a Commission-certified ERO to develop mandatory and enforceable Reliability Standards, which are subject to Commission review and approval. Once approved, the Reliability Standards are enforced by the ERO, subject to Commission oversight, or by the Commission independently. On March 16, 2007, the Commission issued Order No. 693, approving 83 of the 107 initial Reliability Standards filed by NERC, including the existing TOP and IRO Reliability Standards.
5. On April 16, 2013, in Docket No. RM13-14-000, NERC submitted for Commission approval three revised TOP Reliability Standards to replace the eight currently-effective TOP standards.
6. On December 20, 2013, NERC filed a motion requesting that the Commission defer action, until January 31, 2015, to allow NERC time to consider the reliability concerns raised by the Commission in the Remand NOPR. The Commission granted that motion on January 14, 2014.
7. On March 18, 2015, as supplemented on May 12, 2015, NERC submitted a petition seeking approval of two sets of Reliability Standards to replace the currently-effective TOP and IRO Reliability Standards. NERC states that the proposed TOP Reliability Standards generally address real-time operations and planning for next-day operations, and apply primarily to the responsibilities and authorities of transmission operators, with certain requirements applying to the roles and responsibilities of the balancing authority. NERC adds that the proposed IRO Reliability Standards set forth the responsibility and authority of reliability coordinators to provide for reliable operations. According to NERC, reliability coordinators have an essential role in ensuring reliable operations, as they are the functional entities with the highest level of authority and have the wide-area view of the bulk electric system.
8. NERC states that the proposed Reliability Standards include improvements over the currently effective TOP and IRO Reliability Standards in key areas such as: (1) Operating within SOLs and IROLs; (2) outage coordination; (3) situational awareness; (4) improved clarity and content in foundational definitions; and (5) requirements for operational reliability data.
9. NERC states that the proposed TOP and IRO Reliability Standards address the coordinated efforts to plan and reliably operate the bulk electric system under both normal and abnormal conditions. NERC states that the proposed Reliability Standards provide a comprehensive framework for reliable operations, with important improvements to ensure the bulk electric system is operated within pre-established limits while enhancing situational awareness and strengthening operations planning. NERC explains that the proposed Reliability Standards establish or revise requirements for operations planning, system monitoring, real-time actions, coordination between applicable entities, and operational reliability data. According to NERC, the proposed Reliability Standards help to ensure that reliability coordinators and transmission operators work together, and with other functional entities, to operate the bulk electric system within SOLs and IROLs.
10. NERC states that it reviewed the report on the Arizona-Southern California Outages on September 8, 2011, Causes and Recommendations (“2011 Southwest Outage Blackout Report”) that includes findings and recommendations applicable to transmission operators, balancing authorities and reliability coordinators, and provides explanations of how the proposed Reliability Standards address the reliability issues identified following the 2011 Southwest Outage Blackout Report. Further, NERC states that it addressed outstanding Commission directives relevant to the proposed TOP and IRO Reliability Standards.
11. NERC proposes three TOP Reliability Standards to replace the existing suite of TOP standards. The proposed TOP Reliability Standards generally address real-time operations and planning for next-day operations, and apply primarily to the responsibilities and authorities of transmission operators. Among other things, NERC states that the proposed revisions to the TOP Reliability Standards help ensure that transmission operators plan and operate within all SOLs.
12. NERC proposes Reliability Standard TOP-001-3 (Transmission Operations), which contains twenty requirements. The purpose of proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3 is to prevent instability, uncontrolled separation, or cascading outages that adversely affect the reliability of the interconnection, by ensuring prompt action to prevent or mitigate such occurrences. According to NERC, the proposed standard achieves this reliability goal by providing appropriate entities with the authority to take actions, or direct the actions of others, to maintain reliability during real-time operations. NERC explains that the standard includes real-time monitoring and real-time assessment requirements
13. Requirements R1 and R2 require each transmission operator and balancing authority to explicitly and affirmatively act to address the reliability of its area through its own actions or by issuing operating instructions. In contrast, NERC notes that the obligation to act in currently effective Reliability Standard TOP-001-1a is implied, but not an explicit requirement. Requirements R3 and R4 together provide that each applicable entity must comply with each operating instruction issued by its transmission operator, unless doing so would violate safety, equipment, regulatory, or statutory requirements or the action cannot be physically implemented, and require an applicable entity to notify the transmission operator if it is unable to comply with the transmission operator's operating instruction. Similarly, Requirements R5 and R6 require the same actions of applicable entities with respect to an operating instruction issued by a balancing authority.
14. Requirement R7 requires each transmission operator to assist other transmission operators within its reliability coordinator area, and Requirement R8 requires a transmission operator to inform applicable entities of the transmission operator's actual or expected operations that result in, or could result in, an emergency.
15. Requirements R9, R16, and R17 address outage coordination of monitoring and control equipment. Requirement R9 provides that each balancing authority and transmission operator must notify its reliability coordinator and known impacted interconnected entities of all planned outages, and unplanned outages of 30 minutes or more, for telemetering and control equipment, monitoring and assessment capabilities, and associated communication channels between the affected entities. Requirements R16 and R17 state that each transmission operator and balancing authority must provide its system operators with the authority to approve planned outages and maintenance.
16. Requirement R10 addresses transmission operator monitoring obligations to help ensure that transmission operators have the necessary situational awareness to maintain reliable operations. Requirement R10 provides that each transmission operator must take certain steps for determining SOL exceedances within its transmission operator area. NERC explains that Requirement R10 addresses the Commission's concerns that the TOP and IRO Reliability Standards, that were the subject of the Remand NOPR, did not have sufficient requirements for real-time monitoring. Requirement R11 is the equivalent of Requirement R10 for balancing authorities.
17. Requirement R12 provides that each transmission operator must not operate outside of any identified IROL for a continuous duration exceeding its associated IROL T
18. Requirement R15 provides that each transmission operator must inform its reliability coordinator of actions taken to return the system to within limits when a SOL has been exceeded. Requirement R18 provides that each transmission operator must operate to the most limiting parameter in instances where there is a difference in SOLs. Requirements R19 and R20 provide that each transmission operator and balancing authority must have data exchange capabilities with the entities from which it needs data in order to maintain reliability in its area.
19. In addition, NERC states that it removed the load-serving entity (LSE) function from proposed TOP-001-3, Requirements R3 through R6 due to the November 2014 NERC Board of Trustees action to remove the LSE as a functional entity from NERC's Rules of Procedure.
20. Proposed Reliability Standard TOP-002-4 contains seven requirements relating to operations planning for transmission operators and balancing authorities. NERC explains that the proposed standard addresses next-day planning and provides for the necessary notifications and coordination between various functional entities. NERC adds that the revised definition of “operational planning analysis” specifies the scope and inputs required for next-day analyses. According to NERC, the proposed standard also improves coordination of next-day operations by requiring transmission operators and balancing authorities to provide operating plans to their reliability coordinators.
21. Proposed Requirements R1 through R3 and R6 apply to transmission operators, and proposed Requirements R4, R5, and R7 apply to balancing authorities. Requirement R1 requires each transmission operator to have an operational planning analysis that will allow it to assess whether its planned operations for the next day within its transmission operator area will exceed any of its SOLs. Requirement R2 requires each transmission operator to have operating plans for next-day operations to address potential SOL exceedances identified in the operational planning analysis performed pursuant to Requirement R1. Requirement R4 requires each balancing authority to have operating plans for the next day that address expected generation resource commitment and dispatch, interchange scheduling, demand patterns, and capacity and energy reserve requirements, including deliverability capability. Requirements R3 and R5 require each transmission operator and balancing authority, respectively, to notify the entities identified in their operating plan as to their roles in that plan. Requirements R6 and R7 require each transmission operator and balancing authority to provide its operating plan to its reliability coordinator.
22. Proposed Reliability Standard TOP-003-3 (Operational Reliability Data) establishes requirements for the provision of information and data needed by the transmission operator and balancing authority for reliable operations. The purpose of proposed Reliability Standard TOP-003-3 is to ensure that transmission operators and
23. Requirement R1 requires each transmission operator to maintain a documented specification for the data necessary, including non-bulk electric system and external network data, for it to perform its operational planning analysis, real-time monitoring, and real-time assessments. Requirement R2 requires each balancing authority to maintain a documented specification for the data necessary for it to perform its analysis functions and real-time monitoring. Requirements R3 and R4 require each transmission operator and balancing authority to distribute its data specification to the entities that have the necessary data. Requirement R5 requires each applicable entity receiving a data specification pursuant to Requirement R3 or R4 to satisfy the obligations of the documented data specification.
24. In response to the Commission's concerns in the Remand NOPR with regard to the need for including external networks and sub-100 kV facilities in the operational planning analysis conducted by transmission operators, NERC explains that proposed Reliability Standard TOP-003-3 requires each applicable entity to develop a data specification that would cover its data needs for monitoring and analysis purposes, including non-bulk electric system data and external network data deemed necessary by the transmission operator to support its operational planning analyses, real-time monitoring, and real-time assessments. With respect to sub-100 kV facilities, NERC determined that any sub-100 kV elements that are necessary for reliable operation of the bulk electric system would be included as bulk electric system facilities through the exception process provided in Appendix 5C to the NERC Rules of Procedure. NERC explains that the exception process provides the means for transmission operators and reliability coordinators to include elements in the bulk electric system that are necessary for the reliable operation of the interconnected transmission system but were not identified in the bulk electric system definition. Accordingly, NERC concludes that it is not necessary to include non-bulk electric system monitoring in Reliability Standard TOP-001-3. In addition, NERC explains that proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirement R10 requires transmission operators to monitor bulk electric system facilities within their transmission operator area, and to obtain information deemed necessary by the transmission operator about such bulk electric system facilities located outside of the transmission operator area when determining SOL exceedances.
25. NERC adds that when non-bulk electric facilities have no impact on the bulk electric system, but are needed for completing system models, the Commission-approved Reliability Standard FAC-001-2, Requirement R3 addresses the issue. This Reliability Standard requires the reliability coordinator to include in its methodology its entire reliability coordinator area and critical modeling details from other reliability coordinator areas that would affect the facility under study. In addition, the reliability coordinator must include details of system models used to determine SOLs.
26. The proposed IRO Reliability Standards, which complement the proposed TOP Standards, are designed to ensure that the bulk electric system is planned and operated in a coordinated manner to perform reliably under normal and abnormal conditions. The proposed IRO Reliability Standards set forth the responsibility and authority of reliability coordinators to provide for reliable operations. NERC states that in the proposed IRO Reliability Standards reliability coordinators must continue to monitor SOLs in addition to their obligation in the currently effective Reliability Standards to monitor and analyze IROLs. These obligations require reliability coordinators to have the wide-area view necessary for situational awareness and provide them the ability to respond to system conditions that have the potential to negatively affect reliable operations.
27. Proposed Reliability Standard IRO-001-4 (Reliability Coordination—Responsibilities) contains requirements relating to the reliability coordinator's overall responsibility for reliable operation within the reliability coordinator area. Requirement R1 provides that each reliability coordinator must act to address the reliability of its reliability coordinator area through direct actions or by issuing operating instructions. Requirement R2 provides that each applicable entity must comply with its reliability coordinator's operating instructions unless compliance cannot be implemented or would violate safety, equipment, regulatory, or statutory requirements. Requirement R3 provides that applicable entities must inform the reliability coordinator if they are unable to perform an operating instruction issued by its reliability coordinator.
28. Proposed Reliability Standard IRO-002-4 (Reliability Coordination—Monitoring and Analysis) contains requirements relating to capabilities for monitoring and analysis of real-time operating data. The purpose of the proposed Reliability Standard is to provide system operators with the capabilities necessary to monitor and analyze data needed to perform reliability functions. Requirement R1 requires each reliability coordinator to have data exchange capabilities with its balancing authorities, transmission operators, and other entities as it deems necessary, for it to perform operational planning analyses, real-time monitoring, and real-time assessments. Requirement R2 provides that each reliability coordinator must provide its system operators with the authority to approve planned outages and maintenance of its telecommunication, monitoring, and analysis capabilities. Requirement R3 provides that each reliability coordinator must monitor facilities, the status of special protection systems and non-bulk electric system facilities identified as necessary within its reliability coordinator area and neighboring reliability coordinator areas, to identify any SOL or IROL exceedances. Requirement R4 provides that each reliability coordinator must have monitoring systems that provide information used by the reliability coordinator's operating personnel, with particular emphasis to alarm management and awareness systems, automated data transfers, and synchronized information systems, over a redundant infrastructure.
29. Proposed Reliability Standard IRO-008-2 (Reliability Coordinator Operational Analyses and Real-time Assessments) contains requirements for reliability coordinators to conduct next-day analyses and assessments of
30. Requirement R1 provides that each reliability coordinator must perform an operational planning analysis that will allow it to assess whether the planned operations for the next day will exceed SOLs and IROLs. Requirement R2 requires each reliability coordinator to have a coordinated operating plan for next-day operations to address potential SOL and IROL exceedances identified as a result of its operating planning analysis. Requirement R3 provides that each reliability coordinator must notify impacted entities identified in its operating plan as to their role in the plan. Requirement R4 states that each reliability coordinator must ensure that a real-time assessment is performed at least once every 30 minutes. Requirement R5 provides that each reliability coordinator must notify impacted transmission operators and balancing authorities within its reliability coordinator area and other impacted reliability coordinators when a real-time assessment indicates an actual or expected condition that results in, or could result in, a SOL or IROL exceedance. Further, Requirement R6 provides that each reliability coordinator must notify impacted entities when a SOL or IROL exceedance has been prevented or mitigated.
31. Proposed Reliability Standard IRO-010-2 (Reliability Coordinator Data Specification and Collection) provides a mechanism for a reliability coordinator to obtain the information and data it needs for reliable operations and to help prevent instability, uncontrolled separation, or cascading outages. According to NERC, proposed Reliability Standard IRO-010-2 reflects recommendations from the 2011 Southwest Outage Blackout Report, including more clearly identifying necessary data and information to be included in a reliability coordinator's data specification. Requirement R1 provides that the reliability coordinator must maintain a documented specification for the data, including non-bulk electric system and external network data, necessary for it to perform its operational planning analyses, real-time monitoring, and real-time assessments. Requirement R2 provides that the reliability coordinator must distribute its data specification to entities that have the required data. Requirement R3 provides that applicable entities receiving a data specification must satisfy the obligations of the documented specification using a mutually-agreeable format, process for resolving data conflicts, and security protocol.
32. Proposed Reliability Standard IRO-014-3 (Coordination among Reliability Coordinators) contains requirements for coordination for interconnected operations at the reliability coordinator level. The purpose of the proposed Reliability Standard is to ensure that each reliability coordinator's operations are coordinated such that they will not adversely affect other reliability coordinator areas and to preserve the reliability benefits of interconnected operations. Requirement R1 requires each reliability coordinator to have and implement operating procedures, processes, or plans for activities that require notification or coordination of actions that may affect adjacent reliability coordinator areas. Requirement R2 requires each reliability coordinator to maintain its operating procedures, processes, or plans through annual reviews and updates, with no more than 15 months passing between reviews. Requirement R3 requires each reliability coordinator to notify other impacted reliability coordinators upon identification of an expected or actual emergency. Requirement R4 specifies that, if the reliability coordinators disagree on the existence of an emergency, each must operate as though an emergency exists. Requirement R5 states that a reliability coordinator that identifies an emergency must develop an action plan to resolve the emergency, and Requirement R6 requires impacted reliability coordinators to implement the action plan. Under Requirement R7, a reliability coordinator must assist another reliability coordinator if the requesting reliability coordinator has implemented its emergency procedures.
33. NERC states that proposed Reliability Standard IRO-017-1 (Outage Coordination) is a new Reliability Standard designed to ensure that outages are properly coordinated in the operations planning time horizon and near-term transmission planning horizon. According to NERC, the requirements in the proposed Reliability Standard, which span both time horizons, provide the necessary requirements for effective coordination of planned outages to support reliable operations.
34. NERC notes that in the Remand NOPR the Commission identified coordination of outages as a critical reliability function that should be performed by the reliability coordinator that was not adequately addressed. NERC explains that proposed Reliability Standard IRO-017-1 addresses the Commission's Remand NOPR concerns by requiring each reliability coordinator to develop, implement and maintain an outage coordination process for generation and transmission outages. NERC also explains that each transmission operator and balancing authority would then be required to perform the functions specified in its reliability coordinator's process. Further, NERC states that each planning coordinator and transmission planner will provide its planning assessment to relevant reliability coordinators and work together to solve any issues or conflicts with planned outages among the applicable entities. Additionally, NERC states that proposed Reliability Standard IRO-014-3, Requirement R1, Part 1.4 requires reliability coordinators to coordinate with adjacent reliability coordinators the exchange of planned and unplanned outage information to support operational planning analyses and real-time assessments in their operating procedures, processes, or plans.
35. Proposed Reliability Standard IRO-017-1 has four requirements. Requirement R1 provides that each reliability coordinator must develop, implement, and maintain an outage coordination process for generation and transmission outages. Requirement R2 provides that each transmission operator and balancing authority must perform the functions specified in its reliability coordinator's outage coordination process. Requirement R3 provides that each planning coordinator and transmission planner must provide its planning assessment to impacted reliability coordinators. Requirement R4 requires each planning coordinator and transmission planner to jointly develop
36. NERC also proposes revised definitions for “operational planning analysis” and “real-time assessment.”
37. The proposed NERC Glossary term “Operating Instruction” defines the scope of commands that are covered by the proposed TOP and IRO Reliability Standards. NERC explains that the revisions in the proposed definitions are intended to ensure that operational planning analyses and real-time assessments contain sufficient details to result in an appropriate level of situational awareness for next-day planning and real-time operations, respectively.
38. NERC proposes that, for all standards except proposed Reliability Standards TOP-003-3 and IRO-010-2, the effective date will be the first day of the first calendar quarter twelve months after Commission approval. The twelve month implementation period for all of the standards except TOP-003-3 and IRO-010-2 is intended to allow time for entities to update processes and train operators on the revised requirements. All of the Requirements in proposed TOP-003-3 and IRO-010-2 except TOP-003-3, Requirements R5 and IRO-010-2, Requirement R3 would become effective three months earlier, in order to provide recipients of data requests from their reliability coordinators, transmission operators, and/or balancing authorities time to respond to the requests for data.
39. According to NERC's implementation plan, for proposed TOP-003-3, all requirements except Requirement R5 will become effective on the first day of the first calendar quarter nine months after the date that the standard is approved. For proposed IRO-010-2, Requirements R1 and R2 would become effective on the first day of the first calendar quarter that is nine months after the date that the standard is approved. Requirement R3 would become effective on the first day of the first calendar quarter twelve months after the date that the standard is approved. NERC states that the reason for the difference in effective dates for proposed TOP-003-3 and IRO-010-2 is to allow applicable entities to have time to properly respond to the data specification requests.
40. Pursuant to section 215(d) of the FPA, we propose to approve NERC's proposed revisions to the TOP and IRO Reliability Standards as just, reasonable, not unduly discriminatory or preferential, and in the public interest. We believe that NERC's approach of consolidating requirements and removing redundancies generally has merit and is consistent with Commission policy promoting increased efficiencies in Reliability Standards and reducing requirements that are either redundant with other currently effective requirements or have little reliability benefit.
41. We agree with NERC that the proposed TOP and IRO Reliability Standards would improve reliability by defining an appropriate division of responsibilities between reliability coordinators and transmission operators.
42. For these reasons, we propose to approve NERC's revisions to the TOP and IRO Reliability Standards. We also discuss below: (A) Concerns raised in the Remand NOPR plus possible inconsistencies of identifying IROLs; (B) other reliability issues including (1) monitoring of non-bulk electric system facilities; (2) removal of the load-serving entity function from proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3; and (3) data exchange capabilities.
43. We propose to find that NERC has adequately addressed the concerns raised by the Commission in the Remand NOPR with respect to the treatment of SOLs in the proposed TOP Reliability Standards. In the Remand NOPR, the Commission expressed concern that the proposed TOP standards did not have a requirement “for transmission operators to plan and operate within all SOLs. Without a requirement to plan and operate within all SOLs in the proposed standards and by limiting non-IROL SOLs to only those identified by the transmission operator internal to its area, system reliability is reduced and negative consequences can occur outside of the transmission operator's internal area.”
44. The Commission believes that the proposed TOP Reliability Standards address the Commission's Remand
45. Further, proposed Reliability Standard IRO-008-2, Requirements R1, R2, R3, R5, and R6 require reliability coordinators to plan and operate within SOLs and IROLs, which we believe work in tandem with the proposed TOP Standards and address the Commission's concern that the previously-proposed Reliability Standards limited “non-IROL SOLs” to only those internally identified by the transmission operator. Specific to operational planning, proposed Reliability Standard IRO-008-2, Requirement R1 requires the reliability coordinator to have an operational planning analysis to assess whether its next-day planned operations will exceed SOLs and IROLs within its wide area, and Requirement R2 requires the reliability coordinator to have a coordinated next-day operating plan(s) to address potential SOLs and IROLs exceedances identified in its operational planning analysis while considering the next-day operating plan(s) provided by its transmission operators and balancing authorities.
46. In the Remand NOPR, the Commission raised the concern that the then-proposed version of the TOP/IRO Standards did not consider the possibility that additional SOLs could develop or occur in the same-day or real-time operational time horizon, and therefore would pose an operational risk to the interconnected transmission network.
47. Likewise, based on NERC's explanation, we believe that the proposed Reliability Standards in the immediate proceeding are designed to improve system performance by giving reliability coordinators the authority to direct actions to prevent or mitigate instances of exceeding IROLs. This delineation of responsibilities between reliability coordinators and transmission operators is appropriate because the primary decision-making authority for mitigating IROL exceedances is assigned to reliability coordinators while transmission operators have the primary responsibility for mitigating SOL exceedances.
48. In addition, NERC explains that the proposed Reliability Standard IRO-014-3 contains requirements for coordination of interconnection operations at the reliability coordinator level and ensures that each reliability coordinator's operations are coordinated such that they will not adversely affect other reliability coordinators' areas.
49. Furthermore, the Commission believes the revised definitions of operational planning analysis and real-time assessment are critical components of the proposed TOP and IRO Reliability Standards and, together with the definitions of SOLs, IROLs and operating plans, work to ensure that reliability coordinators, transmission operators and balancing authorities plan and operate the bulk electric system within all SOLs and IROLs to prevent instability, uncontrolled separation, or cascading. In addition, the revised definitions of operational planning analysis and real-time assessment address other concerns raised in the Remand NOPR as well as multiple recommendations in the 2011 Southwest Outage Blackout Report.
50. Likewise, the definition of real-time assessment is used in the following proposed Reliability Standards: TOP-001-3; TOP-003-3; IRO-002-4; IRO-008-2; IRO-010-2; and IRO-014-3 to ensure a consistent approach to the real-time operation of the Bulk Power System for the reliability coordinators, transmission operators and balancing authorities.
51. The Commission does note, however, that in Exhibit E (SOL White Paper) of NERC's petition, NERC states that with regard to the SOL concept, the SOL White Paper brings “clarity and consistency to the notion of establishing SOLs, exceeding SOLs, and implementing Operating Plans to mitigate SOL exceedances.”
52. We believe, too, that NERC has addressed the concerns raised in the Remand NOPR with respect to the IRO standards regarding planned outage coordination. In the Remand NOPR, the Commission expressed concern with NERC's proposal because Reliability Standards IRO-008-1, Requirement R3 and IRO-010-1a (subjects of the proposed remand and now withdrawn by NERC) did not require the coordination of outages, noting that outage coordination is a critical reliability function that should be performed by the reliability coordinator.
53. With respect to proposed Reliability Standard IRO-017-1, submitted by NERC for approval in the immediate proceeding, Requirement R1 requires each reliability coordinator to develop, implement and maintain an outage coordination process for generation and transmission outages within its reliability coordinator area. Under Requirement R2, each transmission operator and balancing authority, in turn, would perform the functions specified in its reliability coordinator's outage coordination process. Further, Requirement R3 requires each planning coordinator and transmission planner to provide its planning assessment to the relevant reliability coordinators and to work together to solve any issues or conflicts with planned outages among the applicable entities under Requirement R4. Additionally, proposed Reliability Standard IRO-014-3, Requirement R1, Part 1.4 requires reliability coordinators to include the exchange of planned and unplanned outage information to support operational planning analyses and real-time assessments in the operating procedures, processes, and plans for activities that require coordination with adjacent reliability coordinators. Further, the proposed revised definitions of operational planning analysis and real-time assessments require that these evaluations of system conditions include transmission and generation outages. We believe that these proposed standards and revised definitions adequately address our concerns with respect to outage coordination as outlined in the Remand NOPR.
54. While proposing to approve the TOP and IRO Reliability Standards, the Commission seeks clarifying comments addressing three additional issues: (1) Monitoring of non-bulk electric system facilities; (2) removal of the load-serving entity as an applicable entity for proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3; and (3) data exchange capabilities. Based on comments and information received on these issues, the Commission may issue directives as appropriate.
55. NERC explains how the proposed Reliability Standards address the recommendations in the 2011 Southwest Outage Blackout Report, in particular with respect to Finding 17 concerning the impact of sub-100 kV facilities on the reliability of the interconnected transmission network. Finding 17 states:
WECC RC and affected TOPs and BAs do not consistently recognize the adverse impact sub-100 kV facilities can have on BPS reliability. As a result, sub-100 kV facilities might not be designated as part of the BES, which can leave entities unable to address the reliability impact they can have in the planning and operations time horizons. If, prior to September 8, 2011, certain sub-100 kV facilities had been designated as part of the BES and, as a result, were incorporated into the TOPs' and RC's planning and operations studies, or otherwise had been incorporated into these studies, cascading outages may have been avoided on the day of the event.
Recommendation 17 states:
WECC, as the RE, should lead other entities, including TOPs and BAs, to ensure that all facilities that can adversely impact BPS reliability are either designated as part of the BES or otherwise incorporated into planning and operations studies and actively monitored and alarmed in [real-time contingency analysis] systems.
NERC states that proposed Reliability Standard IRO-002-4, Requirement R3 addresses monitoring of non-bulk electric system facilities by requiring each reliability coordinator to monitor facilities and necessary non-bulk electric system facilities in order to identify SOL and IROL exceedances within its reliability coordinator area.
56. However, NERC explains that the standard drafting team concluded it is unnecessary to include non-bulk electric system monitoring in proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirement R10 for the transmission operator, in a similar fashion as proposed Reliability Standard IRO-002-4, Requirement R3 for the reliability coordinator. Instead, the standard drafting team determined that any non-bulk electric system facility elements that are necessary for reliable operation of the bulk electric system would be included in the bulk electric system through the exception process provided in Appendix 5C to the NERC Rules of Procedure. NERC states that the exception process provides the means for transmission operators and reliability coordinators to include elements in the bulk electric system that are necessary for the reliable operation of the interconnected transmission system but not identified in the bulk electric system definition.
57. We propose to find that NERC has adequately addressed the 2011 Southwest Outage Blackout Report recommendation in connection with sub-100 kV facilities for proposed Reliability Standards IRO-002-4, Requirement R3, IRO-010-2, Requirement R1.1 and TOP-003-3, Requirement R1.1. In doing so, we rely primarily on the proposed responsibility of the reliability coordinator to monitor such facilities to the extent necessary.
58. However, the transmission operator may have a more granular perspective than the reliability coordinator of its necessary non-bulk electric system facilities to monitor in order to identify SOL and IROL exceedances, and it is not clear whether or how the transmission operator would communicate any insight it may have to the reliability coordinator to ensure monitoring of all necessary facilities. Thus, the Commission seeks comment on how NERC will ensure that the reliability coordinator will receive information from the transmission operator regarding which non-bulk electric system facilities should be monitored. Further, as stated above, Recommendation 17 states “. . . to ensure that all facilities that can adversely impact BPS reliability are either designated as part of the BES or
59. Alternatively, we seek comment regarding whether this concern should be addressed through a review process of the transmission operators' systems to determine if there are important non-bulk-electric system facilities that require monitoring. For example, Commission staff could work with NERC, Regional Entities and applicable entities to review their system modeling and perform an analysis to identify non-bulk electric system facilities that need monitoring. Accordingly, we seek comment from NERC and other interested persons on these alternatives.
60. Proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirement R3 requires that each balancing authority, generator operator and distribution provider shall comply with each operating instruction issued by its transmission operator, and proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirement R4 requires that each balancing authority, generator operator and distribution provider inform its transmission operator of its inability to comply with an operating instruction. Proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirement R5 requires that each transmission operator, generator operator and distribution provider shall comply with each operating instruction issued by its balancing authority, and proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirement R6 requires that each transmission operator, generator operator and distribution provider inform its balancing authority of its inability to comply with an operating instruction.
61. In its petition, NERC states that, during the standard drafting process, the load-serving entity function was removed from proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirements R3 through R6. NERC explains that the removal of the load-serving entity as an applicable entity was based on the November 2014 NERC Board of Trustees action to remove load-serving entity as a functional entity from NERC's Rules of Procedure.
62. On May 12, 2015, NERC supplemented its initial petition with additional explanation for the removal of the load-serving entity function from proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3. NERC explains that the proposed standard gives transmission operators and balancing authorities the authority to direct the actions of certain other functional entities by issuing an operating instruction to maintain reliability during real-time operations. According to NERC, load-serving entities are not included in the list of entities that must comply with a transmission operator's or balancing authority's operating instructions. NERC contends that the exclusion is justified because none of the functions performed by load-serving entities, as described in the NERC Functional Model, necessitate that load-serving entities be subject to a requirement to comply with such operating instructions to ensure that a transmission operator or balancing authority can maintain reliability.
63. NERC also explains in its supplemental filing that the standard drafting team did not identify any circumstances under which a
64. NERC proposes the removal of the load-serving entity function from proposed Reliability Standard, TOP-001-3, Requirements R3 through R6, as a recipient of an operating instruction from a transmission operator or balancing authority. However, the Commission notes that the issuance and compliance of operating instructions under proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3 is not limited to the real-time operations time horizon only.
65. Further, if a transmission operator or balancing authority would issue an operating instruction to a load-serving entity such as to carry out interruptible load curtailments, it is not clear what entity would respond to this operating instruction if the load-serving entity is removed from proposed TOP-001-3, Requirements R3 through R6.
66. The Commission notes that NERC is required to make a compliance filing in July 2015 in Docket No. RR15-4-000. The Commission's decision on that filing will guide any action in this proceeding.
67. In Order No. 808, the Commission approved Reliability Standards COM-001-2 (Communications) and COM-002-4 (Operating Personnel Communications Protocols).
68. In general, it appears that facilities for data exchange capabilities are addressed in NERC's proposal. For example, proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirements R19 and R20 require some form of “data exchange capabilities” for the transmission operator and balancing authority, respectively. Similarly, proposed Reliability Standard IRO-002-4, Requirement R1 requires some form of “data exchange capabilities” for the reliability coordinator. However, we seek additional explanation from NERC regarding how it addresses data exchange capabilities in the TOP and IRO Reliability Standards in the following areas: (a) Redundancy and diverse routing; and (b) testing of the alternate or less frequently used data exchange capability.
69. The terms “redundant” and “diverse routing” of data exchange capabilities appear in Reliability Standard COM-001-1, where the reliability coordinator, transmission operator and balancing authority are required to have telecommunication facilities that are “redundant” and “diversely routed” to maintain Bulk-Power System reliability.
70. In Order No. 808, the Commission approved NERC's definition of the terms Interpersonal Communication and Alternative Interpersonal Communication. NERC defines Interpersonal Communication as “[a]ny medium that allows two or more individuals to interact, consult, or
71. As noted above, NERC indicated in its response to the COM NOPR that Reliability Standard COM-001-2 need not include requirements regarding data exchange capability because such capability is or would be covered by other existing or proposed standards. Specifically, NERC explained that data exchange is addressed by the currently enforceable Reliability Standards IRO-010-1a and IRO-014-1. In addition, NERC stated that data exchange transfer capabilities are directly addressed in proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, as well as in proposed Reliability Standard IRO-002-4, Requirement R1. NERC also stated that the data itself is covered in proposed Reliability Standard IRO-010-2 and proposed Reliability Standard TOP-003-3.
72. In the petition in this proceeding, NERC states that in proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, “Requirements R19 and R20 provide that each Transmission Operator (Requirement R19) and Balancing Authority (Requirement R20) must have data exchange capabilities with the entities from which it needs data in order to maintain reliability in its area.”
R19. Each Transmission Operator shall have data exchange capabilities with the entities that it has identified that it needs data from in order to maintain reliability in its Transmission Operator Area.
R20. Each Balancing Authority shall have data exchange capabilities with the entities that it has identified that it needs data from in order to maintain reliability in its Balancing Authority Area.
Reliability Standard IRO-002-4 Requirement R1 states:
R1. Each Reliability Coordinator shall have data exchange capabilities with its Balancing Authorities and Transmission Operators, and with other entities it deems necessary, for it to perform its Operational Planning Analyses, Real-time monitoring, and Real-time Assessments.
In addition, NERC states that IRO-002-4, Requirement R4 requires “each Reliability Coordinator must have monitoring systems . . . over a redundant infrastructure.”
73. The Commission agrees that proposed Reliability Standard TOP-001-3, Requirements R19 and R20 require some form of “data exchange capabilities” for the transmission operator and balancing authority, respectively, and that proposed Reliability Standard TOP-003-3 addresses the operational data itself needed by the transmission operator and balancing authority. In addition, the Commission agrees that Reliability Standard IRO-002-4, Requirement R1 requires “data exchange capabilities” for the reliability coordinator and that proposed Reliability Standard IRO-010-2 addresses the operational data needed by the reliability coordinator. Further, the Commission agrees that proposed Reliability Standard IRO-002-4 Requirement R4 requires a redundant infrastructure for system monitoring. However, it is not clear whether redundancy and diverse routing of data exchange capabilities (or an equally effective alternative that eliminates the ambiguity of “redundancy” and “diversely routed”) are adequately addressed in proposed Reliability Standards TOP-001-3 and IRO-002-4 for the reliability coordinator, transmission operator, and balancing authority.
74. Unlike the approach taken with COM-001-2, which requires redundancy and use of a diverse medium through the definitions of Interpersonal Communication and Alternative Interpersonal Communication, proposed Reliability Standards TOP-001-3 and IRO-002-4 do not appear to address redundancy and diverse routing of data exchange capabilities. While Reliability Standard IRO-002-4, Requirement R4 requires reliability coordinators to have a redundant infrastructure for system monitoring, it is not clear whether this requirement addresses redundancy and diverse routing of other forms of data exchange capabilities. For example, a redundant infrastructure used for system monitoring could be a subset of the total data exchange capabilities used by reliability coordinators and not include redundant infrastructure for capabilities such as control of equipment or real-time assessments. The Commission seeks explanation or clarification from NERC whether and how the proposed Reliability Standards in the immediate proceeding address redundancy and diverse routing or an equally effective alternative to redundancy and diverse routing. Further, if NERC or others believe that redundancy and diverse routing are not addressed, we seek comment on whether there are associated reliability risks of the interconnected transmission network for any failure of data exchange capabilities that are not redundant and diversely routed.
75. Reliability Standard COM-001-2, Requirement R9 (approved in Order No. 808) requires each reliability coordinator, transmission operator and balancing authority to test its Alternative Interpersonal Communication capability at least once each calendar month and to initiate action to repair or designate a replacement Alternative Interpersonal Communication capability.
76. As noted above, proposed Reliability Standards TOP-001-3, Requirements R19 and R20 and IRO-002-4, Requirement R1 address primary
77. The Commission is concerned that the proposed TOP and IRO Reliability Standards do not appear to address testing requirements for alternative or less frequently used mediums for data exchange to ensure they would properly function in the event that the primary or more frequently used data exchange capabilities failed. The Commission seeks comment on whether and how the TOP and IRO Reliability Standards address the testing of alternative or less frequently used data exchange capabilities for the transmission operator, balancing authority and reliability coordinator. If NERC or others believe that testing requirements for alternative or less frequently used mediums for data exchange is not necessary, we seek comment on why it is not necessary.
78. The collection of information contained in this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking is subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
79. We solicit comments on the need for this information, whether the information will have practical utility, the accuracy of the burden estimates, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected or retained, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondents' burden, including the use of automated information techniques. Specifically, the Commission asks that any revised burden or cost estimates submitted by commenters be supported by sufficient detail to understand how the estimates are generated.
Collectively, the proposed TOP and IRO Reliability Standards along with revised definitions provide for certain enhancements over the currently-effective TOP and IRO Reliability Standards.
80.
81. Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Office of the Executive Director, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426 [Attention: Ellen Brown, email:
82. Comments concerning the information collections proposed in this NOPR and the associated burden estimates, should be sent to the Commission in this docket and may also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs [Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission]. For security reasons, comments should be sent by email to OMB at the following email address:
83. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.
84. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA) generally requires a description and analysis of Proposed Rules that will have significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
85. The Commission invites interested persons to submit comments on the matters and issues proposed in this notice to be adopted, including any related matters or alternative proposals that commenters may wish to discuss. Comments are due August 24, 2015. Comments must refer to Docket No. RM15-16-000, and must include the commenter's name, the organization they represent, if applicable, and their address in their comments.
86. The Commission encourages comments to be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at
87. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
88. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.
89. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
90. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number of this document, excluding the last three digits, in the docket number field.
91. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
By direction of the Commission.
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, DOE.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Commission proposes to approve Reliability Standards and definitions of terms submitted in three related petitions by the North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC), the Commission-approved Electric Reliability Organization. The Commission proposes to approve Reliability Standards EOP-011-1 (Emergency Operations) and PRC-010-1 (Undervoltage Load Shedding). According to NERC, the proposed Reliability Standards consolidate, streamline and clarify the existing requirements of certain currently-effective Emergency Preparedness and Operations (EOP) and Protection and Control (PRC) standards. The Commission also proposes to approve NERC's revised definition of the term “Remedial Action Scheme” as set forth in the NERC Glossary of Terms Used in Reliability Standards, and modifications of specified Reliability Standards to incorporate the revised definition. Further, the Commission proposes to approve the proposed implementation plans, and the retirement of certain currently-effective Reliability Standards. The Commission discusses concerns regarding several of NERC's proposals and, depending on the comments provided in response, the Commission may direct NERC to develop further modifications to address the concerns and possibly delay the retirement of one currently-effective standard.
Comments are due August 24, 2015.
Comments, identified by docket number, may be filed in the following ways:
•
•
Nick Henery (Technical Information), Office of Electric Reliability, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-8636,
Mark Bennett (Legal Information), Office of the General Counsel, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-8524,
1. Pursuant to section 215 of the Federal Power Act (FPA),
2. Section 215 of the FPA requires a Commission-certified ERO to develop mandatory and enforceable Reliability Standards, subject to Commission review and approval.
3. On March 16, 2007, the Commission issued Order No. 693, approving 83 of the 107 Reliability Standards filed by NERC, including initial versions of EOP-001, EOP-002, and EOP-003.
4. NERC submitted three related petitions that we address together in this notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR).
5. On December 29, 2014, NERC submitted a petition seeking Commission approval of proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 and a revised definition of “Energy Emergency.” NERC explains that proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 consolidates the requirements in three existing Reliability Standards: EOP-001-2.1b, EOP-002-3.1 and EOP-003-2 “into a single Reliability Standard that clarifies the critical requirements for Emergency Operations while ensuring strong communication and coordination across the functional entities.”
6. NERC states that the purpose of proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 is “to address the effects of operating Emergencies by ensuring each Transmission Operator and Balancing Authority has developed Operating Plans to mitigate operating Emergencies, and that those plans are coordinated within a Reliability Coordinator area.”
7. Proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 includes six requirements, and is applicable to balancing authorities, reliability coordinators and transmission operators. Requirements R1 and R2 require transmission operators and balancing authorities to develop, maintain and implement reliability coordinator-reviewed operating plans to mitigate operating, capacity and energy emergencies.
8. Requirement R3 requires reliability coordinators to review the operating plans submitted by transmission operators and balancing authorities and is designed to ensure that there is appropriate coordination of reliability risks identified in the operating plans. In reviewing operating plans, reliability coordinators shall consider compatibility, coordination and inter-dependency with other entity operating plans and notify transmission operators and balancing authorities if revisions to their operating plans are necessary.
9. Requirement R4 requires transmission operators and balancing authorities to resolve any issues identified by the reliability coordinator and resubmit their revised operating
10. Proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 also includes the following revised definition of Energy Emergency:
Energy Emergency—A condition when a Load-Serving Entity or Balancing Authority has exhausted all other resource options and can no longer meet its expected Load obligations.
NERC explains that the proposed revised definition is intended to clarify that an energy emergency is not limited to a load-serving entity and, based on a review of the impact on the body of NERC Reliability Standards, “does not change the reliability intent of other requirements of Definitions.”
11. On February 6, 2015, NERC submitted a petition seeking approval of proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 (Undervoltage Load Shedding), approval of a revised definition of Undervoltage Load Shedding Program (UVLS Program) for inclusion in the NERC Glossary, the implementation plan for the proposed Reliability Standard and the associated violation risk factors and violation severity levels and retirement of four PRC Reliability Standards.
12. In its petition, NERC states that proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 is a single, comprehensive standard that addresses the same reliability principles outlined in the four currently-effective UVLS-related Reliability Standards.
13. Proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 incorporates a proposed definition of UVLS Program, which reads:
Undervoltage Load Shedding Program (UVLS Program): An automatic load shedding program, consisting of distributed relays and controls, used to mitigate undervoltage conditions impacting the Bulk Electric System (BES), leading to voltage instability, voltage collapse, or Cascading. Centrally controlled undervoltage-based load shedding is not included.
NERC explains that “to ensure that the applicability of the proposed Reliability Standard covers undervoltage-based load shedding systems whose performance has an impact on system reliability, a UVLS Program must mitigate risk of one or more of the following: Voltage instability, voltage collapse, or Cascading impacting the Bulk Electric System. By focusing on the enumerated risks, the definition is meant to exclude locally-applied relays that are not designed to mitigate wide-area voltage collapse.”
14. Proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 applies to planning coordinators and transmission planners because “either may be responsible for designing and coordinating the UVLS Program . . . [and] also applies to Distribution Providers and Transmission Owners responsible for the ownership, operation and control of UVLS equipment as required by the UVLS Program established by the Transmission Planner or Planning Coordinator.”
15. NERC states that proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 “applies only after an entity has determined the need for a UVLS Program as a result of its own planning studies.”
16. Proposed Requirement R1 requires each planning coordinator or transmission planner that is developing a UVLS Program to evaluate the viability and effectiveness of its program before implementation to confirm its effectiveness in resolving the undervoltage conditions for which it was designed, and that it is integrated through coordination with generator ride-through capabilities and other protection and control systems. Also, the planning coordinator or transmission planner must provide the UVLS Program specifications and implementation schedule to the applicable UVLS entities. Requirement R2 requires UVLS entities to meet the UVLS Program's specifications and implementation schedule provided by the planning coordinator or transmission planner or address any
17. Requirement R3 requires each planning coordinator or transmission planner to perform periodic comprehensive assessments at least every 60 calendar months to ensure continued effectiveness of the UVLS program, including whether the program resolves identified undervoltage issues and that it is integrated and coordinated with generator voltage ride-through capabilities and other specified protection and control systems. Requirement R4 requires each planning coordinator or transmission planner to commence a timely assessment of a voltage excursion subject to the UVLS Program, within twelve calendar months of the event, to evaluate whether the UVLS Program resolved the undervoltage issues associated with the event. Requirement R5 requires a planning coordinator or transmission planner to develop a corrective action plan for any program deficiencies identified during an assessment performed under either Requirement R3 or R4, and provide an implementation schedule to UVLS entities within three calendar months of its completion.
18. Pursuant to Requirement R6, a planning coordinator must update the data necessary to model its UVLS Program for use in event analyses and program assessments at least each calendar year. Requirement R7 requires each UVLS entity to provide data to its planning coordinator, according to the planning coordinator's format and schedule, to support maintenance of the UVLS Program database. Requirement R8 requires a planning coordinator to provide its UVLS Program database to other planning coordinators and transmission planners within its Interconnection, and other functional entities with a reliability need, within thirty calendar days of a written request.
19. NERC proposes that PRC-010-1 and the revised definition of UVLS Program shall become effective on the first day of the first calendar quarter that is twelve (12) months after the date that the standard and definition are approved by the Commission. NERC also proposes to retire PRC-010-0, PRC-020-1, PRC-021-1, and PRC-022-1 at midnight of the day immediately prior to the effective date of PRC-010-1.
20. On February 3, 2015, NERC submitted a petition seeking approval of a proposed revised definition of Remedial Action Scheme in the NERC Glossary. In addition, NERC seeks approval of modified Reliability Standards that incorporate the new definition of Remedial Action Scheme and eliminate use of the term Special Protection System.
21. NERC states that the revised definition of Remedial Action Scheme consists of a “core” definition, including a list of objectives and a separate list of exclusions for certain schemes or systems not intended to be covered by the revised definition.
A scheme designed to detect predetermined system conditions and automatically take corrective actions that may include, but are not limited to, adjusting or tripping generation (MW and Mvar), tripping load, or reconfiguring a System(s). (sic) RAS accomplish objectives such as:
• Meet requirements identified in the NERC Reliability Standards;
• Maintain Bulk Electric System (BES) stability;
• Maintain acceptable BES voltages;
• Maintain acceptable BES power flows;
• Limit the impact of Cascading or extreme events.
The definition then lists fourteen exclusions, describing specific schemes and systems that do not constitute a Remedial Action Scheme, because each is either a protection function, a control function, a combination of both, or used for system reconfiguration.
22. In the implementation plan, NERC proposes an effective date for the revised Reliability Standards and the revised definition of “Remedial Action Scheme” on the first day of the first calendar quarter that is twelve months after Commission approval.
23. Pursuant to section 215(d) of the FPA, the Commission proposes to approve as just, reasonable, not unduly
24. Pursuant to section 215(d) of the FPA, we propose to approve proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 and the proposed new Energy Emergency definition, as well as the proposed violation risk factors and violation severity levels and implementation plan. We agree with NERC that proposed EOP-011-1 consolidates and reorganizes previously approved standards, and proposes modifications based on current operating practices and experience. We believe that the Reliability Standard enhances reliability by requiring that actions necessary to mitigate capacity and energy emergencies are focused in single operating plans, and ensures communication and coordination among relevant entities during emergency operations. Also, we are satisfied that the NERC petition adequately addresses the relevant Order No. 693 directives.
25. Pursuant to section 215 of the FPA, we propose to approve proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 as just, reasonable, not unduly discriminatory or preferential and in the public interest. We also propose to approve the proposed, revised definition of UVLS Program for inclusion in the NERC Glossary, the implementation plan and the associated violation risk factors and violation severity levels. Likewise, we propose to approve the retirement of PRC-010-0, PRC-020-1 and PRC-021-1.
26. The Commission agrees with NERC that proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 will improve system reliability by establishing an integrated and coordinated approach to the design, evaluation and reliable operation of UVLS Programs, and therefore satisfies the Commission's directive issued in Order No. 693.
27. In the “Guidelines for UVLS Program Definition,” NERC provides an example of a “BES subsystem,” in the diagram below, illustrating a UVLS system that would not be included in the definition of UVLS Program if the consequences of the contingency do not impact the BES.
28. NERC proposes to retire Reliability Standard PRC-022-1, which requires transmission operators, load-serving entities and distribution providers to analyze and document all UVLS operations and misoperations. Requirement R1.5 of this Reliability Standard requires that an applicable entity's analysis and documentation should include “[f]or any Misoperation, a Corrective Action Plan to avoid future Misoperations of a similar nature.” Proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1, Requirement R5 addresses deficiencies in UVLS Programs that a planning coordinator or transmission planner identifies during assessments performed in accordance with either Requirement R3 (periodic UVLS Program effectiveness evaluations) or Requirement R4 (evaluations to assess UVLS Program responses to voltage excursions), and requires the entities to develop a Corrective Action Plan to address the deficiencies.
29. NERC correctly states that “[w]hen a UVLS Program does not function as expected and designed during a voltage excursion event, this presents a risk to system reliability.”
30. Pursuant to section 215(d) of the FPA, the Commission proposes to approve the proposed definition of Remedial Action Scheme, the proposed exclusions, the proposed Reliability Standards and proposed implementation plan, as just, reasonable, not unduly discriminatory or preferential, and in the public interest. We are persuaded that the use of a broad, core definition with a wide scope, accompanied by a list of specific exclusions will help avoid confusion and achieve a uniform understanding across all the Regional Entities of the proper classification of what schemes and systems constitute a Remedial Action Scheme. We agree with NERC that the proposed definition will improve reliability by eliminating ambiguity and promoting the proper, consistent identification of Remedial Action Schemes and more consistency in the application of related Reliability Standards.
31. The collection of information contained in this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking is subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
32. We solicit comments on the need for this information, whether the information will have practical utility, the accuracy of the burden estimates, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected or retained, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondents' burden, including the use of automated information techniques. Specifically, the Commission asks that any revised burden or cost estimates submitted by commenters be supported by sufficient detail to understand how the estimates are generated.
33.
34. Proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 replaces a combined total of 40 requirements or subparts that are found in Reliability Standards EOP-001-2.1b, EOP-002-3.1 and EOP-003-2. These three Reliability Standards are proposed to be retired, concurrent with the effective date of proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1. Accordingly, the requirements in proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 do not create any new burdens for applicable balancing authorities or transmission operators because the requirements in Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 are already burdens or tasks imposed on this set of registered entities by Reliability Standards EOP-001-2.1b, EOP-002-3.1 and EOP-003-2 under FERC-725A (1902-0244).
35. Proposed Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 requires reliability coordinators to perform the additional tasks of reviewing, correcting, and coordinating their balancing authorities' and transmission operators' operating procedures for emergency conditions. The Commission estimates that these tasks will add approximately 1,500 man-hours per year for each reliability coordinator as described in detail in the following table:
36.
37.
FERC-725G4, Mandatory Reliability Standards: Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 (Undervoltage Load Shedding).
FERC-725S, Mandatory Reliability Standards: Reliability Standard EOP-011-1 (Emergency Operations).
38.
39. Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Office of the Executive Director, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426 [Attention: Ellen Brown, email:
40. Comments concerning the information collections proposed in this NOPR and the associated burden estimates, should be sent to the Commission in this docket and may also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs [Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission]. For security reasons, comments should be sent by email to OMB at the following email address:
41. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA)
42. On average, each small entity affected may have a one-time cost of $92,387, representing a one-time review of the program for each entity, consisting of 1,500 man-hours at $66.35/hour (for engineers) and $30.66/hour (for record clerks), as explained above in the information collection statement. Proposed Reliability Standard PRC-010-1 is expected to impose an additional burden on 26 entities (distribution providers and transmission planners or a combination thereof). Comparison of the applicable entities with FERC's small business data indicates that approximately 8 are small entities affected by this proposed Reliability Standard.
43. On average, each small entity affected may have a cost of $1,906, representing a one-time review of the program for each entity, consisting of 96 man-hours at $66.35/hour (for engineers) and $30.66/hour (for record clerks), as explained above in the information collection statement. The Commission estimates that the modified definition of the term Remedial Action Scheme and related modifications to Reliability Standards will have no cost impact on applicable entities, including any small entities.
44. The Commission estimates that the combined impact of proposed Reliability Standards EOP-011-1 and PRC-010-1 in this NOPR would impose an additional burden on a total of 47 entities. Further, the Commission estimates that 15 respondents are small entities affected by these proposed Reliability Standards. On average, each small entity affected may have a cost of $92,387 and $1,906 (EOP-011-1 and PRC-010-1 respectively), representing a one-time review of the program for each entity. The Commission does not consider these costs to be a significant economic impact on small entities. Accordingly, the Commission certifies that this rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Commission seeks comment on this certification.
45. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.
46. The Commission invites interested persons to submit comments on the matters and issues proposed in this notice to be adopted, including any related matters or alternative proposals
47. The Commission encourages comments to be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at
48. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
49. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.
50. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
51. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
52. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
By direction of the Commission.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Partial withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking, notice of proposed rulemaking, and notice of public hearing.
This document partially withdraws the portion of the notice of proposed rulemaking published in the
Written or electronic comments must be received by September 22, 2015. Requests to speak and outlines of topics to be discussed at the public hearing scheduled for October 28, 2015, at 10:00 a.m., must be received by September 22, 2015.
Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-138526-14), Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand delivered to: CC:PA:LPD:PR Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-138526-14), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC, or sent electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Concerning the proposed regulations, Lewis Bell at (202) 317-6980; concerning submissions of comments and the hearing, Oluwafunmilayo (Funmi) Taylor at (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
The collection of information contained in § 1.148-1 has been reviewed and approved by the Office of Management and Budget in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) under control number 1545-1347. The collection of information in this proposed regulation is in § 1.148-1(f)(2)(ii) which contains a requirement that the issuer obtain certifications and supporting documentation regarding the underwriter's sales of the issuer's bonds. The collection of information in § 1.148-1(f)(2)(ii) is an increase in the total annual burden under control number 1545-1347. The respondents are issuers of tax-exempt bonds that wish to use the alternative method in § 1.148-1(f)(2)(ii).
Comments on the collection of information should be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Officer for the Department of the Treasury, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20503, with copies to the Internal Revenue Service, Attn: IRS Reports Clearance Officer, SE:CAR:MP:T:T:SP, Washington DC 20224. Comments on the collection of information should be received by August 24, 2015.
Comments are sought on whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the IRS, including whether the information will have practical utility;
The accuracy of the estimated burden associated with the proposed collection of information;
How the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected may be enhanced;
How the burden of complying with the proposed collection of information may be minimized, including through the application of automated collection techniques and other forms of information technology; and
Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance,
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by the Office of Management and Budget.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by section 6103.
This document contains proposed amendments to the Income Tax Regulations (26 CFR part 1) on the arbitrage investment restrictions under section 148 of the Code. On June 18, 1993, the Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS published comprehensive final regulations in the
A notice of proposed rulemaking was published in the
For purposes of the arbitrage investment restrictions, section 148(h) provides that yield on an issue is to be determined on the basis of the issue price (within the meaning of sections 1273 and 1274). The reason for using issue price (rather than sales proceeds less the costs of issuance) to determine yield for purposes of section 148(h) is to ensure that issuers bear the costs of issuance, rather than recover these costs through arbitrage profits. See H. Rep. No. 99-426, at 517 (1985). Congress thought that this requirement would encourage issuers to scrutinize costs of issuance more closely and would encourage better targeting of the federal subsidy associated with tax-exempt bonds. Id., at 517-518. The issue price definition under the Existing Regulations generally follows the issue price definition used for computing original issue discount on debt instruments under sections 1273 and 1274, with certain modifications. The definition under the Existing Regulations provides that generally the issue price of bonds that are publicly offered is the first price at which a substantial amount of the bonds is sold to the public. However, the issue price definition in the Existing Regulations defines substantial amount as ten percent and applies a reasonable expectations standard (rather than a standard based on actual sales) for determining the issue price of bonds that are publicly offered. Specifically, the issue price of bonds for which a bona fide public offering is made is determined as of the sale date based on reasonable expectations regarding the initial offering price. The issue prices of bonds with different payment and credit terms are determined separately. Notice 2010-35, published May 10, 2010 (2010-19 IRB 660), provides that the arbitrage definition of issue price also applies to other tax-advantaged bond programs, including Build America Bonds under section 54AA and other Qualified Tax Credit Bonds under section 54A.
The definition of issue price in the 2013 Proposed Regulations differs significantly from that in the Existing Regulations. Consistent with section 148(h), the 2013 Proposed Regulations retain the rule that issue price generally will be determined under the rules of sections 1273 and 1274. The 2013 Proposed Regulations parallel the language in the existing section 1273 regulations by providing that the issue price of tax-exempt bonds issued for money is the first price at which a substantial amount of the bonds is sold to the public. The 2013 Proposed Regulations provide a safe harbor under which an issuer may treat the first price at which a minimum of 25 percent of the bonds in an issue (with the same credit and payment terms) actually is sold to the public as the issue price, provided that all orders at this price received from the public during the offering period are filled (to the extent that the public orders at such price do not exceed the amount of bonds sold). Thus, the 2013 Proposed Regulations base the determination of issue price on actual sales prices instead of reasonably expected sales at initial public offering prices. The 2013 Proposed Regulations also remove the definition of a “substantial amount” as ten percent.
The 2013 Proposed Regulations define the term “public” to mean any person other than an “underwriter.” The 2013 Proposed Regulations define the term “underwriter” to mean any person that purchases bonds from the issuer for the purpose of effecting the original distribution of the bonds or otherwise participates directly or indirectly in the original distribution. An underwriter includes a lead underwriter and any member of a syndicate that contractually agrees to participate in the underwriting of the bonds for the issuer. A securities dealer (whether or not a member of the issuer's underwriting syndicate) that purchases bonds (whether or not from the issuer) for the purpose of effecting the original distribution of the bonds is also treated as an underwriter for this purpose. An underwriter generally includes a party related to an underwriter. A person that holds bonds for investment is not an underwriter with respect to those bonds.
A number of comments were received on the 2013 Proposed Regulations issue price definition. In general, the commenters requested the withdrawal of the portion of the 2013 Proposed Regulations relating to the definition or the re-proposal of the definition using the existing reasonable expectations test regarding the initial public offering price, with certain clarifications. Commenters pointed out that issue price must be determined as of the sale date to provide certainty that the bonds will qualify as tax-exempt and meet state or local requirements for debt issuance. The sale date is the date when the syndicate or sole underwriter in contractual privity with the issuer signs the agreement to buy the bonds from the issuer and when the terms of the bond issue are set. Commenters expressed concern about insufficient sales of bonds preventing a timely determination of issue price on the sale date. The commenters noted that the syndicate or sole underwriter in contractual privity purchases the bonds from the issuer, so the syndicate or sole
In general, the lower the issue price for the bonds bearing a stated interest rate, the higher the yield. Economically, the issuer should want to receive the highest price for the bonds and pay the lowest yield. This aligns with the purpose of the arbitrage provisions to minimize arbitrage investment benefits and remove incentives to issue more tax-exempt bonds, and thus to limit the federal revenue cost of the tax subsidy for tax-exempt bonds. Many of the commenters stated, however, that the use of actual sales prices likely would result in lower bond offering prices so as to ensure that each issue would meet the 25 percent threshold in the safe harbor in the 2013 Proposed Regulations as of the sale date of the bonds. The commenters pointed to unsold bonds in particular maturities of an overall tax-exempt bond issue that includes a series of bonds with separate maturities and issue prices as the particular impediment to meeting an actual sale requirement as of the sale date. These lower bond prices would reduce proceeds and increase borrowing costs for issuers, increase bond yields for arbitrage purposes, and increase federal tax subsidies.
In addition, commenters suggested that the definition of underwriter in the 2013 Proposed Regulations was unduly broad and ambiguous. In particular, commenters expressed concern that the 2013 Proposed Regulations effectively required the issuer to obtain price information from dealers that are not in a contractual relationship with the issuer or underwriting syndicate. The commenters also expressed concern that the proposed definition of underwriter necessitated determining a dealer's intent for buying bonds because whether a dealer was an underwriter depended upon whether the dealer purchased bonds with “the purpose of effecting the original distribution of the bonds.”
In response to the comments received, the Treasury Department and the IRS are re-proposing an amended definition of issue price for tax-exempt bonds. Consistent with section 148(h), the Proposed Regulations retain the rule that issue price generally will be determined under the rules of sections 1273 and 1274. The Proposed Regulations also parallel the language in the existing section 1273 regulations and the Existing Regulations by providing that the issue price of bonds issued for money is the first price at which a substantial amount of the bonds is sold to the public. This rule uses actual sales to determine issue price and is consistent with section 1273. The Proposed Regulations retain the rule in the Existing Regulations that ten percent is a substantial amount.
The Proposed Regulations also retain the rule for tax-exempt bonds that the issue prices of bonds with different payment and credit terms are determined separately. Tax-exempt bond issues often include bonds with different payment and credit terms that generally sell at different prices. In response to commenters' concerns regarding the need for certainty with respect to the determination of issue price of the issue as of the sale date and that less than a substantial amount of particular bonds included within an issue may be sold by that time, the Proposed Regulations provide an alternative method of determining issue price for bonds a substantial amount of which is not sold pursuant to orders received from the public as of the sale date. Under this alternative method, an issuer may treat the initial offering price to the public as the issue price, provided certain requirements are met.
In particular, the alternative method requires that the underwriters fill all orders at the initial offering price placed by the public and received by the underwriters on or before the sale date (to the extent the orders do not exceed the amount of bonds to be sold) and do not fill any order received by the underwriters on or before the sale date at a price higher than the initial offering price. Further, the alternative method requires the lead underwriter (or sole underwriter, if applicable) to provide certification with respect to certain matters under the alternative method, including a certification that no underwriter will fill an order received from the public after the sale date and before the issue date at a price higher than the initial offering price, except if the higher price is the result of a market change for those bonds after the sale date (for example, due to a change in interest rates), and that it will provide the issuer with supporting documentation for the matters covered by the certifications.
Documentation of the initial offering price may include a copy of the pricing wire (or equivalent communication). Documentation of bonds for which an underwriter filled an order placed by the public after the sale date and before the issue date at a price higher than the initial offering price includes both pricing information (amounts, prices, and sale dates) and information regarding the corresponding market change, such as proof of the values of a broad-based index of municipal bond interest rates on bonds similar to the type and credit rating of the bonds being sold. The issuer must not know or have reason to know, after exercising due diligence, that the certifications are false.
The Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that, under syndicate agreements among underwriters and MSRB rules, underwriters are free to sell bonds after the bond purchase agreement is signed at a fair and reasonable price different from the initial offering price. The alternative method allows the use of initial offering price as the issue price in circumstances in which bonds are sold after the sale date and before the issue date at a higher price, provided that the higher price results from a market change for those bonds after the sale date. Based on available data, the Treasury Department and the IRS believe that the frequency of sales by underwriters at higher prices between the sale date and the issue date is limited. Thus, the burden, in effect, of requiring underwriters to maintain initial public offering prices for unsold bonds until the issue date absent justification for higher prices based on market changes should be limited. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on other safeguards or alternative approaches to ensure that the prices obtained by underwriters in actual sales of bonds to the public between the sale date and the issue date are consistent with use of initial offering prices to the public as of the sale date as a simplifying assumption for issue price determinations in the alternative method.
The Proposed Regulations define “public” for purposes of determining the issue price of tax-exempt bonds as any person other than an underwriter or a related party to an underwriter. The Proposed Regulations define “underwriter” to include (i) any person that contractually agrees to participate in the initial sale of the bonds to the public by entering into a contract with the issuer or into a contract with a lead underwriter to form an underwriting syndicate and (ii) any person that, on or before the sale date, directly or indirectly enters into a contract or other arrangement to sell the bonds with any of the foregoing (for example, a retail
The Proposed Regulations remove as unnecessary a rule in the Existing Regulations expressly stating that the issue price does not change if part of the issue is later sold at a different price. The Treasury Department and the IRS intend no substantive change by the removal.
In accordance with section 6001, the issuer should maintain documentation in its books and records to support its issue price determinations. This documentation includes the specific certifications and documentation required to determine issue price under the alternative method, as well as documentation to support issue price determinations under the general rule. For example, under the general rule, an issuer should include in its books and records any certification from the lead (or sole) underwriter regarding the first price at which a substantial amount of the bonds were sold to the public and reasonable supporting documentation for this price.
The Proposed Regulations are proposed to apply prospectively to bonds that are sold on or after the date that is 90 days after publication of the Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
It has been determined that this notice of proposed rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action as defined in Executive Order 12866, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory assessment is not required. It has also been determined that section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. Chapter 5) does not apply.
It is hereby certified that these Proposed Regulations, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, a Regulatory Flexibility Analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) is not required. This certification is based generally on the fact that any effect on small entities by these rules generally flows from section 148 of the Code.
Section 148(h) of the Code requires the yield on an issue of bonds to be determined on the basis of issue price (within the meaning of sections 1273 and 1274). Under section 1273, the issue price is the first price at which a substantial amount of the bonds were sold to the public. Section 1.148-1(f)(2)(ii) of the Proposed Regulations gives effect to the statute by requiring the issuer to obtain certifications and documentation regarding sales of the bonds from the underwriter of the bonds, which is the party that sells the bonds to the public. This information will be used to support the issue price of the bonds for audit and other purposes. Any economic impact of obtaining this information is minimal because most of the information already is provided to issuers by the underwriters under existing industry practices. Accordingly, these proposed changes do not add to the impact on small entities imposed by the statutory provision. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, this notice of proposed rulemaking has been submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.
Before these Proposed Regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any comments that are submitted timely to the IRS as prescribed in this preamble under the “Addresses” heading. The IRS and the Treasury Department request comments on all aspects of the proposed rules. All comments that are submitted by the public will be available for public inspection and copying at
A public hearing has been scheduled for October 28, 2015, at 10:00 a.m., in the IRS Auditorium, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC. Due to building security procedures, visitors must enter at the Constitution Avenue entrance. In addition, all visitors must present photo identification to enter the building. Because of access restrictions, visitors will not be admitted beyond the immediate entrance area more than 15 minutes before the hearing starts. For more information about having your name placed on the building access list to attend the hearing, see the
The rules of 26 CFR 601.601(a)(3) apply to the hearing. Persons who wish to present oral comments at the hearing must submit written or electronic comments and an outline of the topics to be discussed and the time to be devoted to each topic by September 22, 2015. Such persons should submit a signed paper original and eight (8) copies or an electronic copy. A period of 10 minutes will be allotted to each person for making comments. An agenda showing the scheduling of the speakers will be prepared after the deadline for receiving outlines has passed. Copies of the agenda will be available free of charge at the hearing.
The principal authors of these regulations are Johanna Som de Cerff and Lewis Bell, Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Financial Institutions and Products), IRS. However, other personnel from the IRS and the Treasury Department participated in their development.
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, under the authority of 26 U.S.C. 7805, § 1.148-1(f) of the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-148659-07) that was published in the
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is proposed to be amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
(c)
(f) Definition of issue price.
(1) In general.
(2) Bonds issued for money.
(3) Definitions.
(4) Special rules.
(m) Definition of issue price.
(b) * * *
(f)
(2)
(ii)
(A) The underwriters fill all orders at the initial offering price placed by the public and received by the underwriters on or before the sale date (to the extent the orders do not exceed the amount of bonds to be sold), and no underwriter fills an order placed by the public and received by the underwriters on or before the sale date at a price higher than the initial offering price.
(B) The issuer obtains from the lead underwriter in the underwriting syndicate or selling group (or, if applicable, the sole underwriter) certification of the following:
(
(
(
(
(C) The issuer does not know or have reason to know, after exercising due diligence, that the certifications described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(B) of this section are false.
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(A) Any person (as defined in section 7701(a)(1)) that contractually agrees to participate in the initial sale of the bonds to the public by entering into a contract with the issuer (or with the lead underwriter to form an underwriting syndicate); and
(B) Any person that, on or before the sale date, directly or indirectly enters into a contract or other arrangement with a person described in paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(A) of this section to sell the bonds.
(4)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(m)
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Proposed rule; correction and clarification.
The Department of Veterans Affairs is correcting and clarifying a proposed rule that published in the
The correction and clarification are effective June 24, 2015. The comments due date remains August 17, 2015.
Written comments may be submitted through
Dr. Richard Allman, Chief Consultant, Geriatrics and Extended Care Services (10P4G), Veterans Health Administration, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-6750. (This is not a toll-free number.)
The VA is correcting and clarifying its proposed rule on Per Diem Paid to States for Care of Eligible Veterans in State Homes that published June 17, 2015, in the
On page 34809, second column, in paragraph (c)(1) of § 51.30, remove
In revising Subpart B—Obtaining Recognition and Certification for Per Diem Payments, the VA inadvertently left out instructions for § 51.41. This section is not changing and will remain in the CFR if this proposed rule is adopted.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Connecticut. The revision updates state regulations containing ambient air quality standards (AAQS) to be consistent with EPA's national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). The intended effect of this action is to approve these regulations into the Connecticut SIP. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act (CAA).
Written comments must be received on or before July 24, 2015.
Submit your comments identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R01-OAR-2014-0881 for comments by one of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Please see the direct final rule which is located in the Rules Section of this
David Mackintosh, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail Code OEP05-02), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone 617-918-1584, facsimile 617-918-0584, email
In the Final Rules Section of this
For additional information, see the direct final rule which is located in the Rules Section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve elements of state implementation plan (SIP) submissions from Michigan regarding the infrastructure requirements of section 110 of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 nitrogen dioxide (NO
Comments must be received on or before July 24, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2014-0657 by one of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Sarah Arra, Environmental Scientist, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-9401,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
When submitting comments, remember to:
1. Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
2. Follow directions—EPA may ask you to respond to specific questions or organize comments by referencing a Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part or section number.
3. Explain why you agree or disagree; suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes.
4. Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used.
5. If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced.
6. Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives.
7. Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats.
8. Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
This rulemaking addresses submissions from the Michigan Department of Environmental Management (MDEQ). The state submitted its infrastructure SIP for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
Under sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA, states are required to submit infrastructure SIPs to ensure that their SIPs provide for implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the NAAQS, including the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA highlighted this statutory requirement in an October 2, 2007, guidance document entitled “Guidance on SIP Elements Required Under Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 1997 8-hour Ozone and PM
EPA is acting upon the SIP submissions from MDEQ that address the infrastructure requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment plan SIP” submissions to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submissions required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of CAA section 169A, and nonattainment new source review (NNSR) permit program submissions to address the permit requirements of CAA, title I, part D.
This rulemaking will not cover three substantive areas that are not integral to acting on a state's infrastructure SIP submission: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions during periods of start-up, shutdown, or malfunction at sources, that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions (SSM); (ii) existing provisions related to “director's variance” or “director's discretion” that purport to permit revisions to SIP-approved emissions limits with limited public process or without requiring further approval by EPA, that may be contrary to the CAA (director's discretion); and, (iii) existing provisions for PSD programs that may be inconsistent with current requirements of EPA's “Final New Source Review (NSR) Improvement Rule,” 67 FR 80186 (December 31, 2002), as amended by 72 FR 32526 (June 13, 2007) (NSR Reform). Instead, EPA has the authority to address each one of these substantive areas in separate rulemakings. A detailed history, interpretation, and rationale as they relate to infrastructure SIP requirements can be found in EPA's May 13, 2014, proposed rule entitled, “Infrastructure SIP Requirements for the 2008 Lead NAAQS” in the section, “What is the scope of this rulemaking?” (
EPA's guidance for these infrastructure SIP submissions is embodied in the 2007 Memo. Specifically, attachment A of that memorandum (Required Section 110 SIP Elements) identifies the statutory elements that states need to submit in order to satisfy the requirements for an infrastructure SIP submission. EPA issued additional guidance documents, the most recent being the 2013 Memo, which further clarifies aspects of infrastructure SIPs that are not NAAQS specific.
As noted in the 2013 Memo, pursuant to section 110(a), states must provide reasonable notice and opportunity for public hearing for all infrastructure SIP submissions. MDEQ provided the opportunity for public comment for these submittals that ended on May 7, 2014. Additionally, MDEQ provided an opportunity for a public hearing. The state received comments and responded to them. EPA is also soliciting comment on our evaluation of the state's infrastructure SIP submission in this notice of proposed rulemaking. MDEQ provided detailed synopses of how various components of its SIP meet each of the requirements in section 110(a)(2) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires SIPs to include enforceable emission limits and other control measures, means or techniques, schedules for compliance, and other related matters. EPA has long interpreted emission limits and control measures for attaining the standards as being due when nonattainment planning requirements are due.
The Michigan Natural Resources and Environmental Protection Act, 1994 PA 451, as amended (Act 451), sections 324.5503 and 324.5512, provide the Director of MDEQ with the authority to regulate the discharge of air pollutants, and to promulgate rules to establish standards for emissions for ambient air quality and for emissions. To maintain the 2008 ozone NAAQS, Michigan implements controls and emission limits for nitrogen oxide (NO
As previously noted, EPA is not proposing to approve or disapprove any existing state provisions or rules related to SSM or director's discretion in the context of section 110(a)(2)(A).
This section requires SIPs to include provisions to provide for establishing and operating ambient air quality monitors, collecting and analyzing ambient air quality data, and making these data available to EPA upon request. This review of the annual monitoring plan includes EPA's determination that the state: (i) Monitors air quality at appropriate locations throughout the state using EPA-approved Federal Reference Methods or Federal Equivalent Method monitors; (ii) submits data to EPA's Air Quality System (AQS) in a timely manner; and, (iii) provides EPA Regional Offices with prior notification of any planned changes to monitoring sites or the network plan.
MDEQ's authority to promulgate rules to establish ambient air quality standard are found in Michigan Compiled laws (MCL) 324.5503 and MCL 324.5512. MDEQ continues to operate an air monitoring network; EPA approved the state's 2015 Annual Air Monitoring Network Plan on October 31, 2014, including the plan for ozone, NO
States are required to include a program providing for enforcement of all SIP measures and the regulation of construction of new or modified stationary sources to meet NSR requirements under PSD and NNSR programs. Part C of the CAA (sections 160-169B) addresses PSD, while part D of the CAA (sections 171-193) addresses NNSR requirements.
The evaluation of each state's submission addressing the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(C) covers: (i) Enforcement of SIP measures; (ii) PSD provisions that explicitly identify NO
MDEQ maintains an enforcement program to ensure compliance with SIP requirements. Part 55 of Act 451, MCL 324.5501 through 324.5542, gives MDEQ the authority to enforce emission limits and other control measures in rules, permits, and orders. In addition, MCL 324.5530 authorizes the Michigan Attorney General to commence a civil service action for appropriate relief for violations of or failure to comply with Part 55 of Act 451. The Clean Corporate Citizen Program is authorized through MCL 324.1401 through 324.1429. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the enforcement of SIP measures requirements of section 110(a)(2)(C) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA's “Final Rule to Implement the 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard—Phase 2; Final Rule to Implement Certain Aspects of the 1990 Amendments Relating to New Source Review and Prevention of Significant Deterioration as They Apply in Carbon Monoxide, Particulate Matter, and Ozone NAAQS; Final Rule for Reformulated Gasoline” (Phase 2 Rule) was published on November 29, 2005 (
The Phase 2 Rule required that states submit SIP revisions incorporating the requirements of the rule, including those identifying NO
EPA approved revisions to Michigan's PSD SIP reflecting these requirements on April 4, 2014 (
On May 16, 2008 (
The explicit references to SO
The Court's decision with respect to the nonattainment NSR requirements promulgated by the 2008 implementation rule also does not affect EPA's action on the present infrastructure action. EPA interprets the CAA to exclude nonattainment area requirements, including requirements associated with a nonattainment NSR program, from infrastructure SIP submissions due three years after adoption or revision of a NAAQS. Instead, these elements are typically referred to as nonattainment SIP or attainment plan elements, which would be due by the dates statutorily prescribed under subparts 2 through 5 under part D, extending as far as 10 years following designations for some elements.
The 2008 NSR Rule did not require states to immediately account for gases that could condense to form particulate matter, known as condensables, in PM
EPA approved revisions to Michigan's PSD SIP reflecting these requirements on April 4, 2014 (
On October 20, 2010, EPA issued the final rule on the “Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) for Particulate Matter Less Than 2.5 Micrometers (PM
The 2010 NSR Rule also established a new “major source baseline date” for PM
On April 4, 2014 (79 FR 18802), EPA finalized approval of the applicable infrastructure SIP PSD revisions; therefore, we are proposing that Michigan has met this set of infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(C) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
With respect to Elements C and J, EPA interprets the CAA to require each state to make an infrastructure SIP submission for a new or revised NAAQS that demonstrates that the air agency has a complete PSD permitting program meeting the current requirements for all regulated NSR pollutants. The requirements of Element D(i)(II) may also be satisfied by demonstrating the air agency has a complete PSD permitting program correctly addressing all regulated NSR pollutants. Michigan has shown that it currently has a PSD program in place that covers all regulated NSR pollutants, including GHGs.
On June 23, 2014, the United States Supreme Court issued a decision addressing the application of PSD permitting requirements to GHG emissions.
In order to act consistently with its understanding of the Court's decision pending further judicial action to effectuate the decision, the EPA is not continuing to apply EPA regulations that would require that SIPs include permitting requirements that the Supreme Court found impermissible. Specifically, EPA is not applying the requirement that a state's SIP-approved PSD program require that sources obtain PSD permits when GHGs are the only pollutant (i) that the source emits or has the potential to emit above the major source thresholds, or (ii) for which there is a significant emissions increase and a significant net emissions increase from a modification (
EPA anticipates a need to revise Federal PSD rules in light of the Supreme Court opinion. In addition, EPA anticipates that many states will revise their existing SIP-approved PSD programs in light of the Supreme Court's decision. The timing and content of subsequent EPA actions with respect to the EPA regulations and state PSD program approvals are expected to be informed by additional legal process before the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit. At this juncture, EPA is not expecting states to have revised their PSD programs for purposes of infrastructure SIP submissions and is only evaluating such submissions to assure that the state's program correctly addresses GHGs consistent with the Supreme Court's decision.
At present, EPA is proposing that Michigan's SIP is sufficient to satisfy Elements C, D(i)(II), and J with respect to GHGs because the PSD permitting program previously approved by EPA into the SIP continues to require that PSD permits (otherwise required based on emissions of pollutants other than GHGs) contain limitations on GHG emissions based on the application of BACT. Although the approved Michigan PSD permitting program may currently contain provisions that are no longer necessary in light of the Supreme Court decision, this does not render the infrastructure SIP submission inadequate to satisfy Elements C, (D)(i)(II), and J. The SIP contains the necessary PSD requirements at this time, and the application of those requirements is not impeded by the presence of other previously-approved provisions regarding the permitting of sources of GHGs that EPA does not consider necessary at this time in light of the Supreme Court decision.
For the purposes of the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
Certain sub-elements in this section overlap with elements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i), section 110(a)(2)(E) and section 110(a)(2)(J). These links will be discussed in the appropriate areas below.
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requires SIPs to include provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from contributing
On February 17, 2012, EPA promulgated designations for the 2010 NO
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires that SIPs include provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from interfering with measures required to prevent significant deterioration of air quality or to protect visibility in another state.
EPA notes that Michigan's satisfaction of the applicable infrastructure SIP PSD requirements for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA has previously approved revisions to Michigan's SIP that meet certain requirements obligated by the Phase 2 Rule and the 2008 NSR Rule. These revisions included provisions that: Explicitly identify NO
States also have an obligation to ensure that sources located in nonattainment areas do not interfere with a neighboring state's PSD program. One way that this requirement can be satisfied is through an NNSR program consistent with the CAA that addresses any pollutants for which there is a designated nonattainment area within the state.
Michigan's EPA-approved NNSR regulations found in Part 2 of the SIP, specifically in Michigan Administrative Code sections R 336.1220 and R 336.1221, are consistent with 40 CFR 51.165, or 40 CFR part 51, appendix S. Therefore, EPA proposes that Michigan has met all of the applicable PSD requirements for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
With regard to the applicable requirements for visibility protection of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), states are subject to visibility and regional haze program requirements under part C of the CAA (which includes sections 169A and 169B). The 2013 Memo states that these requirements can be satisfied by an approved SIP addressing reasonably attributable visibility impairment, if required, or an approved SIP addressing regional haze.
In today's rulemaking, EPA is not proposing to approve or disapprove Michigan's satisfaction of the visibility protection requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), transport prong 4, for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) requires that each SIP contains adequate provisions requiring compliance with the applicable requirements of sections 126 and 115 (relating to interstate and international pollution abatement, respectively).
Section 126(a) requires new or modified sources to notify neighboring states of potential impacts from the source. The statute does not specify the method by which the source should provide the notification. States with SIP-approved PSD programs must have a provision requiring such notification by new or modified sources. A lack of such a requirement in state rules would be grounds for disapproval of this element.
Michigan has provisions in its EPA-approved PSD program in Michigan Administrative Code section R 336.2817 requiring new or modified sources to notify neighboring states of potential negative air quality impacts, and has referenced this program as having adequate provisions to meet the requirements of section 126(a). EPA is proposing that Michigan has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 126(a). Michigan does not have any obligations under any other subsection of section 126, nor does it have any pending obligations under section 115. EPA, therefore, is proposing that Michigan has met all applicable infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires each state to provide for adequate personnel, funding, and legal authority under state law to carry out its SIP, and related issues. Section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) also requires each state to comply with the requirements respecting state boards under section 128.
MDEQ's SIP program is funded through 105 and 103 grants and matching funds from the state's General Fund. As discussed in earlier sections, MDEQ has the legal authority to carry
Section 110(a)(2)(E) also requires that each SIP contains provisions that comply with the state board requirements of section 128 of the CAA. That provision contains two explicit requirements: (i) That any board or body which approves permits or enforcement orders under this chapter shall have at least a majority of members who represent the public interest and do not derive any significant portion of their income from persons subject to permits and enforcement orders under this chapter, and (ii) that any potential conflicts of interest by members of such board or body or the head of an executive agency with similar powers be adequately disclosed.
On July 10, 2014, MDEQ submitted rules from the Civil Service Rule at 2-8.3(a)(1) for incorporation into the SIP, pursuant to section 128 of the CAA. MDEQ does not have a state board. The authority to approve air permits and enforcement orders rest with the MDEQ Director and his designee. These authorities are found in MCL 324.5503, MCL 324.301(b), Executive Order No. 1995-18, and delegation letter from the MDEQ Director to the Air Quality Division chief and supervisors. Therefore, section 128(a)(1) of the CAA is not applicable in Michigan.
Under section 128(a)(2), the head of the executive agency with the power to approve enforcement orders or permits must adequately disclose any potential conflicts of interest. The Civil Service Rule 2-8.3(a)(1) contains provisions that adequately satisfy the requirements of section 128(a)(2). This provision requires that “At least annually, an employee shall disclose to the employee's appointing authority all personal or financial interests of the employee or members of the employee's immediate family in any business or entity with which the employee has direct contact while performing official duties as a classified employee” (Civil Service Rule 2-8.3(a)(1)). The Civil Service Rule 1-9.1 subjects the MDEQ Director and designees to this provision. Therefore, when evaluated together in the context of section 128(a)(2), the director of MDEQ or his/her designee must fully disclose any potential conflicts of interest relating to permits or enforcement orders under the CAA. As a result, we are proposing to approve Civil Service Rule 2-8.3(a)(1) into the SIP. On July 10, 2014, MDEQ requested that these rules satisfy not only the applicable requirements of section 128 of the CAA, but that they satisfy any applicable requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
States must establish a system to monitor emissions from stationary sources and submit periodic emissions reports. Each plan shall also require the installation, maintenance, and replacement of equipment, and the implementation of other necessary steps, by owners or operators of stationary sources to monitor emissions from such sources. The state plan shall also require periodic reports on the nature and amounts of emissions and emissions-related data from such sources, and correlation of such reports by each state agency with any emission limitations or standards established pursuant to this chapter. Lastly, the reports shall be available at reasonable times for public inspection.
MDEQ implements a stationary source monitoring program under the authority of MCL 324.5512 and MCL 324.5503 of Act 451. Additional emissions testing, sampling, and reporting requirements are found in Michigan Administrative Code sections R 336.201 through R 336.202 and R 336.2011 through R 336.2199. Emissions data is submitted to EPA through the National Emissions Inventory system and is available to the public online and upon request. EPA proposes that Michigan has satisfied the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(F) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires that a plan provide for authority that is analogous to what is provided in section 303 of the CAA, and adequate contingency plans to implement such authority. The 2013 Memo states that infrastructure SIP submissions should specify authority, rested in an appropriate official, to restrain any source from causing or contributing to emissions which present an imminent and substantial endangerment to public health or welfare, or the environment.
MDEQ has the authority to require immediate discontinuation of air contamination discharges that constitute an imminent and substantial endangerment to public health, safety, welfare, or the environment under MCL 324.5518 of Act 451. MCL 324.5530 provides for civil action by the Michigan Attorney General for a violation as just described. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the applicable infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(G) related to authority to implement measures to restrain sources from causing or contributing to emissions which present an imminent and substantial endangerment to public health or welfare, or the environment with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires states to have the authority to revise their SIPs in response to changes in the NAAQS, availability of improved methods for attaining the NAAQS, or to an EPA finding that the SIP is substantially inadequate.
MDEQ continues to update and implement needed revisions to Michigan's SIP as necessary to meet ambient air quality standards. Authority for MDEQ to adopt emissions standards and compliance schedules is found at MCL 324.5512 and MCL 324.5503 of Act 451. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(H) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
The CAA requires that each plan or plan revision for an area designated as a nonattainment area meet the applicable requirements of part D of the CAA. Part D relates to nonattainment areas.
EPA has determined that section 110(a)(2)(I) is not applicable to the infrastructure SIP process. Instead, EPA takes action on part D attainment plans through separate processes.
The evaluation of the submissions from Michigan with respect to the
States must provide a process for consultation with local governments and Federal Land Managers (FLMs) carrying out NAAQS implementation requirements.
Michigan actively participates in the regional planning efforts that include business, community groups, state rule developers, representatives from the FLMs, and other affected stakeholders. Michigan Administrative Code section R 336.2816 requires that FLMs are provided with notification of permit applications that may impact class I areas. Additionally, Michigan is an active member of the Lake Michigan Air Directors Consortium, which consists of collaboration with the States of Illinois, Wisconsin, Indiana, Minnesota, and Ohio. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of this portion of section 110(a)(2)(J) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
Section 110(a)(2)(J) also requires states to notify the public if NAAQS are exceeded in an area and must enhance public awareness of measures that can be taken to prevent exceedances.
MDEQ notifies the public if there are NAAQS exceedances and of any public health hazards associated with those exceedances through CleanAirAction!, AirNow, and EnviroFlash as well as posting on its Web site. MDEQ published an annual air quality report comparing Michigan monitors to the NAAQS. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of this portion of section 110(a)(2)(J) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
States must meet applicable requirements of section 110(a)(2)(C) related to PSD. MDEQ's PSD program in the context of infrastructure SIPs has already been discussed in the paragraphs addressing section 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), and EPA notes that the proposed actions for those sections are consistent with the proposed actions for this portion of section 110(a)(2)(J). Therefore, EPA proposes that Michigan has met all of the infrastructure SIP requirements for PSD associated with section 110(a)(2)(D)(J) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
With regard to the applicable requirements for visibility protection, states are subject to visibility and regional haze program requirements under part C of the CAA (which includes sections 169A and 169B). In the event of the establishment of a new NAAQS, however, the visibility and regional haze program requirements under part C do not change. Thus, we find that there is no new visibility obligation “triggered” under section 110(a)(2)(J) when a new NAAQS becomes effective. In other words, the visibility protection requirements of section 110(a)(2)(J) are not germane to infrastructure SIPs for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
SIPs must provide for performing air quality modeling for predicting effects on air quality of emissions of any NAAQS pollutant and submission of such data to EPA upon request.
MDEQ continues to review the potential impact of major, and some minor, new and modified sources using computer models. Michigan's rules regarding air quality modeling are contained in Michigan Administrative Code sections R 336.1240 and R 336.1241. These modeling data are available to EPA or other interested parties upon request. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(K) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires that SIPs mandate that each major stationary source pay permitting fees to cover the cost of reviewing, approving, implementing, and enforcing a permit.
MDEQ implements and operates the title V permit program, which EPA approved on December 4, 2001 (66 FR 62969); revisions to the program were approved on November 10, 2003 (68 FR 63735). MDEQ's authority to levy and collect an annual air quality fee from fee-subject facilities is found in section 324.5522 of Act 451. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(L) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
States must consult with and allow participation from local political subdivisions affected by the SIP.
MDEQ regularly works with local political subdivisions for attainment planning purposes and actively participates in regional planning organizations. Rulemaking is subject to notice, comment, and hearing requirements under the Michigan Administrative Procedures Act, 1969 PA 306 and is authorized in MCL 324.5512. EPA proposes that Michigan has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(M) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA is proposing to approve most elements of submissions from MDEQ certifying that its current SIP is sufficient to meet the required infrastructure elements under sections 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA's proposed actions for the state's satisfaction of infrastructure SIP requirements, by element of section 110(a)(2) are contained in the table below.
In this rule, the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the Michigan Civil Service Commission Rule 2-8.3(a)(1) entitled “Disclosure,” effective October 1, 2013. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve State choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves State law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notification of submission to the Secretaries of Agriculture and Health and Human Services.
This document notifies the public as required by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) that the EPA Administrator has forwarded to the Secretary of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) a draft regulatory document concerning the draft final rule entitled “Pesticides; Revisions to Minimum Risk Exemption.” The draft regulatory document is not available to the public until after it has been signed and made available by EPA.
See Unit I. under
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID)
Ryne Yarger, Field and External Affairs Divison (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 605-1193; email address:
Section 25(a)(2)(B) of FIFRA requires the EPA Administrator to provide the Secretary of USDA with a copy of any draft final rule at least 30 days before signing it in final form for publication in the
No. This document is merely a notification of submission to the Secretaries of USDA and HHS. As such, none of the regulatory assessment requirements apply to this document.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; technical correction.
EPA issued a proposed rule in the
Comments must be received on or before July 28, 2015.
Follow the detailed instructions as provided under
Robert McNally, Director, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (7511P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
The Agency included in the May 29, 2015 proposed rule a list of those who may be potentially affected by this action.
EPA issued a proposed rule in the
The preamble for FR Doc. 2015-12530 published in the
1. On page 30640, second column, under the heading ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY, line 4, correct Banda de Lupinus albus doce BLAD to read Banda de Lupinus albus doce (BLAD).
2. On page 30641, second column, paragraph 3, line 3, Federal Drug Administration is corrected to read: Food and Drug Administration.
No. For a detailed discussion concerning the statutory and executive order review, refer to Unit VII. of the May 29, 2015 proposed rule.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments regarding (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by July 24, 2015 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725—17th Street NW., Washington, DC, 20503. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
This is a reinstatement of the Census of Agriculture Content Test, which is conducted every five years prior to the full Census of Agriculture. The last content test was done in 2010 in preparation for the 2012 Census of Agriculture.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).
The U.S. Census Bureau requests authorization from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the American Community Survey (ACS) Methods Panel.
The ACS samples about 3.5 million housing unit addresses in the United States and 36,000 in Puerto Rico each year to collect detailed socioeconomic data. The ACS also samples about 195,000 residents living in Group Quarter (GQ) facilities to collect detailed socioeconomic data. Resulting tabulations from that data collection are provided on a yearly basis. The ACS allows the Census Bureau to provide timely and relevant housing and socio-economic statistics, even for low levels of geography.
An ongoing data collection effort with an annual sample of this magnitude requires that the ACS continue research, testing, and evaluations aimed at improving data quality, achieving survey cost efficiencies, and improving ACS questionnaire content and related data collection materials. The ACS Methods Panel is a research program
At this time, plans are in place to propose several tests: A summer 2015 mail messaging test, a fall 2015 mail messaging test, a 2016 ACS Content Test, a 2016 mail messaging test, a 2017 self-response test with the potential to test both mail messaging as well as questionnaire content, a 2018 self-response test building on the previous tests, as well as tests of Internet data collection enhancements in 2017 and 2018. Since the ACS Methods Panel is designed to address emerging issues, we may conduct additional testing as needed. Any additional testing would focus on methods for reducing data collection costs, improving data quality, revising content, or testing new questions that have an urgent need to be included on the ACS. Please note that this proposal includes summer and fall 2015 mail messaging tests, which were not included in the pre-submission notice.
First, in response to respondent concerns about prominent references to the mandatory participation in the ACS, the Census Bureau plans to test methods to soften the mandatory messages while emphasizing the benefits of participation in the survey. In May of 2015, the Census Bureau is conducting a test to study the impact of removing the phrase, “YOUR RESPONSE IS REQUIRED BY LAW” from the envelopes used in the second and fourth mailing to respondents. The summer 2015 test will advance the study of mandatory messaging by modifying the messages included in several of the mailings, including postcards and letters.
Second, in response to declining response rates and increasing costs, the Census Bureau plans to analyze methods to increase self-response, the least expensive mode of data collection, especially Internet response. The tests would include changes to messages included in mail materials to motivate the public to respond to the ACS, increase awareness of the ACS, as well as changes to design elements of the materials, including color and graphics. Tests would be conducted in 2015, 2016, 2017, and 2018 building on previous tests' findings.
Additionally, as part of the mail messaging tests in 2017 and 2018, the Census Bureau may include content changes based on continued review of the ACS content in an effort to address respondent concerns and potentially reduce respondent burden. Among other activities, the Census Bureau is reviewing questions to determine if we can revise the wording in a way to make them less burdensome for survey respondents, especially for questions determined during the 2014 ACS Content Review to be especially sensitive, difficult, or time-consuming. Proposed changes to content would be cognitively tested and then included in a field test to assess the impact on both respondent burden and data quality.
Third, in response to Federal agencies' requests for new and revised ACS questions, the Census Bureau plans to conduct the 2016 ACS Content Test. Changes to the current ACS content and the addition of new content were identified through the OMB Interagency Committee for the ACS, and must be approved for testing by the OMB. The objective of the 2016 ACS Content Test is to determine the impact of changing question wording, response categories, and redefinition of underlying constructs on the quality of the data collected. Revisions to twelve questions/topics are proposed for inclusion in the 2016 ACS Content Test:
The Census Bureau proposes to evaluate changes to the questions by comparing the revised questions to the current ACS questions, or for new questions, to compare the performance of question versions to each other as well as to other well-known sources of such information.
Fourth, the ACS began collecting data using the Internet in January 2013. To date, the Web site used to collect the data is designed for a desktop computer screen. The Internet tests being proposed in 2017 and 2018 would evaluate Internet data collection via mobile devices, examine ways to reduce Internet break-offs, email testing, as well as other improvements to Internet data collection.
Finally, we will continue to examine the operational issues, research the data quality, collect cost information and make recommendations in the future for this annual data collection. The ACS Methods Panel testing, such as the 2015 Mail Messaging Tests, 2016 Content Test, 2016 Mail Messaging Test, 2017 Self-Response Test, and 2018 Self-Response Test, provide a mechanism to investigate ways to reduce or at least maintain data collection costs and improve the quality of the data.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
On June 21, 2013, in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of California, Armin Shir Mohammadi (“Mohammadi”) was convicted of violating the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701,
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or
BIS has received notice of Mohammadi's conviction for violating the IEEPA, and in accordance with Section 766.25 of the Regulations, BIS has provided notice and an opportunity for Mohammadi to make a written submission to BIS. BIS has not received a submission from Mohammadi.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Mohammadi's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Mohammadi's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Mohammadi had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly, it is hereby
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, License Exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or in any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determined that revocation of the antidumping duty (AD) orders on citric acid and certain citrate salts (citric acid) from Canada and the People's Republic of China (PRC) would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping, and that revocation of the countervailing duty (CVD) order on citric acid from the PRC would likely to
Katherine Johnson (Canada AD Order), AD/CVD Operations, Office II; Krisha Hill (PRC AD Order), AD/CVD Operations, Office IV; or Elizabeth Eastwood (PRC CVD Order), AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4929, (202) 482-4037, or (202) 482-3874, respectively.
On April 1, 2014, the Department initiated
On June 17, 2015, the ITC published its determinations, pursuant to sections 751(c)(1) and 752(a) of the Act, that revocation of the AD orders on citric acid from Canada and the PRC, and the CVD order on citric acid from the PRC would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to an industry in the United States within a reasonably foreseeable time.
The scope of the orders include all grades and granulation sizes of citric acid, sodium citrate, and potassium citrate in their unblended forms, whether dry or in solution, and regardless of packaging type. The scope also includes blends of citric acid, sodium citrate, and potassium citrate; as well as blends with other ingredients, such as sugar, where the unblended form(s) of citric acid, sodium citrate, and potassium citrate constitute 40 percent or more, by weight, of the blend. The scope of the orders also include all forms of crude calcium citrate, including dicalcium citrate monohydrate, and tricalcium citrate tetrahydrate, which are intermediate products in the production of citric acid, sodium citrate, and potassium citrate. The scope of the orders do not include calcium citrate that satisfies the standards set forth in the United States Pharmacopeia and has been mixed with a functional excipient, such as dextrose or starch, where the excipient constitutes at least 2 percent, by weight, of the product. The scope of the orders include the hydrous and anhydrous forms of citric acid, the dihydrate and anhydrous forms of sodium citrate, otherwise known as citric acid sodium salt, and the monohydrate and monopotassium forms of potassium citrate. Sodium citrate also includes both trisodium citrate and monosodium citrate, which are also known as citric acid trisodium salt and citric acid monosodium salt, respectively. Citric acid and sodium citrate are classifiable under 2918.14.0000 and 2918.15.1000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), respectively. Potassium citrate and crude calcium citrate are classifiable under 2918.15.5000 and 3824.90.9290 of the HTSUS, respectively. Blends that include citric acid, sodium citrate, and potassium citrate are classifiable under 3824.90.9290 of the HTSUS. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, our written description of the scope is dispositive.
As a result of the determinations by the Department and the ITC that revocation of these AD and CVD orders would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping or countervailable subsidies, and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act, the Department hereby orders the continuation of the AD orders on citric acid from Canada and the PRC and the CVD order on citric acid from the PRC. U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) will continue to collect AD and CVD cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.
The effective date of the continuation of these orders will be the date of publication in the
These five-year (sunset) reviews and this notice are in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and published pursuant to 777(i) the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on hand trucks and certain parts thereof (hand trucks) from the People's Republic of China (PRC).
Scott Hoefke, or Robert James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of
On February 4, 2015, based on timely requests for review
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party that requested the review withdraws its request within 90 days of the publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. In this case, both Positec and NPS timely withdrew their review requests by the 90-day deadline, and no other party requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on hand trucks from the PRC. As a result, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), we are rescinding, in its entirety, the administrative review of hand trucks from the PRC covering the period December 1, 2013, through November 30, 2014.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Because the Department is rescinding this administrative review in its entirety, the entries to which this administrative review pertained shall be assessed antidumping duties at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as the only reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305, which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On April 9, 2015, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published the
Michael J. Heaney or Robert James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-4475 or (202) 482-0649, respectively.
On April 9, 2015, the Department published the
The merchandise covered by the order is all purified CMC, sometimes also referred to as purified sodium CMC, polyanionic cellulose, or cellulose gum, which is a white to off-white, non-toxic, odorless, biodegradable powder, comprising sodium CMC that has been refined and purified to a minimum assay of 90 percent. Purified CMC does not include unpurified or crude CMC, CMC Fluidized Polymer Suspensions, and CMC that is cross-linked through
Because no party commented on the
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act) and 19 CFR 351.212(b), the Department will determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review. Because CP Kelco's weighted average dumping margin is zero, in accordance with the
We intend to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of these final results of review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of these final results, consistent with section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for CP Kelco will be 0.00 percent, the weighted average dumping margin established in the final results of this administrative review; (2) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, but was covered in a previous review or the original less than fair value (LTFV) investigation, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recent period; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the original LTFV investigation, but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recent period for the manufacturer of the merchandise; and (4) if neither the exporter nor the manufacturer is a firm covered in this or any previous review conducted by the Department, the cash deposit rate will continue to be 6.65 percent, which is the all-others rate established in the LTFV investigation.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective orders (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305, which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
The Department is issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before August 24, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Dr. Brandi Toliver, NIST, 100 Bureau Drive, Stop 1090, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-1090, tel. (301) 972-2371, or
This is a request to revise the previously, approved information collection, as NIST will be consolidating two “collection instruments” into one application for both Gaithersburg and Boulder locations.
The purpose of this collection is to gather information requested on behalf
The Student Application Information form will be available on the web. The collection is currently limited to paper form and is
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S. C. Chapter 35).
The seafood dealers who process red porgy, gag, black grouper, or greater amberjack during seasonal fishery closures must maintain documentation, as specified in 50 CFR part 300 subpart K, that such fish were harvested from areas other than the South Atlantic. The documentation includes information on the vessel that harvested the fish and on where and when the fish were offloaded. The information is required for the enforcement of fishery regulations.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
NOAA asks people who operate ground receiving stations that receive data from NOAA satellites to complete a questionnaire about the types of data received, its use, the equipment involved, and similar subjects. The data obtained are used by NOAA for short-term operations and long-term planning. Collection of this data assists us in complying with the terms of our Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the World Meteorological Organization: United States Department of Commerce, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) on area of common interest (2008).
This information collection request may be viewed at reginfo.gov. Follow the instructions to view Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Native Americans may conduct certain aboriginal subsistence whaling in accordance with the provisions of the International Whaling Commission (IWC). In order to respond to obligations under the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling, and the IWC, captains participating in these operations must submit certain information to the relevant Native American whaling organization about strikes on and catch of whales. Anyone retrieving a dead whale is also required to report. Captains must place a distinctive permanent identification mark on any harpoon, lance, or explosive dart used, and must also provide information on the mark and self-identification information. The relevant Native American whaling organization receives the reports, compiles them, and submits the information to NOAA.
The information is used to monitor the hunt and to ensure that quotas are not exceeded. The information is also provided to the International Whaling Commission (IWC), which uses it to monitor compliance with its requirements.
This information collection request may be viewed at
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
The NMFS Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries, Greater Atlantic Region, has made a preliminary determination that an Exempted Fishing Permit application from the University of Rhode Island contains all of the required information and warrants further consideration. Regulations under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and the Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act require publication of this notification to provide interested parties the opportunity to comment on Exempted Fishing Permit applications.
Comments must be received on or before July 9, 2015.
You may submit written comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
Allison Murphy, Fishery Policy Analyst, 978-281-9122.
The University of Rhode Island (URI) submitted a complete application for an Exempted Fishing Permit (EFP) to conduct a 1-year lobster trap study that Federal regulations would otherwise restrict. The purpose of this study is to provide data on the effect of alternative escape vent designs on Jonah crab and lobster catch in an attempt to improve the retention of Jonah crabs while not increasing catch of sub-legal lobsters. This EFP proposes to test the modified vents over a wide range of Federal waters throughout Lobster Management Areas 2 and 3, covering statistical areas 515, 521, 526, 537, and 616 (see Figure 1).
Site selection would be based on each vessel's commercial fishing habits. URI is conducting this study to field test laboratory hypotheses that vents smaller than the minimum 5
URI is requesting exemptions from the following regulations to allow commercial lobster vessels to set, haul, and retain on-board the experimental traps:
• Trap limit requirements to allow each vessel to fish 15 traps more than each vessel's allocation,
• Gear specification requirements to allow for the use of smaller than required and closed escape vents, and
• Trap tag requirements to allow for untagged traps.
Each vessel will use five each of the three modified traps for sampling: Ventless; smaller vent length of 3
The EFP would authorize participating vessels to deploy up to three modified traps within their normal trawl configuration, not to exceed a total deployment of 15 modified traps across all trawls, per vessel. Traps will be hauled during normal commercial fishing activity, at least bi-monthly over the course of six months, up to one year. Catch from modified traps will be held briefly on-board vessels to record measurements and sex of crabs and lobster, trap vent type, and soak time. After data are recorded, the applicant states that all catch from modified traps will be promptly discarded and no catch from modified traps would be retained for sale. All catch data would be collected by the vessel captain and crew.
If approved, URI may request minor modifications and extensions to the EFP throughout the study. EFP modifications and extensions may be granted without further notice if they are deemed essential to facilitate completion of the proposed research and have minimal impacts that do not change the scope or impact of the initially approved EFP request. Any fishing activity conducted outside the scope of the exempted fishing activity would be prohibited.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Institute of Education Sciences/National Center for Education Statistics (NCES), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before August 24, 2015.
Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Kashka, Kubzdela 202-502-7411.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Take notice that on June 5, 2015, Texas Gas Transmission, LLC (Texas Gas) filed an application with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to sections 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) requesting authority to construct and operate the Northern Supply Access Project (Project). Specifically, Texas Gas requests authorization to: (i) Construct the new 23,877 hp Harrison Compressor Station in Hamilton County, Ohio; ii) install gas cooling facilities at the Dillsboro Compressor Station in Dearborn County, Indiana; (iii) install a new 9,688 hp gas turbine compressor and various piping modifications at the Bastrop Compressor Station in Morehouse Parish, Louisiana; and (iv) make certain yard and station piping modifications at existing compressor stations in Lawrence County, Indiana; Jeffersontown, Breckinridge and Webster Counties, Kentucky; Tipton County, Tennessee; and Coahoma County, Mississippi. The project is designed to provide an additional 384,000 MMBtu/d of north to south transportation capacity on Texas Gas's system for eight shippers while maintaining bi-directional flow capability on its system. The estimated cost of the Northern Supply Access Project is $149 million.
This filing is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site web at
Any questions regarding the application should be directed to Kathy D. Fort, Manager, Certificates ad Tariffs, Texas Gas Transmission, LLC, 9 Greenway Plaza, Suite 2800, Houston, TX 77046, by phone at (713) 479-8033 or by email at
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit seven copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Comment Date: 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on July 8, 2015.
Take notice that on June 16, 2015, Sage Grouse Energy Project LLC (Sage Grouse) filed a second answer in response to PacifiCorp's April 22, 2015 filed answer; thereby, Sage Grouse amended its original complaint filed on February 9, 2015, as more fully explained in its amendment. In addition, on June 17, 2015, Sage Grouse supplemented the June 16, 2015 filing with exhibits.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Comment Date: 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on July 6, 2015.
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On February 28, 2014, PacifiCorp Energy (PacifiCorp) filed an application for the continued operation of the 1.1-megawatt Wallowa Falls Hydroelectric Project (Wallowa Falls Project) No. 308. On February 10, 2015, PacifiCorp filed an updated application that included modifications to its proposed action. On March 6, 2015, the Commission issued a
Based on the comments received in response to the REA notice, Commission staff has determined that its analysis of the proposed relicensing action will require preparation of a Draft and Final EA. A Draft EA will be issued and circulated for review by all interested parties. All comments filed on the Draft EA will be analyzed by staff and considered in the Final EA. Staff's conclusions and recommendations will be available for the Commission's consideration in reaching its final licensing decision.
The application will be processed according to the following revised procedural schedule. Revisions to the schedule may be made as appropriate.
Any questions regarding this notice may be directed to Matt Cutlip at (503) 552-2762, or by email at
On January 23, 2015, Soldier Canyon Filter Plant filed a notice of intent to construct a qualifying conduit hydropower facility, pursuant to section 30 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), as amended by section 4 of the Hydropower Regulatory Efficiency Act of 2013 (HREA). The proposed Soldier Canyon Micro Hydro Facility would have an installed capacity of 100 kilowatts (kW), and would be located along the existing 36-inch-diameter Soldier Canyon Pipeline at the Soldier Canyon Filter Plant. The project would be located near Fort Collins in Larimer County, Colorado.
A qualifying conduit hydropower facility is one that is determined or deemed to meet all of the criteria shown in the table below.
Deadline for filing motions to intervene is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.
Anyone may submit comments or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210 and 385.214. Any motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified deadline date for the particular proceeding.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j. Deadline for filing comments, interventions and protests is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
k. Description of Project Facilities: The unconstructed project works would consist of (1) an 18-foot by 18-foot powerhouse to be located in an existing parking area immediately downstream of the dam on the west side of the spillway; (2) a new 750-kilowatt generator to be installed within the powerhouse and connected to a new Kaplan turbine via a driveshaft; (3) the Kaplan turbine which would be installed outside of the powerhouse and connected to an existing 48-inch-diameter steel discharge pipe; (4) a second existing 48-inch-diameter steel pipe that would be used to bypass flow past the turbine; (5) a new 24.9-kilovolt, 9,360-foot-long primary transmission line; and (6) appurtenant facilities.
l. Description of Proceeding: On June 4, 2015, Pershing County Water Conservation District, Nevada filed a request to surrender their license for the unconstructed project stating that due to the current drought in the western United States, the project is not feasible at this time.
m. This filing may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
n. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
o. Comments, Protests, or Motions to Intervene: Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, .212 and .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
p. Filing and Service of Responsive Documents: Any filing must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “COMMENTS”, “PROTEST”, or “MOTION TO INTERVENE” as applicable; (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, motions to intervene, or protests must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). All comments, motions to intervene, or protests should relate to project works which are the subject of the license surrender. Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application. If an intervener files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency. A copy of all other filings in reference to this application must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed in the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.
q. Agency Comments—Federal, state, and local agencies are invited to file comments on the described proceeding. If any agency does not file comments within the time specified for filing comments, it will be presumed to have no comments.
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on June 9, 2015, Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC (FGT), 1300 Main Street, Houston, Texas 77002 filed a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205, 157.208(b), and 157.216(b) of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act for authorization to relocate several sections of 8-inch and 10-inch diameter laterals (totaling 6.8 miles) due to highway construction and replace them with approximately 4.3 miles of 12-inch pipe. The project is located south of Gandy Blvd., in Pinellas County, Florida (referred to by FGT as the 12-Inch St. Petersburg Lateral Relocation Project), all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Stephen T. Veatch, Senior Director, Certificates, Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC, PO Box 4967, Houston, Texas 77210-4967, by telephone at (713) 989-2024 or by email:
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Any person may, within 60 days after the issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. Any person filing to intervene or the Commission's staff may, pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's Regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA) (18 CFR 157.205) file a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the time allowed for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests, and interventions via the internet in lieu of paper. See 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii) and the instructions on the Commission's Web site (
Take notice that on April 12, 2013, Western Area Power Administration submitted tariff filing per 300.10: OATT 2012 12 4 to be effective 1/1/2013.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Comment Date: 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on July 8, 2015.
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Cameron LNG Expansion Project (Project) involving construction and operation of facilities by Cameron LNG, LLC (Cameron) in Cameron and Calcasieu Parishes, Louisiana. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public interest.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the Project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the Project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before July 20, 2015.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on February 24, 2015, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. PF15-13-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this planned project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
A fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” is available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (PF15-13-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Cameron plans to construct and operate facilities entirely within its existing liquefied natural gas (LNG) terminal. The Project would increase liquefaction capacity by about 9.97 million tons per year and storage of LNG by about 160,000 cubic meters. According to Cameron, it is currently fully subscribed for the original liquefaction volume and anticipates that affiliates of its partners would subscribe for the capacity of this project as well.
The Project would consist of the following facilities:
• Two additional liquefaction trains (Trains 4 and 5) with a maximum LNG production capacity of 4.985 million tons per year;
• A fifth 160,000 cubic meter full containment LNG storage tank to increase the total LNG storage capacity to 800,000 cubic meters;
• A condensate product storage tank; and
• Associated utilities and infrastructure.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
Construction of the planned facilities would be entirely within the existing footprint of Cameron's liquefaction terminal.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it authorizes a project. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the planned project under these general headings:
• water resources;
• threatened and endangered species;
• cultural resources;
• air quality and noise;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate possible alternatives to the planned project or
Although no formal application has been filed, we have already initiated our NEPA review under the Commission's pre-filing process. The purpose of the pre-filing process is to encourage early involvement of interested stakeholders and to identify and resolve issues before the FERC receives an application. As part of our pre-filing review, we have begun to contact some federal and state agencies to discuss their involvement in the scoping process and the preparation of the EA.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before we make our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues related to this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office(s), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the Project's potential effects on historic properties.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the planned project.
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
Once Cameron files its application with the Commission, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the User's Guide under the “e-filing” link on the Commission's Web site. Please note that the Commission will not accept requests for intervenor status at this time. You must wait until the Commission receives a formal application for the project.
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public meetings or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
On June 18, 2015, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL15-68-000, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e (2012), instituting an investigation into the justness and reasonableness of Midcontinent Independent System Operator Inc.'s
The refund effective date in Docket No. EL15-68-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the
Take notice that on June 17, 2015, New York Independent System Operator, Inc. submits compliance report regarding buyer-side market mitigation measures, pursuant to the Commission March 19, 2015 Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Comment Date: 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on July 8, 2015.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR § 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of proposed consent decree; request for public comment.
In accordance with section 113(g) of the Clean Air Act, as amended (“CAA” or the “Act”), notice is hereby given of a proposed consent decree to address a lawsuit filed by the Center for Biological Diversity in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia:
Written comments on the proposed partial consent decree must be received by
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID number OGC-2015-0416, online at
Karen Bianco, Air and Radiation Law Office (2344A), Office of General Counsel, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone: (202) 564-3298; fax number: (202) 564-5603; email address:
The proposed consent decree would resolve a lawsuit filed by the Center for Biological Diversity seeking to compel the Administrator to take actions under CAA section 110(c)(1). The February 24, 2015 complaint alleged that EPA has a mandatory duty to promulgate a FIP to satisfy the requirements of Clean Air Act Section 110, 42 U.S.C. 7410(a)(2)(A)-(C); (D)(i)(II) (Prevention of Significant Deterioration prong only); (E)-(H); and (J)-(M) to implement the 2006 PM
For a period of thirty (30) days following the date of publication of this notice, the Agency will accept written comments relating to the proposed consent decree from persons who are not named as parties or intervenors to the litigation in question. EPA or the Department of Justice may withdraw or withhold consent to the proposed consent decree if the comments disclose facts or considerations that indicate that such consent is inappropriate, improper, inadequate, or inconsistent with the requirements of the Act. Unless EPA or the Department of Justice determines that consent to this proposed consent decree should be withdrawn, the terms of the consent decree will be affirmed.
The official public docket for this action (identified by OGC-2015-0416) contains a copy of the proposed consent decree. The official public docket is available for public viewing at the Office of Environmental Information (OEI) Docket in the EPA Docket Center, EPA West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC. The EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is (202) 566-1744, and the telephone number for the OEI Docket is (202) 566-1752.
An electronic version of the public docket is available through
It is important to note that EPA's policy is that public comments, whether submitted electronically or in paper, will be made available for public viewing online at
You may submit comments as provided in the
If you submit an electronic comment, EPA recommends that you include your name, mailing address, and an email address or other contact information in the body of your comment and with any disk or CD ROM you submit. This ensures that you can be identified as the submitter of the comment and allows EPA to contact you in case EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties or needs further information on the substance of your comment. Any identifying or contact information provided in the body of a comment will be included as part of the comment that is placed in the official public docket, and made available in EPA's electronic public docket. If EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, EPA may not be able to consider your comment.
Use of the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
With this document, EPA is opening the public comment period for several registration reviews. Registration review is EPA's periodic review of pesticide registrations to ensure that each pesticide continues to satisfy the statutory standard for registration, that is, the pesticide can perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on human health or the environment. Registration review dockets contain information that will assist the public in understanding the types of information and issues that the Agency may consider during the course of registration reviews. Through this program, EPA is ensuring that each pesticide's registration is based on current scientific and other knowledge, including its effects on human health and the environment. This document also announces the Agency's intent not to open registration review dockets for pyrazon, trypsin modulating oostatic factor, and xanthine and oxypurinol. These pesticides do not currently have any actively registered pesticide products and are not, therefore, scheduled for review under the registration review program.
Comments must be received on or before August 24, 2015.
Submit your comments identified by the docket identification (ID) number for the specific pesticide of interest provided in the table in Unit III.A., by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, farmworker, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
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2.
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EPA is initiating its reviews of the pesticides identified in this document pursuant to section 3(g) of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide
As directed by FIFRA section 3(g), EPA is reviewing the pesticide registrations identified in the table in this unit to assure that they continue to satisfy the FIFRA standard for registration-that is, they can still be used without unreasonable adverse effects on human health or the environment. A pesticide's registration review begins when the Agency establishes a docket for the pesticide's registration review case and opens the docket for public review and comment. At present, EPA is opening registration review dockets for the cases identified in the following table.
EPA is also announcing that it will not be opening dockets for pyrazon, trypsin modulating oostatic factor, and xanthine and oxypurinol because these pesticides are not included in any products currently registered under FIFRA section 3.
The Agency will take separate actions to cancel any remaining FIFRA section 24(c) Special Local Needs registrations (7 U.S.C. 136v) with this active ingredient and to propose revocation of any affected tolerances that are not supported for import purposes only.
1.
Each docket contains a document summarizing what the Agency currently knows about the pesticide case and a preliminary work plan for anticipated data and assessment needs. Additional documents provide more detailed information. During this public comment period, the Agency is asking that interested persons identify any additional information they believe the Agency should consider during the registration reviews of these pesticides. The Agency identifies in each docket the areas where public comment is specifically requested, though comment in any area is welcome.
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3.
• To ensure that EPA will consider data or information submitted, interested persons must submit the data or information during the comment period. The Agency may, at its discretion, consider data or information submitted at a later date.
• The data or information submitted must be presented in a legible and useable form. For example, an English translation must accompany any material that is not in English and a written transcript must accompany any information submitted as a diographic or videographic record. Written material may be submitted in paper or electronic form.
• Submitters must clearly identify the source of any submitted data or information.
• Submitters may request the Agency to reconsider data or information that the Agency rejected in a previous
As provided in 40 CFR 155.58, the registration review docket for each pesticide case will remain publicly accessible through the duration of the registration review process; that is, until all actions required in the final decision on the registration review case have been completed.
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is announcing the availability of a document for public review and comment that describes the Agency's management approach for understanding and identifying protections for the monarch butterfly. This document is the start of an approach for monarch butterfly protection and weed management which will depend upon (i) input from a diverse group of stakeholders to identify and integrate information with respect to influences on the population dynamics of the monarch butterfly and the milkweed plant; and, (ii) cooperation and collaboration from these diverse stakeholders to identify activities that will balance weed management needs across varied landscapes with conservation of the milkweed plant. EPA is soliciting public comment on which potential action or a combination of actions would be the most effective in reducing the impacts of herbicides on the monarch butterfly.
Comments must be received on or before July 24, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0389, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Khue Nguyen, Pesticide Re-Evaluation Division (7508P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 347-0248; email address:
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, farmworker, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
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2.
EPA is taking public comment on a document entitled,
First, the U.S. has been engaged in an effort with Canada and Mexico through the Canada/Mexico/U.S. Trilateral Committee for Wildlife and Ecosystem Conservation and Management, where the three partner nations have agreed to make natural resource conservation a priority. Consistent with its objective to conserve and manage natural resources across North America, the committee has recognized the monarch butterfly as an emblematic species shared by the three countries and renewed their collaborative effort to protect the species and its required resources.
Secondly, in addition to the efforts of the Trilateral Committee, President Obama issued a memorandum on pollinator protection entitled,
Finally, in February 2014, EPA's Office of Pesticide Programs (OPP) received a petition from the Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC)
In addition, together with several non-governmental organizations, various agencies within the Federal government have been working collaboratively with the Monarch Joint Venture to develop and implement measures to protect monarch butterflies and their migration. The approach and objectives outlined in
EPA is soliciting public comment on which potential action or a combination of actions would be the most effective in reducing the impacts of herbicides on the monarch butterfly. The agency is also requesting that any additional measures not discussed here be identified.
Please note that the approach discussed in
7 U.S.C. 136
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communication Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before July 24, 2015. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
Further, section 80.59(d) states that the Commission may, upon a finding
Additionally, the Communications Act requires the inspection of small passenger ships at least once every five years.
The Safety Convention (to which the United States is a signatory) also requires an annual inspection.
The Commission allows FCC-licensed technicians to conduct these inspections. FCC-licensed technicians certify that the ship has passed an inspection and issue a safety certificate. These safety certificates, FCC Forms 806, 824, 827 and 829 indicate that the vessel complies with the Communications Act of 1934, as amended and the Safety Convention. These technicians are required to provide a summary of the results of the inspection in the ship's log that the inspection was satisfactory.
Inspection certificates issued in accordance with the Safety Convention must be posted in a prominent and accessible place on the ship (third party disclosure requirement).
The requirement to collect this information is contained in international agreements with the U.S. Coast Guard and private sector entities that issue MMSI's.
The information is used by private entities to maintain a database used to provide information about the vessel owner in distress using marine VHF radios with DSC capability. If the data were not collected, the U.S. Coast Guard would not have access to this information which would increase the time and effort needed to complete a search and rescue operation.
Commission To Eliminate Child Abuse and Neglect Fatalities, GSA.
Meeting Notice.
The Commission to Eliminate Child Abuse and Neglect Fatalities (CECANF), a Federal Advisory Committee established by the Protect Our Kids Act of 2012, will hold a meeting open to the public by teleconference on Wednesday, July 1, 2015 in Washington, DC.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, July 1, 2015, from 1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT). Submit comments identified by “Notice-CECANF-2015-06,” by either of the following methods:
•
Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching for “Notice-CECANF-2015-06.” Select the link “Comment Now” that corresponds with “Notice-CECANF-2015-06.” Follow the instructions provided on the screen. Please include your name, organization name (if any), and “Notice-CECANF-2015-06” on your attached document.
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Visit the CECANF Web site at
However, members of the public wishing to comment should follow the steps detailed under the heading
Office of Human Resources Management (OHRM), General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of meeting.
The General Services Administration's Labor-Management Relations Council (GLMRC), a Federal Advisory Committee established in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C., App., and Executive Order 13522, plans to hold one meeting that is open to the public.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, July 14, 2015, from 9:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Eastern Standard Time (EST).
The meeting will be held in the General Services Administration's Conference Center, 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405. This site is accessible to individuals with disabilities.
Ms. Temple L. Wilson, GLMRC Designated Federal Officer (DFO), OHRM, General Services Administration, at telephone 202-969-7110, or email at
The GLMRC is a forum for managers and the exclusive representatives of GSA employees, which are the two national labor unions. In this forum, managers and the Unions discuss Government operations to promote satisfactory labor relations and improve the productivity and effectiveness of GSA. The GLMRC serves as a complement to the existing collective bargaining process, and allows managers and the Unions to collaborate in continuing to deliver the highest quality services to the public. The Council discusses workplace challenges and problems, and recommends solutions that foster a more productive and cost-effective service to the taxpayer, through improving job satisfaction and employees' working conditions.
The purpose of the meeting is for the GLMRC to discuss workforce planning and development challenges within GSA. The topics to be discussed include the make-up of GSA's current workforce and potential solutions for succession planning, workforce retention strategies, improved diversity, and for targeted training to address skill gaps where necessary. Additionally, the GLMRC will discuss GSA's annual metrics report on monitoring improvements in areas such as agency mission accomplishment, labor-management relationships, and employee satisfaction. The report is to be submitted to the National Council on Federal Labor-Management Relations on or before Thursday, December 31, 2015.
The meeting is open to the public. The meeting will be held in the General Services Administration's Conference Center, 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405. This site is accessible to individuals with disabilities. In order to gain entry into the Federal building where the meeting is being held, public attendees who are Federal employees should bring their Federal employee identification cards, and members of the general public should bring their driver's license or other government-issued identification.
Please see the GLRMC Web site:
The public is invited to submit written comments for the meeting until 5:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time (EST), on the Monday prior to the meeting, by either of the following methods:
Any comments submitted in connection with the GLMRC meeting will be made available to the public under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act.
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for a new OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for a new information collection requirement for Reporting Executive Compensation and First-tier Subcontract Awards. A notice soliciting public comments on the information collection was published in the
Submit comments on or before July 24, 2015.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0177, Reporting Executive Compensation and First-tier Subcontract Awards, by any of the following methods:
• Regulations.gov:
Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB control number 9000-0177. Select the link “Comment Now” that corresponds with “Information Collection 9000-0177, Reporting Executive Compensation and First-tier Subcontract Awards.” Follow the instructions provided at the “Comment Now” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 9000-0177, Reporting Executive Compensation and First-tier Subcontract Awards” on your attached document.
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Ms. Mahruba Uddowla, Procurement Analyst, Office of Government-wide Policy, contact via telephone 703-605-2868 or email to
The Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act (“Transparency Act”), Public Law 109-282, as amended by section 6202 of Public Law 110-252, was enacted to reduce “wasteful and unnecessary spending” by requiring that OMB establish a free, public, online database containing full disclosure of all Federal contract award information for awards of $25,000 or more.
DoD, GSA, and NASA published an interim rule for public comment at 75 FR 39414, on July 8, 2010, to implement the Transparency Act reporting requirements. The rule requires the insertion of FAR clause 52.204-10, Reporting Executive Compensation and First-Tier Subcontract Awards, in solicitations and contracts (including commercial item contracts and commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item contracts) of $25,000 or more.
The clause at 52.204-10 requires, unless otherwise directed by the contracting officer, for first-tier subcontracts valued at $25,000 or more, prime contractors to report first-tier subcontract award data (
The clause at 52.204-10 also requires a contractor to report in the System for Award Management (SAM) database at
(i) In the contractor or subcontractor's preceding fiscal year, the contractor or subcontractor received—
(l) 80 percent or more of its annual gross revenues in Federal contracts (and subcontracts), loans, grants (and subgrants), cooperative agreements; and
(2) $25,000,000 or more in annual gross revenue from Federal contracts (and subcontracts), loans, grants (and subgrants), cooperative agreements; and
(ii) The public does not have access to information about the compensation of the executives through periodic reports filed under section 13(a) or 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78m(a), 78o(d)) or section 6104 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986. (To determine if the public has access to the compensation information, see the U.S. Security and Exchange Commission total compensation filings at
The total annual burden associated with the reporting requirements of FAR 52.204-10 is estimated to be $33,230,972.
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A total of 7,875 SAM registrants would be required to enter actual values for their top five most highly compensated executives. It is estimated that it would require these 7,875 registrants 2.5 hours to provide the information required, for a total of 19,688 response hours.
Therefore, it is estimated that the total population of respondents is 367,875, and the total estimated response hours is 55,688, resulting in a weighted average of 0.15 hours per respondent for executive compensation reporting.
The Councils estimate the total annual public cost burden for this element to be $2,483,156 based on the following:
Based on the above calculations, DoD, GSA, and NASA estimate the total annual burden associated with reporting requirements of FAR 52.204-10 to be $33,323,972. The reporting burden includes the time for reviewing instructions, and reporting the data. It does not cover the time required to conduct research or the time to obtain the information for the data elements.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR), and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding Authorized Negotiators.
Submit comments on or before August 24, 2015.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0048, Authorized Negotiators, by any of the following methods:
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Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB control number. Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “Information Collection 9000-0048, Authorized Negotiators”. Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 9000-0048, Authorized Negotiators” on your attached document.
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Mr. Edward Loeb, Procurement Analyst, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, GSA, 202-501-0650 or via email to
Per FAR 52.215-1(c)(2)(iv), firms offering supplies or services to the Government under negotiated solicitations must provide the names, titles, and telephone numbers of authorized negotiators to assure that discussions are held with authorized individuals. The information collected is referred to before contract negotiations and it becomes part of the official contract file.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR), and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Obtaining Copies of Proposals: Requesters may obtain a copy of the information collection documents from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat (MVCB), 1275 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20417, telephone (202) 501-4755. Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0048, Authorized Negotiator, in all correspondence.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material,
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice.
Through this Notice, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) announces that the Secretary of Homeland Security (Secretary) has designated Nepal for Temporary Protected Status (TPS) for a period of 18 months, effective
This designation allows eligible Nepalese nationals (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Nepal) who have continuously resided in the United States since June 24, 2015, and have been continuously physically present in the United States since
Individuals who believe they may qualify for TPS under this designation may apply within the 180-day registration period that begins on
This designation of Nepal for TPS is effective on
• For further information on TPS, including guidance on the application process and additional information on eligibility, please visit the USCIS TPS Web page at
• You can also contact the TPS Operations Program Manager at the Family and Status Branch, Service Center Operations Directorate, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2060; or by phone at (202) 272-1533 (this is not a toll-free number).
• Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
• Further information will also be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this Notice.
• TPS is a temporary immigration status granted to eligible nationals of a country designated for TPS under the INA, or to eligible persons without nationality who last habitually resided in the designated country.
• During the TPS designation period, TPS beneficiaries are eligible to remain in the United States, may not be removed, and are authorized to work and to obtain EADs, so long as they continue to meet the requirements of TPS.
• TPS beneficiaries may be granted travel authorization as a matter of discretion.
• The granting of TPS does not result in or lead to lawful permanent resident status.
• To qualify for TPS, beneficiaries must meet the eligibility standards at INA section 244(c)(2).
• When the Secretary terminates a country's TPS designation through a separate
Section 244(b)(1) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1), authorizes the Secretary,
Following the designation of a foreign state for TPS, the Secretary may then grant TPS to eligible nationals of that foreign state (or eligible aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in that state).
On April 25, 2015, a magnitude 7.8 earthquake struck Nepal. The earthquake's epicenter was less than 50 miles from the capital city, Kathmandu, and Pokhara, another major city in central Nepal. Approximately 25 to 33 percent of Nepal's population (over 8 million people) in 39 of Nepal's 75 districts has been affected by the earthquake. There have been numerous aftershocks since the April 25 earthquake, with the strongest striking on May 12 and measuring magnitude 7.3. The May 12 aftershock contributed to additional casualties and resulted in the collapse of some buildings that had suffered damage in the April 25 earthquake. The earthquake and its aftershocks have caused over 8,700 fatalities and more than 20,000 injuries, displaced millions of people, and resulted in destruction or significant damage to over 750,000 homes. The UN estimates 2.8 million people are in need of humanitarian assistance.
The earthquake severely damaged much of the country's infrastructure in the affected areas, including the capital of Kathmandu. Earthquake-related rubble litters urban population centers, and many roads have been destroyed or rendered impassable. Infrastructure damage from the earthquake has jeopardized food security, with over 1.4 million people estimated to be in need of food assistance. Displaced persons have varying access to basic services, such as shelter, water, sanitation, and hygiene and many continue to live outdoors. Medical care was also affected by the earthquake, with over 25 hospitals damaged and more than 900 village health facilities rendered nonfunctional. At least 950,000 children in Nepal are at risk of being unable to return to school or are learning in temporary structures because their schools have been destroyed, damaged.
The institutional capacity of the Nepalese government to respond to the immediate effects of the earthquake alone is low.
The April 25 earthquake and its aftershocks caused enormous damage in Nepal'srural areas that are difficult to access because of the mountainous terrain and limited numbers of undamaged roads. With the 2015 monsoon season starting this month, remote areas will face additional threats, including landslides and flooding, and providing aid to them may become more difficult.
Based upon review of these conditions and after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, the Secretary has determined that:
• There has been an earthquake, flood, drought, epidemic, or other environmental disaster in Nepal resulting in a substantial, but temporary, disruption of living conditions in the area affected.
• Nepal is unable, temporarily, to handle adequately the return of aliens who are nationals of Nepal.
• Nepal has officially requested designation for TPS.
• The designation of Nepal for TPS will be for an 18-month period from
• The date by which applicants for TPS under the designation of Nepal must demonstrate that they have continuously resided in the United States is June 24, 2015.
• The date by which applicants for TPS under the designation of Nepal must demonstrate that they have been continuously physically present in the United States is
• An estimated 10,000 to 25,000 nationals of Nepal (and persons without nationality who last habitually resided in Nepal) are (or are likely to become) eligible for TPS under this designation. INA section 244(b)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1). This estimate is based on the total number of Nepalese nationals believed to be in the United States in a nonimmigrant status or without lawful immigration status.
By the authority vested in me as Secretary under INA section 244, 8 U.S.C. 1254a, after consultation with the appropriate Government agencies, I designate Nepal for TPS under INA section 244(b)(1)(B), 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1)(B), for a period of 18 months from June 24, 2015 through December 24, 2016.
To register for TPS for Nepal, an applicant must submit each of the following two applications:
1. Application for Temporary Protected Status (Form I-821) with the form fee; and
2. Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765).
• For administrative purposes, an applicant must submit an Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765) even if no EAD is requested.
• If you want an EAD you must pay the Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765) fee only if you are age 14 through 65.
• No fee for Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-
You must submit both completed application forms together. If you are unable to pay the required fees, you may apply for a waiver for these application fees and/or the biometrics services fee described below by completing a Request for Fee Waiver (Form I-912), or submitting a personal letter requesting a fee waiver, and providing satisfactory supporting documentation. For more information on the application forms and fees for TPS, please visit the USCIS TPS Web page at
Biometrics (such as fingerprints) are required for all applicants 14 years of age or older. Those applicants must submit a biometric services fee. As previously stated, if you are unable to pay for the biometric services fee, you may request a fee waiver by completing a Request for Fee Waiver (Form I-912) or by submitting a personal letter requesting a fee waiver, and providing satisfactory supporting documentation. For more information on the biometric services fee, please visit the USCIS Web site at
If you request a fee waiver when filing your TPS and EAD application forms and your request is denied, you may refile your application packet with the correct fees before the filing deadline of December 21, 2015. If you attempt to submit your application with a fee waiver request before the initial filing deadline, but you receive your application back with the USCIS fee waiver denial, and there are fewer than 45 days before the filing deadline (or the deadline has passed), you may still refile your application within the 45-day period after the date on the USCIS fee waiver denial notice. You must include the correct fees or file a new fee waiver request. Your application will not be rejected even if the deadline has passed, provided it is mailed within those 45 days and all other required information for the application is included. Please be aware that if you re-file your TPS application packet with a new fee waiver request after the deadline based on this guidance and that new fee waiver request is denied, you cannot re-file again.
Mail your application for TPS to the proper address in Table 1.
If you were granted TPS by an Immigration Judge (IJ) or the Board of Immigration Appeals (BIA), and you wish to request an EAD, please mail your application to the appropriate mailing address in Table 1. After you submit your EAD application and receive a USCIS receipt number, please send an email to the Service Center handling your application. The email should include the receipt number and state that you submitted a request for an EAD based on an IJ/BIA grant of TPS. This will aid in the verification of your grant of TPS and processing of your EAD application, as USCIS may not have received records of your grant of TPS by either the IJ or the BIA. To obtain additional information, including the email address of the appropriate Service Center, you may go to the USCIS TPS Web page at
You cannot electronically file your application packet when applying for initial registration for TPS. Please mail your application packet to the mailing address listed in Table 1.
To meet the basic eligibility requirements for TPS, you must submit evidence that you:
• Are a national of Nepal or an alien having no nationality who last habitually resided in Nepal. Such documents may include a copy of your passport if available, other documentation issued by the Government of Nepal showing your nationality (
• Have continuously resided in the United States since June 24, 2015.
• Have been continuously physically present in the United States since June 24, 2015, the effective date of the designation of Nepal.
You must also submit two color passport-style photographs of yourself. The filing instructions on the Application for Temporary Protected Status (Form I-821) list all the documents needed to establish basic eligibility for TPS. You may also find information on the acceptable documentation and other requirements for applying for TPS on the USCIS Web site at
If one or more of the questions listed in Part 4, Question 2 of the Application for Temporary Protected Status (Form I-821) applies to you, then you must submit an explanation on a separate sheet(s) of paper and/or additional documentation. Depending on the nature of the question(s) you are addressing, additional documentation alone may suffice, but usually a written explanation will also be needed.
To obtain case status information about your TPS application, including the status of a request for an EAD, you can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You can find a list of acceptable document choices on the “List of Acceptable Documents” for Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9). You can find additional detailed information on the USCIS I-9 Central Web page at
You may present any document from List A (reflecting both your identity and employment authorization), or one document from List B (reflecting identity) together with one document from List C (reflecting employment authorization). You may present an acceptable receipt for List A, List B, or List C documents as described in the Form I-9 Instructions; the receipt for the application for replacement of a lost, stolen, or damaged employment authorization document is acceptable. A receipt for the application for an initial or renewal employment authorization is not an acceptable receipt. An EAD is an acceptable document under “List A.” Employers may not reject a document based on a future expiration date.
No. When completing the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9), including re-verifying employment authorization, employers must accept any documentation that appears on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents” for Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) that reasonably appears to be genuine and that relates to you, or an acceptable List A, List B, or List C receipt. Employers may not request documentation that does not appear on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents.” Therefore, employers may not request proof of Nepalese citizenship or proof of TPS registration when completing the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) for new hires or reverifying the employment authorization of current employees. If presented with EADs that are unexpired on their face, employers should accept such EADs as valid “List A” documents so long as the EADs reasonably appear to be genuine and to relate to the employee. Refer to the “Note to All Employees” section for important information about your rights if your employer rejects lawful documentation, requires additional documentation, or otherwise discriminates against you because of your citizenship status, immigration status, or national origin.
Employers are reminded that the laws requiring proper employment eligibility verification and prohibiting unfair immigration-related employment practices remain in full force. This Notice does not supersede or in any way limit applicable employment verification rules and policy guidance, including those rules setting forth reverification requirements. For general questions about the employment eligibility verification process, employers may call USCIS at 888-464-4218 (TTY 877-875-6028) or email USCIS at
For general questions about the employment eligibility verification process, employees may call USCIS at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028) or email at
To comply with the law, employers must accept any document or combination of documents from the Lists of Acceptable Documents if the documentation reasonably appears to be genuine and to relate to the employee, or an acceptable List A, List B, or List C receipt described in the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) Instructions. Employers may not require extra or additional documentation beyond what is required for Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) completion. Further, employers participating in E-Verify who receive an E-Verify case result of “Tentative Nonconfirmation” (TNC) must promptly inform employees of the TNC and give such employees an opportunity to contest the TNC. A TNC case result means that the information entered into E-Verify from Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) differs from Federal or state government records.
Employers may not terminate, suspend, delay training, withhold pay, lower pay, or take any adverse action against an employee based on the employee's decision to contest a TNC or because the case is still pending with E-Verify. A Final Nonconfirmation (FNC) case result is received when E-Verify cannot verify an employee's employment eligibility. An employer may terminate employment based on a case result of FNC. Work-authorized employees who receive an FNC may call USCIS for assistance at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028). An employee who believes he or she was discriminated against by an employer in the E-Verify process based on citizenship status,
While Federal Government agencies must follow the guidelines laid out by the Federal, State, and local government agencies establish their own rules and guidelines when granting certain benefits. Each State may have different laws, requirements, and determinations about what documents you need to provide to prove eligibility for certain benefits. Whether you are applying for a Federal, State, or local government benefit, you may need to provide the government agency with documents that show you are a TPS beneficiary and/or show you are authorized to work based on TPS. Examples are:
(1) Your EAD that has a valid expiration date;
(2) A copy of your Notice of Action (Form I-797C) showing approval for TPS, if you receive one from USCIS.
Check with the government agency regarding which document(s) the agency will accept. You may also provide the agency with a copy of this
Some benefit-granting agencies use the USCIS Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements Program (SAVE) to verify the current immigration status of applicants for public benefits. If such an agency has denied your application based solely or in part on a SAVE response, the agency must offer you the opportunity to appeal the decision in accordance with the agency's procedures. If the agency has received and acted upon or will act upon a SAVE verification and you do not believe the response is correct, you may make an InfoPass appointment for an in-person interview at a local USCIS office. Detailed information on how to make corrections, make an appointment, or submit a written request to correct records under the Freedom of Information Act can be found at the SAVE Web site at
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
60-Day Notice.
DHS, USCIS invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed extension of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until August 24, 2015.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0051 in the subject box, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2005-0032. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
(3)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Laura Dawkins, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, telephone number 202-272-8377 (comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
The automated form HUD-52681-B (Voucher for Payment of Annual Contributions and Operating Statement Housing Assistance Payments Program Supplemental Reporting Form) is entered by the PHA into the Voucher Management System (VMS) on a monthly basis during each calendar year to track leasing and HAP expenses by voucher category, as well as data concerning fraud recovery, Family Self-Sufficiency escrow accounts, PHA-held equity, etc. The inclusion, change, and deletion of the fields mentioned below will improve the allocation of funds and allow the PHAs and the Department to realize a more complete picture of the PHAs' resources and program activities, promote financial accountability, and improve the PHAs' ability to provide assistance to as many households as possible while maximizing budgets. In addition, the fields will be crucial to the identification of actual or incipient financial problems that will ultimately affect funding for program participants. The automated form HUD-52681-B is also utilized by the same programs as the manual forms.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HUD has requested from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) emergency approval of the information collection described in this notice.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Anna Guido at
This notice informs the public that HUD has submitted to OMB a request for approval of the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
(1) Lexington Housing Authority (LHA), Lexington, Kentucky;
(2) Louisville Metro Housing Authority (LMHA), Louisville, Kentucky;
(3) San Antonio Housing Authority (SAHA), San Antonio, Texas; and
(4) District of Columbia Housing Authority (DCHA), Washington, DC.
Data collection will include the families that are part of the treatment and control groups, as well as PHA staff. Data for this evaluation will be gathered through a variety of methods including informational interviews and discussions, direct observation, and analysis of administrative records. The work covered under this information request is for data collection proposed under the first of two required OMB submissions of the Task Order 2 of the Rent Reform Demonstration.
This includes:
• Public Housing Authority Staff: up to 44 (
• Families with housing vouchers participating in the Rent Reform Demonstration, up to 80.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Bureau of Land Management's (BLM) San Juan Islands National Monument Advisory Committee (MAC) will meet as indicated below.
The MAC will meet on Wednesday, July 8, 2015, from 10:30 a.m.-5:30 p.m. at the Grace Episcopal Church, 70 Sunrise Rd., Lopez, WA 98261. There will be two public comment periods: 10:45-11:15 and 4:45-5:30. This meeting will focus on recreation, visual resource management, special designations such as Areas of Environmental Concern and lands with wilderness characteristics, and trails and travel management. The BLM resource lead will be present to share the breadth of considerations and opportunities in the generation of alternatives for separate areas, or zones and a discussion of public engagement
Marcia deChadenèdes, San Juan Islands National Monument Manager, P.O. Box 3, 37 Washburn Ave., Lopez Island, Washington 98261, (360) 468-3051, or
The twelve member San Juan Islands MAC was chartered to provide information and advice regarding the development of the San Juan Islands National Monument's Resource Management Plan. Members represent an array of stakeholder interests in the land and resources from within the local area and statewide. Planned agenda items include training on the Federal Advisory Committee Act, advisory committee procedures, the resource management plan process, MAC goal setting, and a collaborative project on public outreach. At each meeting, members of the public will have the opportunity to make comments to the MAC during a public comment period. All advisory committee meetings are open to the public. Persons wishing to make comments during the public comment period should register in person with the BLM preceding that meeting day's comment period, at the meeting location. Depending on the number of persons wishing to comment, the length of comments may be limited. The public may send written comments to the MAC at San Juan Islands National Monument, Attn. MAC, P.O. Box 3, 37 Washburn Ave., Lopez Island, Washington 98261. The BLM appreciates all comments.
In accordance with Departmental Policy, 28 CFR 50.7, notice is hereby given that a proposed Consent Decree in
This proposed Consent Decree concerns a complaint filed by the United States against Suellyn Rader Blymyer, individually and in her capacity as the Personal Representative of the Estate of Lyle J. Rader, and Uptrail Group, LLC, (“Defendants”), pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 1311, to obtain injunctive relief from and impose civil penalties against the Defendants for violating the Clean Water Act by discharging pollutants without a permit into waters of the United States. The proposed Consent Decree resolves these allegations by requiring the Defendants to restore the impacted areas, perform mitigation, and pay a civil penalty.
The Department of Justice will accept written comments relating to this proposed Consent Decree for thirty (30) days from the date of publication of this Notice. Please address comments to Kent E. Hanson, Senior Attorney, United States Department of Justice, Environment and Natural Resources Division, Post Office Box 7611, Washington, DC 20044 and refer to
The proposed Consent Decree may be examined at the Clerk's Office, United States District Court for the Western District of Washington, United States Courthouse, 700 Stewart Street, Suite 2310, Seattle, WA 98101. In addition, the proposed Consent Decree may be examined electronically at
Notice.
On June 30, 2015, the Department of Labor (DOL) will submit the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Work Opportunity Tax Credit and Welfare-to-Work Tax Credit,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before July 30, 2015.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Work Opportunity Tax Credit (WOTC) and Welfare-to-Work Tax Credit information collection. This submission includes five program forms: (1) a reporting form, ETA-9058; (2) two processing forms, ETA-9061 English and Spanish versions and ETA-9062; (3) and two administrative forms, ETA-9063 and ETA-9065. A State Workforce Agency (SWA) prepares Form ETA-9058 to report information on processing WOTC certification requests
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on June 30, 2015. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Final Interpretive Ruling and Policy Statement 13-1.
The NCUA Board is issuing a final Interpretive Ruling and Policy Statement to establish a Minority Depository Institution Preservation Program for federally insured credit unions.
This final Interpretive Ruling and Policy Statement is effective July 24, 2015.
Wendy A. Angus, Acting Director, Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, at (703) 518-1650; or Cynthia Vaughn, Diversity Outreach Program Analyst, Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, at (703) 518-1650.
In 1989, Congress enacted the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act (FIRREA)
In 2010, Congress enacted the Dodd Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd Frank Act).
In 2013, the NCUA Board proposed an Interpretive Ruling and Policy Statement 13-1 (proposed IRPS) to establish a Minority Depository Institution Preservation Program (Program) to encourage the preservation of MDIs.
NCUA received a total of nine comments on the proposed IRPS—eight from credit union trade associations and one from a community advocacy group. Seven commenters expressly supported the proposal; none opposed it.
Three commenters recommended defining MDIs by minority representation solely among current or potential members, without considering minority representation among credit union management officials. Two commenters believe extending the definition beyond minority representation among the membership would exceed the statutory mandate, and questioned whether including management officials within the scope of minority representation is necessary or would undermine the Program's goals. Another commenter opposed extending the minority representation requirement to management officials, contending that, if it were to encompass credit union staff, it would be burdensome for nearly one-half of the nation's federally insured credit unions that operate with five or fewer employees. This commenter also opposed requiring minority representation among members of the board of directors, supervisory and credit committee members because they are volunteers elected from and by the membership, and who should have the education, experience, and knowledge to manage a credit union regardless of minority status.
In contrast, a commenter applauded NCUA for measuring minority representation among these officials to ensure that credit union leadership reflects the diversity of the communities and members an MDI serves. In addition, the same commenter wanted to limit the MDI definition to current members only, contending that having potential members who reside in an area having a mostly minority population is no assurance that an MDI would actually serve and invest in consumers of color within that community. Finally, the commenter suggested that minority representation should also encompass persons that identify as multi-racial/multi-ethnic, estimated at 9 million Americans by the U.S. Census Bureau.
In the final Interpretive Ruling and Policy Statement 13-1 (final IRPS), the NCUA Board retains the proposed MDI definition with three significant modifications to ensure complete conformity with the statutory MDI definition of a mutual institution. Under that definition, a credit union qualifies as an MDI when “the majority of the Board of Directors, account holders, and the community which it services is predominantly minority.”
First, the proposed MDI definition combined both current and “eligible potential” credit union members to assess minority representation among a credit union's “account holders.” Recognizing that a potential member does not hold a credit union account nor enjoy the rights and benefits of membership, the final IRPS limits to
Second, as several commenters contended, the proposed MDI definition assessed minority representation not only among a credit union's board of directors (BOD) as required, but more generally among its “current management officials,” consisting of members of the supervisory and credit committees and of the senior executive staff.
Third, the final IRPS clarifies that the MDI criterion requiring the community of a would-be MDI to be “predominantly minority” is not an alternative criterion for credit unions unable to meet the MDI criteria requiring >50% minority representation within its membership and on its BOD; it is an additional MDI criterion in and of itself.
In addition to the above modifications, the MDI definition in the final IRPS counts a person of multiple ethnicities who falls into at least one of the four minority categories designated by law,
In order to receive the MDI designation, one commenter advocated requiring the majority of a credit union's members' deposits and/or loan products to be held by racial minorities. While striving to maximize flexibility and the options to determine and support an MDI designation, the NCUA Board is concerned that it would be too burdensome and restrictive to identify the race and/or ethnicity of all members with deposits and/or loan products. The final IRPS therefore does not adopt this suggestion as an MDI criterion.
One commenter recommended that NCUA clarify which U.S. Census demographic data to rely upon to measure minority representation among members for purposes of MDI determination. The final IRPS clarifies that U.S. Census data includes the American Fact Finder's most recent census population data (
One commenter suggested providing a portal on NCUA's Web site for credit unions to access the sources of data relevant to self-certifying as an MDI,
One commenter opposed the notion of collecting data by any method that relies on members voluntarily identifying themselves as a minority, for two reasons. First, the practice may conflict with anti-discrimination laws; and second, maintaining the collected ethnicity data may expose credit unions to criticism that the practice is intrusive, and to the risk of legal action. The final IRPS permits collection of volunteered ethnicity data as an option, but not a requirement, for credit unions to determine and to support self-certification of MDI eligibility. Organizations that already collect volunteered ethnicity data from customers and members must take care to maintain the confidentiality of the collected data. Credit unions that elect this option to support self-certification should maintain the collected data separately from members' personal account files, and without personal identifiers (
One commenter disagreed with the proposed requirement to annually review and update credit unions' MDI status, suggesting that NCUA require credit unions to follow a data review schedule that is consistent with the data each credit union relied upon to document its MDI certification. For example, when MDI eligibility is based on U.S. Census population data, the review and update would occur every 10 years. Due to frequent changes in a credit union's field of membership, and the composition of its board of directors due to annual elections, the final IRPS retains an annual schedule for the review and update of MDI self-certifications.
Three commenters asked NCUA to perform a cost/benefit analysis of the new Program, detailing the new resources or processes that will be essential to realize NCUA's commitment to preserve MDIs, and how the Program will be funded. Another commenter sought further explanation of Program mechanics, funding details, the number of staff dedicated to Program implementation, the geographic distribution of Program beneficiaries, and the frequency of OMWI staff interaction with participating MDIs.
The NCUA Board anticipates no additional costs or new resources attributable to the Program, due to reliance on existing agency programs and resources offered through NCUA's Office of Small Credit Union Initiatives (OSCUI), regional offices, and Office of Consumer Protection (OCP), thus avoiding overlaps with existing supervision, chartering, training, technical assistance, and educational programs. About 92 percent of MDIs already are eligible for OSCUI services that assist and educate credit unions designated either as low-income or as small. Examiners provide additional guidance to MDIs in between examinations to assist them in resolving substantial examination or viability concerns. OCP provides guidance to assist and educate MDIs and interested minority groups in chartering and in field of membership expansions. One OMWI staff member is responsible for managing the Program. OMWI's initial interaction and communications with MDIs will include OMWI's participation at events attended by MDIs, and OMWI's assistance provided upon request from MDIs.
One commenter favored an expansion of financial support to enable the Program to provide direct financial support to MDIs. Financial support to eligible MDIs will be offered through the existing grant and loan programs funded by NCUA's Community Development Revolving Loan Fund (CDRLF).
Two commenters encouraged NCUA to provide technical assistance to MDIs to avoid insolvency. One suggested two ways to strengthen the net worth of MDIs in response to unusual losses related to economic conditions outside the credit union's control: (1) Develop criteria and goals for access to assistance under section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act (§ 208 assistance);
The NCUA Board emphasizes that the agency's role in preserving MDIs and providing technical support not only is to help MDIs survive, but to help them thrive as ongoing concerns. Section 208 assistance is available to all credit unions under at least one of three conditions: (1) To assist in the voluntary liquidation of a solvent credit union; (2) to avert the liquidation of a credit union that NCUA determines is in danger of insolvency; or (3) when NCUA determines it is needed to reduce the risk, or avert the threat, of a loss to the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
NCUA typically provides § 208 assistance to facilitate a sound merger or consolidation of an insured credit union in order to avert the liquidation of a credit union. Other than to avert the liquidation of a credit union that NCUA determines on a case-by-case basis is in danger of insolvency, regardless whether it is an MDI, § 208 assistance is not used solely to improve a credit union's capital position. The NCUA Board reserves the use of § 208 assistance for credit unions under the above three conditions. However, the agency plans to enhance its guidance to examiners to sensitize them about the availability of § 208 assistance for MDIs, as well as about the “General Preference Guidelines” for mergers, addressed below. In contrast, the purpose of CDRLF grants and loans is to support enhanced service to underserved communities, including those served by MDIs. Unlike § 208 assistance, CDRLF grants and loans generally are not provided solely for the purpose of improving capital to avoid insolvency.
One commenter suggested making technical assistance and educational programs available on a variety of topics critical to preserving MDIs, including aid in achieving satisfactory levels of operations and regulatory performance. OSCUI currently provides technical guidance and educational programs to assist MDIs, as well as small credit unions, in achieving these objectives regardless of low-income designation and asset size. These programs include NCUA-sponsored videos, webinars, consulting services, newsletters, and other publications, including a
One commenter advocated adopting a plan that combines targeted resources with supervisory authority in an effort to resolve material safety and soundness concerns among troubled MDIs. NCUA has no plans to make MDI preservation a part of the examination and/or supervision processes, although examiners are encouraged to provide additional guidance to MDIs in resolving material safety and soundness concerns whenever feasible. Also, OSCUI will continue to provide MDIs with technical assistance and educational and consulting services to assist them in resolving these concerns, thus improving their viability. OMWI will aid MDIs by facilitating and monitoring the assistance they receive, will report to Congress annually on
Two commenters suggested collaborating with interested stakeholders (
One commenter encouraged NCUA's OMWI to collaborate with the original FIRREA-designated agencies, and the two agencies that joined them, to implement their ideas and suggestions. To develop and enhance NCUA's Program, OMWI continues to consult with its counterparts at the FDIC, the OCC and the Fed, to review their MDI programs, and to attend their interagency MDI and Community Development Financial Institution Banks' Conferences. NCUA will continue to work with its counterparts, whenever feasible, to obtain additional ideas to enhance its Program.
One commenter supported the FIRREA-prescribed “General Preference Guidelines” for mergers (Guidelines),
To implement the Program, another commenter encouraged NCUA to work closely with state regulators to apply the Guidelines seamlessly and fairly when comparing potential MDI versus non-MDI merger partners for a troubled state-chartered credit union; to make the Program respond expeditiously and effectively to a troubled institution; and to ensure that supervisory oversight remains the focus of the Program—all without delaying the resolution of a troubled institution through merger or acquisition.
Under the final IRPS, NCUA regional offices will continue to process the mergers of troubled MDIs, working closely with state regulators to apply the Guidelines, and to ensure that the Guidelines do not conflict with safety and soundness considerations. In processing MDI mergers and purchase-and-assumption transactions, the need to respond expeditiously and effectively to troubled MDIs will continue to be the primary focus of NCUA's supervisory oversight. The Guidelines provide interested MDIs an opportunity to participate in the merger bidding process for an insolvent or troubled MDI, enabling the minority character of the MDI to be preserved.
One commenter recommended establishing a clear supervisory framework and strategy to establish a sufficient period of time to permit a more aggressive workout strategy for troubled MDIs. The commenter contended that such a framework and strategy would be an important preservation step between the identification of a troubled credit union and its dissolution. The commenter suggested addressing steps that may be taken through NCUA's supervisory examinations and oversight; and recommending an aggressive strategy for intervention using supervisory authorities combined with its targeted workout teams and resources.
In addition, this commenter advocated adopting a system of triage for prioritizing attention to MDIs, based on financial health, to best support those that are financially sound in building and expanding their work, while intervening sooner with those on a less secure footing in order to preserve service to their communities. Furthermore, this commenter advocated adopting a plan to provide resources and support to struggling MDIs identified as in danger of failing either through agency enforcement action or an inability to address issues identified in a Document of Resolution (DOR) and/or Letter of Understanding and Agreement (LUA). The period between a DOR and an LUA may present a critical moment where additional help and support can be sought. This commenter suggested steps NCUA could implement to work an MDI out of distress or troubled status. The commenter suggested using NCUA's Vendor Registration process to identify an appropriate resource team to participate in workout situations and to put additional resources and technical assistance at its disposal in working to resolve sound operations in a troubled MDI. The commenter envisioned the resource team effecting a significant turnaround in 6-12 months with the intention of preserving and building the institution. If the situation is not viable, the commenter suggested the resource team would be able to assist in identifying appropriate merger partners interested in serving the minority community.
NCUA cannot adopt the commenter's suggestions regarding attention to troubled MDIs because they would involve internal agency processes beyond the scope of this final IRPS. The final IPRS is a policy statement that generally prescribes actions to preserve MDIs, such as technical assistance, training, and educational opportunities to strengthen management and/or operations, as well as to assist in resolving examination and compliance concerns. The Program will not interfere with supervisory enforcement actions duly undertaken by the other offices within the agency.
Also, due to confidentiality, NCUA cannot disclose information about troubled MDIs to resource teams involving third parties (
The final IRPS addresses the posting of a list of MDIs on the agency's Web site (
Rather than holding to a static number of MDIs to measure preservation, one commenter advocated chartering new MDIs in communities that would benefit from MDI service. NCUA's goals are to implement efforts not only to preserve existing MDIs, but to encourage the chartering of new MDIs, as FIRREA § 308(a) (1)-(5) prescribes.
One commenter advocated publicizing information to credit unions, leagues and state agencies about NCUA's efforts to preserve MDIs and about the Program's benefits. Information pertaining to MDI preservation efforts is provided in NCUA's annual reports to Congress.
Another commenter suggested limiting the regulatory burden on credit unions as a step in support of the survival of MDIs. The NCUA Board agrees with this recommendation, and is aggressively working toward this goal. In January 2013, the NCUA Board reviewed the threshold it uses to identify which credit unions qualify as small entities and thus receive special consideration regarding regulatory burden and alternatives under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”).
One commenter proposed that NCUA establish an advisory committee to assist in developing, designing, and testing strategies and approaches on how to best preserve MDIs. Rather than rely on a permanent advisory committee, NCUA may consider informal focus groups comprised of MDIs of all asset sizes and levels of complexity to accomplish the suggested goals.
Revised as explained above, the final IRPS follows.
The NCUA Board is issuing this final IRPS to establish a Minority Depository Institution Preservation Program (Program) to achieve the goals of preserving and encouraging Minority Depository Institutions (MDIs), as section 308 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act (FIRREA § 308) directs.
The Program embraces goals and objectives that relate to NCUA's mission and goal to ensure a safe, sound, and sustainable credit union system as envisioned in NCUA's current strategic plan.
The Program also reflects the preservation goals of FIRREA § 308,
• To preserve the present number of MDIs;
• To preserve the minority character of MDIs that are involuntarily merged, or are acquired, by following the prescribed “general preference guidelines” to identify a merger or acquisition partner;
• To provide technical assistance to prevent insolvency of MDIs that are not now insolvent;
• To promote and encourage the creation of new MDIs; and
• To provide for training, technical assistance, and educational programs.
A credit union that meets the definition of an MDI is eligible to participate in the Program. The Program adopts the MDI definition set forth in FIRREA § 308 that applies to a mutual institution.
NCUA relies on FIRREA § 308's “minority” definition to identify an eligible minority exclusively as any Black American, Asian American, Hispanic American, or Native American.
NCUA's
If both questions are answered “yes”, the credit union may self-certify via NCUA's Credit Union Online Profile system that it meets the >50% minority criteria, as the case may be. A credit union defined as a small entity under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) may self-certify >50% representation among its current members, and within the community it services (current and potential members combined), based solely on knowledge of those members. A credit union not defined as a small entity under the RFA may rely on one of the following methods, as applicable, to determine the minority composition of its current membership exclusively, and of the community it services, consisting of the combined current and potential membership:
(A) Ascertain the minority representation using demographic data from the U.S. Census Bureau (using the U.S. Census Bureau or FFIEC Web site) based on the area(s) where the combined current and potential membership resides, such as a township, borough, city, county, or Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA). If the U.S. Census data (
(B) Use Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) data to calculate the reported number of minority mortgage applicants divided by the total number of mortgage applicants within the credit union's membership. HMDA data can be obtained from the FFIEC Web site. If the share of minority representation among applicants is >50%, the minority membership and the predominantly community criteria may be met. If a credit union grants a majority of its mortgage loans to minorities, it is most likely the majority of the community the credit union services (its current and potential members) will consist of minorities.
(C) Elect to collect data from members who voluntarily choose to self-identify as an eligible minority and use the data to determine minority representation among the credit union's membership. The credit union may wish to consider using an unbiased third party to conduct such a collection process. For example, data can be collected through a survey of members assessing the services they desire, or by mailed electoral ballots for official positions. Once collected, it is essential to maintain the confidentiality of the data; it should not be retained in the members' file or with any personal identifiers (
(D) Use any other reasonable form of data, such as membership address list analyses, or an employer's demographic analysis of employees.
A credit union defined as a small entity under the RFA that self-identifies as an MDI should maintain some form of the documentation that it relied upon to determine that, as explained above, it meets the minimum minority representation among its membership. This documentation may consist of demographic data obtained from the U.S. Census Bureau,
Regardless of asset size and the method a credit union uses to self-certify as an MDI, the validity of the self-certification (and the supporting data) is subject to verification by NCUA based on minority representation where the credit union's members reside.
If NCUA questions a credit union's certification or the data supporting it (
(1) Notify the credit union in writing about its reasons for invalidating the certification.
(2) Provide the credit union an opportunity to submit documentation and/or a rationale to support its MDI self-identification within 60 days of receiving OMWI's notification.
(3) Review the documentation and/or rationale the credit union submits and inform the credit union whether, as a result, it meets the >50% minority criterion.
(4) Deny the MDI designation if the credit union either provides no documentation and/or rationale, or provides documentation and/or rationale that, in NCUA's discretion, is insufficient to support a certification based upon >50% minority representation under all criteria.
NCUA will periodically review and determine whether an MDI continues to meet the MDI definition. A credit union may no longer meet the MDI definition as a result of FOM expansions (
Once it qualifies as an MDI, a credit union should annually assess whether it continues to meet the MDI definition (
Participation in the MDI Program is voluntary. An MDI may discontinue its participation at any time by updating its status on NCUA's Credit Union Online system. In that event, the credit union would no longer be eligible to participate in any MDI Program initiatives (
NCUA seeks to provide MDI Program participants a variety of initiatives to assist in preserving the economic viability of their institutions. The initiatives include technical assistance and educational opportunities for MDIs through NCUA's Office of Small Credit Union Initiatives (OSCUI).
(1) OSCUI's Consulting Program;
(2) NCUA-sponsored training, webinars, etc.; and
(3) Grant or loan programs of NCUA's Community Development Revolving Loan Fund (CDRLF).
The technical assistance may also include examiner guidance in resolving examination concerns; in locating new sponsors, mentors, or merger partners; in expanding the field of membership; and in setting up new programs and services. Additionally, the NCUA Board will consider providing Section 208 assistance to avert the liquidation of a credit union that it determines on a case-by-case basis is in danger of insolvency, regardless whether the credit union is an MDI.
NCUA may aid in coordinating partnerships between MDIs and other organizations (
NCUA will publish a list of federally insured MDIs on its Web site (
NCUA will monitor MDIs and will report to Congress annually on the number and overall financial condition of MDIs, along with actions taken by the agency to preserve and strengthen them and to encourage the chartering of new ones.
NCUA will use FIRREA's prescribed General Preference Guidelines (see § II.6. above) to attempt to preserve the minority character of failing MDIs that are involuntarily merged or acquired. In the event of an involuntary merger/acquisition of a troubled MDI,
Additionally, any organization or person seeking to be a candidate for managing the conservatorship of an MDI should complete an NCUA Vendor Registration Form (NCUA 1772)
Finally, the Office of Consumer Protection and OSCUI will be available to provide assistance, and guidance in the application process, to groups that may be interested in chartering a new MDI, and to MDIs wishing to apply to change their charter or field of membership. For detailed step-by-step instructions on chartering a federal credit union, please refer to the
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires NCUA to prepare an analysis to describe any significant economic impact the IRPS may have on a substantial number of small entities.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) applies to rulemakings in which an agency creates a new paperwork burden on regulated entities or modifies an existing burden. For purposes of the PRA, a paperwork burden may take the form of either a reporting or a recordkeeping requirement, each referred to as an information collection. The 2013 proposed IRPS identified a new information collection consisting of the procedure for a credit union to document its self-certification of eligibility to participate in the Program.
The proposed IRPS invited interested persons to submit comments on the prescribed information collection requirement to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), with a copy to NCUA, at the address provided in the preamble to the proposed IRPS. NCUA received the following comments on the information collection requirement prescribed in the proposed IRPS, encouraging the agency to:
• Remove the minority representation requirement among management officials in the MDI definition;
• restrict the collection of data by any method that allows members to voluntarily identify themselves as a minority;
• require the majority of a credit union's members' deposits and/or loan products to be held by racial minorities;
• conform the annual review and update of the minority self-certification to the updating frequency of the data supporting a self-certification (
• provide a portal on NCUA's Web site for credit unions to access the sources of data relevant to self-certifying as an MDI, such as links to U.S. Census and HDMA data.
Section II of this final IRPS addresses these comments. In response, NCUA has narrowed the scope of the minority representation requirement among a credit union's management to its board of directors, thus reducing the paperwork burden of assessing minority representation among senior management officials. Also, NCUA has displayed on the agency's Web site links to sources of data for self-certifying as an MDI; thus reducing the burden on potential MDIs to locate the Web sites for assessing source information to document their self-certification. NCUA will apply to OMB for approval of the final IRPS.
Executive Order 13132 encourages independent regulatory agencies to consider the impact of their actions on state and local interests. NCUA, an independent regulatory agency as defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(5), voluntarily complies with the Executive Order to adhere to fundamental federalism principles. This final IRPS will not have a substantial direct effect on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. NCUA has determined that this final IRPS does not constitute a policy that has federalism implications for purposes of the executive order.
NCUA has determined that this final IRPS will not affect family well-being within the meaning of Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999, Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681 (1998).
The Board's goal is to promulgate clear and understandable regulations that impose minimal regulatory burden. We request your comments on whether this final IRPS is understandable and minimally intrusive if implemented as proposed.
The Chief Operating Officer of the National Science Foundation has determined that the reestablishment of the Proposal Review Panel for International Science and Engineering is necessary and in the public interest in connection with the performance of the duties imposed upon the National Science Foundation (NSF) by 42 U.S.C. 1861
Name OF Committee: Proposal Review Panel for International Science and Engineering (#10749)
1. Nature/Purpose: The International Science and Engineering proposal review panel will advise the National Science Foundation (NSF) on the merit of proposals requesting financial support of research and research-related activities. The Committee will review proposals submitted to NSF under the purview of the Office of International Science and Engineering Program (OISE).
Responsible NSF Official: Rebecca Keiser, Head, Office of International Science and Engineering, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Stafford II, Suite 1155, Arlington, VA 22230. Telephone: 703/292-8710
National Science Foundation.
Submission for OMB review; comment request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3501
NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The National Science Foundation Act of 1950, as subsequently amended, includes a statutory charge to “. . . provide a central clearinghouse for the collection, interpretation, and analysis of data on scientific and engineering resources, and to provide a source of information for policy formulation by other agencies of the Federal Government.” More recently, the National Center for Science and Engineering Statistics (NCSES) was established within NSF by Section 505 of the America COMPETES Reauthorization Act of 2010 and given a broader mandate to collect data related to STEM education, the science and engineering workforce, and U.S. competitiveness in science, engineering, technology, and R&D. The SDR is designed to comply with these mandates by providing information on the supply and utilization of the nation's doctoral scientists and engineers.
The NSF uses the information from the SDR to prepare congressionally mandated reports such as
Data will be obtained by web survey, mail questionnaire, and computer-assisted telephone interviews beginning in September 2015. The survey will be collected in conformance with the Confidential Information Protection and Statistical Efficiency Act of 2002, and the individual's response to the survey is voluntary. NSF will ensure that all information collected will be kept strictly confidential and will be used only for statistical purposes.
A statistical sample of approximately 120,000 individuals with U.S.-earned doctorates in science, engineering or health will be contacted in 2015. This sample will include approximately 106,000 individuals residing in the U.S. and 14,000 residing abroad. NSF expects the overall response rate to be 70 percent.
National Science Foundation.
Notice of Permit Applications Received Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish a notice of permit applications received to conduct activities regulated under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. NSF has published regulations under the Antarctic Conservation Act at Title 45 Part 670 of the Code of Federal Regulations. This is the required notice of permit applications received.
Interested parties are invited to submit written data, comments, or views with respect to this permit application by July 24, 2015. This application may be inspected by interested parties at the Permit Office, address below.
Comments should be addressed to Permit Office, Room 755, Division of Polar Programs, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, Virginia 22230.
Li Ling Hamady, ACA Permit Officer, at the above address or
The National Science Foundation, as directed by the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-541), as amended by the Antarctic Science, Tourism and Conservation Act of 1996, has developed regulations for the establishment of a permit system for various activities in Antarctica and designation of certain animals and certain geographic areas a requiring special protection. The regulations establish such a permit system to designate Antarctic Specially Protected Areas.
1.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Director's decision under 10 CFR 2.206; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has issued a director's decision with regard to a petition dated March 12, 2011, filed by Thomas Saporito (the petitioner), requesting that the NRC take action with regard to all operating reactor licensees. The petitioner's requests and the director's decision are included in the
June 24, 2015.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2011-0147 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Notice is hereby given that the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, has issued a director's decision (ADAMS Accession No. ML15114A411) on a petition filed by the petitioner on March 12, 2011 (ADAMS Accession No. ML110740026). The petition was supplemented by documents dated April 14, April 16, and May 25, 2011 (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML11110A026, ML11110A027, ML11110A028, ML11119A024, and ML111450897, respectively.)
The petitioner requested that the NRC:
1. Order the immediate shutdown of all nuclear power reactors located on or near an earthquake fault line in the United States.
2. Order the immediate shutdown of all power reactors employing GE Mark I containment design in the United States, characterizing such design as flawed from the nuclear safety standpoint.
3. Advise other countries employing the GE Mark I nuclear power reactors about the serious nuclear safety design flaws associated with that design, which is likely to result in a serious nuclear accident comparable to the Japanese nuclear disaster.
4. Immediately revoke all 20-year license extensions issued to NRC licensees, because the NRC “has improperly and illegally granted 20-year license extensions to the 40-year license that was initially granted by the agency for the 104 nuclear reactors throughout the United States.”
As the basis for these requests, the petitioner cited the events in Japan at the Fukushima Dai-ichi Nuclear Power Plant.
On April 14, 2011, and May 25, 2011, the petitioner met with the NRC's Petition Review Board. The meetings provided the petitioner an opportunity to provide additional information and to clarify issues cited in the petition. The transcripts for those meetings are available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML11109A014 and ML11146A010, respectively.
The NRC sent a copy of the proposed director's decision to the petitioner and the licensees for comment on April 8, 2015 (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML13018A145). The petitioner and the licensees were asked to provide comments within 2 weeks on any part of the proposed director's decision that was considered to be erroneous or any issues in the petition that were not addressed. Comments were received from two licensees and are addressed in an attachment to the final director's decision. The staff did not receive any comments from the petitioner.
The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation has determined that the following requests are denied: (1) To require that the NRC Order the immediate shutdown of all nuclear power reactors located on or near an earthquake fault line in the United States, and (2) to require that the NRC Order the immediate shutdown of all power reactors employing GE Mark I containment design in the United States. The NRC rejected Request 3 on the basis that the NRC was already implementing the actions requested. The NRC rejected Request 4 on the basis that the petitioner's claim was general and insufficient to warrant further inquiry, and that the NRC staff had already reviewed, evaluated, and resolved the issue.
The reasons for this decision are explained in the director's decision (DD-15-06) under Section 2.206 of Title 10 of the
The NRC will file a copy of the director's decision with the Secretary of the Commission for the Commission's review in accordance with 10 CFR
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Notice of pendency of request.
This notice advises interested persons that the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (“PBGC”) has received a request from Harrington Air Systems, LLC, and its sister company J.C. Cannistraro, LLC, for an exemption from the bond/escrow requirement of section 4204(a)(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended, with respect to the Sheet Metal Workers National Pension Fund. Section 4204(a)(1) provides that the sale of assets by an employer that contributes to a multiemployer pension plan will not constitute a complete or partial withdrawal from the plan if certain conditions are met. One of these conditions is that the purchaser posts a bond or deposits money in escrow for the five-plan-year period beginning after the sale. PBGC is authorized to grant individual and class exemptions from this requirement. Before granting an exemption PBGC is required to give interested persons an opportunity to comment on the exemption request. The purpose of this notice is to advise interested persons of the exemption request and solicit their views on it.
Comments must be received on or before August 10, 2015.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• Email:
• Fax: 202-326-4224.
• Mail or Hand Delivery: Regulatory Affairs Group, Office of the General Counsel, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, 1200 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20005-4026.
Comments received, including personal information provided, will be posted to
Bruce Perlin (
Section 4204 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended by the Multiemployer Pension Plan Amendments Act of 1980 (“ERISA” or “the Act”), provides that a bona fide arm's-length sale of assets of a contributing employer to an unrelated party will not be considered a withdrawal if three conditions are met. These conditions, enumerated in section 4204(a)(1)(A)-(C), are that—
(A) The purchaser has an obligation to contribute to the plan with respect to the operations for substantially the same number of contributions base units for which the seller was obligated to contribute;
(B) The purchaser obtains a bond or places an amount in escrow, for a period of five plan years after the sale, equal to the greater of the seller's average required annual contribution to the plan for the three plan years preceding the year in which the sale occurred or the seller's required annual contribution for the plan year preceding the year in which the sale occurred; and
(C) The contract of sale provides that if the purchaser withdraws from the plan within the first five plan years beginning after the sale and fails to pay any of its liability to the plan, the seller shall be secondarily liable for the liability it (the seller) would have had but for section 4204.
The bond or escrow described above would be paid to the plan if the purchaser withdraws from the plan or fails to make any required contributions to the plan within the first five plan years beginning after the sale.
Additionally, section 4204(b)(1) provides that if a sale of assets is covered by section 4204, the purchaser assumes by operation of law the contribution record of the seller for the plan year in which the sale occurred and the preceding four plan years.
Section 4204(c) of ERISA authorizes PBGC to grant individual or class variances or exemptions from the purchaser's bond/escrow requirement of section 4204(a)(1)(B) when warranted. The legislative history of section 4204 indicates a Congressional intent that the sales rules be administered in a manner that assures protection of the plan with the least practicable intrusion into normal business transactions. Senate Committee on Labor and Human Resources, 96th Cong., 2nd Sess., S.1076, The Multiemployer Pension Plan Amendments Act of 1980: Summary and Analysis of Considerations 16 (Comm. Print, April 1980); 128 Cong. Rec. S10117 (July 29, 1980). The granting of an exemption or variance from the bond/escrow requirement does not constitute a finding by PBGC that a particular transaction satisfies the other requirements of section 4204(a)(1).
Under the PBGC's regulation on variances for sales of assets (29 CFR part 4204), a request for a variance or waiver of the bond/escrow requirement under any of the tests established in the regulation (§§ 4204.12-4204.13) is to be made by the parties to the sale to the plan in question. PBGC will consider a waiver request by a purchaser or seller only if the transaction does not satisfy the regulatory tests or the parties decline to provide the plan financial information necessary to show satisfaction of one of the regulatory tests because it is privileged or confidential financial information within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) (the Freedom of Information Act).
Under § 4204.22 of the regulation, the PBGC shall approve a request for a variance or exemption if it determines that approval of the request is warranted, in that it—
(1) Would more effectively or equitably carry out the purposes of Title IV of the Act; and
(2) Would not significantly increase the risk of financial loss to the plan.
Section 4204(c) of ERISA and § 4204.22(b) of the regulation require PBGC to publish a notice of the pendency of a request for a variance or exemption in the
The PBGC has received a request from Harrington Air Systems, LLC (“HAS”) and its sister company J.C. Cannistraro, LLC (“JCC”) (collectively, “Cannistraro” or the “Buyer”) for an exemption from the bond/escrow requirement of § 4204(a)(1)(B) with respect to the Sheet Metal Workers National Pension Fund (the “Fund”) in connection with the purchase of most of the assets of Harrington Brothers Corporation (“HBC” or the “Seller”) on February 28, 2014. HAS is an entity set up by JCC in order to effectuate the purchase of HBC's assets. In the request, the Buyer represents that HAS and JCC are businesses under common control pursuant to 26 CFR 1.414(c)-2 and therefore treated as one employer under ERISA. Additionally, the Buyer represents, among other things, that:
1. Under the terms of the asset purchase agreement, the Buyer paid the Seller approximately $5.1 million in the form of an unsecured promissory note that may be adjusted post-closing based on the performance of certain construction contracts in place at the time of the transaction.
2. The Buyer is obligated to contribute to the Fund for the purchased operations for substantially the same contribution base units for which the Seller had an obligation to contribute.
3. The Seller has agreed to be secondarily liable for any withdrawal liability it would have had with regard to the sold operations (if not for § 4204) should the Buyer withdraw from the Fund within the five plan years following the sale and fail to pay withdrawal liability.
4. The estimated amount of unfunded vested benefits allocable to the seller with respect to the operations sold is about $23.5 million.
5. The amount of the bond/escrow required under § 4204(a)(1)(B) is $1.68 million.
6. After the close of the transaction, the Buyer requested that the trustees of the Fund waive the bond/escrow requirements of ERISA § 4204. By its counsel, the Fund denied the request on the grounds that the Buyer had not satisfied the income or asset tests under PBGC's regulations for an exemption from the bond/escrow requirement of § 4204(a)(1)(B).
7. The Fund determined that to receive a waiver of the bond/escrow requirement under the net income test of 29 CFR 4204.13(a)(1), the average net income needed for the three-year period prior to the transaction should have been $400,000 greater than the amount reported.
8. The Buyer asserts that the three-year average net income of JCC was lowered due to an “aberrantly poor year” in the construction industry in Massachusetts in 2011. The Buyer states that JCC's average net income for the years between 2011-2014 was approximately $1 million more than what was required to meet the net income test under 29 CFR 4204.13(a)(1), and that its net income for the 3 years between 2012-2014 was approximately $1.5 million more than what was required.
9. The Buyer further asserts that, in denying the Buyer's request for a waiver, the Fund looked only at the average net income of JCC. It contends that aggregating the net incomes of JCC and HAS, two businesses under common control under 26 CFR 1.414(c)-2, shows that there “can be no serious argument that a waiver will create risk for the Fund, let alone substantial risk.” HAS's anticipated net income for 2014 is approximately $300,000.
10. The Buyer's request additionally states that a variance of the bond/escrow requirement in this instance furthers the purposes of Title IV of ERISA because Congress, in enacting Title IV, sought to minimize intrusions into normal business operations while protecting plans. The Buyer asserts that HBC had previously been a “struggling enterprise” and that the transaction has “resulted in a more stable and financially secure contributing employer to the Fund.”
All interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the pending exemption request. All comments will be made part of the administrative record.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for exemptions from sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B), and (C) of the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from section 17(a) of the Act, and under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from rule 12d1-2(a) under the Act.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Adviser and Trust, 3250 Lacey Road, Suite 130, Downers Grove, Illinois 60515.
Kieran G. Brown, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6773, or James M. Curtis, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6712 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the “Company” name box, at
1. The Trust is organized as a Massachusetts business trust and intends to register with the Commission as an open-end management investment company. The Trust intends to have multiple series which pursue distinct investment objectives and strategies.
3. Applicants request relief to the extent necessary to permit: (a) A Fund (each, a “Fund of Funds,” and collectively, the “Funds of Funds”) to acquire shares of registered open-end management investment companies (each an “Unaffiliated Open-End Investment Company”), registered closed-end management investment companies, business development companies (each registered closed-end management investment company and each business development company, an “Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company” and, together with the Unaffiliated Open-End Investment Companies, the “Unaffiliated Investment Companies”), and registered unit investment trusts (“UITs”) (the “Unaffiliated Trusts,” and collectively with the Unaffiliated Investment Companies, the “Unaffiliated Funds”), in each case, that are not part of the same “group of investment companies” as the Funds of Funds;
4. Applicants also request an exemption under section 6(c) from rule 12d1-2 under the Act to permit any existing or future Fund of Funds that relies on section 12(d)(1)(G) of the Act (“Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds”) and that otherwise complies with rule 12d1-2 under the Act, to also invest, to the extent consistent with its investment objective(s), policies, strategies and limitations, in other financial instruments that may not be securities within the meaning of section 2(a)(36) of the Act (“Other Investments”).
1. Section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, in relevant part, prohibits a registered investment company from acquiring shares of an investment company if the securities represent more than 3% of the total outstanding voting stock of the acquired company, more than 5% of the total assets of the acquiring company, or, together with the securities of any other investment companies, more than 10% of the total assets of the acquiring company. Section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act prohibits a registered open-end investment company, its principal underwriter, and any Broker from selling the investment company's shares to another investment company if the sale will cause the acquiring company to own more than 3% of the acquired company's voting stock, or if the sale will cause more than 10% of the acquired company's voting stock to be owned by investment companies generally. Section 12(d)(1)(C) prohibits an investment company from acquiring any security issued by a registered closed-end investment company if such acquisition would result in the acquiring company, any other investment companies having the same investment adviser, and companies controlled by such investment companies, collectively, owning more than 10% of the outstanding voting stock of the registered closed-end investment company.
2. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public
3. Applicants state that the proposed arrangement will not give rise to the policy concerns underlying sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B), and (C), which include concerns about undue influence by a fund of funds over underlying funds, excessive layering of fees, and overly complex fund structures. Accordingly, applicants believe that the requested exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
4. Applicants submit that the proposed structure will not result in the exercise of undue influence by a Fund of Funds or its affiliated persons over the Underlying Funds. Applicants assert that the concern about undue influence does not arise in connection with a Fund of Funds' investment in the Affiliated Funds because they are part of the same group of investment companies. To limit the control a Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate
5. With respect to closed-end Underlying Funds, applicants note that although closed-end funds may not be unduly influenced by a holder's right of redemption, closed-end Underlying Funds may be unduly influenced by a holder's ability to vote a large block of stock. To address this concern, applicants submit that, with respect to a Fund's investment in an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company, (i) each member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group that is an investment company or an issuer that would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the manner prescribed by section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act and (ii) each other member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the same type of such Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company's shares. Applicants state that, in this way, an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company will be protected from undue influence by a Fund of Funds through the voting of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company's shares.
6. Applicants propose other conditions to limit the potential for undue influence over the Unaffiliated Funds, including that no Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate (except to the extent it is acting in its capacity as an investment adviser to an Unaffiliated Investment Company or sponsor to an Unaffiliated Trust) will cause an Unaffiliated Fund to purchase a security in an offering of securities during the existence of any underwriting or selling syndicate of which a principal underwriter is an Underwriting Affiliate (“Affiliated Underwriting”).
7. To further ensure that an Unaffiliated Investment Company understands the implications of a Fund of Funds' investment under the requested exemptive relief, prior to its investment in the shares of an Unaffiliated Investment Company in excess of the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, a Fund of Funds and the Unaffiliated Investment Company will execute an agreement stating, without limitation, that each of their boards of directors or trustees (each, a “Board”) and their investment advisers understand the terms and conditions of the order and agree to fulfill their responsibilities under the order (the “Participation Agreement”). Applicants note that an Unaffiliated Investment Company (including an ETF or an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company) would also retain its right to reject any initial investment by a Fund of Funds in excess of the limits in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act by declining to execute the Participation Agreement with the Fund of Funds. In addition, an Unaffiliated Investment Company (other than an ETF or Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company whose shares are purchased by a Fund of Funds in the secondary market) will retain its right at all times to reject any investment by a Fund of Funds. Finally, solely upon notice to a Fund of Funds, an Unaffiliated Investment Company could terminate a Participation Agreement with the Fund of Funds effective at the end of the notice period specified in the Participation Agreement.
8. Applicants state that they do not believe that the proposed arrangement will result in excessive layering of fees. The Board of each Fund of Funds, including a majority of the trustees who are not “interested persons” within the meaning of section 2(a)(19) of the Act (the “Independent Trustees”), will find that the management or advisory fees charged under a Fund of Funds' advisory contract are based on services provided that are in addition to, rather than duplicative of, services provided under the advisory contract(s) of any Underlying Fund in which the Fund of Funds may invest. In addition, the Adviser will waive fees otherwise payable to it by a Fund of Funds in an amount at least equal to any compensation (including fees received pursuant to any plan adopted by an Unaffiliated Investment Company under rule 12b-1 under the Act) received from an Unaffiliated Fund by the Adviser, or an affiliated person of the Adviser, other than any advisory fees paid to the Adviser or an affiliated person of the
9. Applicants further state that any sales charges and/or service fees charged with respect to shares of a Fund of Funds will not exceed the limits applicable to funds of funds set forth in in rule 2830 of the Conduct Rules of the NASD (“NASD Conduct Rule 2830”).
10. Applicants submit that the proposed arrangement will not create an overly complex fund structure. Applicants note that no Underlying Fund will acquire securities of any other investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act in excess of the limits contained in section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, except in certain circumstances identified in condition 12 below.
1. Section 17(a) of the Act generally prohibits sales or purchases of securities between a registered investment company and any affiliated person of the company. Section 2(a)(3) of the Act defines an “affiliated person” of another person to include (a) any person directly or indirectly owning, controlling, or holding with power to vote, 5% or more of the outstanding voting securities of the other person; (b) any person 5% or more of whose outstanding voting securities are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or held with power to vote by the other person; and (c) any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the other person.
2. Applicants state that the Funds of Funds and the Affiliated Funds may be deemed to be under the common control of the Adviser and, therefore, affiliated persons of one another. Applicants also state that the Funds of Funds and the Underlying Funds organized as open-end management investment companies and UITs may also be deemed to be affiliated persons of one another if a Fund of Funds owns 5% or more of the outstanding voting securities of one or more of such Underlying Funds. Applicants state that the sale of shares by Underlying Funds organized as open-end management investment companies and UITs to the Funds of Funds and the purchase of those shares from the Funds of Funds by such Underlying Funds (through redemptions) could be deemed to violate section 17(a).
3. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (i) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (ii) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company concerned; and (iii) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any person or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act.
4. Applicants submit that the proposed transactions satisfy the standards for relief under sections 17(b) and 6(c) of the Act. Applicants state that the terms of the transactions are reasonable and fair and do not involve overreaching. Applicants state that the terms upon which an Underlying Fund that is an open-end management investment company will sell its shares to or purchase its shares from a Fund of Funds will be in accordance with the rules and regulations under the Act.
1. Section 12(d)(1)(G) of the Act provides that section 12(d)(1) will not apply to securities of an acquired company purchased by an acquiring company if: (i) The acquiring company and acquired company are part of the same “group of investment companies,” as defined in section 12(d)(1)(G)(ii) of the Act; (ii) the acquiring company holds only securities of acquired companies that are part of the same “group of investment companies,” as defined in section 12(d)(1)(G)(ii) of the Act, government securities, and short-term paper; (iii) the aggregate sales loads and distribution-related fees of the acquiring company and the acquired company are not excessive under rules adopted pursuant to section 22(b) or section 22(c) of the Act by a securities association registered under section 15A of the 1934 Act or by the Commission; and (iv) the acquired company has a policy that prohibits it from acquiring securities of registered open-end management investment companies or registered UITs in reliance on section 12(d)(1)(F) or (G) of the Act.
2. Rule 12d1-2 under the Act permits a registered open-end investment company or a registered UIT that relies on section 12(d)(1)(G) of the Act to acquire, in addition to securities issued by another registered investment company in the same group of investment companies, government securities, and short-term paper: (1) Securities issued by an investment company that is not in the same group of investment companies, when the acquisition is in reliance on section 12(d)(1)(A) or 12(d)(1)(F) of the Act; (2) securities (other than securities issued by an investment company); and (3) securities issued by a money market fund, when the investment is in reliance on rule 12d1-1 under the Act. For the purposes of rule 12d1-2, “securities” means any security as defined in section 2(a)(36) of the Act.
3. Applicants state that the proposed arrangement would comply with rule 12d1-2 under the Act, but for the fact that the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Funds of Funds may invest a portion of their assets in Other Investments. Applicants request an order under section 6(c) of the Act for an exemption from rule 12d1-2(a) to allow the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Funds of Funds to invest in Other Investments. Applicants assert that permitting a Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds to invest in Other Investments as described in the
4. Consistent with its fiduciary obligations under the Act, a Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds' Board will review the advisory fees charged by the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds' investment adviser(s) to ensure that the fees are based on services provided that are in addition to, rather than duplicative of, services provided pursuant to the advisory agreement of any investment company in which the Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds may invest.
Applicants agree that the order granting the requested relief to permit Funds of Funds to invest in Underlying Funds shall be subject to the following conditions:
1. The members of the Group will not control (individually or in the aggregate) an Unaffiliated Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act. The members of a Sub-Adviser Group will not control (individually or in the aggregate) an Unaffiliated Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act. With respect to a Fund's investment in an Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company, (i) each member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group that is an investment company or an issuer that would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the manner prescribed by section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act and (ii) each other member of the Group or Sub-Adviser Group will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the same type of such Unaffiliated Closed-End Investment Company's shares. If, as a result of a decrease in the outstanding voting securities of any other Unaffiliated Fund, the Group or a Sub-Adviser Group, each in the aggregate, becomes a holder of more than 25 percent of the outstanding voting securities of such Unaffiliated Fund, then the Group or the Sub-Adviser Group will vote its shares of the Unaffiliated Fund in the same proportion as the vote of all other holders of the Unaffiliated Fund's shares. This condition will not apply to a Sub-Adviser Group with respect to an Unaffiliated Fund for which the Sub-Adviser or a person controlling, controlled by or under common control with the Sub-Adviser acts as the investment adviser within the meaning of section 2(a)(20)(A) of the Act (in the case of an Unaffiliated Investment Company) or as the sponsor (in the case of an Unaffiliated Trust).
2. No Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate will cause any existing or potential investment by the Fund of Funds in an Unaffiliated Fund to influence the terms of any services or transactions between the Fund of Funds or a Fund of Funds Affiliate and the Unaffiliated Fund or an Unaffiliated Fund Affiliate.
3. The Board of each Fund of Funds, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, will adopt procedures reasonably designed to ensure that its Adviser and any Sub-Adviser to the Fund of Funds are conducting the investment program of the Fund of Funds without taking into account any consideration received by the Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate from an Unaffiliated Investment Company or Unaffiliated Trust or any Unaffiliated Fund Affiliate of such Unaffiliated Investment Company or Unaffiliated Trust in connection with any services or transactions.
4. Once an investment by a Fund of Funds in the securities of an Unaffiliated Investment Company exceeds the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, the Board of the Unaffiliated Investment Company, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, will determine that any consideration paid by the Unaffiliated Investment Company to a Fund of Funds or a Fund of Funds Affiliate in connection with any services or transactions: (a) Is fair and reasonable in relation to the nature and quality of the services and benefits received by the Unaffiliated Investment Company; (b) is within the range of consideration that the Unaffiliated Investment Company would be required to pay to another unaffiliated entity in connection with the same services or transactions; and (c) does not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned. This condition does not apply with respect to any services or transactions between an Unaffiliated Investment Company and its investment adviser(s), or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such investment adviser(s).
5. No Fund of Funds or Fund of Funds Affiliate (except to the extent it is acting in its capacity as an investment adviser to an Unaffiliated Investment Company or sponsor to an Unaffiliated Trust) will cause an Unaffiliated Fund to purchase a security in any Affiliated Underwriting.
6. The Board of an Unaffiliated Investment Company, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, will adopt procedures reasonably designed to monitor any purchases of securities by the Unaffiliated Investment Company in an Affiliated Underwriting once an investment by a Fund of Funds in the securities of the Unaffiliated Investment Company exceeds the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, including any purchases made directly from an Underwriting Affiliate. The Board of the Unaffiliated Investment Company will review these purchases periodically, but no less frequently than annually, to determine whether the purchases were influenced by the investment by the Fund of Funds in the Unaffiliated Investment Company. The Board of the Unaffiliated Investment Company will consider, among other things: (a) Whether the purchases were consistent with the investment objectives and policies of the Unaffiliated Investment Company; (b) how the performance of securities purchased in an Affiliated Underwriting compares to the performance of comparable securities purchased during a comparable period of time in underwritings other than Affiliated Underwritings or to a benchmark such as a comparable market index; and (c) whether the amount of securities purchased by the Unaffiliated Investment Company in Affiliated Underwritings and the amount purchased directly from an Underwriting Affiliate have changed significantly from prior years. The Board of the Unaffiliated Investment Company will take any appropriate actions based on its review, including, if appropriate, the institution of procedures designed to ensure that purchases of securities in Affiliated Underwritings are in the best interests of shareholders.
7. Each Unaffiliated Investment Company will maintain and preserve permanently, in an easily accessible place, a written copy of the procedures described in the preceding condition, and any modifications to such procedures, and will maintain and preserve for a period of not less than six years from the end of the fiscal year in which any purchase in an Affiliated Underwriting occurred, the first two years in an easily accessible place, a written record of each purchase of securities in an Affiliated Underwriting once an investment by a Fund of Funds in the securities of an Unaffiliated Investment Company exceeds the limit of section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, setting forth (1) the party from whom
8. Prior to its investment in shares of an Unaffiliated Investment Company in excess of the limit set forth in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, the Fund of Funds and the Unaffiliated Investment Company will execute a Participation Agreement stating, without limitation, that their Boards and their investment advisers understand the terms and conditions of the order and agree to fulfill their responsibilities under the order. At the time of its investment in shares of an Unaffiliated Investment Company in excess of the limit set forth in section 12(d)(1)(A)(i), a Fund of Funds will notify the Unaffiliated Investment Company of the investment. At such time, the Fund of Funds will also transmit to the Unaffiliated Investment Company a list of the names of each Fund of Funds Affiliate and Underwriting Affiliate. The Fund of Funds will notify the Unaffiliated Investment Company of any changes to the list as soon as reasonably practicable after a change occurs. The Unaffiliated Investment Company and the Fund of Funds will maintain and preserve a copy of the order, the Participation Agreement, and the list with any updated information for the duration of the investment and for a period of not less than six years thereafter, the first two years in an easily accessible place.
9. Before approving any advisory contract under section 15 of the Act, the Board of each Fund of Funds, including a majority of the Independent Trustees, shall find that the advisory fees charged under the advisory contract are based on services provided that are in addition to, rather than duplicative of, services provided under the advisory contract(s) of any Underlying Fund in which the Fund of Funds may invest. Such finding, and the basis upon which the finding was made, will be recorded fully in the minute books of the appropriate Fund of Funds.
10. The Adviser will waive fees otherwise payable to it by a Fund of Funds in an amount at least equal to any compensation (including fees received pursuant to any plan adopted by an Unaffiliated Investment Company pursuant to rule 12b-1 under the Act) received from an Unaffiliated Fund by the Adviser, or an affiliated person of the Adviser, other than any advisory fees paid to the Adviser or its affiliated person by the Unaffiliated Investment Company, in connection with the investment by the Fund of Funds in the Unaffiliated Fund. Any Sub-Adviser will waive fees otherwise payable to the Sub-Adviser, directly or indirectly, by the Fund of Funds in an amount at least equal to any compensation received by the Sub-Adviser, or an affiliated person of the Sub-Adviser, from an Unaffiliated Fund, other than any advisory fees paid to the Sub-Adviser or its affiliated person by the Unaffiliated Investment Company, in connection with the investment by the Fund of Funds in the Unaffiliated Fund made at the direction of the Sub-Adviser. In the event that the Sub-Adviser waives fees, the benefit of the waiver will be passed through to the Fund of Funds.
11. Any sales charges and/or service fees charged with respect to shares of a Fund of Funds will not exceed the limits applicable to funds of funds set forth in NASD Conduct Rule 2830.
12. No Underlying Fund will acquire securities of any other investment company or company relying on section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act, in excess of the limits contained in section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act, except to the extent that such Underlying Fund: (a) Acquires such securities in compliance with section 12(d)(1)(E) of the Act and either is an Affiliated Fund or is in the same “group of investment companies” as its corresponding master fund; (b) receives securities of another investment company as a dividend or as a result of a plan of reorganization of a company (other than a plan devised for the purpose of evading section 12(d)(1) of the Act); or (c) acquires (or is deemed to have acquired) securities of another investment company pursuant to exemptive relief from the Commission permitting such Underlying Fund to: (i) Acquire securities of one or more investment companies for short-term cash management purposes or (ii) engage in inter-fund borrowing and lending transactions.
Applicants agree that the order granting the requested relief to permit Section 12(d)(1)(G) Funds of Funds to invest in Other Investments shall be subject to the following condition:
1. Applicants will comply with all provisions of rule 12d1-2 under the Act, except for paragraph (a)(2) to the extent that it restricts any Section 12(d)(1)(G) Fund of Funds from investing in Other Investments as described in the application.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares of the following under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 (“Managed Fund Shares”): Newfleet Multi-Sector Unconstrained Bond ETF. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change
The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares (“Shares”) of the following under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares:
The investment adviser to the Fund will be Etfis Capital LLC. (the “Adviser”). The Fund's Sub-Adviser will be Newfleet Asset Management LLC (“Sub-Adviser”). ETF Issuer Solutions Inc. will serve as the Fund's operational administrator. ETF Distributors LLC will serve as the distributor (the “Distributor”) of Fund Shares on an agency basis.
The Bank of New York Mellon (the “Administrator”) will serve as the administrator, custodian, transfer agent and fund accounting agent for the Fund.
Commentary .06 to Rule 8.600 provides that, if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
According to the Registration Statement, the Fund will, under normal market conditions,
The Fund's investment objective will seek to provide a high level of current income and, secondarily, capital appreciation. According to the Registration Statement, the Fund will apply a time-tested approach to credit research to capitalize on opportunities across undervalued areas of the bond market. According to the Registration Statement, under normal market conditions, the Sub-Adviser will seek to select securities using a sector rotation approach and seek to adjust the proportion of Fund investments in various sectors and sub-sectors in an effort to obtain higher relative returns.
The Fund's investable assets will typically be allocated among various sectors and sub-sectors of the fixed income market using a top-down, relative value approach that looks at factors such as yield and spreads, supply and demand, investment environment, and sector fundamentals. The Sub-Adviser will then typically
The Sub-Adviser will seek to provide diversification by allocating the Fund's investments among various sectors of the fixed income markets (as described below), including corporate investment-grade, corporate high-yield, non-agency commercial mortgage-backed securities (“CMBS”), agency and non-agency residential mortgage-backed securities (“RMBS”), non-U.S. dollar securities, emerging market high-yield securities, and asset-backed securities (“ABS”).
The Fund may invest in the following fixed income securities:
• Securities issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by the U.S. Government, its agencies, authorities or instrumentalities, including, without limitation, collateralized mortgage obligations (“CMOs”), real estate mortgage investment conduits (“REMICs”) and other pass-through securities;
• Non-agency
• Yankee bonds;
• Loan assignments, including senior and junior bank loans (generally with floating rates);
• Corporate bonds; and
• Taxable municipal bonds and tax-exempt municipal bonds.
The Fund represents that the portfolio generally will include a minimum of 13 non-affiliated issuers of debt securities. The Fund will only purchase performing securities and not distressed debt.
The Fund may invest in securities of U.S. or non-U.S. issuers of any maturity or credit quality rating. The Fund generally will consider a security to be “investment grade” if it is rated within the four highest rating categories of a NRSRO or, if unrated, it is determined to be of comparable quality by the Sub-Adviser (pursuant to procedures reviewed and approved by the Trust's Board of Trustees (“Board”)). Securities that are not determined to be investment grade are considered below investment grade. There is no limitation to the Fund's holdings in below investment grade securities or non-U.S. issuers (as measured by country of risk).
The fixed income securities referenced above may be issued by foreign issuers, including foreign governments and their political subdivisions and issuers located in emerging markets countries.
The fixed income securities referenced above may be short-term securities of U.S. and non-U.S. issuers.
The Fund has no target duration for its investment portfolio and the Fund's portfolio managers may target shorter or longer durations in response to their view of the fixed income markets generally or any sector thereof. Duration measures the interest rate sensitivity of a fixed income security by assessing and weighting the present value of the security's payment pattern. Generally, the longer the maturity, the greater the duration and, therefore, the greater effect interest rate changes have on the price of the security.
The Sub-Adviser will seek to adjust (i) the proportion of Fund investments primarily in the sectors described above, and (ii) the selections within sectors to obtain higher relative returns. The Sub-Adviser will regularly review the Fund's portfolio construction, endeavoring to minimize risk exposure by closely monitoring portfolio characteristics such as sector concentration and portfolio duration and by investing no more than 5% of the Fund's total assets in securities of any single issuer (excluding the U.S. government, its agencies, authorities or instrumentalities).
The Fund may invest in U.S. Treasury futures contracts traded on U.S. futures exchanges in an attempt to protect the Fund's current or intended investments from broad fluctuations in securities prices.
While the Fund, under normal market conditions, will invest at least eighty percent (80%) of its assets in fixed income securities and financial instruments, as described above, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in other assets and financial instruments, as described below.
The Fund may hold the following exchange-traded equity securities: common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants, convertible securities, unit investment trusts, master limited partnerships, real estate investment trusts (“REITs”), exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”)
The Fund will purchase such equity securities traded in the U.S. on registered exchanges.
To gain exposure to the performance of foreign issuers, the Fund may invest in the following types of equity securities: American Depositary Receipts (“ADRs”), “ordinary shares,” and “New York shares” (each of which is issued and traded in the U.S.); and Global Depositary Receipts (“GDRs”), European Depositary Receipts (“EDRs”), and International Depositary Receipts (“IDRs”), which are traded on foreign exchanges (all of the foregoing financial instruments collectively referred to as “Equity Financial Instruments”).
With respect to its exchange-traded equity securities investments, the Fund will normally invest in equity securities that are listed and traded on a U.S. exchange or in markets that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”) or parties to a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement with the Exchange. In any case, not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund in the aggregate invested in exchange-traded equity securities will consist of equity securities whose principal market is not a member of ISG or a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
The Fund may invest in, to the extent permitted by section 12(d)(1) of the 1940 Act and the rules thereunder,
The Fund also may invest in the securities of other investment companies in compliance with section 12(d)(1)(E), (F) and (G) of the 1940 Act and the rules thereunder.
The Fund may invest in the exchange traded securities of pooled vehicles that are not investment companies and, thus, not required to comply with the provisions of the 1940 Act. Such pooled vehicles would be required to comply with the provisions of other federal securities laws, such as the Securities Act. These pooled vehicles typically hold commodities, such as gold or oil, currency, or other property that is itself not a security.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A fixed income securities and bank loans, that are deemed illiquid by the Adviser, consistent with Commission guidance.
The Adviser has represented that it will invest generally in loan assignments, including bank loans, that it deems highly liquid, with readily available prices.
The Fund will not invest in options contracts or swap agreements.
The Fund will seek to qualify for treatment as a regulated investment company under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
The Fund's investments will be consistent with its investment objective and will not be used to provide multiple returns of a benchmark or to produce leveraged returns.
The Trust will issue and sell Shares of the Fund only in “Creation Units” on a continuous basis through the Distributor, at their NAV next determined after receipt, on any business day, for an order received in proper form. All orders to create Creation Units must be placed for one or more Creation Unit size aggregations of Shares (50,000 Shares per Creation Unit). The Creation Unit size is subject to change.
The consideration for purchase of a Creation Unit of the Fund generally will consist of an in-kind deposit of “Deposit Securities” for each Creation Unit constituting a substantial replication, or a representation, of the securities included in the Fund's portfolio and a “Cash Component” computed as described below. Together, the Deposit Securities and the Cash Component constitute the “Fund Deposit”, which represents the minimum initial and subsequent investment amount for a Creation Unit of the Fund. The Cash Component is an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares (per Creation Unit) and the market value of the Deposit Securities. If the Cash Component is a positive number (
The Administrator, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), will make available on each business day, immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m., Eastern Time), the list of the names and the required number of Shares of each Deposit Security to be included in the current Fund Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day) for the Fund. Such Fund Deposit will be applicable, subject to any adjustments as described below, in order to effect creations of Creation Units of the Fund
The identity and number of Shares of the Deposit Securities required for the Fund Deposit for the Fund will change as rebalancing adjustments and corporate action events are reflected from time to time by the Sub-Adviser with a view to the investment objective of the Fund. In addition, the Trust reserves the right to permit or require the substitution of an amount of cash—
In addition to the list of names and numbers of securities constituting the current Deposit Securities of the Fund Deposit, the Administrator, through NSCC, also will make available on each business day the estimated Cash Component, effective through and including the previous business day, per outstanding Creation Unit of the Fund.
To be eligible to place orders to create a Creation Unit of the Fund, an entity must be (i) a “Participating Party”,
All orders to create Creation Units must be received by the Distributor no later than the close of the regular trading session on the Exchange (ordinarily 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time) (“Closing Time”), in each case on the date such order is placed in order for the creation of Creation Units to be effected based on the NAV of Shares of the Fund as next determined on such date after receipt of the order in proper form.
Shares may be redeemed only in Creation Units at their NAV next determined after receipt of a redemption request in proper form by the Distributor and the Fund through the Administrator and only on a business day.
With respect to the Fund, the Administrator, through NSCC, will make available immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m., Eastern Time) on each business day, the Deposit Securities that will be applicable (subject to possible amendment or correction) to redemption requests received in proper form on that day. Deposit Securities received on redemption may not be identical to Deposit Securities which are applicable to creations of Creation Units.
Unless cash redemptions are available or specified for the Fund, the redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit generally consist of Deposit Securities, as announced by the Administrator on the business day of the request for redemption received in proper form, plus cash in an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares being redeemed, as next determined after a receipt of a request in proper form, and the value of the Deposit Securities (the “Cash Redemption Amount”), less a redemption transaction fee. In the event that the Deposit Securities have a value greater than the NAV of the Shares, a compensating cash payment equal to the differential is required to be made by or through an Authorized Participant by the redeeming shareholder.
If it is not possible to effect deliveries of the Deposit Securities, the Trust may in its discretion exercise its option to redeem such shares in cash, and the redeeming Beneficial Owner will be required to receive its redemption proceeds in cash. In addition, an investor may request a redemption in cash which the Fund may, in its sole discretion, permit.
The right of redemption may be suspended or the date of payment postponed with respect to the Fund (1) for any period during which the Exchange is closed (other than customary weekend and holiday closings); (2) for any period during which trading on the Exchange is suspended or restricted; (3) for any period during which an emergency exists as a result of which disposal of the Shares of the Fund or determination of the Shares' NAV is not reasonably practicable; or (4) in such other circumstance as is permitted by the Commission.
The NAV of the Shares for the Fund will be equal to the Fund's total assets minus the Fund's total liabilities divided by the total number of Shares outstanding. Interest and investment income on the Trust's assets will accrue daily and will be included in the Fund's total assets. Expenses and fees (including investment advisory, management, administration and distribution fees, if any) will accrue daily and will be included in the Fund's total liabilities.
The pricing and valuation of portfolio securities will be determined in good faith in accordance with procedures approved by, and under the direction of, the Board. In determining the value of the Fund's assets, portfolio securities will generally be valued at market using quotations from the primary market in which they are traded. The Fund normally will use third party pricing services to obtain market quotations.
Securities and assets for which market quotations are not readily available or which cannot be accurately valued using the Fund's normal pricing procedures will be valued by the Trust's Fair Value Pricing Committee at fair value as determined in good faith under policies approved by the Trust's Board. Fair value pricing may be used, for example, in situations where (i) portfolio securities, such as securities with small capitalizations, are so thinly traded that there have been no transactions for that security over an extended period of time; (ii) an event occurs after the close of the exchange on which a portfolio security is principally traded that is likely to change the value of the portfolio security prior to the Fund's NAV calculation; (iii) the exchange on which the portfolio security is principally traded closes early; or (iv) trading of the particular portfolio security is halted during the day and does not resume prior to the
The NAV will be determined as of the close of regular trading on the Exchange, normally 4:00 p.m. Eastern time, on each day that the Exchange is open for business.
In computing the Fund's NAV, the Fund's securities holdings will be valued based on their last readily available market price.
Exchange-traded equity securities will be valued at market value, which will generally be determined using the last reported official closing or last trading price on the exchange or market on which the security is primarily traded at the time of valuation or, if no sale has occurred, at the last quoted bid price on the primary market or exchange on which they are traded. If market prices are unavailable or the Fund believes that they are unreliable, or when the value of a security has been materially affected by events occurring after the relevant market closes, the Fund will price those securities at fair value as determined in good faith using methods approved by the Trust's Board.
Unsponsored ADRs, which are traded OTC, will be valued on the basis of the market closing price on the exchange where the stock of the foreign issuer that underlies the ADR is listed. Investment company securities (other than ETFs), including mutual funds and closed end funds will be valued at net asset value.
Currency spot rates will be taken from major market data vendors and will generally be determined as of the close of trading of the New York Stock Exchange. Futures contracts will generally be valued at the settlement price of the relevant exchange. In computing the Fund's net asset value per Share, Rule 144A fixed income securities will be valued based on price quotations and other equivalent indications of value provided by a third party pricing service.
Corporate debt securities, bank loans, non-agency CMBS, agency and non-agency RMBS, non-U.S. dollar securities, emerging market high-yield securities, investment-grade bonds, ABS, municipal bonds, CMOs, REMICs, junk bonds, equipment trust certificates, and money market instruments generally trade in the OTC market rather than on a securities exchange. The Fund will generally value these portfolio securities by relying on independent pricing services. The Fund's pricing services will use valuation models or matrix pricing to determine current value. In general, pricing services use information with respect to comparable bond and note transactions, quotations from bond dealers or by reference to other securities that are considered comparable in such characteristics as rating, interest rate, maturity date, option adjusted spread models, prepayment projections, interest rate spreads and yield curves.
Foreign exchange rates will be priced using 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time mean prices from major market data vendors.
The Fund's Web site (
The Fund will disclose on the Fund's Web site the following information regarding each portfolio holding, as applicable to the type of holding: Ticker symbol, CUSIP number or other identifier, if any; a description of the holding (including the type of holding); the identity of the security, commodity, index or other asset or instrument underlying the holding, if any; quantity held (as measured by, for example, par value, notional value or number of shares, contracts or units); maturity date, if any; coupon rate, if any; effective date, if any; market value of the holding; and the percentage weighting of the holding in the Fund's portfolio. The Web site information will be publicly available at no charge.
In addition, a basket composition file, which includes the security names and share quantities, if applicable, required to be delivered in exchange for the Fund's Shares, together with estimates and actual cash components, will be publicly disseminated daily prior to the opening of the Exchange via the NSCC. The basket represents one Creation Unit of the Fund. The NAV of Shares of the Fund will normally be determined as of the close of the regular trading session on the Exchange (ordinarily 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time) on each business day. Authorized participants may refer to the basket composition file for information regarding securities and financial instruments that may comprise the Fund's basket on a given day.
The approximate value of the Fund's investments on a per-Share basis, the Indicative Intra-Day Value (“IIV”), will be disseminated every 15 seconds during the Exchange Core Trading Session. The IIV should not be viewed as a “real-time” update of NAV because the IIV will be calculated by an independent third party and may not be calculated in the exact same manner as NAV, which will be computed daily.
The IIV for the Fund will be calculated during hours of trading on the Exchange by dividing the “Estimated Fund Value” as of the time of the calculation by the total number of outstanding Shares. “Estimated Fund Value” is the sum of the estimated amount of cash held in the Fund's portfolio, the estimated amount of accrued interest owing to the Fund and the estimated value of the securities held in the Fund's portfolio, minus the estimated amount of the Fund's liabilities. The IIV will be calculated based on the same portfolio holdings disclosed on the Fund's Web site. In determining the estimated value for
Investors can also obtain the Trust's Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”), the Fund's shareholder reports, and its Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Trust's SAI and Shareholder Reports will be available free upon request from the Trust, and those documents and the Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's Web site at
Quotation and last sale information for the Shares and the underlying U.S. exchange-traded equity securities will be available via the Consolidated Tape Association (“CTA”) high-speed line, and from the national securities exchange on which they are listed. Price information regarding exchange-traded equity securities and futures contracts held by the Fund will be available from the exchanges trading such assets.
Quotation information from brokers and dealers or pricing services will be available for unsponsored ADRs; fixed income securities; bank loans; U.S. Treasury securities; other obligations issued or guaranteed by U.S. government agencies and instrumentalities; bank obligations; short-term securities; money market instruments; ABS; MBS; CMBS; RMBS; CMOs; shares of mutual funds; corporate debt securities; and convertible securities. Price information for investment company securities (other than ETFs and exchange-traded closed end funds) will be available from the investment company's Web site and from market data vendors. Pricing information regarding each asset class in which the Fund will invest will generally be available through nationally recognized data service providers through subscription agreements. Foreign exchange prices are available from major market data vendors. Intra-day and closing price information for Rule 144A fixed income securities and loan assignments will be available from major market data vendors.
In addition, the IIV, (which is the Portfolio Indicative Value, as defined in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600(c)(3)), will be widely disseminated at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session by one or more major market data vendors.
Additional information regarding the Trust and the Shares, including investment strategies, risks, creation and redemption procedures, fees, portfolio holdings disclosure policies, distributions and taxes is included in the Registration Statement.
With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund.
The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Shares will trade on the NYSE Arca Marketplace from 4 a.m. to 8 p.m. Eastern Time in accordance with NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.34 (Opening, Core, and Late Trading Sessions). The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.6, Commentary .03, the minimum price variation (“MPV”) for quoting and entry of orders in equity securities traded on the NYSE Arca Marketplace is $0.01, with the exception of securities that are priced less than $1.00 for which the MPV for order entry is $0.0001.
The Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600. Consistent with NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600(d)(2)(B)(ii), the Adviser will implement and maintain, or be subject to, procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding the actual components of the Fund's portfolio. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3
Additional information regarding the Trust, Fund, and Shares, including investment strategies, risks, creation and redemption procedures, fees, portfolio holdings, disclosure policies, distributions and taxes, availability of information, trading rules and halts, and surveillance procedures, among other things, can be found in the Registration Statement.
The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange represents that these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and federal
The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity. When such situations are detected, surveillance analysis follows and investigations are opened, where appropriate, to review the behavior of all relevant parties for all relevant trading violations.
FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, exchange-traded equity securities and futures contracts with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, may obtain trading information regarding trading in the Shares, exchange-traded equity securities and futures contracts from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares, exchange-traded equity securities and futures contracts from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to FINRA's Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (“TRACE”).
In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin (“Bulletin”) of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Bulletin will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Unit aggregations (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) NYSE Arca Equities Rule 9.2(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its Equity Trading Permit Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (3) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Opening and Late Trading Sessions when an updated IIV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (4) how information regarding the IIV and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (5) the requirement that Equity Trading Permit Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (6) trading information.
In addition, the Bulletin will reference that the Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Bulletin will discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act. The Bulletin will also disclose that the NAV for the Shares will be calculated after 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time each trading day.
The basis under the Act for this proposed rule change is the requirement under section 6(b)(5)
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600. The Exchange has in place surveillance procedures that are adequate to properly monitor trading in the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, exchange-traded equity securities and futures contracts with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, may obtain trading information regarding trading in the Shares, exchange-traded equity securities and futures contracts from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares, exchange-traded equity securities and futures contracts from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to TRACE. The Fund may invest up to 20% of its net assets in the aggregate in non-agency CMBS, RMBS and ABS. The Fund may invest up to 20% of its assets in junior bank loans. The Fund may not purchase or hold illiquid assets if, in the aggregate, more than 15% of its net assets would be invested in illiquid assets. The Adviser and Sub-Adviser are not registered as broker-dealers but are affiliated with two broker-dealers and have implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to each such broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio.
The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest in that the Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information is publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. Quotation and last sale information for the Shares and the underlying U.S. exchange-traded equity securities will be available via the CTA high-speed line, and from the national securities exchange on which they are listed. The Fund will disclose on the Fund's Web site the following information regarding each portfolio holding, as applicable to the type of holding: ticker symbol, CUSIP number or other identifier, if any; a description of the holding (including the type of holding); the identity of the security, commodity, index or other asset or instrument underlying the holding, if any; quantity held (as measured by, for example, par value, notional value or number of shares, contracts or units); maturity date, if any; coupon rate, if any; effective date, if any; market value of the holding; and the percentage weighting of the holding in the Fund's portfolio. Moreover, prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.12 have been reached or because of market
The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures relating to trading in the Shares and may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the IIV, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) by order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On April 15, 2015, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
NYSE Arca proposes to list and trade Shares of the Fund under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares on the Exchange. The Shares will be offered by ALPS ETF Trust (“Trust”), which is registered with the Commission as an investment company.
The Exchange has made the following representations and statements in describing the Fund and its investment strategy, including the Fund's portfolio holdings and investment restrictions.
According to the Exchange, the investment objective of the Fund is to seek total return, with an emphasis on income as the source of that total return. The Fund will seek to achieve its investment objective by selling listed one-month put options on the SPDR® S&P 500® ETF Trust (“SPY”). SPY is an exchange-traded fund that seeks to provide investment results that, before expenses, correspond generally to the price and yield performance of the S&P 500® Index (“SPX” or “Index”). SPY holds a portfolio of the common stocks that are included in the SPX, with the weight of each stock in its portfolio substantially corresponding to the weight of that stock in the SPX. The Fund may also sell listed one-month put options directly on the SPX under certain circumstances (such as if those options have more liquidity and narrower spreads than options on SPY). SPY shares are listed on the Exchange and traded on national securities exchanges. SPX options are traded on the Chicago Board Options Exchange, and options on SPY are traded on national securities exchanges.
Each listed put option sold by the Fund will be an “American-style” option (
The option premiums and cash (in respect of orders to create Shares in large aggregations known as “Creation Units,” as further described below) received by the Fund will be invested in an actively-managed portfolio of investment grade debt securities (“Collateral Portfolio”) at least equal in value to the Fund's maximum liability under its written options (
Under normal market conditions,
The Fund may invest up to 20% of its net assets in non-agency MBS and ABS in the aggregate. The Fund may seek to obtain exposure to U.S. agency mortgage pass-through securities primarily through the use of “to-be-announced” or “TBA transactions.” According to the Exchange, “TBA” refers to a commonly used mechanism for the forward settlement of U.S. agency mortgage pass-through securities and not to a separate type of mortgage-backed security. Most transactions in mortgage pass-through securities occur through the use of TBA transactions. TBA transactions are generally conducted in accordance with widely-accepted guidelines that establish commonly observed terms and conditions for execution, settlement and delivery. In a TBA transaction, the buyer and seller decide on general trade parameters, such as agency, settlement date, par amount, and price. The actual pools delivered are generally determined two days prior to settlement date. The Fund will enter into TBA transactions only with established counterparties (such as major broker-dealers) and the Sub-Adviser will
According to the Exchange, every month, the options sold by the Fund will be settled by delivery at expiration or will expire with no value, and new option positions will be established while the Fund sells any units of SPY it owns as a result of such settlements or of the Fund's prior option positions having been exercised.
With respect to no more than 20% of the Fund's assets, the Fund may engage in certain opportunistic “put spread” and “call spread” strategies. Specifically, when the Sub-Adviser believes the SPX (and thus SPY) will rise or not decline in value, the Fund may engage in “put spreads” whereby the Fund will buy back certain of the written put options that are out of the money (
While, under normal market conditions, substantially all of the Fund's net assets will be invested in options on SPY or SPX and in the Collateral Portfolio, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in other securities and financial instruments, as described below. The Fund may invest its remaining assets in any one or more of the following instruments: money market instruments (as described below), in addition to those in which the Fund invests as part of the Collateral Portfolio, and including repurchase agreements or other funds that invest exclusively in money market instruments; convertible securities; structured notes (notes on which the amount of principal repayment and interest payments are based on the movement of one or more specified factors, such as the movement of a particular stock or stock index); forward foreign currency exchange contracts; swaps; over-the-counter (“OTC”) options on SPY or on the S&P 500 Index; and futures contracts and options on futures contracts, as described further below. Swaps, options, and futures contracts may be used by the Fund in seeking to achieve its investment objective and in managing cash flows. The Fund may also invest in money market instruments or other short-term fixed income instruments as part of a temporary defensive strategy to protect against temporary market declines.
The Fund may invest in high-quality money market instruments on an ongoing basis to provide liquidity. The instruments in which the Fund may invest include: (i) Short-term obligations issued by the U.S. Government;
The Fund may enter into reverse repurchase agreements, which involve the sale of securities with an agreement to repurchase the securities at an agreed-upon price, date, and interest payment and have the characteristics of borrowing. The securities purchased with the funds obtained from the agreement and securities collateralizing the agreement will have maturity dates no later than the repayment date.
The Fund may invest in the securities of other investment companies (including money market funds), subject to applicable restrictions under the 1940 Act.
To the extent the Fund utilizes futures and options on futures, the Fund will utilize U.S. exchange-traded futures contracts on the S&P 500 Index and U.S. exchange-traded options on futures contracts on the S&P 500 Index. The Fund may utilize such options on futures contracts as a hedge against changes in value of its portfolio securities, or in anticipation of the purchase of securities, and may enter into closing transactions with respect to such options to terminate existing positions.
To the extent the Fund enters into swap agreements, the Fund will enter into swap agreements based on the S&P 500 Index.
The Fund may invest in investment grade debt obligations traded in the U.S. Such debt obligations include, among others, bonds, notes, debentures, and variable rate demand notes. In choosing corporate debt securities on behalf of the Fund, the Sub-Adviser may consider (i) general economic and financial conditions; and (ii) the specific issuer's (a) business and management, (b) cash flow, (c) earnings coverage of interest and dividends, (d) ability to operate
The Fund, in the absence of normal market conditions, may invest up to 100% of its total assets in debt securities that are rated investment grade by an NRSRO or are unrated securities that the Sub-Adviser believes are of comparable quality.
The Fund may invest in securities that have variable or floating interest rates which are readjusted on set dates (such as the last day of the month or calendar quarter) in the case of variable rates or whenever a specified interest rate change occurs in the case of a floating rate instrument.
The Fund may use delayed delivery transactions as an investment technique. Delayed delivery transactions, also referred to as forward commitments, involve commitments by the Fund to dealers or issuers to acquire or sell securities at a specified future date beyond the customary settlement for such securities. These commitments may fix the payment price and interest rate to be received or paid on the investment. The Fund may purchase securities on a delayed delivery basis to the extent that it can anticipate having available cash on the settlement date. Delayed delivery agreements will not be used as a speculative or leverage technique. The Fund also may purchase when-issued securities.
In addition, the Fund may invest in zero-coupon or pay-in-kind securities. These securities are debt securities that do not make regular cash interest payments. Zero-coupon securities are sold at a deep discount to their face value. Pay-in-kind securities pay interest through the issuance of additional securities.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser or Sub-Adviser.
The Fund intends to qualify for and to elect to be treated as a separate regulated investment company under subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code. The Exchange further represents that the Fund's investments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the Exchange's proposal to list and trade the Shares is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
Quotation and last-sale information for the Shares will be available via the Consolidated Tape Association high-speed line and from the Exchange. The approximate value of the Fund's investments on a per-Share basis, the Indicative Intra-Day Value (“IIV”), which is the Portfolio Indicative Value as defined in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600(c)(3), will be disseminated by one or more major market data vendors every 15 seconds during the Exchange's Core Trading Session.
The NAV per Share will be calculated by the Custodian and determined as of the close of the regular trading session on the New York Stock Exchange (ordinarily 4:00 p.m., Eastern time) (“NYSE Close”) on each day that such exchange is open. Information regarding market price and trading volume of the
The Commission further believes that the proposal to list and trade the Shares is reasonably designed to promote fair disclosure of information that may be necessary to price the Shares appropriately and to prevent trading when a reasonable degree of transparency cannot be assured. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit-breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.12 have been reached. Trading also may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable.
The Exchange represents that it deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. In support of this proposal, the Exchange has also made the following representations:
(1) The Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600.
(2) The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions.
(3) Trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by FINRA on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws, and these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and federal securities laws applicable to trading on the Exchange.
(4) FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, other exchange-traded equity securities, exchange-traded investment company securities, futures contracts, and exchange-traded options contracts with other market and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”), and FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, may obtain trading information in the Shares, other exchange-traded equity securities, exchange-traded investment company securities, futures contracts, and exchange-traded options contracts from those markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares, other exchange-traded equity securities, exchange-traded investment company securities, futures contracts, and exchange-traded options contracts from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
(5) Prior to the commencement of trading of Shares in the Fund, the Exchange will inform its ETP Holders in a Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Bulletin will discuss the following: (i) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Unit aggregations (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (ii) NYSE Arca Equities Rule 9.2(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its ETP Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to
(6) For initial and continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act,
(7) The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A restricted securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser or Sub-Adviser, consistent with Commission guidance.
(8) The Fund's investments will be consistent with its investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage.
(9) To the extent the Fund utilizes futures and options on futures, the Fund will utilize U.S. exchange-traded futures contracts on the S&P 500 Index and U.S. exchange-traded options on futures contracts on the S&P 500 Index. To the extent the Fund enters into swap agreements, the Fund will enter into swap agreements based on the S&P 500 Index.
(10) Not more than 20% of the net assets of the Fund will be invested in MBS and ABS in the aggregate.
(11) A minimum of 100,000 Shares for the Fund will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange.
This approval order is based on all of the Exchange's representations, including those set forth above and in the Notice, and Amendment Nos. 1 and 3 to the proposed rule change. The Commission notes that the Fund and the Shares must comply with the requirements of NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 to be initially and continuously listed and traded on the Exchange.
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 3 thereto, is consistent with section 6(b)(5) of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On April 16, 2015, New York Stock Exchange (“NYSE”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission is extending the 45-day time period for Commission action on the proposed rule change. The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the Exchange's proposal, as described above.
Accordingly, pursuant to section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On March 6, 2015, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (the “Exchange” or “CBOE”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
A CBOE Trading Permit Holder (“Initiating TPH”) may electronically execute an order it represents as agent (“Agency Order”) against principal interest or against a solicited order, by submitting the Agency Order for electronic execution into the AIM pursuant to CBOE Rule 6.74A. Also, an Initiating TPH may electronically execute certain Agency Orders against solicited orders, by submitting the Agency Order for electronic execution into the SAM pursuant to CBOE Rule 6.74B. CBOE rules currently require that any solicited orders submitted by an Initiating TPH into the AIM
According to the Exchange, the current rules act to limit an Initiating TPH from access to liquidity that the Exchange believes should otherwise be available.
The Exchange further notes that a Market-Maker that is solicited to trade against an Agency Order in a class in which the Market-Maker is appointed would be required to abide by Exchange Rules 4.1 (Just and Equitable Principles of Trade), 4.18 (Prevention of the Misuse of Material, Nonpublic Information), and 6.9 (Solicited Transactions) (as well as all other Exchange rules). The Exchange states that a Market-Maker would still be prohibited from, for example, learning (via solicitation) that a large order is being sent to the Exchange and therefore widening its quotes. Moreover, the Exchange argues that because upon entry an Auction order is “stopped” for its full quantity at the contra order's price, the price of the trade would not be impacted if a Market-Maker were to widen its quotes. The Exchange also believes that because many classes on the Exchange have a number of Market-Makers appointed, the widening of quotes by one Market-Maker would likely have limited impact on the NBBO.
The proposed rule change also would provide that “a Market-Maker submitting a solicited order to execute against a particular Agency Order may not modify its pre-programmed response to Request for Responses based on information regarding the particular Agency Order or solicited order.”
The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
As discussed above, the Exchange proposes to amend CBOE Rules 6.74A and 6.74B, in order to permit a Market-Maker assigned to an option class to be solicited as the contra party to an Agency Order in that class on the Exchange's Auctions. The Commission believes that the proposal raises important issues that warrant further public comment and Commission consideration. Specifically, the Commission believes that proceedings are appropriate to consider, among other matters, the impact of the proposal on competition in the Auctions, incentives for Market-Makers to continue to quote aggressively, and CBOE's ability to deter potential abuses involving the non-public information obtained through the solicitation process.
The prohibition on the solicitation of Market-Makers assigned to an option class as the contra party to an Agency Order in the Auctions has been in place on CBOE since the AIM was adopted in 2006
Additionally, because solicited Market-Makers may receive material non-public information regarding an Agency Order as part of the solicitation process, the proposed rule change raises concerns that Market-Makers may alter their quoting behavior by, for example, widening their quotes when learning (
Pursuant to section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act,
The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data and arguments with respect to the concerns identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposed rule change. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is inconsistent with sections 6(b)(5)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposal should be approved or disapproved by July 15, 2015. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by July 29, 2015. In light of the concerns raised by the proposed rule change, as discussed above, the Commission invites additional comment on the proposed rule change as the Commission continues its analysis of the proposed rule change's consistency with sections 6(b)(5) and 6(b)(8),
1. What are commenters' views on how CBOE's proposal could impact the quality of the Auctions, internalization rates, liquidity, and competition, within or outside of the Auctions?
2. What are commenters' views on the potential impact of CBOE's proposal on the quoting behavior of Market-Makers?
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-CBOE-2015-026. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “SEA”)
FINRA is filing revisions to the content outline and selection specifications for the Registered Options Principal (Series 4) examination program.
The revised content outline is attached.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any
Section 15A(g)(3) of the Act
NASD Rule 1022(f) requires members that engage in, or that intend to engage in transactions in options with the public to have at least one Registered Options Principal. Further, every person engaged in the supervision of options sales practices with the public, including a person designated pursuant to FINRA Rule 3110(a)(2) must be registered as a Registered Options Principal.
A Registered Options Principal must, prior to or concurrent with such registration, be or become qualified pursuant to the NASD Rule 1030 Series, as either a General Securities Representative (Series 7)
In consultation with a committee of industry representatives, FINRA recently undertook a review of the Series 4 examination program. As a result of this review, FINRA is proposing to make revisions to the content outline to reflect changes to the laws, rules and regulations covered by the examination and to incorporate the functions and associated tasks currently performed by a Registered Options Principal. FINRA also is proposing to make changes to the format of the content outline.
The current content outline is divided into three sections. The following are the three sections and the number of questions associated with each of the sections, denoted Section 1 through Section 3:
1. Options Investment Strategies, 34 questions;
2. Supervision of Sales Activities and Trading Practices, 75 questions; and
3. Supervision of Employees, Business Conduct, and Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements, 16 questions.
Each section also includes the applicable laws, rules and regulations associated with that section. The current content outline also includes a preface (addressing, among other things, the purpose, administration and scoring of the examination), sample questions and reference materials.
FINRA is proposing to divide the content outline into six major job functions that are performed by a Registered Options Principal. The following are the six major job functions, denoted Function 1 through Function 6, with the associated number of questions:
Function 1: Supervise the Opening of New Options Accounts, 21 questions;
Function 2: Supervise Options Account Activities, 25 questions;
Function 3: Supervise General Options Trading, 30 questions;
Function 4: Supervise Options Communications, 9 questions;
Function 5: Implement Practices and Adhere to Regulatory Requirements, 12 questions; and
Function 6: Supervise Associated Persons and Personnel Management Activities, 28 questions.
FINRA is proposing to adjust the number of questions assigned to each major job function to ensure that the overall examination better reflects the key tasks performed by a Registered Options Principal. The questions on the revised Series 4 examination will place greater emphasis on key tasks such as supervision of registered persons, sales practices and compliance.
Each function also includes specific tasks describing activities associated with performing that function. There are four tasks (1.1-1.4) associated with Function 1; four tasks (2.1-2.4) associated with Function 2; four tasks (3.1-3.4) associated with Function 3; four tasks (4.1-4.4) associated with Function 4; two tasks (5.1-5.2) associated with Function 5; and four tasks (6.1-6.4) associated with Function 6.
As noted above, FINRA also is proposing to revise the content outline to reflect changes to the laws, rules and regulations covered by the examination. Among other revisions, FINRA is proposing to revise the content outline to reflect the adoption of rules in the consolidated FINRA rulebook (
FINRA is proposing similar changes to the Series 4 selection specifications and question bank.
Finally, FINRA is proposing to make changes to the format of the content outline, including the preface, sample questions and reference materials. Among other changes, FINRA is proposing to: (1) Add a table of contents;
The number of questions on the Series 4 examination will remain at 125 multiple-choice questions,
The current Series 4 content outline is available on FINRA's Web site, at
FINRA is filing the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. FINRA proposes to implement the revised Series 4 examination program on September 28, 2015. FINRA will announce the proposed rule change and the implementation date in a
FINRA believes that the proposed revisions to the Series 4 examination program are consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act,
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The updated examination aligns with the functions and associated tasks currently performed by a Registered Options Principal and tests knowledge of the most current laws, rules, regulations and skills relevant to those functions and associated tasks. As such, the proposed revisions would make the examination more efficient and effective.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend its fees and rebates applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to adopt fees applicable to Members of BATS Options for the use of a communication and routing service known as BATS Connect.
On May 26 [sic], 2015, the Exchange filed a proposed rule change with the Commission to adopt a communication and routing service known as BATS Connect.
BATS Connect is offered by the Exchange on a voluntary basis in a capacity similar to a vendor. In sum, BATS Connect is a communication service that provides subscribers an additional means to receive market data from and route orders to any destination connected to the Exchange's network. BATS Connect does not provide any advantage to subscribers for connecting to the Exchange's affiliates
The Exchange will charge a monthly connectivity fee to subscribers utilizing BATS Connect to route orders to other exchanges and broker-dealers that are connected to the Exchange's network. The amount of the connectivity fee varies based solely on the bandwidth selected by the subscriber. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to charge $350 for 1 Mb, $700 for 5 Mb, $950 for 10 Mb, $1,500 for 25 Mb, $2,500 for 50 Mb, and $3,500 for 100 Mb.
BATS Connect would also allow subscribers to receive market data feeds from the exchanges connected to the Exchange's network. In such case, the subscriber would pay the Exchange a connectivity fee, which varies and is based solely on the amount of bandwidth required to transmit the selected data product to the subscriber. The proposed connectivity fees are set forth in the Exhibit 5 attached hereto and range from no charge to $11,500 based on the market data product the subscriber selects.
The Exchange also proposes to adopt a discounted fee of $4,160 per month for subscribers who purchase connectivity to a bundle of select market data products. The following market data
The Exchange notes that it will not charge a fee to subscribers utilizing BATS Connect to route orders to or receive market data products from the Exchange's affiliates, EDGX, EDGA, and BYX. BATS Connect provides subscribers a means to access exchanges and market centers on the Exchange's network. In all cases, BATS Connect subscribers would continue to be liable for the necessary fees charged by that exchange or market center, including any required connectivity fees. Market participants who chose a method other than BATS Connect to connect to another exchange or market center would also pay any required connectivity fees directly to that exchange or market center. Likewise, BATS Connect subscribers would be liable for any connectivity fees charged by the Exchange's affiliate.
The Exchange proposes to implement these amendments to its Fee Schedule immediately.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange also believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act,
Second, with regard to utilizing BATS Connect to receive market data products from other exchanges, the Exchange would only charge subscribers a connectivity fee, the amount of which is based solely on the amount of bandwidth required to transmit that specific data product to the subscribers. The amounts of the connectivity fees are also reasonable as compared to similar fees charged by other exchanges. For example, for market data connectivity, the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”) charges $1,412 per month for CQS/CTS data feed, and the Exchange proposes to charge $1,000 per month connectivity for CQS/CTS data feed.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable to offer such discounted pricing to subscribers who purchase connectivity to a bundle of market data products as it would enable them to reduce their overall connectivity costs for the receipt of market data. As stated above, BATS Connect is offered and purchased on a voluntary basis and subscribers can discontinue use at any time and for any reason, including due to an assessment of the reasonableness of fees charged. Moreover, the Exchange believes the proposed fees are reasonable and equitable because they continue to be based on the Exchange's costs to cover the amount of bandwidth required to provide connectivity to the select bundle of data feeds. The proposed fees will continue to allow the Exchange to recoup this cost, while providing subscribers with an alternative means to connect to the select bundle of data feeds at a discounted rate.
The subscribers would pay any fees: (i) charged by the exchange providing the market data feed directly to that exchange (ii) charged by a market center to which they routed an order and an execution occurred directly to that market center. The Exchange itself would not charge any additional fees.
Moreover, the Exchange believes the proposed fees are reasonable and equitable because they are based on the Exchange's costs to cover hardware, installation, testing and connection, as well as expenses involved in maintaining and managing the service. The proposed fees allow the Exchange to recoup these costs, while providing subscribers with an alternative means to connect to other exchange and market centers. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees are reasonable and equitable in that they reflect the costs and the benefit of providing alternative connectivity.
The Exchange also believes it is equitable and reasonable to provide BATS Connect to subscribers for no charge to route orders to or receive market data products from the Exchange's affiliates. BATS Connect provides subscribers a means to access exchanges and market centers on the Exchange's network. In all cases, BATS Connect subscribers would continue to be liable for the necessary fees charged by the Exchange, its affiliate, or another exchange or market center, including any required connectivity fees. As stated above, BATS Connect is offered and purchased on a voluntary basis, and subscribers and market participants may
Lastly, the Exchange also believes that the proposed amendments to its fee schedule are non-discriminatory because they will apply uniformly to all subscribers. All subscribers that voluntarily select various service options will be charged the same amount for the same services. All subscribers have the option to select any connectivity option, and there is no differentiation among subscribers with regard to the fees charged for the service. Further, the benefits of selecting such services are the same for all subscribers, irrespective of whether their servers are located in the same facility as the Exchange.
The Exchange believes its proposed amendments to its Fee Schedule would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe the proposed fees for BATS Connect will result in any burden on competition. The proposed rule change is designed to provide subscribers with an alternative means to access other market centers on the Exchange's network if they choose or in the event of a market disruption where other alternative connection methods become unavailable. BATS Connect is not the exclusive method to connect to these market centers and subscribers may utilize alternative methods to connect to the product if they believe the Exchange's proposed pricing is unreasonable or otherwise. Therefore, the Exchange does not believe the proposed rule change will have any effect on competition.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Social Security Administration (SSA) publishes a list of information collection packages requiring clearance by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in compliance with Public Law 104-13, the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, effective October 1, 1995. This notice includes revisions and an extension of OMB-approved information collections.
SSA is soliciting comments on the accuracy of the agency's burden estimate; the need for the information; its practical utility; ways to enhance its quality, utility, and clarity; and ways to minimize burden on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Mail, email, or fax your comments and recommendations on the information collection(s) to the OMB Desk Officer and SSA Reports Clearance Officer at the following addresses or fax numbers.
(OMB), Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Officer for SSA, Fax: 202-395-6974, Email address:
(SSA), Social Security Administration, OLCA, Attn: Reports Clearance Director, 3100 West High Rise, 6401 Security Blvd., Baltimore, MD 21235, Fax: 410-966-2830, Email address:
Or you may submit your comments online through
The information collections below are pending at SSA. SSA will submit them to OMB within 60 days from the date of this notice. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than August 24, 2015. Individuals can obtain copies of the collection instruments by writing to the above email address.
1. Substitution of Party Upon Death of Claimant—20 CFR 404.957(c)(4) and 416.1457(c)(4)—0960-0288. An administrative law judge (ALJ) may dismiss a request for a hearing on a pending claim of a deceased individual for Social Security benefits or Supplement Security Income (SSI) payments. Individuals who believe the dismissal may adversely affect them may complete Form HA-539, which allows them to request to become a substitute party for the deceased claimant. The ALJs and the hearing office support staff use this information from the HA-539 to: (1) Maintain a written record of request; (2) establish the relationship of the requester to the deceased claimant; (3) determine the substituted individual's wishes regarding an oral hearing or decision on the record; and (4) admit the data into the claimant's official record as an exhibit. The respondents are individuals requesting to be a substitute party for a deceased claimant.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
2. Continuation of Supplemental Security Income Payments for the Temporarily Institutionalized—Certification of Period and Need to Maintain Home—20 CFR 416.212(b)(1)—0960-0516. When SSI recipients (1) enter a public institution or (2) enter a private medical treatment facility with Medicaid paying more than 50 percent of expenses, SSA must reduce recipients' SSI payments to a nominal sum. However, if this institutionalization is temporary (defined as a maximum of three months), SSA may waive the reduction. Before SSA can waive the SSI payment reduction, the agency must receive the following documentation: (1) A physician's certification stating the SSI recipient will only be institutionalized for a maximum of three months, and (2) certification from the recipient, the recipient's family, or friends, confirming the recipient needs SSI payments to maintain the living arrangements to which the individual will return post-institutionalization. To obtain this information, SSA employees contact the recipient (or a knowledgeable source) to obtain the required physician's certification and the statement of need. SSA does not require any specific format for these items, so long as we obtain the necessary attestations. The respondents are SSI recipients, their family or friends, as well as physicians or hospital staff members who treat the SSI recipient.
Type of Request: Extension of an OMB-approved information collection.
3. Claimant Statement about Loan of Food or Shelter; Statement about Food or Shelter Provided to Another—20 CFR 416.1130-416.1148—0960-0529. SSA bases an SSI claimant or recipient's eligibility on need, as measured by the amount of income an individual receives. Per our calculations, income includes other people providing in-kind support and maintenance in the form of food and shelter to SSI applicants or recipients. SSA uses Forms SSA-5062 and SSA-L5063 to obtain statements about food or shelter provided to SSI claimants or recipients. SSA uses this information to determine whether food or shelters are bona fide loans or income for SSI purposes. This determination may affect claimants' or recipients' eligibility for SSI as well as the amounts of their SSI payments. The respondents are claimants and recipients for SSI payments, and individuals who provide loans of food or shelter to them.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), Executive Order 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), Executive Order 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew the exemptions from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for 15 individuals. FMCSA has statutory authority to exempt individuals from the vision requirement if the exemptions granted will not compromise safety. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemption renewals will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers.
This decision is effective July 31, 2015. Comments must be received on or before July 24, 2015.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) numbers: Docket No. [Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0027], using any of the following methods:
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Charles A. Horan, III, Director, Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards, 202-366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may renew an exemption from the vision requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce, for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The procedures for requesting an exemption (including renewals) are set out in 49 CFR part 381.
This notice addresses 15 individuals who have requested renewal of their exemptions in accordance with FMCSA procedures. FMCSA has evaluated these 15 applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period. They are:
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) That each individual has a physical examination every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provides a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file and retains a copy of the certification on his/her person while driving for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. Each exemption will be valid for two years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), an exemption may be granted for no longer than two years from its approval date and may be renewed upon application for additional two year periods. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the 15 applicants has satisfied the entry conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (78 FR 24798; 78 FR 46407). Each of these 15 applicants has requested renewal of the exemption and has submitted evidence showing that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement specified at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and that the vision impairment is stable. In addition, a review of each record of safety while driving with the respective vision deficiencies over the past two years indicates each applicant continues to meet the vision exemption requirements. These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to drive safely in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of two years is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2013-0027), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, got to
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; denial of application for exemption.
FMCSA announces its denial of the application of B.R. Kreider & Son, Inc., (Kreider) for an exemption from the requirement that drivers of commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) be released from work within 12 hours in order to take advantage of the short-haul exception to part of the hours of service (HOS) rules. Drivers qualifying for the short-haul exception are subject to the HOS limits but are not required to maintain a record of duty status (RODS) during the duty day. FMCSA concluded that Kreider has not demonstrated how its CMV operations under such an exemption would be likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level of safety that would be obtained in the absence of the exemption.
FMCSA denied the application for exemption by letter dated May 21, 2015, after notice and opportunity for public comment.
Mr. Robert F. Schultz, Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 202-366-4325, Email:
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
The HOS rules (49 CFR part 395) generally prohibit drivers from operating a CMV after the 14th hour measured from the time they come on duty following 10 consecutive hours off duty, though they must cease CMV driving at any time that they accumulate 11 hours of driving time in a duty day. The HOS rules also require operators of CMVs to maintain a RODS, or log, on board the CMV at all times (§ 395.8(a)). However, § 395.1(e)(1) provides an exception to this requirement for qualifying “short-haul” drivers. Drivers do not have to maintain a RODS on board the CMV if they (1) operate within a 100 air-mile radius of the normal work reporting location, (2) return to the work reporting location and are released from duty within 12 hours of the time they came on duty, (3) have at least 10 consecutive hours off duty separating each 12 hours on duty, (4) do not exceed 11 hours driving following 10 consecutive hours off duty, and (5) the motor carrier that employs them maintains and retains for a period of 6 months accurate and true time records showing the time the drivers reported for duty, the time they are released from duty, and the total number of hours the drivers are on duty. A driver who expects to qualify for the short-haul exception does not maintain a RODS on board the CMV. However, if later in the day the driver discovers that he or she is not going to qualify for the short-haul exception, the HOS rules require the driver immediately to prepare a RODS reflecting his or her activities during the entire day.
Kreider is an interstate motor carrier engaged in the short-haul transportation of materials such as topsoil, fill, and stone. Kreider's CMV drivers do not go beyond a 100 air-mile radius of their normal work-reporting location during their duty day, but it is impossible for its drivers to complete their duty day within the 12-hour limit. Kreider believes that it is impractical to require CMV drivers to prepare a RODS at this point. Kreider states that too much non-productive driver time results from this requirement. It believes that the same level of safety would be achieved operating under the short-haul exception without regard to the 12-hour requirement as would be achieved in the absence of the exemption.
On November 5, 2014, FMCSA published notice of this application and asked for public comment (79 FR 65757). Twenty-one comments were received and are available for review in the docket. Kreider indicates that its drivers are spending 10 minutes making a RODS entry for a 5-minute stop. However, Agency guidance states that short periods of time (less than 15 minutes) may be identified on the RODS by drawing a line from the appropriate on-duty (not driving) or driving line to the “remarks” section and entering the amount of time and the geographic location of the change in duty status (Guidance Statement 1, § 395.8). This should take less than one minute. In addition, the FMCSA believes that while it is appropriate to relieve drivers of the task of maintaining a RODS if they limit their duty day to 12 hours, enforcement of the 11-hour and 14-hour rules would be severely hampered if roadside officials were deprived of the RODS of drivers whose duty days have exceeded 12 hours.
The Agency reviewed Kreider's application and the public comments. By letter dated May 21, 2015, FMCSA denied the application because the Agency concluded that Kreider's operations were not likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level of safety that would be achieved in the absence of the exemption [49 CFR 381.310(c)(5)]. A
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew the exemptions from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for 23 individuals. FMCSA has statutory authority to exempt individuals from the vision requirement if the exemptions granted will not compromise safety. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemption renewals will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers.
This decision is effective July 22, 2015. Comments must be received on or before July 24, 2015.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) numbers: Docket No. [Docket No. FMCSA-2001-9258; FMCSA-2005-20560; FMCSA-2006-24015; FMCSA-2007-27333; FMCSA-2009-0121; FMCSA-2010-0354; FMCSA-2011-0024; FMCSA-2011-0092; FMCSA-2011-0102; FMCSA-2013-0021], using any of the following methods:
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Charles A. Horan, III, Director, Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards, 202-366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may renew an exemption from the vision requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce, for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The procedures for requesting an exemption (including renewals) are set out in 49 CFR part 381.
This notice addresses 23 individuals who have requested renewal of their exemptions in accordance with FMCSA procedures. FMCSA has evaluated these 23 applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period. They are:
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) That each individual has a physical examination every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provides a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file and retains a copy of the certification on his/her person while driving for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. Each exemption will be valid for two years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), an exemption may be granted for no longer than two years from its approval date and may be renewed upon application for additional two year periods. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the 23 applicants has
These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to drive safely in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of two years is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2001-9258; FMCSA-2005-20560; FMCSA-2006-24015; FMCSA-2007-27333; FMCSA-2009-0121; FMCSA-2010-0354; FMCSA-2011-0024; FMCSA-2011-0092; FMCSA-2011-0102; FMCSA-2013-0021), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, got to
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of denial of applications for seizure exemptions.
FMCSA announces the denial of 8 individuals' applications for exemptions from the rule prohibiting persons with a clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition that is likely to cause a loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to operate a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) from operating CMVs in interstate commerce. The reason for each of the denials is listed after the individual's name.
Charles A. Horan, III, Director, Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety, (202) 366-4001, or via email at
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136(e), FMCSA may grant an exemption for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statutes allow the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. The 8 individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorder standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8), which applies to drivers who operate CMVs as defined in 49 CFR 390.5, in interstate commerce. Section 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is qualified physically to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In order to make an evidence-based decision, FMCSA conducted a comprehensive review of scientific literature and convened a panel of medical experts in the field of neurology to evaluate key questions regarding seizure and anti-seizure medication related to the safe operation of a CMV. Previously, the Agency gathered evidence for decision making concerning potential changes to the regulation by conducting a comprehensive review of scientific literature that was compiled into a report entitled, “
On October 15, 2007, the MEP issued the following recommended criteria for evaluating whether an individual with epilepsy or a seizure disorder should be allowed to operate a CMV.
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The MEP report indicates that individuals with moderate to high-risk conditions should not be certified. Drivers with a history of a single provoked seizure with low risk factors for recurrence should be recertified every year.
FMCSA presented the MEP's findings and the Evidence Report to the Medical Review Board (MRB) for consideration. The MRB reviewed and considered the 2007 “Seizure Disorders and Commercial Driver Safety” evidence report and the 2007 MEP recommendations. The MRB recommended maintaining the current advisory criteria, which provide that “drivers with a history of epilepsy/seizures off anti-seizure medication and seizure-free for 10 years may be qualified to drive a CMV in interstate commerce. Interstate drivers with a history of a single unprovoked seizure may be qualified to drive a CMV in interstate commerce if seizure-free and off anti-seizure medication for a 5 year period or more” [Advisory criteria to 49 CFR 391.43(f)].
The Agency acknowledges the MRB's position on the issue but believes current relevant medical evidence supports a less conservative approach. The medical advisory criteria for epilepsy and other seizure or loss of consciousness episodes was based on the 1988 “Conference of Neurological Disorders and Commercial Driving” (NITS Accession No. PB89-158950/AS). A copy of the report can be found in the docket referenced in this notice.
The MRB's recommendation treats all drivers who have experienced a seizure the same, regardless of individual medical conditions and circumstances. In addition, the recommendation to continue prohibiting drivers who are taking anti-seizure medication from operating a CMV in interstate commerce does not consider a driver's actual seizure history and time since the last seizure. The Agency has decided to use the 2007 MEP recommendations as the basis for evaluating applications for an exemption from the seizure regulation on an individual, case-by-case basis. The disposition of applications announced in this notice applies the 2007 MEP recommendations.
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Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; denial of applications for exemption.
FMCSA announces its decision to deny the applications for exemption from its regulations submitted by David Muresan, Payne & Dolan, Inc., Zenith Tech, Inc., and Northeast Asphalt, Inc. FMCSA has analyzed the applications for exemption and public comments received on each, and rendered its decisions based upon the merits of each application.
Mr. Thomas Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 202-366-4325. Email:
You may read the applications for exemption, background documents, public comments and the Agency's letters of final determination in the dockets of these applications by going to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136(e) to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) (49 CFR part 350
David Muresan is a long-haul CMV driver who believes the hours-of-service (HOS) rules (49 CFR part 395) of the FMCSRs require him to drive when he is sleepy. He believes that he could operate more safely if he could decide when he needs sleep. Mr. Muresan proposes that he be exempt from all the HOS rules and be subject to certain rules he has designed. The HOS rules generally require CMV drivers transporting property to obtain at least 10 consecutive hours off duty between workdays. Mr. Muresan proposes that he be permitted to operate at any time that he has accumulated 10 hours off duty by any number of breaks of any length he chooses. Mr. Muresan also proposes that 24 consecutive hours at his residence would permit him to return to “reset” his driving “clock;” current rules require a minimum of 34 consecutive hours for such a restart. Mr. Muresan claims that, under his proposed rules, he would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level of safety that would be obtained in the absence of the exemption. However, he does not provide data or explain how he reaches this conclusion. Mr. Muresan wants to determine when he is sufficiently rested to resume driving, but, as FMCSA has indicated in its HOS rulemakings, research indicates that individuals are not necessarily good judges of whether or not they are rested.
On December 17, 2013, FMCSA published notice of this application (78 FR 76392). None of the three comments received were supportive of the application. FMCSA concludes that Mr. Muresan has failed to explain how he would ensure that he can achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be obtained by complying with the HOS rules. A copy of the denial letter dated April 7, 2015, is included in the docket number referenced above.
These three construction companies applied jointly for an exemption from § 395.3(a)(3)(ii), barring operation of a CMV by a driver if 8 hours have passed since the end of the driver's last off duty or sleeper-berth period of at least 30 minutes. Their drivers operate CMVs in support of nighttime road repair and maintenance operations. The drivers deliver equipment and materials to work zones, spending an average of 2 hours per day behind the wheel operating a CMV. The companies state that their deliveries are often time sensitive; they cite asphalt as a material that must be delivered before its initial temperature drops appreciably. The companies allege that the mandatory 30-minute break unduly constrains their ability to deliver as circumstances dictate. They also state that the limited amount of time their CMV drivers spend behind the wheel, as well as their frequent breaks of less than 30 minutes, make them less susceptible to fatigue than CMV drivers who spend most of their workday behind the wheel.
On August 6, 2014, FMCSA published notice of this application (79 FR 45865). Comments in favor of the application and containing identical text were submitted by 438 individuals affiliated with the applicants; a comment in opposition to the application was also submitted. The FMCSA has reviewed the application and the public comments and determined that it would not be appropriate to grant the exemption. The Agency believes that minimal effort would be needed for these drivers to extend one of their frequent short breaks to 30 minutes. Absent a break of at least 30 minutes, FMCSA concludes that it would be unlikely that these drivers would achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety achieved without the exemption [49 CFR 381.305(a)]. A copy of the denial letter dated January 26, 2015, is included in the docket number referenced above.
Federal Transit Administration, DOT.
Notice of request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the intention of the Federal Transit Administration (FTA) to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the revision of
Fixed Guideway Capital Investment Grants—New Starts Section 5309
Comments must be submitted before August 24, 2015.
To ensure that your comments are not entered more than once into the docket, submit comments identified by the docket number by only one of the following methods:
1. Web site:
2. Fax: 202-493-2251.
3. Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Docket Operations, M-30, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
4. Hand Delivery: U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Docket Operations, M-30, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001 between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except federal holidays.
Ms. Elizabeth Day, Office of Planning and Environment, (202) 366-5159, or email:
Interested parties are invited to send comments regarding any aspect of this information collection, including: (1) the necessity and utility of the information collection for the proper performance of the functions of the FTA; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the collected information; and (4) ways to minimize the collection burden without reducing the quality of the collected information. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection.
(OMB Number: 2132-0561)
The Moving Ahead for Progress Act in the 21st Century (MAP-21) enacted on July 6, 2012, made significant changes to the CIG program, including creation of an entirely new category of eligible projects called Core Capacity. MAP-21 also reduced the number of steps in the CIG process projects must follow to receive funds, created a new congestion relief evaluation criterion FTA must use to evaluate and rate projects, and specified that “warrants” (ways projects can qualify for automatic ratings) should be developed and used to the extent practicable. The requirement for CIG project ratings has been in place since 1998. Thus, the requirements for project evaluation and data collection for these proposed projects are not new. In general, the information used by FTA for CIG project evaluation and rating should arise as a part of the normal project planning process.
FTA has been collecting project evaluation information from project sponsors under the existing OMB approval for this program (OMB No. 2132-0561). However, due to the addition of the Core Capacity eligibility, the changes to the steps in the CIG process made by MAP-21, and the proposed implementation of “warrants,” it became apparent that some information now required might be beyond the scope of ordinary planning activities.
Maritime Administration, Department of Transportation.
Notice.
As authorized by 46 U.S.C. 12121, the Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before July 24, 2015.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2015-0077. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140,
Linda Williams, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-0903, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel GABRA is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2015-0077 at
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement in the
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Receipt of Petition.
Tesla Motors, Inc. (Tesla) has determined that certain model year (MY) 2008 Roadster 1.5 passenger cars do not fully comply with paragraph S4.4(c)(2), of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 138,
The closing date for comments on the petition is July 24, 2015.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments on this petition. Comments must refer to the docket and notice number cited at the beginning of this notice and submitted by any of the following methods:
• Mail: Send comments by mail addressed to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Deliver: Deliver comments by hand to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. The Docket Section is open on weekdays from 10 a.m. to 5 p.m. except Federal Holidays.
• Electronically: Submit comments electronically by: logging onto the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Web site at
Comments must be written in the English language, and be no greater than 15 pages in length, although there is no limit to the length of necessary attachments to the comments. If comments are submitted in hard copy form, please ensure that two copies are provided. If you wish to receive confirmation that your comments were received, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard with the comments. Note that all comments received will be posted without change to
Documents submitted to a docket may be viewed by anyone at the address and times given above. The documents may also be viewed on the Internet at
The petition, supporting materials, and all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated below will be filed and will be considered. All comments and supporting materials received after the closing date will also be filed and will be considered to the extent possible. When the petition is granted or denied, notice of the decision will be published in the
This notice of receipt of Tesla's petition is published under 49 U.S.C. 30118 and 30120 and does not represent any agency decision or other exercise of judgment concerning the merits of the petition.
S4.4 TPMS Malfunction.
(c)
(2) Flashes for a period of at least 60 seconds but no longer than 90 seconds upon detection of any condition specified in S4.4(a) after the ignition locking system is activated to the “On” (“Run”) position. After each period of prescribed flashing, the telltale must remain continuously illuminated as long as a malfunction exists and the ignition locking system is in the “On” (“Run”) position. This flashing and illumination sequence must be repeated each time the ignition locking system is placed in the “On” (“Run”) position until the situation causing the malfunction has been corrected. . . .
(A) Tesla states that they provide warnings and alerts in several ways above and beyond the minimal requirements of the regulations. Specifically, the TPMS on the subject vehicles automatically checks the wheel sensors fitted on the vehicle. The TPMS then checks the tire pressure from each sensor and that the check system for tire pressure occurs prior to the vehicle moving. The TPMS detects one or more new sensors (meaning different from those calibrated by the TPMS during the vehicles last ignition cycle), the TPMS will automatically “learn” the new sensors. After calibration, the TPMS will again review all four tires for any low pressure situation.
If a low pressure situation occurs in one or more of the four tires on the vehicle, the system will continuously illuminate the combined low pressure/malfunction indicator lamp (MIL), thus providing the driver a timely warning of low tire pressure. In addition, the subject vehicles are also equipped with an auxiliary screen that provides additional warnings and information regarding a low pressure condition. When one or more of the four tires have a detected low tire pressure condition, the auxiliary screen in the lower portion of the center console area will automatically display an alert screen alerting the driver to a low tire pressure condition. In addition, the auxiliary screen will also display a diagram of the vehicle and note the tire at issue in a conspicuous manner. The system's auxiliary screen will also show the condition of all remaining tires. Information regarding the status of the tire pressures is available to the driver through a menu on this auxiliary screen at any time, even if the tires are properly inflated. This type of detailed information and multiple alerts ensures the drivers are well informed of a potential low tire pressure condition.
(B) Tesla also states that the TPMS only fails to operate properly when a faulty, missing or non-approved sensor is detected and the ignition is cycled. Specifically, if such a fault is detected, but the ignition is then cycled off, then on, the MIL will reset, thus requiring the system to re-detect the fault or missing or unapproved sensor versus immediately re-illuminating the MIL from the previously detected fault. The noncompliance is confined to this one particular aspect of TPMS function. All other functions remain in compliance with the requirements of FMVSS No. 138.
(C) Tesla further stated that although the MIL fails to re-illuminate immediately after a subsequent ignition off/on cycle, the TPMS remains functional. As a result, the system will still accurately detect the continued presence of a fault in a sensor and illuminate the MIL anew. Specifically, after ignition off/on, the TPMS will detect anew the faulty, missing or non-approved sensor and the MIL will flash for 60-90 seconds before staying on. This will occur no more than 90 seconds after the vehicle reaches a speed of between 20mph and 25 mph. Once illuminated, the MIL will remain on throughout the course of the ignition cycle, regardless of further operating speeds or other conditions. Moreover, the additional warnings via the “fault” display in the dashboard, and the auxiliary display warnings will appear anew. Clearing the new warning in the auxiliary screen will once again require the driver to actively clear the screen. Tesla believes this is especially effective in notifying vehicle operators in that the reanimation of the center auxiliary screen warning and subsequent action required to clear the screen ensures review of the warning by the driver.
(D) Tesla says they have not received any complaints, noted any issues, or had any incidents or other issues relating to the failure of the TPMS module noncompliance.
In summation, Tesla believes that the described noncompliance of the subject vehicles is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition, to exempt Tesla from providing recall notification of noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118 and remedying the recall noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120 should be granted.
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, any decision on this petition only applies to the subject vehicles that Tesla no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, any decision on this petition does not relieve vehicle distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant vehicles under their control after Tesla notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8)
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, DOT.
Receipt of petition.
This document announces receipt by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) of a petition for a decision that nonconforming 2008 Cadillac Escalade multipurpose passenger vehicles (MPV) that were not originally manufactured to comply with all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety standards (FMVSS), are eligible for importation into the United States because they are
The closing date for comments on the petition is July 24, 2015.
Comments should refer to the docket and notice numbers above and be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
George Stevens, Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, NHTSA (202-366-5308).
Under 49 U.S.C. 30141(a)(1)(A), a motor vehicle that was not originally manufactured to conform to all applicable FMVSS shall be refused admission into the United States unless NHTSA has decided that the motor vehicle is substantially similar to a motor vehicle originally manufactured for importation into and sale in the United States, certified under 49 U.S.C. 30115, and of the same model year as the model of the motor vehicle to be compared, and is capable of being readily altered to conform to all applicable FMVSS.
Petitions for eligibility decisions may be submitted by either manufacturers or importers who have registered with NHTSA pursuant to 49 CFR part 592. As specified in 49 CFR 593.7, NHTSA publishes notice in the
Wallace Environmental Testing Laboratories (“WETL”), Inc. of Houston, Texas (Registered Importer R-90-005) has petitioned NHTSA to decide whether nonconforming 2008 Cadillac Escalade MPV are eligible for importation into the United States. The vehicles which WETL believes are substantially similar are 2008 Cadillac Escalade MPV that were manufactured for sale in the United States and certified by their manufacturer as conforming to all applicable FMVSS.
The petitioner claims that it compared non-U.S. certified 2008 Cadillac Escalade MPV to their U.S.-certified counterparts, and found the vehicles to be substantially similar with respect to compliance with most FMVSS.
WETL submitted information with its petition intended to demonstrate that non-U.S. certified 2008 Cadillac Escalade MPV, as originally manufactured, conform to many FMVSS in the same manner as their U.S.-certified counterparts, or are capable of being readily altered to conform to those standards. Specifically, the petitioner claims that non-U.S. certified 2008 Cadillac Escalade MPV are identical to their U.S.-certified counterparts with respect to compliance with Standard Nos. 102
The petitioner also contends that the vehicles are capable of being readily altered to meet the following standards, in the manner indicated:
Standard No. 101
Standard No. 108
Standard No. 111
Standard No. 138
Standard No. 208
Standard No. 301
The petitioner additionally states that a vehicle identification plate must be affixed to the vehicle near the left windshield post to meet the requirements of 49 CFR part 565.
All comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated above will be considered, and will be available for examination in the docket at the above addresses both before and after that date. To the extent possible, comments filed after the closing date will also be considered. Notice of final action on the petition will be published in the
49 U.S.C. 30141(a)(1)(A), (a)(1)(B), and (b)(1); 49 CFR 593.7; delegation of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Receipt of Petition.
Tireco, Inc. (Tireco) has determined that certain Milestar brand replacement medium truck tires do not fully comply with paragraph S6.5(j), and in some cases also paragraph S6.5(d), of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 119,
The closing date for comments on the petition is July 24, 2015.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments on this petition. Comments must refer to the docket and notice number cited at the beginning of this notice and submitted by any of the following methods:
• Mail: Send comments by mail addressed to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Deliver: Deliver comments by hand to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. The Docket Section is open on weekdays from 10 a.m. to 5 p.m. except Federal Holidays.
• Electronically: Submit comments electronically by: logging onto the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Web site at
Comments must be written in the English language, and be no greater than 15 pages in length, although there is no limit to the length of necessary attachments to the comments. If comments are submitted in hard copy form, please ensure that two copies are provided. If you wish to receive confirmation that your comments were received, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard with the comments. Note that all comments received will be posted without change to
Documents submitted to a docket may be viewed by anyone at the address and times given above. The documents may also be viewed on the Internet at
The petition, supporting materials, and all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated below will be filed and will be considered. All comments and supporting materials received after the closing date will also be filed and will be considered to the extent possible. When the petition is granted or denied, notice of the decision will be published in the
This notice of receipt of Tireco's petition is published under 49 U.S.C. 30118 and 30120 and does not represent any agency decision or other exercise of judgment concerning the merits of the petition.
S6.5 Tire markings. Except as specified in this paragraph, each tire shall be marked on each sidewall with the information specified in paragraphs (a) through (j) of this section. The markings shall be placed between the maximum section width (exclusive of sidewall decorations or curb ribs) and the bead on at least one sidewall, unless the maximum section width of the tire is located in an area which is not more than one-fourth of the distance from the bead to the shoulder of the tire. If the maximum section width falls within that area, the markings shall appear between the bead and a point one-half the distance from the bead to the shoulder of the tire, on at least one sidewall. The markings shall be in letters and numerals not less than 2 mm (0.078 inch) high and raised above or sunk below the tire surface not less than 0.4 mm (0.015 inch), except that the marking depth shall be not less than 0.25mm (0.010 inch) in the case of motorcycle tires. The tire identification and the DOT symbol labeling shall comply with part 574 of this chapter. Markings may appear on only one sidewall and the entire sidewall area may be used in the case of motorcycle tires and recreational, boat, baggage, and special trailer tires. . . .
(d) The maximum load rating and corresponding inflation pressure of the tire, show as follows:
(Mark on tires rated for single and dual load): Max load single __kg (__lb) at __kPa (__psi) cold. Max load dual __kg (__lb) at __kPa (__psi) cold.
(Mark on tires rated only for single load): Max load __kg (__lb) at __kPa (__psi) cold. . . .
(j) The letter designating the tire load range.
In the case of the subset of affected tires marked with the incorrect load range letter “J,” Tireco believes there is no safety consequence since the tires actually were designed and manufactured to be stronger than load range “J” tires (which are constructed with two fewer plies). Thus, there is no risk that the incorrect marking would lead to overloading by an end-user. Moreover, the paper label attached to each of the tires, which must remain attached until the time of sale, contains the correct load range information, so there is little, if any, possibility that a purchaser will be misled.
In the case of the subset of affected tires that can be used in single or dual configuration, Tireco believes that the fact that both of the ratings were labeled as applicable to “DUAL” applications cannot realistically create a safety problem. Particularly since the tires are correctly marked with the correct maximum load capacity and inflation pressure in accordance with The Tire and Rim Association 2014 Year Book. Tireco also believes that any prospective purchaser of these tires, any operator of a truck equipped with these tires, and any tire retailer would immediately recognize that the first rating, “1800Kg (3970LBS) AT 760 KPa (110 PSI) COLD,” applies to the “single” configuration, and the second rating, “1700Kg (3750LBS) AT 760 kPa (110 PSI) COLD,” applies to the “dual” configuration. Such persons are fully aware that for all medium truck tires designed to be used in both single and dual configurations, the maximum load and corresponding pressure applicable to the single configuration is listed above the information applicable to the dual configuration. Such persons also would be aware that there could be no valid reason to have two different maximum loads for the dual configuration, and thus would immediately understand that the first load rating was meant to apply when the tire was utilized in a single configuration. Moreover, since the applicable inflation pressure is the same for both configurations, there is no risk that the mismarking would cause an operator to improperly inflate any of the tires. Tireco states that when a tire is designed for use in both single and dual configurations, FMVSS No. 119 requires that compliance testing be conducted based on the higher, more punishing tire load. Accordingly, Tireco believes that the tires will perform safely in both configurations. Tireco also believes that this principle was relied upon in grants of two similar petitions filed by Michelin North America, Inc. See 71 FR 77092 (December 22, 2006) and 69 FR 62512 (October 26, 2004).
In addition, Tireco stated its belief that all of tires covered by this petition meet or exceed the performance requirements of FMVSS No. 119, as well as the other labeling requirements of the standard.
Tireco is not aware of any crashes, injuries, customer complaints, or field reports associated with the subject mislabelings.
As soon as Tireco became aware of the noncompliance, it immediately isolated the noncompliant inventory in Tireco's warehouses to prevent any additional sales. Tireco will bring all of the noncompliant tires into full compliance with the requirements of FMVSS No. 119, or else the tires will be scrapped. Tireco also believes that the fabricating manufacturer has corrected the molds at the manufacturing plant, so no additional tires will be manufactured with the noncompliance.
In summation, Tireco believes that the described noncompliance of the subject tires is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition, to exempt Tireco from providing recall notification of noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118 and remedying the recall noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120 should be granted.
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, any decision on this petition only applies to the subject tires that Tireco no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, any decision on this petition does not relieve equipment distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant tires under their control after Tireco notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8).
Departmental Offices, Treasury.
Notice and request for comment.
The Department of the Treasury (Treasury) is issuing this notice to inform the public and solicit comments about a new method it is using to collect information and opinions posted on social media platforms. Relying on Treasury-generated “hashtags” and other social media identifiers, Treasury is aggregating public posts relating to Treasury activities and missions from third-party social media Web sites. Treasury is collecting and, in some cases, republishing this material to facilitate public engagement and awareness of Treasury and bureau initiatives. In this manner, social media will enable Treasury to interact with the public in effective and meaningful ways; encourage the broad exchange of and centrally locate a variety of viewpoints on proposed and existing Treasury missions; and educate the general public about evolving Treasury initiatives.
Comments should be sent to: Office of Chief Information Officer, Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington,
For questions and privacy issues please contact: Helen Goff Foster (202) 622-0790, Deputy Assistant Secretary for Privacy, Transparency, and Records, Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20220.
Treasury seeks to interact with the public on matters related to specific Treasury missions, initiatives, activities and functions. In this regard, Treasury anticipates that it will be helpful to collect information and opinions posted on social media platforms or submitted to Treasury directly on Treasury.gov. Treasury will collect and, in some cases, republish this material to facilitate public engagement and awareness of Treasury and bureau initiatives. In this manner, social media will enable Treasury to interact with the public in effective and meaningful ways; encourage the broad exchange of and centrally locate a variety of viewpoints on proposed and existing Treasury missions; and educate the general public about evolving Treasury initiatives.
The following types of information are collected to the extent the individual either provides the information through Treasury.gov or publicly publishes this information on third-party social media sites using Treasury-generated social media identifiers: Full name; username; email address; content of publicly-posted text; videos; photos; graphics; and interviews.
Treasury collects, maintains, and sometimes publicly displays information that individuals choose to: (1) Publicly post on third-party social media Web sites using Treasury-generated social media “hashtags” or other social media identifiers related to Treasury missions, activities, initiatives, or operations; or (2) submit directly through web forms on Treasury.gov.
Treasury may make all or portions of the information collected publicly available on its Web site(s). Treasury may also share the information collected with the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) to ensure compliance with Federal Records Act requirements, or in response to NARA Office of Government Information Services requests relating to Treasury compliance with the Freedom of Information Act. Treasury may also share the information with contractors for the purpose of compiling, organizing, analyzing, programming, or otherwise refining the information to accomplish an agency function. Treasury may also share the information with a Congressional office in response to an inquiry made at the request of the individual to whom the information pertains. If Treasury suspects or has confirmed that the security or confidentiality of information posted on its Web site(s) (whether maintained by the Department or another agency or entity that relies on the information) has been compromised, Treasury will share the information with appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Department's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed compromise and prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm. Treasury may also share the information with the Department of Justice for investigation, legal advice and/or representation.
Information collected by Treasury is maintained in a secure information system to ensure its integrity and availability. Records in this system are protected in accordance with applicable rules and policies, including all applicable Treasury automated systems security and access policies. Strict controls have been imposed to minimize risk of compromising the information being stored. Access to the information system and privileges to modify or remove information from the system is limited to those individuals who have a need to know the information for the performance of their official duties and who have appropriate clearances or permissions.
Information collected as part of this initiative, to the extent deemed to be Treasury records, is maintained in accordance with Records Control Schedule N1-056-03-001, Item 10. Such records are designated as temporary records and are destroyed after one year or when no longer needed for business, whichever is later.
Executive Order 13571, Streamlining Service Delivery and Improving Customer Service, April 27, 2011.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service and Rural Utilities Service, USDA.
Interim final rule.
The Rural Business-Cooperative Service (Agency) is publishing this interim final rule for the Biorefinery, Renewable Chemical, and Biobased Product Manufacturing Assistance Program (the Program), formerly the Biorefinery Assistance Program, incorporating changes required in the Agricultural Act of 2014 (2014 Farm Bill) and addressing comments received on the interim final rule published on February 14, 2011 (76 FR 8404). This interim final rule establishes provisions for the loan guarantees available for Biorefineries to support the production of Advanced Biofuels and Renewable Chemicals and for Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities.
This interim rule is effective August 24, 2015. Comments on the rule and the information collection under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 must be received on or before August 24, 2015.
Submit your comments on this rule by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• Mail: Submit written comments via the U.S. Postal Service to the Branch Chief, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, U.S. Department of Agriculture, STOP 0742, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-0742.
• Hand Delivery/Courier: Submit written comments via Federal Express Mail, or other courier service requiring a street address, to the Branch Chief, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 300 7th Street SW., 7th Floor, Washington, DC 20024.
All written comments will be available for public inspection during regular work hours at the 300 7th Street SW., 7th Floor address listed above.
Todd Hubbell, Energy Branch, Rural Business-Cooperative Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Stop 3225, Washington, DC 20250-3201; telephone (202) 720-0410.
The Food, Conversation, and Energy Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-246), otherwise known as the 2008 Farm Bill, established the Biorefinery Assistance Program (the Program) under Title IX, Section 9003, for making loan guarantees to fund the development, construction, and Retrofitting of Commercial-Scale Biorefineries using Eligible Technology. The 2008 Farm Bill defined Eligible Technologies as: Technology that is being adopted in a viable Commercial-Scale operation of a Biorefinery that produces an Advanced Biofuel; and technology that has been demonstrated to have technical and economic potential for commercial application in a Biorefinery that produces an Advanced Biofuel.
The Program's authority is continued in the Agricultural Act of 2014 (2014 Farm Bill) (Pub. L. 113-79), with several specific changes: (1) Renames the Program as the Biorefinery, Renewable Chemical, and Biobased Product Manufacturing Assistance; (2) Revises the purpose statement for the Program to include Renewable Chemicals and Biobased Product Manufacturing; (3) Expands the Program to include Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities; (4) Adds definitions for “Renewable Chemicals” and “Biobased Product Manufacturing”; and (5) Ensures diversity in the types of Projects approved.
Eligible applicants for the Program are as follows: Individuals; entities; Indian Tribes; units of State or Local Government; corporations; Farm Cooperatives; Farmer Cooperative Organizations; associations of Agricultural Producers; National Laboratories; Institutions of Higher Education; rural electric cooperatives; public power entities; and consortia of any of the foregoing entities.
The 2014 Farm Bill provides the Program with a total budget authority of $200 million in mandatory funding over three years, with discretionary funding totaling $375 million over five years ($75 million per year). This level of funding is less than provided under the 2008 Farm Bill, which had a total budget authority of $320 in mandatory funding, with discretionary funding totaling $750 million over five years ($150 million per year).
This rule revises 7 CFR part 4279, subpart C and 7 CFR part 4287, subpart D to implement the provisions contained in the 2014 Farm Bill, modifies the Program to incorporate administrative improvements based on Agency experience in implementing the Program, addresses comments received on the interim final rule, published in the
The major changes being implemented by this rulemaking are:
• Revised the purpose and scope section by adding Renewable Chemicals and Biobased Product Manufacturing;
• Adding the ability to fund Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities;
• Removing the requirement that the majority of the Biorefinery production must be an Advanced Biofuel in order to be eligible for Program assistance;
• Supplementing the Program to include a “project-finance framework;”
• Implementing a two-phase application process;
• Overhauling the scoring of applications; and
• Limiting Interest accrual to 90 days, in most instances, to determining what the guarantee will cover and what can be included in a loss claim.
The Agency estimates that approximately 95 applicants will submit Phase 1 applications. The burden to these applicants under the new two-phase application process is estimated to be approximately 700 hours per application. The Agency estimates that each applicant who receives a loan guarantee would require an additional 252 hours for reporting and other servicing actions.
The benefits associated with the Program under the subsequent interim rule are, for the most part, the same as those that accrue under the baseline Program. Direct beneficiaries of the Program continue to be those applicants who receive a Section 9003 loan guarantee, but now include owners and operators of Biorefineries whose primary product is a Renewable Chemical and owners and operators of Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities. Indirect beneficiaries of the Program continue to include technology providers of the systems used in advancing these facilities, feedstock
Expanding the Program to include Renewable Chemicals and Biobased Product Manufacturing will further potential positive environmental impacts associated with replacing petroleum-based feedstock with renewable biomass feedstock.
The Agency expects the changes (described later in this Notice) to make the Program more attractive to larger, more sophisticated Lenders who are under more regulatory scrutiny than the Lenders that have historically participated in the Agency's guaranteed loan programs. Their participation is necessary due to the size of the Projects funded under the Program. Changes are also made that clarify and streamline Agency application requirements, which will aid Lenders and Borrowers in putting together materials required as part of the application process.
The Agency also expects the changes to the Program to result in a greater diversity of the types of Projects being funded, including Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities and Biorefineries whose primary product is a Renewable Chemical that had not been eligible for funding under the Program as authorized by the 2008 Farm Bill. The Agency further expects these changes to improve the financial feasibility of Biorefineries producing Advanced Biofuels and Renewable Chemicals because Renewable Chemicals typically are of higher value than Advanced Biofuels and have broader market opportunities.
This interim final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order (EO) 12866 and has been determined to be “economically significant” by the OMB. The EO defines a “significant regulatory action” as one that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect, in a material way, the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this EO.
The Agency conducted a benefit-cost analysis to fulfill the requirements of EO 12866. In this analysis, the Agency identifies alternatives considered, the distributional effects of the rule changes, the estimated costs of applying for and the potential benefits of receiving Section 9003 funding.
In the benefit-cost analysis, the Agency considered alternatives associated with three provisions—Renewable Chemicals, Biobased Product Manufacturing, and Project diversity.
The Agency considered whether the 2014 Farm Bill would allow providing loan guarantees to facilities that produced Renewable Chemicals, but did not produce any Advanced Biofuel. The Agency also considered Congressional intent as articulated in the 2014 Farm Bill conference report, which would enable the Program to provide loan guarantees to a wide array of facilities.
After consideration of the entire 2014 Farm Bill provisions, the Agency is removing the regulatory requirement that a Biorefinery primarily produce an Advanced Biofuel. In addition, the subsequent interim rule (this rule) requires that the Biorefinery produce at least some Advanced Biofuel, but it does not set a minimum production level of Advanced Biofuel, and does not require the Advanced Biofuel be sold as Biofuel. The primary effect of these changes is to allow a Biorefinery that primarily produces a Renewable Chemical to apply for a Section 9003 loan guarantee.
Under the first approach, the Agency would develop criteria and other specific requirements for applications and write separate sections in the rule to address Biobased Product Manufacturing. This approach would require a large amount of duplication or cross referencing to the general rule. In addition, there is no statutory authorization for Biobased Product Manufacturing projects after 15% of the fiscal years 2014 and 2015 mandatory funding is expended on such projects. Thus, this approach would create provisions that would “sunset” after a short period of time.
Under the second approach, which the Agency is implementing, the Agency would revise the rule to apply as broadly as possible to all types of projects eligible under the Program, such as changing references from “biorefinery” to “facility” and to identify in an annual notice the priority scoring criteria that explicitly apply to Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities.
Under the first approach, the Agency would identify one or more priority scoring criteria for specific technologies, products, and approaches that are under-represented in the Program portfolio and update the specific technologies, products, and approaches annually. The Agency determined that this approach would be more cumbersome and it could be difficult to identify new and emerging technologies, products, and approaches in advance of drafting and publishing criteria on an annual basis.
Under the second approach, which the Agency is implementing, the Agency would include the authority for the Administrator to award additional discretionary points in the priority scoring and selection process. This approach provides greater flexibility than the first approach and allows the Agency to respond to changes in the applications and the industries as a whole. As implemented, the Administrator, at the Administrator's discretion, may award up to 10 points to ensure as wide a range as possible of
The subsequent interim rule affects the distribution of costs and benefits across eligible applicants. The subsequent interim rule increases costs to some of the applicants, but decreases the cost to many applicants (
While the types of benefits occurring as a result of the subsequent interim rule are not different from those that occur under the baseline Program, the benefits occur across a broader range of Projects (Renewable Chemicals and Biobased Product Manufacturing). The Agency also expects these changes to improve the financial feasibility of the Biorefineries supplying Renewable Chemicals and other Biobased Products to manufacturing facilities because Renewable Chemicals typically are of higher value than Advanced Biofuels.
The inclusion of the Renewable Chemical and Biobased Product Manufacturing provisions also means that there may be a shift in the entities receiving the benefits—from Biorefineries that primarily produce Advanced Biofuels to those that produce primarily Renewable Chemicals and to facilities that manufacture Biobased Products into end-user products. The extent that such a shift occurs depends in part on the applications received and their merits.
With regard to the distribution of benefits over time, the Program initially directly benefits those who are receiving loan guarantees for the construction and production of the Advanced Biofuels, Renewable Chemicals, and Biobased Products. The benefits of these products will be enjoyed by future generations to the extent that such Projects are successful in growing these businesses to the point where they become part of the long-term economy. While the subsequent interim rule does not directly change this type of distributional effect, the greater inclusion of Renewable Chemicals and the funding of Biobased Product Manufacturing can help ensure that these types of Projects and their products become part of the long-term economy.
The Agency estimates that the burden to the public of applying for a Section 9003 loan guarantee under the new two-phase application process to be approximately 700 hours per application. The Agency estimates that each applicant who receives a loan guarantee would require an additional 252 hours for reporting and other servicing actions.
Over the three years following the effective date of the subsequent interim rule, the Agency estimates that there will be approximately 95 applicants submitting Phase 1 applications, of which 34 will be invited to submit a Phase 2 application. The number of applicants is based on (1) an assumption of full funding for the Program over the next three years, (2) the fact that we have received approximately three times more applications than we could fund, and (3) the number of expected applications for the first time from biorefineries whose primary output is a Renewable Chemical and from Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities based on inquiries from these sectors.
The benefits associated with the Program under the subsequent interim rule are, for the most part, the same as those that accrue under the baseline Program. Direct beneficiaries of the Program are those applicants who receive a Section 9003 loan guarantee, which can be up to $250 million (not to exceed 80 percent of total Eligible Project Costs). As a result of the 2014 Farm Bill, direct beneficiaries will now include owners and operators of Biorefineries whose primary product is a Renewable Chemical and owners and operators of Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities.
Indirect beneficiaries of the Program include the technology providers of the system used in advancing these Biorefineries and Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities, Agriculture Producers and others who supply the feedstock used in these Biorefineries and facilities, producer associations and cooperatives (to the extent that applicants seek to partner with such entities), and Lenders.
By relying on Renewable Biomass feedstock, these Projects have the ability to have a greater positive impact on the environment than similar products produced from petroleum-based feedstock. Expanding the Program to include Renewable Chemicals and Biobased Product Manufacturing will further these potential positive environmental impacts.
Creating diversity in technologies, products, and approaches helps spread the potential for development of new and emerging technologies products, and approaches as broadly as possible thereby achieving a primary purpose of the Program—to assist in the development of new and emerging technologies.
The 2014 Farm Bill provides $100 million of mandatory funding for the Program for Fiscal Year 2014 and $50 million of mandatory funding for each of Fiscal Years 2015 and 2016. Of the mandatory funding for Fiscal Years 2014 and 2015, the Secretary may use for the cost of loan guarantees not more than 15 percent to promote Biobased Product Manufacturing. The 2014 Farm Bill also enables Congress to approve an additional $75 million of discretionary funding for Fiscal Years 2014 through 2018.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act 1995 (UMRA), Public Law 104-4, establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments and the private sector. Under section 202 of the UMRA, Rural Development generally must prepare a written statement, including a cost-benefit analysis, for proposed and final rules with “Federal mandates” that may result in expenditures to State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector of $100 million or more in any one year. When such a statement is needed for a rule, section 205 of the UMRA generally requires Rural Development to identify and consider a reasonable number of regulatory alternatives and adopt the least costly, more cost-effective, or least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rule.
This rule contains no Federal mandates (under the regulatory provisions of Title II of the UMRA) for State, local, and tribal governments or the private sector. Thus, this rule is not subject to the requirements of sections 202 and 205 of the UMRA.
The Program has been operating since 2009, initially under funding notices, but later under an interim final rule published on February 14, 2011. The Program's regulations are found in 7 CFR part 4279, subpart C and 7 CFR part 4287, subpart D. Under this Program, the Agency conducts a National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) review for each application received. To date, no significant environmental impacts have been reported, and Findings of No Significant Impact (FONSI) have been issued for each approved application. Taken collectively, the applications show no
This document has been reviewed in accordance with 7 CFR part 1940, subpart G, “Environmental Program.” Rural Development has determined that this action does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment, and in accordance with NEPA of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321
This interim final rule has been reviewed under EO 12988, Civil Justice Reform. In accordance with this rule: (1) all State and local laws and regulations that are in conflict with this rule will be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect will be given to this rule; and (3) administrative proceedings in accordance with the regulations of the Department of Agriculture's National Appeals Division (7 CFR part 11) must be exhausted before bringing suit in court challenging action taken under this rule unless those regulations specifically allow bringing suit at an earlier time.
It has been determined, under EO 13132, Federalism, that this interim final rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism Assessment. The provisions contained in the rule will not have a substantial direct effect on States or their political subdivisions or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various government levels.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) (RFA) generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice and comment rulemaking requirements under the Administrative Procedure Act or any other statute unless the Agency certifies that the rule will not have an economically significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. Small entities include small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions.
Under section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the Agency certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This interim rule affects entities that utilize the Section 9003 Guaranteed Loan Program and any prospective entities that may utilize the program in the future. Between fiscal years 2009 and 2014, the Agency received 42 applications. Of these 42 applications, 28 applications were either withdrawn by the applicant/borrower, were determined by the Agency to be ineligible, or have had program funds previously committed, deobligated. Of the remaining 14 applications, the Agency issued 10 Conditional Commitments and 4 applications are pending further review and evaluation. The Agency estimates that most, if not all, of the entities that submitted applications would be considered a small entity, as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act, based on using the SBA-established threshold of 1,000 employees for defining a small business for the NAICS code 325199 (which is often used as a default code for many the entities applying for the Section 9003 program). Because of this high percentage, the Agency has determined that this rule will have an impact on a substantial number of small entities.
However, the Agency has determined that the economic impact of this rule on these entities will not be significant. The most significant change in the rule that affects entities applying for this program is the implementation of the two-phase application process, which will have a positive impact on most applicants. Under the two-phase application process, all applicants must submit a Phase I application and then only a smaller subset of these applicants would submit the Phase II application. Under the current interim rule, all applicants have to submit an application that is equivalent to a combined Phase I and Phase II application. The new application process reduces the cost to those applicants who are “unsuccessful”—that is, to those who are not invited to submit a Phase II application. This change reduces the impact of the Section 9003 program by almost 70 percent for the “unsuccessful” applicant. Thus, under the new application process, 67 percent of the applicants between fiscal years 2009 and 2014 would have incurred significantly lower application costs.
Based on the data in the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) burden package, the Agency estimates the cost of the rule to be approximately $31,000 per successful applicant. This is based on determining which of the estimated costs in the PRA burden package would be incurred by the entities applying for and participating in the program. As noted above, most of the entities applying for and participating in the Section 9003 program are likely to be small businesses. The Agency examined the 10 entities to whom conditional commitments were made and the four entities whose applications are still pending. With the exception of two projects, none of the projects are yet operating. Thus, the Agency does not have actual financial information to use to evaluate the impact of the rule on these entities. Therefore, the Agency elected to look at the financial data (specifically, projected revenue or sales data when the projects reach full production) supplied in the applications and upon which the Agency made its decisions as to which projects to issue conditional commitments. Based on these data, the range of projected annual revenues/sales for these 14 projects is $4.1 million to $262 million. A cost of $31,000 per entity represents approximately 0.75% of the projected revenues for the smallest projected revenue stream down to 0.01% for the largest. Therefore, this rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The regulatory impact analysis conducted for this interim final rule meets the requirements for EO 13211, which states that an agency undertaking regulatory actions related to energy supply, distribution, or use is to prepare a Statement of Energy Effects. This analysis finds that this rule will not have any adverse impacts on energy supply, distribution, or use.
This Program is not subject to the provisions of EO 12372, which require intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials.
This EO imposes requirements on Rural Development in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications or preempt tribal laws. Rural Development has determined that this rule does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian Tribe(s) or on either the relationship or the distribution of powers and responsibilities between the Federal Government and the Indian Tribes. Thus, this notice is not subject to the requirements of EO 13175.
The Biorefinery Assistance Program is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under Number 10.865. This will be updated with the Program's new name, as changed by the 2014 Farm Bill, the “Biorefinery, Renewable Chemical, and Biobased Product Manufacturing Assistance Program.”
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Rural Business-Cooperative Service announces its intention to seek OMB approval of the new reporting and recordkeeping requirements contained in this rule.
The following annual estimates are based on an estimated volume of activity of 32 Phase 1 applications, 11 Phase 2 applications, and 6 new loan guarantees. Phase 1 applications are evaluated by the Agency to determine whether the Borrower is eligible, the proposed loan is for an eligible purpose, there is reasonable assurance of repayment ability, there is sufficient Collateral and equity, and the proposed loan complies with all applicable statutes and regulations. Phase 2 applications are only required for those applicants submitting eligible, high scoring phase I applications.
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, Support Services Division, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Rural Development, STOP 0742, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20250-0742 or by calling (202) 692-0040.
Comments may be sent to Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Rural Development, STOP 0742, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20250. All responses to this rule will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Rural Development is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) prohibits discrimination against its customers, employees, and applicants for employment on the bases of race, color, national origin, age, disability, sex, gender identity, religion, reprisal and, where applicable, political beliefs, marital status, familial or parental status, sexual orientation, or all or part of an individual's income is derived from any public assistance program, or protected genetic information in employment or in any program or activity conducted or funded by the Department. (Not all prohibited bases will apply to all programs and/or employment activities.)
If you wish to file an employment complaint, you must contact your agency's EEO Counselor (PDF) within 45 days of the date of the alleged discriminatory act, event, or in the case of a personnel action. Additional information can be found online at
If you wish to file a Civil Rights program complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form (PDF), found online at
Individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or have speech disabilities and you wish to file either an EEO or program complaint please contact USDA through the Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339 or (800) 845-6136 (in Spanish).
Persons with disabilities who wish to file a program complaint, please see information above on how to contact us by mail directly or by email. If you require alternative means of communication for program information (
On February 14, 2011, the Agency published an interim final rule for the Biorefinery Assistance Program (the Program) in the
The interim final rule became effective on March 16, 2011, and the Agency provided a 60-day comment period for the public to submit comments on the interim final rule.
On February 7, 2014, the 2014 Farm Bill was signed into law. Section 9003 of the 2014 Farm Bill addresses the Program. The Agency held a listening session on March 13, 2014, to receive input from interested stakeholders on the various energy and bioeconomy provisions of the 2014 Farm Bill. No comments specific to the Program were received.
In addition to renaming the Program the “Biorefinery, Renewable Chemical, and Biobased Product Manufacturing Assistance,” Section 9003 affects funding associated with Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities and funding associated with Biorefineries producing Renewable Chemicals. Section 9003 also requires the Secretary of Agriculture to ensure diversity in the types of Projects approved under the Program.
The Agency has been implementing the Program since the 2008 Farm Bill. During this time, the Agency has applied a “commercial lending” framework to the Program. The Agency has determined that the Program can be implemented more effectively by adding the flexibility of using a “project finance-based” framework. In order to add project finance-based framework aspects, it is necessary to revise certain Program provisions, which are discussed later in this preamble.
Lastly, the Agency is restructuring the rule to be a “stand alone” rule. The current interim rule relies heavily on incorporating the guaranteed loan provisions of the Agency's B&I Guaranteed Loan program. The Agency has decided to eliminate the extensive cross-references to the B&I Guaranteed Loan program and in its place create a “self-contained” rule for the Program. In the course of doing this, the Agency is taking the opportunity to clarify and/or modify many of the provisions previously incorporated by reference in order to improve Program administration.
Most of the current interim rule's provisions have been carried forward into the subsequent interim rule, although there have been several significant changes. A summary of major changes to the current interim rule are summarized below in Section IV of this preamble. All of the comments received on the current interim rule and during the listening session are summarized in Section V of this preamble. Section VI presents in brief the substantive changes, if any, made in each section of the rule.
As noted above, the changes being made to the Program are due to: (1) Statutory changes resulting from the 2014 Farm Bill, (2) based on the Agency's experience in operating the Program since it was authorized in 2008, amending the Program to enable flexibility to use a project finance-based framework, (3) the Agency's consideration of public comments on the February 14, 2011, interim final rule, and (4) the Agency's decision to create a “self-contained” rule. The following discussion presents the major changes made in response to these four considerations.
Section 9003 of the 2014 Farm Bill requires the Agency to modify the current interim rule in order to:
• include Biorefineries that primarily produce Renewable Chemicals;
• include Biobased Product Manufacturing; and
• ensure that there is diversity in the types of Projects approved.
The 2014 Farm Bill provisions add “Renewable Chemicals” to the Program's title and purpose statement, but do not address how the Program will assist Renewable Chemical facilities.
Currently, Biorefineries are required to primarily produce Advanced Biofuels in order to participate. Under the subsequent interim rule, the Agency is removing the regulatory requirement that the majority of production of a Biorefinery be an Advanced Biofuel. By removing this regulatory requirement, a Biorefinery producing Advanced Biofuel and Renewable Chemicals, will be able to participate without having to meet a specific minimum threshold production level of Advanced Biofuel.
When considering the eligibility of Biorefineries that produce Renewable Chemicals, the Agency will include in its consideration reliance on the program purpose and scope and the definitions of “Biorefinery” and “Eligible Technology” as found in 7 U.S.C. 8101 and 8103).
The purpose of the Program is to assist in the development of Advanced Biofuels, Renewable Chemicals, and Biobased Product Manufacturing.
“Biorefinery.—The term `Biorefinery' means a facility (including equipment and processes) that (A) converts
“Eligible technology.—The term `Eligible Technology' means, as determined by the Secretary (A) a technology that is being adopted in a viable Commercial-Scale operation of
Under the subsequent interim rule, a Biorefinery may convert Renewable Biomass into Renewable Chemicals or Biobased Products and must produce an Advanced Biofuel.
While requiring Biorefineries produce an Advanced Biofuel, the subsequent interim rule does not set a specific minimum production level of Advanced Biofuel and does not require that the Advanced Biofuel be sold as Biofuel. A Biorefinery may sell the Advanced Biofuel that it produces as a Biofuel or for other non-fuel usage. A Biorefinery may further process the Advanced Biofuel into Renewable Chemicals or other Biobased Products or use the Biofuel as a fuel for heat or power in its process or generate electricity.
Food or feed are not eligible Biobased Products (see § 4279.202 for definition of Biobased Products). However, a Renewable Chemical that is food-grade would be eligible.
In summary, the subsequent interim rule requires that at least some amount of Advanced Biofuel is produced, but does not set a specific minimum production level of Advanced Biofuel. The subsequent interim rule does not require that the Advanced Biofuel be sold as Biofuel. The Biorefinery may sell the Advanced Biofuel that it produces as a Biofuel, Renewable Chemical, or for other non-fuel usage. Further, the Biorefinery may process the Advanced Biofuel into Renewable Chemicals or other Biobased Products or use the Biofuel as a fuel for heat or power in its process or generate electricity.
The primary substantive change related to Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities is that the Program will now be able to provide funding to Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities.
The 2014 Farm Bill provides the definition of “Biobased Product Manufacturing,” which the Agency has incorporated into the subsequent interim rule. See § 4279.202. This definition requires the Biobased Product Manufacturing facility to use Renewable Chemicals and other biobased outputs of Biorefineries as inputs to produce end-user products. The facility must also use Technologically New Commercial-Scale processing and manufacturing equipment.
As being implemented under the subsequent interim rule, these facilities can be either stand-alone facilities or add-ons to existing Biorefineries. The amount of funding that can be used to support these facilities is limited by the 2014 Farm Bill to no more than 15 percent of mandatory funds made available in FY 2014 and FY 2015 to promote Biobased Product Manufacturing. (Note: This excludes any and all FY 2016 mandatory funds and all discretionary funds.)
The Agency is adding a new paragraph to the Project eligibility section to address Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities. The general Program requirements apply to financing of Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities. The Agency will publish, subsequent to the publication of this rule, a notice in the
The 2014 Farm Bill provisions require that there be diversity in the types of Projects approved under the Program. The relevant provision states “the Secretary shall ensure that, to the extent practicable, there is diversity in the types of Projects approved for loan guarantees to ensure that as wide a range as possible of technologies, products, and approaches are assisted.” 7 U.S.C. 8103(d)(1)(D).
The Agency is implementing this provision by including authority for the Administrator to award discretionary points in the priority scoring and selection process. As implemented under the subsequent interim rule, the Administrator, at the Administrator's discretion, may award up to 10 points to ensure as wide a range as possible of technologies, products, and approaches are assisted in the Program's portfolio.
As has been noted, the Agency is supplementing the commercial lending framework with the flexibility to use a project finance-based framework. A commercial loan is generally made to well-established companies in established industries. Commercial loans are secured by business assets. The evaluation of a commercial loan is generally based on the historical financial performance of the business and its financial performance in comparison to its industry peers.
Project financing is the financing of infrastructure and industrial projects. The evaluation of a project financing loan relies primarily on the development of a project and its cash flow for repayment, with the project's assets as secondary security or collateral.
Supplementing the Program with a project finance-based framework will align the Program with the Lenders standards and procedures and improve the Agency's evaluation of loan guarantee applications and credit risks. Significant changes are discussed below.
The rule currently requires all applicants to submit a complete application including a technical report, environmental analysis, and the Lender's credit evaluation, as specified in the rule. The subsequent interim rule divides the application process into two phases. Phase 1 applications will provide information to determine Lender, Borrower, and Project eligibility; preliminary economic and technical feasibility; and the priority score of the application. Based on the priority score ranking, the Agency will invite applicants whose Phase 1 applications receive higher priority scores to submit Phase 2 applications. Phase 2 application materials will be submitted as the project planning and engineering is finalized and will include an environmental report, technical report, financial model, and the Lender's credit evaluation, as specified in the rule.
The current interim rule requires Lenders to include an analysis of the credit factors associated with each guarantee application, including consideration of each of the following five elements:
(1) Credit worthiness.
(2) Cash flow.
(3) Capital.
(4) Collateral.
(5) Conditions.
Rather than focusing on a limited listing of elements, the subsequent interim rule requires the Lender to analyze all credit factors associated with each proposed loan and apply its professional judgment to determine that the credit factors, considered in combination, ensure loan repayment. This allows the Lender to apply a commercial lending framework or a project finance framework, as appropriate, on a project-by-project basis.
The Agency has identified in the subsequent interim rule the factors it uses to conduct its credit evaluation of the Project and Borrower. These factors include, but are not limited to, debt structure, revenues, technical feasibility, project equity, and other project funding.
Under the current interim rule, the adequacy of the Collateral is based on the value of the Project assets and requires the discounted Collateral value to be at least equal to the loan amount. The current interim rule does not evaluate the Collateral from the perspective of the Project's cash flow for repayment. However, of the Projects financed under this Program, the value of the assets is directly related to the Project's cash flow.
Under the subsequent interim rule, the Agency has the flexibility to determine how Collateral will be evaluated on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the type of project and the types of assets.
The subsequent interim rule places more emphasis on the Lender obtaining and relying on certain written materials (including, but not limited to, certifications, evaluations, appraisals, financial statements and other reports) from qualified third parties (including, among others, one or more independent engineers, appraisers, accountants, attorneys, consultants or other experts).
The Agency received four comment letters from the public on the current interim rule (see Section V below.) After reviewing the public comments, the Agency identified a number of changes to improve the Program including:
• Removing the 500 basis point spread requirement between the guaranteed and unguaranteed portions of the loan. (§ 4279.231(a) of the current interim rule)
• Clarifying when a subordinate lien position may be taken on Borrower inventory and accounts receivables. (§ 4279.235(a))
• Adding a provision to allow the Lender to require Borrowers to fund debt service reserve accounts with loan proceeds. (§ 4279.210(c)(7))
• Revising the requirement for a Borrower to obtain an evaluation and either a credit rating or credit assessment for loan requests of $125 million or greater to requiring the Borrower to obtain a an evaluation and rating of the total Project's indebtedness, without consideration for a government guarantee, from a nationally-recognized statistical rating organization (NRSRO), as defined by the U.S. Security and Exchange Commission for all Projects with total Eligible Project Costs of $25 million or more. An updated rating may be required at the Agency's discretion if changes are subsequently made to the Project including changes to any contracts and agreements or changes to loan terms and conditions. (§ 4279.261(k)(5))
As discussed earlier, the Agency is restructuring the rule to be a “stand alone” rule. The current interim rule relies heavily on incorporating the guaranteed loan provisions of the Agency's B&I Guaranteed Loan program. The Agency has decided to eliminate the extensive cross-references to the B&I Guaranteed Loan program and in its place create a “self-contained” rule for the Program. In the course of doing this, the Agency has restructured the rule. While the majority of the current interim rule's provisions have been carried forward, a number of provisions have been relocated. In addition, the Agency took the opportunity to clarify and/or modify many of the provisions previously incorporated by reference in order to improve Program administration.
As noted earlier, the current interim rule was published in the
Two commenters recommended clarification as to whether or not the Fair Market Value of the Project, based on audited financial statements, can be used in whole or in part to meet equity requirements. One of these two commenters also recommended clarification as to whether or not the value of qualified intellectual property based on audited financial statements may be substituted in whole or in part to meet equity requirements.
One commenter recommended applying the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) utilized in the B&I Guaranteed Loan program such that the equity requirement may be calculated by deducting Federal grants from Eligible Project Costs in arriving at the equity requirement.
One commenter recommended allowing Project assets funded with other Federal grants, as well as other subordinate financing, to qualify as Project equity in arriving at the 20 percent equity requirement. Another commenter also recommended including subordinated financing as Project equity for purposes of satisfying the Program's equity requirements.
The following diagram illustrates the Project funding requirements and differentiates the cash equity requirement from non-Federal funding requirement:
This section presents, in brief, substantive changes and notable clarifications to the rule on a section-by-section basis. In developing the stand-alone rule, many existing provisions have been relocated to different places in the rule. Such relocations are not identified in the following discussion because the requirement itself has not changed.
The Agency modified this section to reflect expansion of the Program as a result of the 2014 Farm Bill provisions to address Renewable Chemicals and
The Agency deleted terms that are no longer used within the rule. The Agency also added terms to, in part, incorporate changes in response to the 2014 Farm Bill and make improvements to the administration of the Program. Added terms include, but are not limited to:
• Annual Renewal Fee
• Biobased Product Manufacturing
• Bond
• Commercial-Scale
• Conflict of Interest
• Delinquency
• Good cause
• Grossly Negligent Loan Origination
• Grossly Negligent Loan Servicing
• In-house Expenses
• Interest termination date
• Liquidation Expenses
• Loan Packager
• Loan Service Provider
• Local Government
• Person
• Public Body
• Renewable Chemical
• Technologically New
• Well Capitalized
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency provided additional examples and clarifications to this section, including reference to “adverse” decisions, but did not make any other substantive changes.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section. The Agency removed the prohibition of assistance to Government employees and active military personnel who are directors or officers or have an ownership interest of 20 percent or more in the business from being eligible applicants. While this change has the potential to increase the pool of applicants, the Agency expects the actual impact to be minimal.
The Agency added this new section to ensure that in any litigation case in which the Agency is named a party the Agency has the right to be represented by the U.S. Department of Justice.
The Agency replaced the specific Lender capital requirements with a cross-reference to FDIC's definition of “Well Capitalized.” This modification, however, does not change the actual capital requirements.
The Agency also supplemented when Lenders must notify the Agency when under a “cease-and-desist order” with “or other similar constraint, from a Federal agency” to cover instances where different terminology is used.
In addition, insurance companies regulated by a State or National insurance regulatory agency are no longer eligible for the Program.
The Agency did not make any changes to this section.
The Agency made a number of changes to this section including:
• Requiring that the Borrower and other principals involved in the Project make a significant equity investment in the Project in the form of cash contribution, with the specific amount of equity required determined by the Agency on a project-by-project basis based on its credit evaluation;
• Incorporating requirements associated with the 2014 Farm Bill provisions for Renewable Chemicals and Biobased Product manufacturing.
• Removing the provisions associated with the requirement that the majority of the Biorefinery production must be an Advanced Biofuel.
• Removing the paragraph addressing eligible feedstock. Feedstock is addressed in the definitions of “Advanced Biofuel”, “Biorefinery”, and “Renewable Biomass.”
• Clarifying Eligible Project Costs include an integrated demonstration unit under certain circumstances, professional services, necessary insurance and bonds, financing fees and costs, and cash reserve accounts.
• Incorporating ineligible project costs into this section. Changes include reducing/simplifying the identified ineligible purposes to only those costs that are most applicable to the Program; clarifying processing of corn kernel starch into biofuel is ineligible; and payments in excess of actual costs incurred by the contractor are ineligible under certain conditions. The absence of other ineligible loan purposes or project costs that are incorporated by reference under the current interim rule does not mean that they are now eligible.
The Agency made three substantive changes in this section:
• Clarifying the Lender's responsibility when contracting with third parties and when relying on information from qualified third parties.
• Prohibiting agents and Persons from acting as both Loan Packager and Loan Service Provider on the same guaranteed loan. This implements a best practice.
• Requiring the keeping of a Collateral inventory by the Lender. This implements a best practice that a reasonable Lender should be doing as part of its normal business practice.
The Agency revised this section based on experience administering the Program (as discussed earlier in Section III, Background.)
The Agency changed the role of the Lender from helping the Borrower complete Form RD 1940-20, “Request for Environmental Information,” to ensuring that the Borrower has provided the environmental assessment.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency made two primary modifications to this section. First, the Lender may request a change in the standard from “negligent” to “grossly negligent” for Loan Origination and Loan Servicing. The Agency will make this change on a case-by-case basis and only when the Lender can demonstrate to the Agency's satisfaction that changing to a “gross negligence” standard will not materially impair the Agency's interests, determined solely at the Agency's discretion. The subsequent interim rule identifies several additional conditions that must be met for the Agency to grant such a request.
Second, the Agency instituted a limitation on the period of time over which accrued Interest would be covered by the Loan Note Guarantee. If the Lender owns all or a portion of the guaranteed interest in the guaranteed loan or make a Protective Advance, the Loan Note Guarantee will not cover interest to the Lender accruing after 90 days from the most recent Delinquency effect date as reported by the Lender. If the guaranteed loan has one or more Holders, the Loan Note Guarantee will
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency made a number of clarifications to this section to ensure Lenders know how the process works.
The Agency modified provisions associated with the multi-note option. The Agency removed limits on the number of notes that can be issued under the multi-note option. The Agency also removed the provision that allowed the Lender to issue a new series of notes when a loan is closed using the multi-note option and additional notes are desired at a later date.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency replaced the current provisions associated with the accrued Interest that the guarantee will cover with the provisions described above under § 4279.220 and the Interest Termination Date definition and now addresses these provisions in paragraphs (b)(3) through (5) of the section.
The Agency clarified that if the Agency repurchases 100 percent of the guaranteed portion of the loan, the Agency will not continue collection of the Annual Renewal Fee from the Lender.
The Agency also made a number of clarifications to ensure Holders know how the repurchase process works.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency changed the basis for calculating the guarantee fee and Annual Renewal Fee from “Total Project Costs” to “total Eligible Project Costs.”
The Agency simplified and clarified the text describing the maximum amount of loan a Project is eligible for and changed reference from “equity” to “non-Federal sources.”
In cases requesting 90 percent guarantee rate, the Agency restated the requirement for “equity of 40 percent” to “total Federal participation . . . not be greater than 60 percent of total Eligible Project Costs.” The Agency also replaced the requirement of the Collateral coverage ratio with a provision limiting tax credits, carbon credits and other subsidies to 10 percent of the Project's total revenue on an annual basis in the Borrower's base case of financial projections.
The Agency removed the requirement that the Interest rate on the unguaranteed portion of the loan cannot exceed the rate on the guaranteed portion of the loan by more than 500 basis points.
The Agency also modified the section to remove redundancies.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency restated the Collateral requirement to reflect the revised standards resulting from the Agency's experience administering the Program.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• A clarification removed reference to a complete self-contained appraisal and now requiring the appraisal must be reported in a manner that summarizes all of the information necessary for the intended users to understand the report and contain all information pertinent to the appraiser's opinions and conclusions.
• Clarifying that documentation is included showing that the appraiser has the necessary experience and competency to appraise the property in question.
• Adding a requirement that appraisals not be more than 1 year old and that a more recent appraisal may be required by the Agency in order to reflect more current market conditions.
• For loan servicing purposes, updating to an appraisal may be acceptable in lieu of a completely new appraisal when the original appraisal is between one and two years old.
• Clarifying the requirements on what appraisals need to conform to.
• Adding a requirement for Lender to submit its technical review of the appraisal.
• For construction Projects, requiring the use of the “as completed” Market Value of the real estate to determine the value of the real estate.
The Agency revised the conditions under which owners may be exempted, in part or in full, from providing guarantees.
The Agency is clarifying a number of provisions associated with this section including:
• Lenders may contract for services and may rely on certain written materials and other reports provided by independent engineers or other qualified third parties;
• Borrowers must have either 100 percent performance/payment bonds on the contractors or a guarantee from a creditworthy parent entity or an alternative acceptable to the Lender and the Agency and must be secured;
• Lender requirements prior to the disbursement of construction funds (
• The contents of monthly construction reports and quarterly progress reports submitted by the Lender to the Agency; and
• Once construction is completed, final permits and accounting of project funds.
The Agency is requiring Lenders to expeditiously report any problems in Project development to the Agency and to provide the Agency with a copy of the Notice of Completion when construction has been completed.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency added a requirement that the Lender or Borrower must submit to the Agency a non-binding letter of intent to apply for loan guarantee not
The Agency revised the application deadlines from November 1 and May 1 to October 1 and April 1, respectively.
The Agency clarified how application revisions submitted after the application deadline may impact the processing of the application and added “ownership structure” as a type of revision the Lender must report to the Agency.
The Agency revised the application process to a two-phase application (see Section IV.B.1). The Agency will use Phase 1 application information to determine Lender, Borrower, Project eligibility, economic and technical feasibility, and application priority score. Phase 2 application materials will be submitted as the Project planning and engineering develops and is finalized.
As noted earlier, the Agency is revising the requirement for a Borrower to obtain an evaluation and either a credit rating or credit assessment for loan requests of $125 million or greater to requiring only Phase 2 applicants to obtain an evaluation and rating for Projects with total Eligible Project Costs of $25 million or greater. In addition to the evaluation and rating from a nationally recognized statistical rating organization, the Agency is also using its own credit evaluation (see § 4279.215(b)) to conduct its “assessment of the credit-worthiness of a security or money market instrument.” The Agency has determined that these provisions are not in conflict with section 939A(b) of Pub. L. 111-203 (Dodd Frank).
The Agency also expanded the application requirements from submittal of the required environmental information to include submittal of an environmental analysis that meets the policies and requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act and the Agency. In addition, the Agency added to the resource assessment content a requirement to address methods and systems to prevent the spread of invasive species.
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Making conforming changes to remove reference to the financial metric criteria that are no longer part of the rule.
• Replacing reference to “technical merit” with “technical and economic feasibility” to align with the authorizing statute.
• Adding that the economic feasibility of the Project will be based on the Agency's analysis of the Feasibility Study, the Lender's credit evaluation, and other application materials.
• Deleting the three financial metric criteria for the Borrower and replaced with consideration of the Project's economic feasibility.
• For those Projects utilizing a technology that does not have a history of successful utilization in a Commercial-Scale operation of a Biorefinery that produces an Advanced Biofuel, requiring the evaluation of technical feasibility to include evidence demonstrating 120 days of continuous, steady state production from an integrated demonstration unit.
The Agency made numerous changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Revising the scoring criterion whether the Borrower has established a market for the Biofuel and Byproducts to evaluate the degree of commitment of Off-Take Agreements, duration of the Off-Take Agreements, financial strength of the off-take counterparty and dependency on subsidies. Total maximum points are increased from 10 to 20.
• Revising the scoring criterion whether the Borrower is proposing to use a feedstock not previously used in the production of Advanced Biofuels by reducing the total maximum points from 15 to 10.
• Revising the scoring criterion regarding working with cooperatives to simplify distribution of points.
• Revising the scoring criteria regarding the level of financial participation by the Borrower by changing the metric from debt-to-tangible net worth ratio to Federal participation as a percentage of total Eligible Project Costs. Total maximum points are increased from 15 to 20.
• Revising the scoring criteria whether the Borrower can establish that, if adopted, the Biofuels production technology proposed in the application will not have any economically significant negative impacts on existing manufacturing plants or other facilities that use similar feedstocks by reducing the total maximum points from 10 to 5 points.
• Revising the scoring criterion regarding the potential for Rural economic development by adding points if the majority of feedstock to be utilized by the Project, on an annual basis, is harvested from the land and by increasing total maximum points from 10 to 20 points.
• Adding Administrator discretionary points to ensure, to the extent practical, there is diversity in the types of Projects approved for loan guarantees to ensure as wide a range as possible of technologies, products, and approaches are assisted in the Program's portfolio.
• Clarifying that the Agency will award points on the basis of its review and analysis of all application materials.
The Agency added text to explain that procedures for selecting Biobased Product Manufacturing Projects will be identified in a
With the change in the application deadlines and with the implementation of the two-phase application process (see § 4279.260 above), the Agency revised the dates by which the Agency expects to rank applications each year.
The Agency also made conforming changes to accommodate the two-phase application process.
The Agency clarified the procedures on how the Agency will handle Conditional Commitments and any changes thereto, including that changes must be for Good Cause. The Agency is also making clear that the Borrower must comply with all Federal requirements then in effect for receiving Federal assistance.
The Agency clarified the specifics on how the Agency will handle the transfer of Lenders, which reflects current policy.
The Agency did not make any changes to this section.
The Agency made explicit all of the forms and documents needed at or immediately after loan closing to include the following:
• Copy of the executed Promissory Note(s);
• Copy of the executed Loan Agreement;
• Copy of the executed settlement statement and updated source and use statement including all Project funding;
• Original, executed “Unconditional Guarantee” forms, as appropriate;
• Borrower's loan closing balance sheet; and
• Any other documents required to comply with applicable law or required by the Conditional Commitment or the Agency.
The Agency reduced the number of certifications required and removed redundancy in the certifications being required.
In the certification regarding the Borrower or its officers, directors, stockholders, or other owners having an ownership interest in the Lender, the Agency replaced “substantial financial interest” with “more than a 5 percent ownership interest in the Lender.”
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The Agency made conforming changes to accommodate the inclusion of Renewable Chemicals and Biobased Product Manufacturing.
The Agency clarified that all loan servicing actions under this subpart, except for certain specific actions, are subject to Agency concurrence and that, whenever Agency approval is required, the servicing action must be for Good Cause.
As discussed above, the definitions in § 4279.202 apply for terms applicable to this subpart.
The Agency did not make any changes to this section.
The Agency made edits to clarify what is appealable versus reviewable. In addition, the Agency expanded the provisions to reflect current practice.
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Clarifying that while the Lender may contract with third parties and rely on information from qualified third parties that the Lender is solely responsible for servicing the loan.
• Adding additional examples of servicing responsibilities.
• Requiring Lenders to submit monthly Default reports.
• Revising the timeframes for submitting financial statements.
• Requiring the written summary provided by the Lender to include any violations of loan covenants and covenant waivers proposed by the Lender and any routine servicing actions performed.
• Updating the audit requirements to conform to 2 CFR part 200, subpart F and including Indian Tribes as being subject to the audit requirements.
• Clarifying, as a conforming change, that the guarantee is unenforceable under either negligent loan servicing or grossly negligent loan servicing as established in the Loan Note Guarantee.
All increases in interest rates must be for Good Cause. The Agency did not make any other substantive changes to this section.
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Clarifying that working assets can be released for routine business purposes without prior concurrence of the Agency when the loan is in good standing.
• Summarizing appraisal requirements.
• Requiring justifications and conditions for release of Collateral to include: applying the Collateral sold to Borrower debt, using net proceeds to purchase other Collateral of equal or greater value, and applying the proceeds to the business operations. Assurance that the release of Collateral is essential for the success of the business must be provided by the Lender.
The Agency made several changes to this section, including:
• Removing the limitation concerning the Subordination to a revolving line of credit cannot exceed one year.
• Replacing the requirement for adequate consideration for the Subordination with the requirement that the Subordination must be in the best financial interest of the Agency.
• Removing the provision prohibiting a Subordination from extending beyond the term of the guaranteed loan because a Subordination deals solely with the lien position on joint Collateral and does not address the term of the guaranteed loan.
• Requiring the Lender's Subordination proposal to include a financial analysis of the servicing action and be fully supported by current financial statements.
• Allowing a Subordination on accounts receivables and inventory to a line of credit.
• Providing the Agency the discretion to require an appraisal of Collateral assuring proper Collateral coverage.
• Providing the Agency the ability to deny Subordinations of the Lender's lien position for good cause.
The Agency did not make any changes to this section.
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Clarifying that a Transfer and Assumption of the Borrower's operation can take place either before or after the loan goes into liquidation.
• Prohibiting a Transfer and Assumption if Borrower Collateral has been purchased through foreclosure or the Borrower has conveyed title to the Lender.
• Providing Agency discretion as to when personal or corporate guarantees are required and whether the guarantees will be full or partial.
• Requiring that any new loan terms must also be for Good Cause.
• Adding a provision that the Agency will not approve any change in terms that results in an increase in the cost of the loan guarantee, except for good cause and only if the change otherwise conforms to applicable regulations.
• As one of the conditions for a release of liability, requiring that all of the loan Collateral is transferred to the transferee if the transferee is assuming the full amount of loan.
• If the proposed Transfer and Assumption is for less than the full amount of the Agency guaranteed loan, requiring an appraisal and limiting the appraised value of the Collateral to not less than the amount of the assumption.
• Requiring a legal opinion to accompany each request for a Transfer and Assumption.
• Prohibiting the issuance of new Promissory Notes to the transferee.
• Requiring a legal opinion that, upon its execution, the Transfer and Assumption is completed, valid, and enforceable and a certification that the Transfer and Assumption is consistent with the Agency's approved conditions for the transfer.
• Adding a requirement that, when the transfer and transferee are Affiliates or related parties, the Transfer and Assumption must be to an eligible Borrower and must continue the Project for eligible purposes as well as be for the full amount of the guaranteed loan indebtedness.
• Providing a description of the calculation of the transfer fee.
• Removing, with regard to change in control of the Borrower, reference to “change of control means the merger of the borrower, sale of all or substantially all of the assets of the borrower, or the sale of more than 25 percent of the stock or other equity interest of either the borrower or its corporate parent.”
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Requiring the Lender to transfer the original Promissory Note and loan security documents to the new Lender, who must agree to the current loan terms.
• Adding additional procedures to be followed when there is a substitution of Lender.
• Requiring the request for a substitute Lender to be from the Borrower, the proposed substitute, and the original Lender if still in existence.
• Clarifying that where a Lender has been merged with or acquired by another Lender, the new Lender must execute a new Lender's Agreement unless the new Lender already has a valid Lender's Agreement with the Agency.
The Agency added this new section to address procedures when a Lender fails.
The acquiring Lender must take such action that a reasonable Lender would take if it did not have a Loan Note Guarantee.
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Clarifying Lender duties in the event of a loss, including acting reasonably, working with the Borrower to cure the Default, and minimizing potential loss in the case of liquidation.
• Requiring monthly (rather than every other month) reports while the loan is still in Default.
• Removing reference to subsequent loan guarantees as a servicing option.
• Prohibiting capitalization of accrued Interest.
• Allowing balloon payments as a servicing option under certain conditions.
• Prohibiting the Lender from claiming Default or penalty Interest, late payment fees, and Interest-on-Interest when there is a loss or repurchase.
• Prohibiting debt write-down by the Lender where the Lender will continue with the Project loan, except as directed or ordered by a final court order.
• In instances of a loss, not allowing the guarantee to cover any accrued Interest in accordance with the Interest Termination Date as discussed earlier under § 4279.220.
The Agency made several changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Clarifying that Protective Advance claims are paid only at the time of the final loss payment.
• Not allowing the guarantee to cover Interest on the Protective Advance accruing after the Interest Termination Date as discussed earlier under § 4279.220.
• Revising the cumulative total of Protective Advances for which Agency authorization is required from “$100,000” to “$200,000 or 10 percent of the outstanding principal, whichever is less.”
The Agency made a number of changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Clarifying that when the decision to liquidate is made, if any portion of the loan has been sold or assigned, provisions will be made for repurchase.
• Explaining more clearly how the Agency will handle the Lender's liquidation plan, including its approval and the resolution of any Agency concerns.
• Requiring the Lender to take such actions that a reasonable Lender would take without a guarantee and to keep the Agency informed of such actions.
• Allowing a liquidation plan to be submitted with an estimate of Collateral value with Agency approval subject to the results of the final liquidation appraisal.
• Requiring the Lender to notify the Agency of any changes and updates (
• Clarifying provisions regarding protective bids.
• Explaining when Agency approval is or is not required for acceleration.
• Limiting the accrual of Interest in accordance in the Interest Termination Date as discussed earlier under § 4279.220.
• Explaining more clearly the process for compromise settlements.
• Spelling out the responsibilities of the Lender during litigation proceedings.
The Agency made a number of changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Prohibiting the estimated loss payment from being used to reduce the unpaid balance owed by the Borrower.
• Revising the time period that the Agency will not guarantee accrued Interest in accordance with the Interest Termination Date as discussed earlier under § 4279.220.
• Allowing the Agency to consider a compromise settlement of Federal Debt after it has processed a final “Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss” and issued a 60 day due process letter.
• Prohibiting the sharing of any funds collected on Federal Debt with the Lender.
• Expanding the provision for the consideration of Liquidation Expenses to include:
○ Prohibiting the Lender from claiming any Liquidation Expenses in excess of liquidation proceeds.
○ Requiring Agency approval of any changes to the Liquidation Expenses that exceed 10 percent of the amount proposed in the liquidation plan.
○ Sharing equally between the Lender and Agency reasonable attorney/legal expense.
○ Prohibiting the guarantee fee and annual renewal fee as an authorized Liquidation Expense.
The Agency revised this section to require the Lender, after the final loss claim has been paid, to use reasonable efforts to attempt collection from any party still liable on the guaranteed loan. Any net proceeds from that effort must be split Pro Rata between the Lender and the Agency based on the original amount of the loan guarantee.
The Agency made a number of changes and clarifications to this section, including:
• Requiring Lenders to monitor bankruptcy plans to determine Borrower compliance and, if the Borrower fails to comply, pursue appropriate relief.
• Requiring Lenders to submit a Default status report within 15 days after the date the Borrower Defaults and every 30 days thereafter until the Default is resolved or a final loss claim is paid by the Agency. The Default status report will be used to inform the Agency of the bankruptcy filing, the plan confirmation date, when the plan is complete, and when the Borrower is not in compliance with the plan.
• Requiring the Lender to request a bankruptcy loss payment of the guaranteed portion of the accrued Interest and principal discharged by the court for all bankruptcies when all or a portion of the debt has been discharged.
• Allowing only one bankruptcy loss payment during the bankruptcy proceeding unless the Bankruptcy Court approves a subsequent change to the bankruptcy plan.
• Requiring the Lender to use the Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss form to request a bankruptcy loss payment or to revise any bankruptcy loss payments.
• Revising when Protective Advances can be payable under the guarantee in the final loss claim and what kinds of expenses can be considered Liquidation Expenses.
• Expanding the types of expenses incurred during bankruptcy proceedings beyond just legal expenses and how those expenses will be treated.
The Agency did not make any substantive changes to this section.
RD encourages interested persons and organizations to submit written comments, which may include data, suggestions, or opinions. Commenters should include their name, address, and other appropriate contact information. If persons with disabilities (
Comments may be submitted by any of the means identified in the
Loan programs—Business and industry, Loan programs—Rural development assistance, Economic development, Energy, Direct loan programs, Grant programs, Guaranteed loan programs, Renewable energy systems, Energy efficiency improvements, Rural areas.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, parts 4279 and 4287 of title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations are amended as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; and 7 U.S.C. 1989.
The purpose of the Biorefinery, Renewable Chemical, and Biobased Product Manufacturing Program is to assist in the development of new and emerging technologies for the development of Advanced Biofuels, Renewable Chemicals, and Biobased Product Manufacturing. This is achieved through guarantees for loans made to fund the development, construction, and Retrofitting of Commercial-Scale Biorefineries using Eligible Technology and of Biobased Product Manufacturing facilities that use Technologically New Commercial-Scale processing and manufacturing equipment and required facilities to convert Renewable Chemicals and other biobased outputs of Biorefineries into end-user products on a Commercial Scale.
(a) This subpart and subpart D of part 4287 of this chapter contain the regulations for this Program.
(b) The Lender is responsible for ascertaining that all requirements for making, securing, servicing, and collecting the loan are complied with.
(c) Whether specifically stated or not, whenever Agency approval is required, it must be in writing.
(d) Copies of all forms, regulations, and instructions referenced in this subpart are available in any Agency office and from the USDA Rural Development Web site at
Terms used in this subpart are defined in this section. Terms used in this subpart that have the same meaning
(1) Biofuel derived from cellulose, hemicellulose, or lignin;
(2) Biofuel derived from sugar and starch (other than ethanol derived from corn kernel starch);
(3) Biofuel derived from waste material, including crop residue, other vegetative waste material, animal waste, food waste, and yard waste;
(4) Diesel-equivalent fuel derived from Renewable Biomass, including vegetable oil and animal fat;
(5) Biogas (including landfill gas and sewage waste treatment gas) produced through the conversion of organic matter from Renewable Biomass;
(6) Butanol or other alcohols produced through the conversion of organic matter from Renewable Biomass; and
(7) Other fuel derived from cellulosic biomass.
(1) Composed, in whole or in significant part, of biological products, including renewable domestic agricultural materials and forestry materials; or
(2) An intermediate ingredient or feedstock.
(1) Quarter 1 begins on January 1 and ends on March 31;
(2) Quarter 2 begins on April 1 and ends on June 30;
(3) Quarter 3 begins on July 1 and ends on September 30; and
(4) Quarter 4 begins on October 1 and ends on December 31.
(1) Its revenue will be sufficient to recover the full cost of the Project over its expected life and result in an anticipated annual rate of return sufficient to encourage investors or Lenders to provide funding for the Project;
(2) It will be able to operate profitably without public and private sector subsidies upon completion of construction (volumetric excise tax is not included as a subsidy);
(3) Contracts for feedstock are adequate to address proposed off-take; and
(4) It has the ability to achieve market entry, suitable infrastructure to transport product to its market is available, and the technology and related products are generally competitive in the market.
(1) A technology that is being adopted in a viable Commercial-Scale operation of a Biorefinery that produces an Advanced Biofuel; or
(2) A technology not described in paragraph (1) of this definition that has been demonstrated to have Technical and Economic Potential for commercial application in a Biorefinery that produces an Advanced Biofuel.
(1) The reasonably available alternatives;
(2) All known relevant factors;
(3) Program requirements; and
(4) The best interests of the government. Good cause must be approved by the Agency. Without prior approval by the Agency, alternatives that require the Agency to increase its guarantee, in either the Conditional Commitment or Loan Note Guarantee (including an increase of its subsidy costs under the Credit Reform Act of 1990), or provide additional assistance, will not be considered reasonable available alternatives under paragraph (1) of this definition or in the best interests of the government under paragraph (4) of this definition.
(1) If the Lender owns all or a portion of the guaranteed interest in the guaranteed loan or makes a Protective Advance, then the Loan Note Guarantee will not cover Interest to the Lender accruing after 90 days from the most recent Delinquency effective date as reported by the Lender.
(2) If the guaranteed loan has a Holder(s), the Lender, or the Agency, at its sole discretion, will issue an interest termination letter to the Holder(s) establishing the termination date for Interest accrual. The Loan Note Guarantee will not cover Interest to the Holder(s) accruing after the greater of:
(i) 90 days from the date of the most recent Delinquency effective date as reported by the Lender or
(ii) 30 days from the date of the interest termination letter.
(i) Are byproducts of preventive treatments that are removed to reduce hazardous fuels; to reduce or contain disease or insect infestation; or to restore ecosystem health;
(ii) Would not otherwise be used for higher-value products; and
(iii) Are harvested in accordance with applicable law and land management plans and the requirements for old-growth maintenance, restoration, and management direction of paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of subsection (e) of section 102 of the Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003 (16 U.S.C. 6512) and large-tree retention of subsection (f) of section 102; or
(2) Any organic matter that is available on a renewable or recurring basis from non-Federal land or land belonging to an Indian or Indian Tribe that is held in trust by the United States or subject to a restriction against alienation imposed by the United States, including:
(i) Renewable plant material, including feed grains; other agricultural commodities; other plants and trees; and algae; and
(ii) Waste material, including crop residue; other vegetative waste material (including wood waste and wood residues); animal waste and byproducts (including fats, oils, greases, and manure); and food waste and yard waste.
The Administrator may, with the concurrence of the Secretary of Agriculture, make an exception, on a case-by-case basis, to any requirement or provision of this subpart that is not inconsistent with any authorizing statute or applicable law, if the Administrator determines that application of the requirement or provision would adversely affect the Federal government's interest.
Borrowers, Lenders, and Holders have appeal or review rights for adverse Agency decisions made under this subpart. Adverse programmatic decisions based on clear and objective statutory or regulatory requirements are not appealable; however, such decisions are reviewable for appealability by the National Appeals Division (NAD). The Borrower, Lender, and Holder can appeal any Agency decision that directly and adversely impacts them. For an adverse decision that impacts the Borrower, the Lender and Borrower must jointly execute a written request for appeal for an alleged adverse decision made by the Agency. An adverse decision that only impacts the Lender may be appealed by the Lender only. An adverse decision that only impacts the Holder may be appealed by the Holder only. A decision by a Lender adverse to the interest of the Borrower is not a decision by the Agency, whether or not concurred in by the Agency. Appeals will be conducted by NAD and will be handled in accordance with 7 CFR part 11.
(a) No loan guaranteed by the Agency under this subpart will be conditioned on any requirement that the recipient(s) of such assistance accept or receive electric service from any particular utility, supplier, or cooperative.
(b) No loan guaranteed by the Agency may be made with the proceeds of any obligation the Interest on which is excludable from income under 26 U.S.C. 103 or a successor statute. Funds generated through the issuance of tax-exempt obligations may neither be used to purchase the guaranteed portion of any Agency guaranteed loan nor may an Agency guaranteed loan serve as Collateral for a tax-exempt issue. The Agency may guarantee a loan for a Project which involves tax-exempt financing only when the guaranteed loan funds are used to finance a part of the Project that is separate and distinct from the part which is financed by the tax-exempt obligation, and the guaranteed loan has at least a Parity security position with the tax-exempt obligation.
(c) The Agency may not issue a guarantee for a loan where there may be, directly or indirectly, a Conflict of Interest or an appearance of a Conflict of Interest involving any action by the Agency.
(d) The Agency may not guarantee lease payments.
(e) The Agency may not guarantee loans made by other Federal agencies.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart and 7 CFR part 4287, subpart D, the Agency reserves the right to be represented by the U.S. Department of Justice in any litigation where the Agency is named as a party.
(a) An eligible Lender is any Federal or State chartered bank, Farm Credit Bank, other Farm Credit System institution with direct lending authority, and Bank for Cooperatives. These entities must be subject to credit examination and supervision by either an agency of the United States or a State. Credit unions subject to credit examination and supervision by either the National Credit Union Administration or a State agency are eligible Lenders. The National Rural Utilities Cooperative Finance Corporation is also an eligible Lender. Savings and loan associations, mortgage companies, insurance companies, and other lenders not meeting the above criteria are not eligible.
(b) The Lender must demonstrate that it meets the FDIC definition of Well Capitalized at the time of application and at time of issuance of the Loan Note Guarantee. This information may be identified in FDIC Call Reports and Thrift Financial Reports. If the information is not identified in the Call Reports or Thrift Financial Reports, the Lender will be required to calculate its levels and provide them to the Agency.
(c) The Lender must not be debarred or suspended by the Federal government.
(d) If the Lender is under a cease-and-desist order, or similar constraint, from a Federal or State agency, the Lender must inform the Agency. The Agency will evaluate the Lender's eligibility on a case-by-case basis given the risk of loss posed by the cease-and-desist order or similar constraint, as applicable.
(e) The Agency will only approve loan guarantees for Lenders with adequate experience and expertise, from similar projects, to make, secure, service, and collect loans approved under this subpart.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(b)
(1) Has an outstanding judgment obtained by the U.S. in a Federal Court (other than U.S. Tax Court);
(2) Is delinquent on the payment of Federal income taxes;
(3) Is delinquent on a Federal Debt; or
(4) Is debarred or suspended from receiving Federal assistance.
(a) The Project must be located in a State.
(b) The Project must be for either:
(1) The development, construction, and Retrofitting of Technologically New Commercial-Scale processing and manufacturing equipment and required facilities that will be used to convert Renewable Chemicals and other biobased outputs of Biorefineries into end-user products on a Commercial Scale; or
(2) The development, construction, or Retrofitting of a Commercial-Scale Biorefinery using Eligible Technology.
(c) The Borrower and other principals involved in the Project must make a significant equity investment in the Project in the form of cash contribution. Equity does not include loans to the Project. The Agency will evaluate the adequacy of equity in its credit evaluation in accordance with § 4279.215(b).
(d) Eligible Project Costs are only those costs associated with the items listed in paragraphs (d)(1) through (9) of this section, as long as the items are assets owned by the Borrower or expenses incurred by the Borrower and the items are an integral and necessary part of the Project, as determined by the Agency. A Project may consist of multiple facilities or components located at multiple locations.
(1) Purchase and installation of equipment (new, refurbished, or remanufactured), including an integrated demonstration unit if the integrated demonstration unit will be used by the Borrower in the Project after the Project is developed and in operation.
(2) New construction or Retrofitting of existing facilities including reasonable contingency reserves, land acquisition, site improvements and development, and associated costs such as surveys, title insurance, title fees, and recording or transfer fees.
(3) Permit and license fees and fees and charges for professional services. Professional services are those rendered by entities generally licensed or certified by States or accreditation associations, such as architects, engineers, accountants, attorneys, or appraisers, and those rendered by Loan Packagers (excluding finders fees). The Borrower may pay fees for professional services needed for planning and developing a Project provided that the amounts are reasonable and customary in the area. Professional fees may be included as an eligible use of loan proceeds.
(4) Working Capital.
(5) Cost of necessary insurance and bonds.
(6) Cost of financing, including capitalized Interest during construction period, legal fees, transaction costs, and customary fees charged by the lender, excluding the guaranteed loan fee and annual renewal fees.
(7) Cash reserve accounts required by the Lender or Agency, such as a debt service reserve account.
(8) Any other item identified by the Agency in a notice published in the
(9) The Agency will consider refinancing only under either of the two conditions specified in paragraphs (d)(9)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(i) Permanent financing used to refinance interim construction financing of the proposed Project only if the application for the guaranteed loan under this subpart was approved prior to closing the interim loan for the construction of the Project.
(ii) Refinancing that is no more than 20 percent of the loan for which the Agency is guaranteeing and the purpose of the refinance is to enable the Agency to establish a first lien position with respect to pre-existing Collateral subject to a pre-existing lien and the refinancing would be in the best financial interests of the Federal Government.
(e) Ineligible Project costs include:
(1) Distribution or payment to an individual owner, partner, stockholder, or beneficiary of the Borrower or a close relative of such an individual when such individual will retain any portion of the ownership of the Borrower;
(2) Any line of credit;
(3) Any equipment, processes, and related costs of such equipment used for processing corn kernel starch into biofuel, including as an incidental or secondary product; and
(4) Payment in excess of actual costs (such as profit, overhead, and indirect costs) incurred by the contractor or other service provider on a contract or agreement that has been entered into at less than an Arm's Length Transaction or with an appearance of or a potential for Conflict of Interest.
(a) The Lender has the primary responsibility for loan origination and servicing. Any action or inaction on the part of the Agency does not relieve the Lender of its responsibilities to originate and service the loan guaranteed under this subpart. The Lender may contract for services and may rely on certain written materials (including, but not limited to, certifications, evaluations, appraisals, financial statements and other reports) to be provided by the Borrower or other qualified third parties (including, among others, one or more independent engineers, appraisers, accountants, consultants or other experts.) The Lender is ultimately responsible for underwriting, loan origination, loan servicing, and compliance with all Agency regulations.
(b) Agents and Persons are prohibited from acting as both Loan Packager and Loan Service Provider on the same guaranteed loan.
(c) All Lenders obtaining or requesting a Program loan guarantee are responsible for:
(1) Processing applications for guaranteed loans. The Lender is responsible for submitting a complete application for each guaranteed loan requested;
(2) Developing and maintaining adequately documented loan files, which must be maintained for at least 3 years after the final loss has been paid;
(3) Recommending only loan proposals that are eligible and financially feasible;
(4) Properly closing the loan and obtaining valid evidence of debt and Collateral in accordance with sound lending practices prior to disbursing loan proceeds;
(5) Keeping an inventory accounting of all Collateral items and reconciling the inventory of all Collateral sold during loan servicing, including liquidation;
(6) Supervising construction;
(7) Distributing loan funds;
(8) Servicing guaranteed loans in a reasonable manner, including liquidation if necessary;
(9) Following Agency regulations and agreements;
(10) Obtaining Agency approvals or concurrence as required; and
(11) Reporting all Conflicts of Interest, or appearances thereof, to the Agency.
(a) Lenders must analyze all credit factors associated with each proposed loan and apply its professional judgment to determine that the credit factors, considered in combination, to ensure loan repayment. The Lender must have an adequate underwriting process to ensure that loans are reviewed by someone other than the originating officer. The Agency will only guarantee loans that are financially sound and feasible with reasonable assurance of repayment.
(b) In its credit evaluation, the Agency will consider the following factors:
(1) The feasibility of the Project and Borrower and likelihood that the Project and Borrower will produce sufficient revenues to service the Project's debt
(2) Project and Borrower debt structure and characteristics and debt repayment ability;
(3) Revenues of the Project and Borrower, strength and duration of off-take contracts and counterparty agreements, market demand and competitive position;
(4) Technical feasibility, demonstrated performance of the technology and readiness to commercialize the technology;
(5) Ownership structure of the Project and Borrower, strength of ownership and sponsors, commitment and amount of equity investment from ownership, sponsors and other equity investors;
(6) Operational management and experience;
(7) Complexity of construction/completion, terms of construction contracts, experience and financial strength of the construction contractor or engineering, procurement, and construction (EPC) contractor;
(8) Availability and depth of resource/feedstock market, strength and duration of purchase agreements, and availability of substitutes;
(9) Contracts and intellectual property rights, and state and local regulations;
(10) Energy, infrastructure and environmental considerations;
(11) The extent to which Project Costs are funded by the guaranteed loan or other Federal and non-Federal governmental assistance such as grants, tax credits, or other loan guarantees;
(12) Economic safeguards of the Project including contingency reserve funds and protections and safeguards provided to the Agency and Lender in the event of default through loan collateral and ownership and sponsorship guarantors, and;
(13) Other criteria that the Agency deems relevant.
Lenders are responsible for becoming familiar with Federal environmental requirements; considering, in consultation with the prospective Borrower, the potential environmental impacts of their proposals at the earliest planning stages; and developing proposals that minimize the potential to adversely impact the environment.
(a) Lenders must alert the Agency to any environmental issues related to a proposed Project or items that may require extensive environmental review.
(b) Lenders must ensure that the Borrower has:
(1) Provided the necessary environmental information to enable the Agency to undertake its environmental review process in accordance with 7 CFR part 1940, subpart G, or successor regulations, including the provision of all required Federal, State, and local permits, and has completed Form RD 1940-20, “Request for Environmental Information,” and Exhibit H “Environmental Assessment for Class II Actions” (when required by 7 CFR part 1940, subpart G);
(2) Complied with any mitigation measures required by the Agency; and
(3) Not taken any actions or incurred any obligations with respect to the proposed Project that will either limit the range of alternatives to be considered during the Agency's environmental review process or which will have an adverse effect on the environment.
(c) Lenders must assist in the collection of additional data when the Agency needs such data to complete its environmental review of the proposal and assist in the resolution of environmental issues.
The Lender must permit representatives of the Agency (or other agencies of the United States) to inspect and make copies of any records of the Lender pertaining to Program guaranteed loans during regular office hours of the Lender or at any other time upon agreement between the Lender and the Agency. In addition, the Lender must cooperate fully with Agency oversight and monitoring of all Lenders involved in any manner with any loan guarantee under this Program to ensure compliance with this subpart. Such oversight and monitoring will include, but is not limited to, reviewing Lender records and meeting with Lenders (in accordance with § 4287.307(d) of this chapter).
A loan guarantee under this part will be evidenced by a Loan Note Guarantee issued by the Agency. Each Lender will execute a Lender's Agreement. If a valid Lender's Agreement already exists, it is not necessary to execute a new Lender's Agreement with each loan guarantee. The provisions of this part and 7 CFR part 4287, subpart D will apply to all outstanding guarantees. In the event of a conflict between the guaranteed loan documents and these regulations as they exist at the time the documents are executed, the regulations will control.
(a)
(2) The guarantee will be unenforceable to the extent that any loss is occasioned by:
(i) A provision for Interest on Interest, Default or penalty Interest, or late payment fees;
(ii) The violation of usury laws;
(iii) Use of loan proceeds for unauthorized purposes or to the extent that loan funds are used for purposes other than those specifically approved by the Agency in its Conditional Commitment;
(iv) Failure to obtain or maintain the required security regardless of the time at which the Agency acquires knowledge thereof; and
(v) Negligent Loan Origination or Negligent Loan Servicing unless otherwise determined under paragraph (d) of this section.
(3) The Agency will guarantee payment as follows:
(i) To any Holder, 100 percent of any loss sustained by the Holder on the guaranteed portion of the loan it owns and Interest through the Interest Termination Date due on such portion.
(ii) To the Lender, subject to the provisions of this part and subpart D of part 4287 of this chapter, the lesser of:
(A) Any loss sustained by the Lender on the guaranteed portion, including principal and Interest, through the Interest Termination Date, evidenced by the notes or assumption agreements and secured advances for protection and preservation of Collateral made with the Agency's authorization; or
(B) The guaranteed principal advanced to or assumed by the Borrower and any Interest due thereon through the Interest Termination Date.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) The lender has demonstrated capacity and experience in making and servicing loans of similar amounts and for transactions of comparable complexity;
(2) The Agency's review of the Lender's underwriting, loan approval and loan servicing policies and procedures, and;
(3) The Agency's review of the Lender's loan servicing plan.
When a guaranteed portion of a loan is sold to a Holder, the Holder will succeed to all rights of the Lender under the Loan Note Guarantee to the extent of the portion purchased.
(a) The Lender will remain bound to all obligations under the Loan Note Guarantee, Lender's Agreement, and the Agency Program regulations.
(b) A guarantee and right to require purchase will be directly enforceable by a Holder notwithstanding any fraud or misrepresentation by the Lender or any unenforceability of the guarantee by the Lender, except for fraud or misrepresentation of which the Holder had actual knowledge at the time it became the Holder or in which the Holder participates or condones.
(c) The Lender must reimburse the Agency for any payments the Agency makes to a Holder of Lender's guaranteed loan that, under the Loan Note Guarantee, would not have been paid to the Lender had the Lender retained the entire interest in the guaranteed loan and not conveyed an interest to a Holder.
A Lender will receive all payments of principal and Interest on account of the entire loan and must promptly remit to the Holder its Pro Rata share of any payment within 30 days of the Lender's receipt thereof from the Borrower, determined according to its respective interest in the loan, less only the Lender's servicing fee.
The Lender may Participate or sell all or part of the guaranteed portion of the loan or retain the entire loan. The Lender must fully disburse and properly close a loan prior to sale of any portion of the Promissory Note(s). The Lender cannot Participate or sell any amount of the guaranteed or unguaranteed portion of the loan to the Borrower or its parent, subsidiary or Affiliate or to officers, directors, stockholders, other owners, or members of their Immediate Families. The Lender cannot share any premium received from the sale of a guaranteed loan in the secondary market with a Loan Packager or other Loan Service Provider. The participating Lenders and Holders and the Borrower can have no rights or obligations to one another. If the Lender desires to market all or part of the guaranteed portion of the loan at or subsequent to loan closing, such loan must not be in Default. Lenders may use either the single Promissory Note or multi-note system as outlined in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
(a)
(1) The Lender may assign all or part of the guaranteed portion of the loan to one or more Holders by using the Assignment Guarantee Agreement. The Lender must retain title to the Promissory Note. The Lender must complete and execute the Assignment Guarantee Agreement and return it to the Agency for execution prior to Holder execution.
(2) A Holder, upon written notice to the Lender and the Agency, may reassign the unpaid guaranteed portion of the loan, in full, sold under the Assignment Guarantee Agreement. Holders may only reassign the guaranteed portion in the complete block they have received and cannot subdivide or further split the guaranteed portion of a loan or retain an Interest strip.
(3) Upon notification and completion of the assignment through the use of the Assignment Guarantee Agreement, the assignee shall succeed to all rights and obligations of the Holder thereunder. Subsequent assignments require notice to the Lender and Agency using any format, including that used by the Bond Market Association, together with the transfer of the original Assignment Guarantee Agreement.
(4) The Agency will neither execute a new Assignment Guarantee Agreement to effect a subsequent reassignment nor reissue a duplicate Assignment Guarantee Agreement unless:
(i) The original was lost, stolen, destroyed, mutilated, or defaced; and
(ii) The reissue is in accordance with § 4279.226.
(5) The Assignment Guarantee Agreement clearly states the percentage and corresponding amount of the guaranteed portion it represents and the Lender's servicing fee. A servicing fee may be charged by the Lender to a Holder and is calculated as a percentage per annum of the unpaid balance of the guaranteed portion of the loan assigned by the Assignment Guarantee Agreement. The Agency is not and will not be a party to any contract between the Lender and another party where the Lender sells its servicing fee in an Arm's Length Transaction. The Agency will not acknowledge, approve, or have any liability to any of the parties of such contract.
(b)
The Lender is required to hold a minimum of 7.5 percent of the total loan amount. The amount required to be held must be of the unguaranteed portion of the loan and cannot be Participated to another Person. The Agency may reduce the minimum retention below 7.5 percent on a case by case basis when the Lender establishes to the Secretary's satisfaction that reduction of the minimum retention percentage is to meet compliance with the Lender's regulatory authority. The Lender must retain interest in the Collateral, and retain the servicing responsibilities for the guaranteed loan.
(a)
(b)
(2) If the Agency repurchases 100 percent of the guaranteed portion of the loan, the Agency will not continue collection of the Annual Renewal Fee from the Lender.
(3) If the Lender does not repurchase the unpaid guaranteed portion of the loan as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the Agency will purchase from the Holder the unpaid principal balance of the guaranteed portion together with accrued Interest to date of repurchase or the Interest Termination Date, whichever is sooner, less the Lender's servicing fee, within 30 days after written demand to the Agency from the Holder.
(4) When Lender has accelerated the account, and subject to the expiration of any forbearance or workout agreement, the Lender, or the Agency at its sole discretion, must issue a letter to the Holder(s) establishing the Interest Termination Date. Accrued Interest to be paid to the Holder(s) will be calculated from the date Interest was last paid on the loan with a termination date not to exceed the Interest Termination Date.
(5) When the Lender has accelerated the account and the Lender holds all or a portion of the guaranteed loan, an estimated loss claim (loan in the liquidation process) must be filed by the Lender with the Agency within 60 days. Accrued Interest paid to the Lender will be calculated from the date Interest was last paid on the loan to the Interest Termination Date.
(6) The Holder's demand to the Agency must include a copy of the written demand made upon the Lender. The Holder must also include evidence of its right to require payment from the Agency. Such evidence must consist of either the original of the Loan Note Guarantee properly endorsed to the Agency or the original of the Assignment Guarantee Agreement properly assigned to the Agency without recourse including all rights, title, and interest in the loan. When the single-note system is utilized and the initial Holder has sold its interest, the current Holder must present the original Assignment Guarantee Agreement and an original of each Agency approved reassignment document in the chain of ownership, with the latest reassignment being assigned to the Agency without recourse, including all rights, title, and interest in the guarantee. The Holder must include in its demand the amount due including unpaid principal, unpaid Interest to date of demand, and Interest subsequently accruing from date of demand to proposed payment date. The Agency will be subrogated to all rights of the Holder.
(7) Upon request by the Agency, the Lender must furnish within 30 days of such request a current statement certified by an appropriate authorized officer of the Lender of the unpaid principal and Interest then owed by the Borrower on the loan and the amount then owed to any Holder, along with the information necessary for the Agency to determine the appropriate amount due the Holder. Any discrepancy between the amount claimed by the Holder and the information submitted by the Lender must be resolved between the Lender and the Holder before payment will be approved. Such conflict will suspend the running of the 30 day payment requirement.
(8) Purchase by the Agency neither changes, alters, nor modifies any of the Lender's obligations to the Agency arising from the loan or guarantee nor does it waive any of Agency's rights against the Lender. The Agency will have the right to set-off against the Lender all rights inuring to the Agency as the Holder of the instrument against the Agency's obligation to the Lender under the guarantee.
(c)
(a) The Agency may issue a replacement Loan Note Guarantee or Assignment Guarantee Agreement which was lost, stolen, destroyed, mutilated, or defaced to the Lender or Holder upon receipt of an acceptable certificate of loss and an indemnity bond.
(b) When a Loan Note Guarantee or Assignment Guarantee Agreement is lost, stolen, destroyed, mutilated, or defaced while in the custody of the Lender or Holder, the Lender must coordinate the activities of the party who seeks the replacement documents and must submit the required documents to the Agency for processing. The requirements for replacement are as follows:
(1) A certificate of loss, notarized and containing a jurat, which includes:
(i) Name and address of owner;
(ii) Name and address of the Lender of record;
(iii) Capacity of Person certifying;
(iv) Full identification of the Loan Note Guarantee or Assignment Guarantee Agreement including the name of the Borrower, the Agency's case number, date of the Loan Note Guarantee or Assignment Guarantee Agreement, face amount of the evidence of debt purchased, date of evidence of debt, present balance of the loan, percentage of guarantee, and, if an Assignment Guarantee Agreement, the original named Holder and the percentage of the guaranteed portion of the loan assigned to that Holder. Any existing parts of the document to be replaced must be attached to the certificate;
(v) A full statement of circumstances of the loss, theft, destruction, defacement, or mutilation of the Loan Note Guarantee or Assignment Guarantee Agreement; and
(vi) For the Holder, evidence demonstrating current ownership of the Loan Note Guarantee and Promissory Note or the Assignment Guarantee Agreement. If the present Holder is not the same as the original Holder, a copy of the endorsement of each successive Holder in the chain of transfer from the initial Holder to present Holder must be included. If copies of the endorsement cannot be obtained, best available
(2) An indemnity bond acceptable to the Agency must accompany the request for replacement except when the Holder is the United States, a Federal Reserve Bank, a Federal corporation, a State or territory, or the District of Columbia. The indemnity bond must be with surety except when the outstanding principal balance and accrued Interest due the present Holder is less than $1 million verified by the Lender in writing in a letter of certification of balance due. The surety must be a qualified surety company holding a certificate of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury and listed in Treasury Department Circular 570.
(3) All indemnity bonds must be issued and payable to the United States of America acting through the Agency. The bond must be in an amount not less than the unpaid principal and Interest. The bond must hold the Agency harmless against any claim or demand that might arise or against any damage, loss, costs, or expenses that might be sustained or incurred by reasons of the loss or replacement of the instruments.
(4) In those cases where the guaranteed loan was closed under the provision of the multi-note system, the Agency will not attempt to obtain, or participate in the obtaining of, replacement Promissory Notes from the Borrower. The Holder is responsible for bearing the costs of Promissory Note replacement if the Borrower agrees to issue a replacement instrument. Should such Promissory Note be replaced, the terms of the Promissory Note cannot be changed. If the evidence of debt has been lost, stolen, destroyed, mutilated or defaced, such evidence of debt must be replaced before the Agency will replace any instruments.
In accordance with the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691,
(a)
(1) For loans receiving a 90 percent guarantee, the guarantee fee is three percent.
(2) For loans receiving less than a 90 percent guarantee, the guarantee fee is:
(i) Two percent for guarantees on loans greater than 75 percent of total Eligible Project Costs.
(ii) One and one-half percent for guarantees on loans of greater than 65 percent but less than or equal to 75 percent of total Eligible Project Costs.
(iii) One percent for guarantees on loans of 65 percent or less of total Eligible Project Costs.
(b)
(1) The amount of the annual renewal fee is calculated by the outstanding principal loan balance as of December 31 of each year multiplied by the Annual Renewal Fee rate, multiplied by the percent of guarantee. The rate is the rate in effect at the time the loan is obligated, and will remain in effect for the life of the loan.
(2) The Annual Renewal Fee is paid once a year and is required to maintain the enforceability of the guarantee as to the lender. Annual Renewal Rees are due on January 31. Payments not received by April 1 are considered delinquent and, at the Agency's discretion, may result in cancellation of the guarantee to the lender. Holders' rights will continue in effect as specified in the Loan Note Guarantee and Assignment Guarantee Agreement. Any delinquent Annual Renewal Fees will bear interest at the note rate and will be deducted from any loss payment due the lender. For loans where the Loan Note Guarantee is issued between October 1 and December 31, the first Annual Renewal Fee payment will be due January 31 of the second year following the date the Loan Note Guarantee was issued.
(3) When the Agency repurchases 100 percent of the guaranteed portion of the loan, the Agency will not continue collection of the Annual Renewal Fee.
(4) Unless otherwise specified by the Agency in a notice published in the
(i) One hundred basis points (1 percent) for guarantees on loans that were originally greater than 75 percent of total Eligible Project Costs.
(ii) Seventy five basis points (0.75 percent) for guarantees on loans that were originally greater than 65 percent but less than or equal to 75 percent of total Eligible Project Costs.
(iii) Fifty basis points (0.50 percent) for guarantees on loans that were originally for 65 percent or less of Total Eligible Project Costs.
(c)
(a) The amount of a loan guaranteed for a Project under this subpart will not exceed 80 percent of total Eligible Project Costs. Total Federal participation will not exceed 80 percent of total Eligible Project Costs. The Borrower needs to provide the remaining 20 percent from non-Federal sources to complete the Project. Eligible Project Costs are specified in § 4279.210(d). If an eligible Borrower receives other direct Federal funding (
(b) The maximum principal amount of a loan guaranteed under this subpart is $250 million to one Borrower; there is no minimum amount.
(c) The maximum guarantee on the principal and Interest due on a loan guaranteed under this subpart will be determined as specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section.
(1) If the loan amount is equal to or less than $125 million, 80 percent for the entire loan amount unless all of the conditions specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section are met, in which case 90 percent for the entire loan amount.
(i) Total Federal participation, sum of the amount of the loan requested and other direct Federal funding, must not be greater than 60 percent of total Eligible Project Costs;
(ii) Feedstock and Off-Take Agreements of at least 1 year in duration; and
(iii) Total of revenues from tax credits, carbon credits, or other Federal or State subsidies cannot be greater than 10 percent of the Project's total revenues on an annual basis, in the Borrower's base case of financial projections.
(2) If the loan amount is more than $125 million and less than $150 million, 80 percent for the entire loan amount.
(3) If the loan amount is equal to or more than $150 million but less than $200 million, 70 percent on the entire loan amount.
(4) If the loan amount is $200 million up to and including $250 million, 60 percent on the entire loan amount.
The Interest rate for the guaranteed loan will be negotiated between the Lender and the Borrower and may be either fixed or variable, or a combination thereof, as long as it is a legal rate. Interest rates will not be more than those rates the Lender customarily charges Borrowers for non-guaranteed loans in similar circumstances in the ordinary course of business and are subject to Agency review and approval. Lenders are encouraged to utilize the secondary market and pass Interest-rate savings on to the Borrower.
(a) A variable Interest rate must be a rate that is tied to a published base rate. The variable Interest rate must be specified in the Promissory Note and may be adjusted at specified intervals during the term of the loan, but the adjustments may not be more often than once each Calendar Quarter. The Lender must incorporate, within the variable rate Promissory Note at loan closing, the provision for adjustment of payment installments. The Lender must properly amortize the outstanding principal balance within the prescribed loan maturity in order to eliminate the possibility of a balloon payment at the end of the loan.
(b) Any change in the base rate or fixed Interest rate between issuance of the Conditional Commitment and the issuance of the Loan Note Guarantee must be approved by the Agency. Approval of such a change must be shown as an amendment to the Conditional Commitment and must be reflected on the Guaranteed Loan Closing Report.
(c) It is permissible to have different Interest rates on the guaranteed and unguaranteed portions of the loan.
The loan terms, other than Interest, must be the same for both the guaranteed and unguaranteed portions of the loan.
(a) The repayment term for a loan under this subpart will be no greater than the lesser of 20 years from the date of loan closing or the useful life of the Project, as determined by the Lender and confirmed by the Agency. Both the guaranteed and unguaranteed portions of the loan must be amortized over the same term.
(b) A loan's maturity will take into consideration the use of proceeds, the useful life of assets being financed, and the Borrower's ability to repay the loan.
(c) The first installment of principal and Interest will, if possible, be scheduled for payment after the Project is operational and has begun to generate income. However, the first full installment must be due and payable within three years from the date of the Promissory Note and be paid at least annually thereafter. In cases where there is an Interest-only period, Interest will be paid at least annually from the date of the Promissory Note.
(d) Only loans that require a periodic payment schedule that will retire the debt over the term of the loan without a balloon payment will be guaranteed except the final payment may be the funds held in the debt service reserve account.
The Lender is responsible for obtaining and maintaining proper and adequate Collateral to protect the interest of the Lender, the Holder, and the Agency. Collateral must be of such a nature that repayment of the loan is reasonably ensured when considered with the integrity and ability of Project management, soundness of the Project, and the Borrower's prospective earnings. The Collateral may include, but is not limited to, the following: Revenue, land, easements, rights-of-way, buildings, machinery, equipment, inventory, accounts receivable, contracts, cash, or other accounts, licenses and assignments of leases or leasehold interest.
(a) The entire loan, the guaranteed and unguaranteed portions, must be secured by a first lien on all assets of the Project including all assets in the Project budget. The Agency may consider a subordinate lien position on inventory and accounts receivable to Working Capital loans including revolving lines of credit provided the Agency determines the Working Capital is necessary for the operation and with the Subordination, the loan remains adequately secured.
(b) The entire loan must be secured by the same security with equal lien priority for the guaranteed and unguaranteed portions of the loan. The unguaranteed portion of the loan will neither be paid first nor given any preference or priority over the guaranteed portion.
The Lender is responsible for ensuring that required insurance is maintained by the Borrower. The Lender must be shown as an additional insured on insurance policies (or other risk sharing instruments) that benefit the Project and must be able to assume any contracts that are material to the Project, including any feedstock or Off-Take Agreements, as may be applicable.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a) Lenders must obtain appraisals for real estate when the value of the Collateral exceeds $250,000. Each appraisal must be reported in a manner that summarizes all of the information necessary for the intended users to understand the report and contain all information pertinent to the appraiser's opinions and conclusions.
(1) Appraisals must not be more than one year old, and a more recent appraisal may be requested by the Agency in order to reflect more current market conditions. For loan servicing purposes, an appraisal may be updated in lieu of a complete new appraisal when the original appraisal is more than one year old, but less than two years old.
(2) Specialized appraisers will be required to complete appraisals under this section. The Agency may approve a waiver of this requirement only if a specialized appraiser does not exist in a specific industry. The Agency will require documentation that the appraiser has the necessary experience and competency to appraise the property in question.
(3) All real property appraisals associated with Agency guaranteed loan origination and servicing transactions must meet the requirements contained in the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act (FIRREA) of 1989 and the appropriate guidelines contained in Standards 1 and 2 of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practices (USPAP) and be performed by a State Certified General Appraiser. Notwithstanding any exemption that may exist for transactions guaranteed by a Federal Government agency, all appraisals obtained by the Lender for origination and servicing must conform to the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluations Guidelines established by the Lender's primary Federal or State regulator.
(4) All appraisals must include consideration of the potential effects from a release of hazardous substances or petroleum products or other environmental hazards on the Market Value of the Collateral. The Lender must complete and submit its technical review of the appraisal. For construction Projects, the Lender must use the “as-completed” Market Value of the real estate to determine value of the real estate property. For all proposals, Lenders must obtain a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment in accordance with ASTM International Standards, which should be provided to the appraiser for completion of the appraisal. For additional guidance and information refer to “Phase I Environmental Site Assessment,” published by the American Society of Testing and Materials.
(b) Chattels must be evaluated in accordance with normal banking practices and generally accepted methods of determining value. Chattel appraisals must reflect the age, condition, and remaining useful life of the equipment. If the appraisal is completed by a State licensed/certified appraiser, the appraisal report must comply with USPAP Standards 7 and 8.
(a) Unconditional personal and corporate guarantees are required for the full term of the loan from Persons owning 20 percent or greater interest in the borrower.
(b) When warranted by an Agency assessment and its credit evaluation, guarantees may also be required of parent, subsidiaries, affiliated companies, Persons owning less than a 20 percent interest in the borrower, or Persons whose ownership interest in the Borrower is held indirectly through intermediate entities.
(c) The Agency may require the guarantees to be secured.
(d) Partial guarantees and exemptions to the requirement for guarantees may be requested by the Lender and are subject to concurrence by the Agency approval official on a case-by-case basis when warranted by an Agency assessment and its credit evaluation in accordance with § 4279.215(b). If partial guarantees are required, the partial guarantee will be at least equal to each owner's percentage of interest in the Borrower multiplied by the loan amount.
(e) All personal and corporate guarantors must execute Form RD 4279-14, “Unconditional Guarantee,” and any guarantee form required by the Lender. The Agency will retain the original, executed Form RD 4279-14.
(1) Any amounts paid by the Agency on behalf of an Agency Borrower will constitute a Federal Debt owed to the Agency by the Borrower.
(2) Any amounts paid by the Agency pursuant to a claim by a Lender will constitute a Federal Debt owed to the Agency by a guarantor of the loan, to the extent of the amount of the guarantor's guarantee.
(3) In all instances under paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, Interest charges will be assessed at the Promissory Note Interest rate on the date a loss claim is paid.
The Lender and Borrower must comply with paragraphs (a) through (i) of this section. The Lender may contract for services and may rely on certain written materials and other reports to be provided by an independent engineer and other qualified third parties.
(a)
(b)
(2) The Lender must ensure an onsite Project inspector or independent engineer monitors the Project.
(3) The Lender must monitor the Project to confirm that the Project will be completed with available funds and, once completed, will be used for its intended purpose and produce products in the quality and quantity proposed in the completed application approved by the Agency. Once construction is completed, the Lender must provide the
(4) Prior to the disbursement of construction funds, the Lender shall:
(i) Have on file the major drawings issued for construction and major equipment specifications issued for procurement;
(ii) Have a detailed timetable for the Project with a corresponding budget of costs, setting forth the parties responsible for payment;
(iii) Ensure that the independent engineer confirms that the budget is adequate for the Project;
(iv) Require the Borrower to have a firm fixed-price engineering, procurement and construction (EPC) contract in place which includes performance guarantees customary and reasonable for a project of this nature or engineering, construction, and procurement contracts in place with vendors and construction contractors for the construction of the Project, each on customary terms and conditions;
(v) Require provisions for change order approvals, a retainage percentage, and a disbursement schedule;
(vi) Require the Borrower to have contingencies in place to handle unforeseeable cost overruns without seeking additional Agency assistance. These contingencies must be agreed to by the Agency.
(c)
(d)
(1) Certification by the Project engineer to the Lender that the work referred to in the draw has been successfully completed;
(2) Certification that all debts have been paid and all mechanics' liens have been waived; and
(3) Certification that the Borrower is complying with the Davis-Bacon Act (see paragraph (h) of this section).
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(1) Monthly construction reports documenting the use of the Project funding until construction is completed. The reports must include the following:
(i) Certifications for each draw request:
(A) Certification by the independent engineer to the Lender that the work referred to in the draw has been successfully completed;
(B) Certification from the Borrower and independent engineer or that the proceeds of the prior draw have been applied to Eligible Project Costs in accordance with the draw request and that the contractors have delivered mechanics' lien waivers in connection with such draw; and
(C) Certification from the Borrower as to its compliance with the Davis-Bacon Act confirmed by the independent engineer;
(ii) List of invoices;
(iii) Detail of equity and Guaranteed Loan funds paid to date;
(iv) Status of construction and inspection reports; and
(v) Concerns, potential problems, cost overruns, etc.
(2) Quarterly progress reports by the end of each Calendar Quarter, unless more frequent ones are needed as determined by the Agency, through the time when the facility is producing at its designed capacity at a steady state. These reports must contain, at a minimum, planned and completed construction milestones, loan advances, and personnel hiring, training, and retention and commissioning and ramp-up milestones and performance reports. This requirement applies to both the development and construction of Commercial-Scale Biorefineries and to the Retrofitting of existing facilities using Eligible Technology for the development of Advanced Biofuels and Biobased Products including Renewable Chemicals. The Lender must expeditiously report any problems in Project development to the Agency.
(3) Once construction is completed, the Lender must provide the Agency with:
(i) A copy of all required material building permits, with sign-offs;
(ii) Notice of Completion or an Agency approved equivalent; and
(iii) Final accounting of sources and uses of all Project funds.
(a)
(1) Land use zoning;
(2) Health, safety, and sanitation standards as well as design and installation standards; and
(3) Protection of the environment and consumer affairs.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a)
(2) For each guarantee request, the Lender must submit to the Agency an application that is in conformance with § 4279.261. The methods of application submittal will be specified in the annual
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Lenders must submit a complete application for each loan guarantee sought under this subpart. Components of an application are submitted in two phases. Phase I applications, which are the initial application submissions, must contain the information specified in paragraphs (a) through (j) of this section, organized pursuant to a table of contents in a chapter format. Phase 2 application components may be submitted after the Agency invites the Lender and Borrower to make the phase 2 submittal and must contain the information specified in paragraph (k) of this section.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(b)
(c)
(2) A current (not more than 90 days old) balance sheet and a pro forma balance sheet at startup.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) Describe or provide an organizational chart of the Borrower's ownership structure and affiliation with other entities, if any. The names and a description of the relationship of the Borrower's parent, Affiliates, and subsidiaries. Identify local ownership.
(2) The Borrower's succession planning, addressing both ownership and management.
(3) The Borrower's experience and management experience.
(4) The products and services to be provided and the Borrower's business strategy.
(5) Possible vendors and models of major system components.
(6) The availability of the resources (
(7) Site location and its relation to product distribution (
(8) The market for the product and its competition, including any and all competitive threats and advantages.
(9) Projected balance sheets, income and expense statements, and cash flow statements for a period of not less than three years of stabilized operation.
(10) A description of the proposed use of funds.
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(2) An appraisal conducted as specified under § 4279.244.
(3) A proposed Loan Agreement or a sample Loan Agreement with an attached list of the proposed Loan Agreement provisions as specified in paragraphs (k)(3)(i) through (ix) of this section.
(i) Prohibition against assuming liabilities or obligations of others.
(ii) Restriction on dividend payments.
(iii) Limitation on the purchase or sale of equipment and fixed assets.
(iv) Limitation on compensation of officers and owners.
(v) Minimum Working Capital or current ratio requirement.
(vi) Maximum debt-to-net worth ratio.
(vii) Restrictions concerning consolidations, mergers, or other circumstances.
(viii) Limitations on selling the business without the concurrence of the Lender.
(ix) Repayment and amortization of the loan.
(4) Environmental Assessment must meet the policies and requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act and the Agency (as specified in Exhibit H of 7 CFR part 1940, subpart G.) Guidelines for preparing the Environmental Assessment are available from the Agency and published in the annual
(5) Under the direction of the Agency, an evaluation and rating of the total Project's indebtedness, without consideration for a government guarantee, from a nationally-recognized statistical rating organization (NRSRO), as defined by the U.S. Security and Exchange Commission, for all Projects with total Eligible Project Costs of $25 million or more unless as otherwise specified by the Agency in a notice published in the
(6) Lender's analysis and credit evaluation that conforms to § 4279.215 and must include the information specified in paragraphs (k)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(i) The credit reports of the Borrower, its principals, and any parent, Affiliate, or subsidiary as follows:
(A) Unless otherwise determined by the Agency, a personal credit report from an Agency-approved credit reporting company for individuals who are key employees of the Borrower, as determined by the Agency, and for individuals owning 20 percent or more interest in the Borrower or any owner with more than 10 percent ownership interest in the Borrower if there is no owner with more than 20 percent ownership interest in the Borrower, except for when the Borrower is a corporation listed on a major stock exchange; and
(B) Commercial credit reports on the Borrower and any parent, Affiliate, and subsidiary firms.
(ii) Financial and sensitivity review using a financial modeling software program or a banking industry software analysis program with industry standards, when appropriate.
(7) Whether the Loan Note Guarantee is requested prior to construction or after completion of construction of the Project.
(8) The technical assessment must be completed by a qualified independent engineer and must demonstrate that the design, procurement, installation, startup, operation and maintenance of the Project will permit it to operate or perform as specified over its useful life in a reliable and a cost effective manner, and must identify what the useful life of the Project is. The technical assessment must also identify all necessary Project agreements, demonstrate that those agreements will be in place at or before the time of loan closing, and demonstrate that necessary Project equipment and services will be available over the useful life of the Project. The technical assessment must be based upon verifiable data and contain sufficient information and analysis so that a determination can be made on the technical feasibility of achieving the levels of income or production that are projected in the financial statements. All technical information provided must follow the format specified in paragraphs (k)(8)(i) through (ix) of this section. Supporting information may be submitted in other formats. Design drawings and process flow charts are required as exhibits. A discussion of a topic identified in paragraphs (k)(8)(i) through (ix) of this section is not necessary if the topic is not applicable to the specific Project. Questions identified in the Agency's technical review of the Project must be answered to the Agency's satisfaction before the application will be approved. All Projects require the services of an independent, third-party professional engineer.
(i)
(A) Discuss the proposed Project delivery method. Such methods include a design-bid-build method, where a separate engineering firm may design the Project and prepare a request for bids and the successful bidder constructs the Project at the Borrower's risk, and a design -build method, often referred to as “turnkey,” where the Borrower establishes the specifications for the Project and secures the services of a developer who will design and build the Project at the developer's risk;
(B) Discuss the manufacturers of major components of Advanced Biofuels and Biobased Product including Renewable Chemical technology equipment being considered in terms of the length of time in business and the number of units installed at the capacity and scale being considered;
(C) Discuss the Project team members' qualifications for engineering, designing, and installing similar projects, including any relevant certifications by recognized organizations or bodies. Provide a list of the same or similar projects designed, installed, or supplied and currently operating, with references if available; and
(D) Describe the facility operator's qualifications and experience for servicing, operating, and maintaining such equipment or projects. Provide a list of the same or similar projects designed, installed, or supplied and currently operating, with references if available.
(ii)
(A) All facilities funded under this subpart must be installed in accordance with applicable local, State, and national codes and applicable local, State, and Federal regulations. Identify zoning and code requirements and necessary permits and the schedule for meeting those requirements and securing those permits.
(B) Identify licenses where required and the schedule for obtaining those licenses.
(C) Identify land use agreements required for the Project, the schedule for securing those agreements, and the term of those agreements.
(D) Identify any permits or agreements required for solid, liquid, and gaseous emissions or effluents and the schedule for securing those permits and agreements.
(E) Identify available component warranties for the specific Project location and size.
(F) Identify all environmental issues, including environmental compliance issues, associated with the Project.
(iii)
(iv)
(A) The application must include a concise but complete description of the Project, including location of the Project; resource characteristics, including the kind and amount of feedstocks; facility specifications; kind, amount, and quality of the output; and monitoring equipment. Address performance on a monthly and annual basis. Describe the uses of or the market for the Advanced Biofuels and Biobased Product including Renewable Chemical produced by the facility. Discuss the impact of reduced or interrupted feedstock availability on the facility's operations.
(B) The application must include:
(
(
(
(C) Sites must be controlled by the eligible Borrower for at least the financing term of the Loan Note Guarantee.
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(A) Information regarding available facility and component warranties and availability of spare parts;
(B) A description of the routine operations and maintenance requirements of the proposed facility, including maintenance schedules for the mechanical, piping, and electrical systems and system monitoring and control requirements, as well as provision of information that supports expected useful life of the facility and timing of major component replacement or rebuilds;
(C) A discussion of the costs and labor associated with operating and maintaining the facility and plans for in-sourcing or outsourcing. A description of the opportunities for technology transfer for long-term Project operations and maintenance by a local entity or owner/operator; and
(D) Provision and discussion of the risk management plan for handling large, unanticipated failures of major components.
(ix)
(a)
(1) If the Borrower, Lender, or the Project is determined to be ineligible for any reason, the Agency will inform the Lender, in writing, of the reasons. No further evaluation of the application will occur.
(2) If the Agency determines it is unable to guarantee the loan, the Agency will inform the Lender in writing. Such notification will include the reasons for denial of the guarantee.
(b)
(i) The Agency's analysis of the technical report and Feasibility Study submitted in the application conducted by qualified independent third parties;
(ii) The Lenders credit evaluation; and
(iii) Other application materials.
(2) The Agency's determination of a Project's technical feasibility will be based on the technical report. In addition, prior to loan closing of a Project utilizing technology that does not have a history of successful utilization in a Commercial-Scale operation of a Biorefinery that produces an Advanced Biofuel, evidence demonstrating 120 days of continuous, steady state production from an integrated demonstration unit must be provided by the Borrower to the Lender and the Agency for review and determination of technical feasibility. Authoritative demonstration campaign results must be provided in 30-day intervals. The integrated demonstration unit must prove out the Project's ability to utilize Project-relevant biomass and produce Advanced Biofuel at a yield and quality consistent with the design basis of the Project. The Borrower must provide to the Agency, for review and approval, sufficient information on the integrated campaign design so as to ensure operation duration, quality, and quantity specifications are met and incorporated into the final design criteria for the commercial facility.
(3) Projects determined by the Agency to be without technical or economic feasibility will not be selected for funding.
Using the evaluation criteria identified in this section, the Agency will score each eligible Biorefinery application that meets the minimum requirements for technical and economic feasibility. A maximum of 125 points is possible. The Agency will
(a) Whether the Borrower has established a market for the Advanced Biofuel and the Biobased Products including Renewable Chemicals, as applicable. A maximum of 20 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1)
(i) If the Borrower has signed Off-Take Agreements for purchase for greater than 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take, 6 points will be awarded.
(ii) If the Borrower has signed letters of intent to enter into Off-Take Agreements, or comparable documentation, for the purchase for greater than 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take, or combination of signed contracts or agreements and letters of intent or comparable documentation, 4 points will be awarded.
(iii) If the Borrower has signed letters of interest to enter into Off-Take Agreements, or comparable documentation, for the purchase for greater than 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take, or combination of signed Off-Take Agreements, letters of intent, letters of intent or comparable documentation, 2 points will be awarded.
(2)
(i) If the Borrower commits to enter into Off-Take Agreements prior to loan closing for purchase for greater than or equal to 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take for the period not less than the loan term, 6 points will be awarded.
(ii) If the Borrower commits to enter into Off-Take Agreements prior to loan closing for purchase for greater than or equal to 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take for the period not less than five years but less than the term of the loan, 4 points will be awarded.
(iii) If the Borrower commits to enter into Off-Take Agreements prior to loan closing for purchase for greater than or equal to 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take for the period not less than one year but less than five years, 2 points will be awarded.
(3)
(i) If the Borrower commits to enter into Off-Take Agreements prior to loan closing for purchase for greater than or equal to 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take with an off-take counterparty with a corporate credit rating not less than AA, Aa2, or equivalent, 4 points will be awarded.
(ii) If the Borrower commits to enter into Off-Take Agreements prior to loan closing for purchase for greater than or equal to 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take with an off-take counterparty with a corporate credit rating less than AA, Aa2, or equivalent, but not less than A-, or A3, or equivalent, 2 points will be awarded.
(iii) If the Borrower commits to enter into Off-Take Agreements prior to loan closing for purchase for greater than or equal to 50 percent of the dollar value of off-take with an off-take counterparty with a corporate credit rating less than A-, or A3, or equivalent, but not less than BBB-, or Baa3, or equivalent, 1 point will be awarded.
(4)
(i) If total of revenues from tax credits, carbon credits, or other Federal or State subsidies is less than or equal to 10 percent of the Project's total revenues on an annual basis, in the Borrower's base case of financial projections, 4 points will be awarded.
(ii) If total of revenues from tax credits, carbon credits, or other Federal or State subsidies is greater than 10 percent but less than or equal to 20 percent of the Project's total revenues on an annual basis, in the Borrower's base case of financial projections, 2 points will be awarded.
(iii) If total of revenues from tax credits, carbon credits, or other Federal or State subsidies is greater than 20 percent but less than or equal to 30 percent of the Project's total revenues on an annual basis, in the Borrower's base case of financial projections, 1 point will be awarded.
(b) Whether the area in which the Borrower proposes to place the Project, defined as the area that will supply the feedstock to the proposed Project, has any other similar facilities. A maximum of 5 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If the area that will supply the feedstock to the proposed Project does not have any other similar facilities, 5 points will be awarded.
(2) If there are other similar facilities located within the area that will supply the feedstock to the proposed Project, 0 points will be awarded.
(c) Whether the Borrower is proposing to use a feedstock or biobased output of Biorefineries not previously used in the production of Advanced Biofuels or Biobased Products including Renewable Chemicals. A maximum of 10 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If the Borrower proposes to use a feedstock previously used in the production of Advanced Biofuels and Biobased Product including Renewable Chemicals in a commercial facility, 0 points will be awarded.
(2) If the Borrower proposes to use a feedstock not previously used in production of Advanced Biofuels and Biobased Product including Renewable Chemicals in a commercial facility, 10 points will be awarded.
(d) Whether the Borrower is proposing to work with producer associations or cooperatives. A maximum of 5 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If at least 50 percent of the dollar value of feedstock to be used by the proposed Project will be supplied by producer associations and cooperatives, 5 points will be awarded.
(2) If at least 30 percent of the dollar value of feedstock to be used by the proposed Project will be supplied by producer associations and cooperatives, 3 points will be awarded.
(e) The level of financial participation by the Borrower, including support from non-Federal government sources and private sources. A maximum of 20 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If the sum of the loan amount requested and other direct Federal funding is less than or equal to 50 percent of total Eligible Project Cost, 20 points will be awarded.
(2) If the sum of the loan amount requested and other direct Federal funding is greater than 50 percent but less than or equal to 55 percent of total Eligible Project Cost, 16 points will be awarded.
(3) If the sum of the loan amount requested and other direct Federal funding is greater than 55 percent but less than or equal to 60 percent of total Eligible Project Cost, 12 points will be awarded.
(4) If the sum of the loan amount and other direct Federal funding is greater than 60 percent but less than or equal to 65 percent of total Eligible Project Cost, 8 points will be awarded.
(5) If the sum of the loan amount and other direct Federal funding is greater than 65 percent but less than or equal to 70 percent of total Eligible Project Cost, 4 points will be awarded.
(f) Whether the Borrower has established that the adoption of the process proposed in the application will
(1) If process adoption will have a positive impact on any one of the three impact areas (resource conservation, public health, or the environment), 3 points will be awarded.
(2) If process adoption will have a positive impact on two of the three impact areas, 6 points will be awarded.
(3) If process adoption will have a positive impact on all three impact areas, 10 points will be awarded.
(4) If the Project proposes to use a feedstock that can be used for human or animal consumption, 5 points will be deducted from the score.
(g) Whether the Borrower can establish that, if adopted, the technology proposed in the application will not have any economically significant negative impacts on existing manufacturing plants or other facilities that use similar feedstocks or biobased outputs of Biorefineries. A maximum of 5 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If the Borrower has failed to establish, through an independent third-party Feasibility Study, that the production technology proposed in the application, if adopted, will not have any economically significant negative impacts on existing manufacturing plants or other facilities that use similar feedstocks, 0 points will be awarded.
(2) If the Borrower has established, through an independent third-party Feasibility Study, that the production technology proposed in the application, if adopted, will not have any economically significant negative impacts on existing manufacturing plants or other facilities that use similar feedstocks, 5 points will be awarded.
(3) If the feedstock is wood pellets, no points will be awarded under this criterion.
(h) The potential for Rural economic development. A maximum of 20 points will be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If the Project is located in a Rural Area, 5 points will be awarded.
(2) If the Project creates jobs through direct employment with an average wage that exceeds the County median household wages where the Project will be located, 5 points will be awarded.
(3) If the majority of feedstock to be utilized by the Project, on an annual basis, is harvested from the land, 10 points will be awarded.
(i) The level of local ownership of the facility proposed in the application. A maximum of 5 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If Local Owners have an ownership interest in the facility of more than 20 percent but less than or equal to 50 percent, 3 points will be awarded.
(2) If Local Owners have an ownership interest in the facility of more than 50 percent, 5 points will be awarded.
(j) Whether the Project can be replicated. A maximum of 10 points can be awarded. Points to be awarded will be determined as follows:
(1) If the Project can be commercially replicated regionally (
(2) If the Project can be commercially replicated nationally, 10 points will be awarded.
(k) If the Project uses a particular technology, system, or process that is not currently operating at Commercial Scale as of October 1 of the fiscal year for which the funding is available, 5 points will be awarded.
(l) The Administrator can award up to a maximum of 10 bonus points:
(1) To ensure, to the extent practical, there is diversity in the types of Projects approved for loan guarantees to ensure as wide a range as possible technologies, products, and approaches are assisted in the Program portfolio; and
(2) To applications that promote partnerships and other activities that assist in the development of new and emerging technologies for the development of Advanced Biofuels and Biobased Products including Renewable Chemicals, so as to, as applicable, increase the energy independence of the United States or reduce our dependence on petroleum-based chemicals and products; promote resource conservation, public health, and the environment; diversify markets for agricultural and forestry products and agriculture waste material; and create jobs and enhance the economic development of the Rural economy. These partnerships and other activities will be identified in a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1)
(2)
(i) If there is insufficient budgetary authority during a particular funding period to select a higher scoring application, the Agency may elect to select the next highest scoring
(ii) If the amount of funding required is greater than 25 percent of the Program's outstanding budgetary authority, the Agency may elect to select the next highest scoring application for further processing, provided the higher scoring Borrower is notified of this action and given an opportunity to revise their application and resubmit it for an amount less than or equal to 25 percent of the Program's outstanding budgetary authority.
(3)
(d)
(a) Applications for loan guarantees may be approved as their Phase 2 applications are completed and approved. If an application has been selected for phase 2, but has not been approved because additional information is needed, the Agency will notify, in writing, the Lender of what information is needed, including a timeframe for the Lender to provide the information. If the Lender does not provide the information within the specified timeframe, the Agency will remove the application from further consideration and will so notify the Lender in writing.
(b) Upon approval of a loan guarantee application, the Agency will issue a Conditional Commitment to the Lender containing conditions under which a Loan Note Guarantee will be issued. The Agency will not issue a Conditional Commitment until the Agency has satisfactorily completed a Civil Rights Impact Analysis. The Conditional Commitment becomes null and void unless the conditions are accepted by the Lender and Borrower within 60 days from the date of issuance by USDA. If the conditions are not met or the Loan Note Guarantee is not issued by the Conditional Commitment expiration date, the Agency may extend the Conditional Commitment expiration date when requested by the Lender and only if there has been no Material Adverse Change in the Borrower's or Borrowers' financial condition since issuance of the Conditional Commitment.
(c) The Lender and Borrower may request changes to the Conditional Commitment. The Agency may negotiate with the Lender and the Borrower regarding any proposed changes to the Conditional Commitment. Any changes to the Conditional Commitment must be documented by written amendment to the Conditional Commitment. The changes must be for Good Cause and the Agency may deny, solely at is discretion, changes to the Conditional Commitment even if the change is otherwise in compliance with this subpart.
(d) The Borrower must comply with all Federal requirements then in effect for receiving Federal assistance.
(a) The Agency may approve the substitution of a new eligible Lender in place of a former Lender who has been issued an outstanding Conditional Commitment when the Loan Note Guarantee has not yet been issued provided that there are no changes in the:
(1) Borrower's ownership or control, loan purposes, or scope of Project;
(2) Loan terms and conditions in the Conditional Commitment; and
(3) Loan Agreement.
(b) The Agency must determine that the new Lender is eligible in accordance with § 4279.208 prior to approving the substitution. The original Lender must provide the Agency with a letter stating the reasons it no longer desires to be a Lender for the Project. The substituted Lender must execute a new part B of Form 4279-1 and Lender's Agreement (unless a valid Lender's Agreement with the Agency already exists), and must complete a new Lender's analysis in accordance with § 4279.215. The new Lender may also be required to provide other updated application items outlined in § 4279.261(k).
Any changes in Borrower ownership or organization prior to the issuance of the Loan Note Guarantee must meet the eligibility requirements of the Program and be approved by the Agency.
The Lender must not close the loan until all conditions of the Conditional Commitment are met or can be met. When loan closing plans are established, the Lender must notify the Agency in writing.
(a) Coincident with, or immediately after loan closing, the Lender must provide the following forms and documents to the Agency:
(1) An executed Lender's Agreement;
(2) Form RD 1980-19, “Guaranteed Loan Closing Report,” and appropriate guarantee fee;
(3) Copy of the executed Promissory Note(s);
(4) Copy of the executed Loan Agreement;
(5) Copy of the executed settlement statement and updated source and use statement including all Project funding;
(6) Original, executed Forms RD 4279-14, as appropriate;
(7) Borrower's loan closing balance sheet; and
(8) Any other documents required to comply with applicable law or required by the Conditional Commitment or the Agency.
(b) The Lender must provide their certification to each condition specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (16) of this section. The Lender may rely on certain written materials (including but not limited to certifications, evaluations, appraisals, financial statements and other reports) to be provided by the Borrower or other qualified third parties (including, among others, one or more independent engineers, appraisers, accountants, attorneys, consultants or other experts.) If the Lender is unable to provide any of the certifications required under this section, the Lender must provide an explanation satisfactory to the Agency as to why the Lender is unable to provide the certification. The Lender can request the guarantee prior to construction, but must still certify to all conditions in paragraphs (b)(1) through (16) of this section.
(1) If required, hazard, flood, liability, worker compensation, and life insurance are in effect.
(2) All truth-in-lending and equal credit opportunity requirements have been met.
(3) The loan has been properly closed, and the required security instruments
(4) The Borrower has or will have marketable title to the Collateral, subject to the guaranteed loan and to any other exceptions approved in writing by the Agency.
(5) The loan proceeds have been or will be disbursed for purposes and in amounts consistent with the Conditional Commitment and the application submitted to the Agency.
(6) When required, personal or corporate guarantees have been obtained in accordance with § 4279.245.
(7) All requirements of the Conditional Commitment have been met.
(8) Lien priorities are consistent with the requirements of the Conditional Commitment. No claims or liens of laborers, subcontractors, suppliers of machinery and equipment, materialmen, or other parties have been filed against the Collateral and no suits are pending or threatened that would adversely affect the Collateral when the security instruments are filed.
(9) There has been neither any Material Adverse Change in the Borrower's financial condition nor any other Material Adverse Change in the Borrower, for any reason, during the period of time from the Agency's issuance of the Conditional Commitment to issuance of the Loan Note Guarantee regardless of the cause or causes of the change and whether or not the change or causes of the change were within the Lender's or Borrower's control. The Lender must address any assumptions or reservations in this certification and must address all Material Adverse Changes of the Borrower, any parent, Affiliate, or subsidiary of the Borrower, and guarantors.
(10) Neither the Lender nor any of the Lender's officers has an ownership interest in the Borrower or is an officer or director of the Borrower, and neither the Borrower nor its officers, directors, stockholders, or other owners have more than a 5 percent ownership interest in the Lender.
(11) The Loan Agreement includes all Borrower compliance measures identified in the Agency's environmental review process for avoiding or reducing adverse environmental impacts of the Project's construction or operation.
(12) For loans exceeding $150,000, the Lender has certified its compliance with the Anti-Lobby Act (18 U.S.C. 1913). Also, if any funds have been, or will be, paid to any Person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a member of Congress in connection with this commitment providing for the United States to guarantee a loan, the Lender must completely disclose such lobbying activities in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 1352.
(13) Where applicable, the Lender must certify that the Borrower has obtained:
(i) A legal opinion relative to the title to rights-of-way and easements. Lenders are responsible for ensuring that Borrowers have obtained valid, continuous, and adequate rights-of-way and easements needed for the construction, operation and maintenance of a facility; and
(ii) A title opinion or title insurance showing ownership of the land and all mortgages or other lien defects, restrictions, or encumbrances, if any. It is the responsibility of the Lender to ensure that the Borrower has obtained and recorded such releases, consents, or subordinations to such property rights from holders of outstanding liens or other instruments as may be necessary for the construction, operation and maintenance of the facility and to provide the required security. For example, when a site is for utility-type facilities (such as a gas distribution system) and the Lender and Borrower are able to obtain only a right-of-way or easement on such site rather than a fee simple title, such a title opinion must be provided.
(14) Each Borrower shall certify to the Lender that all laborers and mechanics employed by contractors or subcontractors in the performance of construction work financed in whole or in part with guaranteed loan funds under this subpart shall be paid wages at rates not less than those prevailing on similar construction in the locality as determined by the Secretary of Labor in accordance with 40 U.S.C. 3141 through 3144, 3146, and 3147. Awards under this subpart are further subject to the relevant regulations contained in Title 29 of the CFR.
(15) The Lender certifies that it has reviewed all contract documents and verified compliance with 40 U.S.C. 3141 through 3144, 3146, and 3147 and Title 29 of the CFR. The Lender will certify that the same process will be completed for all future contracts and any changes to existing contracts.
(16) The Lender certifies that the proposed facility complies with all Federal, State, and local laws and regulatory rules that are in existence and that affect the Project, the Borrower, or Lender activities.
(c) The Agency may, at its discretion, request copies of loan documents for its file.
(d) When the Agency is satisfied that all conditions for the guarantee have been met, the Agency will issue the Loan Note Guarantee(s) and the documents identified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate.
(1)
(2)
If the Agency determines that it cannot execute the Loan Note Guarantee, the Agency will inform the Lender, in writing, of the reasons and give the Lender a reasonable period within which to satisfy the objections. If the Lender satisfies the objections within the time allowed, the Agency will issue the Loan Note Guarantee. If the Lender requests additional time in writing and within the period allowed, the Agency may grant the request.
Once the Project has been constructed, the Lender must meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
(a) Provide the Agency annual reports from the Borrower commencing the first full calendar year following the year in which Project construction was completed and continuing for the life of the guaranteed loan. The Borrower's reports will include, but not be limited to, the information specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (8), as applicable, of this section.
(1) The actual amount of Advanced Biofuels, Biobased Products including Renewable Chemicals, and Byproducts produced.
(2) If applicable, documentation that identified health or sanitation problems have been solved.
(3) A summary of the cost of operating and maintaining the facility.
(4) A description of any maintenance or operational problems associated with the facility.
(5) Certification that the Project is and has been in compliance with all applicable State and Federal environmental laws and regulations.
(6) The number of jobs created.
(7) A description of the status of the Project's feedstock including, but not limited to, the feedstock being used, outstanding feedstock contracts, feedstock changes and interruptions, and quality of the feedstock.
(8) The results of the annual inspections conducted under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) For the life of the guaranteed loan, conduct annual inspections.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the information collection requirements contained in the subsequent interim rule have been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB control number 0570-0065 for approval. A person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
5 U.S.C. 301; and 7 U.S.C. 1989.
(a) This subpart supplements 7 CFR part 4279, subpart C by providing additional requirements and instructions for servicing and liquidating all loans guaranteed under 7 CFR part 4279, subpart C.
(b) The Lender is responsible for servicing the entire loan and will remain mortgagee and secured party of record notwithstanding the fact that another party may hold a portion of the loan. The entire loan must continue to be secured by the same security with equal lien priority for the guaranteed and unguaranteed portions of the loan. The unguaranteed portion of a loan will neither be paid first nor given any preference or priority over the guaranteed portion of the loan.
(c) All loan servicing actions under this subpart, except for those identified in § 4287.307(a) through (g), are subject to Agency concurrence. Whether specifically stated or not, whenever Agency approval is required, it must be in writing. Whenever Agency approval is required, such servicing action must be for Good Cause.
(d) Copies of all forms, regulations, and Instructions referenced in this subpart may be obtained from any Agency office and from the USDA Rural Development Web site at
The definitions and abbreviations contained in § 4279.202 of this chapter apply to this subpart.
The Administrator may, with the concurrence of the Secretary of Agriculture, make an exception, on a case-by-case basis, to any requirement or provision of this subpart that is not inconsistent with any authorizing statute or applicable law, if the Administrator determines that application of the requirement or provision would adversely affect the Federal government's interest.
Borrowers, Lenders, and Holders have appeal or review rights for Agency decisions made under this subpart. Programmatic decisions based on clear and objective statutory or regulatory requirements are not appealable; however, such decisions are reviewable for appealability by the National Appeals Division (NAD). The Borrower, Lender, and Holder can appeal any Agency decision that directly and adversely impacts them. For an adverse decision that impacts the Borrower, the Lender and Borrower must jointly execute a written request for appeal for an alleged adverse decision made by the Agency. An adverse decision that only impacts the Lender may be appealed by the Lender only. An adverse decision that only impacts the Holder may be appealed by the Holder only. A decision by a Lender adverse to the interest of the Borrower is not a decision by the Agency, whether or not concurred in by the Agency. Appeals will be conducted by NAD and will be handled in accordance with 7 CFR part 11.
The Lender is responsible for servicing the entire loan and for taking all servicing actions that a reasonable Lender would perform in servicing its own portfolio of loans that are not guaranteed. The guarantee is unenforceable by the Lender to the extent any loss is occasioned by violation of usury laws, use of loan funds for unauthorized purposes, Negligent Loan Servicing or Grossly Negligent Loan Servicing as established in the Loan Note Guarantee, or failure to maintain the required security interest regardless of the time at which the Agency acquires knowledge of the foregoing. The Lender may contract for services and may rely on certain written materials (including but not limited to certifications, evaluations, appraisals, financial statements and other reports) to be provided by the Borrower or other qualified third parties (including, among others, one or more independent engineers, appraisers, accountants, consultants or other experts) but is ultimately responsible for underwriting, loan origination, loan servicing, and compliance with all Agency regulations. The Lender's Agreement is the contractual agreement between the Lender and the Agency that sets forth
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(a)
(1) Fixed rates can be changed to variable rates to reduce the Borrower's Interest rate only when the variable rate has a ceiling which is less than or equal to the original fixed rate.
(2) The Interest rates, after adjustments, must comply with the requirements for Interest rates on new loans as established by § 4279.233 of this chapter.
(3) The Lender is responsible for the legal documentation of Interest rate changes by an endorsement or any other legally effective amendment to the Promissory Note; however, no new Promissory Notes may be issued. The Lender must provide copies of all legal documents to the Agency.
(b)
The Lender must inspect the Collateral as often as necessary to properly service the loan. The Agency must give prior written approval for the release of Collateral, except as specified in paragraph (a) of this section or where the release of Collateral is made of Collateral under the abundance of caution provision of the applicable security agreement, subject to the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. Appraisals on the Collateral being released are required on all transactions exceeding $250,000 and will be at the expense of the Borrower. The appraisal must meet the requirements of § 4279.244 of this chapter. The sale or release of Collateral must be based on an Arm's Length Transaction, unless otherwise approved by the Agency in writing.
(a) Within the parameters of paragraph (c) of this section, Lenders may, over the life of the guaranteed loan, release Collateral (other than personal and corporate guarantees) with a cumulative value of up to 20 percent of the original loan amount without Agency concurrence if the proceeds generated are used to reduce the guaranteed loan or to buy replacement Collateral. Working assets, such as accounts receivable, inventory, and work-in-progress that are routinely depleted or sold and the proceeds used for the normal course of business operations, may be used in and released for routine business purposes without prior concurrence of the Agency as long as the loan has not been accelerated.
(b) If a release of Collateral does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the Lender must complete a written evaluation to justify the release and must obtain written Agency concurrence in advance of the release.
(c) The Lender must support all releases of Collateral with a value exceeding $250,000 with a current appraisal on the Collateral being released. The appraisal must meet the requirements of § 4279.244 of this chapter. The cost of this appraisal will not be paid for by the Agency. The Agency may, at its discretion, require an appraisal of the remaining Collateral in cases where it has been determined that the Agency may be adversely affected by the release of Collateral. The sale or release of the Collateral must be at Fair Market Value based on an Arm's Length Transaction, and there must be adequate consideration for the release of Collateral. Such consideration may include, but is not limited to:
(1) Application of the net proceeds from the sale of Collateral to the Borrower's debts in order of their lien priority in the sold Collateral;
(2) Use of the net proceeds from the sale of Collateral to purchase other Collateral of equal or greater value which the Lender will obtain as security for the benefit of the guaranteed loan with a lien position equal or superior to the position previously held;
(3) Application of the net proceeds from the sale of Collateral to the Borrower's business operation in such a manner that a significant improvement to the Borrower's debt service ability is clearly demonstrated. The Lender's written request must detail how the Borrower's debt service ability will be improved; and
(4) Assurance that the release of Collateral is essential for the success of the business, thereby furthering the goals of the Program. Such assurance must be supported by written documentation from the Lender acceptable to the Agency.
(d) Any release of Collateral must not adversely affect the Project's operation or financial condition.
A Subordination of the Lender's lien position must be requested in writing by the Lender and concurred with in writing by the Agency in advance of the Subordination. The Lender's Subordination proposal must include a financial analysis of the servicing action and be fully supported by current financial statements of the Borrower and guarantors that are less than 90 days old.
(a) The Subordination of the Lender's lien position must enhance the Borrower's business and be in the best financial interest of the Agency.
(b) The lien to which the guaranteed loan is subordinated is for a fixed dollar limit and for a fixed term after which the guaranteed loan lien priority will be restored. Notwithstanding, a Subordination of lien position on inventory and accounts receivable may be made to a line of credit.
(c) Collateral must remain sufficient to provide for adequate Collateral coverage. The Agency may require a current independent appraisal in accordance with § 4279.244 of this chapter.
(d) Lien priorities must remain for the portion of the loan Collateral that was not subordinated.
(e) Subordination of the Lender's lien position must be for Good Cause.
The Lender must neither alter nor approve any alterations or modifications of any loan instrument without the prior written approval of the Agency.
The Lender may request a Transfer and Assumption of a guaranteed loan when the total indebtedness, or less than the total indebtedness, is assumed by another Borrower. If the assumption is for less than the total indebtedness of the guaranteed loan, the Transfer and Assumption must be an Arm's Length Transaction and the transfer must be of all loan Collateral. In the event of Default of the guaranteed loan, a Transfer and Assumption of the Borrower's operation and guaranteed loan can be accomplished before or after the loan goes into liquidation. However, if the Collateral has been purchased through foreclosure or the Borrower has conveyed title to the Lender, no Transfer and Assumption is permitted.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) The assumption is for the full amount of the loan and all of the loan Collateral is transferred to the transferee; or
(2) The assumption is for less than the full amount of the loan, all of the loan Collateral is transferred to the transferee, and the Lender demonstrates to the Agency that the transferor and guarantors have no reasonable debt-paying ability considering their assets and income in the foreseeable future.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(1) The Lender must not issue any new Promissory Notes. The assumption must be completed in accordance with applicable law and must contain the Agency case number of the transferor and transferee. The Lender will provide the Agency with a copy of the Transfer and Assumption agreement. The Lender must ensure that all Transfers and Assumptions are noted on all original Loan Note Guarantees.
(2) A new Loan Agreement, consistent in principle with the original Loan Agreement, must be executed to establish the terms and conditions of the loan being assumed. An assumption agreement can be used to establish the loan covenants.
(3) Upon execution of the Transfer and Assumption, the Lender must provide the Agency with a written legal opinion that the Transfer and Assumption is completed, valid, enforceable, and certification that the Transfer and Assumption is consistent with the conditions outlined in the Agency's conditions of approval for the transfer and complies with all Agency regulations.
(i)
(2) If a Holder owns any of the guaranteed portion, such portion must be repurchased by the Lender or the Agency in accordance with § 4279.225 of this chapter.
(j)
(k)
(1) The Transfer and Assumption is made for the total indebtedness to an eligible Borrower to continue the Project for eligible purposes;
(2) The Lender recommends that the cash be released, and the Agency concurs prior to the transaction being completed. The Lender may require that an amount be retained for a defined period of time as a reserve against future Defaults. Interest on such account may be paid periodically to the transferor or transferee as agreed;
(3) The Lender determines that the transferee has the repayment ability to meet the obligations of the assumed guaranteed loan as well as any other indebtedness; and
(4) Any payments by the transferee to the transferor will not suspend the transferee's obligations to continue to meet the guaranteed loan payments as they come due under the terms of the assumption.
(l)
(2) The Lender must pay any Annual Renewal Fee in accordance with § 4279.231(b) of this chapter.
(m)
(n)
The Lender is prohibited from selling or transferring the entire loan without the prior written approval of the Agency. Because the Loan Note Guarantee is associated with a specific Promissory Note and cannot be transferred to a new Promissory Note, the Lender must transfer the original Promissory Note and loan security documents to the new Lender, who must agree to its current loan terms, including the Interest rate, secondary market Holder (if any), Collateral, Loan Agreement terms, and guarantors. The new Lender must also obtain the original Loan Note Guarantee, original personal and corporate guarantee(s), and the loan payment history from the transferor Lender. If the new Lender wishes to modify the loan terms after acquisition, the new Lender must submit a request to the Agency.
(a) The Agency may approve the substitution of a new Lender if:
(1) The proposed substitute Lender:
(i) Is an eligible Lender in accordance with § 4279.208 of this chapter;
(ii) Is able to service the loan in accordance with the original loan documents; and
(iii) Agrees to acquire title to the unguaranteed portion of the loan held by the original Lender and assumes all original loan requirements, including liabilities and servicing responsibilities; and
(2) The substitution of the Lender is requested in writing by the Borrower, the proposed substitute Lender, and the original Lender if still in existence.
(b) The Agency will not pay any loss or share in any costs (
(c) In cases when there is a substitution of Lender or when a Lender has been merged with or acquired by another Lender, the Agency and the new Lender must execute a new Lender's Agreement, unless a valid Lender's Agreement already exists with the new Lender.
(a) The acquiring Lender must comply with 7 CFR parts 4279, subpart C and 4287, subpart D and must take such action that a reasonable Lender would take if it did not have a Loan Note Guarantee to protect the Lender and Agency's mutual interest. The Lender cannot arbitrarily change the Lender's Agreement and related documents on the guaranteed loan, and the Agency will make the successor to the failed institution aware of the statutory and regulatory requirements.
(b) In the event of a Default and the guaranteed loan is liquidated by the FDIC rather than being sold to another Lender, the Agency will pay losses and share in costs as if the FDIC were an approved new Lender.
The Lender's primary responsibilities in Default are to act reasonably and expeditiously, to work with the Borrower to bring the account current or cure the Default through restructuring if a realistic plan can be developed, or to accelerate the account and conduct a liquidation in a manner that will minimize any potential loss. The Lender may initiate liquidation in accordance with § 4287.357.
(a) The Lender must notify the Agency in writing when a Borrower is more than 30 days past due on a payment and the Delinquency cannot be cured within 30 days or when a Borrower is otherwise in Default of covenants in the Loan Agreement by submitting Form RD 1980-44, “Guaranteed Loan Borrower Default Status,” or processing the Default Status report in LINC. The Lender must provide this notification to the Agency within 15 calendar days of when a Borrower is 30 days past due on a payment or is otherwise in Default of the Loan Agreement. The Lender must update the loan's status each month using either Form RD 1980-44 or the LINC Default Status report until such time as the loan is no longer in Default. If a monetary Default exceeds 60 days, the Lender must meet with the Agency and, if practical, the Borrower to discuss the situation.
(b) In considering options, the prospects for providing a permanent cure without adversely affecting the risk to the Agency and the Lender are the paramount objective.
(1) Curative actions (subject to the rights of any Holder) include, but are not limited to:
(i) Deferment of principal or Interest payments;
(ii) An additional unguaranteed temporary loan by the Lender to bring the account current;
(iii) Reamortization of or rescheduling the payments on the loan (subject to the rights of any Holder) excluding capitalization of accrued Interest;
(iv) Transfer and Assumption of the loan in accordance with § 4287.334;
(v) Reorganization;
(vi) Liquidation; and
(vii) Changes in Interest rates with the Agency's, the Lender's, and Holder's approval. Any Interest rate changes must be adjusted proportionately between the guaranteed and unguaranteed portion of the loan.
(2) The term of any deferment, rescheduling, reamortization, or moratorium will be limited to the lesser of the remaining life of the Collateral or remaining limits as set forth in § 4279.234 of this chapter (excluding paragraph (d)). Balloon payments are permitted as a loan servicing option as long as there is a reasonable prospect for success and the remaining life of the Collateral supports the action.
(3) In the event of a loss or a repurchase, the Lender cannot claim Default or penalty Interest, late payment fees, or Interest on Interest.
(c) Debt write-downs by the lender are prohibited when the Lender will continue with the Project loan, except as directed or ordered by a final court order.
(d) In the event of a loss, the guarantee will not cover Interest to the Lender accruing after the Interest Termination Date.
(e) For repurchases of guaranteed loans, refer to § 4279.225 of this chapter.
Protective Advances are advances made by the Lender for the purpose of preserving and protecting the Collateral where the Borrower has failed to, will not, or cannot meet its obligations. Lenders must exercise sound judgment in determining that the Protective Advance preserves Collateral and recovery is actually enhanced by making the advance. Lenders cannot make Protective Advances in lieu of additional loans. A Protective Advance claim will be paid only at the time of the final payment as indicated in the Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss.
(a) The maximum loss to be paid by the Agency will never exceed the original loan amount plus accrued Interest times the percentage of guarantee regardless of any Protective Advances made.
(b) In the event of a final loss, Protective Advances will accrue Interest at the Promissory Note rate and will be guaranteed at the same percentage of loss as provided in the Loan Note Guarantee. The guarantee will not cover Interest on the Protective Advance accruing after the Interest Termination Date.
(c) Protective Advances must constitute an indebtedness of the Borrower to the Lender and be secured by the security instruments. Agency written authorization is required when the cumulative total of Protective Advances exceeds $200,000 or 10 percent of the outstanding balance of principal, whichever is less.
In the event of one or more incidents of Default or third party actions that the Borrower cannot or will not cure or eliminate within a reasonable period of time, the Lender, with Agency consent, must provide for liquidation.
(a)
(1) A loan is 90 days behind on any scheduled payment and the Lender and the Borrower have not been able to cure the Delinquency through actions such as those contained in § 4287.345.
(2) It is determined that delaying liquidation will jeopardize full recovery on the loan.
(3) The Borrower or Lender is uncooperative in resolving the problem or the Agency or Lender has reason to believe the Borrower is not acting in good faith, and immediate liquidation would minimize loss to the Agency.
(b)
(c)
(1) Such proof as the Agency requires to establish the Lender's ownership of the guaranteed loan Promissory Note and related security instruments and a copy of the payment ledger, if available, that reflects the current loan balance, accrued Interest to date, and the method of computing the Interest;
(2) A full and complete list of all Collateral, including any personal and corporate guarantees;
(3) The recommended liquidation methods for making the maximum collection possible on the indebtedness and the justification for such methods, including recommended action for acquiring and disposing of all Collateral and collecting from guarantors;
(4) Necessary steps for preservation of the Collateral;
(5) Copies of the Borrower's most recently available financial statements;
(6) Copies of each guarantor's most recently available financial statements;
(7) An itemized list of estimated Liquidation Expenses expected to be incurred along with justification for each expense;
(8) A schedule to periodically report to the Agency on the progress of liquidation;
(9) Estimated Protective Advance amounts with justification;
(10) Proposed protective bid amounts on Collateral to be sold at auction and a breakdown to show how the amounts were determined. A protective bid may be made by the Lender, with prior Agency written approval, at a foreclosure sale to protect the Lender's and the Agency's interest. The protective bid will be based on the liquidation value and estimated net recovery considering prior liens and outstanding taxes, expenses of foreclosure, and estimated expenses for holding and reselling the property. These expenses include, but are not limited to, expenses for resale, Interest accrual, length of time necessary for resale, maintenance, guard service, weatherization, and prior liens;
(11) If a voluntary conveyance is considered, the proposed amount to be credited to the guaranteed debt;
(12) Legal opinions, if needed by the Lender's legal counsel; and
(13) An estimate of Fair Market Value and potential liquidation value of the Collateral. If the value of the Collateral is $250,000 or more, the Lender must obtain an independent appraisal report meeting the requirements of § 4279.244 of this chapter on the Collateral securing the loan, which reflects the Fair Market Value and potential liquidation value. The liquidation appraisal must evaluate the impact on Market Value of any release of hazardous substances, petroleum products, or other environmental hazards. The independent appraiser's fee, including the cost of the environmental site assessment, will be shared equally by the Agency and the Lender. In order to ensure prompt action, the liquidation plan can be submitted with an estimate of Collateral value, and the liquidation plan may be approved by the Agency subject to the results of the final liquidation appraisal.
(d)
(1) If the liquidation plan is approved by the Agency, the Lender must proceed expeditiously with liquidation and must take all legal action necessary to liquidate the loan in accordance with the approved liquidation plan. The Lender must update or modify the liquidation plan when conditions warrant, including a change in value based on a liquidation appraisal.
(2) Should the Agency and the Lender not agree on the liquidation plan, negotiations will take place between the Agency and the Lender to resolve the disagreement. The Lender must take such actions that a reasonable Lender would take without a guarantee and keep the Agency informed in writing. When the liquidation plan is approved by the Agency, the Lender will proceed expeditiously with liquidation.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
Unless the Agency anticipates a Future Recovery, the Agency will make a final settlement with the Lender after the Collateral is liquidated and settlement and compromise of all parties has been completed. The Agency has the right to recover losses paid under the guarantee from any party that may be liable.
(a)
(b)
(1) Interest accrual eligible for payment under the guarantee on the Defaulted loan will be discontinued when the estimated loss is paid.
(2) A Protective Advance claim will be paid only at the time of the final payment as indicated in the Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss.
(3) The estimated loss payment is a payment to the Lender and is not to be applied as a payment on the loan for purposes of reducing the unpaid balance owed by the Borrower or for status reporting (semi-annual status/Default status reports).
(c)
(1) The Lender must make a determination regarding the collectability of unsecured personal and corporate guarantees. If reasonably possible, the Lender must promptly collect or otherwise dispose of such guarantees in accordance with § 4287.357(j) prior to completion of the final loss report. However, in the event that collection from the guarantors appears unlikely or will require a prolonged period of time, the Lender must file the Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss when all other Collateral has been liquidated. Unsecured personal or corporate guarantees outstanding at the time of the submission of the final loss claim will be treated as a Future Recovery with the net proceeds to be shared on a Pro Rata basis by the Lender and the Agency. The Agency may consider a compromise settlement of Federal Debt after it has processed a final Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss and issued a 60 day due process letter. Any funds collected on Federal Debt will not be shared with the Lender.
(2) The Lender must document that all of the Collateral has been accounted for and properly liquidated and liquidation proceeds have been accounted for and applied correctly to the loan.
(3) The Lender must provide receipts and a breakdown of any Protective Advance amount as to the payee, purpose of the expenditure, date paid, and evidence that the amount expended was proper.
(4) The Lender must provide receipts and a breakdown of Liquidation Expenses as to the payee, purpose of the expenditure, date paid, and evidence that the amount expended was proper. Liquidation Expenses are recoverable only from liquidation proceeds. The Agency may approve attorney/legal fees as Liquidation Expenses provided that the fees are reasonable, require the assistance of attorneys, and cover legal issues pertaining to the liquidation that could not be properly handled by the Lender and its employees.
(5) The Lender must support accrued Interest by documenting how the amount was accrued. If the Interest rate was a variable rate, the Lender must include documentation of changes in both the selected base rate and the loan rate.
(6) The Agency will pay loss payments within 60 days after it has reviewed the complete final loss report and accounting of the Collateral.
(7) If a Lender receives a final loss payment and the Agency determines there is Future Recovery, the Lender must submit to the Agency an annual report on its collection activities for each unsatisfied account for 3 years following payment of the final loss claim.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(1) If the loss is greater than any estimated loss payment, the Agency will pay the additional amount owed by the Agency to the Lender.
(2) If the loss is less than the estimated loss payment, the Lender must reimburse the Agency for the overpayment plus Interest at the Promissory Note rate from the date of payment.
Unless notified otherwise by the Agency, after the final loss claim has been paid, the Lender must use reasonable efforts to attempt collection from any party still liable for Future Recovery. Any net proceeds from Future Recovery must be split Pro Rata between the Lender and the Agency based on the original amount of the loan guarantee. Any collection of Federal Debt made by the Federal Government from any liable party to the guaranteed loan will not be split with the Lender.
(a)
(1) Monitoring confirmed bankruptcy plans to determine Borrower compliance, and, if the Borrower fails to comply, pursue appropriate relief;
(2) Filing all the necessary papers and pleadings concerning the case, including where appropriate a proof of claim;
(3) Attending and, where necessary, participating in meetings of the creditors and all court proceedings;
(4) Requesting modifications of any proposed bankruptcy plan whenever it appears that the Lender could obtain additional recoveries via plan modification;
(5) Keeping the Agency adequately and regularly informed in writing of all aspects of the proceedings;
(6) Submitting a Default status report within 15 days after the date when the Borrower Defaults and every 30 days thereafter until the Default is resolved or a final loss claim is paid by the Agency. The Default status report will be used to inform the Agency of the bankruptcy filing, the plan confirmation date, when the plan is complete, and when the Borrower is not in compliance with the plan; and
(7) With written Agency consent, the Lender and Agency will equally share the cost of any independent appraisal fee to protect the guaranteed loan in any bankruptcy proceedings.
(b)
(1)
(ii) The Lender must use the Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss to request an estimated loss payment and to revise any estimated loss payments during the course of the bankruptcy plan. The estimated loss claim, as well as any revisions to this claim, must be accompanied by documentation to support the claim.
(iii) Upon completion of a bankruptcy plan, the Lender must:
(A) Complete a Form RD 1980-44 and forward this form to the Agency; and
(B) Provide the Agency with the documentation necessary to determine whether the estimated loss paid equals the actual loss sustained.
(
(
(2)
(ii) The Lender must use the Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss to request a bankruptcy loss payment and to revise any bankruptcy loss payments during the course of the bankruptcy. The Lender must include with the bankruptcy loss claim documentation to support the claim, as well as any revisions to this claim.
(iii) Upon completion of a bankruptcy plan, restructuring, or liquidation, the Lender must either complete a Form RD 1980-44 and forward this form to the Agency or enter the data directly into LINC.
(iv) If an estimated loss claim is paid during a bankruptcy and the Borrower repays in full the remaining balance without an additional loss sustained by the Lender, a final Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss is not necessary.
(3)
(i) Interest losses sustained during the period of the bankruptcy plan will be processed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
(ii) Interest losses sustained after the bankruptcy plan is confirmed will be processed annually when the Lender sustains a loss as a result of a permanent Interest rate reduction that extends beyond the period of the bankruptcy plan; and
(iii) If a bankruptcy loss claim is paid during the operation of the bankruptcy plan and the Borrower repays in full the remaining balance without an additional loss sustained by the Lender, a final Guaranteed Loan Report of Loss is not necessary.
(4)
(5)
(6)
(c)
(2) Expenses, such as reasonable attorney/legal fees and the cost of appraisals incurred by the Lender as a direct result of the Borrower's bankruptcy filing, will be shared equally by the Lender and the Agency.
(3) Reasonable and customary Liquidation Expenses must be deducted from Collateral sale proceeds. Liquidation Expenses are covered under the guarantee, provided they are reasonable, customary, and provide a demonstrated economic benefit to the Lender and the Agency. Lender's In-
(4) When a bankruptcy proceeding results in a liquidation of the Borrower by a bankruptcy trustee appointed under 11 U.S.C. 701, 702, 703 or 1104, expenses will be handled as directed by the court, and the Lender cannot claim Liquidation Expenses for the sale of the assets.
(5) If the property is abandoned by the bankruptcy trustee, the Lender will conduct the liquidation in accordance with § 4287.357.
(6) Proceeds received from partial sale of Collateral during bankruptcy may be used by the Lender to pay reasonable costs, such as freight, labor and sales commissions, associated with the partial sale. Reasonable use of proceeds for this purpose must be documented with the final loss claim.
The Loan Note Guarantee will terminate under any of the following conditions:
(a) Upon full payment of the guaranteed loan;
(b) Upon full payment of any loss obligation; or
(c) Upon written notice from the Lender to the Agency that the guarantee will terminate 30 days after the date of notice, provided that the Lender owns the entire guaranteed interest in the loan and the Loan Note Guarantee is returned to the Agency to be canceled.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the information collection requirements contained in the subsequent interim rule have been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB Control Number 0570-0065 for approval. A person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |