Page Range | 21639-22086 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
80 FR 21771 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
80 FR 21704 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Application for Investment Assistance | |
80 FR 21763 - Government In The Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
80 FR 21650 - Mandatory Greenhouse Gas Reporting | |
80 FR 21685 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Wisconsin; Infrastructure SIP Requirements for the 2008 Ozone, 2010 NO2 | |
80 FR 21670 - Oil and Gas and Sulphur Operations on the Outer Continental Shelf-Requirements for Exploratory Drilling on the Arctic Outer Continental Shelf | |
80 FR 21731 - Final Priority: National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research-Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers | |
80 FR 21723 - Applications for New Awards; National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research-Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers | |
80 FR 21709 - Quarterly Update to Annual Listing of Foreign Government Subsidies on Articles of Cheese Subject to an In-Quota Rate of Duty | |
80 FR 21767 - In the Matter of PPL Susquehanna, LLC; Susquehanna Steam Electric Station, Units 1 and 2 | |
80 FR 21729 - Final Priority: National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research-Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers | |
80 FR 21747 - Extension of Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Law Enforcement Officer Flying Armed Training | |
80 FR 21794 - WTO Dispute Settlement Proceeding Regarding United States-Anti-Dumping and Countervailing Measures on Certain Coated Paper From Indonesia | |
80 FR 21772 - Department of Energy; Fort St. Vrain Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation | |
80 FR 21733 - Applications for New Awards; National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research-Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers | |
80 FR 21639 - List of Approved Spent Fuel Storage Casks: Holtec International HI-STORM 100 Cask System, Certificate of Compliance No. 1014, Amendment No. 8, Revision No. 1 | |
80 FR 21704 - Notice of Decennial Review of Operational Files Designations | |
80 FR 21727 - Final Priority: National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research-Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers | |
80 FR 21716 - Notice of Availability of Final NPDES General Permits MAG070000 And NHG070000 for Discharges From Dewatering Activities in the Commonwealth of Massachusetts and the State of New Hampshire: The Dewatering General Permit (DGP) | |
80 FR 21765 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Water Act and the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act | |
80 FR 21738 - Applications for New Awards; National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research -Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers | |
80 FR 21718 - Proposed Consent Decree, Clean Air Act Citizen Suit | |
80 FR 21754 - Section 8 Housing Assistance Payments Program-Fiscal Year (FY) 2015 Inflation Factors for Public Housing Agency (PHA) Renewal Funding | |
80 FR 21721 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 21720 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 21751 - Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for Coastal and Social Resiliency Initiatives for Tottenville Shoreline, Staten Island, NY | |
80 FR 21706 - Melamine From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination, and Alignment of Final Determination With Final Antidumping Duty Determination | |
80 FR 21708 - Melamine From Trinidad and Tobago: Preliminary Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination and Alignment of Final Determination With Final Antidumping Determination | |
80 FR 21711 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
80 FR 21762 - Certain Sulfentrazone, Sulfentrazone Compositions, and Processes for Making Sulfentrazone; Notice of Request for Statements on the Public Interest | |
80 FR 21650 - Vermont: Final Authorization of State Hazardous Waste Management Program Revisions | |
80 FR 21691 - Vermont: Proposed Authorization of State Hazardous Waste Management Program Revisions | |
80 FR 21719 - Information Collection; Transfer Order-Surplus Personal Property and Continuation Sheet, Standard Form (SF) 123 | |
80 FR 21784 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 21789 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 21785 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
80 FR 21765 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of an Approved Collection | |
80 FR 21764 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of an Approved Collection; Semi-Annual Progress Report for the Court Training and Improvements Program | |
80 FR 21763 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of an Approved Collection Semi-Annual Progress Report for Grantees From the Grants To Encourage Arrest Policies and Enforcement of Protection Orders Program | |
80 FR 21766 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Federal Explosives License/Permit (FEL) Renewal Application | |
80 FR 21719 - Agency Information Collection Activities OMB Responses | |
80 FR 21717 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Lead; Clearance and Clearance Testing Requirements for the Renovation, Repair, and Painting Program (Renewal) | |
80 FR 21649 - Adoption of Updated EDGAR Filer Manual | |
80 FR 21715 - President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology | |
80 FR 21715 - Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Portsmouth | |
80 FR 21746 - Tuna-Tariff Rate Quota; the Tariff-Rate Quota for Calendar Year 2015 Tuna Classifiable Under Subheading 1604.14.22, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) | |
80 FR 21802 - Advisory Committee on Risk-Sharing Mechanisms To Voluntarily Reinsure Against Losses From Acts of Terrorism | |
80 FR 21713 - Charter Renewal of Department of Defense Federal Advisory Committees | |
80 FR 21759 - Information Collection Request Sent to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Approval; Alaska Guide Service Evaluation | |
80 FR 21656 - Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement; Technical Amendments | |
80 FR 21654 - Application of Federal Law to LSC Recipients | |
80 FR 21712 - Defense Science Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meetings | |
80 FR 21792 - New York Disaster #NY-00158 | |
80 FR 21793 - Connecticut Disaster # CT-00034 | |
80 FR 21713 - Board of Regents, Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
80 FR 21710 - New England Fishery Management Council; Statement of Organization, Practices, and Procedures | |
80 FR 21792 - Administrative Declaration of a Disaster for the State of Rhode Island | |
80 FR 21767 - Committee Management; Renewal | |
80 FR 21767 - Advisory Committee for Education and Human Resources; Notice of Meeting | |
80 FR 21770 - Managing the Safety/Security Interface | |
80 FR 21658 - Alternate Risk-Informed Approach for Addressing the Effects of Debris on Post-Accident Long-Term Core Cooling | |
80 FR 21774 - Sizing of Large Lead-Acid Storage Batteries | |
80 FR 21793 - Administrative Declaration of a Disaster for the State of Oklahoma | |
80 FR 21796 - Reports, Forms, and Recordkeeping Requirements | |
80 FR 21744 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request | |
80 FR 21745 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Public Comment Request | |
80 FR 21770 - Seismic Stability Analysis for Spent Fuel Dry Cask Stack-Up Configuration | |
80 FR 21743 - Pilot Program for Center for Devices and Radiological Health Electronic Submission for Home Use Device Labeling | |
80 FR 21799 - Notice of Buy America Waiver | |
80 FR 21797 - Notice of Buy America Waiver | |
80 FR 21800 - Notice of Buy America Waiver | |
80 FR 21716 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 21692 - Use of Non-LSC Funds, Transfer of LSC Funds, Program Integrity; Subgrants and Membership Fees or Dues; Cost Standards and Procedures | |
80 FR 21755 - Order of Succession for the Office of Community Planning and Development | |
80 FR 21747 - Consolidated Delegations of Authority for the Office of Community Planning and Development | |
80 FR 21700 - Recipient Fund Balances | |
80 FR 21750 - Order of Succession for the Office of Housing | |
80 FR 21756 - Consolidated Delegation of Authority for the Office of Housing-Federal Housing Administration (FHA) | |
80 FR 21750 - Availability of HUD's Fiscal Year 2013 Service Contract Inventory | |
80 FR 22044 - Medicare Program; Prospective Payment System and Consolidated Billing for Skilled Nursing Facilities (SNFs) for FY 2016, SNF Value-Based Purchasing Program, SNF Quality Reporting Program, and Staffing Data Collection | |
80 FR 21785 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule | |
80 FR 21776 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Content of the BATS One Feed Under Rule 11.22(j) To Include Consolidated Volume for all Listed Equity Securities | |
80 FR 21778 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend NASDAQ Rules 7014 and 7018 | |
80 FR 21790 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change by NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc. Relating to Member Application | |
80 FR 21782 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Y-Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Content of the BATS One Feed Under Rule 11.22(i) To Include Consolidated Volume for All Listed Equity Securities | |
80 FR 21761 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
80 FR 21795 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request | |
80 FR 21775 - New Postal Product | |
80 FR 21761 - Notice of Availability of the Final Owyhee Canyonlands Wilderness and Wild & Scenic Rivers Management Plan, Idaho | |
80 FR 21760 - Public Land Order No. 7835; Revocation of the Withdrawal Established by Executive Order Dated August 24, 1842; Michigan | |
80 FR 21670 - Safety Zone, Volvo Ocean Race Newport; East Passage, Narragansett Bay, RI | |
80 FR 21766 - Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel; Meeting | |
80 FR 21801 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
80 FR 21746 - National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 21746 - National Institute of Dental & Craniofacial Research; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
80 FR 21746 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 21802 - Notice of Open Public Hearing | |
80 FR 21681 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Illinois; Illinois Power Holdings and AmerenEnergy Medina Valley Cogen Variance | |
80 FR 21710 - Commerce Spectrum Management Advisory Committee Meeting | |
80 FR 21691 - Clean Water Act Methods Update Rule for the Analysis of Effluent; Comment Extension | |
80 FR 21674 - Gathering of Certain Plants or Plant Parts by Federally Recognized Indian Tribes for Traditional Purposes | |
80 FR 22035 - Proposed Amendments to Class Exemptions 75-1, 77-4, 80-83 and 83-1 | |
80 FR 22021 - Proposed Amendment to and Proposed Partial Revocation of Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 86-128 for Securities Transactions Involving Employee Benefit Plans and Broker-Dealers; Proposed Amendment to and Proposed Partial Revocation of PTE 75-1, Exemptions From Prohibitions Respecting Certain Classes of Transactions Involving Employee Benefits Plans and Certain Broker-Dealers, Reporting Dealers and Banks | |
80 FR 22010 - Proposed Amendment to and Proposed Partial Revocation of Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 84-24 for Certain Transactions Involving Insurance Agents and Brokers, Pension Consultants, Insurance Companies and Investment Company Principal Underwriters | |
80 FR 22004 - Proposed Amendment to Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 75-1, Part V, Exemptions From Prohibitions Respecting Certain Classes of Transactions Involving Employee Benefit Plans and Certain Broker-Dealers, Reporting Dealers and Banks | |
80 FR 21989 - Proposed Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Debt Securities between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs | |
80 FR 21960 - Proposed Best Interest Contract Exemption | |
80 FR 21928 - Definition of the Term “Fiduciary”; Conflict of Interest Rule-Retirement Investment Advice | |
80 FR 21659 - Amendments to Regulations Under the Americans With Disabilities Act | |
80 FR 21645 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 21806 - Amendments for Small and Additional Issues Exemptions Under the Securities Act (Regulation A) | |
80 FR 21639 - Airworthiness Directives; ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional Airplanes |
Economic Development Administration
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Community Living Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Transportation Security Administration
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Ocean Energy Management Bureau
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this page for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, reminders, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Direct final rule; withdrawal.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is withdrawing a direct final rule that would have amended the NRC's spent fuel storage regulations by revising the Holtec International HI-STORM 100 Cask System listing within the “List of approved spent fuel storage casks” to add Amendment No. 8, Revision No. 1. This rule would have superseded Amendment No. 8 (effective May 2, 2012, and corrected on November 16, 2012), to the Certificate of Compliance (CoC) No. 1014. The NRC is taking this action because it has received at least one significant adverse comment in response to a companion proposed rule that was concurrently published with the direct final rule.
Effective April 20, 2015, the NRC withdraws the direct final rule published at 80 FR 6430 on February 5, 2015.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2014-0233 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Gregory R. Trussell, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6445; email:
On February 5, 2015 (80 FR 6430), the NRC published in the
In the February 5, 2015, proposed rule, the NRC stated that if any significant adverse comments were received, then the NRC would withdraw the direct final rule by publishing a document in the
As stated in the February 5, 2015, proposed rule, the NRC will address the comments in a subsequent final rule. The NRC will not initiate a second comment period on this action.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR72-212A airplanes. This AD requires inspection of the shock mount pick-up fittings and cone bolts, and replacement of certain shock mount pick-up fittings if necessary. This AD was prompted by reports of several cases of engine shock mount pick-up fittings with cracks or failure on the engine left-hand (LH) aft side attachment. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct an aft side attachment
This AD becomes effective May 5, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of May 5, 2015.
We must receive comments on this AD by June 4, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
• Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Delivery: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
For service information identified in this AD, contact ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional, 1, Allée Pierre Nadot, 31712 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 (0) 5 62 21 62 21; fax +33 (0) 5 62 21 67 18; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2012-0192, dated September 21, 2012 (corrected September 24, 2012) (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR72-212A airplanes. The MCAI states:
Several cases of engine shock mount pick-up fitting with crack or failure have been reported, always on engine Left Hand (LH) aft side attachment. Prompted by those reports, improved Part Number (P/N) S54210394200 (Barry Control P/N 94423-05) fittings (machined radius modification) have been introduced in production, having serial number (s/n) 2451 and higher. No crack has been reported on aeroplanes equipped with those improved fittings.
Two recent cases of failed cone bolt have been reported on ATR 72-212A aeroplanes, both on engine Right Hand (RH) aft side isolator.
An aft side attachment pick-up fitting failure associated to a cone bolt failure, if not detected and corrected, could reduce the structural integrity of the concerned engine nacelle, possibly resulting in detachment of the engine and consequent reduced control of the aeroplane.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time [detailed] inspection [for cracks] of the shock mount pick-up fittings and cone bolts and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable repair. This AD also requires replacement of all LH shock mount pick-up fitting P/N S54210394200 having a s/n lower than 2451.
You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional (ATR) has issued the following service information. The service information describes procedures for a detailed visual inspection of the engine shock mounts. The actions described in this service information are intended to correct the unsafe condition identified in the MCAI.
• ATR ATR72 airplane maintenance manual (AMM) Job Instruction Card 54-11-61 DVI 10000, Detailed Visual Inspection of Forward Engine Mount, dated March 1, 2012.
• ATR ATR72 AMM Job Instruction Card 71-20-00 DVI 10000, Detailled (sic) Visual Inspec[tion] of Engine Shockmounts, dated March 1, 2012.
This service information is reasonably available; see
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
Since there are currently no domestic operators of this product, notice and opportunity for public comment before issuing this AD are unnecessary.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not precede it by notice and opportunity for public comment. We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Currently, there are no affected airplanes on the U.S. Register. However,
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective May 5, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR72-212A airplanes, certificated in any category, manufacturer serial numbers 468 through 719 inclusive, 723, 776, 777, 779, 821, and 837.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America 54, Nacelles/Pylons.
This AD was prompted by reports of several cases of engine shock mount pick-up fittings with cracks or failure on the engine left-hand (LH) aft side attachment. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct an aft side attachment pick up fitting failure associated with a cone bolt failure that could reduce the structural integrity of the concerned engine nacelle, and possibly result in detachment of the engine and consequent reduced control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 6 months after the effective date of this AD, accomplish the actions specified by paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD concurrently.
(1) Identify the serial number (S/N) of the part number (P/N) S54210394200 (Barry Control P/N 94423-05) LH and right-hand (RH) shock mount pick-up fittings installed on both engine nacelles. Figure 1 to paragraph (g)(1) of this AD identifies the fitting part number and serial number locations.
(2) Do a detailed inspection of both LH and RH aft side isolator pick-up fittings on both engines to detect cracks, in accordance with paragraph 004.1 of ATR ATR72 Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM) Job Instruction Card (JIC) 54-11-61 DVI 10000, dated March 1, 2012. Refer to figure 2 to paragraph (g)(2) of this AD for potential crack location.
(3) Do a detailed inspection of both LH and RH aft shock mount cone bolts on both engines to detect cracks, in accordance with paragraph 006.3.A. of ATR ATR72 AMM JIC 71-20-00 DVI 10000. Refer to figure 3 to paragraph (g)(3) of this AD for potential crack location.
(1) If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this AD: Before further flight, repair in accordance with a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or ATR's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
(2) If the serial number of the LH shock mount pick-up fitting, identified during any inspection required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, is lower than 2451 or is unreadable, and no crack has been found during any
As of the effective date of this AD, do not install on any airplane a LH shock mount pick-up fitting P/N S54210394200, unless it is serviceable and has been determined to have an S/N equal to or higher than 2451, in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
Submit a report of the findings (both positive and negative) of the inspections required by paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD to ATR at
(1) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection.
(2) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2012-0192, dated September 21, 2012 (corrected September 24, 2012), for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (m)(3) and (m)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) ATR ATR72 Airplane Maintenance Manual (AMM) Job Instruction Card 54-11-61 DVI 10000, Detailed Visual Inspection of Forward Engine Mount, dated March 1, 2012.
(ii) ATR ATR72 AMM Job Instruction Card 71-20-00 DVI 10000, Detailled (sic) Visual Inspec[tion] of Engine Shockmounts, dated March 1, 2012.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact ATR—GIE Avions de Transport Régional, 1, Allée Pierre Nadot, 31712 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 (0) 5 62 21 62 21; fax +33 (0) 5 62 21 67 18; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 757-200, -200PF, -200CB, and -300 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by numerous reports of unintended lateral oscillations during final approach, just before landing. This AD requires, depending on airplane configuration, installing new relays and bracket assemblies, inspecting to ensure that the new relays do not contact adjacent wire bundles, torquing the bracket assembly installation nuts and ground stud nuts, doing bond resistance tests between the bracket assemblies and the terminal lugs on the ground studs, and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to reduce the chance of unintended lateral oscillations near touchdown, which could result in loss of lateral control of the airplane, and consequent airplane damage or injury to flightcrew and passengers.
This AD is effective May 26, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of May 26, 2015.
For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jeffrey Palmer, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130L, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5351; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We issued a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 757-200, -200PF, -200CB, and -300 series airplanes. The SNPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the SNPRM (79 FR 37239, July 1, 2014) and the FAA's response to each comment.
American Airlines (AAL) stated that it agrees with the intent of the SNPRM (79 FR 37239, July 1, 2014). Boeing stated that it agrees with the NPRM (76 FR 30043, May 24, 2011). We infer that Boeing's comment refers to the SNPRM.
United Airlines (United Engineering) requested data to justify the release of a new AD. United Engineering stated that it has not received any reports of pilot-induced oscillations since implementation of AD 2006-23-15, Amendment 39-14827 (71 FR 66657, November 16, 2006). United Engineering stated that AD 2006-23-15 requires, among other actions, installing a control wheel damper assembly and vortex generators (vortilons) on the leading edge of the outboard main flap. United Engineering also stated that the required work is extensive and that the impact to operations and the cost of this modification is considerable.
From these statements, we infer that United Engineering requested we withdraw the SNPRM (79 FR 37239, July 1, 2014). We do not agree with the commenter's request to withdraw the SNPRM. AD 2006-23-15, Amendment 39-14827 (71 FR 66657, November 16, 2006), was considered interim action. To effectively manage the risk, the FAA determined an interim action needed to be mandated to reduce the risk, while a solution that fully addresses the unsafe condition was identified and could be implemented.
The manufacturer has identified an additional modification that is needed to correct the unsafe condition identified in AD 2006-23-15. We have determined that this design change not only corrects the unsafe condition by removing excessive airplane roll authority during landing, but it will also improve safety by making the Model 757 handling characteristics more consistent with the other Boeing airplane models. Also, even though there have only been 12 reports of unintended lateral oscillations near touchdown, the FAA considers it likely that there may have been other events that have been unrecognized and/or unreported.
Finally, in developing the compliance time for this AD, we did consider not only the safety implications of the identified unsafe condition, but also the practical aspects of an orderly modification of the fleet including the work required and the impact on operations. We have determined that it is necessary to proceed with this AD action.
AAL requested that we delay this final rule until Boeing releases Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4. AAL noted that Boeing intended to release Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, which would address its concerns regarding certain procedures and figures in Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 1, Dated June 30, 2010.
Since the issuance of the SNPRM (79 FR 37239, July 1, 2014), Boeing has issued Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014. We have revised this AD to incorporate Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014, as an appropriate source of service information for accomplishing the actions required by this AD. This service bulletin includes a change to a footnote listed in Figures 15, 16, 17, 19, and 21; this footnote addresses AAL's concerns regarding certain procedures and figures in Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 1, dated June 30, 2010. Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014, states that no more work is necessary on airplanes changed in accordance with Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 2, dated May 25, 2012; or Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013.
We have changed paragraphs (c) and (g) of this AD to reference Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014.
Aviation Partners Boeing stated that the installation of winglets per Supplemental Type Certificate (STC)
We reviewed Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, which describes procedures for installing new relays; inspecting to ensure that the new relays do not contact adjacent wire bundles, and related investigative and corrective actions if necessary; torquing the bracket assembly installation nuts and ground stud nuts; and doing bond resistance tests between the bracket assemblies and the terminal lugs on the ground studs.
We have also reviewed Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014, which provides some revised text in footnotes of certain figures.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the SNPRM (79 FR 37239, July 1, 2014) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the SNPRM (79 FR 37239, July 1, 2014).
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We estimate that this AD affects 676 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary repairs that would be required based on the results of the inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these repairs:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the parts needed for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective May 26, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 757-200, -200PF, -200CB, and -300 series airplanes; certificated in any category; as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by numerous reports of unintended lateral oscillations during the final approach, just before landing. We are issuing this AD to reduce the chance of unintended lateral oscillations near touchdown, which could result in loss of lateral control of the airplane, and consequent airplane damage or injury to flightcrew and passengers.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD, do the applicable actions specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD.
(1) For Configuration 1 airplanes defined in Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014: Install three bracket assemblies and three new relays, and make changes to the wire bundles, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014.
(2) For Configuration 2 airplanes defined in Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014: Torque the bracket assembly nuts and ground stud nuts, do bond resistance tests to verify that bonding requirements are met, do a general visual inspection to ensure that the three new relays do not touch the adjacent wire bundles, and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight.
(3) For Configuration 3 airplanes defined in Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014: Do a general visual inspection to ensure that the three new relays do not touch the adjacent wire bundles, and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013, as revised by Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 2, dated May 25, 2012 (which is not incorporated by reference in this AD); or Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Jeffrey Palmer, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130L, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5351; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (k)(3) and (k)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 3, dated October 28, 2013.
(ii) Boeing Service Bulletin 757-27A0152, Revision 4, dated August 26, 2014.
(3) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Final rule.
The Securities and Exchange Commission (the Commission) is adopting revisions to the Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval System (EDGAR) Filer Manual and related rules to reflect updates to the EDGAR system. The updates are being made primarily to support the 2015 US GAAP financial reporting and 2015 EXCH taxonomies; add new form types for registration of Security-based swap data repositories (SDR); revise the Form ID Application Confirmation screen; remove references to the Paper Form ID; and revise Item 1 on submission form type MA-A. The EDGAR system was upgraded to support the new 2015 taxonomies and revised MA-A form functionalities on March 9, 2015. The EDGAR system is scheduled to be upgraded to support the other functionalities on April 13, 2015.
Effective April 20, 2015. The incorporation by reference of the EDGAR Filer Manual is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of April 20, 2015.
In the Division of Trading and Markets, for questions concerning Form SDR and the revisions for Form MA-A, contact Kathy Bateman at (202) 551-4345, and in the Office of Information Technology, contact Tammy Borkowski at (202) 551-7208.
We are adopting an updated EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume I and Volume II. The Filer Manual describes the technical formatting requirements for the preparation and submission of electronic filings through the EDGAR system.
The revisions to the Filer Manual reflect changes within Volume I entitled EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume I: “General Information,” Version 20 (April 2015), and Volume II entitled EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume II: “EDGAR Filing,” Version 30 (April 2015). The updated manual will be incorporated by reference into the Code of Federal Regulations.
The Filer Manual contains all the technical specifications for filers to submit filings using the EDGAR system. Filers must comply with the applicable provisions of the Filer Manual in order to assure the timely acceptance and processing of filings made in electronic format.
The EDGAR system will be upgraded to Release 15.1 on April 13, 2015 and will introduce the following changes:
EDGAR will be updated to add new submission form types SDR, SDR/A, SDR-A, and SDR-W. These submission form types can be accessed by selecting the “File SDR” link on the EDGAR Filing Web site. Additionally, applicants may construct XML submissions for these submission types by following the “EDGAR SDR XML Technical Specification” document available on the SEC's Public Web site (
Submission form types SDR, SDR/A, SDR-A, and SDR-W will include the “Request Confidentiality” check box to allow applicants to select which information to request confidential treatment. After a Form SDR is submitted, SEC staff will review the submission and make a determination of whether the information for which confidential treatment is requested should be made public. EDGAR will disseminate only the content and attached exhibits of the submission that the SEC staff has determined to be public.
The “Form ID Application Confirmation” screen will display four additional labels: “Signature of Authorized Person,” “Printed Name of Signature,” “Title of Person Signing,” and “Notary Signature & Seal to be Placed Here.” This screen will also be updated to include a “Print Window” button to print the completed online Form ID application. The printed application can be signed and notarized by the filer to serve as the authentication document when applying for EDGAR access.
All references to the Paper Form ID have been removed from the Filer Manual. Filers can print the electronic Form ID and use this as the authentication document as explained above.
EDGAR was updated to support the 2015 US GAAP financial reporting taxonomy and the 2015 EXCH taxonomy. A complete listing of supported standard taxonomies is available on
Item 1 “Identifying Information” on submission type MA-A was updated for the following question: “Changes: Are there any changes in this annual update to information provided in the municipal advisor's most recent Form MA, other than the updated Execution Page?” If filers select “No” as a response to the question, then all fields will be disabled on submission type MA-A with the exception of “Execution” and “Filer Information” tabs and the “Fiscal Year End Information” field on Item 1. Alternatively, if filers select “Yes” to the question, then they must update applicable items on submission type MA-A.
Along with the adoption of the Filer Manual, we are amending Rule 301 of Regulation S-T to provide for the incorporation by reference into the Code of Federal Regulations of today's revisions. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
The updated EDGAR Filer Manual will be available for Web site viewing and printing; the address for the Filer Manual is
Since the Filer Manual and the corresponding rule changes relate solely to agency procedures or practice, publication for notice and comment is not required under the Administrative
The effective date for the updated Filer Manual and the rule amendments is April 20, 2015. In accordance with the APA,
We are adopting the amendments to Regulation S-T under Sections 6, 7, 8, 10, and 19(a) of the Securities Act of 1933,
Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
In accordance with the foregoing, Title 17, Chapter II of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s(a), 77z-3, 77sss(a), 78c(b), 78
Filers must prepare electronic filings in the manner prescribed by the EDGAR Filer Manual, promulgated by the Commission, which sets out the technical formatting requirements for electronic submissions. The requirements for becoming an EDGAR Filer and updating company data are set forth in the updated EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume I: “General Information,” Version 20 (April 2015). The requirements for filing on EDGAR are set forth in the updated EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume II: “EDGAR Filing,” Version 30 (April 2015). Additional provisions applicable to Form N-SAR filers are set forth in the EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume III: “N-SAR Supplement,” Version 4 (October 2014). All of these provisions have been incorporated by reference into the Code of Federal Regulations, which action was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You must comply with these requirements in order for documents to be timely received and accepted. The EDGAR Filer Manual is available for Web site viewing and printing; the address for the Filer Manual is
By the Commission.
In Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 96 to 99, revised as of July 1, 2014, on page 859, in § 98.244, reinstate paragraph (b)(4)(ix) to read as follows:
(b) * * *
(4) * * *
(ix) Method 18 at 40 CFR part 60, appendix A-6.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The State of Vermont has applied to EPA for Final authorization of changes to its hazardous waste program under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). EPA has determined that these changes satisfy all requirements needed to qualify for Final authorization, and is authorizing the State's changes through this direct final action.
This rule is effective on June 19, 2015 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse written comment by May 20, 2015. If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
Submit any comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-RCRA-2015-0195, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
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Sharon Leitch, RCRA Waste Management and UST Section, Office of Site Remediation and Restoration, (Mail Code: OSRR07-1), EPA Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, MA 02109-3912; telephone number: (617) 918-1647; fax number (617) 918-0647; email address:
States which have received final authorization from EPA under RCRA section 3006(b), 42 U.S.C. 6926(b), must maintain a hazardous waste program that is equivalent to, consistent with, and no less stringent than the Federal program. As the Federal program changes, States must change their programs and ask EPA to authorize the changes. Changes to State programs may be necessary when Federal or State statutory or regulatory authority is modified or when certain other changes occur. Most commonly, States must change their programs because of changes to EPA's regulations in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) parts 124, 260 through 266, 268, 270, 273, and 279. When states make other changes to their regulations, it also often is appropriate for the states to seek authorization of the changes.
We have concluded that Vermont's application to revise its authorized program meets all of the statutory and regulatory requirements established by RCRA. Therefore, we grant Vermont Final authorization to operate its hazardous waste program with the changes described in the authorization application. Vermont has responsibility for permitting treatment, storage, and disposal facilities (TSDFs) within its borders and for carrying out the aspects of the RCRA program covered by its revised program application, subject to the limitations of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (HSWA). New Federal requirements and prohibitions imposed by Federal regulations that EPA promulgates under the authority of HSWA take effect in authorized States before they are authorized for the requirements. Thus, EPA will implement any such requirements and prohibitions in Vermont, including issuing permits, until the State is granted authorization to do so.
The effect of this decision is that a facility in Vermont subject to RCRA will now have to comply with the authorized State requirements instead of the Federal requirements governing the operation of the wastewater evaporation units subject to the state regulations, in order to comply with RCRA. Vermont has enforcement responsibilities under its State hazardous waste program for violations of such program, but EPA also retains its full authority under RCRA sections 3007, 3008, 3013, and 7003, which includes, among others, authority to:
• Perform inspections, and require monitoring, tests, analyses or reports
• Enforce RCRA requirements and suspend or revoke permits
• Take enforcement actions
This action does not impose additional requirements on the regulated community because the regulations for which Vermont is being authorized by this action are already effective under state law, and are not changed by this action.
EPA is publishing this rule without a prior proposed rule because we view this as a noncontroversial action and anticipate no adverse comment. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of this
If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
The State of Vermont initially received Final authorization on January 7, 1985, with an effective date of January 21, 1985 (50 FR 775) to implement the RCRA hazardous waste management program. The Region published an immediate final rule for certain revisions to Vermont's program on May 3, 1993 (58 FR 26242) and reopened the comment period for these revisions on June 7, 1993 (58 FR 31911). This authorization became effective August 6, 1993 (see 58 FR 31911). The Region granted authorization for further revisions to Vermont's program on September 24, 1999 (64 FR 51702), effective November 23, 1999. On October 18, 1999 (64 FR 46174) the Region published a correction to the immediate final rule that was published on September 24, 1999. The Region granted authorization for further revisions to Vermont's program on
On January 16, 2015, Vermont submitted a final complete program revision application, seeking authorization for their changes in accordance with 40 CFR 271.21. Vermont is seeking authorization for regulations that the state has adopted governing the operation of wastewater evaporation units.
We are now making an immediate final decision that, subject to reconsideration only if we receive written comments that oppose this action, Vermont's hazardous waste program revisions satisfy all of the requirements necessary to qualify for Final authorization. We have determined that the Vermont requirements governing wastewater evaporation units are “more stringent” than federal requirements. Therefore, we grant Vermont Final authorization for the following program changes: Vermont Hazardous Waste Management Regulation (VHWMR) section 7-502(o)(8), along with the revision to the note following VHWMR section 7-502(o)(10) and the definition of wastewater evaporator unit in VHWMR section 7-103. Since Vermont regulates wastewater evaporator units under various conditions set forth in its generator treatment in tanks provisions, the analogous federal requirements are in 40 CFR 262.34.
The Final authorization of these state regulations is in addition to the previous authorization of state regulations, which remain part of the authorized program.
Wastewater evaporation units (evaporators) (as further defined by Vermont) evaporate water using heat to reduce the volume of wastewater and to concentrate hazardous wastes. Vermont regulates these units using its permit exemption for generator treatment in tanks and additional conditions designed to effectively regulate evaporators. EPA has analyzed whether the Vermont regulations are equally or more protective of human health and the environment than the federal regulations, rather than being less stringent. The Agency has determined that Vermont's regulations are more protective/stricter, thus being within the State's authority to maintain under RCRA section 3009. A Memorandum entitled “Further Explanation of Decision” dated February 2015, containing a more detailed analysis of this issue, has been included in the Administrative Record. Additionally, the EPA analyzed whether the stricter state regulations are “more stringent” or “broader in scope”. EPA has determined that they are “more stringent” thus being regulations that should be federally authorized and enforced. An explanation of EPA's determinations is set forth below.
To determine whether the state regulations are stricter and not less stringent than the federal regulations, EPA has compared the state regulations to the federal regulations, including examining interpretations that have been made of the federal regulations (available in the administrative record and in RCRA Online). However, in line with the national policy: Determining Equivalency of State RCRA Hazardous Waste Programs, September 7, 2005 (Equivalency Policy), EPA has not required that the state follow the same identical approach as the federal regulations. Rather, EPA has focused, “on whether the state requirements provide [at least] equal environmental results as the federal counterparts.”
At the federal level, the wastewater treatment unit (WWTU) exemption has been interpreted to cover many hazardous waste evaporators. Vermont is stricter than this federal approach in that it excludes wastewater evaporation units from being covered under its WWTU exemption. Rather, it regulates them under its more protective generator treatment in tanks exemption. Furthermore, Vermont's generator treatment in tanks exemption is more stringent than the federal exemption in that it imposes additional requirements designed to effectively regulate evaporators.
However, there may be some evaporators that do not qualify for the WWTU exemption at the federal level. EPA has assumed for purposes of today's decision that the current EPA interpretation of the federal regulations is that, at the federal level, evaporation treatment is considered to be thermal treatment and is not allowed to be conducted by generators without permits under the generator treatment in tanks exemption. Nevertheless, for the reasons explained below, EPA has determined that the Vermont regulations are stricter, not less stringent than, the federal regulations.
EPA has concluded that we should look at the overall RCRA program and assess the effect of the Vermont program across the board. In doing that, EPA has concluded that the Vermont program is stricter than any of the federal requirements with respect to wastewater evaporators. RCRA section 3009. Vermont consistently and strictly regulates all generator evaporators by imposing hazardous waste management requirements and comprehensive air emissions regulations. This approach is stricter across the board than the federal approach, and thus should be allowed consistent with the national Equivalency Policy, which emphasizes that states may take different but equally or more protective approaches.
Vermont has requirements that are comparable to permits because the Vermont regulations require the same type of tank management standards and air emission control requirements as would be included in permits. Vermont also requires every generator operating an evaporator to submit a notice and obtain review of its operation.
EPA emphasizes that this decision allows non-permitted evaporation treatment (outside of the WWTU exemption) only in Vermont. Such treatment will be allowed only because it has been federally authorized as “functionally equivalent,” and this federal authorization is being granted based on the strict requirements adopted by Vermont. EPA further emphasizes that this regional rulemaking has no implications for how other kinds of “thermal treatment” will be regulated. Generally “thermal treatment” is not allowed without permits under either the generator treatment in tanks (and containers) exemption or under the WWTU exemption. Here, EPA is only allowing, subject to stricter Vermont standards, the same kind of evaporation treatment that already has been allowed without permits under the WWTU exemption at the federal level and in the many states that follow the federal approach.
Finally, EPA notes that Vermont is stricter than the federal approach with
State regulations that are stricter may be determined to be more stringent or broader in scope. While states are allowed to maintain both types of requirements, this determination is important because state regulations that EPA determines to be more stringent are made part of the federally authorized program and are federally enforceable. State regulations that the EPA determines to be broader in scope are not made part of the federally authorized program and thus, are not federally enforceable.
To determine whether the Vermont regulations are more stringent or broader in scope, EPA has consulted the national policy: Determining Whether State Hazardous Waste Requirements are More Stringent or Broader in Scope than the Federal RCRA Program, December 23, 2014. Included in that policy is a two-part test that Regions generally use to determine whether state provisions are more stringent or broader in scope. EPA has determined that the Vermont regulations are more stringent.
As noted in that policy, when EPA regulates hazardous waste through conditional exclusions, the federal conditions amount to a form of regulation. When a state imposes additional conditions for materials still considered to be hazardous wastes at the federal level even when the federal conditions are met, the additional state conditions do not increase the size of the regulated community. Therefore, these are considered to be a more stringent not broader in scope conditions under the first test. As noted in the Appendix to the policy, an example of this is the WWTU exemption. While EPA regulates evaporators under the WWTU exemption less strictly than Vermont, both are regulating them and the additional Vermont regulations pass the first test set forth in the policy for being considered more stringent. Evaporators that do not qualify for the WWTU exemption at the federal level are regulated at the federal level, and thus the state regulation of them is also within the scope of the federal program under the first test.
The Vermont regulations pass the second test in the policy for being considered more stringent. The federal WWTU exemption requires treatment to occur within a tank or tank system in order to prevent releases of hazardous wastes. Similarly, the state requirements for evaporators are counterparts to the federal requirement in that they seek to prevent releases. In addition, the state imposes its large quantity generator (LQG) and small quantity generator (SQG) requirements on those generators operating evaporators, counterparts to these requirements exist in the federal LQG and SQG regulations. The state regulation of evaporators is similar to when additional state regulation of CESQGs exist, which is cited in the national policy as meeting both tests for being more stringent rather than broader in scope. For those evaporators not subject to the federal WWTU exemption, the state regulations have counterparts in the federal permit regulations.
The regulations listed in Section F. above are being federally authorized and will be federally enforceable. The other previously authorized Vermont generator requirements will also be federally enforceable with respect to generator evaporators. In addition, the previously authorized full state permit requirements with respect to any evaporators at TSDFs will also be federally enforceable. Also, as previously authorized, the WWTU exemption will not apply to any evaporators in Vermont since they are excluded under the definition of WWTU adopted by Vermont.
Vermont will issue permits for all the provisions for which it is authorized and will administer the permits it issues. EPA will implement and issue permits for any HSWA requirements for which Vermont is not yet authorized.
Codification is the process of placing the State's statutes and regulations that comprise the State's authorized hazardous waste program into the Code of Federal Regulations. We do this by referencing the authorized State rules in 40 CFR part 272. We reserve the amendment of 40 CFR part 272, subpart UU for this authorization of Vermont's program until a later date.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted this action (RCRA State Authorization) from the requirements of Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011). Therefore, this action is not subject to review by OMB. This action authorizes State requirements for the purpose of RCRA 3006 and imposes no additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. Accordingly, this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Under RCRA 3006(b), EPA grants a State's application for authorization as long as the State meets the criteria required by RCRA. It would thus be inconsistent with applicable law for EPA, when it reviews a State authorization application, to require the use of any particular voluntary consensus standard in place of another standard that otherwise satisfies the requirements of RCRA. Thus, the requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Hazardous waste.
This action is issued under the authority of sections 2002(a), 3006 and 7004(b) of the Solid Waste Disposal Act as amended 42 U.S.C. 6912(a), 6926, 6974(b).
Legal Services Corporation
Final rule.
This final rule updates the Legal Services Corporation (LSC or Corporation) regulation on the application of Federal law to LSC recipients. The FY 1996 appropriations act (incorporated in LSC's appropriations by reference annually thereafter) subjects LSC recipients and its employees and board members to Federal law relating to the proper use of Federal funds. This final rule provides recipients with notice of the applicable Federal laws each recipient and its employees and board members must agree to be subject to under this rule, the consequences of a violation of an applicable Federal law, and where LSC will maintain the list of applicable laws.
This final rule will be effective on May 20, 2015.
Stefanie K. Davis, Assistant General Counsel, Legal Services Corporation, 3333 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20007; (202) 295-1563 (phone), (202) 337-6519 (fax), or
Section 504(a)(19) of LSC's FY 1996 appropriations act required LSC recipients to enter into a contract that subjected them to “all provisions of Federal law relating to the proper use of Federal funds.” Sec. 504(a)(19), Public Law.= 104-134, title V; 110 Stat. 1321. By its terms, a violation of Sec. 504(a)(19) renders any LSC grant or contract null and void. The provision has been incorporated by reference into each of LSC's annual appropriations act since. Accordingly, the preamble and text of this final rule continue to refer to the relevant section number of the FY 1996 appropriations act.
The Corporation first issued 45 CFR part 1640 as an interim rule in 1996 to implement Sec. 504(a)(19). 61 FR 45760, Aug. 29, 1996. The interim rule was put in place to provide immediate guidance to LSC recipients on legislation that was already in effect and carried significant penalties for noncompliance.
In particular, LSC relied on two congressional documents to support its interpretation. First, the Corporation cited to the House Report for H.R. 2076, which was a prior effort to enact a provision similar to section 504(a)(19). The relevant language in that report stated:
LSC adopted the list of statutes in section 5, with one exception. Through negotiation with LSC's Office of Inspector General (OIG), LSC determined that two other criminal statutes should be included in the list. 61 FR 45760, Aug. 29, 1996. These statutes prohibit bribery of public officials and witnesses and conspiracy to defraud the United States.
Minor changes to the interim rule, not affecting this list, were made before the
Since the final rule was published, Congress has amended or passed other Federal laws relating to the proper use of Federal funds. In 2014, OIG raised concerns that the § 1640.2(a)(1) list of applicable Federal laws is now under-inclusive. As an example, OIG noted the omission of 18 U.S.C. 666, which prohibits theft or bribery concerning programs receiving Federal funds and has been the basis for OIG's referrals to the Department of Justice for prosecution. Subsequently, LSC staff researched other Federal laws applicable to fraud, waste, and abuse of Federal funds. The search revealed at least two other Federal laws relating to the proper use of Federal funds currently missing from the § 1640.2(a)(1) list: 18 U.S.C. 285—Taking or using papers relating to claims, and 18 U.S.C. 1031—Major fraud against the United States.
As required by the LSC Rulemaking Protocol, LSC staff prepared an explanatory rulemaking options paper, accompanied by a proposed rule amending Part 1640. On January 22, 2015, the Operations and Regulations Committee (Committee) voted to authorize LSC to initiate rulemaking and to recommend that the LSC Board of Directors (Board) approve publishing the proposed rule. On January 24, 2015, the Board approved the proposed rule for publication in the
On April 12, 2015, the Committee considered the draft final rule for publication and voted to recommend its publication to the Board, subject to one amendment. The Committee voted to amend the language in § 1640.2(a) to explicitly state that the Board would vote at a public meeting on any proposed changes to the list of Federal laws relating to the proper use of Federal funds. The Committee made this amendment in response to a comment made during the meeting by the National Legal Aid and Defender Association (NLADA) expressing its position that proposed changes to the list should be subject to public comment prior to adoption by the Board. On April 14, 2015, the Board voted to adopt and publish the final rule as amended.
Material regarding this rulemaking is available in the open rulemaking section of LSC's Web site at
LSC received two comments during the public comment period. One comment was submitted by an LSC-funded recipient, Colorado Legal Services (CLS). The other comment was submitted by the non-LSC-funded non-profit NLADA through its Civil Policy Group and its Regulations and Policy Committee. Both commenters were generally supportive of the changes LSC proposed to Part 1640.
LSC proposed revising this section to reflect the changes to Part 1640, specifically removing the language stating that the applicable Federal laws were identified in Part 1640. LSC received no comments on this proposal.
LSC proposed deleting the existing § 1640.2(a)(1) list of applicable Federal laws. The contracts between the Corporation and its recipients, currently referred to as the LSC Grant Assurances, will be modified to provide recipients with a weblink to the updated list. LSC proposed a new § 1640.2(a), which states that the Corporation will maintain a public list of applicable Federal law on the Corporation's Web site. LSC stated in the preamble of the NPRM that the list would be exhaustive but did not specifically use that term in the proposed rule text.
Although the regulation does not require notice and an opportunity for comment before submitting modifications of the list to the Board for approval, LSC remains committed to providing recipients with notice of any proposed modifications before a Board meeting. Recipients will have an opportunity to comment on the proposed modifications prior to and at the meeting where the modifications will be discussed.
LSC proposed renumbering § 1640.2(a)(2) as § 1640.2(b) and revising the language for clarity and readability. No substantive changes were made to this subsection. LSC received no comments on this proposal. LSC proposed redesignating existing § 1640.2(b)(1) and (2) as § 1640.4(a) and (c) respectively.
LSC proposed revising existing § 1640.3 for clarity and readability. No substantive changes were made to this subsection. LSC received no comments on this proposal.
LSC proposed redesignating existing § 1640.2(b)(1) and (2) as § 1640.4(a) and (c) respectively. The proposed move groups each definition in existing § 1640.2(b) with each definition's consequence for violating the agreement
Fraud; Grant programs—law; Legal services.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Legal Services Corporation revises 45 CFR part 1640 to read as follows:
42 U.S.C. 2996e(g).
The purpose of this part is to ensure that recipients use their LSC funds in accordance with Federal law related to the proper use of Federal funds. This part also provides notice to recipients of the consequences of a violation of such Federal laws by a recipient, its employees or board members.
(a) LSC will maintain an exhaustive list of applicable Federal laws relating to the proper use of Federal funds on its Web site and provide recipients with a link to the list in the contractual agreement. The list may be modified with the approval of the Corporation's Board of Directors at a public meeting. LSC will provide recipients with notice when the list is modified.
(b) For the purposes of this part and the laws referenced in paragraph (a) of this section, LSC is considered a Federal agency and a recipient's LSC funds are considered Federal funds provided by grant or contract.
As a condition of receiving LSC funds, a recipient must enter into a written agreement with the Corporation that, with respect to its LSC funds, will subject the recipient to the applicable Federal laws relating to the proper use of Federal funds. The agreement must include a statement that all of the recipient's employees and board members have been informed of such Federal law and of the consequences of a violation of such law, both to the recipient and to themselves as individuals.
(a) LSC will determine that a recipient has violated the agreement described in § 1640.3 when the recipient has been convicted of, or judgment has been entered against the recipient for, a violation of an applicable Federal law relating to the proper use of Federal funds with respect to its LSC grant or contract, by the court having jurisdiction of the matter, and any appeals of the conviction or judgment have been exhausted or the time for appeal has expired.
(b) A violation of the agreement by a recipient based on recipient conduct will result in the Corporation terminating the recipient's LSC grant or contract without need for a termination hearing. While an appeal of a conviction or judgment is pending, the Corporation may take any necessary steps to safeguard its funds.
(c) LSC will determine that the recipient has violated the agreement described in § 1640.3 when an employee or board member of the recipient has been convicted of, or judgment has been entered against the employee or board member for, a violation of an applicable Federal law relating to the proper use of Federal funds with respect to the recipient's grant or contract with LSC, by the court having jurisdiction of the matter, and any appeals of the conviction or judgment have been exhausted or the time for appeal has expired, and the Corporation finds that the recipient has knowingly or through gross negligence allowed the employee or board member to engage in such activities.
(d) A violation of the agreement by the recipient based on employee or board member conduct will result in the Corporation terminating the recipient's LSC grant or contract. Prior to termination, the Corporation will provide notice and an opportunity to be heard for the sole purpose of determining whether the recipient knowingly or through gross negligence allowed the employee or board member to engage in the activities leading to the conviction or judgment. While an appeal of a conviction or judgment or a hearing is pending, the Corporation may take any necessary steps to safeguard its funds.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Final rule.
DoD is making technical amendments to the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to provide needed editorial changes.
Effective April 20, 2015.
Mr. Manuel Quinones, Defense Acquisition Regulations System, OUSD(AT&L)DPAP(DARS), Room 3B941, 3060 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301-3060. Telephone 571-372-6088; facsimile 571-372-6094.
This final rule amends the DFARS as follows:
1. Directs contracting officers to additional procedures and guidance by adding references at—
• DFARS 205.205.205-71 to DFARS Procedures, Guidance and Information (PGI) 206.302-1(d);
• DFARS 206.000 to PGI 206.000;
• DFARS 206.302-1(d) to PGI 206.302-1(d);
• DFARS 206.303-2 to PGI 206.303-2(b)(i);
• DFARS 206.304(a)(S-70) to PGI 206.304(a)(S-70);
• DFARS 208.405-6 to PGI 208.405-6;
• DFARS 210.002 to PGI 210.002(e)(ii);
• DFARS 213.104 to PGI 213.104;
• DFARS 213.500-70 to PGI 215.371-2;
• DFARS 213.501 to PGI 206.304(a)(S-70);
• DFARS 215.371-2 to PGI 215.371-2; and
• DFARS 216.505(b)(2) to PGI 216.505(b)(2).
2. Revises paragraph structure of sections 210.002 and 215.371-2.
Government procurement.
Therefore, 48 CFR parts 205, 206, 208, 210, 213, 215, and 216 are amended as follows:
41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.
Follow the procedures at PGI 206.302-1(d) prior to soliciting a proposal without providing for full and open competition under the authority at FAR 6.302-1.
41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.
For information on the various approaches that may be used to competitively fulfill DoD requirements, see PGI 206.000.
(d)
(b)(i) Include the information required by PGI 206.303-2(b)(i) in justifications citing the authority at FAR 6.302-1.
(a)(4) * * *
(S-70) For a noncompetitive follow-on acquisition to a previous award for the same supply or service supported by a justification for other than full and open competition citing the authority at FAR 6.302-1, follow the procedures at PGI 206.304(a)(S-70).
For an order or blanket purchase agreement (BPA) exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold that is a follow-on to an order or BPA for the same supply or service previously issued based on a limiting sources justification citing the authority at FAR 8.405-6(a)(1)(i)(B) or (C), follow the procedures at PGI 208.405-6.
(e)(i) When contracting for services, see PGI 210.070 for the “Market Research Report Guide for Improving the Tradecraft in Services Acquisition”.
(ii) See PGI 210.002(e)(ii) regarding potential offerors that express an interest in an acquisition.
For information on the various approaches that may be used to competitively fulfill DoD requirements, see PGI 213.104.
If only one offer is received in response to a competitive solicitation issued using simplified acquisition procedures authorized under FAR subpart 13.5, follow the procedures at PGI 215.371-2.
(a)
Except as provided in sections 215.371-4 and 215.371-5—
(a) If only one offer is received when competitive procedures were used and the solicitation allowed fewer than 30 days for receipt of proposals, the contracting officer shall—
(1) Consult with the requiring activity as to whether the requirements document should be revised in order to promote more competition (see FAR 6.502(b) and 11.002); and
(2) Resolicit, allowing an additional period of at least 30 days for receipt of proposals; and
(b) For competitive solicitations in which more than one potential offeror expressed an interest in an acquisition, but only one offer was ultimately received, follow the procedures at PGI 215.371-2.
(b)(2)
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft regulatory guide; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing for public comment draft regulatory guide (DG), DG-1322, “Alternate Risk-Informed Approach for Addressing the Effects of Debris On Post-Accident Long-Term Core Cooling.” This DG proposes new guidance that describes methods and procedures that the NRC staff considers acceptable for complying with a voluntary, risk-informed alternative in a proposed revision of the NRC's regulation governing the design of emergency core cooling systems (ECCS).
Submit comments by July 6, 2015. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date. Although a time limit is given, comments and suggestions in connection with items for inclusion in guides currently being developed or improvements in all published guides are encouraged at any time.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specified subject):
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For additional direction on accessing information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Steven A. Laur, telephone: 301-415-1465, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0095 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publically-available information related to this document by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2015-0095 in the subject line of your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is issuing for public comment a DG in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. This series was developed to describe and make available to the public information regarding methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the NRC's regulations, techniques that the staff uses in evaluating specific problems or postulated accidents, and data that the staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses.
The DG, entitled, “Alternate Risk-Informed Approach for Addressing the Effects of Debris On Post-Accident Long-Term Core Cooling,” is a proposed new guide temporarily identified by its task number, DG-1322. This DG-1322 proposes new guidance that describes methods and procedures that the staff considers acceptable for complying with a voluntary, risk-informed alternative in a proposed revision of the NRC's regulation governing the design of ECCS, section 50.46c of Title 10 of the
The voluntary alternative was included in the proposed 10 CFR 50.46c rule at the direction of the Commission in the Staff Requirements Memorandum (SRM) regarding SECY-12-0093 “Closure Options for Generic Safety Issue—191, Assessment of Debris Accumulation on Pressurized-Water Reactor Sump Performance,” and in the SRM regarding SECY-12-0034 “Proposed Rulemaking—10 CFR 50.46c: Emergency Core Cooling System Performance During Loss-of-Coolant Accidents (RIN 3150-AH42).” This guide is intended to provide a consistent approach for licensees to use when performing a risk assessment of the complex phenomena associated with debris generation and transport, and the resulting effect on long-term core cooling.
This DG, if finalized, would not constitute backfitting as defined in § 50.109 (the Backfit Rule), and would not be otherwise inconsistent with the issue finality provisions in 10 CFR part 52, “Licenses, Certifications and Approvals for Nuclear Power Plants.” The NRC published a proposed revision of 10 CFR 50.46c on March 24, 2014 (79 FR 16106). The proposed rule includes the option of allowing an applicant or licensee to address the effects of debris on longterm cooling with respect to ECCS performance requirements in § 50.46c and GDC-35 using a risk-informed approach. The proposed rule would also allow applicants and licensees who select the option to use the same approach in demonstrating compliance with GDC-38 and GDC-41. This DG provides guidance on one possible means for implementing that option. The proposed guidance does not exceed the scope of the proposed rule. Therefore, the backfitting and issue finality discussion for the proposed rule applies to this DG, and further consideration and discussion of backfitting and issue finality for the DG is not necessary.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
Proposed rule.
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (“EEOC” or “Commission”) is issuing a proposed rule that would amend the regulations and interpretive guidance implementing Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) as they relate to employer wellness programs. The proposed rule amends the ADA regulations to provide guidance on the extent to which employers may use incentives to encourage employees to participate in wellness programs that include disability-related inquiries and/or medical examinations.
Comments regarding this proposal must be received by the Commission on or before June 19, 2015. Please see the sections below entitled
You may submit comments, identified by
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Christopher J. Kuczynski, Assistant Legal Counsel, (202) 663-4665, or Joyce Walker-Jones, Senior Attorney Advisor, at (202) 663-7031, or (202) 663-7026 (TTY), Office of Legal Counsel, U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. (These are not toll free numbers.) Requests for this notice in an alternative format should be made to the Office of Communications and Legislative Affairs at (202) 663-4191 (voice) or (202) 663-4494 (TTY). (These are not toll free numbers.)
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (“EEOC” or “Commission”) is issuing a proposed rule that would amend the regulations and interpretive guidance implementing Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) as they relate to employer wellness programs. Congress enacted the ADA in 1990 to prohibit discrimination against individuals with disabilities. The EEOC issued implementing regulations in 1991 to provide additional guidance on the law's requirements and prohibited practices with respect to employment.
A wellness program may be part of a group health plan or may be offered outside of a group health plan.
As a means of attempting to improve employees' health and reduce health care costs, many employers that provide health coverage also offer employee health programs and activities to promote healthier lifestyles or prevent disease.
Employee health programs offered by employers must comply with laws enforced by the EEOC, including Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) which restricts the medical information employers may obtain from applicants and employees and makes it illegal to discriminate against individuals based on disability.
The laws relevant to this proposed rule are discussed below.
HIPAA's nondiscrimination provisions, as amended by the Affordable Care Act, generally prohibit group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance in connection with a group health plan from discriminating against participants and beneficiaries in premiums, benefits, or eligibility based on a health factor.
HIPAA's nondiscrimination provisions, as amended by the Affordable Care Act, and the 2013 final regulations issued by the Departments of Labor, Treasury, and HHS, discuss two types of wellness programs: Participatory and health-contingent. Participatory wellness programs either do not provide a reward or do not include any conditions for obtaining a reward that are based on an individual satisfying a standard related to a health factor. Examples in the final regulations include: A program that reimburses employees for all or part of the cost for membership in a fitness center; a program that reimburses employees for the costs of participating, or that otherwise provides a reward for participating, in a smoking cessation program without regard to whether the employee quits smoking; and a program that provides a reward to employees who complete a health risk assessment (HRA) regarding current health status, without any further action (educational or otherwise) required by the employee with regard to the health issues identified as part of the assessment. The 2013 final regulations state that participatory wellness programs are permissible under the HIPAA nondiscrimination requirements provided they are made available to all similarly situated individuals.
Health-contingent wellness programs, which may be either activity-only or outcome-based, require individuals to satisfy a standard related to a health factor to obtain a reward (or require an individual to undertake more than a similarly situated individual based on a health factor in order to obtain the same reward). Activity-only programs require individuals to perform or complete an activity related to a health factor in order to obtain a reward, but do not require an individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome. Outcome-based programs require individuals to attain or maintain a specific health outcome (such as not smoking or attaining certain results on biometric screenings) in order to obtain a reward.
There are five requirements for health-contingent wellness programs under the Public Health Service (PHS) Act section 2705 and the 2013 final regulations.
The 2013 final regulations recognize that compliance with HIPAA nondiscrimination rules (as amended by the Affordable Care Act), including the wellness program requirements, is not determinative of compliance with any other provision of any other state or federal law, including, but not limited to, the ADA, Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Title VII), and the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA).
Title I of the ADA prohibits discrimination against individuals on the basis of disability “in regard to . . . employment compensation . . . and other terms, conditions, and privileges of employment,” including “fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the covered entity.”
The Commission's interpretation of the term “voluntary” in the ADA's disability-related inquiries and medical examinations provision is central to the interaction between the ADA and HIPAA's wellness program provisions, as amended by the Affordable Care Act. A plausible reading of “voluntary” in isolation is that covered entities can only offer de minimis rewards or penalties to employees for their participation (or nonparticipation) in wellness programs that include disability-related inquiries and medical examinations. That reading, however, would make many wellness program incentives tied to the disclosure of health information or the completion of medical examinations expressly permitted by HIPAA impermissible under the ADA. Although it is clear that compliance with the standards in HIPAA is not determinative of compliance with the ADA,
Accordingly, the Commission concludes that allowing certain incentives related to wellness programs, while limiting them to prevent economic coercion that could render provision of medical information involuntary, is the best way to effectuate the purposes of the wellness program provisions of both laws.
The proposed rule explains what an employee health program is, what it means for an employee health program to be voluntary, what incentives employers may offer as part of a voluntary employee health program, and what requirements apply concerning notice and confidentiality of medical information obtained as part of voluntary employee health programs. In addition, the proposed rule explains that compliance with rules concerning voluntary employee health programs does not ensure compliance with all the antidiscrimination laws EEOC enforces.
The proposed rule clarifies that an employer may offer limited incentives up to a maximum of 30 percent of the total cost of employee-only coverage, whether in the form of a reward or penalty, to promote an employee's participation in a wellness program that includes disability-related inquiries or medical examinations as long as participation is voluntary. As noted below, EEOC seeks comment on whether additional protections for low-income employees are needed. Voluntary means that a covered entity: (1) Does not require employees to participate; (2) does not deny coverage under any of its group health plans or particular benefits packages within a group health plan for non-participation or limit the extent of such coverage (except pursuant to allowed incentives); and (3) does not take any adverse employment action or retaliate against, interfere with, coerce, intimidate, or threaten employees within the meaning of Section 503 of the ADA, at 42 U.S.C. 12203.
Further, to ensure that participation in a wellness program that includes disability-related inquiries and/or medical examinations, and that is part of a group health plan, is truly voluntary, an employer must provide a notice that clearly explains what medical information will be obtained, who will receive the medical information, how the medical
The proposed rule re-asserts the Commission's position, based on the language of the ADA, that employee health programs that include disability-related inquiries or medical examinations (including inquiries or medical examinations that are part of a HRA or medical history) must be voluntary and clarifies the application of that rule in light of the amendments made to HIPAA by the Affordable Care Act.
Proposed section 1630.14(d)(1) says that an employee health program, including any disability-related inquiries and medical examinations that are part of such a program, must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. This standard is similar to the standard under the tri-agency regulations applicable to health-contingent wellness programs.
Section 1630.14(d)(2)(i)-(iii) explains that, for a program to be considered voluntary, a covered entity may not require an employee to participate in such a program and may not deny coverage under any of its group health plans or particular benefits packages within a group health plan, generally may not limit the extent of such coverage, and may not take any other adverse action against employees who refuse to participate in an employee health program or fail to achieve certain health outcomes. Additionally, an employer may not retaliate against, interfere with, coerce, intimidate, or threaten employees in violation of Section 503 of the ADA, at 42 U.S.C. 12203 (
Section 1630.14(d)(2)(iv) says that for an employee's participation in a wellness program that is part of a group health plan to be deemed voluntary, a covered entity must provide a notice clearly explaining what medical information will be obtained, how the medical information will be used, who will receive the medical information, the restrictions on its disclosure, and the methods the covered entity uses to prevent improper disclosure of medical information.
Section 1630.14(d)(3) clarifies that the offer of limited incentives to participate in wellness programs that are part of a group health plan and that include disability-related inquiries and/or medical examinations, will not render the program involuntary. However, the total allowable incentive available under all programs (both participatory programs and health-contingent programs) may not exceed 30 percent of the total cost of employee-only coverage, which generally is the maximum allowable incentive available under HIPAA and the Affordable Care Act for health-contingent wellness programs.
The EEOC proposes to extend the 30 percent limit set under HIPAA and the Affordable Care Act to include participatory wellness programs that ask an employee to respond to a disability-related inquiry or undergo a medical examination. HIPAA and Affordable Care Act wellness program provisions are limited to regulating what constitutes discrimination based on a health factor. As long as an incentive for a participatory wellness program is available to all similarly situated employees, regardless of any health factor, the incentive will not violate HIPAA and the Affordable Care Act. By contrast, the ADA rules concerning disability-related inquiries and medical examinations of employees limit the circumstances under which employers may obtain medical information from employees and the type of information that may be sought. For this reason, EEOC has determined that placing limits on the rewards employers may offer for employee participation (or penalties for non-participation) where participation requires employees to answer disability-related inquiries or take medical examinations promotes the ADA's interest in ensuring that incentive limits are not so high as to make participation in the program involuntary. At the same time, these limits comport with HIPAA and the Affordable Care Act wellness program provisions.
The EEOC has not changed any of the exceptions to confidentiality set out in section 1630.14(d). The Commission, however, proposes to add a new subsection, 1630.14(d)(6), concerning the confidentiality and use of medical information gathered in the course of providing voluntary health services to employees, including information collected as part of an employee's participation in an employee health program. This subsection states that medical information collected through an employee health program only may be provided to a covered entity under the ADA in aggregate terms that do not disclose, or are not reasonably likely to disclose, the identity of specific individuals, except as needed to administer the health plan and except as permitted under 1630.14(d)(4). The interpretive guidance explains that both employers that sponsor wellness programs and administrators of wellness programs acting as agents of employers have obligations to ensure compliance with this provision.
Further, the interpretive guidance explains that where a wellness program is part of a group health plan, the individually identifiable health information collected from or created about participants as part of the wellness program is protected health information under the HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules.
Section 1630.14(d)(7) clarifies that compliance with paragraph (d) of this section, including the proposed limit on incentives under the ADA, does not relieve a covered entity of its obligation to comply with other employment nondiscrimination laws. Thus, for example, as the interpretive guidance accompanying the proposed rule explains, even if an employer's wellness program complies with the incentive limits set forth in the ADA regulations, the employer would violate Title VII or the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) if that program discriminates on the basis of race, sex, national origin, or age, or any other grounds prohibited by those statutes.
Employee health programs that do not include disability-related inquiries or medical examinations, such as those that provide employees with general health information and education programs are not subject to the incentive rules discussed here. Like other benefit programs offered by covered entities, however, these programs must not discriminate against employees with disabilities. This nondiscrimination requirement includes providing reasonable accommodations that enable employees with disabilities to fully participate in employee health programs and earn any reward or avoid any penalty offered as part of those programs.
This revision will require renumbering 29 CFR 1630.14(d).
The Commission invites written comments from members of the public on any issues related to this proposed rule, including general comments about wellness programs or about particular practices that might violate the ADA or other laws enforced by the EEOC. In addition, the Commission specifically requests comments on several issues:
(1) Whether the way in which the Commission reconciles the ADA's “voluntary” requirement with the wellness program provisions in the Affordable Care Act is appropriate given the intent behind both provisions. Specifically, the Commission seeks comment on:
(a) Whether to be “voluntary” under the ADA, entities that offer incentives to encourage employees to disclose medical information must also offer similar incentives to persons who choose not to disclose such information, but who instead provide certification from a medical professional stating that the employee is under the care of a physician and that any medical risks identified by that physician are under active treatment.
(b) Whether to be considered “voluntary” under the ADA, the incentives provided in a wellness program that asks employees to respond to disability-related inquiries and/or undergo medical examinations may not be so large as to render health insurance coverage unaffordable under the Affordable Care Act and therefore in effect coercive for an employee. Specifically, the Commission seeks input on whether it would be appropriate for the Commission to provide that the incentives employers offer to employees to promote participation in wellness programs must not render the cost of health insurance unaffordable to employees within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 36B (c)(2)(C) as implemented by 26 CFR 54.4980H-5(e). Generally, the cost of health insurance is affordable within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. 36B(c)(2)(C) if the portion an employee would have to pay for employee-only coverage would not exceed a specified percent of household income (9.56 percent in 2015). Where such incentives would render a plan unaffordable for an individual, it would be deemed coercive and involuntary to require that individual to answer disability-related inquiries and/or submit to medical examinations connected with the wellness program at issue.
(c) Whether there are any methods other than those mentioned in the proposed regulation and the questions above by which the Commission can effectuate the intent of both the “voluntary” requirement in the ADA and the provisions in the Affordable Care Act intended to encourage workplace health promotion and disease prevention.
(2) Should the proposed notice requirements of this rule, at section 1630.14(d)(2)(iv), also include a requirement that employees participating in wellness programs that include disability-related inquiries and/or medical examinations, and that are part of a group health plan, provide prior, written, and knowing confirmation that their participation is voluntary? If so, what form should such an authorization take? Are principles of informed consent in the medical context helpful in fashioning an appropriate authorization? Are there existing forms that could provide adequate protections, such as forms developed under HIPAA, forms employers already use in connection with wellness programs, or forms employers use to comply with Title II of GINA? What costs would be associated with developing an appropriate authorization form and/or collecting and maintaining authorization forms for employees who decide to participate in wellness programs?
(3) Should the proposed notice requirement apply only to wellness programs that offer more than de minimis rewards or penalties to employees who participate (or decline to participate) in wellness programs that ask them to respond to disability-related inquiries and/or undergo medical examinations? If so, how should the Commission define “de minimis”?
(4) Which best practices ensure that wellness programs are designed to promote health and do not operate to shift costs to employees with health impairments or stigmatized conditions?
(5) Whether employers offer (or are likely to offer in the future) wellness programs outside of a group health plan or group health insurance coverage that use incentives to promote participation in such programs or to encourage employees to achieve certain health outcomes and the extent to which the ADA regulations should limit incentives provided as part of such programs.
(6) What will be the practical effect of adopting the specific incentive limit set
Pursuant to Executive Order 12866, EEOC has coordinated this proposed rule with the Office of Management and Budget. Under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866, EEOC has determined that the proposed regulation will not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or state, local or tribal governments or communities.
Although a detailed cost-benefit analysis of the proposed regulation is not required, the Commission recognizes that providing some information on potential costs and benefits of the rule may be helpful in assisting members of the public in better understanding the potential impact of the proposed rule. The Commission notes that the rule will significantly aid compliance with the ADA and with HIPAA, as amended by the Affordable Care Act, by employers and group health plans that offer wellness programs. Currently, employers face uncertainty as to whether providing incentives permitted by HIPAA will subject them to liability under the ADA. This rule will clarify that the ADA does permit employers to offer incentives to promote participation in wellness programs that include disability-related inquiries and/or medical examinations. We believe that a potential benefit of this rule is that it will enable employers to adopt wellness programs that include incentives with certainty about their obligations under the ADA. The Commission does not believe the costs associated with the rule are significant. Employers covered by the ADA are already required to comply with wellness program incentive limits for health-contingent wellness programs. EEOC's proposed rule differs from HIPAA's wellness program incentives only in that it extends the 30 percent limit on incentives under health-contingent wellness programs to participatory wellness programs. HIPAA, as amended by the Affordable Care Act, places no limits on incentives for participatory wellness programs. As the incentives offered by the vast majority of employers currently fall below the limit of 30 percent of the cost of self-only coverage, the Commission does not believe the rule will negatively affect the ability of employers to offer incentives sufficient to promote meaningful participation in wellness programs.
The only other potential cost is associated with the requirement that employers provide a notice to employees informing them what medical information will be obtained, how it will be used, who will receive it, and the restrictions on disclosure. For the reasons set forth in the Paperwork Reduction Act analysis that follows, the Commission concludes that approximately 299,115 employers will need to develop such a notice. The Commission estimates the time required to develop the notice to be four hours, for a total of 1,196,460 hours. According to data from the Bureau of Labor Statistics, the average hourly compensation for employees in “management, professional, and related” occupations was $55.56 as of December 2014, and the average hourly compensation for employees working in “office and administrative support” was $23.98. See Bureau of Labor Statistics, Employer Costs for Employee Compensation—December 2014 (March 11, 2015), available at
Other requirements in the rule will result in no costs, since they simply restate basic principles of nondiscrimination under the ADA. Even in the absence of this rule, employers are prohibited from requiring employees to participate in employee health programs that include disability-related inquiries and/or medical examinations; denying employees health insurance (or any other benefit of employment) if they do not participate in wellness programs; retaliating against employees who file charges claiming that a wellness program violates the ADA; and attempting to induce participation in employee health programs through interference with their ADA rights, coercion, intimidation, and threats. Employers are also required to provide reasonable accommodations to enable employees to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment, which would include participation in employee health programs. To the extent confidentiality of medical information acquired in the course of providing an employee health program is required, the proposed rule will result in no additional costs. The ADA already requires employers to keep medical information about applicants and employees confidential.
To the extent the proposed rule can be read to impose additional confidentiality obligations, the interpretive guidance to the rule makes clear that a wellness program that is part of a group health plan may generally satisfy its obligation to comply with proposed section 1630.14(d)(6) by adhering to the HIPAA Privacy Rule.
These proposed additions to EEOC's regulations contain an information collection requirement subject to review and approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act, the EEOC is submitting to OMB a
Copies of comments should also be sent to Bernadette Wilson, Acting Executive Officer, Executive Secretariat, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street NE., Washington, DC 20507. As a convenience to commenters, the Executive Secretariat will accept comments totaling six or fewer pages via FAX transmittal. This limitation is necessary to assure access to the equipment. The telephone number of the fax receiver is (202) 663-4114. (This is not a toll-free number.) Receipt of FAX transmittals will not be acknowledged, except that the sender may request confirmation of receipt by calling the Executive Secretariat staff at (202) 663-4070 (voice) or (202) 663-4074 (TTY). (These are not toll-free numbers.) Instead of sending written comments to EEOC, you may submit comments and attachments electronically at
Some employers and group health plans may already use forms that comply with the proposed notice requirement; therefore, the burden only will be on employers and group health plans that will incur a one-time burden to develop an appropriate notice to ensure that employees who provide medical information pursuant to a wellness program do so voluntarily. This notice may be included on or attached to any HRA employees are asked to complete and should explain what medical information will be obtained, how it will be used, who will receive it, and the restrictions on disclosure. Assuming that creation of such a document would take four hours, and assuming that 299,115 employers would be covered by the proposed regulation, this one-time burden would be 1,196,460 hours. Because employers do not have to develop a new form unless they collect medical information for a different purpose, they will be able to annually redistribute the same notice to all relevant employees.
For those wishing to comment on the above information collection, OMB is particularly interested in comments which:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the Commission's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Title I of the ADA applies to approximately 782,000 employers with 15 or more employees subject to the ADA, approximately 764,233 of which are small firms (entities with 15-500 employees) according to data provided by the Small Business Administration Office of Advocacy.
The Commission certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it imposes no reporting burdens and only minimal costs on such firms. The proposed rule clarifies that, in most respects, employers who offer wellness programs that are part of their health plans may offer incentives to employees consistent with HIPAA and the Affordable Care Act without violating the ADA. The amount of an incentive offered for participation (alone or in combination with incentives offered for health-contingent wellness programs) in a wellness program will not render a program involuntary under the ADA as long as the incentive does not exceed 30 percent of the total cost of employee-only coverage.
To the extent that employers will expend resources to train human resources staff and others on the revised rule, we note that the EEOC conducts extensive outreach and technical assistance programs, many of them at no cost to employers, to assist in the training of relevant personnel on EEO-related issues. For example, in FY 2013, the agency's outreach programs reached more than 280,000 persons through participation in more than 3,800 no-cost educational, training, and outreach events. We estimate that the typical human resources professional will need to dedicate, at most, 90 minutes to gain a satisfactory understanding of the
EEOC does not believe that this cost will be significant for the impacted small entities. We urge small entities to submit comments concerning EEOC's estimates of the number of small entities affected, as well as the cost to those entities.
This proposed rule will not result in the expenditure by state, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year, and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
Equal employment opportunity, Individuals with disabilities.
For the Commission,
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the EEOC proposes to amend 29 CFR part 1630 to read as follows:
42 U.S.C. 12116 and 12205a of the American with Disabilities Act, as amended.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(d) * * *
(1)
(2)
(i) Does not require employees to participate;
(ii) Does not deny coverage under any of its group health plans or particular benefits packages within a group health plan for non-participation, or limit the extent of benefits (except as allowed under paragraph (d)(3) of this section) for employees who do not participate;
(iii) Does not take any adverse employment action or retaliate against, interfere with, coerce, intimidate, or threaten employees within the meaning of Section 503 of the ADA, at 42 U.S.C. 12203; and
(iv) Where a health program is a wellness program that is part of a group health plan, provides employees with a notice that:
(A) Is written so that the employee from whom medical information is being obtained is reasonably likely to understand it;
(B) Describes the type of medical information that will be obtained and the specific purposes for which the medical information will be used; and
(C) Describes the restrictions on the disclosure of the employee's medical information, the employer representatives or other parties with whom the information will be shared, and the methods that the covered entity will use to ensure that medical information is not improperly disclosed (including whether it complies with the measures set forth in the HIPAA regulations codified at 45 CFR parts 160 and 164).
(3)
(6) Except as permitted under paragraph (d)(4) and as is necessary to administer the health plan, information obtained under paragraph (d) of this section regarding the medical information or history of any individual may only be provided to an ADA covered entity in aggregate terms that do not disclose, or are not reasonably likely to disclose, the identity of any employee.
(7) Compliance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, including the limit on incentives under the ADA, does not relieve a covered entity from the obligation to comply in all respects with the nondiscrimination provisions of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e
Part 1630 permits voluntary medical examinations and inquiries, including voluntary medical histories, as part of employee health programs. These health programs include wellness programs, which often incorporate, for example: A health risk assessment (HRA) (consisting of a medical questionnaire, with or without medical examinations, to determine risk factors); medical screening for high blood pressure, cholesterol, or glucose; classes to help employees stop smoking or lose weight; physical activities in which employees can engage (such as walking or exercising daily); coaching to help employees meet health goals; and/or the administration of prescription drugs (like insulin). Many employers offer wellness programs as part of a group health plan as a means of improving overall employee health with the goal of realizing lower health care costs.
It is not sufficient for a covered entity merely to claim that its collection of medical information is part of a wellness program; the program, including any disability-related inquiries and medical examinations that are part of such program, must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. In order to meet this standard, the program must have a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating employees, and must not be overly burdensome, a subterfuge for violating the ADA or other laws prohibiting employment discrimination, or highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. Conducting a HRA and/or a biometric screening of employees for the purpose of alerting them to health risks of which they may have been unaware would meet this standard, as would the use of aggregate information from employee HRAs by an employer to design and offer health programs aimed at specific conditions that are prevalent in the workplace. An employer might conclude from aggregate information, for example, that a significant number of its employees have diabetes or high blood pressure and might design specific programs that would enable employees to treat or manage these conditions. On the other hand, collecting medical information on a health questionnaire without providing employees follow-up information or advice, such as providing feedback about risk factors or using aggregate information to design programs or treat any specific conditions, would not be reasonably designed to promote health. Additionally, a program is not reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease if it imposes, as a condition to obtaining a reward, an overly burdensome amount of time for participation, requires unreasonably intrusive procedures, or places significant costs related to medical examinations on employees. A program also is not reasonably designed if it exists mainly to shift costs from the covered entity to targeted employees based on their health.
Section 1630.14(d)(2)(i)-(iii) of this part says that participation in employee health programs that include disability-related inquiries or medical examinations (such as disability-related inquiries or medical examinations that are part of a HRA) must be voluntary in order to comply with the ADA. This means that covered entities may not require employees to participate in such programs, may not deny employees access to health coverage under any of its group health plans or particular benefits packages within a group health plan for non-participation, may not limit coverage under their health plans for such employees, except to the extent the limitation (
Section 1630.14(d)(2)(iv) of this part also states that for a wellness program that is part of a group health plan to be voluntary, an employer must provide employees with a notice clearly explaining what medical information will be obtained, how the medical information will be used, who will receive the medical information, the restrictions on its disclosure, and the methods the covered entity uses to prevent improper disclosure of medical information.
The ADA, interpreted in light of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), as amended by the Affordable Care Act, does not prohibit the use of incentives to encourage participation in employee health programs, but it does place limits on them. In general, the use of limited incentives (which include both financial and in-kind incentives, such as time-off awards, prizes, or other items of value) in a wellness program that is part of a group health plan or group health insurance coverage will not render a wellness program involuntary. However, the maximum allowable incentive for a participatory program that involves asking disability-related questions or conducting medical examinations (such as having employees complete a HRA) or for a health-contingent program that requires participants to satisfy a standard related to a health factor may not exceed 30 percent of the total cost of employee-only coverage. Thus, for example, for purposes of compliance with these provisions under the ADA, suppose a group health plan under which an employee is enrolled has a total annual premium for employee-only coverage of $5,000 (which includes both the employer's and employee's contributions toward coverage). The plan provides a $250 reward to employees who complete a HRA (this reward is given to any participant who completes the HRA, without regard to the health issues identified as part of the assessment). The plan also offers a health-contingent wellness program to promote cardiovascular health, with an opportunity to earn a $1,500 reward. An employee who satisfies both components of the program could earn a total reward of $1,750. Such a reward would violate the ADA because the total reward available exceeds 30 percent of the total cost of coverage. However, if the employer offered no reward for completing the HRA and a $1,500 reward for achieving health outcomes under the wellness program (or offered $750 for completing the HRA and $750 for achieving health outcomes in the wellness program), the incentives would comply with the ADA. Not all wellness programs require disability-related inquiries or medical examinations in order to earn an incentive. Examples may include attending nutrition, weight loss, or smoking cessation classes. These types of programs are not subject to the ADA incentive rules discussed here, although programs that qualify as health-contingent programs are subject to HIPAA incentive limits.
Under the ADA, regardless of whether a wellness program includes disability-related inquiries or medical examinations, reasonable accommodations must be provided, absent undue hardship, to enable employees with disabilities to earn whatever financial incentive an employer or other covered entity offers. Providing a reasonable alternative standard and notice to the employee of the availability of a reasonable alternative under HIPAA and the Affordable Care Act as part of a health-contingent program would likely fulfill a covered entity's obligation to provide a reasonable accommodation under the ADA. However, under the ADA, a covered entity would have to provide a reasonable accommodation for a participatory program even though HIPAA and the Affordable Care Act do not require such programs to offer a reasonable alternative standard.
For example, an employer that offers employees a financial incentive to attend a nutrition class, regardless of whether they reach a healthy weight as a result, would have to provide a sign language interpreter so that an employee who is deaf and who needs an interpreter to understand the information communicated in the class could earn the incentive, as long as providing the interpreter would not result in undue hardship to the employer. Similarly, an employer would, absent undue hardship, have to provide written materials that are part of a wellness program in an alternate format, such as in large print or on computer disk, for someone with a vision impairment. An individual with a disability also may need a reasonable accommodation to participate in a wellness program that includes disability-related inquiries or medical examinations, including waiver of a generally applicable requirement. For example, an employer that offers a reward for completing a biometric screening that includes a blood draw would have to provide an alternative test (or certification requirement) so that an employee with a disability that makes drawing blood dangerous can participate and earn the incentive.
Regulations implementing the wellness provisions in HIPAA, as amended by the Affordable Care Act, permit covered entities to offer incentives as high as 50 percent of the total cost of employee coverage for tobacco-related wellness programs, such as smoking cessation programs. As noted above, the incentive rules in Section 1630.14(d)(3) apply only to employee health programs that include disability-related inquiries or medical examinations. A smoking cessation program that merely asks employees whether
By contrast, a biometric screening or other medical examination that tests for the presence of nicotine or tobacco is a medical examination. The ADA financial incentive rules discussed
Paragraphs (d)(4) and (d)(5) say that medical records developed in the course of providing voluntary health services to employees, including wellness programs, must be maintained in a confidential manner and must not be used for any purpose in violation of this part, such as limiting insurance eligibility.
Section 1630.14(d)(6) says that a covered entity only may receive information collected as part of an employee health program in aggregate form that does not disclose, and is not reasonably likely to disclose, the identity of specific individuals except as is necessary to administer the plan or as permitted by section 1630.14(d)(4). Notably, both employers that sponsor employee health programs and the employee health programs themselves (if they are administered by the employer or qualify as the employer's agent) are responsible for ensuring compliance with this provision.
Where a wellness program is part of a group health plan, the individually identifiable health information collected from or created about participants as part of the wellness program is protected health information (PHI) under the HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules. (45 CFR parts 160 and 164.) The HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules apply to HIPAA covered entities, which include group health plans, and generally protect identifiable health information maintained by or on behalf of such entities, by among other provisions, setting limits and conditions on the uses and disclosures that may be made of such information.
PHI is information, including demographic data that identifies the individual or for which there is a reasonable basis to believe it can be used to identify the individual (including, for example, address, birth date, or social security number), and that relates to: An individual's past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition; the provision of health care to the individual; or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to the individual. HIPAA covered entities may not disclose PHI to an individual's employer except in limited circumstances. For example, as discussed more fully below, an employer that sponsors a group health plan may receive PHI to administer the plan (without authorization of the individual), but only if the employer certifies to the plan that it will safeguard the information and not improperly use or share the information.
A wellness program that is part of a HIPAA covered entity likely will be able to comply with its obligation under section 1630.14(d)(6) by complying with the HIPAA Privacy Rule. An employer that is a health plan sponsor and receives individually identifiable health information from or on behalf of the group health plan, as permitted by HIPAA when the plan sponsor is administering aspects of the plan, may generally satisfy its requirement to comply with section 1630.14(d)(6) by certifying to the group health plan, as provided by 45 CFR 164.504(f)(2)(ii), that it will not use or disclose the information for purposes not permitted by its plan documents and the Privacy Rule, such as for employment purposes, and abiding by that certification. Further, if an employer is not performing plan administration functions on behalf of the group health plan, it may receive aggregate information from the wellness program under section 1630.14(d)(6) only so long as the information is de-identified in accordance with the HIPAA Privacy Rule. In addition, disclosures of protected health information from the wellness program may only be made in accordance with the Privacy Rule. Thus, certain disclosures that are otherwise permitted under section 1630.14(d)(4) for employee health programs generally may not be permissible under the Privacy Rule for wellness programs that are part of a group health plan without the written authorization of the individual.
Employers and wellness program providers must take steps to protect the confidentiality of employee medical information provided as part of an employee health program. Some of the following steps may be required by law; others may be best practices. Proper training of individuals who handle medical information in the requirements of the HIPAA Rules, the ADA, and any other applicable privacy laws is critical. Employers and program providers should have clear privacy policies and procedures related to the collection, storage, and disclosure of medical information. On-line systems and other technology should guard against unauthorized access, such as through use of encryption for medical information stored electronically.
As a best practice, individuals who handle medical information that is part of an employee health program should not be responsible for making decisions related to employment, such as hiring, termination, or discipline. Use of a third-party vendor may reduce the risk that medical information will be disclosed to individuals who make employment decisions, particularly for employers whose organizational structure makes it difficult to provide adequate safeguards. If an employer uses a third-party vendor, it should be familiar with the vendor's privacy policies for ensuring the confidentiality of medical information. Employers that administer their own wellness programs need adequate firewalls in place to prevent unintended disclosure.
If individuals who handle medical information obtained through a wellness program also act as decision-makers (which may be the case for a small employer that administers its own wellness program), they may not use the information to discriminate on the basis of disability in violation of the ADA.
Breaches of confidentiality should be reported to affected employees immediately and should be thoroughly investigated. Employers should make clear that individuals responsible for disclosures of confidential medical information will be disciplined and should consider discontinuing relationships with vendors responsible for breaches of confidentiality.
Finally, section 1630.14(d)(7) clarifies that compliance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, including the limits on incentives applicable under the ADA, does not mean that a covered entity complies with other federal employment nondiscrimination laws, such as Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (BSEE), Interior; Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM), Interior.
Extension of comment period for Notice of Proposed Rulemaking
BOEM and BSEE are extending the public comment period on the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking entitled, “Oil and Gas and Sulphur Operations on the Outer Continental Shelf—Requirements for Exploratory Drilling on the Arctic Outer Continental Shelf,” which was published in the
The comment period for the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking published on February 24, 2015, (80 FR 9916) has been extended. Written comments must be received by the extended due date of May 27, 2015. BOEM and BSEE may not fully consider comments received after this date.
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• Mail or hand-carry comments to the Department of the Interior (DOI); Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement; Attention: Regulations and Standards Branch; 45600 Woodland Road, Sterling, Virginia 20166. Please reference “Oil and Gas and Sulphur Operations on the Outer Continental Shelf—Requirements for Exploratory Drilling on the Arctic Outer Continental Shelf, 1082-AA00” in your comments and include your name and return address. Please note that this address for BSEE is new; however, any comments already submitted to BSEE's former address (381 Elden Street, Herndon, Virginia 20181) do not need to be resubmitted to the new address.
• Public Availability of Comments—Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Mark E. Fesmire, BSEE, Alaska Regional Office,
BOEM and BSEE published a notice of proposed rulemaking on Requirements for Exploratory Drilling on the Arctic Outer Continental Shelf (OCS) on February 24, 2015 (80 FR 9916). This proposed rule is intended to provide regulations to ensure Arctic OCS exploratory drilling operations are conducted in a safe and responsible manner that takes into account the unique conditions of Arctic OCS drilling and Alaska Natives' cultural traditions and need to access subsistence resources. The Arctic region is known for its oil and gas resource potential, its vibrant ecosystems, and the Alaska Native communities, who rely on the Arctic's resources for subsistence and cultural traditions. The region is also characterized by extreme environmental conditions, geographic remoteness, and a relative lack of fixed infrastructure and existing operations.
The proposed rule would add to, and revise existing regulations in, 30 CFR parts 250, 254, and 550 for Arctic OCS oil and gas activities. The proposed rule would focus on Arctic OCS exploratory drilling activities that use mobile offshore drilling units, and related operations during the Arctic OCS open-water drilling season.
After publication of the proposed rule, BOEM and BSEE received public comments asking BOEM and BSEE to extend the comment period on the proposed rule by 60 days. BOEM and BSEE are extending the original 60-day comment period by an additional 30 days to provide additional time for review of and comment on the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking. Accordingly, written comments must be submitted by the extended due date of May 27, 2015. BOEM and BSEE may not fully consider comments received after this date.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish a safety zone in the navigable waters of the East Passage, Narragansett Bay, RI, during the Volvo Ocean Race Newport marine event. This safety zone is intended to safeguard mariners from the hazards associated with high-speed, high-performance sailing vessels competing in inshore races on the waters of the East Passage, Narragansett Bay, RI. Vessels would be prohibited from entering into, transiting through, mooring, or anchoring within this safety
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before April 27, 2015. Requests for public meetings must be received by the Coast Guard on or before April 27, 2015.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2015-0178 using any one of the following methods:
(1)
(2)
(3)
If you have questions on this proposed rule, contact Mr. Edward G. LeBlanc, Waterways Management Division at Coast Guard Sector Southeastern New England, telephone 401-435-2351, email
We encourage you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting comments and related materials. All comments received will be posted without change to
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking (USCG-2015-0178), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online (via
To submit your comment online, go to
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Anyone can search the electronic form of comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review a Privacy Act notice regarding our public dockets in the January 17, 2008, issue of the
We do not now plan to hold a public meeting. But you may submit a request for one, using one of the methods specified under
The Coast Guard has not promulgated a rule for past iterations of this event.
The legal basis for the proposed rule is 33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1, which collectively authorize the Coast Guard to define safety zones.
This rule is necessary to provide for the safety of life and navigation, for both participants and spectators involved with the Volvo Ocean Race Newport in the vicinity of Newport, RI.
The Volvo Ocean Race is a 40,000 mile, eight-month, round the world race with stops in several major international sailing ports. As part of the event, high-speed sailing vessels will participate in daily inshore races from 12-17 May, 2015, in the East Passage of Narragansett Bay in the vicinity of Newport, RI. As these races are part of a world-wide event they are expected to generate national and international media coverage, and attract spectators on a number of recreational and excursion vessels.
The Coast Guard is establishing this safety zone, in conjunction with the Volvo Ocean Race Newport, to ensure the protection of the maritime public and event participants from the hazards associated with large-scale marine events. The Coast Guard anticipates some concern with the proposed safety zone by mariners, especially commercial vessel operators, that vessel transits through the East Passage of Narragansett Bay may be restricted for a portion of each day for 6 consecutive days.
The East Passage of Narragansett Bay is the site of many marine events each year. As a result, vessel traffic, particularly recreational vessel traffic, is frequently required to utilize the West
Regardless, the Coast Guard anticipates that some commercial and/or recreational vessels may still need to transit the East Passage of Narragansett Bay for a variety of reasons, including destination, familiarity with the waterway, tide restrictions, etc. Vessels may be able to continue transits through the East Passage, even during enforcement of the safety zone, as there will be sufficient room for most recreational vessels, and some commercial vessels, to pass to the west of the safety zone. Also, the Coast Guard routinely works with the local marine pilot organization and shipping agents to coordinate vessel transits during marine events in the East Passage, and will continue to do so for the entire event to avoid major interruptions to shipping schedules.
The Coast Guard proposes to add a temporary safety zone under 33 CFR 165.T01-0178. The safety zone will extend from Newport Harbor in the vicinity of Fort Adams, across the East Passage to west of Rose Island, and will encompass the East Passage south to the vicinity of Castle Hill. The safety zone will be enforced only during times of actual sailing vessel racing.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on 13 of these statutes or executive orders.
This proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563, and does not require an assessment of potential costs and benefits under section 6(a)(3) of that Order. The Office of Management and Budget has not reviewed it under that Order.
We expect the adverse economic impact of this proposed rule to be minimal. Although this regulation may have some adverse impact on the public, the potential impact will be minimized for the following reasons: Although the safety zone will be in effect for 8 hours each day for 6 consecutive days, vessels will only be restricted from the zone in the East Passage of Narragansett Bay during those limited periods when the races are actually ongoing; during periods when there is no actual racing (
Notification of the Volvo Ocean Race Newport and the associated safety zone will be made to mariners through the Rhode Island Port Safety Forum, local Notice to Mariners, event sponsors, and local media well in advance of the event.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This proposed rule would affect the following entities, some of which might be small entities: Owners or operators of vessels intending to transit, fish, or anchor in the East Passage of Narragansett Bay, RI, during the Volvo Ocean Race Newport sailing races.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule so that they can better evaluate its effects on them and participate in the rulemaking. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed under
This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on State or local governments and would either preempt State law or impose a substantial direct cost of compliance on them. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it does not have implications for federalism.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
This proposed rule would not cause a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights.
This proposed rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Executive Order 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. This rule is not an economically significant rule and would not create an environmental risk to health or risk to safety that might disproportionately affect children.
This proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
This proposed rule is not a “significant energy action” under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use.
This proposed rule does not use technical standards. Therefore, we did not consider the use of voluntary consensus standards.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action appears to be one of a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
A preliminary environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(d)
(2) No later than 8 a.m. each day of the event, the Coast Guard will announce via Safety Marine Information Broadcasts and local media the times and duration of each sailing race scheduled for that day, and the precise area(s) of the safety zone that will be enforced.
(3) Vessels may not transit through or within the safety zone during periods of enforcement without Patrol Commander approval. Vessels permitted to transit must operate at a no-wake speed, in a manner which will not endanger participants or other crafts in the event.
(4) Spectators or other vessels shall not anchor, block, loiter, or impede the movement of event participants or official patrol vessels in the safety zone unless authorized by an official patrol vessel.
(5) The Patrol Commander may control the movement of all vessels in the safety zone. When hailed or signaled by an official patrol vessel, a vessel shall come to an immediate stop and comply with the lawful directions issued. Failure to comply with a lawful direction may result in expulsion from the area, citation for failure to comply, or both.
(6) The Patrol Commander may delay or terminate the Volvo Ocean Race at any time to ensure safety. Such action may be justified as a result of weather, traffic density, spectator operation or participant behavior.
National Park Service, Interior.
Proposed rule.
The National Park Service proposes to authorize agreements between the National Park Service and federally recognized Indian tribes to allow the gathering and removal of plants or plant parts by designated tribal members for traditional purposes. The agreements would facilitate continuation of tribal cultural traditions on traditionally associated lands that are now included within units of the National Park System without a significant adverse impact to park resources and values. The proposed rule respects tribal sovereignty and the government-to-government relationship between the United States and the tribes, and would provide system-wide consistency to this aspect of National Park Service-tribal relations. The proposed rule would provide opportunities for tribal youth, the National Park Service, and the public to understand tribal traditions.
Comments must be received by July 20, 2015. Comments on the information collection requirements must be received by May 20, 2015.
You may submit your comments, identified by Regulation Identifier Number (RIN) 1024-AD84, by any of the following methods:
•
•
• All submissions received must include the agency name and RIN. For additional information see Public Participation under
• Send your comments and suggestions on the information collection requirements to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior at OMB-OIRA at (202) 395-5806 (fax) or
National Park Service, Joe Watkins, Office of Tribal Relations and American Cultures, 1201 Eye Street NW., Washington, DC 20005, 202-354-2126,
The National Park Service (NPS) has a unique relationship with Indian tribes that is strengthened by a shared commitment to stewardship of the land and resources. This relationship is augmented by the historical, cultural, and spiritual relationships that Indian tribes have with the park lands and resources with which they are traditionally associated.
Indian tribes practiced their traditional harvests of plants and plant parts on or from lands that are now included in units of the National Park System long before the arrival of the European settlers. Much of this activity was prohibited upon the promulgation of 36 CFR part 2 in 1983. The fundamental purpose of the proposed rule is to lift this prohibition and allow for gathering and removal of traditional plants or plant parts while ensuring there is no significant adverse impact to park resources and values. The proposed rule would also provide opportunities for tribal youth, the NPS, and the public to understand tribal traditions.
The NPS is responsible for managing all units of the National Park System in such a manner and by such means as will leave them unimpaired for future generations. Park managers are given the discretion to manage public use within the parks in a manner that ensures that there is no impairment.
Managing the various areas of the National Park System in a manner that helps tribes maintain their cultural traditions and relationships with the land may contribute to the protection and stewardship of such areas. The sustainable uses envisioned by the proposed rule would approximate some part of the pre-existing, pre-European environment of the park and thus would not be considered to be consumptive use. The proposed rule would provide a recognized exception to current regulations by offering resource and location-specific agreements between the NPS and federally recognized Indian tribes to gather and remove plants or plant parts for traditional purposes.
Cooperation in the continuation of tribal traditions is at the heart of this proposed rule change. The NPS has a long history of encouraging Indian arts and crafts in national parks for the education and enjoyment of the public, and to support the continued practice of cultural traditions. The teaching and sharing of tribal traditions associated with national parks is an important part of the NPS mission. The proposed rule would provide new opportunities for the NPS and tribal governments to work together in support of the continuation of sustainable Indian cultural traditions that make up a unique and irreplaceable part of our national heritage. Limited gathering by hand of certain renewable natural resources has been allowed by the NPS for more than 50 years. See 36 CFR 1.2(c) (1960) (authorizing hand picking and eating of designated native fruits and berries). In 1966, the NPS expanded this authority for NPS recreation areas, authorizing the gathering and collection of reasonable quantities of natural, renewable products (
Existing NPS regulations at 36 CFR 2.1(c), promulgated in 1983, allow for the personal consumption of “fruits, berries, nuts, or unoccupied seashells” by the general public, subject to certain conditions. The proposed rule would be an additional form of gathering, but would be limited to only members of federally recognized Indian tribes that have traditional associations with specific park areas and resources and that wish their members to be able to gather and remove plants or plant parts within those park areas for traditional uses.
Existing NPS regulations at 36 CFR 2.1(d) do not allow tribes or tribal members to gather plants or plant parts on parklands for traditional purposes except where specific statutes or treaties grant rights to do so. However, traditional tribal gathering and removal occurred in many areas that are now part of the National Park System. The proposed rule would provide an orderly and consistent process for such gathering and removal by authorizing agreements between the NPS and federally recognized Indian tribes to
In designing the proposed rule, the NPS has applied principles used by Congress when it has addressed the issue of tribal gathering, usually in the context of establishing new units of the National Park System or establishing new management systems within existing units. For instance, the enabling legislation for El Malpais National Monument, New Mexico, states: “In recognition of the past use of portions of the monument and the conservation area by Indian people for traditional cultural and religious purposes, the Secretary shall assure nonexclusive access to the monument . . . by Indian people for traditional cultural and religious purposes, including the harvesting of pine nuts.” (Pub. L. 100-225, 101 Stat. 1548). In this and other cases, Congress has provided for gathering on parklands by traditionally associated Indian tribes for traditional purposes that predate the establishment of the park. It is, however, impractical to seek specific legislative language for each unit of the National Park System in which there were individual tribal traditional uses.
In the 20 years since Indian tribes brought the issue of gathering to the attention of NPS leadership, studies in the fields of ethnobotany, traditional plant management, and consideration of traditional ecological knowledge in scientific symposia and scholarly gatherings have increased greatly. Research has shown that traditional gathering, when done with traditional methods and in traditionally established quantities, does not impair the ability to conserve plant communities and can help to conserve them, thus supporting the NPS conclusion that cooperation with Indian tribes in the management of plant resources is consistent with the preservation of national park lands for all American people. This concept is incorporated into
Authority for the proposed rule is the statute commonly known as the NPS Organic Act of 1916, as amended. The NPS Organic Act created the NPS and defined its purpose by stating that the NPS shall promote and regulate the use of the National Park System by means and measures that conform to the fundamental purpose of the System units, which purpose is to conserve the scenery, natural and historic objects, and wild life in the System units and to provide for the enjoyment of the scenery, natural and historic objects, and wild life in such manner and by such means as will leave them unimpaired for the enjoyment of future generations. (54 U.S.C. 100101)
The Organic Act further authorizes the Secretary of the Interior to make “such regulations as the Secretary considers necessary or proper for the use and management of [National Park] System units.” (54 U.S.C. 100751(a)).
The proposed rule would authorize the NPS to enter into agreements with federally recognized Indian tribes to allow for the gathering and removal of plants or plant parts for traditional purposes. The proposed rule is intended to continue Indian tribal cultural traditions that are rooted in the history of specific parks.
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments” (59 FR 22951); Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,” of November 6, 2000; President Obama's Executive Memorandum on Tribal Consultation of November 5, 2009; Department of the Interior Secretarial Order No. 3317 of December 1, 2011, and Department of the Interior Departmental Manual Part 512,”American Indian and Alaska Native Programs;” we have evaluated the potential effects on federally recognized Indian tribes and have determined that this proposed rule would have direct tribal implications.
Six tribal consultation meetings were held in the “Lower 48” to consult with Indian tribes on this proposed rule. Locations in or near units of the National Park System where gathering by tribal members has been discussed over the years were selected in consultation with Indian tribes and NPS regional and park staff. One hundred and fifty representatives from 50 tribes attended meetings held from May through July 2010, in Bar Harbor, Maine; Flagstaff, Arizona; Pipestone, Minnesota; Yurok, California; Suquamish, Washington; and Cherokee, North Carolina. An additional meeting was held at Pipestone, Minnesota, in September 2010. Staff in Alaska contacted more than 70 federally recognized Indian tribes traditionally associated with parks in Alaska. Consultation then occurred with those tribes that requested it. Additionally, general presentations were given at two statewide conventions: The Alaska Tribal Leaders Summit in Fairbanks during the annual meetings of the Alaska Federation of Natives in October 2010 and at the annual Bureau of Indian Affairs Providers Conference in Anchorage in December 2010. A conference call with traditional elders and tribal people not representing tribal governments was also conducted in June 2010 at the request of Arvol Looking Horse, Keeper of the Sacred White Buffalo Calf Pipe of the Lakota, Dakota, and Nakota Nation of the Sioux. Park managers and staff also attended these consultation meetings and participated in the discussions. The major concerns of representatives of tribal governments and the NPS are summarized and addressed here.
Tribal representatives expressed support for the concept that only members of federally recognized Indian tribes be allowed to gather and remove park resources for traditional purposes. The proposed rule limits gathering and removal to members of an Indian tribe or Alaska Native tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village or community that the Secretary of the Interior acknowledges to exist as an Indian tribe under the Federally Recognized Tribe List Act of 1994, 25 U.S.C. 479a. This provision will limit gathering and removal to members of Indian tribes with which the United States has a government-to-government relationship. The proposed rule provides avenues for cooperative NPS-tribal government oversight of member activities on park lands to
A central purpose of the proposed rule is to support the continuation of Indian cultural traditions on lands that are now administered as units of the National Park System. The proposed rule would apply only to those Indian tribes traditionally associated with specific park units. The concept of acknowledging and respecting the special and longstanding connections that Indian tribes have with parklands prior to the establishment of park units is specifically described in NPS Management Policies 2006, 1.11.
The NPS and tribal representatives expressed support for agreements between tribal governments and the NPS to establish the conditions for gathering in park units. These agreements would respect both tribal sovereignty and NPS authority to manage park resources. These agreements would authorize traditional tribal gathering in ways that could be administered flexibly to respond to local resource concerns. The participating tribal government would be responsible for designating which tribal members would be allowed to gather in accordance with the terms and conditions set forth in the agreement.
Tribal representatives expressed deep concern for the long-term health of park ecosystems. Reminding the NPS of their long history of productive and protective relationships with such ecosystems, they expressed willingness to accept limitations on gathering to protect park resources. The NPS and tribal representatives are interested in jointly developing park specific plant gathering management plans to ensure the long-term health of any park resource that may be gathered.
Tribal representatives stressed that each Indian tribe is unique, and that tribal agreements entered into under the proposed rule should allow for traditional cultural practices specific to each tribe.
Some national park units contain places where tribal members historically have gathered plant resources. Using a particular gathering site within a national park unit may be vital to the continuation of a cultural tradition that cannot be met at locations outside the park, or even at alternative locations within it. Thus, even though some plant materials may be available outside park lands, tribal members may still reasonably desire to gather at traditionally significant locations inside a park unit. The rationale for in-park gathering of materials available outside park boundaries needs to be documented on a case-by-case basis as outlined in § 2.6(d) of the proposed rule. The information used to make this determination may be subject to peer review by qualified specialists from both the tribal and academic communities.
Tribal representatives expressed the desire to work with the NPS to create and maintain the knowledge base needed to manage gathering and removal and to leave park resources unimpaired for future generations. This would include joint research and monitoring, training programs for tribal members and park staff, and ongoing consultation regarding park resources.
Existing NPS regulations, promulgated in 1983, prohibit “possessing, destroying, injuring, defacing, removing, digging, or disturbing from its natural state” living or dead wildlife or fish, plants, paleontological specimens, or mineral resources, or the parts or products of any of these items, except as otherwise provided in NPS regulations. The proposed rule, to be codified at 36 CFR 2.6, would be consistent with this general prohibition. It would provide a recognized exception to current regulations by authorizing resource- and location-specific agreements between the NPS and federally recognized Indian tribes to gather and remove plants or plant parts for traditional purposes.
Gathered plants or plant parts, as envisioned under this proposed rule, are not meant to be used for “benefits sharing,” which allows for commercial use of the results of research on material collected in a park area under a specimen collection permit under 36 CFR 2.5. See NPS Management Policies 2006, 4.2.4.
The proposed rule would leave in place 36 CFR 2.1(c)(1), which allows a park Superintendent to authorize gathering of designated fruits, berries, nuts, or unoccupied seashells by all park visitors, subject to certain conditions. The proposed rule would amend section 2.1(d), which currently states that 36 CFR 2.1 “shall not be construed as authorizing the taking, use or possession of fish, wildlife, or plants for ceremonial or religious purposes, except where specifically authorized by Federal statutory law, treaty rights or in accordance with § 2.2 (wildlife protection) or § 2.3 (fishing).” The proposed rule would permit the gathering and removal of plants or plant parts for traditional purposes under specific tribal agreements, but would not alter the prohibition on taking fish or wildlife for such purposes.
Title 36 CFR 13.35 regulates the gathering and collection of natural products in many of the National Park System units in Alaska, and allows for the limited gathering of a wider range of natural products than are included in the proposed rule. Except for the park areas listed in § 13.35(a), § 13.35(c) permits gathering, by hand and for personal use only, of renewable resources such as natural plant food items (
The proposed rule would remove the existing prohibition on the taking, use, or possession of plants or plant parts, provided such taking, use or possession was done under an agreement described in this rule. The proposed rule would have no effect on existing statutory or treaty rights, or on the taking of wildlife or fish.
The rule proposes to define the following terms for use in this section: Indian tribe, Traditional association, Traditional purpose, and Tribal official.
The proposed rule would authorize agreements allowing and regulating tribal gathering and removal of plants or plant parts for traditional purposes in park units where such gathering and removal have not been specifically authorized by Congress. The agreements would explicitly recognize the special government-to-government relationship between Indian tribes and the United States, and would be based upon mutually agreed upon terms and conditions subject to the requirements of § 2.6(d). The agreements would serve as the framework under which the NPS would allow tribal gathering and removal and would be implemented by an accompanying permit under § 1.6, which would authorize the gathering and removal activities.
The NPS would respond to a request from the appropriate tribal official expressing interest in entering into an agreement for gathering and removal based on tribal traditional association with the park unit, and on the continuation of tribal cultural traditions on park land. The tribal request would include a description of the traditional association that the Indian tribe has to the park area, a brief explanation of the traditional purposes to which the gathering and removal activities will relate, and a description of the gathering and removal activities that the Indian tribe is interested in conducting.
The NPS believes that under existing law it can protect sensitive or confidential information submitted by tribes (see
The proposed rule would require the Superintendent to determine that the proposed gathering is a traditional use of the park area by the Indian tribe, analyze any potential impacts of the proposed gathering in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act and other applicable laws, and document a determination that the proposed gathering and removal will not result in a significant adverse impact (
The proposed rule would require the NPS to deny a request to enter into an agreement if sufficient information does not exist to demonstrate the Indian tribe's traditional association or the traditional purposes for which the park resource would be gathered and removed, or if the analyses required by § 2.6(d) indicate significant adverse impacts to park resources or values.
The proposed rule outlines the required contents of agreements in detail. According to the terms of the agreement, the NPS would authorize the tribal government to manage gathering and removal by tribal members subject to the conditions of the agreement. The agreement could operate in a variety of ways, but, at a minimum, it would require that the tribal government identify who within the tribe is designated to gather and remove; how such individuals will be identified; what plants or plant parts may be gathered and removed; and limits on size, quantities, seasons, or locations where the gathering and removal may take place.
Agreements would also establish NPS-tribal protocols for monitoring park resources subject to gathering and removal operating protocols, and remedies for noncompliance in addition to those set out in the proposed rule. In the case of noncompliance by members of the tribe, the NPS would initially apply these agreed-upon remedies and, if warranted, seek prosecution of specific violators, prior to terminating the agreement. This section also provides for any special conditions unique to the park unit or tribal tradition that may be included within the scope of existing law.
The proposed rule would require the Regional Director to approve an agreement entered into under the proposed rule.
The proposed rule would provide for closures and restrictions on gathering and removal when necessary to provide for public health and safety or protect park resources and values, after providing appropriate public notice under § 1.7 (Public notice).
The proposed rule would provide for suspension or termination of an agreement where terms or conditions are violated or unanticipated or significant impacts occur. The Superintendent would be required to prepare a written determination justifying the action. A termination would be subject to the concurrence of the Regional Director. Termination of an agreement would be based on factors such as careful analysis of impacts on park resources and the effectiveness of NPS-tribal agreement administration.
Gathering and removal are prohibited, except as authorized under this regulation, or as otherwise authorized by Federal statute, treaty, or another NPS regulation. Any gathering and removal done under this regulation must be done according to the provisions of the applicable agreement and permit.
On July 31, 2014, the United States Forest Service (USFS) published a proposed rule in the
The NPS recognizes that a federally-recognized tribe may have a traditional association with an NPS unit that is adjacent to USFS lands. This tribe may seek to gather and remove natural products from the NPS and adjacent USFS lands for the same traditional or cultural purpose. In these circumstances, tribal officials would need to enter into an agreement with the NPS and obtain an NPS permit to gather and remove plants or plant parts from the NPS lands; and submit a written request to the USFS to remove trees, portions of trees, or forest products from the adjacent USFS lands.
The NPS and USFS have distinct statutory mandates and authorities that result in separate regulations and policies that govern the resources they
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of Executive Order 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
This rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the SBREFA. This rule:
(a) Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more.
(b) Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions.
(c) Does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
This determination is based on information from “Cost-Benefit and Regulatory Flexibility Analyses” available for review at
This rule does not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The rule does not have a significant or unique effect on State, local or tribal governments or the private sector. It addresses use of NPS lands only. A statement containing the information required by the UMRA (2 U.S.C. 1531
This rule does not effect a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630. A takings implication assessment is not required.
Under the criteria in Executive Order 13132, the rule does not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism summary impact statement. This proposed rule only affects use of NPS administered lands. It has no outside effects on other areas. A Federalism summary impact statement is not required.
This rule complies with the requirements of Executive Order 12988. Specifically, this rule:
(a) Meets the criteria of section 3(a) requiring that all proposed rules be reviewed to eliminate errors and ambiguity and be written to minimize litigation; and
(b) Meets the criteria of section 3(b)(2) requiring that all proposed rules be written in clear language and contain clear legal standards.
The Department of the Interior strives to strengthen its government-to-government relationship with Indian tribes through a commitment to consultation with Indian tribes and recognition of their right to self-governance and tribal sovereignty. We have evaluated this rule under the Department's consultation policy and under the criteria in Executive Order 13175, and have identified direct tribal implications.
Accordingly, we have consulted with tribes on a government-to-government basis as detailed previously in this preamble.
This proposed rule contains a collection of information that we have submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval under the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
An Indian tribe that has a traditional association with a park area may request that we enter into an agreement with the tribe for gathering and removal from the park area of plants or plant parts for traditional purposes. The agreement will define the terms under which the Indian tribe may be issued permits that will designate the tribal members who may gather and remove plants or plant parts within the park area in accordance with the terms and conditions of the agreement and the permit. We collect the following information:
The request must include:
(1) An explanation of the traditional association that the Indian tribe has to the park area;
(2) An explanation of the traditional purposes to which the gathering activities will relate; and
(3) A description of the gathering and removal activities that the Indian tribe is interested in conducting.
To make determinations based upon these requests or to enter into agreements, we may need to collect information from those Indian tribes who make requests and from the specific tribal members, who are proposed to participate in the authorization, including:
(1) A description of the system to be used to administer gathering and removal, including a clear means of identifying appropriate tribal members who, under the permit, are designated by the Indian tribe to gather and remove and a means for the tribal government to keep the NPS regularly informed of which tribal members are the current gathering and removal designees of the Indian tribe;
(2) A description of the specific plants or plant parts that may be gathered and removed;
(3) Specification of the size and quantity of the plants or plant parts that may be gathered and removed;
(4) Identification of the times and locations at which the plants or plant parts may be gathered and removed;
(5) Identification of the methods that may be used for gathering and removal;
(6) Protocols for monitoring gathering and removal activities;
(7) Operating protocols and additional remedies for noncompliance with the terms of the agreement; and
(8) Key officials.
As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including:
(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
This rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. A detailed statement under the NEPA 1969 is not required because the rule is covered by a categorical exclusion. The Department of the Interior Regulations for implementing NEPA at 43 CFR 46.210(i) allow for the following to be categorically excluded: Policies, directives, regulations, and guidelines that are of an administrative, financial, legal, technical, or procedural nature; or whose environmental effects are too broad, speculative, or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis and will later be subject to the NEPA process, either collectively or case-by-case.”
The NPS has determined that the environmental effects of this rule are too broad, speculative, or conjectural for a meaningful analysis. In order to enter into an agreement for gathering of natural products under the rule, the NPS would first need to receive a request from an appropriate tribal official. While there are a number of Indian tribes that may qualify for an agreement under the rule, the NPS can only speculate at this point as to which Indian tribes will request an agreement, which park units will be affected, and what specific resources specific Indian tribes will request to collect. Because of this, the NPS has explicitly required that each agreement will undergo its own NEPA analysis, on a case-by-case basis. No collection of plants or plant parts would occur under this rule until after a site-specific NEPA analysis is completed.
The NPS has also determined that the rule does not involve any of the extraordinary circumstances listed in 43 CFR 46.215 that would require further analysis under NEPA.
This rule is not a significant energy action under the definition in Executive Order 13211. A Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
The NPS is required by Executive Orders 12866 (section 1(b)(12) and 12988 section 3(b)(1)(B)) and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
(a) Be logically organized;
(b) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(c) Use clear language rather than jargon;
(d) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(e) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in the
The primary authors of this proposed rule were Patricia L. Parker, Chief, American Indian Liaison Office; Frederick F. York, Regional Anthropologist, Pacific West Region; and Philip Selleck, Associate Regional
All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number or Regulation Identifier Number (RIN), 1024-AD84, for this rulemaking. All comments received will be posted without change to
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publically available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to
National parks, Native Americans, Natural resources.
For the reasons given in the preamble, the National Park Service proposes to amend 36 CFR part 2 as follows:
54 U.S.C. 100101, 100751, 320102.
(d) This section shall not be construed as authorizing the taking, use, or possession of fish, wildlife, or plants, except for the gathering and removal for traditional purposes of plants or plant parts by members of an Indian tribe under an agreement in accordance with § 2.6, or where specifically authorized by Federal statutory law, treaty rights, or in accordance with § 2.2 or § 2.3.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) An explanation of the Indian tribe's traditional association to the park area;
(2) An explanation of the traditional purposes to which the gathering activities will relate; and
(3) A description of the gathering and removal activities that the tribe is interested in conducting.
(d)
(1) Determine and document, based on information provided by the Indian tribe or others, and other available information, that:
(i) The Indian tribe has a traditional association with the park area; and
(ii) The proposed gathering and removal is a traditional use of the park area by the Indian tribe.
(2) Analyze potential impacts of the proposed gathering and removal in accordance with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act, the National Historic Preservation Act, and other applicable laws.
(3) Document a determination that the proposed gathering and removal activities will not result in a significant adverse impact on park resources or values.
(4) Determine that the agreement for the proposed gathering and removal meets the requirements for issuing a permit under § 1.6(a) of this chapter.
(e)
(f)
(1) The name of the Indian tribe authorized to gather and remove plants and plant parts;
(2) The basis for the tribe's eligibility under paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section to enter into the agreement;
(3) A description of the system to be used to administer gathering and removal including a clear means of identifying appropriate tribal members who, under the permit, are designated by the Indian tribe to gather and remove;
(4) A means for the tribal government to keep the NPS regularly informed of which tribal members are the current gathering and removal designees of the Indian tribe;
(5) A description of the specific plants or plant parts that may be gathered and removed;
(6) Specification of the size and quantity of the plants or plant parts that may be gathered and removed;
(7) Identification of the times and locations at which the plants or plant parts may be gathered and removed;
(8) Identification of the methods that may be used for gathering and removal;
(9) A statement that commercial use of natural resources is prohibited under § 2.1(c)(3)(v);
(10) Protocols for monitoring gathering and removal activities and thresholds above which NPS and tribal management intervention will occur;
(11) Operating protocols and additional remedies for non-compliance with the terms of the agreement beyond those provided in this section;
(12) Any additional terms or conditions that the parties may agree to; and,
(13) A list of key officials.
(g)
(h)
(i) Maintenance of public health and safety;
(ii) Protection of environmental or scenic values;
(iii) Protection of natural or cultural resources;
(iv) Aid to scientific research;
(v) Implementation of management responsibilities;
(vi) Equitable allocation and use of facilities; or
(vii) Avoidance of conflict among visitor use activities.
(2) Closed areas may not be reopened to traditional gathering and removal until the reasons for the closure have been resolved.
(3) Except in emergency situations, the Superintendent will provide public notice of any closure or reopening under this section in accordance with § 1.7 of this chapter.
(i)
(1) Notwithstanding any remedy provisions of an agreement, violation of the terms or conditions of an agreement or permit issued under this section may result in suspension or termination of the agreement and permit, and loss of authorization to gather and remove.
(2) A Superintendent may suspend an agreement and implementing permit if terms or conditions are violated or if unanticipated or significant impacts occur. The Superintendent shall prepare a written determination justifying the action.
(3) The Superintendent must have the written concurrence of the Regional Director before terminating an agreement or implementing permit.
(j)
(1) Federal statutory law;
(2) Treaty rights;
(3) Other regulations of this chapter; or
(4) The terms and conditions of an agreement and permit issued under this section.
(k)
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve into the Illinois Regional Haze State Implementation Plan (SIP) a variance for the electrical generating units (EGUs) included in the Ameren multi-pollutant standard group (Ameren MPS Group). The Ameren MPS Group consists of five facilities owned by Illinois Power Holdings, LLC (IPH) and two facilities owned by AmerenEnergy Medina Valley Cogen, LLC (Medina Valley). The Illinois Environmental Protection Agency (IEPA) submitted the variance to EPA for approval on September 3, 2014.
Comments must be received on or before May 20, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2014-0705, by one of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Kathleen D'Agostino, Environmental Engineer, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-1767,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
When submitting comments, remember to:
1. Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
2. Follow directions—EPA may ask you to respond to specific questions or organize comments by referencing a Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part or section number.
3. Explain why you agree or disagree; suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes.
4. Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used.
5. If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced.
6. Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives.
7. Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats.
8. Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
Regional haze is visibility impairment that is caused by the cumulative emissions of fine particles (PM
The visibility protection program under sections 169A, 169B, and 110(a)(2)(J) of the CAA is designed to protect visibility in national parks and wilderness areas (Class I areas). On December 2, 1980, EPA promulgated regulations, known as “reasonably attributable visibility impairment (RAVI), to address visibility impairment in Class I areas that is reasonably attributable to a single source or small group of sources. On July 1, 1999, EPA promulgated the Regional Haze Rule which revised existing visibility regulations to incorporate provisions addressing regional haze impairment. EPA's Regional Haze Rule, as codified in Title 40 Code of Federal Regulations Part 51.308 (40 CFR 51.308), requires states to submit regional haze SIPs. Among other things, the regional haze SIPs must include provisions requiring certain sources install and operate best available retrofit technology (BART).
At 40 CFR 51.308(e)(2), the regional haze rule allows states to meet BART requirements by mandating alternative measures in lieu of mandating source-specific BART, so long as the alternative measures provide better visibility protection. Given the regional nature of visibility impairment, an alternative that results in lower emissions of SO
On June 24, 2011, Illinois submitted a plan to address the requirements of the Regional Haze Rule, as codified at 40 CFR 51.308. EPA approved Illinois' regional haze SIP on July 6, 2012 (77 FR 39943). In its approval, EPA determined that the emission reductions from sources included in the Illinois plan are significantly greater than even conservative definitions of BART applied to BART subject units (77 FR 39945). EPA also addressed whether the Illinois plan, achieving greater emission reductions overall than the application of BART on BART-subject units, can also be expected to achieve greater visibility protection than application of BART on BART-subject units. Given that, in general, the Illinois power plants are substantial distances from any Class I area, and given that the averaging in Illinois' plan is only authorized within the somewhat limited region within which each utility's plants are located, EPA determined that a reallocation of emission reductions from one plant to another is unlikely to change the visibility impact of those emission reductions significantly. Consequently, EPA concluded that the significantly greater emission reductions that Illinois required in its regional haze SIP will yield greater progress toward visibility protection as compared to the benefits of a conservative estimate of BART.
One of the rules approved in that action to meet BART requirements is 35 Illinois Administrative Code (Ill. Adm. Code) rule 225.233 Multi-Pollutant Standard (MPS), specifically subsections (a), (b), (e), and (g). Section 225.233(e)(3)(C) contains the sulfur dioxide (SO
On November 21, 2013, the Illinois Pollution Control Board (IPCB) granted IPH and Medina Valley a variance from
As stated above, the IPCB granted IPH and Medina Valley a variance from the requirement of Section 225.233(e)(3)(C)(iii) to comply with an overall SO
1. The IPH facilities in the Ameren MPS group must comply with an overall SO
2. Medina Valley must not operate the EGUs at Meredosia and Hutsonville Power stations until after December 31, 2020, except that the FutureGen project at the Meredosia Energy Center is exempt from this restriction.
3. Through December 31, 2019, IPH must continue to burn low sulfur coal at the E.D. Edwards, Joppa, and Newton Energy Centers. The combined annual average stack SO
4. Through December 31, 2019, IPH must operate the existing Flue Gas Desulfurization systems at the Duck Creek and Coffeen Energy Centers to achieve a combined SO
5. IPH must permanently retire E.D. Edwards Unit 1 as soon as allowed by the Midcontinent Independent Transmission System Operator, Inc. (now called the Midcontinent Independent System Operator).
6. From the time period beginning October 1, 2013, through December 31, 2020, IPH must limit the MPS Group system-wide mass emissions of SO
7. For the time period beginning October 1, 2013, through December 31, 2020, IPH must report annually to IEPA the combined tons of mass SO
8. The variance also includes a condition with a schedule for completing the flue gas desulfurization project at the Newton Power Station, with major equipment components in position by September 1, 2019, and requirements for IPH to file annual progress reports with IEPA from 2013 through 2019.
In evaluating the variance submitted by Illinois, EPA assessed the effect the variance would have on the emissions reductions expected under the MPS as currently approved into the Regional Haze SIP. Under the conditions of the currently approved Regional Haze SIP, the Ameren MPS group would be expected to emit 335,774 tons of SO
In addition, EPA evaluated the variance to ensure that the alternative measures contained in the variance continue to provide better visibility protection than the application of BART on BART-subject units. Because the deadline for implementation of BART level controls in Illinois is 2017 (within 5 years of approval of Illinois' SIP), EPA compared the 2017 emissions under the variance to the application of typical Best Available Control Technology (BACT) control levels to the BART subject units in the Ameren MPS group. BACT limits are imposed on new units or units undergoing major modifications. Therefore, BART limits, which by definition apply to relatively old existing units, are unlikely to be lower than the limits that would apply to a new unit and would in many cases be significantly higher.
Table 1 shows SO
In evaluating the approvability of the variance, EPA must also consider whether the SIP revision meets the requirements of section 110(l) of the CAA, 42 U.S.C. 7410(l). To be approved, a SIP revision must not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment, reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. Currently, the SIP establishes overall annual SO
EPA is proposing to approve the IPH and Medina Valley variance, submitted by IEPA on September 3, 2014, as a revision to the Illinois Regional Haze SIP.
In this rule, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference Illinois Pollution Control Board Order PCB 14-10, effective November, 21, 2013. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as
This rule is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve some elements of state implementation plan (SIP) submissions from Wisconsin regarding the infrastructure requirements of section 110 of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 nitrogen dioxide (NO
Comments must be received on or before May 20, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2014-0704, by one of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Eric Svingen, Environmental Engineer, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 353-4489,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
When submitting comments, remember to:
1. Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
2. Follow directions—EPA may ask you to respond to specific questions or organize comments by referencing a Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part or section number.
3. Explain why you agree or disagree; suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes.
4. Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used.
5. If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced.
6. Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives.
7. Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats.
8. Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
This rulemaking addresses June 20, 2013, submissions and a January 28, 2015, clarification from the Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources (WDNR) intended to address all applicable infrastructure requirements for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
Under section 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA, states are required to submit infrastructure SIPs to ensure that their SIPs provide for implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the NAAQS, including the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA highlighted this statutory requirement in an October 2, 2007, guidance document entitled “Guidance on SIP Elements Required Under Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 1997 8-hour Ozone and PM
EPA is acting upon the SIP submissions from Wisconsin that address the infrastructure requirements of CAA section 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(1) and (2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as SIP submissions that address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D and the Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) requirements of part C of title I of the CAA, and “regional haze SIP” submissions required to address the visibility protection requirements of CAA section 169A.
This rulemaking will not cover three substantive areas that are not integral to acting on a state's infrastructure SIP submissions: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions during periods of start-up, shutdown, or malfunction (“SSM”) at sources, that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions; (ii) existing provisions related to “director's variance” or “director's discretion” that purport to permit revisions to SIP approved emissions limits with limited public notice or without requiring further approval by EPA, that may be contrary to the CAA; and, (iii) existing provisions for PSD programs that may be inconsistent with current requirements of EPA's “Final NSR Improvement Rule,” 67 FR 80186 (December 31, 2002), as amended by 72 FR 32526 (June 13, 2007) (“NSR Reform”). Instead, EPA has the authority to address each one of these substantive areas in separate rulemakings. A detailed history, interpretation, and rationale as they relate to infrastructure SIP requirements can be found in EPA's May 13, 2014, proposed rule entitled, “Infrastructure SIP Requirements for the 2008 Lead NAAQS” in the section, “What is the scope of this rulemaking?” (
EPA's guidance for these infrastructure SIP submissions is embodied in the 2007 Guidance referenced above. Specifically, attachment A of the 2007 Guidance (Required Section 110 SIP Elements) identifies the statutory elements that states need to submit in order to satisfy the requirements for an infrastructure SIP submission. As discussed above, EPA issued additional guidance, the most recent being the 2013 Guidance that further clarifies aspects of infrastructure SIPs that are not NAAQS specific.
Pursuant to section 110(a), states must provide reasonable notice and opportunity for public hearing for all infrastructure SIP submissions. WDNR provided notice of a public comment period on May 1, 2013, held a public hearing at WDNR State Headquarters on June 10, 2013, and closed the public comment period on June 14, 2013. Two comments were received, expressing support for improved environmental protection and air quality.
Wisconsin provided a detailed synopsis of how various components of its SIP meet each of the applicable requirements in section 110(a)(2) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires SIPs to include enforceable emission limits and other control measures, means or techniques, schedules for compliance, and other related matters. However, EPA has long interpreted emission limits and control measures for attaining the standards as being due when nonattainment planning requirements are due.
Under Wisconsin Statutes (
Specifically, authority for WNDR to create new rules and regulations is found in
The 2013 Guidance states that to satisfy section 110(a)(2)(A) requirements, “an air agency's submission should identify existing EPA-approved SIP provisions or new SIP provisions that the air agency has adopted and submitted for EPA approval that limit emissions of pollutants relevant to the subject NAAQS, including precursors of the relevant NAAQS pollutant where applicable.” In its January 28, 2015, clarification letter, WDNR identified existing controls and emission limits in the Wisconsin Administrative Code that can be applied to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
In this rulemaking, EPA is not proposing to approve any new provisions in NR 419-425, NR 428, or NR 418 that have not been previously approved by EPA. EPA is also not proposing to approve or disapprove any existing state provisions or rules related to start-up, shutdown or malfunction or director's discretion in the context of section 110(a)(2)(A). EPA proposes that Wisconsin has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(A) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires SIPs to include provisions to provide for establishing and operating ambient air quality monitors, collecting and analyzing ambient air quality data, and making these data available to EPA upon request. This review of the annual monitoring plan includes EPA's determination that the state: (i) Monitors air quality at appropriate locations throughout the state using EPA-approved Federal Reference Methods or Federal Equivalent Method monitors; (ii) submits data to EPA's Air Quality System (AQS) in a timely manner; and, (iii) provides EPA Regional Offices with prior notification of any planned changes to monitoring sites or the network plan.
WDNR continues to operate an extensive air monitoring network, which is used to determine compliance with the NAAQS. Furthermore, WDNR submits yearly monitoring network plans to EPA, and EPA approved WDNR's Annual Air Monitoring Network Plan for ozone, NO
This section requires each state to provide a program for enforcement of control measures. Section 110(a)(2)(C) also includes various requirements relating to PSD.
States are required to include a program providing for enforcement of all SIP measures and the regulation of construction of new or modified stationary sources to meet new source review (NSR) requirements under PSD and nonattainment new source review (NNSR) programs. Part C of the CAA (sections 160-169B) addresses PSD, while part D of the CAA (sections 171-193) addresses NNSR requirements.
WDNR maintains an enforcement program to ensure compliance with SIP requirements. The Bureau of Air Management houses an active statewide compliance and enforcement team that works in all geographic regions of the state. WDNR refers actions as necessary to the Wisconsin Department of Justice with the involvement of WDNR. Under
110(a)(2)(C) includes various PSD requirements: Identification of NO
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requires SIPs to include provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from contributing significantly to nonattainment, or interfering with maintenance, of the NAAQS in another state. Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires SIPs to
On February 17, 2012, EPA promulgated designations for the 2010 NO
In this rulemaking, EPA is not evaluating section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requirements relating to significant contribution to transport for the 2008 ozone and 2010 SO
As described above, EPA has classified all areas of the country as “unclassifiable/attainment” for the 2010 NO
In this rulemaking, EPA is not evaluating section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requirements relating to interference with maintenance for the 2008 ozone and 2010 SO
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires SIPs to include provisions prohibiting interference with PSD. In this rulemaking, we are not taking action on the state's satisfaction of PSD requirements. Instead, EPA will evaluate Wisconsin's compliance with PSD requirements in a separate rulemaking.
With regard to the applicable requirements for visibility protection of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), states are subject to visibility and regional haze program requirements under part C of the CAA (which includes sections 169A and 169B). The 2013 Guidance states that these requirements can be satisfied by an approved SIP addressing reasonably attributable visibility impairment, if required, or an approved SIP addressing regional haze.
On August 7, 2012, EPA published its final approval of Wisconsin's regional haze plan (
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) requires each SIP to contain adequate provisions requiring compliance with the applicable requirements of section 126 and section 115 of the CAA (relating to interstate and international pollution abatement, respectively).
Section 126(a) requires new or modified sources to notify neighboring states of potential impacts from the source. The statute does not specify the method by which the source should provide the notification. States with SIP-approved PSD programs must have a provision requiring such notification by new or modified sources. A lack of such a requirement in state rules would be grounds for disapproval of this element.
Wisconsin has provisions in its EPA-approved PSD program requiring new or modified sources to notify neighboring states of potential negative air quality impacts. Wisconsin's submissions reference these provisions as being adequate to meet the requirements of section 126(a). EPA proposes that Wisconsin has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) related to section 126(a) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
The submissions from Wisconsin affirm that the state has no pending obligations under section 115. EPA proposes that Wisconsin has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) related to section 115 with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
This section requires each state to provide for adequate personnel, funding, and legal authority under state law to carry out its SIP, and related issues. Section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) also requires each state to comply with the requirements respecting state boards under section 128.
Wisconsin's biennial budget ensures that EPA grant funds as well as state funding appropriations are sufficient to administer its air quality management program, and WDNR has routinely demonstrated that it retains adequate personnel to administer its air quality management program. Wisconsin's Environmental Performance Partnership Agreement with EPA documents certain funding and personnel levels at WDNR. As discussed in previous sections, basic duties and authorities in the state are outlined in
Section 110(a)(2)(E) also requires each SIP to contain provisions that comply with the state board requirements of section 128 of the CAA. That provision contains two explicit requirements: (i) That any board or body which approves permits or enforcement orders under this chapter shall have at least a majority of members who represent the public interest and do not derive any significant portion of their income from persons subject to permits and enforcement orders under this chapter, and (ii) that any potential conflicts of interest by members of such board or body or the head of an executive agency with similar powers be adequately disclosed.
In today's action, EPA is neither proposing to approve nor disapprove the portions of the submissions from Wisconsin intended to address the state board requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii). Instead, EPA will take separate action on compliance with section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) for the state at a later time. EPA is working with WDNR to address these requirements in the most appropriate way.
States must establish a system to monitor emissions from stationary sources and submit periodic emissions reports. Each plan shall also require the installation, maintenance, and replacement of equipment, and the implementation of other necessary steps, by owners or operators of stationary sources to monitor emissions from such sources. The state plan shall also require periodic reports on the nature and amounts of emissions and emissions-related data from such sources, and correlation of such reports by each state agency with any emission limitations or standards established pursuant to this chapter. Lastly, the reports shall be available at reasonable times for public inspection.
WDNR requires regulated sources to submit various reports, dependent on applicable requirements and the type of permit issued, to the Bureau of Air Management Compliance Team. The frequency and requirements for report review are incorporated as part of NR 438 and NR 439. Additionally, WDNR routinely submits quality assured analyses and data obtained from its stationary source monitoring system for review and publication by EPA. Basic authority for Wisconsin's Federally mandated Compliance Assurance Monitoring reporting structure is provided in
This section requires that a plan provide for authority that is analogous to what is provided in section 303 of the CAA, and adequate contingency plans to implement such authority. The 2013 Guidance states that infrastructure SIP submissions should specify authority, rested in an appropriate official, to restrain any source from causing or contributing to emissions which present an imminent and substantial endangerment to public health or welfare, or the environment.
This section requires states to have the authority to revise their SIPs in response to changes in the NAAQS, availability of improved methods for attaining the NAAQS, or to an EPA finding that the SIP is substantially inadequate.
The CAA requires that each plan or plan revision for an area designated as a nonattainment area meet the applicable requirements of part D of the CAA. Part D relates to nonattainment areas.
EPA has determined that section 110(a)(2)(I) is not applicable to the infrastructure SIP process. Instead, EPA takes action on part D attainment plans through separate processes.
The evaluation of the submissions from Wisconsin with respect to the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(J) are described below.
States must provide a process for consultation with local governments and Federal Land Managers (FLMs) carrying out NAAQS implementation requirements.
Section 110(a)(2)(J) also requires states to notify the public if NAAQS are exceeded in an area and to enhance public awareness of measures that can be taken to prevent exceedances. WDNR maintains portions of its Web site specifically for issues related to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
States must meet applicable requirements of section 110(a)(2)(C) related to PSD. Wisconsin's PSD program in the context of infrastructure SIPs has already been discussed in the paragraphs addressing section 110(a)(2)(C) and (a)(2)(D)(i)(II). EPA will evaluate Wisconsin's compliance with the various PSD and GHG infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(J) in a separate rulemaking.
With regard to the applicable requirements for visibility protection, states are subject to visibility and regional haze program requirements under part C of the CAA (which includes sections 169A and 169B). In the event of the establishment of a new NAAQS, the visibility and regional haze program requirements under part C do not change. Thus, we find that there is no new visibility obligation “triggered” under section 110(a)(2)(J) when a new NAAQS becomes effective. However, as EPA discussed above in section D, Wisconsin has a fully approved regional haze plan. This plan also meets the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(J). EPA proposes that Wisconsin has satisfied the infrastructure SIP requirements of this portion of section 110(a)(2)(J) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
SIPs must provide for performing air quality modeling for predicting effects on air quality of emissions from any NAAQS pollutant and submission of such data to EPA upon request.
WDNR maintains the capability to perform computer modeling of the air quality impacts of emissions of all criteria pollutants, including both source-oriented and more regionally directed complex photochemical grid models. WDNR collaborates with LADCO, EPA, and other Lake Michigan states in order to perform modeling.
This section requires SIPs to mandate each major stationary source to pay permitting fees to cover the cost of reviewing, approving, implementing, and enforcing a permit.
WDNR implements and operates the title V permit program, which EPA approved on December 4, 2001 (66 FR 62951). EPA approved revisions to the program on February 28, 2006 (71 FR 9934). NR 410 contains the provisions, requirements, and structures associated with the costs for reviewing, approving, implementing, and enforcing various types of permits. EPA proposes that Wisconsin has met the infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(L) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
States must consult with and allow participation from local political subdivisions affected by the SIP.
In addition to the measures outlined in the paragraph addressing WDNR's submittals regarding consultation requirements of section 110(a)(2)(J), as contained in
EPA is proposing to approve most elements of submissions from Wisconsin certifying that its current SIP is sufficient to meet the required infrastructure elements under section 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
EPA's proposed actions for the state's satisfaction of infrastructure SIP requirements, by element of section 110(a)(2) and NAAQS, are contained in the table below.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; extension of the public comment period.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) received requests for an extension of the period for providing comments on the proposed rule entitled, “Clean Water Act Methods Update Rule for the Analysis of Effluent,” published in the
EPA extends the public comment period for the proposed rule published February 19, 2015, (80 FR 8956) to May 20, 2015.
Written comments on the proposed rule may be submitted to the EPA electronically, by mail, by facsimile or through hand delivery/courier. Please refer to the proposal (80 FR 8956) for the addresses and detailed instructions.
Adrian Hanley, Engineering and Analysis Division (4303T), Office of Water, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone: (202) 564-1564; email:
The EPA is extending the previously announced public-comment period. The public comment period will end on May 20, 2015, rather than April 20, 2015. This will ensure that the public has sufficient time to review and comment on all of the information available, including the proposed rule and other materials in the docket.
Environmental protection, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Test procedures, Water pollution control.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
EPA is proposing to grant final authorization to the State of Vermont for changes to its hazardous waste program. In the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Written comments must be received by May 20, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-RCRA-2015-0195, by mail to Sharon Leitch, RCRA Waste Management and UST Section, Office of Site Remediation and Restoration (OSRR07-1), U.S. EPA Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, MA 02109-3912. Comments may also be submitted electronically or thorough hand delivery/courier by following the detailed instructions in the
Sharon Leitch, RCRA Waste Management and UST Section, Office of Site Remediation and Restoration (OSRR07-1), U.S. EPA Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, MA 02109-3912; telephone number: (617) 918-1647; fax number: (617) 918-0647; email address:
In the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Legal Services Corporation.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
This proposed rule revises the Legal Services Corporation (LSC or Corporation) regulations governing transfers of LSC funds, subgrants to third parties, and cost standards and procedures.
Comments must be submitted by May 20, 2015.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
Stefanie K. Davis, Assistant General Counsel, Legal Services Corporation, 3333 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20007, (202) 295-1563 (phone), (202) 337-6519 (fax),
In the proposed rule for part 1627, LSC defined the term
any transfer of funds received from the Corporation by a recipient to any organization for the purpose of carrying out a portion of the recipient's program under a grant or contract from the Corporation; it shall not include a contract for services to be rendered directly to the recipient, nor shall it include any contract with private attorneys or law firms for the direct provision of legal services to eligible clients.
In part 1627, LSC established the process by which a recipient could seek approval of a proposed subgrant, the maximum duration of a subgrant, the recipient's responsibilities for ensuring compliance with LSC's fiscal and audit requirements, and the recipient's responsibility to repay any disallowed costs. 48 FR 54206, 54209, Nov. 30, 1983. LSC also asserted its own rights to oversee subgrants to ensure the subgrantees' compliance with the LSC Act and other applicable statutes, LSC's regulations, and Corporation guidelines and instructions.
LSC last revised part 1627 in 1996. LSC published an interim rule to reflect the complete prohibition on the use of LSC funds to pay fees or dues enacted as part of its fiscal year 1996 appropriations act (“FY96 appropriations act”). Sec. 505, Public Law 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321 (1996).
LSC issued a new interim rule in March 1997 in which it removed transfers of non-LSC funds from § 1610.7. 62 FR 12101, Mar. 14, 1997. LSC made this change to part 1610 in response to an order issued by the United States District Court for the District of Hawaii preliminarily enjoining LSC from enforcing the application of some of the FY96 appropriations act restrictions to non-LSC funds.
In 2010, LSC revised part 1610 in response to legislation that removed the FY96 appropriations act restriction on recipients' ability to claim or collect attorneys' fees. 79 FR 21506, 21508, Apr. 26, 2010. The 2010 revision did not affect § 1610.7.
LSC's subgrant rule applies to all payments made by TIG grantees to third parties that then carry out some or all of the activities that `might otherwise be expected to be conducted directly by the recipient' of a TIG grant made for the purposes specified in the grant documents. The TIG grants specify programmatic purposes other than the direct provision of legal services, namely the implementation of certain technological improvements. Payments by TIG grantees to third parties for services that fall within these purposes amount to subgrants within the meaning of LSC's regulations as currently written and should be administered consistent with the requirements of Part 1627.
OIG reached the same conclusion regarding the application of § 1610.7 to third-party payments of TIG funds.
OIG noted in its report that
OIG recommended that LSC Management “initiate a process to amend LSC regulations to account for [unique features of TIG projects]. . . .”
With respect to LSC's oversight of non-subgrant awards of TIG funds, OIG was satisfied that LSC's newly adopted TIG third-party contracting policy addressed its concerns. OIG consequently closed the related recommendations. In light of this development, Management recommended against rulemaking to respond to OIG's recommendations. The Committee voted to adopt Management's recommendation.
LSC developed three options to address OIG's concern that TIG subawards were not treated properly as subgrants. LSC first proposed that the Board could choose not to engage in rulemaking on the matter and let Management continue to apply its interpretation of the subgrant rules at part 1627 and the transfer rule at part 1610. LSC's next options each contemplated rulemaking, but in opposing directions. The second option proposed initiating rulemaking to adopt Management's interpretation of part 1627: That in order to be considered a subgrant, the award to a third party must be for carrying out the recipient's overall programmatic purpose of providing legal assistance to eligible clients. The last option was to initiate rulemaking to adopt OIG's interpretation of the rule: That a subgrant is any award to a third party to carry out the programmatic purposes of the particular grant from which the award is made.
In its memo to the Committee, Management recommended that the Committee initiate rulemaking to amend parts 1610 and 1627. Management believed that both rules should be amended to reflect LSC's “longstanding reading of these rules—that is, that both rules are designed to address legal services activities.” Management explained that the transfer rule, which takes the definition of “transfer” substantially from part 1627,
Management further explained that its interpretation avoids absurd results in other contexts. For example, LSC makes disaster relief grants to recipients whose offices have been damaged or destroyed by natural disasters. Those grants may be used to hire contractors to rebuild the offices or purchase new office supplies. Under OIG's reading, Management said, the building contractor would become a subgrantee under part 1627 because the purpose of the emergency grant is to help the recipient rebuild. Under Management's interpretation of parts 1610 and 1627, it would not.
The Committee accepted Management's recommendation. On April 16, 2012, the Chairman of the Committee presented the Committee's recommendation to initiate rulemaking on parts 1610 and 1627 to the Board of Directors for a vote. Some members of the Board raised concerns that because conflicting interpretations of parts 1610 and 1627 were the impetus for the rulemaking, rulemaking was perhaps an inefficient and inappropriate vehicle for resolving the dispute. Rather than voting on the Committee's recommendation, the Board voted to return the issue to the Committee to determine whether LSC could adopt a particular interpretation of parts 1610 and 1627 through a policy document rather than through rulemaking.
In response to the Board's instruction, the Committee directed LSC and OIG staff to determine whether LSC had options other than rulemaking to resolve the ambiguity regarding which subawards were covered by part 1627. The Committee met telephonically on June 18, 2012, to discuss the results of the staff deliberations. Both OIG and Management concluded that rulemaking was necessary to ensure that part 1627 reflected Management's concept of subgrants as awards to a third party for carrying out part of an LSC recipient's grant to provide legal services to eligible clients. The Committee concurred, and voted again to recommend that the Board initiate rulemaking to revise the subgrant rule.
On July 27, 2012, the Chairman of the Committee presented the Committee's recommendation to the Board of Directors. The Board accepted the recommendation and directed LSC staff to develop a draft rule for the Board's consideration, and OIG closed the related recommendation from its report. The rulemaking, however, became a lower priority on the Committee's agenda as a result of two factors. The first was the issuance of LSC's Pro Bono Task Force Report, which led to the extensive rulemaking process to revise part 1614. The second was the need to revise parts 1613 and 1626 to accommodate legislative changes to LSC's authority to provide legal assistance to individuals facing criminal charges in tribal courts and to certain non-citizen victims of violence, respectively. LSC revived the part 1627 rulemaking as a priority item on its 2015-2016 rulemaking agenda.
On April 12, 2015, the Committee voted to recommend that the Board publish this NPRM in the
As will be discussed in more detail below, LSC proposes to revise part 1627 to adopt Management's interpretation of the rule as applying only to those subgrants awarded to third parties for the purpose of carrying out legal assistance activities authorized by the recipient's LSC grant. LSC also proposes to transfer § 1610.7, which governs the applicability of the restrictions placed upon acceptance of LSC funds by the LSC Act and § 504 of LSC's fiscal year 1996 appropriations act, to part 1627. Finally, LSC proposes to transfer existing §§ 1627.4, 1627.5, and 1627.7 from part 1627 to part 1630, which governs the allowability and allocability of costs to LSC grants. LSC seeks comments on each of the proposed changes.
LSC proposes defining
LSC proposes to retain the exclusion from the definition of
The first two paragraphs of proposed § 1627.3 are taken substantially from the UGG, specifically 2 CFR 200.330. Paragraph (a) adopts the language at § 200.330(c), which explains that the listed characteristics are indicative of a subgrant, but need not all be present in order for an award to be considered a subgrant. Paragraph (b) sets forth the characteristics of a subgrant from § 200.330(a), with minor revisions to make clear that the context for subgrant activities and the performance of the subrecipient is the LSC recipient's legal services work.
In considering whether an award should be a subgrant, the primary question is whether the work the subrecipient is doing essentially substitutes for the recipient's legal services work. The following examples demonstrate whether certain types of awards to third parties meet the characteristics of a subgrant.
LSC reminds recipients that awards of LSC funds to third parties that do not meet the characteristics of subgrants, including procurements of services, must meet the applicable requirements of 45 CFR part 1630, as well as the
Proposed paragraph (c) states that any award to a third party that is determined to be a subgrant based on an analysis of the factors in paragraph (b) must be supported using LSC funds. LSC has learned that some recipients have entered into agreements with other entities in which the recipients provided goods, including office space and office supplies, in exchange for the other entities' carrying out PAI activities on behalf of the recipient. The recipients in question did not seek prior approval of these agreements because they were exchanges of goods and services, rather than funds; therefore, the recipients did not consider the arrangements to be subgrants subject to the requirements of part 1627.
As an organization responsible for disbursing and ensuring accountability for the use of appropriated public funds, LSC must be able to determine that any funds it awards are spent consistent with the terms of its governing statutes and regulations. It is difficult to ensure that goods and services, which may be purchased in whole or in part with LSC funds, transferred to a third party are used in a manner consistent with LSC's governing statutes. Ensuring the accountability of LSC-supported resources is particularly crucial when the resources are provided to a third party that conducts restricted activities in addition to the activities that it is carrying out on behalf of an LSC recipient. In order to ensure the proper use of LSC funds by any entity receiving those funds or resources supported by those funds, LSC believes that any arrangement qualifying as a subgrant under § 1627.3(b) must be paid for with actual funds and not with goods or services.
In paragraph (a)(1)(i), LSC proposes that recipients must submit applications for subgrants of Basic Field Grant funds at the same time as recipients submit their proposals for Basic Field Grant funding. This would consolidate the subgrant approval process with the main grant competition process. LSC also proposes to prescribe the format and substance of requests for subgrant approval annually through notice in the
In paragraph (a)(2), LSC proposes to formalize in regulation its current process for requesting and approving subgrants in its special grant programs. The application and award processes for special grants proceed on different schedules from the Basic Field Grant application and award process. LSC's special grant programs are all programs outside of Basic Field Grants—which include Basic Field-Migrant and Basic Field-Native American grants. TIG and the Pro Bono Innovation Fund (PBIF) grants are examples of special grants, as are disaster relief grants.
As described in proposed paragraph (a)(2)(i), recipients currently submit applications for approval of subgrants in special grant programs after LSC has awarded them grants. Because the special grant programs are highly competitive, LSC structured the process this way to avoid making recipients invest significant amounts of time in developing, finalizing, and executing subgrant agreements for projects that ultimately are not funded. To allow for flexibility in the form and substance of subgrant applications for the special grant programs, LSC also proposes in this paragraph to publish the requirements for subgrant applications on its Web site and in the
In paragraph (a)(2)(ii), LSC proposes to adopt existing § 1627.3(a)(2) in substantial part. LSC proposes to require recipients to submit applications for subgrant approval at least 45 days prior to the start date of the subgrant. LSC will consider and make a decision to approve, disapprove, or suggest modifications to applications for approval. Recipients may resubmit for approval applications to which LSC suggested modifications or that LSC has disapproved. LSC proposes to omit the sentence deeming subgrants approved if LSC fails to make a decision on the subgrant application within the specified period of time. LSC is committed to making timely decisions on recipient requests for subgrant approval and does not believe the current policy is consistent with its responsibility to ensure that recipients spend their LSC funds efficiently and effectively.
Finally, LSC proposes to establish in § 1627.4(a)(3) a process for the submission and approval of subgrant applications during the grant period for both Basic Field and special grants. LSC recognizes that unanticipated situations, such as the need to terminate and replace an underperforming subrecipient, may cause a recipient to need approval of a subgrant during the grant period. For mid-grant subgrant applications, LSC proposes in paragraph (a)(3)(i) that recipients should submit an application, using the format prescribed by LSC on its Web site and in the
LSC proposes conforming changes to existing § 1627.3(a)(3), which will be relocated to § 1627.4(a)(4).
LSC proposes to remove existing § 1627.3(a)(4), which authorized the extension of subgrants that were being executed at the time part 1627 became effective in 1983. This rule is obsolete and should be removed from part 1627. Finally, LSC proposes to relocate existing § 1627.3(b)(3), which requires recipients to seek Corporation approval of any substantial changes in the scope, objectives, or funding amount of a subgrant, to § 1627.4(a)(5) without change. LSC proposes this change to place all requirements for Corporation approval of subgrant proposals or substantial changes within the same paragraph.
Recipients of Basic Field grants must either compete for new grants or apply for renewal of their current grants annually. This schedule supports a
By contrast, special grants are for discrete, time-limited projects that may require recipients to engage the subrecipient for the life of the project in order to secure the subrecipient's participation. Additionally, LSC requires special grant recipients to report more frequently about their progress toward meeting project milestones or objectives. This increased reporting allows LSC to assess whether a recipient's subgrants are performing effectively and efficiently throughout the grant period. Because reporting on the performance of a special grant, including the performance of subrecipients of special grant funds, occurs more frequently than once a year, it is not necessary for LSC to limit the maximum duration of a subgrant awarded as part of a special grant to one year.
For similar reasons, LSC proposes to treat subgrant funds remaining at the end of the grant year differently. In paragraph (b)(1), LSC proposes to retain the existing language stating that unexpended Basic Field subgrant funds will be considered part of the recipient's available LSC funds. In paragraph (b)(2), LSC proposes to require recipients to return funds remaining on a special grant program subgrant at the end of the grant term to LSC, unless the recipient requests and receives approval from the Corporation to retain such funds. This approach is consistent with the current terms of both the TIG and PBIF grant assurances, which allow recipients to ask LSC for approval to retain any funds that were awarded by LSC to carry out the project, but that were not spent because of lower costs or increased efficiencies in the operation of the project.
LSC proposes to redesignate existing § 1627.3(b)(2) as § 1627.4(b)(3) with revisions. The most substantive of the proposed revisions deletes the references to termination and denials of refunding as the exclusive events for which recipients should have procedures for the orderly termination of subgrants, and replaces them with general language that subgrants should terminate “in the event that the recipient is no longer an LSC recipient.” LSC proposes adopting the general language to reflect that a recipient's policies governing the orderly termination of subgrants should apply in any instance where the recipient ceases to be an LSC recipient, including termination by LSC, voluntary termination by the recipient, or a failure to receive funding through competition. The other changes LSC proposes are editorial.
Additionally, because LSC has considered subgrants and transfers as functionally the same, LSC proposes to transfer 45 CFR 1610.7, the transfer rule, to part 1627 and redesignate it as § 1627.5. The restrictions listed in 45 CFR 1610.2—restrictions established by both the LSC Act and the FY96 appropriations act—will continue to apply to all subgrants. LSC proposes to make only minor edits to paragraphs (a) and (b) for clarity.
LSC considered multiple options for creating coherent timekeeping requirements for recipients and subrecipients alike. LSC considered leaving the current language in place and adding language describing the minimum requirements for subrecipient timekeeping. Doing so would allow recipients and subrecipients flexibility to develop timekeeping systems that would ensure accountability for expenditures of LSC funds, while minimizing the administrative burden to the subrecipient. LSC also considered making the part 1635 timekeeping requirements applicable to non-PAI subgrants and the part 1614 timekeeping requirements applicable to PAI subgrants. This option would be consistent with the way in which LSC's regulations direct recipients to document time spent on the recipients' non-PAI and PAI activities, respectively.
LSC ultimately chose to propose a requirement that all subrecipients comply with the part 1635 timekeeping requirements for all LSC-funded subgrant activities. LSC chose this
LSC understands that some subrecipients may be small organizations that currently do not have, or may find it difficult to develop, the capacity to maintain timekeeping records that comply with part 1635. For that reason,
In the interest of making its regulations easier to use, LSC proposes to limit the scope of part 1627 to provisions applicable to subgrants. Three provisions of part 1627 are not related to subgrants, but instead proscribe the use of LSC funds to pay membership fees or dues (§ 1627.4) or to make contributions to other entities or individuals (§ 1627.5), or allow recipients to make certain benefits contributions on behalf of its employees (§ 1627.7). LSC proposes to transfer these three provisions to part 1630, which establishes LSC's cost standards. LSC proposes to redesignate these provisions as §§ 1630.14-16. LSC does not propose to revise the text of these provisions at this time.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Legal Services Corporation proposes to amend 45 CFR chapter XVI as follows:
42 U.S.C. 2996i; Pub. L. 104-208, 110 Stat. 3009; Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321; Pub. L. 111-117; 123 Stat. 3034.
5 U.S.C. App. 3, 42 U.S.C. 2996e, 2996f, 2996g, 2996h(c)(1); Pub. L. 105-119, 111 Stat. 2440; Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321.
42 U.S.C. 2996g(e).
42 U.S.C. 2996g(e).
The purpose of this part is to establish the requirements for subgrants of LSC funds from recipients to third parties to assist in the recipient's provision of legal assistance to eligible clients.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)(1)
(2) Except for judicare arrangements and contracts with private attorneys for the direct delivery of legal assistance under 45 CFR part 1614 that exceed $25,000,
(a) In determining whether an agreement between a recipient and another entity should be considered a subgrant or a procurement contract, the substance of the relationship is more important than the form of the agreement. All of the characteristics listed below may not be present in all cases, and the recipient must use judgment in classifying each agreement as a subgrant or a procurement contract.
(b) An award from a recipient to another entity will be considered a subgrant when the entity:
(1) Determines who is eligible to receive legal assistance under the recipient's LSC grant;
(2) Has its performance measured in relation to whether programmatic objectives of the LSC grant were met;
(3) Has responsibility for programmatic decisionmaking;
(4) Is responsible for adherence to applicable LSC program requirements specified in the LSC grant award; and
(5) In accordance with its agreement, uses the LSC funds to carry out a program for a public purpose specified in LSC's governing statutes and regulations, as opposed to providing goods or services for the benefit of the recipient.
(c) Any award to a third party that is determined to be a subgrant based on an analysis of these factors must be supported using LSC funds. Recipients may not use goods and services paid for in whole or in part with LSC funds as payment for a subgrant.
(a)
(1)
(ii) LSC will notify a recipient of its decision to approve, disapprove, or suggest modifications to an application for subgrant approval prior to, or at the same time as LSC provides notice of its decision with respect to the applicant's proposal for Basic Field Grant funding.
(2)
(ii) A subgrant application must be submitted at least 45 days in advance of its proposed effective date. LSC will notify the recipient in writing of its decision to approve, disapprove, or suggest modifications to the subgrant. A subgrant that is disapproved or to which LSC has suggested modifications may be resubmitted for approval.
(3)
(4) Any subgrant not approved according to paragraphs (a)(1)-(3) of this section will be subject to disallowance and recovery of all funds expended under the subgrant.
(5) A recipient must obtain LSC approval of any substantial change in the scope or objectives of a subgrant or an increase or decrease in the funding amount of more than 10%. Minor changes in the scope or objectives or changes in funding of less than 10% do not require prior approval, but the recipient must notify LSC of such changes in writing.
(b)
(2) For special grants (e.g., Pro Bono Innovation Fund grants, Technology Initiative Grants, disaster assistance grants), a subgrant may not be for a period longer than the term of the grant. Absent written approval from LSC, all unexpended funds must be returned to LSC at the end of the subgrant period.
(3) All subgrants must contain provisions for their orderly termination in the event that the recipient is no longer an LSC recipient, and for suspension of activities if the recipient's funding is suspended.
(c)
(2) The recipient must ensure that the subrecipient properly spends, accounts for, and audits funds received through the subgrant.
(3) The recipient must repay LSC for any disallowed expenditures by a subrecipient. Repayment is required regardless of whether the recipient is able to recover such expenditures from the subrecipient.
(d)
(e)
(a)
(b) Priorities. Subrecipients must either:
(1) Use the subgrant consistent with the recipient's priorities; or
(2) Establish their own priorities for the use of the subgrant consistent with 45 CFR part 1620;
(c)
(d)
(2) Any funds used by a recipient as payment for a PAI subgrant are deemed LSC funds for purposes of this paragraph.
(a) The requirements of § 1627.4 apply to all subgrants from one recipient to another recipient.
(b) The subrecipient must audit any funds provided by the recipient under a subgrant in its annual audit and supply a copy of this audit to the recipient. The recipient must either submit the relevant part of this audit with its next annual audit or, if an audit has been recently submitted, submit it as an addendum to that recently submitted audit.
(c) In addition to the provisions of § 1627.4(c)(3), LSC may hold the recipient responsible for any disallowed expenditures of subgrant funds. Thus, LSC may recover all of the disallowed costs from either the recipient or the subrecipient or may divide the recovery between the two. LSC's total recovery may not exceed the amount of expenditures disallowed.
(d) Funds received by a recipient from other recipients in the form of fees and dues shall be accounted for and included in the annual audit of the recipient receiving these funds as LSC funds.
Each recipient must adopt written policies and procedures to guide its staff in complying with this part and must maintain records sufficient to document the recipient's compliance with this part.
Legal Services Corporation.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
This proposed rule would revise the Legal Services Corporation (LSC or Corporation) regulation on recipient fund balances to provide the Corporation with more discretion to grant a recipient's request for a waiver to retain a fund balance in excess of 25% of its annual LSC support. This proposed rule would also provide that recipients that face extraordinary and compelling circumstances may submit a waiver request to retain a fund balance in excess of 25% of their annual LSC support prior to the submission of their annual audited financial statements.
Comments must be submitted by May 20, 2015.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
•
Stefanie K. Davis, Assistant General Counsel, Legal Services Corporation, 3333 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20007; (202) 295-1563 (phone), (202) 337-6519 (fax), or
LSC issued its first instruction on recipient fund balances in 1983 to implement what is now the Corporation's longstanding objective of ensuring the timely expenditure of LSC funds for the effective and economical provision of high quality legal assistance to eligible clients. 48 FR 560, 561, Jan. 5, 1983. Later that year, LSC published a redrafted version titled Instruction 83-4, Recipient Fund Balances (“Instruction”). 48 FR 49710, 49711, Oct. 27, 1983. The Instruction limited the ability of recipients to carry over LSC funds that remained unused at the end of the fiscal year.
In 1984, LSC substantially adopted the Instruction in a regulation published at 45 CFR part 1628. 49 FR 21331, May 21, 1984. Part 1628 remained unchanged until 2000, when LSC promulgated revisions in response to public comments and staff advice indicating that the rule was “more strict” than the fund balance requirements of most federal agencies. 65 FR 66637, 66638, Nov. 7, 2000. The revisions provided the Corporation with more discretion to grant a recipient's request for a waiver to retain a fund balance of up to 25% of its annual support.
On April 12, 2015, the Committee voted to recommend that the Board publish this NPRM in the
During the nearly 15-year period since part 1628 was last revised, LSC grantees have experienced various unexpected occurrences outside of those listed in § 1628.3(c) that caused them to accrue fund balances in excess of 25% of their annual support. These occurrences have included an end-of-year transfer of assets from a former grantee to a current grantee, a natural disaster that resulted in a significant infusion of use-or-lose disaster relief funds from non-LSC sources, and receipt of a large attorneys' fees award in an LSC-funded case near the end of the fiscal year. In each of these situations, LSC determined that part 1628 currently prevents some recipients with legitimate reasons for having fund balances exceeding 25% of their annual LSC support from seeking and obtaining needed waivers.
On January 22, 2015, LSC staff presented the Committee with a proposal to consider revising part 1628 to address the difficulties faced by recipients that encounter these types of occurrences, yet are unable to justify a waiver request to retain a balance in excess of 25% of their annual support under the current standards. The Committee authorized LSC management to add the matter to the Committee's rulemaking agenda so that it may address this issue. In addition, the Committee requested that LSC consider whether the rule's 10% and 25% caps on fund balance carryovers are still appropriate in light of the most recently available data on recipient waiver requests.
LSC first considered revising part 1628 to allow recipients to request, and the Corporation to grant, waivers to retain fund balances in excess of 25% of annual support in extraordinary and compelling circumstances not covered by the current rule. Current § 1628.3(c) is limited to three circumstances where a recipient receives an infusion of derivative income, or income derived from the recipient's use of LSC funds. As discussed above, however, recent situations have included the sudden infusion of non-derivative, use-or-lose income under other circumstances that significantly disrupted grantee expenditure plans. As a result, LSC staff determined that the list of extraordinary and compelling circumstances in § 1628.3(c) should be illustrative, rather than limited, so that recipients that encounter truly unforeseeable scenarios can avoid having to make the difficult choice between returning large portions of unused balances and hurriedly spending funds before the end of the fiscal year. LSC staff similarly determined that such circumstances should include situations where a grantee is incapable of expending its existing LSC funds as originally planned due to a natural disaster or other catastrophic event, as opposed to only situations where new income is received. Therefore, the Corporation proposes providing an illustrative list of extraordinary and compelling circumstances justifying waivers to retain a fund balance in excess of 25% of a recipient's annual support. LSC believes that this proposed revision will allow grantees to devise more organized and efficient spending plans when faced with unexpected events that are not listed in current § 1628.3(c). Providing recipients with sufficient time to plan for the expenditure of unused funds in excess of 25% of their annual support would also advance the Corporation's policy of ensuring effective and economical provision of high quality legal assistance to eligible clients.
LSC next considered revising part 1628 to provide that a recipient may submit a waiver request prior to submitting its annual audited financial statements. Section 1628.4(a) currently provides that a recipient may request a waiver within 30 days of the submission of its annual audited financial statements. The preamble to the 2000 rule, however, states that “[t]his rule does not preclude the recipient's request for a Corporation action on a waiver prior to the close of the fiscal year, it simply does not require the Corporation to provide for advance approval.” 65 FR 66637, 66640, Nov. 7, 2000. LSC staff determined that incorporating the current preamble language on permitting waiver requests prior to the close of the fiscal year into the regulatory text of part 1628 would benefit grantees by allowing them to seek assurance that they will not have to return or spend a large portion of excess LSC funds by the end of the fiscal year, thereby enabling them to plan for the following fiscal year with greater certainty.
LSC staff also found that limiting early approvals to requests for waivers to retain balances in excess of 25% of annual support would be proper in light of the unique and significant burdens on financial planning faced by recipients that experience extraordinary and compelling circumstances. In addition, because a recipient's estimate of the fund balance it anticipates accruing by the end of the fiscal year may end up
The Corporation also considered revising part 1628 to require LSC management to provide notice to the Board of any decision to grant a waiver in excess of 25% of a recipient's annual support. LSC is retaining the “extraordinary and compelling circumstances” standard for granting such waivers, and anticipates that recipients will continue to seek such waivers only in circumstances where they experience extreme events that prevent them from expending more than 25% of their annual LSC support. Furthermore, the granting of LSC funding and exercising discretion with regard to carryover, suspension or termination of such funding has been and should remain a management, not a Board, function. The Corporation will continue to exercise its discretion with the same good faith and fidelity to the objective of ensuring the timely expenditure of LSC funds as it has done since part 1628 was last revised in 2000. Therefore, LSC proposes to retain its current policy of leaving discretion to grant waivers to retain excess recipient fund balances with LSC management.
Finally, pursuant to the Committee's request, LSC considered whether the rule's 10% and 25% caps on fund balance carryover amounts should be adjusted in accordance with recent trends in waiver requests. LSC's Office of Compliance and Enforcement (OCE) provided LSC staff with statistics on all waiver requests that have been submitted to the Corporation over the last six years. After analyzing the data, LSC decided as a policy matter that the respective percentage caps are set at the appropriate levels. According to the statistics, the average annual number of waiver requests to retain a fund balance that exceeds 10% of a recipient's LSC support is easily manageable by OCE. Furthermore, waiver requests to retain a balance in excess of 25% of LSC support are exceedingly rare, and the Corporation does not expect a significantly greater number of such requests if the proposed revisions to part 1628 are adopted. LSC believes that the current percentage caps on carryover amounts are necessary to ensure that recipients are spending their grants on providing legal services, while offering an appropriate amount of flexibility to retain unused fund balances. The Corporation therefore proposes retaining the current percentage cap amounts, but requests comments on whether to change them.
LSC proposes to revise § 1628.3(c) to eliminate the language limiting the extraordinary and compelling circumstances in which LSC may grant a recipient's request for a waiver to retain a fund balance that exceeds 25% of its annual LSC support. Whereas existing § 1628.3(c) is limited to three circumstances where a recipient receives a sudden infusion of income, the proposed section expands the types of situations that the Corporation, in its discretion, may consider to be extraordinary and compelling circumstances. The proposed section adds the example of a natural disaster to illustrate a situation where a recipient would be unable to expend its current LSC grant for reasons other than the receipt of new funds. The proposed section also adds the example of “a payment from an LSC-funded lawsuit, regardless of whether the recipient was a party to the lawsuit.” This revision makes clear that a recipient may request a waiver to retain a fund balance in excess of 25% of its annual support when it receives an award as the result of a court decision in an LSC-funded case, even if the recipient was not named as a party to the action.
LSC also proposes to make a minor revision to § 1628.3(d) to reflect the proposed redesignation of certain paragraphs in § 1628.4.
LSC proposes to add a new § 1628.4(d) to expressly allow recipients that face extraordinary and compelling circumstances to submit a waiver request to retain a fund balance in excess of 25% of their annual support prior to the submission of their annual audited financial statements. This addition will require existing § 1628.4(d), (e), (f), and (g) to be redesignated to § 1628.4(e), (f), (g), and (h).
The proposed new § 1628.4(d) will list the written requirements for a waiver request to retain a fund balance in excess of 25% of annual support. These requirements vary from the ones listed in § 1628.4(a), which apply only to requests made within 30 days after the submission of a recipient's annual audited financial statements. There are two reasons for the variation. First, because the annual audited financial statement of a recipient requesting an early waiver approval would not yet be available to the Corporation, recipients can provide only an estimate of the fund balance they anticipate to accrue by the time their statements are submitted. Second, because a recipient may submit a waiver request either before or after the close of the fiscal year, the proposed section will require recipients to provide a “plan for disposing of the excess fund balance,” as opposed to a plan for the “current fiscal year” as required by § 1628.4(a). Additionally, proposed § 1628.4(d) requires recipients receiving approval to later submit updated information consistent with the requirements of paragraph (a) to confirm the actual fund balance amount to be retained by the recipient, as determined by reference to its annual audited financial statements.
Finally, LSC proposes to revise the introductory text of paragraph (a), as well as paragraphs (a)(2) and (3), for clarity and readability.
Administrative practice and procedure, Grant programs—law, Legal services.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Legal Services Corporation proposes to revise 45 CFR part 1628 as follows:
42 U.S.C. 2996g(e).
(c) Recipients may request a waiver to retain a fund balance in excess of 25%
(d) A waiver pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this section may be granted at the discretion of the Corporation pursuant to the criteria set out in § 1628.4(e).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) A recipient may request a waiver of the 10% ceiling on LSC fund balances within 30 days after the submission to LSC of its annual audited financial statements. The request shall specify:
(2) The reason(s) for the excess fund balance;
(3) The recipient's plan for disposing of the excess fund balance during the current fiscal year;\
(d) A recipient may submit a waiver request to retain a fund balance in excess of 25% of its LSC support prior to the submission of its audited financial statements. The Corporation may, at its discretion, provide approval in writing. The request shall specify the extraordinary and compelling circumstances justifying the fund balance in excess of 25%; the estimated fund balance that the recipient anticipates it will accrue by the time of the submission of its audited financial statements; and the recipient's plan for disposing of the excess fund balance. Upon the submission of its annual audited financial statements, the recipient must submit updated information consistent with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section to confirm the actual fund balance to be retained.
Central Intelligence Agency.
50 U.S.C 3141
The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA or Agency) is soliciting comments regarding the historical value of, or other public interest in, the CIA files designated by the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency (DCIA) pursuant to the CIA Information Act of 1984.
Comments must be received by 1 May 2015.
Submit comments in writing to Joseph W. Lambert, Director, Information Management Services, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505, or by fax to (703) 613-3020.
Joseph W. Lambert, Director, Information Management Services, Central Intelligence Agency, telephone 703-613-1379.
The CIA Information Act of 1984, codified in section 3141 of title 50 of the United States Code, authorizes the DCIA to exempt operational files of the CIA from the publication, disclosure, search, and review provisions of the Freedom of Information Act. The statute defines operational files as:
1. Files of the National Clandestine Service that document the conduct of foreign intelligence or counterintelligence operations or intelligence or security liaison arrangements or information exchanges with foreign governments or their intelligence or security services;
2. Files of the Directorate of Science and Technology that document the means by which foreign intelligence or counterintelligence is collected through scientific and technical systems; and
3. Files of the Office of Security that document investigations conducted to determine the suitability of potential foreign intelligence or counterintelligence sources; except that files that are the sole repository of disseminated intelligence are not operational files.
The CIA Information Act of 1984 requires that, not less than once every ten years, the DCIA shall review the exemptions in force to determine whether such exemptions may be removed from any category of exempted files or any portion thereof. The last review was completed in April 2005. The following represents a summary of the general categories of operational files that have been maintained within the National Clandestine Service, the Directorate of Science and Technology, and the Office of Security since the first decennial review:
1. Files of the National Clandestine Service that document the intelligence sources and methods associated with various operational and foreign liaison activities, that document the conduct and management of various operational and foreign liaison activities, and that document the assessment of the viability of potential operational and foreign liaison activities and potential intelligence sources and methods;
2. Files of the Directorate of Science and Technology that document the use of scientific and technical systems in the conduct of and in support of various operational and intelligence collection activities;
3. Files of the Office of Security that document various aspects of the investigations conducted to determine the suitability of potential foreign intelligence or counterintelligence sources proposed for use in various operational activities.
The CIA is in the process of conducting the 2015 decennial review of its operational files to determine whether any of the previously designated files, or portions thereof, can be removed from any of the specified categories of exempted files. The CIA Information Act of 1984 requires that the decennial review “include consideration of the historical value or other public interest in the subject matter of the particular category of files or portions thereof and the potential for declassifying a significant part of the information contained therein.” In accordance with this requirement, the CIA hereby solicits comments for the DCIA's consideration during the decennial review of the CIA's operational files regarding the historical value of, or other public interest in, the subject matter of these particular categories of files or portions thereof described above and the relationship of that historical value or other public interest to the removal of previously designated files or any portions thereof from such a classification.
Economic Development Administration.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35). The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Written comments must be submitted on or before June 19, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via email at
Requests for additional information or
The mission of the Economic Development Administration (EDA) is to lead the Federal economic agenda by promoting innovation and competitiveness, preparing American regions for growth and success in the worldwide economy. In order to effectively administer and monitor its economic development assistance programs, EDA collects certain information from applications for, and recipients of, EDA investment assistance. This 60-day
EDA is currently undergoing a comprehensive review and improvement effort for its grants cycle process. Using staff input and results from EDA's 2014 Customer Service survey, EDA has reimagined its grants application process from the ground up, making significant improvements for both stakeholders and staff. As part of this process, EDA is making changes to its forms to address the following concerns:
• Confusion among applicants regarding which sections of the ED-900 needed to be completed for the program they were applying for;
• Undue burden on applicants to complete the application form for projects that were not likely to be funded;
• Outdated links to external sources;
• Unnecessary waste of paper and ink when a complete form was printed, since sections that may not be required for a particular program were printed along with those that were required.
In order to address these concerns, EDA is dividing the ED-900 into a suite of smaller forms that can be mixed and matched to fit the needs of different program solicitations on Grants.gov. This will ensure that applicants only see the information they are required to provide in order to apply and eliminate the unnecessary waste of paper and ink resources. In addition, EDA has developed a new “Proposal” form, which will allow applicants to submit significantly less information to EDA in order to get a better understanding of the potential competitiveness of their application. The following is a crosswalk of the currently approved ED-900 with the proposed new forms:
Paper and electronic submissions.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (“Department”) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers/exporters of melamine from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”). The period of investigation is January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013. Interested parties are invited to comment on this preliminary determination.
Eve Wang or Andrew Medley, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6231 and (202) 482-4987, respectively.
The Department published its notice of initiation of this countervailing duty (“CVD”) investigation on December 9, 2014; on the same day, the Department published its notice of initiation of an antidumping duty (“AD”) investigation of melamine from the PRC.
The product covered by this investigation is melamine from the PRC. For a complete description of the scope of the investigation,
The Department is conducting this CVD investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary conclusions,
For this preliminary determination, we relied on facts available pursuant to section 776(a) of the Act because the Government of the PRC and the five companies selected for individual examination—
In accordance with section 703(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, we calculated estimated subsidy rates for each individually examined producer/exporter of the subject merchandise: Far-Reaching Chemical, Zhongyuan Dahua, Qingidau Unichem, M&A Chemicals, and Shandong Liaherd.
In accordance with sections 703(d)(1)(A)(i) and 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act, for companies not individually examined, we calculated an “all-others” rate by weighting the subsidy rates of the individual companies selected as respondents by those companies' exports of the subject merchandise to the United States, not including zero and
We preliminarily determine the countervailable subsidy rates to be:
In accordance with sections 703(d)(1)(B) and (2) of the Act, we are directing U.S. Customs and Border Protection to suspend liquidation of all entries of melamine from the PRC that are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of the publication of this notice in the
Because the Department has reached its conclusions on the basis of adverse facts available, the calculations performed in connection with this preliminary determination are not proprietary in nature, and are described in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum. Interested parties may submit case and rebuttal briefs, as well as request a hearing.
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of our determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information relating to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order, without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
In accordance with section 705(b)(2) of the Act, if our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will make its final determination within 45 days after the Department makes its final determination.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise subject to this investigation is melamine (Chemical Abstracts Service (“CAS”) registry number 108-78-01, molecular formula C
The subject merchandise is provided for in subheading 2933.61.0000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”). Although the HTSUS subheading and CAS registry number are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to a producer and exporter of melamine from Trinidad and Tobago. The period of investigation is January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013. Interested parties are invited to comment on this preliminary determination.
Effective date April 20, 2015.
Kristen Johnson or Patricia Tran, Office III, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4793 and (202) 482-1503, respectively.
On the same day that the Department initiated this CVD investigation, the Department also initiated a CVD investigation of melamine from the People's Republic of China (PRC) and AD investigations of melamine from the PRC and Trinidad and Tobago.
The product covered by this investigation is melamine from Trinidad and Tobago. For a complete description of the scope of the investigation,
The Department is conducting this CVD investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary conclusions,
In accordance with section 703(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, we calculated a subsidy rate for Methanol Holdings (Trinidad) Ltd. (MHTL), the only company subject to individual examination in this investigation. We preliminarily determine that MHTL's countervailable subsidy rate is 27.48 percent
In accordance with sections 703(d)(1)(B) and (d)(2) of the Act, we are directing U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of all entries of melamine from Trinidad and Tobago that are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of the publication of this notice in the
The Department intends to disclose to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement.
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of our determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information relating to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order, without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
In accordance with section 705(b)(2) of the Act, if our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will make its final determination within 45 days after the Department makes its final determination.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise subject to this investigation is melamine (Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) registry number 108-
The subject merchandise is provided for in subheading 2933.61.0000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Although the HTSUS subheading and CAS registry number are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration Department of Commerce.
Stephanie Moore, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-3692.
Section 702 of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (as amended) (the Act) requires the Department of Commerce (the Department) to determine, in consultation with the Secretary of Agriculture, whether any foreign government is providing a subsidy with respect to any article of cheese subject to an in-quota rate of duty, as defined in section 702(h) of the Act, and to publish quarterly updates to the type and amount of those subsidies. We hereby provide the Department's quarterly update of subsidies on articles of cheese that were imported during the periods October 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014.
The Department has developed, in consultation with the Secretary of Agriculture, information on subsidies, as defined in section 702(h) of the Act, being provided either directly or indirectly by foreign governments on articles of cheese subject to an in-quota rate of duty. The appendix to this notice lists the country, the subsidy program or programs, and the gross and net amounts of each subsidy for which information is currently available. The Department will incorporate additional programs which are found to constitute subsidies, and additional information on the subsidy programs listed, as the information is developed.
The Department encourages any person having information on foreign government subsidy programs which benefit articles of cheese subject to an in-quota rate of duty to submit such information in writing to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230.
This determination and notice are in accordance with section 702(a) of the Act.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of availability.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries has approved amendments to the New England Fishery Management Council's Statement of Organization, Practices, and Procedures. Copies of the document are available to the public.
New England Fishery Management Council, 50 Water Street, Mill 2, Newburyport, Massachusetts 01950.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, phone 302-674-2331, fax 302-674-5399.
In accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Magnuson Act, section 302(f)(6), each regional fishery management council is required to describe its organization and operations in a Statement of Organization, Practices, and Procedures (SOPP). The New England Fishery Management Council has amended its SOPP to be compliant with the 2006 amendments to the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Council function and responsibilities, development of acceptable biological catch, public notice, and other administrative procedures have been updated.
Pursuant to 50 CFR 600.115(b), the New England Fishery Management Council's SOPP, as amended, has been approved by the Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, on behalf of the Secretary of Commerce. The SOPP is available to the public. Copies may be obtained by contacting the Council (see
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces a public meeting of the Commerce Spectrum Management Advisory Committee (Committee). The Committee provides advice to the Assistant Secretary of Commerce for Communications and Information and the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) on spectrum management policy matters.
The meeting will be held on May 12, 2015, from 1:30 p.m. to 4:30 p.m., Mountain Daylight Time.
The meeting will be held at the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Communication Technology Laboratory, 325 Broadway, Room 1A116, Building 81, Boulder, CO 80305. Public comments may be mailed to Commerce Spectrum Management Advisory Committee, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 4099, Washington, DC 20230 or emailed to
Bruce M. Washington, Designated Federal Officer, at (202) 482-6415 or
NTIA will post a detailed agenda on its Web site,
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Notice of new system of records.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) announces a new Privacy Act system of records. The purpose of the new system of records, relating to mailing, contact, and other lists, is to assist in the dissemination of CPSC information and documents, including dissemination to those who request such materials or information; and to maintain lists of business or other contacts for future reference.
Comments must be received no later than May 20, 2015. The new system of records will be effective June 1, 2015, unless comments are received that would result in a contrary determination.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC-2007-0035, by any of the following methods:
Mary James, Office of Information Technology, Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814, (301) 504-7213, or by email to:
The CPSC is establishing this new system of records under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, for CPSC mailing, contact, and other lists of individuals, organizations, businesses, and other contacts. These lists are maintained to assist in the distribution of CPSC documents and information in furtherance of the CPSC's mission to protect the public against unreasonable risks of injury associated with the use of consumer products.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), the CPSC has provided a report of this updated system of records to the Office of Management and Budget and to Congress.
Mailing and Other Lists
U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814.
Individuals covered by the new system of records include individuals who have indicated an interest in receiving CPSC materials or who are participants or contacts in connection with matters under consideration at CPSC, and other individuals who may be contacts, resources, or leads for various CPSC subject matter areas or programs.
The records in the new system may include some or all of the following information: Name; title; company, organization or affiliation; address; telephone number; email or internet address. This system includes mailing lists, contact lists, address lists, and information developed from business cards, sign-in sheets or rosters compiled at meetings. This system excludes mailing or contact lists or similar records collected or maintained under other CPSC systems of records. For example, addresses or other contact information for individuals who import materials into the United States are covered by CPSC-33 (International Trade Data System Risk Assessment Methodology System (ITDS/RAM)).
44 U.S.C. 3101; CPSC Directives Order No. 0730.1 (Revised 2/06).
The system of records is used to assist in the dissemination of CPSC information and documents to individuals, organizations, businesses, and other contacts in accordance with applicable legal constraints, and to maintain lists of business or other contacts for future reference, in furtherance of the CPSC's mission to protect the public against unreasonable risks of injury associated with the use of consumer products.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act, all or a portion of the records or information contained in this system may be disclosed to authorized entities, as is determined to be relevant and necessary, outside CPSC as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3), as follows:
1. To disclose information to the National Archives and Records Administration for use in records management inspections.
2. Contractors, agents, or other authorized individuals performing work on a contract, service, cooperative agreement, job, or other activity on behalf of CPSC or Federal Government and who have a need to access the information in the performance of their duties.
Records are maintained in electronic format and paper form. Electronic records are stored in computerized databases. Other records are maintained in locked file cabinets or in agency office space whose access is limited to those with authorization.
Information about individuals maintained in mailing lists and other information covered by this system of records may be retrieved by the individual's name, an employer or institutional or organizational affiliation name, the individual or organization category on mailing list, the city or zip code, or by any other personal identifiers.
Access to electronic records is restricted to authorized personnel who have been issued non-transferrable access codes and passwords. Other records are maintained in locked file cabinets or in agency office space whose access is limited to those with authorization.
CPSC personnel revise the lists as necessary. The records can be destroyed when deemed no longer useful.
Secretary, Office of the Secretariat, Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814.
Individuals wishing to determine whether this system of records contains information about them may inquire in writing in accordance with the instructions appearing at 16 CFR part 1014. The request will be made to Freedom of Information/Privacy Act Officer, Office of the Secretariat, Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814.
Same as notification.
Same as notification.
These records contain information developed from publicly available information, information obtained from the relevant individual, information from business cards, sign-in sheets or rosters compiled at meetings, or from other sources. Information in this system of records may also be obtained from other CPSC records systems.
None.
Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meetings.
The Defense Science Board will meet in closed session on May 20-21, 2015, from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. at the Pentagon, Room 3E863, Washington, DC.
May 20-21, 2015, from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
The Pentagon, Room 3E863, Washington, DC.
Ms. Debra Rose, Executive Officer, Defense Science Board, 3140 Defense Pentagon, Room 3B888A, Washington, DC 20301-3140, via email at
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
The mission of the Defense Science Board is to advise the Secretary of Defense and the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology & Logistics on scientific and technical matters as they affect the perceived needs of the Department of Defense. At this meeting, the Board will discuss interim findings and recommendations resulting from ongoing Task Force activities. The Board will also discuss plans for future consideration of scientific and technical aspects of specific strategies, tactics, and policies as they may affect the U.S. national defense posture and homeland security.
In accordance with section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended (5 U.S.C. App. 2) and 41 CFR 102-3.155, the Department of Defense has determined that the Defense Science Board meeting for May 20-21, 2015, will be closed to the public. Specifically, the Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics), in consultation with the DoD Office of General Counsel, has determined in writing that all sessions of meeting for May 20-21, 2015, will be closed to the public because it will consider matters covered by 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(1) and (4).
In accordance with 41 CFR 102-3.140 and section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, interested persons may submit a written statement for consideration by the Defense Science Board. Individuals submitting a written statement must submit their statement to the Designated Federal Official at the address detailed in
Department of Defense; Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences (USU).
Quarterly meeting notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce the following meeting of the Board of Regents, Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences (“the Board”). This meeting will be partially-closed to the public.
Friday, May 15, 2015, from 8:00 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. (Open Session) and 1:15 p.m. to 2:00 p.m. (Closed Session).
Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, 4301 Jones Bridge Road, Everett Alvarez Jr. Board of Regents Room (D3001), Bethesda, Maryland 20814.
Jennifer Nuetzi James, Designated Federal Officer, 4301 Jones Bridge Road, D3002, Bethesda, Maryland 20814; telephone 301-295-3066; email
This meeting notice is being published under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(2, 5-7), the Department of Defense has determined that the portion of the meeting from 1:15 p.m. to 2:00 p.m. shall be closed to the public. The Under Secretary of Defense (Personnel and Readiness), in consultation with the Office of the DoD General Counsel, has determined in writing that a portion of the committee's meeting will be closed as the discussion will disclose sensitive personnel information, will include matters that relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the agency, will involve allegations of a person having committed a crime or censuring an individual, and may disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes.
Department of Defense.
Renewal of Federal Advisory Committee.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce that it is renewing the charter for the Board of Regents, Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences (“the Board”).
Jim Freeman, Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, 703-692-5952.
This committee's charter is being renewed pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2113a and in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended) and 41 CFR 102-3.50(a).
The Board is a statutory Federal advisory committee that, assists the Secretary of Defense in an advisory capacity in carrying out the Secretary's responsibility to conduct the business of
The DoD, through the Office of the USD(P&R), provides support, as deemed necessary, for the Board's performance and functions, and ensures compliance with the requirements of the FACA, the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended) (“the Sunshine Act”), governing Federal statutes and regulations, and established DoD policies and procedures. Under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 2113a(b), the Board shall be composed of 15 members, appointed or designated as follows:
a. Nine persons outstanding in the field of health care, higher education administration, or public policy, who shall be appointed from civilian life by the Secretary of Defense;
b. The Secretary of Defense, or his designee, who shall be an
c. The Surgeons General of the Uniformed Services, who shall be
d. The President of the University, who shall be a non-voting,
As directed by 10 U.S.C. 2113a(c), the term of office for each member of the Board (other than
a. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring before the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term; and,
b. Any member whose term of office has expired shall continue to serve until his successor is appointed.
In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2113a(d), one of the members of the Board (other than an
Board members that are not
Each member, based upon his or her individual professional experience, provides his or her best judgment on the matters before the Board, and he or she does so in a manner that is free from conflict of interest. Board members who are not full-time or permanent part-time Federal officers or employees, will be appointed as experts or consultants pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3109 to serve as special government employee (SGE) members. Board members who are full-time or permanent part-time Federal officers or employees will serve as regular government employee (RGE) members pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.130(a). No member may serve more than two consecutive terms of service without Secretary of Defense or Deputy Secretary of Defense approval.
Pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 2113a(e), Board members (other than
DoD, when necessary and consistent with the Board's mission and DoD policies and procedures, may establish subcommittees, task forces, or working groups to support the Board. Establishment of subcommittees will be based upon a written determination, to include terms of reference, by the Secretary of Defense, the Deputy Secretary of Defense, or the USD(P&R), as the Board's Sponsor.
Such subcommittees will not work independently of the Board and will report all of their recommendations and advice solely to the Board for full and open deliberation and discussion. Subcommittees, task forces, or working groups have no authority to make decisions and recommendations, verbally or in writing, on behalf of the Board. No subcommittee or any of its members can update or report, verbally or in writing, on behalf of the Board, directly to the DoD or any Federal officers or employees.
Each member, based upon his or her individual professional experience, provides his or her best judgment on the matters before the Board, and he or she does so in a manner that is free from conflict of interest. All subcommittee members will be appointed by the Secretary of Defense or the Deputy Secretary of Defense to a term of service of one-to-four years, with annual renewals, even if the individual is already a member of the Board. Subcommittee members will not serve more than two consecutive terms of service, unless authorized by the Secretary of Defense or the Deputy Secretary of Defense. Subcommittee members who are not full-time or permanent part-time Federal officers or employees will be appointed as an expert or consultant pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3109, to serve as a SGE member. Subcommittee members who are full-time or permanent part-time Federal officers or employees will be appointed pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.130(a), to serve as a RGE member. With the exception of reimbursement of official travel and per diem related to the Board or its subcommittees, subcommittee members will serve without compensation.
All subcommittees operate under the provisions of FACA, the Sunshine Act, governing Federal statutes and regulations, and established DoD policies and procedures.
The Board's Designated Federal Officer (DFO) must be a full-time or permanent part-time DoD officer or employee, appointed in accordance with established DoD policies and procedures. The Board's DFO is required to attend at all meetings of the Board and its subcommittees for the entire duration of each and every meeting. However, in the absence of the Board's DFO, a properly approved Alternate DFO, duly appointed to the Board according to established DoD policies and procedures, must attend the entire duration of all meetings of the Board and its subcommittees.
The DFO, or the Alternate DFO, calls all meetings of the Board and its subcommittees; prepares and approves all meeting agendas; and adjourns any meeting when the DFO, or the Alternate DFO, determines adjournment to be in the public interest or required by governing regulations or DoD policies and procedures.
Pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.105(j) and 102-3.140, the public or interested organizations may submit written statements to Board membership about the Board's mission and functions. Written statements may be submitted at any time or in response to the stated agenda of planned meeting of the Board.
All written statements shall be submitted to the DFO for the Board, and this individual will ensure that the written statements are provided to the membership for their consideration. Contact information for the Board's DFO can be obtained from the GSA's FACA Database—
The DFO, pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150, will announce planned meetings of the Board. The DFO, at that time, may provide additional guidance on the submission of written statements that are in response to the stated agenda for the planned meeting in question.
Office of Science, Department of Energy.
Notice of partially-closed meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and summary agenda for a partially-closed meeting of the President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology (PCAST). The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of these meetings be announced in the
May 15, 2015, 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the National Academy of Sciences, 2101 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC in the Lecture Room.
Information regarding the meeting agenda, time, location, and how to register for the meeting is available on the PCAST Web site at:
The President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology (PCAST) is an advisory group of the nation's leading scientists and engineers, appointed by the President to augment the science and technology advice available to him from inside the White House, cabinet departments, and other Federal agencies. See the Executive Order at
The public comment period for this meeting will take place on May 15, 2015 at a time specified in the meeting agenda posted on the PCAST Web site at
Please note that because PCAST operates under the provisions of FACA, all public comments and/or presentations will be treated as public documents and will be made available for public inspection, including being posted on the PCAST Web site.
Department of Energy (DOE).
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces a meeting of the Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board (EM SSAB), Portsmouth. The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of this meeting be announced in the
Thursday, May 7, 2015, 6:00 p.m.
Ohio State University, Endeavor Center, 1862 Shyville Road, Piketon, Ohio 45661.
Greg Simonton, Alternate Deputy Designated
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of Availability of Final NPDES General Permits MAG070000 And NHG070000.
The Director of the Office of Ecosystem Protection, EPA-New England, is providing a notice of availability of final National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) general permits for dewatering activity discharges to certain waters of the Commonwealth of Massachusetts and the State of New Hampshire. These General Permits replace the Dewatering General Permits (DGP), which expired on September 30, 2013.
The DGP will be effective May 20, 2015 and will expire five years from the effective date. In accordance with 40 CFR part 23, this permit shall be considered issued for the purpose of judicial review on May 4, 2015. Under section 509(b) of the Clean Water Act, judicial review can be had by filing a petition for review in the United States Court of Appeals within 120 days after the permit is considered issued for purposes of judicial review. Under section 509(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act, the requirements in this permit may not be challenged later in civil or criminal proceedings to enforce these requirements. In addition, this permit may not be challenged in other agency proceedings.
The required notice of intent (NOI) information to obtain permit coverage is provided in the DGP. This information shall be submitted to EPA. NOIs may be submitted electronically or via mail at the addresses provided below:
(1) Email:
(2) Mail: Victor Alvarez, U.S. EPA—Region 1, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, Mail Code OEP06-4, Boston, MA 02109-3912.
Additional information concerning the final General Permits may be obtained between the hours of 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. Monday through Friday, excluding holidays, from Victor Alvarez, Office of Ecosystem Protection, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, Boston, MA 02109-3912; telephone: 617-918-1572; email:
EPA is reissuing two general permits for the discharge of uncontaminated water from construction dewatering intrusion and/or stormwater accumulation from sites that disturb less than one acre of land and short and long term dewatering of foundation sumps. While the final general permits are two distinct permits, for convenience, EPA has grouped them together in a single document and has provided a single fact sheet for the two draft general permits. This document refers to the final general “permit” in the singular. The final general permit, appendices and fact sheet are available at:
The General Permit establishes Notice of Intent (NOI) requirements, effluent limitations, standards, prohibitions, and management practices for facilities with construction dewatering of groundwater intrusion and/or storm water accumulation from sites less than one acre and short-term and long-term dewatering of foundation sumps.
The draft permit includes effluent limitations based on best professional judgment (BPJ) and water quality considerations. When EPA has not promulgated effluent limitations for a category of discharges, or if an operator discharges a pollutant not covered by an effluent limitation guideline, effluent limitations may be based on the BPJ of the agency or permit writer. The BPJ limits in the general permit are in the form of non-numeric control measures, commonly referred to as best management practices (BMPs). The effluent limits established in the draft permit assures that the surface water quality standards of the receiving water are protected, maintained and/or attained. Discharges that contain pollutants in quantities which represent reasonable potential to cause or contribute to violations of water quality standards will not be granted coverage under this general permit. Those dischargers must either apply for an individual permit or seek coverage under EPA's Remediation General Permit.
The ESA provisions have been updated from the 2008 general permit and new species of concern have been added. EPA has received concurrence from U.S Fish and Wildlife Service and National Marine Fisheries Service in connection with this final permit.
This action is being taken under the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has submitted a new information collection request (ICR), “Lead; Clearance and Clearance Testing Requirements for the Renovation, Repair, and Painting Program” (EPA ICR No. 2381.03, OMB Control No. 2070-0181) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Additional comments may be submitted on or before May 20, 2015.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2014-0486, to (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Colby Lintner, Environmental
Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Responses to the collection of information are mandatory (see 40 CFR 745, Subpart L). Respondents may claim all or part of a response confidential. EPA will disclose information that is covered by a claim of confidentiality only to the extent permitted by, and in accordance with, the procedures in TSCA section 14 and 40 CFR part 2.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of proposed consent decree; request for public comment.
In accordance with section 113(g) of the Clean Air Act, as amended, (“CAA” or the “Act”), notice is hereby given of a proposed consent decree to address a lawsuit filed by American Fuel & Petrochemical Manufacturers and American Petroleum Institute (collectively “Plaintiffs”):
Written comments on the proposed consent decree must be received by
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID number EPA-HQ-OGC-2015-0261, online at
Roland Dubois, Air and Radiation Law Office (2344A), Office of General Counsel, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone: (202) 564-5626; email address:
The proposed consent decree would resolve the lawsuit filed by Plaintiffs by establishing that EPA must take proposed action by June 1, 2015 and final action by November 30, 2015 to address renewable fuel obligations under CAA 211(o) for calendar year 2015. In addition, the proposed decree would establish that EPA must take final action by November 30, 2015 to address renewable fuel obligations for calendar year 2014 and to approve or disapprove Plaintiffs' petition seeking a partial waiver of renewable fuel applicable volumes set forth in CAA 211(o)(2) for calendar year 2014. See the proposed consent decree for the specific details.
For a period of thirty (30) days following the date of publication of this notice, the Agency will accept written comments relating to the proposed consent decree from persons who were not named as parties or interveners to the litigation in question. EPA or the Department of Justice may withdraw or withhold consent to the proposed consent decree if the comments disclose facts or considerations that indicate that such consent is inappropriate, improper, inadequate, or inconsistent with the requirements of the Act. Unless EPA or the Department of Justice determines that consent to this consent decree should be withdrawn, the terms of the decree will be affirmed.
The official public docket for this action (identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OGC-2015-0261) contains a
An electronic version of the public docket is available through
It is important to note that EPA's policy is that public comments, whether submitted electronically or in paper, will be made available for public viewing online at
You may submit comments as provided in the
If you submit an electronic comment, EPA recommends that you include your name, mailing address, and an email address or other contact information in the body of your comment and with any disk or CD ROM you submit. This ensures that you can be identified as the submitter of the comment and allows EPA to contact you in case EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties or needs further information on the substance of your comment. Any identifying or contact information provided in the body of a comment will be included as part of the comment that is placed in the official public docket, and made available in EPA's electronic public docket. If EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, EPA may not be able to consider your comment.
Use of the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This document announces the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) responses to Agency Clearance requests, in compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Courtney Kerwin (202) 566-1669, or email at
EPA ICR Number 2260.05; Confidential Financial Disclosure Form for Special Government Employees Serving on Federal Advisory Committees at the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (Renewal); 5 CFR part 2634; was approved with change on 2/25/2015; OMB Number 2090-0029; expires on 2/28/2018.
EPA ICR Number 0559.12; Application for Reference and Equivalent Method Determination (Renewal); 40 CFR parts 53.4, 53.14, 53.15, 53.9(f), (h), (i), and 53.16(a)-(d), (f); was approved without change on 2/25/2015; OMB Number 2080-0005; expires on 2/28/2018.
EPA ICR Number 2347.01; Implementation of the 2008 National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone: State Implementation Plan Requirements (Proposed Rule); 40 CFR part 51; OMB filed comment on 2/12/2015.
Federal Acquisition Service, General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of request for an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding the
Submit comments on or before: June 19, 2015.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 3090-0014, Transfer Order—Surplus Personal Property and Continuation Sheet, Standard Form (SF) 123, by any of the following methods:
• Regulations.gov:
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•
Joyce Spalding, Property Disposal Specialist, Federal Acquisition Service, at telephone 703-605-2888 or via email to
The Transfer Order—Surplus Personal Property and Continuation Sheet, Standard form (SF) 123, is used by public agencies, nonprofit educational or public health activities, programs for the elderly, service educational activities, and public airports to apply for donation of Federal surplus personal property. The SF 123 serves as the transfer instrument and includes item descriptions, transportation instructions, nondiscrimination assurances, and approval signatures.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
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To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
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Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by
When commenting on the proposed information collections, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be received by the OMB desk officer via one of the following transmissions: OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: CMS Desk Officer, Fax Number: (202) 395-5806
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the
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Given the innovative nature of Exchanges and the statutorily-prescribed relationship between the Secretary and States in their development and operation, it is critical that the Secretary work closely with States to provide necessary guidance and technical assistance to ensure that States can meet the prescribed timelines, federal requirements, and goals of the statute and the grants awarded to them.
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Administration for Community Living, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
Notice inviting applications for new awards for fiscal year (FY) 2015.
On July 22, 2014, President Obama signed the Workforce Innovation Opportunity Act (WIOA). WIOA was effective immediately. One provision of WIOA transferred the National Institute on Disability and Rehabilitation Research (NIDRR) from the Department of Education to the Administration for Community Living (ACL) in the Department of Health and Human Services. In addition, NIDRR's name was changed to the Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research (NIDILRR). For FY 2015, all NIDILRR priority notices will be published as ACL notices, and ACL will make all NIDILRR awards. During this transition period, however, NIDILRR will continue to review grant applications using Department of Education tools. NIDILRR will post previously-approved application kits to grants.gov, and NIDILRR applications submitted to grants.gov will be forwarded to the Department of Education's G-5 system for peer review. We are using Department of Education application kits and peer review systems during this transition year in order to provide for a smooth and orderly process for our applicants.
Date of Pre-Application Meeting: May 11, 2015.
Deadline for Notice of Intent to Apply: May 26, 2015.
Deadline for Transmittal of Applications: June 19, 2015.
The purpose of the RRTCs, which are funded through the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program, is to achieve the goals of, and improve the effectiveness of, services authorized under the Rehabilitation Act through well-designed research, training, technical assistance, and dissemination activities in important topical areas as specified by NIDILRR. These activities are designed to benefit rehabilitation service providers, individuals with disabilities, family members, policymakers and other research stakeholders. Additional information on the RRTC program can be found at:
These priorities are:
The full text of this priority is included in the notice of final priorities for the Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers, published in the
The full text of this priority is included in the notice of final priority published elsewhere in this issue of the
29 U.S.C. 762(g) and 764(b)(2).
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2015 and any subsequent year from the list of unfunded applicants from this competition.
We will reject any application that proposes a budget exceeding the Maximum Amount for a single budget period of 12 months. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may change the maximum amount through a notice published in the
The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice.
We will reject any application that proposes a project period exceeding 60 months. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may change the project period through a notice published in the
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If you request an application from Patricia Barrett, be sure to identify this competition as follows: CFDA number 84.133B-1.
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Notice of Intent to Apply: Due to the open nature of the RRTC priority announced here, and to assist with the selection of reviewers for this competition, NIDILRR is requesting all potential applicants submit a letter of intent (LOI). The submission is not mandatory and the content of the LOI will not be peer reviewed or otherwise used to rate an applicant's application.
Each LOI should be limited to a maximum of four pages and include the following information: (1) The title of the proposed project, the name of the applicant, the name of the Project Director or Principal Investigator (PI), and the names of partner institutions and entities; (2) a brief statement of the vision, goals, and objectives of the proposed project and a description of its proposed activities at a sufficient level of detail to allow NIDILRR to select potential peer reviewers; (3) a list of proposed project staff including the Project Director or PI and key personnel; (4) a list of individuals whose selection as a peer reviewer might constitute a conflict of interest due to involvement in proposal development, selection as an advisory board member, co-PI relationships, etc.; and (5) contact information for the Project Director or PI. Submission of a LOI is not a prerequisite for eligibility to submit an application.
NIDILRR will accept the optional LOI via mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or commercial carrier) or email, by May 26, 2015. The LOI must be sent to: Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 550 12th Street SW., Room 5142, PCP, Washington, DC 20202; or by email to:
For further information regarding the LOI submission process, contact Patricia Barrett at (202) 245-6211.
Page Limit: The application narrative (Part III of the application) is where you, the applicant, address the selection criteria that reviewers use to evaluate your application. We recommend that you limit Part III to the equivalent of no more than 100 pages, using the following standards:
• A “page” is 8.5″ x 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative. You are not required to double space titles, headings, footnotes, references, and captions, or text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.
The recommended page limit does not apply to Part I, the cover sheet; Part II, the budget section, including the narrative budget justification; Part IV, the assurances and certifications; or the one-page abstract, the resumes, the bibliography, or the letters of support. However, the recommended page limit does apply to all of the application narrative section (Part III).
Please submit an appendix that lists every collaborating organization and individual named in the application, including staff, consultants, contractors, and advisory board members. We will use this information to help us screen for conflicts of interest with our reviewers.
An applicant should consult NIDRR's Long-Range Plan for Fiscal Years 2013-2017 (78 FR 20299) (Plan) when preparing its application. The Plan is organized around the following research domains: (1) Community Living and Participation; (2) Health and Function; and (3) Employment.
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Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically using the Grants.gov Apply site (Grants.gov). For information (including dates and times) about how to submit your application electronically, or in paper format by mail delivery if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, please refer to section IV. 7.
We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact the person listed under
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a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM) (formerly the Central Contractor Registry (CCR)), the
c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and
d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.
You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet. A DUNS number can be created within one-to-two business days.
If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.
The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data entered into the SAM database by an entity. Thus, if you think you might want to apply for Federal financial assistance under a program administered by the Department, please allow sufficient time to obtain and register your DUNS number and TIN. We strongly recommend that you register early.
Once your SAM registration is active, you will need to allow 24 to 48 hours for the information to be available in Grants.gov and before you can submit an application through Grants.gov.
If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.
Information about SAM is available at
In addition, if you are submitting your application via Grants.gov, you must: (1) Be designated by your organization as an Authorized Organization Representative (AOR); and (2) register yourself with Grants.gov as an AOR. Details on these steps are outlined at the following Grants.gov Web page:
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Applications for grants under Employer Practices Leading to Successful Employment Outcomes for Individuals with Disabilities, CFDA Number 84.133B-1, must be submitted electronically using the Governmentwide Grants.gov Apply site at
We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement
You may access the electronic grant application for the RRTC on Employer Practices Leading to Successful Employment Outcomes for Individuals with Disabilities competition at
Please note the following:
• When you enter the Grants.gov site, you will find information about submitting an application electronically through the site, as well as the hours of operation.
• Applications received by Grants.gov are date and time stamped. Your application must be fully uploaded and submitted and must be date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system no later than 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. Except as otherwise noted in this section, we will not accept your application if it is received—that is, date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system—after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements. When we retrieve your application from Grants.gov, we will notify you if we are rejecting your application because it was date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date.
• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your Internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through Grants.gov.
• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for submitting an application through Grants.gov that are included in the application package for this competition to ensure that you submit your application in a timely manner to the Grants.gov system. You can also find the Education Submission Procedures pertaining to Grants.gov under News and Events on the Department's G5 system home page at
• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.
• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: The Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a PDF (Portable Document) read-only, non-modifiable format. Do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, non-modifiable PDF or submit a password-protected file, we will not review that material. Additional, detailed information on how to attach files is in the application instructions.
• Your electronic application must comply with any page-limit requirements described in this notice.
• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from Grants.gov an automatic notification of receipt that contains a Grants.gov tracking number. (This notification indicates receipt by Grants.gov only, not receipt by the Department.) The Department then will retrieve your application from Grants.gov and send a second notification to you by email.
• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.
If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the Grants.gov system, we will grant you an extension until 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, the following business day to enable you to transmit your application electronically. You also may mail your application by following the mailing instructions described elsewhere in this notice.
If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under
The extensions to which we refer in this section apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the Grants.gov system. We will not grant you an extension if you failed to fully register to submit your application to Grants.gov before the application deadline date and time or if the technical problem you experienced is unrelated to the Grants.gov system.
• You do not have access to the Internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the Grants.gov system;
• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application.
If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Address and mail or fax your statement to: Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 5142, Potomac Center Plaza (PCP), Washington, DC 20202-2700. FAX: (202) 245-7323.
Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail instructions described in this notice.
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If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: (CFDA Number 84.133B-1) 550 12th Street SW., Room 7041, Potomac Center Plaza, Washington, DC 20202-4260.
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
If your application is postmarked after the application deadline date, we will not consider your application.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office.
If you mail your application to the Department—
(1) You must indicate on the envelope and—if not provided by the Department—in Item 11 of the SF 424 the CFDA number, including suffix letter, if any, of the program under which you are submitting your application; and
(2) The Application Control Center will mail to you a notification of receipt of your grant application. If you do not receive this notification within 15 business days from the application deadline date, you should call the U.S. Department of Education Application Control Center at (202) 245-6288.
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In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living also requires various assurances including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Health and Human Services 45 CFR part 75.
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If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
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We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
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(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living. If you receive a multi-year award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living under 45 CFR part 75. All NIDILRR grantees will submit their annual and final reports through NIDILRR's online reporting system and as designated in the terms and conditions of your NOA. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may also require more frequent performance reports under 45 CFR part 75. For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
(c) FFATA and FSRS Reporting
The Federal Financial Accountability and Transparency Act (FFATA) requires data entry at the FFATA Subaward Reporting System (
For further guidance please see the following link:
If you receive a multi-year award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information. Annual and Final Performance reports will be submitted through NIDILRR's online Performance System and as designated in the terms and conditions of your NOA. At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information.
Note: NIDILRR will provide information by letter to successful grantees on how and when to submit the report.
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• The number of products (
• The average number of publications per award based on NIDILRR-funded research and development activities in refereed journals.
• The percentage of new NIDILRR grants that assess the effectiveness of interventions, programs, and devices using rigorous methods.
NIDILRR uses information submitted by grantees as part of their Annual Performance Reports for these reviews.
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Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 5142, PCP, Washington, DC 20202-2700. Telephone: (202) 245-6211 or by email:
If you use a TDD or a TTY, call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Administration for Community Living, Department of Health and Human Services.
Final priority.
The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living announces a priority for the Rehabilitation Research and Training Center (RRTC) Program administered by the National Institute on Disability,
Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health And Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 5142, Potomac Center Plaza (PCP), Washington, DC 20202-2700. Telephone: (202) 245-6211 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The purpose of the RRTCs, which are funded through the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program, is to achieve the goals of, and improve the effectiveness of, services authorized under the Rehabilitation Act through well-designed research, training, technical assistance, and dissemination activities in important topical areas as specified by NIDILRR. These activities are designed to benefit rehabilitation service providers, individuals with disabilities, family members, policymakers and other research stakeholders. Additional information on the RRTC program can be found at:
29 U.S.C. 762(g) and 764(b)(2)(A).
Applicable Program Regulations: 34 CFR part 350.
We published a notice of proposed priority (NPP) for this program in the
There are no differences between the proposed priority and this final priority.
The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living establishes a priority for an RRTC to conduct research on Employment for Individuals with Blindness or other Visual Impairments. The purpose of the proposed RRTC is to conduct research that generates new knowledge about the efficacy of rehabilitative services and technology used to support improved employment outcomes of individuals with blindness or other visual impairments, including subpopulations that are the focus of this priority.
The RRTC must contribute to improving the employment outcomes of individuals with blindness or other visual impairments by:
(a) Conducting research on the efficacy of rehabilitation services and technology used to enhance employment outcomes of individuals with blindness or other visual impairments. Outcomes must include but are not limited to obtaining employment, retention, promotion, and quality of salary and benefits. The RRTC must focus its research on the target population of individuals with blindness or other visual impairments, including at least one of the following subpopulations of particular concern: (1) Individuals who are deaf-blind; (2) individuals with blindness or low vision related to traumatic brain injury; and (3) transition-age young people with blindness or other visual impairments;
(b) Generating new knowledge about how the outcomes of the services and technologies investigated in paragraph (a) vary with relevant variables such as service type, consumer characteristics, and provider characteristics;
(c) Focusing its research on one or more specific stages of research. If the RRTC is to conduct research that can be categorized under more than one of the research stages, or research that progresses from one stage to another, those stages should be clearly justified. (These stages and their definitions are provided at the end of the background statement section of the notice of proposed priority published in the
(d) Serving as a national resource center related to employment for individuals with blindness or other visual impairments, their families, and other stakeholders by conducting knowledge translation, technical assistance, and training activities;
(e) Disseminating research-based information and materials related to improving the quality of services to individuals with blindness or other visual impairments; and
(f) Involving key stakeholder groups in the activities conducted under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this priority to promote the new knowledge generated by the RRTC.
When inviting applications for a competition using one or more priorities, we designate the type of each priority as absolute, competitive preference, or invitational through a notice in the
This notice does not preclude us from proposing additional priorities, requirements, definitions, or selection criteria, subject to meeting applicable rulemaking requirements.
This notice does
Under Executive Order 12866, the Secretary must determine whether this regulatory action is “significant” and, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Executive order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action likely to result in a rule that may—
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities in a material way (also referred to as an “economically significant” rule);
(2) Create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles stated in the Executive order.
This final regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by OMB under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
We have also reviewed this final regulatory action under Executive Order 13563, which supplements and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, Executive Order 13563 requires that an agency—
(1) Propose or adopt regulations only upon a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify);
(2) Tailor its regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives and taking into account—among other things and to the extent practicable—the costs of cumulative regulations;
(3) In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity);
(4) To the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than the behavior or manner of compliance a regulated entity must adopt; and
(5) Identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including economic incentives—such as user fees or marketable permits—to encourage the desired behavior, or provide information that enables the public to make choices.
Executive Order 13563 also requires an agency “to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB has emphasized that these techniques may include “identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes.”
We are issuing this final priority only on a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs. In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, we selected those approaches that maximize net benefits. Based on the analysis that follows, the Administration for Community Living (ACL), Department of Health and Human Services believes that this regulatory action is consistent with the principles in Executive Order 13563.
We also have determined that this regulatory action does not unduly interfere with State, local, and tribal governments in the exercise of their governmental functions.
In accordance with both Executive orders, ACL assessed the potential costs and benefits, both quantitative and qualitative, of this regulatory action. The potential costs are those resulting from statutory requirements and those we have determined as necessary for administering the ACL's programs and activities.
The benefits of the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program have been well established over the years, as projects similar to the one envisioned by the final priority have been completed successfully, and the proposed priority will generate new knowledge through research. The new RRTC will generate, disseminate, and promote the use of new information that would improve outcomes for individuals with disabilities in the areas of community living and participation, employment, and health and function.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Administration for Community Living, Department of Health and Human Services.
Final priority.
The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living announces a priority for the Rehabilitation Research and Training Center (RRTC) Program administered by the National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research (NIDILRR). Specifically, we announce a priority for an RRTC on Employment Policy and Measurement. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may use this priority for competitions in fiscal year (FY) 2015 and later years. We take this action to focus research attention on an area of national need. We intend for this priority to contribute to improved employment outcomes for individuals with disabilities.
Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 5142, Potomac Center Plaza (PCP), Washington, DC 20202-2700. Telephone: (202) 245-6211 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The purpose of the RRTCs, which are funded through the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program, is to achieve the goals of, and improve the effectiveness of, services authorized under the Rehabilitation Act through well-designed research, training, technical assistance, and dissemination activities in important topical areas as specified by NIDILRR. These activities are designed to benefit rehabilitation service providers, individuals with disabilities, family members, policymakers and other research stakeholders. Additional information on the RRTC program can be found at:
29 U.S.C. 762(g) and 764(b)(2)(A).
We published a notice of proposed priority (NPP) for this program in the
There are no differences between the proposed priority and this final priority.
The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living establishes a priority for an RRTC on Employment Policy and Measurement. The purpose of the proposed RRTC on Employment Policy and Measurement (RRTC-EPM) is to investigate the impact of Federal and State policies and programs on employment of individuals with disabilities, paying particular attention to the effects of program interactions. The RRTC-EPM will also examine new ways of measuring employment outcomes and facilitate the translation of research findings to guide policymaking and program administration. Applicants must identify targeted research questions in response to the problems identified below and propose rigorous research methodologies to answer these questions. Of particular interest is research that investigates the interaction between the Affordable Care Act (ACA), Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI), and employment. The desired outcome of this investment is new knowledge about the effect of new or existing policies on employment-related decision-making of individuals with disabilities, and ultimately on rates and quality of employment by these individuals.
The RRTC must contribute to improving the employment outcomes of individuals with disabilities by:
(a) Generating new knowledge about the effects of program interactions on employment outcomes of individuals with disabilities, including but not necessarily limited to the interaction between Social Security disability benefit programs and the ACA. Specifically, the RRTC must generate new knowledge of the potential impacts of varied policy scenarios regarding the SSDI trust fund exhaustion on the employment and economic outcomes of individuals with disabilities.
(b) Developing reliable and valid methods of measuring employment outcomes for people with disabilities;
(c) Serving as a national resource center on policy issues that impact employment outcomes of individuals with disabilities, and
(d) Increasing incorporation of research findings from the RRTC into practice or policy by:
(1) Collaborating with stakeholder groups to develop, evaluate, or implement strategies to increase utilization of research findings;
(2) Conducting training and dissemination activities to facilitate the utilization of research findings by policymakers, employers, and individuals with disabilities; (3) Providing technical assistance to facilitate use of information produced by the RRTC research; and
(4) Collaborating and sharing information with other agencies across the Federal government. In addition, the RRTC must collaborate with appropriate NIDILRR-funded grantees, including knowledge translation grantees and grantees involved with employment research.
When inviting applications for a competition using one or more priorities, we designate the type of each priority as absolute, competitive preference, or invitational through a notice in the
This notice does not preclude us from proposing additional priorities, requirements, definitions, or selection criteria, subject to meeting applicable rulemaking requirements.
This notice does
Under Executive Order 12866, the Secretary must determine whether this regulatory action is “significant” and, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Executive order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action likely to result in a rule that may—
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities in a material way (also
(2) Create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles stated in the Executive order.
This final regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by OMB under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
We have also reviewed this final regulatory action under Executive Order 13563, which supplements and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, Executive Order 13563 requires that an agency—
(1) Propose or adopt regulations only upon a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify);
(2) Tailor its regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives and taking into account—among other things and to the extent practicable—the costs of cumulative regulations;
(3) In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity);
(4) To the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than the behavior or manner of compliance a regulated entity must adopt; and
(5) Identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including economic incentives—such as user fees or marketable permits—to encourage the desired behavior, or provide information that enables the public to make choices.
Executive Order 13563 also requires an agency “to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB has emphasized that these techniques may include “identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes.”
We are issuing this final priority only on a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs. In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, we selected those approaches that maximize net benefits. Based on the analysis that follows, the Administration for Community Living (ACL), Department of Health and Human Services believes that this regulatory action is consistent with the principles in Executive Order 13563.
We also have determined that this regulatory action does not unduly interfere with State, local, and tribal governments in the exercise of their governmental functions.
In accordance with both Executive orders, ACL assessed the potential costs and benefits, both quantitative and qualitative, of this regulatory action. The potential costs are those resulting from statutory requirements and those we have determined as necessary for administering the ACL's programs and activities.
The benefits of the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program have been well established over the years, as projects similar to the one envisioned by the final priority have been completed successfully, and the proposed priority will generate new knowledge through research. The new RRTC will generate, disseminate, and promote the use of new information that would improve outcomes for individuals with disabilities in the areas of community living and participation, employment, and health and function.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Administration for Community Living, Department of Health and Human Services.
Final priority.
The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living announces a priority for the Rehabilitation Research and Training Center (RRTC) Program administered by the National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research (NIDILRR). Specifically, we announce a priority for an RRTC on Employer Practices Leading to Successful Employment Outcomes for Individuals with Disabilities. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may use this priority for competitions in fiscal year (FY) 2015 and later years. We take this action to focus research attention on an area of national need. We intend for this priority to contribute to improved employment practices and successful employment outcomes for individuals with disabilities.
Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health And Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 5142, Potomac Center Plaza (PCP), Washington, DC 20202-2700. Telephone: (202) 245-6211 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The purpose of the RRTCs, which are funded through the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program, is to achieve the goals of, and improve the effectiveness of, services authorized under the Rehabilitation Act through well-designed research, training, technical assistance, and dissemination activities in important topical areas as specified by NIDILRR. These activities are designed to benefit rehabilitation service providers, individuals with disabilities, family members, policymakers and other research stakeholders. Additional information on the RRTC program can be found at:
29 U.S.C. 762(g) and 764(b)(2)(A).
We published a notice of proposed priority (NPP) for this program in the
There are no differences between the proposed priority and this final priority.
The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living establishes a priority for an RRTC to conduct research on Employer Practices Leading to Successful Employment Outcomes for Individuals with Disabilities.
The purpose of the RRTC is to generate new knowledge about effective employer practices that support successful employment outcomes for individuals with disabilities. The RRTC must contribute to improving the employment outcomes of individuals with disabilities by:
(a) Identifying promising employer practices most strongly associated with desired employment outcomes for individuals with disabilities as well as the prevalence of these practices. Practices should include those related to the hiring, retention, and advancement of individuals with disabilities.
(b) Developing measures of employment outcomes that include hiring, retention, and advancement of individuals with disabilities. These measures must be developed for use by employers and other stakeholders. These measures may also include employment quality, such as, but not limited to, earnings, full- or part-time employment, or opportunities for on-the-job training. In developing these measures, the RRTC must collaborate with the NIDILRR-funded RRTC on Employment Policy and Measurement.
(c) Generating new knowledge of the effectiveness of promising employer practices by identifying or developing, and then implementing and evaluating pilot workplace program(s) based on practices identified in (a). This work should be conducted in employment settings in collaboration with employers, and should include:
(1) Implementation of practices that are particularly likely to be effective in improving employment outcomes for individuals with disabilities;
(2) Implementation of practices among different types of employers (
(3) Collection of data using, but not limited to, outcome measures from (b) above.
(d) Focusing its research on one or more specific stages of research. If the RRTC is to conduct research that can be categorized under more than one of the research stages, or research that progresses from one stage to another, those stages should be clearly justified. (These stages and their definitions are provided at the end of the background statement section of the notice of proposed priority published in the
(e) Serving as a national resource center related to employment for individuals with disabilities, their families, and other stakeholders by conducting knowledge translation activities that include, but are not limited to:
(1) Providing information and technical assistance to employers, employment service providers, employer groups, individuals with disabilities and their representatives, and other key stakeholders;
(2) Providing training, including graduate, pre-service, and in-service training, to employers and employer groups, to facilitate more effective employer practices for individuals with disabilities. This training may be provided through conferences, workshops, public education programs, in-service training programs, and similar activities;
(3) Disseminating research-based information and materials related to increasing employment levels for individuals with disabilities; and
(4) Involving key stakeholder groups in the activities conducted under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this priority to promote the new knowledge generated by the RRTC.
When inviting applications for a competition using one or more priorities, we designate the type of each priority as absolute, competitive preference, or invitational through a notice in the
This notice does not preclude us from proposing additional priorities, requirements, definitions, or selection criteria, subject to meeting applicable rulemaking requirements.
This notice does
Under Executive Order 12866, the Secretary must determine whether this regulatory action is “significant” and, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Executive order and subject to
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities in a material way (also referred to as an “economically significant” rule);
(2) Create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles stated in the Executive order.
This final regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by OMB under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
We have also reviewed this final regulatory action under Executive Order 13563, which supplements and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, Executive Order 13563 requires that an agency—
(1) Propose or adopt regulations only upon a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify);
(2) Tailor its regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives and taking into account—among other things and to the extent practicable—the costs of cumulative regulations;
(3) In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity);
(4) To the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than the behavior or manner of compliance a regulated entity must adopt; and
(5) Identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including economic incentives—such as user fees or marketable permits—to encourage the desired behavior, or provide information that enables the public to make choices.
Executive Order 13563 also requires an agency “to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB has emphasized that these techniques may include “identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes.”
We are issuing this final priority only on a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs. In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, we selected those approaches that maximize net benefits. Based on the analysis that follows, the Administration for Community Living (ACL), Department of Health and Human Services believes that this regulatory action is consistent with the principles in Executive Order 13563.
We also have determined that this regulatory action does not unduly interfere with State, local, and tribal governments in the exercise of their governmental functions.
In accordance with both Executive orders, ACL assessed the potential costs and benefits, both quantitative and qualitative, of this regulatory action. The potential costs are those resulting from statutory requirements and those we have determined as necessary for administering the ACL's programs and activities.
The benefits of the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program have been well established over the years, as projects similar to the one envisioned by the final priority have been completed successfully, and the proposed priority will generate new knowledge through research. The new RRTC will generate, disseminate, and promote the use of new information that would improve outcomes for individuals with disabilities in the areas of community living and participation, employment, and health and function.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Administration for Community Living, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research (NIDILRR)—Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers (RRTC)—Employment Policy and Measurement
Notice inviting applications for new awards for fiscal year (FY) 2015.
On July 22, 2014, President Obama signed the Workforce Innovation Opportunity Act (WIOA). WIOA was effective immediately. One provision of WIOA transferred the National Institute on Disability and Rehabilitation Research (NIDRR) from the Department of Education to the Administration for Community Living (ACL) in the Department of Health and Human Services. In addition, NIDRR's name was changed to the Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research (NIDILRR). For FY 2015, all NIDILRR priority notices will be published as ACL notices, and ACL will make all NIDILRR awards. During this transition period, however, NIDILRR will continue to review grant applications using Department of Education tools. NIDILRR will post previously-approved application kits to grants.gov, and NIDILRR applications submitted to grants.gov will be forwarded to the Department of Education's G-5 system for peer review. We are using Department of Education application kits and peer review systems during this transition year in order to provide for a smooth and orderly process for our applicants.
The purpose of the RRTCs, which are funded through the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program, is to achieve the goals of, and improve the effectiveness of, services authorized under the Rehabilitation Act through well-designed research, training, technical assistance, and dissemination activities in important topical areas as specified by NIDILRR. These activities are designed to benefit rehabilitation service providers, individuals with disabilities, family members, policymakers and other research stakeholders. Additional information on the RRTC program can be found at:
These priorities are:
The full text of this priority is included in the notice of final priorities for the Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers, published in the
The full text of this priority is included in the notice of final priority published elsewhere in this issue of the
29 U.S.C. 762(g) and 764(b)(2).
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2015 and any subsequent year from the list of unfunded applicants from this competition.
We will reject any application that proposes a budget exceeding the Maximum Amount for a single budget period of 12 months. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may change the maximum amount through a notice published in the
The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice.
We will reject any application that proposes a project period exceeding 60 months. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may change the project period through a notice published in the
1.
2.
1.
If you request an application from Patricia Barrett, be sure to identify this competition as follows: CFDA number 84.133B-3.
2.
Each LOI should be limited to a maximum of four pages and include the following information: (1) The title of the proposed project, the name of the applicant, the name of the Project Director or Principal Investigator (PI), and the names of partner institutions and entities; (2) a brief statement of the vision, goals, and objectives of the proposed project and a description of its proposed activities at a sufficient level of detail to allow NIDILRR to select potential peer reviewers; (3) a list of proposed project staff including the Project Director or PI and key personnel; (4) a list of individuals whose selection as a peer reviewer might constitute a conflict of interest due to involvement in proposal development, selection as an advisory board member, co-PI relationships, etc.; and (5) contact information for the Project Director or PI. Submission of a LOI is not a prerequisite for eligibility to submit an application.
NIDILRR will accept the optional LOI via mail (through the U.S. Postal Service
For further information regarding the LOI submission process, contact Patricia Barrett at (202) 245-6211.
Page Limit: The application narrative (Part III of the application) is where you, the applicant, address the selection criteria that reviewers use to evaluate your application. We recommend that you limit Part III to the equivalent of no more than 100 pages, using the following standards:
• A “page” is 8.5″ x 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative. You are not required to double space titles, headings, footnotes, references, and captions, or text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.
The recommended page limit does not apply to Part I, the cover sheet; Part II, the budget section, including the narrative budget justification; Part IV, the assurances and certifications; or the one-page abstract, the resumes, the bibliography, or the letters of support. However, the recommended page limit does apply to all of the application narrative section (Part III).
Please submit an appendix that lists every collaborating organization and individual named in the application, including staff, consultants, contractors, and advisory board members. We will use this information to help us screen for conflicts of interest with our reviewers.
An applicant should consult NIDRR's Long-Range Plan for Fiscal Years 2013-2017 (78 FR 20299) (Plan) when preparing its application. The Plan is organized around the following research domains: (1) Community Living and Participation; (2) Health and Function; and (3) Employment.
3.
Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically using the Grants.gov Apply site (Grants.gov). For information (including dates and times) about how to submit your application electronically, or in paper format by mail delivery if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, please refer to section IV. 7.
We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact the person listed under
4.
5.
6.
a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM) (formerly the Central Contractor Registry (CCR)), the Government's primary registrant database;
c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and
d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.
You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet. A DUNS number can be created within one-to-two business days.
If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.
The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data entered into the SAM database by an entity. Thus, if you think you might want to apply for Federal financial assistance under a program administered by the Department, please allow sufficient time to obtain and register your DUNS number and TIN. We strongly recommend that you register early.
Once your SAM registration is active, you will need to allow 24 to 48 hours for the information to be available in Grants.gov and before you can submit an application through Grants.gov.
If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.
Information about SAM is available at
In addition, if you are submitting your application via Grants.gov, you must: (1) Be designated by your organization as an Authorized Organization Representative (AOR); and (2) register yourself with Grants.gov as an AOR. Details on these steps are outlined at the following Grants.gov Web page:
7.
a.
Applications for grants under Employment Policy and Measurement, CFDA Number 84.133B-3, must be submitted electronically using the Governmentwide Grants.gov Apply site at
We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement
You may access the electronic grant application for the RRTC on Employment Policy and Measurement competition at
Please note the following:
• When you enter the Grants.gov site, you will find information about submitting an application electronically through the site, as well as the hours of operation.
• Applications received by Grants.gov are date and time stamped. Your application must be fully uploaded and submitted and must be date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system no later than 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. Except as otherwise noted in this section, we will not accept your application if it is received—that is, date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system—after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements. When we retrieve your application from Grants.gov, we will notify you if we are rejecting your application because it was date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date.
• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your Internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through Grants.gov.
• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for submitting an application through Grants.gov that are included in the application package for this competition to ensure that you submit your application in a timely manner to the Grants.gov system. You can also find the Education Submission Procedures pertaining to Grants.gov under News and Events on the Department's G5 system home page at
• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.
• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: the Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a PDF (Portable Document) read-only, non-modifiable format. Do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, non-modifiable PDF or submit a password-protected file, we will not review that material. Additional, detailed information on how to attach files is in the application instructions.
• Your electronic application must comply with any page-limit requirements described in this notice.
• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from Grants.gov an automatic notification of receipt that contains a Grants.gov tracking number. (This notification indicates receipt by Grants.gov only, not receipt by the Department.) The Department then will retrieve your application from Grants.gov and send a second notification to you by email. This second notification indicates that the Department has received your application and has assigned your application a PR/Award number (an ED-specified identifying number unique to your application).
• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.
If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the Grants.gov system, we will grant you an extension until 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, the following business day to enable you to transmit your application electronically. You also may mail your application by following the mailing instructions described elsewhere in this notice.
If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under
The extensions to which we refer in this section apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the Grants.gov system. We will not grant you an extension if you failed to fully register to submit your application to Grants.gov before the application deadline date and time or if the technical problem you experienced is unrelated to the Grants.gov system.
• You do not have access to the Internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the Grants.gov system;
• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application.
If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Address and mail or fax your statement to: Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., room 5142, Potomac Center Plaza (PCP), Washington, DC 20202-2700. FAX: (202) 245-7323.
Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail instructions described in this notice.
b.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: (CFDA Number 84.133B-3) 550 12th Street SW. Room 7041, Potomac Center Plaza Washington, DC 20202-4260.
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
If your application is postmarked after the application deadline date, we will not consider your application.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office.
If you mail your application to the Department—
(1) You must indicate on the envelope and—if not provided by the Department—in Item 11 of the SF 424 the CFDA number, including suffix letter, if any, of the program under which you are submitting your application; and
(2) The Application Control Center will mail to you a notification of receipt of your grant application. If you do not receive this notification within 15 business days from the application deadline date, you should call the U.S. Department of Education Application Control Center at (202) 245-6288.
1.
2.
In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living also requires various assurances including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Health and Human Services 45 CFR part 75.
3.
1.
If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
2.
We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
3.
(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living. If you receive a multi-year award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living under 45 CFR part 75. All NIDILRR grantees will submit their annual and final reports through NIDILRR's online reporting system and as designated in the terms and conditions of your NOA. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may also require more frequent performance reports under 45 CFR part 75. For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
(c) FFATA and FSRS Reporting
The Federal Financial Accountability and Transparency Act (FFATA) requires data entry at the FFATA Subaward Reporting System (
For further guidance please see the following link:
If you receive a multi-year award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information. Annual and Final Performance reports will be submitted through NIDILRR's online Performance System and as designated in the terms and conditions of your NOA. At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information.
NIDILRR will provide information by letter to successful grantees on how and when to submit the report.
4.
• The number of products (
• The average number of publications per award based on NIDILRR-funded research and development activities in refereed journals.
• The percentage of new NIDILRR grants that assess the effectiveness of interventions, programs, and devices using rigorous methods.
NIDILRR uses information submitted by grantees as part of their Annual Performance Reports for these reviews.
5.
Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., room 5142, PCP, Washington, DC 20202-2700. Telephone: (202) 245-6211 or by email:
If you use a TDD or a TTY, call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Administration for Community Living, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research (NIDILRR)—Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers (RRTC)—Employment for Individuals with Blindness or other Visual Impairments.
Notice inviting applications for new awards for fiscal year (FY) 2015.
On July 22, 2014, President Obama signed the Workforce Innovation Opportunity Act (WIOA). WIOA was effective immediately. One provision of WIOA transferred the National Institute on Disability and Rehabilitation Research (NIDRR) from the Department of Education to the Administration for Community Living (ACL) in the Department of Health and Human Services. In addition, NIDRR's name was changed to the Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research (NIDILRR). For FY 2015, all NIDILRR priority notices will be published as ACL notices, and ACL will make all NIDILRR awards. During this transition period, however, NIDILRR will continue to review grant applications using Department of Education tools. NIDILRR will post previously-approved application kits to grants.gov, and NIDILRR applications submitted to grants.gov will be forwarded to the Department of Education's G-5 system for peer review. We are using Department of Education application kits and peer review systems during this transition year in order to provide for a smooth and orderly process for our applicants.
Date of Pre-Application Meeting: May 11, 2015.
Deadline for Notice of Intent to Apply: May 26, 2015.
Deadline for Transmittal of Applications: June 19, 2015.
The purpose of the RRTCs, which are funded through the Disability and Rehabilitation Research Projects and Centers Program, is to achieve the goals
These priorities are:
The full text of this priority is included in the notice of final priorities for the Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers, published in the
The full text of this priority is included in the notice of final priority published elsewhere in this issue of the
29 U.S.C. 762(g) and 764(b)(2).
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2015 and any subsequent year from the list of unfunded applicants from this competition.
We will reject any application that proposes a budget exceeding the Maximum Amount for a single budget period of 12 months. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may change the maximum amount through a notice published in the
The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice.
We will reject any application that proposes a project period exceeding 60 months. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may change the project period through a notice published in the
1.
2.
1.
If you request an application from Patricia Barrett, be sure to identify this competition as follows: CFDA number 84.133B-5.
2.
Notice of Intent to Apply: Due to the open nature of the RRTC priority announced here, and to assist with the selection of reviewers for this competition, NIDILRR is requesting all potential applicants submit a letter of intent (LOI). The submission is not mandatory and the content of the LOI will not be peer reviewed or otherwise used to rate an applicant's application.
Each LOI should be limited to a maximum of four pages and include the following information: (1) The title of the proposed project, the name of the applicant, the name of the Project Director or Principal Investigator (PI), and the names of partner institutions and entities; (2) a brief statement of the vision, goals, and objectives of the proposed project and a description of its proposed activities at a sufficient level of detail to allow NIDILRR to select potential peer reviewers; (3) a list of proposed project staff including the Project Director or PI and key personnel; (4) a list of individuals whose selection as a peer reviewer might constitute a conflict of interest due to involvement in proposal development, selection as an advisory board member, co-PI relationships, etc.; and (5) contact information for the Project Director or PI. Submission of a LOI is not a prerequisite for eligibility to submit an application.
NIDILRR will accept the optional LOI via mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or commercial carrier) or email, by May 26, 2015. The LOI must be sent to: Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 550 12th Street, SW., room 5142, PCP, Washington, DC 20202; or by email to:
For further information regarding the LOI submission process, contact Patricia Barrett at (202) 245-6211.
Page Limit: The application narrative (Part III of the application) is where you, the applicant, address the selection criteria that reviewers use to evaluate your application. We recommend that you limit Part III to the equivalent of no more than 100 pages, using the following standards:
• A “page” is 8.5″ x 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative. You are not required to double space titles, headings, footnotes, references, and captions, or text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.
The recommended page limit does not apply to Part I, the cover sheet; Part II, the budget section, including the narrative budget justification; Part IV, the assurances and certifications; or the one-page abstract, the resumes, the bibliography, or the letters of support. However, the recommended page limit does apply to all of the application narrative section (Part III).
Please submit an appendix that lists every collaborating organization and individual named in the application, including staff, consultants, contractors, and advisory board members. We will use this information to help us screen for conflicts of interest with our reviewers.
An applicant should consult NIDRR's Long-Range Plan for Fiscal Years 2013-2017 (78 FR 20299) (Plan) when preparing its application. The Plan is organized around the following research domains: (1) Community Living and Participation; (2) Health and Function; and (3) Employment.
3.
Applications Available: April 20, 2015.
Date of Pre-Application Meeting: Interested parties are invited to participate in a pre-application meeting and to receive information and technical assistance through individual consultation with NIDILRR staff. The pre-application meeting will be held on May 11, 2015. Interested parties may participate in this meeting by conference call with NIDILRR staff from the Administration for Community Living between 1:00 p.m. and 3:00 p.m., Washington, DC time. NIDILRR staff also will be available from 3:30 p.m. to 4:30 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the same day, by telephone, to provide information and technical assistance through individual consultation. For further information or to make arrangements to participate in the meeting via conference call or to arrange for an individual consultation, contact the person listed under
Deadline for Notice of Intent to Apply: May 26, 2015.
Deadline for Transmittal of Applications: June 19, 2015.
Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically using the Grants.gov Apply site (Grants.gov). For information (including dates and times) about how to submit your application electronically, or in paper format by mail delivery if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, please refer to section IV. 7.
We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact the person listed under
4.
5.
6.
a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM) (formerly the Central Contractor Registry (CCR)), the Government's primary registrant database;
c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and
d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.
You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet. A DUNS number can be created within one-to-two business days.
If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.
The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data entered into the SAM database by an entity. Thus, if you think you might want to apply for Federal financial assistance under a program administered by the Department, please allow sufficient time to obtain and register your DUNS number and TIN. We strongly recommend that you register early.
Once your SAM registration is active, you will need to allow 24 to 48 hours for the information to be available in Grants.gov and before you can submit an application through Grants.gov.
If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.
Information about SAM is available at
In addition, if you are submitting your application via Grants.gov, you must: (1) Be designated by your organization as an Authorized Organization Representative (AOR); and (2) register yourself with Grants.gov as an AOR. Details on these steps are outlined at the following Grants.gov Web page:
7.
a.
Applications for grants under Employment for Individuals with Blindness or other Visual Impairments, CFDA Number 84.133B-5, must be submitted electronically using the Governmentwide Grants.gov Apply site at
We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement
You may access the electronic grant application for the RRTC on Employment for Individuals with Blindness or other Visual Impairments competition at
Please note the following:
• When you enter the Grants.gov site, you will find information about submitting an application electronically through the site, as well as the hours of operation.
• Applications received by Grants.gov are date and time stamped. Your application must be fully uploaded and submitted and must be date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system no later than 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. Except as otherwise noted in this section, we will not accept your application if it is received—that is, date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system—after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date. We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements. When we retrieve your application from Grants.gov, we will notify you if we are rejecting your application because it was date and time stamped by the Grants.gov system after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date.
• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your Internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through Grants.gov.
• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for submitting an application through Grants.gov that are included in the application package for this competition to ensure that you submit your application in a timely manner to the Grants.gov system. You can also find the Education Submission Procedures pertaining to Grants.gov under News and Events on the Department's G5 system home page at
• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.
• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: the Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a PDF (Portable Document) read-only, non-modifiable format. Do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, non-modifiable PDF or submit a password-protected file, we will not review that material. Additional, detailed information on how to attach files is in the application instructions.
• Your electronic application must comply with any page-limit requirements described in this notice.
• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from Grants.gov an automatic notification of receipt that contains a Grants.gov tracking number. (This notification indicates receipt by Grants.gov only, not receipt by the Department.) The Department then will retrieve your application from Grants.gov and send a second notification to you by email. This second notification indicates that the Department has received your application and has assigned your application a PR/Award number (an ED-specified identifying number unique to your application).
• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.
If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the Grants.gov system, we will grant you an extension until 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, the following business day to enable you to transmit your application electronically. You also may mail your application by following the mailing instructions described elsewhere in this notice.
If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under
The extensions to which we refer in this section apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the Grants.gov system. We will not grant you an extension if you failed to fully register to submit your application to Grants.gov before the application deadline date and time or if the technical problem you experienced is unrelated to the Grants.gov system.
• You do not have access to the Internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the Grants.gov system;
• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application.
If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Address and mail or fax your statement to: Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., room 5142, Potomac Center Plaza (PCP), Washington, DC 20202-2700. FAX: (202) 245-7323.
Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail instructions described in this notice.
b.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: (CFDA Number 84.133B-5), 550 12th Street, SW., Room 7041, Potomac Center Plaza, Washington, DC 20202-4260.
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
If your application is postmarked after the application deadline date, we will not consider your application.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office.
(1) You must indicate on the envelope and—if not provided by the Department—in Item 11 of the SF 424 the CFDA number, including suffix letter, if any, of the program under which you are submitting your application; and
(2) The Application Control Center will mail to you a notification of receipt of your grant application. If you do not receive this notification within 15 business days from the application deadline date, you should call the U.S. Department of Education Application Control Center at (202) 245-6288.
1.
2.
In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living also requires various assurances including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Health and Human Services 45 CFR part 75.
3.
1.
If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
2.
We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
3.
(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living. If you receive a multi-year award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living under 45 CFR part 75. All NIDILRR grantees will submit their annual and final reports through NIDILRR's online reporting system and as designated in the terms and conditions of your NOA. The Administrator of the Administration for Community Living may also require more frequent performance reports under 45 CFR part 75. For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
(c) FFATA and FSRS Reporting
The Federal Financial Accountability and Transparency Act (FFATA) requires data entry at the FFATA Subaward Reporting System (
For further guidance please see the following link:
If you receive a multi-year award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information. Annual and Final Performance reports will be submitted through NIDILRR's online Performance System and as designated in the terms and conditions of your NOA. At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information.
Note: NIDILRR will provide information by letter to successful grantees on how and when to submit the report.
4.
• The number of products (
• The average number of publications per award based on NIDILRR-funded research and development activities in refereed journals.
• The percentage of new NIDILRR grants that assess the effectiveness of interventions, programs, and devices using rigorous methods.
NIDILRR uses information submitted by grantees as part of their Annual Performance Reports for these reviews.
5.
Patricia Barrett, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., room 5142, PCP, Washington, DC 20202-2700. Telephone: (202) 245-6211 or by email:
If you use a TDD or a TTY, call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) is announcing the availability of a CDRH electronic submissions Pilot Program database to house labeling for home use devices. Participation in the pilot is open to applicants who label their device(s) for home use. Participation in the pilot project is voluntary. Participants will be asked to navigate through the electronic submissions system and practice submitting labels and package inserts. The pilot project is intended to provide industry and CDRH staff the opportunity to evaluate the submissions process and system and to receive comments from industry participants.
FDA will accept applications for participation in the voluntary electronic submissions CDRH Home Use Device Labeling Pilot Program from May 1, 2015, through May 31, 2015. See the “Participation” section for instructions on how to submit a request to participate. The pilot project will occur July 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015.
Mary Weick-Brady, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66 Rm. 5426, Silver Spring MD 20993, 301-796-6089,
CDRH is responsible for ensuring that medical devices are safe and effective when used for their intended purpose. Risks are inherent in all CDRH-regulated medical devices, and the Center plays a critical role in preventing injuries and deaths related to product use. CDRH minimizes risk through regulation, enforcement, and education. Risk minimization is accomplished, in part, through clear communication on the benefits and risks of the medical devices regulated by the Center, including communications by CDRH, product manufacturers, and product distributors. These communications include medical device labeling produced by manufacturers and distributors.
Medical device labeling provides safety information, instructions for use, and/or other necessary information to the user. This labeling can be essential for home-use devices, which are much more likely to be used by lay users, who frequently have not been trained to use such medical devices and who are especially reliant on the instructions for use and other information provided by the device label and package insert. When used in an environment where a healthcare professional is not available to provide supervision and assistance, these devices can present unique concerns and challenges. When a home-use device is used over a period of years, it becomes increasingly more likely that it may be separated from its original labeling or that its original labeling will not include current safety information or instructions for use. In contrast with use in professional healthcare settings, a patient or caregiver using a home-use device in a setting without professional oversight may not have extensive experience in the use of a device and may not have ready access to the original packaging or to alternative sources of information about a device.
Home-use devices have significant public health importance to patients, caregivers, and healthcare professionals. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that users are able to access necessary information for use, including safety information and instructions for use. Although many manufacturers have Internet sites that provide information concerning the devices they currently market, those sites typically focus on newer products and often do not provide any information on devices that they no longer actively market. Web sites also vary considerably in the types of information provided and may lack important details concerning their devices. Although some manufacturers'
CDRH is developing an electronic submissions database, accessible to the public through FDA's Web site, of labels and package inserts for listed home-use devices. This database would fill an important gap in the information available to patients, caregivers, and the healthcare community concerning home-use devices. The database would allow both broad searches to identify legally marketed home-use devices that may fill a particular need and focused searches to obtain information concerning the use of a specific home-use device.
This electronic submissions database will be evaluated for usability through the CDRH Home Use Device Labeling Pilot Project. This pilot project will proceed for 6 months. Participation in the pilot is open to applicants who label their device(s) for home use. Participants will be asked to navigate through the electronic submissions system and practice submitting labels and package inserts. The pilot project is intended to provide industry and CDRH staff the opportunity to evaluate the submissions process and system and to receive comments from industry participants. Comments received during the pilot project will be used to evaluate the usability of the database. FDA will not review the content of any labeling submitted to the pilot database for a regulatory purpose. The submitted labeling and the database will only be available to pilot participants.
Volunteers interested in participating in the pilot project should contact pilot staff by email at
By following a series of prompts and instructions, pilot participants will submit a PDF version of their device labeling to the pilot database. The content of the submissions will not be reviewed by FDA for any regulatory purpose, nor will the pilot database be available to the public during this pilot project. During the pilot, CDRH staff will be available to answer any questions or concerns that may arise. Pilot project participants will be asked to comment on and discuss their experiences with the pilot submissions process. Their comments and discussions will assist CDRH in its development of this electronic submissions database.
FDA intends to accept requests for participation in the Home Use Device Labeling Pilot from May 1, 2015, through May 31, 2015. The pilot will proceed for 6 months, from July 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015. This pilot program may be extended as resources and needs allow.
This notice refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR parts 801 and 809 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Interested persons may submit electronic comments regarding the Home Use Device Labeling Pilot to
Office of the Secretary, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Health and Human Services, has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. The ICR is for renewal of the approved information collection assigned OMB control number 0990-0392, scheduled to expire on May 31, 2015. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public on this ICR during the review and approval period.
Comments on the ICR must be received on or before May 20, 2015.
Submit your comments to
Information Collection Clearance staff,
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the OMB control number 0990-0392 and document identifier HHS-OS0990-0392-30D for reference.
The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The ICR is for extending the use of the approved information collection assigned OMB control number 0990-0260, which expires on April 30, 2015. Prior to submitting that ICR to OMB, OS seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on the ICR must be received on or before May 20, 2015.
Submit your comments to
Information Collection Clearance staff,
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the document identifier 0990-0260 for reference.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Announcement of the quota quantity of tuna in airtight containers for Calendar Year 2015.
Each year, the tariff-rate quota for tuna described in subheading
Headquarters Quota Branch, Interagency Collaboration Division, Trade Policy and Programs, Office of International Trade, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Washington, DC 20229-1155, (202) 863-6560.
It has been determined that 15,954,733 kilograms of tuna in airtight containers may be entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the Calendar Year 2015, at the rate of 6.0 percent
Transportation Security Administration, DHS.
30-day notice.
This notice announces that the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has forwarded the Information Collection Request (ICR), Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number 1652-0034, abstracted below to OMB for review and approval of an extension of the currently approved collection under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and its expected burden. TSA published a
Send your comments by May 20, 2015. A comment to OMB is most effective if OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB. Comments should be addressed to Desk Officer, Department of Homeland Security/TSA, and sent via electronic mail to
Christina A. Walsh, TSA PRA Officer, Office of Information Technology (OIT), TSA-11, Transportation Security Administration, 601 South 12th Street, Arlington, VA 20598-6011; telephone (571) 227-2062; email
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Office of the Secretary, HUD.
Notice of delegations of authority.
This notice updates, clarifies, and consolidates delegations of authority from the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development to the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development and the General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development.
Effective upon date of signature.
David H. Enzel, Director, Office of Technical Assistance and Management, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 7228, Washington, DC 20410-7000; telephone number 202-402-5557. (This is not a toll-free number.) For those needing assistance, this number may be accessed through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service number at 1-800-877-8339.
This notice updates, clarifies, and consolidates into one notice the authority delegated by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development to the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development and the General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development. This notice supersedes all previous delegations to the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, including the delegation published on May 30, 2012. The two existing redelegations of authority published on June 29, 2012 remain in effect.
Only the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development is delegated the authority to issue a final regulation or a Notice of Funding Availability (NOFA). The authority delegated herein to the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, and the General Deputy Assistant Secretary includes the authority to waive regulations and statutes, but for the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary and the General Deputy Assistant Secretary the authority to waive statutes is limited in Section B below.
Except as provided in Section B, the Secretary of HUD delegates to the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development and the General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development the authority of the Secretary with respect to the programs and matters listed below:
1. The AIDS Housing Opportunity Act, Title VIII, Subtitle D of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, Pub. L. 101-625, 104 Stat. 4079 (1990) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 12901-12912); 24 CFR part 574.
2. The Base Closure Community Redevelopment and Homeless Assistance Act of 1994, Pub. L. 103-421, 108 Stat. 4346 (codified as amended at 10 U.S.C. 2687 note); 24 CFR part 586.
3. Capacity Building for Community Development and Affordability Housing grants, Section 4 of the HUD Demonstration Act of 1993, Pub. L. 103-120, 107 Stat. 1148 (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 9816 note).
4. Comprehensive Housing Affordability Strategies (CHAS), Title I of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, Pub. L. 101-625, 104 Stat. 4079 (1990) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 12701
5. Economic Development Initiative grants, as provide for in annual HUD appropriations acts (
6. Urban Empowerment Zones (EZ), as authorized under Title 26, subtitle A, chapter 1, subchapter U of the Internal Revenue Code (codified as amended at 26 U.S.C. 1391
7. The HOME Investment Partnerships Act, Title II of the Cranston-Gonzalez, National Affordable Housing Act, Pub. L. 101-625, 104 Stat. 4079 (1990) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 12721
8. The Loan Guarantee Recovery Fund under Section 4 of the Church Arson Prevention Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-155, 110 Stat. 1392 (codified at 18 U.S.C. 241 note); 224 CFR part 573.
9. Neighborhood Initiatives grants specifically designed in annual HUD appropriations acts (
10. The Homelessness Prevention and Rapid Re-Housing Program (HPRP), as authorized under the Homelessness Prevention Fund heading of Division A, Title XII of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, Pub. L. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115.
11. The Housing Trust Fund (HTF), Section 1338 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, added by Section 1131 of Pub. L. 110-289, 112 Stat. 2654 (codified at 12 U.S.C. 4568); 24 CFR part 93.
12. Rural Innovation Fund grants as provided for in annual HUD appropriations acts (
13. The Tax Credit Assistance Program (TCAP), as authorized under the HOME Investments Partnerships Program heading of Division A, Title XII of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, Pub. L. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115, 220-21.
14. The Self-Help Housing Opportunity Program (SHOP) under section 11 of the Housing Opportunity Program Extension Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-120, 110 Stat. 834 (codified at 42 U.S.C. 12805 note).
15. Technical Assistance and Capacity Building awards authorized under any program or matter delegated under Section A (
16. Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-383, 88 Stat. 633 (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 5301
a. The Community Development Block Grant (CDBG) program;
b. The Section 108 loan guarantee program;
c. Economic development grants pursuant to Section 108(q);
d. Neighborhood Stabilization programs under the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Pub. L. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2850; Title XII of Division A of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, Pub. L. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115; and Section 1497 of the Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 5301 note);
e. CDBG Disaster Recovery Grants as provided for in annual and supplemental HUD appropriations acts; and
f. Appalachian Regional Commission grants pursuant to Section 214 of the Appalachian Regional Development Act of 1965, Pub. L. 89-4, 79 Stat. 5 (codified as amended at 40 U.S.C. 14507) and consistent with the CDBG program authorized under Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-393, 88 Stat. 633 (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 5301
17. Title IV of the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, Pub. L. 100-77, 101 Stat. 482 (1987) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 5301
a. The Emergency Shelter Grants/Emergency Solutions Grants program, 24 CFR 576;
b. The Supportive Housing Program, 24 CFR part 583;
c. The Shelter Plus Care Program, 24 CFR part 582;
d. The Moderate Rehabilitation for Single Room Occupancy program 24 CFR part 882, subpart H;
e. The Continuum of Care program, 24 CFR part 578; and
f. The Rural Housing Stability Assistance program.
18. Title V of the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, Pub. L. 100-77, 101 Stat. 482 (1987) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 1411
19. The Veterans Homelessness Prevention Demonstration program as provided for in annual HUD appropriations acts (
20. Overall departmental responsibility for compliance with the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, Pub. L. 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894 (1971) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 4601
21. Overall departmental responsibility for compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, Pub. L. 91-190, 83 Stat. 852 (1970) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 4321-4347), and the related laws and authorities cited in 24 CFR 50.4, including (with regard to the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development) the authority to issue and to waive, or approve exceptions or establish criteria for exceptions from provisions of 24 CFR parts 50, 51, 55, and 58.
22. Certain Office of Community Planning and Development Programs that are no longer authorized for funding (or future funding is not anticipated), but whose administration must continue until all departmental responsibilities are discharged and finally terminated. These programs include the following:
a. The Slum Clearance and Urban Renewal program under Title I of the Housing Act of 1949, Pub. L. 81-171, 63 Stat. 413 and any program which is superseded by, or inactive by reason of Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-383, 88 Stat. 633 (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 5316);
b. Area-wide grants, inequities grants, disaster grants and the authority to concur in final approval actions regarding innovative grants under Section 107 of Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-383, 88 Stat. 633 (repealed 1981);
c. Urban Development Action grants under Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-383, 88 Stat. 633. (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 5318);
d. The Rental Rehabilitation Program, United States Housing Act of 1937, § 17, Pub. L. 98-181, 97 Stat. 1196;
e. The Section 312 Rehabilitation Loan Program, Housing Act of 1964, § 312 Pub. L. 88-560, 78 Stat. 769 (codified at 42 U.S.C. 1452(b)); 24 CFR part 510;
f. The Urban Homesteading Program, Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 § 810, Pub. L. 93-383, 88 Stat. 633 (repealed 1990);
g. Enterprise Zone Program under Title VII of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1987, Pub. L. 100-242, 100 Stat. 1815 (1988) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 11501
h. Grant for Urban Empowerment Zones (EZ) as provided for in annual HUD appropriations acts (
i. HUD's Homeownership Zone initiative (HOZ) grants as provided for in Section 205 of the Department of Veterans Affairs and Housing and Urban Development, and Independent Agencies Appropriations Act, 1997, Pub. L. 104-204, 110 Stat. 2874 (1996) and funded with recaptured Nehemiah grants authorized under Title VI of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1987, Pub. L. 100-242, 101 Stat. 1815 (1988) (codified at 12 U.S.C. 1715l note);
j. The Innovative Homeless Initiatives Demonstration program under the HUD Demonstration Act of 1993, Pub. L. 103-120, 107 Stat. 1144;
k. The HOPE for Homeownership of Single-family Housing (HOPE 3) program, Title IV, Subtitle C of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, Pub. L. 101-625, 104 Stat. 4079 (1990) (codified at 42 U.S.C. 12891);
l. New Communities Program, Section 413 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968, Pub. L. 90-448, 82 Stat. 476 (repealed 1983), Section 726 of the Housing and Urban -Rural Recovery Act of 1983, Pub. L. 91-609 (repealed 1983), 84 Stat. 1784, Section 474 of the Housing and Urban-Rural Act of 1983, Public Law 98-181, 97 Stat. 1237 (codified at 12 U.S.C. 1710g-5b), and any other functions, powers, and duties that may affect the liquidation of the New Communities program;
m. Rural Housing and Economic Development grants specifically designed originally in the Fiscal Year 1998 HUD Appropriations Act, Pub. L. 105-65, 111 Stat. 1344 and subsequent annual HUD appropriations acts;
n. Renewal Communities (RC), as authorized under Title 26, subtitle A, chapter 1, subchapter X of the Internal Revenue Code (codified as amended at 26 U.S.C. 1400E
o. Youthbuild Program, Title IV, Subtitle D of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, Pub. L. 101-625, 104 Stat. 4079 (1990) (repealed 2006); 24 CFR part 585; and Youthbuild Transfer Act (TA) as authorized under Title IV of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, as amended by the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Pub. L. 102-550, 106 Stat. 3723 (1992) (repealed 2006); and
p. All programs consolidated in the Revolving Fund (Liquidating Programs) established pursuant to Title II of the Independent Offices Appropriations Act, Pub. L. 98-45, 97 Stat. 223 (1983) (codified as amended at 12 U.S.C. 1701g-5), including all authority of the Secretary with respect to functions, administration, and management of the Revolving Fund (Liquidating Programs).
23. Suspensions, and/or limited denial of participations under 2 CFR part 2424 with the concurrence of the General Counsel, or such other official as may be designed by the General Counsel.
There is excepted from the authority delegated under Section A:
1. The power to sue and be sued;
2. Under Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-383, 88 Stat. 633 (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 5301
a. The power to administer the Indian Community Development Block Grant program, for which the authority has been delegated to the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing;
b. The power to administer section 107 programs delegated to the Assistant Secretary for Policy Development and Research;
c. The power to issue obligations for purchase by the Secretary of the Treasury under section 108(g) of the Housing and Community Development Act (42 U.S.C. 5308); and
d. The power and authority of the Secretary with respect to
3. Under the HOME Investment Partnerships Act, Title II of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, Public Law 101-625, 104 Stat. 4079 (1990) (codified as amended at 42 U.S.C. 12721
4. For programs noted in Section A.22 of this delegation that are no longer authorized for funding;
a. The power to establish interest rates; and
b. The power to issue notes or obligations for purchase by the Secretary of the Treasury.
5. The authority delegated under Section A to the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary and General Deputy Assistant Secretary does not include the authority to waive the following statutes:
a. The authority under annual and supplemental HUD appropriations acts providing Community Development Block Grant funding for disaster recovery (
b. The authority under section 215(a)(6) of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 12745) to waive qualifying rents; and
c. The authority under section 858(b) of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 12906) to waive requirements for short-term supported housing and services.
The Assistant Secretary, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary and the General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development are authorized to redelegate to employees of the Department any authority delegated under Section A. Redelegated authority to
CPD Director, Assistant Secretaries or other CPD program officials does not supersede the authority of the Assistant Secretary as designee of the Secretary. The two existing redelegations published on June 29, 2012 at 77 FR 38851 and 77 FR 38853 remain in effect.
This notice supersedes all prior delegations of authority from the Secretary to the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, including the delegation published on May 30, 2012 at 77 FR 31972.
Section 7(d) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act, 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
Office of the Secretary, HUD.
Notice of Order of Succession.
In this notice, the Secretary designates the Order of Succession for the Office of Housing. This Order of Succession supersedes all prior orders of succession for the Assistant Secretary for Housing—FHA Commissioner, including the Order of Succession published on January 3, 2013.
Effective upon date of signature.
Laura M. Marin, Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 9106, Washington, DC 20410; telephone number 202-708-2601. (This is not a toll-free number.) Persons with hearing or speech impairments may call HUD's toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339.
The Secretary of Housing and Urban Development is issuing this Order of Succession of officials authorized to perform the functions and duties of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—FHA Commissioner when the Assistant Secretary—FHA Commissioner is not available to exercise the powers or perform the duties of the office. This publication supersedes all prior orders of succession for the Office of Housing, including the Order of Succession notice published on January 3, 2013.
During any period, when the Assistant Secretary for Housing—FHA Commissioner is not available to exercise the powers or perform the duties of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—FHA Commissioner, the following officials within the Office of Housing are hereby designed to exercise the powers and perform the duties of the Office, including the authority to waive regulations:
(1) Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing;
(2) General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing;
(3) Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing;
(4) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Single Family Housing;
(5) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Multifamily Housing;
(6) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Risk Management and Regulatory Affairs;
(7) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing Counseling;
(8) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Finance and Budget;
(9) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Operations;
(10) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Healthcare Programs.
These officials shall perform the functions and duties of the office in the order specified herein, and no official shall serve unless all other officials whose positions precede his/hers in this order are unable to act by reason of absence, disability, or vacancy in office.
This Order of Succession supersedes all prior orders of succession for the Assistant Secretary for Housing—FHA Commissioner, including the one published on January 3, 2013 at 78 FR 316.
Section 7(d), Department of Housing and Urban Development Act, 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
Office of the Chief Procurement Officer, HUD.
Notice.
This notice advises of the availability to the public of service contracts awarded by HUD in Fiscal Year (FY) 2013.
Lisa D. Maguire, Assistant Chief
In accordance with section 743 of Division C of the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-117, approved December 16, 2009, 123 Stat. 3034, at 123 Stat. 3216), HUD is publishing this notice to advise the public of service contract inventories that were awarded in FY 2013. The inventories are organized by function and are reviewed by HUD to better understand how contracted services are used to support HUD's primary mission, to insure HUD maintains an adequate workforce for operations and to research whether contractors were performing inherently governmental functions.
The inventory was developed in accordance with guidance issued on November 5, 2010, by the Office of Management and Budget's Office Federal Procurement Policy (OFPP). OFPP's guidance is available at
HUD has posted its inventory and a summary of the inventory on the Department of Housing and Urban Development's homepage at the following link:
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice of Intent to Prepare an EIS.
This provides notice that the State of New York, as the “Responsible Entity,” as that term is defined by 24 CFR 58.2(a)(7)(i), intends to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) that will evaluate alternatives for increasing coastal and social resiliency along the Tottenville shoreline on the South Shore of Staten Island and help to avoid or minimize adverse impacts to the quality of the human environment (“Proposed Actions”). The State of New York is the Grantee of Community Development Block Grant Disaster Recovery (CDBG-DR) funds appropriated by the Disaster Relief Appropriations Act, 2013 (Pub. L. 113-2, approved January 29, 2013) related to disaster relief, long-term recovery, restoration of infrastructure and housing, and economic revitalization in the most impacted and distressed areas resulting from a major disaster declared pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act of 1974 (Stafford Act) in calendar years 2011, 2012, and 2013. The Governor's Office of Storm Recovery (GOSR) implements the State's obligations under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) through duly authorized Certifying Officers. GOSR was formed under the auspices of the New York State Homes and Community Renewal's Housing Trust Fund Corporation (HTFC), a public benefit corporation and subsidiary of the New York State Housing Finance Agency.
The EIS will satisfy the requirements of NEPA and the State Environmental Quality Review Act (SEQRA). This notice is in accordance with the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations at 40 CFR parts 1500-1508 and HUD regulations at 24 CFR part 58. Following a public scoping process, a Draft EIS will be prepared for the proposed actions described herein. Comments relating to the Draft Scope of Work for the EIS are requested and will be accepted by the contact person listed below. When the Draft EIS is completed, a notice will be sent to appropriate government agencies, individuals and groups known to have an interest in the Draft EIS and particularly in the environmental impact issues identified therein. Any person or agency interested in receiving notice and commenting on the Draft Scope of Work or Draft EIS should contact the person listed below no later than May 15, 2015. HUD has provided for assumption of its NEPA authority and responsibilities to New York State, as Responsible Entity, for the purposes of administering the Community Development Block Grant Disaster Recovery Program in New York State.
Daniel Greene, Deputy General Counsel and Certifying Officer, Governor's Office of Storm Recovery, 25 Beaver Street, 5th Floor, New York, NY 10004; email:
The State of New York, acting through GOSR, and acting under authority of HUD's regulations at 24 CFR part 58, and in cooperation with other cooperating, involved, and interested agencies, will prepare an EIS to analyze potential impacts of certain alternatives to enhance coastal and social resiliency on the South Shore of Staten Island. The EIS will seek to avoid or minimize adverse impacts to the quality of the human environment.
Staten Island is exposed to extreme wave action and coastal flooding during hurricane and nor'easter events due to its location at the mouth of the New York Bight, which funnels and increases the intensity of storm surge into New York Harbor, Raritan Bay, and the shoreline of Staten Island. The South Shore of Staten Island is particularly vulnerable to more continual and gradual coastal erosion and land loss. The overarching goal of the initiative is to reduce risk and coastal erosion along the shoreline in Tottenville by implementing strategies that would primarily address wave action, impacts of coastal flooding, and event-based (
As described above, the South Shore of Staten Island is vulnerable to coastal erosion and land loss. Consistent with the New York City's Coastal Protection Initiatives and planning studies for the Tottenville area, the goal of the Proposed Actions is to reduce risk and coastal erosion along the shoreline in Tottenville, while enhancing ecosystems and shoreline accessibility and use.
Specifically, the goals and objectives related to the Proposed Actions' purpose and need are listed below:
• Attenuate wave energy.
• Address both event-based and long-term shoreline erosion/preserve beach width.
• Address the impacts of coastal flooding.
• Increasing diversity of aquatic habitats consistent with the Hudson-Raritan Estuary plan priorities (
• Foster community education on coastal resiliency directly tied to and building off the structural components of this resiliency initiative.
• Increase physical and visual access to the water's edge.
• Enhance community stewardship of on-shore and in-water ecosystems.
• Increase access to recreational opportunities.
The EIS will discuss all of the alternatives that have been considered for analysis, identify those that have been eliminated from further consideration because they do not meet the stated purpose and need, and identify those that will be analyzed further. At this time, it is anticipated that the following alternatives will be analyzed:
The No Action alternative assumes that no new structural risk reduction projects will be implemented in the project area and existing trends of dune replenishment would continue. This alternative also assumes that current trends with respect to coastal conditions at Tottenville—
The Layered Strategy is the State's preferred alternative and it consists of the implementation of two individual projects that, if integrated as one initiative, may provide a better overall coastal projection and promote social resilience. These projects were developed through separate, but related, planning initiatives arising out of the Hurricane Sandy recovery efforts. If implemented together, the projects would be planned and designed as a single, integrated coastal resiliency strategy for this area. By providing two layers of coastal protection, these components, as further described below, will improve current shoreline erosion conditions, serve to further reduce wave action, provide for ecological enhancement and promote social resiliency. The individual components of the Layered Strategy are discussed below.
New York State has been allocated $60 million of CDGB-DR program funds toward a total estimated project cost of $74 million to implement the below described project along the Tottenville shoreline of the South Shore of Staten Island.
One of the key components of the Layered Strategy is the Breakwaters Project, an ecologically enhanced breakwater system that would reduce wave energy at the shoreline and prevent shoreline erosion. The proposed location of the breakwaters is expected to curtail shoreline erosion, which would support on-going efforts to replenish the protective beaches along the shore. The proposed breakwaters would span an approximately 13,000 linear foot stretch off the Tottenville shoreline of Staten Island and would be located and designed to optimize wave height reduction and reduce coastal erosion. Final siting considerations would include maximizing reductions in wave heights and shoreline erosion, avoiding or minimizing habitat displacement and navigational impacts, and identifying favorable geotechnical conditions.
The proposed breakwater system would increase habitat diversity through the establishment of structural habitat, which is currently limited within Raritan Bay. The breakwaters would likely provide a combination of exposed, intertidal and subtidal reef habitat, and through the incorporation of “reef streets” (pockets of complexity within the structure) would further increase habitat diversity within Raritan Bay by providing shelter for juvenile fish, and increasing biological recruitment of filter-feeding organisms such as mussels and oysters, furthering opportunities for shellfish restoration within Raritan Bay. The breakwaters would also protect the proposed on-shore dune system described below. The draft operation and maintenance plan for the proposed breakwater system will be described in the EIS.
With the goal of promoting social resiliency, a proposed community Water Hub would provide a place for access to the waterfront, orientation, education, information, restoration, gathering and equipment storage. In particular, the
The Water Hub would potentially be located on the waterfront within or near Conference House Park, although alternate locations will be considered during the EIS process. Siting considerations would include access to existing infrastructure, Coastal Erosion Hazard Area (CEHA) sensitivity, coastal construction permitting, archaeological sensitivity, proximity to the breakwater system, proximity to local schools and public transportation, and neighborhood traffic patterns and parking. The draft operation and maintenance plan for the proposed Water Hub will be described in the EIS.
The Breakwaters Project would also include several on-shore and near-shore landscape elements in the area of the Water Hub, including living shorelines (high and low marsh), oyster revetments, maritime forest and dune plantings.
New York State proposes to use approximately $6,350,000 of HUD CDBG-DR program funds to implement the below-described dune system with plantings along the Tottenville shoreline from approximately Brighton Street to Joline Avenue. The Dune Project is intended to protect against coastal flooding and wave action, complementing the Breakwaters Project and furthering the goal of risk reduction in Tottenville.
The Tottenville Dune Project is proposed as a hardened dune system that would consist of constructed dunes having a stone core with a sand cap, and is the primary shoreline component of the layered approach to risk reduction in Tottenville. Once constructed, the dunes would be planted with appropriate vegetation, which through root growth, will serve to stabilize the dunes to withstand wind and water erosion while promoting enlargement of the dunes by accretion.
The proposed dune system would be located along the Tottenville shoreline from approximately Brighton Street to Joline Avenue. Temporary dunes, constructed by the New York City Department of Parks and Recreation (NYCDPR) as interim protective measures post-Sandy, are currently in place from approximately Brighton Street to Sprague Avenue. These temporary dunes would be replaced with the larger, hardened dune system. New dunes would also be constructed from Sprague Avenue to Joline Avenue. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) accessible access points to the beach would also be constructed along the new dune system and would be considered and designed in tandem with the Water Hub and living shoreline project components. Designing the dunes in conjunction with the breakwaters may enable design modifications of the dunes (such as, reduced height) that would enhance the need for shoreline accessibility. The draft operation and maintenance plan for the proposed dune system will be described in the EIS.
This alternative will evaluate conditions with the proposed breakwaters in place (including the on-shore community Water Hub and landscape elements), but without a proposed long-term dune system between Brighton Avenue and Joline Avenue.
This alternative will evaluate conditions with the proposed long-term dune system in place, but without the proposed breakwaters, Water Hub, or on-shore landscape elements.
Other alternatives may be developed in consultation with the United States Army Corp of Engineers, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration—National Marine Fisheries Service, the United States Environmental Protection Agency, the New York State Department of State, New York State Department of Environmental Conservation, New York City Department of Parks and Recreation and other involved agencies during the EIS preparation process, as well as in response to suggestions made by project stakeholders and the general public during the EIS scoping process. Notably, GOSR intends for the alternatives analysis to fulfill the requirements for a permit under Section 404 of the Clean Water Act. These may include non-structural coastal resilience strategies, but only to the extent that they meet the purposes and need for both enhanced shoreline protection and increased social resiliency. The alternatives may also include coastal resiliency strategies proposed by other governmental stakeholders, to the extent that these strategies are made available to GOSR during development of the Draft EIS. Additionally, alternatives may also include alternate designs or sizes of both the dune and breakwaters.
The actions proposed herein may constitute an action significantly affecting the quality of the environment and an EIS will be prepared on this project in accordance with NEPA. Responses to this notice will be used to: (1) Determine significant environmental issues, (2) assist in developing a range of alternatives to be considered, (3) identify issues that the EIS should address, and (4) identify agencies and other parties that will participate in the EIS process and the basis for their involvement.
A public EIS scoping meeting will be held on April 30, 2015 from 7:00 to 9:00 p.m. at CYO-MIV Community Center, 6541 Hylan Blvd., Staten Island, NY 10309. The public meeting site will be accessible to the mobility-impaired. Interpreter services will be available for the hearing or visually impaired upon advance request. The EIS scoping meetings will provide an opportunity for the public to learn more about the Proposed Actions and provide input to the environmental process. At the meetings, an overview of the Proposed Actions, including the preferred Layered Strategy alternative, will be presented and members of the public will be invited to comment on the scope of work for the environmental analyses in the EIS. Written comments and testimony concerning the scope of the EIS will be accepted at these meetings. In accordance with 40 CFR 1501.7; affected Federal, State, and local agencies, any affected Indian tribes, and other interested parties will be sent a scoping notice. In accordance with 24 CFR 58.59, the scoping meetings will be preceded by a notice of public meeting published in the local news media at least 15 days before the hearing date.
The following subject areas will be analyzed in the combined EIS for probable environmental effects: Land Use, Zoning, and Public Policy; Socioeconomic Conditions; Environmental Justice; Cultural Resources; Visual Character; Shadows; Natural Resources; Water and Sewer Infrastructure; Transportation; Air Quality; Greenhouse Gases and Climate Change; Noise; Construction; Public Health; Neighborhood Character; and Cumulative Effects.
Questions may be directed to the individual named in this notice under the heading
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Policy Development and Research, HUD.
Notice.
The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2015 requires that HUD apply “an inflation factor as established by the Secretary, by notice published in the
Effective Date: April 20, 2015.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on potential improvements to HUD's per unit cost (PUC) forecasting model to the Office of the General Counsel, Rules Docket Clerk, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0001. Communications should refer to the above docket number and title and should contain the information specified in the “Request for Comments” section. There are two methods for submitting public comments.
To receive consideration as public comments, comments must be submitted through one of the two methods specified above. Again, all submissions must refer to the docket number and title of the notice.
Miguel A. Fontanez, Director, Housing Voucher Financial Division, Office of Public Housing and Voucher Programs, Office of Public and Indian Housing, telephone number 202-402-4212; or Peter B. Kahn, Director, Economic and Market Analysis Division, Office of Policy Development and Research, telephone number 202-402-2409, for technical information regarding the development of the schedules for specific areas or the methods used for calculating the inflation factors, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410. Hearing- or speech-impaired persons may contact the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339 (TTY). (Other than the “800” TTY number, the above-listed telephone numbers are not toll free.)
Tables showing Renewal Funding Inflation Factors will be available electronically from the HUD data information page at:
Division K, Title II, Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act, 2015 requires that the HUD Secretary, for the calendar year 2015 funding cycle, provide renewal funding for each public housing agency (PHA) based on validated voucher management system (VMS) leasing and cost data for the prior calendar year and by applying an inflation factor as established by the Secretary, by notice published in the
The Department has focused on measuring the change in average PUC as captured in HUD's administrative data in VMS. In order to predict the likely path of PUC over time, HUD has implemented a model that uses three economic indices that capture key components of the economic climate and assist in explaining the changes in PUC. These economic components are the seasonally-adjusted unemployment rate (lagged twelve months), the Consumer Price Index from the Bureau of Labor Statistics, and the “wages and salaries” component of personal income from the National Income and Product Accounts from the Bureau of Economic Analysis. This model subsequently forecasts the expected annual change in average PUC from Calendar Year (CY) 2014 to CY 2015 for the voucher program on a national basis by incorporating comparable economic variables from the Administration's
Using the Per Unit Cost forecasting model, HUD forecasts average PUC to decrease slightly in 2015. The PUC forecast for 2015 uses VMS data and actual performance of economic indices through December of 2014. With no increases in PUCs predicted for 2015, the Renewal Funding Inflation Factor for each area will be 1.0.
Typically, the inflation factors have been developed to account for relative differences in the PUC of vouchers so that HCV funds can be allocated among PHAs. However, since the current forecast is for the PUC to decline in 2015, HUD has set all areas to have an inflation factor of 1.0, which is consistent with the statutory requirements governing the Annual Adjustment Factor.
Inflation factors based on PUC forecasts are produced for all FMR areas. The tables showing the Renewal Funding Inflation Factors available electronically from the HUD data information page list the inflation factors for each FMR area and are created on a state by state basis. The inflation factors use the same OMB metropolitan area definitions, as revised by HUD, that are used in the FY 2015 FMRs. To make certain that they are referencing the correct inflation factors, PHAs should refer to the Area Definitions Table on the following Web page:
HUD has forecasted the decline in national PUC for 2015 to be −0.79 percent. While more analysis is necessary, HUD is concerned that the current model used to predict the amount of per unit cost, when interacted with voucher program appropriations decisions, may have inadvertently locked in PHA cost reduction behaviors used to cope with funding reductions under sequestration in 2013.
Rather than terminate assistance from families participating in the program, PHAs often respond to reduced funding by not reissuing vouchers when families leave the program. However there is a strong incentive for PHAs to reduce spending in the voucher program by means other than reducing the number of families served because PHA administrative fees are based on the number of vouchers under lease. These policies have the effect of reducing the (average) subsidy cost of vouchers, and as a result, reduce a family's ability to rent in higher rent markets and higher opportunity areas. These policies, while necessary to handle the budget constraints, may also be viewed as reducing the effectiveness of vouchers in meeting the goals of the program.
One of the primary tools PHAs use in administering the voucher program is through setting payment standards. Payment standards, rather than Fair Market Rents (FMR), form the basis of the subsidy (the lower of the payment standard or gross rent less the total tenant payment—typically 30 percent of adjusted household income) since a tenant selecting a unit with a gross rent higher than the payment standard must make up the additional rent to the owner. When payment standards decrease relative to FMR, the selection of units available to tenants decreases and higher opportunity neighborhoods with generally higher rents may no longer be available for tenants. A reduction of payment standards relative to FMRs is likely to cause gross rents to grow more slowly than FMRs as tenants choose units available within the payment standard.
Other tools PHAs may use to reduce subsidy cost include policies that encourage more earnings among tenants or by approving more cases of tenants paying more than 30 percent of adjusted income toward rent.
Thus, the model's projections for PUC may not accurately forecast the true cost of maintaining a voucher program when there is a significant external event. As stated in prior notices, HUD may update the methodology for future funding estimates to improve the forecasting model, if necessary. HUD is also continuing to review and refine the methodology, especially for area differences in the factors, which will be described in future inflation factor notices. One option the Department is considering is to create a “constant quality” PUC forecast that addresses reduced payment standards and increases in tenant contributions as a way to account for outside disruptions such as sequestration. The Department welcomes comments on other ways to calculate the Renewal Funding Inflation Factor for the Housing Choice Voucher program for 2016 and beyond.
This notice involves a statutorily required establishment of a rate or cost determination which does not constitute a development decision affecting the physical condition of specific project areas or building sites. Accordingly, under 24 CFR 50.19(c)(6), this notice is categorically excluded from environmental review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321).
Office of the Secretary, HUD.
Notice of Order of Succession for the Office of Community Planning and Development.
In this notice, the Secretary of HUD designates the Order of Succession for the Office of Community Planning and Development. This Order of Succession supersedes all prior Orders of Succession for the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, including the Order of Succession published on May 30, 2012.
Effective upon date of signature.
David H. Enzel, Director, Office of Technical Assistance and Management, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 7228, Washington, DC 20410-7000; telephone number 202-402-5557. (This is not a toll-free number.) This number may be accessed via TTY by call the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 (this is a toll-free number).
The Secretary of HUD is issuing this Order of Succession of officials authorized to perform the functions and duties of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development when the Assistant Secretary is not available to exercise the powers or perform the duties of the office. This publication supersedes all prior orders of succession for the Office of
During any period when the Assistant Secretary is not available to exercise the powers or perform the duties of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development the following officials within the Office of Community Planning and Development are hereby designated to exercise the powers and perform the duties of the Office, including the authority to waive regulations:
(1) Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development;
(2) General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development;
(3) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Grant Programs;
(4) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Special Needs Programs;
(5) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Operations;
(6) Deputy Assistant Secretary for Economic Development.
These officials shall perform the functions and duties of the office in the order specified herein, and no official shall serve unless all the other officials, whose positions precede his/hers in this order, are unable to act by reason of absence, disability, or vacancy in office.
This Order of Succession supersedes all prior orders of succession for the Office of Community Planning and Development, including the one published at 77 FR 31974 on May 30, 2012.
Section 7(d), Department of Housing and Urban Development Act, 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
Office of the Secretary, HUD.
Notice of revocation and delegation of authority.
Section 7(d) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) Act, as amended, authorizes the Secretary to delegate functions, powers and duties as the Secretary deems necessary. In this delegation of authority, the Secretary delegates authority to the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing, the General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing and the Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing, for the administration of certain Office of Housing programs. This delegation revokes and supersedes all prior delegations of authority, including the delegation published on June 20, 2012.
Effective upon date of signature.
Laura M. Marin, Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 9106, Washington, DC 20410; telephone number 202-708-2601. (This is not a toll-free number.) Persons with hearing or speech impairments may call HUD's toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339.
This notice supersedes the prior consolidated delegation of authority dated June 20, 2012. First, authority previously delegated to the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner (Assistant Secretary) and General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing—Deputy Federal Housing Commissioner (General Deputy Assistant Secretary), with regard to regulation of government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs) under the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4501
Nevertheless, HUD may be responsible for certain actions undertaken prior to the transfer date but not completed, or for other residual duties after the transfer of regulatory functions. As a result, this notice contains delegations of authority under the statutes cited above. Finally, the general delegation below includes the position of the Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing.
Unless otherwise stated, the Assistant Secretary, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary, the General Deputy Assistant Secretary and the Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing are each delegated the power and authority of the Secretary of HUD with respect to all housing programs and functions, including, but not limited to, those listed below in Sections B through F, with authority to redelegate to officials of the Department, unless otherwise specified. Only the Assistant Secretary for Housing is delegated the authority to issue a final regulation or a Notice of Funding Availability (NOFA). The authority delegated herein to the Assistant Secretary, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary and General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing includes the authority to waive regulations and statutes.
The authority of the Secretary of HUD with respect of Office of Housing's multifamily housing, healthcare, and certain other programs and functions that are authorized under the following:
(1) Titles I, II, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, and XI of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1701
(2) Section 202 of the Housing Act of 1959, as such section existed prior to
(3) Section 202 of the Housing Act of 1959 (12 U.S.C. 1701q), as amended by Subtitle A of Title VIII of the National Affordable Housing Act of 1990, with respect to the provision of capital advances and rental housing assistance for supportive housing for the elderly, as amended by Subtitle C of the American Homeownership and Economic Opportunity Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-561);
(4) The Supportive Housing for Elderly Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-372);
(5) Section 101 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965 (12 U.S.C. 1701s); with respect to the Rent Supplement program for disadvantaged persons, including the authority to administer contracts and requirements for rent supplements;
(6) Section 8 Housing assistance under the United States Housing Act of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1437
(7) Section 808 of the National Affordable Housing Act (Pub. L. 101-625), and sections 671, 672, 674, 676, and 677 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 13631), with respect to the provision of service coordinators in federally assisted housing;
(8) Sections 201, 202, 203, and 204 of the Housing and Community Development Amendments of 1978, and amendment contained in Title I of the Multifamily Housing Property Disposition Reform Act of 1994 (Pub. L. 103-233, 12 U.S.C. 1701 note);
(9) The Housing Development Grant Program, pursuant to Section 17 of the United States Housing Act of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1437o);
(10) Section 4(d) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3533), which provides the Assistant Secretary is the Assistant to the Secretary who shall be responsible for providing information and advice to nonprofit organizations desiring to sponsor housing projects assisted under programs administered by the Department;
(11) The authority of the Secretary under the Revolving Fund for Liquidating Programs (12 U.S.C. 1701q) to manage, repair, lease, and otherwise take all actions necessary to protect the financial interest of the Secretary in properties as to which the Secretary is mortgagee-in-possession; and to manage, repair, complete, remodel and convert, administer, dispose of, lease, sell, or exchange for cash or credit at public or private sale; and to pay annual sums in lieu of taxes on, obtain insurance against loss on, and otherwise deal with properties as to which the Secretary has acquired title based on a loan made under the former Section 312 Rehabilitation Loan Program;
(12) The function of the Secretary under Section 7(i)(3) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(i)(3)), concerning the sale, exchanges, or lease of real or personal property and the sale or exchange of securities or obligations with respect to any multifamily project;
(13) Title IV of the Housing and Community Development Amendments of 1978 (42 U.S.C. 8001
(14) The authority to endorse any checks or drafts in payment of insurance losses on which the United States of America, acting by and through the Secretary or the Secretary's successors or assigns, is a payee (joint or otherwise) in connection with the disposition of the government's interest in property or lease of such property;
(15) Section 2 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 3701-3717);
(16) The Multifamily Mortgage Foreclosure Act of 1981 (12 U.S.C. 3701-3717);
(17) The authority to act as an Attesting Officer with authorization to cause the seal of the Department of Housing and Urban Development to be affixed to such documents as may require its application and to certify that a copy of any book, record, paper, microfilm, electronic document, or any other document is a true copy of that in the files of the Department;
(18) The Congregate Housing Services Program under Section 802 of the National Affordable Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 8011);
(19) The HOPE for Homeownership of Multifamily Units Program under Title IV, Subtitle B, of the National Affordable Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 12701, 12871);
(20) The Multifamily Risk Sharing Programs pursuant to Section 542 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992 (Pub. L. 102-550, October 28, 1992);
(21) Title II of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1987 (12 U.S.C. 1715 note), and the Emergency Low-Income and Housing Preservation Act of 1987 (ELIHPA), as each is amended by Subtitle A of Title VI of the National Affordable Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 4101
(22) Section 811 of Subtitle B of Title VIII of the National Affordable Housing Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 8013), with respect to the provision of capital advances and rental housing assistance for supportive housing for persons with disabilities as amended by Subsection C of Title VIII of the American Homeownership and Economic Opportunity Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 111-374);
(23) Section 581 of the National Affordable Housing Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-625) and Chapter 2, Subtitle C of Title V of the Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 1190
(24) The Portfolio Reengineering Demonstration Program authorized under Sections 211 and 212 of the Departments of Veterans Affairs and Housing and Urban Development, and Independent Agencies Appropriations Act, 1997 (Pub. L. 104-204, 110 Stat. 2874, approved September 26, 1997), as reauthorized and amended by Section 522(b) of the Departments of Veterans Affairs and Housing and Urban Development, and Independent Agencies Appropriations Act, 1998 (Pub. L. 105-65, 111 Stat. 1344, 1446, approved October 27, 1997) (42 U.S.C. 1437f note); all provisions of the Mark-to-Market Extensions Act of 2001 (Title VI of Pub. L. 107-116); and all provisions of the Multifamily Assisted Housing Reform and Affordability Act (MAHRA) (42 U.S.C. 1437f note);
(25) The authority to take actions necessary to ensure that participants in HUD programs under the jurisdiction of the Assistant Secretary for Housing comply with the regulations, rules, and procedures of the Department including, but not limited to, imposing limited denials of participation;
(26) The Rental Assistance Program authorized by Section 236 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1715z-1);
(27) The Rural Health Care Capital Access Act of 2006 (Pub. L. 109-240);
(28) The Preservation Approval Process Improvement Act of 2007 (Pub. L. 110-35);
(29) The FHA Loan Limit Adjustment Act of 2003, as contained in Section 302 of Public Law 108-186;
(30) Sections 2832, 2834, and 2835(b) of Title VIII, Subtitle B, of the Housing
(31) The management and disposition of HUD-owned multifamily projects and HUD-held mortgages and the provision of grants and loans, as provided under Section 204(a) of the Departments of Veterans Affairs and Housing and Urban Development, and Independent Agencies Appropriations Act, 1997 (Pub. L. 104-204) (12 U.S.C. 1715z-11a);
(32) Section 3 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1701u);
(33) The authority to foreclose mortgages, sell foreclosed properties, and modify terms of contract pursuant to Section 7(i) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act;
(34) The authority to establish fees and charges pursuant to Section 7(j) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(j));
(35) The authority to accept voluntary services pursuant to Section 7(k) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(k));
(36) The authority to carry out the provisions of the Legacy Act of 2003 (Pub. L. 108-186);
(37) The authority to appoint a Special Assistant for Cooperative Housing pursuant to section 102(h) of the Housing Amendments of 1955 (12 U.S.C. 1715e note); and
(38) The Self-Help Housing Property Disposition Program authorized under the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949, as amended by Public Housing 105-50, approved October 6, 1997 (40 U.S.C. 550(f)).
The authority of the Secretary of HUD with respect to the Office of Housing's single family housing and certain programs, including regulatory programs, and functions, and the authority with respect to mortgagee activities (including Title I lenders) for single family programs that are authorized under the following:
(1) Title I, II, V, VI, VIII and IX of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1701
(2) The HOPE for Homeowners Act of 2008, as contained in Division A, Title IV, of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-289), as amended by section 202 of the Helping Families Save their Homes Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 111-22);
(3) Section 203 of the Helping Families Save their Homes Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 111-22);
(4) The authority to sell, exchange, or lease real or personal property and to sell or exchange securities of obligation with respect to any single-family property pursuant to Section 7(i)(3) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act;
(5) The authority to endorse any checks or drafts in payment of insurance losses on which the United States of America, acting by and through the Secretary or his/her successors or assigns, is a payee (joint or otherwise), in connection with the disposition of the government's interest in property or lease of such property;
(6) The authority of the Secretary under the Revolving Fund for Liquidating Programs (12 U.S.C. 1701q) to manage, repair, lease, and otherwise take all actions necessary to protect the financial interest of the Secretary in mortgagee-in-possession and to manage, repair, complete, remodel and convert, administer, dispose of, lease, sell, or exchange for cash or credit at public or private sale, pay annual sums in lieu of taxes on, obtain insurance against loss on, and otherwise deal with properties as to which the Secretary has acquired title based on a loan under the former Section 312 Rehabilitation Loan Program;
(7) The Nehemiah Housing Opportunity grant program in Sections 609-614 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1987 (12 U.S.C. 1715e);
(8) The authority to take actions necessary to ensure that participants in HUD programs comply with regulations, rules, and procedures of the Department including, but not limited to, imposing limited denials of participation;
(9) The authority to foreclose mortgages, sell foreclosed properties, and modify terms of contract pursuant to Section 7(i) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act;
(10) The authority to establish fees and charges pursuant to Section 7(j) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(j));
(11) The authority to accept voluntary services pursuant to Section 7(k) of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(k)); and
(12) The authority to implement and administer the Emergency Homeowners' Loan Program with the Emergency Homeowners' Relief Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2701
The authority of the Secretary of HUD with respect to the Office of Housing Counseling and certain programs, including regulatory programs, and functions, and the authority with respect to Housing Counseling approval and certification activities that are authorized under the following:
(1) The authority to carry out sections 1451(a) and (b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010; and
(2) Section 106 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1701x).
(1) The authority to provide financial management for programs administered by the Assistant Secretary;
(2) The authority to formulate and develop financial management and internal control policies; to oversee compliance by the Office of Housing and Federal Housing Administration (FHA) with OMB Circulars A-123 (Management and Accountability Control), A-127 (Financial Management Systems), and A-130 (Federal Information Resources) as they apply to Housing and FHA financial and program operations; establish and supervise the development and execution of uniform Office of Housing and FHA policies, principles, and procedures necessary for financial management; to issue directions and implement these policies and modifications to existing products;
(3) The authority to maintain the FHA General Ledger and the chart of accounts of the FHA funds;
(4) The authority to establish and maintain appropriate financial management controls over Office of Housing and FHA programs; to provide technical guidance to organizational elements under the Assistant Secretary in the field of accounting and fiscal matters; to track Office of Housing and FHA financial activities against budget and business plan; to coordinate the development and maintenance of integrated financial management systems needed for accounting and management of housing and FHA programs;
(5) The authority to prepare reports; to report to the Assistant Secretary, other offices, the Department's Chief Financial Officer, and HUD regional and field staff on the financial condition of FHA mortgage insurance programs; to publish and annual FHA report reflecting prior year accomplishments and the audited financial statements; and to prepare internal reports on the financial condition of Office of Housing and FHA programs;
(6) The authority to develop and maintain integrated financial management systems, and to direct studies and audits of the accounting and financial information and systems functions;
(7) The authority to prepare and execute policies and systems to measure the financial and actuarial soundness of Office of Housing and FHA programs; and to ensure the conduct of an independent annual audit of the FHA program financial statements;
(8) The authority to obtain reports, information, advice, and assistance in carrying out assigned functions; and to develop financial management information to assist in developing budget, financial, accounting, and cost-accounting information on a timely basis;
(9) The authority to direct the investment of money held in the various Office of Housing/FHA insurance funds that is not needed for current operations, in bonds or other obligations of the United States, or in bonds or other obligations whose principal interest is guaranteed by the United States; and
(10) The authority to borrow funds from the Department of the Treasury to facilitate credit reform programs.
(1) To establish, impose, and maintain all appropriate risk management policies, activities, and controls for programs carried out by the Assistant Secretary, including analyzing the risk management and evaluation functions, performing front-end risk assessments prior to implementation of programs, and implementing the regulatory requirement contained in section 941(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 relating to risk retention regulations;
(2) The Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act, Title XIV of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 (15 U.S.C. 1701
(3) The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2601
(4) The Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008, as contained in Division A, Title V, of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-289), and proscribed by sections 1062, 1063, and 1064 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-203);
(5) All matters and requirements of the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974 and Title VI of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5401-5426).
Authority excepted from this delegation of authority from the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development to the Assistant Secretary, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary, the General Deputy Assistant Secretary and the Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing is the authority to sue and be sued.
In accordance with a written redelegation of authority, the Assistant Secretary, the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary, the General Deputy Assistant Secretary and the Associate General Deputy Assistant Secretary for Housing may further redelegate specific authority. Redelegated authority to Housing Deputy Assistant Secretaries or other ranking Housing officials does not supersede the authority of the Assistant Secretary as designee of the Secretary. The redelegations published in 77 FR 37237, 77 FR 37240, 77 FR 37241, 77 FR 37248, 77 FR 37250, 77 FR 37252 and the redelegation published on January 3, 2013 at 78 FR 317 remain in effect, including amendments thereto.
The previous delegations of authority from the Secretary of HUD to the Assistant Secretary for Housing are hereby revoked and superseded by this delegation of authority, including the previous delegation of authority for Housing published on June 20, 2012 at 77 FR 37234.
The execution of any instrument or document, which purports to relinquish or transfer the Secretary's right to, title to, or interest in, real or personal property, by an employee of the Department of Housing and Urban Development or other official or officials to whom the Secretary's authority under section 204(g) of the National Housing Act is delegated under this notice shall be conclusive evidence of the authority of such employee to act for the Secretary in executing such instrument or document.
Section 7(d), Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(d)).
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service) have sent an Information Collection Request (ICR) to OMB for review and approval. We summarize the ICR below and describe the nature of the collection and the estimated burden and cost. This information collection is scheduled to expire on May 31, 2015. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. However, under OMB regulations, we may continue to conduct or sponsor this information collection while it is pending at OMB.
You must submit comments on or before May 20, 2015.
Send your comments and suggestions on this information collection to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior at OMB-OIRA at (202) 395-5806 (fax) or
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Hope Grey at
• Monitor the quality of services provided by commercial guides.
• Gauge client satisfaction with the services.
• Assess the impacts of the activity on refuge resources.
The client is the best source of information on the quality of commercial guiding services. We collect:
• Client name.
• Guide name(s).
• Type of guided activity.
• Dates and location of guided activity.
• Information on the services received such as the client's expectations, safety, environmental impacts, and client's overall satisfaction.
We encourage respondents to provide any additional comments that they wish regarding the guide service or refuge experience, and ask whether or not they wish to be contacted for additional information.
The above information, in combination with State-required guide activity reports and contacts with guides and clients in the field, provides a comprehensive method for monitoring permitted commercial guide activities. A regular program of client evaluation helps refuge managers detect potential problems with guide services so that we can take corrective actions promptly. In addition, we use this information during the competitive selection process for big game and sport fishing guide permits to evaluate an applicant's ability to provide a quality guiding service.
We again invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask OMB in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that it will be done.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Public Land Order.
This order revokes in its entirety the withdrawal established by an Executive Order as to 168.05 acres of public land on Thunder Bay Island in Lake Huron withdrawn from all forms of appropriation under the public land laws and reserved for use by the United States Coast Guard for lighthouse purposes. The reservation is no longer needed. This order returns administrative jurisdiction to the Bureau of Land Management and opens the land to the operation of the public land laws, subject to valid existing rights and other segregations of record.
Carol Grundman, Realty Specialist, Bureau of Land Management, Northeastern States Field Office, 626 East Wisconsin Avenue, Suite 200, Milwaukee, Wisconsin 53202, 414-297-4447. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 to contact the above individual. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
The United States Coast Guard has determined that the reservation for the Thunder Bay Island Light Station is no longer needed and has requested the revocation. The United States Coast Guard has requested a right of access to operate and maintain their aid to navigation. The land has been and will remain open to mineral leasing. Michigan is not subject to the 1872 Mining Law.
By virtue of the authority vested in the Secretary of the Interior by Section 204 of the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, 43 U.S.C. 1714, it is ordered as follows:
1. The withdrawal established by Executive Order dated August 24, 1842, which reserved the following described
The area described contains 168.05 acres in Alpena County.
2. At 9 a.m. on May 20, 2015, subject to valid existing rights, the provisions of existing withdrawals, other segregations of record, and the requirements of applicable law, the land described in Paragraph 1 shall be opened to the operation of the public land laws generally, but not the United States mining laws since Michigan is not subject to the 1872 Mining Law. All valid applications received at or prior to 9 a.m. on May 20, 2015, shall be considered as simultaneously filed at that time. Those received thereafter shall be considered in the order of filing.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of availability.
In accordance with the Wilderness Act of 1964 and the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act of 1968, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) has signed a Decision Record implementing the Final Owyhee Canyonlands Wilderness and Wild & Scenic Rivers Management Plan (Plan), and by this notice is announcing its availability.
Any party adversely affected will have 30 days from the date of publication of this notice in the
An electronic version of the Plan may be found online at:
John Sullivan, Wilderness Project Lead, telephone 208-384-3300; address BLM Boise District Office, 3948 Development Avenue, Boise, ID 83705; email
This notice is published in conformance with Sec. 1274(d)(1) of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act of 1968 (16 U.S.C. 1271-1287). The Owyhee Canyonlands Wilderness and Wild & Scenic Rivers Management Plan establishes the framework for managing approximately 517,000 acres of wilderness and 325 miles of wild and scenic rivers in Owyhee County, southwestern Idaho. The Plan provides direction for actions, land use guidelines and restrictions designed to preserve wilderness character and protect and enhance river values, as mandated by the Wilderness Act (16 U.S.C. 1133(b)) and the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1281(a)). The Plan identifies conditions and opportunities that will be managed for at least the next 10 years, or as changes in wilderness character, wild and scenic river values, and/or resource conditions require.
Areas managed by the Plan include: The Big Jacks Creek, Little Jacks Creek, Bruneau-Jarbidge Rivers, North Fork Owyhee, Owyhee River, Pole Creek Wilderness Areas, and the 16 wild and scenic river segments that flow through them.
Public scoping meetings were held in 2011 to inform the public of the regulations and policies associated with wilderness and wild and scenic river management. The BLM solicited input during these meetings, and for several weeks thereafter, concerning wilderness and wild and scenic river-related issues and concerns, as well as the development of alternatives and management actions proposed for the Plan.
The BLM considered and, where appropriate, incorporated public and internal staff comments on the Draft Plan into the Final Plan. Comments resulted in additional clarifying text, as well as refinement of management direction for some activities.
The final Plan includes limitations on the size of groups rafting the wild and scenic rivers, prescriptions regarding the use of temporary hunting blinds, provisions for trapping under State and Federal regulations, and processes to consider the proposed use of motorized and mechanized vehicles and equipment.
16 U.S.C. 1274(d)(1), 43 CFR part 6300.
Nominations for the following properties being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register were received by the National Park Service before March 28, 2015. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation. Comments may be forwarded by United States Postal Service, to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 2280, Washington, DC 20240; by all other carriers, National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1201 Eye St. NW., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20005; or by fax, 202-371-6447. Written or faxed comments should be submitted by May 5, 2015. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) has issued a Recommended Determination on Remedy and Bonding in the above-captioned investigation. Although the ALJ found no violation of section 337, the ALJ recommends that, in the event that the Commission determines to reverse the finding of no violation, a limited exclusion order should be directed against the respondents with respect to U.S. Patent No. 7,169,952. The Commission is soliciting comments on public interest issues raised by the recommended relief, specifically the limited exclusion order. This notice is soliciting public interest comments from the public only. Parties are to file public interest submissions pursuant to 19 CFR 210.50(a)(4).
Robert Needham, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 708-5468. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 provides that if the Commission finds a violation it shall exclude the articles concerned from the United States:
The Commission is interested in further development of the record on the public interest in these investigations. Accordingly, members of the public are invited to file submissions of no more than five (5) pages, inclusive of attachments, concerning the public interest in light of the administrative law judge's Recommended Determination on Remedy and Bonding issued in this investigation on April 10, 2015. Comments should address whether issuance of a limited exclusion order in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the recommended order are used in the United States;
(ii) Identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the recommended order;
(iii) Identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were excluded;
(iv) Indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/ or third
(v) Explain how the limited exclusion order would impact consumers in the United States.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business on May 18, 2015.
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to section 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (“Inv. No. 914”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
April 28, 2015 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public,
1. Agendas for future meetings: None.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-463 and 731-TA-1159 (Review)(Oil Country Tubular Goods from China). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations and views of the Commission on May 7, 2015.
5. Vote in Inv. Nos. 731-TA-1014, 1016, and 1017 (Second Review)(Polyvinyl Alcohol from China, Japan, and Korea). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations and views of the Commission on May 12, 2015.
6. Outstanding action jackets: none.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission:
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office on Violence Against Women, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until May 20, 2015.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Cathy Poston, Attorney Advisor, Office on Violence Against Women, 145 N Street NE., Washington, DC 20530 (phone: 202-514-5430). Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20530 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Primary: The approximately 200 grantees from the Grants to Encourage Arrest Policies and Enforcement of Protection Orders Program (Arrest Program).
Abstract: The Arrest Program encourages state, local and tribal governments to treat domestic violence, dating violence, sexual assault and stalking as serious violations of criminal law requiring the coordinated involvement of the entire criminal justice system. Eligible applicants are states and territories, units of local government, Indian tribal governments, and state, local, tribal, and territorial courts.
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department, Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office on Violence Against Women, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until May 20, 2015.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Cathy Poston, Attorney Advisor, Office on Violence Against Women, 145 N Street NE., Washington, DC 20530 (phone:202-514-5430). Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20530 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Primary: The affected public includes the approximately 23 grantees of the Court Training and Improvements Program.
Abstract: The grant program creates a unique opportunity for Federal, State, Territorial, and Tribal courts or court-based programs to significantly improve court responses to sexual assault, domestic violence, dating violence, and stalking cases utilizing proven specialized court processes to ensure victim safety and offender accountability. The program challenges courts and court-based programs to work with their communities to develop specialized practices and educational resources that will result in significantly improved responses to sexual assault, domestic violence, dating violence and stalking cases, ensure offender accountability, and promote informed judicial decision making.
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department, Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
On April 10, 2015, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed consent decree with the United States District Court for the Northern District of Illinois in the lawsuit entitled
The defendant in this case, Beaver Oil Company, Inc., operates a centralized waste treatment and used oil recycling facility in Hodgkins, Illinois. The lawsuit alleges that the defendant violated the Clean Water Act and the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act by failing to comply with regulations governing the handling of wastewater and hazardous wastes. The proposed settlement requires the defendant to perform injunctive relief and pay a civil penalty of $250,000.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $20.50 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office on Violence Against Women, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until May 20, 2015.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Cathy Poston, Attorney Advisor, Office on Violence Against Women, 145 N Street NE., Washington, DC 20530 (phone: 202-514-5430). Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20530 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days for public comment until May 20, 2015.
If you have comments, especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Christopher Reeves at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Overview of this Information Collection 1140-0022:
(1) Type of Information Collection: Revision of an existing collection.
(2) Title of the Form/Collection: Federal Explosives License/Permit (FEL) Renewal Application.
(3) Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:
Form number: ATF Form 5400.14/5400.15 Part III.
Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
(4) Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:
Primary: Business or other for-profit.
Other: Federal Government, State, Local, or Tribal Government.
Abstract: The form is used for the renewal of an explosive license or permit. The renewal application is used by ATF to determine that the applicant remains eligible to retain the license or permit. The change to the form is to add instructions that ATF Form 5400.28 must be completed for all EP's that are active on the Federal Explosives License (FEL), both current and new EP's.
(5) An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: An estimated 2,500 respondents will take 25 minutes to complete the form.
(6) An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: The estimated annual public burden associated with this collection is 825 hours.
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration announces a forthcoming meeting of the Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel.
Wednesday, May 13, 2015, 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m., Local Time.
NASA Headquarters, Room 9H40, 300 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20546.
Ms. Marian Norris, Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel Administrative Officer, National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-4452 or
The Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel (ASAP) will hold its Second Quarterly Meeting for 2015. This discussion is pursuant to carrying out its statutory duties for which the Panel reviews, identifies, evaluates, and advises on those program activities, systems, procedures, and management activities that can contribute to program risk. Priority is given to those programs that involve the safety of human flight. The agenda will include:
The meeting will be open to the public up to the seating capacity of the room. Seating will be on a first-come basis. This meeting is also available telephonically. Any interested person may call the USA toll free conference call number (800) 857-7040; pass code 52984. Attendees will be requested to sign a register and to comply with NASA security requirements, including the presentation of a valid picture ID to Security before access to NASA Headquarters. Due to the Real ID Act, Public Law 109-13, any attendees with driver's licenses issued from non-compliant states/territories must present a second form of ID (Federal employee badge; passport; active military identification card; enhanced driver's license; U.S. Coast Guard Merchant Mariner card; Native American tribal document; school identification accompanied by an item from LIST C (documents that establish employment authorization) from the “List of the Acceptable Documents” on Form I-9). Non-compliant states/territories are: American Samoa, Arizona, Idaho, Louisiana, Maine, Minnesota, New Hampshire, and New York. Foreign nationals attending this meeting will be required to provide a copy of their passport and visa in addition to providing the following information no less than 10 working days prior to the meeting: Full name; gender; date/place of birth; citizenship; visa information (number, type, expiration date); passport information (number, country, expiration date); employer/affiliation information (name of institution, address, country, telephone); title/position of attendee; and home address to Marian Norris via email at
The NSF management officials having responsibility for the Advisory Committee for International Science and Engineering, #25104 has determined that renewing this committee for another two years is necessary and in the public interest in connection with the performance of duties imposed upon the Director, National Science Foundation (NSF), by 42 U.S.C. 1861
Effective date for renewal is April 15, 2015. For more information, please contact Crystal Robinson, NSF, at (703) 292-8687.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation announces the following meeting:
Operated assisted teleconference is available for this meeting. Call 800-857-3133 with password EHR AC MEET and you will be connected to the audio portion of the meeting.
To attend the meeting in person, all visitors must contact the Directorate for Education and Human Resources (
Meeting materials and minutes will also be available on the EHR Advisory Committee Web site at
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Indirect transfer of license; order; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing an order to PPL Susquehanna, LLC (PPL Susquehanna), approving the indirect transfer of PPL Susquehanna's interests in Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-14 and NPF-22, as well as the general license for the independent spent fuel storage installation, for Susquehanna Steam Electric Station, Units 1 and 2. As a result of the transaction, PPL Susquehanna will become indirectly controlled by two new entities, and will be renamed Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC. Conforming license amendments will replace references to PPL Corporation in the license with references to Talen Energy to reflect the transfer of ownership, and will replace references to PPL
The Order was issued on April 10, 2015, and is effective for one year.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2014-0211 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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•
•
Jeffrey A. Whited, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-4090; email:
The text of the Order is attached.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
PPL Susquehanna, LLC (PPL Susquehanna, or the applicant) and Allegheny Electric Cooperative, Inc. (Allegheny) are holders of Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-14, NPF-22, and the general license of the Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation (ISFSI), which authorizes the possession, use, and operation of the Susquehanna Steam Electric Station (SSES), Units 1 and 2, and the ISFSI. PPL Susquehanna (currently owner of 90 percent of SSES) is authorized to possess, use, and operate SSES, Units 1 and 2, as well as the general license for the SSES ISFSI. Allegheny (currently owner of 10 percent of SSES) is authorized to possess SSES, Units 1 and 2, as well as the general license for the SSES ISFSI. SSES is located in Luzerne County, Pennsylvania.
By application dated July 11, 2014, as supplemented by letters dated October 24, 2014, November 6, 2014, November 25, 2014, December 10, 2014, January 5, 2015, January 13, 2015, March 9, 2015, March 13, 2015, March 18, 2015, and March 31, 2015 (collectively, the application), PPL Susquehanna requested on behalf of itself, that the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) approve the indirect transfer of control of PPL Susquehanna's interests in Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. NPF-14 and NPF-22, as well as the general license for the ISFSI. PPL Susquehanna is licensed as the sole operator and has a 90 percent undivided ownership interest in SSES. The proposed indirect transfer of licenses does not involve Allegheny, the other (10-percent) owner and a nonoperating licensee for SSES. The indirect transfer of control will result from a series of transactions, in which PPL Corporation, PPL Susquehanna's ultimate parent, will spin off PPL Energy Supply, LLC (Energy Supply), which holds domestic competitive generation and ancillary assets including PPL Susquehanna. The transaction will involve the creation of and changes to intermediate holding companies, with Energy Supply eventually becoming a direct wholly owned subsidiary of a new intermediate parent named Talen Energy Holdings, Inc. (Talen Holdings), which in turn will be a direct wholly owned subsidiary of a new, publicly owned ultimate parent, named Talen Energy Corporation (Talen Energy). As a result of the transaction, PPL Susquehanna will become indirectly controlled by two new entities (Talen Energy and Talen Holdings). Immediately following the transaction, PPL Susquehanna will be renamed Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC (Susquehanna Nuclear).
The applicant also requested approval of conforming license amendments that would replace references to PPL Corporation in the license with references to Talen Energy to reflect the indirect transfer of ownership, and would replace references to PPL Susquehanna, LLC with references to Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC to reflect the new name. No physical changes to the facilities or operational changes were proposed in the application. After completion of the proposed transfer, Susquehanna Nuclear will be owner and operator of the facility.
Approval of the indirect transfer of the renewed facility operating licenses, and conforming license amendments was requested by the applicant pursuant to Sections 50.80 and 50.90, of Title 10 of the
Under 10 CFR 50.80, no license, or any right thereunder, shall be transferred, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license, unless the Commission shall give its consent in writing. Upon review of the information in the licensee's application and other information before the Commission, and relying
The findings set forth above are supported by NRC safety evaluation dated April 10, 2015.
Accordingly, pursuant to Sections 161b, 161i, 161o and 184 of the Act, 42 U.S.C. Sections 2201(b), 2201(i), 2201(o) and 2234; and 10 CFR 50.80, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED that the indirect transfer of the licenses, as described herein, to Talen Energy is approved, subject to the following conditions:
1. Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC shall not take any action that would cause Talen Energy Corporation or any other direct or indirect parent of Susquehanna Nuclear, LLC or other entity, to void, cancel, or diminish the commitment to fund an extended plant shutdown, as represented in the application for approval of the indirect transfer of the license for Susquehanna SES, Unit [1 or 2, as applicable].
2. The Support Agreement containing the commitment to fund an extended shutdown by Talen Energy Corporation, as represented in the application, shall be executed on or before the transfer date and shall be submitted to the NRC no later than five (5) days after the transfer is consummated.
3. The decommissioning trust agreement for Susquehanna SES, Units 1 and 2, is subject to the following:
(a) The trust agreement must be in a form acceptable to the NRC
(b) With respect to the decommissioning trust funds, investments in securities or other obligations of Talen Energy Corporation or its affiliates, successors, or assigns shall be prohibited. Except for investments tied to market indexes or other non-nuclear-sector mutual funds, investments in any entity owning one or more nuclear power plants are prohibited.
(c) The decommissioning trust agreement for Susquehanna SES, Units 1 and 2, must provide that no disbursements or payments from the trust shall be made by the trustee unless the trustee has first given the NRC 30-day prior written notice of payment. The decommissioning trust agreement shall further contain a provision that no disbursements or payments from the trust shall be made if the trustee received prior written notice of objection from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
(d) The decommissioning trust agreements must provide that the agreements cannot be amended in any material respect without 30-days prior written notification to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
(e) The appropriate section of the decommissioning trust agreement shall state that the trustee, investment advisor, or anyone else directing the investments made in the trust shall adhere to a “prudent investor” standard, as specified in 18 CFR 35.32(a)(3) of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's regulations.
This Order is effective upon issuance.
For further details with respect to this Order, see the initial application dated July 11, 2014, (Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) Accession No. ML14195A110), as supplemented by additional letters dated October 24, 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML14311A672); November 6, 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML14311A292); November 25, 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15002A215); December 10, 2014 (ADAMS Accession No. ML14344A207); January 5, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15007A408); January 13, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15016A050); March 9, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15076A113); March 13, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15093A180); March 18, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15091A320); and March 31, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15090A395), and the non-proprietary safety evaluation dated April 10, 2015, which are available for public inspection at the Commission's Public Document Room (PDR), located at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Room O-1 F21 (First Floor), Rockville, Maryland and accessible electronically though the ADAMS Public Electronic Reading Room on the Internet at the NRC Web site,
Dated at Rockville, Maryland this 10th day of April 2015.
For The Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft regulatory issue summary; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is seeking public comment on a draft regulatory issue summary (RIS), RIS 2015-XX “Seismic Stability Analysis Methodologies for Spent Fuel Dry Cask Loading Stack-up Configuration.” This RIS clarifies the NRC staff's position on acceptable seismic stability analysis methodologies to determine if a spent fuel dry cask loading stack-up configuration needs to be laterally supported
Submit comments by June 4, 2015. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to assure consideration only for comments received before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Todd Keene, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation; telephone: 301-415-1994, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0098 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2015-0098 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information in comment submisssions that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is requesting public comments on the draft RIS. The NRC issues RISs to communicate with stakeholders on a broad range of regulatory matters. This may include communicating and restating staff technical positions on regulatory matters.
The NRC staff has developed draft RIS 2015-XX, “Seismic Stability Analysis Methodologies for Spent Fuel Dry Cask Loading Stack-up Configuration,” to share information regarding acceptable seismic stability analysis methodologies to determine if a spent fuel dry cask loading stack-up configuration needs to be laterally supported. The draft RIS is available electronically under ADAMS Accession No. ML13353A710.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Regulatory guide; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing revision 1 to regulatory guide (RG), RG 5.74, “Managing the Safety/Security Interface,” in which there are minor corrections with no substantive changes in the NRC staff's regulatory positions. This RG describes a method that the staff considers acceptable for licensees to assess and manage changes to safety and security activities so as to prevent or mitigate potential adverse effects that could negatively impact either plant safety or security.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0097 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
• Federal Rulemaking Web site: Go to
• NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS): You may obtain publicly-available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at
• NRC's PDR: You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's Public Document Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Regulatory guides are not copyrighted, and NRC approval is not required to reproduce them.
Wesley Held, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, telephone: 301-415-1583, email:
The NRC is issuing a revision to an existing guide in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. Regulatory guides were developed to describe and make available to the public information and methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the agency's regulations, techniques that the staff uses in evaluating specific problems or postulated accidents, and data that the staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses. The NRC typically seeks public comment on a draft version of a RG by announcing its availability for comment in the
The NRC is issuing Revision 1 of RG 5.74 directly as a final RG because the changes between Revision 0 and Revision 1 are non-substantive. Revision 1 of RG 5.74 incorporated editorial changes and updated the guide to the current format for RGs and is administrative in nature. These changes were intended to improve clarity and did not substantially alter the staff's regulatory guidance. These changes included additional questions to assist the user in the screening of planned and emergent activities or changes, and clarification to the requirement that the safety-security interface must be maintained at all times.
Issuance of this final RG does not constitute backfitting as defined in section 50.109 of title 10 of the
This RG is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
Revision 1 of RG 5.74 is being issued without public comment. However, you may at any time submit suggestions to the NRC for improvement of existing RGs or for the development of new RGs to address new issues. Suggestions can be submitted by the form available online at
April 20, 27, May 4, 11, 18, 25, 2015.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of May 4, 2015.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of May 11, 2015.
Week of May 18, 2015—Tentative
(Contact: Steve Ruffin, 301- 415-1985)
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of May 25, 2015.
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at: http://www.nrc.gov/public-involve/public-meetings/schedule.html.
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; opportunity to request a hearing and to petition for leave to intervene.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has docketed a license amendment application from the Department of Energy (DOE). The DOE is requesting a revision to the Technical Specifications for the Fort St. Vrain Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation located in Platteville, Colorado.
A request for a hearing must be filed by June 19, 2015. Any potential party as defined in section 2.4 of title 10 of the
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0096 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Chris Allen, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6877; email:
The NRC received, by letter dated February 17, 2015, a license amendment application from the Department of Energy (DOE), requesting a revision to the Technical Specifications for the Fort St. Vrain (FSV) independent spent fuel storage installation located in Platteville, Colorado (ADAMS Accession No. ML15068A009). License No. SNM-2504 authorizes the licensee to receive, store, and transfer spent fuel from the decommissioned FSV Nuclear Generating Station. The proposed amendment request seeks to revise response times associated with Fuel Storage Container leak tests and to make an editorial change to the Technical Specifications table of contents.
An NRC administrative completeness review, documented in a letter to DOE dated March 6, 2015, found the application acceptable to begin a technical review (ADAMS Accession No. ML15069A008). The NRC's Office of Nuclear Materials Safety and Safeguards has docketed this application under docket number 72-09. If the NRC approves the application, the approval will be documented in an amendment to NRC License No. SNM-2504. However, before approving the proposed amendment, the NRC will need to make the findings required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the NRC's regulations. These findings will be documented in a safety evaluation report. The NRC will evaluate this amendment and make findings consistent with the National Environmental Policy Act and 10 CFR part 51.
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person(s) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Requests for a hearing and a petition for leave to intervene shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested person(s) should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located in One White Flint North, Room O1-F21 (first floor), 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition for leave to intervene shall set forth, with particularity, the interest of
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the requestor/petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion that support the contention and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The requestor/petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the amendment under consideration. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the requestor/petitioner to relief. A requestor/petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures. The Atomic Safety and Licensing Board will set the time and place for any prehearing conferences and evidentiary hearings, and the appropriate notices will be provided.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
A State, local governmental body, federally-recognized Indian tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by June 19, 2015. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions for leave to intervene set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Persons desiring to make a limited appearance are requested to inform the Secretary of the Commission by June 19, 2015.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least ten days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System, users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC's Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft regulatory guide, request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing draft regulatory guide (DG), DG-1311, “Sizing of Large Lead-Acid Batteries” for public comment. This guidance is proposed revision 1 of regulatory guide (RG), RG 1.212, “Sizing of Large Lead-Acid Storage Batteries.” This DG endorses, with certain clarifications, the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) Standard 485-2010, “IEEE Recommended Practice for Sizing Lead-Acid Batteries for Stationary Applications.” This DG describes methods acceptable to the NRC staff for complying with the design requirements for stationary battery applications in full float operation for nuclear power plants.
Submit comments by June 19, 2015. Comments received after this date will be considered if practical to do so, but the NRC is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date. Although a time limit is given, comments and suggestions in connection with items for inclusion in guides currently being developed or improvements in all published guides are encouraged at any time.
You may submit comment by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on accessing information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Liliana Ramadan, telephone: 301-415-7000, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0099 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2015-0099 in the subject line of your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is issuing for public comment a DG in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. This series was developed to describe and make available to the public such information as methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the NRC's regulations, techniques that the staff uses in evaluating specific problems or postulated accidents, and data that the staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses.
The DG, entitled, “Sizing of Large Lead Acid Storage Batteries” is temporarily identified by its task number, DG-1311. This DG-1311 is proposed revision 1 of RG 1.212. This DG endorses, with certain clarifications, IEEE Standard 485-2010, “IEEE Recommended Practice for Sizing Lead-Acid Batteries for Stationary Applications.” This DG describes methods acceptable to the staff for complying with the design requirements for stationary battery applications in full float operation for nuclear power plants.
Copies of IEEE standards may be purchased from the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Service Center, 445 Hoes Lane, P.O. Box 1331, Piscataway, NJ 08855, or through the IEEE's public Web site at
Issuing of this DG, if finalized, would not constitute backfitting as defined in § 50.109 of Title 10 of the
This DG, if finalized, could be applied to applications for operating licenses and combined licenses docketed by the NRC as of the date of issuance of the final RG, as well as future applications for operating licenses and combined licenses submitted after the issuance of the RG. Such action would not constitute backfitting as defined in 10 CFR 50.109(a)(1) or be otherwise inconsistent with the applicable issue finality provision in 10 CFR part 52, inasmuch as such applicants or potential applicants, with exceptions not applicable here, are not within the scope of entities protected by the Backfit Rule or the relevant issue finality provisions in part 52.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning an amendment to an existing Priority Mail Contract 77 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On April 10, 2015, the Postal Service filed notice that it has agreed to an Amendment to the existing Priority Mail Contract 77 negotiated service agreement approved in this docket.
The Postal Service also filed the unredacted Amendment and supporting financial information under seal. Notice at 1. The Postal Service seeks to incorporate by reference the Application for Non-Public Treatment originally filed in this docket for the protection of information that it has filed under seal.
The Amendment revises the customer's Priority Mail contract rates, which appear in Terms I.E., Table 2, and I.F. Notice, Attachment A at 1-2.
The Postal Service intends for the Amendment to become effective one business day after the date that the Commission completes its review of the Notice. Notice at 1. The Postal Service asserts that the Amendment is in compliance with 39 U.S.C. 3633. Notice, Attachment B at 1.
The Commission invites comments on whether the changes presented in the Postal Service's Notice are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR 3015.5, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than April 21, 2015. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Kenneth R. Moeller to represent the interests of the general public (Public Representative) in this docket.
1. The Commission reopens Docket No. CP2014-31 for consideration of matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Kenneth R. Moeller to serve as an officer of the Commission (Public Representative) to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding.
3. Comments are due no later than April 21, 2015.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange amend [sic] the content of the BATS One Feed under Rule 11.22(j) to include consolidated volume for all listed equity securities. The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the content of the BATS One Feed under Rule 11.22(j) to include consolidated volume for all listed equity securities. The Commission recently approved a proposed rule change by the Exchange to establish a new market data product called the BATS One Feed.
The last sale information disseminated as part of the BATS One Feed includes the price, size, time of execution, and individual BATS Exchange on which the trade was executed. The last sale information also includes the cumulative number of shares executed on all BATS Exchanges for that trading day.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by providing for the broader dissemination of consolidated volume to investors. The Exchange also believes this proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act because it protects investors and the public interest and promotes just and equitable principles of trade by providing investors with new options for receiving consolidated volume. The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is reasonable because consolidated volume is currently included in a competing market data products offered by the NYSE and Nasdaq.
Lastly, the proposal would not permit unfair discrimination because the consolidated volume will be available to all of the Exchange's customers and market data vendors on an equivalent basis. In addition, any customer that wishes to receive consolidated volume via a different source will be able to do so.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposal will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will enhance competition because it would enable the Exchange to include consolidated volume as part of the BATS One Feed, thereby enabling it to better compete with similar market data products currently offered by the NYSE and Nasdaq that include such volume.
Finally, although the BATS Exchanges are the exclusive distributors of the individual data feeds from which certain data elements would be taken to create the BATS One Feed, the Exchange is not the exclusive distributor of the consolidated volume that would be included in the BATS One Feed. A vendor seeking to offer a similar product and include consolidated volume would be able to do so on the same terms as the Exchange from a cost perspective. As discussed in in the BATS One Approval Order,
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate if
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
NASDAQ is proposing changes to the Qualified Market Maker (“QMM”) Incentive Program under Rule 7014, and the qualification requirements for certain fees relating to Market-on-Close and/or Limit-on-Close orders under Rule 7018(a).
The text of the proposed rule change is available at
In its filing with the Commission, NASDAQ included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of
NASDAQ is proposing to amend Rule 7014(d), which provides the qualification criteria for designation as a Qualified Market Maker (“QMM”) under the QMM incentive program, to limit qualification to registered NASDAQ market makers (“Market Makers”). Currently, a QMM may be, but is not required to be, a Market Maker in any security.
NASDAQ is amending Rule 7014(e), which sets forth the criteria required to receive the benefits of the program, to move the two credits provided under subparagraphs (1) and (2) provided for executions in securities listed on NYSE (“Tape A”) and securities listed on exchanges other than NASDAQ and NYSE (“Tape B”) to a table format directly under Rule 7014(e). NASDAQ is also modifying the criteria a QMM must meet to receive the two tiers of credits under the rule. Currently, NASDAQ provides a rebate of $0.0002 per share executed (in addition to other credits received under Rule 7018(a)) with respect to orders that are executed at a price of $1 or more and (A) displayed a quantity of at least one round lot at the time of execution; (B) either established the NBBO or was the first order posted on NASDAQ that had the same price as an order posted at another trading center with a protected quotation that established the NBBO; (C) were entered through a QMM MPID; (D) were for securities listed on NYSE or securities listed on exchanges other than NASDAQ and NYSE and (E) that no additional rebate will be issued with respect to Designated Retail Orders (as defined in Rule 7018). NASDAQ is proposing to replace these requirements with a new requirement that a QMM execute shares of liquidity provided in all securities through one or more of its NASDAQ Market Center MPIDs that represent greater than 0.90% of Consolidated Volume during the month. The Exchange is replacing the current requirements, which provide the QMM with an incentive to provide displayed liquidity that sets the NBBO on NASDAQ, with a new requirement to provide a significant level Consolidated Volume in all securities through one or more of its MPIDs. Consolidated Volume is defined by Rule 7018(a) as the total consolidated volume reported to all consolidated transaction reporting plans by all exchanges and trade reporting facilities during a month in equity securities, excluding executed orders with a size of less than one round lot.
Similarly, the Exchange is proposing to modify the requirements to receive a rebate of $0.0001 per share executed under Rule 7014(e)(2). Currently, a QMM will receive the rebate with respect to all other displayed orders (other than Designated Retail Orders, as defined in Rule 7018) in securities priced at $1 or more per share that provide liquidity that are entered through a QMM MPID in Tape A or B securities. The Exchange is proposing to now require that a QMM execute shares of liquidity provided in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs that represent from 0.70% up to and including 0.90% of Consolidated Volume during the month. The Exchange believes that tying the rebate to the provision of greater overall volume will provide an increased impact to improving market quality over the current requirement that the orders are displayed and provide liquidity.
As a consequence of moving and modifying the criteria of Rules 7014(e)(1) and (2), NASDAQ is moving certain rule text concerning the type of securities that the rule applies to, and certain exclusions from the program, from subparagraphs (1) and (2) to the first paragraph of Rule 7014(e). As noted above, NASDAQ is placing the two credits provided under subparagraphs (1) and (2) in a table format and, consequently, is deleting those subparagraphs. NASDAQ is moving language, which is repeated in both subparagraphs, that notes the credits provided apply to securities priced at $1 or more per share to the new table under Rule 7014(e) where the two credits are now located. The Exchange is also moving text that concerns exclusion of Designated Retail Orders from subparagraphs (1) and (2) to directly above the new table under Rule 7014(e).
NASDAQ is proposing to amend the criteria under Rule 7014(e)(3) required to receive the reduced remove rate fee of $0.00295 per share executed under the rule in Tape A and B securities priced at $1 or more for shares executed via its QMM MPID. Currently, NASDAQ will charge a fee of $0.0030 per share executed for orders in securities listed on NASDAQ (“Tape C”) priced at $1 or more per share that access liquidity on the NASDAQ Market Center and that are entered through a QMM MPID, and charges a fee of $0.00295 per share executed for orders in Tape A or B securities priced at $1 or more per share that access liquidity on the NASDAQ Market Center and that are entered through a QMM MPID; provided, however, that after the first month in which an MPID becomes a QMM MPID, the QMM's volume of liquidity added, provided, and/or routed through the QMM MPID during the month (as a percentage of Consolidated Volume) must not be less than 0.05% lower than the volume of liquidity added, provided, and/or routed through such QMM MPID during the first month in which the MPID qualified as a QMM MPID (as a percentage of Consolidated Volume). NASDAQ is proposing to eliminate the current Consolidated Volume requirement, which relates to
The Exchange is also proposing to increase the level of Consolidated Volume that a member firm must have in Market-on-Close and/or Limit-on-Close orders during the month in order to qualify for fees to remove liquidity in securities executed at or above $1 under Rule 7018(a)(1), (2) and (3). Currently, NASDAQ assesses a fee for member firms that qualify based on their Market-on-Close and/or Limit-on-Close order participation in the Closing Cross of $0.0030 per share executed in Tape C securities under Rule 7018(a)(1), and fees of $0.00295 per share executed in Tape A and B securities under Rules 7018(a)(2) and (3), respectively. To qualify under each of the rules, a member firm must have Market-on-Close and/or Limit-on-Close orders executed in the NASDAQ Closing Cross, entered through a single NASDAQ Market Center market participant identifier, that represent more than 0.06% of Consolidated Volume during the month. The Exchange is proposing to increase the minimum level of Consolidated Volume required under each of the rules to 0.15%.
NASDAQ believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
NASDAQ believes that the proposed changes to the QMM program in NASDAQ Rule 7014(d)(3) is [sic] reasonable and will not discriminate unfairly because they refine the program to focus on market participants who currently use the program. As discussed above, Market Makers have provided the vast majority of participation in the program and are currently the only market participant utilizing the program. Accordingly, restricting the program to Market Makers will not result in a material change in who participates in the program. Additionally, Market Makers have both obligations to the market and regulatory requirements that normally do not apply to other market participants. As such, the Exchange believes that providing additional incentives to Market Makers to provide liquidity for the benefit of all investors and other market participants is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory. The proposed modifications to the QMM program recognize the benefits of increased Market Maker participation and the Exchange believes that this proposal will improve displayed liquidity, and thus the execution quality overall on the Exchange. Moreover, the Exchange believes that eliminating the current Consolidated Volume requirement is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because it will become superfluous in light of additional requirements based on Consolidated Volume that are also being proposed herein. For the same reasons noted above, limiting eligibility in the program to Market Makers and eliminating the Consolidated Volume requirement under Rule 7014(d)(3) is an equitable allocation of the fees and credits provided by the program. In this regard, no current participants in the program will be excluded from being eligible to participate after the proposed change is effective, and applying the current Consolidated Volume criteria will have no significance in light of the proposed changes to the specific fees and credits under the program.
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to Rule 7014(e) are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because they impose stricter requirements on Market Makers to receive the benefits of the program, which will be applied uniformly to all Market Makers that are eligible to participate in the QMM program. With regard to the $0.0002 rebate provided in Tape A and B securities, the Exchange is eliminating the NBBO-based criteria and tying the rebate to greater overall volume, which the Exchange believes will provide a greater impact to improving overall market quality because the economic benefits provided to the Market Maker are more certain and therefore provide the Market Maker a means to more aggressively provide displayed liquidity to the Exchange for the benefit of all market participants. In this regard, the Exchange notes that Market Makers must provide more than 0.90% of Consolidated Volume during the month, which is a significant level participation in the market. Similarly, NASDAQ is proposing a significant level of Consolidated Volume to receive the $0.0001 rebate under the rule, which currently only requires that the QMM participant provide displayed liquidity. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory to impose stricter criteria designed to improve market quality in return for the credit NASDAQ elects to provide. NASDAQ also believes that the proposed changes to the eligibility requirements for the reduced removal fee in Tape A and B securities of $0.00295 per share executed are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because they increase the level of Consolidated Volume required, which will be an absolute requirement and not tied to historical levels of Consolidated Volume, thereby increasing the level of market improvement necessary to receive the reduced rate. As an absolute requirement, the Consolidated Volume requirement will apply uniformly to all Market Makers eligible to participate in the program. The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to the eligibility requirements under Rule 7014(e) are an equitable allocation because NASDAQ will provide the same rebates and fees to all Market Makers that qualify under the rule.
Lastly, NASDAQ notes that Market Makers serve an important role on the Exchange with regard to order interaction and provide continuous, passive liquidity in the marketplace. Additionally, Market Makers incur costs unlike the majority of other market participants including, but not limited to, their own infrastructure and other technology costs associated with market making activities. Consequently, the proposed differentiation between Market Makers and other market participants recognizes the differing contributions made to the quality of the market on the Exchange by Market Makers and the heightened regulatory requirements and costs associated with being a Market Maker. In brief, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes to the QMM program further
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to the level of Consolidated Volume in Market-on-Close and/or Limit-on-Close order participation in the Closing Cross required to receive the fees for orders that remove liquidity under Rules 7018(a)(1), (2), and (3) are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because they represent an increase in the level of market-improving Consolidated Volume contributed to the Closing Cross. NASDAQ provides discounted fees in Market-on-Close and/or Limit-on-Close orders in Tape A and B securities to provide incentives to member firms to provide liquidity in the closing process. NASDAQ is increasing the Consolidated Volume requirement to better align the discounted remove fees with members that use the closing cross process more regulatory [sic] over alternatives and also access liquidity more frequently on the Exchange as opposed to other members. Nonetheless, NASDAQ believes that it is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory to change the eligibility criteria so that it mirrors the eligibility criteria of the related fees under Rules 7018(a)(2) and (3). Lastly, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes to the rules are an equitable allocation of the fees because the fee is provided uniformly to all member firms that qualify for the fees and all member firms have an equal opportunity to earn the discounted fee for accessing liquidity.
NASDAQ does not believe that the proposed rule changes will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange amend [sic] the content of the BATS One Feed under Rule 11.22(i) to include consolidated volume for all listed equity securities. The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the content of the BATS One Feed under Rule 11.22(i) to include consolidated volume for all listed equity securities. The Exchange also proposes to make a ministerial change to Rule 11.22(i). The Commission recently approved a proposed rule change by the Exchange to establish a new market data product called the BATS One Feed.
The last sale information disseminated as part of the BATS One Feed includes the price, size, time of execution, and individual BATS Exchange on which the trade was executed. The last sale information also includes the cumulative number of shares executed on all BATS Exchanges for that trading day.
The Exchange also proposes to delete from Rule 11.22(i) language indicating that the Retail Liquidity Identifier is disseminated on behalf of the Exchange, “an affiliated exchange of the Exchange”. The Retail Liquidity Identifier indicator message is disseminated via the BATS One Feed on behalf of the Exchange pursuant to the Exchange's Retail Price Improvement (“RPI”) Program.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)
The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by providing for the broader dissemination of consolidated volume to investors. The Exchange also believes this proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act because it protects investors and the public interest and promotes just and equitable principles of trade by providing investors with new options for receiving consolidated volume. The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is reasonable because consolidated volume is currently included in a competing market data products offered by the NYSE and Nasdaq.
The Exchange believes that the ministerial change to Rule 11.22(i) is reasonable because it is intended to make the description of the BATS One Feed clearer and less confusing for investors and eliminate potential investor confusion, thereby removing impediments to and perfecting the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, protecting investors and the public interest.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposal will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will enhance competition because it would enable the Exchange to include consolidated volume as part of the BATS One Feed, thereby enabling it to better compete with similar market data products currently offered by the NYSE and Nasdaq that include such volume.
Although the BATS Exchanges are the exclusive distributors of the individual data feeds from which certain data elements would be taken to create the BATS One Feed, the Exchange is not the exclusive distributor of the consolidated volume that would be included in the BATS One Feed. A vendor seeking to offer a similar product and include consolidated volume would be able to do so on the same terms as the Exchange from a cost perspective. As discussed in in the BATS One Approval Order,
Finally, the Exchange believes that the ministerial change to Rule 11.22(i) will not affect competition because it does not amend the content of the BATS One Feed (other than as described above). Rather, it is simply intended to make the description of the BATS One Feed clearer and less confusing.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 239 (17 CFR 230.239) provides exemptions under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
Please direct your written comment to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549 or send an email to:
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form N-5 (17 CFR 239.24 and 274.5) is the form used by small business investment companies (“SBICs”) to register their securities under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
The Commission has received one filing on Form N-5 in the last three years, and we therefore estimate that SBICs will file about 0.333 filings on Form N-5 per year. The currently approved burden of Form N-5 is 352 hours per response. Therefore, the number of currently approved aggregate burden hours, when calculated using the current estimate for number of filings is about 117 hours per year. The currently approved cost burden of Form N-5 is $30,000 per filing. We continue to believe this estimate for Form N-5's cost burden is appropriate. Therefore, we estimate that the aggregate cost burden, when calculated using the Commission's estimate of 0.333 filings per year, is about $10,000 in external costs per year.
Estimates of average burden hours and costs are made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, and are not derived from a comprehensive or even representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms. Compliance with the collection of information requirements of Form N-5 is mandatory. Responses to the collection of information will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) in a number of different ways as described below. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee change effective April 9, 2015. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule in a number of different ways as described below. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective April 9, 2015.
The Exchange is proposing several changes to transaction fees. First, the Exchange proposes to establish certain fees for Professional Customer orders. The Exchange does not currently differentiate between Customer orders and Professional Customer orders, except for orders routing to away exchanges.
Regarding Electronic executions, in the table setting forth “Transaction Fee—Per Contract,” the Exchange proposes to add “Professional Customer” as a participant type. To add clarity to the Fee Schedule, the Exchange proposes to rename the table “Transaction Fee for Electronic Transactions—Per Contract.” As discussed below, the Exchange proposes to charge Professional Customers the same proposed Take Liquidity rate as Firms and Broker Dealers, but enable Professional Customers to earn the same proposed Posting Credit for Posted Liquidity as Customers.
The Exchange is also proposing to increase the Take Liquidity Fees for Lead Market Makers (“LMM”s), NYSE Arca Market Makers (“MM”s), and Firm and Broker Dealer (“BD”) Electronic Executions. The Take Liquidity fees for LMM, MM, Firm and BD orders executed electronically in Penny Pilot Issues would be $0.50 per contract, up from $0.49. The Take Liquidity fees for LMM and MM orders executed electronically in Non Penny Pilot Issues would be $0.92 per contract, up from $0.87, while the Take Liquidity fees for Firm and BD orders executed electronically in Non Penny Pilot Issues would be $0.94 per contract, up from $0.89. As noted above, the Exchange is proposing to charge Professional Customers Take Liquidity Fees per contract equivalent to those charged to Firm and Broker Dealer orders: $0.50 in Penny Pilot issues, and $0.94 in Non Penny Pilot issues. Finally, the Exchange is proposing that Professional Customer orders entered and executed electronically would receive the same per contract credit for Post Liquidity as a Customer: $0.25 for Post Liquidity in Penny Pilot Issues and $0.75 for Post Liquidity in Non Penny Pilot Issues.
The Exchange is proposing two changes to the Customer Monthly Posting Credit Tiers for Penny Pilot Issues, which currently has five tiers. First, the Exchange proposes to clarify that these credits apply to executions of Professional Customer orders. Second, the Exchange proposes to add a sixth tier. To clarify that these tiers apply to Professional Customer orders, the Exchange proposes to revise the table, including its title and headings, as well as the description of qualifying posted orders for each tier, to include reference to Professional Customers. With this change, the Exchange would clarify that the tiers apply to Professional Customers and Customers alike, and that volume from Professional Customer posted orders, together with Customer orders, would be included in the calculation of the qualifications.
The Exchange also proposes to add a sixth Tier (“Tier 6”). To qualify for proposed Tier 6, Order Flow Providers (“OFPs”) must achieve at least 1.00% of the Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option Average Daily Volume (“ADV”) from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in all Issues, or, achieve at least 0.80% of the Total Industry Customer equity and ETF option Average Daily Volume (“ADV”) from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in all issues and also executes an ADV of Retail Orders of 0.10% ADV of U.S. Equity market share posted and executed on the NYSE Arca Equity Market.
The Exchange is proposing two changes to the Customer Incentive Program, which provides four alternatives to earn credits. First, the Exchange proposes to clarify that this Program includes executions of Professional Customer orders in the calculation of executed Customer Posted orders and that all of the various incentive credits apply to both Customer and Professional Customer
The Exchange is proposing several changes to these Posting Credit Tiers, which consist of Tier A and Tier B and provide for specified credits if specified volume thresholds have been met. First, consistent with the above changes, the Exchange is proposing to clarify that the Posting Credit Tiers would apply to executions of Professional Customer orders. In addition, the Exchange is proposing to adjust the Posting Credit Tiers to require higher levels of volume to qualify, and to increase the credit applied to posted electronic Customer and Professional Customer executions in non-Penny Pilot issues. Tier A would require an Order Flow Provider to meet a minimum of 0.80%, instead of 0.60%, of total industry Customer equity and ETF options ADV from Customer and Professional Customer Posted Orders in all issues, plus an executed ADV of Retail Orders of 0.1% ADV of U.S. Equity market share posted and executed on the NYSE Arca Equity Market to qualify for the credit. Tier B would require an Order Flow Provider to achieve at least 1.00%, instead of 0.95%, of total industry Customer equity and ETF options ADV from Customer and Professional Customer posted orders in both Penny Pilot and non-Penny Pilot issues. Qualifying under either criterion would result in a credit applied to posted electronic Customer and Professional Customer execution in non-Penny Pilot issues of $0.83 per contract instead of $0.80 or $0.81 per contract. The Exchange believes the proposed increases are offset by the increased credits and believes this proposed change would provide additional incentive to direct Customer (and Professional Customer) order flow to the Exchange, which benefits all market participants through increased liquidity and enhanced price discovery.
Finally, the Exchange is proposing a new fee, which would be a discount in Take Liquidity Fees for Professional Customer, Market Maker, Firm, and Broker Dealer Liquidity Removing orders for OTP Holders and OTP Firms (“OTPs”) that meet a volume qualification. As proposed, firms that provide at least 1.00% of total industry customer equity and ETF option ADV from Customer and Professional Customer posted orders in all issues and also at least 2.00% of total industry Customer equity and ETF option ADV from Professional Customer, Market Maker, Firm, and Broker Dealer liquidity removing orders in all issues would qualify for a discount in Take Liquidity Fees of $0.02 in Penny Pilot Issues, and $0.06 in non-Penny Pilot Issues. The Exchange believes this change would provide an incentive for OTPs to execute large volumes of orders on the Exchange, which benefits all market participants through increased liquidity and enhanced price discovery.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed delineation of how Professional Customer orders would be charged and treated for purposes of achieving and earning certain credits available on the Exchange is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it adds clarity to the Fee Schedule, particularly in light of the Exchange's recent adoption of the Professional Customer definition in its rules.
The Exchange believes the proposed changes regarding the transactions fees to be charged for Professional Customer orders are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for several reasons. First, because Professional Customers submit more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average, Professional Customers generally engage in trading activity similar to Broker Dealers or Firms. The Exchange believes the Professional Customers' higher level of trading activity would result in greater ongoing operational costs, which costs the Exchange aims to recover by assessing Professional Customers (and Broker Dealers and Firms) higher fees for transactions. The Exchange also notes that other competing options exchanges likewise similarly charge Professional Customers the same transaction fees as Firms and Broker Dealers.
Further, the Exchange believes that the proposed Take Liquidity rates for Lead Market Makers, Market Makers, Firms and Broker Dealers, and Professional Customers are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they are competitive with fees charged by other exchanges and are designed to attract (and compete for) order flow to the Exchange, which provides a greater opportunity for trading by all market
The Exchange also believes that the proposed changes are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the changes to Take Liquidity Fees for Market Makers and Lead Market Makers would apply to all Market Makers and Lead Market Makers on an equal and non-discriminatory basis. The Exchange believes the changes to Firm, Broker Dealer, and Professional Customer Take Liquidity Fees are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they apply to all non-Customer participants who do not have the burden of Market Making obligations.
The Exchange believes the adjustments to qualifications for enhanced posting liquidity credits and increases in various credits, are reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory as they are designed to attract increased Customer (and Professional Customer) business on the Exchange and are achievable in various ways. An increase in Customer (and Professional Customer) orders executed on the Exchange benefits all participants by offering greater price discovery, increased transparency, and an increased opportunity to trade on the Exchange. The Exchange also believes that the proposed credits are reasonable because they are within a range of similar credits available on other option exchanges.
The Exchange believes the introduction of a new Tier in the Customer Monthly Posting Credit Tiers and Qualifications for Executions in Penny Pilot Issues is reasonable because it is designed to attract additional Customer (and Professional Customer) electronic equity and ETF option volume to the Exchange, which would benefit all participants by offering greater price discovery, increased transparency, and an increased opportunity to trade on the Exchange. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed credits available on this new tier are reasonable because they would incent OTPs to submit Customer (and Professional Customer) electronic equity and ETF option orders to the Exchange and would result in credits that are reasonably related to the Exchange's market quality that is associated with higher volumes.
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes in the Customer Posting Credit Tiers in Non Penny Pilot Issues and the Customer Incentive Program are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they will be available to all OTPs that execute posted electronic Customer (and Professional Customer) orders on the Exchange on an equal and non-discriminatory basis, in particular because they provide alternative means of achieving the same credit. The Exchange believes that providing methods for achieving the credits based on posted electronic Customer (and Professional Customer) Executions in both Penny Pilot and non-Penny Pilot issues is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would continue to result in more OTPs qualifying for the credits and therefore reducing their overall transaction costs on the Exchange.
Further, the Exchange believes the proposed change to the Customer Posting Credit Tiers in Non Penny Pilot Issues and Customer Incentive Program is reasonable because it is designed to continue to bring additional posted order flow to NYSE Arca Equities, so as to provide additional opportunities for all ETP Holders to trade on NYSE Arca Equities.
The Exchange believes the creation of a Take Fee discount available to Lead Market Makers, Market Makers, Firms, Broker Dealers and Professional Customers is reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory because it is applicable to all participants other than Customers, who pay a much lower Take Liquidity Fee, and because it is available to all firms that provide Customer and Professional Customer orders. The Exchange also believes this change will provide an incentive for OTPs to execute large volumes of orders on the Exchange, which benefits all market participants through increased liquidity and enhanced price discovery. The Exchange also notes that the proposed Take Fee discount is consistent with those offered on competing options exchanges.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The increases in Take Liquidity fees will impact all affected order types (
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 12b-1 under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (17 CFR 270.12b-1) permits a registered open-end investment company (“fund” or “mutual fund”) to bear expenses associated with the distribution of its shares, provided that the mutual fund complies with certain requirements, including, among other things, that it adopt a written plan (“rule 12b-1 plan”) and that it has in writing any agreements relating to the rule 12b-1 plan. The rule in part requires that (i) The adoption or material amendment of a rule 12b-1 plan be approved by the mutual fund's directors, including its independent directors, and, in certain circumstances, its shareholders; (ii) the board review quarterly reports of amounts spent under the rule 12b-1 plan; and (iii) the board, including the independent directors, consider continuation of the rule 12b-1 plan and any related agreements at least annually. Rule 12b-1 also requires mutual funds relying on the rule to preserve for six years, the first two years in an easily accessible place, copies of the rule 12b-1 plan and any related agreements and reports, as well as minutes of board meetings that describe the factors considered and the basis for adopting or continuing a rule 12b-1 plan.
Rule 12b-1 also prohibits funds from paying for distribution of fund shares with brokerage commissions on their portfolio transactions. The rule requires funds that use broker-dealers that sell their shares to also execute their portfolio securities transactions, to implement policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent: (i) the persons responsible for selecting broker-dealers to effect transactions in fund portfolio securities from taking into account broker-dealers' promotional or sales efforts when making those decisions; and (ii) a fund, its adviser or principal underwriter, from entering into any agreement under which the fund directs brokerage transactions or revenue generated by those transactions to a broker-dealer to pay for distribution of the fund's (or any other fund's) shares.
The board and shareholder approval requirements of rule 12b-1 are designed to ensure that fund shareholders and directors receive adequate information to evaluate and approve a rule 12b-1 plan and, thus, are necessary for investor protection. The requirement of quarterly reporting to the board is designed to ensure that the rule 12b-1 plan continues to benefit the fund and its shareholders. The recordkeeping requirements of the rule are necessary to enable Commission staff to oversee compliance with the rule. The requirement that funds or their advisers implement, and fund boards approve, policies and procedures in order to prevent persons charged with allocating fund brokerage from taking distribution efforts into account is designed to ensure that funds' selection of brokers to effect portfolio securities transactions is
Based on information filed with the Commission by funds, Commission staff estimates that there are approximately 7837 mutual fund portfolios that have at least one share class subject to a rule 12b-1 plan.
Based on previous conversations with fund representatives, Commission staff estimates that for each of the 330 mutual fund families with a portfolio that has a rule 12b-1 plan, the average annual burden of complying with the rule is 425 hours. This estimate takes into account the time needed to prepare quarterly reports to the board of directors, the board's consideration of those reports, and the board's initial or annual consideration of whether to continue the plan.
If a currently operating fund seeks to (i) adopt a new rule 12b-1 plan or (ii) materially increase the amount it spends for distribution under its rule 12b-1 plan, rule 12b-1 requires that the fund obtain shareholder approval. As a consequence, the fund will incur the cost of a proxy.
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, and is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms.
The collections of information required by Rule 12b-1 are necessary to obtain the benefits of the rule. Notices to the Commission will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
BX proposes to amend Rule 1013 titled “New Member Application” to include an expedited application process for firms that are already approved members of NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC (“PHLX”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend BX Rule 1013(a)(5), entitled Applicants That Are Members of an Association or Another Exchange, to permit an expedited review for new member applications seeking BX membership provided those applicants are approved members of PHLX.
Specifically, Exchange Rule 1013(a)(5)(C) currently permits the Exchange to accept applicants that gained membership at Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) or The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC (“NASDAQ”) when considering a BX new member application. Applicants who are approved members of FINRA or NASDAQ are eligible for an abbreviated waive-in application eliminating the submission and review of duplicative supplemental material that has already been submitted and reviewed in connection with a FINRA or NASDAQ new member application.
At this time, the Exchange proposes to extend the abbreviated application process already in place for approved FINRA and/or NASDAQ members to PHLX members. The Exchange notes that the PHLX qualifications are the same as those applicable to BX membership requirements. PHLX approved members seeking BX membership will be required to submit a fully executed Waive-In Membership Application and Membership Agreement but will not be required to submit any duplicative documentation that was previously provided as part of the PHLX application. These PHLX members would still be required to provide additional information if there has been a material change in status from its original application with PHLX. Applicants will be required to attest that the information provided as part of previously conducted new membership review remains complete and accurate.
The Exchange also proposes to amend language in section (C) of this rule to further harmonize the application with the current NASDAQ application by updating the title of the BX membership application from “Short Form” to “Waive-in” and deleting unnecessary language that does not appear in the corresponding NASDAQ rule. The application is attached as Exhibit 3.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act
Today, the BX Membership Department performs similar functions when reviewing new member applications for BX, NASDAQ and PHLX.
This proposed amendment is consistent with its current practices today when reviewing applications for members of NASDAQ and FINRA. BX proposes this rule change to harmonize its affiliated exchanges' rules to provide applicants similar application procedures for each of its markets. The PHLX new member review process is consistent with the BX new member review process. Applicants that are members of PHLX should be eligible for the waive-in process when seeking membership on BX similar to current waive-in opportunities available today for NASDAQ and FINRA members.
The proposed rule change would eliminate the duplicate review for prospective BX applicants that were approved for membership by PHLX. The waive-in process will promote efficiency with respect to the Exchange's membership review process and reduce the burden on applicants that have already been approved for membership on PHLX by reducing the duplicative information and documentation required to be provided to the Exchange for these members. As a result, Exchange staff will be able to focus its regulatory efforts on reviewing any material changes or new information that may affect the applicant's eligibility for Exchange membership.
This proposed rule change does not affect the protection of investors as BX will maintain the vigorous membership review that is conducted today when reviewing PHLX member applications.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed waive-in process for approved PHLX members will not impose any burden on competition, but rather it will remove unnecessary burdens that currently exist for PHLX member applicants seeking BX membership. The proposal will eliminate the redundant review process for PHLX members that currently does not exist for FINRA and NASDAQ members applying to become BX members.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; does not impose any significant burden on competition; and by its terms does not become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; for the protection of
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Administrative declaration of a disaster for the State of Rhode Island dated 04/06/2015.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's disaster declaration, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14259 5 and for economic injury is 14260 0.
The States which received an EIDL Declaration # are Rhode Island, Connecticut.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Administrative declaration of a disaster for the State of New York dated 04/09/2015.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's disaster declaration, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14266 5 and for economic injury is 14267 0.
The State which received an EIDL Declaration # is New York.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Administrative declaration of a disaster for the State of OKLAHOMA dated 04/07/2015.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's disaster declaration, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14263 C and for economic injury is 14264 0.
The State which received an EIDL Declaration # is Oklahoma.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of Connecticut (FEMA-4213-DR), dated 04/08/2015.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 04/08/2015, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14268B and for economic injury is 14269B
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice; request for comments.
The Office of the United States Trade Representative (“USTR”) is providing notice that on March 13, 2015, the Republic of Indonesia requested consultations with the United States under the
Although USTR will accept any comments received during the course of the dispute settlement proceedings, comments should be submitted on or before May 11, 2015, to be assured of timely consideration by USTR.
Public comments should be submitted electronically to
If (as explained below) the comment contains confidential information, then the comment should be submitted by fax only to Sandy McKinzy at (202) 395-3640.
Micah Myers, Associate General Counsel, or Juli Schwartz, Assistant General Counsel, Office of the United States Trade Representative, 600 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20508, (202) 395-3150.
USTR is providing notice that consultations have been requested pursuant to the WTO
On March 13, 2015, Indonesia requested consultations concerning AD and CVD measures pertaining to certain coated paper suitable for high-quality print graphics using sheet-fed presses. The specific U.S. legal instruments referenced in Indonesia's consultations request are: (1) Section 771(11)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended,
With respect to the CVD measures, Indonesia challenges the U.S. Department of Commerce's (“DOC”) determination that Indonesia provided standing timber for less than adequate remuneration, describing it in the consultation request as a “
With respect to both the AD and CVD measures, Indonesia alleges that the U.S. International Trade Commission's (“ITC”) threat of injury determination “relied on `allegation, conjecture [and] remote possibility,' ” was not based “on a change in circumstances that was `clearly foreseen and imminent,' ” and showed no “causal relationship between the [subject] imports and the . . . threat of injury to the domestic industry.”
With respect to 19 U.S.C. 1677(11)(B), Indonesia contends that “the law does not consider or exercise `special care' ” as a result of the “requirement that a tie vote in a threat of injury determination must be treated as an affirmative . . . [ITC] determination.”
Indonesia alleges inconsistencies with Article VI of the
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning the issues raised in this dispute. Persons may submit public comments electronically to
To submit comments via
The
A person requesting that information contained in a comment that he/she submitted, be treated as confidential business information must certify that such information is business confidential and would not customarily be released to the public by the submitter. Confidential business information must be clearly designated as such and the submission must be marked “BUSINESS CONFIDENTIAL” at the top and bottom of the cover page and each succeeding page. Any comment containing business confidential information must be submitted by fax to Sandy McKinzy at (202) 395-3640. A non-confidential summary of the confidential information must be submitted to
USTR may determine that information or advice contained in a comment submitted, other than business confidential information, is confidential in accordance with Section 135(g)(2) of the Trade Act of 1974 (19 U.S.C. 2155(g)(2)). If the submitter believes that information or advice may qualify as such, the submitter:
(1) Must clearly so designate the information or advice;
(2) Must clearly mark the material as “SUBMITTED IN CONFIDENCE” at the top and bottom of the cover page and each succeeding page; and
(3) Must provide a non-confidential summary of the information or advice.
Any comment containing confidential information must be submitted by fax. A non-confidential summary of the confidential information must be submitted to
Pursuant to section 127(e) of the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (19 U.S.C. 3537(e)), USTR will maintain a docket on this dispute settlement proceeding, docket number USTR-2015-0005, accessible to the public at
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice and request for comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces that the renewal Information Collection Requests (ICRs) abstracted below are being forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The ICRs describes the nature of the information collection and its expected burden. The
Comments must be submitted on or before May 20, 2015.
Mr. Robert Brogan, Office of Planning and Evaluation Division, RRS-21, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Mail Stop 25, Washington, DC 20590 (Telephone: (202) 493-6292), or Ms. Kimberly Toone, Office of Information Technology, RAD-20, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Mail Stop 35, Washington, DC 20590 (Telephone: (202) 493-6132). (These telephone numbers are not toll-free.)
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13, sec. 2, 109 Stat. 163 (1995) (codified as revised at 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, require Federal agencies to issue two notices seeking public comment on information collection activities before OMB may approve paperwork packages. 44 U.S.C. 3506, 3507; 5 CFR 1320.5, 1320.8(d)(1), and 1320.12. On February 9, 2015, FRA published a 60-day notice in the
Before OMB decides whether to approve these proposed collections of information, it must provide 30 days for public comment. 44 U.S.C. 3507(b); 5 CFR 1320.12(d). Federal law requires OMB to approve or disapprove paperwork packages between 30 and 60 days after the 30 day notice is published. 44 U.S.C. 3507 (b)-(c); 5 CFR 1320.12(d);
The summary below describes the nature of the information collection requests (ICRs) and the expected burden. The revised request is being submitted for clearance by OMB as required by the PRA.
A comment to OMB is best assured of having its full effect if OMB receives it within 30 days of publication of this notice in the
44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Request for public comment on an extension of a currently approved collection.
Before a Federal agency can collect certain information from the public, it must receive approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Under procedures established by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before seeking OMB approval, Federal agencies must solicit public comment on proposed collections of information, including extensions and reinstatement of previously approved collections.
Comments must be received on or before June 19, 2015.
Comments must refer to the docket notice numbers cited at the beginning of this notice and be submitted to Docket Management, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590 by any of the following methods.
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Michael Pyne, 202-366-4171, Office of Rulemaking (NVS-123), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Room W43-457, Washington, DC 20590.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before an agency submits a proposed collection of information to OMB for approval, it must first publish a document in the
(i) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper
(ii) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(iii) How to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected and;
(iv) How to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In compliance with these requirements, NHTSA asks for public comments on the following proposed collections of information:
FMVSS No. 403 establishes minimum performance standards for platform lifts intended for installation in motor vehicles to assist wheelchair users and other persons with limited mobility in entering and leaving a vehicle. The standard's purpose is to prevent injuries and fatalities to passengers and bystanders during the operation of platform lifts. The related standard FMVSS No. 404, places specific requirements on vehicle manufacturers or alterers who install platform lifts in new vehicles. Lift manufacturers must certify that their lifts meet the requirements of FMVSS No. 403 and must declare in the owner's manual, the installation instructions, and on the operating instruction label that the lift is certified. Certification of compliance with FMVSS No. 404 is included on the vehicle certification label required on all motor vehicles under part 567 of 49 CFR. As a result of the requirements in the two standards, lift manufacturers must produce an insert that is placed in the vehicle owner's manual. They also must produce lift installation instructions, as well as either one or two labels, to be placed near the controls for the lift. The latter illustrate and describe procedures for operating the lift.
Our estimates of burden and cost to lift manufacturers to meet these requirements are given below. There is no burden to the general public.
Estimated burden for lift manufacturers to produce an insert for vehicle owner manuals stating the lift's platform operating volume, maintenance schedule, and lift operating procedures, as applicable: 10 manufacturers × 24 hrs. amortized over 5 yrs. = 48 hours per year.
Estimated burden for lift manufacturers to produce installation instructions identifying the types of vehicles on which a lift is designed to be installed: 10 manufacturers × 24 hrs. amortized over 5 yrs. = 48 hours per year.
Estimated burden for lift manufacturers to produce a placard and/or labeling on or near the lift control panel to identify the operating functions: 10 manufacturers × 24 hrs. amortized over 5 yrs. = 48 hours per year.
Estimated burden for lift manufacturers to produce a placard and/or labeling on or near the lift control panel to identify the lift backup operating procedures: 10 manufacturers × 24 hrs. amortized over 5 yrs. = 48 hours per year.
Owner's manual insert—27, 398 lifts × $0.04 per page × 1 page = $1,095.92.
Lift installation instructions—27,398 lifts × $0.04 per page × 1 page
Labeling/placard for lift operating procedures—27,398 lifts × $0.13 per label = $3,561.74.
Labeling/placard for lift backup operating procedures—27,398 lifts × $0.13 per label = $3,561.74.
Total estimated number of respondents: 10.
Total estimated hour burden per year = 192 hours.
Total estimated annual cost = $9,315.32.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1.48.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Buy America waiver.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirement is appropriate for the purchase of Radian model 120 convertible car seats by the New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency, using Federal grant funds. NHTSA finds that a non-availability waiver of the Buy America requirement is appropriate for the purchase of these car seats using Federal highway safety grant funds because there are no suitable products produced in the United States.
The effective date of this waiver is April 30, 2015. Written comments regarding this notice may be submitted to NHTSA and must be received on or before: May 5, 2015.
Written comments may be submitted using any one of the following methods:
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For program issues, contact Barbara Sauers, Office of Regional Operations and Program Delivery, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-0144). For legal issues, contact Andrew DiMarsico, Office of Chief Counsel, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-5263). You may send mail to these officials at the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirements, 23 U.S.C. 313, is appropriate for the New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency to purchase 20 Radian model 120 convertible car seats using grant funds authorized under 23 U.S.C. 402 (section 402). Section 402 funds are available for use by State Highway Safety Programs that, among other things, encourage the proper use of occupant protection devices, including child restraint systems. 23 U.S.C. 402(a).
Buy America provides that NHTSA “shall not obligate any funds authorized to be appropriated to carry out the Surface Transportation Assistance Act of 1982 (96 Stat. 2097) or [Title 23] and administered by the Department of Transportation, unless steel, iron, and manufactured products used in such project are produced in the United States.” 23 U.S.C. 313. However, NHTSA may waive this requirement if “(1) its application would be inconsistent with the public interest; (2) such materials and products are not produced in the United States in sufficient and reasonably available quantities and of a satisfactory quality; or (3) the inclusion of domestic material will increase the cost of the overall project contract by more than 25 percent.” 23 U.S.C. 313(b). In this instance, NHTSA has determined that a waiver is appropriate for the purchase of Radian Model 120 convertible car seats because there is no comparable product produced domestically that meets the need identified by the New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency—specifically, child seats that can safely transport children from 5 to 80 pounds in the patient compartment of an ambulance and that occupy minimal space in the ambulance when not in use.
The New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency seeks a waiver for one of its grantees, the New Hampshire Emergency Medical Services for Children Program (EMSC), to purchase 20 Radian car seats for use by ambulance services throughout New Hampshire. The Radian model 120 convertible car seat was selected by these programs because it has a 5 to 80 pound weight allowance, which meets the equipment requirements in Chapter Saf-C 5900 of the New Hampshire Emergency Medical Services Rules. The New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency states that the selected model is preferred because the car seat folds flat, limiting the storage space it occupies. The New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency further notes that the New Hampshire rules specify an extensive list of equipment that must be included in an ambulance, and that ambulance services have stated that there is insufficient space to store typical child seats that do not fold.
The New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency notes that “Working Group Best-Practice Recommendations for the Safe Transportation of Children in Emergency Ground Ambulances,” issued by NHTSA in September 2012, recommends that children transported by ambulance are secured using a size-appropriate child restraint system in either the cot (stretcher) or the captain's chair. The Radian model is convertible and can be used on the ambulance cot and the captain's chair to secure children up to 80 pounds in a 5-point harness. Finally, the Radian Model 120 has a steel alloy frame that gives the seat a life span of 10 years.
The model, sold through the Diono Company, retails for approximately $240 per seat. It is manufactured in China.
NHTSA conducted an assessment of available child restraints and is not aware of a comparable child seat produced in the United States. The Radian model 120 seat is unique in the child seat market because it can safely secure children from 5 to 80 pounds in the captain's chair or cot of an ambulance and can fold to create a thin profile, minimizing necessary storage space in an ambulance. NHTSA is not aware of any domestically-produced child seats on the market that are convertible, have a 5 to 80 pound weight allowance, and fold to create a thin profile. NHTSA was able to locate one domestically-produced convertible car seat, the Safety 1st 3-in-1 Elite Air 80 Convertible Car Seat, which has a 5 to 80 pound weight allowance and a steel frame and can secure children up to 80 pounds in the harness. However, the Elite Air 80 does not fold to create a thin profile. Although this car seat is made in the United States, NHTSA believes it is not comparable to the Radian Model 120 because it does not fold to create a thin profile, which is a factor because ambulance services have stated that there is insufficient space to store typical child seats that do not fold.
Since a child seat that meets the requirements identified by the New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency is unavailable from a domestic manufacturer, the Buy America waiver is appropriate. NHTSA invites public comment on this conclusion.
In light of the above discussion, and pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 313(b)(2), NHTSA finds that it is appropriate to grant a waiver from the Buy America requirement to the New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency to purchase Radian Model 120 child seats. This waiver applies to New Hampshire and all other States seeking to use section 402 funds to purchase Radian Model 120 child seats for the purposes mentioned herein. These waivers will continue through fiscal year 2015 and will allow the purchase of these items as required by the New Hampshire Highway Safety Agency. Accordingly, this waiver will expire at the conclusion of fiscal year 2015 (September 30, 2015). In accordance with the provisions of Section 117 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy of Users Technical Corrections Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-244, 122 Stat. 1572), NHTSA is providing this notice as its finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirement is appropriate. Written comments on this finding may be submitted through any of the methods discussed above. NHTSA may reconsider this finding if through the comments it learns of and can confirm the existence of a comparable domestically made product to the Radian Model 120 child seat.
This finding should not be construed as an endorsement or approval of the products by NHTSA or the U.S. Department of Transportation. The United States Government does not endorse products or manufacturers.
23 U.S.C. 313; Pub. L. 110-161.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Buy America waiver.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding with respect to a request to waive the requirements of Buy America from the New York Governor's Traffic Safety Committee (GTSC). NHTSA finds that a non-availability waiver of the Buy America requirement is appropriate for the purchase of 205 Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1 Tablet packages using Federal highway traffic safety grant funds because there are no suitable products produced in the United States.
The effective date of this waiver is April 30, 2015. Written comments regarding this notice may be submitted to NHTSA and must be received on or before: May 5, 2015.
Written comments may be submitted using any one of the following methods:
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For program issues, contact Barbara Sauers, Office of Regional Operations and Program Delivery, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-0144). For legal issues, contact Andrew DiMarsico, Office of Chief Counsel, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-5263). You may send mail to these officials at the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirement, 23 U.S.C. 313, is appropriate for New York's GTSC to purchase Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1 (2014 Edition) Tablet packages using grant funds authorized under 23 U.S.C. 405(d) (section 405) and its predecessor, 23 U.S.C. 410(d) (section 410).
Buy America provides that NHTSA “shall not obligate any funds authorized to be appropriated to carry out the Surface Transportation Assistance Act of 1982 (96 Stat. 2097) or [Title 23] and administered by the Department of Transportation, unless steel, iron, and manufactured products used in such project are produced in the United States.” 23 U.S.C. 313. However, NHTSA may waive those requirements if “(1) their application would be inconsistent with the public interest; (2) such materials and products are not produced in the United States in sufficient and reasonably available quantities and of a satisfactory quality; or (3) the inclusion of domestic material will increase the cost of the overall project contract by more than 25 percent.” 23 U.S.C. 313(b). In this instance, NHTSA has determined that non-availability waivers are appropriate for the tablet packages that New York's GTSC seeks to purchase using Federal grant funds.
The GTSC seeks a waiver to purchase 205 Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1 Tablet packages, including a tablet, power cord, HD card, and case, at $529 per unit to be used by New York's Drug Recognition Experts (DREs) to conduct drug impaired driving evaluations in the field. New York tested three tablets, including the Samsung Note, a Lenovo ThinkPad, and an Asus, to determine which tablet was best suited to meet the GTSC's needs. All of the tablets tested are manufactured outside the United States: The Samsung tablet tested is made in Vietnam, and the ThinkPad and Asus tablets are made in China. New York states that the most important feature needed on the tablet is a stylus that is capable of drawing clear graphics related to the various tests conducted during the course of an evaluation. New York states that the stylus is important because the DREs need a drawing capability to fill out the multiple images on a Drug Influence Evaluation form. For example, DREs may use a stylus to draw dots on a diagram of an arm to signify drug track marks and to indicate on a diagram the exact location a suspect touches on his or her face when asked to touch a finger to the nose or other areas on the face. New York states that a stylus is necessary to perform these tasks. Further, a stylus will enable a DRE to use these tablet functions while wearing gloves in cold field conditions.
The Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1 was selected by GTSC because it has an S Pen that, according to New York, allows for smooth writing and drawing. The Samsung Note is also preferred because the Samsung S Pen has a dedicated slot in the tablet and does not require additional batteries, such that it is lighter than other actively digitized styluses. The Samsung Note has an 8 megapixel camera with flash and can take videos. It has a 2560 x 1600 pixel resolution that is able to distinguish between a finger and a stylus and can display its screen onto a television using an HDMI adapter. It has a quad core 1.3 GHz processor and 3 GB of ram. It also has a 32 GB hard drive, which New York states is needed to ensure that the DREs do not run out of space. New York also states that the Samsung Note has a more than 9 hour battery life when in use and can last up to 200 hours while idling. Finally, the Samsung Note is an Android device that runs on the Android KitKat 4.4.2 operating system, which is compatible with the application that will be used by DREs to capture evaluation data in the field on the tablets that the DREs will then upload to the DRE database.
New York's GTSC conducted phone calls, emails, and web searches, but was unable to identify any domestically manufactured tablet packages. NHTSA
In light of the above discussion, and pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 313(b)(2), NHTSA finds that it is appropriate to grant a waiver from the Buy America requirements to GTSC in order to purchase 205 Samsung Galaxy Note Tablets. This waiver applies to New York and all other States seeking to use section 405(d) and eligible section 410 funds to purchase Samsung Galaxy Note 10.1 Tablet packages for the purposes mentioned herein. This waiver will continue through fiscal year 2015 and will allow the purchase of these items as required for New York's GTSC. Accordingly, this waiver will expire at the conclusion of fiscal year 2015 (September 30, 2015). In accordance with the provisions of Section 117 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy of Users Technical Corrections Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-244, 122 Stat. 1572), NHTSA is providing this notice as its finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirements is appropriate for the Samsung Galaxy Note Tablet packages.
Written comments on this finding may be submitted through any of the methods discussed above. NHTSA may reconsider this finding if, through comment, it learns of additional relevant information regarding its decision to grant the New York GTSC's waiver request.
This finding should not be construed as an endorsement or approval of any products by NHTSA or the U.S. Department of Transportation. The United States Government does not endorse products or manufacturers.
23 U.S.C. 313; Pub. L. 110-161.
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Buy America waiver.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding that a non-availability waiver of the Buy America requirements is appropriate for the purchase of consumer-use motorcycle helmets by the Florida Department of Transportation (FDOT), using Federal grant funds. NHTSA has determined that a waiver is appropriate because there are no suitable motorcycle helmets produced in the United States that are designed for consumer-use.
The effective date of this waiver is April 30, 2015. Written comments regarding this notice may be submitted to NHTSA and must be received on or before: May 5, 2015.
Written comments may be submitted using any one of the following methods:
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For program issues, contact Barbara Sauers, Office of Regional Operations and Program Delivery, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-0144). For legal issues, contact Andrew DiMarsico, Office of Chief Counsel, NHTSA (phone: 202-366-5263). You may send mail to these officials at National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
This notice provides NHTSA's finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirements, 23 U.S.C. 313, is appropriate for the Florida Department of Transportation (FDOT) to purchase approximately 239 consumer-use motorcycle helmets, using grant funds authorized under 23 U.S.C. 402 (section 402) and 23 U.S.C. 403 (section 403).
FDOT seeks a waiver to purchase motorcycle helmets for use by its program called “The Demonstration to Promote Motorcycle Helmet Use,” and other motorcycle safety education and injury prevention programs. FDOT requests to purchase a maximum of 150 helmets using Section 403 funds and 85 helmets using Section 402 funds at a per unit cost of $100 to $150. FDOT also plans to purchase 4 consumer-use helmets for law enforcement officers using Section 402 funds at an estimated cost of $300 each. Although the State of Florida does not require motorcyclists to wear a helmet, Florida aims to increase helmet use through alternate efforts, such as raffles for helmets and exchanges that allow motorcyclists to receive DOT-compliant helmets for trading in non-DOT-compliant helmets. FDOT seeks to use Federal grant funds to purchase motorcycle helmets for use during these outreach activities at motorcycle rallies and events. FDOT will use the motorcycle helmets to encourage participation in its helmet safety education programs, focus groups, and surveys at these events. FDOT states that its proposed helmet drawings and exchange program will incentivize the use of helmets within the segment of the motorcycle rider community that is suspicious of the safety benefits of helmet use. FDOT also seeks to use Federal grant funds to purchase 2 helmets for use by law enforcement officers on the Florida State University Police Department motorsports team to promote motorcycle safety and discourage illegal street racing and 2 helmets for use by law enforcement officers to blend in with other motorcyclists during law enforcement activities.
FDOT seeks to use these motorcycle helmets for its program because they are designed specifically for consumers. FDOT believes that using these motorcycle helmets as an incentive should encourage and increase the use of helmets within the motorcycling community. Florida is unable to identify, however, any motorcycle helmets that meet the Buy America requirements. FDOT conducted phone calls and web searches but was unable to find an American made motorcycle helmet.
NHTSA is aware of only one brand of consumer-use motorcycle helmet that is produced in the United States: Super Seer Corporation (Seer), a Colorado-based custom motorcycle helmet manufacturer. Seer primarily produces helmets for law enforcement. It also makes one model (Seer Touring Helmet) for public use. The Seer helmet is not offered to the general public through retail outlets. These custom motorcycle helmets are not mass produced, rather they are hand-made to order.
In light of the above discussion, and pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 313(b)(2), NHTSA finds that it is appropriate to grant a waiver from the Buy America requirements to FDOT in order to purchase approximately 239 consumer-use motorcycle helmets. This non-availability waiver applies to Florida and all other States seeking to use section 402 and section 403 funds to purchase motorcycle helmets for the purposes mentioned herein. The waiver will continue through fiscal year 2015 and will allow the purchase of off-the-shelf consumer motorcycle helmets required for Florida's demonstration motorcycle helmet program and other motorcycle safety and research programs. Accordingly, this waiver will expire at the conclusion of fiscal year 2015 (September 30, 2015). In accordance with the provisions of Section 117 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy of Users Technical Corrections Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-244, 122 Stat. 1572), NHTSA is providing this notice as its finding that a waiver of the Buy America requirements is appropriate. Written comments on this finding may be submitted through any of the methods discussed above. NHTSA may reconsider these findings, if through comment, it learns of and can confirm the existence of a comparable domestically made product to the items granted a waiver.
These findings should not be construed as an endorsement or approval of any products by NHTSA or the U.S. Department of Transportation. The United States Government does not endorse products or manufacturers.
23 U.S.C. 313; Public Law 110-161.
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning, Miscellaneous Sections Affected by the Taxpayer Bill of Rights 2 and the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996.
Written comments should be received on or before June 19, 2015 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Christie A. Preston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington,
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury (Treasury) seeks applications from individuals who wish to serve on the advisory committee on risk-sharing mechanisms to voluntarily reinsure against losses from acts of terrorism in order to encourage the growth of nongovernmental, private market reinsurance capacity for protection against losses from acts of terrorism.
Brett D. Hewitt, Policy Advisor, Federal Insurance Office, Room 1410, Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20220, at (202) 622-5892 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons who have difficulty hearing or speaking may access this number via TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339.
Pursuant to section 110 of the Terrorism Risk Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2015,
The Advisory Committee was established to provide an opportunity for directors, officers, or other employees of insurers, reinsurers, or capital market participants that are participating or that desire to participate in nongovernmental risk-sharing mechanisms related to terrorism risk, to periodically offer views directly to FIO. The duties of the Advisory Committee shall be solely advisory, and any advice and recommendations of the Advisory Committee shall not be binding on FIO.
The Advisory Committee is a nine-member committee.
Treasury seeks applications from directors, officers, or other employees of insurers, reinsurers, or capital market participants that are participating or that desire to participate in nongovernmental risk-sharing mechanisms related to reinsurance for losses arising from acts of terrorism.
To apply, an applicant must submit an appropriately detailed resumé and a cover letter that includes a brief description of the applicant's reason for applying. An applicant must state in the applicant's materials that he or she agrees to submit to a pre-appointment tax and criminal background investigation in accordance with Treasury Directive 21-03. Applications should be addressed to Brett Hewitt and sent via email to
U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission.
Notice of open public hearing—April 22, 2015, Washington, DC.
Notice is hereby given of the following hearing of the U.S.-China
Any member of the public seeking further information concerning the hearing should contact Reed Eckhold, 444 North Capitol Street NW., Suite 602, Washington, DC 20001; phone: 202-624-1496, or via email at
Congress created the U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission in 2000 in the National Defense Authorization Act (Pub. L. 106-398), as amended by Division P of the Consolidated Appropriations Resolution, 2003 (Pub. L. 108-7), as amended by Public Law 109-108 (November 22, 2005), as amended by Public Law 113-291 (December 19, 2014).
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Final rules.
We are adopting amendments to Regulation A and other rules and forms to implement Section 401 of the Jumpstart Our Business Startups (JOBS) Act. Section 401 of the JOBS Act added Section 3(b)(2) to the Securities Act of 1933, which directs the Commission to adopt rules exempting from the registration requirements of the Securities Act offerings of up to $50 million of securities annually. The final rules include issuer eligibility requirements, content and filing requirements for offering statements, and ongoing reporting requirements for issuers in Regulation A offerings.
The final rules and form amendments are effective on June 19, 2015.
Zachary O. Fallon, Special Counsel; Office of Small Business Policy, Division of Corporation Finance, at (202) 551-3460; or Shehzad K. Niazi, Special Counsel; Office of Rulemaking, Division of Corporation Finance, at (202) 551-3430, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-3628.
We are amending Rules 251 through 263
We are revising Form 1-A,
Further, we are revising Rule 4a-1
As a result of the revisions to Regulation A, we are adopting conforming and technical amendments to Securities Act Rules 157(a),
On December 18, 2013, we proposed rule and form amendments
We are adopting final rules to implement the JOBS Act mandate by expanding Regulation A into two tiers: Tier 1, for securities offerings of up to $20 million; and Tier 2, for offerings of up to $50 million.
In developing the final rules, we considered the statutory language of JOBS Act Section 401, the JOBS Act legislative history, recent recommendations of the Commission's Government-Business Forum on Small Business Capital Formation,
The key provisions of the final rules and amendments to Regulation A follow:
• Permit issuers to “test the waters” with, or solicit interest in a potential offering from, the general public either before or after the filing of the offering statement, so long as any solicitation materials used after publicly filing the offering statement are preceded or accompanied by a preliminary offering circular or contain a notice informing potential investors where and how the most current preliminary offering circular can be obtained.
The Commission is required by Section 3(b)(5) of the Securities Act to review the Tier 2 offering limitation every two years. In addition to revisiting the Tier 2 offering limitation, the staff will also undertake to review the Tier 1 offering limitation at the same time. The staff also will undertake to study and submit a report to the Commission no later than 5 years following the adoption of the amendments to Regulation A, on the impact of both the Tier 1 and Tier 2 offerings on capital formation and investor protection. The report will include, but not be limited to, a review of: (1) The amount of capital raised under the amendments; (2) the number of issuances and amount raised by both Tier 1 and Tier 2 offerings; (3) the number of placement agents and brokers facilitating the Regulation A offerings; (4) the number of Federal, State, or any other actions taken against issuers, placement agents, or brokers with respect to both Tier 1 and Tier 2 offerings; and (5) whether any additional investor protections are necessary for either Tier 1 or Tier 2. Based on the information contained in the report, the Commission may propose to either decrease or increase the offering limit for Tier 1, as appropriate.
Section 401 of the JOBS Act does not include any express issuer eligibility requirements. The proposed rules would have maintained Regulation A's existing issuer eligibility requirements and added two new categories of ineligible issuers.
Commenters expressed a wide range of views on the proposed issuer eligibility requirements. A number of commenters expressed general support for the proposed issuer eligibility requirements.
A few commenters recommended allowing blank check companies and special purpose acquisition companies (SPACs) to rely on Regulation A.
Many commenters recommended making non-Canadian foreign companies eligible issuers under Regulation A.
A number of commenters supported making BDCs eligible issuers under Regulation A.
Several commenters opposed using the issuer's size to limit eligibility.
A number of commenters supported allowing Exchange Act reporting companies to conduct offerings under Regulation A.
We are adopting the issuer eligibility criteria as proposed. Under the final rules, Regulation A will be limited to companies organized in and with their principal place of business in the United States or Canada. It will be unavailable to:
• Companies subject to the ongoing reporting requirements of Section 13 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act;
• companies registered or required to be registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 and BDCs;
• blank check companies;
• issuers of fractional undivided interests in oil or gas rights, or similar interests in other mineral rights;
• issuers that are required to, but that have not, filed with the Commission the ongoing reports required by the rules under Regulation A during the two years immediately preceding the filing of a new offering statement (or for such shorter period that the issuer was required to file such reports);
• issuers that are or have been subject to an order by the Commission denying, suspending, or revoking the registration of a class of securities pursuant to Section 12(j) of the Exchange Act that was entered within five years before the filing of the offering statement;
• issuers subject to “bad actor” disqualification under Rule 262.
We expect that the amendments we are adopting will significantly expand the utility of the Regulation A offering exemption.
Our approach in the final rules is generally to maintain the issuer eligibility requirements of existing Regulation A with the limited addition of two new categories of ineligible issuers. We believe this approach will provide important continuity in the Regulation A regime as it expands in the way Congress mandated. For this reason, we do not believe it is necessary to adopt final rules to exclude issuers that are currently eligible to conduct Regulation A offerings. Additionally, we recognize that expanding the categories of eligible issuers, as suggested by a number of commenters, could provide certain benefits, including increased investment opportunities for investors and avenues for capital formation for certain issuers. We are concerned, however, about the implications of extending issuer eligibility before the Commission has the ability to assess the impact of the changes to Regulation A being adopted today. In light of these changes, we believe it prudent to defer expanding the categories of eligible issuers (for example, by including non-Canadian foreign issuers, BDCs, or Exchange Act reporting companies) until the Commission has had the opportunity to observe the use of the amended Regulation A exemption and assess any new market practices as they develop.
Additionally, we are not adopting further restrictions on eligibility at this time. In light of the disclosure requirements contained in the final rules, we do not believe that it is necessary to exclude additional types of issuers, such as shell companies, issuers of penny stock, or other types of investment vehicles, from relying on the exemption in Regulation A. At the same time, we are concerned about potentially increased risks to investors that could result from extending issuer eligibility to other types of entities, such as blank check companies, before the Commission has the opportunity to observe developing market practices. We therefore believe the prudent approach with respect to any potential expansion of issuer eligibility is to give the Regulation A market time to develop under rules that we are adopting today. We also do not believe it is necessary to limit availability of the exemption to issuers of a certain size, as we agree with commenters that suggested that the annual offering limit will serve to limit the utility of the exemption for larger issuers in need of greater amounts of capital. We further do not believe that it is appropriate to limit the availability of the exemption to “operating companies,” as that term would restrict availability of the exemption to fewer issuers than are currently eligible under Regulation A, such as by excluding shell companies.
As proposed, the final rules include two new issuer eligibility requirements that add important investor protections to Regulation A. First, potential issuers must have filed all required ongoing reports under Regulation A during the two years immediately preceding the filing of a new offering statement (or for such shorter period that the issuer was required to file such reports) to remain eligible to conduct offerings pursuant to the rules. This requirement will benefit investors by providing them with more information, with respect to issuers that have previously made a Regulation A offering, to consider when making an investment decision, facilitate the development of an efficient secondary market in such securities, and enhance our ability to analyze and observe the Regulation A market. Second, issuers subject to orders by the Commission entered pursuant to Section 12(j) of the Exchange Act within a five-year period immediately preceding the filing of the offering statement will not be eligible to conduct an offering pursuant to Regulation A. This requirement will increase investor protection and
Section 3(b)(3) of the Securities Act limits the availability of any exemption enacted under Section 3(b)(2) to “equity securities, debt securities, and debt securities convertible or exchangeable into equity interests, including any guarantees of such securities.”
Several commenters supported the exclusion of asset-backed securities from the list of eligible securities.
We are adopting final rules that limit the types of securities eligible for sale under Regulation A to the specifically enumerated list in Section 3(b)(3), which includes warrants and convertible equity securities, among other equity and debt securities.
We proposed to amend Regulation A to create two tiers of requirements: Tier 1, for offerings of up to $5 million of securities in a 12-month period; and Tier 2, for offerings of up to $50 million of securities in a 12-month period.
Commenters were generally supportive of the proposed offering limitations on primary and secondary offerings. Many commenters, however, suggested changes to the proposed offering limits for both tiers, as well as to the proposed limits on secondary sales.
Several commenters recommended that the Commission increase the $50 million offering limitation for Tier 2.
With respect to offering limit calculations, one commenter recommended that the aggregate offering price of the underlying security only be included in the $50 million offering limitation during the 12-month period in which such security is first convertible, exercisable, or exchangeable.
Several commenters specifically supported the proposed limitations on secondary sales.
Many other commenters recommended raising the resale limits or eliminating them entirely.
Many commenters specifically supported the proposed elimination of the requirement that issuers must have had net income from continuing operations in at least one of its last two fiscal years in order for affiliate resales to be permitted, generally noting that many companies have net losses for many years, including, for example, due to high research and development costs.
We are adopting the proposed amendments to Regulation A with modifications to the Tier 1 offering limitation and the secondary sales offering limitation. We discuss these amendments in detail below. We are also making a technical change to clarify the description of how compliance with the offering limitations is calculated in Rule 251(a).
As discussed more fully in the “Additional Considerations for Smaller Offerings” section below, we are making changes to the proposed rules in response to comments and to increase the utility of Tier 1 of the Regulation A exemption.
We are adopting the proposed $50 million Tier 2 offering limitation.
The Commission is required by Section 401 of the JOBS Act to review the Section 3(b)(2) offering limitation every two years, and we will consider the use of the final rules by market participants as part of that review. We will therefore revisit the offering limitation by April 2016, as required by the statute, with a view to considering whether to increase the $50 million offering limitation. We also are adopting the proposed $15 million limitation on secondary sales for Tier 2 as proposed, with a change in the application of the limitation for secondary sales under both Tier 1 and Tier 2 discussed in the following section.
As noted in the Proposing Release, secondary sales are an important part of Regulation A. We believe that allowing
We do not believe that a wholesale prohibition on secondary sales, as suggested by some commenters, is appropriate or necessary for either Tier 1 or Tier 2 of Regulation A. However, in order to strike an appropriate balance between allowing selling securityholders continued access to avenues for liquidity in Regulation A and the concern that secondary offerings do not directly provide new capital to companies and could pose the potential risks to investors discussed above, the final rules continue to permit secondary sales but provide additional limitations on secondary sales in the first year. The final rules limit the amount of securities that selling securityholders can sell at the time of an issuer's first Regulation A offering and within the following 12 months to no more than 30% of the aggregate offering price of a particular offering.
Further, we are providing different requirements for secondary sales by affiliates and by non-affiliates. The final rules limit secondary sales by affiliates that occur following the expiration of the first year after an issuer's initial qualification of an offering statement to no more than $6 million, in the case of Tier 1 offerings, or no more than $15 million, in the case of Tier 2 offerings, over a 12-month period. Secondary sales by non-affiliates that are made pursuant to a qualified offering statement following the expiration of the first year after an issuer's initial qualification of an offering statement will not be limited except by the maximum offering amount permitted by either Tier 1 or Tier 2.
We do not believe that the concerns expressed by one commenter about informational disadvantages that may exist with affiliate sales are present with respect to resales by non-affiliates.
We also disagree with the commenters who suggested limitations on secondary sales are contrary to the legislative intent behind the enactment of Title IV of the JOBS Act. We note that Section 3(b)(2) expressly provides that the Commission may impose additional terms, conditions, or requirements as it deems necessary in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
Under the proposal, if the offering included securities that are convertible into, or exercisable or exchangeable for, other securities (rights to acquire), the offer and sale of the underlying securities also would generally be required to be qualified,
We are adopting as proposed final rules that eliminate the last sentence of Rule 251(b),
Regulation A does not currently limit the amount of securities an investor can purchase in a qualified Regulation A offering. As we noted in the Proposing Release, however, we recognize that with the increased annual offering limitation provided in Section 3(b)(2) comes a risk of commensurately greater investor losses.
A number of commenters generally supported investment limitations for Tier 2 offerings.
Numerous commenters recommended eliminating the investment limitation for Tier 2 offerings.
Many commenters, including those both for and against the investment limit, recommended providing exceptions to the limit for certain types of investors, such as accredited investors, or altering the application of
Many commenters explicitly supported allowing issuers to rely on an investor's representation of compliance with the 10% investment limit.
Several commenters disagreed with allowing investors to represent compliance with the investment limitation and recommended a standard that would require an issuer to do more to ensure compliance.
We are adopting an investment limitation for Tier 2 offerings in the final rules, with minor modifications from the proposed rules. We believe that the investment limitation serves as an important investor protection and may help to mitigate the risk that with the increased annual offering limitation provided in Section 3(b)(2) comes a risk of commensurately greater investor losses. We do not believe that the limitation is needed for accredited investors because investors that qualify as accredited under our rules satisfy certain criteria that suggest they are capable of protecting themselves in transactions that are exempt from registration under the Securities Act.
Under the final rules, the investment limitations for purchasers in Tier 2 offerings will not apply to purchasers who qualify as accredited investors under Rule 501 of Regulation D.
In response to questions raised by commenters, we are clarifying that non-accredited, non-natural persons are subject to the investment limitation and should calculate the limitation based on no more than 10% of the greater of the purchaser's revenue or net assets (as of the purchaser's most recent fiscal year end).
If the investor is purchasing securities that are convertible into, or exercisable or exchangeable for, other securities, if such securities are exercisable within a year or otherwise are being qualified, the investment limitation will include the aggregate conversion, exercise, or exchange price of such securities, in addition to the purchase price.
As proposed, we are adopting final rules that require issuers to notify investors of the investment limitations.
Some commenters suggested requiring an issuer to have a reasonable belief that it can rely on an investor's representation of compliance with the investment limitations or to take reasonable steps to verify compliance, while other commenters suggested we establish consequences for issuers (and intermediaries, when applicable) if an investor failed to comply with the limitations.
We do not believe that additional requirements for issuers and their intermediaries, such as requiring issuers to take reasonable steps to verify an investors' compliance with the investment limitations, are necessary to protect investors in light of the total package of investor protections included in the final rules for Tier 2 offerings.
While many commenters urged the Commission to eliminate or provide less restrictive investment limitations in the final rules,
Despite the suggestions of some commenters,
We proposed amending Rule 251(c) of Regulation A, which governs the integration of Regulation A offerings with other offerings, to provide that offerings under Regulation A would not to be integrated with any of the following:
• Prior offers or sales of securities; or
• certain specified subsequent offers and sales of securities.
The proposed safe harbor was substantially the same as the existing integration safe harbor in Rule 251(c), with the addition of a separate provision for securities-based crowdfunding transactions conducted pursuant to Section 4(a)(6) of the Securities Act.
We further proposed to amend Rule 254(d) to provide that, where an issuer decides to register an offering after soliciting interest in a contemplated, but abandoned, Regulation A offering, any offers made pursuant to Regulation A would not be subject to integration with the registered offering, unless the issuer engaged in solicitations of interest in reliance on Regulation A to persons other than qualified institutional buyers (QIBs)
One commenter specifically supported the proposed changes to the integration provisions of Regulation A.
We are adopting, as proposed, an integration safe harbor, with one clarifying change. Under the final rules, offerings pursuant to Regulation A will not be integrated with:
• Prior offers or sales of securities; or
• subsequent offers and sales of securities that are:
• Registered under the Securities Act, except as provided in Rule 255(c);
• made pursuant to Rule 701 under the Securities Act;
• made pursuant to an employee benefit plan;
• made pursuant to Regulation S;
• made pursuant to Section 4(a)(6) of the Securities Act; or
• made more than six months after completion of the Regulation A offering.
We believe that the integration safe harbor has historically provided and, as amended, will continue to provide, issuers, particularly smaller issuers whose capital needs often change, with valuable certainty as to the contours of a given offering and their eligibility for an exemption from Securities Act registration. The addition of subsequent offers or sales made pursuant to Section 4(a)(6), which is the only substantive change to the existing safe harbor being adopted today, should not significantly alter the application of the doctrine in practice. Given the unique capital formation method available to issuers and investors through Section 4(a)(6) of the Securities Act and the small dollar amounts involved, we believe that the addition to the safe harbor list of subsequent crowdfunding offers and sales conducted pursuant to such section is appropriate and will not unduly increase risks to investors.
We are also clarifying in the final rules the scope of the proposed safe harbor from integration in instances where an issuer abandons a contemplated Regulation A offering before qualification, but after soliciting interest in such offering to persons other than QIBs and institutional accredited investors. The proposed language could be read to imply that issuers must wait at least 30 calendar days to avoid integration with a subsequent registered offering or else be subject to integration. The final rules clarify that waiting less than 30 calendar days before a subsequent registered offering would not necessarily result in integration and would instead depend on the particular facts and circumstances.
We are also reaffirming the integration guidance provided in the Proposing Release, which is consistent with guidance provided by the Commission in a 2007 rule proposal on Regulation D.
Exchange Act Section 12(g) requires, among other things, that an issuer with total assets exceeding $10,000,000 and a class of equity securities held of record by either 2,000 persons, or 500 persons who are not accredited investors, register such class of securities with the Commission.
Commenters generally expressed support for some form of exemption from the registration requirements under Section 12(g). Numerous commenters recommended exempting Regulation A securities from Section 12(g).
Several commenters recommended changing, delaying, or conditioning the application of Section 12(g)'s registration requirements, especially the corresponding Section 13 reporting obligations that come with registration.
We are adopting today final rules that exempt securities issued in a Tier 2 offering from the provisions of Section 12(g) for so long as the issuer remains subject to, and is current in (as of its fiscal year end),
In determining to provide a conditional exemption from the provisions of Section 12(g), we have considered a number of factors. First, we believe the conditional exemption we are adopting today is consistent with the intent behind the original enactment of Section 12(g) to the extent it ensures that relevant information about issuers will be made routinely available to investors and the marketplace.
While we believe, as we noted in the Proposing Release, that the Section 12(g) record holder threshold continues to provide an important baseline above which issuers should generally be subject to the disclosure obligations of the Exchange Act, we are persuaded that this need not be the case where an issuer is a smaller company that is subject to, and current in, its periodic reporting obligations under Tier 2 of Regulation A and engages the services of a transfer agent that is registered with the Commission under the Exchange Act. Regulation A, as amended in the final rules, requires issuers that conduct Tier 2 offerings to provide periodic disclosure to their investors and updates for certain important corporate events.
Section 3(b)(2)(G)(i) gives the Commission discretion to require an offering statement in such form and with such content as it determines necessary in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
Consistent with the language of Section 3(b)(2)(G)(i), we proposed to require Regulation A offering statements to be filed with the Commission electronically on EDGAR.
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We further proposed to require all other documents required to be submitted or filed with the Commission in conjunction with a Regulation A offering, such as ongoing reports, to be submitted or filed electronically on EDGAR.
Additionally, we proposed an access equals delivery model for Regulation A final offering circulars.
Consistent with prior Commission releases on the use of electronic media for delivery purposes, we proposed that “electronic-only” offerings of Regulation A securities would not be prohibited, but an issuer and its participating intermediaries would have to obtain the consent of investors to the electronic delivery of:
• The preliminary offering circular and other information, but not the final offering circular, in instances where, upon qualification, the issuer plans to sell Regulation A securities based on offers made using a preliminary offering circular; and
• all documents and information, including the final offering circular, when the issuer sells Regulation A securities based on offers conducted during the post-qualification period using a final offering circular.
We further proposed to maintain the existing requirements in Regulation A, which require dealers to deliver a copy of the current offering circular to purchasers for sales that take place within 90 calendar days after qualification.
In addition to the revised delivery requirements discussed above, we proposed to add a provision analogous to Rule 173,
We further proposed to allow an issuer to withdraw an offering statement, with the Commission's consent, if none of the securities that are the subject of such offering statement has been sold and such offering statement is not the subject of a Commission order temporarily suspending a Regulation A exemption. Under the proposed rules, the Commission also would be able to declare an offering statement abandoned if the offering statement has been on file with the Commission for nine months without amendment and has not become qualified. These withdrawal and abandonment procedures are similar to the ones that apply to registration statements under the Securities Act.
No commenters opposed the proposed requirement that issuers be required to file offering statements and related material electronically with the Commission on EDGAR, while two commenters expressly supported such a requirement.
A few commenters opposed an access equals delivery model of final offering circular delivery.
One commenter recommended, in addition to requiring electronic filing on EDGAR, requiring issuers to maintain a corporate Web site where the public may access copies of all non-confidential filings in a timely manner so that investors not familiar with EDGAR may access the most complete information provided to the
We are adopting provisions for electronic filing and delivery requirements in the final rules for Regulation A substantially as proposed.
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We believe the approach to electronic filing adopted today will be both practical and useful for issuers of Regulation A securities, investors in such securities, and other market participants. Issuers will be able to maintain better control over their filing process, reduce the printing costs associated with filings, obtain immediate confirmation of acceptance of an offering statement, and ultimately save time in the qualification process. Investors will gain real-time access to the information contained in Regulation A filings.
Electronic filing also will facilitate the capture of important financial and other information about Regulation A issuers and offerings that will enable the Commission and market participants to analyze any market that develops in Regulation A securities, including, for example, information about issuer size, issuer location, key financial metrics, summary information about securities offered and offering amounts, the jurisdictions in which offerings take place, and expenses associated with Regulation A offerings.
We appreciate that requiring EDGAR filing will impose some new costs on issuers, as addressed more fully in the Economic Analysis section of the release.
We are adopting, as proposed, an access equals delivery model for Regulation A final offering circulars when sales are made on the basis of offers conducted during the prequalification period and the final offering circular is filed and available on EDGAR. The expanded use of the Internet and continuing technological developments suggest that we should update the final offering circular delivery method for Regulation A in a manner that is consistent with similar updates to delivery requirements for registered offerings.
Further, as proposed, “electronic-only” offerings of Regulation A securities will be permitted under the final rules, provided that issuers and intermediaries comply with relevant Commission guidance.
• The preliminary offering circular and information other than the final offering circular, in instances where the issuer sells Regulation A securities based on offers made using a preliminary offering circular; and
• all documents and information, including the final offering circular, when the issuer sells Regulation A securities based on offers made during the post-qualification period using a final offering circular.
As we noted in the Proposing Release, in light of the proposed requirements for electronic delivery and in order to be consistent with requirements for registered offerings, we believe it appropriate to permit dealers, during the aftermarket delivery period, to be deemed to satisfy their final offering circular delivery requirements if such document is filed and available on EDGAR.
Separately, we are modifying the terms of Rule 251(d)(2)(ii) to make it more consistent with the dealer delivery requirements for registered offerings under Securities Act Rule 174.
The final rules also update and amend Rule 251(d)(2)(i) to align with changes in the prospectus delivery requirements for registered offerings that have occurred since these requirements were last updated in Regulation A.
We therefore are amending, as proposed, Rule 251(d)(2)(i) to require issuers and participating broker-dealers to deliver only a preliminary offering circular to prospective purchasers
In addition to the revised delivery requirements discussed above, we are adopting, as proposed, final rules analogous to Securities Act Rule 173.
The final rules will, as proposed, permit an issuer to withdraw an offering statement, with the Commission's consent, if none of the securities that are the subject of such offering statement have been sold and such offering statement is not the subject of a Commission order temporarily suspending a Regulation A exemption.
We proposed to allow the non-public submission of draft offering statements by issuers of Regulation A securities. As we noted in the Proposing Release, such submissions would not be subject to the statutorily-mandated confidentiality of draft initial public offering (IPO) registration statements confidentially submitted by “emerging growth companies”
Under the proposed rules, issuers whose securities have not been previously sold pursuant to a qualified offering statement under Regulation A or an effective registration statement under the Securities Act would be permitted to submit to the Commission a draft offering statement for non-public review. As with the confidential submission of draft registration statements by emerging growth companies, all non-public submissions of draft offering statements would be submitted via EDGAR. The initial non-public submission, all non-public amendments thereto, and correspondence with Commission staff regarding such submissions would be required to be publicly filed and available on EDGAR as exhibits to the offering statement not less than 21 calendar days before qualification of the offering statement.
Commenters were generally supportive of the proposed non-public submission process for Regulation A offerings.
We are adopting rules that will, as proposed, provide for the submission of non-public draft offering statements under Regulation A.
We do not believe, as was suggested by at least one commenter,
Unlike Title I of the JOBS Act, Title IV does not provide for confidential submissions of offering statements under Regulation A.
While non-publicly submitted offering statements must be submitted electronically on EDGAR, the Commission and its staff will not make such offering statements publicly available on EDGAR as a matter of course.
Section 3(b)(2)(G)(i) of the Securities Act identifies certain disclosure requirements that the Commission may require for offerings relying on the Regulation A exemption. The requirements largely coincide with the existing offering statement disclosure requirements of Form 1-A, such as financial statements,
Part I of Form 1-A serves as a notice of certain basic information about the issuer and its proposed offering, which also helps to confirm the availability of the exemption.
We received several comments with recommendations specific to certain items on Part I of Form 1-A. With respect to Item 1 of Part I, one commenter recommended defining the term “publicly traded,” eliminating the “Financial Statements” section of Item 1 of Part I or conforming it to the existing disclosures required by Item 301 of Regulation S-K, or conforming the line item descriptions in Item 1 to those in Regulation S-X.
Other commenters recommended including additional disclosure in Part I. Two of these commenters recommended requiring issuers to include their Web site address and the jurisdiction of their principal place of business.
(3) Final Rules
With the exception of technical clarifications, we are adopting provisions for Part I as proposed. The notification in Part I of Form 1-A will require disclosure in response to the following items:
• Item 1. (Issuer Information) will require information about the issuer's identity, industry, number of employees, financial statements and capital structure, as well as contact information.
• Item 2. (Issuer Eligibility) will require the issuer to certify that it meets various issuer eligibility criteria.
• Item 3. (Application of Rule 262 (“bad actor” disqualification and disclosure)) will require the issuer to certify that no disqualifying events have occurred and to indicate whether related disclosure will be included in the offering circular (
• Item 4. (Summary Information Regarding the Offering and other Current or Proposed Offerings) will include indicator boxes or buttons and text boxes eliciting information about the offering (including whether the issuer is conducting a Tier 1 or Tier 2 offering, amount and type of securities offered, proposed sales by selling securityholders and affiliates, type of offering, estimated aggregate sales of any concurrent offerings pursuant to Regulation A, anticipated fees in connection with the offering, and the names of audit and legal service providers, underwriters, and certain others providing services in connection with the offering).
• Item 5. (Jurisdictions in Which Securities are to be Offered) will include information about the jurisdiction(s) in which the securities will be offered.
• Item 6. (Unregistered Securities Issued or Sold Within One Year) will require disclosure about unregistered issuances or sales of securities within the last year, but will not include a requirement to provide the names and identities of the persons to whom unregistered securities were issued.
We are adopting, as proposed, further changes to Part I of Form 1-A. We are eliminating Item 1 (Significant Parties) of current Part I, which requires disclosure of the names, business address, and residential address of all the persons covered by current Rule 262. Instead, we are requiring only narrative disclosure in Part II of Form 1-A when the issuer has determined that a relevant party has a disclosable, but not disqualifying, “bad actor” event.
Some of the technical changes from the proposed rules are non-substantive procedural revisions to the form that are needed to conform the form with the technical requirements of EDGAR, while the others will, as suggested by commenters, provide clarifications to the terms and requirements of Part I.
We do not, however, believe that the additional disclosure items suggested by some commenters,
Consistent with a comment received,
Consistent with the views of several commenters,
As suggested by one commenter,
Finally, in response to one comment,
Part II (Offering Circular) in existing Form 1-A provides issuers with three options for their narrative disclosure: Model A, Model B, and Part I of Form S-1.
We further proposed to create new requirements for audited financial statements and for a section containing management's discussion and analysis (MD&A) of the issuer's liquidity, capital resources, and results of operations.
Consistent with the treatment of issuers in registered offerings, we further proposed to permit issuers to incorporate by reference into Part II of Form 1-A certain items previously submitted or filed on EDGAR, regardless of whether they were provided pursuant to Regulation A disclosure requirements. As proposed, incorporation by reference would be limited to documents publicly submitted or filed under Regulation A and issuers would have to be subject to the ongoing reporting obligations for Tier 2 offerings.
Several commenters recommended against the proposed elimination of the Model A disclosure format, and instead recommended that the Commission retain an updated version of the
Several commenters had specific recommendations on disclosure requirements. Four commenters recommended that the Commission find a way to require more concise risk factor disclosure.
With the exception of clarifying changes, certain additional scaled disclosure items applicable to Tier 1 offerings, and additional guidance to issuers designed to streamline disclosure, we are adopting final rules for narrative disclosure in Form 1-A substantially as proposed. As adopted, Offering Circular disclosure in Part II of Form 1-A will cover:
• Basic information about the issuer and the offering, including identification of any underwriters and disclosure of any underwriting discounts and commissions (Item 1: Cover Page of Offering Circular);
• Table of Contents (Item 2);
• The most significant factors that make the offering speculative or substantially risky (Item 3: Summary and Risk Factors);
• Material disparities between the public offering price and the effective cash costs for shares acquired by insiders during the past year (Item 4: Dilution);
• Plan of distribution for the offering and disclosure regarding selling securityholders (Item 5: Plan of Distribution and Selling Securityholders);
• Use of proceeds (Item 6: Use of Proceeds to Issuer);
• Business operations of the issuer for the prior three fiscal years (or, if in existence for less than three years, since inception) (Item 7: Description of Business);
• Material physical properties (Item 8: Description of Property);
• Discussion and analysis of the issuer's liquidity and capital resources and results of operations through the eyes of management covering the two most recently completed fiscal years and interim periods, if required; and, for issuers that have not received revenue from operations during each of the three fiscal years immediately before the filing of the offering statement (or since inception, whichever is shorter), the plan of operations for the 12 months following qualification of the offering statement, including a statement about whether the issuer anticipates that it will be necessary to raise additional funds within the next six months (Item 9: Management's Discussion and Analysis of Financial Condition and Results of Operations);
• Identification of directors, executive officers and significant employees with a discussion of any family relationships within that group, business experience during the past five years, and involvement in certain legal proceedings during the past five years (Item 10: Directors, Executive Officers and Significant Employees);
• Group-level executive compensation disclosure for the most recent fiscal year for the three highest paid executive officers or directors with Tier 2 requiring individual disclosure of the three highest paid executive officers or directors (Item 11: Compensation of Directors and Executive Officers);
• Beneficial ownership of voting securities by executive officers, directors, and 10% owners (Item 12: Security Ownership of Management and Certain Securityholders);
• Transactions with related persons, promoters and certain control persons (Item 13: Interest of Management and Others in Certain Transactions);
• The material terms of the securities being offered (Item 14: Securities Being Offered); and
• Any events that would have triggered disqualification of the offering under Rule 262 if the issuer could not
The final rules eliminate Model A as a disclosure format for Regulation A offerings, as proposed. While some commenters suggested that the Commission should preserve Model A as an additional disclosure format for Part II of Form 1-A or update existing Model A with NASAA's more recent Form U-7, we are not persuaded that a question-and-answer format should be retained in the final rules. As we noted in the Proposing Release, the Model A disclosure format has historically been used less frequently, and resulted in less-uniform disclosure and a longer time to qualification than the Model B disclosure format.
As proposed, the final rules will require issuers to provide disclosure in Part II of Form 1-A that follows the Offering Circular or Part I of Form S-1 disclosure format. Additionally, we agree with commenters that certain additional disclosure requirements may be appropriate for offerings by REITs and similar issuers. The final rules, therefore, also permit issuers to follow, in addition to the Offering Circular and Part I of Form S-1 formats, the form disclosure requirements of Part I of Form S-11.
Contrary to the suggestions of some commenters, we are not adopting rules that would limit the number of risk factors disclosed. While we appreciate the concern that certain issuers and their advisors may take an overly cautious approach to the application of our disclosure requirements resulting in numerous risk disclosures, the decision as to the appropriate mix of information that should be disclosed to investors must be based on the particular facts and circumstances of each company. We do not believe that a limit on risk factor disclosure is an appropriate substitute for the judgments of issuers and their advisors. A form-based limitation on the number of risk factors, beyond the guidance in Item 3 of Part II, could lead to incomplete disclosure that may place investors at a higher risk of potential loss and issuers at a higher risk for potential litigation if it results in appropriate risk factors being excluded.
Further, we believe that certain other commenter concerns and suggestions as to specific narrative disclosures are already appropriately addressed by the final rules. For example, one commenter suggested that we require disclosure of the names of those holding more than 20% beneficial ownership of the issuer and a description of the issuer's ownership and capital structure, including descriptions of the exercise of rights of principal shareholders.
As adopted, the Offering Circular includes disclosure based on disclosure guidelines set forth in the Securities Act Industry Guides as well as guidance applicable to limited partnerships and limited liability companies.
The changes to the Offering Circular format adopted today will result in Offering Circular disclosure, particularly for Tier 2 offerings, more akin to what is required of smaller reporting companies in a prospectus for a registered offering. For example, the final rules require issuers in both Tier 1 and Tier 2 offerings to disclose beneficial ownership of their voting securities, as opposed to record ownership of voting and non-voting securities.
In addition to preserving the related party transaction disclosure threshold for Tier 1 offerings, we are adopting a change applicable to Tier 1 that will provide an additional scaled disclosure option for issuers in the Offering Circular. This change is consistent with the general views of a number of commenters that urged the Commission to consider additional potential scaling for smaller issuers generally and Tier 1 offerings in particular.
We do not, however, believe that further scaling of smaller issuers' MD&A is necessary under the final rules. As we noted in the Proposing Release, while the final rules provide issuers with more detailed instructions on MD&A disclosure, similar disclosure is already called for under existing requirements.
Except as noted above, the updates to the Offering Circular disclosure requirements will not result in an overall increase in an issuer's disclosure obligations. For example, as mentioned above, certain issuers will have a higher threshold for reporting related party transactions than would have previously been required under Regulation A. Additionally, Tier 1 issuers (which will likely be smaller companies) will, in comparison to the proposed rules, benefit from further scaling of related party transactions and compensation-related disclosures. Further, as proposed, all issuers will be permitted to provide more streamlined disclosure of dilutive transactions with insiders by no longer being required to present a dilution table based on the net tangible book value per share of the issuer's securities.
We are making one change to the disclosure requirements of Item 6 (Use of Proceeds) in the final rules. As proposed, issuers were required to disclose if any material amount of other funds are to be used in conjunction with the proceeds raised in the offering. If so, an issuer would be required to state the amounts and sources of such other funds. The final rules include these proposed provisions, but add a requirement that the issuer further provide disclosure about whether such other funds are firm or contingent. While we did not receive any comment specifically addressing this issue, where applicable, this type of information would generally be required to be disclosed as part of the staff review and comment process before qualification. We believe an express requirement in the final rules will ultimately save issuers time in the qualification process and therefore are including language addressing this issue in the final rules.
For clarity, we are moving the requirements to furnish certain supplemental information found in Item 7 (Business Description) of Part II to Form 1-A to General Instruction IV (Supplemental Information) to Form 1-A, where similar requirements are found. We believe that providing these instructions in one place will help issuers understand and comply with the process for furnishing supplemental information to the Commission. The process for furnishing supplemental information to the Commission pursuant to Form 1-A is similar to the treatment of such information in registered offerings.
The final rules also clarify in Item 5 (Plan of Distribution and Selling Securityholders) the calculation of selling securityholder ownership prior to an offering, which we believe will facilitate compliance with, and calculations pursuant to, this requirement. Additionally, in order to avoid potential confusion as to the scope of Items 11 and 13 to Part II of Form 1-A, the final rules make clear that issuers are required to provide disclosure for “executive officers” rather than “officers.”
As proposed, the final rules permit issuers to incorporate by reference into Part II of Form 1-A certain items previously submitted or filed on EDGAR. In a change from the proposed rules, issuers will be permitted to incorporate by reference any documents publicly submitted or filed on EDGAR, as opposed to being limited to documents submitted or filed pursuant to Regulation A. We believe that this
Part F/S of Form 1-A currently requires issuers
• A balance sheet as of a date within 90 days before filing the offering statement (or as of an earlier date, not more than six months before filing, if the Commission approves upon a showing of good cause) but, for filings made more than 90 days after the end of the issuer's most recent fiscal year, the balance sheet must be dated as of the end of the fiscal year;
• statements of income, cash flows, and stockholders' equity for each of the two fiscal years preceding the date of the most recent balance sheet, and for any interim period between the end of the most recent fiscal year and the date of the most recent balance sheet;
• financial statements of significant acquired or to be acquired businesses; and
• pro forma information relating to significant business combinations.
We proposed to generally maintain the existing financial statement requirements of current Part F/S of Form 1-A for Tier 1 offerings, while requiring Tier 2 issuers to file audited financial statements.
As proposed, issuers conducting Tier 1 offerings would be required to follow the requirements for the form and content of their financial statements set out in Part F/S, rather than the requirements in Regulation S-X. In certain less common circumstances, however, such as for an acquired business or subsidiary guarantors, Part F/S would direct issuers conducting Tier 1 offerings to comply with certain portions of Regulation S-X, which provides guidance on the financial statements required for entities other than the issuer.
For all Tier 2 offerings, the proposed rules would require issuers to follow the financial statement requirements of Article 8 of Regulation S-X, as if the issuer conducting a Tier 2 offering were a smaller reporting company, unless otherwise noted in Part F/S. This requirement would include any financial information with respect to acquired businesses required by Rule 8-04 and 8-05 of Regulation S-X.
As proposed, issuers conducting Tier 2 offerings would be required to have their financial statements audited. As with Tier 1 offerings, the auditor of financial statements would need to be independent under Rule 2-01 of Regulation S-X and must comply with the other requirements of Article 2 of Regulation S-X, but need not be PCAOB-registered.
Additionally, we proposed to update the Form 1-A financial statement requirements to be consistent with the proposed timetable for ongoing reporting.
We proposed to extend the permissible age of financial statements in Form 1-A to nine months, in order to permit the provision of financial statements that are updated on a timetable consistent with our proposed requirement for semiannual interim reporting.
We received numerous detailed suggestions from commenters on our proposed financial statement requirements for Part F/S of Form 1-A. Commenters were generally supportive of the proposed rules, but also raised concerns as to the effect some of the proposed requirements for audits in Tier 2 offerings could have on issuers and recommended clarifying revisions that would help to make the financial statements more consistent in some respects with those required in registered offerings, while also eliminating potentially confusing or inconsistent terminology.
Commenters generally supported the proposed increase to two years of balance sheets.
While commenters generally approved of the proposed rules not requiring audits for Tier 1 issuers,
Many commenters recommended allowing financial statements in Tier 2 offerings to be audited in accordance
Additionally, two commenters expressed concern about potential confusion that could result from requiring PCAOB standards in Tier 2 offerings, but not requiring PCAOB registration.
One commenter asked the Commission to clarify issues relating to transition reporting for Tier 1 issuers that have previously conducted an offering pursuant to the exemption under Section 4(a)(6) and were required to file reviewed annual financial statements.
Many commenters recommend making other changes to the financial statement requirements not directly related to audit requirements.
Several commenters recommended allowing issuers under Regulation A to defer adopting new or revised accounting standards effective for public companies if non-public business entities have a delayed effective date (similar to accommodations for emerging growth companies under Section 102(b) of the JOBS Act).
Another commenter recommended that Tier 2 issuers not be subject to Rule 8-04(b)(3) of Regulation S-X when the to-be-acquired business has significant loss operations.
One commenter made a number of specific recommendations that we clarify language in particular paragraphs of the proposed requirements for financial statements in Part F/S of Form 1-A.
Several commenters specifically supported allowing Canadian issuers to prepare their financial statements in accordance with IFRS as issued by the IASB, as proposed.
As discussed more fully below, we are adopting requirements for financial statements in Part F/S of Form 1-A with changes from the proposed rules that are designed to simplify and lower the cost of compliance for issuers, while maintaining important investor protections. As proposed, the final rules require Tier 1 and Tier 2 issuers to file balance sheets and other required financial statements as of the two most recently completed fiscal year ends (or for such shorter time that they have been in existence). With the exception of the requirement to file two years of balance sheets, the final rules largely maintain the existing financial statement requirements of current Part F/S for Tier 1 offerings, while requiring Tier 2 issuers to file audited financial statements in Part F/S.
Financial statements for U.S.-domiciled issuers will be required to be prepared in accordance with U.S. GAAP, as is currently the case. Canadian issuers, however, may prepare financial statements in accordance with either U.S. GAAP or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB).
Additionally, consistent with the suggestions of commenters and in order to be consistent with the treatment of emerging growth companies under Section 102(b)(1) of the JOBS Act, the final rules permit issuers, where applicable, to delay the implementation of new accounting standards to the extent such standards provide for delayed implementation by non-public business entities.
• Must disclose such choice at the time the issuer files the offering statement; and
• May not take advantage of the extended transition period with respect to some standards and not others, but must apply the same choice to all standards.
However, issuers electing not to use this accommodation must forgo this accommodation for all financial accounting standards and may not elect to rely on this accommodation in any future filings.
As proposed, the final rules require issuers conducting Tier 1 offerings to follow the requirements for the form and content of their financial statements set out in Part F/S, rather than following the requirements in Regulation S-X.
The final rules require Tier 2 issuers to follow the financial statement requirements of Article 8 of Regulation S-X, as if the issuer were a smaller reporting company, unless otherwise
As adopted, financial statements in a Tier 1 offering are not required to be audited. Consistent with the suggestions of commenters,
Issuers conducting Tier 2 offerings are, by contrast, required to have their financial statements audited. The auditor of financial statements being filed as part of a Tier 2 offering must be independent under Rule 2-01 of Regulation S-X and must comply with the other requirements of Article 2 of Regulation S-X, but need not be PCAOB-registered.
As noted above, one commenter indicated that, because Regulation A issuers are not “issuers,” as defined by Section 2(a)(7) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, AICPA rules would require the audit to be compliant with U.S. GAAS even if the auditor has conducted the audit in accordance with PCAOB standards. Staff of the Commission consulted with the AICPA on this issue and has been advised that an audit performed by its members of an issuer conducting an offering pursuant to Regulation A would be required to comply with U.S. GAAS in accordance with the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct.
Thus, requiring issuers in Tier 2 offerings to have their financial statements audited in accordance with PCAOB standards would have the effect of requiring issuers to comply with two sets of auditing standards and potentially result in audits for Tier 2 issuers being subject to additional incremental costs than would be required for registered offerings (which are only subject to PCAOB auditing standards). To avoid such a result, the final rules permit Tier 2 issuers the option of following U.S. GAAS or the standards of the PCAOB.
We believe that providing issuers with this option could help reduce the cost of required audits in Tier 2 offerings while maintaining appropriate safeguards for investors. We believe audits conducted in accordance with U.S. GAAS provide sufficient protection for investors in Regulation A offerings, especially in light of the requirement that auditors for Tier 2 offerings must be independent under Rule 2-01 of Regulation S-X. Moreover, we believe that the flexibility adopted in the final rules is more appropriately tailored for the different types of issuers likely to conduct Tier 2 offerings because it will not only eliminate the potential that existed under the proposed rules that some issuers would need to have their financial statements audited a second time under PCAOB standards, but also continue to permit issuers, such as those that may seek concurrent registration of a class of securities under the Exchange Act, to comply with the PCAOB standards if they so choose.
An issuer that includes financial statements audited in accordance with U.S. GAAS and PCAOB standards will likely incur additional incremental costs compared with an issuer that includes financial statements audited only in accordance with U.S. GAAS. However, we assume that an issuer would only elect to comply with both sets of auditing standards because it has concluded that the benefit of doing so (for example, to facilitate Exchange Act registration) justify these additional incremental costs. Commission staff understands that many firms that conduct audits using PCAOB standards have developed their methodology in a manner that would comply with both sets of standards, which could help contain the costs related to complying with both U.S. GAAS and PCAOB auditing standards.
An issuer conducting a Regulation A offering that seeks to concurrently register its securities under the Exchange Act would be required to file audited financial statements that are prepared in accordance with the standards of the PCAOB by an auditor that is PCAOB-registered.
The Form 1-A financial statement requirements are being further updated to be consistent with the timetable for ongoing reporting.
Although we solicited comment on whether issuers conducting Tier 2 offerings should be required to provide their financial statements to the Commission and on their corporate Web sites in interactive data format using XBRL, we are not adopting any such requirement in the final rules.
On December 23, 2013, after we proposed rules for Regulation A, the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) and Private Company Council (PCC) issued a guide for evaluating financial accounting and reporting for non-public business entities.
Issuers that offer securities pursuant to Regulation A will be considered “public business entities” as defined by the FASB and, therefore, ineligible to rely on any alternative accounting or reporting standards for non-public business entities.
The distinction between public and non-public business entity standards was not directly contemplated in the Proposing Release, as the FASB/PCC Guide was issued after the Regulation A proposal was approved by the Commission.
The final rules do not allow Regulation A issuers to use the alternatives available to non-public business entities under U.S. GAAP in the preparation of their financial statements. One of the significant factors considered by the FASB in developing its definition of “public business entity” was the number of primary users of the financial statements and their access to
We proposed to maintain the existing exhibit requirements in Part III of Form 1-A. Additionally, we proposed to continue to permit issuers to incorporate by reference certain information in documents filed under Regulation A that is already available on EDGAR, but also require issuers to describe the information incorporated by reference and include a hyperlink to such exhibit on EDGAR.
We did not receive any comments on the proposed exhibit requirements for Part III of Form 1-A, and are adopting the proposed exhibit requirements substantially as proposed. As adopted, issuers will be required to file the following exhibits with the offering statement: Underwriting agreement; charter and by-laws; instrument defining the rights of securityholders; subscription agreement; voting trust agreement; material contracts; plan of acquisition, reorganization, arrangement, liquidation, or succession; escrow agreements; consents; opinion regarding legality; “testing the waters” materials; appointment of agent for service of process; and any additional exhibits the issuer may wish to file.
We are adopting final rules that permit issuers to incorporate by reference certain information that is already available on EDGAR. In a change from the proposed rules, incorporation by reference will not be limited to documents previously filed pursuant to Regulation A and will not be limited to issuers subject to Tier 2 ongoing reporting obligations. We believe that this change will continue to facilitate the provision of required information to investors, while taking a consistent approach to information previously provided to the Commission and publicly available on EDGAR. Issuers that seek to incorporate by reference are further required to describe the information incorporated by reference and include a hyperlink to such exhibit on EDGAR.
Similar to the requirement for issuers in registered offerings, we proposed to require issuers to manually sign a copy of the offering statement before or at the time of filing and retain it for a period of five years.
We did not receive any comments on this aspect of the proposal, and are adopting these provisions, as proposed, in the final rules.
Rule 251(d)(3) currently allows for continuous or delayed offerings under Regulation A if permitted by Rule 415.
Rule 415 attempts to promote efficiency and cost savings in the securities markets by allowing for the registration of certain traditional and other shelf offerings.
The proposed rules would clarify the scope of permissible continuous or delayed offerings under Regulation A and the related concept of offering circular supplements, and otherwise continue to allow for certain traditional shelf offerings to promote flexibility, efficiency, and to reduce unnecessary offerings costs.
To provide clarity regarding the application of Rule 415 concepts to Regulation A offerings, we proposed to add a provision to Regulation A similar to Rule 415, but with limitations that we believed would be appropriate for Regulation A. The provision would establish time limits similar to those in Rule 415 and make conforming changes as necessary.
In the Proposing Release we proposed excluding types of shelf offerings that cannot be conducted under existing Regulation A, such as offerings requiring registration on Form F-6, offerings requiring primary eligibility to use Forms S-3 or F-3,
Additionally, as proposed, changes in the information contained in the offering statement would no longer necessarily trigger an obligation to amend.
In addition to these post-qualification amendments to the offering statement that must be qualified, we also proposed to allow issuers to use offering circular supplements in certain situations.
We also proposed provisions similar to Rule 424 that would require issuers omitting certain information from an offering statement at the time of qualification, in reliance on proposed Rule 253(b), to file such information as an offering circular supplement no later than two business days following the earlier of the date of determination of such pricing information or the date of first use of the offering circular after qualification.
Commenters were generally supportive of the proposed modernization of Regulation A's offering process, in general, and the provisions for continuous or delayed offerings, in particular.
We believe the proposed rules sufficiently update existing rules, while providing issuers with adequate flexibility with respect to, and additional guidance on, the permissible scope of continuous or delayed Regulation A offerings and offering
The final rules add Rule 251(d)(3) to Regulation A, without changes from the proposed rule. This provision is similar to Rule 415, but its scope is limited to permissible Regulation A offerings.
As proposed, the final rules provide for the following types of continuous or delayed offerings:
• Securities offered or sold by or on behalf of a person other than the issuer or its subsidiary or a person of which the issuer is a subsidiary;
• securities offered and sold pursuant to a dividend or interest reinvestment plan or an employee benefit plan of the issuer;
• securities issued upon the exercise of outstanding options, warrants, or rights;
• securities issued upon conversion of other outstanding securities;
• securities pledged as collateral; or
• securities that are part of an offering which commences within two calendar days after the qualification date, will be offered on a continuous basis, may continue to be offered for a period in excess of 30 days from the date of initial qualification, and will be offered in an amount that, at the time the offering statement is qualified, is reasonably expected to be offered and sold within two years from the initial qualification date.
Notwithstanding the suggestions of commenters regarding at the market offerings, we continue to believe that such offerings are not appropriate for Regulation A offerings, particularly at the outset of the adoption of today's amendments to the existing rules. While it is possible that a market in Regulation A securities may develop that is capable of supporting primary and secondary at the market offerings, rather than permit such offerings at the outset, we believe that any determination as to whether the exemption would be an appropriate method for such offerings should occur in the future. Further, an offering sold at fluctuating market prices may not be appropriate within the context of an exemption that is contingent upon not exceeding a maximum offering size.
Under the final rules, as proposed, changes in the information contained in the offering statement will no longer necessarily trigger an obligation to amend.
The final rules will, as proposed, permit offering circular supplements to be used for final pricing information, where the offering statement is qualified on the basis of a bona fide price range estimate.
We are also adopting as proposed provisions similar to Rule 424 that require issuers omitting certain pricing and price-related information from an offering statement at the time of qualification, in reliance on Rule 253(b), to file such information as an offering circular supplement no later than two business days following the earlier of the date of determination of such pricing information or the date of first use of the offering circular after qualification.
Under existing Regulation A, an offering statement is generally only qualified by order of the Commission in a manner similar to a registration statement being declared effective.
We proposed to alter the qualification process of existing Regulation A. As proposed, an offering statement could only be qualified by order of the Commission, and the process associated with the delaying notation would be eliminated. A few commenters generally supported the proposed elimination of qualification without Commission action.
We are adopting, substantially as proposed, final rules that require Commission action before a Regulation A offering statement may be qualified. The final rules modify the proposed rules by permitting the offering statements to be declared qualified by a “notice of qualification” issued by the Division of Corporation Finance, pursuant to delegated authority, rather than requiring the Commission itself to issue an order.
Under Securities Act Section 3(b)(2)(E), issuers may test the waters for interest in an offering—without restriction as to the types of investors solicited—before filing an offering statement on such terms and conditions as the Commission prescribes. We proposed to permit issuers to use testing the waters solicitation materials both before and after the offering statement is filed, subject to issuer compliance with the rules on filing of solicitation materials and disclaimers.
As proposed, Rule 255(b) would require all soliciting materials to bear certain legends or disclaimers.
Most commenters generally supported the proposed amendments to the testing the waters provisions.
Two commenters recommended ensuring that any testing the waters materials that are filed with the Commission be kept confidential, at least until the offering statement is qualified.
Several commenters suggested that the Commission provide market participants with communication safe harbors from Section 12(a)(2) liability for regular business communications by a Regulation A issuer.
We are adopting testing the waters provisions in the final rules as proposed. Under the final rules, issuers will be permitted to test the waters with all potential investors and use solicitation materials both before and after the offering statement is filed, subject to issuer compliance with the rules on filing and disclaimers.
The final rules require, as proposed, that testing the waters materials used by an issuer or its intermediaries after the issuer publicly files an offering statement be accompanied by a current preliminary offering circular or contain a notice informing potential investors where and how the most current preliminary offering circular can be obtained.
As discussed in Section II.C.2. above, first-time issuers that are eligible for, and elect to, non-publicly submit draft offering statements are required to publicly file their offering statements not later than 21 calendar days before qualification so that any solicitation of interest made in the 21 calendar days before the earliest date of potential sales of securities by such issuers will be conducted while potential investors have access to the most recent version of the preliminary offering circular. Additionally, in light of the preemption of state securities laws registration requirements in the final rules for Tier 2 offerings, the 21 calendar day requirement will enable state securities regulators to require such issuers to file such materials with them for a minimum of 21 calendar days before any potential sales to investors in their respective states.
As proposed, the final rules require that issuers submit or file solicitation materials as an exhibit when the offering statement is either submitted for non-public review or filed (and update for substantive changes in such material after the initial non-public submission or filing). However, issuers are no longer required to submit solicitation materials at or before the time of first use.
• Solicitation materials used in Regulation A offerings are required to be included with the offering statement;
• solicitation materials used by Regulation A issuers that file an offering statement with the Commission will be publicly available as a matter of course.
Contrary to the views of commenters that suggested we keep solicitation materials confidential, or not require such materials to be filed (either publicly or at all), we believe the submission and filing requirements for solicitation materials are important elements of the final rules for the use of solicitation materials.
We are adopting as proposed the required legends for solicitation materials. The legends provide that sales made pursuant to Regulation A are contingent upon the qualification of the offering statement.
We believe the approach to solicitation materials that we are adopting today is consistent with existing Regulation A that allows issuers to test the waters and will make the use of solicitation materials more beneficial for issuers and investors. For issuers, the final rules will generally reduce compliance burdens and entirely eliminate the filing requirement for issuers that, after testing the waters, decide not to proceed with an offering. With respect to investors, we note that the final rules contain significant safeguards that should help mitigate the concerns expressed by some commenters that not requiring testing the waters materials to be submitted or filed with the Commission before first use will result in a reduction in investor protections.
Lastly, to address the concerns of commenters regarding an issuers' ability to conduct routine communications with customers and suppliers at or near the time of a contemplated Regulation A offering,
Section 3(b)(2) of the Securities Act requires issuers to provide annual audited financial information on an ongoing basis and expressly provides that the Commission may consider whether additional ongoing reporting should be required. Specifically, Section 3(b)(4) grants the Commission authority to require issuers “to make available to investors and file with the Commission periodic disclosures regarding the issuer, its business operations, its financial condition, its corporate governance principles, its use of investor funds, and other appropriate matters, and also may provide for the suspension and termination of such a requirement with respect to that issuer.”
As we noted in the Proposing Release, we are mindful that a one-size-fits-all ongoing reporting regime may not be suitable for all types of entities and investors.
Regulation A currently requires issuers to file a Form 2-A with the Commission to report sales and the termination of sales made under Regulation A every six months after qualification and within 30 calendar days after the termination, completion, or final sale of securities in the offering.
As proposed, Tier 2 issuers would be subject to a Regulation A ongoing reporting regime that would require, in addition to annual reports and summary information about a recently completed offering, semiannual reports on proposed Form 1-SA, current event reports on proposed Form 1-U, and, when eligible and electing to do so, notice to the Commission of the suspension of ongoing reporting
We received both general comments and specific comments on the proposed forms. These comments are discussed in turn below.
Commenters generally approved of the continuing disclosure obligations for Tier 2 offerings.
Other commenters expressed general support, but also recommended changes to the semiannual reporting requirement or the content of Form 1-U.
One commenter recommended revising proposed Form 1-K to expressly not require the disclosure of an issuer's plan of operations, as described in Item 9(c) of Part II of Form 1-A.
Several commenters recommended requiring or permitting quarterly reporting rather than semiannual reporting on proposed Form 1-SA.
One commenter agreed with our proposal not to require Tier 2 issuers to have their Form 1-SA financial statements reviewed by an independent accountant, particularly with respect to smaller issuers.
Commenters made a number of suggestions regarding the current report requirements. Some commenters recommended eliminating the requirement to file Form 1-U for the smallest issuers, based on a measure such as asset size or market capitalization.
Other commenters suggested changes to the substance of what would need to be reported on Form 1-U. One commenter generally recommended cross-referencing existing disclosure requirements when a proposed disclosure standard is meant to be the same.
We are adopting rules for continuing disclosure obligations under Regulation A generally as proposed, with certain technical modifications and clarifications. The final rules eliminate Form 2-A and in its place require the disclosure of similar information pursuant to Part I of Form 1-Z for Tier 1 issuers and, depending on when the issuer's offering is terminated or completed, in either Form 1-K or Part I of Form 1-Z for Tier 2 issuers. As proposed, the respective disclosure requirements in Part I of Forms 1-K and 1-Z will include the date the offering was qualified and commenced, the amount of securities qualified, the amount of securities sold in the offering, the price of the securities, the portions of the offering that were sold on behalf of the issuer and any selling securityholders, any fees associated with the offering, and the net proceeds to the issuer.
As noted in the Proposing Release, we are concerned that uniform ongoing reporting requirements for all issuers of Regulation A securities could disproportionately affect issuers in smaller offerings. For that reason, the final rules do not require any ongoing reporting for issuers conducting Tier 1 offerings, other than the disclosure of the summary information discussed above.
The final rules for ongoing reporting for Tier 2 issuers are being adopted as proposed, except where noted below, and will require issuers to file annual reports on Form 1-K,
As discussed above, commenters suggested that the Commission consider various potential changes to the proposed ongoing reporting requirements for Tier 2 issuers, including: Extending ongoing reporting to Tier 1 offerings with some modifications; increasing the ongoing reporting requirements for Tier 2 issuers to include analogs to Exchange Act Forms 3, 4, and 5 and beneficial ownership reporting on Schedules 13D, 13G and 13F; basing the ongoing reporting requirements on characteristics of the issuer, such as whether the issuer has taken steps to foster a secondary market; or providing different requirements for Canadian companies or foreign private issuers. Another commenter suggested that we allow issuers to either avoid ongoing reporting or to file only financial statements and a management letter regarding operations and results if, shortly after commencing the offering upon qualification, issuers have less than 300 record holders.
We do not, however, believe that the changes suggested by commenters
We are therefore adopting the following ongoing reporting requirements for Tier 2 offerings:
As proposed and adopted, Form 1-K will consist of two parts: Part I (Notification) and Part II (Information to be included in the report). The contents of and requirements for Part I and Part II are, with the exception of technical amendments to the forms, amendments that are necessary to reflect corresponding changes to the required audit standards of financial statements filed under Part F/S of Form 1-A, and additional guidance designed to streamline disclosure, adopted without changes from the proposed rules.
As adopted, Part I of Form 1-K will be an online XML-based fillable form that will include certain basic information about the issuer, prepopulated on the basis of information previously disclosed in Part I of Form 1-A, which can be updated by the issuer at the time of filing. Additionally, if at the time of filing the Form 1-K an issuer has terminated or completed a qualified Regulation A offering, the issuer will be required to provide certain updated summary information about itself and such offering in Part I, including the date the offering was qualified and commenced, the amount of securities qualified, the amount of securities sold in the offering, the price of the securities, the portions of the offering that were sold on behalf of the issuer and any selling securityholders, any fees associated with the offering, and the net proceeds to the issuer.
As proposed and adopted, issuers will only be required to fill out the XML-based portion of Part I of Form 1-K that relates to the summary information about a terminated or completed offering once per offering. An issuer that elects to terminate its ongoing reporting obligation under Tier 2 of Regulation A after terminating or completing an offering, in a fiscal year other than the fiscal year in which the offering statement was qualified, but before reporting the required summary information on Form 1-K, will be required to file the summary offering information in Part I of Form 1-K by filing a Form 1-Z (exit report) that includes such information.
The summary information disclosed will facilitate analysis of Regulation A offerings by the Commission, other regulators, third-party data providers, and market participants and thereby enable the Commission and others to evaluate the use and effectiveness of Regulation A as a capital formation tool.
As with Part II of Form 1-A, the final rules require that the issuer submit Part II of Form 1-K electronically as a text file attachment containing the body of the disclosure document and financial statements, formatted to be compatible with the EDGAR filing system. Part II will require issuers to disclose information about themselves and their business based on the financial statement and narrative disclosure requirements of Form 1-A.
As adopted, Item 2 to Part II of Form 1-K (Management's Discussion and Analysis of Financial Condition and Results of Operation) requires issuers, by cross-reference to the requirements of Form 1-A, to provide information for the two most recently completed fiscal years. As suggested by one commenter,
Additionally, we are revising the financial statement requirements in Item 7 to Part II of Form 1-K. As proposed, Form 1-K directed issuers to the financial statement requirements of Part F/S of Form 1-A. We are revising this portion of the form so as to include the financial statement requirements directly in Item 7 to Part II of Form 1-K. We believe this change to Item 7 will make it easier for issuers to comply by clarifying, as one commenter recommended,
Form 1-K will permit issuers to incorporate by reference certain information previously filed on EDGAR, but will require issuers to include a hyperlink to such material on EDGAR.
• Business operations of the issuer for the prior three fiscal years (or, if in existence for less than three years, since inception);
• Transactions with related persons, promoters, and certain control persons;
• Beneficial ownership of voting securities by executive officers, directors, and 10% owners;
• Identities of directors, executive officers, and significant employees, with a description of their business experience and involvement in certain legal proceedings;
• Executive compensation data for the most recent fiscal year for the three highest paid executive officers or directors;
• MD&A of the issuer's liquidity, capital resources, and results of operations covering the two most recently completed fiscal years; and
• Two years of audited financial statements.
We anticipate that issuers will generally be able to use the offering materials as a basis to prepare their ongoing disclosure.
As adopted in the final rules, Form 1-K includes requirements for financial statements prepared on the same basis, and subject to the same requirements as to audit standards and auditor independence, as the financial statements required in the Regulation A offering circular for Tier 2 offerings.
We are adopting final rules for semiannual interim reporting for Regulation A issuers generally as proposed, with technical amendments and additional guidance designed to streamline the disclosure requirements for Tier 2 issuers and harmonize them with the requirements of issuers subject to an ongoing reporting obligation under the Exchange Act.
Consistent with the technical, specialized suggestions of several commenters,
• Add clarifying language to Item 1 (Management Discussion and Analysis of Financial Condition and Results of Operations) of Form 1-SA to indicate that compliance with this disclosure requirement only applies to the interim financial statements required by Item 3 to Form 1-SA and that, similar to our clarification of Form 1-K's requirements, issuers are not required to
• Update the financial statement disclosure requirements of Form 1-SA to more clearly delineate the requirements for compliance with Item 3 of Form 1-SA;
• Provide that the financial statements that must be included pursuant to Item 3 may be condensed, in addition to being unaudited, and that the financial statements are not required to be reviewed;
• Amend the final form to note that additional guidance on the presentation of financial statements and footnotes and other disclosures can be found in Rule 8-03 of Regulation S-X;
• Revise the requirements of Item 3(e) of Form 1-SA to match the disclosure language contained in Rule 3-10 of Regulation S-X for smaller reporting companies;
• Delete the requirement in Item 3(d) of proposed Form 1-SA to present interim statements of changes in financial position for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the interim period covered by this report, and for the corresponding period of the preceding fiscal year, as this is not required of issuers under Rule 8-03 of Regulation S-X; and
• Make the ongoing reporting requirements under Item 3 of Form 1-SA more consistent with what is required of issuers subject to an ongoing reporting obligation under the Exchange Act, consistent with the suggestion of one commenter,
As adopted, Form 1-SA will require disclosure of updates otherwise reportable on Form 1-U. The final rules permit issuers to incorporate by reference in Form 1-SA certain information previously filed on EDGAR, but must include a hyperlink to such material on EDGAR.
Form 1-SA must be filed within 90 calendar days after the end of the first six months of the issuer's fiscal year.
If, however, the offering statement is filed in March 2015 and qualified in June of 2015 than the first Form 1-SA would cover the six months ended June 30, 2015 and June 30, 2014 and would not be required to be filed until within 90 days following June 30, 2015.
In addition to the annual report on Form 1-K and semiannual report on Form 1-SA, the final rules require issuers to submit current reports on Form 1-U. The final rules are being adopted largely as proposed with one change and some technical amendments and additional guidance designed to ease compliance with the final rules and eliminate potential confusion as to the scope and applicability of the disclosure requirements. The final rules require issuers to submit a report on Form 1-U when it experiences one (or more) of the following events:
• Fundamental changes;
• Bankruptcy or receivership;
• Material modification to the rights of securityholders;
• Changes in the issuer's certifying accountant;
• Non-reliance on previous financial statements or a related audit report or completed interim review;
• Changes in control of the issuer;
• Departure of the principal executive officer, principal financial officer, or principal accounting officer; and
• Unregistered sales of 10% or more of outstanding equity securities.
Additionally, as proposed, Item 9 of final Form 1-U contains provisions for disclosing other events not directly required of issuers in the form. As noted above in the context of suggestions by commenters to require or permit quarterly reporting by issuers,
Notwithstanding the view of some commenters,
In a change from the proposed rules, and consistent with the suggestions of commenters,
We are not amending Item 1 of Form 1-U to alter the use of the term “fundamental change,” as suggested by some commenters.
On a related point, we continue to believe, despite the suggestions of some commenters,
Additionally, we note that Item 6 of Form 1-K and Item 2 of Form 1-SA permit issuers to disclose any information required to be disclosed under Form 1-U, but not so reported. For example, if an event occurs that would, under normal circumstances, require an issuer to file a Form 1-U within four business days, but such issuer is due to file either its annual or semiannual report within that period, then the issuer may instead report such information in its periodic report.
Finally, contrary to the suggestions of some commenters,
As adopted, Form 1-U must be filed within four business days after the occurrence of any of the triggering events, and, where applicable, will permit issuers to incorporate by reference certain information previously filed on EDGAR.
Additionally, consistent with the changes made to Form 1-K and Form 1-SA and suggestions of at least one commenter,
We did not receive any comment on the proposed provisions for special financial reports and are adopting them as proposed with one minor clarifying change. This report serves to close lengthy gaps in financial reporting between the financial statements included in Form 1-A and the issuer's first periodic report due after qualification of the offering statement. Where applicable, issuers conducting Tier 2 offerings must provide special financial reports analogous to those required under Exchange Act Rule 15d-2.
We did not receive any comment on reporting by successor issuers, and we are adopting the proposed rules without change. Where in connection with a succession by merger, consolidation, exchange of securities, acquisition of assets, or otherwise, securities of an issuer that is not subject to the reporting requirements of Regulation A are issued to the holders of any class of securities of an issuer that is subject to ongoing reporting under Tier 2, the issuer succeeding to that class of securities must continue to file the reports required for Tier 2 offerings on the same basis as would have been required of the original Tier 2 issuer.
Exchange Act Rule 15c2-11 governs broker-dealers' publication of quotations for securities in a quotation medium other than a national securities exchange.
A broker-dealer can satisfy its obligations under Rule 15c2-11 if it has reviewed and maintained in its records certain specified information. The particular information that is required by the rule varies depending on the nature of the issuer and includes, among other things:
• For an issuer that has filed a registration statement under the Securities Act, a copy of the prospectus;
• for an issuer that has filed an offering statement under the Securities Act pursuant to Regulation A, a copy of the offering circular; or
• for an issuer subject to ongoing reporting under Sections 13 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act, the issuer's most recent annual report and any quarterly or current reports filed thereafter.
As proposed, the ongoing reports for Tier 2 offerings under Regulation A, which would update the narrative and financial statement disclosures previously provided in Form 1-A on an annual and semiannual basis, with additional provisions for current reporting, would satisfy a broker-dealer's obligations under Rule 15c2-11 to review and maintain records of basic information about an issuer and its securities. In this regard, we proposed to amend Rule 15c2-11 to permit an issuer's ongoing reports filed in a Tier 2 offering under Regulation A to satisfy a broker-dealer's obligations to review specified information about an issuer and its security before publishing a quotation for a security (or submitting a quotation for publication) in a quotation medium.
We also solicited comment on other potential effects that Tier 2 ongoing reporting under Regulation A could have under other provisions of the federal securities laws, such as whether timely ongoing Regulation A reporting under Tier 2 should constitute “adequate current public information” for purposes of paragraph (c) of Rule 144.
All commenters that addressed Rule 15c2-11 supported amending the rule in the manner proposed.
We are adopting final rules for Regulation A that, as proposed, amend Exchange Act Rule 15c2-11(a) so that an issuer's ongoing reports filed under Tier 2 will satisfy the specified information about an issuer and its security that a broker-dealer must review before publishing a quotation for a security (or submitting a quotation for publication) in a quotation medium. In addition, we are adopting, as proposed, a technical amendment to Rule 15c2-11 to amend subsection (d)(2)(i) of the rule to update the outdated reference to “Schedule H of the By-Laws of the National Association of Securities Dealers, Inc.” which is now known as the “Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.” and to reflect the correct rule reference.
We are not following the suggestions of some commenters that we adopt provisions in the final rules so that Tier 2 ongoing reports will satisfy the current information requirements of Rule 144 and Rule 144A for the entirety of an issuer's fiscal year. While commenters were generally supportive, we do not believe that the frequency of the required Tier 2 ongoing reporting merits a broad determination that such reports will constitute “adequate public information” or “reasonably current information” on a year-round basis. On the contrary, quarterly reporting is an integral part of the resale safe harbors provided for in Rule 144 and Rule 144A that contemplate the provision of ongoing and continuous information.
Under Section 15(d) of the Exchange Act, an issuer that has had a Securities Act registration statement declared effective must comply with the periodic reporting requirements of the Exchange Act.
An issuer registering a class of securities under Section 12 of the Exchange Act must file either a Form
As proposed, issuers conducting offerings under Regulation A that seek to list their securities on a national securities exchange or otherwise register a class of securities under the Exchange Act would be required to file a registration statement on Form 10. We solicited comment, however, on whether we should provide a simplified means for Regulation A issuers to register a class of securities under the Exchange Act, for example, by permitting such issuers to file a Form 8-A rather than a Form 10 in conjunction with, or following, the qualification of a Regulation A offering statement on Form 1-A.
We also invited comment on ways to facilitate secondary market trading in the securities of Regulation A issuers, such as by encouraging the development of “venture exchanges” or other trading venues that are focused on attracting such issuers.
Many commenters recommended that Regulation A issuers be allowed to use Form 8-A to register a class of securities under the Exchange Act in Tier 2 offerings.
Two commenters encouraged the Commission to foster the development of venture exchanges on which Regulation A securities could be traded,
In the final rules, and consistent with the views of many commenters,
We recognize that Exchange Act reporting requires more comprehensive ongoing reporting than the Regulation A disclosure regime, which is why facilitating issuers' entrance into the Exchange Act reporting system on Form 8-A concurrent with the qualification of a Regulation A offering statement will benefit investors. At a minimum, issuers pursuing this route to exchange listing must meet listing standards of, and be certified by, the exchange before the Form 8-A will be declared effective. In order to be approved for listing on an exchange, issuers generally must meet certain size, financial, minimum securities distribution (or liquidity), and corporate governance criteria.
As suggested by commenters, we believe that our accommodation should be limited to instances where an issuer provides disclosure in Part II of Form 1-A that follows Part I of Form S-1 or Form S-11, instead of the Offering Circular format. While all formats require extensive disclosure that, with the exception of item numbering, is similar in many respects, we believe that an issuer entering Exchange Act reporting should provide disclosure in a manner that is generally consistent with the requirements of issuers entering the Exchange Act reporting regime through registered offerings.
Consistent with the suggestion of commenters,
As noted above, the Proposing Release sought comment on whether we should consider encouraging the development of venture exchanges or other trading venues to facilitate the secondary market trading of Regulation A securities. We are considering venture exchanges as a way to provide liquidity for smaller issuers, and are contemplating their use for Regulation A securities as part of that consideration.
As discussed in Section II.E.1. above, we proposed to rescind Form 2-A but to continue to require Regulation A issuers to file the information generally disclosed in Form 2-A with the Commission electronically on EDGAR. Consistent with the related portion of proposed Form 1-K,
We further proposed to permit a Tier 2 issuer that has filed all ongoing reports required by Regulation A for the shorter of (1) the period since the issuer became subject to such reporting obligation or (2) its most recent three fiscal years and the portion of the current year preceding the date of filing Form 1-Z to immediately suspend its ongoing reporting obligation under Regulation A at any time after completing reporting for the fiscal year in which the offering statement was qualified, if the securities of each class to which the offering statement relates are held of record by fewer than 300 persons and offers or sales made in reliance on a qualified offering statement are not ongoing.
We further proposed that issuers' obligations to file ongoing reports in a Tier 2 offering under Regulation A would be automatically suspended upon registration of a class of securities under Section 12 of the Exchange Act or effectiveness of a registration statement under the Securities Act, such that Exchange Act reporting obligations would always supersede ongoing reporting obligations under Regulation A. If an issuer terminates or suspends its reporting obligations under the Exchange Act and the issuer is eligible to suspend its Regulation A reporting obligation by filing a Form 1-Z at that time, the ongoing reporting obligations would terminate automatically and no Form 1-Z filing would be required to terminate the issuer's Regulation A reporting obligation. If the issuer is not eligible to file a Form 1-Z at that time, it would need to recommence its Regulation A reporting with a report covering any financial period not completely covered by an effective registration statement or filed Exchange Act report.
The single commenter on this issue approved of the proposed requirement to file summary information after the termination or completion of a Regulation A offering under both tiers.
We are adopting, with a change from the proposal, final rules that will permit issuers that conduct a Tier 2 offering to terminate or suspend their ongoing reporting obligations on a basis similar to the provisions that allow issuers to suspend their ongoing reporting obligations under Section 13 and Section 15(d) of the Exchange Act.
We otherwise adopt the proposed rules for the termination or suspension of a Tier 2 ongoing reporting obligation as proposed and without changes.
We did not propose any changes to the existing insignificant deviation provisions of Rule 260. Rule 260 provides that certain insignificant deviations from a term, condition or requirement of Regulation A will not result in the issuer's loss of the exemption from registration under Section 5 of the Securities Act.
One commenter generally supported the concept of allowing for insignificant deviations from the rules without the loss of the exemption.
The final rules maintain the existing provisions for insignificant deviations, as proposed. Under the final rules, a failure to comply with a term, condition or requirement of Regulation A will not result in the loss of the exemption for any offer or sale to a particular individual or entity, if the person relying on the exemption establishes that:
(1) The failure to comply did not pertain to a term, condition or requirement directly intended to protect that particular individual or entity;
(2) The failure to comply was insignificant with respect to the offering as a whole, provided that any failure to comply with the offering limitations, issuer eligibility criteria, or requirements for offers or continuous or delayed offerings will be deemed to be significant to the offering as a whole; and
(3) A good faith and reasonable attempt was made to comply with all applicable terms, conditions and requirements of Regulation A.
We believe that provisions for insignificant deviations serve an important function by allowing for certain errors that can occur in the offering process, while clearly delineating those provisions from which an issuer may not deviate. We believe the current provisions provide assurances to investors that issuers will not be able to deviate from certain fundamental requirements in the rules and avoid undue hardship that could befall issuers for inadvertent errors, such as loss of the exemption and, with respect to Tier 2 offerings, the loss of preemption of state securities law registration and qualification requirements. We are not expanding the list of provisions from which an issuer may not deviate. We note that whether a deviation from the requirements would be significant to the offering as a whole would depend on the facts and
Under Securities Act Section 3(b)(2)(G)(ii), the Commission has discretion to issue rules disqualifying certain felons and other `bad actors' from using amended Regulation A. Such rules, if adopted, must be “substantially similar” to those adopted to implement Section 926 of the Dodd-Frank Act, which requires the Commission to adopt disqualification rules for securities offerings under Rule 506 of Regulation D. The Commission adopted the disqualification provisions required by Section 926 in Rule 506(d) together with a related disclosure requirement in Rule 506(e) on July 10, 2013.
We proposed amendments to Regulation A's bad actor disqualification provisions that would make those provisions substantially similar to those adopted under Rule 506 of Regulation D. We also sought comment on the proposed disqualification rules and the categories of persons and types of events covered by the proposed rules. Additionally, we sought comment more broadly on the interpretation of the phrase “voting equity securities,” as it appears in “any beneficial owner of 20% or more of the issuer's outstanding voting equity securities, calculated on the basis of voting power,” a category of covered persons in Rule 506(d) and the proposed disqualification provisions for Regulation A as well as our proposed rules for securities-based crowdfunding transactions.
In general, commenters did not oppose the proposed amendments to Regulation A's bad actor disqualification rules. Some commenters expressly supported the proposed rules.
We are adopting bad actor disqualification provisions for Regulation A, substantially as proposed with the exception of one change to further align the final rules for Regulation A with similar provisions in Rule 506(d). The covered persons and triggering events in the final rules for Regulation A are substantially the same as the covered persons and triggering events included in Rule 506(d).
The final disqualification rules in Regulation A also specify that an order must bar the covered person at the time of filing of the offering statement, as opposed to the requirement in Rule 506(d) that the order must bar the covered person at the time of the relevant sale.
In the Proposing Release, we solicited comment on the interpretation of the phrase “voting equity securities,” as it appears in “any beneficial owner of 20% or more of the issuer's outstanding voting equity securities, calculated on the basis of voting power,” a category of covered persons in Rule 506(d) and proposed Rule 262 as well as our
Under the final rules, offerings that would have been disqualified from reliance on Regulation A under Rule 262 as in effect before today's amendments will continue to be disqualified. Triggering events that were not previously included in the bad actor rules for Regulation A and that pre-date effectiveness of the final rules will not cause disqualification, but instead must be disclosed on a basis consistent with Rule 506(e). Specifically, issuers will be required to indicate in Part I of Form 1-A that none of the persons described in Rule 262 are disqualified and, where applicable, that disclosure of triggering events that would have triggered disqualification, but occurred before the effective date of the Regulation A amendments, will be provided in Part II of Form 1-A.
We believe that the final rules are appropriate in light of the Section 3(b)(2)(G)(ii) mandate, the benefits of creating a more uniform set of standards for all exemptions that include bad actor disqualification, and the required disclosure in the offering circular of persons subject to events that would have triggered disqualification, but occurred before the effective date of the final rules.
Although Section 401(b) of the JOBS Act does not exempt offerings made under Section 3(b)(2) and the related rules from state law registration and qualification requirements, it added Section 18(b)(4)(D) to the Securities Act.
Commenters in the pre-proposal stage suggested that the cost of state securities law compliance, which they identified as an obstacle to the use of Regulation A, would discourage market participants from using the new exemption. In addition, the GAO, as required by Section 402 of the JOBS Act, conducted a study on the impact of state securities laws registration and qualification requirements on offerings conducted under Regulation A and found that state securities laws were among several central factors that may have contributed to the lack of use of Regulation A.
In light of the issues raised by commenters and in the GAO Report, as well the substantial investor protections included in the proposed rules to amend Regulation A and implement Title IV of the JOBS Act, we proposed to define the term “qualified purchaser” in a Regulation A offering to consist of: (1) All offerees in a Regulation A offering and (2) all purchasers in a Tier 2 offering.
We proposed to preempt state securities laws registration and qualification requirements with respect to all offerees in a Regulation A offering, in order to allow issuers relying on Regulation A to communicate with potential investors about their offerings using the internet, social media, and other means of widespread communication, without concern that such communications might trigger registration requirements under state law.
Under the proposed rules, state securities regulators would retain their authority to:
• Require the filing of any document filed with the Commission and the payment of filing fees;
• investigate and bring enforcement actions against fraudulent securities transactions and unlawful conduct by broker-dealers in such offerings; and
• enforce the filing and fee requirements by suspending the offer or sale of securities within a given state for the failure to file or pay the appropriate fee.
As noted in the Proposing Release, it was our preliminary view that the additional requirements for Tier 2 offerings would meaningfully bolster the protections otherwise embedded in Regulation A and therefore a different treatment than Tier 1 offerings is appropriate.
The preemption of state securities law registration and qualification requirements contemplated in the proposed “qualified purchaser” definition received an extensive amount of public commentary. Commenters were sharply divided on the need for state securities law preemption in Regulation A.
Many commenters objected to the preemption of state securities law registration and qualification requirements.
• A “qualified purchaser” means a purchaser with specialized skill, experience or knowledge.
• The qualifications of the purchaser are key, not the nature of the issuer or the offering. Thus, the proposed definition of “qualified purchaser” is contrary to the plain meaning of this term.
• The legislative history of the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (NSMIA)
• Congress considered preemption in the context of a provision to preempt offerings conducted through a broker-dealer in an early draft of Title IV of the JOBS Act, but then purposefully excluded such broad preemption from the final statute.
• The Commission's cost-benefit analysis of preemption was inadequate because it largely ignored investor protections, the benefits of state regulation, perceived resource constraints at the Commission, and preemption's impact on investor confidence in the markets.
• Although the GAO Report conducted under Section 402 of the JOBS Act cited compliance with state securities law review and qualification requirements as a factor in the lack of use of Regulation A, it also noted lengthy Commission reviews of Form 1-A filings.
• States play a unique role in regulating securities offerings due to their localized knowledge and resources, which aid in detecting fraud and facilitating issuer compliance.
• The investor protections included in the proposal do not act as an adequate substitute for state review and comment on offering statements.
• The states have adopted and implemented a new coordinated review program, designed to address many of the perceived inefficiencies associated with state registration.
Many other commenters expressed their support for preemption, as proposed.
• The proposed rules provide substantial investor protections to investors.
• State securities law review of offering statements is a significant impediment to the use of Regulation A.
• The Commission has the authority to preempt state qualification and review requirements.
• States continue to have the authority to, among other things, bring anti-fraud enforcement actions and to review the publicly filed disclosure documents before sales occur.
• NASAA's coordinated review program as implemented will remain inefficient due to internal conflict, the application of merit review standards and the program's inability to bind participants in the event of disagreements among the states.
Many commenters that expressed general support for preemption, as proposed, also recommended applying it on an expanded basis.
Alternatively, several commenters recommended possibly eliminating the Commission's review of Regulation A offerings to varying extents.
For the reasons discussed below, we are adopting the “qualified purchaser” definition in Regulation A, substantially as proposed. In the final rules, a “qualified purchaser” for purposes of Section 18(b)(4)(D)(ii) of the Securities Act includes any person to whom securities are offered or sold in a Tier 2 offering. Because of the requirements for all Tier 2 offerings, all purchasers in Tier 2 offerings persons must be either accredited investors or persons who limit their investment amount to no more than 10% of the greater of annual income or net worth (for natural persons), or 10% of the greater of annual revenue or net assets at fiscal year end (for non-natural persons).
To address commenter concerns and avoid potential confusion as to the application of the preemption provisions in Tier 1 offerings, the final definition of “qualified purchaser” does not include offerees in Tier 1 offerings. While the final rules permit Regulation A issuers to test the waters and make offers in the pre-qualification period at the federal level, in light of the concerns raised by state regulators about the proposed rule's expanded use of solicitation materials
Given the sharply divided views of commenters on the “qualified purchaser” definition included in the Proposing Release, we want to clarify the scope of the Commission's authority under the Securities Act to define such a term and the effect the final qualified purchaser definition will have on the continued ability of the states to regulate offers and sales within their jurisdiction. We continue to believe that the substantial investor protections embedded in the final rules for Tier 2 offerings, including the requisite qualifications of the issuer, offering, and eventual purchasers, as well as the particular characteristics associated with this category of securities, support the limited preemption of state securities laws registration and qualification requirements adopted in the final rules.
As noted above, some commenters questioned the ability of the Commission to adopt a “qualified purchaser” definition that includes any person to whom securities are offered or sold in a Tier 2 offering.
Title I of the NSMIA, referred to as the “Capital Markets Efficiency Act of 1996” (the “Efficiency Act”),
Section 18(b)(3) provides that “[a] security is a covered security with respect to the offer or sale of the security to qualified purchasers, as defined by the Commission by rule.” Congress stated in Section 18(b)(3) that the Commission may “define the term `qualified purchaser' differently with respect to different categories of securities, consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.” The JOBS Act
By its terms, Section 18(b)(3) provides the Commission with the express authority to adopt rules that define a “qualified purchaser.” The provision does not prescribe specific criteria that the Commission must consider in determining, or the manner in which it must determine, a purchaser to be “qualified.” Furthermore, Section 18(b)(3) states that the definition of qualified purchaser may be different for different categories of securities. This means that, rather than considering the characteristics of the purchaser in isolation, the Commission may adopt a qualified purchaser definition that is also tailored to reflect the characteristics of the particular type of issuer or transaction. Further, Section 18(b)(3) does not proscribe any particular terms or characteristics that the Commission must include in any rules defining qualified purchaser with respect to a given category of securities. What it does instead is require that any rules so adopted be consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
Unlike Section 18(b)(3), which provides for preemption with respect to offers or sales to qualified purchasers in any context, Section 18(b)(4)(D)(ii) provides for preemption specifically with respect to transactions exempt from registration pursuant to Section 3(b)(2). As such, the preemption afforded under Section 18(b)(4)(D)(ii) necessarily encompasses the mandatory requirements for conducting an exempt offering pursuant to Section 3(b)(2). These include, among other things, that the civil liability provisions of Section 12(a)(2) must apply and that an issuer must file audited financial statements with the Commission annually.
We believe that the terms of Section 18(b)(3) and Section 18(b)(4)(D)(ii)—read in conjunction—provide the Commission with discretionary authority to adopt a “qualified purchaser” definition that reflects the particular characteristics of transactions exempt from registration pursuant to Section 3(b)(2). Thus, in determining who should be considered a qualified purchaser for purposes of the amendments to Regulation A, we have considered not only the mandatory features of Section 3(b)(2), but also many of the discretionary features contained in our final rules, such as the requirement that purchasers in Tier 2 offerings be limited to accredited investors or persons otherwise subject to specified investment limitations.
We recognize that a number of commenters disagreed with this approach.
In the 2001 Proposing Release, we noted that certain aspects of NSMIA's legislative history suggest that a qualified purchaser definition should include investors that are sophisticated and capable of protecting themselves. In addition, we asked questions about the proposed approach to the definition and whether other potential factors mentioned in the legislative history, such as the national character of an offering, could or should bear on potential qualified purchaser definitions adopted pursuant to Section 18(b)(3).
We do not believe that the 2001 Proposing Release is inconsistent with the qualified purchaser definition for Regulation A that we are adopting today. The 2001 Proposing Release was not a Commission statement on the scope of all permissible definitions for a qualified purchaser adopted pursuant to Section 18(b)(3). Rather, it expressed a preliminary interpretive view of certain aspects of the legislative history of NSMIA in the context of a proposed rulemaking that would have equated “qualified purchaser” with the definition of an “accredited investor” for sales by any category of issuer in any type of transaction.
The enactment of the JOBS Act in 2012, and in particular its addition of Section 18(b)(4)(D)(ii) to the Securities Act has caused us to consider the definition of qualified purchaser specifically within the context of transactions under the new Section 3(b)(2) exemption. This is a new and different context in which to consider the definition of qualified purchaser than existed at the time of the 2001 Proposing Release. In this new context, we believe that the definition of qualified purchaser that we are adopting is appropriately tailored to these transactions because, as explained above, the requirements applicable to Tier 2 offerings include numerous provisions designed to protect investors, including, among other things, a requirement that all purchasers in these offerings be either accredited investors or persons who are subject to investment limitations.
We do not agree with the commenters who assert that broad state securities law preemption was expressly rejected by Congress in Title IV of the JOBS Act. The legislative record indicates that the only form of state securities law preemption directly contemplated, but not adopted, in the drafting of Title IV of the JOBS Act was for offers and sales through a broker or dealer.
As discussed above, some commenters expressed concern about the effect preemption would have on the ability of state securities regulators to remain actively involved in Regulation A offerings.
Under Section 18(a) of the Securities Act, no law, rule or regulation of any state requiring the registration or qualification of securities applies to a covered security or to a security that will be a covered security upon completion of the transaction.
While covered security status under Section 18 prohibits the states from requiring the registration or qualification of such securities, Section 18(c) preserves the power of the states in several important areas.
• The jurisdiction to investigate and bring enforcement actions with respect to fraudulent securities transactions and unlawful conduct by broker-dealers;
• the ability to require issuers to file with the states any document filed with the Commission, solely for notice purposes and the assessment of fees, together with a consent to service of process and any required fee;
• the power to enforce the filing and fee requirements by suspending the offer or sale of securities within a given state for the failure to file or pay the appropriate fee.
As the name of the statute that added Section 18 to the Securities Act suggests, the preemption of state securities laws is about improving the “efficiency” of our capital markets by eliminating unnecessary, duplicative regulation of securities offerings at both the federal and state level.
Since the proposed rules to implement Title IV of the JOBS Act were issued in December 2013, NASAA has implemented a multi-state coordinated review program for Regulation A offerings, the goal of which is to reduce the state law disclosure and compliance obligations of Regulation A issuers.
At the proposing stage, we indicated that a number of open questions remained about the then-proposed multi-state review program. In the intervening time, many questions have been answered, largely relating to the final adoption and implementation of
As we noted in the Proposing Release, in light of the issues raised by commenters and in the GAO report, we remain concerned that costs associated with state securities law compliance, even under a coordinated review program, may deter issuers from using amended Regulation A, which could significantly limit the impact of the exemption as a tool for capital formation. In considering our approach to preemption in the final rules, particularly as we evaluate what is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors, we have taken into account the amended Regulation A regime, including the distinctions between the two tiers and in particular the additional protections provided in Tier 2 beyond the requirements of Tier 1.
In addition to certain basic requirements that are applicable to both tiers, Tier 2 issuers will be subject to significant additional requirements, some arising directly from Section 3(b)(2) and others that we have imposed through our discretionary authority under that section. For example, the financial statements that Tier 2 issuers include in their offering circulars are required to be audited, and Tier 2 issuers must file audited financial statements with the Commission annually. Tier 2 issuers also must provide ongoing reports on an annual and semiannual basis with additional requirements for interim current event updates, assuring a continuous flow of information to investors and the market. In addition, purchasers in Tier 2 offerings must be either accredited investors or subject to limitations in the amount they may invest in a single offering. Finally, as with Tier 1 offerings, Tier 2 offering statements will be filed electronically, reviewed and qualified by Commission staff, and the offerings are subject to both limitations on eligible issuers and “bad actor” disqualification provisions. In consideration of these requirements, as well as our view, as discussed in greater detail below, that Tier 2 offerings are more likely to be national rather than local in nature, we believe that preemption of state securities law registration and qualification requirements is appropriate for purchasers in these offerings.
We believe that the final rules for Regulation A create two different categories of securities for purposes of Section 18(b)(3). The requirements for Tier 1 issuers create a category of securities that is more local in character, while Tier 2 offerings involve a category of securities that is more national in character. In this regard, to the extent an issuer seeks to raise money through a public offering pursuant to Regulation A, the distinctions between the requirements for Tier 1 and Tier 2 will provide issuers with a meaningful choice at the outset between initial and ongoing offering costs and requirements.
Tier 1 issuers are not required to include audited financial statements in their offering statements, nor are they required—as contemplated by Section 3(b)(2)—to file audited financial statements with the Commission annually. They are further not subject to any ongoing reporting, beyond the requirements contained in Part I of Form 1-Z. While the final rules raise the offering limitation in Tier 1 to $20 million in a 12-month period, which we believe should increase the general utility of the tier, such offerings by virtue of the lower dollar amounts that can be raised in comparison to Tier 2 offerings, as well as the form filing requirements and the lack of ongoing reporting, will likely be conducted by a different set of issuers than those that conduct offerings pursuant to Tier 2. Specifically, we think that issuers conducting Tier 1 offerings are likely to be smaller companies whose businesses revolve around products, services, and a customer base that will more likely be located within a single state, region, or a small number of geographically dispersed states.
By contrast, we believe that the higher offering limitation for Tier 2 offerings, the higher costs associated with complying with the audited financial statement and ongoing reporting requirements, as well as the requirement to sell to “accredited investors” or otherwise limit the amount of securities sold to non-accredited investors, will necessitate that such offerings be offered and sold on a larger and more national scale. Additionally, an issuer electing to conduct a Tier 2 offering would likely do so, or be required by its investors to do so, in order to provide ongoing reports in a manner that will facilitate, or otherwise result in, secondary trading on a national level. While issuers conducting Regulation A offerings for less than $20 million are free to choose between the requirements of either tier, we believe that the initial and ongoing costs and limitations associated with
As noted above, some of the basic requirements of the offering statement are applicable to both tiers, and issuers of securities pursuant to either tier will remain subject to the same review and comment process by the staff of the Division of Corporation Finance before qualification. On this basis, some commenters argued that the same reasons supporting the preemption of state securities law registration requirements for Tier 2 offerings suggests that the Commission should also extend preemption to Tier 1 offerings.
The distinctions between the tiers in the final rules for purposes of the preemption of state securities law registration requirements are based only in part on the form distinctions and process requirements for issuers at the time of qualification at the federal level. The preemption of state securities law registration requirements in the final rules for Tier 2 offerings is additionally related to the inefficiencies of qualification at the state and federal level, the differing characteristics of Tier 1 and Tier 2 offerings, and the statutory purposes behind the enactment of the Efficiency Act that are served by deeming Tier 2 offerings to involve a covered class of securities.
While, as some commenters suggest, the review and qualification of Tier 1 offerings at the state level will involve inefficiencies to which Tier 2 issuers will not be subject, we believe that continued state involvement in Tier 1 offerings is consistent with the policy underlying the enactment of NSMIA that suggests that states should “generally retain their authority to regulate small, regional, or intrastate securities offerings.”
As noted above, under Section 18(c), the states retain authority to (1) investigate and bring enforcement actions with respect to fraudulent transactions, (2) require the filing of any documents filed with the Commission “solely for notice purposes and the assessment of any fee,” and (3) enforce filing and fee requirements by suspending offerings within a given state. We see no reason why state securities regulators could not continue to rely on the multi-state coordinated review program as a mechanism to allow Tier 2 issuers to make notice filings of their offering statements with the states consistent with Section 18(c). In this regard, notice filings of offering statements of Tier 2 issuers would be available to the states for a period of time prior to the qualification of the offering.
As we noted in the Proposing Release, a number of factors have influenced the use of Regulation A in the form it has taken since its last substantive update in 1992, including the process of filing the offering statement with the Commission, state securities law compliance, the types of investors businesses seek to attract, and the cost-effectiveness of Regulation A relative to other exemptions.
Under our proposal, offerings for up to $5 million conducted under Tier 1 would benefit from the proposed updates to Regulation A's filing and qualification processes, but the proposed amendments did not otherwise substantially alter the existing exemption for such offerings.
Many commenters recommended making changes to proposed Tier 1 to make it a more viable option for small business capital formation.
The final rules for Regulation A take into account some of the suggestions by commenters on ways to improve the requirements for smaller offerings, particularly in Tier 1. The comments we received did not reflect any consensus on the particular provisions in Tier 1 that were most in need of amendment. As noted above, we do not agree that preemption of state securities laws registration and qualification requirements is appropriate for Tier 1 offerings.
We are adopting certain changes in the final rules that are intended to make Tier 1 more useful for small business capital formation. As discussed above, in line with the suggestions of commenters, we have raised the offering limitation in Tier 1 to $20 million in a 12-month period, including no more than $6 million on behalf of selling securityholders that are affiliates of the issuer.
In the light of the changes discussed above, we believe that the final rules we are adopting will provide Tier 1 issuers with a meaningful choice within Regulation A between the costs and benefits associated with compliance with the requirements for Tier 1 and Tier 2 and therefore do not believe that an intermediate or other tier is necessary at this time.
While Regulation A has been used infrequently in recent years, there are issuers that are currently conducting, or that have filed offering statements, under the preexisting Regulation A rules. By way of transitional guidance, we are clarifying that issuers currently conducting sales of securities pursuant to a qualified Regulation A offering statement may continue to do so. Such offerings will be considered Tier 1 offerings after the effectiveness of the final rules. Qualified offering statements under the preexisting rules for Regulation A are, however, incompatible with the final requirements for Tier 2 offerings and, as discussed below, issuers that wish to transition to a Tier 2 offering will need to file a post-qualification amendment that satisfies the requirements for Tier 2.
Upon effectiveness of the final rules, issuers currently conducting Regulation A offerings under the preexisting rules must begin to comply with the final rules for Tier 1 offerings, including, for example, the requirement of electronic filing and the rules for post-qualification amendments, at the time of their next filing under Regulation A. Additionally, after effectiveness of the final rules, to the extent that issuers provided offering statements that were qualified using the Model A disclosure format of Part II of the Form 1-A, any subsequently required filing or amendment to such offering statement must be filed using a disclosure format that is permissible under the final rules for Tier 1 offerings. Model A will no longer be appropriate or permitted for post-qualification amendments of qualified offerings that pre-date effectiveness of the final rules. Lastly, an issuer that is offering securities pursuant to a qualified offering statement under the preexisting rules will, upon effectiveness of the final rules, no longer be required to file a Form 2-A, but instead be required to file a Form 1-Z with the Commission electronically upon completion or termination of the offering.
Issuers that are currently in the review process for the qualification of a Regulation A offering statement may continue to follow the preexisting rules for Regulation A until the effective date of the final rules. On or after the effective date, such an issuer will be required to comply with the final rules, including the requirements for electronic filing and, where applicable, transitioning to a disclosure format that is approved for Regulation A offerings. The issuer may also elect to proceed at that time with its offering under the final requirements for either Tier 1 or Tier 2 offerings, provided it follows the requirements for the respective tiers.
Issuers in ongoing offerings that were qualified before effectiveness of the final rules that wish to transition to a Tier 2 offering may do so by filing a post-qualification amendment that satisfies all of the requirements for Tier 2. Such issuers will transition to the requirements for Tier 2 upon qualification of the post-qualification amendment. For purposes of calculating the maximum offering amount permissible under Rule 251(a), an issuer must reduce the maximum offering amount sought to be qualified under the final rules for the respective tiers by the amount which such issuer has sold during the previous 12-month period pursuant to the preexisting rules for Regulation A.
The final rules for Regulation A amend existing Rules 251-263.
As a result of the revisions to Regulation A, we are adopting conforming and technical amendments to Securities Act Rules 157(a),
In this section, we analyze the expected economic effects of the final rules relative to the current baseline, which is the market situation in existence today, including current methods of raising up to $50 million in capital available to potential issuers. Our analysis considers the anticipated costs and benefits for market participants affected by the final rules as well as the impact of the final rules on efficiency, competition, and capital formation relative to the baseline. This includes the likely economic effects of the specific provisions of the final rules related to the scope of the exemption, the format and contents of the offering statement, solicitation of interest, ongoing reporting, insignificant deviations, bad actor disqualification, and relationship with state securities law.
The final rules to implement Section 401 of the JOBS Act and amend Regulation A seek to promote capital formation, efficiency and competition for small companies, and provide for meaningful investor protection. We are mindful of the costs imposed by, and the benefits to be obtained from, our rules. Securities Act Section 2(b)
The final rules include provisions mandated by the statute as well as provisions that rely on our discretionary authority. As a result, while many of the costs and benefits of the final rules stem from the statutory mandate of Title IV of the JOBS Act, certain benefits and costs are affected by the discretion we exercise in connection with implementing this mandate. For purposes of this economic analysis, we address the benefits and costs resulting from the mandatory statutory provisions and our exercise of discretion together because the two types of benefits and costs are not readily separable. We also analyze the benefits and costs of significant alternatives to the final rules that were suggested by commenters and that we considered. Many of the benefits and costs discussed below are difficult to quantify when analyzing the likely effects of the final rules on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. For example, the extent to which the amendments to Regulation A will
One of the primary objectives of Section 401 was to expand the capital raising options available to smaller and emerging companies and thereby to promote capital formation within the larger economy.
The impact of the final rules on an issuer's ability to raise capital will also depend on whether new investor capital is attracted to the Regulation A market, and on whether investors reallocate existing capital among various types of offerings. Investor demand for securities offered under amended Regulation A will depend on the expected risk, return and liquidity of the offered securities, and in particular, how these characteristics compare to what investors can obtain from securities in other exempt offerings and in registered offerings. Investor demand also will depend on whether Regulation A disclosure requirements are sufficient to enable investors to evaluate the aforementioned characteristics of Regulation A offerings.
To assess the likely impact of the final rules on capital formation, we consider the features of amended Regulation A that potentially could increase the use of Regulation A by new issuers and by issuers that already rely on private and registered offerings.
The amendments to Regulation A we are adopting remove certain burdens identified by commenters and others in existing Regulation A. Offerings relying on existing Regulation A must be qualified by the states and the Commission, which also requires a review and qualification process for issuers to access capital.
We believe that the potential use of amended Regulation A for Tier 2 offerings depends largely on how issuers perceive, the trade-off between the costs of qualification and ongoing disclosure requirements and the benefits to issuers from access to a broad investor base, expansion of the offering size, the preemption of state securities law registration requirements and the potential for enhanced secondary market liquidity.
With respect to Tier 1 offerings, the potential use of amended Regulation A depends largely on how issuers perceive the trade-off between state review and qualification requirements, limited disclosure requirements (with potentially greater information asymmetry between issuers and investors) and the $20 million maximum offering size.
We also recognize that the level of investor protection resulting from the final rules is an important consideration that could affect the ultimate use and success of amended Regulation A. For example, if preempting state review of Tier 2 offerings, or not requiring audited financials or ongoing disclosures in Tier 1 offerings, leads to undisclosed risks or misconduct in the offering process, then investors may be unwilling to participate in those types of Regulation A offerings. On the other hand, Commission staff review of the offerings and investment limitations for Tier 2 offerings may mitigate some of these concerns for certain investors.
Many of the potential issuers of securities under amended Regulation A may be small companies, particularly early-stage and high-growth companies, seeking capital through equity-based financing because they do not have sufficient collateral or the cash flows necessary to support the fixed repayment schedule of debt financing.
Some issuers may prefer to offer securities under amended Regulation A relative to using other offering methods exempt from registration because of potentially limiting features associated with the other exemptions. In particular, securities sold pursuant to the exemptions from registration under Regulation D,
The use of amended Regulation A may also depend on whether companies considering seeking capital through an exempt offering believe that the benefits from access to a broader investor base under amended Regulation A offset the costs of qualification and, with respect to Tier 2 offerings, ongoing disclosure requirements. Other offering exemptions could remain attractive relative to amended Regulation A. For example, general solicitation is now permissible under Rule 506(c) of Regulation D. Issuers relying on Rule 506(c) to solicit offerings may now more easily reach institutional and accredited investors, making it less necessary for them to seek capital from a broader non-accredited investor base, especially if trading platforms aimed at accredited investors in privately placed securities continue to develop.
Finally, the conditional exemption from registration of a class of securities under Section 12(g) available to some Tier 2 issuers may encourage them to pursue a Regulation A offering as a means to avoid the associated costs and requirements of Exchange Act registration and reporting.
The trade-offs between amended Regulation A and a registered offering are somewhat different. In a registered offering, issuers can offer the securities directly to all potential investors, without a limitation on the aggregate offering amount and with no resale restrictions. Moreover, securities issued through registered offerings often trade on national securities exchanges and can offer a degree of liquidity to investors that is generally not available for securities issued in private offerings. However, the issuance costs associated with small registered public offerings are generally a significant percentage of proceeds and issuers in registered offerings must bear the costs arising from ongoing disclosure requirements under the Exchange Act. These costs are perceived to be one of the determinants of the relatively low incidence of initial public offerings (“IPOs”) over the past decade and may be a motivating factor for potential issuers to prefer offering securities under amended Regulation A.
There are other possible explanations for the decline in IPOs, for example, macro-economic effects on investment opportunities in the economy and the cost of capital.
The use of amended Regulation A may depend on the extent to which companies considering a traditional IPO believe that amended Regulation A is a viable alternative. These potential issuers will need to assess whether the cost savings from reduced reporting requirements under amended Regulation A offset the potential reduction in secondary market liquidity compared to registered offerings that meet the listing requirements of national securities exchanges. In particular, securities listed on a national securities exchange are likely to benefit from increased liquidity as a result of greater access to potential investors and a lower level of information asymmetry due to more extensive reporting requirements. At present, only some securities issued under existing Regulation A trade over-the-counter, with the majority not known to trade in any secondary market.
The liquidity trade-off faced by issuers considering amended Regulation A relative to other exempt or registered offering methods may ultimately center on whether the ongoing reporting requirements of Tier 2 offerings can generate sufficient information for secondary markets to provide the intended liquidity benefits. Academic studies have found a close relationship between disclosure requirements and liquidity.
Another study found significant decreases in liquidity for issuers that deregistered their securities, with the subsequent loss of liquidity attributed to decreased disclosure separate from the effect of delisting from a major exchange. This study also shows that some companies choose to deregister under Section 12(b) and trade on less liquid OTC markets instead of trading on national securities exchanges, indicating that, for such companies, the expected costs of reporting under the Exchange Act outweigh the expected liquidity benefits.
Overall, amended Regulation A could increase the aggregate amount of capital raised in the economy if used by private issuers that have until now been limited in their ability to raise capital through other types of exempt offerings or by smaller private issuers that seek a public market for their securities but that are not sufficiently large to bear the fixed costs of being an Exchange Act reporting company. The impact of amended Regulation A on capital formation could also be redistributive in nature by encouraging issuers to shift from one method of capital raising to another. This potential outcome may have significant net positive effects on capital formation and allocative efficiency by providing issuers with access to capital at a lower cost than alternative capital raising methods and by providing
The net effect of the final rules on capital formation will depend on whether issuers that rely on amended Regulation A do so in addition to or instead of other methods of raising capital. The effect will also depend on whether investors find Regulation A disclosure requirements and investor protections to be sufficient to evaluate the expected return and risk of such offerings and to choose between offerings reliant on Regulation A, other exempt offerings and registered offerings. Due to a lack of data, we are not able to estimate the effects of the final rules on the potential rate of substitution between alternative methods of raising capital and amended Regulation A and the overall expansion, if any, in capital raising by potential issuers eligible for amended Regulation A.
As we described in the Proposing Release, the baseline for our economic analysis of amended Regulation A is market conditions as they exist today, in which issuers seeking to raise capital through securities offerings must register the offer and sale of securities under the Securities Act unless they can rely on an exemption from registration under the federal securities laws.
Issuers seeking to raise up to $50 million over a twelve-month period are expected to be affected directly by amended Regulation A. As we described in the Proposing Release, while there are a number of factors that companies consider when determining how to raise capital, one of the primary considerations is whether to issue securities through a registered public offering or through an offering that is exempt from Securities Act registration and ongoing Exchange Act reporting requirements. The choice of offering method may depend on the size of the issuer, the type of investors the issuer seeks to attract and the amount of new capital sought. Registered offerings entail considerable initial and ongoing costs that can weigh more heavily on smaller issuers, providing incentives to remain private and to raise capital outside of public markets.
Currently, small issuers can raise capital by relying on an exemption from registration under the Securities Act, such as Section 3(a)(11),
While
As we described in the Proposing Release, issuers rarely rely on existing Regulation A to raise capital. The chart below, from the GAO Report shows the number of filed and qualified Regulation A offerings in fiscal years 1992 to 2011.
In calendar years 2012 to 2014, 26 Regulation A offerings, excluding amendments, were qualified by the Commission.
Section 402 of the JOBS Act required the GAO to study the impact of state securities laws on Regulation A offerings. The GAO examined: (1) Trends in Regulation A filings, (2) differences in state registration of Regulation A filings, and (3) factors that may have affected the number of Regulation A filings. In its July 2012 report on Regulation A, the GAO cited four factors affecting the use of Regulation A offerings: (1) Costs associated with compliance with state securities regulations, or blue sky laws; (2) the availability of alternative offering methods exempt from registration, such as Regulation D offerings; (3) costs associated with the Commission's filing and qualification process; and (4) the type of investors businesses sought to attract.
As identified by the GAO, compliance with state securities laws is one of the factors that impacts the use of existing Regulation A. The GAO did not provide an estimate of the compliance costs. For issuers seeking to offer securities in multiple states, differences in securities laws and applicable procedures across states may result in significant legal costs
The GAO also identified costs associated with the Commission's filing and qualification process for Regulation A offerings as another factor contributing to its limited current use.
As described above, a business that relies on Regulation A must file an offering statement with the Commission that must be qualified by Commission staff before the offering can proceed. From 2002 through 2011, Regulation A filings took an average of 228 days to qualify.
Our analysis of the Regulation A filings qualified between 2002 and 2014 shows that approximately half of the issuers operated in the financial industry and the majority of offerings involved equity securities. Offerings with affiliate sales were rare, likely due not only to the requirement of the existing Regulation A that the issuer have net income from continuing operations in the prior two years but also due to the perceptions that adverse selection concerns may limit investor demand in securities offerings with affiliate sales.
Based on the information available to us, it appears that the most common way to issue up to $50 million of securities is pursuant to an offering under a Regulation D exemption. Eligible issuers can rely on Rule 504 to raise up to $1 million within a twelve-month period, on Rule 505 to raise up to $5 million within a twelve-month period, and on Rule 506 to raise an unlimited amount of capital. In total, based on the analysis of offering amounts reported on Form D in calendar year 2014, Regulation D offerings accounted for over one trillion dollars. Most issuers choose to raise capital by relying on Rule 506, even when their offering size would have potentially permitted reliance on Rule 504 or Rule 505.
As shown in the table above, approximately 95% of Regulation D offerings that would be eligible for amended Regulation A relied on Rule 506. A comparison of Rule 506 offerings over $20 million to those below $20 million shows that larger offerings generally had a higher number of investors and were less likely to have non-accredited investors.
Additional data on Regulation D offerings that would have been eligible for amended Regulation A exemption is provided in the graph below, which displays the offering size distribution of Rule 506 offerings and other Regulation D offerings that would have been potentially eligible for the amended Regulation A exemption in calendar year 2014. Approximately 95% of Regulation D offerings that would have been potentially eligible for amended Regulation A had offering amounts below $20
Approximately seventy percent of Regulation D issuers that would be eligible for amended Regulation A declined to disclose their revenue range in their Form D filings for 2014. Of the remaining 30%, 13% reported “no revenues.” The portion of issuers with no revenues is noteworthy because it may be more difficult for issuers without regular cash flows to obtain debt financing (without collateral or a guarantee).
Issuers may seek to raise capital by registering the offer and sale of securities under the Securities Act. In calendar year 2014, using data from Thomson Reuters, we identified 75 IPOs and 246 seasoned equity offerings (SEOs) of up to $50 million by issuers that would have been potentially eligible for amended Regulation A.
There has been a general decline in the number of IPOs, particularly those undertaken by small firms, since the late 1990s.
Because of the fixed-cost nature of some of the compliance-related fees associated with public offerings, compliance-related fees as a percentage of offering proceeds tend to decline as offering size increases, as illustrated in the table below. Offerings below $50 million, and especially offerings below $20 million, incur significantly higher registration, legal and accounting-related fees, as a percentage of proceeds.
In addition to compliance costs, there are other possible explanations for the trends in IPOs. A decline in public offerings also could result from macro-economic effects on investment opportunities and the cost of capital
The analysis includes legal, accounting, blue sky, and registration fees, to which we collectively refer as “compliance fees”. Blue Sky Fees denotes fees and expenses related to compliance with state securities regulations. We note that Blue Sky fees associated with small registered offerings may over- or under-estimate similar expenses for Regulation A offerings of the same size.
Several other trade-offs may affect an issuer's willingness to pursue an IPO. According to the IPO Task Force survey, 88% of CEOs that had completed an IPO listed “Managing Public Communications Restrictions” as one of the most significant challenges brought on by becoming a reporting company.
The cost and disclosure requirements of IPOs have been affected by the recent adoption of scaled reporting requirements for emerging growth companies (EGCs) under Title I of the
Equity, including principal owner equity, accounts for a significant proportion of the total capital of a typical small business. Other sources of capital for small businesses include loans from commercial banks, finance companies and other financial institutions, and trade credit.
Borrowing is relatively costly for many early-stage issuers as they may have low revenues, irregular cash-flow projections, insufficient assets to offer as collateral and high external monitoring costs.
There are currently no limitations on who can invest in existing Regulation A offerings. In considering the baseline for the amendments to Regulation A, we also examine the investors in other existing methods of raising up to $50 million in capital because the final rules we are adopting may impact an issuer's choice of offering method and the potential investor base of the offering. For example, as discussed above, while there are no limitations on the number of non-accredited investors that can invest in offerings made pursuant to Rule 504 of Regulation D and in registered public offerings, offerings made pursuant to Rule 505 and Rule 506(b) of Regulation D are limited to a maximum of 35 non-accredited investors. Issuers making offerings pursuant to Rule 506(c) of Regulation D must take reasonable steps to verify that investors are accredited investors.
While non-accredited investors can participate in Regulation D offerings, subject to limitations described above, data from Form D filings suggests that non-accredited investors are not significantly involved in Regulation D offerings of up to $50 million. Offerings involving non-accredited investors are typically smaller than those that do not involve non-accredited investors. In 2014, we estimate that approximately 152,641 investors participated in Regulation D offerings of less than $50 million by issuers that would be eligible for amended Regulation A.
The total number of households estimated to qualify as accredited investors is substantially larger than the total number of investors reported to have participated in an unregistered offering. As of 2013, we estimated that over 9 million U.S. households qualified as accredited investors based on the net worth standard alone, approximately 8 million U.S. households qualified as accredited investors based on the income standard alone, and approximately 12.4 million U.S. households qualified based on either the income standard or the net worth standard.
Regulation A amendments may also affect financial intermediaries that may become involved in the placement and quotation of Regulation A securities. Currently, there is limited involvement of intermediaries in a Regulation A offering. However, financial intermediaries are used in certain of the other types of offerings, including registered offerings and certain exempt offerings. To the extent that the amendments to Regulation A that we are adopting today impact the number and the overall amount of capital raised in other types of offerings, financial intermediaries may be affected. For example, in registered offerings, underwriters are frequently used to identify potential investors and are primarily responsible for facilitating a successful distribution of the offered securities. While intermediaries are used less frequently in Regulation D offerings, they play a role in some offerings. We estimate that fewer than 10% of Regulation D offerings that would have been potentially eligible under amended Regulation A involved an intermediary (the estimate is based on information about sales compensation or sales compensation recipients reported in connection with the offering).
Consistent with the restrictions in existing Regulation A, the final rules exclude non-Canadian foreign issuers, investment companies (including BDCs), Exchange Act reporting companies, blank check companies, and issuers of fractional undivided interests in oil or gas rights, or similar interests
The final rules also exclude two additional categories of issuers: (i) issuers that are or have been subject to a denial, suspension, or revocation order by the Commission pursuant to Section 12(j) of the Exchange Act within the five years immediately preceding the filing of the offering statement, and (ii) issuers that are required to, but that have not, filed with the Commission the ongoing reports required by the final rules during the two years immediately preceding the filing of an offering statement.
Excluding issuers that have not complied with Regulation A's ongoing reporting requirements in the two-year period immediately preceding the filing of a new offering statement will incentivize issuers that intend to rely on amended Regulation A exemption in the future to comply with its ongoing reporting requirements. Similarly, excluding issuers that were subject to a denial, suspension, or revocation order by the Commission pursuant to Section 12(j) of the Exchange Act within the five years immediately preceding the filing of the offering statement will incentivize registrants to comply with their obligations under the Exchange Act, including their ongoing reporting obligations, and will prevent issuers with a history of non-compliance from relying on Regulation A after they terminate or suspend their Exchange Act reporting obligations. At the same time, neither of these exclusions should result in additional compliance costs for issuers because they do not impose any reporting or other requirements on issuers beyond those already mandated by existing regulations.
We recognize that excluding these additional categories of issuers would have an effect on capital formation as it could prevent Regulation A offerings by issuers who otherwise might have utilized the Regulation A exemption rather than other methods of capital raising. However, to the extent that the information contained in required past reports provides investors in follow-on offerings of Regulation A securities with a more complete picture of the issuer's business and financial condition and is relevant for current investment decisions, the exclusion of issuers that are not compliant with Regulation A's reporting requirements and issuers subject to an order by the Commission pursuant to Section 12(j) should therefore enhance investor protection and the informational efficiency of prices of Regulation A securities by allowing investors to make better informed investment decisions. Moreover, we believe that these additional issuer eligibility requirements will complement each other in facilitating compliance with our rules.
To the extent that more issuers use the amended Regulation A exemption, the final rules may promote competition among eligible issuers in the market for investor capital and in the market for goods and services. The final rules may also promote competition in the product market between small issuers and larger issuers.
As suggested by some commenters, we could have expanded the categories of eligible Regulation A issuers to include non-Canadian foreign issuers,
However, it may be potentially difficult and costly for investors, especially less sophisticated investors, to determine the valuation and risk of securities of non-Canadian foreign issuers, blank check companies and issuers of fractional undivided interests in oil or gas rights, or similar interests in other mineral rights, so extending eligibility to such issuers may also decrease investor protection. To the extent that such information asymmetries are not fully mitigated by initial and ongoing Regulation A disclosure requirements, which are generally less extensive than the disclosure requirements for registered offerings, the prices of Regulation A securities of these issuers could be less informationally efficient. Along the same lines, we believe the specialized nature of capital formation and investment strategies at BDCs warrants disclosures that are more specialized than what is required by existing or amended Regulation A for a proper understanding of an investment in the securities of these types of issuers.
We also could have expanded the categories of eligible Regulation A issuers to include issuers that are subject to the ongoing reporting requirements of Section 13 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act (“reporting companies”), as suggested by some commenters.
Consistent with the statute, the final rules apply to offerings of equity securities, debt securities, and securities convertible or exchangeable to equity interests, for example, warrants, including any guarantees of such securities.
Similar to the proposal, the final rules exclude offerings of asset-backed securities (“ABS”) from eligibility for Regulation A. As discussed above, we believe that ABS issuers are not the intended beneficiaries of the mandated expansion of Regulation A. ABS are subject to the provisions of Regulation AB and other rules specifically tailored to the offering process, disclosure and reporting requirements for such securities, and we do not believe that Regulation A's requirements are suitable for offerings of such securities. ABS are designed to pool the risk of already-issued loans and other financial assets and, in this respect, do not constitute new capital formation. We recognize that, in certain cases, permitting ABS offerings to be conducted under Regulation A could lower the cost of capital for underlying borrowers whose loans are eventually securitized by ABS issuers and therefore indirectly facilitate capital formation.
As explained above, the final rules introduce two tiers of offerings compared with the baseline of one tier in existing Regulation A. The tiered approach in the final rules allows us to scale regulatory requirements based on offering size, to give issuers more flexibility in raising capital under Regulation A, and to provide appropriately tailored protections for investors in each tier. Issuers seeking to raise a larger amount of capital are, among other things, required to provide more extensive initial and ongoing disclosures, but are also able to take advantage of the larger maximum offering size in Tier 2 (up to $50 million in a twelve-month period). In light of this larger maximum offering size, the final rules impose additional disclosure requirements and other provisions to provide protection to investors in Tier 2 offerings. Issuers seeking a smaller amount of capital retain the advantage of more scaled disclosures required in Tier 1 offerings but must comply with a lower offering size limit.
We recognize that the cost associated with greater disclosure requirements for offerings made under Tier 2 in amounts up to $20 million may place Tier 2 issuers at a relative competitive disadvantage as compared to issuers seeking to raise an amount below $20 million in a Tier 1 offering. Such potential competitive effects are likely to be mitigated by the ability of issuers to evaluate the trade-off between the costs associated with more extensive disclosure requirements for Tier 2 offerings and the benefit of a potentially higher securities valuation stemming from a reduction in information asymmetry between issuers and investors due to the more extensive disclosure requirements for Tier 2 offerings.
In a change from the proposal, and in line with the suggestions of some commenters, the final rules raise the Tier 1 maximum offering size from $5 million to $20 million in a twelve-month period in order to provide smaller issuers with additional flexibility to meet their financing needs.
Compared to the baseline, the increase in the maximum offering size to $20 million for Tier 1 offerings and the creation of Tier 2 with the maximum offering size of $50 million will provide issuers with increased flexibility with regard to their offering size and should lower the burden of fixed costs associated with conducting Regulation A offerings as a percentage of proceeds.
The increased maximum offering size could also contribute to improved liquidity for Regulation A securities, to the extent that larger issues may encourage greater breadth of equity ownership, assuming sufficient secondary market demand develops.
If investor demand for Regulation A securities and information about issuers is sufficient, the increase in maximum offering size could also contribute to the development of intermediation services, such as market making, and to the coverage of Regulation A securities by analysts.
Finally, the increase in the maximum offering size could result in increased competition among Regulation A issuers for investor capital. If the number of issuers seeking to raise larger amounts of capital pursuant to Regulation A increases more than the size of the accredited and non-accredited investor base, investors considering Regulation A securities will have more choice of investment opportunities in the Regulation A market, resulting in greater competition among issuers for prospective investors. Increased competition, in turn, could result in more efficient allocation of capital by investors. The intensity of competition among issuers for investor capital may not change, however, if issuers are able to attract additional numbers of accredited and non-accredited investors as the Regulation A market develops.
Alternatively, as suggested by some commenters, we could have increased the Tier 2 maximum offering size above $50 million, for example, to $75 or $100 million.
We also considered the overall distribution of registered offerings (initial public offerings and seasoned equity offerings). The overall number of Regulation D offerings significantly exceeded the number of registered equity offerings, thus the combined distribution of registered and Regulation D offerings closely resembles the distribution of Regulation D offerings. In 2014, most (92.2%) of the offerings conducted in the form of registered equity offerings or Regulation D offerings had offer sizes up to $50 million. In 2014, offerings in the $50-$75 million range accounted for 1.0% of Regulation D offerings and approximately 10% of registered equity offerings. Data on registered offerings was obtained from Thomson Reuters, as described in Section III.B.1.b.
However, we recognize that historical use of Regulation D may not fully represent future potential use of Regulation A, particularly to the extent that the amended rules facilitate offerings by issuers that do not currently rely on other private offering exemptions and that are seeking a broader investor base and enhanced liquidity for their issued securities. In particular, amended Regulation A may attract issuers seeking a public ownership status, and for whom a likely alternative is a registered offering. An increase in the Tier 2 offering size above $50 million could result in some issuers shifting from conducting a registered offering to conducting a Tier 2 offering. As discussed earlier, amended Regulation A may facilitate offerings that would not otherwise be conducted given the cost of registered offerings. However, it is also possible that an increase in the Tier 2 offering size above $50 million will not result in a significant number of issuers shifting from conducting a registered offering to conducting a Tier 2 offering given that the relative cost savings from a Tier 2 offering compared to a registered offering may be lower for offerings in the $50 million to $75 million range than for those below $50 million.
An increased maximum offering size for Tier 1 offerings could increase the overall amount of securities being offered to the general public that are subject to less extensive initial disclosure requirements and not subject to ongoing disclosure requirements, which may reduce the ability of investors to make informed investment decisions. However, some issuers that conduct offerings that are eligible for Tier 1 may instead choose a Tier 2 offering, for example, to take advantage of the benefits of more extensive disclosure, such as potentially greater secondary market liquidity, and the benefits of a single level of regulatory review.
An increased maximum offering size for Tier 2 Regulation A offerings could increase the overall amount of securities being offered to the general public that are subject to initial and ongoing disclosure requirements that are less extensive than the requirements for registered offerings being offered to the general public, which may result in less informed decisions by investors, thus potentially impacting investor protection. This may be partly mitigated by the investment limitations imposed on non-accredited investors in Tier 2 offerings. Further, larger issuers are more likely to conduct registered offerings, associated with the more extensive disclosure requirements of the Exchange Act.
The final rules continue to permit secondary sales as part of a Regulation A offering, subject to the following conditions. The amount of securities that selling securityholders can sell at the time of an issuer's initial offering and within the following 12-month period may not exceed 30% of the aggregate offering price (offering size) of a particular offering. Following the expiration of the first 12-month period after an issuer's initial qualification of an offering statement, the amount of securities that affiliate securityholders can sell in a Regulation A offering in any 12-month period will be limited to $6 million in Tier 1 offerings and $15 million in Tier 2 offerings.
Several commenters recommended eliminating limits on sales by existing securityholders,
Whether and to what extent securityholders should be permitted to sell in a Regulation A offering involves a trade-off between enhancing liquidity for selling securityholders and limiting the potential harm to investors that could arise from such sales. The final rules attempt to balance these considerations. The trade-off between these countervailing considerations will depend in large part on whether the selling securityholder is an affiliate of the issuer. There are two concerns about sales by affiliates. One is that there is an information asymmetry between an affiliate and outside investors. In particular, an affiliate selling securityholder is likely to have an informational advantage that it may potentially utilize to the detriment of outside investors.
We recognize, however, that there are benefits to be realized from permitting affiliate securityholders, such as company founders and employees, to sell in a Regulation A offering. Because entrepreneurs and other affiliates consider available exit options before participating in a new venture, permitting secondary sales increases their incentives to make the original investment, which may promote innovation and business formation.
As noted above, the final rules relax the existing limitations on secondary sales by affiliates by eliminating the net income test for affiliate resales in existing Rule 251(b). We are concerned that this criterion may not be the best measure of financial health and investment opportunities for some issuers eligible for amended Regulation A and thus may inappropriately disadvantage those issuers, and their affiliates, with respect to secondary sales.
The trade-off between enhanced liquidity and investor protection is different with respect to sales by non-affiliates, because these securityholders are less likely to have access to inside information, and their sales do not raise the incentive alignment concerns discussed above in the context of affiliate securityholders. The option to exit through a Regulation A offering provides additional liquidity to existing non-affiliate securityholders. During the initial 12-month period, the final rules enable selling securityholders to access liquidity through a Regulation A offering while ensuring that secondary sales at the time of such offerings are made in conjunction with new capital raising by the issuer. After the expiration of the initial 12-month period, the ability of non-affiliate securityholders to sell securities pursuant to a qualified Regulation A offering statement without limitation (except the maximum Regulation A offering size) should make Regulation A securities more attractive to prospective investors, which may encourage initial investment and increase capital formation. Non-affiliate securityholders who hold restricted securities purchased in reliance on another exemption will be able to sell them freely after a one-year holding period. Purchasers of the securities from such non-affiliate securityholders would not have the benefit of the more robust disclosure provisions of a Regulation A offering, where the seller will be subject to Section 12(a)(2) liability. Thus, allowing secondary sales in a Regulation A offering will provide an additional measure of protection for purchasers as compared to transactions in the secondary market.
Although secondary sales increase the liquidity for existing securityholders, since secondary sales will be aggregated with issuer sales for purposes of compliance with the maximum offering amount permissible under the respective tiers, secondary sales may reduce the maximum amount of issuer sales in a Regulation A offering. The 30% limit on secondary sales imposed during the initial 12-month period partly mitigates this potential effect.
Regulation A currently does not place limits on the amount of securities that may be purchased by an investor. The proposed rules included a 10% investment limit for all investors in Tier 2 offerings. Several commenters recommended providing exceptions to the limit, or altering the limit, for certain types of investors, such as accredited investors,
We recognize that there are potential investor protection benefits as well as costs from imposing investment limits in Regulation A offerings. To help balance those benefits and costs, the final rules seek to focus these limits on those investors who may be less likely to be able to fend for themselves and sustain losses. Accordingly, non-accredited investors in Tier 2 offerings will be limited to purchases of no more than 10% of the greater of annual income or net worth (for natural persons) or the greater of annual revenue or net assets (for non-natural persons), as proposed.
We also recognize that there are costs associated with investment limits. In particular, the investment limitation could limit potential gains for non-accredited investors in Tier 2 offerings. The investment limitation could require some issuers to solicit a greater number of investors or to solicit additional accredited investors, which could impose additional costs on those issuers or limit capital formation if they are unable to attract additional investors.
The investment limitation could also lead to a more dispersed non-accredited investor base or a higher proportion of accredited investors in the investor base to the extent that the 10% threshold impacts investor participation. This could facilitate increased liquidity as there would be more investors with which to trade. More diffuse ownership could also exacerbate the shareholder collective action problem and weaken external monitoring by non-affiliated shareholders to the extent that coordination costs with other shareholders increase. We do not believe, however, that either of these outcomes is a likely consequence of the 10% investment limit.
In a change from the proposal, the final rules exclude sales of securities that will be listed on a national securities exchange upon qualification from Tier 2 investment limitations. This provision may provide additional investment opportunities for some investors and may enhance capital formation for some issuers. We do not anticipate that this provision will reduce investor protection since such issuers will be required to meet the listing standards of a national securities exchange and become subject to ongoing Exchange Act reporting, resulting in a high level of investor protection.
As an alternative to the final rules, we considered imposing more restrictive investment limitations, as suggested by various comments, including extending investment limitations to Tier 1 offerings,
The alternative of imposing a cap that is lower than 10% on “all but the wealthiest, least risk averse” investors may confer additional investor protection benefits on investors that are unable to withstand significant investment losses. However, this alternative could also limit some investors from pursuing attractive investment opportunities and limit capital formation for some issuers. Further, since risk preferences vary considerably among investors, objectively identifying “risk averse” investors in a way that is broadly applicable is a challenge. In contrast, the 10% investment limitation in the final rules that applies to all investors in a Tier 2 offering, except accredited investors, defined pursuant to Rule 501 of Regulation D, provides a standard that market participants can easily implement.
The alternative of imposing the 10% investment limitation that is aggregated across investments in all Regulation A offerings rather than applying the limitation on a per offering basis may strengthen investor protection. Because the risk profiles of different securities offerings by the same issuer are likely to be correlated, and some issuers may participate in multiple Regulation A offerings over time, such an alternative definition of the limitation may prevent a non-accredited investor from using a significant share (potentially, significantly in excess of 10%) of their net worth or income to establish a highly undiversified exposure to a single issuer. However, this alternative could also limit some investors from pursuing attractive investment opportunities and limit capital formation for issuers. Moreover, different offerings by the same issuer under Regulation A may have different risk profiles, depending on security type and class, thus for some investors, depending on their preferences, investing a larger aggregate amount in multiple offerings by the same issuer may be optimal.
Overall, while such additional restrictions may strengthen investor protection, their incremental contribution to investor protection may be small in light of other provisions of amended Regulation A. At the same time, such additional restrictions may prevent some investors from taking advantage of potentially beneficial investment opportunities and may limit the attractiveness of Regulation A to prospective issuers, reducing capital formation and competition benefits.
The final rules permit issuers to rely on an investor's representation that the investment represents no more than 10% of the greater of the investor's net worth and annual income, unless the issuer has knowledge that such representation is untrue. The ability to rely on investor representations should help mitigate potential costs that issuers could incur to comply with the investment limitation provisions. At the same time, we realize that investors might make inaccurate representations, whether intentionally or not, which could expose these investors to increased losses.
As an alternative to investor representations, we could have imposed additional requirements on the issuer to verify that investors in Tier 2 offerings are compliant with the 10% investment limit, as suggested by some commenters.
The final rules provide issuers with a safe harbor from integration that, with the exception of the addition of security-based crowdfunding transactions conducted pursuant to Section 4(a)(6) of the Securities Act, preserves the provisions of existing Regulation A.
We believe that the final rules provide issuers with valuable certainty as to the contours of offerings conducted before, or close in time with, Regulation A offerings. This certainty may be particularly beneficial for smaller issuers whose capital needs, and thus preferred capital raising methods, may change frequently.
As an alternative, we could have eliminated the integration safe harbor. We believe that the elimination of the safe harbor, however, would inject uncertainty into offerings conducted before, or close in time with, Regulation A offerings and would, in turn, decrease the utility of the exemption. Uncertainty as to the contours of offerings, as they relate to Regulation A, could possibly cause issuers to prefer other offering methods to Regulation A, which may have an effect on investor protection. For example, if issuers rely more on Regulation D, this alternative could result in investors receiving less information about an issuer before making an investment, thereby reducing investor protection. Instead, if issuers rely more on registered offerings, this alternative could potentially provide investors with the more extensive disclosure required of, and liability protections associated with, such offerings, although it would cause smaller issuers to incur the higher initial and ongoing costs associated with such offerings.
Existing rules currently do not exempt Regulation A securities from the requirements of Section 12(g), but the Proposing Release requested comment on whether we should adopt such an exemption. A number of commenters recommended exempting Regulation A securities from Section 12(g) of the Exchange Act,
The final rules are intended to provide sufficient disclosure to help investors make informed decisions while limiting the costs imposed on issuers. We believe that the initial and ongoing disclosures required for Tier 2 offerings in the final rules accomplish this objective and that the final rules also provide an appropriate balance between providing investor protection and promoting capital formation. The size of Tier 2 offerings, combined with the investment limitation and the ability to offer Tier 2 securities to the general public, may result in the number of an issuer's shareholders of record exceeding Section 12(g) thresholds. A conditional Section 12(g) exemption for small issuers of Tier 2 securities in such instances is expected to reduce the compliance cost for small issuers and facilitate capital formation and the creation of a broad investor base in offerings made pursuant to Regulation A by small Tier 2 issuers. This will benefit those small Regulation A issuers that are not seeking to list on a national securities exchange
Regulation A offerings may be particularly attractive to small private companies whose shareholder bases are approaching the Section 12(g) registration threshold. The conditional Section 12(g) exemption may enable small private issuers of Tier 2 securities under amended Regulation A to expand their shareholder base over time, as a result of secondary market trading, to the extent that such a market develops, or through subsequent security issuances, without incurring the costs associated with reporting company status.
While the additional requirement to use a registered transfer agent will impose costs on issuers,
According to the Securities Transfer Association (STA), the registered transfer agent industry is highly competitive and many of its members can develop business models that will suit the needs of small issuers and at the same time provide adequate protection to investors. The STA further noted that it did not anticipate most small issuers to require some of the services, such as the processing of dividends, that raise the cost of recordkeeping services.
The final rules also include an issuer size limit in the eligibility requirements for the Section 12(g) exemption for Tier 2 offerings, consistent with providing a conditional exemption tailored to facilitate small company capital formation. The issuer size limit may make Regulation A less attractive for larger issuers and issuers anticipating growth or capital appreciation that expect to reach Section 12(g) thresholds after conducting a Tier 2 offering or subsequent secondary market trading. The two-year transition period before reporting must begin may partly mitigate some of these costs to issuers. Due to the uncertainty about the future composition of the issuer and investor base in Tier 2 offerings, we cannot determine the proportion of Tier 2 issuers whose number of shareholders of record will exceed Section 12(g) thresholds or the proportion of those issuers that will not qualify for an exemption due to their size.
Some issuers may be able to limit the number of shareholders of record by adopting a minimum investment size requirement. This may potentially limit the breadth of investor base and the availability of investment opportunities to some investors. We are not able to determine the extent to which the issuer size limit may affect overall capital formation and whether large or growth issuers will proceed with a Tier 2 offering or pursue a registered offering, a Regulation D offering or another method of financing. In addition, the issuer size limit may place at a competitive disadvantage those potential issuers that exceed the size limit but for which the costs of registration remain high, relative to potential issuers that are close to the size limit but that qualify for the Section 12(g) conditional exemption.
We recognize that there are costs associated with the conditional exemption adopted today. Under this exemption, some issuers in Tier 2 offerings with a large number of shareholders could avoid—potentially indefinitely—the comprehensive disclosure requirements of the Exchange Act, which may decrease the informational efficiency of prices and potentially result in less informed investment decisions by a larger number of investors than in the absence of a conditional Section 12(g) exemption. The issuer size limit partly mitigates this concern. For the same reasons, however, the inclusion of a conditional exemption from Section 12(g) may entice small issuers that would have otherwise generally preferred to raise capital in private offerings to enter the public markets through a Tier 2 offering pursuant to Regulation A.
We have considered the alternative of providing a conditional exemption from Section 12(g) registration that does not
The final rules preserve the current three-part structure of Form 1-A but make various revisions and updates to the form to streamline the information included in the form. Since most of this information is already contained in other offering materials, the additional reporting burden in Part I of the Form 1-A should not entail significantly higher costs in terms of time or out-of-pocket expenses.
Under existing Regulation A, offering materials are submitted to the Commission in paper form. The final rules require electronic submission of offering materials. Electronic submission is expected to offer benefits to issuers and investors. Paper documents are difficult to process both for the Commission and for investors. Electronic filing is therefore expected to reduce processing delays and costs associated with the current paper filing system, improve the overall efficiency of the filing process for issuers, benefit investors by providing them with faster access to the offering statement, and allow offering materials to be more easily accessed and analyzed by regulators and analysts.
We anticipate that electronic access to offering materials may promote the informational efficiency of prices of Regulation A securities.
At the same time, we recognize that an electronic filing requirement may impose compliance costs on issuers, particularly, issuers that have not previously used the EDGAR system, which include filing Form ID (the application form for access codes to permit EDGAR filing)
Some commenters have expressed investor protection concerns in relation to the access equals delivery model (discussed in Section II.C.1) arising from the perceived challenge of finding these materials on EDGAR and not requiring delivery 48 hours in advance of sale in all circumstances.
Under the existing Regulation A, issuers can choose among three models for providing narrative disclosure in Part II of the offering statement: Model A, Model B, and Part I of Form S-1. Similar to the proposal, the final rules eliminate Model A but preserve Model B, with certain changes to the contents, and Part I of Form S-1.
We believe that eliminating Model A, which uses a question-and-answer format, may benefit investors by avoiding possible confusion that could result from the lack of uniformity of information presented in the question-and-answer format. Several commenters disagreed with the elimination of the Model A format, recommending that an updated version of the Model A disclosure format be retained.
The changes to Model B include updated disclosure requirements, including a new section containing management discussion and analysis of the issuer's liquidity, capital resources and business operations. While these updates may impose costs on the issuer, they are expected to increase investor protection and informational efficiency of prices by providing important information to investors. The updated disclosure requirements are, however, generally designed to assist issuers with more guidance as to the required disclosures that, while they may increase the cost to issuers associated with the initial preparation of the offering circular, should lower the overall cost of, and time to, qualification, when the process is considered in its entirety. Overall, we believe that the availability of two alternative disclosure formats—a revised Model B format and Part I of Form S-1—provides sufficient flexibility to issuers in choosing their disclosure format while preserving the benefits of disclosure of relevant information to prospective investors.
Some commenters suggested eliminating all three disclosure formats and instead creating a new disclosure format similar to Part I of Form S-1 that would reference Regulation S-K requirements (with reduced disclosure requirements in some instances).
The final rules require issuers conducting Tier 2 offerings to include audited financial statements in their offering materials. Audited financial statements should provide investors in Tier 2 offerings with greater confidence in the accuracy and quality of the financial statements of issuers seeking to raise larger amounts of capital. This, in turn, could benefit issuers by lowering the cost of capital or increasing the amount of capital supplied by investors.
We recognize that audited financial statements could also entail significant costs to issuers, and that the costs of an audit could discourage the use of Tier 2 offerings. Based on data from registered IPOs below $50 million in 2014 by issuers that would have been potentially eligible for amended Regulation A, average total accounting fees amounted to 1.65% of gross offering proceeds, where reported separately.
The final rules require issuers in Tier 2 offerings to include audited financial statements in their offering circulars that are audited in accordance with either the auditing standards of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) (referred to as U.S. Generally Accepted Auditing Standards or GAAS) or the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB), as suggested by some commenters.
As an alternative, we could have not required the audited financial statements until after the first year of operation as a “public startup company” or indefinitely for issuers that are pre-revenue or that have paid-in capital, assets and revenues below a modest threshold, as suggested by commenters.
On the other hand, other commenters advised the Commission to require audited financial statements for Tier 1 offerings.
The final rules permit Canadian issuers to prepare financial statements in accordance with either U.S. GAAP or International Financial Reporting
The final rules explicitly allow for continuous or delayed offerings.
The final rules restrict all “at the market” secondary offerings. Existing Regulation A prohibited primary “at the market” offerings, but did not necessarily restrict such offerings by selling securityholders. Some commenters suggested allowing such offerings, including primary offerings by the issuer.
Under the final rules, issuers whose securities have not been previously sold pursuant to a qualified offering statement under Regulation A or an effective registration statement under the Securities Act will be permitted to submit to the Commission a draft offering statement for non-public review, so long as all such documents are publicly filed not later than 21 calendar days before qualification. The option of non-public submission of a draft offering statement is expected to reduce the barriers to entry for issuers using Regulation A. In this regard, a potential issuer could reduce the amount of time between disclosing possibly sensitive information to its competitors in its offering statement and the related sale of its securities. Furthermore, companies that are tentative about conducting an offering could start the qualification process and then abandon the offering any time before the initial public filing without receiving the related stigma in the market. To the extent that this accommodation lowers the barriers to entry, it may encourage capital formation and competition. Moreover, we do not believe that the option of draft offering statement submission will significantly affect investor protection. Disclosure requirements are unchanged for issuers that elect the option of non-public submission of draft offering statement. The initial non-public statement, all non-public statement amendments, and all correspondence with Commission staff regarding such submissions must be publicly filed and available on EDGAR as exhibits to the offering statement not less than 21 calendar days before qualification of the offering statement.
Under existing Regulation A, testing the waters is permitted only until the offering statement is filed with the Commission, and solicitation material is required to be filed prior to or concurrent with first use. The final rules permit issuers to test the waters and use solicitation materials both before and after the offering statement is filed, subject to issuer compliance with the rules on filing information and disclaimers.
In general, allowing issuers to gauge interest through expanded testing the waters will reduce uncertainty about whether an offering could be completed successfully. Allowing solicitation prior to filing enables issuers to determine market interest in their securities before incurring the costs of preparing and filing an offering statement. If after testing the waters, the issuer is not confident that it will attract sufficient investor interest, the issuer can consider alternate methods of raising capital and thereby avoid the costs of an unsubscribed or under-subscribed offering. Allowing testing the waters at any time prior to qualification of the offering statement, rather than only prior to filing of the offering statement with the Commission, may increase the likelihood that the issuer will raise the desired amount of capital. This option may be useful for smaller issuers, especially early-stage issuers, first-time issuers, issuers in lines of business characterized by a considerable degree of uncertainty, and other issuers with a high degree of information asymmetry. This provision may attract certain issuers—those that may be uncertain about the prospects of raising investor capital—to consider using amended Regulation A when they might not otherwise, thus potentially promoting competition for investor capital as well as capital formation in the Regulation A market.
Expanding the permissible use of testing the waters communications could also increase the type and extent of information available to investors, which could lead to more efficient prices for the offered securities. The final rules permit testing the waters for an expanded period of time compared to the baseline. As a result, it may be easier
We recognize that there may also be potential costs associated with expanding the use of testing the waters communications. If the contents of the offering circular differ substantively from the material distributed through testing the waters communications, and if investors rely on testing the waters materials, this may lead investors to make less informed investment decisions. Some commenters were concerned that the expanded use of permissible testing the waters may facilitate misleading statements to investors and may lead to a heightened risk of fraud.
We considered the alternative, suggested by some commenters,
We also considered the views of other commenters who suggested we relax some of the proposed requirements for the use of testing the waters. For example, we could have treated the solicitation materials as non-public when filed with the Commission, at least until the offering statement is qualified,
However, we note that this information may become available to competitors in any event through the solicitation process and removing the requirement to publicly file the materials may result in adverse effects on the protection of investors to the extent that it may facilitate fraudulent statements by issuers to all or a selected group of investors that may fail to compare the statements in the solicitation materials against the offering circular. On balance, we believe that the final rule's requirements governing the use of testing the waters communications appropriately balance the goals of providing flexibility to issuers and protection to investors.
Currently, Regulation A issuers do not have ongoing reporting obligations. The final rules prescribe an ongoing reporting regime for issuers that conduct Tier 2 offerings that requires, in addition to annual reports on Form 1-K, semiannual reports on Form 1-SA, current event reporting on Form 1-U, and notice to the Commission of the suspension of ongoing reporting obligations on Form 1-Z.
These reporting requirements will have benefits and costs. These reporting requirements should strengthen investor protection and decrease the extent of information asymmetries between issuers and investors in the Regulation A market, relative to existing Regulation A. Requiring ongoing disclosures for Tier 2 offerings will provide investors with periodically updated information, allowing them to identify investment opportunities best suited for their level of risk tolerance and re-evaluate the issuer's prospects through time, resulting in better informed investment decisions and improved allocative efficiency of capital. By standardizing the content, timing, and format of these disclosures, the amendments to Regulation A will make it easier for investors to compare information across issuers, both within and outside of the new Regulation A market.
The additional reporting requirements for Tier 2 offerings increase the availability of public information that can be used for valuing securities. A reduction in information risk due to improvements in disclosure can lower the issuer's cost of capital.
Although reporting obligations for Tier 2 issuers are less extensive than for reporting companies, we recognize that they will still result in a significant direct cost of compliance. One commenter estimated the qualification and reporting costs of a Tier 2 issuer to be approximately $400,000 in the first year and $200,000 annually thereafter (per issuer).
In addition to the direct costs of preparing the mandatory disclosures, issuers of securities in Tier 2 offerings will be subject to indirect disclosure costs of revealing to their competitors and other market participants information about their business not previously required to be disclosed.
We evaluate below the different provisions of the ongoing reporting requirements and the alternatives we have considered.
Currently, Regulation A issuers do not have ongoing reporting obligations. Tier 2 issuers in a Regulation A offering will have periodic and current event reporting obligations under the final rules. As noted above, these ongoing reporting requirements will result in both direct and indirect costs to Tier 2 issuers.
Commenters made various suggestions for expanding the ongoing disclosure requirements for Tier 2 issuers. For example, several commenters suggested we require quarterly reporting instead of semi-annual reporting.
Other commenters recommended reducing the continuing disclosure burden on Tier 2 issuers
Other commenters recommended requiring ongoing disclosures for issuers in Tier 1 offerings, including disclosures at a level lower than is required for Tier 2,
The final rules permit issuers in Tier 2 offerings that have filed all periodic and current reports required by Regulation A for a specified period to suspend their ongoing reporting obligation under Regulation A at any time after completing reporting for the fiscal year in which the offering statement was qualified, if the securities of each class to which the offering statement relates are held of record by fewer than 300 persons and offers or sales made in reliance on a qualified Tier 2 offering statement are not ongoing. For banks or bank holding companies, the termination threshold is fewer than 1,200 persons, consistent with Title VI of the JOBS Act. The option to cease reporting could be beneficial, especially for issuers that do not seek secondary market liquidity and for smaller issuers that find the costs of compliance with the ongoing disclosure requirements to be a relatively greater burden. At the same time, the option might be costly for investors because it will decrease the amount of information available about the issuer, making it more difficult to monitor the issuer and accurately price its securities or to find a trading venue that will allow liquidation of the investment. The public availability of information in bank regulatory filings is expected to mitigate some of these effects for bank issuers undertaking Regulation A offerings. Termination of reporting also might make it easier for inside shareholders to use an informational advantage to the detriment of minority outside investors.
The final rules require Tier 1 issuers to notify the Commission upon completion of their offerings by filing Form 1-Z (exit report). Issuers in Tier 2 offerings will be required to provide this information on Form 1-Z at the time of filing the exit report, if they have not previously provided this information on Form 1-K as part of their annual report. Form 1-Z contains limited summary information about the issuer and the completed offering and, therefore, should not impose substantial additional compliance costs on the issuer.
Generally, an issuer of Regulation A securities would not be subject to Exchange Act reporting obligations unless it separately registers a class of securities under Section 12 of the Exchange Act or conducts a registered public offering. This results in significantly lower costs of periodic reporting for Regulation A issuers relative to reporting companies.
The final rules permit issuers seeking to register a class of Regulation A securities under the Exchange Act to do so by filing a Form 8-A in conjunction with the qualification of a Form 1-A that follows Part I of Form S-1 or the Form S-11 disclosure model in the offering circular. In some circumstances this option may provide more flexibility, for instance, with respect to testing the waters, to issuers seeking to register a class of securities. The obligation to file ongoing reports in a Tier 2 offering is automatically suspended upon registration of a class of securities under Section 12 of the Exchange Act or registration of an offering of securities under the Securities Act. Given that Exchange Act reporting obligations are more extensive than those of Regulation A, the entry of such issuers into the Exchange Act reporting system upon qualification of a Regulation A offering statement is expected to have a beneficial effect on investor protection and informational efficiency of prices. While registration pursuant to the Exchange Act is likely to impose additional costs on issuers, only issuers that opt into such registration are affected. As a result, we anticipate that only those issuers for whom the perceived benefits of registration justify the accompanying costs will elect to use this provision.
Under the final rules, offerings with “certain insignificant deviations from a term, condition or requirement” of Regulation A remain exempt from registration. This is the same as the rules in existing Regulation A. As a result, the only change from the baseline is that these rules will likely apply to a greater number of offerings due to the expanded availability of amended Regulation A. Further, as in existing Regulation A, the final rules explicitly classify as significant those deviations that are related to issuer eligibility, aggregate offering price, offers and continuous or delayed offerings. This provision benefits investors by providing certainty about the provisions from which the issuer may not deviate without losing the exemption. At the same time, it enables issuers to continue to rely on the exemption and obtain its capital formation benefits even if they have an “insignificant deviation” from the final rules. This provision may be especially beneficial for issuers with limited experience with Regulation A offerings as their limited experience may make them more susceptible to an inadvertent error. In this way, the provision may encourage more issuers to engage in Regulation A transactions and thereby facilitate capital formation.
The final rules amend Rule 262 to include bad actor disqualification provisions in substantially the same form as adopted under Rule 506(d).
If one of these new triggering events occurred prior to the effective date of the final rules, the event will not cause disqualification, but instead must be disclosed on a basis consistent with Rule 506(e). This approach will not preclude the participation of bad actors whose disqualifying events occurred prior to the effective date of the final rules, which could expose investors to the risks that arise when bad actors are associated with an offering. These risks to investors may be partly mitigated since investors will have access to relevant information that could inform their investment decisions. Disclosure of triggering events may also make it more difficult for issuers to attract investors, and issuers may experience some or all of the impact of disqualification as a result. Some issuers may, accordingly, choose to exclude involvement by prior bad actors to avoid such disclosures.
We expect that the bad actor disqualification provisions in the final rules will lead most issuers to restrict bad actor participation in Regulation A offerings, which could help reduce the potential for fraud in these types of offerings and thus strengthen investor protection compared with an alternative of not including bad actor disqualification provisions. If disqualification standards lower the risk premium associated with the risk of fraud due to the presence of bad actors in securities offerings, they could also reduce the cost of capital for issuers that rely on amended Regulation A. In addition, the requirement that issuers determine whether any covered persons are subject to disqualification might reduce the need for investors to do their own investigations and could therefore increase efficiency.
The disqualification provisions also impose costs on issuers and covered persons. Issuers that are disqualified from using amended Regulation A may experience an increased cost of capital or a reduced availability of capital, which could have negative effects on capital formation. In addition, issuers may incur costs related to seeking disqualification waivers from the Commission and replacing personnel or avoiding the participation of covered persons who are subject to disqualifying events. Issuers also might incur costs to restructure their share ownership to avoid beneficial ownership of 20% or more of the issuer's outstanding voting equity securities, calculated on the basis of voting power, by individuals subject to disqualifying events.
As discussed above, the final rules also provide a reasonable care exception on a basis consistent with Rule 506(d).
One commenter recommended revising the look-back periods for disqualifying events to run from the time of sale rather than the time of filing of the offering statement.
The final rules preempt state registration and qualification requirements for Tier 2 offerings but preserve these requirements for Tier 1 offerings, consistent with state registration of Regulation A offerings of up to $5 million under existing Regulation A.
The GAO Report found that compliance with state securities review and qualification requirements was one of the factors that appeared to have influenced the infrequent use of Regulation A by small businesses.
A recent study performs a comparison of Rule 506 offerings with Rule 505 and Rule 504 offerings that “suggests that the Blue Sky law preemption feature unique to Rule 506 offerings has greater value to issuers than the unique features of Rule 504 or Rule 505 offerings.”
Another commenter referenced one issuer's offering in the State of Washington in the amount of $750,000, with legal and accounting expenses estimated at $10,000 and the offering statement prepared without outside securities counsel and reviewed by the state within less than three months.
As one commenter noted, “[t]he challenges posed by the necessity of responding to both federal and state reviews and coordinating overlapping but potentially inconsistent comments and approvals have helped to make the existing Regulation A scheme unworkable for most smaller companies.”
We recognize that commenters were divided on the issue of preemption, and those who objected to preemption of state securities review and qualification requirements cited benefits of state review.
We acknowledge that the preemption of state qualification for Tier 2 offerings may have an impact on investor protection by eliminating one level of government review. In addition, merit-based review of offerings undertaken by some states may, in some cases, provide a level of investor protections different from the disclosure-based review
Several factors could mitigate these potential impacts. First, under Section 18(c), the states retain the ability to require the filing with them of any documents filed with the Commission and to investigate and bring enforcement actions with respect to fraudulent transactions. Second, we believe that amended Regulation A provides substantial protections to purchasers in Tier 2 offerings. Under the final rules, a Regulation A offering statement will continue to provide substantive narrative and financial disclosures about the issuer. Further, the final rules require offering statements to be qualified by the Commission before an issuer can conduct sales. Additional investor protections would be afforded by Regulation A's limitations on eligible issuers and bad actor disqualification provisions. The final rules for Tier 2 offerings provide further protection by requiring audited financial statements in the offering circular, ongoing reporting, and an investment limitation for purchasers who do not qualify as accredited investors.
The anticipated costs and benefits of state preemption will depend on key offering characteristics and issuer disclosure requirements. In particular, smaller offerings with a narrow investor base, such as those expected to be conducted under Tier 1, are more likely to be concentrated in fewer states and to benefit from geographic-specific information of state regulators as part of the review process.
In general, we expect that issuers in Tier 1 offerings will face significantly lower offering costs as a result of not being subjected to the requirements of audited financial statements and ongoing reporting in the final rules. For these offerings, the local knowledge of state regulators is anticipated to add value to the review process to the extent that the issuer and the investor base are more likely to be localized. Thus, state qualification is more likely to have incremental investor protection benefits in Tier 1 offerings relative to Tier 2 offerings. Moreover, to the extent that Tier 1 offerings are more likely to be concentrated in fewer states, the cost of complying with state review procedures is likely to be diminished for these types of offerings.
Some commenters also pointed to the increased burden on Commission resources as a cost of state preemption.
As an alternative to preemption for Tier 2 offerings, we considered the option of state qualification by one state or a subset of states or the option of state review under NASAA's coordinated review program.
We believe the final rules strike appropriate balance between mitigating cost and time demands on issuers and providing investor protections.
Certain provisions of the final rules contain “collection of information” requirements within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
(1) “Regulation A (Form 1-A and Form 2-A)” (OMB Control Number 3235-0286);
(2) “Form 1-K” (OMB Control Number 3235-0720);
(3) “Form 1-SA” (OMB Control Number 3235-0721);
(4) “Form 1-U” (OMB Control Number 3235-0722);
(5) “Form 1-Z” (OMB Control Number 3235-0723);
(6) “Form 8-A” (OMB Control Number 3235-0056);
(7) “Form ID” (OMB Control Number 3235-0328); and
(8) “Form F-X” (OMB Control Number 3235-0379).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. We applied for OMB control numbers for the new collections of information in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(j) and 5 CFR 1320.13, and OMB assigned a control number to each new collection, as specified above. Responses to these new collections of information would be mandatory for issuers raising capital under Regulation A.
The hours and costs associated with preparing disclosure, filing forms, and retaining records constitute reporting and cost burdens imposed by the collections of information. In deriving estimates of these hours and costs, we recognize that the burdens likely will vary among individual issuers based on a number of factors, including the stage of development of the business, the amount of capital an issuer seeks to raise, and the number of years since inception of the business. We believe that some issuers will experience costs in excess of the average and some issuers may experience less than the average costs.
Data regarding current market practices may help identify the potential number of offerings that will be conducted in reliance on the final rules.
Currently, Regulation A requires issuers to file a Form 1-A: Offering Statement and a Form 2-A: Report of Sales and Uses of Proceeds with the Commission. Regulation A has one administrative burden hour associated with it, while current Form 1-A is estimated to take approximately 608 hours to prepare and Form 2-A is estimated to take approximately 12 hours to prepare.
Under the final rules, an issuer conducting a transaction in reliance on Regulation A will be able to conduct either a Tier 1 offering or a Tier 2 offering.
We expect that issuers relying on Regulation A for Tier 1 offerings of up to $20 million in a 12-month period will largely be at a similar stage of development to issuers relying on existing Regulation A and will therefore not experience an increased compliance burden with Form 1-A. Given the increased annual offering amount limit of $50 million for Tier 2 offerings, however, we expect that issuers conducting such offerings pursuant to Regulation A may be at a more advanced stage of development than issuers offering securities under Tier 1. In such cases, the complexity of the required disclosure and, in turn, the burden of compliance with the requirements of Form 1-A may be greater for some issuers than for issuers relying on existing Form 1-A. We believe that the burden hours associated with amended Form 1-A will be greater than the current estimated 608 burden hours per response but will not be as great as the current estimated 972.32 burden hours per response for Form S-1. We therefore estimate that the total burden to prepare and file Form 1-A, as adopted today, including any amendments to the form, will increase on average across all issuers in comparison to existing Form 1-A to approximately 750 hours.
We estimate that compliance with the requirements of a Form 1-A will require 187,500 burden hours (250 offering statements × 750 hours/offering statement) in aggregate each year, which corresponds to 140,625 aggregated hours carried by the issuer internally (250 offering statements × 750 hours/offering statement × 0.75) and aggregated costs of $18,750,000 (250 offering statements × 750 hours/offering statement × 0.25 × $400) for the services of outside professionals. As stated above, we estimate that the proposed amendments to Regulation A will not change the one administrative burden hour associated with the review of Regulation A and will require 250 burden hours (250 offering statements × one hour/offering statement) in aggregate each year, which corresponds to 187 aggregated hours carried by the issuer internally (250 offering statements × 0.75) and aggregated costs of $25,000 (250 offering statements × one hour/offering statement × 0.25 × $400) for services of outside professionals. When combined with the estimates for Form 1-A, the administrative burden hour results in an estimated total compliance burden of 751 hours per offering statement and an estimated annual compliance burden of 187,750 hours (250 offering statements × 751 hours/offering statement) and aggregated costs of $18,775,000 (250 offering statements × 751 hours/offering statement × 0.25 × $400).
Under the final rules, any issuer that conducts a Tier 2 offering pursuant to Regulation A is required to file an annual report with the Commission on Form 1-K: Annual Report.
We estimate that compliance with the requirements of Form 1-K for issuers with an ongoing reporting obligation under Regulation A will require 112,800 burden hours (188 issuers × 600 hours/issuer) in the aggregate each year, which corresponds to 84,600 hours carried by the issuer internally (188 issuers × 600
Under the final rules, any issuer that conducts a Tier 2 offering in reliance on Regulation A will be required to file a semiannual report with the Commission on Form 1-SA: Semiannual Report.
We estimate that compliance with the requirements of Form 1-SA for issuers with an ongoing reporting obligation under Regulation A will require 35,237 burden hours (188 issuers × 187 hours/issuer/filing × 1 filing/year) in the aggregate each year, which corresponds to 29,952 hours carried by the issuer internally (188 issuers × 187 hours/issuer/filing × 1 filing/year × 0.85) and costs of $2,113,872 (188 issuers × 187 hours/issuer/filing × 1 filing/year × 0.15 × $400) for the services of outside professionals.
Under the final rules, any issuer that conducts a Tier 2 offering in reliance on Regulation A is required to promptly file current reports on Form 1-U with the Commission.
As with Form 1-SA, we estimate that 85 percent of the burden of preparation will be carried by the issuer internally and that 15 percent will be carried by outside professionals retained by the issuer at an average cost of $400 per hour. We estimate that compliance with the requirements of Form 1-U will require 940 burden hours (188 issuers × 1 current report annually × 5 hours per current report) in aggregate each year, which corresponds to 799 hours carried by the issuer internally (188 issuers × 5 hours/issuer/year × 0.85) and costs of $56,400 (188 issuers × 5 hours/issuer/year × 0.15 × $400) for the services of outside professionals.
Under the final rules, all Regulation A issuers are required to file a notice under cover of Form 1-Z: Exit Report. Issuers conducting Tier 1 offerings will be required to file Part I of Form 1-Z that discloses information similar to the information previously required of issuers on Form 2-A.
The Form 1-Z is similar to the Form 15 that issuers file to provide notice of termination of the registration of a class of securities under Exchange Act Section 12(g) or to provide notice of the suspension of the duty to file reports required by Exchange Act Sections 13(a) or 15(d).
Under the final rules, Regulation A issuers in Tier 2 offerings that elect to list securities offered pursuant to a qualified offering statement on a national securities exchange or that seek to register the class of securities offered pursuant to a qualified offering statement under the Exchange Act may do so by filing a Form 8-A (short form) registration statement with the Commission.
The final rules do not alter the burden hour per response of Form 8-A, but rather amend the existing Form 8-A to permit issuers in Tier 2 offerings to rely on the form. Therefore, we estimate that compliance with the Form 8-A will not change as a result of the final rules, a burden of 3 hours per response.
Under the final rules, an issuer will be required to file specified disclosures with the Commission on EDGAR.
Under the final rules, Canadian issuers are required to file a Form F-X, which furnishes to the Commission a written irrevocable consent and power of attorney at the time of filing the offering statement required by Rule 252. It is used to appoint an agent for service of process by Canadian issuers eligible to use Regulation A, issuers registering securities on Forms F-8 or F-10 under the Securities Act or filing periodic reports on Form 40-F under the Exchange Act, as well as in certain other circumstances.
The final rules will not change Form F-X itself, but will amend the rules to allow for the form to be filed electronically for offerings under Regulation A. Canadian companies are the only type of issuer that will be required to use this form under the final rules and we estimate that 100% of the burden will be carried by the issuer internally. We estimate that approximately 2 percent of issuers utilizing amended Regulation A will be Canadian companies (or 5 responses, 250 issuers × 0.02) resulting in an annual burden of approximately 10 hours (2 hours per response × 5 responses).
The collections of information required under Rules 251 through 263 will be mandatory for all issuers seeking to rely on the Regulation A exemption. Responses on Form 1-A, Form 1-K, Form 1-SA, Form 1-U and Form 1-Z will not be kept confidential, although an issuer may request confidential treatment for non-publicly submitted offering materials, or any portion thereof, for which it believes an exemption from the FOIA exists.
This Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis has been prepared in accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 603. It relates to the following:
• Amendments to Rule 157(a), Rules 251 through 263 of Regulation A, Rule 505 of Regulation D, Form 1-A, Form 8-A, Rule 30-1 of the Commission's organizational rules, Rule 4a-1 under the Trust Indenture Act, Rule 12g5-1 and Rule 15c2-11 under the Exchange Act, and Item 101 of Regulation S-T;
• new Forms 1-K, 1-SA, 1-U, and 1-Z; and
• the rescission of Form 2-A.
An Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) was prepared in accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act and included in the Proposing Release.
The rule amendments, new forms, and rescission of Form 2-A are designed to implement the requirements of Section 3(b)(2) of the Securities Act and to make certain conforming changes based on our amendments to Regulation A. Section 3(b)(2) directs the Commission to adopt rules adding a class of securities exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act for offerings of up to $50 million of securities within a 12-month period, subject to various additional terms and conditions set forth in Section 3(b)(2) or as provided for by the Commission as part of the rulemaking process.
Our primary objective is to implement Section 401 of the JOBS Act by expanding and updating Regulation A in a manner that makes public offerings of up to $50 million less costly and more flexible while providing a framework for regulatory oversight to protect investors. In so doing, we have crafted a revision of Regulation A that both promotes small company capital formation and provides for meaningful investor protection. We believe that issuers, particularly small businesses, benefit from having a wide range of capital-raising strategies available to them, and that an expanded and updated Regulation A could serve as a valuable option that augments the exemptions from registration more frequently relied upon, thereby facilitating capital formation for small businesses.
In the Proposing Release, we requested comment on every aspect of the IRFA, including the number of small entities that would be affected by the proposed amendments, the existence or nature of the potential impact of the proposals on small entities discussed in the analysis, and how to quantify the impact of the proposed rules. We did not receive any comments specifically addressing the IRFA. We did, however, receive comments from members of the public on matters that could potentially impact small entities. These comments are discussed at length by topic in the corresponding subsections of Section II. above.
While the proposed rules contemplated that small entities would be able to elect to proceed under the requirements of either Tier 1 or Tier 2, as discussed more fully below, an entity considered a small business under our rules would only be required to file ongoing reports under Regulation A if it elected to conduct a Tier 2 offering.
Many commenters recommended making changes to proposed rules that, in their view, would make Regulation A a more viable capital raising option for smaller issuers.
The final rules for Regulation A take into account some of the suggestions by commenters on ways to make Tier 1 more useful for small entities. For example, the final rules raise the offering limit of Tier 1 to $20 million. Also, with respect to the offering circular narrative disclosure requirements,
As noted in Section II.H.3. above, however, we do not agree with the position of some commenters that preemption of state securities laws registration and qualification requirements is necessary or appropriate for Tier 1 offerings.
Additionally, as noted in Section II.I. above, we do not believe that the creation of a third tier, as suggested by some commenters, would meaningfully alter a smaller entity's options for capital formation under Regulation A. While a third tier may provide issuers with some additional flexibility for capital formation under Regulation A, this additional flexibility would have potential costs. For example, a third tier may unnecessarily complicate compliance with Regulation A for smaller entities, and could potentially confuse investors as to the type of Regulation A offering an issuer was undertaking and the type of information such investor could expect to receive as a result, thereby lessening the viability of the exemption as a whole. For this reason, we are not adopting a third or intermediate tier in Regulation A.
In the light of the changes discussed above, we believe that the final rules we are adopting today provide smaller issuers with an appropriately tailored regulatory regime that takes into account the needs of small entities to have a viable capital formation option in Regulation A, while maintaining appropriate investor protections.
For purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, under our rules, an issuer (other than an investment company) is a “small business” or “small organization” if it has total assets of $5 million or less as of the end of its most recent fiscal year and is engaged or proposing to engage in an offering of securities which does not exceed $5 million.
While Regulation A is available for offerings of up to $50 million in securities in a 12-month period, only offerings up to $5 million in securities in a 12-month period will constitute offerings by small entities under the definition set forth above. It is difficult to predict the number of small entities that will use Regulation A due to the many variables included in the amendments. Nevertheless, we believe that the final rules for Regulation A will increase the overall number of Regulation A offerings of $5 million or less due to the ability to non-publicly submit draft offering statements for review by the Commission's staff, the expanded use of solicitation of interest materials, the ability to electronically file and transmit offering statements and offering circulars, the potential for preemption of state regulatory review if the issuer elects to conduct a Tier 2 offering, and other significant changes summarized in Section II. above.
Regulation A is currently limited to offerings with an aggregate offering price and aggregate sales of $5 million or less.
As discussed above in Section II., the final rules include reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements. In particular, the final rules impose certain reporting requirements on issuers offering and selling securities in a transaction relying on the exemption provided by Section 3(b) and Regulation A. The final rules require that issuers relying on the exemption file with the Commission certain information specified in Form 1-A about the issuer and the offering, including the issuer's contact information; use of proceeds from the offering; price or method for calculating the price of the securities being offered; business and business plan; property; financial condition and results of operations; directors, officers, significant employees and certain beneficial owners; material agreements and contracts; and past securities sales.
As discussed above in Section II.E.1.c., issuers conducting Tier 2 offerings are also required to file annual reports on new Form 1-K, semiannual updates on new Form 1-SA, current event reporting on new Form 1-U, and to provide notice to the Commission of the termination of their ongoing reporting obligations on new Form 1-Z.
An issuer subject to the Tier 2 periodic and current event reporting described above is required to provide information annually on Form 1-K, including the issuer's business and business plan; conflicts of interest and related party transactions; executive and director compensation; financial condition and results of operations; and audited financial statements. The semiannual update on Form 1-SA consists primarily of unaudited, interim financial statements for the issuer's first two fiscal quarters and information regarding the issuer's financial condition and results of operations. The current event reporting on Form 1-U requires issuers to disclose certain major developments, including changes of control; changes in the principal executive officer and principal financial officer; fundamental changes in the nature of business; material transactions or corporate events; unregistered sales of five percent or more of outstanding equity securities; changes in the issuer's certifying accountant; and non-reliance on previous financial statements.
Form 1-Z is required for issuers in both Tier 1 and Tier 2 offerings to report summary information about a completed or terminated Regulation A offering. Issuers conducting Tier 2 offerings also will be subject to the additional provision in Form 1-Z that relates to the voluntary termination of an issuer's continuous reporting obligations under Tier 2; however, we expect its use by small entities will be limited.
Although we estimated in the Proposing Release that approximately 188 issuers would enter the proposed Tier 2 ongoing reporting regime every year, we believe that very few small
The Regulatory Flexibility Act directs us to consider significant alternatives that would accomplish the stated objective of our proposals, while minimizing any significant adverse impact on small entities. In connection with the final amendments and rules, we considered the following alternatives: (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rules, or any parts of the rules, for small entities.
We considered whether it is necessary or appropriate to establish different compliance or reporting requirements, timetables, or to clarify, consolidate, or simplify compliance and reporting requirements under the final rules for small entities. We have made several changes from the proposal that may reduce compliance burdens on small entities. For example, in response to public comment, the final rules provide for the further scaling of disclosure items pertaining to executive compensation and related party transactions for entities offering securities pursuant to Tier 1, which are likely to be smaller entities.
With respect to using performance rather than design standards, we used performance standards to the extent appropriate under the statute. For example, issuers have the flexibility to customize the presentation of certain disclosures in their offering statements.
We also considered whether there should be an exemption from coverage of the rules, or any parts of the rules, for small entities. As discussed above, we are adopting different compliance reporting requirements for issuers that qualify $20 million or less in securities annually under Tier 1. Those issuers, which are more likely to be small entities, are not subject to ongoing reporting requirements and the requirement to provide audited financial statements, although such entities retain the flexibility to comply with more rigorous initial and ongoing compliance obligations if they so choose. While audited financial statements are not a Tier 1 requirement, in comparison to the proposed rules, the final rules provide certain additional flexibility as to the independence standards required to be followed by auditors of financial statements for issuers of less than $20 million that conduct Tier 1 offerings—to the extent an issuer elects to provide audited financial statements—by allowing such auditors to comply with the independence standards of either the AICPA or Article 2 of Regulation S-X. We believe that further distinctions in compliance requirements for Form 1-A users beyond the different sets of requirements for Tier 1 and Tier 2 issuers may lead to investor confusion or reduced investor confidence in Regulation A offerings, especially considering that the disclosure requirements are already less than what is required by Form S-1 for registered offerings. Further, we anticipate that the burden for preparing a Form 1-A should be less for companies at an earlier stage of development and with less extensive operations that are likely to be small entities.
The amendments and forms contained in this document are being adopted under the authority set forth in Sections 3(b), 19 and 28 of the Securities Act of 1933, as amended, Sections 12, 15, 23(a) and 36 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, and Section 304 of the Trust Indenture Act of 1939, as amended.
Administrative practice and procedure, Authority delegations (Government agencies), Organization and functions (Government agencies).
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
In accordance with the foregoing, title 17, chapter II of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77o, 77s, 77z-3, 77sss, 78d, 78d-1, 78d-2, 78o-4, 78w, 78
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(b) * * *
(2) To determine the date and time of qualification for offering statements and amendments to offering statements pursuant to Rule 252(e) (§ 230.252(e) of this chapter);
(3) To consent to the withdrawal of an offering statement or to declare an offering statement abandoned pursuant to Rule 259 (§ 230.259 of this chapter); and
(4) To deny a Form 1-Z filing pursuant to Rule 257 (§ 230.257 of this chapter).
15 U.S.C. 77b, 77b note, 77c, 77d, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77r, 77s, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78d, 78j, 78
(a) When used with reference to an issuer, other than an investment company, for purposes of the Securities Act of 1933, mean an issuer whose total assets on the last day of its most recent fiscal year were $5 million or less and that is engaged or proposing to engage in small business financing. An issuer is considered to be engaged or proposing to engage in small business financing under this section if it is conducting or
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(i) The issuer's first offering pursuant to Regulation A; or
(ii) Any subsequent Regulation A offering that is qualified within one year of the qualification date of the issuer's first offering.
Where a mixture of cash and non-cash consideration is to be received, the aggregate offering price must be based on the price at which the securities are offered for cash. Any portion of the aggregate offering price or aggregate sales attributable to cash received in a foreign currency must be translated into United States currency at a currency exchange rate in effect on, or at a reasonable time before, the date of the sale of the securities. If securities are not offered for cash, the aggregate offering price or aggregate sales must be based on the value of the consideration as established by bona fide sales of that consideration made within a reasonable time, or, in the absence of sales, on the fair value as determined by an accepted standard. Valuations of non-cash consideration must be reasonable at the time made. If convertible securities or warrants are being offered and such securities are convertible, exercisable, or exchangeable within one year of the offering statement's qualification or at the discretion of the issuer, the underlying securities must also be qualified and the aggregate offering price must include the actual or maximum estimated conversion, exercise, or exchange price of such securities.
(b)
(1) Is an entity organized under the laws of the United States or Canada, or any State, Province, Territory or possession thereof, or the District of Columbia, with its principal place of business in the United States or Canada;
(2) Is not subject to section 13 or 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78a
(3) Is not a development stage company that either has no specific business plan or purpose, or has indicated that its business plan is to merge with or acquire an unidentified company or companies;
(4) Is not an investment company registered or required to be registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1
(5) Is not issuing fractional undivided interests in oil or gas rights, or a similar interest in other mineral rights;
(6) Is not, and has not been, subject to any order of the Commission entered pursuant to Section 12(j) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78
(7) Has filed with the Commission all reports required to be filed, if any, pursuant to Rule 257 (§ 230.257) during the two years before the filing of the offering statement (or for such shorter period that the issuer was required to file such reports); and
(8) Is not disqualified under Rule 262 (§ 230.262).
(c)
(1) Prior offers or sales of securities; or
(2) Subsequent offers or sales of securities that are:
(i) Registered under the Securities Act, except as provided in Rule 255(e) (§ 230.255(e));
(ii) Exempt from registration under Rule 701 (§ 230.701);
(iii) Made pursuant to an employee benefit plan;
(iv) Exempt from registration under Regulation S (§§ 230.901 through 203.905);
(v) Made more than six months after the completion of the Regulation A offering; or
(vi) Exempt from registration under Section 4(a)(6) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77d(a)(6)).
If these safe harbors do not apply, whether subsequent offers and sales of securities will be integrated with the Regulation A offering will depend on the particular facts and circumstances.
(d)
(ii) After the offering statement has been filed, but before it is qualified:
(A) Oral offers may be made;
(B) Written offers pursuant to Rule 254 (§ 230.254) may be made; and
(C) Solicitations of interest and other communications pursuant to Rule 255 (§ 230.255) may be made.
(iii) Offers may be made after the offering statement has been qualified, but any written offers must be accompanied with or preceded by the most recent offering circular filed with the Commission for such offering.
(2)
(A) Until the offering statement has been qualified;
(B) By issuers that are not currently required to file reports pursuant to Rule 257(b) (§ 230.257(b)), until a Preliminary Offering Circular is delivered at least 48 hours before the sale to any person that before qualification of the offering statement had indicated an interest in purchasing securities in the offering, including those persons that responded to an issuer's solicitation of interest materials; and
(C) In a Tier 2 offering of securities that are not listed on a registered
(
(
When securities underlying warrants or convertible securities are being qualified pursuant to Tier 2 of Regulation A one year or more after the qualification of an offering for which investment limitations previously applied, purchasers of the underlying securities for which investment limitations would apply at that later date may determine compliance with the ten percent (10%) investment limitation using the conversion, exercise, or exchange price to acquire the underlying securities at that later time without aggregating such price with the price of the overlying warrants or convertible securities.
(D) The issuer may rely on a representation of the purchaser when determining compliance with the ten percent (10%) investment limitation in this paragraph (d)(2)(i)(C), provided that the issuer does not know at the time of sale that any such representation is untrue.
(ii) In a transaction that represents a sale by the issuer or an underwriter, or a sale by a dealer within 90 calendar days after qualification of the offering statement, each underwriter or dealer selling in such transaction must deliver to each purchaser from it, not later than two business days following the completion of such sale, a copy of the Final Offering Circular, subject to the following provisions:
(A) If the sale was by the issuer and was not effected by or through an underwriter or dealer, the issuer is responsible for delivering the Final Offering Circular as if the issuer were an underwriter;
(B) For continuous or delayed offerings pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the 90 calendar day period for dealers shall commence on the day of the first bona fide offering of securities under such offering statement;
(C) If the security is listed on a registered national securities exchange, no offering circular need be delivered by a dealer more than 25 calendar days after the later of the qualification date of the offering statement or the first date on which the security was bona fide offered to the public;
(D) No offering circular need be delivered by a dealer if the issuer is subject, immediately prior to the time of the filing of the offering statement, to the reporting requirements of Rule 257(b) (§ 230.257(b)); and
(E) The Final Offering Circular delivery requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section may be satisfied by delivering a notice to the effect that the sale was made pursuant to a qualified offering statement that includes the uniform resource locator (“URL”), which, in the case of an electronic-only offering, must be an active hyperlink, where the Final Offering Circular, or the offering statement of which such Final Offering Circular is part, may be obtained on the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis and Retrieval System (“EDGAR”) and contact information sufficient to notify a purchaser where a request for a Final Offering Circular can be sent and received in response.
(3)
(A) Securities that are to be offered or sold solely by or on behalf of a person or persons other than the issuer, a subsidiary of the issuer, or a person of which the issuer is a subsidiary;
(B) Securities that are to be offered and sold pursuant to a dividend or interest reinvestment plan or an employee benefit plan of the issuer;
(C) Securities that are to be issued upon the exercise of outstanding options, warrants, or rights;
(D) Securities that are to be issued upon conversion of other outstanding securities;
(E) Securities that are pledged as collateral; or
(F) Securities the offering of which will be commenced within two calendar days after the qualification date, will be made on a continuous basis, may continue for a period in excess of 30 calendar days from the date of initial qualification, and will be offered in an amount that, at the time the offering statement is qualified, is reasonably expected to be offered and sold within two years from the initial qualification date. These securities may be offered and sold only if not more than three years have elapsed since the initial qualification date of the offering statement under which they are being offered and sold; provided, however, that if a new offering statement has been filed pursuant to this paragraph (d)(3)(i)(F), securities covered by the prior offering statement may continue to be offered and sold until the earlier of the qualification date of the new offering statement or 180 calendar days after the third anniversary of the initial qualification date of the prior offering statement. Before the end of such three-year period, an issuer may file a new offering statement covering the securities. The new offering statement must include all the information that would be required at that time in an offering statement relating to all offerings that it covers. Before the qualification date of the new offering statement, the issuer may include as part of such new offering statement any unsold securities covered by the earlier offering statement by identifying on the cover page of the new offering circular, or the latest amendment, the amount of such unsold securities being included. The offering of securities on the earlier offering statement will be deemed terminated as of the date of qualification of the new offering statement. Securities may be sold pursuant to this paragraph (d)(3)(i)(F) only if the issuer is current in its annual and semiannual filings pursuant to Rule 257(b) (§ 230.257(b)), at the time of such sale.
(ii) At the market offerings, by or on behalf of the issuer or otherwise, are not permitted under this Regulation A. As used in this paragraph (d)(3)(ii), the term
(e)
(f)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) The initial non-public submission;
(2) All non-public amendments; and
(3) All non-public correspondence submitted by or on behalf of the issuer to the Commission staff regarding such submissions (subject to any separately approved confidential treatment request under Rule 251(e) (§ 230.251(e)).
(e)
(f)
(ii) Every amendment that includes amended audited financial statements must include the consent of the certifying accountant to the use of such accountant's certification in connection with the amended financial statements in the offering statement or offering circular and to being named as having audited such financial statements.
(iii) Amendments solely relating to Part III of Form 1-A must comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, except that such amendments may be limited to Part I of Form 1-A, an explanatory note, and all of the information required by Part III of Form 1-A.
(2) Post-qualification amendments must be filed in the following circumstances for ongoing offerings:
(i) At least every 12 months after the qualification date to include the financial statements that would be required by Form 1-A as of such date; or
(ii) To reflect any facts or events arising after the qualification date of the offering statement (or the most recent post-qualification amendment thereof) which, individually or in the aggregate, represent a fundamental change in the information set forth in the offering statement.
(a)
(b)
(1) The securities to be qualified are offered for cash.
(2) The outside front cover page of the offering circular includes a bona fide estimate of the range of the maximum offering price and the maximum number of shares or other units of securities to be offered or a bona fide estimate of the principal amount of debt securities offered, subject to the following conditions:
(i) The range must not exceed $2 for offerings where the upper end of the range is $10 or less or 20% if the upper end of the price range is over $10; and
(ii) The upper end of the range must be used in determining the aggregate offering price under Rule 251(a) (§ 230.251(a)).
(3) The offering statement does not relate to securities to be offered by competitive bidding.
(4) The volume of securities (the number of equity securities or aggregate principal amount of debt securities) to be offered may not be omitted in reliance on this paragraph (b).
A decrease in the volume of securities offered or a change in the bona fide estimate of the offering price range from that indicated in the offering circular filed as part of a qualified offering statement may be disclosed in the offering circular filed with the Commission pursuant to Rule 253(g) (§ 230.253(g)), so long as the decrease in the volume of securities offered or change in the price range would not materially change the disclosure contained in the offering statement at qualification. Notwithstanding the foregoing, any decrease in the volume of securities offered and any deviation from the low or high end of the price range may be reflected in the offering circular supplement filed with the Commission pursuant to Rule 253(g)(1) or (3) (§ 230.253(g)(1) or (3)) if, in the aggregate, the decrease in volume and/or change in price represent no more than a 20% change from the maximum aggregate offering price calculable using the information in the qualified offering statement. In no circumstances may this paragraph be used to offer securities where the maximum aggregate offering price would result in the offering exceeding the limit set forth in Rule 251(a) (§ 230.251(a)) or if the change would result in a Tier 1 offering becoming a Tier 2 offering. An offering circular supplement may not be used to increase the volume of securities being offered. Additional securities may only be offered pursuant to a new offering statement or post-qualification amendment qualified by the Commission.
(c)
(d)
(2) Where an offering circular is distributed through an electronic medium, issuers may satisfy legibility requirements applicable to printed documents by presenting all required information in a format readily communicated to investors.
(e)
(f)
The United States Securities and Exchange Commission does not pass upon the merits of or give its approval to any securities offered or the terms of the offering, nor does it pass upon the accuracy or completeness of any offering circular or other solicitation materials. These securities are offered pursuant to an exemption from registration with the Commission; however, the Commission has not made an independent determination that the securities offered are exempt from registration.
(g)
(2) An offering circular that reflects information other than that covered in paragraph (g)(1) of this section that constitutes a substantive change from or addition to the information set forth in the last offering circular filed with the Commission must be filed with the Commission no later than five business days after the date it is first used after qualification in connection with a public offering or sale. If an offering circular filed pursuant to this paragraph (g)(2) consists of an offering circular supplement attached to an offering circular that previously had been filed or was not required to be filed pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section because it did not contain substantive changes from an offering circular that previously was filed, only the offering circular supplement need be filed under paragraph (g) of this section, provided that the cover page of the offering circular supplement identifies the date(s) of the related offering circular and any offering circular supplements thereto that together constitute the offering circular with respect to the securities currently being offered or sold.
(3) An offering circular that discloses information, facts or events covered in both paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section must be filed with the Commission no later than two business days following the earlier of the date of the determination of the offering price or the date it is first used after qualification in connection with a public offering or sale.
(4) An offering circular required to be filed pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section that is not filed within the time frames specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this section, as applicable, must be filed pursuant to this paragraph (g)(4) as soon as practicable after the discovery of such failure to file.
(5) Each offering circular filed under this section must contain in the upper right corner of the cover page the paragraphs of paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section under which the filing is made, and the file number of the offering statement to which the offering circular relates.
After the filing of an offering statement, but before its qualification, written offers of securities may be made if they meet the following requirements:
(a)
An offering statement pursuant to Regulation A relating to these securities has been filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission. Information contained in this Preliminary Offering Circular is subject to completion or amendment. These securities may not be sold nor may offers to buy be accepted before the offering statement filed with the Commission is qualified. This Preliminary Offering Circular shall not constitute an offer to sell or the solicitation of an offer to buy nor may there be any sales of these securities in any state in which such offer, solicitation or sale would be unlawful before registration or qualification under the laws of any such state. We may elect to satisfy our obligation to deliver a Final Offering Circular by sending you a notice within two business days after the completion of our sale to you that contains the URL where the Final Offering Circular or the offering statement in which such Final Offering Circular was filed may be obtained.
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(1) State that no money or other consideration is being solicited, and if sent in response, will not be accepted;
(2) State that no offer to buy the securities can be accepted and no part of the purchase price can be received until the offering statement is qualified, and any such offer may be withdrawn or revoked, without obligation or commitment of any kind, at any time before notice of its acceptance given after the qualification date;
(3) State that a person's indication of interest involves no obligation or commitment of any kind; and
(4) After the public filing of the offering statement:
(i) State from whom a copy of the most recent version of the Preliminary Offering Circular may be obtained, including a phone number and address of such person;
(ii) Provide the URL where such Preliminary Offering Circular, or the offering statement in which such Preliminary Offering Circular was filed, may be obtained; or
(iii) Include a complete copy of the Preliminary Offering Circular.
(c)
(d)
(1) in the case of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, the revised Preliminary Offering Circular will be provided to any persons making new inquiries and will be recirculated to any persons making any previous inquiries; or
(2) in the case of paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, the URL continues to link directly to the most recent Preliminary Offering Circular or to the offering statement in which such revised Preliminary Offering Circular was filed.
(e)
For purposes of Section 18(b)(3) of the Securities Act [15 U.S.C. 77r(b)(3)], a “qualified purchaser” means any person to whom securities are offered or sold pursuant to a Tier 2 offering of this Regulation A.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(A) Audited financial statements for the issuer's most recent fiscal year (or for the life of the issuer if less than a full fiscal year) preceding the fiscal year in which the issuer's offering statement became qualified; or
(B) unaudited financial statements covering the first six months of the issuer's current fiscal year if the offering statement was qualified during the last six months of that fiscal year.
(ii) The special financial report described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section must be filed under cover of Form 1-K within 120 calendar days after the qualification date of the offering statement and must include audited financial statements for such fiscal year or other period specified in that paragraph, as the case may be. The special financial report described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section must be filed under cover of Form 1-SA within 90 calendar days after the qualification date of the offering statement and must include the semiannual financial statements for the first six months of the issuer's fiscal year, which may be unaudited.
(iii) A special financial report must be signed in accordance with the requirements of the form on which it is filed.
(3)
(4)
(5)
(c)
(d)
(2) The duty to file reports under paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a class of securities held of
(i) The period since the issuer became subject to such reporting obligation; or
(ii) Its most recent three fiscal years and the portion of the current year preceding the date of filing Form 1-Z.
(3) For the purposes of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the term
(4) The ability to suspend reporting, as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, is not available for any class of securities if:
(i) During that fiscal year a Tier 2 offering statement was qualified;
(ii) The issuer has not filed an annual report under this rule or the Exchange Act for the fiscal year in which a Tier 2 offering statement was qualified; or
(iii) Offers or sales of securities of that class are being made pursuant to a Tier 2 Regulation A offering.
(e)
(1) Automatically terminate if the issuer is eligible to suspend its duty to file reports under paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section; or
(2) Recommence with the report covering the most recent financial period after that included in any effective registration statement or filed Exchange Act report.
(a)
(1) No exemption is available or any of the terms, conditions or requirements of Regulation A have not been complied with;
(2) The offering statement, any sales or solicitation of interest material, or any report filed pursuant to Rule 257 (§ 230.257) contains any untrue statement of a material fact or omits to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statements made, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading;
(3) The offering is being made or would be made in violation of section 17 of the Securities Act;
(4) An event has occurred after the filing of the offering statement that would have rendered the exemption hereunder unavailable if it had occurred before such filing;
(5) Any person specified in Rule 262(a) (§ 230.262(a)) has been indicted for any crime or offense of the character specified in Rule 262(a)(1) (§ 230.262(a)(1)), or any proceeding has been initiated for the purpose of enjoining any such person from engaging in or continuing any conduct or practice of the character specified in Rule 262(a)(2) (§ 230.262(a)(2)), or any proceeding has been initiated for the purposes of Rule 262(a)(3)-(8) (§ 230.262(a)(3) through (8)); or
(6) The issuer or any promoter, officer, director, or underwriter has failed to cooperate, or has obstructed or refused to permit the making of an investigation by the Commission in connection with any offering made or proposed to be made in reliance on Regulation A.
(b)
(1) That such order has been entered, together with a brief statement of the reasons for the entry of the order; and
(2) That the Commission, upon receipt of a written request within 30 calendar days after the entry of the order, will, within 20 calendar days after receiving the request, order a hearing at a place to be designated by the Commission.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(1) The failure to comply did not pertain to a term, condition or
(2) The failure to comply was insignificant with respect to the offering as a whole, provided that any failure to comply with Rule 251(a), (b), and (d)(1) and (3) (§ 230.251(a), (b), and (d)(1) and (3)) shall be deemed to be significant to the offering as a whole; and
(3) A good faith and reasonable attempt was made to comply with all applicable terms, conditions and requirements of Regulation A.
(b)
(c)
As used in this Regulation A, all terms have the same meanings as in Rule 405 (§ 230.405), except that all references to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(a)
(1) Has been convicted, within ten years before the filing of the offering statement (or five years, in the case of issuers, their predecessors and affiliated issuers), of any felony or misdemeanor:
(i) In connection with the purchase or sale of any security;
(ii) Involving the making of any false filing with the Commission; or
(iii) Arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, investment adviser or paid solicitor of purchasers of securities;
(2) Is subject to any order, judgment or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction, entered within five years before the filing of the offering statement, that, at the time of such filing, restrains or enjoins such person from engaging or continuing to engage in any conduct or practice:
(i) In connection with the purchase or sale of any security;
(ii) Involving the making of any false filing with the Commission; or
(iii) Arising out of the conduct of the business of an underwriter, broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer, investment adviser or paid solicitor of purchasers of securities;
(3) Is subject to a final order (as defined in Rule 261 (§ 230.261)) of a state securities commission (or an agency or officer of a state performing like functions); a state authority that supervises or examines banks, savings associations, or credit unions; a state insurance commission (or an agency or officer of a state performing like functions); an appropriate federal banking agency; the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission; or the National Credit Union Administration that:
(i) At the time of the filing of the offering statement, bars the person from:
(A) Association with an entity regulated by such commission, authority, agency, or officer;
(B) Engaging in the business of securities, insurance or banking; or
(C) Engaging in savings association or credit union activities; or
(ii) Constitutes a final order based on a violation of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct entered within ten years before such filing of the offering statement;
(4) Is subject to an order of the Commission entered pursuant to section 15(b) or 15B(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78
(i) Suspends or revokes such person's registration as a broker, dealer, municipal securities dealer or investment adviser;
(ii) Places limitations on the activities, functions or operations of such person; or
(iii) Bars such person from being associated with any entity or from participating in the offering of any penny stock;
(5) Is subject to any order of the Commission entered within five years before the filing of the offering statement that, at the time of such filing, orders the person to cease and desist from committing or causing a violation or future violation of:
(i) Any scienter-based anti-fraud provision of the federal securities laws, including without limitation section 17(a)(1) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77q(a)(1)), section 10(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78j(b)) and 17 CFR 240.10b-5, section 15(c)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78
(ii) Section 5 of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77e).
(6) Is suspended or expelled from membership in, or suspended or barred from association with a member of, a registered national securities exchange or a registered national or affiliated securities association for any act or omission to act constituting conduct inconsistent with just and equitable principles of trade;
(7) Has filed (as a registrant or issuer), or was or was named as an underwriter in, any registration statement or offering statement filed with the Commission that, within five years before the filing of the offering statement, was the subject of a refusal order, stop order, or order suspending the Regulation A exemption, or is, at the time of such filing, the subject of an investigation or proceeding to determine whether a stop order or suspension order should be issued; or
(8) Is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered within five years before the filing of the offering statement, or is, at the time of such filing, subject to a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction with respect to conduct alleged by the United States Postal Service to constitute a scheme or device for obtaining money or property through the mail by means of false representations.
(b)
(1) With respect to any order under § 230.262(a)(3) or (5) that occurred or was issued before June 19, 2015;
(2) Upon a showing of good cause and without prejudice to any other action by the Commission, if the Commission determines that it is not necessary under the circumstances that an exemption be denied;
(3) If, before the filing of the offering statement, the court or regulatory authority that entered the relevant order, judgment or decree advises in writing (whether contained in the relevant judgment, order or decree or separately to the Commission or its staff) that disqualification under paragraph (a) of this section should not arise as a consequence of such order, judgment or decree; or
(4) If the issuer establishes that it did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care, could not have known that a disqualification existed under paragraph (a) of this section.
An issuer will not be able to establish that it has exercised reasonable care unless it has made, in light of the circumstances, factual inquiry into whether any disqualifications exist. The nature and scope of the factual inquiry will vary based on the facts and circumstances concerning, among other things, the issuer and the other offering participants.
(c)
(1) In control of the issuer; or
(2) Under common control with the issuer by a third party that was in control of the affiliated entity at the time of such events.
(d)
(a) If the issuer is not organized under the laws of any of the states or territories of the United States of America, it shall furnish to the Commission a written irrevocable consent and power of attorney on Form F-X (§ 239.42 of this chapter) at the time of filing the offering statement required by Rule 252 (§ 230.252).
(b) Any change to the name or address of the agent for service of the issuer shall be communicated promptly to the Commission through amendment of the requisite form and referencing the file number of the relevant offering statement.
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(iii) * * *
(A) The term
(B) The term
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s(a), 77z-3, 77sss(a), 78c(b), 78
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(vii) Form F-X (§ 239.42 of this chapter) when filed in connection with a Form CB (§§ 239.800 and 249.480 of this chapter) or a Form 1-A (§ 239.90 of this chapter);
(xv) Form ABS-EE (§ 249.1401 of this chapter);
(xvi) Form ABS-15G (as defined in § 249.1400 of this chapter); and
(xvii) Filings made pursuant to Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263 of this chapter).
(c) * * *
(6) Filings on Form 144 (§ 239.144 of this chapter) where the issuer of the securities is not subject to the reporting requirements of section 13 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78m or 78o(d), respectively).
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78l, 78m, 78n, 78o(d), 78o-7 note, 78u-5, 78w(a), 78
This Form is to be used for securities offerings made pursuant to Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251
An offering statement must be prepared by all persons seeking exemption under the provisions of Regulation A. Parts I, II and III must be addressed by all issuers. Part II, which relates to the content of the required offering circular, provides alternative formats, of which the issuer must choose one. General information regarding the preparation, format, content, and submission or filing of the offering statement is contained in Rule 252. Information regarding non-public submission of the offering statement is contained in Rule 252(d). Requirements relating to the offering circular are contained in Rules 253 and 254. The offering statement must be submitted or filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission in electronic format by means of the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis and Retrieval System (EDGAR) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232) for such submission or filing.
An issuer may incorporate by reference to other documents previously submitted or filed on EDGAR. Cross-referencing within the offering statement is also encouraged to avoid repetition of information. For example, you may respond to an item of this Form by providing a cross-reference to the location of the information in the financial statements, instead of repeating such information. Incorporation by reference and cross-referencing are subject to the following additional conditions:
(a) The use of incorporation by reference and cross-referencing in Part II of this Form is limited to the following items:
(1) Items 2-14 of Part II if following the Offering Circular format;
(2) Items 3-11 (other than Item 11(e)) of Form S-1 if following the Part I of Form S-1 format; or
(3) Items 3-26, 28, and 30 of Form S-11 if following the Part I of Form S-11 format.
(b) Descriptions of where the information incorporated by reference or cross-referenced can be found must be specific and must clearly identify the relevant document and portion thereof where such information can be found. For exhibits incorporated by reference, this description must be noted in the exhibits index for each relevant exhibit. All descriptions of where information incorporated by reference can be found must be accompanied by a hyperlink to the incorporated document on EDGAR, which hyperlink need not remain active after the filing of the offering statement. Inactive hyperlinks must be updated in any amendment to the offering statement otherwise required.
(c) Reference may not be made to any document if the portion of such document containing the pertinent information includes an incorporation by reference to another document. Incorporation by reference to documents not available on EDGAR is not permitted. Incorporating information into the financial statements from elsewhere is not permitted. Information shall not be incorporated by reference or cross-referenced in any case where such incorporation would render the statement or report incomplete, unclear, or confusing.
(d) If any substantive modification has occurred in the text of any document incorporated by reference since such document was filed, the issuer must file with the reference a statement containing the text and date of such modification.
The information specified below must be furnished to the Commission as supplemental information, if applicable. Supplemental information shall not be required to be filed with or deemed part of the offering statement, unless otherwise required. The information shall be returned to the issuer upon request made in writing at the time of submission, provided that the return of such information is consistent with the protection of investors and the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act [5 U.S.C. 552] and the information was not filed in electronic format.
(a) A statement as to whether or not the amount of compensation to be allowed or paid to the underwriter has been cleared with the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA).
(b) Any engineering, management, market, or similar report referenced in the offering circular or provided for external use by the issuer or by a principal underwriter in connection with the proposed offering. There must also be furnished at the same time a statement as to the actual or proposed use and distribution of such report or memorandum. Such statement must identify each class of persons who have received or will receive the report or memorandum, and state the number of copies distributed to each such class along with a statement as to the actual or proposed use and distribution of such report or memorandum.
(c) Such other information as requested by the staff in support of statements, representations and other assertions contained in the offering statement or any correspondence to the staff.
Correspondence appropriately responding to any staff comments made on the offering statement must also be furnished electronically. When applicable, such correspondence must clearly indicate where changes responsive to the staff's comments may be found in the offering statement.
The following information must be provided in the XML-based portion of Form 1-A available through the EDGAR portal and must be completed or updated before uploading each offering statement or amendment thereto. The format of Part I shown below may differ from the electronic version available on EDGAR. The electronic version of Part I will allow issuers to attach Part II and Part III for filing by means of EDGAR. All items must be addressed, unless otherwise indicated.
Use the financial statements for the most recent fiscal period contained in this offering statement to provide the following information about the issuer. The following table does not include all of the line items from the financial statements. Long Term Debt would include notes payable, bonds, mortgages, and similar obligations. To determine “Total Revenues” for all companies selecting “Other” for their industry group, refer to Article 5-03(b)(1) of Regulation S-X. For companies selecting “Insurance,” refer to Article 7-04 of Regulation S-X for calculation of “Total Revenues” and paragraphs 5 and 7(a) for “Costs and Expenses Applicable to Revenues”.
• Organized under the laws of the United States or Canada, or any State, Province, Territory or possession thereof, or the District of Columbia.
• Principal place of business is in the United States or Canada.
• Not subject to section 13 or 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
• Not a development stage company that either (a) has no specific business plan or purpose, or (b) has indicated that its business plan is to merge with an unidentified company or companies.
• Not an investment company registered or required to be registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940.
• Not issuing fractional undivided interests in oil or gas rights, or a similar interest in other mineral rights.
• Not issuing asset-backed securities as defined in Item 1101(c) of Regulation AB.
• Not, and has not been, subject to any order of the Commission entered pursuant to Section 12(j) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78
• Has filed with the Commission all the reports it was required to file, if any, pursuant to Rule 257 during the two years immediately before the filing of the offering statement (or for such shorter period that the issuer was required to file such reports).
Check the appropriate box to indicate whether you are conducting a Tier 1 or Tier 2 offering:
Check the appropriate box to indicate whether the annual financial statements have been audited:
Types of Securities Offered in this Offering Statement (select all that apply):
☐ Equity (common or preferred stock)
☐ Debt
☐ Option, warrant or other right to acquire another security
☐ Security to be acquired upon exercise of option, warrant or other right to acquire security
☐ Tenant-in-common securities
☐ Other (describe)______
Does the issuer intend to offer the securities on a delayed or continuous basis pursuant to Rule 251(d)(3)?
Does the issuer intend this offering to last more than one year?
Does the issuer intend to price this offering after qualification pursuant to Rule 253(b)?
Will the issuer be conducting a best efforts offering?
Has the issuer used solicitation of interest communications in connection with the proposed offering?
Does the proposed offering involve the resale of securities by affiliates of the issuer?
The portion of the aggregate offering price attributable to securities being offered on behalf of the issuer:
The portion of the aggregate offering price attributable to securities being offered on behalf of selling securityholders:
The portion of aggregate offering attributable to all the securities of the issuer sold pursuant to a qualified offering statement within the 12 months before the qualification of this offering statement:
The estimated portion of aggregate sales attributable to securities that may be sold pursuant to any other qualified offering statement concurrently with securities being sold under this offering statement:
Total: $______ (the sum of the aggregate offering price and aggregate sales in the four preceding paragraphs).
Anticipated fees in connection with this offering and names of service providers:
Using the list below, select the jurisdictions in which the issuer intends to offer the securities:
Using the list below, select the jurisdictions in which the securities are to be offered by underwriters, dealers or sales persons or check the appropriate box:
As to any unregistered securities issued by the issuer or any of its predecessors or affiliated issuers within one year before the filing of this Form 1-A, state:
(a) Name of such issuer.
(b) (1) Title of securities issued
(2) Total amount of such securities issued
(3) Amount of such securities sold by or for the account of any person who at the time was a director, officer, promoter or principal securityholder of the issuer of such securities, or was an underwriter of any securities of such issuer
(c)(1) Aggregate consideration for which the securities were issued and basis for computing the amount thereof.
(2) Aggregate consideration for which the securities listed in (b)(3) of this item (if any) were issued and the basis for computing the amount thereof (if
(a) Financial statement requirements regardless of the applicable disclosure format are specified in Part F/S of this Form 1-A. The narrative disclosure contents of offering circulars are specified as follows:
(1) The information required by:
(i) the Offering Circular format described below; or
(ii) The information required by Part I of Form S-1 (17 CFR 239.11) or Part I of Form S-11 (17 CFR 239.18), except for the financial statements, selected financial data, and supplementary financial information called for by those forms. An issuer choosing to follow the Form S-1 or Form S-11 format may follow the requirements for smaller reporting companies if it meets the definition of that term in Rule 405 (17 CFR 230.405). An issuer may only use the Form S-11 format if the offering is eligible to be registered on that form;
The cover page of the offering circular must identify which disclosure format is being followed.
(2) The offering circular must describe any matters that would have triggered disqualification under Rule 262(a)(3) or (a)(5) but for the provisions set forth in Rule 262(b)(1);
(3) The legend required by Rule 253(f) of Regulation A must be included on the offering circular cover page (for issuers following the S-1 or S-11 disclosure models this legend must be included instead of the legend required by Item 501(b)(7) of Regulation S-K);
(4) For preliminary offering circulars, the legend required by Rule 254(a) must be included on the offering circular cover page (for issuers following the S-1 or S-11 disclosure models, this legend must be included instead of the legend required by Item 501(b)(10) of Regulation S-K); and
(5) For Tier 2 offerings where the securities will not be listed on a registered national securities exchange upon qualification, the offering circular cover page must include the following legend highlighted by prominent type or in another manner:
Generally, no sale may be made to you in this offering if the aggregate purchase price you pay is more than 10% of the greater of your annual income or net worth. Different rules apply to accredited investors and non-natural persons. Before making any representation that your investment does not exceed applicable thresholds, we encourage you to review Rule 251(d)(2)(i)(C) of Regulation A. For general information on investing, we encourage you to refer to
(b) The Commission encourages the use of management's projections of future economic performance that have a reasonable basis and are presented in an appropriate format. See Rule 175, 17 CFR 230.175.
(c) Offering circulars need not follow the order of the items or the order of other requirements of the disclosure form except to the extent otherwise specifically provided. Such information may not, however, be set forth in such a fashion as to obscure any of the required information or any information necessary to keep the required information from being incomplete or misleading. Information requested to be presented in a specified tabular format must be given in substantially the tabular format specified. For incorporation by reference, please refer to General Instruction III of this Form.
The cover page of the offering circular must be limited to one page and must include the information specified in this item.
(a) Name of the issuer.
(b) Full mailing address of the issuer's principal executive offices and the issuer's telephone number (including the area code) and, if applicable, Web site address.
(c) Date of the offering circular.
(d) Title and amount of securities offered. Separately state the amount of securities offered by selling securityholders, if any. Include a cross-reference to the section where the disclosure required by Item 14 of Part II of this Form 1-A has been provided;
(e) The information called for by the applicable table below as to all the securities being offered, in substantially the tabular format indicated. If necessary, you may estimate any underwriting discounts and commissions and the proceeds to the issuer or other persons.
If the securities are to be offered on a best efforts basis, the cover page must set forth the termination date, if any, of the offering, any minimum required sale and any arrangements to place the funds received in an escrow, trust, or similar arrangement. The following table must be used instead of the preceding table.
(f) The name of the underwriter or underwriters.
(g) Any legend or information required by the law of any state in which the securities are to be offered.
(h) A cross-reference to the risk factors section, including the page number where it appears in the offering circular. Highlight this cross-reference by prominent type or in another manner.
(i) Approximate date of commencement of proposed sale to the public.
(j) If the issuer intends to rely on Rule 253(b) and a preliminary offering circular is circulated, provide (1) a bona fide estimate of the range of the maximum offering price and the maximum number of securities offered or (2) a bona fide estimate of the principal amount of the debt securities offered. The range must not exceed $2 for offerings where the upper end of the range is $10 or less and 20% if the upper end of the price range is over $10.
On the page immediately following the cover page of the offering circular, provide a reasonably detailed table of contents. It must show the page numbers of the various sections or subdivisions of the offering circular. Include a specific listing of the risk factors section required by Item 3 of Part II of this Form 1-A.
(a) An issuer may provide a summary of the information in the offering circular where the length or complexity of the offering circular makes a summary useful. The summary should be brief and must not contain all of the detailed information in the offering circular.
(b) Immediately following the Table of Contents required by Item 2 or the Summary, there must be set forth under an appropriate caption, a carefully organized series of short, concise paragraphs, summarizing the most significant factors that make the offering speculative or substantially risky. Issuers should avoid generalized statements and include only factors that are specific to the issuer.
Where there is a material disparity between the public offering price and the effective cash cost to officers, directors, promoters and affiliated persons for shares acquired by them in a transaction during the past year, or that they have a right to acquire, there must be included a comparison of the public contribution under the proposed public offering and the average effective cash contribution of such persons.
(a) If the securities are to be offered through underwriters, give the names of the principal underwriters, and state the respective amounts underwritten. Identify each such underwriter having a material relationship to the issuer and state the nature of the relationship. State briefly the nature of the underwriters' obligation to take the securities.
(b) State briefly the discounts and commissions to be allowed or paid to dealers, including all cash, securities, contracts or other consideration to be received by any dealer in connection with the sale of the securities.
(c) Outline briefly the plan of distribution of any securities being issued that are to be offered through the selling efforts of brokers or dealers or otherwise than through underwriters.
(d) If any of the securities are to be offered for the account of securityholders, identify each selling securityholder, state the amount owned by the securityholder prior to the offering, the amount offered for his or her account and the amount to be owned after the offering. Provide such disclosure in a tabular format. At the bottom of the table, provide the total number of securities being offered for the account of all securityholders and describe what percent of the pre-offering outstanding securities of such class the offering represents.
(e) Describe any arrangements for the return of funds to subscribers if all of the securities to be offered are not sold. If there are no such arrangements, so state.
(f) If there will be a material delay in the payment of the proceeds of the offering by the underwriter to the issuer, the salient provisions in this regard and the effects on the issuer must be stated.
(g) Describe any arrangement to (1) limit or restrict the sale of other securities of the same class as those to be offered for the period of distribution, (2) stabilize the market for any of the securities to be offered, or (3) withhold commissions, or otherwise to hold each
(h) Identify any underwriter that intends to confirm sales to any accounts over which it exercises discretionary authority and include an estimate of the amount of securities so intended to be confirmed.
State the principal purposes for which the net proceeds to the issuer from the securities to be offered are intended to be used and the approximate amount intended to be used for each such purpose. If the issuer will not receive any of proceeds from the offering, so state.
(a) Narrative description of business.
(1) Describe the business done and intended to be done by the issuer and its subsidiaries and the general development of the business during the past three years or such shorter period as the issuer may have been in business. Such description must include, but not be limited to, a discussion of the following factors if such factors are material to an understanding of the issuer's business:
(i) The principal products and services of the issuer and the principal market for and method of distribution of such products and services.
(ii) The status of a product or service if the issuer has made public information about a new product or service that would require the investment of a material amount of the assets of the issuer or is otherwise material.
(iii) If material, the estimated amount spent during each of the last two fiscal years on company-sponsored research and development activities determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. In addition, state, if material, the estimated dollar amount spent during each of such years on material customer-sponsored research activities relating to the development of new products, services or techniques or the improvement of existing products, services or techniques.
(iv) The total number of persons employed by the issuer, indicating the number employed full time.
(v) Any bankruptcy, receivership or similar proceeding.
(vi) Any legal proceedings material to the business or financial condition of the issuer.
(vii) Any material reclassification, merger, consolidation, or purchase or sale of a significant amount of assets not in the ordinary course of business.
(2) The issuer must also describe those distinctive or special characteristics of the issuer's operation or industry that are reasonably likely to have a material impact upon the issuer's future financial performance. Examples of factors that might be discussed include dependence on one or a few major customers or suppliers (including suppliers of raw materials or financing), effect of existing or probable governmental regulation (including environmental regulation), material terms of and/or expiration of material labor contracts or patents, trademarks, licenses, franchises, concessions or royalty agreements, unusual competitive conditions in the industry, cyclicality of the industry and anticipated raw material or energy shortages to the extent management may not be able to secure a continuing source of supply.
(b) Segment Data. If the issuer is required by generally accepted accounting principles to include segment information in its financial statements, an appropriate cross-reference must be included in the description of business.
(c) Industry Guides. The disclosure guidelines in all Securities Act Industry Guides must be followed. To the extent that the industry guides are codified into Regulation S-K, the Regulation S-K industry disclosure items must be followed.
(d) For offerings of limited partnership or limited liability company interests, an issuer must comply with the Commission's interpretive views on substantive disclosure requirements set forth in Securities Act Release No. 6900 (June 17, 1991).
State briefly the location and general character of any principal plants or other material physical properties of the issuer and its subsidiaries. If any such property is not held in fee or is held subject to any major encumbrance, so state and briefly describe how held. Include information regarding the suitability, adequacy, productive capacity and extent of utilization of the properties and facilities used in the issuer's business.
Discuss the issuer's financial condition, changes in financial condition and results of operations for each year and interim period for which financial statements are required, including the causes of material changes from year to year or period to period in financial statement line items, to the extent necessary for an understanding of
(a) Operating results. Provide information regarding significant factors, including unusual or infrequent events or transactions or new developments, materially affecting the issuer's income from operations, and, in each case, indicating the extent to which income was so affected. Describe any other significant component of revenue or expenses necessary to understand the issuer's results of operations. To the extent that the financial statements disclose material changes in net sales or revenues, provide a narrative discussion of the extent to which such changes are attributable to changes in prices or to changes in the volume or amount of products or services being sold or to the introduction of new products or services.
(b) Liquidity and capital resources. Provide information regarding the following:
(1) the issuer's liquidity (both short and long term), including a description and evaluation of the internal and external sources of liquidity and a brief discussion of any material unused sources of liquidity. If a material deficiency in liquidity is identified, indicate the course of action that the issuer has taken or proposes to take to remedy the deficiency.
(2) the issuer's material commitments for capital expenditures as of the end of the latest fiscal year and any subsequent interim period and an indication of the general purpose of such commitments and the anticipated sources of funds needed to fulfill such commitments.
(c) Plan of Operations. Issuers (including predecessors) that have not received revenue from operations during each of the three fiscal years immediately before the filing of the offering statement (or since inception, whichever is shorter) must describe, if formulated, their plan of operation for the 12 months following the commencement of the proposed offering. If such information is not available, the reasons for its unavailability must be stated. Disclosure relating to any plan must include, among other things, a statement indicating whether, in the issuer's opinion, the proceeds from the offering will satisfy its cash requirements or whether it anticipates it will be necessary to raise additional funds in the next six months to implement the plan of operations.
(d) Trend information. The issuer must identify the most significant recent trends in production, sales and inventory, the state of the order book and costs and selling prices since the latest financial year. The issuer also must discuss, for at least the current financial year, any known trends, uncertainties, demands, commitments or events that are reasonably likely to have a material effect on the issuer's net sales or revenues, income from continuing operations, profitability, liquidity or capital resources, or that would cause reported financial information not necessarily to be indicative of future operating results or financial condition.
(a) For each of the directors, persons nominated or chosen to become directors, executive officers, persons chosen to become executive officers, and significant employees, provide the information specified below in substantially the following tabular format:
(1) Provide the month and year of the start date and, if applicable, the end date. To the extent you are unable to provide specific dates, provide such other description in the table or in an appropriate footnote clarifying the term of office. If the person is a nominee or chosen to become a director or executive officer, it must be indicated in this column or by footnote.
(2) For executive officers and significant employees that are working part-time, indicate approximately the average number of hours per week or month such person works or is anticipated to work. This column may be left blank for directors. The entire column may be omitted if all those listed in the table work full time for the issuer.
In a footnote to the table, briefly describe any arrangement or understanding between the persons described above and any other persons (naming such persons) pursuant to which the person was or is to be selected to his or her office or position.
(b) Family relationships. State the nature of any family relationship between any director, executive officer, person nominated or chosen by the issuer to become a director or executive officer or any significant employee.
(c) Business experience. Give a brief account of the business experience during the past five years of each director, executive officer, person nominated or chosen to become a director or executive officer, and each significant employee, including his or her principal occupations and employment during that period and the name and principal business of any corporation or other organization in which such occupations and employment were carried on. When an executive officer or significant employee has been employed by the issuer for less than five years, a brief explanation must be included as to the nature of the responsibilities undertaken by the individual in prior positions to provide adequate disclosure of this prior business experience. What is required is information relating to the level of the employee's professional competence, which may include, depending upon the circumstances, such specific information as the size of the operation supervised.
(d) Involvement in certain legal proceedings. Describe any of the following events which occurred during the past five years and which are material to an evaluation of the ability or integrity of any director, person nominated to become a director or executive officer of the issuer:
(1) A petition under the federal bankruptcy laws or any state insolvency law was filed by or against, or a receiver, fiscal agent or similar officer was appointed by a court for the business or property of such person, or any partnership in which he was general partner at or within two years before the time of such filing, or any corporation or business association of which he was an executive officer at or within two years before the time of such filing; or
(2) Such person was convicted in a criminal proceeding (excluding traffic violations and other minor offenses).
(a) Provide, in substantially the tabular format indicated, the annual compensation of each of the three highest paid persons who were executive officers or directors during the issuer's last completed fiscal year.
(b) Provide the aggregate annual compensation of the issuer's directors as a group for the issuer's last completed fiscal year. Specify the total number of directors in the group.
(c) For Tier 1 offerings, the annual compensation of the three highest paid persons who were executive officers or directors and the aggregate annual compensation of the issuer's directors may be provided as a group, rather than as specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this item. In such case, issuers must specify the total number of persons in the group.
(d) Briefly describe all proposed compensation to be made in the future pursuant to any ongoing plan or arrangement to the individuals specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this item. The description must include a summary of how each plan operates, any performance formula or measure in effect (or the criteria used to determine payment amounts), the time periods over which the measurements of benefits will be determined, payment schedules, and any recent material amendments to the plan. Information need not be included with respect to any group life, health, hospitalization, or medical reimbursement plans that do not discriminate in scope, terms or operation in favor of executive officers or directors of the issuer and that are available generally to all salaried employees.
(a) Include the information specified in paragraph (b) of this item as of the most recent practicable date (stating the date used), in substantially the tabular format indicated, with respect to voting securities beneficially owned by:
(1) all executive officers and directors as a group, individually naming each
(2) any other securityholder who beneficially owns more than 10% of any class of the issuer's voting securities as such beneficial ownership would be calculated if the issuer were subject to Rule 13d-3(d)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
(b) Beneficial Ownership Table:
(1) The address given in this column may be a business, mailing, or residential address. The address may be included in an appropriate footnote to the table rather than in this column.
(2) This column must include the amount of equity securities each beneficial owner has the right to acquire using the manner specified in Rule 13d-3(d)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. An appropriate footnote must be included if the column heading does not sufficiently describe the circumstances upon which such securities could be acquired.
(3) This column must use the amounts contained in the two preceding columns to calculate the percent of class owned by such beneficial owner.
(a) Describe briefly any transactions or any currently proposed transactions during the issuer's last two completed fiscal years and the current fiscal year, to which the issuer or any of its subsidiaries was or is to be a participant and the amount involved exceeds $50,000 for Tier 1 or the lesser of $120,000 and one percent of the average of the issuer's total assets at year end for the last two completed fiscal years for Tier 2, and in which any of the following persons had or is to have a direct or indirect material interest, naming the person and stating his or her relationship to the issuer, the nature of the person's interest in the transaction and, where practicable, the amount of such interest:
(1) Any director or executive officer of the issuer;
(2) Any nominee for election as a director;
(3) Any securityholder named in answer to Item 12(a)(2);
(4) If the issuer was incorporated or organized within the past three years, any promoter of the issuer; or
(5) Any immediate family member of the above persons. An “immediate family member” of a person means such person's child, stepchild, parent, stepparent, spouse, sibling, mother-in-law, father-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, or any person (other than a tenant or employee) sharing such person's household.
(b) If any expert named in the offering statement as having prepared or certified any part of the offering statement was employed for such purpose on a contingent basis or, at the time of such preparation or certification or at any time thereafter, had a material interest in the issuer or any of its parents or subsidiaries or was connected with the issuer or any of its subsidiaries as a promoter, underwriter, voting trustee, director, officer or employee, describe the nature of such contingent basis, interest or connection.
(a) If capital stock is being offered, state the title of the class and furnish the following information regarding all classes of capital stock outstanding:
(1) Outline briefly: (i) dividend rights; (ii) voting rights; (iii) liquidation rights; (iv) preemptive rights; (v) conversion rights; (vi) redemption provisions; (vii) sinking fund provisions; (viii) liability to further calls or to assessment by the issuer; (ix) any classification of the Board of Directors, and the impact of classification where cumulative voting is permitted or required; (x) restrictions on alienability of the securities being offered; (xi) any provision discriminating against any existing or prospective holder of such securities as a result of such securityholder owning a substantial amount of securities; and (xii) any rights of holders that may be modified otherwise than by a vote of a majority or more of the shares outstanding, voting as a class.
(2) Briefly describe potential liabilities imposed on securityholders under state statutes or foreign law, for example, to employees of the issuer, unless such disclosure would be immaterial because the financial resources of the issuer or other factors are such as to make it unlikely that the liability will ever be imposed.
(3) If preferred stock is to be offered or is outstanding, describe briefly any restriction on the repurchase or redemption of shares by the issuer while there is any arrearage in the payment of dividends or sinking fund installments. If there is no such restriction, so state.
(b) If debt securities are being offered, outline briefly the following:
(1) Provisions with respect to interest, conversion, maturity, redemption, amortization, sinking fund or retirement.
(2) Provisions with respect to the kind and priority of any lien securing the issue, together with a brief identification of the principal properties subject to such lien.
(3) Material affirmative and negative covenants.
(c) If securities described are to be offered pursuant to warrants, rights, or convertible securities, state briefly:
(1) the amount of securities issuable upon the exercise or conversion of such warrants, convertible securities or rights;
(2) the period during which and the price at which the warrants, convertible securities or rights are exercisable;
(3) the amounts of warrants, convertible securities or rights outstanding; and
(4) any other material terms of such securities.
(d) In the case of any other kind of securities, include a brief description with comparable information to that required in (a), (b) and (c) of Item 14.
(1) The appropriate financial statements set forth below of the issuer, or the issuer and its predecessors or any businesses to which the issuer is a successor must be filed as part of the offering statement and included in the offering circular that is distributed to investors.
(2) Unless the issuer is a Canadian company, financial statements must be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles in the United States (US GAAP). If the issuer is a Canadian company, such financial statements must be prepared in accordance with either US GAAP or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB). If the financial statements comply with IFRS, such compliance must be explicitly and unreservedly stated in the notes to the financial statements and if the financial statements are audited, the auditor's report must include an opinion on whether the financial statements comply with IFRS as issued by the IASB.
(3) The issuer may elect to delay complying with any new or revised financial accounting standard until the date that a company that is not an issuer (as defined under section 2(a) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7201(a)) is required to comply with such new or revised accounting standard, if such standard also applies to companies that are not issuers. Issuers electing such extension of time accommodation must disclose it at the time the issuer files its offering statement and apply the election to all standards. Issuers electing not to use this accommodation must forgo this accommodation for all financial accounting standards and may not elect to rely on this accommodation in any future filings.
(1) The financial statements prepared pursuant to this paragraph (b), including (b)(7), need not be prepared in accordance with Regulation S-X.
(2) The financial statements prepared pursuant to paragraph (b), including (b)(7), need not be audited. If the financial statements are not audited, they shall be labeled as “unaudited”. However, if an audit of these financial statements is obtained for other purposes and that audit was performed in accordance with either U.S. generally accepted auditing standards or the Standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board by an auditor that is independent pursuant to either the independence standards of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) or Rule 2-01 of Regulation S-X, those audited financial statements must be filed, and an audit opinion complying with Rule 2-02 of Regulation S-X must be filed along with such financial statements. The auditor may, but need not, be registered with the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.
(3)
(A) If the filing is made, or the offering statement is qualified, more than three months but no more than nine months after the most recently completed fiscal year end, include a balance sheet as of the two most recently completed fiscal year ends.
(B) If the filing is made, or the offering statement is qualified, more than nine months after the most recently completed fiscal year end, include a balance sheet as of the two most
(C) If the filing is made, or the offering statement is qualified, within three months after the most recently completed fiscal year end, include a balance sheet as of the two fiscal year ends preceding the most recently completed fiscal year end and an interim balance sheet as of a date no earlier than six months after the date of the most recent fiscal year end balance sheet that is required.
(D) If the filing is made, or the offering statement is qualified, during the period from inception until three months after reaching the annual balance sheet date for the first time, include a balance sheet as of a date within nine months of filing or qualification.
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(1) In addition to the general rules in paragraph (a), provide the financial statements required by paragraph (b) of this Part F/S, except the following rules should be followed in the preparation of the financial statements:
(i) The issuer and, when applicable, other entities for which financial statements are required, must comply with Article 8 of Regulation S-X, as if it was conducting a registered offering on Form S-1, except the age of interim financial statements may follow paragraphs (b)(3)-(4) of this Part F/S.
(ii) Audited financial statements are required for Tier 2 offerings for the issuer and, when applicable, for financial statements of other entities. However, interim financial statements may be unaudited.
(iii) The audit must be conducted in accordance with either U.S. Generally Accepted Auditing Standards or the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (United States) and the report and qualifications of the independent accountant shall comply with the requirements of Article 2 of Regulation S-X. Accounting firms conducting audits for the financial statements included in the offering circular may, but need not, be registered with the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.
(a) An exhibits index must be presented at the beginning of Part III.
(b) Each exhibit must be listed in the exhibit index according to the number assigned to it under Item 17 below.
(c) For incorporation by reference, please refer to General Instruction III of this Form.
As appropriate, the following documents must be filed as exhibits to the offering statement.
1.
2.
3.
(a) All instruments defining the rights of any holder of the issuer's securities, including but not limited to (i) holders of equity or debt securities being issued; (ii) holders of long-term debt of the issuer, and of all subsidiaries for which consolidated or unconsolidated financial statements are required to be filed.
(b) The following instruments need not be filed if the issuer agrees to file them with the Commission upon request: (i) instruments defining the rights of holders of long-term debt of the issuer and all of its subsidiaries for which consolidated financial statements are required to be filed if such debt is not being issued pursuant to this Regulation A offering and the total amount of such authorized issuance does not exceed 5% of the total assets of the issuer and its subsidiaries on a consolidated basis; (ii) any instrument
4.
5.
6.
(a) Every contract not made in the ordinary course of business that is material to the issuer and is to be performed in whole or in part at or after the filing of the offering statement or was entered into not more than two years before such filing. Only contracts need be filed as to which the issuer or subsidiary of the issuer is a party or has succeeded to a party by assumption or assignment or in which the issuer or such subsidiary has a beneficial interest. Schedules (or similar attachments) to material contracts may be excluded if not material to an investment decision or if the material information contained in such schedules is otherwise disclosed in the agreement or the offering statement. The material contract filed must contain a list briefly identifying the contents of all omitted schedules, together with an agreement to furnish supplementally a copy of any omitted schedule to the Commission upon request.
(b) If the contract is such as ordinarily accompanies the kind of business conducted by the issuer and its subsidiaries, it is made in the ordinary course of business and need not be filed unless it falls within one or more of the following categories, in which case it must be filed except where immaterial in amount or significance: (i) any contract to which directors, officers, promoters, voting trustees, securityholders named in the offering statement, or underwriters are parties, except where the contract merely involves the purchase or sale of current assets having a determinable market price, at such market price; (ii) any contract upon which the issuer's business is substantially dependent, as in the case of continuing contracts to sell the major part of the issuer's products or services or to purchase the major part of the issuer's requirements of goods, services or raw materials or any franchise or license or other agreement to use a patent, formula, trade secret, process or trade name upon which the issuer's business depends to a material extent; (iii) any contract calling for the acquisition or sale of any property, plant or equipment for a consideration exceeding 15% of such fixed assets of the issuer on a consolidated basis; or (iv) any material lease under which a part of the property described in the offering statement is held by the issuer.
(c) Any management contract or any compensatory plan, contract or arrangement including, but not limited to, plans relating to options, warrants or rights, pension, retirement or deferred compensation or bonus, incentive or profit sharing (or if not set forth in any formal document, a written description) is deemed material and must be filed except for the following: (i) ordinary purchase and sales agency agreements; (ii) agreements with managers of stores in a chain organization or similar organization; (iii) contracts providing for labor or salesperson's bonuses or payments to a class of securityholders, as such; (iv) any compensatory plan, contract or arrangement that pursuant to its terms is available to employees generally and that in operation provides for the same method of allocation of benefits between management and non-management participants.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
(a) Experts: The written consent of (i) any accountant, counsel, engineer, geologist, appraiser or any persons whose profession gives authority to a statement made by them and who is named in the offering statement as having prepared or certified any part of the document or is named as having prepared or certified a report or evaluation whether or not for use in connection with the offering statement; (ii) the expert that authored any portion of a report quoted or summarized as such in the offering statement, expressly stating their consent to the use of such quotation or summary; (iii) any persons who are referenced as having reviewed or passed upon any information in the offering statement, and that such information is being included on the basis of their authority or in reliance upon their status as experts.
(b) All written consents must be dated and signed.
12.
13.
14.
15.
(a) Any non-public, draft offering statement previously submitted pursuant to Rule 252(d) and any related, non-public correspondence submitted by or on behalf of the issuer.
(b) Any additional exhibits which the issuer may wish to file, which must be so marked as to indicate clearly the subject matters to which they refer.
Pursuant to the requirements of Regulation A, the issuer certifies that it has reasonable grounds to believe that it meets all of the requirements for filing on Form 1-A and has duly caused this offering statement to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, thereunto duly authorized, in the City of ____, State of ____, on ____
This offering statement has been signed by the following persons in the capacities and on the dates indicated.
The text of Form 1-A will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
This form shall be used for filing annual reports under Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263 of this chapter).
(1) This Form shall be used for annual reports pursuant to Rule 257(b)(1) of Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263).
(2) Annual reports on this Form shall be filed within 120 calendar days after the end of the fiscal year covered by the report.
(3) This Form also shall be used for special financial reports filed pursuant to Rule 257(b)(2)(i)(A) of Regulation A. Such special financial reports shall be filed and signed in the manner set forth in this Form, but otherwise need only provide Part I and the financial statements required by Rule 257(b)(2)(i)(A). Special financial reports filed using this Form shall be filed within 120 calendar days after the qualification date of the offering statement.
(1) Regulation A contains certain general requirements that are applicable to reports on any form, including amendments to reports. These general requirements should be carefully read and observed in the preparation and filing of reports on this Form.
(2) This Form is not to be used as a blank form to be filled in, but only as a guide in the preparation of the report.
(3) Except where information is required to be given for the fiscal year or as of a specified date, it shall be given as of the latest date reasonably practicable.
(4) References in this Form to the items in Form 1-A are to the items set forth in Part II and Part III of Form 1-A, not Part I.
(5) In addition to the information expressly required to be included in this Form, there shall be added such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
(1) The report must be filed with the Commission in electronic format by means of the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis and Retrieval System (“EDGAR”) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232).
(2) The report must be signed by the issuer, its principal executive officer, principal financial officer, principal accounting officer, and at least a majority of the members of its board of directors or other governing body. If a signature is by a person on behalf of any other person, evidence of authority to sign must be filed with the report, except where an executive officer signs on behalf of the issuer.
(3) The report must be signed using a typed signature. Each signatory to the filing must also manually sign a signature page or other document authenticating, acknowledging or otherwise adopting his or her signature that appears in the filing. Such document must be executed before or at the time the filing is made and must be retained by the issuer for a period of five years. Upon request, the issuer must furnish to the Commission or its staff a copy of any or all documents retained pursuant to this paragraph.
(1) An issuer may incorporate by reference to other documents previously submitted or filed on EDGAR. Cross-referencing within the report is also encouraged to avoid repetition of information. For example, you may respond to an item of this Form by providing a cross-reference to the location of the information in the financial statements, instead of repeating such information. Descriptions of where the information incorporated by reference or cross-referenced can be found must be specific and must clearly identify the relevant document and portion thereof where such information can be found. For exhibits incorporated by reference, this description must be noted in the exhibits index for each relevant exhibit. All descriptions of where information incorporated by reference can be found must be accompanied by a separate hyperlink to the incorporated document on EDGAR. A hyperlink need not remain active after the filing of the report, except that amendments to the report must update any hyperlinks referred to in the amendment that are inactive.
(2) Reference may not be made to any document if the portion of such document containing the pertinent information includes an incorporation by reference to another document. Incorporation by reference to documents not available on EDGAR is not permitted. Information shall not be incorporated by reference or cross-referenced in any case where such incorporation would render the statement or report incomplete, unclear, or confusing. Incorporating information
(3) If any substantive modification has occurred in the text of any document incorporated by reference since such document was filed, the issuer must file with the reference a statement containing the text and date of such modification.
The following information must be provided in the XML-based portion of Form 1-K available through the EDGAR portal and must be completed or updated before uploading each offering statement or amendment thereto. The format of Part I shown below may differ from the electronic version available on EDGAR. The electronic version of Part I will allow issuers to attach Part II for filing by means of EDGAR. All items must be addressed, unless otherwise indicated.
The following information must be provided for any Regulation A offering that has terminated or completed prior to the filing of this Form 1-K, unless such information has been previously reported in a manner permissible under Rule 257. If such information has been previously reported, check this box ☐and leave the rest of Part I blank.
Fees in connection with this offering and names of service providers:
Set forth the information required by Item 7 of Form 1-A.
Set forth the information required by Item 9(a), (b) and (d) of Form 1-A for the most recent two completed fiscal years.
Set forth the information required by Items 10 and 11 of Form 1-A.
Set forth the information required by Item 12 of Form 1-A.
Set forth the information required by Item 13 of Form 1-A.
Set forth any information required to be disclosed in a report on Form 1-U during the last six months of the fiscal year covered by this Form 1-K, but not reported, whether or not otherwise required by this Form 1-K. If disclosure of such information is made under this item, it need not be repeated in a report on Form 1-U that would otherwise be required to be filed with respect to such information or in a subsequent report on Form 1-U.
(a) The appropriate audited financial statements set forth below of the issuer, or the issuer and its predecessors or any businesses to which the issuer is a successor must be filed as part of the Form 1-K.
(b) Unless the issuer is a Canadian company, financial statements must be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles in the United States (US GAAP). If the issuer is a Canadian company, such financial statements must be prepared in accordance with either US GAAP or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB). If the financial statements comply with IFRS, such compliance must be explicitly and unreservedly stated in the notes to the financial statements and the auditor's report must include an opinion on whether the financial statements comply with IFRS as issued by the IASB.
(c) The audit of the financial statements must be conducted in accordance with either U.S. Generally Accepted Auditing Standards or the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (United States) and the report and qualifications of the independent accountant shall comply with the requirements of Article 2 of Regulation S-X. Accounting firms conducting audits for the financial statements may, but need not, be registered with the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(1)
(2)
(a) An exhibits index must be presented immediately preceding the first signature page of the report.
(b) File, as exhibits to this Form, the exhibits required by Form 1-A, except for the exhibits required by paragraphs 1, 12, and 13 of Item 17.
Pursuant to the requirements of Regulation A, the issuer has duly caused this report to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, thereunto duly authorized.
Pursuant to the requirements of Regulation A, this report has been signed below by the following persons on behalf of the issuer and in the capacities and on the dates indicated.
The text of Form 1-K will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
This form shall be used for filing semiannual reports under Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263 of this chapter).
(1) This Form shall be used for semiannual reports pursuant to Rule 257(b)(3) of Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263).
(2) Semiannual reports on this Form shall be filed within 90 calendar days after the end of the semiannual period covered by the report.
(3) This Form also shall be used for special financial reports filed pursuant to Rule 257(b)(2)(i)(B) of Regulation A. Such special financial reports shall be filed and signed in the manner set forth in this Form, but otherwise need only provide the cover page and financial statements required by Rule 257(b)(2)(i)(B). Special financial reports filed using this Form shall be filed within 90 calendar days after the qualification date of the offering statement.
(1) Regulation A contains certain general requirements that are applicable to reports on any form, including amendments to reports. These general requirements should be carefully read and observed in the preparation and filing of reports on this Form.
(2) This Form is not to be used as a blank form to be filled in, but only as a guide in the preparation of the report.
(3) In addition to the information expressly required to be included in this Form, there shall be added such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
(1) The report must be filed with the Commission in electronic format by means of the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis and Retrieval System (“EDGAR”) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232).
(2) The report must be signed by the issuer, its principal executive officer, principal financial officer and principal accounting officer. If a signature is by a person on behalf of any other person, evidence of authority to sign must be filed with the report, except where an executive officer signs on behalf of the issuer.
(3) The report must be signed using a typed signature. Each signatory to the filing must also manually sign a signature page or other document authenticating, acknowledging or otherwise adopting his or her signature that appears in the filing. Such document must be executed before or at the time the filing is made and must be retained by the issuer for a period of five years. Upon request, the issuer must furnish to the Commission or its staff a copy of any or all documents retained pursuant to this paragraph.
(1) An issuer may incorporate by reference to other documents previously submitted or filed on EDGAR. Cross-referencing within the report is also encouraged to avoid repetition of information. For example, you may respond to an item of this Form by providing a cross-reference to the location of the information in the financial statements, instead of repeating such information. Descriptions of where the information incorporated by reference or cross-referenced can be found must be specific and must clearly identify the relevant document and portion thereof where such information can be found. For exhibits incorporated by reference, this description must be noted in the exhibits index for each relevant exhibit. All such descriptions of where information incorporated by reference can be found must be accompanied by
(2) Reference may not be made to any document if the portion of such document containing the pertinent information includes an incorporation by reference to another document. Incorporation by reference to documents not available on EDGAR is not permitted. Information shall not be incorporated by reference or cross-referenced in any case where such incorporation would render the statement or report incomplete, unclear, or confusing. Incorporating information into the financial statements from elsewhere is not permitted.
(3) If any substantive modification has occurred in the text of any document incorporated by reference since such document was filed, the issuer must file with the reference a statement containing the text and date of such modification.
Set forth the information required by Item 9(a), (b), and (d) of Form 1-A for the interim period for which financial statements are required by Item 3 below.
Set forth any information required to be disclosed in a report on Form 1-U during the semiannual period covered by this Form 1-SA, but not reported, whether or not otherwise required by this Form 1-SA. If disclosure of such information is made under this item, it need not be repeated in a report on Form 1-U that would otherwise be required to be filed with respect to such information or in a subsequent report on Form 1-U.
The appropriate financial statements set forth below of the issuer, or the issuer and its predecessors or any businesses to which the issuer is a successor must be filed as part of the Form 1-SA.
Unless the issuer is a Canadian company, financial statements must be prepared on a consolidated basis in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles in the United States (US GAAP). If the issuer is a Canadian company, such financial statements must be prepared in accordance with either US GAAP or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB). If the financial statements comply with IFRS as issued by the IASB, such compliance must be explicitly and unreservedly stated in the notes to the financial statements.
The financial statements included pursuant to this item may be condensed, unaudited, and are not required to be reviewed. For additional guidance on presentation of the financial statements refer to Rule 8-03(a) of Regulation S-X. The financial statements must include the following:
(a) An interim consolidated balance sheet as of the end of the six month period covered by this report and a balance sheet as of the end of the preceding fiscal year. An interim balance sheet as of the end of the corresponding six month interim period of the preceding fiscal year need not be provided unless necessary for an understanding of the impact of seasonal fluctuations on the issuer's financial condition.
(b) Interim consolidated statements of income must be provided for the six month interim period covered by this report and for the corresponding period of the preceding fiscal year. Income statements must be accompanied by a statement that in the opinion of management all adjustments necessary in order to make the interim financial statements not misleading have been included.
(c) Interim statements of cash flows must be provided for the six month interim period covered by this report and for the corresponding period of the preceding fiscal year.
(d) Footnote and other disclosures should be provided as needed for fair presentation and to ensure that the financial statements are not misleading. Refer to Rule 8-03(b) of Regulation S-X for examples of disclosures that may be needed.
(e)
(a) An exhibits index must be presented immediately preceding the first signature page of the report.
(b) File, as exhibits to this Form, the exhibits required by Form 1-A, except for the exhibits required by paragraphs 1, 12, and 13 of Item 17.
Pursuant to the requirements of Regulation A, the issuer has duly caused this report to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, thereunto duly authorized.
Pursuant to the requirements of Regulation A, this report has been signed below by the following persons on behalf of the issuer and in the capacities and on the dates indicated.
The text of Form 1-SA will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
This form shall be used for filing current reports under Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263 of this chapter).
(1) This Form shall be used for current reports pursuant to Rule 257(b)(4) of Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263).
(2) A report on this Form is required to be filed, as applicable, upon the occurrence of any one or more of the events specified in Items 1—9 of this Form. Unless otherwise specified, a
(3) If the issuer previously has provided substantially the same information as required by this Form in a report required by Rule 257(b) of Regulation A, the issuer need not make an additional report of the information on this Form. To the extent that an item calls for disclosure of developments concerning a previously reported event or transaction, any information required in the new report or amendment about the previously reported event or transaction may be provided by incorporation by reference to the previously filed report, if a hyperlink to such report as filed with the Commission is included.
(4) Copies of agreements, amendments or other documents or instruments are not required to be filed as exhibits to the Form 1-U unless specifically required by the applicable item. This instruction does not affect the requirement to otherwise file such agreements, amendments or other documents or instruments, including as exhibits to offering statements and periodic reports pursuant to the requirements of Regulation A.
(1) Regulation A contains certain general requirements which are applicable to reports on any form, including amendments to reports. These general requirements should be carefully read and observed in the preparation and filing of reports on this Form.
(2) This Form is not to be used as a blank form to be filled in, but only as a guide in the preparation of the report. Nevertheless, the report shall contain the number and caption of each applicable item, but the text of such item may be omitted. All items that are not required to be answered in a particular report may be omitted and no reference thereto need be made in the report. All instructions should also be omitted.
(3) In addition to the information expressly required to be included in this Form, there shall be added such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
(1) The report must be filed with the Commission in electronic format by means of the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis and Retrieval System (“EDGAR”) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232).
(2) The report must be signed by an officer duly authorized to sign on behalf of the issuer. The report must be signed using a typed signature. The signatory to the filing must also manually sign a signature page or other document authenticating, acknowledging or otherwise adopting his or her signature that appears in the filing. Such document must be executed before or at the time the filing is made and must be retained by the issuer for a period of five years. Upon request, the issuer must furnish to the Commission or its staff a copy of any or all documents retained pursuant to this paragraph.
(1) An issuer may incorporate by reference to other documents previously submitted or filed on EDGAR. Cross-referencing within the report is also encouraged to avoid repetition of information. For example, you may respond to an item of this Form by providing a cross-reference to the location of the information in another item, instead of repeating such information. Descriptions of where the information incorporated by reference or cross-referenced can be found must be specific and must clearly identify the relevant document and portion thereof where such information can be found. For exhibits incorporated by reference, this description must be noted in the exhibits index for each relevant exhibit. All such descriptions of where information incorporated by reference can be found must be accompanied by a separate hyperlink to the incorporated document on EDGAR. A hyperlink need not remain active after the filing of the report, except that amendments to the report must update any hyperlinks referred to in the amendment that are inactive.
(2) Reference may not be made to any document if the portion of such document containing the pertinent information includes an incorporation by reference to another document. Incorporation by reference to documents not available on EDGAR is not permitted. Information shall not be incorporated by reference or cross-referenced in any case where such incorporation would render the statement or report incomplete, unclear, or confusing. Incorporating information into any financial statements from elsewhere is not permitted.
(3) If any substantive modification has occurred in the text of any document incorporated by reference since such document was filed, the issuer must file with the reference a statement containing the text and date of such modification.
(a) If the issuer has entered into or terminated a material definitive agreement that has resulted in or would reasonably be expected to result in a fundamental change to the nature of its business or plan of operations, disclose the following information to the extent applicable:
(1) the date on which the agreement was entered into, amended, or terminated, the identity of the parties to the agreement or amendment, and a brief description of any material relationship between the issuer or its affiliates and any of the parties (other than the relationship created by the material definitive agreement or amendment);
(2) a brief description of the material terms and conditions of the agreement;
(3) a brief description of the material circumstances surrounding the termination; and
(4) any material early termination penalties incurred by the issuer due to a termination.
(b) For purposes of this item, a material definitive agreement means an agreement that provides for obligations that are material to and enforceable against the issuer, or rights that are material to the issuer and enforceable by the issuer against one or more other parties to the agreement, in each case whether or not subject to conditions.
(c) File any material definitive agreement disclosed pursuant to this item as an exhibit to the report on this Form.
(a) If a receiver, fiscal agent or similar officer has been appointed for an issuer or its parent, in a proceeding under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code or in any other proceeding under state, federal, or Canadian laws, in which a court or governmental authority has assumed jurisdiction over substantially all of the assets or business of the issuer or its parent, or if such jurisdiction has been assumed by leaving the existing directors and officers in possession but subject to the supervision and orders of a court or governmental authority, disclose the following information:
(1) the name or other identification of the proceeding;
(2) the identity of the court or governmental authority;
(3) the date that jurisdiction was assumed; and
(4) the identity of the receiver, fiscal agent or similar officer and the date of his or her appointment.
(b) If an order confirming a plan of reorganization, arrangement or liquidation has been entered by a court or governmental authority having supervision or jurisdiction over substantially all of the assets or business of the issuer or its parent, disclose the following:
(1) the identity of the court or governmental authority;
(2) the date that the order confirming the plan was entered by the court or governmental authority;
(3) a summary of the material features of the plan;
(4) the number of shares or other units of the issuer or its parent issued and outstanding, the number reserved for future issuance in respect of claims and interests filed and allowed under the plan, and the aggregate total of such numbers; and
(5) information as to the assets and liabilities of the issuer or its parent as of the date that the order confirming the plan was entered, or a date as close thereto as practicable.
(a) If the constituent instruments defining the rights of the holders of any class of securities of the issuer that were issued pursuant to Regulation A have been materially modified, disclose the date of the modification, the title of the class of securities involved and briefly describe the general effect of such modification upon the rights of holders of such securities.
(b) If the rights or benefits evidenced by any class of securities issued pursuant to Regulation A have been materially limited or qualified by the issuance or modification of any other class of securities by the issuer, briefly disclose the date of the issuance or modification, the general effect of the issuance or modification of such other class of securities upon the rights or benefits of the holders of the securities issued pursuant to Regulation A.
(a) If an independent accountant who was previously engaged as the principal accountant to audit the issuer's financial statements, or an independent accountant upon whom the principal accountant expressed reliance in its report regarding a significant subsidiary, resigns (or indicates that it declines to stand for re-appointment after completion of the current audit) or is dismissed, disclose the information that would be required under Item 304(a)(1) of Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.304(a)(1)), including compliance with Item 304(a)(3) of Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.304(a)(3)) if the issuer were a “registrant.”
(b) If a new independent accountant has been engaged as either the principal accountant to audit the issuer's financial statements or as an independent accountant on whom the principal accountant is expected to express reliance in its report regarding a significant subsidiary, the issuer must disclose the information that would be required by Item 304(a)(2) of Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.304(a)(2)) if the issuer were a “registrant.”
(a) If the issuer's board of directors, a committee of the board of directors or the officer or officers of the issuer authorized to take such action if board action is not required, concludes that any previously issued financial
(1) the date of the conclusion regarding the non-reliance and an identification of the financial statements and years or periods covered that should no longer be relied upon;
(2) a brief description of the facts underlying the conclusion to the extent known to the issuer at the time of filing; and
(3) a statement of whether the audit committee, or the board of directors in the absence of an audit committee, or authorized officer or officers, discussed with the issuer's independent accountant the matters disclosed in the filing pursuant to this paragraph (a).
(b) If the issuer is advised by, or receives notice from, its independent accountant that disclosure should be made or action should be taken to prevent future reliance on a previously issued audit report or completed interim review related to previously issued financial statements, disclose the following information:
(1) the date on which the issuer was so advised or notified;
(2) identification of the financial statements that should no longer be relied upon;
(3) a brief description of the information provided by the accountant; and
(4) a statement of whether the audit committee, or the board of directors in the absence of an audit committee, or authorized officer or officers, discussed with the independent accountant the matters disclosed in the filing pursuant to paragraph (b) of this item.
(c) If the issuer receives advisement or notice from its independent accountant requiring disclosure under paragraph (b) of this item, the issuer must:
(1) provide the independent accountant with a copy of the disclosures the issuer is making in response to this item and the independent accountant shall receive a copy no later than the day that the disclosures are filed with the Commission;
(2) request the independent accountant to furnish to the issuer as promptly as possible a letter addressed to the Commission stating whether the independent accountant agrees with the statements made by the issuer in response to this item and, if not, stating the respects in which it does not agree; and
(3) amend the issuer's previously filed Form 1-U by filing the independent accountant's letter as an exhibit to the filed Form 1-U no later than two business days after the issuer's receipt of the letter.
(a) If, to the knowledge of the issuer's board of directors, a committee of the board of directors, governing body similar to a board of directors, or authorized officer or officers of the issuer, a change in control of the issuer has occurred, furnish the following information:
(1) the identity of the persons who acquired such control;
(2) the date and a description of the transactions which resulted in the change in control;
(3) the basis of the control, including the percentage of voting securities of the issuer now beneficially owned directly or indirectly by the persons who acquired control;
(4) the amount of the consideration used by such persons;
(5) the sources of funds used by the persons, unless all or any part of the consideration used is a loan made in the ordinary course of business by a bank as defined by Section 3(a)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
(6) the identity of the persons from whom control was assumed; and
(7) any arrangements or understandings among members of both the former and new control groups and their associates with respect to election of directors or other matters.
(b) Describe any arrangements, known to the issuer, including any pledge by any person of securities of the issuer or any of its parents, the operation of which may at a subsequent date result in a change in control of the issuer. It is not necessary to describe ordinary default provisions contained in the charter, trust indentures, or other governing instruments relating to securities of the issuer in response to this paragraph.
If the issuer's principal executive officer, principal financial officer, principal accounting officer, or any person performing similar functions, retires, resigns or is terminated from that position, disclose the fact that the event has occurred and the date of the event.
(a) If the issuer sells equity securities in a transaction that is not registered under the Securities Act or qualified under Regulation A, furnish the information set forth in Item 6 of Part I of Form 1-A. For purposes of determining the required filing date for the Form 1-U under this item, the issuer has no obligation to disclose information under this item until the issuer enters into an agreement enforceable against the issuer, whether or not subject to conditions, under which the equity securities are to be sold. If there is no such agreement, the issuer must provide the disclosure within four business days after the occurrence of the closing or settlement of the transaction or arrangement under which the equity securities are to be sold.
(b) No report need be filed if the equity securities sold, in the aggregate since its last report filed under this item or its last periodic report containing such disclosure, whichever is more recent, constitute less than 10% of the number of shares outstanding of the class of equity securities sold.
The issuer may, at its option, disclose under this item any events or information, the disclosure of which is not otherwise called for by this Form, that the issuer deems of importance to securityholders.
Pursuant to the requirements of Regulation A, the issuer has duly caused this report to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, thereunto duly authorized.
The text of Form 1-U will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
This form shall be used to file an exit report under Regulation A (§§ 230.251-230.263 of this chapter).
(1) The following information must be provided in the XML-based Form 1-Z available through the EDGAR portal. The format shown below may differ from the electronic version available on EDGAR.
(2) An issuer filing this Form pursuant to Rule 257(a) must only complete the Preliminary Information and Part I.
(3) An issuer filing this Form to suspend its duty to file reports under Rule 257(d) must complete the Preliminary Information and Part II. Such issuer must also provide Part I if it has not previously provided the Part I information in a Form 1-K filing.
Fees in connection with this offering and names of service providers:
The text of Form 1-Z will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77d, 77g, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77eee, 77ggg, 77nnn, 77sss, 77ttt, 78c, 78c-3, 78c-5, 78d, 78e, 78f, 78g, 78i, 78j, 78j-1, 78k, 78k-1, 78
(a) * * *
(7) Other than when determining compliance with Rule 257(d)(2) of Regulation A (§ 230.257(d)(2) of this chapter), the definition of “held of record” shall not include securities issued in a Tier 2 offering pursuant to Regulation A by an issuer that:
(i) Is required to file reports pursuant to Rule 257(b) of Regulation A (§ 230.257(b) of this chapter);
(ii) Is current in filing annual, semiannual and special financial reports pursuant to such rule as of its most recently completed fiscal year end;
(iii) Has engaged a transfer agent registered pursuant to Section 17A(c) of the Act to perform the function of a transfer agent with respect to such securities; and
(iv) Had a public float of less than $75 million as of the last business day of its most recently completed semiannual period, computed by multiplying the aggregate worldwide number of shares of its common equity securities held by non-affiliates by the price at which such securities were last sold (or the average
(a) * * *
(3) A copy of the issuer's most recent annual report filed pursuant to section 13 or 15(d) of the Act or pursuant to Regulation A ((§§ 230.251 through 230.263 of this chapter), or a copy of the annual statement referred to in section 12(g)(2)(G)(i) of the Act in the case of an issuer required to file reports pursuant to section 13 or 15(d) of the Act or an issuer of a security covered by section 12(g)(2)(B) or (G) of the Act, together with any semiannual, quarterly and current reports that have been filed under the provisions of the Act or Regulation A by the issuer after such annual report or annual statement;
(d) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) A broker-dealer shall be in compliance with the requirement to obtain current reports filed by the issuer if the broker-dealer obtains all current reports filed with the Commission by the issuer as of a date up to five business days in advance of the earlier of the date of submission of the quotation to the quotation medium and the date of submission of the information in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to the applicable rule of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. or its successor organization; and
15 U.S.C. 78a
The revision and addition read as follows:
(a) Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, this form may be used for registration pursuant to section 12(b) or (g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 of any class of securities of any issuer which:
(1) Is required to file reports pursuant to sections 13 and 15(d) of that Act;
(2) Is concurrently qualifying a Tier 2 offering statement relating to that class of securities using the Form S-1 or Form S-11 disclosure models; or
(3) Pursuant to an order exempting the exchange on which the issuer has securities listed from registration as a national securities exchange.
(e) Notwithstanding the foregoing in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, if the form is used for registration of a class of securities being offered under Regulation A, it shall become effective:
(1) For the registration of a class of securities under Section 12(b), upon the latest of the filing of the form with the Commission, the qualification of the Regulation A offering statement or the receipt by the Commission of certification from the national securities exchange listed on the form; or
(2) For the registration of a class of securities under Section 12(g), upon the later of the filing of the form and qualification of that Regulation A offering statement.
(a) Subject to paragraph (b) below, this form may be used for registration pursuant to Section 12(b) or (g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 of any class of securities of any issuer which is (1) required to file reports pursuant to Section 13 or 15(d) of that Act, (2) is concurrently qualifying a Tier 2 offering statement relating to that class of securities using the Form S-1 or Form S-11 disclosure models that includes financial statements that are audited in accordance with the standards of, and by an accounting firm that is registered with, the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (United States), or (3) pursuant to an order exempting the exchange on which the issuer has securities listed from registration as a national securities exchange.
(b) If the registrant would be required to file an annual report pursuant to Section 15(d) of the Act for its last fiscal year, except for the fact that the registration statement on this form will become effective before such report is required to be filed, an annual report for such fiscal year shall nevertheless be filed within the period specified in the appropriate annual report form.
(c) If this form is used for the registration of a class of securities under Section 12(b), it shall become effective:
(1) If a class of securities is not concurrently being registered under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
(2) If a class of securities is concurrently being registered under the Securities Act, upon the latest of the filing of the Form 8-A with the Commission, receipt by the Commission of certification from the national securities exchange listed on this form or effectiveness of the Securities Act registration statement relating to the class of securities.
(d) If this form is used for the registration of a class of securities under Section 12(g), it shall become effective:
(1) If a class of securities is not concurrently being registered under the Securities Act, upon the filing of the Form 8-A with the Commission; or
(2) If class of securities is concurrently being registered under the Securities Act, upon the later of the filing of the Form 8-A with the Commission or the effectiveness of the Securities Act registration statement relating to the class of securities.
(e) Notwithstanding the foregoing in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this form, if this form is used for registration of a class of securities being offered under Regulation A, it shall become effective:
(1) For the registration of a class of securities under Section 12(b), upon the latest of the filing of the Form 8-A with the Commission, the qualification of the Regulation A offering statement or the receipt by the Commission of certification from the national securities exchange listed on this form; or
(2) For the registration of a class of securities under Section 12(g), upon the later of the filing of the Form 8-A and qualification of the Regulation A offering statement.
(Note: Registration pursuant to paragraph (e) of this form is not permitted if the filing of the Form 8-A and, where applicable, the receipt by the Commission of certification from the national securities exchange listed on this form occurs more than five calendar days after the qualification of the Regulation A offering statement)
(a) The General Rules and Regulations under the Act contain certain general requirements which are applicable to registration on any form. These general requirements should be carefully read and observed in the preparation and filing of registration statements on this form.
(b) Particular attention is directed to Regulation 12B which contains general requirements regarding matters such as the kind and size of paper to be used, legibility, information to be given whenever the title of securities is required to be stated, incorporation by reference and the filing of the registration statement. The definitions contained in Rule 12b-2 should be especially noted.
This form is not to be used as a blank form to be filled in, but only as a guide in the preparation of the registration statement on paper meeting the requirements of Rule 12b-12. The registration statement shall contain the item numbers and captions, but the text of the items may be omitted. The answers to the items shall be prepared in the manner specified in Rule 12b-13.
Eight complete copies of the registration statement, including all papers and documents filed as a part thereof (other than exhibits) shall be filed with the Commission and at least one such copy shall be filed with each exchange on which the securities are to be registered. Exhibits shall be filed with the Commission and with any exchange in accordance with the Instructions as to Exhibits. At least one copy of the registration statement filed with the Commission and one filed with each exchange shall be manually signed. Unsigned copies shall be conformed.
(Exact name of registrant as specified in its charter)
(State or other jurisdiction of incorporation or organization)
(Address of principal executive offices)
(I.R.S. Employer Identification No.)
(Zip Code)
Securities to be registered pursuant to Section 12(b) of the Act:
If this form relates to the registration of a class of securities pursuant to Section 12(b) of the Exchange Act and is effective pursuant to General Instruction A.(c) or (e), check the following box. ☐
If this form relates to the registration of a class of securities pursuant to Section 12(g) of the Exchange Act and is effective pursuant to General Instruction A.(d) or (e), check the following box. ☐
If this form relates to the registration of a class of securities concurrently with a Regulation A offering, check the following box. ☐
Securities Act registration statement or Regulation A offering statement file number to which this form relates:____ (if applicable)
Securities to be registered pursuant to Section 12(g) of the Act:
(Title of class)
(Title of class)
Furnish the information required by Item 202 of Regulation S-K (§ 229.202 of this chapter), as applicable.
List below all exhibits filed as a part of the registration statement:
Pursuant to the requirements of Section l2 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, the registrant has duly caused this registration statement to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned, thereto duly authorized.
*Print the name and title of the signing officer under such officer's signature.
If the securities to be registered on this form are to be registered on an exchange on which other securities of the registrant are registered, or are to be registered pursuant to Section 12(g) of the Act, copies of all constituent instruments defining the rights of the holders of each class of such securities, including any contracts or other documents which limit or qualify the rights of such holders, shall be filed as exhibits with each copy of the registration statement filed with the Commission or with an exchange, subject to Rule 12b-32 regarding incorporation of exhibits by reference.
The text of Form 8-A will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77ddd, 77eee, 77ggg, 77nnn, 77sss, 78
The provisions of the Trust Indenture Act of 1939 shall not apply to any security that has been or will be issued otherwise than under an indenture. The same issuer may not claim this exemption within a period of twelve consecutive months for more than $50,000,000 aggregate principal amount of any securities.
By the Commission.
Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department of Labor.
Notice of proposed rulemaking and withdrawal of previous proposed rule.
This document contains a proposed regulation defining who is a “fiduciary” of an employee benefit plan under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) as a result of giving investment advice to a plan or its participants or beneficiaries. The proposal also applies to the definition of a “fiduciary” of a plan (including an individual retirement account (IRA)) under section 4975 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (Code). If adopted, the proposal would treat persons who provide investment advice or recommendations to an employee benefit plan, plan fiduciary, plan participant or beneficiary, IRA, or IRA owner as fiduciaries under ERISA and the Code in a wider array of advice relationships than the existing ERISA and Code regulations, which would be replaced. The proposed rule, and related exemptions, would increase consumer protection for plan sponsors, fiduciaries, participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners. This document also withdraws a prior proposed regulation published in 2010 (2010 Proposal) concerning this same subject matter. In connection with this proposal, elsewhere in this issue of the
As of April 20, 2015, the proposed rule published October 22, 2010 (75 FR 65263) is withdrawn. Submit written comments on the proposed regulation on or before July 6, 2015.
To facilitate the receipt and processing of written comment letters on the proposed regulation, EBSA encourages interested persons to submit their comments electronically. You may submit comments, identified by RIN 1210-AB32, by any of the following methods:
For Questions Regarding the Proposed Rule: Contact Luisa Grillo-Chope or Fred Wong, Office of Regulations and Interpretations, Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), (202) 693-8825.
For Questions Regarding the Proposed Prohibited Transaction Exemptions: Contact Karen Lloyd, Office of Exemption Determinations, EBSA, 202-693-8824.
For Questions Regarding the Regulatory Impact Analysis: Contact G. Christopher Cosby, Office of Policy and Research, EBSA, 202-693-8425. (These are not toll-free numbers).
Under ERISA and the Code, a person is a fiduciary to a plan or IRA to the extent that he or she engages in specified plan activities, including rendering “investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan . . . ” ERISA safeguards plan participants by imposing trust law standards of care and undivided loyalty on plan fiduciaries, and by holding fiduciaries accountable when they breach those obligations. In addition, fiduciaries to plans and IRAs are not permitted to engage in “prohibited transactions,” which pose special dangers to the security of retirement, health, and other benefit plans because of fiduciaries' conflicts of interest with respect to the transactions. Under this regulatory structure, fiduciary status and responsibilities are central to protecting the public interest in the integrity of retirement and other important benefits, many of which are tax-favored.
In 1975, the Department issued regulations that significantly narrowed the breadth of the statutory definition of fiduciary investment advice by creating a five-part test that must, in each instance, be satisfied before a person can be treated as a fiduciary adviser. This regulatory definition applies to both ERISA and the Code. The Department created the test in a very different context, prior to the existence of participant-directed 401(k) plans, widespread investments in IRAs, and the now commonplace rollover of plan assets from fiduciary-protected plans to IRAs. Today, as a result of the five-part test, many investment professionals, consultants, and advisers
The Department has also sought to preserve beneficial business models for delivery of investment advice by separately proposing new exemptions from ERISA's prohibited transaction rules that would broadly permit firms to continue common fee and compensation practices, as long as they are willing to adhere to basic standards aimed at ensuring that their advice is in the best interest of their customers. Rather than create a highly prescriptive set of transaction-specific exemptions, the Department instead is proposing a set of exemptions that flexibly accommodate a wide range of current business practices, while minimizing the harmful impact of conflicts of interest on the quality of advice.
In particular, the Department is proposing a new exemption (the “Best Interest Contract Exemption”) that would provide conditional relief for common compensation, such as commissions and revenue sharing, that an adviser and the adviser's employing firm might receive in connection with investment advice to retail retirement investors.
This broad regulatory package aims to enable advisers and their firms to give advice that is in the best interest of their customers, without disrupting common compensation arrangements under conditions designed to ensure the adviser is acting in the best interest of the advice recipient. The proposed new exemptions and amendments to existing exemptions are published elsewhere in today's edition of the
The proposed rule clarifies and rationalizes the definition of fiduciary investment advice subject to specific carve-outs for particular types of communications that are best understood as non-fiduciary in nature. Under the definition, a person renders investment advice by (1) providing investment or investment management recommendations or appraisals to an employee benefit plan, a plan fiduciary, participant or beneficiary, or an IRA owner or fiduciary, and (2) either (a) acknowledging the fiduciary nature of the advice, or (b) acting pursuant to an agreement, arrangement, or understanding with the advice recipient that the advice is individualized to, or specifically directed to, the recipient for consideration in making investment or management decisions regarding plan assets. When such advice is provided for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, the person giving the advice is a fiduciary.
Although the new general definition of investment advice avoids the weaknesses of the current regulation, standing alone it could sweep in some relationships that are not appropriately regarded as fiduciary in nature and that the Department does not believe Congress intended to cover as fiduciary relationships. Accordingly, the proposed regulation includes a number of specific carve-outs to the general definition. For example, the regulation draws an important distinction between fiduciary investment advice and non-fiduciary investment or retirement education. Similarly, under the “seller's carve-out,”
Finally, in addition to the new proposal in this Notice, the Department is simultaneously proposing a new Best Interest Contract Exemption, revising other exemptions from the prohibited transaction rules of ERISA and the Code and is exploring through a request for comments the concept of an additional low-fee exemption.
When the Department promulgated the 1975 rule, 401(k) plans did not exist, IRAs had only just been authorized, and the majority of retirement plan assets were managed by professionals, rather than directed by individual investors. Today, individual retirement investors have much greater responsibility for directing their own investments, but they seldom have the training or specialized expertise necessary to prudently manage retirement assets on their own. As a result, they often depend on investment advice for guidance on how to manage their savings to achieve a secure retirement. In the current marketplace for retirement investment advice, however, advisers commonly have direct and substantial conflicts of interest, which encourage investment recommendations that generate higher fees for the advisers at the expense of their customers and often result in lower returns for customers even before fees.
A wide body of economic evidence supports a finding that the impact of these conflicts of interest on retirement investment outcomes is large and, from the perspective of advice recipients, negative. As detailed in the Department's Regulatory Impact Analysis (available at
The Department expects the proposal would deliver large gains for retirement investors. Because of data constraints, only some of these gains can be quantified with confidence. Focusing only on how load shares paid to brokers affect the size of loads paid by IRA investors holding load funds and the returns they achieve, the Department estimates the proposal would deliver to IRA investors gains of between $40 billion and $44 billion over 10 years and between $88 billion and $100 billion over 20 years. These estimates assume that the rule would eliminate (rather than just reduce) underperformance associated with the practice of incentivizing broker recommendations through variable front-end-load sharing; if the rule's effectiveness in this area is substantially below 100 percent, these estimates may overstate these particular gains to investors in the front-load mutual fund segment of the IRA market. The Department nonetheless believes that these gains alone would far exceed the proposal's compliance cost. For example, if only 75 percent of anticipated gains were realized, the quantified subset of such gains—specific to the front-load mutual fund segment of the IRA market—would amount to between $30 billion and $33 billion over 10 years. If only 50 percent were realized, this subset of expected gains would total between $20 billion and $22 billion over 10 years, or several times the proposal's estimated compliance cost of $2.4 billion to 5.7 billion over the same 10 years. These gain estimates also exclude additional potential gains to investors resulting from reducing or eliminating the effects of conflicts in financial products other than front-end-load mutual funds. The Department invites input that would make it possible to quantify the magnitude of the rule's effectiveness and of any additional, not-yet-quantified gains for investors.
These estimates account for only a fraction of potential conflicts, associated losses, and affected retirement assets. The total gains to IRA investors attributable to the rule may be much higher than these quantified gains alone for several reasons. The Department expects the proposal to yield large, additional gains for IRA investors, including potential reductions in excessive trading and associated transaction costs and timing errors (such as might be associated with return chasing), improvements in the performance of IRA investments other than front-load mutual funds, and improvements in the performance of defined contribution (DC) plan investments. As noted above, under current rules, adviser conflicts could cost IRA investors as much as $410 billion over 10 years and $1 trillion over 20 years, so the potential additional gains to IRA investors from this proposal could be very large.
The following accounting table summarizes the Department's conclusions:
OMB Circular A-4 requires the presentation of a social welfare accounting table that summarizes a regulation's benefits, costs and transfers (monetized, where possible). A summary of this type would differ from and expand upon Table I in several ways:
• In the language of social welfare economics as reflected in Circular A-4, investor gains comprise two parts: Social welfare “benefits” attributable to improvements in economic efficiency and “transfers” of welfare to retirement investors from the financial services industry. Due to limitations of the literature and other available evidence, the investor gains estimates presented in Table I have not been broken down into benefits and transfer components, but making the distinction between these categories of impacts is key for a social welfare accounting statement.
• The estimates in Table I reflect only a subset of the gains to investors resulting from the rule, but may overstate this subset. As noted in Table I, the Department's estimates of partial gains to investors reflect an assumption that the rule will eliminate, rather than just reduce, underperformance associated with the practice of incentivizing broker recommendations through variable front-end-load sharing. If, however, the rule's effectiveness is substantially below 100 percent, these estimates would overstate these partial gains to investors in the front-load mutual fund segment of the IRA market. The estimates in Table I also exclude additional potential gains to investors resulting from reducing or eliminating the effects of conflicts in financial products other than front-end-load mutual funds in the IRA market, and all potential gains to investors in the plan market. The Department invites input that would make it possible to quantify the magnitude of the rule's effectiveness and of any additional, not-yet-quantified gains for investors.
• Generally, the gains to investors consist of multiple parts: Transfers to IRA investors from advisers and others in the supply chain, benefits to the overall economy from a shift in the allocation of investment dollars to projects that have higher returns, and resource savings associated with, for example, reductions in excessive turnover and wasteful and unsuccessful efforts to outperform the market. Some of these gains are partially quantified in Table I. Also, the estimates in Table I assume the gains to investors arise gradually as the fraction of wealth invested based on conflicted investment advice slowly declines over time based on historical patterns of asset turnover. However, the estimates do not account for potential transition costs associated with a shift of investments to higher-performing vehicles. These transition costs have not been quantified due to lack of granularity in the literature or availability of other evidence on both the portion of investor gains that consists of resource savings, as opposed to transfers, and the amount of transitional cost that would be incurred per unit of resource savings.
• Other categories of costs not yet quantified include compliance costs incurred by mutual funds or other asset providers. Enforcement costs or other costs borne by the government are also not quantified.
The Department requests detailed comment, data, and analysis on all of the issues outlined above for incorporation into the social welfare analysis at the finalization stage of the rulemaking process.
For a detailed discussion of the gains to investors and compliance costs of the
The market for retirement advice has changed dramatically since the Department first promulgated the 1975 regulation. Individuals, rather than large employers and professional money managers, have become increasingly responsible for managing retirement assets as IRAs and participant-directed plans, such as 401(k) plans, have supplanted defined benefit pensions. At the same time, the variety and complexity of financial products have increased, widening the information gap between advisers and their clients. Plan fiduciaries, plan participants and IRA investors must often rely on experts for advice, but are unable to assess the quality of the expert's advice or effectively guard against the adviser's conflicts of interest. This challenge is especially true of small retail investors who typically do not have financial expertise and can ill-afford lower returns to their retirement savings caused by conflicts. As baby boomers retire, they are increasingly moving money from ERISA-covered plans, where their employer has both the incentive and the fiduciary duty to facilitate sound investment choices, to IRAs where both good and bad investment choices are myriad and advice that is conflicted is commonplace. Such “rollovers” will total more than $2 trillion over the next 5 years. These trends were not apparent when the Department promulgated the 1975 rule. At that time, 401(k) plans did not yet exist and IRAs had only just been authorized. These changes in the marketplace, as well as the Department's experience with the rule since 1975, support the Department's efforts to reevaluate and revise the rule through a public process of notice and comment rulemaking.
On October 22, 2010, the Department published a proposed rule in the
A number of commenters urged consideration of other means to attain the objectives of the 2010 Proposal and of additional analysis of the proposal's expected costs and benefits. In light of these comments and because of the significance of this rule, the Department decided to issue a new proposed regulation. On September 19, 2011 the Department announced that it would withdraw the 2010 Proposal and propose a new rule defining the term “fiduciary” for purposes of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA. This document fulfills that announcement in publishing both a new proposed regulation and withdrawing the 2010 Proposal. Consistent with the President's Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, extending the rulemaking process will give the public a full opportunity to evaluate and comment on the revised proposal and updated economic analysis. In addition, we are simultaneously publishing proposed new and amended exemptions from ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction rules designed to allow certain broker-dealers, insurance agents and others that act as investment advice fiduciaries to nevertheless continue to receive common forms of compensation that would otherwise be prohibited, subject to appropriate safeguards. The existing class exemptions will otherwise remain in place, affording flexibility to fiduciaries who currently use the exemptions or who wish to use the exemptions in the future. The proposed new regulatory package takes into account robust public comment and input and represents a substantial change from the 2010 Proposal, balancing long overdue consumer protections with flexibility for the industry in order to minimize disruptions to current business models.
In crafting the current regulatory package, the Department has benefitted from the views and perspectives expressed in public comments to the 2010 Proposal. For example, the Department has responded to concerns about the impact of the prohibited transaction rules on the marketplace for retail advice by proposing a broad package of exemptions that are intended to ensure that advisers and their firms make recommendations that are in the best interest of plan participants and IRA owners, without disrupting common fee arrangements. In response to commenters, the Department has also determined not to include, as fiduciary in nature, appraisals or valuations of employer securities provided to ESOPs or to certain collective investment funds holding assets of plan investors. On a more technical point, the Department also followed recommendations that it not automatically assign fiduciary status to investment advisers under the Advisers Act, but instead follow an entirely functional approach to fiduciary status. In light of public comments, the new proposal also makes a number of other changes to the regulatory proposal. For example, the Department has addressed concerns that it could be misread to extend fiduciary status to persons that prepare newsletters, television commentaries, or conference speeches that contain recommendations made to the general public. Similarly, the rule makes clear that fiduciary status does not extend to internal company personnel who give advice on behalf of their plan sponsor as part of their duties, but receive no compensation beyond their salary for the provision of advice. The Department is appreciative of the comments it received to the 2010 Proposal, and more fully discusses a number of the comments that influenced change in the sections that follow. In addition, the Department is eager to receive comments on the new proposal in general, and requests public comment on a number of specific aspects of the package as indicated below.
The following discussion summarizes the 2010 Proposal, describes some of the concerns and issues raised by commenters, and explains the new proposed regulation, which is published with this notice.
ERISA (or the “Act”) is a comprehensive statute designed to protect the interests of plan participants and beneficiaries, the integrity of employee benefit plans, and the security of retirement, health, and other critical benefits. The broad public interest in ERISA-covered plans is reflected in the Act's imposition of stringent fiduciary responsibilities on parties engaging in important plan activities, as well as in the tax-favored status of plan assets and investments. One of the chief ways in which ERISA protects employee benefit plans is by requiring that plan fiduciaries comply with fundamental obligations rooted in the law of trusts. In particular, plan fiduciaries must manage plan assets prudently and with undivided loyalty to the plans and their participants and beneficiaries.
The Code also protects individuals who save for retirement through tax-favored accounts that are not generally covered by ERISA, such as IRAs, through a more limited regulation of fiduciary conduct. Although ERISA's general fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty do not govern the fiduciaries of IRAs and other plans not covered by ERISA, these fiduciaries are subject to the prohibited transaction rules of the Code. In this context, however, the sole statutory sanction for engaging in the illegal transactions is the assessment of an excise tax enforced by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). Thus, unlike participants in plans covered by Title I of ERISA, IRA owners do not have a statutory right to bring suit against fiduciaries under ERISA for violation of the prohibited transaction rules and fiduciaries are not personally liable to IRA owners for the losses caused by their misconduct.
Under this statutory framework, the determination of who is a “fiduciary” is of central importance. Many of ERISA's and the Code's protections, duties, and liabilities hinge on fiduciary status. In relevant part, section 3(21)(A) of ERISA provides that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan to the extent he or she (i) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control with respect to management of such plan or exercises any authority or control with respect to management or disposition of its assets; (ii) renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan, or has any authority or responsibility to do so; or, (iii) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of such plan. Section 4975(e)(3) of the IRC identically defines “fiduciary” for purposes of the prohibited transaction rules set forth in Code section 4975.
The statutory definition contained in section 3(21)(A) deliberately casts a wide net in assigning fiduciary responsibility with respect to plan assets. Thus, “any authority or control” over plan assets is sufficient to confer fiduciary status, and any person who renders “investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect” is an investment advice fiduciary, regardless of whether they have direct control over the plan's assets, and regardless of their status as an investment adviser and/or broker under the federal securities laws. The statutory definition and associated fiduciary responsibilities were enacted to ensure that plans can depend on persons who provide investment advice for a fee to make recommendations that are prudent, loyal, and untainted by conflicts of interest. In the absence of fiduciary status, persons who provide investment advice would neither be subject to ERISA's fundamental fiduciary standards, nor accountable under ERISA or the Code for imprudent, disloyal, or tainted advice, no matter how egregious the misconduct or how substantial the losses. Plans, individual participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners often are not financial experts and consequently must rely on professional advice to make critical investment decisions. The statutory definition, prohibitions on conflicts of interest, and core fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty, all reflect Congress' recognition in 1974 of the fundamental importance of such advice to protect savers' retirement nest eggs. In the years since then, the significance of financial advice has become still greater with increased reliance on participant-directed plans and self-directed IRAs for the provision of retirement benefits.
In 1975, the Department issued a regulation, at 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c) defining the circumstances under which a person is treated as providing “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA (the “1975 regulation”), and the Department of the Treasury issued a virtually identical regulation under the Code.
As the marketplace for financial services has developed in the years since 1975, the five-part test may now undermine, rather than promote, the statutes' text and purposes. The narrowness of the 1975 regulation allows advisers, brokers, consultants and valuation firms to play a central role in shaping plan and IRA investments, without ensuring the accountability that Congress intended for persons having such influence and responsibility. Even when plan sponsors, participants, beneficiaries, and IRA owners clearly rely on paid advisers for impartial guidance, the regulation allows many advisers to avoid fiduciary status and disregard ERISA's fiduciary obligations of care and prohibitions on disloyal and conflicted transactions. As a consequence, these advisers can steer customers to investments based on their own self-interest (
Instead of ensuring that trusted advisers give prudent and unbiased advice in accordance with fiduciary norms, the current regulation erects a multi-part series of technical impediments to fiduciary responsibility. The Department is concerned that the specific elements of the five-part test—which are not found in the text of the Act or Code—now work to frustrate statutory goals and defeat advice recipients' legitimate expectations. In
One example of the five-part test's shortcomings is the requirement that advice be furnished on a “regular basis.” As a result of the requirement, if a small plan hires an investment professional or appraiser on a one-time basis for an investment recommendation or valuation opinion on a large, complex investment, the adviser has no fiduciary obligation to the plan under ERISA. Even if the plan is considering investing all or substantially all of the plan's assets, lacks the specialized expertise necessary to evaluate the complex transaction on its own, and the consultant fully understands the plan's dependence on his professional judgment, the consultant is not a fiduciary because he does not advise the plan on a “regular basis.” The plan could be investing hundreds of millions of dollars in plan assets, and it could be the most critical investment decision the plan ever makes, but the adviser would have no fiduciary responsibility under the 1975 regulation. While a consultant who regularly makes less significant investment recommendations to the plan would be a fiduciary if he satisfies the other four prongs of the regulatory test, the one-time consultant on an enormous transaction has no fiduciary responsibility.
In such cases, the “regular basis” requirement, which is not found in the text of ERISA or the Code, fails to draw a sensible line between fiduciary and non-fiduciary conduct, and undermines the law's protective purposes. A specific example is the one-time purchase of a group annuity to cover all of the benefits promised to substantially all of a plan's participants for the rest of their lives when a defined benefit plan terminates or a plan's expenditure of hundreds of millions of dollars on a single real estate transaction with the assistance of a financial adviser hired for purposes of that one transaction. Despite the clear importance of the decisions and the clear reliance on paid advisers, the advisers would not be plan fiduciaries. On a smaller scale that is still immensely important for the affected individual, the “regular basis” requirement also deprives individual participants and IRA owners of statutory protection when they seek specialized advice on a one-time basis, even if the advice concerns the investment of all or substantially all of the assets held in their account (
Under the five-part test, fiduciary status can also be defeated by arguing that the parties did not have a
Similarly, there appears to be a widespread belief among broker-dealers that they are not fiduciaries with respect to plans or IRAs because they do not hold themselves out as registered investment advisers, even though they often market their services as financial or retirement planners. The import of such disclaimers—and of the fine legal distinctions between brokers and registered investment advisers—is often completely lost on plan participants and IRA owners who receive investment advice. As shown in a study conducted by the RAND Institute for Civil Justice for the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), consumers often do not read the legal documents and do not understand the difference between brokers and registered investment advisers particularly when brokers adopt such titles as “financial adviser” and “financial manager.”
Even in the absence of boilerplate fine print disclaimers, however, it is far from evident how the “primary basis” element of the five-part test promotes the statutory text or purposes of ERISA and the Code. If, for example, a plan hires multiple specialized advisers for an especially complex transaction, it should be able to rely upon all of the consultants' advice, regardless of whether one could characterize any particular consultant's advice as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Presumably, paid consultants make recommendations—and retirement investors pay for them—with the hope or expectation that the recommendations could, in fact, be relied upon in making important decisions. When a plan, participant, beneficiary, or IRA owner directly or indirectly pays for advice upon which it can rely, there appears to be little statutory basis for drawing distinctions based on a subjective characterization of the advice as “primary,” “secondary,” or other.
In other respects, the current regulatory definition could also benefit from clarification. For example, a number of parties have argued that the regulation, as currently drafted, does not encompass advice as to the selection of money managers or mutual funds. Similarly, they have argued that the regulation does not cover advice given to the managers of pooled investment vehicles that hold plan assets contributed by many plans, as opposed to advice given to particular plans. Parties have even argued that advice was insufficiently “individualized” to fall within the scope of the regulation because the advice provider had failed to prudently consider the “particular needs of the plan,” notwithstanding the fact that both the advice provider and the plan agreed that individualized advice based on the plan's needs would be provided, and the adviser actually made specific investment recommendations to the plan. Although the Department disagrees with each of these interpretations of the current regulation, the arguments nevertheless suggest that clarifying regulatory text could be helpful.
Changes in the financial marketplace have enlarged the gap between the 1975 regulation's effect and the Congressional intent of the statutory definition. The greatest change is the predominance of individual account plans, many of which require participants to make investment decisions for their own accounts. In 1975, private-sector defined benefit pensions—mostly large, professionally managed funds—covered over 27 million active participants and held assets totaling almost $186 billion. This compared with just 11 million active participants in individual account defined contribution plans with assets of just $74 billion.
With this transformation, plan participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners have become major consumers of investment advice that is paid for directly or indirectly. By 2012, 97 percent of 401(k) participants were responsible for directing the investment of all or part of their own account, up from 86 percent as recently as 1999.
Many of the consultants and advisers who provide investment-related advice and recommendations receive compensation from the financial institutions whose investment products they recommend. This gives the consultants and advisers a strong bias, conscious or unconscious, to favor investments that provide them greater compensation rather than those that may be most appropriate for the participants. Unless they are fiduciaries, however, these consultants and advisers are free under ERISA and the Code, not only to receive such conflicted compensation, but also to act on their conflicts of interest to the detriment of their customers. In addition, plans, participants, beneficiaries, and IRA owners now have a much greater variety of investments to choose from, creating a greater need for expert advice. Consolidation of the financial services industry and innovations in compensation arrangements have multiplied the opportunities for self-dealing and reduced the transparency of fees.
The absence of adequate fiduciary protections and safeguards is especially problematic in light of the growth of participant-directed plans and self-directed IRAs; the gap in expertise and information between advisers and the customers who depend upon them for guidance; and the advisers' significant conflicts of interest.
When Congress enacted ERISA in 1974, it made a judgment that plan advisers should be subject to ERISA's fiduciary regime and that plan participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners should be protected from conflicted transactions by the prohibited transaction rules. More fundamentally, however, the statutory language was designed to cover a much broader category of persons who provide fiduciary investment advice based on their functions and to limit their ability to engage in self-dealing and other conflicts of interest than is currently reflected in the five-part test. While many advisers are committed to providing high-quality advice and always put their customers' best interests first, the 1975 regulation makes it far too easy for advisers in today's marketplace not to do so and to avoid fiduciary responsibility even when they clearly purport to give individualized advice and to act in the client's best interest, rather than their own.
In 2010, the Department proposed a new regulation that would have replaced the five-part test with a new definition of what counted as fiduciary investment advice for a fee. At that time, the Department did not propose any new prohibited transaction exemptions and acknowledged uncertainty regarding whether existing exemptions would be available, but specifically invited comments on whether new or amended exemptions should be proposed. The proposal also provided carve-outs for conduct that would not result in fiduciary status. The general definition included the following types of advice: (1) Appraisals or fairness opinions concerning the value of securities or other property; (2) recommendations as to the advisability of investing in, purchasing, holding or selling securities or other property; and (3) recommendations as to the management of securities or other property. Reflecting the Department's longstanding interpretation of the 1975 regulations, the 2010 Proposal made clear that investment advice under the proposal includes advice provided to plan participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners as well as to plan fiduciaries.
Under the 2010 Proposal, a paid adviser would have been treated as a fiduciary if the adviser provided one of the above types of advice and either: (1) Represented that he or she was acting as an ERISA fiduciary; (2) was already an ERISA fiduciary to the plan by virtue of having control over the management or disposition of plan assets, or by having discretionary authority over the administration of the plan; (3) was already an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (Advisers Act); or (4) provided the advice pursuant to an agreement or understanding that the advice may be considered in connection with plan investment or asset management decisions and would be individualized to the needs of the plan, plan participant or beneficiary, or IRA owner. The 2010 Proposal also provided that, for purposes of the fiduciary definition, relevant fees included any direct or indirect fees received by the adviser or an affiliate from any source. Direct fees are payments made by the advice recipient to the adviser including transaction-based fees, such as brokerage, mutual fund or insurance sales commissions. Indirect fees are payments to the adviser from any source other than the advice recipient such as revenue sharing payments from a mutual fund.
The 2010 Proposal included specific carve-outs for the following actions that the Department believed should not result in fiduciary status. In particular, a person would not have become a fiduciary by—
1. Providing recommendations as a seller or purchaser with interests adverse to the plan, its participants, or IRA owners, if the advice recipient reasonably should have known that the adviser was not providing impartial investment advice and the adviser had not acknowledged fiduciary status.
2. Providing investment education information and materials in connection with an individual account plan.
3. Marketing or making available a menu of investment alternatives that a plan fiduciary could choose from, and providing general financial information to assist in selecting and monitoring those investments, if these activities include a written disclosure that the adviser was not providing impartial investment advice.
4. Preparing reports necessary to comply with ERISA, the Code, or regulations or forms issued thereunder, unless the report valued assets that lack a generally recognized market, or served as a basis for making plan distributions.
In the preamble to the 2010 Proposal, the Department also noted that it had previously interpreted the 1975 regulation as providing that a recommendation to a plan participant on how to invest the proceeds of a contemplated plan distribution was not fiduciary investment advice. Advisory Opinion 2005-23A (Dec. 7, 2005). The Department specifically asked for comments as to whether the final rule should include such recommendations as fiduciary advice.
The 2010 Proposal prompted a large number of comments and a vigorous debate. As noted above, the Department made special efforts to encourage the regulated community's participation in this rulemaking. In addition to an extended comment period, the Department held a two-day public hearing. Additional time for comments was allowed following the hearing and publication of the hearing transcript on the Department's Web site and Department representatives held numerous meetings with interested parties. Many of the comments concerned the Department's conclusions regarding the likely economic impact of the proposal, if adopted. A number of commenters urged the Department to undertake additional analysis of expected costs and benefits particularly with regard to the 2010 Proposal's coverage of IRAs. After consideration of these comments and in light of the significance of this rulemaking to the retirement plan service provider industry, plan sponsors and participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners, the Department decided to take more time for review and to issue a new proposed regulation for comment.
The new proposed rule makes many revisions to the 2010 Proposal, although it also retains aspects of that proposal's essential framework. The new proposal broadly updates the definition of fiduciary investment advice, and also provides a series of carve-outs from the fiduciary investment advice definition for communications that should not be viewed as fiduciary in nature. The definition generally covers the following categories of advice: (1) Investment recommendations, (2) investment management recommendations, (3) appraisals of investments, or (4) recommendations of persons to provide investment advice for a fee or to manage plan assets. Persons who provide such advice fall within the general definition of a fiduciary if they either (a) represent that they are acting as a fiduciary under ERISA or the Code or (b) provide the advice pursuant to an agreement, arrangement, or understanding that the advice is individualized or specifically directed to the recipient for consideration in making investment or investment management decisions regarding plan assets.
The new proposal includes several carve-outs for persons who do not represent that they are acting as ERISA fiduciaries, some of which were included in some form in the 2010 Proposal but many of which were not. Subject to specified conditions, these carve-outs cover—
(1) Statements or recommendations made to a “large plan investor with financial expertise” by a counterparty acting in an arm's length transaction;
(2) offers or recommendations to plan fiduciaries of ERISA plans to enter into a swap or security-based swap that is regulated under the Securities Exchange Act or the Commodity Exchange Act;
(3) statements or recommendations provided to a plan fiduciary of an ERISA plan by an employee of the plan sponsor if the employee receives no fee beyond his or her normal compensation;
(4) marketing or making available a platform of investment alternatives to be selected by a plan fiduciary for an ERISA participant-directed individual account plan;
(5) the identification of investment alternatives that meet objective criteria specified by a plan fiduciary of an ERISA plan or the provision of objective financial data to such fiduciary;
(6) the provision of an appraisal, fairness opinion or a statement of value to an ESOP regarding employer securities, to a collective investment vehicle holding plan assets, or to a plan for meeting reporting and disclosure requirements; and
(7) information and materials that constitute “investment education” or “retirement education.”
The new proposal applies the same definition of “investment advice” to the definition of “fiduciary” in section 4975(e)(3) of the Code and thus applies to investment advice rendered to IRAs. “Plan” is defined in the new proposal to mean any employee benefit plan described in section 3(3) of the Act and any plan described in section 4975(e)(1)(A) of the Code. For ease of reference in this proposal, the term “IRA” has been inclusively defined to mean any account described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), such as a true individual retirement account described under Code section 408(a) and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
Many of the differences between the new proposal and the 2010 Proposal reflect the input of commenters on the 2010 Proposal as part of the public notice and comment process. For example, some commenters argued that the 2010 Proposal swept too broadly by making investment recommendations fiduciary in nature simply because the adviser was a plan fiduciary for purposes unconnected with the advice or an investment adviser under the Advisers Act. In their view, such status-based criteria were in tension with the Act's functional approach to fiduciary status and would have resulted in unwarranted and unintended compliance issues and costs. Other commenters objected to the lack of a requirement for these status-based categories that the advice be individualized to the needs of the advice recipient. The new proposal incorporates these suggestions: An adviser's status as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act or as an ERISA fiduciary for reasons unrelated to advice are no longer factors in the definition. In addition, unless the adviser represents that he or she is a fiduciary with respect to advice, the advice must be provided pursuant to an agreement, arrangement, or understanding that the advice is individualized or specifically directed to the recipient to be treated as fiduciary advice.
Furthermore, the carve-outs that treat certain conduct as non-fiduciary in nature have been modified, clarified, and expanded in response to comments. For example, the carve-out for certain valuations from the definition of fiduciary investment advice has been modified and expanded. Under the 2010 Proposal, appraisals and valuations for compliance with certain reporting and disclosure requirements were not treated as fiduciary advice. The new proposal additionally provides a carve-out from fiduciary treatment for appraisal and fairness opinions for ESOPs regarding employer securities. Although, the Department remains concerned about valuation advice concerning an ESOP's purchase of employer stock and about a plan's reliance on that advice, the Department has concluded that the concerns regarding valuations of closely held employer stock in ESOP transactions raise unique issues that are more
Many comments to the 2010 rulemaking emphasized the need to harmonize the Department's efforts with rulemaking activities under the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. Law No. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010), (Dodd-Frank Act), in particular, the Security and Exchange Commission's (SEC) standards of care for providing investment advice and the Commodity Futures Trading Commission's (CFTC) business conduct standards for swap dealers. While the 2010 Proposal discussed statutes over which the SEC and CFTC have jurisdiction, it did not specifically describe inter-agency coordination efforts. In addition, commenters questioned the adequacy of coordination with other agencies regarding IRA products and services. They argued that subjecting SEC-regulated investment advisers and broker-dealers to a special set of ERISA rules for plans and IRAs could lead to additional costs and complexities for individuals who may have several different types of accounts at the same financial institution some of which may be subject only to the SEC rules, and others of which may be subject to both SEC rules and new regulatory requirements under ERISA.
In the course of developing the new proposal and the related proposed prohibited transaction exemptions, the Department has consulted with staff of the SEC and other regulators on an ongoing basis regarding whether the proposals would subject investment advisers and broker-dealers who provide investment advice to requirements that create an undue compliance burden or conflict with their obligations under other federal laws. As part of this consultative process, SEC staff has provided technical assistance and information with respect to retail investors, the marketplace for investment advice and coordinating, to the extent possible, the agencies' separate regulatory provisions and responsibilities. As the Department moves forward with this project in accordance with the specific provisions of ERISA and the Code, it will continue to consult with staff of the SEC and other regulators on its proposals and their impact on retail investors and other regulatory regimes. One result of these discussions, particularly with staff of the CFTC and SEC, is the new provision at paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of the proposed regulations concerning counterparty transactions with swap dealers, major swap participants, security-based swap dealers, and major security-based swap participants. Under the terms of that paragraph, such persons would not be treated as ERISA fiduciaries merely because, when acting as counterparties to swap or security-based swap transactions, they give information and perform actions required for compliance with the requirements of the business conduct standards of the Dodd-Frank Act and its implementing regulations.
In pursuing these consultations, the Department has aimed to coordinate and minimize conflicting or duplicative provisions between ERISA, the Code and federal securities laws, to the extent possible. However, the governing statutes do not permit the Department to make the obligations of fiduciary investment advisers under ERISA and the Code identical to the duties of advice providers under the securities laws. ERISA and the Code establish consumer protections for some investment advice that does not fall within the ambit of federal securities laws, and vice versa. Even if each of the relevant agencies were to adopt an identical definition of “fiduciary”, the legal consequences of the fiduciary designation would vary between agencies because of differences in the specific duties and remedies established by the different federal laws at issue. ERISA and the Code place special emphasis on the elimination or mitigation of conflicts of interest and adherence to substantive standards of conduct, as reflected in the prohibited transaction rules and ERISA's standards of fiduciary conduct. The specific duties imposed on fiduciaries by ERISA and the Code stem from legislative judgments on the best way to protect the public interest in tax-preferred benefit arrangements that are critical to workers' financial and physical health. The Department has taken great care to honor ERISA and the Code's specific text and purposes.
At the same time, the Department has worked hard to understand the impact of the proposed rule on firms subject to the securities laws and other federal laws, and to take the effects of those laws into account so as to appropriately calibrate the impact of the rule on those firms. The proposed regulation reflects these efforts. In the Department's view, it neither undermines, nor contradicts, the provisions or purposes of the securities laws, but instead works in harmony with them. The Department has coordinated—and will continue to coordinate—its efforts with other federal agencies to ensure that the various legal regimes are harmonized to the fullest extent possible.
The Department has also consulted with the Department of the Treasury and the IRS, particularly on the subject of IRAs. Although the Department has responsibility for issuing regulations and prohibited transaction exemptions under section 4975 of the Code, which applies to IRAs, the IRS maintains general responsibility for enforcing the tax laws. The IRS' responsibilities extend to the imposition of excise taxes on fiduciaries who participate in prohibited transactions.
When the Department announced that it would issue a new proposal, it stated that it would consider proposing new and/or amended prohibited transaction exemptions to address the concerns of commenters about the broader scope of the fiduciary definition and its impact on the fee practices of brokers and other advisers. Commenters had expressed concern about whether longstanding exemptions granted by the Department allowing advisers, despite their fiduciary status under ERISA, to receive commissions in connection with mutual funds, securities and insurance products would remain applicable under the new rule. As explained more fully below, the Department is simultaneously publishing in the notice section of today's
The terms of these new exemptions are discussed in more detail below and in the preambles to the proposed
Accordingly, the Best Interest Contract Exemption provides:
Investment advice is in the “Best Interest” of the Retirement Investor when the Adviser and Financial Institution providing the advice act with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances and needs of the Retirement Investor, without regard to the financial or other interests of the Adviser, Financial Institution, any Affiliate, Related Entity, or other party.
This “best interest” standard is not intended to add to or expand the ERISA section 404 standards of prudence and loyalty as they apply to the provision of investment advice to ERISA covered plans. Advisers to ERISA-covered plans are already required to adhere to the fundamental standards of prudence and loyalty, and can be held accountable for violations of the standards. Rather, the primary impact of the “best interest” standard is on the IRA market. Under the Code, advisers to IRAs are subject only to the prohibited transaction rules. Incorporating the best interest standard in the proposed Best Interest Contract Exemption effectively requires advisers to comply with these basic fiduciary standards as a condition of engaging in transactions that would otherwise be prohibited because of the conflicts of interest they create. Additionally, the exemption ensures that IRA owners and investors have a contract-based claim to hold their fiduciary advisers accountable if they violate these basic obligations of prudence and loyalty. As under current law, no private right of action under ERISA is available to IRA owners.
The new proposal would amend the definition of investment advice in 29 CFR 2510.3-21 (1975) of the regulation to replace the restrictive five-part test with a new definition that better comports with the statutory language in ERISA and the Code.
Paragraph (a)(1) of the proposal sets forth the following types of advice, which, when provided in exchange for a fee or other compensation, whether directly or indirectly, and given under circumstances described in paragraph (a)(2), would be “investment advice” unless one of the carve-outs in paragraph (b) applies. The listed types of advice are—
(i) A recommendation as to the advisability of acquiring, holding, disposing of or exchanging securities or other property, including a recommendation to take a distribution of benefits or a recommendation as to the investment of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(ii) A recommendation as to the management of securities or other property, including recommendations as to the management of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(iii) An appraisal, fairness opinion, or similar statement whether verbal or written concerning the value of securities or other property if provided in connection with a specific transaction or transactions involving the acquisition, disposition, or exchange, of such securities or other property by the plan or IRA; or
(iv) A recommendation of a person who is also going to receive a fee or other compensation to provide any of the types of advice described in paragraphs (i) through (iii) above.
Except for the prong of the definition concerning appraisals and valuations discussed below, the proposal is structured so that communications must constitute a “recommendation” to fall within the scope of fiduciary investment advice. In that regard, as stated earlier in Section III concerning coordination with other Federal Agencies, the Department has consulted with staff of other agencies with rulemaking authority over investment advisers and broker-dealers. FINRA Policy Statement 01-23 sets forth guidelines to assist brokers in evaluating whether a particular communication could be viewed as a recommendation, thereby triggering application of FINRA's Rule 2111 that requires that a firm or associated person have a reasonable basis to believe that a recommended transaction or investment strategy involving a security or securities is suitable for the customer.
For instance, a communication's content, context and presentation are important aspects of the inquiry. The determination of whether a “recommendation” has been made, moreover, is an objective rather than subjective inquiry. An important factor in this regard is whether—given its content, context and manner of presentation—a particular communication from a firm or associated person to a customer reasonably would be viewed as a suggestion that the customer take action or refrain from taking action regarding a security or investment strategy. In addition, the more individually tailored the communication is to a particular customer or customers about a specific security or investment strategy, the more likely the communication will be viewed as a recommendation. Furthermore, a series of actions that may not constitute recommendations when viewed individually may amount to a recommendation when considered in the aggregate. It also makes no difference whether the communication was initiated by a person or a computer software program. These guiding principles, together with numerous litigated decisions and the facts and circumstances of any particular case, inform the determination of whether the communication is a recommendation for purposes of FINRA's suitability rule.
Additionally, as paragraph (d) of the proposal makes clear, the regulation does not treat the mere execution of a securities transaction at the direction of
Paragraph (a)(1)(i) specifically includes recommendations concerning the investment of securities to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA. Noting the Department's position in Advisory Opinion 2005-23A that it is not fiduciary advice to make a recommendation as to distribution options even if that is accompanied by a recommendation as to where the distribution would be invested, (Dec. 7, 2005), the 2010 Proposal did not include this type of advice, but the Department requested comments on whether it should be included in a final regulation. Some commenters stated that exclusion of this advice from the final rule would fail to protect participant accounts from conflicted advice in connection with one of the most significant financial decisions that participants make concerning retirement savings. Other commenters argued that including this advice would give rise to prohibited transactions that could disrupt the routine process that occurs when a worker leaves a job, contacts a financial services firm for help rolling over a 401(k) balance, and the firm explains the investments it offers and the benefits of a rollover.
The proposed regulation, if finalized, would supersede Advisory Opinion 2005-23A. Thus, recommendations to take distributions (and thereby withdraw assets from existing plan or IRA investments or roll over into a plan or IRA) or to entrust plan or IRA assets to particular money managers, advisers, or investments would fall within the scope of covered advice. However, as the proposal's text makes clear, one does not act as a fiduciary merely by providing participants with information about plan or IRA distribution options, including the consequences associated with the available types of benefit distributions. In this regard, the new proposal draws an important distinction between fiduciary investment advice and non-fiduciary investment information and educational materials. The Department believes that the proposal's treatment of such non-fiduciary educational and informational materials adequately covers the common types of distribution-related information that participants find useful, including information relating to annuitizations and other forms of lifetime income payment options, but welcomes input on other types of information that would help clarify the line between advice and education in this context.
The preamble to the 2010 Proposal stated that the “management of securities or other property” would include advice and recommendations as to the exercise of rights appurtenant to shares of stock (
We received comments on the 2010 proposal seeking some clarification regarding its application to certain practices. In this regard, it is the Department's view that guidelines or other information on voting policies for proxies that are provided to a broad class of investors without regard to a client's individual interests or investment policy, and which are not directed or presented as a recommended policy for the plan or IRA to adopt, would not rise to the level of fiduciary investment advice under the proposal. Additionally, a recommendation addressed to all shareholders in a proxy statement would not result in fiduciary status on the part of the issuer of the statement or the person who distributes the proxy statement. These positions are clarified in the proposed regulation.
The new proposal, like the current regulation which includes “advice as to the value of securities or other property,” continues to cover certain appraisals and valuation reports. However, it is considerably more focused than the 2010 Proposal. Responding to comments, the proposal in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) covers only appraisals, fairness opinions, or similar statements that relate to a particular transaction. The Department also expanded the 2010 Proposal's carve-out for general reports or statements of value provided to satisfy required reporting and disclosure rules under ERISA or the Code. The carve-out in the 2010 proposal covered general reports or statements of value that merely reflected the value of an investment of a plan or a participant or beneficiary, and provided for purposes of compliance with the reporting and disclosure requirements of ERISA, the Code, and the regulations, forms and schedules issued thereunder, unless the reports involved assets for which there was not a generally recognized market and served as a basis on which a plan could make distributions to plan participants and beneficiaries. The carve-out was broadened in this proposal to includes valuations provided solely for purposes of compliance with the reporting and disclosure provisions under the Act, the Code, and the regulations, forms and schedules issued thereunder, or any applicable reporting or disclosure requirement under a Federal or state law, or rule or regulation or self-regulatory organization (
Some representatives of the appraisal industry submitted comments on the 2010 Proposal arguing that ERISA's fiduciary duty to act solely in the interest of the plan and its participants and beneficiaries is inconsistent with the duty of appraisers to provide objective, independent value determinations. The Department disagrees. A biased or inaccurate appraisal does not help a plan, a participant or a beneficiary make prudent investment decisions. Like other forms of investment advice, an appraisal is a tool for plan fiduciaries, participants, beneficiaries, and IRA owners to use in deciding what price to pay for assets and whether to accept or decline proposed transactions. An appraiser complies with his or her obligations as an appraiser—and as a loyal fiduciary—by giving plan fiduciaries or participants an impartial and accurate assessment of the value of an asset in accordance with appraisers' professional standard of care. Nothing in ERISA or this regulation should be read as compelling an appraiser to slant valuation opinions to reflect what the plan wishes the asset were worth rather than what it is really worth. As stated in the preamble to the 2010 Proposal, the Department would expect a fiduciary appraiser's determination of value to be unbiased, fair and objective and to be made in good faith based on a prudent investigation under the prevailing circumstances then known to the appraiser. In the Department's view, these fiduciary standards are fully consistent with professional standards, such as the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP).
The proposal would treat recommendations on the selection of investment managers or advisers as fiduciary investment advice. In the Department's view, the current regulation already covers such advice. The proposal simply revises the regulation's text to remove any possible ambiguity. The Department believes that such advice should be treated as fiduciary in nature if provided under the circumstances in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) and for direct or indirect compensation. Covered advice would include recommendations of persons to perform asset management services or to make investment recommendations. Advice as to the identity of the person entrusted with investment authority over retirement assets is often critical to the proper management and investment of those assets. On the other hand, general advice as to the types of qualitative and quantitative criteria to consider in hiring an investment manager would not rise to the level of a recommendation of a person to manage plan investments nor would a trade journal's endorsement of an investment manager. Similarly, the proposed regulation would not cover recommendations of administrative service providers, property managers, or other service providers who do not provide investment services.
As provided in paragraph (a)(2) of the proposal, unless a carve-out applies, a category of advice listed in the proposal would constitute “investment advice” if the person providing the advice, either directly or indirectly (
(i) Represents or acknowledges that it is acting as a fiduciary within the meaning of the Act or Code with respect to the advice described in paragraph (a)(1); or
(ii) Renders the advice pursuant to a written or verbal agreement, arrangement or understanding that the advice is individualized to, or that such advice is specifically directed to, the advice recipient for consideration in making investment or management decisions with respect to securities or other property of the plan or IRA.
Under paragraph (a)(2)(i), advisers who claim fiduciary status under ERISA or the Code in providing advice would be taken at their word. They may not later argue that the advice was not fiduciary in nature. Nor may they rely upon the carve-outs described in paragraph (b) on the scope of the definition of fiduciary investment advice.
The 2010 Proposal provided that investment recommendations provided by an investment adviser under the Advisers Act would, in the absence of a carve-out, automatically be treated as investment advice. In response to comments, the new proposal drops this provision. Thus, the proposal avoids making such persons fiduciaries based solely on their or an affiliate's status as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act. Instead, their fiduciary status would be determined by reference to the same functional test that applies to all persons under the regulation.
Paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of the proposal avoids treating recommendations made to the general public, or to no one in particular, as investment advice and thus addresses concerns that the general circulation of newsletters, television talk show commentary, or remarks in speeches and presentations at financial industry educational conferences would result in the person being treated as a fiduciary. This paragraph requires an agreement, arrangement, or understanding that advice is directed to, a specific recipient for consideration in making investment decisions. The parties need not have a meeting of the minds on the extent to which the advice recipient will actually rely on the advice, but they must agree or understand that the advice is individualized or specifically directed to the particular advice recipient for consideration in making investment decisions. In this respect, paragraph (a)(2)(ii) differs significantly from its counterpart in the 2010 Proposal. In particular, and in response to comments, the proposal does not require that advice be individualized to the needs of the plan, participant or beneficiary or IRA owner if the advice is specifically directed to such recipient. Under the proposal, advisers could not specifically direct investment recommendations to individual persons, but then deny fiduciary responsibility on the basis that they did not, in fact, consider the advice recipient's individual needs or intend that the recipient base investment decisions on their recommendations. Nor could they continue the practice of advertising advice or counseling that is one-on-one or that a reasonable person would believe would be tailored to their individual needs and then disclaim that the recommendations are fiduciary investment advice in boilerplate language in the advertisement or in the paperwork provided to the client.
Like the 2010 Proposal, and unlike the 1975 regulation, the new proposal does not require that advice be provided on a regular basis. Investment advice that meets the requirements of the proposal, even if provided only once, can be critical to important investment decisions. If the adviser received a direct or indirect fee in connection with its advice, the advice recipients should reasonably expect adherence to fiduciary standards on the same terms as other retirement investors who get
The Department recognizes that in many circumstances, plan fiduciaries, participants, beneficiaries, and IRA owners may receive recommendations or appraisals that, notwithstanding the general definition set forth in paragraph (a) of the proposal, should not be treated as fiduciary investment advice. Accordingly, paragraph (b) contains a number of specific carve-outs from the scope of the general definition. The carve-out at paragraph (b)(5) of the proposal concerning financial reports and valuations was discussed above in connection with appraisals. The carve-out in paragraph (b)(5)(iii) covers communications to a plan, a plan fiduciary, a plan participant or beneficiary, an IRA or IRA owner solely for purposes of compliance with the reporting and disclosure provisions under the Act, the Code, and the regulations, forms and schedules issued thereunder, or any applicable reporting or disclosure requirement under a Federal or state law, rule or regulation or self-regulatory organization rule or regulation. The carve-out in paragraph (b)(6) covers education. The other carve-outs are limited to communications with plans and plan fiduciaries and do not cover communications to participants, beneficiaries or IRA owners. These more limited carve-outs are described more fully below. In each instance, the proposed carve-outs are for communications that the Department believes Congress did not intend to cover as fiduciary “investment advice” and that parties would not ordinarily view as communications characterized by a relationship of trust or impartiality. None of the carve-outs apply where the adviser represents or acknowledges that it is acting as a fiduciary under ERISA with respect to the advice.
Paragraph (b)(1)(i) of the proposed regulation provides a carve-out from the general definition for incidental advice provided in connection with an arm's length sale, purchase, loan, or bilateral contract between an expert plan investor and the adviser. It also applies in connection with an offer to enter into such a transaction or when the person providing the advice is acting as a representative, such as an agent, for the plan's counterparty. This carve-out is subject to the following conditions.
First, the person must provide advice to an ERISA plan fiduciary who is independent of such person and who exercises authority or control respecting the management or disposition of the plan's assets, with respect to an arm's length sale, purchase, loan or bilateral contract between the plan and the counterparty, or with respect to a proposal to enter into such a sale, purchase, loan or bilateral contract.
Second, either of two alternative sets of conditions must be met. Under alternative one, prior to providing any recommendation with respect to the transaction, such person:
(1) Obtains a written representation from the plan fiduciary that he/she is a fiduciary who exercises authority or control with respect to the management or disposition of the employee benefit plan's assets (as described in section 3(21)(A)(i) of the Act), that the employee benefit plan has 100 or more participants covered under the plan, and that the fiduciary will not rely on the person to act in the best interests of the plan, to provide impartial investment advice, or to give advice in a fiduciary capacity;
(2) fairly informs the plan fiduciary of the existence and nature of the person's financial interests in the transaction;
(3) does not receive a fee or other compensation directly from the plan, or plan fiduciary, for the provision of investment advice in connection with the transaction (this does not preclude a person from receiving a fee or compensation for other services);
(4) knows or reasonably believes that the independent plan fiduciary has sufficient expertise to evaluate the transaction and to determine whether the transaction is prudent and in the best interest of the plan participants (such person may rely on written representations from the plan or the plan fiduciary to satisfy this condition).
The second alternative applies if the person knows or reasonably believes that the independent plan fiduciary has responsibility for managing at least $100 million in employee benefit plan assets (for purposes of this condition, when dealing with an individual employee benefit plan, a person may rely on the information on the most recent Form 5500 Annual Return/Report filed by the plan to determine the value of plan assets, and, in the case of an independent fiduciary acting as an asset manager for multiple employee benefit plans, a person may rely on representations from the independent plan fiduciary regarding the value of employee benefit plan assets under management). In that circumstance, the adviser need not obtain written representations from its counterparty to avail itself of the carve-out, but must fairly inform the independent plan fiduciary that the adviser is not undertaking to provide impartial investment advice, or to give advice in a fiduciary capacity; and cannot receive a fee or other compensation directly from the plan, or plan fiduciary, for the provision of investment advice in connection with the transaction. In that circumstance, the adviser must also reasonably believe that the independent plan fiduciary has sufficient expertise to prudently evaluate the transaction.
The overall purpose of this carve-out is to avoid imposing ERISA fiduciary obligations on sales pitches that are part of arm's length transactions where neither side assumes that the counterparty to the plan is acting as an impartial trusted adviser, but the seller is making representations about the value and benefits of proposed deals. Under appropriate circumstances, reflected in the conditions to this carve-out, these counterparties to the plan do not suggest that they are an impartial fiduciary and plans do not expect a relationship of undivided loyalty or trust. Both sides of such transactions understand that they are acting at arm's length, and neither party expects that recommendations will necessarily be based on the buyer's best interests. In such a sales transaction, the buyer understands that it is buying an investment product, not advice about whether it is a good product, from a seller who has opposing financial interests. The seller's invitation to buy the product is understood as a sales pitch, not a recommendation. Also, a representative for the plan's counterparty, such as a broker, in such a transaction, would be able to use the carve-out if the conditions are met.
Although the 2010 Proposal also had a carve-out for sellers and other counterparties, the carve-out in the new proposal is significantly different. The changes are designed to ensure that the carve-out appropriately distinguishes incidental advice as part of an arm's length transactions with no expectation of trust or acting in the customer's best interest, from those instances of advice where customers may be expecting unbiased investment advice that is in their best interest. For example, the seller's carve-out is unavailable to an adviser if the plan directly pays a fee for investment advice. If a plan expressly
Commenters on the 2010 Proposal differed on whether the carve-out should apply to transactions involving plan participants, beneficiaries or IRA owners. After carefully considering the issue and the public comments, the Department does not believe such a carve-out can or should be crafted to cover recommendations to retail investors, including small plans, IRA owners and plan participants and beneficiaries. As a rule, investment recommendations to such retail customers do not fit the “arm's length” characteristics that the seller's carve-out is designed to preserve. Recommendations to retail investors and small plan providers are routinely presented as advice, consulting, or financial planning services. In the securities markets, brokers' suitability obligations generally require a significant degree of individualization. Research has shown that disclaimers are ineffective in alerting retail investors to the potential costs imposed by conflicts of interest, or the fact that advice is not necessarily in their best interest, and may even exacerbate these costs.
Moreover, excluding retail investors from the seller's carve-out is consistent with recent congressional action, the Pension Protection Act of 2006 (PPA). Specifically, the PPA created a new statutory exemption that allows fiduciaries giving investment advice to individuals (pension plan participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners) to receive compensation from investment vehicles that they recommend in certain circumstances. 29 U.S.C. 1108(b)(14); 26 U.S.C. 4975(d)(17). Recognizing the risks presented when advisers receive fees from the investments they recommend to individuals, Congress placed important constraints on such advice arrangements that are calculated to limit the potential for abuse and self-dealing, including requirements for fee-leveling or the use of independently certified computer models. The Department has issued regulations implementing this provision at 29 CFR 2550.408g-1 and 408g-2. Including retail investors in the seller's carve-out would undermine the protections for retail investors that Congress required under this PPA provision.
Although the seller's carve-out may not be available in the retail market, the proposal is intended to ensure that small plan fiduciaries, plan participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners would be able to obtain essential information regarding important decisions they make regarding their investments without the providers of that information crossing the line into fiduciary status. Under the platform provider carve-out under paragraph (b)(3), platform providers (
Paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of the proposal specifically addresses advice and other communications by counterparties in connection with certain swap or security-based swap transactions under the Commodity Exchange Act or the Securities Exchange Act. This broad class of financial transactions is defined and regulated under amendments to the Commodity Exchange Act and the Securities Exchange Act by the Dodd-Frank Act. Section 4s(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s(h)), and section 15F of the Securities
In outline, paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of the proposal would allow swap dealers, security-based swap dealers, major swap participants and security-based major swap participants who make recommendations to plans to avoid becoming ERISA investment advice fiduciaries when acting as counterparties to a swap or security-based swap transaction. Under the swap carve out, if the person providing recommendations is a swap dealer or security-based swap dealer, it must not be acting as an adviser to the plan, within the meaning of the applicable business conduct standards regulations of the CFTC or the SEC. In addition, before providing any recommendations with respect to the transaction, the person providing recommendations must obtain a written representation from the independent plan fiduciary, that the fiduciary will not rely on recommendations provided by the person.
Under the Commodity Exchange Act, swap dealers or major swap participants that act as counterparties to ERISA plans, must have a reasonable basis to believe that the plans have independent representatives who are fiduciaries under ERISA. 7 U.S.C. 6s(h)(5). Similar requirements apply for security-based swap transactions. 15 U.S.C 78o-10(h)(4) and (5). The CFTC has issued a final rule to implement these requirements and the SEC has issued a proposed rule that would cover security-based swaps. 17 CFR 23.400 to 23.451 (2012).
Paragraph (b)(1)(ii) reflects the Department's coordination of its efforts with staff of the SEC and CFTC, and is intended to provide a clear road-map for swap counterparties to avoid ERISA fiduciary status in arm's length transactions with plans. The provision addresses commenters' concerns that the conduct required for compliance with the Dodd-Frank Act's business conduct standards could constitute fiduciary investment advice under ERISA even in connection with arm's length transactions with plans that are separately represented by independent fiduciaries who are not looking to their counterparties for disinterested advice. If that were the case, swaps and security-based swaps with plans would often constitute prohibited transactions under ERISA. Commenters also argued that their obligations under the business conduct standards could effectively preclude them from relying on the carve-out for counterparties in the 2010 Proposal. Although the Department does not agree that the carve-out in the 2010 Proposal would have been unavailable to plan's swap counterparty (see letter dated April 28, 2011, to CFTC Chairman Gary Gensler from EBSA's Assistant Secretary Phyllis Borzi), the separate proposed carve-out for swap and security-based swap transactions in the proposal should avoid any uncertainty.
The proposal at paragraph (b)(2) provides that employees of a plan sponsor of an ERISA plan would not be treated as investment advice fiduciaries with respect to advice they provide to the fiduciaries of the sponsor's plan as long as they receive no compensation for the advice beyond their normal compensation as employees of the plan sponsor. This carve-out from the scope of the fiduciary investment advice definition recognizes that internal employees, such as members of a company's human resources department, routinely develop reports and recommendations for investment committees and other named fiduciaries of the sponsors' plans, without acting as paid fiduciary advisers. The carve-out responds to and addresses the concerns of commenters who said that these personnel should not be treated as fiduciaries because their advice is largely incidental to their duties on behalf of the plan sponsor and they receive no compensation for these advice-related functions.
The carve-out at paragraph (b)(3) of the proposal is directed to service providers, such as recordkeepers and third party administrators, that offer a “platform” or selection of investment vehicles to participant-directed individual account plans under ERISA. Under the terms of the carve-out, the plan fiduciaries must choose the specific investment alternatives that will be made available to participants for investing their individual accounts. The carve-out merely makes clear that persons would not act as investment advice fiduciaries simply by marketing or making available such investment vehicles, without regard to the individualized needs of the plan or its participants and beneficiaries, as long as they disclose in writing that they are not undertaking to provide impartial investment advice or to give advice in a fiduciary capacity.
Similarly, a separate provision at paragraph (b)(4) carves out certain common activities that platform providers may carry out to assist plan fiduciaries in selecting and monitoring the investment alternatives that they make available to plan participants. Under paragraph (b)(4), merely identifying offered investment alternatives meeting objective criteria specified by the plan fiduciary or providing objective financial data regarding available alternatives to the plan fiduciary would not cause a platform provider to be a fiduciary investment adviser. These two carve-outs are clarifying modifications to the corresponding provisions of the 2010 Proposal. They address certain common practices that have developed with the growth of participant-directed individual account plans and recognize circumstances where the platform provider and the plan fiduciary clearly understand that the provider has financial or other relationships with the offered investments and is not purporting to provide impartial investment advice. It also accommodates the fact that platform providers often provide general financial information that falls short of constituting actual investment advice or recommendations, such as information on the historic performance of asset classes and of the investments available through the provider. The carve-outs also reflect the Department's agreement with commenters that a platform provider who merely identifies investment alternatives using objective third-party criteria (
While recognizing the utility of the provisions in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) for the effective and efficient operation of plans by plan sponsors, plan fiduciaries and plan service providers, the Department reiterates its longstanding view, recently codified in 29 CFR 2550.404a-5(f) and 2550.404c-1(d)(2)(iv) (2010), that a fiduciary is always responsible for prudently selecting and monitoring providers of services to the plan or designated
Several commenters also asked the Department to clarify that the platform provider carve-out is available in the 403(b) plan marketplace. In the Department's view, a 403(b) plan that is subject to Title I of ERISA would be an individual account plan within the meaning of ERISA section 3(34) of the Act for purposes of the proposed regulation, so the platform provider carve-out would be available with respect to such plans.
Other commenters asked that the platform provider provision be generally extended to apply to IRAs. In the IRA context, however, there typically is no separate independent “plan fiduciary” who interacts with the platform provider to protect the interests of the account owners. As a result, it is much more difficult to conclude that the transaction is truly arm's length or to draw a bright line between fiduciary and non-fiduciary communications on investment options. Consequently, the proposed regulation declines to extend application of this carve-out to IRAs and other non-ERISA plans. As the Department continues its work on this regulatory project, however, it requests specific comment as to the types of platforms and options that may be offered to IRA owners, how they may be similar to or different from platforms offered in connection with participant-directed individual account plans, and whether it would be appropriate for service providers not to be treated as fiduciaries under this carve-out when marketing such platforms to IRA owners. We also invite comments, alternatively, on whether the scope of this carve-out should be limited to large plans, similar to the scope of the “Seller's Carve-out” discussed above.
As a corollary to the proposal's restriction of the applicability of the platform provider carve-out to only ERISA plans, the selection and monitoring assistance carve-out is similarly not available in the IRA and other non-ERISA plans context. Commenters on the platform provider restriction are encouraged to offer their views on the effect of this restriction in the non-ERISA plan marketplace.
Paragraph (b)(6) of the proposed regulation is similar to a carve-out in the 2010 Proposal for the provision of investment education information and materials within the meaning of an earlier Interpretive Bulletin issued by the Department in 1996. 29 CFR 2509.96-1 (IB 96-1). Paragraph (b)(6) incorporates much of IB 96-1's operative text, but with the important exceptions explained below. Paragraph (b)(6) of the proposed regulation, if finalized, would supersede IB 96-1. Consistent with IB 96-1, paragraph (b)(6) makes clear that furnishing or making available the specified categories of information and materials to a plan, plan fiduciary, participant, beneficiary or IRA owner will not constitute the rendering of investment advice, irrespective of who provides the information (
Similar to IB 96-1, paragraph (b)(6) of the proposed regulation divides investment education information and materials into four general categories: (i) Plan information; (ii) general financial, investment and retirement information; (iii) asset allocation models; and (iv) interactive investment materials. The proposed regulation in paragraph (b)(6)(v) also adopts the provision from IB 96-1 stating that there may be other examples of information, materials and educational services which, if furnished, would not constitute investment advice or recommendations within the meaning of the proposed regulation and that no inference should be drawn regarding materials or information which are not specifically included in paragraph (b)(6)(i) through (iv).
Although paragraph (b)(6) incorporates most of the relevant text of IB 96-1, there are important changes. One change from IB 96-1 is that paragraph (b)(6) makes clear that the distinction between non-fiduciary education and fiduciary advice applies equally to information provided to plan fiduciaries as well as information provided to plan participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and that it applies equally to participant-directed plans and other plans. In addition, the provision applies without regard to whether the information is provided by a plan sponsor, fiduciary, or service provider.
Based on public input received in connection with its joint examination of lifetime income issues with the Department of the Treasury, the Department is persuaded that additional guidance may help improve retirement security by facilitating the provision of information and education relating to retirement needs that extend beyond a participant's or beneficiary's date of retirement. Accordingly, paragraph (b)(6) of the proposal includes specific language to make clear that the provision of certain general information that helps an individual assess and understand retirement income needs past retirement and associated risks (
As with any designation of a service provider to a plan, the designation of a person(s) to provide investment educational services or investment advice to plan participants and beneficiaries is an exercise of discretionary authority or control with respect to management of the plan; therefore, persons making the designation must act prudently and solely in the interest of the plan participants and beneficiaries, both in making the designation(s) and in continuing such designation(s). See ERISA sections 3(21)(A)(i) and 404(a), 29 U.S.C. 1002 (21)(A)(i) and 1104(a). In addition, the designation of an investment advisor to serve as a fiduciary may give rise to co-fiduciary liability if the person making and continuing such designation in doing so fails to act prudently and solely in the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries; or knowingly participates in, conceals or fails to make reasonable efforts to correct a known breach by the investment advisor. See ERISA section 405(a), 29 U.S.C. 1105(a). The Department notes, however, that, in the context of an ERISA section 404(c) plan, neither the designation of a person to provide education nor the designation of a fiduciary to provide investment advice to participants and beneficiaries would, in itself, give rise to fiduciary liability for loss, or with respect to any breach of part 4 of title I of ERISA, that is the direct and necessary result of a participant's or beneficiary's exercise of independent control. 29 CFR 2550.404c-1(d). The Department also notes that a plan sponsor or
Unlike the remainder of the IB, this text does not belong in the investment advice regulation. Also, the principles articulated in paragraph (e) are generally understood and accepted such that retaining the paragraph as a stand-alone IB does not appear necessary or appropriate.
As noted, another change is that the Department is not incorporating the provisions at paragraph (d)(3)(iii) and (4)(iv) of IB 96-1. Those provisions of IB 96-1 permit the use of asset allocation models that refer to specific investment products available under the plan or IRA, as long as those references to specific products are accompanied by a statement that other investment alternatives having similar risk and return characteristics may be available. Based on its experience with the IB 96-1 since publication, as well as views expressed by commenters to the 2010 Proposal, the Department now believes that, even when accompanied by a statement as to the availability of other investment alternatives, these types of specific asset allocations that identify specific investment alternatives function as tailored, individualized investment recommendations, and can effectively steer recipients to particular investments, but without adequate protections against potential abuse.
In particular, the Department agrees with those commenters to the 2010 Proposal who argued that cautionary disclosures to participants, beneficiaries, and IRA owners may have limited effectiveness in alerting them to the merit and wisdom of evaluating investment alternatives not used in the model. In practice, asset allocation models concerning hypothetical individuals, and interactive materials which arrive at specific investment products and plan alternatives, can be indistinguishable to the average retirement investor from individualized recommendations, regardless of caveats. Accordingly, paragraphs (b)(6)(iii) and (iv) relating to asset allocation models and interactive investment materials preclude the identification of specific investment alternatives available under the plan or IRA in order for the materials described in those paragraphs to be considered investment education. Thus, for example, we would not treat an asset allocation model as mere education if it called for a certain percentage of the investor's assets to be invested in large cap mutual funds, and accompanied that proposed allocation with the identity of a specific fund or provider. In that circumstance, the adviser has made a specific investment recommendation that should be treated as fiduciary advice and adhere to fiduciary standards. Further, materials that identify specific plan investment alternatives also appear to fall within the definition of “recommendation” in paragraph (f)(1) of the proposal, and could result in fiduciary status on the part of a provider if the other provisions of the proposal are met. The Department believes that effective and useful asset allocation education materials can be prepared and delivered to participants and IRA owners without including specific investment products and alternatives available under the plan. The Department understands that not incorporating the provisions of IB 96-1 at paragraph (d)(3)(iii) and (4)(iv) into the proposal represents a significant change in the information and materials that may constitute investment education. Accordingly, the Department invites comments on whether this change is appropriate.
A necessary element of fiduciary status under section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA is that the investment advice be for a “fee or other compensation, direct or indirect.” Consistent with the statute, paragraph (f)(6) of the proposed regulation defines this phrase to mean any fee or compensation for the advice received by the advice provider (or by an affiliate) from any source and any fee or compensation incident to the transaction in which the investment advice has been rendered or will be rendered. It further provides that the term “fee or compensation” includes, but is not limited to, brokerage fees, mutual fund sales, and insurance sales commissions.
Paragraph (c)(3) of the 2010 Proposal used similar language, but it also provided that the term included fees and compensation based on multiple transactions involving different parties. Commenters found this provision confusing and it does not appear in the new proposal. The provision was intended to confirm the Department's position that fees charged on a so-called “omnibus” basis (
Direct or indirect compensation also includes any compensation received by affiliates of the adviser that is connected to the transaction in which the advice was provided. For example, when a fiduciary adviser recommends that a participant or IRA owner invest in a mutual fund, it is not unusual for an affiliated adviser to the mutual fund to receive a fee. The receipt by the affiliate of advisory fees from the mutual fund is indirect compensation in connection with the rendering of investment advice to the participant.
Some commenters additionally suggested that call center employees should not be treated as investment advice fiduciaries where they are not specifically paid to provide investment advice and their compensation does not change based on their communications with participants and beneficiaries. The carve-out from the fiduciary investment advice definition for investment education provides guidelines under which call center staff and other employees providing similar investor assistance services may avoid fiduciary status. However, commenters stated that a specific carve-out for such call centers would provide a greater level of certainty so as not to inhibit mutual funds, insurance companies, broker-dealers, recordkeepers and other financial service providers from continuing to make such assistance available to participants and beneficiaries in 401(k) and similar participant-directed plans. In the Department's view, such a carve-out would be inappropriate. The fiduciary definition is intended to apply broadly to all persons who engage in the activities set forth in the regulation, regardless of job title or position, or whether the advice is rendered in person, in writing or by phone. If, in the performance of their jobs, call center employees make specific investment recommendations to plan participants or IRA owners under the circumstances
Certain provisions of Title I of ERISA, 29 U.S.C. 1001-1108, such as those relating to participation, benefit accrual, and prohibited transactions also appear in the Code. This parallel structure ensures that the relevant provisions apply to all tax-qualified plans, including IRAs. With regard to prohibited transactions, the Title I provisions generally authorize recovery of losses from, and imposition of civil penalties on, the responsible plan fiduciaries, while the Code provisions impose excise taxes on persons engaging in the prohibited transactions. The definition of fiduciary with respect to a plan is the same in section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the IRC as the definition in section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA, 29 U.S.C. 1002(21)(A)(ii), and the Department's 1975 regulation defining fiduciary investment advice is virtually identical to regulations that define the term “fiduciary” under the Code. 26 CFR 54.4975-9(c) (1975).
To rationalize the administration and interpretation of dual provisions under ERISA and the Code, Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978 divided the interpretive and rulemaking authority for these provisions between the Secretaries of Labor and of the Treasury, so that, in general, the agency with responsibility for a given provision of Title I of ERISA would also have responsibility for the corresponding provision in the Code. Among the sections transferred to the Department were the prohibited transaction provisions and the definition of a fiduciary in both Title I of ERISA and in the Code. ERISA's prohibited transaction rules, 29 U.S.C. 1106-1108, apply to ERISA-covered plans, and the Code's corresponding prohibited transaction rules, 26 U.S.C. 4975(c), apply both to ERISA-covered pension plans that are tax-qualified pension plans, as well as other tax-advantaged arrangements, such as IRAs, that are not subject to the fiduciary responsibility and prohibited transaction rules in ERISA.
Given this statutory structure, and the dual nature of the 1975 regulation, the proposal would apply to both the definition of “fiduciary” in section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA and the definition's counterpart in section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code. As a result, it applies to persons who give investment advice to IRAs. In this respect, the new proposal is the same as the 2010 Proposal.
Many comments on the 2010 Proposal concerned its impact on IRAs and questioned whether the Department had adequately considered possible negative impacts. Some commenters were especially concerned that application of the new rule could disrupt existing brokerage arrangements that they believe are beneficial to customers. In particular, brokers often receive revenue sharing, 12b-1 fees, and other compensation from the parties whose investment products they recommend. If the brokers were treated as fiduciaries, the receipt of such fees could violate the Code's prohibited transaction rules, unless eligible for a prohibited transaction exemption. According to these commenters, the disruption of such current fee arrangements could result in a reduced level of assistance to investors, higher up-front fees, and less investment advice, particularly to investors with small accounts. In addition, some commenters expressed skepticism that the imposition of fiduciary standards would result in improved advice and questioned the view that current compensation arrangements could cause sub-optimal advice. Additionally, commenters stressed the need for coordination between the Department and other regulatory agencies, such as the SEC, CFTC, and Treasury.
As discussed above, to better align the regulatory definition of fiduciary with the statutory provisions and underlying Congressional goals, the Department is proposing a definition of a fiduciary investment advice that would encompass investment recommendations that are individualized or specifically directed to plans, participants, beneficiaries or IRA owners, if the adviser receives a direct or indirect fee. Neither the relevant statutory provisions, nor the current regulation, draw a distinction between brokers and other advisers or carve brokers out of the scope of the fiduciary provisions of ERISA and of the Code. The relevant statutory provisions, and accordingly the proposed regulation, establish a functional test based on the service provider's actions, rather than the provider's title (
In light of this statutory framework, the Department does not believe it would be appropriate to carve out a special rule for IRAs, or for brokers or others who make specific investment recommendations to IRA owners or to other participants in non-ERISA plans for direct or indirect fees. When Congress enacted ERISA and the corresponding Code provisions, it chose to impose fiduciary status on persons who provide investment advice to plans, participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners, and to specifically prohibit a wide variety of transactions in which the fiduciary has financial interests that potentially conflict with the fiduciary's obligation to the plan or IRA. It did not provide a special carve-out for brokers or IRAs, and the Department does not believe it would be appropriate to write such a carve-out into the regulation implementing the statutory definition.
Indeed, brokers who give investment advice to IRA owners or plan participants, and who otherwise meet the terms of the current five-part test, are already fiduciaries under the existing fiduciary regulation. If, for example, a broker regularly advises an individual IRA owner on specific investments, the IRA owner routinely follows the recommendations, and both parties understand that the IRA owner relies upon the broker's advice, the broker is almost certainly a fiduciary. In such circumstances, the broker is already subject to the excise tax on prohibited transactions if he or she receives fees from a third party in connection with recommendations to invest IRA assets in the third party's investment products, unless the broker satisfies the conditions of a prohibited transaction exemption that covers the particular fees. Indeed, broker-dealers today can provide fiduciary investment advice by complying with prohibited transaction exemptions that permit the receipt of commission-based compensation for the sale of mutual funds and other securities. Moreover, both ERISA and the Code were amended as part of the PPA to include a new prohibited transaction exemption that applies to investment advice in both the plan and IRA context. The PPA exemption clearly reflects the longstanding concern under ERISA and the Code about the dangers posed by conflicts of interest, and the need for appropriate safeguards in both the plan and IRA markets. Under the terms of the
Moreover, as discussed in the regulatory impact analysis below, there is substantial evidence to support the statutory concern about conflicts of interest. As the analysis reflects, unmitigated conflicts can cause significant harm to investors. The available evidence supports a finding that the negative impacts are present and often times large. The proposal would curtail the harms to investors from such conflicts and thus deliver significant benefits to plan participants and IRA owners. Plans, plan participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners would all benefit from advice that is impartial and puts their interests first. Moreover, broker-dealer interactions with plan fiduciaries, participants, and IRA owners present some of the most obvious conflict of interest problems in this area. Accordingly, in the Department's view, broker-dealers that provide investment advice should be subject to fiduciary duties to mitigate conflicts of interest and increase investor protections.
Some commenters additionally suggested that the application of special fiduciary rules in the retail investment market to IRA accounts, but not savings outside of tax-preferred retirement accounts, is inappropriate and could lead to confusion among investors and service providers. The distinction between IRAs and other retail accounts, however, is a direct result of a statutory structure that draws a sensible distinction between tax-favored IRAs and other retail investment accounts. The Code itself treats IRAs differently, bestowing uniquely favorable tax treatment on such accounts and prohibiting self-dealing by persons providing investment advice for a fee. In these respects, and in light of the special public interest in retirement security, IRAs are more like plans than like other retail accounts. Indeed, as noted above, the vast majority of IRA assets today are attributable to rollovers from plans.
The Department believes that it is important to address the concerns of brokers and others providing investment advice to IRA owners about undue disruptions to current fee arrangements, but also believes that such concerns are best resolved within a fiduciary framework, rather than by simply relieving advisers from fiduciary responsibility. As previously discussed, the proposed regulation permits investment professionals to provide important financial information and education, without acting as fiduciaries or being subject to the prohibited transaction rules. Moreover, ERISA and the Code create a flexible process that enables the Department to grant class and individual exemptions from the prohibited transaction rules for fee practices that it determines are beneficial to plan participants and IRA owners. For example, existing prohibited transaction exemptions already allow brokers who provide fiduciary advice to receive commissions generating conflicts of interest for trading the types of securities and funds that make up the large majority of IRA assets today. In addition, simultaneous with the publication of this proposed regulation, the Department is publishing new exemption proposals that would permit common fee practices, while at the same time protecting plan participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners from abuse and conflicts of interest. As noted above, in contrast with many previously adopted PTE exemptions that are transaction-specific, the Best Interest Contract PTE described below reflects a more flexible approach that accommodates a wide range of current business practices while minimizing the impact of conflicts of interest and ensuring that plans and IRAs receive investment recommendations that are in their best interests.
As discussed, the Department received extensive comment on the application of the 2010 Proposal's provisions to IRAs, but comments regarding other non-ERISA plans such as Health Savings Accounts (HSAs), Archer Medical Savings Accounts and Coverdell Education Savings Accounts were less prolific. The Department notes that these accounts are given tax preferences as are IRAs. Further, some of the accounts, such as HSAs, can be used as long term savings accounts for retiree health care expenses. These types of accounts also are expressly defined by Code section 4975(e)(1) as plans that are subject to the Code's prohibited transaction rules. Thus, although they generally may hold fewer assets and may exist for shorter durations than IRAs, the owners of these accounts or the persons for whom these accounts were established are entitled to receive the same protections from conflicted investment advice as IRA owners. Accordingly, these accounts are included in the scope of covered plans in paragraph (f)(2) of the new proposal. However, the Department solicits specific comment as to whether it is appropriate to cover and treat these plans under the proposed regulation in a manner similar to IRAs as to both coverage and applicable carve-outs.
In addition to the new proposal in this Notice, the Department is also proposing, elsewhere in this edition of the
Investment advice fiduciaries to plans and plan participants must meet ERISA's standards of prudence and loyalty to their plan customers. Such fiduciaries also face taxes, remedies and other sanctions for engaging in certain transactions, such as self-dealing with plan assets or receiving payments from third parties in connection with plan transactions, unless the transactions are permitted by an exemption from ERISA's and the Code's prohibited transaction rules. IRA fiduciaries do not
The proposed Best Interest Contract PTE would provide broad and flexible relief from the prohibited transaction restrictions on certain compensation received by investment advice fiduciaries as a result of a plan's or IRA's purchase, sale or holding of specifically identified investments. The conditions of the exemption are generally principles-based rather than prescriptive and require, in particular, that advice be provided in the best interest of the plan or IRA. This exemption was developed partly in response to comments received that suggested such an approach. It is a significant departure from existing exemptions, examples of which are discussed below, which are limited to much narrower categories of investments under more prescriptive and less flexible and adaptable conditions.
The proposed Best Interest Contract PTE was developed to promote the provision of investment advice that is in the best interest of retail investors, such as plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners, and small plans. The proposed exemption would apply to compensation received by individual investment advice fiduciaries (including individual advisers
As an additional protection for retail investors, the exemption would not apply if the contract contains exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise limiting liability of the adviser or financial institution for violation of the contract's terms. Adopting the approach taken by FINRA, the contract could require the parties to arbitrate individual claims, but it could not limit the rights of the plan, participant, beneficiary, or IRA owner to bring or participate in a class action against the adviser or financial institution.
Additional conditions would apply to firms that limit the products that their advisers can recommend based on the receipt of third party payments or the proprietary nature of the products (
Finally, certain notice and data collection requirements would apply to all firms relying on the exemption. Specifically, firms would be required to notify the Department in advance of doing so, and they would have to maintain certain data, and make it available to the Department upon request, to help evaluate the effectiveness of the exemption in safeguarding the interests of plan and IRA investors.
The Department's intent in crafting the Best Interest Contract PTE is to permit common compensation structures that create conflicts of interest, while minimizing the costs imposed on investors by such conflicts. The exemption is designed both to impose broad fiduciary standards of conduct on advisers and financial institutions, and to give them sufficient flexibility to accommodate a wide range of business practices and compensation structures that currently exist or that may develop in the future.
The Department is also considering an additional streamlined exemption that would apply to compensation received in connection with investments by plans, participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners, in certain high-quality, low-fee investments, subject to fewer conditions than in the proposed Best Interest Contract PTE. If properly crafted, the streamlined exemption could achieve important goals of minimizing compliance burdens for advisers and financial institutions when they offer investment products with little potential for material conflicts of interest. The Department is not proposing text for such a streamlined exemption due to the difficulty in operationalizing this concept. However the Department is eager to receive comments on whether such an exemption would be worthwhile and, as part of the notice proposing the Best Interest Contract PTE, is soliciting comments on a number of issues relating to the design of a streamlined exemption.
Broker-dealers and other advisers commonly sell debt securities out of their own inventory to plans, participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners in a type of transaction known as a “principal transaction.” Fiduciaries trigger taxes, remedies and other legal sanctions when they engage in such activities, unless they qualify for an exemption from the prohibited transaction rules. These principal transactions raise issues similar to those addressed in the Best Interest Contract PTE, but also raise unique concerns because the conflicts of interest are particularly acute. In these transactions, the adviser sells the security directly from its own inventory, and may be able to dictate the price that the plan, participant or beneficiary, or IRA owner pays.
Because of the prevalence of the practice in the market for fixed income securities, the Department has proposed a separate Principal Transactions PTE that would permit principal transactions in certain debt securities between a plan or IRA owner and an investment advice fiduciary, under certain circumstances.
The Principal Transaction PTE would include all of the contract requirements of the Best Interest Contract PTE. In addition, however, it would include specific conditions related to the price of the debt security involved in the transaction. The adviser would have to obtain two price quotes from unaffiliated counterparties for the same or a similar security, and the transaction would have to occur at a price at least as favorable to the plan or IRA as the two price quotes. Additionally, the adviser would have to disclose the amount of compensation and profit (sometimes referred to as a “mark up” or “mark down”) that it expects to receive on the transaction.
In addition to the Best Interest Contract PTE and the Principal Transaction PTE, the Department is also proposing elsewhere in the
Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 86-128
The Department is proposing to amend PTE 86-128 to require all fiduciaries relying on the exemption to adhere to the same impartial conduct standards required in the Best Interest Contract PTE. At the same time, the proposed amendment would eliminate relief for investment advice fiduciaries to IRA owners; instead they would be required to rely on the Best Interest Contract PTE for an exemption for such compensation. In the Department's view, the provisions in the Best Interest Contract Exemption better address the interests of IRAs with respect to transactions otherwise covered by PTE 86-128 and, unlike plan participants and beneficiaries, there is no separate plan fiduciary in the IRA market to review and authorize the transaction. Investment advice fiduciaries to plans would remain eligible for relief under the exemption, as would investment managers with full investment discretion over the investments of plans and IRA owners, but they would be required to comply with all the protective conditions, described above. Finally, the Department is proposing that PTE 86-128 extend to a new covered transaction, for fiduciaries who sell mutual fund shares out of their own inventory (
Several changes are proposed with respect to PTE 75-1, a multi-part exemption for securities transactions involving broker dealers and banks, and plans and IRAs.
PTE 75-1, Part II(2), currently provides relief for fiduciaries selling mutual fund shares to plans and IRAs in a principal transaction to receive commissions. PTE 75-1, Part II(2) currently provides relief for fiduciaries to receive commissions for selling mutual fund shares to plans and IRAs in a principal transaction. As described above, the Department is proposing to provide relief for these types of transactions in PTE 86-128, and so is proposing to revoke PTE 75-1, Part II(2), in its entirety. As discussed in more detail in the notice of proposed amendment/revocation, the Department believes the conditions of PTE 86-128 are more appropriate for these transactions.
PTE 75-1, Part V, currently permits broker-dealers to extend credit to a plan or IRA in connection with the purchase or sale of securities. The exemption does not permit broker-dealers that are fiduciaries to receive compensation when doing so. The Department is proposing to amend PTE 75-1, Part V, to permit investment advice fiduciaries to receive compensation for lending money or otherwise extending credit, but only for the limited purpose of avoiding a failed securities transaction.
PTE 84-24
The Department is proposing to amend PTE 84-24 to require all fiduciaries relying on the exemption to adhere to the same impartial conduct standards required in the Best Interest Contract Exemption. At the same time, the proposed amendment would revoke PTE 84-24 in part so that investment advice fiduciaries to IRA owners would not be able to rely on PTE 84-24 with respect to (1) transactions involving variable annuity contracts and other annuity contracts that constitute securities under federal securities laws, and (2) transactions involving the purchase of mutual fund shares. Investment advice fiduciaries to IRA owners would instead be required to rely on the Best Interest Contract Exemption for most common forms of compensation received in connection with these transactions. The Department believes that investment advice transactions involving annuity contracts that are treated as securities and transactions involving the purchase of mutual fund shares should occur under the conditions of the Best Interest Contract Exemption due to the similarity of these investments, including their distribution channels and disclosure obligations, to other investments covered in the Best Interest Contract Exemption. Investment advice fiduciaries to ERISA plans would remain eligible for relief under the exemption with respect to transactions involving all insurance and annuity contracts and mutual fund shares and the receipt of commissions allowable under that exemption. Investment advice fiduciaries to IRAs could still receive commissions for transactions involving non-securities insurance and annuity contracts, but they would be required to comply with all the protective conditions, described above.
Finally, the Department is proposing amendments to certain other existing class exemptions to require adherence to the impartial conduct standards required in the Best Interest Contract PTE. Specifically, PTEs 75-1, Part III, 75-1, Part IV, 77-4, 80-83, and 83-1, would be amended. These existing class exemptions will otherwise remain in place, affording flexibility to fiduciaries who currently use the exemptions or who wish to use the exemptions in the future.
The proposed dates on which the new exemptions and amendments to existing exemptions would be effective are summarized below.
Several commenters asserted that it was unclear whether investment advice under the scope of the 2010 Proposal would include the provision of information and plan services that traditionally have been performed in a non-fiduciary capacity. For example, they requested that the proposal be revised to make clear that actuaries, accountants, and attorneys, who have historically not been treated as ERISA fiduciaries for plan clients, would not become fiduciary investment advisers by reason of providing actuarial, accounting and legal services. They said that if individuals providing these services were classified as fiduciaries, the associated costs would almost certainly increase because of the need to account for their new potential fiduciary liability. This was not the intent of the 2010 proposal.
The new proposal clarifies that attorneys, accountants, and actuaries would not be treated as fiduciaries merely because they provide such professional assistance in connection with a particular investment transaction. Only when these professionals act outside their normal roles and recommend specific investments or render valuation opinions in connection with particular investment transactions, would they be subject to the proposed fiduciary definition.
Similarly, the new proposal does not alter the principle articulated in ERISA Interpretive Bulletin 75-8, D-2 at 29 CFR 2509.75-8 (1975). Under the bulletin, the plan sponsor's human resources personnel or plan service providers who have no power to make decisions as to plan policy, interpretations, practices or procedures, but who perform purely administrative functions for an employee benefit plan, within a framework of policies, interpretations, rules, practices and procedures made by other persons, are not fiduciaries with respect to the plan.
Commenters on the 2010 Proposal asked the Department to provide sufficient time for orderly and efficient compliance, and to make it clear that the final rule would not apply in connection with advice provided before the effective date of the final rule. Many commenters also expressed concern with the provision in the Department's 2010 Proposal that the final regulation and class exemptions would be effective 90 days after their publication in the
In response to these concerns, the Department has revised the date by which the final rule would apply. Specifically, the final rule would be effective 60 days after publication in the
The Department proposes to make the Best Interest Contract Exemption, if granted, available on the final rule's applicability date,
For those fiduciary investment advisers who choose to avail themselves of the Best Interest Contract Exemption, the Department recognizes that compliance with certain requirements of the new exemption may be difficult within the eight-month timeframe. The Department therefore is soliciting comments on whether to delay the application of certain requirements of the Best Interest Contract Exemption for several months (for example, certain data collection requirements), thereby enabling firms and advisers to benefit from the Best Interest Contract Exemption without meeting all the
The Department plans to hold an administrative hearing within 30 days of the close of the comment period. As with the 2010 Proposal, the Department will ensure ample opportunity for public comment by reopening the record following the hearing and publication of the hearing transcript. Specific information regarding the date, location and submission of requests to testify will be published in a notice in the
Under Executive Order 12866, “significant” regulatory actions are subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of the executive order defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as “economically significant”); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. OMB has determined that this proposed rule is economically significant within the meaning of section 3(f)(1) of the Executive Order, because it would be likely to have an effect on the economy of $100 million in at least one year. Accordingly, OMB has reviewed the rule pursuant to the Executive Order.
The Department's complete Regulatory Impact Analysis is available at
Tax-preferred retirement savings, in the form of private-sector, employer-sponsored retirement plans, such as 401(k) plans (“plans”), and Individual Retirement Accounts (“IRAs”), are critical to the retirement security of most U.S. workers. Investment professionals play a major role in guiding their investment decisions. However, these professional advisers often are compensated in ways that create conflicts of interest, which can bias the investment advice they render and erode plan and IRA investment results. In order to limit or mitigate conflicts of interest and thereby improve retirement security, the Department of Labor (“the Department”) is proposing to attach fiduciary status to more of the advice rendered to plan officials, participants, and beneficiaries (plan investors) and IRA investors.
Since the Department issued its 1975 rule, the retirement savings market has changed profoundly. Financial products are increasingly varied and complex. Individuals, rather than large employers, are increasingly responsible for their investment decisions as IRAs and 401(k)-type defined contribution plans have supplanted defined benefit pensions as the primary means of providing retirement security. Plan and IRA investors often lack investment expertise and must rely on experts—but are unable to assess the quality of the expert's advice or police its conflicts of interest. Most have no idea how “advisers” are compensated for selling them products. Many are bewildered by complex choices that require substantial financial literacy and welcome “free” advice. The risks are growing as baby boomers retire and move money from plans, where their employer has both the incentive and the fiduciary duty to facilitate sound investment choices, to IRAs, where both good and bad investment choices are myriad and most advice is conflicted. These “rollovers” are expected to approach $2.5 trillion over the next 5 years.
In the retail IRA marketplace, growing consumer demand for personalized advice, together with competition from online discount brokerage firms, has pushed brokers to offer more comprehensive guidance services rather than just transaction support. Unfortunately, their traditional compensation sources—such as brokerage commissions, revenue shared by mutual funds and funds' asset managers, and mark-ups on bonds sold from their own inventory—can introduce acute conflicts of interest. Brokers and others advising IRA investors are often able to calibrate their business practices to steer around the narrow 1975 rule and thereby avoid fiduciary status and prohibited transactions for accepting conflict-laden compensation. Many brokers market retirement investment services in ways that clearly suggest the provision of tailored or individualized advice, while at the same time relying on the 1975 rule to disclaim any fiduciary responsibility in the fine print of contracts and marketing materials. Thus, at the same time that marketing materials may characterize the financial adviser's relationship with the customer as one-on-one, personalized, and based on the client's best interest, footnotes and legal boilerplate disclaim the requisite mutual agreement, arrangement, or understanding that the advice is individualized or should serve as a primary basis for investment decisions. What is presented to an IRA investor as trusted advice is often paid for by a financial product vendor in the form of a sales commission or shelf-space fee, without adequate counter-balancing consumer protections that are designed to ensure that the advice is in the investor's best interest. In another variant of the same problem, brokers and others provide apparently tailored advice to customers under the guise of general education to avoid triggering fiduciary status and responsibility.
Likewise in the plan market, pension consultants and advisers that plan sponsors rely on to guide their decisions often avoid fiduciary status under the five-part test and are conflicted. For example, if a plan hires an investment professional or appraiser on a one-time basis for an investment recommendation on a large, complex investment, the adviser has no fiduciary obligation to the plan under ERISA. Even if the plan official, who lacks the specialized expertise necessary to evaluate the complex transaction on his or her own, invests all or substantially all of the plan's assets in reliance on the consultant's professional judgment, the consultant is not a fiduciary because he or she does not advise the plan on a “regular basis” and therefore may stand to profit from the plan's investment due to a conflict of interest that could affect the consultant's best judgment. Too much has changed since 1975, and too many investment decisions are made as one-time decisions and not advice on a regular basis for the five-part test to be a meaningful safeguard any longer.
The proposed definition of fiduciary investment advice included in this NPRM generally covers specific recommendations on investments, investment management, the selection of persons to provide investment advice or management, and appraisals in connection with investment decisions. Persons who provide such advice would fall within the proposed regulation's ambit if they either (a) represent that they are acting as an ERISA fiduciary or (b) make investment recommendations pursuant to an agreement, arrangement, or understanding that the advice is individualized or specifically directed to the recipient for consideration in making investment or investment management decisions regarding plan or IRA assets.
The current proposal specifically includes as fiduciary investment advice recommendations concerning the investment of assets that are rolled over or otherwise distributed from a plan. This would supersede guidance the Department provided in a 2005 advisory opinion,
The current proposal adopts what the Department intends to be a balanced approach to prohibited transaction exemptions. The proposal narrows and attaches new protective conditions to some existing PTEs. At the same time it includes some new PTEs with broad but targeted combined scope and strong protective conditions. These elements of the proposal reflect the Department's effort to ensure that advice is impartial while avoiding larger and costlier than necessary disruptions to existing business arrangements or constraints on future innovation.
In developing the current proposal, the Department conducted an in-depth economic assessment of the market for retirement investment advice. As further discussed below, the Department found that conflicted advice is widespread, causing serious harm to plan and IRA investors, and that disclosing conflicts alone would fail to adequately mitigate the conflicts or remedy the harm. By extending fiduciary status to more providers of advice and providing broad but targeted and protective PTEs, the Department believes the current proposal would mitigate conflicts, support consumer choice, and deliver substantial gains for retirement investors and economic benefits that more than justify its costs.
Advisers' conflicts take a variety of forms and can bias their advice in a variety of ways. For example, advisers often are paid more for selling some mutual funds than others, and to execute larger and more frequent trades of mutual fund shares or other securities. Broker-dealers reap price spreads from principal transactions, so advisers may be encouraged to recommend larger and more frequent trades. These and other adviser compensation arrangements introduce direct and serious conflicts of interest between advisers and retirement investors. Advisers often are paid a great deal more if they recommend investments and transactions that are highly profitable to the financial industry, even if they are not in investors' best interests. These financial incentives can and do bias the advisers' recommendations.
Following such biased advice can inflict losses on investors in several ways. They may choose more expensive and/or poorer performing investments. They may trade too much and thereby incur excessive transaction costs, and they may incur more costly timing errors, which are a common consequence of chasing returns.
A wide body of economic evidence, reviewed in the Department's full Regulatory Impact Analysis (available at
Disclosure alone has proven ineffective to mitigate conflicts in advice. Extensive research has demonstrated that most investors have little understanding of their advisers' conflicts, and little awareness of what they are paying via indirect channels for the conflicted advice. Even if they understand the scope of the advisers' conflicts, most consumers generally cannot distinguish good advice, or even good investment results, from bad. The same gap in expertise that makes investment advice necessary frequently also prevents investors from recognizing bad advice or understanding advisers' disclosures. Recent research suggests that even if disclosure about conflicts could be made simple and clear, it would be ineffective—or even harmful.
Excessive fees and substandard investment performance in DC plans or IRAs, which can result when advisers' conflicts bias their advice, erode benefit security. This proposal aims to ensure that advice is impartial, thereby rooting out excessive fees and substandard performance otherwise attributable to advisers' conflicts, producing gains for retirement investors. Delivering these gains would entail compliance costs—namely, the cost incurred by new fiduciary advisers to avoid the prohibited transaction rules and/or satisfy relevant PTE conditions. The Department expects investor gains would be very large relative to compliance costs, and therefore believes this proposal is economically justified and sound.
Because of limitations of the literature and other evidence, only some of these gains can be quantified with confidence. Focusing only on how load shares paid to brokers affect the size of loads IRA investors holding front-end load funds pay and the returns they achieve, we estimate the proposal would deliver to IRA investors gains of between $40 billion and $44 billion over 10 years and between $88 and $100 billion over 20 years. These estimates assume that the rule will eliminate (rather than just reduce) underperformance associated with the practice of incentivizing broker recommendations through variable front-end-load sharing; if the rule's effectiveness in this area is substantially below 100 percent, these estimates may overstate these particular gains to investors in the front-load mutual fund segment of the IRA market. The Department nonetheless believes that these gains alone would far exceed the proposal's compliance cost which are estimated to be between $2.4 billion and $5.7 billion over 10 years, mostly reflecting the cost incurred by new fiduciary advisers to satisfy relevant PTE conditions (these costs are also front-loaded and will be less in subsequent years). For example, if only 75 percent of the potential gains were realized in the subset of the market that was analyzed (the front-load mutual fund segment of the IRA market), the gains would amount to between $30 billion and $33 billion over 10 years. If only 50 percent were realized, the expected gains in this subset of the market would total between $20 billion and $22 billion over 10 years, still several times the proposal's estimated compliance cost
These estimates account for only a fraction of potential conflicts, associated losses, and affected retirement assets. The total gains to IRA investors attributable to the rule may be much higher than these quantified gains alone. The Department expects the proposal to yield large, additional gains for IRA investors, including improvements in the performance of IRA investments other than front-load mutual funds and potential reductions in excessive trading and associated transaction costs and timing errors (such as might be associated with return chasing). As noted above, under current rules, adviser conflicts could cost IRA investors as much as $410 billion over 10 years and $1 trillion over 20 years, so the potential additional gains to IRA investors from this proposal could be very large.
Just as with IRAs, there is evidence that conflicts of interest in the investment advice market also erode plan assets. For example, the U.S. Government Accountability Office (GAO) found that defined benefit pension plans using consultants with undisclosed conflicts of interest earned 1.3 percentage points per year less than other plans.
The Department expects the current proposal's positive effects to extend well beyond improved investment results for retirement investors. The IRA and plan markets for fiduciary advice and other services may become more efficient as a result of more transparent pricing and greater certainty about the fiduciary status of advisers and about the impartiality of their advice. There may be benefits from the increased flexibility that the current proposal's PTEs would provide with respect to fiduciary investment advice currently falling within the ambit of the 1975 rule. The current proposal's defined boundaries between fiduciary advice, education, and sales activity directed at large plans, may bring greater clarity to the IRA and plan services markets. Innovation in new advice business models, including technology-driven models, may be accelerated, and nudged away from conflicts and toward transparency, thereby promoting healthy competition in the fiduciary advice market.
A major expected positive effect of the current proposal in the plan advice market is improved compliance and associated improved security of plan assets and benefits. Clarity about advisers' fiduciary status would strengthen EBSA's enforcement activities resulting in fuller and faster correction, and stronger deterrence, of ERISA violations.
In conclusion, the Department believes that the current proposal would mitigate adviser conflicts and thereby improve plan and IRA investment results, while avoiding greater than necessary disruption of existing business practices and would deliver large gains to retirement investors and a variety of other economic benefits, which would more than justify its costs.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The Department believes that amending the current regulation by broadening the scope of service providers, regardless of size, that would be considered fiduciaries would enhance the Department's ability to redress service provider abuses that currently exist in the plan service provider market, such as undisclosed fees, misrepresentation of compensation arrangements, and biased appraisals of the value of plan investments.
The Department's complete Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is available at
The Department believes that the proposal would provide benefits to small plans and their related small employers and IRA holders, and impose costs on small service providers
The Department anticipates that broker-dealers would experience the largest impact from the proposed rule and associated proposed exemptions. Registered investment advisers and other ERISA plan service providers would experience less of a burden from the rule. The Department assumes that firms would utilize whichever PTEs would be most cost effective for their business models. Regardless of which PTEs they use, small affected entities would incur costs associated with developing and implementing new compliance policies and procedures to minimize conflicts of interest; creating and distributing new disclosures; maintaining additional compliance records; familiarizing and training staff on new requirements; and obtaining additional liability insurance.
As discussed previously, the Department estimated the costs of implementing new compliance policies and procedures, training staff, and creating disclosures for small broker-dealers. The Department estimates that small broker-dealers could expend on average approximately $53,000 in the first year and $21,000 in subsequent years; small registered investment advisers would spend approximately $5,300 in the first year and $500 in subsequent years; and small service providers would spend approximately $5,300 in the first year and $500 in subsequent years. The estimated cost for small broker-dealers is believed to be an overestimate, especially for the smallest firms as they are believed to have on average simpler arrangements and they may have relationships with larger firms that help with compliance, thus lowering their costs. Additionally, broker-dealers and service providers would incur an expense of about $300 in additional liability insurance premiums for each representative or other individual who would now be considered a fiduciary. Of this expense, $150 is estimated to be paid to the insuring firms and the other $150 is estimated to be paid out as compensation to those harmed, which is counted as a transfer. Any disclosures produced by affected entities would cost, on average, about $1.53 in the first year and about $1.15 in subsequent years. These per-representative and per-disclosure costs are not expected to disproportionately affect small entities.
Although the PTEs allow firms to maintain their existing business models, some small affected entities may determine that it is more cost effective to shift business models. In this scenario, some BDs might incur the costs of switching to becoming RIAs, including training, testing, and licensing costs, at a cost of approximately $5,600 per representative.
Some small service providers may find that the increased costs associated with ERISA fiduciary status outweigh the benefit of continuing to service the ERISA plan market or the IRA market. The Department does not believe that this outcome would be widespread or that it would result in a diminution of the amount or quality of advice available to small or other retirement savers. It is also possible that the economic impact of the rule on small entities would not be as significant as it would be for large entities, because anecdotal evidence indicates that some small entities do not have as many business arrangements that give rise to conflicts of interest. Therefore, they would not be confronted with the same costs to restructure transactions that would be faced by large entities.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department of Labor conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps to ensure that the public understands the Department's collection instructions; respondents can provide the requested data in the desired format; reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized; collection instruments are clearly understood; and the Department can properly assess the impact of collection requirements on respondents.
Currently, the Department is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection requests (ICRs) included in the “carve-outs” section of its proposal to amend its 1975 rule that defines when a person who provides investment advice to an employee benefit plan becomes an ERISA fiduciary. A copy of the ICRs may be obtained by contacting the PRA addressee shown below or at
The Department has submitted a copy of the Conflict of Interest Proposed Rule Carveout Disclosure Requirements to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d) for review of its information collections. The Department and OMB are particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information would have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; Attention: Desk Officer for the Employee Benefits Security Administration. OMB requests that comments be received within 30 days of publication of the Proposed Investment Advice Initiative to ensure their consideration.
PRA Addressee: Address requests for copies of the ICR to G. Christopher Cosby, Office of Policy and Research, U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-5718, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone (202) 693-8410; Fax: (202) 219-5333. These are not toll-free numbers. ICRs submitted to OMB also are available at
As discussed in detail above, Paragraph (b)(1)(i) of the proposed regulation provides a carve-out to the general definition for advice provided in connection with an arm's length sale, purchase, loan, or bilateral contract between a sophisticated plan investor, which has 100 or more plan participants, and the adviser (“seller's carve-out”). It also applies in connection with an offer to enter into such a transaction or when the person providing the advice is acting as an agent or appraiser for the plan's counterparty. In order to rely on this carve-out, the person must provide
The seller's carve-out applies if certain conditions are met. Among these conditions are the following: The adviser must obtain a written representation from the plan fiduciary that (1) the plan fiduciary is a fiduciary who exercises authority or control respecting the management or disposition of the employee benefit plan's assets (as described in section 3(21)(A)(i) of the Act), (2) that the employee benefit plan has 100 or more participants covered under the plan, and that (3) the fiduciary will not rely on the person to act in the best interests of the plan, to provide impartial investment advice, or to give advice in a fiduciary capacity.
Paragraph (b)(3) of the proposed regulation provides a carve-out making clear that persons who merely market and make available, securities or other property through a platform or similar mechanism to an employee benefit plan without regard to the individualized needs of the plan, its participants, or beneficiaries do not act as investment advice fiduciaries. This carve-out applies if the person discloses in writing to the plan fiduciary that the person is not undertaking to provide impartial investment advice or to give advice in a fiduciary capacity.
Paragraph (b)(6) of the proposal makes clear that furnishing and providing certain specified investment educational information and materials (including certain investment allocation models and interactive plan materials) to a plan, plan fiduciary, participant, beneficiary or IRA owner would not constitute the rendering of investment advice if certain conditions are met. One of the conditions is that the asset allocation models or interactive materials must explain all material facts and assumptions on which the models and materials are based and include a statement indicating that, in applying particular asset allocation models to their individual situations, participants, beneficiaries, or IRA owners should consider their other assets, income, and investments in addition to their interests in the plan or IRA to the extent they are not taken into account in the model or estimate.
The seller's carve-out written representation, platform provider carve-out disclosure, and the education carve-out disclosures for asset allocation models and interactive investment materials are information collection requests (ICRs) subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act. The Department has made the following assumptions in order to establish a reasonable estimate of the paperwork burden associated with these ICRs:
• Approximately 43,000 plans would utilize the seller's carve-out;
• Approximately 1,800 service providers would utilize the platform provider carve-out;
• Approximately 2,800 financial institutions would utilize the education carve-out;
• Plans and advisers using the seller's carve-out are entities with financial expertise and would distribute substantially all of the disclosures electronically via means already used in their normal course of business and the costs arising from electronic distribution would be negligible;
• Service providers using the platform provider carve-out already maintain contracts with their customers as a regular and customary business practice and the materials costs arising from inserting the platform provider carve-out into the existing contracts would be negligible;
• Materials costs arising from inserting the required education carve-out disclosure into existing models and interactive materials would be negligible;
• Advisers would use existing in-house resources to prepare the disclosures; and
• The tasks associated with the ICRs would be performed by clerical personnel at an hourly rate of $30.42 and legal professionals at an hourly rate of $129.94.
The Department estimates that each plan would require one hour of legal professional time and 30 minutes of clerical time to produce the seller's carve-out representation. Therefore, the seller's carve-out representation would result in approximately 43,000 hours of legal time at an equivalent cost of approximately $5.6 million. It would also result in approximately 21,000 hours of clerical time at an equivalent cost of approximately $653,000. In total, the burden associated with the seller's carve-out representation is approximately 64,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $6.2 million.
The Department estimates that each service provider using the platform provider carve-out would require ten minutes of legal professional time to draft the needed disclosure. Therefore, the platform provider carve-out disclosure would result in approximately 300 hours of legal time at an equivalent cost of approximately $39,000.
The Department estimates that each financial institution using the education carve-out would require twenty minutes of legal professional time to draft the disclosure. Therefore, this carve-out disclosure would result in approximately 900 hours of legal time at an equivalent cost of approximately $121,000.
In total, the hour burden for the representation and disclosures required by the carve-outs is approximately 66,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $6.4 million.
Because the Department assumes that all disclosures would be distributed electronically or require small amounts of space to include in existing materials, the Department has not associated any cost burden with these ICRs.
These paperwork burden estimates are summarized as follows:
The proposed rule is subject to the Congressional Review Act provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed or final agency rule that may result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation with the base year 1995) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector. Such a mandate is deemed to be a “significant regulatory action.” The current proposal is expected to have such an impact on the private sector, and the Department therefore hereby provides such an assessment.
The Department is issuing the current proposal under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) (29 U.S.C. 1002(21)(a)(ii)).
The Department assessed the anticipated benefits and costs of the current proposal pursuant to Executive Order 12866 in the Regulatory Impact Analysis for the current proposal and concluded that its benefits would justify its costs. The Department's complete Regulatory Impact Analysis is available at
The current proposal is not expected to have any material economic impacts on State, local or tribal governments, or on health, safety, or the natural environment. The North American Securities Administrators Association commented in support of the Department's 2010 proposal.
Executive Order 13132 (August 4, 1999) outlines fundamental principles of federalism, and requires the adherence to specific criteria by Federal agencies in the process of their formulation and implementation of policies that have substantial direct effects on the States, the relationship between the national government and States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. This proposed rule does not have federalism implications because it has no substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Section 514 of ERISA provides, with certain exceptions specifically enumerated, that the provisions of Titles I and IV of ERISA supersede any and all laws of the States as they relate to any employee benefit plan covered under ERISA. The requirements implemented in the proposed rule do not alter the fundamental reporting and disclosure requirements of the statute with respect to employee benefit plans, and as such have no implications for the States or the relationship or distribution of power between the national government and the States.
This regulation is proposed pursuant to the authority in section 505 of ERISA (Pub. L. 93-406, 88 Stat. 894; 29 U.S.C. 1135) and section 102 of Plan No. 4 of 1978 (43 FR 47713, October 17, 1978), effective December 31, 1978 (44 FR 1065, January 3, 1979), 3 CFR 1978 Comp. 332, and under Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012).
Paragraph (c) of the proposed regulation relating to the definition of fiduciary (proposed 29 CFR 2510.3(21)) that was published in the
Employee benefit plans, Employee Retirement Income Security Act, Pensions, Plan assets.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Department is proposing to amend parts 2509 and 2510 of subchapters A and B of Chapter XXV of Title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
29 U.S.C. 1135. Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012). Sections 2509.75-10 and 2509.75-2 issued under 29 U.S.C. 1052, 1053, 1054. Sec. 2509.75-5 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1002. Sec. 2509.95-1 also issued under sec. 625, Pub. L. 109-280, 120 Stat. 780.
29 U.S.C. 1002(2), 1002(21), 1002(37), 1002(38), 1002(40), 1031, and 1135; Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088; Secs. 2510.3-21, 2510.3-101 and 2510.3-102 also issued under Sec. 102 of Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 237. Section 2510.3-38 also issued under Pub. L. 105-72, Sec. 1(b), 111 Stat. 1457 (1997).
(a)
(1) Such person provides, directly to a plan, plan fiduciary, plan participant or beneficiary, IRA, or IRA owner the
(i) A recommendation as to the advisability of acquiring, holding, disposing or exchanging securities or other property, including a recommendation to take a distribution of benefits or a recommendation as to the investment of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(ii) A recommendation as to the management of securities or other property, including recommendations as to the management of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(iii) An appraisal, fairness opinion, or similar statement whether verbal or written concerning the value of securities or other property if provided in connection with a specific transaction or transactions involving the acquisition, disposition, or exchange, of such securities or other property by the plan or IRA;
(iv) A recommendation of a person who is also going to receive a fee or other compensation for providing any of the types of advice described in paragraphs (i) through (iii); and
(2) Such person, either directly or indirectly (
(i) Represents or acknowledges that it is acting as a fiduciary within the meaning of the Act with respect to the advice described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; or
(ii) Renders the advice pursuant to a written or verbal agreement, arrangement or understanding that the advice is individualized to, or that such advice is specifically directed to, the advice recipient for consideration in making investment or management decisions with respect to securities or other property of the plan or IRA.
(b)
(1)
(B) Such person—
(
(
(
(
(C) Such person—
(
(
(
(ii)
(A) The plan is represented by a fiduciary independent of the person;
(B) The person is a swap dealer, security-based swap dealer, major swap participant, or major security-based swap participant;
(C) The person (if a swap dealer or security-based swap dealer), is not acting as an advisor to the plan (within the meaning of section 4s(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act or section 15F(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934) in connection with the transaction; and
(D) In advance of providing any recommendations with respect to the transaction, the person obtains a written representation from the independent plan fiduciary, that the fiduciary will not rely on recommendations provided by the person.
(2)
(3)
(4)
(i) Merely identifies investment alternatives that meet objective criteria specified by the plan fiduciary (
(ii) Merely provides objective financial data and comparisons with independent benchmarks to the plan fiduciary.
(5)
(i) An employee stock ownership plan (as defined in section 407(d)(6) of the Act) regarding employer securities (as defined section 407(d)(5) of the Act);
(ii) An investment fund, such as a collective investment fund or pooled separate account, in which more than one unaffiliated plan has an investment, or which holds plan assets of more than one unaffiliated plan under 29 CFR 2510.3-101; or
(iii) A plan, a plan fiduciary, a plan participant or beneficiary, an IRA or IRA owner solely for purposes of compliance with the reporting and disclosure provisions under the Act, the Code, and the regulations, forms and schedules issued thereunder, or any applicable reporting or disclosure requirement under a Federal or state law, rule or regulation or self-regulatory organization rule or regulation.
(6)
(i)
(ii)
(A) General financial and investment concepts, such as risk and return, diversification, dollar cost averaging, compounded return, and tax deferred investment;
(B) Historic differences in rates of return between different asset classes (
(C) Effects of inflation;
(D) Estimating future retirement income needs;
(E) Determining investment time horizons;
(F) Assessing risk tolerance;
(G) Retirement-related risks (
(H) General methods and strategies for managing assets in retirement (
(iii)
(A) Such models are based on generally accepted investments theories that take into account the historic returns of different asset classes (
(B) All material facts and assumptions on which such models are based (
(C) Such models do not include or identify any specific investment product or specific alternative available under the plan or IRA; and
(D) The asset allocation models are accompanied by a statement indicating that, in applying particular asset allocation models to their individual situations, participants, beneficiaries, or IRA owners should consider their other assets, income, and investments (
(iv)
(A) Such materials are based on generally accepted investment theories that take into account the historic returns of different asset classes (
(B) There is an objective correlation between the asset allocations generated by the materials and the information and data supplied by the participant, beneficiary or IRA owner;
(C) There is an objective correlation between the income stream generated by the materials and the information and data supplied by the participant, beneficiary or IRA owner;
(D) All material facts and assumptions (
(E) The materials do not include or identify any specific investment alternative available or distribution option available under the plan or IRA, unless such alternative or option is specified by the participant, beneficiary or IRA owner; and
(F) The materials either take into account other assets, income and investments (
(v) The information and materials described in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) through (iv) of this section represent examples of the type of information and materials that may be furnished to participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners without such information and materials constituting investment advice. Determinations as to whether the provision of any information, materials or educational services not described herein constitutes the rendering of investment advice must be made by reference to the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
(c)
(1) Exempt such person from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Act concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or
(2) Exclude such person from the definition of the term “party in interest” (as set forth in section 3(14)(B) of the Act or “disqualified person” as set forth in section 4975(e)(2) of the Code) with respect to a plan.
(d)
(i) Neither the fiduciary nor any affiliate of such fiduciary is such broker, dealer, or bank; and
(ii) The instructions specify:
(A) The security to be purchased or sold;
(B) A price range within which such security is to be purchased or sold, or, if such security is issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1,
(C) A time span during which such security may be purchased or sold (not to exceed five business days); and
(D) The minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold within such price range, or, in the case of a security issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold, or the value of such security in dollar amount which may be purchased or sold, at the price referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(2) A person who is a broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank which is a fiduciary with respect to an employee benefit plan or IRA solely by reason of the possession or exercise of discretionary authority or discretionary control in the management of the plan or IRA, or the management or disposition of plan or IRA assets in connection with the execution of a transaction or transactions for the purchase or sale of securities on behalf of such plan or IRA which fails to comply with the provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary regarding any assets of the plan or IRA with respect to which such broker-dealer, reporting dealer or bank does not have any discretionary authority, discretionary control or discretionary responsibility, does not exercise any authority or control, does not render investment advice (as defined in paragraph (a) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, and does not have any authority or responsibility to render such investment advice, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to:
(i) Exempt such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Act concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or
(ii) Exclude such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the definition of the term party in interest (as set forth in section 3(14)(B) of the Act) or disqualified person 4975(e)(2) of the Code with respect to any assets of the plan or IRA.
(e)
(f)
(1) “Recommendation” means a communication that, based on its content, context, and presentation, would reasonably be viewed as a suggestion that the advice recipient engage in or refrain from taking a particular course of action.
(2)(i) “Plan” means any employee benefit plan described in section 3(3) of the Act and any plan described in section 4975(e)(1)(A) of the Code, and
(ii) “IRA” means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
(3) “Plan participant” means for a plan described in section 3(3) of the Act, a person described in section 3(7) of the Act.
(4) “IRA owner” means with respect to an IRA either the person who is the owner of the IRA or the person for whose benefit the IRA was established.
(5) “Plan fiduciary” means a person described in section (3)(21) of the Act and 4975(e)(3) of the Code.
(6) “Fee or other compensation, direct or indirect” for purposes of this section and section 3(21)(A)(ii) of the Act, means any fee or compensation for the advice received by the person (or by an affiliate) from any source and any fee or compensation incident to the transaction in which the investment advice has been rendered or will be rendered. The term fee or other compensation includes, for example, brokerage fees, mutual fund and insurance sales commissions.
(7) “Affiliate” includes: Any person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person; any officer, director, partner, employee or relative (as defined in section 3(15) of the Act) of such person; and any corporation or partnership of which such person is an officer, director or partner.
(8) “Control” for purposes of paragraph (f)(7) of this section means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), U.S. Department of Labor.
Notice of Proposed Class Exemption.
This document contains a notice of pendency before the U.S. Department of Labor of a proposed exemption from certain prohibited transactions provisions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and the Internal Revenue Code (the Code). The provisions at issue generally prohibit fiduciaries with respect to employee benefit plans and individual retirement accounts (IRAs) from engaging in self-dealing and receiving compensation from third parties in connection with transactions involving the plans and IRAs. The exemption proposed in this notice would allow entities such as broker-dealers and insurance agents that are fiduciaries by reason of the provision of investment advice to receive such compensation when plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners, and certain small plans purchase, hold or sell certain investment products in accordance with the fiduciaries' advice, under protective conditions to safeguard the interests of the plans, participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners. The proposed exemption would affect participants and beneficiaries of plans, IRA owners and fiduciaries with respect to such plans and IRAs.
A
All written comments concerning the proposed class exemption should be sent to the Office of Exemption Determinations by any of the following methods, identified by ZRIN: 1210-ZA25:
Karen E. Lloyd or Brian L. Shiker, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor (202) 693-8824 (this is not a toll-free number).
The Department is proposing this class exemption on its own motion, pursuant to ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570 (76 FR 66637 (October 27, 2011)).
The Department is proposing this exemption in connection with its proposed regulation under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) (Proposed Regulation), published elsewhere in this issue of the
The exemption proposed in this notice (“the Best Interest Contract Exemption”) was developed to promote the provision of investment advice that is in the best interest of retail investors such as plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners, and small plans. ERISA and the Code generally prohibit fiduciaries from receiving payments from third parties and from acting on conflicts of interest, including using their authority to affect or increase their own compensation, in connection with transactions involving a plan or IRA. Certain types of fees and compensation common in the retail market, such as brokerage or insurance commissions, 12b-1 fees and revenue sharing payments, fall within these prohibitions when received by fiduciaries as a result of transactions involving advice to the plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners and small plan sponsors. To facilitate continued provision of advice to such retail investors and under conditions designed to safeguard the interests of these investors, the exemption would allow certain investment advice fiduciaries, including broker-dealers and insurance agents, to receive these various forms of compensation that, in the absence of an exemption, would not be permitted under ERISA and the Code.
Rather than create a set of highly prescriptive transaction-specific exemptions, which has generally been the regulatory approach to date, the proposed exemption would flexibly accommodate a wide range of current business practices, while minimizing the harmful impact of conflicts of interest on the quality of advice. The Department has sought to preserve beneficial business models by taking a standards-based approach that will broadly permit firms to continue to rely on common fee practices, as long as they are willing to adhere to basic standards aimed at ensuring that their advice is in the best interest of their customers.
ERISA section 408(a) specifically authorizes the Secretary of Labor to grant administrative exemptions from ERISA's prohibited transaction provisions.
The proposed exemption would apply to compensation received by investment advice fiduciaries—both individual “advisers”
In order to protect the interests of the plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners, and small plan sponsors, the exemption would require the adviser and financial institution to contractually acknowledge fiduciary status, commit to adhere to basic standards of impartial conduct, warrant that they have adopted policies and procedures reasonably designed to mitigate any harmful impact of conflicts of interest, and disclose basic information on their conflicts of interest and on the cost of their advice. The adviser and firm must commit to fundamental obligations of fair dealing and fiduciary conduct—to give advice that is in the customer's best interest; avoid misleading statements; receive no more than reasonable compensation; and comply with applicable federal and state laws governing advice. This standards-based approach aligns the adviser's interests with those of the plan or IRA customer, while leaving the adviser and employing firm the flexibility and discretion necessary to determine how best to satisfy these basic standards in light of the unique attributes of their business. All financial institutions relying on the exemption would be required to notify the Department in advance of doing so. Finally, all financial institutions making use of the exemption would have to maintain certain data, and make it available to the Department, to help
Under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, the Department must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing and streamlining rules, and of promoting flexibility. It also requires federal agencies to develop a plan under which they will periodically review their existing significant regulations to make regulatory programs more effective or less burdensome in achieving their regulatory objectives.
Under Executive Order 12866, “significant” regulatory actions are subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as an “economically significant” regulatory action); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. Pursuant to the terms of the Executive Order, OMB has determined that this action is “significant” within the meaning of Section 3(f)(4) of the Executive Order. Accordingly, the Department has undertaken an assessment of the costs and benefits of the proposed exemption, and OMB has reviewed this regulatory action.
As explained more fully in the preamble to the Department's Proposed Regulation under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), also published in this issue of the
The Code also has rules regarding fiduciary conduct with respect to tax-favored accounts that are not generally covered by ERISA, such as IRAs. Although ERISA's general fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty do not govern the fiduciaries of IRAs, these fiduciaries are subject to the prohibited transaction rules. In this context, fiduciaries engaging in the prohibited transactions are subject to an excise tax enforced by the Internal Revenue Service. Unlike participants in plans covered by Title I of ERISA, IRA owners do not have a statutory right to bring suit against fiduciaries for violation of the prohibited transaction rules and fiduciaries are not personally liable to IRA owners for the losses caused by their misconduct. Nor can the Secretary of Labor bring suit to enforce the prohibited transactions rules on behalf of IRA owners. The exemption proposed herein, as well as the Proposed Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Debt Securities between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs, published elsewhere in this issue of the
Under the statutory framework, the determination of who is a “fiduciary” is of central importance. Many of ERISA's and the Code's protections, duties, and liabilities hinge on fiduciary status. In relevant part, ERISA section 3(21)(A) and Code section 4975(e)(3) provide that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan or IRA to the extent he or she (i) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control with respect to management of such plan or IRA, or exercises any authority or control with respect to management or disposition of its assets; (ii) renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan or IRA, or has any authority or responsibility to do so; or, (iii) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of such plan or IRA.
The statutory definition deliberately casts a wide net in assigning fiduciary responsibility with respect to plan and IRA assets. Thus, “any authority or control” over plan or IRA assets is sufficient to confer fiduciary status, and any persons who render “investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect” are fiduciaries, regardless of whether they have direct control over the plan's or IRA's assets and regardless of their status as an investment adviser or broker under the federal securities laws. The statutory definition and associated responsibilities were enacted to ensure that plans, plan participants, and IRA owners can depend on persons who provide investment advice for a fee to provide recommendations that are untainted by conflicts of interest. In the absence of fiduciary status, the providers of investment advice are neither subject to ERISA's fundamental fiduciary standards, nor accountable for imprudent, disloyal, or tainted advice under ERISA or the Code, no matter
In 1975, the Department issued a regulation, at 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1975), defining the circumstances under which a person is treated as providing “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) (the “1975 regulation”).
As the marketplace for financial services has developed in the years since 1975, the five-part test may now undermine, rather than promote, the statutes' text and purposes. The narrowness of the 1975 regulation allows advisers, brokers, consultants and valuation firms to play a central role in shaping plan investments, without ensuring the accountability that Congress intended for persons having such influence and responsibility. Even when plan sponsors, participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners clearly rely on paid consultants for impartial guidance, the regulation allows many advisers to avoid fiduciary status and the accompanying fiduciary obligations of care and prohibitions on disloyal and conflicted transactions. As a consequence, under ERISA and the Code, these advisers can steer customers to investments based on their own self-interest, give imprudent advice, and engage in transactions that would otherwise be prohibited by ERISA and the Code.
In the Department's Proposed Regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), the Department seeks to replace the existing regulation with one that more appropriately distinguishes between the sorts of advice relationships that should be treated as fiduciary in nature and those that should not, in light of the legal framework and financial marketplace in which IRAs and plans currently operate.
The Proposed Regulation describes the types of advice that constitute “investment advice” with respect to plan or IRA assets for purposes of the definition of a fiduciary at ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B). The proposal provides, subject to certain carve-outs, that a person renders investment advice with respect to assets of a plan or IRA if, among other things, the person provides, directly to a plan, a plan fiduciary, a plan participant or beneficiary, IRA or IRA owner, one of the following types of advice:
(1) A recommendation as to the advisability of acquiring, holding, disposing or exchanging securities or other property, including a recommendation to take a distribution of benefits or a recommendation as to the investment of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from a plan or IRA;
(2) A recommendation as to the management of securities or other property, including recommendations as to the management of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(3) An appraisal, fairness opinion or similar statement, whether verbal or written, concerning the value of securities or other property, if provided in connection with a specific transaction or transactions involving the acquisition, disposition or exchange of such securities or other property by the plan or IRA; and
(4) a recommendation of a person who is also going to receive a fee or other compensation in providing any of the types of advice described in paragraphs (1) through (3), above.
In addition, to be a fiduciary, such person must either (i) represent or acknowledge that it is acting as a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA (or the Code) with respect to the advice, or (ii) render the advice pursuant to a written or verbal agreement, arrangement or understanding that the advice is individualized to, or that such advice is specifically directed to, the advice recipient for consideration in making investment or management decisions with respect to securities or other property of the plan or IRA.
In the Proposed Regulation, the Department refers to FINRA guidance on whether particular communications should be viewed as “recommendations”
For advisers who do not represent that they are acting as ERISA or Code fiduciaries, the Proposed Regulation provides that advice rendered in conformance with certain carve-outs will not cause the adviser to be treated as a fiduciary under ERISA or the Code. For example, under the seller's carve-out, counterparties in arm's length transactions with plans may make investment recommendations without acting as fiduciaries if certain conditions are met.
The Department anticipates that the Proposed Regulation will cover many investment professionals who do not currently consider themselves to be fiduciaries under ERISA or the Code. If the Proposed Regulation is adopted, these entities will become subject to the prohibited transaction restrictions in ERISA and the Code that apply specifically to fiduciaries. ERISA section 406(b)(1) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) prohibit a fiduciary from dealing with the income or assets of a plan or IRA in his own interest or his own account. ERISA section 406(b)(2) provides that a fiduciary shall not “in his individual or in any other capacity act in any transaction involving the plan on behalf of a party (or represent a party) whose interests are adverse to the interests of the plan or the interests of its participants or beneficiaries.” As this provision is not in the Code, it does not apply to transactions involving IRAs. ERISA section 406(b)(3) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(F) prohibit a fiduciary from receiving any consideration for his own personal account from any party dealing with the plan or IRA in connection with a transaction involving assets of the plan or IRA.
Parallel regulations issued by the Departments of Labor and the Treasury explain that these provisions impose on fiduciaries of plans and IRAs a duty not to act on conflicts of interest that may affect the fiduciary's best judgment on behalf of the plan or IRA.
In particular, investment professionals typically receive compensation for services to retirement investors in the retail market through a variety of arrangements. These include commissions paid by the plan, participant or beneficiary, or IRA, or commissions, sales loads, 12b-1 fees, revenue sharing and other payments from third parties that provide investment products. The investment professional or its affiliate may receive such fees upon the purchase or sale by a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA of the product, or while the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, holds the product. In the Department's view, receipt by a fiduciary of such payments would violate the prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA section 406(b) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) and (F) because the amount of the fiduciary's compensation is affected by the use of its authority in providing investment advice, unless such payments meet the requirements of an exemption.
ERISA and the Code counterbalance the broad proscriptive effect of the prohibited transaction provisions with numerous statutory exemptions. For example, ERISA section 408(b)(14) and Code section 4975(d)(17) specifically exempt transactions in connection with the provision of fiduciary investment advice to a participant or beneficiary of an individual account plan or IRA owner where the advice, resulting transaction, and the adviser's fees meet certain conditions. The Secretary of Labor may grant administrative exemptions under ERISA and the Code on an individual or class basis if the Secretary finds that the exemption is (1) administratively feasible, (2) in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and (3) protective of the rights of the participants and beneficiaries of such plans and IRA owners.
Over the years, the Department has granted several conditional administrative class exemptions from the prohibited transactions provisions of ERISA and the Code. The exemptions focus on specific types of compensation arrangements. Fiduciaries relying on these exemptions must comply with certain conditions designed to protect the interests of plans and IRAs. In connection with the development of the Proposed Regulation, the Department has considered comments suggesting the need for additional prohibited transaction exemptions for the wide variety of compensation structures that exist today in the marketplace for investments. Some commentators have suggested that the lack of such relief may cause financial professionals to cut back on the provision of investment advice and the availability of products to plan participants and beneficiaries, IRAs, and smaller plans.
After consideration of the issue, the Department has determined to propose the new class exemption described below, which applies to investment advice fiduciaries providing advice to plan participants and beneficiaries, IRAs, and certain employee benefit plans with fewer than 100 participants (referred to as “retirement investors”). The exemption would apply broadly to many common types of otherwise prohibited compensation that such investment advice fiduciaries may receive, provided the protective conditions of the exemption are satisfied. The Department is also seeking public comment on whether it should issue a separate streamlined exemption that would allow advisers to receive otherwise prohibited compensation in connection with advice to invest in certain high-quality low-fee investments, subject to fewer conditions.
Elsewhere in this issue of the
Lastly, the Department is also proposing, elsewhere in this issue of the
Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 86-128
The Department is proposing to amend PTE 86-128 to require all fiduciaries relying on the exemption to adhere to the same impartial conduct standards required in the Best Interest Contract Exemption. At the same time, the proposed amendment would eliminate relief for investment advice fiduciaries to IRA owners; instead they would be required to rely on the Best Interest Contract Exemption for an exemption for such compensation. In the Department's view, the provisions in the Best Interest Contract Exemption better address the interests of IRAs with respect to transactions otherwise covered by PTE 86-128 and, unlike plan participants and beneficiaries, there is no separate plan fiduciary in the IRA market to review and authorize the transaction. Investment advice fiduciaries to plans would remain eligible for relief under the exemption, as would investment managers with full investment discretion over the investments of plans and IRA owners, but they would be required to comply with all the protective conditions, described above. Finally, the Department is proposing that PTE 86-128 extend to a new covered transaction, for fiduciaries to sell mutual fund shares out of their own inventory (
Several changes are proposed with respect to PTE 75-1, a multi-part exemption for securities transactions involving broker-dealers and banks, and plans and IRAs.
PTE 75-1, Part II(2), currently provides relief for fiduciaries to receive commissions for selling mutual fund shares to plans and IRAs in a principal transaction. As described above, the Department is proposing to provide relief for these types of transactions in PTE 86-128, and so is proposing to revoke PTE 75-1, Part II(2), in its entirety. As discussed in more detail in the notice of proposed amendment/revocation, the Department believes the conditions of PTE 86-128 are more appropriate for these transactions.
PTE 75-1, Part V, currently permits broker-dealers to extend credit to a plan or IRA in connection with the purchase or sale of securities. The exemption does not permit broker-dealers that are fiduciaries to receive compensation when doing so. The Department is proposing to amend PTE 75-1, Part V, to permit investment advice fiduciaries to receive compensation for lending money or otherwise extending credit to plans and IRAs, but only for the limited purpose of avoiding a failed securities transaction.
PTE 84-24
The Department is proposing to amend PTE 84-24 to require all fiduciaries relying on the exemption to adhere to the same impartial conduct standards required in the Best Interest Contract Exemption. At the same time, the proposed amendment would revoke PTE 84-24 in part so that investment advice fiduciaries to IRA owners would not be able to rely on PTE 84-24 with respect to (1) transactions involving variable annuity contracts and other annuity contracts that constitute securities under federal securities laws, and (2) transactions involving the purchase of mutual fund shares. Investment advice fiduciaries would instead be required to rely on the Best Interest Contract Exemption for compensation received in connection with these transactions. The Department believes that investment advice transactions involving annuity contracts that are treated as securities and transactions involving the purchase of mutual fund shares should occur under the conditions of the Best Interest Contract Exemption due to the similarity of these investments, including their distribution channels and disclosure obligations, to other investments covered in the Best Interest Contract Exemption. Investment advice fiduciaries to ERISA plans would remain eligible for relief under the exemption with respect to transactions involving all insurance and annuity
Finally, the Department is proposing amendments to certain other existing class exemptions to require adherence to the impartial conduct standards required in the Best Interest Contract Exemption. Specifically, PTEs 75-1, Part III, 75-1, Part IV, 77-4, 80-83, and 83-1, would be amended. Other than the amendments described above, however, the existing class exemptions will remain in place, affording additional flexibility to fiduciaries who currently use the exemptions or who wish to use the exemptions in the future. The Department seeks comment on whether additional exemptions are needed in light of the Proposed Regulation.
As noted above, the exemption proposed in this notice provides relief for some of the same compensation payments as the existing exemptions described above. It is intended, however, to flexibly accommodate a wide range of current business practices, while minimizing the harmful impact of conflicts of interest on the quality of advice. The exemption permits fiduciaries to continue to receive a wide variety of types of compensation that would otherwise be prohibited. It seeks to preserve beneficial business models by taking a standards-based approach that will broadly permit firms to continue to rely on common fee practices, as long as they are willing to adhere to basic standards aimed at ensuring that their advice is in the best interest of their customers. This standards-based approach stands in marked contrast to existing class exemptions that generally focus on very specific types of investments or compensation and take a highly prescriptive approach to specifying conditions. The proposed exemption would provide relief for common investments
Section I of the proposed exemption would provide relief for the receipt of prohibited compensation by “Advisers,” “Financial Institutions,” “Affiliates” and “Related Entities” for services provided in connection with a purchase, sale or holding of an “Asset”
The proposed exemption contemplates that an individual person, an Adviser, will provide advice to the Retirement Investor. An Adviser must be an investment advice fiduciary of a plan or IRA who is an employee, independent contractor, agent, or registered representative of a “Financial Institution” (discussed in the next section), and the Adviser must satisfy the applicable federal and state regulatory and licensing requirements of insurance, banking, and securities laws with respect to the receipt of the compensation.
For purposes of the proposed exemption, a Financial Institution is the entity that employs an Adviser or otherwise retains the Adviser as an independent contractor, agent or registered representative.
Relief is also proposed for the receipt of otherwise prohibited compensation by “Affiliates” and “Related Entities” with respect to the Adviser or Financial Institution.
The proposed exemption uses the term “Retirement Investor” to describe the types of persons who can be investment advice recipients under the exemption. The Retirement Investor may be a plan participant or beneficiary with authority to direct the investment of assets in his or her plan account or to take a distribution; in the case of an IRA, the beneficial owner of the IRA (
The Best Interest Contract Exemption set forth in Section I would provide prohibited transaction relief for the receipt by Advisers, Financial Institutions, Affiliates and Related Entities of a wide variety of compensation forms as a result of investment advice provided to the Retirement Investors, if the conditions of the exemption are satisfied. Specifically, Section I(b) of the proposed exemption provides that the exemption would permit an Adviser, Financial Institution and their Affiliates and Related Entities to receive compensation for services provided in connection with the purchase, sale or holding of an Asset by a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, as a result of an Adviser's or
The proposed exemption would apply to the restrictions of ERISA section 406(b) and the sanctions imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) and (F). These provisions prohibit conflict of interest transactions and receipt of third-party payments by investment advice fiduciaries.
The types of compensation payments contemplated by this proposed exemption include commissions paid directly by the plan or IRA, as well as commissions, trailing commissions, sales loads, 12b-1 fees, and revenue sharing payments paid by the investment providers or other third parties to Advisers and Financial Institutions. The exemption also would cover other compensation received by the Adviser, Financial Institution or their Affiliates and Related Entities as a result of an investment by a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, such as investment management fees or administrative services fees from an investment vehicle in which the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA invests.
As proposed, the exemption is limited to otherwise prohibited compensation generated by investments that are commonly purchased by plans, participant and beneficiary accounts, and IRAs. Accordingly, the exemption defines the “Assets” that can be sold under the exemption as bank deposits, CDs, shares or interests in registered investment companies, bank collective funds, insurance company separate accounts, exchange-traded REITs, exchange-traded funds, corporate bonds offered pursuant to a registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933, agency debt securities as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(l) or its successor, U.S. Treasury securities as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(p) or its successor, insurance and annuity contracts (both securities and non-securities), guaranteed investment contracts, and equity securities within the meaning of 17 CFR 230.405 that are exchange-traded securities within the meaning of 17 CFR 242.600. However, the definition does not encompass any equity security that is a security future or a put, call, straddle, or any other option or privilege of buying an equity security from or selling an equity security to another without being bound to do so.
Prohibited compensation received for investments that fall outside the definition of Asset would not be covered by the exemption. Limiting the exemption in this manner ensures that the investments needed to build a basic diversified portfolio are available to plans, participant and beneficiary accounts, and IRAs, while limiting the exemption to those investments that are relatively transparent and liquid, many of which have a ready market price. The Department also notes that many investment types and strategies that would not be covered by the exemption can be obtained through pooled investment funds, such as mutual funds, that are covered by the exemption.
• Do commenters agree we have identified all common investments of retail investors?
• Have we defined individual investment products with enough precision that parties will know if they are complying with this aspect of the exemption?
• Should additional investments be included in the scope of the exemption? Commenters urging addition of other investment products should fully describe the characteristics and fee structures associated with the products, as well as data supporting their position that the product is a common investment for retail investors.
The Department encourages parties to apply to the Department for individual or class exemptions for types of investments not covered by the exemption to the extent that they believe the proposed package of exemptions does not adequately cover beneficial investment practices for which appropriate protections could be crafted in an exemption.
The Department proposed this exemption to promote the provision of investment advice to retail investors that is in their best interest and untainted by conflicts of interest. The exemption would permit receipt by Advisers and Financial Institutions of otherwise prohibited compensation commonly received in the retail market, such as commissions, 12b-1 fees, and revenue sharing payments, subject to conditions designed specifically to protect the interests of the investors. For consistency with these objectives, the exemption would apply to the receipt of such compensation by Advisers, Financial Institutions and their Affiliates and Related Entities only when advice is provided to retail Retirement Investors, including plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners, and plan sponsors (including the sponsor's employees, officers, and directors) acting on behalf of non-participant-directed plans that have fewer than 100 participants. As discussed in the preamble to the Proposed Regulation and in the associated Regulatory Impact Analysis, these investors are particularly vulnerable to abuse. The proposed exemption is designed to protect these investors from the harmful impact of conflicts of interest, while minimizing the potential disruption to a retail market that relies upon many forms of compensation that ERISA would otherwise prohibit.
The Department believes that investment advice in the institutional market is best addressed through other approaches. Accordingly, the proposed exemption does not extend to transactions involving certain larger ERISA plans—those with more than 100 participants. Advice providers to these plans are already accustomed to operating in a fiduciary environment and within the framework of existing prohibited transaction exemptions, which tightly constrain the operation of conflicts of interest. As a result, including large plans within the definition of Retirement Investor could have the undesirable consequence of reducing protections provided under existing law to these investors, without offsetting benefits. In particular, it could have the undesirable effect of increasing the number and impact of conflicts of interest, rather than reducing or mitigating them.
While the Department believes that the Best Interest Contract Exemption is not the appropriate way to address any potential concerns about the impact of the expanded fiduciary definition on large plans, the Department agrees that an adjustment is necessary to accommodate arm's length transactions with plan investors with financial expertise. Accordingly, as part of this regulatory project, the Department has separately proposed a seller's carve-out in the Proposed Conflict of Interest Regulation. Under the terms of that
The Department recognizes, however, that there are smaller non-participant-directed plans for which the plan sponsor (or an employee, officer or director thereof) is responsible for choosing the specific investments and allocations for their participating employees. The Department believes that these small plan fiduciaries are appropriately categorized with plan participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, as retail investors. For this reason, the proposed exemption's definition of Retirement Investor includes plan sponsors (or employees, officers and directors thereof) of plans with fewer than 100 participants.
The proposed threshold of fewer than 100 participants is intended to reasonably identify plans that will most benefit from both the flexibility provided by this exemption and the protections embodied in its conditions. The threshold also mirrors the Proposed Regulations' 100-or-more participant threshold for the seller's carve-out. That threshold recognizes the generally greater sophistication possessed by larger plans' discretionary fiduciaries, as well as the greater vulnerability of retail investors, such as small plans. As explained in more detail in the preamble to the Proposed Regulation, investment recommendations to small plans, IRA owners and plan participants and beneficiaries do not fit the “arms length” characteristics that the seller's carve-out is designed to preserve. Recommendations to retail investors are routinely presented as advice, consulting, or financial planning services. In the securities markets, brokers' suitability obligations generally require a significant degree of individualization, and research has shown that disclaimers are ineffective in alerting typically unsophisticated investors to the dangers posed by conflicts of interest, and may even exacerbate the dangers. Most retail investors lack financial expertise, are unaware of the magnitude and impact of conflicts of interest, and are unable effectively to assess the quality of the advice they receive.
The 100 or more threshold is also consistent with that applicable for similar purposes under existing rules and practices. The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The Department invites comment on the proposed exemption's limitation to prohibited compensation received as a result of advice to Retirement Investors. In particular, we ask whether commenters support the limitation as currently formulated, whether the definitions should be revised, or whether there should not be an exclusion with respect to such larger plans at all. Commenters on this subject are also encouraged to address the interaction of the exemption's limitation with the scope of the seller's carve-out in the Proposed Regulation. Finally, we request comment on whether the exemption should be expanded to cover advice to plan sponsors (including the sponsor's employees, officers, and directors) of participant-directed plans with fewer than 100 participants on the composition of the menu of investment options available under such plans, and if so, whether additional or different conditions should apply.
Section I(c) of the proposal sets forth additional exclusions from the exemption. Section I(c)(1) provides that the exemption would not apply to the receipt of prohibited compensation from a transaction involving an ERISA plan if the Adviser, Financial Institution or Affiliate is the employer of employees covered by the ERISA plan. The Department believes that due to the special nature of the employer/employee relationship, an exemption permitting an Adviser and Financial Institution to profit from investments by employees in their employer-sponsored plan would not be in the interest of, or protective of, the plans and their participants and beneficiaries. This restriction does not apply, however, in the case of an IRA or other similar plan that is not covered by Title I of ERISA. Accordingly, an Adviser or Financial Institution may provide advice to the beneficial owner of an IRA who is employed by the Adviser, its Financial Institution or an Affiliate, and receive prohibited compensation as a result, provided the IRA is not covered by Title I of ERISA.
Section I(c)(1) further provides that the exemption does not apply if the Adviser or Financial Institution is a named fiduciary or plan administrator, as defined in ERISA section 3(16)(A)) with respect to an ERISA plan, or an affiliate thereof, that was selected to provide advice to the plan by a fiduciary who is not independent of them.
Section I(c)(2) provides that the exemption does not extend to prohibited compensation received when the Adviser engages in a principal transaction with the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA.
Section I(c)(3) provides that the exemption would not cover prohibited compensation that is received by an Adviser or Financial Institution as a result of investment advice that is generated solely by an interactive Web site in which computer software-based models or applications provide investment advice to Retirement Investors based on personal information each investor supplies through the Web site without any personal interaction or advice from an individual Adviser. Such computer derived advice is often referred to as “robo-advice.” While the Department believes that computer generated advice that is delivered in this manner may be very useful to Retirement Investors, relief will not be included in the proposal. As the marketplace for such advice is still evolving in ways that both appear to avoid conflicts of interest that would violate the prohibited transaction rules, and minimize cost, the Department believes that inclusion of such advice in this exemption could adversely modify the incentives currently shaping the market for robo-advice. Furthermore, a statutory prohibited transaction exemption at ERISA section 408(g) covers computer-generated investment advice and is available for robo-advice involving prohibited transactions if its conditions are satisfied.
Finally, Section I(c)(4) provides that the exemption is limited to Advisers who are fiduciaries by reason of providing investment advice.
Sections II-V of the proposal list the conditions applicable to the Best Interest Contract Exemption described in Section I. All applicable conditions must be satisfied in order to avoid application of the specified prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code. The Department believes that these conditions are necessary for the Secretary to find that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and of their participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners and protective of the rights of the participants and beneficiaries of such plans and IRA owners. Under ERISA section 408(a)(2), and Code section 4975(c)(2), the Secretary may not grant an exemption without making such findings. The proposed conditions of the exemption are described below.
Section II(a) of the proposal requires that an Adviser and Financial Institution enter into a written contract with the Retirement Investor prior to recommending that the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, purchase, sell or hold an Asset. The contract must be executed by both the Adviser and the Financial Institution as well as the Retirement Investor. In the case of advice provided to a plan participant or beneficiary in a participant-directed individual account plan, the participant or beneficiary should be the Retirement Investor that is the party to the contract, on behalf of his or her individual account.
The contract may be part of a master agreement with the Retirement Investor and does not require execution prior to each additional recommendation to purchase, sell or hold an Asset. The exemption, in particular the requirement to adhere to a best interest standard, does not mandate an ongoing or long-term advisory relationship, but rather leaves that to the parties. The terms of the contract, along with other representations, agreements, or understandings between the Adviser, Financial Institution and Retirement Investor, will govern whether the nature of the relationship between the parties is ongoing or not.
The contract is the cornerstone of the proposed exemption, and the Department believes that by requiring a contract as a condition of the proposed exemption, it creates a mechanism by which a Retirement Investor can be alerted to the Adviser's and Financial Institution's obligations and be provided with a basis upon which its rights can be enforced. In order to comply with the exemption, the contract must contain every required element set forth in Section II(b)-(e) and also must not include any of the prohibited provisions described in Section II(f). It is intended that the contract creates actionable obligations with respect to both the Impartial Conduct Standards and the warranties, described below. In addition, failure to satisfy the Impartial Conduct Standards will result in loss of the exemption.
It should be noted, however, that compliance with the exemption's conditions is necessary only with respect to transactions that otherwise would constitute prohibited transactions under ERISA and the Code. The exemption does not purport to impose conditions on the management of investments held outside of ERISA-covered plans and IRAs. Accordingly, the contract and its conditions are mandatory only with respect to investments held by plans and IRAs.
The proposal sets forth multiple contractual requirements. The first and most fundamental contractual requirement, which is set out in Section II(b) of proposal, is that that both the Adviser and Financial Institution must acknowledge fiduciary status under ERISA or the Code, or both, with respect to any recommendations to the Retirement Investor to purchase, sell or hold an Asset. If this acknowledgment of fiduciary status does not appear in a contract with a Retirement Investor, the exemption is not satisfied with respect to transactions involving that Retirement Investor. This fiduciary acknowledgment is critical to ensuring that there is no uncertainty—before or after investment advice is given with regard to the Asset—that both the Adviser and Financial Institution are acting as fiduciaries under ERISA and the Code with respect to that advice.
The acknowledgment of fiduciary status in the contract is nonetheless limited to the advice to the Retirement Investor to purchase, sell or hold the Asset. The Adviser and Financial Institution do not become fiduciaries with respect to any other conduct by virtue of this contractual requirement.
Building upon the required acknowledgment of fiduciary status, the proposal additionally requires that both the Adviser and the Financial Institution contractually commit to adhering to certain specifically delineated Impartial Conduct Standards when providing investment advice to the Retirement Investor regarding Assets, and that they in fact do adhere to such standards. Therefore, if an Adviser and/or Financial Institution fail to comply with the Impartial Conduct Standards, relief under the exemption is no longer available and the contract is violated.
Specifically, Section II(c)(1) of the proposal requires that under the contract the Adviser and Financial Institution provide advice regarding Assets that is in the “best interest” of
The best interest standard set forth in this exemption is based on longstanding concepts derived from ERISA and the law of trusts. For example, ERISA section 404 requires a fiduciary to act “solely in the interest of the participants . . . with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent man acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.” Similarly, both ERISA section 404(a)(1)(A) and the trust-law duty of loyalty require fiduciaries to put the interests of trust beneficiaries first, without regard to the fiduciaries' own self-interest. Accordingly, the Department would expect the standard to be interpreted in light of forty years of judicial experience with ERISA's fiduciary standards and hundreds more with the duties imposed on trustees under the common law of trusts. In general, courts focus on the process the fiduciary used to reach its determination or recommendation—whether the fiduciaries, “at the time they engaged in the challenged transactions, employed the proper procedures to investigate the merits of the investment and to structure the investment.”
In this regard, the Department notes that while fiduciaries of plans covered by ERISA are subject to the ERISA section 404 standards of prudence and loyalty, the Code contains no provisions that hold IRA fiduciaries to these standards. However, as a condition of relief under the proposed exemption, both IRA and plan fiduciaries would have to agree to, and uphold, the best interest and Impartial Conduct Standards, as set forth in Section II(c). The best interest standard is defined to effectively mirror the ERISA section 404 duties of prudence and loyalty, as applied in the context of fiduciary investment advice.
In addition to the best interest standard, the exemption imposes other important standards of impartial conduct in Section II(c) of the proposal. Section II(c)(2) requires that the Adviser and Financial Institution agree that they will not recommend an Asset if the total amount of compensation anticipated to be received by the Adviser, Financial Institution, and their Affiliates and Related Entities in connection with the purchase, sale or holding of the Asset by the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, will exceed reasonable compensation in relation to the total services they provide to the applicable Retirement Investor. The obligation to pay no more than reasonable compensation to service providers is long recognized under ERISA.
Under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c), the Department cannot grant an exemption unless it first finds that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of plans and IRA owners. An exemption permitting transactions that violate the requirements of Section II(c) would be unlikely to meet these standards.
Section II(d) of the proposal requires that the contract include certain warranties intended to be protective of the rights of Retirement Investors. In particular, to satisfy the exemption, the Adviser, and Financial Institution must warrant that they and their Affiliates will comply with all applicable federal and state laws regarding the rendering of the investment advice, the purchase, sale or holding of the Asset and the payment of compensation related to the purchase, sale and holding. Although this warranty must be included in the contract, the exemption is not conditioned on compliance with the warranty. Accordingly, the failure to comply with applicable federal or state law could result in contractual liability for breach of warranty, but it would not result in loss of the exemption, as long as the breach did not involve a violation of one of the exemption's other conditions (
The Financial Institution must also contractually warrant that it has adopted written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to mitigate the impact of material conflicts of interest that exist with respect to the provision of investment advice to Retirement Investors and ensure that individual Advisers adhere to the Impartial Conduct Standards described above. For purposes of the exemption, a material conflict of interest is deemed to exist when an Adviser or Financial Institution has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a Retirement Investor regarding an Asset.
As part of the contractual warranty on policies and procedures, the Financial Institution must state that in formulating its policies and procedures, it specifically identified material conflicts of interest and adopted measures to prevent those material conflicts of interest from causing violations of the Impartial Conduct Standards. Further, the Financial Institution must state that neither it nor (to the best of its knowledge) its Affiliates or Related Entities will use quotas, appraisals, performance or personnel actions, bonuses, contests, special awards, differentiated compensation or other actions or incentives to the extent they would tend to encourage individual Advisers to make recommendations that are not in the best interest of Retirement Investors.
While these warranties must be part of the contract between the Adviser and
Under the proposal, a Financial Institution's policies and procedures must not authorize compensation or incentive systems that would tend to encourage individual Advisers to make recommendations that are not in the best interest of Retirement Investors. Consistent with the general approach in the proposal to the Financial Institution's policies and procedures, however, there are no particular required compensation or employment structures. Certainly, one way for a Financial Institution to comply is to adopt a “level-fee” structure, in which compensation for Advisers does not vary based on the particular investment product recommended. But the exemption does not mandate such a structure. The Department believes that the specific implementation of this requirement is best determined by the Financial Institution in light of its particular circumstances and business models.
For further clarification, the Department sets forth the following examples of broad approaches to compensation structures that could help satisfy the contractual warranty regarding the policies and procedures. In connection with all these examples, it is important that the Financial Institution carefully monitor whether the policies and procedures are, in fact, working to prevent the provision of biased advice. The Financial Institution must correct isolated or systemic violations of the Impartial Conduct Standards and reasonably revise policies and procedures when failures are identified.
Independently certified computer models.
Asset-based compensation. The Financial Institution pays the Adviser a percentage, which does not vary based on the types of investments, of the dollar amount of assets invested by the plans, participant and beneficiary accounts, and IRAs with the Adviser. Under this example, assume the Financial Institution established the percentage as 0.1% on a quarterly basis. If a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, invested a total of $10,000 with the Adviser, divided 25% in equity securities, 50% in proprietary mutual funds, and 25% in bonds underwritten by non-Related Entities, and did not withdraw any of the money within the quarter, the Adviser would receive 0.1% of the $10,000.
Fee offset. The Financial Institution establishes a fee schedule for its services. It accepts transaction-based payments directly from the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, and/or from third party investment providers. To the extent the payments from third party investment providers exceed the established fee for a particular service, such amounts are rebated to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA. To the extent third party payments do not satisfy the established fee, the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA is charged directly for the remaining amount due.
Differential Payments Based on Neutral Factors. The Financial Institution establishes payment structures under which transactions involving different investment products result in differential compensation to the Adviser based on a reasonable assessment of the time and expertise necessary to provide prudent advice on the product or other reasonable and objective neutral factors. For example, a Financial Institution could compensate an Adviser differently for advisory work relating to annuities, as opposed to shares in a mutual fund, if it reasonably determined that the time to research and explain the products differed. However, the payment structure must be reasonably designed to avoid incentives to Advisers to recommend investment transactions that are not in Retirement Investors' best interest.
Alignment of Interests. The Financial Institution's policies and procedures establish a compensation structure that is reasonably designed to align the interests of the Adviser with the interests of the Retirement Investor. For example, this might include compensation that is primarily asset-based, as discussed in Example 2, with the addition of bonuses and other incentives paid to promote advice that is in the Best Interest of the Retirement Investor. While the compensation would be variable, it would align with the customer's best interest.
These examples are not exhaustive, and many other compensation and employment arrangements may satisfy the contractual warranties. The exemption imposes a broad standard for the warranty and policies and procedures requirement, not an inflexible and highly-prescriptive set of rules. The Financial Institution retains the latitude necessary to design its compensation and employment arrangements, provided that those arrangements promote, rather than undermine, the best interest and Impartial Conduct Standards.
Whether a Financial Institution adopts one of the specific approaches taken in the examples above or a different approach, the Department expects that it will engage in a good faith process to prudently establish and oversee policies and procedures that will effectively mitigate conflicts of interest and ensure adherence to the Impartial Conduct Standards. To this end, Financial Institutions may also want to consider designating an individual or group responsible for addressing material conflicts of interest issues. An internal compliance officer or a committee could monitor adherence to the Impartial Conduct Standards and consider ways to ensure compliance. The individual or group could also develop procedures for reporting material conflicts of interest and for handling external and internal complaints within the Financial Institution, and disciplinary measures for non-compliance with the Impartial Conduct Standards. Additionally, Financial Institutions should consider how best to inform and train individual Advisers on the Impartial Conduct Standards and other requirements of the exemption.
Additionally, Financial Institutions could consider the following components of effective policies and procedures relating to an Adviser's compensation: (i) Avoiding creating compensation thresholds that enable an Adviser to increase his or her
The Department seeks comments on all aspects of its discussion of the sorts of policies and procedures that will satisfy the required contractual warranties of Section II(d)(2)-(4). In particular, the Department requests comments on whether the exemption should be more prescriptive about the terms of policies and procedures, or provide more detailed examples of acceptable policies and procedures. In addition, the Department requests comments on whether commenters believe the examples describe policies and procedures that would achieve the investor-protective objectives of the exemption.
Finally, Section II(e) of the proposal requires certain disclosures in the written contract. If the disclosures do not appear in a contract with a Retirement Investor, the exemption is not satisfied with respect to transactions involving that Retirement Investor. First, Section II(e)(1) provides that the Financial Institution and the Adviser must identify in the written contract any material conflicts of interest. This disclosure may be a general description of the types of material conflicts of interest applicable to the Financial Institution and Adviser, provided the disclosure also informs the Retirement Investor that a more specific description that is kept current is available on the Financial Institution's Web site (web address provided) and by mail, upon request of the Retirement Investor.
Second, Section II(e)(2) requires that the written contract must inform the Retirement Investor of the right to obtain complete information about all of the fees currently associated with the Assets in which it is invested, including all of the fees payable to the Adviser, Financial Institution, and any Affiliates and Related Entities in connection with such investments. The fee information must be complete, and it must include both the direct and the indirect fees paid by the plan or IRA.
The contractual requirements set forth in Section II of the proposal are enforceable. Plans, plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners, and the Department may use the contract as a tool to ensure compliance with the exemption. The Department notes, however, that this contractual tool creates different rights with respect to plans, participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners and the Department.
The contract between the IRA owner and the Adviser and Financial Institution forms the basis of the IRA owner's enforcement rights. As outlined above, the contract embodies obligations on the part of the Adviser and Financial Institution. The Department intends that all the contractual obligations (the Impartial Conduct Standards and the warranties) will be actionable by IRA owners. The most important of these contractual obligations for enforcement purposes is the obligation imposed on both the Adviser and the Financial Institution to comply with the Impartial Conduct Standards. Because these standards are contractually imposed, the IRA owner has a contract claim if, for example, the Adviser recommends an investment product that is not in the best interest of the IRA owner.
The protections of the exemption and contractual terms will also be enforceable by plans, plan participants and beneficiaries. Specifically, if an Adviser or Financial Institution received compensation in a prohibited transaction but failed to satisfy any of the Impartial Conduct Standards or any other condition of the exemption, the Adviser and Financial Institution would be unable to qualify for relief under the exemption, and, as a result, could be liable under ERISA section 502(a)(2) and (3). An Adviser's failure to comply with the exemption or the Impartial Conduct Standards would result in a non-exempt prohibited transaction and would likely constitute a fiduciary breach. As a result, a plan, plan participant or beneficiary would be able to sue under ERISA section 502(a)(2) or (3) to recover any loss in value to the plan (including the loss in value to an individual account), or to obtain disgorgement of any wrongful profits or unjust enrichment. Additionally, plans, participants and beneficiaries could enforce their obligations in an action based on breach of the agreement.
In addition, the Department would be able to enforce ERISA's prohibited transaction and fiduciary duty provisions with respect to employee benefit plans, but not IRAs, in the event that the Adviser or Financial Institution received compensation in a prohibited transaction but failed to comply with the exemption or the Impartial Conduct Standards. If, for example, any of the
In addition to the claims described above that may be brought by IRA owners, plans, plan participants and beneficiaries, and the Department, to enforce the contract and ERISA, Advisers and Financial Institutions that engage in prohibited transactions under the Code are subject to an excise tax. The excise tax is generally equal to 15% of the amount involved. Parties who have participated in a prohibited transaction for which an exemption is not available must pay the excise tax and file Form 5330 with the Internal Revenue Service.
Finally, in order to preserve these various enforcement rights, Section II(f) of the proposal provides that certain provisions may not be part of the contract. If these provisions appear in a contract with a Retirement Investor, the exemption is not satisfied with respect to transactions involving that Retirement Investor. First, the proposal requires that the contract may not contain exculpatory provisions that disclaim or otherwise limit liability for an Adviser's or Financial Institution's violations of the contract's terms. Second, the contract may not require the Retirement Investor to agree to waive or qualify its right to bring or participate in a class action or other representative action in court in a contract dispute with the Adviser or Financial Institution. The right of a Retirement Investor to bring a class-action claim in court (and the corresponding limitation on fiduciaries' ability to mandate class-action arbitration) is consistent with FINRA's position that its arbitral forum is not the correct venue for class-action claims. As proposed, this section would not affect the ability of a Financial Institution or Adviser, and a Retirement Investor, to enter into a pre-dispute binding arbitration agreement with respect to individual contract claims. The Department expects that most individual arbitration claims under this exemption will be subject to FINRA's arbitration procedures and consumer protections. The Department seeks comments on whether there are certain procedures and/or consumer protections that it should adopt or mandate for those disputes not covered by FINRA.
In order to facilitate access to information on Financial Institution and Adviser compensation, the proposal requires both public disclosure and disclosure to Retirement Investors.
Section III(c) of the proposal requires that the Financial Institution maintain a public Web page that provides several different types of information. The Web page must show the direct and indirect material compensation payable to the Adviser, Financial Institution and any Affiliate for services provided in connection with each Asset (or, if uniform across a class of Assets, the class of Assets) that a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA, is able to purchase, hold, or sell through the Adviser or Financial Institution, and that a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA has purchased, held, or sold within the last 365 days, the source of the compensation, and how the compensation varies within and among Asset classes. The Web page must be updated at reasonable intervals, not less than quarterly. The compensation may be expressed as a monetary amount, formula or percentage of the assets involved in the purchase, sale or holding.
The information provided by the Web page will provide a broad base of information about the various pricing and compensation structures adopted by Financial Institutions and Advisers. The Department believes that the data provided on the Web page will provide information that can be used by financial information companies to analyze and provide information comparing the practices of different Advisers and Financial Institutions. Such information will allow a Retirement Investor to evaluate costs and Advisers' and Financial Institutions' compensation practices.
The Web page information must be provided in a manner that is easily accessible to a Retirement Investor and the general public. Appendix I to this notice is an exemplar of a possible web disclosure. In addition, the Web page must also contain a version of the same information that is formatted in a machine-readable manner. The Department recognizes that machine readable data can be formatted in many ways. Therefore, the Department requests comment on the format and data fields that should be required under such a condition.
In Section III(a), the exemption requires point of sale disclosure to the Retirement Investor, prior to the execution of the investment transaction, regarding the all-in cost and anticipated future costs of recommended Assets. The disclosure is designed to make as clear and salient as possible the total cost that the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA will incur when following the Adviser's recommendation, and to provide cost information that can be compared across different Assets that are recommended for investment. In addition, the projection of the costs over various holding periods would inform the Retirement Investor of the cumulative impact of the costs over time and of potential costs when the investment is sold.
As proposed, the disclosure requirement of Section III(a) would be provided in a summary chart designed to direct the Retirement Investor's attention to a few important data points regarding fees, in a time frame that would enable the Retirement Investor to discuss other (possibly less costly) alternatives with the Adviser prior to executing the transaction. The disclosure chart does not have to be provided again with respect to a subsequent recommendation to purchase the same investment product, so long as the chart was previously provided to the Retirement Investor within the past 12 months and the total cost has not materially changed.
To the extent compliance with the point of sale disclosure requires Advisers and Financial Institutions to obtain cost information from entities that are not closely affiliated with them, they may rely in good faith on information and assurances from the other entities, as long as they do not know that the materials are incomplete or inaccurate. This good faith reliance applies unless the entity providing the information to the Adviser and Financial Institution is (1) a person directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser or Financial Institution; or (2) any officer, director, employee, agent, registered representative, relative (as defined in ERISA section 3(15)), member of family (as defined in Code section 4975(e)(6)) of, or partner in, the Adviser or Financial Institution.
The required chart would disclose with respect to each Asset
As defined in the proposal, the “total cost” of investing in an asset means the sum of the following, as applicable: Acquisition costs, ongoing costs, disposition costs, and any other costs that reduce the asset's rate of return, are paid by direct charge to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, or reduce the amounts received by the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA (
• Are the all-in costs of the investments permitted under the proposal capable of being reflected accurately in the chart?
• Are all-in costs already reflected in the summary prospectuses for certain investments?
• Have we correctly identified the possible various costs associated with the permitted investments?
• Should the point of sale disclosure requirement be limited to certain events, such as opening a new account or rolling over existing investments? If so, what changes would be needed to the model chart?
• Are our proposed definitions of the various costs clear enough to result in information that is reasonably comparable across different Financial Institutions?
• Is it possible to attribute all the costs to the account of a particular plan, participant or beneficiary, or IRA?
• How should long-term costs be measured?
• Will Advisers and Financial Institutions have access to the information required to be disclosed in the chart?
• Are there existing systems at Financial Institutions that could produce the disclosure required in this proposal? If not, what is the cost of developing a system to comply?
• What are the costs associated with providing the disclosure?
• Would the costs be reduced if the Adviser and Financial Institution could provide the disclosure for full portfolios of investments, rather than for each investment recommendation separately?
• Would the costs be reduced if the timing of the disclosure was more closely aligned with the SEC's disclosure requirements applicable to broker-dealers (
• Are there particular asset classes for which this kind of point of sale disclosure is more feasible or less feasible? What share of assets held by Retirement Investors or share of transactions executed by Advisers and Financial Institutions fall within the asset classes for which the point of sale disclosure is more feasible and less feasible?
• Are there particular asset classes for which all the information that would be required to be disclosed in the chart is currently required in a similar format under existing law?
• Would the required disclosure be more feasible or less costly if a narrative statement were required instead of a summary chart?
• Would the simplified format result in the communication of information that is accurate, and contribute to informed investment decisions?
• Do commenters recommend an alternative format or alternative disclosures?
• Would the relative fees associated with different types of investment products, without a required disclosure of the relative risks of the product (
• In the absence of a required benchmark, is the disclosure of the all-in fees of a particular investment helpful to the Retirement Investor? If not, how could a benchmark be crafted for the various Assets permitted to be sold under the proposal?
Section III(b) of the proposal requires individual disclosure in the form of an annual disclosure. Specifically, the proposal requires the Adviser or Financial Institution to provide each
The Department requests comment on this disclosure, in light of the potential point of sale disclosure. We are particularly interested in comments discussing whether both disclosures would be helpful and, if not, which would be more useful to Retirement Investors?
Section III(a) and (b) will apply to all Assets as defined in the proposal. This includes insurance and annuity contracts that are securities under federal securities law, such as variable annuities, and insurance and annuity contracts that are not, such as fixed annuities. The Department requests comment on whether the types of information required in the Section III(a) and (b) disclosures are applicable and available with respect to insurance and annuity contracts that are not securities.
In this regard, we note that PTE 84-24
The Department has determined however that PTE 84-24 should remain available for investment advice fiduciaries to receive commissions for IRA (and plan) purchases of insurance and annuity contracts that are not securities. This distinction is due in part to uncertainty as to whether the disclosure requirements proposed herein are readily applicable to insurance and annuity contracts that are not securities, and whether the distribution methods and channels of insurance products that are not securities fit within this exemption's framework.
The Department requests comment on this approach. In particular, we ask whether we have drawn the correct lines between insurance and annuity products that are securities and those that are not, in terms of our decision to continue to allow IRA transactions involving non-security insurance and annuity contracts to occur under the conditions of PTE 84-24 while requiring IRA transactions involving securities to occur under the conditions of this proposed Best Interest Contract Exemption.
In order for us to evaluate our approach, we request public comment the current disclosure requirements applicable to insurance and annuity contracts that are not securities. Can Section III(a) and (b) can be revised with respect to such non-securities insurance and annuity contracts to provide meaningful information to investors as to the costs of such investments and the overall compensation received by Advisers and Financial Institutions in connection with the transactions? In addition, the Department requests information on the distribution methods and channels applicable to insurance and annuity products that are not securities. What are common structures of insurance agencies?
Finally, we request public input as to whether any conditions of this proposed Best Interest Contract Exemption, other than the disclosure conditions discussed above, would be inapplicable to non-security insurance and annuity products? Are any aspects of this exemption particularly difficult for insurance companies to comply with?
Section IV(a) of the proposal requires a Financial Institution to offer for purchase, sale, or holding and the Adviser to make available to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, for purchase, sale or holding a broad range of investment options. These investment options should enable an Adviser to make recommendations to the Retirement Investor with respect to all of the asset classes reasonably necessary to serve the best interests of the Retirement Investor in light of the Retirement Investor's objectives, risk tolerance and specific financial circumstances. The Department believes that ensuring that an Adviser has a wide range of investment options at his or her disposal is the most likely method by which a Retirement Investor can be assured of developing a balanced investment portfolio.
The Department recognizes, however, that some Financial Institutions limit the investment products that a Retirement Investor may purchase, sell or hold based on whether the products generate third-party payments or are proprietary products, or for other reasons (
The additional conditions are set forth in Section IV(b) of the proposal. First, before limiting the investment products a Retirement Investor may purchase, sell or hold, the Financial Institution must make a specific written finding that the limitations do not prevent the Adviser from providing advice that is in the best interest of the Retirement Investors (
Second, the proposal provides that the payments received in connection with these limited menus be reasonable in relation to the value of specific services provided to Retirement Investors in exchange for the payments and not in excess of the services' fair market value. This is more specific than the reasonable compensation requirement set forth in the contract under Section II because of the limitation placed by the Financial Institution on the investments available for Adviser recommendation. The Department intends to ensure that such additional payments received in connection with the advice are for specific services to Retirement Investors.
The proposal additionally provides that the Financial Institution or Adviser, before giving any recommendations to a Retirement Investor, must give clear written notice to the Retirement Investor of any limitations placed by the Financial Institution on the investment products offered by the Adviser. In this regard, it is insufficient for the notice merely to state that the Financial Institution “may” limit investment recommendations, without specifically disclosing the extent to which the Financial Institution in fact does so.
Finally, the proposal would require an Adviser or Financial Institution to notify the Retirement Investor if the Adviser does not recommend a sufficiently broad range of investment options to meet the Retirement Investor's needs. For example, the Department envisions the provision of such a notice when the Adviser and Financial Institution provide advice with respect to a limited class of investment products, but those products do not meet a particular investor's needs. The Department requests comment on whether it is possible to state this standard with more specificity, or whether more detailed guidance is needed for parties to determine when compliance with the condition would be necessary. The Department also requests comment on whether any specific disclosure is necessary to inform the Retirement Investor about the particular conflicts of interest associated with Advisers that recommend only proprietary products, and, if so, what the disclosure should say.
The conditions of Section IV do not apply to an Adviser or Financial Institution with respect to the provision of investment advice to a participant or beneficiary of a participant directed individual account plan concerning the participant's or beneficiary's selection of designated investment options available under the plan, provided the Adviser and Financial Institution did not provide advice to the responsible plan fiduciary regarding the menu of designated investment options. In such circumstances, the Adviser and Financial Institution are not responsible for the limitations on the investment options.
Before receiving prohibited compensation in reliance on Section I of this exemption, Section V(a) of the proposal requires that the Financial Institution notify the Employee Benefits Security Administration of the intention to rely on this exemption. The notice need not identify any specific plan or IRA. The notice will remain in effect until it is revoked in writing. The Department envisions accepting the notice via email and regular mail.
This is a notice provision only and does not require any approval or finding by the Department that the Financial Institution is eligible for the exemption. Once a Financial Institution has sent the notice, it can immediately begin to rely on the exemption provided the conditions are satisfied.
Section V(b) of the proposed exemption also would require Financial Institutions to maintain certain data, which is specified in Section IX, for six years from the date of the applicable transaction. The data request would require Financial Institutions to maintain and disclose to the Department upon request specific information regarding purchases, sales, and holdings by Retirement Investors made pursuant to advice provided by Advisers and Financial Institutions relying on the proposed exemption. Financial Institutions may maintain this information in any form that may be readily analyzed by the Department or simply as raw data. Receipt of this additional data will assist the Department in assessing the effectiveness of the exemption.
No party, other than the Financial Institution responsible for compliance, will be subject to the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), if applicable, if the Financial Institution fails to maintain the data or the data are not available for examination.
Finally, Section V(c) and (d) of the proposal contains a general recordkeeping requirement applicable to the Financial Institution. The general recordkeeping requirement relates to the records necessary for the Department and certain other entities to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been satisfied.
If the exemption is granted, relief under the Best Interest Contract Exemption will be available only if all applicable conditions described above are satisfied. Satisfaction of the conditions is determined on a transaction by transaction basis, however. Thus, the effect of noncompliance with a condition depends on whether the condition applies to a single transaction or multiple transactions. For example, if an Adviser fails to provide a transaction disclosure in accordance with Section III(a) with respect to an Asset purchased by a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA, the relief provided by the Best Interest Contract Exemption would be unavailable to the Adviser and Financial Institution only for the otherwise prohibited compensation received in connection with the investment in that specific Asset by the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA. More broadly, if an Adviser and Financial Institution fail to enter into a contract with a Retirement Investor in accordance with Section II, relief under the Best Interest Contract Exemption would be unavailable solely with respect to the investments by that Retirement Investor, not all Retirement Investors to which the Adviser and Financial Institution provide advice. However, if a Financial Institution fails to comply with a condition that is necessary for all transactions involving investment advice to Retirement
The Best Interest Contract Exemption, as set forth above, permits Advisers and Financial Institutions to receive compensation that would otherwise be prohibited by the self-dealing and conflicts of interest provisions of ERISA and the Code. ERISA and the Code contain additional prohibitions on certain specific transactions between plans and IRAs and “parties in interest” and “disqualified persons,” including service providers. These additional prohibited transactions include: (i) The purchase or sale of an asset between a plan/IRA and a party in interest/disqualified person, and (ii) the transfer of plan/IRA assets to a party in interest/disqualified person. These prohibited transactions are subject to excise tax and personal liability for the fiduciary.
A plan's or IRA's purchase of an insurance or annuity product would be a prohibited transaction if the insurance company has a pre-existing relationship with the plan/IRA as a service provider, or is otherwise a party in interest/disqualified person. In the Department's view, this circumstance is common enough in connection with recommendations by Advisers and Financial Institutions to warrant proposal of an exemption for these types of transactions in conjunction with the Best Interest Contract Exemption. The Department anticipates that the fiduciary that causes a plan's or IRA's purchase of an insurance or annuity product would not be the Adviser or Financial Institution but would instead be another fiduciary, such as a plan sponsor or IRA owner, acting on the Adviser's or Financial Institution's advice. Because the party requiring relief for this prohibited transaction is separate and independent of the Adviser and Financial Institution, the Department is proposing this exemption subject to discrete conditions described below.
Although there is an existing exemption which would often cover these transactions, PTE 84-24, the Department is proposing elsewhere in this issue of the
As with the Best Interest Contract Exemption, relief under the proposed insurance and annuity exemption in Section VI would not extend to a plan covered by Title I of ERISA where (i) the Adviser, Financial Institution or any Affiliate is the employer of employees covered by the plan, or (ii) the Adviser or Financial Institution is a named fiduciary or plan administrator (as defined in ERISA section 3(16)(A)) with respect to the plan, or an affiliate thereof, that has not been selected by a fiduciary that is Independent. The conditions proposed for the insurance and annuity exemption are that the transaction must be effected by the insurance company in the ordinary course of its business as an insurance company, the combined total of all fees and compensation received by the insurance company is not in excess of reasonable compensation under the circumstances, the purchase is for cash only, and that the terms of the purchase are at least as favorable to the plan as the terms generally available in an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party.
Section VII of the proposal would provide an exemption for Advisers, Financial Institutions, and their Affiliates and Related Entities in connection with transactions that occurred prior to the applicability date of the Proposed Regulation, if adopted. Specifically, the exemption would provide relief from ERISA sections 406(a)(1)(D) and 406(b) for the receipt of prohibited compensation, after the applicability date of the regulation, by an Adviser, Financial Institution and any Affiliate or Related Entity for services provided in connection with the purchase, sale or holding of an Asset before the applicability date. The Department is proposing this exemption to provide relief for investment professionals that may have provided advice prior to the applicability date of the regulation but did not consider themselves fiduciaries. Their receipt after the applicability date of ongoing periodic payments of compensation attributable to a purchase, sale or holding of an Asset by a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, prior to the applicability date of the regulation might otherwise raise prohibited transaction concerns.
The Department is also proposing this exemption for Advisers and Financial Institutions who were considered fiduciaries before the applicability date, but who entered into transactions involving plans and IRAs before the applicability date in accordance with the terms of a prohibited transaction exemption that has since been amended. Section VII would permit Advisers, Financial Institutions, and their Affiliates and Related Entities, to receive compensation such as 12b-1 fees, after the applicability date, that is attributable to a purchase, sale or holding of an Asset by a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA, that occurred prior to the applicability date.
In order to take advantage of this relief, the exemption would require that the compensation must be received pursuant to an agreement, arrangement or understanding that was entered into prior to the applicability date of the regulation, and that the Adviser and Financial Institution not provide additional advice to the plan or IRA, regarding the purchase, sale or holding of the Asset after the applicability date of the regulation. Relief would not be extended to compensation that is excluded pursuant to Section I(c) of the proposal or to compensation received in connection with a purchase or sale transaction that, at the time it was entered into, was a non-exempt prohibited transaction. The Department requests comment on whether there are other areas in which exemptions would be desirable to avoid unforeseen consequences in connection with the timing of the finalization of the Proposed Regulation.
While the flexibility of the Best Interest Contract Exemption is designed to accommodate a wide range of current business practices and avoid the need for highly prescriptive regulation, the Department acknowledges that there may be actors in the industry that would
A low-fee streamlined exemption is an attractive idea that, if properly crafted, could achieve important goals. It could minimize the compliance burdens for Advisers offering high-quality low-fee investment products with minimal potential for material conflicts of interest, as discussed further below. Products that met the conditions of the streamlined exemption could be recommended to plans, participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners, and the Adviser could receive variable and third-party compensation as a result of those recommendations, without satisfying some or all of the conditions of the Best Interest Contract Exemption. The streamlined exemption could reward and encourage best practices with respect to optimizing the quality, amount, and combined, all-in cost of recommended financial products, financial advice, and other related services. In particular, a streamlined exemption could be useful in enhancing access to quality, affordable financial products and advice by savers with smaller account balances. Additionally, because it would be premised on a fee comparison, it would apply only to investments with relatively simple and transparent fee structures.
In this regard, the Department believes that certain high-quality investments are provided pursuant to fee structures in which the payments are sufficiently low that they do not present serious potential material conflicts of interest. In theory, a streamlined exemption with relatively few conditions could be constructed around such investments. Facilitating investments in such high-quality low-fee products would be consistent with the prevailing (though by no means universal) view in the academic literature that posits that the optimal investment strategy is often to buy and hold a diversified portfolio of assets calibrated to track the overall performance of financial markets. Under this view, for example, a long-term recommendation to buy and hold a low-priced (often passively managed) target date fund that is consistent with the investor's future risk appetite trajectory is likely to be sound. As another example, under this view, a medium-term recommendation to buy and hold (for 5 or perhaps 10 years) an inexpensive, risk-matched balanced fund or combination of funds, and afterward to review the investor's circumstances and formulate a new recommendation also is likely to be sound.
If it could be constructed appropriately, a streamlined exemption for high-quality low-fee investments could be subject to relatively few conditions, because the investments present minimal risk of abuse to plans, participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners. The aim would be to design conditions with sufficient objectivity that Advisers and Financial Institutions could proceed with certainty in their business operations when recommending the investments. The Department does not anticipate that such a streamlined exemption would require Advisers and Financial Institutions to undertake the contractual commitments to adhere to the Impartial Conduct Standards or adopt anti-conflict policies and procedures with respect to advice given on such products, as is proposed in the Best Interest Contract Exemption. However, some of the required disclosures proposed in the Best Interest Contract Exemption would likely be imposed in the streamlined exemption.
The Department has initially focused on mutual funds as the only type of investment widely held by Retirement Investors that would be readily susceptible to the type of expense calculations necessary to implement the low-fee streamlined exemption. This is due to the transparency associated with mutual fund investments and, in particular, the requirement that the mutual fund disclose its fees and operating expenses in its prospectus. Accordingly, data on mutual fund fees and expenses is widely available.
Within the category of mutual fund investments, the Department is considering whether the streamlined exemption would be available to funds with all-in fees below a certain amount. However, the Department lacks data regarding the characteristics of mutual funds with low all-in fees. Consequently, we are exploring whether the streamlined exemption should contain additional conditions to safeguard the interests of plans, participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners. For example, the streamlined exemption could require that the investment product be “broadly diversified to minimize risk for targeted return,” or “calibrated to provide a balance of risk and return appropriate to the investor's circumstances and preferences for the duration of the recommended holding period.” However, we recognize that adding conditions might undercut the usefulness of the streamlined exemption.
To further aid in the design of the streamlined exemption, the Department requests comments on the questions below. The Regulatory Impact Analysis for the Proposed Regulation, published elsewhere in this issue of the
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Certain existing exemptions, including amendments thereto and superseding exemptions, provide relief for specific types of transactions that are outside of the scope of this proposed exemption. A person seeking relief for a transaction covered by one of those existing exemptions would need to comply with its requirements and conditions. Those exemptions are as follows:
(1) PTE 75-1 (Part III),
(2) PTE 75-1 (Part V),
(3) PTE 83-1,
(4) PTE 2004-16,
(5) PTE 2006-16,
The Department is proposing that compliance with the final regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) will begin eight months after publication of the final regulation in the
The Department recognizes that complying with the requirements of the exemption may represent a significant adjustment for many Advisers and Financial Institutions, particularly in their dealings with IRA owners. At the same time, in the Department's view, it is essential that Advisers and Financial Institutions wishing to receive compensation under the exemption institute certain conditions for the protection of IRA customers as of the Applicability Date. These safeguards include: Acknowledging fiduciary status,
The Department also specifically requests comment on whether it should delay certain other conditions of the exemption as applicable to IRA transactions for an additional period (
The Department does not believe that such additional delay would be warranted for Advisers and Financial Institutions with respect to transactions involving ERISA plan sponsors and ERISA plan participants and beneficiaries. Advisers and Financial Institutions to ERISA plans and their participants and beneficiaries are accustomed to working within the existing exemptions, such as PTEs 86-128 and 84-24, and such exemptions would remain available to them while they develop systems for complying with this exemption.
The Department additionally notes that, elsewhere in this issue of the
If granted, this proposed exemption will not provide relief from a transaction prohibited by ERISA section 406(a)(1)(C), or from the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b) by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(C), regarding the furnishing of goods, services or facilities between a plan and a party in interest. The provision of investment advice to a plan under a contract with a plan fiduciary is a service to the plan and compliance with this exemption will not relieve an Adviser or Financial Institution of the need to comply with ERISA section 408(b)(2), Code section 4975(d)(2), and applicable regulations thereunder.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal
Currently, the Department is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection request (ICR) included in the Best Interest Contract Exemption (PTE) as part of its proposal to amend its 1975 rule that defines when a person who provides investment advice to an employee benefit plan or IRA becomes a fiduciary. A copy of the ICR may be obtained by contacting the PRA addressee shown below or at
The Department has submitted a copy of the PTE to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d) for review of its information collections. The Department and OMB are particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; Attention: Desk Officer for the Employee Benefits Security Administration. OMB requests that comments be received within 30 days of publication of the proposed PTE to ensure their consideration.
As discussed in detail below, the PTE would require financial institutions and their advisers to enter into a contractual arrangement with retirement investors making investment decisions on behalf of the plan or IRA (
The Department has made the following assumptions in order to establish a reasonable estimate of the paperwork burden associated with these ICRs:
• Disclosures distributed electronically will be distributed via means already used by respondents in the normal course of business and the costs arising from electronic distribution will be negligible;
• Financial institutions will use existing in-house resources to prepare the contracts and disclosures, adjust their IT systems, and maintain the recordkeeping systems necessary to meet the requirements of the exemption;
• A combination of personnel will perform the tasks associated with the ICRs at an hourly wage rate of $125.95 for a financial manager, $30.42 for clerical personnel, $79.67 for an IT professional, and $129.94 for a legal professional;
• Approximately 2,800 financial institutions
In order to receive prohibited compensation under this PTE, Section II requires financial institutions and advisers to enter into a written contract with retirement investors affirmatively stating that they are fiduciaries under ERISA or the Code with respect to any recommendations to the retirement investor to purchase, sell or hold specified assets, and that the financial institution and adviser will give advice that is in the best interest of the retirement investor.
Section III(a) requires the adviser to furnish the retirement investor with a disclosure prior to the execution of the purchase of the asset stating the total cost of investing in the asset. Section III(b) requires the adviser or financial institution to furnish the retirement investor with an annual statement listing all assets purchased or sold during the year, as well as the associated fees and expenses paid by the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, and the compensation received by the financial institution and the adviser. Section III(c) requires the financial institution to maintain a publicly available Web page displaying the compensation (including its source and how it varies within asset classes) that would be received by the adviser, the financial institution and any affiliate
If the financial institution limits the assets available for sale, Section IV requires the financial institution to furnish the retirement investor with a written description of the limitations placed on the menu. The adviser must also notify the retirement investor if it does not recommend a sufficiently broad range of assets to meet the retirement investor's needs.
Finally, before the financial institution begins engaging in transactions covered under this PTE, Section V(a) requires the financial institution to provide notice to the Department of its intent to rely on this proposed PTE.
The Department estimates that drafting the PTE's contractual provisions, the notice to the Department, and the limited menu disclosure will require 60 hours of legal time for financial institutions during the first year that the financial institution uses the PTE. This legal work results in approximately 168,000 hours of burden during the first year and approximately 13,000 hours of burden during subsequent years at an equivalent cost of $21.8 million and $1.7 million respectively.
The Department estimates that updating computer systems to create the required disclosures, insert the contract provisions into existing contracts, maintain the required records, and publish information on the Web site will require 100 hours of IT staff time for financial institutions during the first year that the financial institution uses the PTE.
The Department estimates that approximately 21.3 million plans and IRAs have relationships with financial institutions and are likely to engage in transactions covered under this PTE.
The Department assumes that financial institutions already maintain contracts with their clients. Therefore, the required contractual provisions will be inserted into existing contracts with no additional cost for production or distribution.
The Department assumes that financial institutions will send approximately 24 point-of-sale transaction disclosures each year to 37,000 small defined benefit plans and small defined contribution plans that do not allow participants to direct investments. All of these disclosures will be sent electronically at de minimis cost. Financial institutions will send two point-of-sale transaction disclosures each year to 1.1 million defined contribution plans participants and 20.2 million IRA holders. These disclosures will be distributed electronically to 75 percent of defined contribution plan participants and IRA holders. Paper copies of the disclosure will be given to 25 percent of defined contribution plan participants and IRA holders. Further, 15 percent of the paper copies will be mailed, while the other 85 percent will be hand-delivered during in-person meetings. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in de minimis cost, while paper distribution will cost approximately $1.3 million. Paper distribution will also require one minute of clerical time to print the disclosure and one minute of clerical time to mail the disclosure, resulting in 204,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $6.2 million annually.
The Department estimates that 21.3 million plans and IRAs will receive an annual statement. Small defined benefit and defined contribution plans that do not allow participants to direct investments will receive a ten page statement electronically at de minimis cost. Defined contribution plan participants and IRA holders will receive a two page statement. This statement will be distributed electronically to 38 percent of defined contribution plan participants and 50 percent of IRA holders. Paper statements will be mailed to 62 percent of defined contribution plan participants and 50 percent of IRA holders. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in de minimis cost, while paper distribution will cost approximately $6.3 million. Paper distribution will also require two minutes of clerical time to print and mail the disclosure, resulting in 359,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $10.9 million annually.
For purposes of this estimate, the Department assumes that nearly all financial institutions using the PTE will limit their investment menus in some way and provide the limited menu disclosure. Accordingly, during the first year of the exemption the Department estimates that all of the 21.3 million plans and IRAs would receive the one-page limited menu disclosure. In subsequent years, approximately 1.7 million plans and IRAs would receive the one-page limited menu disclosure. Small defined benefit and defined contribution plans that do not allow participants to direct investments would receive the disclosure electronically at de minimis cost. The disclosure would be distributed electronically to 75 percent of defined contribution plan participants and IRA holders. Paper copies of the disclosure would be given to 25 percent of defined contribution plan participants and IRA holders. Further, 15 percent of the paper copies would be mailed, while the other 85 percent would be hand-delivered during in-person meetings. The Department estimates that electronic distribution would result in de minimis cost, while paper distribution would cost approximately $922,000 during the first year and approximately $74,000 in subsequent years. Paper distribution would also require one minute of clerical time to print the disclosure and one minute of clerical time to mail the disclosure, resulting in 244,000 hours in the first year and 20,000 hours in subsequent years at an equivalent cost of $7.4 million and $595,000 respectively. If, as seems likely, many financial institutions choose not to limit the universe of investment recommendations, we would expect the actual costs to be substantially smaller.
Finally, the Department estimates that all of the 2,800 financial institutions would mail the required one-page notice to the Department during the first year and approximately 224 new financial institutions would mail the required one-page notice to the Department in subsequent years. Producing and distributing this notice would cost approximately $1,500 during the first year and approximately $100 in subsequent years. Producing and distributing this notice would also require 2 minutes of clerical time resulting in a burden of approximately 93 hours during the first year and approximately 7 hours in subsequent years at an equivalent cost of $2,800 and $200 respectively.
Section V(b) requires financial institutions to maintain investment return data in a manner accessible for examination by the Department for six years. Section V(c) and (d) requires
Most of the data retention requirements in Section V(b) are consistent with data retention requirements made by the SEC and FINRA. In addition, the data retention requirements correspond to the six year statute of limitations in Section 413 of ERISA. Insofar as the data retention time requirements in Section V(b) are lengthier than those required by the SEC and FINRA, the Department assumes that retaining data for an additional time period is a de minimis additional burden.
The records required in Section V(c) and Section V(d) are generally kept as regular and customary business practices. Therefore, the Department has estimated that the additional time needed to maintain records consistent with the exemption will only require about one-half hour, on average, annually for a financial manager to organize and collate the documents or else draft a notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure, and an additional 15 minutes of clerical time to make the documents available for inspection during normal business hours or prepare the paper notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure. Thus, the Department estimates that a total of 45 minutes of professional time per Financial Institution would be required for a total hour burden of 2,100 hours at an equivalent cost of $198,000.
In connection with this recordkeeping and disclosure requirements discussed above, Section V(d)(2) and (3) provide that financial institutions relying on the exemption do not have to disclose trade secrets or other confidential information to members of the public (
Overall, the Department estimates that in order to meet the conditions of this PTE, 2,800 financial institutions will produce 86 million disclosures and notices during the first year of this PTE and 66.4 million disclosures and notices during subsequent years. These disclosures and notices will result in 1.3 million burden hours during the first year and 620,000 burden hours in subsequent years, at an equivalent cost of $68.9 million and $21.4 million respectively. The disclosures and notices in this exemption will also result in a total cost burden for materials and postage of $8.6 million during the first year and $7.7 million during subsequent years.
These paperwork burden estimates are summarized as follows:
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2) does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person with respect to a plan or IRA from certain other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA section 404 which require, among other things, that a fiduciary discharge his or her duties respecting the plan solely in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan. Additionally, the fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption does not affect the requirement of Code section 401(a) that the plan must operate for the exclusive benefit of the employees of the employer maintaining the plan and their beneficiaries;
(2) Before an exemption may be granted under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), the Department must find that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of the plan and IRA owners;
(3) If granted, the proposed exemption is applicable to a particular transaction only if the transaction satisfies the conditions specified in the exemption; and
(4) The proposed exemption, if granted, will be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction.
The Department invites all interested persons to submit written comments on the proposed exemption to the address and within the time period set forth above. All comments received will be made a part of the record. Comments should state the reasons for the writer's interest in the proposed exemption. Comments received will be available for public inspection at the above address.
(a)
(b)
(1) A participant or beneficiary of a Plan subject to Title I of ERISA with authority to direct the investment of assets in his or her Plan account or to take a distribution;
(2) The beneficial owner of an IRA acting on behalf of the IRA; or
(3) A plan sponsor as described in ERISA section 3(16)(B) (or any employee, officer or director thereof) of a non-participant-directed Plan subject to Title I of ERISA with fewer than 100 participants, to the extent it acts as a fiduciary who has authority to make investment decisions for the Plan.
As detailed below, parties seeking to rely on the exemption must contractually agree to adhere to Impartial Conduct Standards in rendering advice regarding Assets; warrant that they have adopted policies and procedures designed to mitigate the dangers posed by Material Conflicts of Interest; disclose important information relating to fees, compensation, and Material Conflicts of Interest; and retain documents and data relating to investment recommendations regarding Assets. The exemption provides relief from the restrictions of ERISA section 406(a)(1)(D) and 406(b) and the sanctions imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(D), (E) and (F). The Adviser and Financial Institution must comply with the conditions of Sections II-V to rely on this exemption.
(c)
(1) The Plan is covered by Title I of ERISA, and (i) the Adviser, Financial Institution or any Affiliate is the employer of employees covered by the Plan, or (ii) the Adviser or Financial Institution is a named fiduciary or plan administrator (as defined in ERISA section 3(16)(A)) with respect to the Plan, or an affiliate thereof, that was selected to provide advice to the Plan by a fiduciary who is not Independent;
(2) The compensation is received as a result of a transaction in which the Adviser is acting on behalf of its own account or the account of the Financial Institution, or the account of a person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Financial Institution (
(3) The compensation is received as a result of investment advice to a Retirement Investor generated solely by an interactive Web site in which computer software-based models or applications provide investment advice based on personal information each investor supplies through the Web site without any personal interaction or advice from an individual Adviser (
(4) The Adviser (i) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control respecting management of the Plan or IRA assets involved in the transaction or exercises any authority or control respecting management or disposition of the assets, or (ii) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of the Plan or IRA.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) When providing investment advice to the Retirement Investor regarding the Asset, the Adviser and Financial Institution will provide investment advice that is in the Best Interest of the Retirement Investor (
(2) When providing investment advice to the Retirement Investor regarding the Asset, the Adviser and Financial Institution will not recommend an Asset if the total amount of compensation anticipated to be received by the Adviser, Financial Institution, Affiliates and Related Entities in connection with the purchase, sale or holding of the Asset by the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, will exceed reasonable compensation in relation to the total services they provide to the Retirement Investor; and
(3) The Adviser's and Financial Institution's statements about the Asset, fees, Material Conflicts of Interest, and any other matters relevant to a Retirement Investor's investment decisions, will not be misleading.
(d)
(1) The Adviser, Financial Institution, and Affiliates will comply with all applicable federal and state laws regarding the rendering of the investment advice, the purchase, sale and holding of the Asset, and the payment of compensation related to the purchase, sale and holding of the Asset;
(2) The Financial Institution has adopted written policies and procedures reasonably designed to mitigate the impact of Material Conflicts of Interest and ensure that its individual Advisers adhere to the Impartial Conduct Standards set forth in Section II(c);
(3) In formulating its policies and procedures, the Financial Institution has specifically identified Material Conflicts of Interest and adopted measures to prevent the Material Conflicts of Interest from causing violations of the Impartial Conduct Standards set forth in Section II(c); and
(4) Neither the Financial Institution nor (to the best of its knowledge) any Affiliate or Related Entity uses quotas, appraisals, performance or personnel actions, bonuses, contests, special awards, differential compensation or other actions or incentives to the extent they would tend to encourage individual Advisers to make recommendations that are not in the Best Interest of the Retirement Investor. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the contractual warranty set forth in this Section II(d)(4) does not prevent the Financial Institution or its Affiliates and Related Entities from providing Advisers with differential compensation based on investments by Plans, participant or beneficiary accounts, or IRAs, to the extent such compensation would not encourage advice that runs counter to the Best Interest of the Retirement Investor (
(e)
(1) Identify and disclose any Material Conflicts of Interest;
(2) Inform the Retirement Investor that the Retirement Investor has the right to obtain complete information about all the fees currently associated with the Assets in which it is invested, including all of the direct and indirect fees paid payable to the Adviser, Financial Institution, and any Affiliates; and
(3) Disclose to the Retirement Investor whether the Financial Institution offers Proprietary Products or receives Third Party Payments with respect to the purchase, sale or holding of any Asset, and of the address of the Web site required by Section III(c) that discloses the compensation arrangements entered into by Advisers and the Financial Institution.
(f)
(1) Exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise limiting liability of the Adviser or Financial Institution for a violation of the contract's terms; and
(2) A provision under which the Plan, IRA or Retirement Investor waives or qualifies its right to bring or participate in a class action or other representative action in court in a dispute with the Adviser or Financial Institution.
(a)
(1)
The disclosure chart required by this section need not be provided with respect to a subsequent recommendation to purchase the same investment product if the chart was previously provided to the Retirement Investor within the past twelve months and the Total Cost has not materially changed.
(2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(3)
(b)
(1) A list identifying each Asset purchased or sold during the applicable period and the price at which the Asset was purchased or sold;
(2) A statement of the total dollar amount of all fees and expenses paid by the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA (directly and indirectly) with respect to each Asset purchased, held or sold during the applicable period; and
(3) A statement of the total dollar amount of all compensation received by the Adviser and Financial Institution, directly or indirectly, from any party, as a result of each Asset sold, purchased or held by the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA during the applicable period.
(c)
(1) The Financial Institution maintains a Web page, freely accessible to the public, which shows the following information:
(A) The direct and indirect material compensation payable to the Adviser, Financial Institution and any Affiliate for services provided in connection with each Asset (or, if uniform across a class of Assets, the class of Assets) that a Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA is able to purchase, hold, or sell through the Adviser or Financial Institution, and that a Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA has purchased, held, or sold within the last 365 days. The compensation may be expressed as a monetary amount, formula or percentage of the assets involved in the purchase, sale or holding; and
(B) The source of the compensation, and how the compensation varies within and among Assets.
(2) The Financial Institution's Web page provides access to the information in (1)(A) and (B) in a machine readable format.
(a)
(b)
(1) The Financial Institution makes a specific written finding that the limitations it has placed on the Assets made available to an Adviser for purchase, sale or holding by Plans, participant and beneficiary accounts, and IRAs do not prevent the Adviser
(2) Any compensation received in connection with a purchase, sale or holding of the Asset by a Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA, is reasonable in relation to the value of the specific services provided to the Retirement Investor in exchange for the payments and not in excess of the services' fair market value;
(3) Before giving investment recommendations to Retirement Investors, the Adviser or Financial Institution gives the Retirement Investor clear written notice of the limitations placed on the Assets that the Adviser may offer for purchase, sale or holding by a Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA. Notice is insufficient if it merely states that the Financial Institution or Adviser “may” limit investment recommendations based on whether the Assets are Proprietary Products or generate Third Party Payments, or for other reasons, without specific disclosure of the extent to which recommendations are, in fact, limited on that basis; and
(4) The Adviser notifies the Retirement Investor if the Adviser does not recommend a sufficiently broad range of Assets to meet the Retirement Investor's needs.
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) If such records are lost or destroyed, due to circumstances beyond the control of the Financial Institution, then no prohibited transaction will be considered to have occurred solely on the basis of the unavailability of those records; and
(2) No party, other than the Financial Institution responsible for complying with this paragraph (c), will be subject to the civil penalty that may be assessed under ERISA section 502(i) or the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), if applicable, if the records are not maintained or are not available for examination as required by paragraph (d), below.
(d) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this Section, and notwithstanding any provisions of ERISA section 504(a)(2) and (b), the records referred to in paragraph (c) of this Section are unconditionally available at their customary location for examination during normal business hours by:
(A) Any authorized employee or representative of the Department or the Internal Revenue Service;
(B) Any fiduciary of a Plan that engaged in a purchase, sale or holding of an Asset described in this exemption, or any authorized employee or representative of such fiduciary;
(C) Any contributing employer and any employee organization whose members are covered by a Plan described in paragraph (d)(1)(B), or any authorized employee or representative of these entities; or
(D) Any participant or beneficiary of a Plan described in paragraph (B), IRA owner, or the authorized representative of such participant, beneficiary or owner; and
(2) None of the persons described in paragraph (d)(1)(B)-(D) of this Section are authorized to examine privileged trade secrets or privileged commercial or financial information, of the Financial Institution, or information identifying other individuals.
(3) Should the Financial Institution refuse to disclose information on the basis that the information is exempt from disclosure, the Financial Institution must, by the close of the thirtieth (30th) day following the request, provide a written notice advising the requestor of the reasons for the refusal and that the Department may request such information.
(a)
(b)
(1) The transaction is effected by the insurance company in the ordinary course of its business as an insurance company;
(2) The combined total of all fees and compensation received by the insurance company and any Affiliate is not in excess of reasonable compensation under the circumstances;
(3) The purchase is for cash only; and
(4) The terms of the purchase are at least as favorable to the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA as the terms generally available in an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party.
(c)
(a)
(b)
(1) The compensation is not excluded pursuant to Section I(c) of the Best Interest Contract Exemption;
(2) The compensation is received pursuant to an agreement, arrangement or understanding that was entered into prior to the Applicability Date;
(3) The Adviser and Financial Institution do not provide additional advice to the Plan regarding the purchase, sale or holding of the Asset after the Applicability Date; and
(4) The purchase or sale of the Asset was not a non-exempt prohibited transaction pursuant to ERISA section 406 and Code section 4975 on the date it occurred.
For purposes of these exemptions:
(a) “Adviser” means an individual who:
(1) Is a fiduciary of a Plan or IRA solely by reason of the provision of investment advice described in ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) or Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), or both, and the applicable regulations, with respect to the Assets involved in the transaction;
(2) Is an employee, independent contractor, agent, or registered representative of a Financial Institution; and
(3) Satisfies the applicable federal and state regulatory and licensing requirements of insurance, banking, and securities laws with respect to the covered transaction.
(b) “Affiliate” of an Adviser or Financial Institution means—
(1) Any person directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser or Financial Institution. For this purpose, “control” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual;
(2) Any officer, director, employee, agent, registered representative, relative (as defined in ERISA section 3(15)), member of family (as defined in Code section 4975(e)(6)) of, or partner in, the Adviser or Financial Institution; and
(3) Any corporation or partnership of which the Adviser or Financial Institution is an officer, director or employee or in which the Adviser or Financial Institution is a partner.
(c) An “Asset,” for purposes of this exemption, includes only the following investment products: Bank deposits, certificates of deposit (CDs), shares or interests in registered investment companies, bank collective funds, insurance company separate accounts, exchange-traded REITs, exchange-traded funds, corporate bonds offered pursuant to a registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933, agency debt securities as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(l) or its successor, U.S. Treasury securities as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(p) or its successor, insurance and annuity contracts, guaranteed investment contracts, and equity securities within the meaning of 17 CFR 230.405 that are exchange-traded securities within the meaning of 17 CFR 242.600. Excluded from this definition is any equity security that is a security future or a put, call, straddle, or other option or privilege of buying an equity security from or selling an equity security to another without being bound to do so.
(d) Investment advice is in the “Best Interest” of the Retirement Investor when the Adviser and Financial Institution providing the advice act with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the Retirement Investor, without regard to the financial or other interests of the Adviser, Financial Institution or any Affiliate, Related Entity, or other party.
(e) “Financial Institution” means the entity that employs the Adviser or otherwise retains such individual as an independent contractor, agent or registered representative and that is:
(1) Registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1
(2) A bank or similar financial institution supervised by the United States or state, or a savings association (as defined in section 3(b)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(1)), but only if the advice resulting in the compensation is provided through a trust department of the bank or similar financial institution or savings association which is subject to periodic examination and review by federal or state banking authorities;
(3) An insurance company qualified to do business under the laws of a state, provided that such insurance company:
(A) Has obtained a Certificate of Authority from the insurance commissioner of its domiciliary state which has neither been revoked nor suspended,
(B) Has undergone and shall continue to undergo an examination by an Independent certified public accountant for its last completed taxable year or has undergone a financial examination (within the meaning of the law of its domiciliary state) by the state's insurance commissioner within the preceding 5 years, and
(C) Is domiciled in a state whose law requires that actuarial review of reserves be conducted annually by an Independent firm of actuaries and reported to the appropriate regulatory authority; or
(4) A broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a
(f) “Independent” means a person that:
(1) Is not the Adviser, the Financial Institution or any Affiliate relying on the exemption,
(2) Does not receive compensation or other consideration for his or her own account from the Adviser, the Financial Institution or Affiliate; and
(3) Does not have a relationship to or an interest in the Adviser, the Financial Institution or Affiliate that might affect the exercise of the person's best judgment in connection with transactions described in this exemption.
(g) “Individual Retirement Account” or “IRA” means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
(h) A “Material Conflict of Interest” exists when an Adviser or Financial Institution has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a Retirement Investor regarding an Asset.
(i) “Plan” means any employee benefit plan described in section 3(3) of the Act and any plan described in section 4975(e)(1)(A) of the Code.
(j) “Proprietary Product” means a product that is managed by the Financial Institution or any of its Affiliates.
(k) “Related Entity” means any entity other than an Affiliate in which the Adviser or Financial Institution has an interest which may affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary.
(l) “Retirement Investor” means—
(1) A participant or beneficiary of a Plan subject to Title I of ERISA with authority to direct the investment of assets in his or her Plan account or to take a distribution,
(2) The beneficial owner of an IRA acting on behalf of the IRA, or
(3) A plan sponsor as described in ERISA section 3(16)(B) (or any employee, officer or director thereof), of a non-participant-directed Plan subject to Title I of ERISA that has fewer than 100 participants, to the extent it acts as a fiduciary with authority to make investment decisions for the Plan.
(m) “Third-Party Payments” mean sales charges when not paid directly by the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, 12b-1 fees and other payments paid to the Financial Institution or an Affiliate or Related Entity by a third party as a result of the purchase, sale or holding of an Asset by a Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA.
Upon request by the Department, a Financial Institution that relies on the exemption in Section I shall provide, within a reasonable time, but in no event longer than six (6) months, after receipt of the request, the following information for the preceding six (6) year period:
(a)
(1) The aggregate number and identity of shares/units bought;
(2) The aggregate dollar amount invested and the cost to the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA associated with the purchase;
(3) The revenue received by the Financial Institution and any Affiliate in connection with the purchase of each Asset disaggregated by source; and
(4) The identity of each revenue source (
(b)
(1) The aggregate number of and identity of shares/units sold;
(2) The aggregate dollar amount received and the cost to the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, associated with the sale;
(3) The revenue received by the Financial Institution and any Affiliate in connection with the sale of each Asset disaggregated by source; and
(4) The identity of each revenue source (
(c)
(1) The aggregate number and identity of shares/units held at the end of such quarter;
(2) The aggregate cost incurred by the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, during such quarter in connection with the holdings;
(3) The revenue received by the Financial Institution and any Affiliate in connection with the holding of each Asset during such quarter for each Asset disaggregated by source; and
(4) The identity of each revenue source (
(d)
(1) The identity of the Adviser;
(2) The beginning-of-quarter value of the Retirement Investor's Portfolio;
(3) The end-of-quarter value of the Retirement Investor's Portfolio; and
(4) Each external cash flow to or from the Retirement Investor's Portfolio during the quarter and the date on which it occurred.
For purposes of this subparagraph (d), “Portfolio” means the Retirement Investor's combined holding of assets held in a Plan account or IRA advised by the Adviser.
(e)
Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), U.S. Department of Labor.
Notice of Proposed Class Exemption.
This document contains a notice of pendency before the U.S. Department of Labor of a proposed exemption from certain prohibited transactions provisions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and the Internal Revenue Code (the Code). The provisions at issue generally prohibit fiduciaries with respect to employee benefit plans and individual retirement accounts (IRAs) from purchasing and selling securities when the fiduciaries are acting on behalf of their own accounts (principal transactions). The exemption proposed in this notice would permit principal transactions in certain debt securities between a plan, plan participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA, and a fiduciary that provides investment advice to the plan or IRA, under conditions to safeguard the interests of these investors. The proposed exemption would affect participants and beneficiaries of plans, IRA owners, and fiduciaries with respect to such plans and IRAs.
All written comments concerning the proposed class exemption should be sent to the Office of Exemption Determinations by any of the following methods, identified by ZRIN: 1210-ZA25:
Brian Shiker, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor (202) 693-8824 (not a toll-free number).
The Department is proposing this class exemption on its own motion, pursuant to ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637 (October 27, 2011)).
The Department is proposing this exemption in connection with its proposed regulation under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) (Proposed Regulation), published elsewhere in this issue of the
The exemption proposed in this notice would allow investment advice fiduciaries to engage in purchases and sales of certain debt securities out of their inventory (
ERISA section 408(a) specifically authorizes the Secretary of Labor to grant administrative exemptions from ERISA's prohibited transaction provisions.
The proposed exemption would allow an individual investment advice fiduciary (an adviser)
Under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, the Department must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing and streamlining rules, and of promoting flexibility. It also requires federal
Under Executive Order 12866, “significant” regulatory actions are subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as “economically significant” regulatory actions); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. Pursuant to the terms of the Executive Order, OMB has determined that this action is “significant” within the meaning of Section 3(f)(4) of the Executive Order. Accordingly, the Department has undertaken an assessment of the costs and benefits of the proposed amendment, and OMB has reviewed this regulatory action.
As explained more fully in the preamble to Department's Proposed Regulation under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), also published in this issue of the
The Code also has rules regarding fiduciary conduct with respect to tax-favored accounts that are not generally covered by ERISA, such as IRAs. Although ERISA's general fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty do not govern the fiduciaries of IRAs, these fiduciaries are subject to the prohibited transaction rules. In this context fiduciaries engaging in the prohibited transactions are subject to an excise tax enforced by the Internal Revenue Service. Unlike participants in plans covered by Title I of ERISA, under the Code, IRA owners cannot bring suit against fiduciaries under ERISA for violation of the prohibited transaction rules and fiduciaries are not personally liable to IRA owners for the losses caused by their misconduct, nor can the Secretary of Labor bring suit to enforce the prohibited transaction rules. The exemption proposed herein, as well as another exemption for the receipt of compensation by investment advice fiduciaries published elsewhere in this issue of the
Under this statutory framework, the determination of who is a “fiduciary” is of central importance. Many of ERISA's protections, duties, and liabilities hinge on fiduciary status. In relevant part, section 3(21)(A) of ERISA and section 4975(e)(3) of the Code provide that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan or IRA to the extent he or she (1) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control with respect to management of such plan or IRA, or exercises any authority or control with respect to management or disposition of its assets; (2) renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan or IRA, or has any authority or responsibility to do so; or, (3) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of such plan or IRA.
The statutory definition deliberately casts a wide net in assigning fiduciary responsibility with respect to plan and IRA assets. Thus, “any authority or control” over plan or IRA assets is sufficient to confer fiduciary status, and any persons who render “investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect” are fiduciaries, regardless of whether they have direct control over the plan's or IRA's assets and regardless of their status as an investment adviser or broker under the federal securities laws. The statutory definition and associated fiduciary responsibilities were enacted to ensure that plans and IRAs can depend on persons who provide investment advice for a fee to provide recommendations that are untainted by conflicts of interest. In the absence of fiduciary status, the providers of investment advice would neither be subject to ERISA's fundamental fiduciary standards, nor accountable for imprudent, disloyal, or tainted advice under ERISA or the Code, no matter how egregious the misconduct or how substantial the losses. Plans, individual participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners often are not financial experts and consequently must rely on professional advice to make critical investment decisions. In the years since then, the significance of financial advice has become still greater with increased reliance on participant-directed plans and IRAs for the provision of retirement benefits.
In 1975, the Department issued a regulation, at 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1975) defining the circumstances under which a person is treated as providing “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA (the “1975 regulation”).
As the marketplace for financial services has developed in the years since 1975, the five-part test may now undermine, rather than promote, the statutes' text and purposes. The narrowness of the 1975 regulation allows professional advisers, consultants and valuation firms to play a central role in shaping plan investments, without ensuring the accountability that Congress intended for persons having such influence and responsibility when it enacted ERISA and the related Code provisions. Even when plan sponsors, participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners clearly rely on paid consultants for impartial guidance, the regulation allows consultants to avoid fiduciary status and disregard the accompanying obligations of care and prohibitions on disloyal and conflicted transactions. As a consequence, these advisers can steer customers to investments based on their own self-interest, give imprudent advice, and engage in transactions that would otherwise be categorically prohibited by ERISA and the Code without liability under ERISA or the Code.
In the Proposed Regulation, the Department seeks to replace the existing regulation with one that more appropriately distinguishes between the sorts of advice relationships that should be treated as fiduciary in nature and those that should not, in light of the legal framework and financial marketplace in which plans and IRAs currently operate.
(1) A recommendation as to the advisability of acquiring, holding, disposing or exchanging securities or other property, including a recommendation to take a distribution of benefits or a recommendation as to the investment of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from a plan or IRA;
(2) A recommendation as to the management of securities or other property, including recommendations as to the management of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(3) An appraisal, fairness opinion or similar statement, whether verbal or written, concerning the value of securities or other property, if provided in connection with a specific transaction or transactions involving the acquisition, disposition or exchange of such securities or other property by the plan or IRA; and
(4) A recommendation of a person who is also going to receive a fee or other compensation for providing any of the types of advice described in paragraphs (1) through (3), above.
In addition, to be a fiduciary, such person must either (1) represent or acknowledge that it is acting as a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA (or the Code) with respect to the advice, or (2) render the advice pursuant to a written or verbal agreement, arrangement or understanding that the advice is individualized to, or that such advice is specifically directed to, the advice recipient for consideration in making investment or management decisions with respect to securities or other property of the plan or IRA.
In the Proposed Regulation, the Department refers to FINRA guidance on whether particular communications should be viewed as “recommendations”
For advisers who do not represent that they are acting as ERISA (or Code) fiduciaries, the Proposed Regulation provides that advice rendered in conformance with certain carve-outs will not cause the adviser to be treated as a fiduciary under ERISA or the Code. For example, under the seller's carve-out, counterparties in arm's-length transactions with plans may make investment recommendations without acting as fiduciaries if certain conditions are met.
The Department anticipates that the Proposed Regulation will cover many investment professionals who do not currently consider themselves to be fiduciaries under ERISA or the Code. If the Proposed Regulation is adopted, these entities will become subject to the prohibited transaction restrictions in ERISA and the Code that apply specifically to fiduciaries. ERISA section 406(b)(1) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) prohibit a fiduciary from dealing with the income or assets of a plan or IRA in his own interest or his own account. ERISA section 406(b)(2)
The purchase or sale of a security in a principal transaction between a plan or IRA and a fiduciary, resulting from the fiduciary's provision of investment advice, raises issues under ERISA section 406(b) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E).
Certain principal transactions between a plan or IRA and an investment advice fiduciary may not need exemptive relief because they are blind transactions executed on an exchange. The ERISA Conference Report states that a transaction will, generally, not be a prohibited transaction if the transaction is an ordinary “blind” purchase or sale of securities through an exchange where neither the buyer nor the seller (nor the agent of either) knows the identity of the other party involved.
ERISA and the Code counterbalance the broad proscriptive effect of the prohibited transaction provisions with numerous statutory exemptions. ERISA and the Code also provide for administrative exemptions that the Secretary of Labor may grant on an individual or class basis if the Secretary finds that the exemption is (1) administratively feasible, (2) in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries, and (3) protective of the rights of the participants and beneficiaries of such plans.
ERISA section 408(b)(14) provides a statutory exemption for transactions entered into in connection with the provision of fiduciary investment advice to a participant or beneficiary of an individual account plan or an IRA owner. The exemption provides relief for, among other things, the acquisition, holding, or sale of a security or other property as an investment under the plan pursuant to the investment advice. As set forth in ERISA section 408(g), the exemption is available if the advice is provided under an “eligible investment advice arrangement” which either (1) “provides that any fees (including any commission or other compensation) received by the fiduciary adviser for investment advice or with respect to the sale, holding or acquisition of any security or other property for purposes of investment of plan assets do not vary depending on the basis of any investment option selected” or (2) “uses a computer model under an investment advice program meeting the requirements of [ERISA section 408(g)(3)].” Additional conditions apply. Code section 4975(d)(17) provides the same relief from the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b).
ERISA section 408(b)(16) provides relief for transactions involving the purchase or sale of securities between a plan and a party in interest, including an investment advice fiduciary, if the transactions are executed through an electronic communication network, alternative trading system, or similar execution system or trading venue. Among other conditions, subparagraph (B) of the statutory exemption requires that either: (i) “the transaction is effected pursuant to rules designed to match purchases and sales at the best price available through the execution system in accordance with applicable rules of the Securities and Exchange Commission or other relevant governmental authority,” or (ii) “neither the execution system nor the parties to the transaction take into account the identity of the parties in the execution of trades[.]” The transactions covered by ERISA section 408(b)(16) include principal transactions between a plan and an investment advice fiduciary. Code section 4975(d)(19) provides the same relief from the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b).
An administrative exemption for certain principal transactions will continue to be available through PTE 75-1.
Further, Part II(1) of PTE 75-1 currently provides relief from ERISA section 406(a) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (D) for the purchase or sale of a security in a principal transaction between a plan or IRA and a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. However, the exemption permits plans and IRAs to engage in principal transactions with broker-dealers only if they do not have or exercise any discretionary authority or control (except as a directed trustee) with respect to the investment of plan or IRA assets involved in the transaction, and
In response to public concerns, the Department is proposing in this notice additional relief for principal transactions in certain debt securities between a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA, and an investment advice fiduciary. While relief was informally requested with respect to a broad range of principal transactions (
Under this rationale, however, the Department is not persuaded at this point that additional exemptive relief for principal transactions involving other types of assets would be in the interests of, and protective of, plans, their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners. Equity securities, for example, are widely available through agency transactions that do not involve the particular conflicts of interest associated with principal transactions. Other assets such as futures, derivatives and currencies, may possess a level of complexity and risk that would require a retirement investor to rely heavily on a fiduciary's advice. In such cases, the Department is concerned that the class exemption proposed here would be insufficiently protective of plans, participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners.
The Department requests comment on the limitation of the proposed exemption to debt securities. Public input is requested on whether there are additional assets that are commonly held by plans, participant or beneficiary accounts, and IRAs that are sold primarily in principal transactions. Commenters should provide specifics about the characteristics of such assets and the proposed safeguards that would apply to an exemption permitting their sale in a principal transaction. To the extent interested parties believe it is possible or appropriate to provide relief for additional transactions, the Department would also invite applications for additional exemptions tailored to the unique characteristics of those transactions and protective of the interests of plan participants and IRA owners.
Section I of the proposed exemption would provide relief for “Advisers” and “Financial Institutions” to enter into “principal transactions” in “debt securities” with plans and IRAs. The proposed exemption uses the term “Retirement Investor” to describe the types of persons who can be investment advice recipients under the exemption, and the term “Affiliate” to describe people and entities with a connection to the Adviser or Financial Institution. These terms are defined in Section VI of this proposed exemption. The following sections discuss key definitional terms of the exemption as well as the scope and conditions of the proposed exemption.
The proposed exemption contemplates that an individual person, an Adviser, will provide advice to the Retirement Investor. An Adviser must be an investment advice fiduciary of a plan or IRA who is an employee, independent contractor, agent, or registered representative of a “Financial Institution” (discussed in the next section), and the Adviser must satisfy the applicable banking and securities laws with respect to the covered transaction.
For purposes of the proposed exemption, a Financial Institution is the entity that employs an Adviser or otherwise retains the Adviser as an independent contractor, agent or registered representative.
The proposed exemption uses the term Affiliate to describe persons or entities with certain relationships to the Adviser and Financial Institution. An “Affiliate” means: (1) any person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser or Financial Institution; (2) any officer, director, employee, relative (as defined in ERISA section 3(15)) or member of family (as defined in Code section 4975(e)(6)), agent or registered representative of, or partner in such Adviser or Financial Institution; and (3) any corporation or partnership of which the Adviser or Financial Institution is an officer, director, or employee, or in which the Adviser or Financial Institution is a partner. For purposes of this definition, the term “control” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
The proposed exemption uses the term “Retirement Investor,” to mean a plan fiduciary of a non-participant directed ERISA plan with authority to make investment decisions for the plan, a plan participant or beneficiary with authority to direct the investment of assets in his or her plan account or to take a distribution, or, in the case of an IRA, the beneficial owner of the IRA (
For purposes of the proposed exemption, a principal transaction is a purchase or sale of a debt security where an Adviser or Financial Institution is purchasing from or selling to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA on behalf of the account of the Financial Institution or the
The proposed exemption is limited to principal transactions in certain debt securities. For purposes of the exemption, the term “debt security,” is defined by reference to Rule 10b-10(d)(4) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. The categories of covered debt securities include securities that are (1) dollar denominated, issued by a U.S. corporation and offered pursuant to a registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933; (2) U.S. agency debt securities (as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(l)); and (3) U.S. Treasury securities (as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(p)).
The debt security may not have been issued by the Financial Institution or any Affiliate. Additionally, the debt security may not be purchased by the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, in an underwriting or underwriting syndicate in which the Financial Institution or any Affiliate is the underwriter or a member. Purchases by plans, participant or beneficiary accounts, or IRAs may occur, however, if a debt security originally underwritten by the Financial Institution or an Affiliate was later obtained for sale in the secondary market.
The debt security must also possess no greater than moderate credit risk and be sufficiently liquid that the debt security could be sold at or near its fair market value within a reasonably short period of time. Debt securities subject to a moderate credit risk should possess at least average credit-worthiness relative to other similar debt issues. Moderate credit risk would denote current low expectations of default risk, with an adequate capacity for payment of principal and interest. These securities have a level of creditworthiness similar to investment grade securities.
The proposed exemption provides relief for principal transactions in debt securities between a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA and a Financial Institution or an entity in a control relationship with the Financial Institution, when the principal transaction is a result of the Adviser's and Financial Institution's provision of investment advice. Relief is proposed from ERISA sections 406(a)(1)(A) and (D), and 406(b)(1) and (2), and the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(A), (D) and (E). Relief has not been proposed in this exemption from ERISA section 406(b)(3) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(F), which prohibit a plan fiduciary from receiving any consideration for its own personal account from any party dealing with the plan in connection with a transaction involving the assets of the plan. As a result, the proposed exemption does not include relief for the receipt by a fiduciary of consideration from a trading venue in connection with the execution of purchases and sales thereon (
Several limitations apply to the scope of the proposed exemption. First, relief is limited to Advisers whose fiduciary authority with respect to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA assets involved in the transaction is as a provider of investment advice.
Second, the exemption is not available to a transaction involving a plan covered by Title I of ERISA if the Adviser or Financial Institution, or any Affiliate is the employer of employees covered by the plan which is the recipient of the advice.
Finally, the exemption does not apply if the Adviser or Financial Institution is a named fiduciary or plan administrator, as defined in ERISA section 3(16)(A) with respect to an ERISA plan, or an affiliate thereof, that was selected to provide advice to the plan by a fiduciary who is not independent of them.
Sections II-V of the proposal set forth the conditions of the exemption. All applicable conditions must be satisfied in order to avoid application of the specified prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code. The Department believes that these conditions are necessary for the Secretary to find that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans, their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of the participants and beneficiaries of such plans and IRA owners. Under ERISA section 408(a)(2), and Code section 4975(c)(2), the Secretary may not grant an exemption without making such findings. The proposed conditions are described below.
Section II(a) of the proposal requires that an Adviser and the Financial Institution enter into a written contract with the Retirement Investor prior to engaging in a principal transaction with a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA. The contract must be executed by the Adviser and Financial Institution as well as the Retirement Investor, acting on behalf of the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA. In the case of advice provided to a participant or beneficiary in a plan, the participant or beneficiary should be the Retirement Investor that is the party to the contract, on behalf of his or her individual account.
The contract may be part of a master agreement with the Retirement Investor and does not require execution prior to each additional principal transaction. The exemption does not, by its terms, mandate an ongoing or long-term advisory relationship, but rather leaves that to the parties. The terms of the contract, along with other representations, agreements, or understandings between the Adviser, Financial Institution and Retirement
The contract is the cornerstone of the proposed exemption, and the Department believes that by requiring a contract as a condition of the proposed exemption, it creates a mechanism by which a Retirement Investor can be alerted to the Adviser's and Financial Institution's obligations and be provided with a basis upon which its rights can be enforced. In order to comply with the exemption, the contract must contain every required element set forth in Section II(b)-(e) and also must not include any of the prohibited provisions described in Section II(f). It is intended that the contract creates actionable obligations with respect to both the Impartial Conduct Standards and the warranties, described below. In addition, failure to satisfy the Independent Conduct Standards will result in loss of the exemption.
The proposal sets forth multiple contractual requirements. The first and most fundamental contractual requirement, which is set out in Section II(b) of proposal, is that both the Adviser and Financial Institution must acknowledge fiduciary status under ERISA or the Code, or both, with respect to the investment recommendations to the Retirement Investor regarding principal transactions. If this acknowledgment of fiduciary status does not appear in a contract with a Retirement Investor, the exemption is not satisfied with respect to principal transactions involving that Retirement Investor. This fiduciary acknowledgment is critical to ensuring that there is no uncertainty—before or after investment advice is given with regard to the principal transaction—that both the Adviser and Financial Institution are acting as fiduciaries under ERISA and the Code. Nevertheless, it is important to note that the contractual language is only required to apply to communications that are investment recommendations to the Retirement Investor regarding principal transactions. Compliance with all the exemption's conditions is necessary only with respect to transactions that otherwise would constitute prohibited transactions under ERISA and the Code.
Building upon the required acknowledgment of fiduciary status, the proposal additionally requires that both the Adviser and the Financial Institution contractually commit to adhering to specifically delineated Impartial Conduct Standards when providing investment advice to the Retirement Investor regarding principal transactions, and that they in fact do adhere to such standards. Therefore, if an Adviser and/or Financial Institution fail to comply with the Impartial Conduct Standards, relief under the exemption is no longer available and the contract is violated.
Specifically, Section II(c)(1) of the proposal requires that under the contract the Adviser and Financial Institution provide advice regarding principal transactions that is in the “best interest” of the Retirement Investor. Best interest is defined to mean that the Adviser and Financial Institution act with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and the needs of the Retirement Investor when providing investment advice to the Retirement Investor. Further, under the best interest standard, the Adviser and Financial Institution must act without regard to the financial or other interests of the Adviser, Financial Institution, their Affiliates or any other party. Under this standard, the Adviser and Financial Institution must put the interests of the Retirement Investor ahead of the financial interests of the Adviser, Financial Institution, their Affiliates or any other party.
The best interest standard set forth in this exemption is based on longstanding concepts derived from ERISA and the law of trusts. For example, ERISA section 404 requires a fiduciary to act “solely in the interest of the participants . . . with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent man acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.” Similarly, both ERISA section 404(a)(1)(A) and the trust-law duty of loyalty require fiduciaries to put the interests of trust beneficiaries first, without regard to the fiduciaries' own self-interest. Accordingly, the Department would expect the standard to be interpreted in light of forty years of judicial experience with ERISA's fiduciary standards and hundreds more with the duties imposed on trustees under the common law of trusts. In general, courts focus on the process the fiduciary used to reach its determination or recommendation—whether the fiduciaries, “at the time they engaged in the challenged transactions, employed the proper procedures to investigate the merits of the investment and to structure the investment.”
In this regard, the Department notes that while fiduciaries of plans covered by ERISA are subject to the ERISA section 404 standards of prudence and loyalty, the Code contains no provisions that hold IRA fiduciaries to these standards. However, as a condition of relief under the proposed exemption, both IRA and plan fiduciaries would have to agree to, and uphold, the best interest requirement that is set forth in Section II(c). The best interest standard is defined to effectively mirror the ERISA section 404 duties of prudence and loyalty, as applied in the context of fiduciary investment advice.
The Impartial Conduct Standards continue in Section II(c) of the proposal. Section II(c)(2) requires that the Adviser and Financial Institution agree that they will not enter into a principal transaction with the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA if the purchase or sales price of the debt security (including the mark-up or mark-down) is unreasonable under the circumstances. Finally, Section II(c)(3) requires that the Adviser's and Financial Institution's statements about the debt security, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a Retirement Investor's investment decisions, are not misleading.
Under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c), the Department cannot grant an exemption unless it first finds that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of plans and IRA owners. An exemption permitting transactions that violate the requirements of Section II(c) would be unlikely to meet these standards.
Section II(d) of the proposal requires that contract include certain warranties intended to be protective of the rights of Retirement Investors. In particular, to satisfy the exemption, the Adviser, and Financial Institution must warrant that they and their Affiliates will comply with all applicable federal and state laws regarding the rendering of the investment advice and the purchase and
The Financial Institution must also contractually warrant that it has adopted written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to mitigate the impact of material conflicts of interest that exist with respect to the provision of investment advice to Retirement Investors regarding principal transactions and ensure that individual Advisers adhere to the Impartial Conduct Standards described above. For purposes of the exemption, a material conflict of interest is deemed to exist when an Adviser or Financial Institution has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a Retirement Investor.
As part of the contractual warranty on policies and procedures, the Financial Institution must state that in formulating its policies and procedures, it specifically identified material conflict of interests and adopted measures to prevent those material conflicts of interest from causing violations of the Impartial Conduct Standards. Further, the Financial Institution must state that neither it nor (to the best of its knowledge) its Affiliates will use quotas, appraisals, performance or personnel actions, bonuses, contests, special awards, differentiated compensation or other actions or incentives to the extent they would tend to encourage individual Advisers to make recommendations regarding principal transactions that are not in the best interest of Retirement Investors.
While these warranties must be part of the contract between the Adviser and Financial Institution and the Retirement Investor, the proposal does not mandate the specific content of the policies and procedures. This flexibility is intended to allow Financial Institutions to develop policies and procedures that are effective for their particular business models, within the constraints of their fiduciary obligations and the Impartial Conduct Standards. A more detailed description of the policies and procedures requirement is included in the discussion of the similar requirement in the Proposed Exemption for the Receipt of Compensation by Investment Advice Fiduciaries, published in this same issue of the
Finally, Section II(e) of the proposal requires certain disclosures in the written contract. If the disclosures do not appear in a contract with a Retirement Investor, the exemption is not satisfied with respect to transactions involving that Retirement Investor. The written contract must (i) set forth the circumstances under which the Adviser and Financial Institution may engage in principal transactions with the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA and (ii) identify and disclose the material conflicts of interest associated with principal transactions. The contract must also document the Retirement Investor's affirmative written consent, on a prospective basis, to principal transactions with the Adviser or Financial Institution. Finally, the contract must inform the Retirement Investor (i) that the consent to principal transactions is terminable at will by the Retirement Investor at any time, without penalty to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, and (ii) of the right to obtain complete information about all the fees and other payments currently associated with its investments.
The contractual conditions set forth in Section II of the proposal are enforceable. Plans, plan participants and beneficiaries, IRA owners, and the Department may use the contract as a tool to ensure compliance with the exemption. The Department notes, however, that this contractual tool creates different rights with respect to plans, participant and beneficiaries, IRA owners and the Department.
The contract between the IRA owner and the Adviser and Financial Institution forms the basis of the IRA owner's enforcement rights. As outlined above, the contract embodies obligations on the part of the Adviser and Financial Institution. The Department intends that all the contractual obligations (the Impartial Conduct Standards and the warranties) will be actionable by IRA owners. The most important of these contractual obligations for enforcement purposes is the obligation imposed on both the Adviser and the Financial Institution to comply with the Impartial Conduct Standards. Because these standards are contractually imposed, the IRA owner has a claim if, for example, the Adviser recommends an investment product that is not in fact in the best interest of the IRA owner.
The protections of the exemption and contractual terms will also be enforceable by plans, plan participants and beneficiaries. Specifically, if an Adviser or Financial Institution receives compensation in a prohibited transaction but fails to satisfy any of the Impartial Conduct Standards or any other condition of the exemption, the Adviser and Financial Institution would be unable to qualify for relief under the exemption, and, as a result, could be liable under ERISA section 502(a)(2) and (3). An Adviser's failure to comply with the exemption or the Impartial Conduct Standards would result in a non-exempt prohibited transaction and would likely constitute a fiduciary breach. As a result, a plan, plan participant or beneficiary would be able to sue under ERISA section 502(a)(2) or (3) to recover any loss in value to the plan (including the loss in value to an individual account), or to obtain disgorgement of any wrongful profits or unjust enrichment. Additionally, plans, participants and beneficiaries could enforce their obligations in an action based on breach of the agreement.
In addition, the Department will be able to enforce ERISA's prohibited transaction provisions with respect to employee benefit plans, but not IRAs, in the event that the Adviser or Financial Institution receives compensation in a prohibited transaction but fails to comply with the Impartial Conduct Standards or any other conditions of the exemption. If any of the specific conditions of the exemption are not met, the Adviser and Financial Institution will have engaged in a non-exempt prohibited transaction, and the Department will be entitled to seek relief under ERISA section 502(a)(2) and (5).
In addition to the claims described above that may be brought by IRA owners, plans, plan participants and beneficiaries, and the Department, to enforce the contract and ERISA, Advisers and Financial Institutions that engage in prohibited transactions under the Code are subject to an excise tax. The excise tax is generally equal to 15% of the amount involved. Parties who have participated in a prohibited transaction for which an exemption is not available must pay the excise tax and file Form 5330 with the Internal Revenue Service.
Finally, in order to preserve these various enforcement rights, Section II(f) of the proposal provides that certain provisions may not be in the contract. If these provisions appear in a contract with a Retirement Investor, the exemption is not satisfied with respect to transactions involving that Retirement Investor. First, the proposal provides that the contract may not contain exculpatory provisions that disclaim or otherwise limit liability for an Adviser's or Financial Institution's violations of the contract's terms. Second, the contract may not require the plan, IRA or Retirement Investor to agree to waive its right to bring or participate in a class action or other representative action in court in a contract dispute with the Adviser or Financial Institution. The right of a Retirement Investor to bring a class-action claim in court (and the corresponding limitation on fiduciaries' ability to mandate class-action arbitration) is consistent with FINRA's position that its arbitral forum is not the correct venue for class-action claims. As proposed, this section would not impact the ability of a Financial Institution or Adviser, and a Retirement Investor, to enter into pre-dispute binding arbitration agreement with respect to individual contract claims. The Department expects that most such individual arbitration claims under this exemption will be subject to FINRA's arbitration procedures and consumer protections. The Department seeks comments on whether there are certain procedures and/or consumer protections that it should adopt or mandate for those contract disputes not covered by FINRA.
Section III of the proposal sets forth conditions that apply to the terms of each principal transaction entered into under the exemption. As noted above, Section III(a) of the proposal provides that the debt security being bought or sold must not have been issued or, at the time of the transaction, underwritten by the Financial Institution or any Affiliate. The debt security also must possess no greater than a moderate credit risk and be sufficiently liquid that the debt security could be sold at or near its fair market value within a reasonably short period of time.
Section III(b) provides that the principal transaction may not be part of an agreement, arrangement, or understanding designed to evade compliance with ERISA or the Code, or to otherwise impact the value of the debt security. Such a condition protects against the Adviser or Financial Institution manipulating the terms of the principal transaction, either as an isolated transaction or as a part of a series of transactions, to benefit themselves or their Affiliates. Further, this condition would also prohibit an Adviser or Financial Institution from engaging in principal transactions with Retirement Investors for the purpose of ridding inventory of unwanted or poorly performing debt securities.
Section III(c) of the proposal provides that the purchase or sale of the debt security must be for no consideration other than cash. By limiting a purchase or sale of debt securities to cash consideration, the Department intends that relief will not be provided for a principal transaction that is executed on an in-kind basis.
Finally, Section III(d) of the proposal addresses the pricing of the principal transaction. Section III(d)(1) provides that the purchase or sale of the debt security must be executed at a price that the Adviser and Financial Institution reasonably believe is at least as favorable to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA than the price available to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA in a transaction that is not a principal transaction. Section III(d)(2) provides that the purchase or sale of the debt security must be at least as favorable to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA as the contemporaneous price for the debt security, or a similar security if a price is not available with respect to the same debt security, offered by two ready and willing counterparties that are not Affiliates in agency transactions. When evaluating the price offered by the counterparties, the Adviser and Financial Institution may take into account the resulting price to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, including commissions. The Department intends that the proposal should allow a comparison between the actual cost to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA of the principal transaction (including the mark-up or mark-down) and the actual cost to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA of a non-principal transaction (
For purposes of Section III(d)(2), the similarity of a debt security should be construed in accordance with FINRA Rule 2121, or its successor, and the guidance promulgated thereunder. Generally, such guidance has stated that a similar debt security is one which is sufficiently similar to the subject debt security that it would serve as a reasonable alternative investment for the applicable investor.
Prior to engaging in a principal transaction, Section IV(a) of the proposal provides that the Adviser or Financial Institution must provide a pre-transaction disclosure to the Retirement Investor, either orally or in writing. The disclosure must notify the Retirement Investor that the purchase or sale of the debt security will be executed as a principal transaction between the Adviser or Financial Institution and the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or the IRA. Further, the disclosure must also provide the Retirement Investor with any available pricing information regarding the debt security, including two quotes obtained from unaffiliated parties required by Section III(d)(2).
As proposed, the pre-transaction disclosure set forth in Section IV(a) would also include the mark-up or mark-down to be charged in connection with the principal transaction. The purpose of this requirement would be to permit the Retirement Investor to evaluate the compensation and other transaction costs associated with the principal transaction. The Department believes it is important that the Financial Institution and Adviser disclose the compensation they will receive before the Retirement Investor consents to engage in the principal transaction.
For purpose of Section IV, the Department is considering defining a mark-up as the amount in excess of the “prevailing market price” that a customer pays for the debt security. Mark-down would be defined as the amount by which the price of a debt security is reduced from the “prevailing market price” that a customer receives for the debt security. The Department is
We request comment on our proposed approach to the definition of mark-up and mark-down, and in particular, our potential reliance on the FINRA guidance in Rule 2121 for purposes of the disclosure requirement in this exemption. Would a disclosure of the mark-up/down as defined in this manner provide information that will be useful to Retirement Investors in evaluating the principal transaction? Are there practical difficulties with our approach? Are there other formulations of the mark-up mark-down definition that have advantages in these respects?
Section IV(b) of the proposal provides that the Financial Institution must provide a written confirmation of the principal transaction in accordance with Rule 10b-10 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
Section IV(c) of the proposal provides that the Adviser or the Financial Institution must provide the Retirement Investor with an annual statement that lists the principal transactions engaged in during the year, provides the prevailing market price at which the debt security was purchased or sold, and provides the applicable mark-up or mark-down or other payment for each debt security. The annual statement must also remind the Retirement Investor that it may withdraw its consent to principal transactions at any time, without penalty to the plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA. The annual statement may be provided in combination with other statements provided to the Retirement Investor by the Adviser or Financial Institution.
Finally, Section IV(d) of the proposal provides that, upon reasonable request, the Adviser or Financial Institution must provide the Retirement Investor with additional information regarding the debt security and the transaction for any principal transaction that has occurred within the past 6 years preceding the date of the request.
Section V of the proposal establishes a recordkeeping requirement, and Section VI sets forth definitions that are used in the proposed exemption.
The Department is proposing that compliance with the final regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) will begin eight months after publication of the final regulation in the
If granted, this proposed exemption will not provide relief from a transaction prohibited by ERISA section 406(a)(1)(C), or from the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b) by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(C), regarding the furnishing of goods, services or facilities between a plan and a party in interest. The provision of investment advice to a plan under a contract with a fiduciary is a service to the plan and compliance with this exemption will not relieve an Adviser or Financial Institution of the need to comply with ERISA section 408(b)(2), Code section 4975(d)(2), and applicable regulations thereunder.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps to ensure that the public understands the Department's collection instructions, respondents can provide the requested data in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the Department can properly assess the impact of collection requirements on respondents.
Currently, the Department is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection request (ICR) included in the Proposed Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Debt Securities between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs as part of its proposal to amend its 1975 rule that defines when a person who provides investment advice to an employee benefit plan, participant or beneficiary, or IRA owner, becomes a fiduciary. A copy of the ICR may be obtained by contacting the PRA addressee shown below or at
The Department has submitted a copy of the Proposed Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Debt Securities between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d) for review of its information collections. The Department and OMB are particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; Attention: Desk Officer for the Employee Benefits Security Administration. OMB requests that comments be received within 30 days of publication of the Proposed Investment Advice Initiative to ensure their consideration.
PRA Addressee: Address requests for copies of the ICR to G. Christopher Cosby, Office of Policy and Research, U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-5718, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone (202) 693-8410; Fax: (202) 219-5333. These are not toll-free numbers. ICRs submitted to OMB also are available at
As discussed in detail below, the proposed class exemption would permit principal transactions in certain debt securities between a plan, participant or beneficiary account, or an IRA, and a financial institution or certain of its affiliates. The proposed class exemption
The Department has made the following assumptions in order to establish a reasonable estimate of the paperwork burden associated with these ICRs:
• Approximately 2,800 financial institutions
• Financial Institutions and advisers will use existing in-house resources to obtain the required quotes and maintain the recordkeeping systems necessary to meet the requirements of the exemption; and
• A combination of personnel will perform the tasks associated with the ICRs at an hourly wage rate of $125.95 for a financial manager, $30.42 for clerical personnel, $79.67 for an IT professional, and $129.94 for a legal professional.
In order to engage in principal transactions, Section III(d) of the proposed class exemption requires financial institutions to obtain two price quotes from unaffiliated parties in agency transactions. The Department estimates that ten percent of defined benefit (DB) plans that obtain investment advice from fiduciaries will engage in principal transactions. These plans are assumed to engage in one transaction per year requiring a total of approximately 2,000 quotes annually. Similarly, the Department estimates that ten percent of defined contribution (DC) plans that do not allow participants to direct investments that obtain investment advice from fiduciaries will engage in principal transactions. These plans are assumed to engage in one transaction per year requiring a total of approximately 6,000 quotes annually. The Department estimates that one percent of DC plan participants, who direct their own investments and obtain investment advice from fiduciaries, will engage in 12 principal transactions annually (one per month) requiring approximately 261,000 quotes. Finally, the Department estimates that ten percent of IRA owners who obtain investment advice from fiduciaries will engage in principal transactions. They are assumed to engage in one transaction per year requiring a total of approximately 4 million quotes annually.
Overall, the terms of this exemption will result in financial institutions and advisers obtaining approximately 4.3 million quotes per year. The Department assumes that a financial manager will spend five minutes to obtain the quotes. Therefore, obtaining quotes will produce approximately 359,000 hours of burden annually at an equivalent cost of $45.2 million.
In order to engage in principal transactions under this proposed class exemption, Section II requires financial institutions and advisers to enter into a written contract with retirement investors affirmatively stating that the financial institution and adviser are fiduciaries under ERISA or the Code with respect to recommendations regarding principal transactions, and that the financial institution and adviser will act in the best interest of the retirement investor.
The Department assumes that financial institutions already maintain contracts with their clients. Drafting the contractual provisions required by Section II and inserting them into the existing contracts will require 24 hours of legal time during the first year that the financial institution uses the class exemption. This legal work results in approximately 67,000 hours of burden during the first year and approximately 5,000 hours of burden during subsequent years at an equivalent cost of $8.7 million and $699,000 respectively.
Because the Department assumes that financial institutions already maintain contracts with their clients, the required contractual provisions will not require any additional costs for production or distribution.
The conditions of this PTE require the financial institution and adviser to make certain disclosures to the retirement investor. These disclosures include the two price quotes obtained from unaffiliated parties in agency transactions, other available pre-transaction pricing information, as well as the mark-up/mark-down to be charged, and an annual statement describing all transactions made during the year. The quotes and pre-transaction pricing and mark-up disclosures may be made orally or in writing. The Department assumes that all financial institutions and advisers will use the oral option at no additional burden.
The Department estimates that 2 million plans and IRAs will receive a one-page annual statement. DB and DC plans that do not allow participants to direct investments will receive the statement electronically at de minimis cost. The statement will be distributed electronically to 38 percent of the 11,000 DC plan participants and 50 percent of 2 million IRA holders at de minimis cost. Paper statements will be mailed to 62 percent of DC plan participants and 50 percent of IRA owners. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in de minimis cost, while paper distribution will cost approximately $548,000. Paper distribution will also require two minutes of clerical time to print and mail the statement, resulting in 34,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $1 million annually.
The conditions of this PTE require the financial institution to provide a confirmation notice upon completion of each transaction. The Department believes that providing confirmation notices is a regular and customary business practice, and therefore no additional burden is imposed by this requirement.
Section V of the class exemption requires the financial institution to maintain or cause to be maintained for six years and disclosed upon request the records necessary for the Department, Internal Revenue Service, plan fiduciary, contributing employer or
The Department assumes that each financial institution will maintain these records in the normal course of business. Therefore, the Department has estimated that the additional time needed to maintain records consistent with the exemption will only require about one-half hour, on average, annually for a financial manager to organize and collate the documents or else draft a notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure, and an additional 15 minutes of clerical time to make the documents available for inspection during normal business hours or prepare the paper notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure. Thus, the Department estimates that a total of 45 minutes of professional time per firm would be required for a total hour burden of 2,100 hours at an equivalent cost of $198,000.
In connection with this recordkeeping and disclosure requirements discussed above, Section V(b)(2) and (3) provides that financial institutions relying on the exemption do not have to disclose trade secrets or other confidential information to members of the public (
The Department estimates that updating computer systems to insert the contract provisions into existing contracts, maintain the required records, and insert the required markup information into existing confirmation notices will require eight hours of IT staff time during the first year that the financial institution uses the PTE. This IT work results in approximately 22,000 hours of burden during the first year and approximately 1,800 hours of burden during subsequent years at an equivalent cost of $1.8 million and $142,000 respectively.
Overall, the Department estimates that in order to meet the conditions of this class exemption, financial institutions and advisers will obtain approximately 4.3 million price quotes and distribute an additional 2 million statements annually. Obtaining these quotes, distributing statements, adjusting contracts, and maintaining records that the conditions of the exemption have been fulfilled will result in a total of 484,000 hours of burden during the first year and 402,000 hours of burden in subsequent years. The equivalent cost of this burden is $51.1million during the first year and $47.2 million in subsequent years. This exemption will result in a materials and postage cost burden of $548,000 annually.
These paperwork burden estimates are summarized as follows:
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2) does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person with respect to a plan or IRA from certain other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA section 404 which require, where applicable, among other things, that a fiduciary discharge his or her duties respecting the plan solely in the interests of the plan's participants and beneficiaries and in a prudent fashion in accordance with ERISA section 404(a)(1)(B);
(2) If granted, this class exemption does not extend to transactions prohibited under ERISA section 406(a)(1)(B) and (C), ERISA section 406(b)(3) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(B), (C), and (F);
(3) Before a class exemption may be granted under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), the Department must find that the class exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of the plan's participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners;
(4) If granted, this class exemption will be applicable to a particular transaction only if the transaction satisfies the conditions specified in the class exemption; and
(5) If granted, this class exemption will be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction.
The Department is proposing the following exemption under the authority of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, October 27, 2011).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) The Adviser: (i) Exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control respecting management of the assets of the Plan or IRA involved in the transaction or exercises any discretionary authority or control respecting management or the disposition of the assets; or (ii) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of the Plan or IRA; or
(2) The Plan is covered by Title I of ERISA and (i) the Adviser, Financial Institution or any Affiliate is the employer of employees covered by the Plan, or (ii) the Adviser or Financial Institution is a named fiduciary or plan administrator (as defined in ERISA section 3(16)(A)) with respect to the Plan, or an affiliate thereof, that was selected to provide investment advice to the plan by a fiduciary who is not Independent.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) When providing investment advice to a Retirement Investor regarding the Principal Transaction, the Adviser and Financial Institution will provide investment advice that is in the Best Interest of the Retirement Investor (
(2) The Adviser and Financial Institution will not enter into a Principal Transaction with the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA if the purchase or sales price of the Debt Security (including the mark-up or mark-down) is unreasonable under the circumstances; and
(3) The Adviser's and Financial Institution's statements about the Debt Security, fees, Material Conflicts of Interest, the Principal Transaction, and any other matters relevant to a Retirement Investor's investment decision in the Debt Security, are not misleading.
(d)
(1) The Adviser, Financial Institution and Affiliates will comply with all applicable federal and state laws regarding the rendering of the investment advice and the purchase and sale of the Debt Security;
(2) The Financial Institution has adopted written policies and procedures reasonably designed to mitigate the impact of Material Conflicts of Interest and to ensure that its individual Advisers adhere to the Impartial Conduct Standards set forth in Section II(c);
(3) In formulating its policies and procedures, the Financial Institution has specifically identified Material Conflicts of Interest and adopted measures to prevent the Material Conflicts of Interest from causing violations of the Impartial Conduct Standards set forth in Section II(c); and
(4) Neither the Financial Institution nor (to the best of its knowledge) any Affiliate uses quotas, appraisals, performance or personnel actions, bonuses, contests, special awards, differentiated compensation or other actions or incentives to the extent they would tend to encourage individual Advisers to make recommendations regarding Principal Transactions that are not in the Best Interest of the Retirement Investor.
(e)
(1) Set forth in writing (i) the circumstances under which the Adviser and Financial Institution may engage in Principal Transactions with the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA and (ii) identify and disclose the Material Conflicts of Interest associated with Principal Transactions;
(2) Document the Retirement Investor's affirmative written consent, on a prospective basis, to Principal Transactions between the Adviser or Financial Institution and the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA; and
(3) Inform the Retirement Investor (i) that the consent set forth in Section II(e)(2) is terminable at will by the Retirement Investor at any time, without penalty to the Plan or IRA, and (ii) of the right to obtain complete information about all the fees and other payments currently associated with its investments.
(f)
(1) Exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise limiting liability of the Adviser or Financial Institution for a violation of the contract's terms; and
(2) A provision under which the Plan, IRA or the Retirement Investor waives or qualifies its right to bring or participate in a class action or other representative action in court in a dispute with the Adviser or Financial Institution.
(a)
(1) Was not issued by the Financial Institution or any Affiliate;
(2) Is not purchased by the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA in an underwriting or underwriting syndicate in which the Financial
(3) Possesses no greater than a moderate credit risk; and
(4) Is sufficiently liquid that the Debt Security could be sold at or near its fair market value within a reasonably short period of time.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) The Adviser and Financial Institution reasonably believe is at least as favorable to the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA than the price available to the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA in a transaction that is not a Principal Transaction; and
(2) Is at least as favorable to the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA as the contemporaneous price for the Debt Security, or a similar security if a price is not available with respect to the same Debt Security, offered by two ready and willing counterparties that are not Affiliates.
When comparing the price offered by the counterparties referred to in (2), the Adviser and Financial Institution may take into account a commission as part of the resulting price to the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA, as compared to the price of the Debt Security, including any mark-up or mark-down.
(a)
(1) A statement that the purchase or sale of the Debt Security will be executed as a Principal Transaction between the Adviser or Financial Institution and the Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA; and
(2) Any available pricing information regarding the Debt Security, including the two quotes obtained pursuant to Section III(d). The mark-up or mark-down or other payment that will be charged also must be disclosed.
(b)
(c)
(1) A list identifying each Principal Transaction engaged in during the applicable period, the prevailing market price at which the Debt Security was purchased or sold, and the applicable mark-up or mark-down or other payment for each Debt Security; and
(2) A statement that the consent required pursuant to Section II(e)(2) is terminable at will, without penalty to the Plan or IRA.
(d)
(a) The Financial Institution maintains for a period of six (6) years from the date of each Principal Transaction the records necessary to enable the persons described in Section V(b) to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met, except that:
(1) If such records are lost or destroyed, due to circumstances beyond the control of the Financial Institution, then no prohibited transaction will be considered to have occurred solely on the basis of the unavailability of those records; and
(2) No party other than the Financial Institution that is engaging in the Principal Transaction shall be subject to the civil penalty that may be assessed under ERISA section 502(i) or to the taxes imposed by Code sections 4975(a) and (b) if the records are not maintained or are not available for examination as required by Section V(b).
(b)
(1) Except as provided in Section V(b)(2) and notwithstanding any provisions of ERISA sections 504(a)(2) and 504(b), the records referred to in Section V(a) are unconditionally available at their customary location for examination during normal business hours by:
(i) Any duly authorized employee or representative of the Department or the Internal Revenue Service;
(ii) any fiduciary of the Plan or IRA that was a party to a Principal Transaction described in this exemption, or any duly authorized employee or representative of such fiduciary;
(iii) any employer of participants and beneficiaries and any employee organization whose members are covered by the Plan, or any authorized employee or representative of these entities; and
(iv) any participant or beneficiary of the Plan, or the beneficial owner of an IRA.
(2) None of the persons described in subparagraph (1)(ii) through (iv) are authorized to examine trade secrets of the Financial Institution, or commercial or financial information which is privileged or confidential; and
(3) Should the Financial Institution refuse to disclose information on the basis that such information is exempt from disclosure, the Financial Institution must by the close of the thirtieth (30th) day following the request, provide a written notice advising the requestor of the reasons for the refusal and that the Department may request such information.
(a) “Adviser” means an individual who:
(1) Is a fiduciary of a Plan or IRA solely by reason of the provision of investment advice described in ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) or Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), or both, and the applicable regulations, with respect to the Assets involved in the transaction;
(2) Is an employee, independent contractor, agent, or registered representative of a Financial Institution; and
(3) Satisfies the applicable banking, and securities laws with respect to the covered transaction.
(b) “Affiliate” of an Adviser or Financial Institution mean:
(1) Any person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser or Financial Institution. For this purpose, the term “control” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual;
(2) Any officer, director, employee, relative (as defined in ERISA section 3(15)) or member of family (as defined in Code section 4975(e)(6)), agent or registered representative of, or partner
(3) Any corporation or partnership of which the Adviser or Financial Institution is an officer, director, or employee, or in which the Adviser or Financial Institution is a partner.
(c) Investment advice is in the “Best Interest” of the Retirement Investor when the Adviser and Financial Institution providing the advice act with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the Retirement Investor, without regard to the financial or other interests of the Adviser, Financial Institution, any Affiliate or other party.
(d) “Debt Security” means a “debt security” as defined in Rule 10b-10(d)(4) of the Exchange Act that is:
(1) U.S. dollar denominated, issued by a U.S. corporation and offered pursuant to a registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933;
(2) An “Agency Debt Security” as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(l) or its successor; or
(3) A “U.S. Treasury Security” as defined in FINRA Rule 6710(p) or its successor.
(e) “Financial Institution” means the entity that (i) employs the Adviser or otherwise retains such individual as an independent contractor, agent or registered representative, and (ii) customarily purchases or sells Debt Securities for its own account in the ordinary course of its business, and that is:
(1) Registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1
(2) A bank or similar financial institution supervised by the United States or state, or a savings association (as defined in section 3(b)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(1))), but only if the advice resulting in the compensation is provided through a trust department of the bank or similar financial institution or savings association which is subject to periodic examination and review by federal or state banking authorities; and
(3) A broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a
(f) “Independent” means a person that:
(1) Is not the Adviser or Financial Institution or an Affiliate;
(2) Does not receive compensation or other consideration for his or her own account from the Adviser, Financial Institution or an Affiliate; and
(3) Does not have a relationship to or an interest in the Adviser, Financial Institution or an Affiliate that might affect the exercise of the person's best judgment in connection with transactions described in this exemption.
(g) “Individual Retirement Account” or “IRA” means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in Code section 408(a) and a health savings account described in Code section 223(d).
(h) A “Material Conflict of Interest” exists when an Adviser or Financial Institution has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a Retirement Investor regarding Principal Transactions.
(i) “Plan” means an employee benefit plan described in ERISA section 3(3) and any plan described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(A).
(j) “Principal Transaction” means a purchase or sale of a Debt Security where an Adviser or Financial Institution is purchasing from or selling to a Plan, participant or beneficiary account, or IRA on behalf of the Financial Institution's own account or the account of a person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Financial Institution.
(k) “Retirement Investor” means:
(1) A fiduciary of a non-participant directed Plan subject to Title I of ERISA with authority to make investment decisions for the Plan;
(2) A participant or beneficiary of a Plan subject to Title I of ERISA with authority to direct the investment of assets in his or her Plan account or to take a distribution; or
(3) The beneficial owner of an IRA acting on behalf of the IRA.
Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), U.S. Department of Labor.
Notice of Proposed Amendment to PTE 75-1, Part V.
This document contains a notice of pendency before the Department of Labor of a proposed amendment to PTE 75-1, Part V, a class exemption from certain prohibited transactions provisions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and the Internal Revenue Code (the Code). The provisions at issue generally prohibit fiduciaries of employee benefit plans and individual retirement accounts (IRAs), from lending money or otherwise extending credit to the plans and IRAs and receiving compensation in return. PTE 75-1, Part V, permits the extension of credit to a plan or IRA by a broker-dealer in connection with the purchase or sale of securities; however, it does not permit the receipt of compensation for an extension of credit by broker-dealers that are fiduciaries with respect to the assets involved in the transaction. The amendment proposed in this notice would permit investment advice fiduciaries to receive compensation when they extend credit to plans and IRAs to avoid a failed securities transaction. The proposed amendment would affect participants and beneficiaries of plans, IRA owners, and fiduciaries with respect to such plans and IRAs.
All written comments concerning the proposed amendment to the class exemption should be sent to
Susan Wilker, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, (202) 693-8824 (this is not a toll-free number).
The Department is proposing this amendment on its own motion, pursuant to ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637 (October 27, 2011)).
The Department is proposing this amendment to PTE 75-1, Part V, in connection with its proposed regulation under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) (Proposed Regulation), published elsewhere in this issue of the
This notice proposes an amendment to PTE 75-1, Part V, that would allow broker-dealers that are investment advice fiduciaries to receive compensation when they extend credit to plans and IRAs to avoid failed securities transactions entered into by the plan or IRA. In the absence of an exemption, these transactions would be prohibited under ERISA and the Code. In this regard, ERISA and the Code generally prohibit fiduciaries from lending money or otherwise extending credit to plans and IRAs, and from receiving compensation in return.
ERISA section 408(a) specifically authorizes the Secretary of Labor to grant administrative exemptions from the prohibited transaction provisions.
The amendment to PTE 75-1, Part V, proposed in this notice would allow investment advice fiduciaries that are broker-dealers to receive compensation when they lend money or otherwise extend credit to plans or IRAs to avoid the failure of a purchase or sale of a security. The proposed exemption contains conditions that the broker-dealer lending money or otherwise extending credit must satisfy in order to take advantage of the exemption. In particular, the potential failure of the securities transaction may not be a result of the action or inaction of the fiduciary, and the terms of the extension of credit must be at least as favorable to the plan or IRA as terms the plan or IRA could obtain in an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party. Certain advance written disclosures must be made to the plan or IRA, in particular, with respect to the rate of interest or other fees charged for the loan or other extension of credit.
Under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, the Department must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing and streamlining rules, and of promoting flexibility. It also requires federal agencies to develop a plan under which
Under Executive Order 12866, “significant” regulatory actions are subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as “economically significant” regulatory actions); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. Pursuant to the terms of the Executive Order, OMB has determined that this action is “significant” within the meaning of Section 3(f)(4) of the Executive Order. Accordingly, the Department has undertaken an assessment of the costs and benefits of the proposed amendment, and OMB has reviewed this regulatory action.
As explained more fully in the preamble to the Department's Proposed Regulation under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), also published in this issue of the
The Code also has rules regarding fiduciary conduct with respect to tax-favored accounts that are not generally covered by ERISA, such as IRAs. Although ERISA's general fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty do not govern the fiduciaries of IRAs, these fiduciaries are subject to the prohibited transaction rules. In this context, fiduciaries engaging in the prohibited transactions are subject to an excise tax enforced by the Internal Revenue Service. Unlike participants in plans covered by Title I of ERISA, IRA owners do not have a statutory right to bring suit against fiduciaries for violation of the prohibited transaction rules and fiduciaries are not personally liable to IRA owners for the losses caused by their misconduct. Nor can the Secretary of Labor bring suit to enforce the prohibited transactions rules on behalf of IRA owners.
Under the statutory framework, the determination of who is a “fiduciary” is of central importance. Many of ERISA's protections, duties, and liabilities hinge on fiduciary status. In relevant part, section 3(21)(A) of ERISA and section 4975(e)(3) of the Code provide that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan or IRA to the extent he or she (i) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control with respect to management of such plan or IRA, or exercises any authority or control with respect to management or disposition of its assets; (ii) renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan or IRA, or has any authority or responsibility to do so; or, (iii) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of such plan or IRA.
The statutory definition deliberately casts a wide net in assigning fiduciary responsibility with respect to plan and IRA assets. Thus, “any authority or control” over plan or IRA assets is sufficient to confer fiduciary status, and any persons who render “investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect” are fiduciaries, regardless of whether they have direct control over the plan's or IRA's assets and regardless of their status as an investment adviser or broker under the federal securities laws. The statutory definition and associated fiduciary responsibilities were enacted to ensure that plans and IRAs can depend on persons who provide investment advice for a fee to provide recommendations that are untainted by conflicts of interest. In the absence of fiduciary status, the providers of investment advice would neither be subject to ERISA's fundamental fiduciary standards, nor accountable for imprudent, disloyal, or tainted advice under ERISA or the Code, no matter how egregious the misconduct or how substantial the losses. Plans, individual participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners often are not financial experts and consequently must rely on professional advice to make critical investment decisions. The significance of financial advice has become still greater with increased reliance on participant-directed plans and IRAs for the provision of retirement benefits.
In 1975, the Department issued a regulation, at 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)(1975) defining the circumstances under which a person is treated as providing “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA (the “1975 regulation”).
As the marketplace for financial services has developed in the years since 1975, the five-part test may now undermine, rather than promote, the statutes' text and purposes. The narrowness of the 1975 regulation allows professional advisers, consultants and valuation firms to play a central role in shaping plan investments, without ensuring the accountability that Congress intended for persons having such influence and responsibility when it enacted ERISA and the related Code provisions. Even when plan sponsors, participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners clearly rely on paid consultants for impartial guidance, the regulation allows consultants to avoid fiduciary status and the accompanying fiduciary obligations of care and prohibitions on disloyal and conflicted transactions. As a consequence, these advisers can steer customers to investments based on their own self-interest, give imprudent advice, and engage in transactions that would otherwise be categorically prohibited by ERISA and Code, without any liability under ERISA or the Code.
In the Department's Proposed Regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), the Department seeks to replace the existing regulation with one that more appropriately distinguishes between the sorts of advice relationships that should be treated as fiduciary in nature and those that should not, in light of the legal framework and financial marketplace in which plans and IRAs currently operate.
The Proposed Regulation describes the types of advice that constitute “investment advice” with respect to plan or IRA assets for purposes of the definition of a fiduciary at ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B). The proposal provides, subject to certain carve-outs, that a person renders investment advice with respect to a plan or IRA if, among other things, the person provides, directly to a plan, a plan fiduciary, a plan participant or beneficiary, IRA or IRA owner one of the following types of advice:
(1) A recommendation as to the advisability of acquiring, holding, disposing or exchanging securities or other property, including a recommendation to take a distribution of benefits or a recommendation as to the investment of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from a plan or IRA;
(2) A recommendation as to the management of securities or other property, including recommendations as to the management of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(3) An appraisal, fairness opinion or similar statement, whether verbal or written, concerning the value of securities or other property, if provided in connection with a specific transaction or transactions involving the acquisition, disposition or exchange of such securities or other property by the plan or IRA; and
(4) A recommendation of a person who is also going to receive a fee or other compensation for providing any of the types of advice described in paragraphs (1) through (3), above.
In addition, to be a fiduciary, such person must either (1) represent or acknowledge that it is acting as a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA or the Code with respect to the advice, or (2) render the advice pursuant to a written or verbal agreement, arrangement or understanding that the advice is individualized to, or that such advice is specifically directed to, the advice recipient for consideration in making investment or management decisions with respect to securities or other property of the plan or IRA.
For advisers who do not represent that they are acting as ERISA or Code fiduciaries, the Proposed Regulation provides that advice rendered in conformance with certain carve-outs will not cause the adviser to be treated as a fiduciary under ERISA or the Code. For example, under the “seller's carve-out,” counterparties in arm's length transactions with plans may make investment recommendations without acting as fiduciaries if certain conditions are met.
The Department anticipates that the Proposed Regulation will cover many broker-dealers who do not currently consider themselves to be fiduciaries under ERISA or the Code. If the Proposed Regulation is adopted, these entities will become subject to the prohibited transaction restrictions in ERISA and the Code that apply to fiduciaries. The lending of money or other extension of credit between a fiduciary and a plan or IRA, and the plan's or IRA's payment of compensation to the fiduciary in return may be prohibited by ERISA section 406(a)(1)(B) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(B) and (D).
As relevant to this notice, the Department understands that broker-dealers can be required, as part of their relationships with clearing houses, to complete securities transactions entered into by the broker-dealer's customers, even if a particular customer does not perform on its obligations. If a broker-dealer is required to advance funds to settle a trade entered into by a plan or IRA, or purchase a security for delivery on behalf of a plan or IRA, the result can potentially be viewed as a loan of money or other extension of credit to the plan or IRA. Further, in the event a broker-dealer steps into a plan's or IRA's shoes in any particular transaction, it may charge interest or other fees to the plan or IRA. These transactions potentially violate ERISA section 406(a)(1)(B) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(B) and (D).
ERISA and the Code counterbalance the broad proscriptive effect of the prohibited transaction provisions with numerous statutory exemptions. For example, ERISA section 408(b)(14) and Code section 4975(d)(17) specifically exempt transactions resulting from the provision of fiduciary investment advice to a participant or beneficiary of an individual account plan or IRA owner, including extensions of short term credit for settlements of securities trades, where the advice, resulting transaction, and the adviser's fees meet certain conditions. The Secretary of Labor may grant administrative exemptions under ERISA and the Code on an individual or class basis if the Secretary finds that the exemption is (1) administratively feasible, (2) in the interests of plans, their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and (3) protective of the rights of the participants and beneficiaries of such plans and IRA owners.
Over the years, the Department has granted several conditional class exemptions from the prohibited transactions provisions of ERISA and the Code. The Department has, for example, permitted investment advice fiduciaries to receive compensation from a plan or IRA (
The class exemptions described above do not provide relief for any extensions of credit that may be related to a plan's or IRA's investment transactions. PTE 75-1, Part V,
Relief under PTE 75-1, Part V, is limited in that the broker-dealer extending credit may not have or exercise any discretionary authority or control (except as a directed trustee) with respect to the investment of the plan or IRA assets involved in the transaction,
As part of its development of the Proposed Regulation, the Department has considered public input indicating the need for additional prohibited transaction exemptions for investment advice fiduciaries. The Department was informed that relief was needed for broker-dealers to extend credit to plans and IRAs to avoid failed securities transactions, and to receive compensation in return. In the Department's view, the extension of credit to avoid a failed securities transaction falls within the contours of the existing relief provided by PTE 75-1, Part V, for extensions of credit “[i]n connection with the purchase or sale of securities.” Accordingly, broker-dealers that are not fiduciaries may receive compensation for extending credit to avoid a failed securities transaction. The Department is proposing this amendment to extend such relief to investment advice fiduciaries.
This proposed amendment would add a new Section (c) to PTE 75-1, Part V, that would provide an exception to the requirement that fiduciaries not receive compensation under the exemption. Section (c) would provide that a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) or Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) may receive reasonable compensation for extending credit to a plan or IRA to avoid a failed purchase or sale of securities involving the plan or IRA.
In conjunction with such relief, Section (c) includes several conditions. First, the potential failure of the purchase or sale of the securities may not be the result of the action or inaction by the broker-dealer or any affiliate.
Finally, the plan or IRA must receive written disclosure of certain terms prior to the extension of credit. This disclosure does not need to be made on a transaction by transaction basis, and can be part of an account opening agreement or a master agreement. The disclosure must include the rate of interest or other fees that will be charged on such extension of credit, and the method of determining the balance upon which interest will be charged. The plan or IRA must additionally be provided with prior written disclosure of any changes to these terms.
The required disclosures are intended to be consistent with the requirements of Securities and Exchange Act Rule 10b-16,
The proposal would define the term “IRA” as any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
The Department is proposing that compliance with the final regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) will begin eight months after the publication of the final regulation in the
If the proposed amendment is granted, the exemption will not provide relief from a transaction prohibited by ERISA section 406(a)(1)(C), or from the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b) by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(C), regarding the furnishing of goods, services or facilities between a plan and a party in interest or between an IRA and a disqualified person. The provision of investment advice to a plan or IRA is a service to the plan or IRA and compliance with this exemption will not relieve an investment advice fiduciary of the need to comply with ERISA section 408(b)(2), Code section 4975(d)(2), and applicable regulations thereunder.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department of Labor conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps to ensure that the public understands the Department's collection instructions; respondents can provide the requested data in the desired format; reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized; collection instruments are clearly understood; and the Department can properly assess the impact of collection requirements on respondents.
Currently, the Department is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection request (ICR) included in the Proposed Amendment to Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 75-1, Part V, Exemptions from Prohibitions Respecting Certain Classes of Transactions Involving Employee Benefit Plans and Certain Broker-Dealers, Reporting Dealers and Banks, as part of its proposal to amend its 1975 rule that defines when a person who provides investment advice to an employee benefit plan or IRA becomes a fiduciary. A copy of the ICR may be obtained by contacting the PRA addressee shown below or at
The Department has submitted a copy of the Proposed Amendment to PTE 75-1, Part V, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d) for review of its information collections. The Department and OMB are particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; Attention: Desk Officer for the Employee Benefits Security Administration. OMB requests that comments be received within 30 days of publication of the Proposed Investment Advice Initiative to ensure their consideration.
PRA Addressee: Address requests for copies of the ICR to G. Christopher Cosby, Office of Policy and Research, U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-5718, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone (202) 693-8410; Fax: (202) 219-5333. These are not toll-free numbers. ICRs submitted to OMB also are available at
As discussed in detail below, Section (c)(3) of the proposed amendment requires that prior to the extension of credit, the plan must receive from the fiduciary written disclosure of (i) the rate of interest (or other fees) that will apply and (ii) the method of determining the balance upon which interest will be charged in the event that the fiduciary extends credit to avoid a failed purchase or sale of securities, as well as prior written disclosure of any changes to these terms. Section (d) requires broker-dealers engaging in the transactions to maintain records demonstrating compliance with the conditions of the PTE. These requirements are information collection requests (ICRs) subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The Department believes that the disclosure requirement is consistent with the disclosure requirement mandated by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in 17 CFR 240.10b-16(1) for margin transactions. Although the SEC does not mandate any recordkeeping requirement, the Department believes that it would be a usual and customary business practice for financial institutions to maintain any records necessary to prove that required disclosures had been distributed in compliance with the SEC's rule. Therefore, the Department concludes that these ICRs produce no additional burden to the public.
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2) does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person with respect to a plan from certain other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA section 404 which require, among other things, that a fiduciary discharge his or her duties respecting the plan solely in the interests of the plan's participants and beneficiaries and in a prudent fashion in accordance with ERISA section 404(a)(1)(B);
(2) Before a class exemption amendment may be granted under
(3) If granted, a class exemption is applicable to a particular transaction only if the transaction satisfies the conditions specified in the class exemption; and
(4) If granted, this amended class exemption will be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction.
Under the authority of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, October 27, 2011),
The restrictions of section 406 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) and the taxes imposed by section 4975(a) and (b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code), by reason of section 4975(c)(1) of the Code, shall not apply to any extension of credit to an employee benefit plan or an individual retirement account (IRA) by a party in interest or a disqualified person with respect to the plan or IRA, provided that the following conditions are met:
(a) The party in interest or disqualified person:
(1) Is a broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; and
(2) Does not have or exercise any discretionary authority or control (except as a directed trustee) with respect to the investment of the plan or IRA assets involved in the transaction, nor does it render investment advice (within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-21) with respect to those assets, unless no interest or other consideration is received by the party in interest or disqualified person or any affiliate thereof in connection with such extension of credit.
(b) Such extension of credit:
(1) Is in connection with the purchase or sale of securities;
(2) Is lawful under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and any rules and regulations promulgated thereunder; and
(3) Is not a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) of the Code.
(c) Notwithstanding section (a)(2), a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) or Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) may receive reasonable compensation for extending credit to a plan or IRA to avoid a failed purchase or sale of securities involving the plan or IRA if:
(1) The potential failure of the purchase or sale of the securities is not the result of action or inaction by such fiduciary or an affiliate;
(2) The terms of the extension of credit are at least as favorable to the plan or IRA as the terms available in an arm's length transaction between unaffiliated parties;
(3) Prior to the extension of credit, the plan or IRA receives written disclosure of (i) the rate of interest (or other fees) that will apply and (ii) the method of determining the balance upon which interest will be charged, in the event that the fiduciary extends credit to avoid a failed purchase or sale of securities, as well as prior written disclosure of any changes to these terms. This Section (c)(3) will be considered satisfied if the plan or IRA receives the disclosure described in the Securities and Exchange Act Rule 10b-16;
(d) The broker-dealer engaging in the covered transaction maintains or causes to be maintained for a period of six years from the date of such transaction such records as are necessary to enable the persons described in paragraph (e) of this exemption to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met, except that:
(1) No party other than the broker-dealer engaging in the covered transaction shall be subject to the civil penalty which may be assessed under section 502(i) of the Act, or to the taxes imposed by section 4975(a) and (b) of the Code, if such records are not maintained, or are not available for examination as required by paragraph (e) below; and
(2) A prohibited transaction will not be deemed to have occurred if, due to circumstances beyond the control of the broker-dealer, such records are lost or destroyed prior to the end of such six-year period.
(e) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in subsections (a)(2) and (b) of section 504 of the Act, the records referred to in paragraph (d) are unconditionally available for examination during normal business hours by duly authorized employees of (1) the Department of Labor, (2) the Internal Revenue Service, (3) plan participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, (4) any employer of plan participants and beneficiaries, and (5) any employee organization any of whose members are covered by such plan.
For purposes of this exemption, the terms “party in interest,” “disqualified person” and “fiduciary” shall include such party in interest, disqualified person, or fiduciary, and any affiliates thereof, and the term “affiliate” shall be defined in the same manner as that term is defined in 29 CFR 2510.3-21(e) and 26 CFR 54.4975-9(e). Also for the purposes of this exemption, the term “IRA” means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), Department of Labor.
Notice of Proposed Amendment to and Proposed Partial Revocation of PTE 84-24.
This document contains a notice of pendency before the Department of Labor of a proposed amendment to Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 84-24, an exemption from certain prohibited transaction provisions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code). The ERISA and Code provisions at issue generally prohibit fiduciaries with respect to employee benefit plans and individual retirement accounts (IRAs) from engaging in self-dealing in connection with transactions involving these plans and IRAs. The exemption allows fiduciaries to receive compensation when plans and IRAs enter into certain insurance and mutual fund transactions recommended by the fiduciaries as well as certain related transactions. The proposed amendments would increase the safeguards of the exemption. This document also contains a notice of pendency before the Department of the proposed revocation of the exemption as it applies to IRA purchases of mutual fund shares and certain annuity contracts. The amendments and revocations would affect participants and beneficiaries of plans, IRA owners and certain fiduciaries of plans and IRAs.
All written comments concerning the proposed amendment and proposed revocation to the class exemption should be sent to the Office of Exemption Determinations by any of the following methods, identified by ZRIN: 1210-ZA25:
Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Brian Shiker, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210, (202) 693-8824 (not a toll-free number).
The Department is proposing the amendment to PTE 84-24
This proposal is being published in the same issue of the
PTE 84-24 permits certain investment advice fiduciaries to receive commissions in connection with the purchase and sale of recommended insurance and annuity products and mutual fund shares by the plans and IRAs, and certain related transactions. In the absence of an exemption, ERISA and the Code generally prohibit fiduciaries from using their authority to affect or increase their own compensation. This proposal would revoke the exemption for certain transactions and amend the conditions under which fiduciaries may receive such compensation.
The Secretary of Labor may grant and amend administrative exemptions from the prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code.
PTE 84-24 currently provides an exemption for certain prohibited transactions that occur when plans or IRAs purchase insurance and annuity contracts and shares in an investment
This proposal would make several changes to PTE 84-24. First, it would increase the safeguards of the exemption by requiring fiduciaries that rely on the exemption to adhere to certain “Impartial Conduct Standards,” including acting in the best interest of the plans and IRAs when providing advice, and by more precisely defining the types of payments that are permitted under the exemption.
Second, on a going forward basis, the amendment would revoke relief for insurance agents, insurance brokers and pension consultants to receive a commission in connection with the purchase by IRAs of variable annuity contracts and other annuity contracts that are securities under federal securities laws and for mutual fund principal underwriters to receive a commission in connection with the purchase by IRAs of mutual fund shares.
Under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, the Department must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing and streamlining rules, and of promoting flexibility. It also requires federal agencies to develop a plan under which the agencies will periodically review their existing significant regulations to make the agencies' regulatory programs more effective or less burdensome in achieving their regulatory objectives.
Under Executive Order 12866, “significant” regulatory actions are subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as “economically significant” regulatory actions); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. Pursuant to the terms of the Executive Order, OMB has determined that this action is “significant” within the meaning of Section 3(f)(4) of the Executive Order. Accordingly, the Department has undertaken an assessment of the costs and benefits of the proposal, and OMB has reviewed this regulatory action.
As explained more fully in the preamble to the Department's Proposed Regulation on the definition of fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), also published in this issue of the
The Code also has rules regarding fiduciary conduct with respect to tax-favored accounts that are not generally covered by ERISA, such as IRAs. Although ERISA's general fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty do not govern the fiduciaries of IRAs, these fiduciaries are subject to the prohibited transaction rules. In this context fiduciaries engaging in the prohibited transactions are subject to an excise tax enforced by the Internal Revenue Service. Unlike participants in plans covered by Title I of ERISA, under the Code, IRA owners cannot bring suit against fiduciaries under ERISA for violation of the prohibited transaction rules and fiduciaries are not personally liable to IRA owners for the losses caused by their misconduct. Elsewhere in this issue of the
Under this statutory framework, the determination of who is a “fiduciary” is of central importance. Many of ERISA's and the Code's protections, duties, and liabilities hinge on fiduciary status. In relevant part, section 3(21)(A) of ERISA and section 4975(e)(3) of the Code provide that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan or IRA to the extent he or she (1) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control with respect to management of such plan or IRA, or exercises any authority or control with respect to management or disposition of its assets; (2) renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan or IRA, or has any authority or responsibility to do so; or, (3) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of such plan or IRA.
ERISA section 406(a)(1)(A)-(D) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(A)-(D) prohibit certain transactions between plans or IRAs and “parties in interest,” as defined in ERISA section 3(14), or “disqualified persons,” as defined in Code section 4975(e)(2). Fiduciaries and other service providers are parties in interest and disqualified persons under ERISA and the Code. As a result, they are prohibited from engaging in (1) the sale, exchange or leasing of property with a plan or IRA, (2) the lending of money or other extension of credit to a plan or IRA, (3) the furnishing of goods, services or facilities to a plan or IRA and (4) the transfer to or use by or for the benefit of a party in interest of plan assets.
ERISA section 406(b) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) and (F) are aimed at fiduciaries only. These provisions generally prohibit a fiduciary from dealing with the income or assets of a plan or IRA in his or her own interest or his or her own account and from receiving payments from third parties in connection with transactions involving the plan or IRA. Parallel regulations issued by the Departments of Labor and the Treasury explain that these provisions impose on fiduciaries of plans and IRAs a duty not to act on conflicts of interest that may affect the fiduciary's best judgment on behalf of the plan or IRA. Under these provisions, a fiduciary may not cause a plan or IRA to pay an additional fee to such fiduciary, or to a person in which such fiduciary has an interest that may affect the exercise of the fiduciary's best judgment.
In the Department's view, the receipt of a commission on the sale of an insurance or annuity contract or mutual fund shares by a fiduciary that recommended the investment violates the prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA section 406(b) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) and (F). The effecting of the sale by a fiduciary or service provider is a service, potentially in violation of ERISA section 406(a)(1)(C) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(C). Finally, the purchase of an insurance or annuity contract by a plan or IRA from an insurance company that is a fiduciary, service provider or other party in interest or disqualified person, violates ERISA section 406(a)(1)(A) and (D) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) and (D).
PTE 84-24 provides an exemption for these transactions for the following parties: insurance agents, insurance brokers, pension consultants, insurance companies and mutual fund principal underwriters. Currently, PTE 84-24 provides relief to these parties in connection with transactions involving both employee benefit plans, as defined in ERISA section 3(3), as well as IRAs and other plans described in Code section 4975, such as Archer MSAs described in Code section 220(d), health savings accounts described in Code section 223(d) and Coverdell education savings accounts described in Code section 530.
Specifically, PTE 84-24 permits insurance agents, insurance brokers and pension consultants to receive, directly or indirectly, a commission for selling insurance or annuity contracts to plans and IRAs. The exemption also permits the purchase by plans and IRAs of insurance and annuity contracts from insurance companies that are parties in interest or disqualified persons. The term “insurance and annuity contract” includes variable annuities.
In the area of mutual fund transactions, PTE 84-24 permits the mutual fund's principal underwriter to receive commissions in connection with a plan's or IRA's purchase of mutual fund shares. The term “principal underwriter” is defined in the same manner as it is defined in section 2(a)(29) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(29)).
PTE 84-24 contains conditions under which the transactions must occur in order for the exemption to apply. Generally, the exemption requires that the transaction involving the insurance or annuity contract or mutual fund shares be effected by the insurance agent, insurance broker, insurance company, pension consultant or mutual fund principal underwriter in the ordinary course of its business. The terms of the transaction must be at least as favorable to the plan or IRA as an arm's length transaction, and the party relying on the exemption must receive no more than reasonable compensation.
Additionally, the exemption restricts the parties that may use the exemption. Accordingly, the insurance agent, insurance broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company principal underwriter, and their affiliates, may not be a plan administrator (within the meaning of ERISA section 3(16) and Code section 414(g)), or an employer of employees covered by the plan.
Further, the insurance agent, insurance broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company principal underwriter may not be a trustee of the plan (other than a nondiscretionary trustee who does not render investment advice with respect to any assets of the plan) or a fiduciary who is expressly authorized in writing to manage, acquire or dispose of the assets of the plan on a discretionary basis (
The exemption requires that certain disclosures be made to an independent fiduciary of the plan or IRA, following which the independent fiduciary must approve the transaction. In the case of the purchase of an insurance or annuity contract, the insurance agent, insurance broker or pension consultant must disclose its relationship with the insurance company, the sales commission it will receive (including for renewal years), and a description of any charges, fees, discounts, penalties or
In the case of mutual fund shares, the principal underwriter similarly must disclose its relationship with the mutual fund, the sales commission it will receive, a description of any charges, fees, discounts, penalties, or adjustments which may be imposed under the recommended mutual fund shares in connection with the purchase, holding, exchange, termination or sale of such shares.
If granted, this proposal would make changes, discussed below, to PTE 84-24, as well as a re-ordering of the sections of the exemption and the definitions set forth in the exemption.
This proposal would amend PTE 84-24 to require insurance agents, insurance brokers, pension consultants, insurance companies and mutual fund principal underwriters that are fiduciaries engaging in the exempted transactions to adhere to certain Impartial Conduct Standards. The Impartial Conduct Standards are set forth in a new proposed Section II.
Under the first conduct standard, the insurance agent, insurance broker, pension consultant, insurance company or mutual fund principal underwriter would be required to act in the plan's or IRA's best interest when providing investment advice regarding the purchase of the insurance or annuity contract or mutual fund shares. Best interest is defined as acting with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and the needs of the plan or IRA. Further, under the best interest standard, the insurance agent, insurance broker, pension consultant, insurance company or mutual fund principal underwriter must act without regard to its own financial or other interests or those of any affiliate or other party. Under this standard, the fiduciary must put the interests of the plan or IRA ahead of the fiduciary's own financial interests or those of its affiliates or any other party.
In this regard, the Department notes that while fiduciaries of plans covered by ERISA are subject to the ERISA section 404 standards of prudence and loyalty, the Code contains no provisions that hold IRA fiduciaries to these standards. However, as a condition of relief under the proposed amendment, both IRA and plan fiduciaries would have to uphold the best interest and other Impartial Conduct Standards set forth in Section II. The best interest standard is defined to effectively mirror the ERISA section 404 duties of prudence and loyalty, as applied in the context of fiduciary investment advice.
The second conduct standard requires that the statements by the insurance agent, insurance broker, pension consultant, insurance company or mutual fund principal underwriter about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, are not misleading. For this purpose, the failure to disclose a material conflict of interest relevant to the services the entity is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement. Transactions that violate the requirements are not likely to be in the interests of or protective of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners.
Unlike the new exemption proposals published elsewhere in the
Additionally, unlike the new exemption proposals, this proposed amendment does not require fiduciaries to contractually warrant compliance with applicable federal and state laws. However, the Department notes that significant violations of applicable federal or state law could also amount to violations of the Impartial Conduct Standards, such as the best interest standard, in which case, this exemption, as amended, would be deemed unavailable for transactions occurring in connection with such violations.
Since PTE 84-24 was initially granted,
In connection with the Department's Proposed Regulation on the definition of fiduciary the Department has also proposed, elsewhere in this issue of the
The Best Interest Contract Exemption would require investment advice fiduciaries—including both the individual adviser and the firm that the adviser is employed by or otherwise the agent of—to contractually acknowledge fiduciary status, commit to adhere to basic standards of impartial conduct, adopt policies and procedures reasonably designed to minimize the harmful impact of conflicts of interest, and disclose basic information on their conflicts of interest. As a result, the exemption ensures that IRA owners have a contract-based claim to hold their fiduciary investment advisers accountable if they violate basic obligations of prudence and loyalty. Additionally, the Best Interest Contract Exemption would require detailed disclosure of fees associated with investments and the compensation received by investment advice fiduciaries in connection with the transactions.
As the Best Interest Contract Exemption was designed for IRA owners and other investors that rely on fiduciary investment advisers in the retail marketplace, the Department believes that some of the transactions involving IRAs that are currently permitted under PTE 84-24 should instead occur under the conditions of the Best Interest Contract Exemption, specifically, transactions involving variable annuity contracts and other annuity contracts that are securities under federal securities laws, and mutual fund shares. Therefore, this proposal would revoke relief in PTE 84-24 for such transactions. This change is
In this proposal, therefore, the Department has distinguished between transactions that involve securities and those that involve insurance products that are not securities. The Department believes that annuity contracts that are securities and mutual fund shares are distributed through the same channels as many other investments covered by the Best Interest Contract Exemption, and such investment products all have similar disclosure requirements under existing regulations. In that respect, the conditions of the proposed Best Interest Contract Exemption are appropriately tailored for such transactions.
The Department is not certain that the conditions of the Best Interest Contract Exemption, including some of the disclosure requirements, would be readily applicable to insurance and annuity contracts that are not securities, or that the distribution methods and channels of insurance products that are not securities would fit within the exemption's framework. While the Best Interest Contract Exemption will be available for such products, the Department is seeking comment in that proposal on a number of issues related to use of that exemption for such insurance and annuity products.
The Department requests comment on this approach. In particular, the Department requests comment on whether the proposal to revoke relief for securities transactions involving IRAs (
While PTE 84-24 provides an exemption for the specified parties to receive commissions in connection with the purchase of the insurance or annuity contracts and mutual fund shares, it does not currently contain a definition of commission. To provide certainty with respect to the payments permitted by the exemption, specific definitions for both (1) insurance commissions and (2) mutual fund commissions are now proposed in Section VI.
Section VI(f) would define an insurance commission to mean a sales commission paid by the insurance company or an affiliate to the insurance agent, insurance broker or pension consultant for the service of effecting the purchase or sale of an insurance or annuity contract, including renewal fees and trailers that are paid in connection with the purchase or sale of the insurance or annuity contract. As proposed, insurance commissions would not include revenue sharing payments, administrative fees or marketing fees. Additionally, the term does not include payments from parties other than the insurance company or its affiliates, and it does not include payments that result from the underlying investments that are held pursuant to the insurance contract, such as payments derived from a variable annuity's investments.
Section VI(i) would define a mutual fund commission to mean a commission or sales load paid either by the plan or the mutual fund for the service of effecting or executing the purchase or sale of mutual fund shares, but not a 12b-1 fee, revenue sharing payment, administrative fee or marketing fee.
A new proposed Section V to PTE 84-24 would require the fiduciary engaging in a transaction covered by the exemption to maintain records necessary to enable certain persons (described in proposed Section V(b)) to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met. This requirement would replace the more limited existing recordkeeping requirement in Section V(e). The proposed recordkeeping requirement is consistent with other existing class exemptions as well as the recordkeeping provisions of the other notices of proposed exemption published in this issue of the
Finally, the proposed amendment makes several minor changes in order to update PTE 84-24. The definitions have been reordered in alphabetical order for ease of use. Section I has been deleted because retroactive relief is no longer necessary, and Section II and III have been combined in order to increase readability and clarity. Finally, the term “Act” has been replaced with “ERISA” to reflect modern usage.
The Department is proposing that compliance with the final regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) will begin eight months after publication of the final regulation in the
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department of Labor conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps to ensure that the public understands the Department's collection instructions, respondents can provide the requested data in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the Department can properly assess the impact of collection requirements on respondents.
Currently, the Department is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection request (ICR) included in the Proposed Amendment to and Proposed Partial Revocation of Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 84-24 for Certain Transactions Involving Insurance Agents and Brokers, Pension Consultants, Insurance Companies, and Investment Company Principal Underwriters as part of its proposal to amend its 1975 rule that defines when a person who provides investment advice to an employee benefit plan or IRA becomes a fiduciary. A copy of the ICR may be obtained by contacting the PRA addressee shown below or at
The Department has submitted a copy of the proposed amendment to and proposed partial revocation of PTE 84-24 to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d) for review of its information collections. The Department and OMB are particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
PRA Addressee: Address requests for copies of the ICR to G. Christopher Cosby, Office of Policy and Research, U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-5718, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone (202) 693-8410; Fax: (202) 219-5333. These are not toll-free numbers. ICRs submitted to OMB also are available at
As discussed in detail below, PTE 84-24, as amended, would require insurance agents and brokers, pension consultants, insurance companies, and investment company Principal Underwriters to make certain disclosures to and receive an advance written authorization from plan fiduciaries in order to receive relief from ERISA's and the Code's prohibited transaction rules for the receipt of compensation when plans enter into certain insurance and mutual fund transactions recommended by the fiduciaries. The proposed amendment would require insurance agents and brokers, pension consultants, insurance companies, and investment company Principal Underwriters relying on PTE 84-24 to maintain records necessary to prove that the conditions of the exemption have been met. These requirements are information collection requests (ICRs) subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The Department has made the following assumptions in order to establish a reasonable estimate of the paperwork burden associated with these ICRs:
• 38% of disclosures to and advance authorizations from plans, as well as 50% of disclosures to and advance authorizations from IRAs will be distributed electronically via means already used by respondents in the normal course of business and the costs arising from electronic distribution will be negligible;
• Insurance agents and brokers, pension consultants, insurance companies, investment company Principal Underwriters, and plans will use existing in-house resources to prepare the legal authorizations and disclosures, and maintain the recordkeeping systems necessary to meet the requirements of the exemption;
• A combination of personnel will perform the tasks associated with the ICRs at an hourly wage rate of $125.95 for a financial manager, $30.42 for clerical personnel, and $129.94 for a legal professional; and
• Eight percent of plans and nine percent of IRAs have relationships with insurance agents and brokers, pension consultants, and insurance companies.
• Approximately 1,300 insurance agents and brokers, pension consultants, and insurance companies will take advantage of this exemption with all of their client plans and IRAs.
• Ten investment company Principal Underwriters will take advantage of this exemption and each will do so once with one client plan annually.
In order to receive commissions in conjunction with the purchase of insurance or annuity contracts, section IV(b) of PTE 84-24 as amended requires the insurance agent or broker or pension consultant to obtain advance written authorization from a plan fiduciary or IRA holder independent of the insurance company (the independent fiduciary) following certain disclosures, including: if the agent, broker, or consultant is an Affiliate of the insurance company whose contract is being recommended, or if the ability of the agent, broker, or consultant to recommend insurance or annuity contracts is limited by any agreement with the insurance company, the nature of the affiliation, limitation, or relationship; the insurance commission; and a description of any charges, fees, discounts, penalties, or adjustments which may be imposed under the recommended contract.
In order to receive commissions in conjunction with the purchase of securities issued by an investment company, section IV(c) of PTE 84-24 as amended requires the investment company Principal Underwriter to obtain approval from an independent plan fiduciary following certain disclosures: if the person recommending securities issued by an investment company is the Principal Underwriter of the investment company whose securities are being recommended, the nature of the relationship and of any limitation it places upon the Principal Underwriter's ability to recommend investment company securities; the commission; and a description of any charges, fees, discounts, penalties, or adjustments which may be imposed under the recommended securities in connection with the purchase, holding, exchange, termination, or sale of the securities. Unless facts or circumstances would indicate the contrary, the approval required under section IV(c) may be presumed if the independent plan fiduciary permits the transaction to proceed after receipt of the written disclosure.
According to 2012 Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit (Form 5500) data and Internal Revenue Service Statistics of Income data, the Department estimates that there are approximately 677,000 ERISA covered pension plans and approximately 54.5 million individual retirement accounts (IRAs). Of these plans and IRAs, the Department assumes that 6.5 percent are new plans/IRAs or plans/IRAs entering into relationships with new financial institutions and, as stated previously, eight percent of these new plans and nine percent of these new IRAs will engage in transactions covered under PTE 84-24 with insurance agents or brokers and pension consultants. In the
The Department estimates that approximately 54,000 plans and 4.9 million IRAs have relationships with insurance agents or brokers and pension consultants and are likely to engage in transactions covered under this exemption. Of these 54,000 plans and 4.9 million IRAs, approximately 3,500 plans and 319,000 IRAs are new clients to the insurance agents or brokers and pension consultants each year. The Department assumes that ten plans have relationships with investment company Principal Underwriters that are new each year.
The Department estimates that 3,500 plans will send insurance agents or brokers and pension consultants a two page authorization letter and 319,000 IRAs will receive a two page authorization letter from insurance agents or brokers and pension consultants each year. Prior to obtaining authorization, insurance companies and pension consultants will send the same 3,500 plans and 319,000 IRAs a seven page pre-authorization disclosure. Paper copies of the authorization letter and the pre-authorization disclosure will be mailed for 62 percent of the plans and distributed electronically for the remaining 38 percent. Paper copies of the authorization letter and the pre-authorization disclosure will be mailed to 50 percent of the IRAs and distributed electronically to the remaining 50 percent. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in a de minimis cost, while paper distribution will cost approximately $231,000. Paper distribution of the letter and disclosure will also require two minutes of clerical preparation time resulting in a total of 11,000 hours at an equivalent cost of approximately $328,000.
The Department estimates that ten plans will receive the seven page pre-transaction disclosure from investment company Principal Underwriters; 38 percent will be distributed electronically and 62 percent will be mailed. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in a de minimis cost, while the paper distribution will cost $5. Paper distribution will also require two minutes of clerical preparation time resulting in a total of 12 minutes at an equivalent cost of $6. Approval to investment company Principal Underwriters will be granted orally at de minimis cost.
Section V of PTE 84-24, as amended, would require insurance agents and brokers, insurance companies, pension consultants, and investment company Principal Underwriters to maintain or cause to be maintained for six years and disclosed upon request the records necessary for the Department, Internal Revenue Service, plan fiduciary, contributing employer or employee organization whose members are covered by the plan, plan participant, beneficiary or IRA owner, to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met.
The Department assumes that each institution will maintain these records on behalf of their client plans in their normal course of business. Therefore, the Department has estimated that the additional time needed to maintain records consistent with the exemption will only require about one-half hour, on average, annually for a financial manager to organize and collate the documents or else draft a notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure, and an additional 15 minutes of clerical time to make the documents available for inspection during normal business hours or prepare the paper notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure. Thus, the Department estimates that a total of 45 minutes of professional time per financial institution per year would be required for a total hour burden of 1,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $92,000.
In connection with the recordkeeping and disclosure requirements discussed above, Section V(b) (2) and (3) of PTE 84-24 provides that parties relying on the exemption do not have to disclose trade secrets or other confidential information to members of the public (
Overall, the Department estimates that in order to meet the conditions of this amended class exemption, almost 5,000 financial institutions and plans will produce 645,000 disclosures and notices annually. These disclosures and notices will result in over 19,000 burden hours annually, at an equivalent cost of $1.4 million. This exemption will also result in a total annual cost burden of over $231,000.
These paperwork burden estimates are summarized as follows:
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2) does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person with respect to a plan from certain other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA section 404 which require, among other things, that a fiduciary discharge his or her duties respecting a plan solely in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan. Additionally, the fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption does not affect the requirement of Code section 401(a) that the plan must operate for the exclusive benefit of the employees of the employer maintaining the plan and their beneficiaries;
(2) Before an exemption may be granted under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), the Department must find that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of plan participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners;
(3) If granted, an exemption is applicable to a particular transaction only if the transaction satisfies the conditions specified in the exemption; and
(4) This amended exemption, if granted, will be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction.
The Department invites all interested persons to submit written comments on the proposed amendment and proposed partial revocation to the address and within the time period set forth above. All comments received will be made a part of the public record for this proceeding and will be available for examination on the Department's Internet Web site. Comments should state the reasons for the writer's interest in the proposal. Comments received will be available for public inspection at the above address.
Under section 408(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA) and section 4975(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the Code), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, 66644 (October 27, 2011)), the Department proposes to amend and restate PTE 84-24 as set forth below:
(a)
(1) The receipt, directly or indirectly, by an insurance agent or broker or a pension consultant of an Insurance Commission from an insurance company in connection with the purchase, with plan assets, of an insurance or annuity contract.
(2) The receipt of a Mutual Fund Commission by a Principal Underwriter for an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (an investment company) in connection with the purchase, with plan assets, of securities issued by an investment company.
(3) The effecting by an insurance agent or broker, pension consultant or investment company principal underwriter of a transaction for the purchase, with plan assets, of an insurance or annuity contract or securities issued by an investment company.
(4) The purchase, with plan assets, of an insurance or annuity contract from an insurance company.
(5) The purchase, with plan assets, of an insurance or annuity contract from an insurance company which is a fiduciary or a service provider (or both) with respect to the plan solely by reason of the sponsorship of a Master or Prototype Plan.
(6) The purchase, with plan assets, of securities issued by an investment company from, or the sale of such securities to, an investment company or an investment company Principal Underwriter, when the investment company, Principal Underwriter, or the investment company investment adviser is a fiduciary or a service provider (or both) with respect to the plan solely by reason of: (A) The sponsorship of a Master or Prototype Plan; or (B) the provision of Nondiscretionary Trust Services to the plan; or (C) both (A) and (B).
(b)
If the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter is a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) or Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) with respect to the assets involved in the transaction, the following conditions must be satisfied with respect to the transaction to the extent they are applicable to the fiduciary's actions:
(a) When exercising fiduciary authority described in ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) or Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) with respect to the assets involved in the transaction, the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter acts in the Best Interest of the plan or IRA; and
(b) The statements by the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter about recommended investments, fees, Material Conflicts of Interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, are not misleading. For this purpose, the insurance agent's or broker's, pension consultant's, insurance company's or investment company Principal Underwriter's failure to disclose a Material Conflict of Interest relevant to the services it is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement.
(a) The transaction is effected by the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter in the ordinary course of its business as such a person.
(b) The transaction is on terms at least as favorable to the plan or IRA as an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party would be.
(c) The combined total of all fees, Insurance Commissions, Mutual Fund Commissions and other consideration received by the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company, or investment company Principal Underwriter:
(1) For the provision of services to the plan or IRA; and
(2) In connection with the purchase of insurance or annuity contracts or securities issued by an investment company is not in excess of “reasonable compensation” within the contemplation of ERISA section 408(b)(2) and 408(c)(2) and Code section 4975(d)(2) and 4975(d)(10). If the total is in excess of “reasonable compensation,” the “amount involved” for purposes of the civil penalties of ERISA section 502(i) and the excise taxes imposed by Code section 4975 (a) and (b) is the amount of compensation in excess of “reasonable compensation.”
The following conditions apply solely to a transaction described in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), (3) or (4) of Section I:
(a) The insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company, or investment company Principal Underwriter is not (1) a trustee of the plan or IRA (other than a Nondiscretionary Trustee who does not render investment advice with respect to any assets of the plan), (2) a plan administrator (within the meaning of ERISA section 3(16)(A) and Code section 414(g)), (3) a fiduciary who is expressly authorized in writing to manage, acquire or dispose of the assets of the plan or IRA on a discretionary basis, or (4) an employer any of whose employees are covered by the plan. Notwithstanding the above, an insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company, or investment company Principal Underwriter that is Affiliated with a trustee or an investment manager (within the meaning of Section VI(e)) with respect to a plan or IRA may engage in a transaction described in Section I(a)(1)-(4) of this exemption (if permitted under Section I(b)) on behalf of the plan or IRA if the trustee or investment manager has no discretionary authority or control over the assets of the plan or IRA involved in the transaction other than as a Nondiscretionary Trustee.
(b)(1) With respect to a transaction involving the purchase with plan or IRA assets of an insurance or annuity contract or the receipt of an Insurance Commission thereon, the insurance agent or broker or pension consultant provides to an independent fiduciary with respect to the plan or IRA prior to the execution of the transaction the following information in writing and in a form calculated to be understood by a plan fiduciary who has no special expertise in insurance or investment matters:
(A) If the agent, broker, or consultant is an Affiliate of the insurance company whose contract is being recommended, or if the ability of the agent, broker or consultant to recommend insurance or annuity contracts is limited by any agreement with the insurance company, the nature of the affiliation, limitation, or relationship;
(B) The Insurance Commission, expressed as a percentage of gross annual premium payments for the first year and for each of the succeeding renewal years, that will be paid by the insurance company to the agent, broker or consultant in connection with the purchase of the recommended contract; and
(C) A description of any charges, fees, discounts, penalties or adjustments which may be imposed under the recommended contract in connection with the purchase, holding, exchange, termination or sale of the contract.
(2) Following the receipt of the information required to be disclosed in paragraph (b)(1), and prior to the execution of the transaction, the independent fiduciary acknowledges in writing receipt of the information and approves the transaction on behalf of the plan. The fiduciary may be an employer of employees covered by the plan, but may not be an insurance agent or broker, pension consultant or insurance company involved in the transaction. The fiduciary may not receive, directly or indirectly (
(c)(1) With respect to a transaction involving the purchase with plan assets of securities issued by an investment company or the receipt of a Mutual Fund Commission thereon by an investment company Principal Underwriter, the investment company Principal Underwriter provides to an independent fiduciary with respect to the plan, prior to the execution of the transaction, the following information in writing and in a form calculated to be understood by a plan fiduciary who has no special expertise in insurance or investment matters:
(A) If the person recommending securities issued by an investment company is the Principal Underwriter of the investment company whose securities are being recommended, the nature of the relationship and of any limitation it places upon the Principal Underwriter's ability to recommend investment company securities;
(B) The Mutual Fund commission, expressed as a percentage of the dollar amount of the plan's gross payment and of the amount actually invested, that will be received by the Principal Underwriter in connection with the purchase of the recommended securities issued by the investment company; and
(C) A description of any charges, fees, discounts, penalties, or adjustments which may be imposed under the recommended securities in connection with the purchase, holding, exchange, termination or sale of the securities.
(2) Following the receipt of the information required to be disclosed in paragraph (c)(1), and prior to the execution of the transaction, the independent fiduciary approves the transaction on behalf of the plan. Unless facts or circumstances would indicate the contrary, the approval may be presumed if the fiduciary permits the transaction to proceed after receipt of the written disclosure. The fiduciary may be an employer of employees covered by the plan, but may not be a Principal Underwriter involved in the transaction. The fiduciary may not receive, directly or indirectly
(d) With respect to additional purchases of insurance or annuity contracts or securities issued by an investment company, the written disclosure required under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section IV need not be repeated, unless:
(1) More than three years have passed since the disclosure was made with respect to the same kind of contract or security, or
(2) The contract or security being recommended for purchase or the Insurance Commission or Mutual Fund Commission with respect thereto is materially different from that for which the approval described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section was obtained.
(a) The insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter engaging in the covered transactions maintains or causes to be maintained for a period of six years, in a manner that is accessible for audit and
(1) If the records necessary to enable the persons described in Section V(b) below to determine whether the conditions of the exemption have been met are lost or destroyed, due to circumstances beyond the control of the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter, then no prohibited transaction will be considered to have occurred solely on the basis of the unavailability of those records; and
(2) No party in interest, other than the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter shall be subject to the civil penalty that may be assessed under ERISA section 502(i) or the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b) if the records are not maintained or are not available for examination as required by paragraph (b) below; and
(b)(1) Except as provided below in subparagraph (2) and notwithstanding any provisions of ERISA section 504(a)(2) and (b), the records referred to in the above paragraph are unconditionally available at their customary location for examination during normal business hours by—
(A) Any duly authorized employee or representative of the Department or the Internal Revenue Service;
(B) Any fiduciary of the plan or any duly authorized employee or representative of the fiduciary;
(C) Any contributing employer and any employee organization whose members are covered by the plan, or any authorized employee or representative of these entities; or
(D) Any participant or beneficiary of the plan or the duly authorized representative of the participant or beneficiary or IRA owner; and
(2) None of the persons described in subparagraph (1)(B)-(D) above shall be authorized to examine trade secrets or commercial or financial information of the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter which is privileged or confidential.
(3) Should the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter refuse to disclose information on the basis that the information is exempt from disclosure, the insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter shall, by the close of the thirtieth (30th) day following the request, provide a written notice advising that person of the reasons for the refusal and that the Department may request the information.
For purposes of this exemption:
(a) The term “Affiliate” of a person means:
(1) Any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the person;
(2) Any officer, director, employee (including, in the case of Principal Underwriter, any registered representative thereof, whether or not the person is a common law employee of the Principal Underwriter), or relative of any such person, or any partner in such person; or
(3) Any corporation or partnership of which the person is an officer, director, or employee, or in which the person is a partner.
(b) The insurance agent or broker, pension consultant, insurance company or investment company Principal Underwriter that is a fiduciary acts in the “Best Interest” of the plan or IRA is when the fiduciary acts with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances and needs of the plan or IRA, without regard to the financial or other interests of the fiduciary, any affiliate or other party.
(c) The term “control” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
(d) The terms “Individual Retirement Account” means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
(e) The terms “insurance agent or broker,” “pension consultant,” “insurance company,” “investment company,” and “Principal Underwriter” mean such persons and any Affiliates thereof.
(f) The term “Insurance Commission” mean a sales commission paid by the insurance company or an Affiliate to the insurance agent or broker or pension consultant for the service of effecting the purchase or sale of an insurance or annuity contract, including renewal fees and trailers, but not revenue sharing payments, administrative fees or marketing payments, or payments from parties other than the insurance company or its Affiliates.
(g) The term “Master or Prototype Plan” means a plan which is approved by the Service under Rev. Proc. 2011-49, 2011-44 I.R.B. 608 (10/31/2011), as modified, or its successors.
(h) A “Material Conflict of Interest” exists when a person has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a plan or IRA.
(i) The term “Mutual Fund Commission” means a commission or sales load paid either by the plan or the investment company for the service of effecting or executing the purchase or sale of investment company shares, but does not include a 12b-1 fee, revenue sharing payment, administrative fee or marketing fee.
(j) The term “Nondiscretionary Trust Services” means custodial services, services ancillary to custodial services, none of which services are discretionary, duties imposed by any provisions of the Code, and services performed pursuant to directions in accordance with ERISA section 403(a)(1). The term “Nondiscretionary Trustee” of a plan or IRA means a trustee whose powers and duties with respect to the plan are limited to the provision of Nondiscretionary Trust Services. For purposes of this exemption, a person who is otherwise a Nondiscretionary Trustee will not fail to be a Nondiscretionary Trustee solely by reason of his having been delegated, by the sponsor of a Master or Prototype Plan, the power to amend the plan.
(k) The term “Principal Underwriter” is defined in the same manner as that term is defined in section 2(a)(29) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S. C. 80a-2(a)(29)).
(l) The term “relative” means a “relative” as that term is defined in ERISA section 3(15) (or a “member of the family” as that term is defined in Code section 4975(e)(6)), or a brother, a sister, or a spouse of a brother or a sister.
Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), Department of Labor.
Notice of proposed amendments to and proposed partial revocation of PTEs 86-128 and 75-1.
This document contains a notice of pendency before the Department of Labor of proposed amendments to Prohibited Transaction Exemptions (PTEs) 86-128 and 75-1, exemptions from certain prohibited transaction provisions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code). The ERISA and Code provisions at issue generally prohibit fiduciaries with respect to employee benefit plans and individual retirement accounts (IRAs) from engaging in self-dealing in connection with transactions involving plans and IRAs. The exemptions allow fiduciaries to receive compensation in connection with certain securities transactions entered into by plans and IRAs. The proposed amendments would increase the safeguards of the exemptions. This document also contains a notice of pendency before the Department of the proposed revocation of PTE 86-128 with respect to transactions involving investment advice fiduciaries and IRAs, and of PTE 75-1, Part II(2), and PTE 75-1, Parts I(b) and I(c), as duplicative in light of existing or newly proposed relief. The amendments and revocations would affect participants and beneficiaries of plans, IRA owners and certain fiduciaries of plans and IRAs.
All written comments concerning the proposed amendments to the class exemptions should be sent to the Office of Exemption Determinations by any of the following methods, identified by ZRIN: 1210-ZA25.
Brian Shiker, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210, (202) 693-8824 (not a toll-free number).
The Department is proposing the amendments to and partial revocation of PTEs 86-128 and 75-1 on its own motion, pursuant to ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637 (October 27, 2011)).
These proposed amendments and revocations are being published in the same issue of the
PTEs 86-128 and 75-1, Part II(2), permit fiduciaries to receive fees in connection with certain securities transactions entered into by plans and IRAs in accordance with the fiduciaries' advice. In the absence of an exemption, ERISA and the Code generally prohibit fiduciaries from using their authority to affect or increase their own compensation. These proposed amendments would affect the scope of the exemptions and conditions under which fiduciaries may receive such compensation.
The Secretary of Labor may grant and amend administrative exemptions from the prohibited transaction provisions of
PTE 86-128 currently provides an exemption for certain fiduciaries and their affiliates to receive a fee from a plan or IRA for effecting or executing securities transactions as an agent on behalf of the plan or IRA. It also allows a fiduciary to act in an “agency cross transaction”—as an agent both for the plan or IRA and for another party—and receive reasonable compensation from the other party. The exemption generally requires compliance with certain conditions such as advance disclosures to and approval by an independent fiduciary, although such conditions are not currently applicable to transactions involving IRAs.
This proposed amendment to PTE 86-128 would increase the safeguards of the exemption in a number of ways. The amendment would require fiduciaries relying on the exemption to adhere to certain “Impartial Conduct Standards,” including acting in the best interest of the plans and IRAs when providing advice, and would define the types of payments that are permitted under the exemption. The amendment would restrict relief under this exemption to IRA fiduciaries that have discretionary authority or control over the management of the IRA's assets (
This proposed amendment also would add a new transaction to the exemption for certain fiduciaries to act as principals (as opposed to agents for third parties) in selling mutual fund shares to plans and IRAs and to receive commissions for doing so. An exemption for this transaction is currently available in PTE 75-1, Part II(2), with few applicable safeguards.
Several changes are proposed with respect to PTE 75-1. The Department is proposing to revoke PTE 75-1, Part II(2), as that exemption would be incorporated within PTE 86-128 subject to additional safeguards. Part I(b) and (c) of PTE 75-1 also would be revoked. These provisions of PTE 75-1 provide relief for certain non-fiduciary services to plans and IRAs. If these provisions are revoked, persons seeking to engage in such transactions should look to the existing statutory exemptions provided in ERISA section 408(b)(2) and Code section 4975(d)(2), and the Department's implementing regulations at 29 CFR 2550.408b-2, for relief.
Finally, this document proposes to amend the remaining exemption of PTE 75-1, Part II, to revise the recordkeeping requirement of that exemption.
Under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, the Department must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing and streamlining rules, and of promoting flexibility. It also requires federal agencies to develop a plan under which the agencies will periodically review their existing significant regulations to make the agencies' regulatory programs more effective or less burdensome in achieving their regulatory objectives.
Under Executive Order 12866, “significant” regulatory actions are subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as “economically significant” regulatory actions); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. Pursuant to the terms of the Executive Order, OMB has determined that this action is “significant” within the meaning of Section 3(f)(4) of the Executive Order. Accordingly, the Department has undertaken an assessment of the costs and benefits of the proposed amendment, and OMB has reviewed this regulatory action.
As explained more fully in the preamble to the Department's proposed regulation on the definition of fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), also published in this issue of the
The Code also has rules regarding fiduciary conduct with respect to tax-favored accounts that are not generally covered by ERISA, such as IRAs. Although ERISA's general fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty do not govern the fiduciaries of IRAs, these fiduciaries are subject to the prohibited transaction rules. In this context fiduciaries engaging in the illegal transactions are subject to an excise tax enforced by the Internal Revenue Service. Unlike participants in plans covered by Title I of ERISA, under the Code, IRA owners cannot bring suit against fiduciaries under ERISA for violation of the prohibited transaction rules and fiduciaries are not personally liable to IRA owners for the losses caused by their misconduct. Elsewhere in this issue of the
Under this statutory framework, the determination of who is a “fiduciary” is of central importance. Many of ERISA's protections, duties, and liabilities hinge on fiduciary status. In relevant part, section 3(21)(A) of ERISA and section 4975(e)(3) of the Code provide that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan or IRA to the extent he or she (1) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control with respect to management of such plan or IRA, or exercises any authority or control with respect to management or disposition of its assets; (2) renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan or IRA, or has any authority or responsibility to do so; or, (3) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of such plan or IRA.
ERISA section 406(b)(1) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) prohibit a fiduciary from dealing with the income or assets of a plan or IRA in his or her own interest or his or her own account. Parallel regulations issued by the Departments of Labor and the Treasury explain that these provisions impose on fiduciaries of plans and IRAs a duty not to act on conflicts of interest that may affect the fiduciary's best judgment on behalf of the plan or IRA. Accordingly, a fiduciary may not cause a plan or IRA to pay an additional fee to such fiduciary, or to a person in which such fiduciary has an interest that may affect the exercise of the fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary.
The Department understands that investment professionals are often compensated on a commission basis for effecting or executing securities transactions for plans, plan participants, and IRA owners. Because such payments vary based on the advice provided, the Department views a fiduciary that recommends to a plan or IRA a securities transaction and then receives a commission for itself or a related party as violating the prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA section 406(b) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E).
PTE 86-128
As originally granted, the exemption in PTE 86-128 could be used only by fiduciaries who were not discretionary trustees, plan administrators, or employers of any employees covered by the plan.
If granted, this proposed amendment would make additional changes, discussed below, to PTE 86-128, as well as a re-ordering of the sections of the exemption.
This proposal would amend PTE 86-128 to require fiduciaries engaging in the exempted transactions to adhere to certain Impartial Conduct Standards. The Impartial Conduct Standards are set forth in a new proposed Section II. The standards would only be applicable to the extent they are applicable to the fiduciary's actions.
Under the first conduct standard, fiduciaries would be required to act in the plan's or IRA's best interest when providing investment advice to the plan or IRA, or managing the plan's or IRA's assets. Best interest is defined as acting with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial
In this regard, the Department notes that while fiduciaries of plans covered by ERISA are subject to the ERISA section 404 standards of prudence and loyalty, the Code contains no provisions that hold IRA fiduciaries to those standards. However, as a condition of relief under the proposed exemption, both IRA and plan fiduciaries would have to agree to, and uphold, the best interest requirement that is set forth in Section II(a). The best interest standard is defined to effectively mirror the ERISA section 404 duties of prudence and loyalty, as applied in the context of fiduciary investment advice. Failure to satisfy the best interest standard would render the exemption unavailable to the fiduciary with respect to compensation received in connection with the transaction.
The second conduct standard requires that all compensation received by the fiduciary and its affiliates in connection with the applicable transaction be reasonable in relation to the total services provided to the plan or IRA. The third conduct standard requires that statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA's investment decisions, are not misleading. The Department notes in this regard that a fiduciary's
Unlike the new exemption proposals published elsewhere in the
Currently, Section IV(a) of PTE 86-128 contains an exception from the conditions of the exemption for covered transactions engaged in on behalf of individual retirement accounts described in 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d) (IRAs), and plans, other than training programs, that cover no employees within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-3. The exception was included in response to comments received on the original proposal of PTE 86-128's predecessor, PTE 79-1, suggesting that such plans and IRAs did not need the protection provided by the conditions of the exemption because the participants of such plans and IRAs directly exercise control over their accounts. Additionally, the comments suggested that imposing the conditions on these plans and IRAs would result in unnecessary costs.
Upon reconsideration of the issue, however, the Department has determined that these policy reasons do not support a continued exception from the conditions of PTE 86-128 for IRAs. Since PTE 86-128 was granted, the amount of assets held in IRAs has grown dramatically. The financial services marketplace has become more complex, and compensation structures and the types of products offered have changed significantly beyond what the Department contemplated at the time. The fact that IRA owners generally do not benefit from the protections afforded by the fiduciary duties owed by plan sponsors to their employee benefit plans makes it all the more critical that appropriate safeguards in an exemption apply to IRAs.
The Department therefore is proposing to revise the exemption in several ways with respect to transactions involving IRAs. First, if the amendment is adopted, fiduciaries that exercise discretionary authority or control with respect to IRAs as described in Code section 4975(e)(3)(A) (
Further, if the amendment is adopted, the exemption will no longer provide relief to IRA fiduciaries engaging in the covered transactions if they are fiduciaries due to the provision of investment advice for a fee as described in Code section 4975(e)(3)(B). This change is reflected in a proposed new Section I(c), setting forth the scope of the exemption, which will apply on a prospective basis. Elsewhere in this issue of the
The proposed definition of IRA in Section I(c) is “any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.” The Department notes that this is not identical to the definition currently in Section IV(a), the exception for IRAs, which is “individual retirement accounts meeting the conditions of 29 CFR 2510.3-2(d), or plans, other than training programs, that cover no employees within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-3.” However, this new definition is identical to the definition of IRA used in the proposed Best Interest Contract Exemption. Accordingly, the Best Interest Contract Exemption will be available for transactions involving IRAs that are excluded from this exemption.
PTE 75-1, granted October 31, 1975,
Part II of PTE 75-1 is captioned “Principal transactions.” Part II(1) of the exemption permits the purchase or sale of a security between an employee benefit plan or IRA and a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a
PTE 75-1, Part II(2), contains a special exemption for mutual fund purchases (the mutual fund exemption) between fiduciaries and plans or IRAs. Although it does provide relief for fiduciary self-dealing and conflicts of interest, the exemption is only available if the fiduciary who decides on behalf of the plan or IRA to enter into the transaction is not a principal underwriter for, or affiliated with, the mutual fund.
In 2004, when proposing to amend Part II of PTE 75-1,
The Department received three comments on the continuing utility of the mutual fund exemption. The commenters stated that the mutual fund exemption continued to be widely used by the public. As background, the commenters noted that mutual fund transactions had some characteristics of principal transactions as well as agency transactions. In 1975, when the mutual fund exemption was originally granted, mutual funds typically entered into distribution agreements with principal underwriters, and the underwriters in turn entered into selling agreements designated as “dealer” agreements, with retail broker-dealers. However, sales of mutual funds under these dealer agreements exhibited many of the economic characteristics of agency transactions. For example, commenters stated that the selling broker-dealer was not at risk because it could not inventory mutual fund shares. Additionally, as mutual funds were required to be sold at net asset value (NAV), the broker-dealer usually received a fixed sales commission for effecting the transaction, rather than a negotiable dealer mark-up.
These commenters indicated that these features were still commonplace in mutual fund transactions. Additionally, the commenters indicated that this exemption was commonly understood to provide relief for the receipt of commissions by such broker-dealer fiduciaries in connection with the transactions.
After further consideration of these comments, the Department concurs that the relief provided by the mutual fund exemption remains relevant to broker-dealer fiduciaries that use their authority to cause plans and IRAs to purchase mutual fund shares. The Department believes that the transaction described in PTE 75-1, Part II(2), is most accurately described as a “riskless principal” transaction, in which the fiduciary that is providing investment advice purchases shares on its own account for the purpose of covering a purchase order previously received from a plan or IRA, and then sells the shares to the plan or IRA to satisfy the order.
However, the existing mutual fund exemption needs to be revised in a manner that would make it consistent with more recent exemptions that similarly provide broad relief from fiduciary self-dealing and conflicts of interest. PTE 86-128 covers transactions that are the most similar to those covered in the mutual fund exemption in that the relief it provides permits a fiduciary to use its authority to receive a commission for effecting or executing a plan's or IRA's securities transactions as agent for the plan or IRA, subject to a number of specific requirements designed to protect the interests of plan participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners.
The Department is therefore proposing a new Section I(b) of PTE 86-128 that would provide relief for the transaction currently covered in PTE 75-1, Part II(2). New Section I(b) would permit a broker-dealer fiduciary to use its authority to cause a plan (or IRA, as applicable) to purchase shares of a mutual fund from the broker-dealer fiduciary, acting as principal, where the shares were acquired solely to cover the plan's prior order, and for the receipt of a commission by such fiduciary in connection with the transaction.
To provide certainty with respect to the payments permitted by the exemption in both Section I(a) and newly proposed Section I(b), the Department is proposing a new defined term “Commission.” This term, used in Section I(b), will also replace the language currently in the exemption that permits a fiduciary to cause a plan or IRA to pay a “fee for effecting or executing securities transactions.” The term “Commission” is defined to mean a brokerage commission or sales load paid for the service of effecting or executing the transaction, but not a 12b-1 fee, revenue sharing payment,
The proposed new covered transaction in Section I(b) would be subject to the general prohibition in PTE 86-128 on churning, and the new proposed Impartial Conduct Standards in Section II. In addition, the Department is also proposing a new Section IV to PTE 86-128 which sets forth conditions applicable solely to the proposed new covered transaction. The proposed new Section IV incorporates conditions currently applicable to PTE 75-1, Part II(2).
Specifically, the conditions applicable to the proposed new covered transaction in Section I(b), as set forth in proposed Section IV, are: (1) The fiduciary customarily sells securities for its own account in the ordinary course of its business as a broker-dealer; (2) the transaction is at least as favorable to the plan or IRA as an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party would be; and (3) unless rendered inapplicable by Section V of the exemption, the requirements of Sections III(a) through III(f), III(h) and III(i) (if applicable), and III(j) are satisfied with respect to the transaction. The Department seeks comments as to whether any of the conditions described in Section IV(c) should be revised as applied to the proposed new covered transaction. The exceptions contained in Section V would be applicable to this proposed new covered transaction as well.
Relief is not proposed in the new Section I(b) for sales by a plan or IRA to a fiduciary due to the Department's belief that it is not necessary for a plan or IRA to sell a mutual fund share to a fiduciary that is acting as a principal. The Department requests comment on this limitation, as well as on its understanding of this transaction and the related fee payments.
Additionally, in connection with the proposed new covered transaction, the Department is proposing to revoke the mutual fund exemption provisions from PTE 75-1, Part II(2). The Department is further proposing to revise the recordkeeping provisions of Section (e) of PTE 75-1, Part II. Section (e) currently provides that records demonstrating compliance with the exemption must be maintained by the plan or IRA involved in the transaction. The proposed amendment would place the responsibility for maintaining such records on the broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank engaging in the transaction with such plan or IRA.
Currently, PTE 86-128 provides relief for a fiduciary to use its authority to cause a plan or IRA to pay a fee to
The Department understands that in some cases, fiduciaries are concerned that the relief provided by the exemption to persons (including their affiliates) is too narrow. In this regard, it is a prohibited transaction for a fiduciary to use the “authority, control, or responsibility which makes such a person a fiduciary to cause a plan to pay an additional fee to such fiduciary (or to a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary) to provide a service.”
To address this concern, the amendment would add relief for covered transactions when fees are paid to a “related entity.”
The Department requests comment on the necessity of incorporating relief for related entities in PTE 86-128, and the approach taken in this proposal to do so.
As explained above, discretionary trustees were first permitted to rely on PTE 86-128 without meeting the “recapture of profits” provision pursuant to an amendment in 2002 (2002 Amendment). To effect this change, the 2002 Amendment revised Section III(a), which had provided that “[t]he person engaging in the covered transaction [may not be] a trustee (other than a nondiscretionary trustee), or an administrator of the plan, or an employer any of whose employees are covered by the plan.” Under the amendment, the reference to “trustee (other than a nondiscretionary trustee)” was deleted from Section III(a). Further, under the amendment, discretionary trustees had to satisfy certain additional conditions, set forth in Section III(h) and (i), in order to rely on the exemption. Section III(h) provides that discretionary trustees may engage in the covered transactions only with plans or IRAs with total net assets of at least $50 million.
The Department understands that subsequent to the 2002 Amendment, questions were raised as to whether discretionary trustees were permitted to rely on the “recapture of profits”
In order to achieve this result, the Department has proposed amendments to several different conditions of PTE 86-128. Section V(c), which is re-designated as Section V(b) in this proposal, provides that Sections III(a) and III(i) do not apply in any case where the person engaging in the covered transaction returns or credits to the plan or IRA all profits earned by that person in connection with the securities transaction associated with the covered transaction. In addition, the Department proposes to reinsert a reference to trustees (other than nondiscretionary trustees) in Section III(a) along with the existing references to plan administrators and employers. Finally, a sentence has been added to the end of Section III(a) stating: “Notwithstanding the foregoing, this condition does not apply to a trustee that satisfies Section III(h) and (i).” The purpose of these proposed amendments is to clarify that trustees may engage in covered transactions subject to the recapture of profits limitations in Section V(b) of the exemption.
A proposed new Section VI to PTE 86-128 would require the fiduciary engaging in a transaction covered by the exemption to maintain records necessary to enable certain persons (described in proposed Section VI(b)) to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met. The proposed recordkeeping requirement is consistent with other existing class exemptions as well as the recordkeeping provisions of the other notices of proposed exemption published in this issue of the
Lastly, the Department proposes to revoke Part I(b) and I(c) of PTE 75-1, and Part II(2) of PTE 75-1. Part I(b) of PTE 75-1 provides relief from ERISA section 406 and the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), for the effecting of securities transactions, including clearance, settlement or custodial functions incidental to effecting the transactions, by parties in interest or disqualified persons other than fiduciaries. Part I(c) of PTE 75-1 provides relief from ERISA section 406 and Code section 4975(a) and (b) for the furnishing of advice regarding securities or other property to a plan or IRA by a party in interest or disqualified person under circumstances which do not make the party in interest or disqualified person a fiduciary with respect to the plan or IRA.
PTE 75-1 was granted shortly after ERISA's passage in order to provide certainty to the securities industry over the nature and extent to which ordinary and customary transactions between broker-dealers and plans or IRAs would be subject to the ERISA prohibited transaction rules. Paragraphs (b) and (c) in Part I of PTE 75-1, specifically, served to provide exemptive relief for certain non-fiduciary services provided by broker-dealers in securities transactions. Code section 4975(d)(2), ERISA section 408(b)(2) and regulations thereunder, have clarified the scope of relief for service providers to plans and IRAs.
As noted earlier, the exemption in PTE 75-1, Part II(2), would, under this proposal, be incorporated into PTE 86-128. Accordingly, the Department is proposing herein the revocation of PTE 75-1, Part II(2). In connection with the proposed revocation of PTE 75-1, Part II(2), the Department is proposing to amend Section (e) of the remaining exemption in PTE 75-1, Part II, the recordkeeping provisions of the exemption, to place the recordkeeping responsibility on the broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank engaging in transactions with the plan or IRA, as opposed to the plan or IRA itself.
The Department is proposing that compliance with the final regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) will begin eight months after the final regulation is published in the
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Department of Labor conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps to ensure that the public understands the Department's collection instructions, respondents can provide the requested data in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the Department can properly assess the impact of collection requirements on respondents.
Currently, the Department is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection request (ICR) included in the Proposed Amendment to and Proposed Partial Revocation of Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 86-128 for Securities Transactions Involving Employee Benefit Plans and Broker-Dealers; Proposed Amendment to and Partial Revocation of PTE 75-1, Exemptions From Prohibitions Respecting Certain Classes of Transactions Involving Employee Benefits Plans and Certain Broker-Dealers, Reporting Dealers and Banks as part of its proposal to amend its 1975 rule that defines when a person who provides investment advice to an employee benefit plan or IRA becomes a fiduciary. A copy of the ICR may be obtained by contacting the PRA addressee shown below or at
The Department has submitted a copy of the proposed amendments to and partial revocation of PTEs 86-128 and 75-1 to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d) for review of its information collections. The Department and OMB are particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; Attention: Desk Officer for the Employee Benefits Security Administration. OMB requests that comments be received within 30 days of publication of the Proposed Amendments to ensure their consideration.
PRA Addressee: Address requests for copies of the ICR to G. Christopher Cosby, Office of Policy and Research, U.S. Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-5718, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone (202) 693-8410; Fax: (202) 219-5333. These are not toll-free numbers. ICRs submitted to OMB also are available at
As discussed in detail below, as amended, PTE 86-128 would require financial firms to make certain disclosures to plan fiduciaries in order to receive relief from ERISA's and the Code's prohibited transaction rules for the receipt of commissions and to engage in riskless principal transactions involving mutual fund shares. Financial firms relying on either PTE 86-128 or PTE 75-1, as amended, would be required to maintain records necessary to prove that the conditions of these exemptions have been met. These requirements are information collection requests (ICRs) subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The Department has made the following assumptions in order to establish a reasonable estimate of the paperwork burden associated with these ICRs:
• 38% of disclosures will be distributed electronically via means already used by respondents in the normal course of business and the costs arising from electronic distribution will be negligible;
• Financial institutions will use existing in-house resources to prepare the legal authorizations and disclosures, and maintain the recordkeeping systems necessary to meet the requirements of the exemption;
• A combination of personnel will perform the tasks associated with the ICRs at an hourly wage rate of $125.95 for a financial manager, $30.42 for clerical personnel, and $129.94 for a legal professional; and
• Approximately 2,800 financial institutions
In order to receive commissions in conjunction with the purchase of mutual fund shares or securities products, sections III(b) and III(d) of PTE 86-128 as amended require financial institutions to obtain advance written authorization from a plan fiduciary independent of the financial institutions (the authorizing fiduciary) and furnish the authorizing fiduciary with information necessary to determine whether an authorization should be made, including a copy of the exemption, a form for termination, a description of the financial institution's brokerage placement practices, and any other reasonably available information regarding the matter that the authorizing fiduciary requests.
Section III(c) requires financial institutions to obtain annual written reauthorization or provide the authorizing fiduciary with an annual termination form explaining that the authorization is terminable at will, without penalty to the plan, and that failure to return the form will result in continued authorization for the financial institution to engage in covered transactions on behalf of the plan. Furthermore, Section III(e) requires the financial institution to provide the authorizing fiduciary with either (a) a confirmation slip for each individual securities transaction within 10 days of the transaction containing the information described in Rule 10b-10(a)(1-7) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 17 CFR 240.10b-10 or (b) a quarterly report containing certain financial information including the total of all transaction-related charges incurred by the plan. The Department assumes that financial institutions will meet this requirement for 40 percent of plans through the provision of a confirmation slip, which already is provided to their clients in the normal course of business, while financial institutions will meet this requirement for 60 percent of plans through provision of the quarterly report.
Finally, Section III(f) requires the financial institution to provide the authorizing fiduciary with an annual summary of the confirmation slips or quarterly reports. The summary must contain the following information: The total of all securities transaction-related charges incurred by the plan during the period in connection with the covered securities transactions, the amount of the securities transaction-related charges retained by the authorized person and the amount of these charges paid to other persons for execution or other services; a description of the financial institution's brokerage placement practices if such practices have materially changed during the period covered by the summary; and a portfolio turnover ratio calculated in a manner reasonable designed to provide the authorizing fiduciary the information needed to assist in discharging its duty of prudence. Section III(i) states that a financial institution that is a discretionary plan trustee who qualifies to use the exemption must provide the authorizing fiduciary with an annual report showing separately the commissions paid to affiliated brokers and non-affiliated brokers, on both a total dollar basis and a cents-per-share basis.
According to the 2012 Form 5500, approximately 677,000 plans exist in the United States that could enter into relationships with financial institutions. Of these plans, the Department assumes that 6.5 percent are new plans or plans entering into relationships with new financial institutions and, as stated previously, 25.6 percent of these plans will engage in transactions covered under this PTE. The Department estimates that granting written authorization to the financial institutions will require one hour of legal time for each of the approximately 11,000 plans entering into new relationships with financial institutions each year. The Department also estimates that it will take one hour of legal time for each of the approximately 2,800 financial institutions to produce the annual termination form. This legal work results in a total of approximately 14,000 hours annually at an equivalent cost of $1.8 million.
The Department estimates that approximately 173,000 plans have relationships with financial institutions and are likely to engage in transactions covered under this exemption. Of these 173,000 plans, approximately 11,000 are new clients to the financial institutions each year.
The Department estimates that 11,000 plans will send financial institutions a two page authorization letter each year. Prior to obtaining authorization, financial institutions will send the same 11,000 plans a seven page pre-authorization disclosure. Paper copies of the authorization letter and the pre-authorization disclosure will be mailed for 62 percent of the plans and distributed electronically for the remaining 38 percent. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in a de minimis cost, while paper distribution will cost approximately $10,000. Paper distribution of the letter and disclosure will also require two minutes of clerical preparation time resulting in a total of 500 hours at an equivalent cost of approximately $14,000.
The Department estimates that all of the 173,000 plans will receive a two-page annual termination form from financial institutions; 38 percent will be distributed electronically and 62 percent will be mailed. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in a de minimis cost, while the paper distribution will cost $63,000. Paper distribution will also require two minutes of clerical preparation time resulting in a total of 4,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $109,000.
The Department estimates that 60 percent of plans (approximately 104,000) will receive quarterly two-page transaction reports from financial institutions four times per year; 38 percent will be distributed electronically and 62 percent will be mailed. The Department estimates that electronic distribution will result in a de minimis cost, while paper distribution will cost $152,000. Paper distribution will also require two minutes of clerical preparation time resulting in a total of 9,000 hours at an equivalent cost of $261,000.
The Department estimates that all of the 173,000 plans will receive a five-page annual statement with a two-page summary of commissions paid from financial institutions; 38 percent will be distributed electronically and 62 percent will be mailed. The Department assumes that these disclosures will be distributed with the annual termination form, resulting in no further hour burden or postage cost. Electronic distribution will result in a de minimis cost, while the paper distribution will cost $38,000 in materials costs.
Finally, the Department estimates that it will cost financial institutions $3 per plan, for each of the 173,000 plans, to track all the transactions data necessary to populate the quarterly transaction reports, the annual statements, and the report of commissions paid. This results in an IT tracking cost of $520,000.
Section VI of PTE 86-128, as amended, and condition (e) of PTE 75-1, Part II, as amended, would require financial institutions to maintain or cause to be maintained for six years and disclosed upon request the records necessary for the Department, Internal Revenue Service, plan fiduciary, contributing employer or employee organization whose members are covered by the plan, participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met.
The Department assumes that each financial institution will maintain these records on behalf of their client plans in their normal course of business. Therefore, the Department has estimated that the additional time needed to maintain records consistent with the exemption will only require about one-half hour, on average, annually for a financial manager to organize and collate the documents or else draft a notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure, and an additional 15 minutes of clerical time to make the documents available for inspection during normal business hours or prepare the paper notice explaining that the information is exempt from disclosure. Thus, the Department estimates that a total of 45 minutes of professional time per financial institution per year would be required for a total hour burden of 2,100 hours at an equivalent cost of $198,000.
In connection with this recordkeeping and disclosure requirements discussed above, Section VI(b) of PTE 86-128 and Section (f) of PTE 75-1, Part II, provide that parties relying on the exemption do not have to disclose trade secrets or other confidential information to members of the public (
Overall, the Department estimates that in order to meet the conditions of this amended class exemption, over 14,000 financial institutions and plans will produce 958,000 disclosures and notices annually. These disclosures and notices will result in almost 29,000 burden hours annually, at an equivalent cost of $2.4 million. This exemption will also result in a total annual cost burden of almost $783,000.
These paperwork burden estimates are summarized as follows:
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2) does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person with respect to a plan from certain other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA section 404 which require, among other things, that a fiduciary discharge his or her duties respecting a plan solely in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan. Additionally, the fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption does not affect the requirement of Code section 401(a) that the plan must operate for the exclusive benefit of the employees of the employer maintaining the plan and their beneficiaries;
(2) Before an exemption may be granted under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), the Department must find that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of plan participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners;
(3) If granted, an exemption is applicable to a particular transaction only if the transaction satisfies the conditions specified in the exemption; and
(4) These amended exemptions, if granted, will be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction.
The Department invites all interested persons to submit written comments on the proposed amendments and proposed revocations to the address and within the time period set forth above. All comments received will be made a part of the public record for this proceeding and will be available for examination on the Department's Internet Web site. Comments should state the reasons for the writer's interest in the proposed amendment and revocation. Comments received will be available for public inspection at the above address.
Under section 408(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA) and section 4975(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the Code), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, 66644 (October 27, 2011)), the Department proposes to amend and restate PTE 86-128 as set forth below:
(a)
(b)
(c)
If the fiduciary engaging in the covered transaction is a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(i) or (ii), or Code section 4975(e)(3)(A) or (B), with respect to the assets involved in the transaction, the following conditions must be satisfied with respect to such transaction to the extent they are applicable to the fiduciary's actions:
(a) When exercising fiduciary authority described in ERISA section 3(21)(A)(i) or (ii), or Code section 4975(e)(3)(A) or (B), with respect to the assets involved in the transaction, the fiduciary acts in the Best Interest of the plan.
(b) All compensation received by the person and any Related Entity in connection with the transaction is reasonable in relation to the total services the person and any Related Entity provide to the plan.
(c) The fiduciary's statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's investment decisions, are not misleading. For this purpose, a fiduciary's failure to disclose a Material Conflict of Interest relevant to the services the fiduciary is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement
Except to the extent otherwise provided in Section V of this exemption, Section I of this exemption
(a) The person engaging in the covered transaction is not a trustee (other than a nondiscretionary trustee), an administrator of the plan, or an employer any of whose employees are covered by the plan. Notwithstanding the foregoing, this condition does not apply to a trustee that satisfies Section III(h) and (i).
(b) The covered transaction is performed under a written authorization executed in advance by a fiduciary of each plan whose assets are involved in the transaction, which plan fiduciary is independent of the person engaging in the covered transaction. The authorization is terminable at will by the plan, without penalty to the plan, upon receipt by the authorized person of written notice of termination.
(c) The authorized person obtains annual reauthorization to engage in transactions pursuant to the exemption in the method set forth in Section III(b). Alternatively, the authorized person may supply a form expressly providing an election to terminate the authorization described in Section III(b) with instructions on the use of the form to the authorizing fiduciary no less than annually. The instructions for such form must include the following information:
(1) The authorization is terminable at will by the plan, without penalty to the plan, when the authorized person receives (via first class mail, personal delivery, or email) from the authorizing fiduciary or other plan official having authority to terminate the authorization, a written notice of the intent of the plan to terminate authorization; and
(2) Failure to return the form or some other written notification of the plan's intent to terminate the authorization within thirty (30) days from the date the termination form is sent to the authorizing fiduciary will result in the continued authorization of the authorized person to engage in the covered transactions on behalf of the plan.
(d) Within three months before an initial authorization is made pursuant to Section III(b), the authorizing fiduciary is furnished with a copy of this exemption, the form for termination of authorization described in Section III(c), a description of the person's brokerage placement practices, and any other reasonably available information regarding the matter that the authorizing fiduciary requests.
(e) The person engaging in a covered transaction furnishes the authorizing fiduciary with either:
(1) A confirmation slip for each securities transaction underlying a covered transaction within ten business days of the securities transaction containing the information described in Rule 10b-10(a)(1-7) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or
(2) at least once every three months and not later than 45 days following the period to which it relates, a report disclosing:
(A) A compilation of the information that would be provided to the plan pursuant to Section III(e)(1) during the three-month period covered by the report;
(B) the total of all securities transaction-related charges incurred by the plan during such period in connection with such covered transactions; and
(C) the amount of the securities transaction-related charges retained by such person, and the amount of such charges paid to other persons for execution or other services. For purposes of this paragraph (e), the words “incurred by the plan” shall be construed to mean “incurred by the pooled fund” when such person engages in covered transactions on behalf of a pooled fund in which the plan participates.
(f) The authorizing fiduciary is furnished with a summary of the information required under Section III(e)(1) at least once per year. The summary must be furnished within 45 days after the end of the period to which it relates, and must contain the following:
(1) The total of all securities transaction-related charges incurred by the plan during the period in connection with covered securities transactions.
(2) The amount of the securities transaction-related charges retained by the authorized person and the amount of these charges paid to other persons for execution or other services.
(3) A description of the brokerage placement practices of the person that is engaging in the covered transaction, if such practices have materially changed during the period covered by the summary.
(4)(A) A portfolio turnover ratio, calculated in a manner which is reasonably designed to provide the authorizing fiduciary with the information needed to assist in making a prudent determination regarding the amount of turnover in the portfolio. The requirements of this paragraph (f)(4)(A) will be met if the “annualized portfolio turnover ratio,” calculated in the manner described in paragraph (f)(4)(B), is contained in the summary.
(B) The “annualized portfolio turnover ratio” shall be calculated as a percentage of the plan assets consisting of securities or cash over which the authorized person had discretionary investment authority, or with respect to which such person rendered, or had any responsibility to render, investment advice within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii), (the portfolio) at any time or times (management period(s)) during the period covered by the report. First, the “portfolio turnover ratio” (not annualized) is obtained by dividing (i) the lesser of the aggregate dollar amounts of purchases or sales of portfolio securities during the management period(s) by (ii) the monthly average of the market value of the portfolio securities during all management period(s). Such monthly average is calculated by totaling the market values of the portfolio securities as of the beginning and end of each management period and as of the end of each month that ends within such period(s), and dividing the sum by the number of valuation dates so used. For purposes of this calculation, all debt securities whose maturities at the time of acquisition were one year or less are excluded from both the numerator and the denominator. The “annualized portfolio turnover ratio” is then derived by multiplying the “portfolio turnover ratio” by an annualizing factor. The annualizing factor is obtained by dividing (iii) the number twelve by (iv) the aggregate duration of the management period(s) expressed in months (and fractions thereof). Examples of the use of this formula are provided in Section VII.
(C) The information described in this paragraph (f)(4) is not required to be furnished in any case where the authorized person has not exercised discretionary authority over trading in the plan's account, nor provided investment advice within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii), during the period covered by the report.
For purposes of this paragraph (f), the words “incurred by the plan” shall be construed to mean “incurred by the pooled fund” when such person engages in covered transactions on behalf of a pooled fund in which the plan participates.
(g) If an agency cross transaction to which Section V(a) does not apply is involved, the following conditions must also be satisfied:
(1) The information required under Section III(d) or Section V(c)(1)(B) of this exemption includes a statement to the effect that with respect to agency cross transactions, the person effecting or executing the transactions will have a potentially conflicting division of
(2) The summary required under Section III(f) of this exemption includes a statement identifying the total number of agency cross transactions during the period covered by the summary and the total amount of all commissions or other remuneration received or to be received from all sources by the person engaging in the transactions in connection with the transactions during the period;
(3) The person effecting or executing the agency cross transaction has the discretionary authority to act on behalf of, and/or provide investment advice to, either (A) one or more sellers or (B) one or more buyers with respect to the transaction, but not both.
(4) The agency cross transaction is a purchase or sale, for no consideration other than cash payment against prompt delivery of a security for which market quotations are readily available; and
(5) The agency cross transaction is executed or effected at a price that is at or between the independent bid and independent ask prices for the security prevailing at the time of the transaction.
(h) Except pursuant to Section V(b), a trustee (other than a non-discretionary trustee) may engage in a covered transaction only with a plan that has total net assets with a value of at least $50 million and in the case of a pooled fund, the $50 million requirement will be met if 50 percent or more of the units of beneficial interest in such pooled fund are held by plans having total net assets with a value of at least $50 million.
For purposes of the net asset tests described above, where a group of plans is maintained by a single employer or controlled group of employers, as defined in ERISA section 407(d)(7), the $50 million net asset requirement may be met by aggregating the assets of such plans, if the assets are pooled for investment purposes in a single master trust.
(i) The trustee described in Section III(h) engaging in a covered transaction furnishes, at least annually, to the authorizing fiduciary of each plan the following:
(1) The aggregate brokerage commissions, expressed in dollars, paid by the plan to brokerage firms affiliated with the trustee;
(2) the aggregate brokerage commissions, expressed in dollars, paid by the plan to brokerage firms unaffiliated with the trustee;
(3) the average brokerage commissions, expressed as cents per share, paid by the plan to brokerage firms affiliated with the trustee; and
(4) the average brokerage commissions, expressed as cents per share, paid by the plan (to brokerage firms unaffiliated with the trustee.
For purposes of this paragraph (i), the words “paid by the plan” shall be construed to mean “paid by the pooled fund” when the trustee engages in covered transactions on behalf of a pooled fund in which the plan participates.
(j) In the case of securities transactions involving shares of Mutual Funds, other than exchange traded funds, at the time of the transaction, the shares are purchased or sold at net asset value (NAV) plus a commission, in accordance with applicable securities laws and regulations.
Section I(b) of this exemption applies only if the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) The fiduciary engaging in the covered transaction customarily purchases and sells securities for its own account in the ordinary course of its business as a broker-dealer.
(b) At the time the transaction is entered into, the terms are at least as favorable to the plan as the terms generally available in an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party.
(c) Except to the extent otherwise provided in Section V, the requirements of Section III(a) through III(f), III(h) and III(i) (if applicable), and III(j) are satisfied with respect to the transaction.
(a) Certain agency cross transactions. Section III of this exemption does not apply in the case of an agency cross transaction, provided that the person effecting or executing the transaction:
(1) Does not render investment advice to any plan for a fee within the meaning of ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) with respect to the transaction;
(2) is not otherwise a fiduciary who has investment discretion with respect to any plan assets involved in the transaction,
(3) does not have the authority to engage, retain or discharge any person who is or is proposed to be a fiduciary regarding any such plan assets.
(b) Recapture of profits. Sections III(a) and III(i) do not apply in any case where the person who is engaging in a covered transaction returns or credits to the plan all profits earned by that person and any Related Entity in connection with the securities transactions associated with the covered transaction.
(c) Special rules for pooled funds. In the case of a person engaging in a covered transaction on behalf of an account or fund for the collective investment of the assets of more than one plan (a pooled fund):
(1) Sections III(b), (c) and (d) of this exemption do not apply if—
(A) the arrangement under which the covered transaction is performed is subject to the prior and continuing authorization, in the manner described in this paragraph (c)(1), of a plan fiduciary with respect to each plan whose assets are invested in the pooled fund who is independent of the person. The requirement that the authorizing fiduciary be independent of the person shall not apply in the case of a plan covering only employees of the person, if the requirements of Section V(c)(2)(A) and (B) are met.
(B) The authorizing fiduciary is furnished with any information that is reasonably necessary to determine whether the authorization should be given or continued, not less than 30 days prior to implementation of the arrangement or material change thereto, including (but not limited to) a description of the person's brokerage placement practices, and, where requested any other reasonably available information regarding the matter upon the reasonable request of the authorizing fiduciary at any time.
(C) In the event an authorizing fiduciary submits a notice in writing to the person engaging in or proposing to engage in the covered transaction objecting to the implementation of, material change in, or continuation of, the arrangement, the plan on whose behalf the objection was tendered is given the opportunity to terminate its investment in the pooled fund, without penalty to the plan, within such time as may be necessary to effect the withdrawal in an orderly manner that is equitable to all withdrawing plans and to the nonwithdrawing plans. In the case of a plan that elects to withdraw under this subparagraph (c)(1)(C), the withdrawal shall be effected prior to the implementation of, or material change in, the arrangement; but an existing arrangement need not be discontinued by reason of a plan electing to withdraw.
(D) In the case of a plan whose assets are proposed to be invested in the pooled fund subsequent to the implementation of the arrangement and that has not authorized the arrangement in the manner described in Section V(c)(1)(B) and (C), the plan's investment in the pooled fund is subject to the prior written authorization of an authorizing
(2) Section III(a) of this exemption, to the extent that it prohibits the person from being the employer of employees covered by a plan investing in a pool managed by the person, does not apply if—
(A) The person is an “investment manager” as defined in section 3(38) of ERISA, and
(B) Either (i) the person returns or credits to the pooled fund all profits earned by the person and any Related Entity in connection with all covered transactions engaged in by the fund, or (ii) the pooled fund satisfies the requirements of paragraph V(c)(3).
(3) A pooled fund satisfies the requirements of this paragraph for a fiscal year of the fund if—
(A) On the first day of such fiscal year, and immediately following each acquisition of an interest in the pooled fund during the fiscal year by any plan covering employees of the person, the aggregate fair market value of the interests in such fund of all plans covering employees of the person does not exceed twenty percent of the fair market value of the total assets of the fund; and
(B) The aggregate brokerage commissions received by the person and any Related Entity, in connection with covered transactions engaged in by the person on behalf of all pooled funds in which a plan covering employees of the person participates, do not exceed five percent of the total brokerage commissions received by the person and any Related Entity from all sources in such fiscal year.
(a) The plan fiduciary engaging in the covered transactions maintains or causes to be maintained for a period of six years, in a manner that is accessible for audit and examination, the records necessary to enable the persons described in Section VI(b) to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met, except that:
(1) If the records necessary to enable the persons described in Section VI(b) below to determine whether the conditions of the exemption have been met are lost or destroyed, due to circumstances beyond the control of the such plan fiduciary, then no prohibited transaction will be considered to have occurred solely on the basis of the unavailability of those records; and
(2) No party in interest, other than such plan fiduciary who is responsible for record-keeping, shall be subject to the civil penalty that may be assessed under ERISA section 502(i) or the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b) if the records are not maintained or are not available for examination as required by paragraph (b) below; and
(b)(1) Except as provided below in subparagraph (2) and notwithstanding any provisions of ERISA section 504(a)(2) and (b), the records referred to in the above paragraph are unconditionally available at their customary location for examination during normal business hours by—
(A) Any duly authorized employee or representative of the Department or the Internal Revenue Service;
(B) Any fiduciary of the plan or any duly authorized employee or representative of such fiduciary;
(C) Any contributing employer and any employee organization whose members are covered by the plan, or any authorized employee or representative of these entities; or
(D) Any participant or beneficiary of the plan or the duly authorized representative of such participant or beneficiary; and
(2) None of the persons described in subparagraph (1)(B)-(D) above shall be authorized to examine trade secrets or commercial or financial information of such fiduciary which is privileged or confidential.
(3) Should such plan fiduciary refuse to disclose information on the basis that such information is exempt from disclosure, such plan fiduciary shall, by the close of the thirtieth (30th) day following the request, provide a written notice advising that person of the reasons for the refusal and that the Department may request such information.
The following definitions apply to this exemption:
(a) The term “person” includes the person and affiliates of the person.
(b) An “affiliate” of a person includes the following:
(1) Any person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with, the person;
(2) Any officer, director, partner, employee, relative (as defined in ERISA section 3(15)), brother, sister, or spouse of a brother or sister, of the person; and
(3) Any corporation or partnership of which the person is an officer, director or employee or in which such person is a partner.
A person is not an affiliate of another person solely because one of them has investment discretion over the other's assets. The term “control” means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.
(c) An “agency cross transaction” is a securities transaction in which the same person acts as agent for both any seller and any buyer for the purchase or sale of a security.
(d) The term “covered transaction” means an action described in Section I of this exemption.
(e) The term “effecting or executing a securities transaction” means the execution of a securities transaction as agent for another person and/or the performance of clearance, settlement, custodial or other functions ancillary thereto.
(f) A plan fiduciary is “independent” of a person if it (1) is not the person, (2) does not receive compensation or other consideration for his or her own account from the person, and (3) does not have a relationship to or an interest in the person that might affect the exercise of the person's best judgment in connection with transactions described in this exemption. Notwithstanding the foregoing, if the plan is an individual retirement account not subject to title I of ERISA, and is beneficially owned by an employee, officer, director or partner of the person engaging in covered transactions with the IRA pursuant to this exemption, such beneficial owner is deemed “independent” for purposes of this definition.
(g) The term “profit” includes all charges relating to effecting or executing securities transactions, less reasonable and necessary expenses including reasonable indirect expenses (such as overhead costs) properly allocated to the performance of these transactions under generally accepted accounting principles.
(h) The term “securities transaction” means the purchase or sale of securities.
(i) The term “nondiscretionary trustee” of a plan means a trustee or custodian whose powers and duties with respect to any assets of the plan are limited to (1) the provision of nondiscretionary trust services to the plan, and (2) duties imposed on the trustee by any provision or provisions of ERISA or the Code. The term “nondiscretionary trust services” means custodial services and services ancillary to custodial services, none of which services are discretionary. For purposes of this exemption, a person does not fail to be a nondiscretionary trustee solely by reason of having been delegated, by the sponsor of a master or prototype plan, the power to amend such plan.
(j) The term “plan” means an employee benefit plan described in ERISA section 3(3) and any plan
(k) The terms “Individual Retirement Account” or “IRA” mean any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
(l) The term “Related Entity” means an entity, other than an affiliate, in which a person has an interest which may affect the person's exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary.
(m) A fiduciary acts in the “Best Interest” of the plan when the fiduciary acts with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the plan, without regard to the financial or other interests of the fiduciary, its affiliate, a Related Entity or any other party.
(n) The term “Commission” means a brokerage commission or sales load paid for the service of effecting or executing the transaction, but not a 12b-1 fee, revenue sharing payment, marketing fee, administrative fee, sub-TA fee or sub-accounting fee.
(o) A “Material Conflict of Interest” exists when person has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a Plan or IRA.
(a) M, an investment manager affiliated with a broker dealer that M uses to effect securities transactions for the accounts that it manages, exercises investment discretion over the account of plan P for the period January 1, 2014, though June 30, 2014, after which the relationship between M and P ceases. The market values of P's account with A at the relevant times (excluding debt securities having a maturity of one year or less at the time of acquisition) are:
Aggregate purchases during the 6-month period were $850,000; aggregate sales were $1,000,000, excluding in each case debt securities having a maturity of one year or less at the time of acquisition.
For purposes of Section III(f)(4) of this exemption, M computes the annualized portfolio turnover as follows:
A = $850,000 (lesser of purchases or sales)
B = $10,657,143 ($74.6 million divided by 7,
Annualizing factor = C/D = 12/6 = 2
Annualized portfolio turnover ratio = 2 × (850,000/10,657,143) = 0.160 = 16.0 percent
(b) Same facts as (a), except that M manages the portfolio through July 15, 2014, and, in addition, resumes management of the portfolio on November 10, 2014, through the end of the year. The additional relevant valuation dates and portfolio values are:
During the periods July 1, 2014, through July 15, 2014, and November 10, 2014, through December 31, 2014, there were an additional $650,000 of purchases and $400,000 of sales. Thus, total purchases were $1,500,000 (
M now computes the annualized portfolio turnover as follows:
A = $1,400,000 (lesser of aggregate purchases or sales)
B = $10,509,091 ($10,509,091 ($115.6 million divided by 11)
Annualizing factor = C/D = 12/ (6.5 + 1.67) = 1.47
Annualized portfolio turnover ratio = 1.47 × (1,400,000/10,509,091) = 0.196 = 19.6 percent.
The Department is proposing to revoke Parts I(b), I(c) and II(2) of PTE 75-1. In connection with the proposed revocation of Part II(2), the Department is republishing Part II of PTE 75-1. Part II of PTE 75-1 shall read as follows:
The restrictions of section 406(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) and the taxes imposed by section 4975(a) and (b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code), by reason of section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (D) of the Code, shall not apply to any purchase or sale of a security between an employee benefit plan and a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a
(a) In the case of such broker-dealer, it customarily purchases and sells securities for its own account in the ordinary course of its business as a broker-dealer.
(b) In the case of such reporting dealer or bank, it customarily purchases and sells Government securities for its own account in the ordinary course of its business and such purchase or sale between the plan and such reporting dealer or bank is a purchase or sale of Government securities.
(c) Such transaction is at least as favorable to the plan as an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party would be, and it was not, at the time of such transaction, a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) of the Code.
(d) Neither the broker-dealer, reporting dealer, bank, nor any affiliate thereof has or exercises any discretionary authority or control (except as a directed trustee) with respect to the investment of the plan assets involved in the transaction, or renders investment advice (within the meaning of 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c)) with respect to those assets.
(e) The broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank engaging in the covered transaction maintains or causes to be maintained for a period of six years from the date of such transaction such records as are necessary to enable the persons described in paragraph (f) of this exemption to determine whether the conditions of this exemption have been met, except that:
(1) No party in interest other than the broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank engaging in the covered transaction, shall be subject to the civil penalty, which may be assessed under section 502(i) of the Act, or to the taxes imposed by section 4975(a) and (b) of the Code, if such records are not maintained, or are not available for examination as required by paragraph (f) below; and
(2) A prohibited transaction will not be deemed to have occurred if, due to circumstances beyond the control of the broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank, such records are lost or destroyed prior to the end of such six year period.
(f)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in subsections (a)(2) and (b) of section 504 of the Act, the records referred to in paragraph (e) are unconditionally available for examination during normal business hours by:
A. Any duly authorized employee or representative of the Department or the Internal Revenue Service;
B. Any fiduciary of the plan or any duly authorized employee or representative of such fiduciary;
C. Any contributing employer and any employee organization whose members are covered by the plan, or any authorized employee or representative of these entities; or
D. Any participant or beneficiary of the plan or the duly authorized representative of such participant or beneficiary; and
(2) None of the persons described in subparagraph (1)(B)-(D) above shall be authorized to examine trade secrets or commercial or financial information of the broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank which is privileged or confidential.
(3) Should such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank refuse to disclose information on the basis that such information is exempt from disclosure, the broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank shall, by the close of the thirtieth (30th) day following the request, provide a written notice advising that person of the reasons for the refusal and that the Department may request such information.
For purposes of this exemption, the terms “broker-dealer,” “reporting dealer” and “bank” shall include such persons and any affiliates thereof, and the term “affiliate” shall be defined in the same manner as that term is defined in 29 CFR 2510.3-21(e) and 26 CFR 54.4975-9(e).
Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), U.S. Department of Labor.
Notice of proposed amendments to class exemptions.
This document contains a notice of pendency before the Department of Labor of proposed amendments to prohibited transaction exemptions (PTEs) 75-1, 77-4, 80-83 and 83-1. Generally, the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and the Internal Revenue Code (the Code) prohibit fiduciaries with respect to employee benefit plans and individual retirement accounts (IRAs) from engaging in self-dealing, including using their authority, control or responsibility to affect or increase their own compensation. These existing exemptions generally permit fiduciaries to receive compensation or other benefits as a result of the use of their fiduciary authority, control or responsibility in connection with investment transactions involving plans or IRAs. The proposed amendments would require the fiduciaries to satisfy uniform Impartial Conduct Standards in order to obtain the relief available under each exemption. The proposed amendments would affect participants and beneficiaries of plans, IRA owners, and fiduciaries with respect to such plans and IRAs.
All written comments concerning the proposed amendments to the class exemptions should be sent to the Office of Exemption Determinations by any of the following methods, identified by ZRIN: 1210-ZA25:
Brian Shiker, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, (202) 693-8854 (this is not a toll-free number).
The Department is proposing the amendments to the class exemptions on its own motion, pursuant to ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637 (October 27, 2011)).
The Department is proposing these amendments to existing class exemptions in connection with its proposed regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) (Proposed Regulation), published elsewhere in this issue of the
This notice proposes that new “Impartial Conduct Standards” be made conditions of the following exemptions: PTEs 75-1, Part III, 75-1, Part IV, 77-4, 80-83 and 83-1. Fiduciaries would be required to act in accordance with these standards in transactions permitted by the exemptions. The standards will be uniformly imposed in multiple class exemptions, including new proposed exemptions published elsewhere in this issue of the
Section 408(a) of ERISA specifically authorizes the Secretary of Labor to grant administrative exemptions from ERISA's prohibited transaction provisions.
The proposal would amend prohibited transaction exemptions 75-1, Part III, 75-1, Part IV, 77-4, 80-83 and 83-1. Each proposed amendment would apply the same Impartial Conduct Standards. The amendments would require a fiduciary that satisfies ERISA section 3(21)(A)(i) or (ii), or the corresponding provisions of Code section 4975(e)(3)(A) or (B), with respect to the assets involved in the investment transaction, to meet the standards with respect to the investment transactions described in the applicable exemption.
Under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, the Department must determine whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing and streamlining rules, and of promoting flexibility. It also requires federal agencies to develop a plan under which the agencies will periodically review their existing significant regulations to make the agencies' regulatory programs more effective or less burdensome in achieving their regulatory objectives.
Under Executive Order 12866, “significant” regulatory actions are subject to the requirements of the Executive Order and review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also referred to as “economically significant” regulatory actions); (2) creating serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. Pursuant to the terms of the Executive Order, OMB has determined that this action is “significant” within the meaning of Section 3(f)(4) of the Executive Order. Accordingly, the Department has undertaken an assessment of the costs and benefits of the proposed amendment, and OMB has reviewed this regulatory action.
As explained more fully in the preamble to the Department's Proposed Regulation on the definition of fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), also published in this issue of the
The Code also has rules regarding fiduciary conduct with respect to tax-favored accounts that are not generally covered by ERISA, such as IRAs. Although ERISA's general fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty do not govern the fiduciaries of IRAs, these fiduciaries are subject to the prohibited transaction rules. In this context, fiduciaries engaging in the illegal transactions are subject to an excise tax enforced by the Internal Revenue Service. Unlike participants in plans covered by Title I of ERISA, under the Code, IRA owners cannot bring suit against fiduciaries under ERISA for violation of the prohibited transaction rules and fiduciaries are not personally liable to IRA owners for the losses caused by their misconduct. Elsewhere in this issue of the
Under this statutory framework, the determination of who is a “fiduciary” is of central importance. Many of ERISA's protections, duties, and liabilities hinge on fiduciary status. In relevant part, section 3(21)(A) of ERISA and section 4975(e)(3) of the Code provide that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan or IRA to the extent he or she (1) exercises any discretionary authority or discretionary control with respect to management of such plan or IRA, or exercises any authority or control with respect to management or disposition of its assets; (2) renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan or IRA, or has any authority or responsibility to do so; or, (3) has any discretionary authority or discretionary responsibility in the administration of such plan or IRA.
The statutory definition deliberately casts a wide net in assigning fiduciary responsibility with respect to plan and IRA assets. Thus, “any authority or control” over plan or IRA assets is sufficient to confer fiduciary status, and any persons who render “investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect” are fiduciaries, regardless of whether they have direct control over the plan's or IRA's assets and regardless of their status as an investment adviser or broker under the federal securities laws. The statutory definition and associated fiduciary responsibilities were enacted to ensure that plans and IRAs can depend on persons who provide investment advice for a fee to provide recommendations that are untainted by conflicts of interest. In the absence of fiduciary status, persons who provide investment advice would neither be subject to ERISA's fundamental fiduciary standards, nor accountable for imprudent, disloyal, or tainted advice under ERISA or the Code, no matter how egregious the misconduct or how substantial the losses. Plans, individual participants and beneficiaries, and IRA owners often are not financial experts and consequently must rely on professional advice to make critical investment decisions. The statutory definition, prohibitions on conflicts of interest, and core fiduciary obligations of prudence and loyalty, all reflect Congress' recognition in 1974 of the fundamental importance of such advice. In the years since then, the significance of financial advice has become still greater with increased reliance on participant-directed plans and IRAs for the provision of retirement benefits.
In 1975, the Department issued a regulation, at 29 CFR 2510.3-21(c) defining the circumstances under which a person is treated as providing “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA (the “1975 regulation”).
As the marketplace for financial services has developed in the years since 1975, the five-part test may now undermine, rather than promote, the statutes' text and purposes. The narrowness of the 1975 regulation allows professional advisers, consultants and valuation firms to play a central role in shaping plan investments, without ensuring the accountability that Congress intended for persons having such influence and responsibility when it enacted ERISA and the related Code provisions. Even when plan sponsors, participants, beneficiaries and IRA owners clearly rely on paid consultants for impartial guidance, the regulation allows consultants to avoid fiduciary status and disregard ERISA's fiduciary obligations of care and prohibitions on disloyal and conflicted transactions. As a consequence, these advisers can steer customers to investments based on their own self-interest, give imprudent advice, and engage in transactions that would otherwise be categorically prohibited by ERISA and Code, without any liability under ERISA or the Code. In the Proposed Regulation, the Department seeks to replace the existing regulation with one that more appropriately distinguishes between the sorts of advice relationships that should be treated as fiduciary in nature and those that should not, in light of the legal framework and financial marketplace in which plans and IRAs currently operate.
The Proposed Regulation describes the types of advice that constitute “investment advice” with respect to plan or IRA assets for purposes of the
(1) A recommendation as to the advisability of acquiring, holding, disposing or exchanging securities or other property, including a recommendation to take a distribution of benefits or a recommendation as to the investment of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from a plan or IRA;
(2) A recommendation as to the management of securities or other property, including recommendations as to the management of securities or other property to be rolled over or otherwise distributed from the plan or IRA;
(3) An appraisal, fairness opinion or similar statement, whether verbal or written, concerning the value of securities or other property, if provided in connection with a specific transaction or transactions involving the acquisition, disposition or exchange of such securities or other property by the plan or IRA; and
(4) A recommendation of a person who is also going to receive a fee or other compensation for providing any of the types of advice described in paragraphs (1) through (3), above.
For advisers who do not represent that they are acting as ERISA (or Code) fiduciaries, the Proposed Regulation provides that advice rendered in conformance with certain carve-outs will not cause the adviser to be treated as a fiduciary under ERISA or the Code. For example, under the seller's carve-out, counterparties in arm's length transactions with plans may make investment recommendations without acting as fiduciaries if certain conditions are met.
Fiduciaries under ERISA and the Code are subject to certain prohibited transaction restrictions. ERISA section 406(b)(1) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) prohibit a fiduciary from dealing with the income or assets of a plan or IRA in his own interest or his own account. ERISA section 406(b)(2) provides that a fiduciary with respect to an employee benefit plan shall not “in his individual or in any other capacity act in any transaction involving the plan on behalf of a party (or represent a party) whose interests are adverse to the interests of the plan or the interests of its participants or beneficiaries.”
ERISA and the Code counterbalance the broad proscriptive effect of the prohibited transaction provisions with numerous statutory exemptions. For example, ERISA section 408(b)(14) and Code section 4975(d)(17) specifically exempt transactions in connection with the provision of fiduciary investment advice to a participant or beneficiary of an individual account plan or IRA owner, where the advice, resulting transaction, and the adviser's fees meet certain conditions. ERISA and the Code also provide for administrative exemptions that the Secretary of Labor may grant on an individual or class basis if the Secretary finds that the exemption is (1) administratively feasible, (2) in the interests of plans and of their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners and (3) protective of the rights of the participants and beneficiaries of such plans and IRA owners.
Over the years, the Department has granted several conditional administrative class exemptions from the prohibited transactions provisions of ERISA and the Code pursuant to which fiduciaries may receive compensation or other benefits in connection with investment transactions by plans and IRAs, under circumstances that would otherwise violate ERISA section 406(b) and Code section 4975(c)(1)(E) and (F). The exemptions focus on specific types of transactions or specific types of compensation arrangements. Reliance on these exemptions is subject to certain conditions that the Department has found necessary to protect the interests of plans and IRAs.
In connection with the development of the Department's proposed definition of fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B), the Department has considered public input indicating the need for additional prohibited transaction relief for the wide variety of compensation structures that exist today in the marketplace for investment transactions. After consideration of the issue, the Department determined to propose, elsewhere in this issue of the
While each of the proposed new and amended class exemptions sets forth conditions that are tailored to their respective transactions, each also conditions relief on a fiduciary's compliance with certain Impartial Conduct Standards. The Department has determined that the Impartial Conduct Standards comprise important baseline safeguards that should be required of fiduciaries relying on other existing exemptions providing relief for plan and IRA investment transactions. Accordingly, this notice proposes that the Impartial Conduct Standards be made conditions of the following
Under the amendments, fiduciaries would be required to act in accordance with the Impartial Conduct Standards in transactions governed by the exemptions. This will result in additional protections for all plans, but most particularly for IRA owners. That is because fiduciaries' dealings with IRAs are governed by the Code, not by ERISA,
The proposal would amend prohibited transaction exemptions 75-1, Part III, 75-1, Part IV, 77-4, 80-83 and 83-1. Specifically, these exemptions provide the following relief:
• PTE 75-1, Part III
• PTE 75-1, Part IV
• PTE 77-4
• PTE 80-83
• PTE 83-1
This proposal sets forth an amendment to each of these exemptions. Each of the amendments is tailored to the structure and language of the applicable exemption. Therefore, the terminology and numbering varies from amendment to amendment. Despite such variation, each amendment would apply the same Impartial Conduct Standards uniformly across each exemption.
More specifically, the amendments would require a fiduciary that satisfies ERISA section 3(21)(A)(i) or (ii), or the corresponding provisions of Code section 4975(e)(3)(A) or (B), with respect to the assets involved in the investment transaction, to meet the Impartial Conduct Standards described in the applicable exemption. Under the proposed amendments' first conduct standard, the fiduciary must act in the best interest of the plan or IRA. Best interest is defined to mean acting with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and the needs of the plan or IRA when providing investment advice to the plan or IRA or managing the plan's or IRA's assets. Further, under the best interest standard, the fiduciary must act without regard to the financial or other interests of the fiduciary or its affiliates or any other party. Under this standard, the fiduciary must put the interests of the plan or IRA ahead of its own financial interests or those of any affiliate or other party.
In this regard, the Department notes that while fiduciaries of plans covered by ERISA are subject to the ERISA section 404 standards of prudence and loyalty, the Code contains no provisions that hold IRA fiduciaries to those standards. However, as a condition of relief under the proposed amendments, both IRA and plan fiduciaries would have to agree to, and uphold, the best interest requirement. The best interest standard is defined to effectively mirror the ERISA section 404 duties of prudence and loyalty, as applied in the context of fiduciary investment advice. Failure to satisfy the best interest standard would render the exemption unavailable to the fiduciary with respect to compensation received in connection with the transaction.
The second conduct standard requires that all compensation received by the fiduciary and its affiliates in connection with the applicable transaction be reasonable in relation to the total services they provide to the plan or IRA. The third conduct standard requires that statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, not be misleading. The Department notes in this regard that a fiduciary's
Unlike the new exemption proposals published elsewhere in the
The Department is proposing that compliance with the final regulation defining a fiduciary under ERISA section 3(21)(A)(ii) and Code section 4975(e)(3)(B) will begin eight months after publication of the final regulation in the
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2) does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person with respect to a plan from certain other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of ERISA section 404 which require, among other things, that a fiduciary discharge his or her duties respecting the plan solely in the interests of the plan's participants and beneficiaries and in a prudent fashion in accordance with ERISA section 404(a)(1)(B);
(2) Before an exemption may be granted under ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), the Department must find that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and protective of the rights of plans' participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners;
(3) If granted, an exemption will be applicable to a particular transactions only if the transactions satisfy the conditions specified in the amendments; and
(4) If granted, the amended exemptions will be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any other provisions of ERISA and the Code, including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction.
The Department proposes to amend Prohibited Transaction Exemption 75-1, Part III, under the authority of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, October 27, 2011).
A. A new section III(f) is inserted to read as follows:
(f)
(1) The fiduciary acts in the Best Interest of the plan or IRA.
(2) All compensation received by the fiduciary in connection with the transaction is reasonable in relation to the total services the fiduciary provides to the plan or IRA.
(3) The fiduciary's statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, are not misleading. A “material conflict of interest” exists when a fiduciary has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a plan or IRA owner. For this purpose, a fiduciary's failure to disclose a material conflict of interest relevant to the services the fiduciary is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement.
For purposes of this section, a fiduciary acts in the “Best Interest” of the plan or IRA when the fiduciary acts with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the plan or IRA, without regard to the financial or other interests of the fiduciary or any other party. Also for the purposes of this section, the term IRA means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
B. Sections III(f) and III(g) are redesignated, respectively, as sections III(g) and III(h).
The Department proposes to amend Prohibited Transaction Exemption 75-1, Part IV, under the authority of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, October 27, 2011).
A. A new section IV(e) is inserted to read as follows:
(e)
(1) The fiduciary acts in the Best Interest of the plan or IRA.
(2) All compensation received by the fiduciary in connection with the transaction is reasonable in relation to the total services the fiduciary provides to the plan or IRA.
(3) The fiduciary's statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, are not misleading. A “material conflict of interest” exists when a fiduciary has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a plan or IRA owner. For this purpose, a fiduciary's failure to disclose a material conflict of interest relevant to the services the fiduciary is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement.
For purposes of this section, a fiduciary acts in the “Best Interest” of the plan or IRA when the fiduciary acts with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the plan or IRA, without regard to the financial or other interests of the fiduciary or any other party. Also for the purposes of this section, the term IRA means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
B. Sections IV(e) and IV(f) are redesignated, respectively, as sections IV(f) and IV(g).
The Department proposes to amend Prohibited Transaction Exemption 77-4 under the authority of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, October 27, 2011).
A new section II(g) is inserted to read as follows:
(g)
(1) The fiduciary acts in the Best Interest of the plan or IRA.
(2) All compensation received by the fiduciary and its affiliates in connection with the transaction is reasonable in relation to the total services the fiduciary provides to the plan or IRA.
(3) The fiduciary's statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, are not misleading. A “material conflict of interest” exists when a fiduciary has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a plan or IRA owner. For this purpose, a fiduciary's failure to disclose a material conflict of interest relevant to the services the fiduciary is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement.
For purposes of this section, a fiduciary acts in the “Best Interest” of the plan or IRA when the fiduciary acts with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the plan or IRA, without regard to the financial or other interests of the fiduciary, any affiliate or other party. Also for the purposes of this section, the term IRA means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
The Department proposes to amend Prohibited Transaction Exemption 80-83 under the authority of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, October 27, 2011).
A. A new section II(A)(2) is inserted to read as follows:
(2)
(a) The fiduciary acts in the Best Interest of the plan or IRA.
(b) All compensation received by the fiduciary and its affiliates in connection with the transaction is reasonable in relation to the total services the fiduciary provides to the plan or IRA.
(c) The fiduciary's statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, are not misleading. A “material conflict of interest” exists when a fiduciary has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a plan or IRA owner. For this purpose, a fiduciary's failure to disclose a material conflict of interest relevant to the services the fiduciary is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement.
For purposes of this section, a fiduciary acts in the “Best Interest” of the employee benefit plan or IRA when the fiduciary acts with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the employee benefit plan or IRA, without regard to the financial or other interests of the fiduciary, any affiliate or other party. Also for the purposes of this section, the term IRA means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
B. Section II(A)(2) is redesignated as section II(A)(3).
The Department proposes to amend Prohibited Transaction Exemption 83-1 under the authority of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2), and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, October 27, 2011).
A. A new section II(B) is inserted to read as follows:
(B)
(1) The fiduciary acts in the Best Interest of the plan or IRA.
(2) All compensation received by the fiduciary and its affiliates in connection with the transaction is reasonable in relation to the total services the fiduciary and its affiliates provide to the plan or IRA.
(3) The fiduciary's statements about recommended investments, fees, material conflicts of interest, and any other matters relevant to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions, are not misleading. A “material conflict of interest” exists when a fiduciary has a financial interest that could affect the exercise of its best judgment as a fiduciary in rendering advice to a plan or IRA owner. For this purpose, a fiduciary's failure to disclose a material conflict of interest relevant to the services the fiduciary is providing or other actions it is taking in relation to a plan's or IRA owner's investment decisions is deemed to be a misleading statement.
For purposes of this section, a fiduciary acts in the “Best Interest” of the plan or IRA when the fiduciary acts with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person would exercise based on the investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial circumstances, and needs of the plan or IRA, without regard to the financial or other interests of the plan or IRA to the financial interests of the fiduciary, any affiliate or other party. Also for the purposes of this section, the term IRA means any trust, account or annuity described in Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) through (F), including, for example, an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Code and a health savings account described in section 223(d) of the Code.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule would update the payment rates used under the prospective payment system (PPS) for skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) for fiscal year (FY) 2016. In addition, it includes a proposal to specify a SNF all-cause all-condition hospital readmission measure, as well as a proposal to adopt that measure for a new SNF Value-Based Purchasing (VBP) Program and a discussion of SNF VBP Program policies we are considering for future rulemaking to promote higher quality and more efficient health care for Medicare beneficiaries. Additionally, this proposed rule proposes to implement a new quality reporting program for SNFs as specified in the Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation Act of 2014 (IMPACT Act). It also would amend the requirements that a long-term care (LTC) facility must meet to qualify to participate as a skilled nursing facility (SNF) in the Medicare program, or a nursing facility (NF) in the Medicaid program. These requirements implement the provision in the Affordable Care Act regarding the submission of staffing information based on payroll data.
To be assured consideration, comments must be received at one of the addresses provided below, no later than 5 p.m. on June 19, 2015.
In commenting, please refer to file code CMS-1622-P. Because of staff and resource limitations, we cannot accept comments by facsimile (FAX) transmission.
You may submit comments in one of four ways (please choose only one of the ways listed):
1.
2.
Please allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.
3.
4.
a. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Room 445-G, Hubert H. Humphrey Building, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201.
(Because access to the interior of the Hubert H. Humphrey Building is not readily available to persons without Federal Government identification, commenters are encouraged to leave their comments in the CMS drop slots located in the main lobby of the building. A stamp-in clock is available for persons wishing to retain a proof of filing by stamping in and retaining an extra copy of the comments being filed.)
b. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850.
If you intend to deliver your comments to the Baltimore address, please call telephone number (410) 786-7195 in advance to schedule your arrival with one of our staff members.
Comments mailed to the addresses indicated as appropriate for hand or courier delivery may be delayed and received after the comment period.
For information on viewing public comments, see the beginning of the
Penny Gershman, (410) 786-6643, for information related to SNF PPS clinical issues (excluding any issues raised in Section V of this proposed rule).
John Kane, (410) 786-0557, for information related to the development of the payment rates and case-mix indexes.
Kia Sidbury, (410) 786-7816, for information related to the wage index.
Bill Ullman, (410) 786-5667, for information related to level of care determinations, consolidated billing, and general information.
Shannon Kerr, (410) 786-0666, for information related to skilled nursing facility value-based purchasing.
Camillus Ezeike, (410) 786-8614, for information related to skilled nursing facility quality reporting.
Lorelei Chapman, (410) 786-9254, for information related to staffing data collection.
Comments received timely will also be available for public inspection as they are received, generally beginning approximately 3 weeks after publication of a document, at the headquarters of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244, Monday through Friday of each week from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m. To schedule an appointment to view public comments, phone 1-800-743-3951.
As discussed in the FY 2015 SNF PPS final rule (79 FR 45628), tables setting forth the Wage Index for Urban Areas Based on CBSA Labor Market Areas and the Wage Index Based on CBSA Labor Market Areas for Rural Areas are no longer published in the
Readers who experience any problems accessing any of these online SNF PPS wage index tables should contact Kia Sidbury at (410) 786-7816.
To assist readers in referencing sections contained in this document, we are providing the following Table of Contents.
In addition, because of the many terms to which we refer by acronym in this proposed rule, we are listing these abbreviations and their corresponding terms in alphabetical order below:
This proposed rule would update the SNF prospective payment rates for FY 2016 as required under section 1888(e)(4)(E) of the Social Security Act (the Act). It would also respond to section 1888(e)(4)(H) of the Act, which requires the Secretary to provide for publication in the
In accordance with sections 1888(e)(4)(E)(ii)(IV) and 1888(e)(5) of the Act, the federal rates in this proposed rule would reflect an update to the rates that we published in the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2015 (79 FR 45628) which reflects the SNF market basket index, as adjusted by the applicable forecast error correction and by the multifactor productivity adjustment for FY 2016. We also propose to specify a SNF all-cause all-condition hospital readmission measure under section 1888(g) of the Act, as well as adopt that measure for a new SNF Value-Based Purchasing (VBP) Program under section 1888(h) of the Act. We also seek comment on other policies for the SNF VBP Program that we are considering for adoption in future rulemaking to promote higher quality and more efficient health care for Medicare beneficiaries. We are also proposing to implement a new quality reporting program for SNFs under section 1888(e)(6) of the Act, which was added by section 2(c)(4) of the IMPACT Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-85).
For payment determinations beginning with FY 2018, we propose to adopt measures meeting three quality domains specified in section 1899B(c)(1) of the Act: Functional status, skin integrity, and incidence of major falls.
In addition, we propose adding new language at 42 CFR part 483 to implement section 1128I(g) of the Act. Specifically, we propose that, beginning on July 1, 2016, LTC facilities that participate in Medicare or Medicaid will be required to electronically submit direct care staffing information (including information for agency and contract staff) based on payroll and other verifiable and auditable data in a uniform format. We invite public comment on CMS' proposed changes to 42 CFR part 483 to ensure compliance with this requirement.
As amended by section 4432 of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (BBA, Pub. L. 105-33, enacted on August 5, 1997), section 1888(e) of the Act provides for the implementation of a PPS for SNFs. This methodology uses prospective, case-mix adjusted per diem payment rates applicable to all covered SNF services defined in section 1888(e)(2)(A) of the Act. The SNF PPS is effective for cost reporting periods beginning on or after July 1, 1998, and covers all costs of furnishing covered SNF services (routine, ancillary, and capital-related costs) other than costs associated with approved educational activities and bad debts. Under section 1888(e)(2)(A)(i) of the Act, covered SNF services include post-hospital extended care services for which benefits are provided under Part A, as well as those items and services (other than a small number of excluded services, such as physician services) for which payment may otherwise be made under Part B and which are furnished to Medicare beneficiaries who are residents in a SNF during a covered Part A stay. A comprehensive discussion of these provisions appears in the May 12, 1998 interim final rule (63 FR 26252). In addition, a detailed discussion of the legislative history of the SNF PPS is available online at
Section 215(a) of PAMA added section 1888(g) to the Act requiring the Secretary to specify certain quality measures for the skilled nursing facility setting. Additionally, section 215(b) of PAMA added section 1888(h) to the Act requiring the Secretary to implement a value-based purchasing program for skilled nursing facilities. Finally, section 2(a) of the IMPACT Act added section 1899B to the Act that, among other things, requires SNFs to report standardized data for measures in specified quality and resource use domains. In addition, the IMPACT Act added section 1888(e)(6) to the Act, which requires the Secretary to implement a quality reporting program for SNFs, which includes a requirement that SNFs report certain data to receive their full payment under the SNF PPS.
Under sections 1888(e)(1)(A) and 1888(e)(11) of the Act, the SNF PPS included an initial, three-phase transition that blended a facility-specific rate (reflecting the individual facility's historical cost experience) with the federal case-mix adjusted rate. The
Section 1888(e)(4)(E) of the Act requires the SNF PPS payment rates to be updated annually. The most recent annual update occurred in a final rule that set forth updates to the SNF PPS payment rates for FY 2015 (79 FR 45628, August 5, 2014).
Section 1888(e)(4)(H) of the Act specifies that we provide for publication annually in the
• The unadjusted federal per diem rates to be applied to days of covered SNF services furnished during the upcoming FY.
• The case-mix classification system to be applied for these services during the upcoming FY.
• The factors to be applied in making the area wage adjustment for these services.
Along with other revisions discussed later in this preamble, this proposed rule would provide the required annual updates to the per diem payment rates for SNFs for FY 2016.
Under section 1888(e)(4) of the Act, the SNF PPS uses per diem federal payment rates based on mean SNF costs in a base year (FY 1995) updated for inflation to the first effective period of the PPS. We developed the federal payment rates using allowable costs from hospital-based and freestanding SNF cost reports for reporting periods beginning in FY 1995. The data used in developing the federal rates also incorporated a Part B add-on, which is an estimate of the amounts that, prior to the SNF PPS, would have been payable under Part B for covered SNF services furnished to individuals during the course of a covered Part A stay in a SNF.
In developing the rates for the initial period, we updated costs to the first effective year of the PPS (the 15-month period beginning July 1, 1998) using a SNF market basket index, and then standardized for geographic variations in wages and for the costs of facility differences in case mix. In compiling the database used to compute the federal payment rates, we excluded those providers that received new provider exemptions from the routine cost limits, as well as costs related to payments for exceptions to the routine cost limits. Using the formula that the BBA prescribed, we set the federal rates at a level equal to the weighted mean of freestanding costs plus 50 percent of the difference between the freestanding mean and weighted mean of all SNF costs (hospital-based and freestanding) combined. We computed and applied separately the payment rates for facilities located in urban and rural areas, and adjusted the portion of the federal rate attributable to wage-related costs by a wage index to reflect geographic variations in wages.
Section 1888(e)(5)(A) of the Act requires us to establish a SNF market basket index that reflects changes over time in the prices of an appropriate mix of goods and services included in covered SNF services. Accordingly, we have developed a SNF market basket index that encompasses the most commonly used cost categories for SNF routine services, ancillary services, and capital-related expenses. We use the SNF market basket index, adjusted in the manner described below, to update the federal rates on an annual basis. In the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2014 (78 FR 47939 through 47946), we revised and rebased the market basket, which included updating the base year from FY 2004 to FY 2010.
For the FY 2016 proposed rule, the FY 2010-based SNF market basket growth rate is estimated to be 2.6 percent, which is based on the IHS Global Insight, Inc. (IGI) first quarter 2015 forecast with historical data through fourth quarter 2014. In section III.B.5. of this proposed rule, we discuss the specific application of this adjustment to the forthcoming annual update of the SNF PPS payment rates.
Section 1888(e)(5)(B) of the Act defines the SNF market basket percentage as the percentage change in the SNF market basket index from the midpoint of the previous FY to the midpoint of the current FY. For the federal rates set forth in this proposed rule, we use the percentage change in the SNF market basket index to compute the update factor for FY 2016. This is based on the IGI first quarter 2015 forecast (with historical data through the fourth quarter 2014) of the FY 2016 percentage increase in the FY 2010-based SNF market basket index for routine, ancillary, and capital-related expenses, which is used to compute the update factor in this proposed rule. As discussed in sections III.B.3. and III.B.4. of this proposed rule, this market basket percentage change would be reduced by the applicable forecast error correction (as described in § 413.337(d)(2)) and by the multifactor productivity adjustment as required by section 1888(e)(5)(B)(ii) of the Act. Finally, as discussed in section II.B. of this proposed rule, we no longer compute update factors to adjust a facility-specific portion of the SNF PPS rates, because the initial three-phase transition period from facility-specific to full federal rates that started with cost reporting periods beginning in July 1998 has expired.
As discussed in the June 10, 2003 supplemental proposed rule (68 FR 34768) and finalized in the August 4, 2003, final rule (68 FR 46057 through 46059), the regulations at § 413.337(d)(2) provide for an adjustment to account for market basket forecast error. The initial adjustment for market basket forecast error applied to the update of the FY 2003 rate for FY 2004, and took into account the cumulative forecast error for the period from FY 2000 through FY 2002, resulting in an increase of 3.26 percent to the FY 2004 update. Subsequent adjustments in succeeding FYs take into account the forecast error from the most recently available FY for which there is final data, and apply the difference between the forecasted and actual change in the market basket when the difference exceeds a specified threshold. We originally used a 0.25 percentage point threshold for this purpose; however, for the reasons specified in the FY 2008 SNF PPS final rule (72 FR 43425, August 3, 2007), we adopted a 0.5 percentage point threshold effective for FY 2008 and subsequent fiscal years. As we stated in the final rule for FY 2004 that first issued the market basket forecast error adjustment (68 FR 46058, August 4, 2003), the adjustment will reflect both upward and downward adjustments, as appropriate.
For FY 2014 (the most recently available FY for which there is final data), the estimated increase in the market basket index was 2.3 percentage points, while the actual increase for FY 2014 was 1.7 percentage points, resulting in the actual increase being 0.6
Section 3401(b) of the Affordable Care Act requires that, in FY 2012 (and in subsequent FYs), the market basket percentage under the SNF payment system as described in section 1888(e)(5)(B)(i) of the Act is to be reduced annually by the productivity adjustment described in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act. Section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act, added by section 3401(a) of the Affordable Care Act, sets forth the definition of this productivity adjustment. The statute defines the productivity adjustment to be equal to the 10-year moving average of changes in annual economy-wide private nonfarm business multi-factor productivity (as projected by the Secretary for the 10-year period ending with the applicable fiscal year, year, cost-reporting period, or other annual period) (the MFP adjustment). The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) is the agency that publishes the official measure of private nonfarm business multifactor productivity (MFP). We refer readers to the BLS Web site at
MFP is derived by subtracting the contribution of labor and capital inputs growth from output growth. The projections of the components of MFP are currently produced by IGI, a nationally recognized economic forecasting firm with which CMS contracts to forecast the components of the market baskets and MFP. To generate a forecast of MFP, IGI replicates the MFP measure calculated by the BLS, using a series of proxy variables derived from IGI's U.S. macroeconomic models. In section III.F.3. of the FY 2012 SNF PPS final rule (76 FR 48527 through 48529), we identified each of the major MFP component series employed by the BLS to measure MFP as well as provided the corresponding concepts determined to be the best available proxies for the BLS series.
Beginning with the FY 2016 rulemaking cycle, the MFP adjustment is calculated using a revised series developed by IGI to proxy the aggregate capital inputs. Specifically, IGI has replaced the Real Effective Capital Stock used for Full Employment GDP with a forecast of BLS aggregate capital inputs recently developed by IGI using a regression model. This series provides a better fit to the BLS capital inputs as measured by the differences between the actual BLS capital input growth rates and the estimated model growth rates over the historical time period. Therefore, we are using IGI's most recent forecast of the BLS capital inputs series in the MFP calculations beginning with the FY 2016 rulemaking cycle. A complete description of the MFP projection methodology is available on our Web site at
According to section 1888(e)(5)(A) of the Act, the Secretary shall establish a skilled nursing facility market basket index that reflects changes over time in the prices of an appropriate mix of goods and services included in covered skilled nursing facility services. Section 1888(e)(5)(B)(ii) of the Act, added by section 3401(b) of the Affordable Care Act, requires that for FY 2012 and each subsequent FY, after determining the market basket percentage described in section 1888(e)(5)(B)(i) of the Act, the Secretary shall reduce such percentage by the productivity adjustment described in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) (which we refer to as the MFP adjustment). Section 1888(e)(5)(B)(ii) of the Act further states that the reduction of the market basket percentage by the MFP adjustment may result in the market basket percentage being less than zero for a FY, and may result in payment rates under section 1888(e) of the Act for a FY being less than such payment rates for the preceding FY. Thus, if the application of the MFP adjustment to the market basket percentage calculated under section 1888(e)(5)(B)(i) of the Act results in an MFP-adjusted market basket percentage that is less than zero, then the annual update to the unadjusted federal per diem rates under section 1888(e)(4)(E)(ii) of the Act would be negative, and such rates would decrease relative to the prior FY.
For the FY 2016 update, the MFP adjustment is calculated as the 10-year moving average of changes in MFP for the period ending September 30, 2016, which is 0.6 percent. Consistent with section 1888(e)(5)(B)(i) of the Act and § 413.337(d)(2) of the regulations, the market basket percentage for FY 2016 for the SNF PPS is based on IGI's first quarter 2015 forecast of the SNF market basket update (2.6 percent) as adjusted by the forecast error adjustment (0.6 percentage point), and is estimated to be 2.0 percent. In accordance with section 1888(e)(5)(B)(ii) of the Act (as added by section 3401(b) of the Affordable Care Act) and § 413.337(d)(3), this market basket percentage is then reduced by the MFP adjustment (the 10-year moving average of changes in MFP for the period ending September 30, 2016) of 0.6 percent, which is calculated as described above and based on IGI's first quarter 2015 forecast. The resulting MFP-adjusted SNF market basket update is equal to 1.4 percent, or 2.0 percent less 0.6 percentage point.
Sections 1888(e)(4)(E)(ii)(IV) and 1888(e)(5)(i) of the Act require that the update factor used to establish the FY 2016 unadjusted federal rates be at a level equal to the market basket index percentage change. Accordingly, we determined the total growth from the average market basket level for the period of October 1, 2014 through September 30, 2015 to the average market basket level for the period of October 1, 2015 through September 30, 2016. This process yields a percentage change in the market basket of 2.6 percent.
As further explained in section III.B.3. of this proposed rule, as applicable, we adjust the market basket percentage change by the forecast error from the most recently available FY for which
In addition, for FY 2016, section 1888(e)(5)(B)(ii) of the Act requires us to reduce the market basket percentage change by the MFP adjustment (the 10-year moving average of changes in MFP for the period ending September 30, 2016) of 0.6 percent, as described in section III.B.4. of this proposed rule. The resulting net SNF market basket update would equal 1.4 percent, or 2.6 percent less the 0.6 percentage point forecast error adjustment, less the 0.6 percentage point MFP adjustment. We propose that if more recent data become available (for example, a more recent estimate of the FY 2010-based SNF market basket and/or MFP adjustment), we would use such data, if appropriate, to determine the FY 2016 SNF market basket percentage change, labor-related share relative importance, forecast error adjustment, and MFP adjustment in the FY 2016 SNF PPS final rule.
We used the SNF market basket, adjusted as described above, to adjust each per diem component of the federal rates forward to reflect the change in the average prices for FY 2016 from average prices for FY 2015. We would further adjust the rates by a wage index budget neutrality factor, described later in this section. Tables 2 and 3 reflect the updated components of the unadjusted federal rates for FY 2016, prior to adjustment for case-mix.
Under section 1888(e)(4)(G)(i) of the Act, the federal rate also incorporates an adjustment to account for facility case-mix, using a classification system that accounts for the relative resource utilization of different patient types. The statute specifies that the adjustment is to reflect both a resident classification system that the Secretary establishes to account for the relative resource use of different patient types, as well as resident assessment data and other data that the Secretary considers appropriate. In the interim final rule with comment period that initially implemented the SNF PPS (63 FR 26252, May 12, 1998), we developed the RUG-III case-mix classification system, which tied the amount of payment to resident resource use in combination with resident characteristic information. Staff time measurement (STM) studies conducted in 1990, 1995, and 1997 provided information on resource use (time spent by staff members on residents) and resident characteristics that enabled us not only to establish RUG-III, but also to create case-mix indexes (CMIs). The original RUG-III grouper logic was based on clinical data collected in 1990, 1995, and 1997. As discussed in the SNF PPS proposed rule for FY 2010 (74 FR 22208), we subsequently conducted a multi-year data collection and analysis under the Staff Time and Resource Intensity Verification (STRIVE) project to update the case-mix classification system for FY 2011. The resulting Resource Utilization Groups, Version 4 (RUG-IV) case-mix classification system reflected the data collected in 2006-2007 during the STRIVE project, and was finalized in the FY 2010 SNF PPS final rule (74 FR 40288) to take effect in FY 2011 concurrently with an updated new resident assessment instrument, version 3.0 of the Minimum Data Set (MDS 3.0), which collects the clinical data used for case-mix classification under RUG-IV.
We note that case-mix classification is based, in part, on the beneficiary's need for skilled nursing care and therapy services. The case-mix classification system uses clinical data from the MDS to assign a case-mix group to each patient that is then used to calculate a per diem payment under the SNF PPS. As discussed in section IV.A. of this proposed rule, the clinical orientation of the case-mix classification system supports the SNF PPS's use of an administrative presumption that considers a beneficiary's initial case-mix classification to assist in making certain SNF level of care determinations. Further, because the MDS is used as a basis for payment, as well as a clinical assessment, we have provided extensive training on proper coding and the time frames for MDS completion in our Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI) Manual. For an MDS to be considered valid for use in determining payment, the MDS assessment must be completed in compliance with the instructions in the RAI Manual in effect at the time the assessment is completed. For payment and quality monitoring purposes, the RAI Manual consists of both the Manual instructions and the interpretive guidance and policy clarifications posted on the appropriate MDS Web site at
In addition, we note that section 511 of the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA, Pub. L. 108-173) amended section 1888(e)(12) of the Act to provide for a temporary increase of 128 percent in the PPS per diem payment for any SNF residents with Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS), effective with services furnished on or after October 1, 2004. This special add-on for SNF residents with AIDS was to remain in effect until the Secretary certifies that there is an appropriate adjustment in the case mix to compensate for the increased costs associated with such
Currently, we use the International Classification of Diseases, 9th revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM) code 042 to identify those residents for whom it is appropriate to apply the AIDS add-on established by section 511 of the MMA. In this context, we note that the Department published a final rule in the September 5, 2012
However, on April 1, 2014, the Protecting Access to Medicare Act of 2014 (PAMA) (Pub. L. 113-93) was enacted. Section 212 of PAMA, titled “Delay in Transition from ICD-9 to ICD-10 Code Sets,” provides that the Secretary of Health and Human Services may not, prior to October 1, 2015, adopt ICD-10 code sets as the standard for code sets under section 1173(c) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 1320d-2(c)) and section 162.1002 of title 45, Code of Federal Regulations. In the FY 2015 SNF PPS final rule (79 FR 45633), we stated that the Department expected to release an interim final rule in the near future that would include a new compliance date that would require the use of ICD-10 beginning October 1, 2015. In light of this, in the FY 2015 SNF PPS final rule, we stated that the effective date of the change from ICD-9-CM code 042 to ICD-10-CM code B20 for purposes of applying the AIDS add-on is October 1, 2015, and that until that time we would continue to use the ICD-9-CM code 042 for this purpose. On August 4, 2014, the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services released a final rule in the
Under section 1888(e)(4)(H), each update of the payment rates must include the case-mix classification methodology applicable for the upcoming FY. The payment rates set forth in this proposed rule reflect the use of the RUG-IV case-mix classification system from October 1, 2015, through September 30, 2016. We list the proposed case-mix adjusted RUG-IV payment rates, provided separately for urban and rural SNFs, in Tables 4 and 5 with corresponding case-mix values. We use the revised OMB delineations adopted in the FY 2015 SNF PPS final rule (79 FR 45632, 45634) to identify a facility's urban or rural status for the purpose of determining which set of rate tables would apply to the facility. These tables do not reflect the add-on for SNF residents with AIDS enacted by section 511 of the MMA, which we apply only after making all other adjustments (such as wage index and case-mix).
Section 1888(e)(4)(G)(ii) of the Act requires that we adjust the federal rates to account for differences in area wage levels, using a wage index that the Secretary determines appropriate. Since the inception of the SNF PPS, we have used hospital inpatient wage data in developing a wage index to be applied to SNFs. We propose to continue this practice for FY 2016, as we continue to believe that in the absence of SNF-specific wage data, using the hospital inpatient wage index data is appropriate and reasonable for the SNF PPS. As explained in the update notice for FY 2005 (69 FR 45786), the SNF PPS does not use the hospital area wage index's occupational mix adjustment, as this adjustment serves specifically to define the occupational categories more clearly in a hospital setting; moreover, the collection of the occupational wage data also excludes any wage data related to SNFs. Therefore, we believe that using the updated wage data exclusive of the occupational mix adjustment continues to be appropriate for SNF payments. For FY 2016, the updated wage data are for hospital cost reporting periods beginning on or after October 1, 2011 and before October 1, 2012 (FY 2012 cost report data).
We note that section 315 of the Medicare, Medicaid, and SCHIP Benefits Improvement and Protection
In addition, we propose to continue to use the same methodology discussed in the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2008 (72 FR 43423) to address those geographic areas in which there are no hospitals, and thus, no hospital wage index data on which to base the calculation of the FY 2016 SNF PPS wage index. For rural geographic areas that do not have hospitals, and therefore, lack hospital wage data on which to base an area wage adjustment, we would use the average wage index from all contiguous Core-Based Statistical Areas (CBSAs) as a reasonable proxy. For FY 2016, there are no rural geographic areas that do not have hospitals, and thus, this methodology would not be applied. For rural Puerto Rico, we would not apply this methodology due to the distinct economic circumstances that exist there (for example, due to the close proximity to one another of almost all of Puerto Rico's various urban and non-urban areas, this methodology would produce a wage index for rural Puerto Rico that is higher than that in half of its urban areas); instead, we would continue to use the most recent wage index previously available for that area. For urban areas without specific hospital wage index data, we would use the average wage indexes of all of the urban areas within the state to serve as a reasonable proxy for the wage index of that urban CBSA. For FY 2016, the only urban area without wage index data available is CBSA 25980, Hinesville-Fort Stewart, GA. The proposed wage index applicable to FY 2016 is set forth in Table A available on the CMS Web site at
Once calculated, we would apply the wage index adjustment to the labor-related portion of the federal rate. Each year, we calculate a revised labor-related share, based on the relative importance of labor-related cost categories (that is, those cost categories that are labor-intensive and vary with the local labor market) in the input price index. In the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2014 (78 FR 47944 through 47946), we finalized a proposal to revise the labor-related share to reflect the relative importance of the revised FY 2010-based SNF market basket cost weights for the following cost categories: Wages and salaries; employee benefits; the labor-related portion of nonmedical professional fees; administrative and facilities support services; all other—labor-related services; and a proportion of capital-related expenses.
We calculate the labor-related relative importance from the SNF market basket, and it approximates the labor-related portion of the total costs after taking into account historical and projected price changes between the base year and FY 2016. The price proxies that move the different cost categories in the market basket do not necessarily change at the same rate, and the relative importance captures these changes. Accordingly, the relative importance figure more closely reflects the cost share weights for FY 2016 than the base year weights from the SNF market basket.
We calculate the labor-related relative importance for FY 2016 in four steps. First, we compute the FY 2016 price index level for the total market basket and each cost category of the market basket. Second, we calculate a ratio for each cost category by dividing the FY 2016 price index level for that cost category by the total market basket price index level. Third, we determine the FY 2016 relative importance for each cost category by multiplying this ratio by the base year (FY 2010) weight. Finally, we add the FY 2016 relative importance for each of the labor-related cost categories (wages and salaries, employee benefits, the labor-related portion of non-medical professional fees, administrative and facilities support services, all other: labor-related services, and a portion of capital-related expenses) to produce the FY 2016 labor-related relative importance. Table 6 summarizes the proposed updated labor-related share for FY 2016, compared to the labor-related share that was used for the FY 2015 SNF PPS final rule.
We are proposing for FY 2016 and subsequent fiscal years, to report and apply the SNF PPS labor-related share at a tenth of a percentage point (rather than at a thousandth of a percentage point) consistent with the manner in which we report and apply the market basket update percentage under the SNF PPS and the IPPS and the manner in which we report and apply the IPPS labor-related share. The level of precision specified for the IPPS labor-related share is three decimal places or a tenth of a percentage point (0.696 or 69.6 percent), which we believe provides a reasonable level of precision. We believe it is appropriate to maintain such consistency across all payment systems so that the level of precision specified is both reasonable and similar for all providers. We invite public comments on this proposal.
Tables 7 and 8 show the RUG-IV case-mix adjusted federal rates by labor-related and non-labor-related components.
Section 1888(e)(4)(G)(ii) of the Act also requires that we apply this wage index in a manner that does not result in aggregate payments under the SNF PPS that are greater or less than would otherwise be made if the wage
In the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2006 (70 FR 45026, August 4, 2005), we adopted the changes discussed in the OMB Bulletin No. 03-04 (June 6, 2003), available online at
In adopting the CBSA geographic designations, we provided for a one-year transition in FY 2006 with a blended wage index for all providers. For FY 2006, the wage index for each provider consisted of a blend of 50 percent of the FY 2006 MSA-based wage index and 50 percent of the FY 2006 CBSA-based wage index (both using FY 2002 hospital data). We referred to the blended wage index as the FY 2006 SNF PPS transition wage index. As discussed in the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2006 (70 FR 45041), since the expiration of this one-year transition on September 30, 2006, we have used the full CBSA-based wage index values.
On February 28, 2013, OMB issued OMB Bulletin No. 13-01, announcing revisions to the delineation of MSAs, Micropolitan Statistical Areas, and Combined Statistical Areas, and guidance on uses of the delineation of these areas. A copy of this bulletin is available online at
While the revisions OMB published on February 28, 2013 are not as sweeping as the changes made when we adopted the CBSA geographic designations for FY 2006, the February 28, 2013 bulletin does contain a number of significant changes. For example, there are new CBSAs, urban counties that became rural, rural counties that became urban, and existing CBSAs that were split apart.
In the FY 2015 SNF PPS final rule (79 FR 45644 through 45646), we finalized changes to the SNF PPS wage index based on the newest OMB delineations, as described in OMB Bulletin No. 13-01, beginning in FY 2015, including a 1-year transition with a blended wage index for FY 2015. Because the 1-year transition period expires at the end of FY 2015, the proposed SNF PPS wage index for FY 2016 is fully based on the revised OMB delineations adopted in FY 2015. As noted above, the proposed wage index applicable to FY 2016 is set forth in Table A available on the CMS Web site at
Using the hypothetical SNF XYZ described below, Table 9 shows the adjustments made to the federal per diem rates to compute the provider's actual per diem PPS payment. We derive the Labor and Non-labor columns from Table 7. The wage index used in this example is based on the proposed wage index, which may be found in Table A as referenced above. As illustrated in Table 9, SNF XYZ's total PPS payment would equal $45,462.10.
The establishment of the SNF PPS did not change Medicare's fundamental requirements for SNF coverage. However, because the case-mix classification is based, in part, on the beneficiary's need for skilled nursing care and therapy, we have attempted, where possible, to coordinate claims review procedures with the existing resident assessment process and case-mix classification system discussed in section III.C. of this proposed rule. This approach includes an administrative presumption that utilizes a beneficiary's initial classification in one of the upper 52 RUGs of the 66-group RUG-IV case-mix classification system to assist in making certain SNF level of care determinations.
In accordance with section 1888(e)(4)(H)(ii) of the Act and the regulations at § 413.345, we include in each update of the federal payment rates in the
A beneficiary assigned to any of the lower 14 RUG-IV groups is not automatically classified as either meeting or not meeting the definition, but instead receives an individual level of care determination using the existing administrative criteria. This presumption recognizes the strong likelihood that beneficiaries assigned to one of the upper 52 RUG-IV groups during the immediate post-hospital period require a covered level of care, which would be less likely for those beneficiaries assigned to one of the lower 14 RUG-IV groups.
In the July 30, 1999 final rule (64 FR 41670), we indicated that we would announce any changes to the guidelines for Medicare level of care determinations related to modifications in the case-mix classification structure. In this proposed rule, we would continue to designate the upper 52 RUG-IV groups for purposes of this administrative presumption, consisting of all groups encompassed by the following RUG-IV categories:
• Rehabilitation plus Extensive Services.
• Ultra High Rehabilitation.
• Very High Rehabilitation.
• High Rehabilitation.
• Medium Rehabilitation.
• Low Rehabilitation.
• Extensive Services.
• Special Care High.
• Special Care Low.
• Clinically Complex.
However, we note that this administrative presumption policy does not supersede the SNF's responsibility to ensure that its decisions relating to level of care are appropriate and timely, including a review to confirm that the services prompting the beneficiary's assignment to one of the upper 52 RUG-IV groups (which, in turn, serves to trigger the administrative presumption) are themselves medically necessary. As we explained in the FY 2000 SNF PPS final rule (64 FR 41667), the administrative presumption:
Sections 1842(b)(6)(E) and 1862(a)(18) of the Act (as added by section 4432(b) of the BBA) require a SNF to submit consolidated Medicare bills to its Medicare Administrative Contractor for almost all of the services that its residents receive during the course of a covered Part A stay. In addition, section 1862(a)(18) places the responsibility with the SNF for billing Medicare for physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech-language pathology services that the resident receives during a noncovered stay. Section 1888(e)(2)(A) of the Act excludes a small list of services from the consolidated billing provision (primarily those services furnished by physicians and certain other types of practitioners), which remain separately billable under Part B when furnished to a SNF's Part A resident. These excluded service categories are discussed in greater detail in section V.B.2. of the May 12, 1998 interim final rule (63 FR 26295 through 26297).
A detailed discussion of the legislative history of the consolidated billing provision is available on the SNF PPS Web site at
As explained in the FY 2001 proposed rule (65 FR 19232), the amendments enacted in section 103 of the BBRA not only identified for exclusion from this provision a number of particular service codes within four specified categories (that is, chemotherapy items, chemotherapy administration services, radioisotope services, and customized prosthetic devices), but also gave the Secretary the authority to designate additional, individual services for exclusion within each of the specified service categories. In the proposed rule for FY 2001, we also noted that the BBRA Conference report (H.R. Rep. No. 106-479 at 854 (1999) (Conf. Rep.)) characterizes the individual services that this legislation targets for exclusion as high-cost, low probability events that could have devastating financial impacts because their costs far exceed the payment SNFs receive under the prospective payment system. According to the conferees, section 103(a) of the BBRA is an attempt to exclude from the PPS certain services and costly items that are provided infrequently in SNFs. By contrast, we noted that the Congress declined to designate for exclusion any of the remaining services within those four categories (thus, leaving all of those services subject to SNF consolidated billing), because they are relatively inexpensive and are furnished routinely in SNFs.
As we further explained in the final rule for FY 2001 (65 FR 46790), and as our longstanding policy, any additional service codes that we might designate for exclusion under our discretionary authority must meet the same statutory criteria used in identifying the original codes excluded from consolidated billing under section 103(a) of the BBRA: They must fall within one of the four service categories specified in the BBRA; and they also must meet the same standards of high cost and low probability in the SNF setting, as discussed in the BBRA Conference report. Accordingly, we characterized this statutory authority to identify additional service codes for exclusion as essentially affording the flexibility to revise the list of excluded codes in response to changes of major significance that may occur over time (for example, the development of new medical technologies or other advances in the state of medical practice) (65 FR 46791). In this proposed rule, we specifically invite public comments identifying HCPCS codes in any of these four service categories (chemotherapy items, chemotherapy administration services, radioisotope services, and
We note that the original BBRA amendment (as well as the implementing regulations) identified a set of excluded services by means of specifying HCPCS codes that were in effect as of a particular date (in that case, as of July 1, 1999). Identifying the excluded services in this manner made it possible for us to utilize program issuances as the vehicle for accomplishing routine updates of the excluded codes, to reflect any minor revisions that might subsequently occur in the coding system itself (for example, the assignment of a different code number to the same service). Accordingly, in the event that we identify through the current rulemaking cycle any new services that would actually represent a substantive change in the scope of the exclusions from SNF consolidated billing, we would identify these additional excluded services by means of the HCPCS codes that are in effect as of a specific date (in this case, as of October 1, 2015). By making any new exclusions in this manner, we could similarly accomplish routine future updates of these additional codes through the issuance of program instructions.
Section 1883 of the Act permits certain small, rural hospitals to enter into a Medicare swing-bed agreement, under which the hospital can use its beds to provide either acute- or SNF-level care, as needed. For critical access hospitals (CAHs), Part A pays on a reasonable cost basis for SNF-level services furnished under a swing-bed agreement. However, in accordance with section 1888(e)(7) of the Act, these services furnished by non-CAH rural hospitals are paid under the SNF PPS, effective with cost reporting periods beginning on or after July 1, 2002. As explained in the FY 2002 final rule (66 FR 39562), this effective date is consistent with the statutory provision to integrate swing-bed rural hospitals into the SNF PPS by the end of the transition period, June 30, 2002.
Accordingly, all non-CAH swing-bed rural hospitals have now come under the SNF PPS. Therefore, all rates and wage indexes outlined in earlier sections of this proposed rule for the SNF PPS also apply to all non-CAH swing-bed rural hospitals. A complete discussion of assessment schedules, the MDS, and the transmission software (RAVEN-SB for Swing Beds) appears in the FY 2002 final rule (66 FR 39562) and in the FY 2010 final rule (74 FR 40288). As finalized in the FY 2010 SNF PPS final rule (74 FR 40356-57), effective October 1, 2010, non-CAH swing-bed rural hospitals are required to complete an MDS 3.0 swing-bed assessment which is limited to the required demographic, payment, and quality items. The latest changes in the MDS for swing-bed rural hospitals appear on the SNF PPS Web site at
In recent years, we have undertaken a number of initiatives to promote higher quality and more efficient health care for Medicare beneficiaries. These initiatives, which include demonstration projects, quality reporting programs, and value-based purchasing programs, have been implemented in various health care settings, including physician offices, ambulatory surgical centers (ASCs), hospitals, nursing homes, home health agencies (HHAs), and dialysis facilities. Many of these programs link a portion of Medicare payments to provider reporting or performance on quality measures. The overarching goal of these initiatives is to transform Medicare from a passive payer of claims to an active purchaser of quality health care for its beneficiaries.
We view value-based purchasing as an important step toward revamping how care is paid for, moving increasingly toward rewarding better value, outcomes, and innovations instead of merely volume.
Section 3006(a) of the Affordable Care Act required the Secretary to develop a plan to implement a value-based purchasing program under the Medicare program for SNFs (as defined in section 1819(a) of the Act) and to submit that plan to Congress. In developing the plan, this section required the Secretary to consider several issues, including the ongoing development, selection, and modification process for measures, the reporting, collection, and validation of quality data, the structure of value-based payment adjustments, methods for public disclosure of SNF performance, and any other issues determined appropriate by the Secretary. The Secretary was also required to consult with relevant affected parties and consider experience with demonstrations relevant to the SNF VBP Program.
HHS submitted the Report to Congress required under section 3006 of the Affordable Care Act in March 2012. The report explains that a significant number of elderly Americans receive care in SNFs/NFs, either as short-term post-acute care or as long-term custodial care, and that quality of care is a significant concern for a subset of SNFs/NFs. The report also states that the SNF PPS does not strongly incentivize SNFs to furnish high quality care to this very fragile patient population. The report concludes that if HHS harnesses the significant and growing purchasing power of Medicare in this sector, it can incentivize SNFs to improve the quality of care for their patients.
In the report, we explained our belief that the implementation of a SNF VBP Program is a central step in revamping Medicare's payments for health care services to reward better value, outcome, and innovations, rather than the volume of care. We also explained our belief that a SNF VBP Program should promote the development and use of robust quality measures, including measures that assess functional status, to promote timely, safe, and high-quality care for Medicare beneficiaries. We noted that the creation of a SNF VBP Program would align with numerous HHS and CMS efforts to improve care coordination, and would be consistent with the National Quality Strategy and its aims of Better Care, Healthy People and Communities, and Affordable Care.
The full report is available on our Web site at
Section 215 of PAMA added sections 1888(g) and (h) to the Act. Section 1888(g)(1) of the Act requires the Secretary to specify a skilled nursing facility all-cause all-condition hospital readmission measure (or any successor to such a measure) not later than
Section 1888(h)(1)(A) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish a SNF value-based purchasing program under which value-based incentive payments are made in a fiscal year to SNFs, and section 1888(h)(1)(B) of the Act requires that the Program apply to payments for services furnished on or after October 1, 2018. Under section 1888(h)(2)(A) of the Act, the Secretary must apply the readmission measure specified under section 1888(g)(1) of the Act for purposes of the Program, and section 1888(h)(1)(B) of the Act requires the Secretary to apply the resource use measure specified under section 1888(g)(2) of the Act instead of the readmission measure specified under section 1888(g)(1) as soon as practicable. Sections 1888(h)(3)(A) and (B) of the Act require the Secretary to establish performance standards for the measure applied under section 1888(h)(2) of the Act for a performance period for a fiscal year and that those performance standards include levels of achievement and improvement. In addition, in calculating the SNF performance score for the measure under the Program, section 1888(h)(3)(B) of the Act requires the Secretary to use the higher of achievement or improvement scores. Further, the performance standards established under section 1888(h)(3) of the Act must, under section 1888(h)(3)(C), be established and announced by the Secretary not later than 60 days prior to the beginning of the performance period for the fiscal year involved.
Section 1888(h)(4) of the Act directs the Secretary to develop a methodology to assess each SNF's total performance based on the performance standards for the applicable measure for each performance period. Under section 1888(h)(4)(B) of the Act, SNF performance scores for the performance period for each fiscal year must be ranked from low to high.
Section 1888(h)(5) of the Act outlines several requirements for value-based incentive payments under the SNF VBP Program. Under section 1888(h)(5)(A) of the Act, the Secretary is directed to increase the adjusted federal per diem rate determined under section 1888(e)(4)(G) for services furnished by a skilled nursing facility by the value-based incentive payment amount determined under section 1888(h)(5)(B). This section also directs that the value-based incentive payment amount be equal to the product of the adjusted federal per diem rate and the value-based incentive payment percentage specified under section 1888(h)(5)(C) of the Act for the SNF for the fiscal year. Section 1888(h)(5)(C) requires the Secretary to specify a value-based incentive payment percentage for a SNF for a fiscal year, which may include a zero percentage. The Secretary is further directed under section 1888(h)(5)(C) to ensure that such percentage is based on the SNF performance score for the performance period for the fiscal year, that the application of all such percentages in a fiscal year results in an appropriate distribution of value-based incentive payments, and that the total amount of value-based incentive payments for all SNFs for a fiscal year be greater than or equal to 50 percent, but not greater than 70 percent, of the total amount of the reductions to payments for the fiscal year under section 1888(h)(6), as estimated by the Secretary.
Section 1888(h)(6) of the Act requires the Secretary to reduce the adjusted federal per diem rate for SNFs otherwise applicable to each SNF for services furnished by that SNF during the applicable fiscal year by the applicable percent, which is defined in paragraph (b) as two percent for FY 2019 and subsequent years. Section 1888(h)(7) of the Act requires the Secretary to inform each SNF of its payment adjustments under the Program not later than 60 days prior to the fiscal year involved, and under section 1888(h)(8) of the Act, the value-based incentive payments calculated for a fiscal year apply only for that fiscal year.
Section 1888(h)(9)(A) of the Act requires the Secretary to publish SNF-specific performance information on the
Reducing hospital readmissions is important for quality of care and patient safety. Readmission to a hospital may be an adverse event for patients and in many cases imposes a financial burden on the health care system. Successful efforts to reduce preventable readmission rates will improve the quality of care furnished to beneficiaries while simultaneously decreasing the cost of that care. Hospitals and other health care providers can work with their communities to lower readmission rates and improve patient care in a number of ways, such as by ensuring that patients are clinically ready to be discharged, reducing infection risk, reconciling medications, improving communication with community providers responsible for post-discharge patient care, improving care transitions, and ensuring that patients understand their care plans upon discharge.
Many studies have demonstrated the effectiveness of these types of in-hospital and post-discharge interventions in reducing the risk of readmission, confirming that hospitals and their partners have the ability to lower readmission rates.
We are proposing to specify the Skilled Nursing Facility 30-Day All-Cause Readmission Measure (SNFRM) (NQF #2510) as the skilled nursing facility all-cause, all-condition hospital readmission measure under section 1888(g)(1) of the Act. This measure assesses the risk-standardized rate of all-cause, all-condition, unplanned inpatient hospital readmissions of Medicare fee-for-service (FFS) SNF patients within 30 days of discharge from an admission to an inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) hospital, critical access hospital (CAH), or psychiatric hospital. This measure is claims-based, requiring no additional data collection or submission burden for SNFs.
We are also proposing to apply this measure for purposes of the SNF VBP Program under section 1888(h)(2)(A) of the Act. We believe that this measure will (1) incentivize SNFs to make quality improvements that result in successful transitions of care for patients discharged from the hospital (IPPS, CAH or psychiatric hospital) setting to a SNF, and subsequently to the community or to another post-acute care setting, (2) reduce unplanned readmission rates of these patients to hospitals; and (3) align the SNF VBP Program with the National Quality Strategy priorities of safer, better coordinated care and lower costs.
We developed this measure based upon the NQF-endorsed Hospital-Wide All-Cause Unplanned Readmission Measure (HWR) (NQF #1789) (
The SNFRM estimates the risk-standardized rate of all-cause, unplanned, hospital readmissions for SNF Medicare FFS beneficiaries within 30 days of discharge from their prior proximal acute hospitalization. The SNF admission must have occurred within one day after discharge from the prior proximal hospitalization. The prior proximal hospitalization is defined as an inpatient admission to an IPPS, CAH, or a psychiatric hospital. Because the measure denominator is based on SNF admissions, each Medicare beneficiary may be included in the measure multiple times within a given year if they have more than one SNF stay meeting all measure inclusion criteria including a prior proximal hospitalization.
Patient readmissions included in the measure are identified by examining Medicare claims data for readmissions of SNF Medicare FFS beneficiaries to an IPPS hospital or CAH occurring within 30 days of discharge from the prior proximal hospitalization. If the patient was admitted to the SNF within 1 day of discharge from the prior proximal hospitalization and the hospital readmission occurred within the 30-day risk window, it is counted in the numerator regardless of whether the patient is readmitted directly from the SNF or has been discharged from the SNF. Because patients differ in complexity and morbidity, the measure is risk-adjusted for patient case-mix. The measure also excludes planned readmissions, because these are not considered to be indicative of poor quality of care by the SNF. Details regarding how readmissions are identified are available in our SNFRM Technical Report.
The SNFRM (NQF # 2510) assesses readmission rates while accounting for patient demographics, principal diagnosis in the prior hospitalization, comorbidities, and other patient factors. While estimating the predictive power of patient characteristics, the model also estimates a facility-specific effect common to patients treated at that SNF.
The SNFRM is calculated based on the ratio, for each SNF, of the number of risk-adjusted all-cause, unplanned readmissions to an IPPS hospital or CAH that occurred within 30 days of discharge from the prior proximal hospitalization, including the estimated facility effect, to the estimated number of risk-adjusted predicted unplanned inpatient hospital readmissions for the same patients treated at the average SNF. A ratio above 1.0 indicates a higher than expected readmission rate, or lower level of quality, while a ratio below 1.0 indicates a lower than expected readmission rate, or higher level of quality. This ratio is referred to as the standardized risk ratio or SRR. The SRR is then multiplied by the overall national raw readmission rate for all SNF stays. The resulting rate is the risk-standardized readmission rate (RSRR). The full methodology is detailed in the SNFRM Technical Report.
The patient population includes SNF patients who:
• Had a prior hospital discharge (IPPS, CAH or psychiatric hospital) within one day of their admission to a SNF.
• Had at least 12 months of Medicare Part A, FFS coverage prior to their discharge date from the prior proximal hospitalization.
• Had Medicare Part A, FFS coverage during the 30 days (the 30-day risk window) following their discharge date from the prior proximal hospitalization.
Patients whose prior proximal hospitalization was for the medical treatment for cancer are excluded. Analyses of this population during measure development showed them to have a different trajectory of illness and mortality than other patient populations, which is consistent with
SNF stays excluded from the measure are:
• SNF stays where the patient had one or more intervening post-acute care (PAC) admissions (inpatient rehabilitation facility (IRF), long-term care hospital (LTCH), or another SNF) which occurred either between the prior proximal hospital discharge and SNF admission (from which the patient was readmitted) or after the SNF discharge but before the readmission, within the 30-day risk window.
• SNF stays with a gap of greater than 1 day between discharge from the prior proximal hospitalization and the SNF admission.
• SNF stays in which the patient was discharged from the SNF against medical advice (AMA).
• SNF stays in which the principal diagnosis for the prior proximal hospitalization was for rehabilitation care; fitting of prostheses and for the adjustment of devices.
• SNF stays in which the prior proximal hospitalization was for pregnancy.
• SNF stays in which data were missing on any variable used in the SNFRM construction.
Readmissions within the 30-day risk window that are usually considered planned due to the nature of the procedures and principal diagnoses of the readmission are also excluded from the measure. In addition to the list of planned procedures is a list of diagnoses (provided in the SNFRM Technical Report), which, if found as the principal diagnosis on the readmission claim, would indicate that the usually planned procedure occurred during an unplanned acute readmission. In addition to the HWR Planned Readmission Algorithm, the SNFRM incorporates procedures that are considered planned in post-acute care settings as identified in consultation with technical expert panels. Full details on the planned readmissions criteria used, including the additional procedures considered planned for post-acute care may be found in the SNFRM Technical Report. Details regarding the TEP proceedings can be found in the SNFRM TEP Report.
An eligible SNF admission is considered to be in the 30-day risk window from the date of discharge from the proximal acute hospitalization until: (1) The 30-day period ends; or (2) the patient is readmitted to an IPPS hospital or CAH. If the readmission is unplanned, it is counted as a readmission in the numerator of the measure. If the readmission is planned, the readmission is not counted in the numerator of the measure. The occurrence of a planned readmission ends further tracking for readmissions in the 30-day risk window.
Readmission rates are risk-adjusted for patient case-mix characteristics, independent of quality. The risk adjustment modeling estimates the effects of patient characteristics, comorbidities, and select health status variables on the probability of readmission. More specifically, the risk-adjustment model for SNFs accounts for demographic characteristics (age and sex), principal diagnosis during the prior proximal hospitalization, comorbidities based on the secondary medical diagnoses listed on the patient's prior proximal hospital claim and diagnoses from prior hospitalizations that occurred in the previous 365 days, length of stay during the patient's prior proximal hospitalization, length of stay in the intensive care unit (ICU), body system specific surgical indicators, end-stage renal disease status, whether the patient was disabled, and the number of prior hospitalizations in the previous 365 days.
The SNFRM utilizes 1 year of data to calculate the measure rate. Given that there are more than 2 million Medicare FFS SNF admissions per year in more than 15,000 SNFs, 1 year of data is sufficient to calculate this measure with a model in which the risk adjusters have sufficient sample size to have good precision. The relevant reliability testing may be found in the SNFRM Technical Report.
Our measure development contractor convened a technical expert panel (TEP) which provided input on the technical specifications of this quality measure. The TEP was supportive of the design of this measure. We also solicited stakeholder feedback on the development of this measure through a public comment process from July 15th to 29th, 2013. In December 2014, the NQF endorsed the Skilled Nursing Facility 30-Day All-Cause Readmission Measure (NQF #2510).
We also considered input from the Measures Application Partnership (MAP) when selecting measures under the CMS SNF VBP Program. The MAP is composed of multi-stakeholder groups convened by the NQF, our current contractor under section 1890(a) of the Act. The MAP has noted the need for care transition measures in PAC/Long term care (LTC) performance measurement programs and stated that setting-specific admission and readmission measures under consideration would address this need.
We invite public comment on our proposal to adopt the Skilled Nursing Facility 30-Day All-Cause Readmission Measure (SNFRM) (NQF #2510) for use in the SNF VBP Program.
Section 1888(g)(5) of the Act requires that beginning October 1, 2016, SNFs be provided quarterly confidential feedback reports on their performance on measures specified under sections 1888(g)(1) or (2) of the Act.
We intend to address this topic in future rulemaking. However, we request public comment on the best means by which to communicate these reports to SNFs. For example, we could consider providing confidential, downloadable feedback reports to SNFs through a secure portal, such as QualityNet. We also seek comment on the level of detail that would be most helpful to SNFs in understanding their performance on the new quality measures.
Section 1888(h)(3) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish performance standards for the SNF VBP Program. The performance standards must include levels of achievement and improvement, and must be established and announced not later than 60 days prior to the beginning of the performance period for the fiscal year involved. To assist us in developing our proposals to establish performance standards for the SNF VBP program, we reviewed a number of innovative health care programs and demonstration
Under the Hospital VBP Program, a hospital's Total Performance Score is determined by aggregating and weighting domain scores, which are calculated based on hospital performance on measures within each domain. The domain scores are then weighted to calculate a TPS that ranges between 0 and 100 points. At this time, we do not anticipate proposing to adopt quality measurement domains akin to other CMS quality programs under the SNF VBP Program due to fact that this program is based on only one measure.
To calculate HVBP measure scores, hospital performance on specified quality measures is compared to performance standards established by the Secretary. These performance standards include levels of achievement and improvement and enable us to award between 0 and 10 points to each hospital based on its performance on each measure during the performance period. An achievement threshold, generally defined as the median of all hospital performance on most measures during a specified baseline period, is the minimum level of performance required to receive achievement points. The benchmark, generally defined as the mean of the top decile of all hospital performance on a measure during the baseline period, is the performance level required for receiving the maximum number of points on a given measure. The Program also establishes an improvement threshold for each measure, set at each individual hospital's performance on the measure during the baseline period, to award points for improvement over time.
We believe that the Hospital VBP Program's performance standards methodology is a well-understood methodology under which health care providers and suppliers can be rewarded both for providing high-quality care and for improving their performance over time. The statutory authority for the Hospital VBP Program is structured similarly to the statutory authority for the SNF VBP Program, and we are considering adoption of a similar methodology for establishing performance standards under the SNF VBP Program. We also seek to align our pay-for-performance and quality reporting programs as much as possible. Specifically, we could consider adopting performance standards based on all SNF performance during the baseline period on the measure specified under section 1888(g)(1) or (2) of the Act in the form of the achievement threshold—median of all SNF performance during a baseline period—and the benchmark—mean of the top decile of all SNF performance during a baseline period. We could then consider awarding points along a continuum relative to those performance levels.
We also considered whether we should adopt any components of the scoring methodology that we have finalized for the HAC Reduction Program under the SNF VBP Program. The HAC Reduction Program requires the Secretary to reduce eligible hospitals' Medicare payments to 99 percent of what would otherwise have been paid for discharges when hospitals rank in the worst performing quartile for risk-adjusted HAC quality measures. These quality measures comprise efforts to promote quality of care by reducing the number of HACs in the acute inpatient hospital setting.
We determine a hospital's Total HAC Score by first assigning each hospital a score of between 1 and 10 for each measure based on the hospital's relative performance ranking in 10 groups (or deciles) for that measure. Second, the measure score is used to calculate the domain score. We discuss other details of the HAC Reduction Program's scoring methodology in further detail below.
Although the HACRP statutory authority is not structured the same as the SNF VBP statutory authority, we view the HACRP's use of decile-based performance standards as one conceptual possibility for constructing performance standards under the SNF VBP Program. Specifically, we could consider setting performance standards based on SNFs' ranked performance on the measures specified under sections 1888(g)(1) or (2) of the Act during the performance period. We could divide SNFs' performance on the measures into deciles and award between 1 and 10 points to all SNFs within each decile. While this type of performance standards calculation would measure and reward achievement, we are concerned that it would not incorporate improvement, and we seek comment on the best means by which we could include improvement in this type of calculation.
We also considered aspects of the Hospital Readmissions Reduction Program (HRRP) for adaptation under the SNF VBP Program. HRRP reduces Medicare payments to hospitals with a higher number of readmissions for applicable conditions over a specified time period.
Hospital readmissions are defined as Medicare patients that are readmitted to the same or another hospital within 30 days of a discharge from the same or another hospital, which includes short-term inpatient acute care hospitals. The initial hospital inpatient admission (the discharge from which starts the 30-day potential penalty clock) is termed the index admission. The hospital inpatient readmission (which can be used to determine application of a penalty if the readmission occurs within 30 days of the index inpatient admission stay) can be for any cause, that is, it does not have to be for the same cause as the index admission.
Using historical data, we determine whether eligible IPPS hospitals have readmission rates that are higher than expected, given the hospital's case mix, while accounting for the patient risk factors, including age, and chronic medical conditions identified from inpatient and outpatient claims for the 12 months prior to the hospitalization. A hospital's excess readmission ratio for each condition is a measure of a hospital's readmission performance compared to the national average for the hospital's set of patients with that applicable condition. If the hospital's actual readmission rate, based on the hospital's actual performance, for the year is greater than its CMS-expected readmission rate, the hospital incurs a penalty up to the maximum cap. If a hospital performs better than an average hospital that admitted similar patients, the hospital will not be subjected to a payment reduction. If a hospital performs worse than average (below a 1.000 score), the poorer performance triggers a payment reduction. For FY 2013, the reduction was capped at 1 percent, for FY 2014 at 2 percent, and at 3 percent for FY 2015 and for subsequent years.
We view the Hospital Readmissions Reduction Program as a potential model for the SNF VBP Program because that program does not weight scores based on domains. That is, under the HRRP, hospitals' risk-adjusted readmissions ratios form the basis for Medicare payment adjustments. Under SNF VBP (and as discussed further in this section), the Program's statute requires us to select only one measure to form the basis for the SNF Performance Score. We believe that this conceptual similarity stands distinct from certain other CMS quality programs that incorporate quality measurement domains and domain weighting into the scoring calculations. However, the HRRP sets an effective performance standard based on the average readmissions adjustment factor of 1.000. We seek comment on whether or not we should adopt a similar form of performance standard under the SNF VBP Program. This performance standard could take the form of the median or mean performance on the specified quality measure during the performance period. However, we believe we would also need to consider more granular delineations in SNF scoring to ensure an appropriate distribution of value-based incentive payments under the Program, and we seek comment on what additional policies we should consider adopting in this topic area.
The End-Stage Renal Disease Quality Incentive Program (ESRD QIP) is authorized by section 1881(h) of the Act. The program promotes patient health by providing a financial incentive for renal dialysis facilities to deliver high-quality care to their patients.
Section 1881(h)(3)(A)(i) of the Act requires the Secretary to develop a methodology for assessing the total performance of each provider and facility based on performance standards. For each clinical measure adopted under the ESRD QIP, we assess performance on both achievement and improvement. For the achievement score, facility performance on a measure during a performance period is compared against national facility performance on that measure during a specified baseline period. To calculate the improvement score, we compare a facility's performance during the performance period to its performance during a specified baseline period. In determining a clinical measure score for each measure, we take the higher of the improvement or achievement score.
For each reporting measure, we assess performance based on whether the facility completed the reporting for that measure as specified. If a facility reports data according to the specifications we have adopted, then the facility earns the maximum number of points on the measure. If the facility partially reports data according to the specifications we have adopted, the hospital earns some points on the measure, but less than the maximum.
We believe that the ESRD QIP performance standards methodology is a well-understood methodology under which health care providers and suppliers can be rewarded both for providing high-quality care and for improving their performance over time. The scoring methodology rewards achievement and improvement, and is generally aligned with other pay-for-performance and quality reporting programs. Like the Hospital VBP Program statutory language, the ESRD QIP statutory language is structured similar to the SNF VBP Program statutory language, and we are considering adoption of a similar methodology for calculating performance standards under the SNF VBP Program. Specifically, we could consider adopting performance standards based on all SNF performance during the baseline period on the measure specified under sections 1888(g)(1) or (2) of the Act in the forms of the achievement threshold—median of all SNF performance—and the benchmark—mean of the top decile of all SNF performance. We could then consider awarding points for those performance levels.
We are considering several methodologies for improvement scoring under the SNF VBP Program, and we welcome public comments on these options or others that we should consider as we develop our SNF VBP Program policies for future rulemaking.
Section 1888(h)(4)(B) of the Act specifically requires us to construct a ranking of SNF performance scores. While we view such a ranking system as fairly straightforward when based on achievement scoring—for example, ranking SNFs based on their performance on a measure during the performance period could be achieved by ordering SNF performance rates on the measure specified for the Program year—we are considering several approaches for including improvement in the SNF scoring methodology because we are limited to one measure for each SNF Program year. These approaches include:
• Improvement points, awarded using a similar methodology as the one we use to award improvement points in the Hospital VBP Program.
• Measure rate increases, in which a SNF's performance rate on a measure would be increased as a result of its improvement over time.
• Ranking increases, in which a SNF's ranking relative to other SNFs would be increased as a result of improvement.
• Performance score increases, in which a SNF's performance score would be increased as a result of improvement.
We discuss each of these options in further detail below.
The Hospital VBP Program calculates both achievement and improvement points for participating hospitals with sufficient data on each measure adopted under the Program, and the score a hospital receives on a measure is the higher of the achievement and improvement score. We could consider adopting a similar methodology under the SNF VBP Program, in which points would be calculated for SNFs for both achievement (in comparison to all SNFs during the performance period) and for improvement (in comparison to that individual SNF's performance during the baseline period). Points awarded could be, similar to the HVBP Program, between 0 and 10 points, or we could consider awarding points on a broader range, such as from 0 to 50, or 0 to 100.
We believe that adapting the Hospital VBP Program's performance standards methodology presents certain advantages, in that it is well understood by the public and reflects a fair means to fulfill the statutory requirement at section 1888(h)(3)(B) of the Act to include both achievement and improvement. However, since there is only one measure in the SNF VBP Program, such a policy could result in significant differences in SNF value-based incentive payments between SNFs with relatively small differences in measured performance. We seek comment on whether or not we should adopt improvement points in a similar form to that which we have adopted for the Hospital VBP Program.
Given the limited number of measures that we may select for the SNF VBP Program, we are considering whether we should include improvement in the program by way of increasing a SNF's performance rate on the Program's measure by a certain amount. Such a measure rate increase could take several forms, and could rely on any number of
However, we are concerned about the methodological implications to quality measurement of awarding increases in measured performance rates to recognize improvement. We understand that quality measures are developed with robust considerations for the clinical topic covered, the recommended care provided, and in many cases, for the health of the underlying patient population, and we seek comment on whether such an adjustment would be methodologically sound.
Another possibility for rewarding improvement is to adopt certain elements of the Hospital VBP Program's scoring methodology—that is, 0 to 10 points for measured performance—and increase a SNF's relative placement as a result of improvement. Under this type of scenario, SNF performance would be rank-ordered, and each SNF would be placed in a cohort numbered from 0 to 10, which would correspond to the points that would be awarded to that SNF for achievement along a 0 to 10 point scale of SNF performance scores based on their measured performance. Once SNF performance has been ranked from 0 to 10, we could consider increasing SNFs' ranking, and basing value-based incentive payments under the program on the resulting adjusted ranking. For example, a SNF whose performance on a measure resulted in a score of 3 on the 0 to 10 point scale, but whose performance improved, could have its score increased to 4. We could also consider limiting this increase to only those SNFs whose improvement places them in the top 50 percent of improving SNFs between the baseline and performance period.
However, we are concerned that this type of ranking may not provide us with enough granularity to meaningfully differentiate performance between groups of SNFs, and may result in substantial differences in value-based incentive payments between SNFs with relatively small differences in measured performance. We are also concerned about comparability once this type of ranking increase has been performed, because comparing two SNFs that both ended at a given point on the 0 to 10 scale may not be meaningful if one of them reached that point via improvement. Because we are limited in the number of measures that we may adopt, we believe that we may need to consider adopting a scoring methodology that allows additional granularity to capture improvement appropriately. We seek comment on this issue.
This option is a variation on the HVBP improvement points scenario described further above. Under this option, we would construct SNF performance scores based on measured performance during the performance period, and would award an increased performance score to SNFs whose measured performance rose between the baseline and performance periods. This option could take the form of a percentage-based increase—such as a 25 percent increase to a SNF performance score if the SNF improved over time—and could also be limited to top improvers, as described above in reference to other options.
This option would not result in direct adjustments to quality measure rates. We would instead be adjusting the SNF performance score, and given the broad authority that the SNF VBP statute provides us in calculating the SNF performance score, we believe this option be to operationally feasible. However, we remain concerned about the challenges associated with comparability between SNFs with different performance rates on the measure but the same SNF performance score. We specifically seek comment on how, if at all, we should differentiate SNFs' performance scores when based on achievement or improvement to address this issue.
We intend to specify a performance period for a payment year with an end date as close as feasibly possible to the payment year's start date. We strive to link performance furnished by SNFs as closely as possible to the payment year to ensure clear connections between quality measurement and value-based payment. We also strive to measure performance using a sufficiently reliable population of patients that broadly represent the total care provided by SNFs. As such, we anticipate that our annual performance period end date must provide sufficient time for SNFs to submit claims for the patients included in our measure population. In other programs, such as HRRP and the Hospital Inpatient Quality Reporting Program (HIQR), this time lag between care delivered to patients who are included in the readmission measures and application of a payment consequence linked to reporting or performance on those measures has historically been close to one year. We also recognize that other factors contribute to this time lag, including the processing time we need to calculate measure rates using multiple sources of claims needed for statistical modeling, time for providers to review their measure rates and included patients, and processing time we need to determine whether a payment adjustment needs to be made to a provider's reimbursement rate under the applicable PPS based on its reporting or performance on measures.
For the FY 2019 SNF VBP Program's performance period, we are also considering the necessary timeline we need to complete measure scoring to announce the net result of the Program's adjustments to Medicare payments not later than 60 days prior to the fiscal year, in accordance with section 1888(h)(7) of the Act. We are also considering the number of SNF stays typically covered by Medicare each year. As discussed previously, Medicare typically covers more than two million Medicare Part A stays per year in more than 15,000 SNFs, and we therefore believe that one year of SNFRM data is sufficient to ensure that the measure rates are statistically reliable.
We intend to propose a performance period for the FY 2019 SNF VBP Program in future rulemaking. However, we seek public comment on the most appropriate performance period length.
As described previously, in other Medicare quality programs such as the Hospital Value-Based Purchasing Program and the End-Stage Renal Disease Quality Incentive Program, we generally adopt a baseline period that occurs prior to the performance period for a fiscal year to measure improvement and establish performance standards.
We view the SNF VBP Program as necessitating a similarly-adopted baseline period for each fiscal year to measure improvement (as required by section 1888(h)(3)(B) of the Act) and to
We intend to propose a baseline period for purposes of calculating performance standards and measuring improvement in future rulemaking. We seek public comment on the most appropriate baseline period for the FY 2019 Program, including what considerations we should take into account when developing this policy for future rulemaking.
As with our performance standards policy considerations described above, we considered how other Medicare quality programs score eligible facilities. Specifically, we considered how the Hospital Value-Based Purchasing Program and the Hospital-Acquired Conditions Reduction Program score eligible hospitals. We discussed the Hospital Readmissions Reduction Program's scoring above in relation to performance standards.
A Hospital VBP domain score is calculated by combining the measure scores within that domain, weighting each measure equally. The domain score reflects the number of points the hospital has earned based on its performance on the measures within that domain for which it is eligible to receive a score. After summing the weighted domain scores, the TPS is translated using a linear exchange function into the percentage multiplier to be applied to each Medicare discharge claim submitted by the hospital during the applicable fiscal year. (We discuss the Exchange Function in further detail below).
Unlike the Hospital VBP Program, the SNF VBP program focuses on a single readmission measure, one that will be replaced by a single resource use measure as soon as is practicable. As described above, we do not anticipate adopting quality measure domains akin to other CMS quality programs under the SNF VBP Program. We therefore seek comment on how, if at all, we should adapt the HVBP Program's scoring methodology to accommodate both the smaller number of measures and the ranking required under the SNF VBP Program.
The Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HAC) Reduction Program scores measures that have been categorized into domains, in a manner that is similar to the HVBP Program's domain structure. For Domain 1, the points awarded to the single assigned measure yield the Domain 1 score, since Domain 1 only contains one measure. For Domain 2, the points awarded for the domain measures are averaged to yield a Domain 2 score. A hospital's Total HAC Score is determined by the sum of weighted Domain 1 and Domain 2 scores. Higher scores indicate worse performance relative to the performance of all other eligible hospitals. Hospitals with a Total HAC Score above the 75th percentile of the Total HAC Score distribution are subject to a payment reduction.
Unlike the Hospital VBP program, referenced above, there is no requirement in the HAC Reduction Program that measures or performance standards must incorporate improvement and achievement scores. As with the HVBP Program above, we seek public comments on the extent to which, if at all, we should adopt components of the HAC Reduction Program's scoring methodology for purposes of the SNF VBP Program. We specifically seek comment on whether or not we should set an absolute level of performance that must be reached to receive a positive SNF value-based incentive payment.
We intend to consider several additional factors when developing the performance scoring methodology. We believe that it is important to ensure that the performance scoring methodology is straightforward and transparent to SNFs, patients, and other stakeholders. SNFs must be able to clearly understand performance scoring methods and performance expectations to maximize their quality improvement efforts. The public must understand the scoring methodology to make the best use of the publicly reported information when choosing a SNF. We also believe that scoring methodologies for all Medicare value-based purchasing programs should be aligned as appropriate given their specific statutory requirements. This alignment will facilitate the public's understanding of quality information disseminated in these programs and foster more informed consumer decision making about health care. We believe that differences in performance scores must reflect true differences in performance. To ensure that these beliefs are appropriately reflected in the SNF VBP Program, we intend to assess the quantitative characteristics of the measures specified under sections 1888(g)(1) and (2) of the Act, including the current state of measure development, to ensure an appropriate distribution of value-based incentive payments as required by the SNF VBP statute.
We seek public comment on what other considerations we should take into account when developing our proposed scoring methodology for the SNF VBP Program in future rulemaking.
As described above, we intend to address the topic of quarterly feedback reports to SNFs related to measures specified under sections 1888(g)(1) and (2) of the Act in future rulemaking. We also intend to address how to notify SNFs of the adjustments to their PPS payments based on their performance scores and ranking under the SNF VBP Program, in accordance with the requirement in section 1888(h)(7) of the Act, in future rulemaking.
However, we seek public comment on the best means by which to so notify SNFs.
As described above in reference to the Hospital VBP Program's scoring methodology, we use a linear exchange function to translate a hospital's Total Performance Score under that Program into the percentage multiplier to be applied to each Medicare discharge claim submitted by the hospital during the applicable fiscal year. We refer readers to the Hospital Inpatient VBP Program Final Rule (76 FR 26531 through 26534) for detailed discussion of the Hospital VBP Program's Exchange Function, as well as responses to public comments on this issue.
We believe we could consider adopting a similar exchange function methodology to translate SNF performance scores into value-based incentive payments under the SNF VBP Program, and we seek comment on whether or not we should do so. However, as we did for the Hospital
We also seek comment on what considerations we should take into account when determining the appropriate form of the exchange function under the SNF VBP Program. We intend to consider how such options would distribute the value-based incentive payments among SNFs, the potential differences between the value-based incentive payment amounts for SNFs that perform poorly and SNFs that perform very well, the different marginal incentives created by the different exchange function slopes, and the relative importance of having the exchange function be as simple and straightforward as possible. We request public comments on what additional considerations, if any, we should take into account.
Sections 1888(h)(5) and (6) of the Act outline several requirements for value-based incentive payments under the SNF VBP Program, including the value-based incentive payment percentage that must be determined for each SNF and the funding available for value-based incentive payments.
We intend to address this topic in future rulemaking.
Section 1888(h)(9)(A) of the Act requires the Secretary to post information on the performance of individual SNFs under the SNF VBP Program on the
We intend to address this topic in future rulemaking. However, we seek public comment on how we should display this SNF-specific performance information, whether or not we should allow SNFs an opportunity to review and correct the SNF-specific performance information that we will post on
Section 1888(h)(9)(B) of the Act requires the Secretary to post aggregate information on the SNF VBP Program on the
We intend to address this topic in future rulemaking. However, we seek public comment on the most appropriate form for posting this
HHS has a number of initiatives designed to encourage and support the adoption of health information technology and to promote nationwide health information exchange to improve health care. As discussed in the August 2013 Statement “Principles and Strategies for Accelerating Health Information Exchange” (available at
The Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC) has released a document entitled “Connecting Health and Care for the Nation: A Shared Nationwide Interoperability Roadmap Draft Version 1.0 (draft Roadmap) (available at
In addition, ONC has released the draft version of the 2015 Interoperability Standards Advisory (available at
We encourage stakeholders to utilize health information exchange and certified health IT to effectively and efficiently help providers improve internal care delivery practices, support management of care across the continuum, enable the reporting of electronically specified clinical quality measures (eCQMs), and improve efficiencies and reduce unnecessary costs. As adoption of certified health IT increases and interoperability standards continue to mature, HHS will seek to reinforce standards through relevant policies and programs.
We seek to promote higher quality and more efficient health care for Medicare beneficiaries, and our efforts are furthered by quality reporting programs coupled with public reporting of that information. Such quality reporting programs already exist for various settings such as the Hospital Inpatient Quality Reporting (HIQR) Program, the Hospital Outpatient Quality Reporting (HOQR) Program, the Physician Quality Reporting System, the Long-Term Care Hospital (LTCH) Quality Reporting Program (QRP), the Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility (IRF) Quality Reporting Program (QRP), the Home Health Quality Reporting Program (HHQRP), and the Hospice Quality Reporting Program (HQRP). We have also implemented quality reporting programs for home health agencies (HHAs) that are based on conditions of participation, and an End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) Quality Incentive Program (QIP) and a Hospital Value-Based Purchasing (HVBP) Program that link payment to performance.
SNFs are providers that meet conditions of participation for Medicare. Some SNFs are also certified under Medicaid as nursing facilities, and these types of long-term care facilities furnish services to both Medicare beneficiaries and Medicaid enrollees. SNFs provide short-term skilled nursing services, including but not limited to rehabilitative therapy, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech-language pathology services. Such services are provided to beneficiaries who are recovering from surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, or from medical conditions, such as stroke and pneumonia. SNF services are provided when needed to maintain or improve a beneficiary's current condition, or to prevent a condition from worsening. The care provided in a SNF (as a free-standing facility or part of a hospital), is aimed at enabling the beneficiary to maintain or improve his/her health and to function independently. SNF care is a benefit under Medicare Part A and such care is covered for up to 100 days in a benefit period if all coverage requirements are met.
Section 1888(e)(6)(B)(i)(II) of the Act requires that each SNF submit, for fiscal years (FYs) beginning on or after the specified application date (as defined in section 1899B(a)(2)(E) of the Act), data on quality measures specified under section 1899B(c)(1) of the Act and data on resource use and other measures specified under section 1899B(d)(1) of the Act in a manner and within the timeframes specified by the Secretary. In addition, section 1888(e)(6)(B)(i)(III) of the Act requires, for FYs beginning on or after October 1, 2018, that each SNF
The IMPACT Act adds section 1899B to the Act that imposes new data reporting requirements for certain PAC providers, including SNFs. Sections 1899B(c)(1) and 1899B(d)(1) of the Act collectively require that the Secretary specify quality measures and resource use and other measures with respect to certain domains not later than the specified application date that applies to each measure domain and PAC provider setting. Section 1899B(a)(2)(E) of the Act delineates the specified application dates for each measure domain and PAC provider. The IMPACT Act also added section 1886(e)(6) to the Act, to require the Secretary to reduce the otherwise applicable PPS payment to a SNF that does not report the new data in a form and manner, and at a time, specified by the Secretary. For SNFs, new section 1886(e)(6)(A)(i) of the Act would require the Secretary to reduce the payment update for any SNF that does not satisfactorily submit the new required data.
Under the SNF QRP, we are proposing that the general timeline and sequencing of measure implementation would occur as follows: Specification of measures; proposal and finalization of measures through notice-and-comment rulemaking; SNF submission of data on the adopted measures; analysis and processing of the submitted data; notification to SNFs regarding their quality reporting compliance with respect to a particular fiscal year; consideration of any reconsideration requests; and imposition of a payment reduction in a particular fiscal year for failure to satisfactorily submit data with respect to that fiscal year. We are also proposing that any payment reductions that are taken with respect to a fiscal would year begin approximately one year after the end of the data submission period for that fiscal year and approximately two years after we first adopt the measure.
This timeline, which is followed in the other quality reporting programs, reflects operational and other practical constraints, including the time needed to specify and adopt valid and reliable measures, collect the data, and determine whether a SNF has complied with our quality reporting requirements. It also takes into consideration our desire to give SNFs enough notice of new data reporting obligations so that they are prepared to timely start reporting the data. Therefore, we intend to follow the same timing and sequence of events for measures specified under section 1899B(c)(1) and (d)(1) of the Act that we currently follow for the other quality reporting programs. We intend to specify each of these measures no later than the specified application dates set forth in section 1899B(a)(2)(E) of the Act and propose to adopt them consistent with the requirements in the Act and Administrative Procedure Act. To the extent that we finalize a proposal to adopt a measure for the SNF QRP that satisfies an IMPACT Act measure domain, we intend to require SNFs to report data on the measure for the fiscal year that begins 2 years after the specified application date for that measure. Likewise, we intend to require SNFs to begin reporting any other data specifically required under the IMPACT Act for the fiscal year that begins 2 years after we adopt requirements that would govern the submission of that data.
As provided at section 1888(e)(6)(A)(ii) of the Act, depending on the market basket percentage for a particular year, the 2 percentage point reduction under section 1888(e)(6)(A)(i) of the Act may result in this percentage, after application of the productivity adjustment under section 1888(e)(5)(B)(ii) of the Act, being less than 0.0 percent for a FY and may result in payment rates under the SNF PPS being less than payment rates for the preceding FY. In addition, as set forth at section 1888(e)(6)(A)(iii) of the Act, any reduction based on failure to comply with the SNF QRP reporting requirements applies only to the particular FY involved, and any such reduction must not be taken into account in computing the SNF PPS payment rates for subsequent FYs.
For purposes of meeting the reporting requirements under the SNF QRP, section 1888(e)(6)(B)(ii) of the Act states that SNFs (or other facilities described in section 1888(e)(7)(B) of the Act, other than a CAH) may submit the resident assessment data required under section 1819(b)(3) of the Act using the standard instrument designated by the state under section 1819(e)(5) of the Act. Currently, the resident assessment instrument is titled the MDS 3.0. To the extent data required for submission under subclause (II) or (III) of section 1888(e)(6)(B)(i) of the Act duplicates other data required to be submitted under clause (i)(I), section 1888(e)(6)(B)(iii) provides that the submission of data under subclause (II) or (III) is to be in lieu of the submission of such data under clause (I), unless the Secretary makes a determination that such duplication is necessary to avoid delay in the implementation of section 1899B of the Act taking into account the different specified application dates under section 1899B(a)(2)(E) of the Act.
In addition to requiring a quality reporting program for SNFs under new section 1888(e)(6), the IMPACT Act requires feedback to SNFs and public reporting of their performance. More specifically, section 1899B(f)(1) of the Act requires the Secretary to provide confidential feedback reports to SNFs on their performance on the quality measures and resource use and other measures specified under that section. The Secretary must make such confidential feedback reports available to SNFs beginning one year after the specified application date that applies to the measures in that section and, to the extent feasible, no less frequently than on a quarterly basis, except in the case of measures reported on an annual basis, as to which the confidential feedback reports may be made available annually.
Section 1899B(g)(1) of the Act requires the Secretary to provide for the public reporting of SNF performance on the quality measures specified under section 1899B(c)(1) of the Act and the resource use and other measures specified under section 1899B(d)(1) of the Act by establishing procedures for making the performance data available to the public. Such procedures must ensure, including through a process consistent with the process applied under section 1886(b)(3)(B)(viii)(VII) of the Act, that SNFs have the opportunity to review and submit corrections to the data and other information before it is made public as required by section 1899B(g)(2) of the Act. Section 1899B(g)(3) of the Act requires that the data and information is made publicly available beginning no later than two years after the specified application date applicable to such a measure and SNFs. Finally, section 1899B(g)(4)(B) of the Act requires that such procedures must provide that the data and information described in section 1899B(g)(1) of the Act with respect to quality and resource use measures be made publicly available consistent with sections 1819(i) and 1919(i) of the Act.
We strive to promote high quality and efficiency in the delivery of health care to the beneficiaries we serve. Performance improvement leading to the highest quality health care requires continuous evaluation to identify and address performance gaps and reduce the unintended consequences that may arise in treating a large, vulnerable, and aging population. Quality reporting programs, coupled with public reporting of quality information, are critical to the advancement of health care quality improvement efforts.
Valid, reliable, relevant quality measures are fundamental to the effectiveness of our quality reporting programs. Therefore, selection of quality measures is a priority for CMS in all of its quality reporting programs.
We are proposing to adopt for the SNF QRP three measures that we are specifying under section 1899(B)(c)(1) of the Act for purposes of meeting the following three domains: Functional status, cognitive function, and changes in function and cognitive function; skin integrity and changes in skin integrity; and incidence of major falls. These measures align with the CMS Quality Strategy,
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In deciding to propose these measures, we also took into account national priorities, including those established by the National Priorities Partnership (
These measures also incorporate common standards and definitions that can be used across post-acute care settings to allow for the exchange of data among post-acute care providers, to provide access to longitudinal information for such providers to facilitate coordinated and improved outcomes, and to enable comparison of such assessment data across all such providers as required by section 1899B(a) of the Act.
We initiated an Ad Hoc MAP process to obtain input on the measures that we are proposing to adopt in this proposed rule. On February 5th, 2015, we made publicly available a list of Measures Under Consideration (called the “List of Ad Hoc Measures Under Consideration for the Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation (IMPACT) Act of 2014”) (MUC list) as part of an Ad Hoc Measures Application Partnership (MAP) convened by the National Quality Forum (NQF). The MAP Post-Acute Care/Long-Term Care Workgroup convened on February 9, 2015 to “review the measures technical properties as they are adapted for use in new settings and whether the new settings impact the measures' adherence to the NQF Scientific Acceptability criterion.”
The MAP issued a pre-rulemaking report on March 6, 2015 Pre-Rulemaking Report, which is available for download at
Section 1899B(j) of the Act requires that we allow for stakeholder input as part of the pre-rulemaking process. Therefore, we sought stakeholder input on the measures we are proposing to adopt in this proposed rule as follows: We convened a technical expert panel that included stakeholder experts and patient representatives on February 3, 2015; we sought public input during the February 2015 ad hoc MAP process; and we implemented a public mail box for the submission of comments in January 2015,
For the SNF QRP, for the purpose of streamlining the rulemaking process, we are proposing that when we adopt a measure for the SNF QRP for a payment determination, this measure would be automatically retained for all subsequent payment determinations unless we propose to remove, suspend, or replace the measure.
Section 1899B(h)(1) of the Act provides that the Secretary may remove, suspend or add a quality measure or resource use or other measure specified under section 1899B(c)(1) or (d)(1) of the Act so long as the Secretary publishes a justification for the action in the
We also note that under section 1899B(h)(2) of the Act, in the case of a quality measure or resource use or other measure for which there is a reason to
For any measure that meets this criteria (that is, a measure that raises safety concerns), we will take immediate action to remove the measure from SNF QRP, and, in addition to publishing a justification in the next rulemaking cycle, will immediately notify SNFs and the public through the usual communication channels, including listening session, memos, email notification, and web postings. We are inviting public comment on these proposals and policies.
Quality measures selected for the SNF QRP must be endorsed by the NQF unless they meet the statutory criteria for exception. The NQF is a voluntary consensus standard-setting organization with a diverse representation of consumer, purchaser, provider, academic, clinical, and other healthcare stakeholder organizations. The NQF was established to standardize healthcare quality measurement and reporting through its consensus development process (
The NQF solicits information from measure stewards for annual reviews and in order to review measures for continued endorsement in a specific 3-year cycle. In this measure maintenance process, the measure steward is responsible for updating and maintaining the currency and relevance of the measure and for confirming existing specifications to the NQF on an annual basis. As part of the ad hoc review process, the ad hoc review requester and the measure steward are responsible for submitting evidence for review by a NQF Technical Expert panel which, in turn, provides input to the Consensus Standards Approval Committee which then makes a decision on endorsement status and/or specification changes for the measure, practice, or event.
The NQF regularly maintains its endorsed measures through annual and triennial reviews, which may result in the NQF making updates to the measures. We believe that it is important to have in place a subregulatory process to incorporate nonsubstantive updates made by the NQF into the measure specifications as we have adopted for the Hospital IQR Program so that these measures remain up-to-date. We also recognize that some changes the NQF might make to its endorsed measures are substantive in nature and might not be appropriate for adoption using a subregulatory process.
Therefore, in the FY 2013 IPPS/LTCH PPS final rule (77 FR 53504 through 53505), we finalized a policy under which we use a subregulatory process to make nonsubstantive updates to measures used for the Hospital IQR Program. For what constitutes substantive versus nonsubstantive changes, we expect to make this determination on a case-by-case basis. Examples of nonsubstantive changes to measures might include updated diagnosis or procedure codes, medication updates for categories of medications, broadening of age ranges, and exclusions for a measure (such as the addition of a hospice exclusion to the 30-day mortality measures). We believe that nonsubstantive changes may include updates to NQF-endorsed measures based upon changes to guidelines upon which the measures are based.
Therefore, we propose to use rulemaking to adopt substantive updates made to measures as we have for the Hospital IQR Program. Examples of changes that we might consider to be substantive would be those in which the changes are so significant that the measure is no longer the same measure, or when a standard of performance assessed by a measure becomes more stringent (for example, changes in acceptable timing of medication, procedure/process, or test administration). Another example of a substantive change would be where the NQF has extended its endorsement of a previously endorsed measure to a new setting, such as extending a measure from the inpatient setting to hospice. These policies regarding what is considered substantive versus nonsubstantive would apply to all measures in the SNF QRP. We also note that the NQF process incorporates an opportunity for public comment and engagement in the measure maintenance process.
We believe this policy adequately balances our need to incorporate updates to the SNF QRP measures in the most expeditious manner possible while preserving the public's ability to comment on updates that so fundamentally change an endorsed measure that it is no longer the same measure that we originally adopted.
We are inviting public comment on this proposal.
For the FY 2018 SNF QRP and subsequent years, we are proposing to adopt three post-acute care (PAC) cross-setting quality measures. These measures address the following domains: (1) Skin integrity and changes in skin integrity; (2) incidence of major falls; and (3) functional status, cognitive function, and changes in function and cognitive function, which are all required under section 1899B(c)(1) of the Act. The proposed quality measure addressing skin integrity and changes in skin integrity is the NQF-endorsed measure, Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers That Are New or Worsened (Short Stay) (NQF #0678) (
The proposed quality measures addressing the domains of incidence of major falls and functional status, as well as cognitive function, and changes in function and cognitive function, are not currently NQF-endorsed for the SNF population. We reviewed the NQF's endorsed measures and were unable to identify any NQF-endorsed cross-setting quality measures that focused on these domains. We are also unaware of any other cross-setting quality measures that have been endorsed or adopted by another consensus organization.
We are proposing to adopt for the SNF QRP, beginning with the FY 2018 payment determination, NQF #0678, Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers that are New or Worsened (Short Stay) as a cross-setting quality measure that satisfies the skin integrity and changes in skin integrity domain. This measure assesses the percentage of short-stay residents or patients in SNFs, IRFs, and LTCHs with Stage 2 through 4 pressure ulcers that are new or worsened since a prior assessment.
Pressure ulcers are a serious medical condition that result in pain, decreased quality of life, and increased mortality in aging populations.
Section 1899B(a)(1)(B) of the Act requires that the data submitted on quality measures under section 1899B(c)(1) of the Act be standardized and interoperable across PAC settings, and section 1899B(c)(2)(A) of the Act requires that the measures be reported through the use of a PAC assessment instrument. These requirements are in line with the NQF Steering Committee report, which stated that to understand the impact of pressure ulcers across settings, quality measures addressing prevention, incidence, and prevalence of pressure ulcers must be harmonized and aligned. This measure has been implemented in nursing homes for resident population with stays of less than 100 days under CMS's Nursing Home Quality Initiative. We also adopted the measure for use in the LTCH QRP (76 FR 51753 through 51756) beginning with the FY 2014 payment determination, and for use in the IRF QRP (76 FR 24254) beginning with the FY 2014 payment determination. We have not, to date, adopted the measure for the home health setting. More information on the NQF endorsed measure, the Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers That Are New or Worsened (Short Stay), is available at
A TEP convened by our measure development contractor provided input on the technical specifications of this quality measure, including the feasibility of implementing the measure across PAC settings. The TEP supported the measure's implementation across PAC settings and was also supportive of our efforts to standardize the measure for cross-setting development. The MAP also supported the use of NQF #0678, Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers that are New or Worsened (Short Stay) in the SNF QRP as a cross-setting quality measure.
We are proposing that the data for this quality measure would be collected using the MDS 3.0, currently submitted by SNFs through the Quality Improvement and Evaluation System (QIES) Assessment Submission and Processing (ASAP) system. We believe that this data collection method will minimize the reporting burden on SNFs because SNFs are already required to submit MDS data for payment purposes. For more information on SNF submission using the QIES ASAP system, readers are referred to
The data items that we would use to calculate the proposed quality measure include: M0800A (Worsening in Pressure Ulcer Status Since Prior Assessment (OBRA or scheduled PPS assessment) or Last Admission/Entry or Reentry, Stage 2), M0800B (Worsening in Pressure Ulcer Status Since Prior Assessment (OBRA or scheduled PPS assessment) or Last Admission/Entry or Reentry, Stage 3), and M0800C (Worsening in Pressure Ulcer Status Since Prior Assessment (OBRA or scheduled PPS assessment) or Last Admission/Entry or Reentry, Stage 4). This measure would be calculated at two points in time, at admission and discharge (see Proposed Form, Manner, and Timing of Quality Data Submission). The specifications and data items for the Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers that are New or Worsened (Short Stay), are available in the MDS 3.0 Quality Measures User's Manual available on our Web site at
We invite public comment on our proposal to adopt NQF #0678 Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers that are New or Worsened (Short Stay) for the SNF QRP for the FY 2018
As part of our ongoing measure development efforts, we are considering a future update to the numerator of the quality measure NQF #0678, Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers that are New or Worsened (Short Stay). This update would require PAC providers to report the development of unstageable pressure ulcers and suspected deep tissue injuries (sDTIs). Under this potential change we are considering, the numerator of the quality measure would be updated to include unstageable pressure ulcers, including sDTIs that are new/developed in the facility, as well as Stage 1 or 2 pressure ulcers that become unstageable due to slough or eschar (indicating progression to a stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer) after admission. SNFs are already required to complete the unstageable pressure ulcer items on the MDS 3.0. As such, this update would require a change in the way the measure is calculated but would not increase the data collection burden for SNFs.
A TEP convened by our measure development contractor strongly recommended that CMS update the specifications for the measure to include these pressure ulcers in the numerator, although it acknowledged that unstageable pressure ulcers and sDTIs cannot and should not be assigned a numeric stage. The TEP also recommended that a Stage 1 or 2 pressure ulcer that becomes unstageable due to slough or eschar should be considered worsened because the presence of slough or eschar indicates a full thickness (equivalent to Stage 3 or 4) wound.
We invite public comment to inform our consideration of the inclusion of unstageable pressure ulcers and sDTIs in the numerator of the quality measure NQF #0678 Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers that are New or Worsened (Short Stay) as part of our future measure development efforts.
We are proposing to adopt beginning with the FY 2018 SNF QRP an application to the SNF setting of the Percent of Residents Experiencing One or More Falls with Major Injury (Long Stay) (NQF #0674) measure that satisfies the incidence of major falls domain. This outcome measure reports the percentage of residents who have experienced falls with major injury over a 3-month period. This measure was developed by CMS and is NQF-endorsed for long-stay residents of nursing facilities.
Research indicates that fall-related injuries are the most common cause of accidental death in people aged 65 and older, responsible for approximately 41 percent of accidental deaths annually.
Falls also represent a significant cost burden to the entire health care system, with injurious falls accounting for 6 percent of medical expenses among those age 65 and older.
According to Morse, 78 percent of falls are anticipated physiologic falls, which are falls among individuals who scored high on a risk assessment scale, meaning their risk could have been identified in advance of the fall.
The Percent of Residents Experiencing One or More Falls with Major Injury (Long Stay) (NQF #0674) quality measure is NQF-endorsed and has been successfully implemented in nursing facilities for long-stay residents since 2011. In addition, the quality measure is currently publicly reported on CMS' Nursing Home Compare Web site at
Although NQF #0674 is not currently endorsed for the SNF setting, we reviewed the NQF's consensus endorsed measures and were unable to identify any NQF-endorsed cross-setting quality measures for that setting that are focused on falls with major injury. We are aware of one NQF-endorsed measure, Falls with Injury (NQF #0202), which is a measure designed for adult acute inpatient and rehabilitation patients capturing “all documented patient falls with an injury level of minor or greater on eligible unit types in a calendar quarter, reported as injury falls per 100 days.”
A TEP convened by our measure development contractor provided input on the technical specifications of this quality measure, including the feasibility of implementing the measure across PAC settings. The TEP was supportive of the implementation of this measure across PAC settings and was also supportive of our efforts to standardize this measure for cross-setting development. The MAP conditionally supported the use of an application of NQF #0674 Percent of Residents Experiencing One or More Falls with Major Injury (Long Stay) in the SNF QRP as a cross-setting quality measure. More information about the MAP's recommendations for this measure is available in the report entitled MAP Off-Cycle Deliberations 2015: Measures under Considerations to Implement Provisions of the IMPACT Act, which can be found at
More information on the NQF endorsed measure, the Percent of Residents Experiencing One or More Falls with Major Injury (Long Stay) is available at
We are proposing that data for this quality measure will be collected using the MDS 3.0, currently submitted by SNFs through the QIES ASAP system for the reason noted previously.
The data items that we would use to calculate this proposed quality measure include: J1800 (Any Falls Since Admission/Entry (OBRA or Scheduled PPS) or Reentry or Prior Assessment, whichever is more recent), and J1900 (Number of Falls Since Admission/Entry (OBRA or Scheduled PPS) or Reentry or Prior Assessment, whichever is more recent). This measure would be calculated at the time of discharge (see Proposed Form, Manner, and Timing of Quality Data Submission). The specifications for the application of the measure, the Percent of Residents Experiencing One or More Falls with Major Injury (Long Stay), for the SNF population are available on our SNF QRP measures and technical Web site at
We refer readers to the Form, Manner, and Timing of Quality Data Submission section of this proposed rule for more information on the proposed data collection and submission timeline for this proposed quality measure.
We invite public comment on our proposal to adopt an application of Percent of Residents Experiencing One or More Falls with Major Injury (Long Stay) (NQF #0674) measure for the SNF QRP beginning with the FY 2018 payment determination.
We are proposing to adopt beginning with the FY 2018 SNF QRP an application of the quality measure Percent of Long-Term Care Hospital Patients with an Admission and Discharge Functional Assessment and a Care Plan that Addresses Function (NQF #2631; under NQF review) as a cross-setting quality measure that satisfies the functional status, cognitive function, and changes in functional status and cognitive function domain. This quality measure reports the percent of patients or residents with both an admission and a discharge functional assessment and an activity (self-care or mobility) a goal that addresses function.
The National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics' Subcommittee on Health,
The majority of individuals who receive PAC services, including care provided by SNFs, HHAs, IRFs, and LTCHs, have functional limitations and many of these individuals are at risk for further decline in function due to limited mobility and ambulation.
Given the variation in patient or resident populations across the PAC settings, the functional activities that are typically assessed by clinicians for each type of PAC provider may vary. For example, rolling left and right in bed is an example of a functional activity that may be most relevant for low-functioning patients or residents who are chronically critically ill. However, certain functional activities such as eating, oral hygiene, lying to sitting on the side of the bed, toilet transfers, and walking or wheelchair mobility are important activities for patients or residents in each PAC setting.
Although, functional assessment data are currently collected by all four PAC providers and in NFs, this data collection has employed different assessment instruments, scales, and item definitions. The data cover similar topics, but are not standardized across PAC settings. The different sets of functional assessment items coupled with different rating scales makes communication about patient and resident functioning challenging when patients and residents transition from one type of setting to another. Collection of standardized functional assessment data across SNFs, HHAs, IRFs, and LTCHs using common data items would establish a common language for patient and resident functioning, which may facilitate communication and care coordination as patients and residents transition from one type of provider to another. The collection of standardized functional status data may also help improve patient and resident functioning during an episode of care by ensuring that basic daily activities are assessed for all PAC residents at the start and end of care and that at least one functional goal is established.
The functional assessment items included in the proposed functional status quality measure were originally developed and tested as part of the Post-Acute Care Payment Reform Demonstration version of the Continuity Assessment Record and Evaluation (CARE) Item Set, which was designed to standardize the assessment of a person's status, including functional status, across acute and post-acute settings (SNFs, HHAs, IRFs, and LTCHs). The functional status items on the CARE Item Set are daily activities that clinicians typically assess at the time of admission and/or discharge in order to determine patient's or resident's needs, evaluate patient or resident progress, and prepare patients, residents, and their families for a transition to home or to another setting.
The development of the CARE Item Set and a description and rationale for each item is described in a report entitled “The Development and Testing of the Continuity Assessment Record and Evaluation (CARE) Item Set: Final Report on the Development of the CARE Item Set: Volume 1 of 3.”
The functional status quality measure we are proposing to adopt beginning with the FY 2018 SNF QRP is a process quality measure that is an application of the quality measure, Percent of Long-Term Care Hospital Patients with an Admission and Discharge Functional Assessment and a Care Plan that Addresses Function” (NQF #2631; under NQF review). This quality measure reports the percent of patients or residents with both an admission and a discharge functional assessment and a treatment goal that addresses function.
This process measure requires the collection of admission and discharge functional status data by clinicians using standardized clinical assessment items, or data elements, which assess specific functional activities, that is, self-care and mobility activities. The self-care and mobility function activities are coded using a 6-level rating scale that indicates the resident's level of independence with the activity at both admission and discharge. A higher score indicates more independence.
For this quality measure, there must be documentation at the time of admission that at least one activity performance (function) goal is recorded for at least one of the standardized self-care or mobility function items using the 6-level rating scale. This indicates that an activity goal(s) has been established. Following this initial assessment, the clinical best practice would be to ensure that the resident's
To the extent that a resident has an unplanned discharge, for example, for the purpose of being admitted to an acute care facility, the collection of discharge functional status data might not be feasible. Therefore, for patients or residents with unplanned discharges, admission functional status data and at least one treatment goal must be reported, but discharge functional status data are not required to be reported.
A TEP convened by the measure development contractor for CMS provided input on the technical specifications of this quality measure, including the feasibility of implementing the measure across PAC settings. The TEP was supportive of the implementation of this measure across PAC settings and was also supportive of our efforts to standardize this measure for cross-setting use. Additionally, the MAP conditionally supported the use of an application of the Percent of Long-Term Care Hospital Patients With an Admission and Discharge Functional Assessment and a Care Plan that Addresses Function (NQF #2631; under NQF review) for use in the SNF QRP as a cross-setting measure. The MAP noted that this functional status measure addresses an IMPACT Act domain and a MAP PAC/LTC core concept. The MAP conditionally supported this measure pending NQF-endorsement and resolution of concerns about the use of two different functional status scales for quality reporting and payment purposes. Finally, the MAP reiterated its support for adding measures addressing function, noting the group's special interest in this PAC/LTC core concept. More information about the MAP's recommendations for this measure is available in the report entitled MAP Off-Cycle Deliberations 2015: Measures under Considerations to Implement Provisions of the IMPACT Act, which can be found at
The proposed measure is derived from the Percent of Long-Term Care Hospital Patients With an Admission and Discharge Functional Assessment and a Care Plan that Addresses Function quality measure, and we intend to submit the proposed measure to NQF for endorsement. The specifications are available for review at the SNF QRP measures and technical Web site at
We reviewed the NQF's endorsed measures and were unable to identify any NQF-endorsed cross-setting quality measures focused on assessment of function for PAC patients and residents. We are also unaware of any other cross-setting quality measures for functional assessment that have been endorsed or adopted by another consensus organization. Therefore, we are proposing to adopt this function measure for use in the SNF QRP for the FY 2018 payment determination and subsequent years under the Secretary's authority to select non-NQF-endorsed measures.
We are proposing that data for the proposed quality measure would be collected through the MDS 3.0, which SNFs currently submit through the QIES ASAP system. We refer readers to section V.C.7. of this proposed rule for more information on the proposed data collection and submission timeline for this proposed quality measure.
The calculation algorithm of the proposed measure is: (1) For each SNF stay, records of residents discharged during the 12-month target time period are identified and counted. This count is the denominator; (2) The records of residents with complete stays are identified and the number of these resident stays with complete admission functional assessment data and at least one self-care or mobility activity goal and complete discharge functional assessment data is counted; (3) The records of residents with incomplete stays are identified, and the number of these resident records with complete admission functional status data and at least one self-care or mobility goal is counted; (4) The counts from step 2 (complete SNF stays) and step 3 (incomplete SNF stays) are summed. The sum is the numerator count; and (5) the numerator count is divided by the denominator count to calculate this quality measure. This measure would be calculated at two points in time, at admission and discharge.
For purposes of assessment data collection, we propose to add new functional status items to the MDS 3.0. The items would assess specific self-care and mobility activities, and would be based on functional items included in the Post-Acute Care Payment Reform Demonstration version of the CARE Item Set. The items have been developed and tested for reliability and validity in SNFs, HHAs, IRFs, and LTCHs. More information pertaining to item testing is available on our Post-Acute Care Quality Initiatives Web page at
The proposed function items that we would add to the MDS for purposes of the calculation of this proposed quality measure do not duplicate existing items currently collected in that assessment instrument for other purposes. The currently used MDS function items evaluate a resident's greatest dependence on three or more occasions, whereas the proposed functional items would evaluate an individual's usual performance at the time of admission and at the time of discharge for goal setting purposes. Additionally, there are several key differences between the existing and new proposed function items that may result in variation in the resident assessment results including: (1) The data collection and associated data collection instructions; (2) the rating scales used to score a resident's level of independence; and (3) the item definitions. A description of these differences is provided with the measure specifications on our SNF QRP measures and technical Web site at
Because of the differences between the current function assessment items (section G of the MDS 3.0) and the proposed function assessment items that we would collect for purposes of calculating the proposed measure, we would require that SNFs submit data on both sets of items. Data collection for the new proposed function items do not substitute for the data collection under the current Section G.
We invite public comments on our proposal to adopt beginning with the FY 2018 SNF QRP an application of the quality measure Percent of Long-Term Care Hospital Patients with an Admission and Discharge Functional Assessment and a care Plan that Addresses Function (NQF #2631; under review).
We invite comment on the measure domains and associated measures and measure concepts listed in Table 10. In addition, in alignment with the requirements of the IMPACT Act to develop quality measures and standardize data for comparative purposes, we believe that evaluating outcomes across the post-acute settings using standardized data is an important priority. Therefore, in addition to proposing a process-based measure for the domain in the IMPACT Act of “Functional status, cognitive function, and changes in function and cognitive function”, which is included in this year's proposed rule, we also intend to develop outcomes-based quality measures, including functional status and other quality outcome measures to further satisfy this domain. These measures will be proposed in future rulemaking in order to assess functional change for each care setting as well as across care settings.
Beginning with the submission of data required for the FY 2018 payment determination, we propose that a new SNF would be required to begin reporting data on any quality measures finalized for that program year by no later than the first day of the calendar quarter subsequent to 30 days after the date on its CMS Certification Number (CCN) notification letter. For example, for FY 2018 payment determinations, if a SNF received its CCN on August 28, 2016, and 30 days are added (for example, August 28 + 30 days = September 27), the SNF would be required to submit data for residents who are admitted beginning on October 1, 2016.
We invite public comment on this proposed timing for new SNFs to begin reporting quality data under the SNF QRP.
As discussed previously, we are proposing that SNFs would submit data on the proposed functional status, skin integrity, and incidence of major falls measures by completing items on the MDS and then submitting the MDS to CMS through the Quality Improvement and Evaluation System (QIES), Assessment Submission and Processing System (ASAP) system. We seek comment on this proposed method of data collection.
Currently, there is no discharge assessment required when a resident is discharged from the SNF Medicare Part A coverage stay but does not leave the facility, and we are aware that this affects nearly 30 percent of all SNF residents. To collect the data at the time these beneficiaries are discharged from the SNF Part A coverage stay, we propose to add an item set in addition to the 5-Day PPS Assessment. Further, to collect the data elements required to calculate the function quality measure (an application of Percent of Long-Term Care Hospital Patients With an Admission and Discharge Functional Assessment and a Care Plan that Addresses Function [NQF #2631; under NQF review]) at the time of a residents admission, we also propose to add the necessary items to the 5-day PPS Assessment.
A list of the data items that we are proposing to add to the SNF PPS Part A Discharge and the 5-Day PPS Assessments is available on our Web site at
For the FY 2018 payment determination, we are proposing that SNFs submit data on the three proposed quality measures for residents who are admitted to the SNF on and after October 1, 2016 and discharged from the SNF up to and including December 31, 2016, using the data submission schedule that we are proposing in this section.
We are proposing to collect a single quarter of data for FY 2018 to remain consistent with the usual October release schedule for the MDS, to give SNFs a sufficient amount of time to update their systems so that they can comply with the new data reporting requirements, and to give CMS a sufficient amount of time to determine compliance for the FY 2018 program. The proposed use of one quarter of data for the initial year of quality reporting is consistent with the approach we used to implement a number of other quality reporting programs, including the LTCH, IRF, and Hospice QRPs.
We also propose that following the close of the reporting quarter, October 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016 for the FY 2018 payment determination, SNFs would have an additional 5
We seek public comment on these proposals.
We are proposing that, beginning with the FY 2018 payment determination, SNFs must report all of the data necessary to calculate the proposed quality measures on at least eighty percent of the MDS assessments that they submit. We are proposing that a SNF has reported all of the data necessary to calculate the measures if the data actually can be used for purposes of calculating the quality measures, as opposed to, for example, the use of a dash [-], to indicate that the SNF was unable to perform a pressure ulcer assessment.
We believe that because SNFs have long been required to submit MDS assessments for other purposes, SNFs should easily be able to meet this proposed requirement for the SNF QRP. Our proposal to set reporting thresholds is consistent with policies we have adopted for the Long-Term Care Hospital (79 FR 50314), Inpatient-Rehabilitation Hospital (79 FR 45923) and Home Health (79 FR 66079) Quality Reporting Programs.
Although we are proposing to adopt an 80 percent threshold initially, we intend to propose to raise the threshold level for subsequent program years through future rulemaking.
We are also proposing that for the FY 2018 SNF QRP, any SNF that does not meet the proposed requirement that 80 percent of all MDS assessments submitted contain 100 percent of all data items necessary to calculate the SNF QRP measures would be subject to a reduction of 2 percentage points to its FY 2018 market basket percentage.
We invite comment on the proposed SNF QRP data completion requirements.
To ensure the reliability and accuracy of the data submitted under the SNF QRP, we intend to propose to adopt policies and processes for validating the data submitted under the SNF QRP in future rulemaking. At this time, we are seeking comment on what elements we should consider including in such a process.
Our experience with other quality reporting programs has shown that there are times when providers are unable to submit quality data due to extraordinary circumstances beyond their control (for example, natural, or man-made disasters). Other extenuating circumstances are reviewed on a case-by-case basis. We have defined a “disaster” as any natural or man-made catastrophe which causes damages of sufficient severity and magnitude to partially or completely destroy or delay access to medical records and associated documentation. Natural disasters could include events such as hurricanes, tornadoes, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, fires, mudslides, snowstorms, and tsunamis. Man-made disasters could include such events as terrorist attacks, bombings, floods caused by man-made actions, civil disorders, and explosions. A disaster may be widespread and impact multiple structures or be isolated and impact a single site only.
In certain instances of either natural or man-made disasters, a SNF may have the ability to conduct a full resident assessment, and record and save the associated data either during or before the occurrence of the extraordinary event. In this case, the extraordinary event has not caused the facility's data files to be destroyed, but it could hinder the SNF's ability to meet the quality reporting program's data submission deadlines. In this scenario, the SNF would potentially have the ability to report the data at a later date, after the emergency has passed. In such cases, a temporary extension of the deadlines for reporting might be appropriate.
In other circumstances of natural or man-made disaster, a SNF may not have had the ability to conduct a full resident assessment, or to record and save the associated data before the occurrence of the extraordinary event. In such a scenario, the facility may not have complete data to submit to CMS. We believe that it may be appropriate, in these situations, to grant a full exception to the reporting requirements for a specific period of time.
We do not wish to penalize SNFs in these circumstances or to unduly increase their burden during these times. Therefore, we are proposing a process for SNFs to request and for us to grant exceptions and extensions with respect to the quality data reporting requirements of the SNF QRP for one or more quarters, beginning with the FY 2018 payment determination, when there are certain extraordinary circumstances beyond the control of the SNF. When an exception or extension is granted, we would not reduce the SNF's PPS payment for failure to comply with the requirements of the SNF QRP.
We are proposing that if a SNF seeks to request an exception or extension
We note that the subject of the email must read “SNF QRP Exception or Extension Request” and the email must contain the following information:
• SNF CCN;
• SNF name;
• CEO or CEO-designated personnel contact information including name, telephone number, email address, and mailing address (the address must be a physical address, not a post office box);
• SNF's reason for requesting an exception or extension;
• Evidence of the impact of extraordinary circumstances, including but not limited to photographs, newspaper and other media articles; and
• A date when the SNF believes it will be able to again submit SNF QRP data and a justification for the proposed date.
We are proposing that exception and extension requests be signed by the SNF's CEO or CEO designated personnel, and that if the CEO designates an individual to sign the request, the CEO-designated individual has the appropriate authority to submit such a request on behalf of the SNF. Following receipt of the email, we will: (1) Provide a written acknowledgement, using the contact information provided in the email, to the CEO or CEO-designated contact notifying them that the request has been received; and (2) provide a formal response to the CEO or any CEO-designated SNF personnel, using the contact information provided in the email, indicating our decision.
This proposal does not preclude us from granting exceptions or extensions to SNFs that have not requested them when we determine that an extraordinary circumstance, such as an act of nature, affects an entire region or locale. If we make the determination to grant an exception or extension to all SNFs in a region or locale, we are proposing to communicate this decision through routine communication channels to SNFs and vendors, including, but not limited to, issuing memos, emails, and notices on our SNF QRP Web site once it is available at
We are also proposing that we may grant an exception or extension to SNFs if we determine that a systemic problem with one of our data collection systems directly affected the ability of the SNF to submit data. Because we do not anticipate that these types of systemic errors will happen often, we do not anticipate granting an exception or extension on this basis frequently.
If a SNF is granted an exception, we will not require that the SNF submit any measure data for the period of time specified in the exception request decision. If we grant an extension to a SNF, the SNF will still remain responsible for submitting quality data collected during the timeframe in question, although we will specify a revised deadline by which the SNF must submit this quality data.
We also propose that any exception or extension requests submitted for purposes of the SNF QRP will apply to that program only, and not to any other program we administer for SNFs such as survey and certification. MDS requirements, including electronic submission, during Declared Public Health Emergencies can be found at FAQs K-5, K-6 and K-9 on the following link:
We intend to provide additional information pertaining to exceptions and extensions for the SNF QRP, including any additional guidance, on the SNF QRP Web site at
We invite public comment on these proposals for seeking and being granted exceptions and extensions to the quality reporting requirements.
At the conclusion of the required quality data reporting and submission period, we will review the data received from each SNF during that reporting period to determine if the SNF met the quality data reporting requirements. SNFs that are found to be noncompliant with the reporting requirements for the applicable fiscal year will receive a 2 percentage point reduction to their market basket percentage update for that fiscal year.
We are aware that some of our other quality reporting programs, such as the HIQR Program, the LTCHQR Program, and the IRF QRP include an opportunity for the providers to request a reconsideration of our initial non-compliance determination. Therefore, to be consistent with other established quality reporting programs and to provide an opportunity for SNFs to seek reconsideration of our initial non-compliance decision, we are proposing a process that will enable a SNF to request reconsideration of our initial non-compliance decision in the event that it believes that it was incorrectly identified as being non-compliant with the SNF QRP reporting requirements for a particular fiscal year.
For the FY 2018 payment determination, and that of subsequent years, we are proposing that a SNF would receive a notification of noncompliance if we determine that the SNF did not submit data in accordance with the data reporting requirements with respect to the applicable FY. The purpose of this notification is to put the SNF on notice of the following: (1) That the SNF has been identified as being non-compliant with the SNF QRP's reporting requirements for the applicable fiscal year; (2) that the SNF will be scheduled to receive a reduction in the amount of two percentage points to its market basket percentage update for the applicable fiscal year; (3) that the SNF may file a request for reconsideration if it believes that the finding of noncompliance is erroneous, has submitted a request for an extension or exception that has not yet been decided, or has been granted an extension or exception; and (4) that the SNF must follow a defined process on how to file a request for reconsideration, which will be described in the notification. We would only consider requests for reconsideration after an SNF has been found to be noncompliant.
Notifications of noncompliance and any subsequent notifications from CMS would be sent via a traceable delivery method, such as certified U.S. mail or registered U.S. mail, or through other practicable notification processes, such as a report from CMS to the provider as a Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Reports (CASPER) report, that will provide information pertaining to their compliance with the reporting requirements for the given reporting cycle. To obtain the CASPER report, providers should access the CASPER
We seek comments on the most preferable delivery method for the notice of non-compliance, such as U.S. Mail, email, CASPER, etc.
We propose to disseminate communications regarding the availability of compliance reports in the CASPER reports through routine channels to SNFs and vendors, including, but not limited to issuing memos, emails, Medicare Learning Network (MLN) announcements, and notices on our SNF QRP Web site once it is available at
A SNF would have 30 days from the date of the initial notification of noncompliance to submit to us a request for reconsideration. This proposed time frame allows us to balance our desire to ensure that SNFs have the opportunity to request reconsideration with our need to complete the process and provide SNFs with our reconsideration decision in a timely manner. We are proposing that a SNF may withdraw its request at any time and may file an updated request within the proposed 30-day deadline. We are also proposing that, in very limited circumstances, we may grant a request by a SNF to extend the proposed deadline for reconsideration requests. It would be the responsibility of a SNF to request an extension and demonstrate that extenuating circumstances existed that prevented the filing of the reconsideration request by the proposed deadline.
We also are proposing that as part of the SNF's request for reconsideration, the SNF would be required to submit all supporting documentation and evidence demonstrating full compliance with all SNF QRP reporting requirements for the applicable fiscal year, that the SNF has requested an extension or exception for which a decision has not yet been made, that the SNF has been granted an extension or exception, or has experienced an extenuating circumstance as defined in section V.C.10 of this rule but failed to file a timely request of exception. We propose that we would not review any reconsideration request that fails to provide the necessary documentation and evidence along with the request.
The documentation and evidence may include copies of any communications that demonstrate the SNF's compliance with the SNF QRP, as well as any other records that support the SNF's rationale for seeking reconsideration, but should not include any protected health information (PHI). We intend to provide a sample list of acceptable supporting documentation and evidence, as well as instructions for SNFs on how to retrieve copies of the data submitted to CMS for the appropriate program year in the future on our SNF QRP Web site at
We are proposing that a SNF wishing to request a reconsideration of our initial noncompliance determination would be required to do so by submitting an email to the following email address:
All emails must contain a subject line that reads “SNF QRP Reconsideration Request.” Electronic email submission is the only form of reconsideration request submission that will be accepted by us. Any reconsideration requests communicated through another channel including, but not limited to, U.S. Postal Service or phone, will not be considered as a valid reconsideration request.
We are proposing that a reconsideration request include the following information:
• SNF CMS Certification Number (CCN);
• SNF Business Name;
• SNF Business Address;
• The CEO contact information including name, email address, telephone number and physical mailing address; or
The CEO-designated representative contact information including name, title, email address, telephone number and physical mailing address; and
• CMS identified reason(s) for non-compliance from the non-compliance notification; and
• The reason(s) for requesting reconsideration.
The request for reconsideration must be accompanied by supporting documentation demonstrating compliance. Following receipt of a request for reconsideration, we will provide an email acknowledgment, using the contact information provided in the reconsideration request, to the CEO or CEO-designated representative that the request has been received. Once we have reached a decision regarding the reconsideration request, an email will be sent to the SNF CEO or CEO-designated representative, using the contact information provided in the reconsideration request, notifying the SNF of our decision.
We also propose that the notifications of our decision regarding reconsideration requests may be made available through the use of CASPER reports or through a traceable delivery method, such as certified U.S. mail or registered U.S. mail. If the SNF is dissatisfied with the decision rendered at the reconsideration level, the SNF may appeal the decision to the PRRB under 42 CFR 405.1835. We believe this proposed process is more efficient and less costly for CMS and for SNFs because it decreases the number of PRRB appeals by resolving issues earlier in the process. Additional information about the reconsideration process including details for submitting a reconsideration request will be posted in the future to our SNF QRP Web site at
We invite public comment on the proposed procedures for reconsideration and appeals.
Section 1899B(g)(1) of the Act requires the Secretary to provide for the public reporting of SNF provider performance on the quality measures specified under subsection (c)(1) and the resource use and other measures specified under subsection (d)(1) by establishing procedures for making available to the public data and information on the performance of individual SNFs with respect to the measures. Under section 1899B(g)(2) of the Act, such procedures must be consistent with those under section 1886(b)(3)(B)(viii)(VII) of the Act and also allow SNFs the opportunity to review and submit corrections to the data and other information before it is made public. Section 1899B(g)(3) of the
Section 1899B(f) of the Act requires the Secretary to provide confidential feedback reports to post-acute care providers on their performance with respect to the measures specified under subsections (c)(1) and (d)(1), beginning 1 year after the specified application date that applies to such measures and PAC providers. We intend to provide detailed procedures to SNFs on how to obtain their confidential feedback reports on the SNF QRP Web site at
Section 1819(d)(1)(A) of the Act for SNFs and section 1919(d)(1)(A) of the Act for NFs each state that, in general, a facility must be administered in a manner that enables it to use its resources effectively and efficiently to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident. Sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act give the Secretary authority to issue rules, for SNFs and NFs respectively, relating to the health, safety and well-being of residents and relating to the physical facilities thereof.
Section 6106 of the Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-148, March 23, 2010) added a new section 1128I to the Act to promote greater accountability for LTC facilities (defined under section 1128I(a) of the Act as skilled nursing facilities and nursing facilities). Section 1128I(g) pertains to the submission of staffing data by LTC facilities, and specifies that the Secretary, after consulting with state long-term care ombudsman programs, consumer advocacy groups, provider stakeholder groups, employees and their representatives and other parties the Secretary deems appropriate, shall require a facility to electronically submit to the Secretary direct care staffing information, including information for agency and contract staff, based on payroll and other verifiable and auditable data in a uniform format according to specifications established by the Secretary in consultation with such programs, groups, and parties. The statute further requires that the specifications established by the Secretary specify the category of work a certified employee performs (such as whether the employee is a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, licensed vocational nurse, certified nursing assistant, therapist, or other medical personnel), include resident census data and information on resident case mix, be reported on a regular schedule, and include information on employee turnover and tenure and on the hours of care provided by each category of certified employees per resident per day. Section 1128I(g) of the Act establishes that the Secretary may require submission of information for specific categories, such as nursing staff, before other categories of certified employees, and requires that information for agency and contract staff be kept separate from information on employee staffing.
We have adopted a two-pronged strategy to comply with section 1128I(g) of the Act's consultation requirement. First, through this notice of proposed rulemaking, we are soliciting input from all interested parties, including, without limitation, state long-term care ombudsman programs, consumer advocacy groups, provider stakeholder groups, employees and their representatives. Second, we are engaged in ongoing consultation with the statutorily identified entities regarding the sub-regulatory reporting specifications that we will establish. For example, in 2012, we conducted a 6-month pilot in which facilities submitted staffing information electronically based on payroll data, and which allowed participants and other stakeholders to provide feedback on the computerized system we are considering using to collect data. Following the pilot, we continue to receive feedback on the collection and reporting of staffing information from stakeholders in anticipation of establishing the specifications for the required submission by all facilities. Over the next few months, we intend to increase the level of engagement with stakeholders, including industry associations, consumer advocacy groups, and long-term care facilities, to solicit their input on these specifications in advance of the proposed mandatory submission date. We anticipate activities to solicit feedback will include Open Door Forums, general question and answer sessions, and a voluntary submission period whereby facilities can submit staffing information on a voluntary basis to become familiar with the system and to provide feedback to CMS on systems issues in advance of the mandatory submission date. Through this proposed rule, we invite public comment on our proposed methods for consultation on the submission specifications.
We propose to modify current regulations applicable to LTC facilities that participate in Medicare and Medicaid to implement the new statutory requirement in section 1128I(g) of the Act. Specifically, we propose to amend the requirements for the administration of a LTC facility at § 483.75 by adding a new paragraph (u), Mandatory submission of staffing information based on payroll data in a uniform format.
The proposed regulation would require facilities to electronically submit to CMS complete and accurate direct care staffing information, including information for agency and contract staff, based on payroll and other verifiable and auditable data, beginning on July 1, 2016.
We are proposing to add a new § 483.75(u)(1) to establish the categories of information a facility must submit. This provision would implement the requirements in sections 1128I(g)(1), (2) and (4) of the Act, which require that a facility's submission of staffing information specify the category of work a certified employee performs, include resident census data and information on resident case mix, and include information on employee turnover and tenure and on the hours of care provided by each category of certified employees per resident per day. In keeping with Congress's clear intent, CMS is interpreting the statutory terms “Certified employee” and “employee” in section 1128Ig(1) and (4) of the Act to include contract and agency staff as well as direct employees.
The proposed rule also adopts certain approaches to minimize industry burden and duplication and to provide clarity for long-term care facilities that we believe are consistent with the intent, and meet the requirements, of the statute. For example, this rule does not propose to require the collection of resident case mix information as specified at section 1128I(g)(2) of the
Additionally, for purposes of implementing the statutory reporting requirements in section 1128I(g)(4) of the Act, we proposed text for the new § 483.75(u)(1)(iii) to specify that the staffing information a facility would need to submit must include each individual's start date, end date (if applicable) and hours worked. Although the statute does not specifically require reporting each individual's start and end dates, we believe that requiring submission of these data elements is necessary to satisfy section 1128I(g)(4) of the Act's requirement that facilities submit information on turnover and retention.
Finally, although the proposed text for the new § 483.75(u)(1)(iii) would require facilities to submit each individual's hours worked, we note that section 1128I(g)(4) of the Act requires LTC facilities to report on the hours of care provided by each category of certified employees per resident per day. We believe the obligation to submit information on “hours of care” is satisfied by requiring facilities to submit hours worked by staff. In contrast with the statutory reference to “direct care staffing information,” which we believe is intended to establish that information must be submitted for the categories of individuals who render direct care, we believe Congress's intent in referring to “hours of care” was to require submission of information regarding the hours worked by individuals in those categories of staff providing direct care services. One of the primary objectives of the statute is for facilities to submit staffing information that is based on payroll and other verifiable and auditable data. We believe that most payroll or employee time and attendance systems capture the hours worked by individuals, and do not typically distinguish between hours spent doing different tasks (unless the tasks require different levels of pay). If we were to assume that “hours or care” was a subset of the hours worked by individuals, we would not be able to verify or audit the data submitted. As such, we believe that requiring facilities to report data on hours worked will yield the information Congress intended regarding “hours of care provided.”
Under section 1128I(g) of the Act's requirement that information for agency and contract staff be kept separate from information on employee staffing, we are proposing to add a new § 483.75(u)(2) to establish that, when reporting direct care staffing information for an individual, a facility must specify whether the individual is an employee of the facility or is engaged by the facility as contract or agency staff. We believe the statute's intent is to require LTC facilities to submit staffing information in a manner that can enable us to distinguish those staff that are employed by the facility from those that are engaged by the facility under a contract or through an agency. We do not believe the statute requires such data to be submitted at separate times or through separate systems, which would merely engender unnecessary costs and burden, so we intend to collect all facility staffing information at the same time and through the same system, employing a mechanism by which LTC facilities will clearly specify whether staff members are employees of the facility, or engaged under contract or through an agency.
We are proposing to add a new § 483.75(u)(3) to establish that a facility must submit direct care staffing information in the format specified by CMS. This provision would implement the requirement in section 1128I(g) of the Act that facilities submit direct care staffing information in a uniform format. As noted, we are consulting with stakeholders on potential format specifications. The data that we propose be required to be submitted are similar to those already submitted by LTC facilities to CMS on the forms CMS-671 and CMS-672 (we intend for this proposed new information collection to eventually supplant the data collections via the CMS-671 and CMS-672). In advance of the proposed July 1, 2016 implementation date, we will publicize the established format specifications and will offer training to help facilities and other interested parties (for example, payroll vendors) prepare to meet the requirement.
Section 1128I(g)(3) of the Act requires that facilities submit direct care staffing information on a regular reporting schedule. LTC facilities now submit staffing information to CMS about once a year. Because staffing levels may change throughout the course of a year (based on, among other things, a facility's census and residents' needs), to have a more continuous and accurate reflection of facility staffing, we believe it is preferable for facilities to submit staffing information quarterly. Therefore, the proposed new § 483.75(u)(4) would establish that a facility must submit direct care staffing information on the schedule specified by CMS, but no less frequently than quarterly.
This proposed new § 483.75(u) would implement the provisions of section 1128I(g) of the Act as requirements a LTC facility must meet to qualify to participate as a SNF in the Medicare program or a NF in the Medicaid program. As such, we plan to enforce the requirements under this new regulation through 42 CFR part 488. Should a facility fail to meet the reporting requirements of, or report inaccurate information under, the proposed § 483.75(u), CMS or the state may impose one or more remedies available to address noncompliance with the requirements for LTC facilities.
This proposed rule would implement the new requirements regarding the submission of staffing information based on payroll and other verifiable and auditable data by establishing that such submissions are requirements that a LTC facility must meet to qualify to participate as a SNF in the Medicare program or a NF in the Medicaid program. While section 1128I(g) of the Act does not make explicit that submission of staffing information based on these data is a condition of participation for Medicare or Medicaid, we believe that it is implicitly authorized by the terms of section 6106 of the Affordable Care Act. Moreover, it is explicitly permitted by the general rulemaking authority of sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act, which permit the Secretary to issue rules relating to the health, safety and well-being of residents. It is critical for both CMS and consumers to have access to accurate LTC staffing information to evaluate the quality of care rendered by such facilities. Several studies have looked at the relationship between staffing and the quality of care delivered by long term care facilities, and it is clear that staffing has an impact on the quality of care received by residents. This new collection and reporting of staffing data should enable us to have greater insight on the relationship between staffing and quality, and can be
As indicated below, this rule only proposes information collection requirements that are exempt from the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Specifically, section V.D. of this preamble proposes to add § 483.75(u) to implement the provisions of section 1128I(g) of the Act as requirements a LTC facility must meet in order to qualify to participate as a SNF in the Medicare program or a NF in the Medicaid program. As such, nursing homes would be required to electronically submit direct care staffing information (including information with respect to agency and contract staff) based on payroll and other verifiable and auditable data. This requirement is exempt from the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) in accordance with the 1987 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) for SNF and NF information collection activities (Pub. L. 100-203, section 4204(b) and section 4214(d)). Under sections 4204(b) and 4214(d) of OBRA 1987, requirements related to the submission and retention of resident assessment data are not subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA).
Section V.C.5. of this preamble proposes the following three new quality measures for the SNF QRP beginning with the FY 2018 program year: Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers That Are New or Worsened (Short Stay) (NQF #0678), NQF-endorsed Percent of Residents Experiencing One or More Falls with Major Injury (Long Stay) (NQF #0674), and an application of the Percent of Long-Term Care Hospital Patients With an Admission and Discharge Functional Assessment and a Care Plan that Addresses Function (NQF #2631; under NQF review).
While the reporting of quality measures is an information collection, the requirement is exempt from the PRA in accordance with the IMPACT Act 2014. More specifically, section 1899B(m) and section 1899B(a)(2)(B) of the Act, exempt modifications that are intended to achieve the standardization of patient assessment data.
With regard to quality reporting during extraordinary circumstances, section V.C.10. of this rule proposes that SNFs may request an exception or extension from the FY 2018 payment determination and that of subsequent payment determinations. The request must be submitted by email within 90 days from the date that the extraordinary circumstances occurred.
While the preparation and submission of the request is an information collection, the requirement is exempt from the PRA in accordance with the IMPACT Act 2014. More specifically, section 1899B(m) of the Act and the sections referenced in section 1899B(a)(2)(B) of the Act, as added by the IMPACT Act 2014, exempt modifications that are intended to achieve the standardization of patient assessment data.
In section V.C.7.b. of this preamble we propose to require the collection of data—by means of a SNF PPS Part A Discharge Assessment—at the time of transition from a SNF PPS Part A stay; specifically, when the resident has not physically been discharged from the facility. Under this section we also propose to add data items to the scheduled Medicare required PPS Admission/Entry Assessment (5-day).
While the reporting of quality measures is an information collection, the requirements are exempt from the PRA in accordance with the IMPACT Act 2014. More specifically, section 1899B(m) of the Act and the sections referenced in subsection 1899B(a)(2)(B) of the Act, as added by the IMPACT Act 2014, exempt modifications that are intended to achieve the standardization of patient assessment data.
As discussed in section V.C.11. of this preamble, this rule proposes a process that will enable SNFs to request reconsideration of our initial non-compliance decision if the SNF believes that it was incorrectly identified as not having met its reporting requirements for the applicable fiscal year. Because the reconsideration and appeals requirements are associated with an administrative action (5 CFR 1320.4(a)(2) and (c)), they are exempt from the requirements of the PRA.
If you wish to comment on any of the aforementioned assumptions, please submit your comments as specified under the
Because of the large number of public comments we normally receive on
We have examined the impacts of this proposed rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January 18, 2011), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA, September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96-354), section 1102(b) of the Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA, March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999), and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been designated an economically significant rule, under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, we have prepared a regulatory impact analysis (RIA) as further discussed below. Also, the rule has been reviewed by OMB.
This proposed rule would update the SNF prospective payment rates for FY 2015 as required under section 1888(e)(4)(E) of the Act. It also responds to section 1888(e)(4)(H) of the Act, which requires the Secretary to provide for publication in the
This proposed rule sets forth proposed updates of the SNF PPS rates contained in the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2015 (79 FR 45628). Based on the above, we estimate that the aggregate impact would be an increase of $500
Certain events may occur to limit the scope or accuracy of our impact analysis, as this analysis is future-oriented and, thus, very susceptible to forecasting errors due to certain events that may occur within the assessed impact time period. Some examples of possible events may include newly-legislated general Medicare program funding changes by the Congress, or changes specifically related to SNFs. In addition, changes to the Medicare program may continue to be made as a result of previously-enacted legislation, or new statutory provisions. Although these changes may not be specific to the SNF PPS, the nature of the Medicare program is such that the changes may interact and, thus, the complexity of the interaction of these changes could make it difficult to predict accurately the full scope of the impact upon SNFs.
In accordance with sections 1888(e)(4)(E) and 1888(e)(5) of the Act, we update the FY 2015 payment rates by a factor equal to the market basket index percentage change adjusted by the FY 2014 forecast error and the MFP adjustment to determine the payment rates for FY 2016. As discussed previously, for FY 2012 and each subsequent FY, as required by section 1888(e)(5)(B) of the Act as amended by section 3401(b) of the Affordable Care Act, the market basket percentage is reduced by the MFP adjustment. The special AIDS add-on established by section 511 of the MMA remains in effect until such date as the Secretary certifies that there is an appropriate adjustment in the case mix. We have not provided a separate impact analysis for the MMA provision. Our latest estimates indicate that there are fewer than 4,800 beneficiaries who qualify for the add-on payment for residents with AIDS. The impact to Medicare is included in the total column of Table 12. In updating the SNF PPS rates for FY 2016, we made a number of standard annual revisions and clarifications mentioned elsewhere in this proposed rule (for example, the update to the wage and market basket indexes used for adjusting the federal rates).
The annual update set forth in this proposed rule applies to SNF PPS payments in FY 2016. Accordingly, the analysis that follows only describes the impact of this single year. In accordance with the requirements of the Act, we will publish a notice or rule for each subsequent FY that will provide for an update to the SNF PPS payment rates and include an associated impact analysis.
In accordance with sections 1888(g) and (h)(2)(A) of the Act, we are proposing to specify a Skilled Nursing Facility 30-Day All-Cause Readmission Measure (SNFRM) and adopt that measure for the SNF VBP Program. Because this proposed measure is claims-based, its adoption under the SNF VBP Program would not result in any increased costs to SNFs.
However, we do not yet have preliminary data with which we could project economic impacts associated with the measure. We intend to make additional proposals for the SNF VBP Program in future rulemaking, and we will assess the impacts of the SNFRM and any associated SNF VBP Program proposals at that time.
We believe that the burden associated with the SNF QRP is the time and effort associated with data collection and reporting. In this proposed rule, we propose three quality measures to meet the requirements of section 1888(e)(6)(B)(II) of the Act.
Our burden calculations take into account all “new” items required on the MDS 3.0 to support data collection and reporting for these three proposed measures. New items will be included on the following assessments: SNF PPS 5-Day, Swing Bed PPS 5-Day, OMRA—Start of Therapy Discharge, OMRA—Other Discharge, OBRA Discharge, Swing Bed OMRA—Start of Therapy Discharge, Swing Bed OMRA—Other Discharge, and Swing Bed Discharge on the MDS 3.0. The SNF QRP also requires the addition of a SNF PPS Part A Discharge Assessment which will also include new items. New items include data elements required to identify whether pressure ulcers were present on admission, to inform future development of the Percent of Residents or Patients with Pressure Ulcers That Are New or Worsened (Short Stay) (NQF #0678), as well as changes in function and occurrence of falls with major injury. To the extent applicable, we will use standardized items to collect data for the three measures. For a copy of the data collection instrument, please visit:
We estimate a total additional burden of $27.47 per Medicare-covered SNF stay, based on the most recent data available, in this case FY 2014, that 15,421 SNFs had a total of 2,599,656 Medicare-covered stays for fee-for-service beneficiaries. This would equate to 1,012,566.13 total added hours or 66 hours per SNF annually.
We believe that the additional MDS items we are proposing will be completed by Registered Nurses (RN), Occupational Therapists (OT), and/or Physical Therapists (PT), depending on the item. We identified the staff type per item based on past LTCH and IRF burden calculations in conjunction with expert opinion. Our assumptions for staff type was based on the categories generally necessary to perform assessment: Registered Nurse (RN), Occupational Therapy (OT), and Physical Therapy (PT). Individual providers determine the staffing resources necessary, therefore, we averaged the national average for these labor types and established a composite cost estimate. We obtained mean hourly wages for these staff from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics' May 2013 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates (
To calculate the added burden, we first identified the total number of new items to be added into assessment instruments. We assume that each new item accounts for 0.5 minutes of nursing facility staff time. This assumption is consistent with burden calculations in past IRF and LTCH federal regulations. For each staff type, we then multiply the added burden in minutes with the number of times we believe that each item will be completed annually. To identify the number of times an item would be completed annually, we noted the number of total SNF FFS Medicare-covered stays in FY 2014, the most recent data available to us. We assume that if an item was added to all discharge assessments that that item would be completed at least one time per SNF FFS Medicare-covered stay. For example, the time it takes to complete an item added to all discharge
The FY 2016 SNF PPS payment impacts appear in Table 12. Using the most recently available data, in this case FY 2014, we apply the current FY 2015 wage index and labor-related share value to the number of payment days to simulate FY 2015 payments. Then, using the same FY 2014 data, we apply the proposed FY 2016 wage index and labor-related share value to simulate FY 2015 payments. We tabulate the resulting payments according to the classifications in Table 12 (for example, facility type, geographic region, facility ownership), and compare the difference between current and proposed payments to determine the overall impact. The breakdown of the various categories of data in the table follows.
The first column shows the breakdown of all SNFs by urban or rural status, hospital-based or freestanding status, census region, and ownership.
The first row of figures describes the estimated effects of the various changes on all facilities. The next six rows show the effects on facilities split by hospital-based, freestanding, urban, and rural categories. The next nineteen rows show the effects on facilities by urban versus rural status by census region. The last three rows show the effects on facilities by ownership (that is, government, profit, and non-profit status).
The second column shows the number of facilities in the impact database.
The third column shows the effect of the annual update to the wage index. This represents the effect of using the most recent wage data available. The total impact of this change is zero percent; however, there are distributional effects of the change.
The fourth column shows the effect of all of the changes on the FY 2016 payments. The update of 1.4 percent (consisting of the market basket increase of 2.6 percentage points, reduced by the 0.6 percentage point forecast error adjustment and further reduced by the 0.6 percentage point MFP adjustment) is constant for all providers and, though not shown individually, is included in the total column. It is projected that aggregate payments will increase by 1.4 percent, assuming facilities do not change their care delivery and billing practices in response.
As illustrated in Table 12, the combined effects of all of the changes vary by specific types of providers and by location. For example, due to changes proposed in this rule, providers in the rural Pacific region would experience a 1.6 percent increase in FY 2016 total payments.
As described in this section, we estimate that the aggregate impact for FY 2016 would be an increase of $500 million in payments to SNFs, resulting from the SNF market basket update to the payment rates, as adjusted by the applicable forecast error adjustment and by the MFP adjustment.
Section 1888(e) of the Act establishes the SNF PPS for the payment of Medicare SNF services for cost reporting periods beginning on or after July 1, 1998. This section of the statute prescribes a detailed formula for calculating payment rates under the SNF PPS, and does not provide for the use of any alternative methodology. It specifies that the base year cost data to be used for computing the SNF PPS payment rates must be from FY 1995 (October 1, 1994, through September 30, 1995). In accordance with the statute, we also incorporated a number of elements into the SNF PPS (for example, case-mix classification methodology, a market basket index, a wage index, and the urban and rural distinction used in the development or adjustment of the federal rates). Further, section 1888(e)(4)(H) of the Act specifically requires us to disseminate the payment rates for each new FY through the
As required by OMB Circular A-4 (available online at
This proposed rule sets forth updates of the SNF PPS rates contained in the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2015 (79 FR 45628). Based on the above, we estimate the overall estimated payments for SNFs in FY 2016 are projected to increase by $500 million, or 1.4 percent, compared with those in FY 2015. We estimate that in FY 2016 under RUG-IV, SNFs in urban and rural areas would experience, on average, a 1.5 and 0.8 percent increase, respectively, in estimated payments compared with FY 2015. Providers in the urban New England and Middle Atlantic regions would experience the largest estimated increase in payments of approximately 2.1 percent. Providers in the urban Outlying region would experience a small decrease in payments of 0.1 percent.
The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities, if a rule has a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, non-profit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. Most SNFs and most other providers and suppliers are small entities, either by reason of their non-profit status or by having revenues of $27.5 million or less in any 1 year. We utilized the revenues of individual SNF providers (from recent Medicare Cost Reports) to classify a small business, and not the revenue of a larger firm with which they may be affiliated. As a result, we estimate approximately 91 percent of SNFs are considered small businesses according to the Small Business Administration's latest size standards (NAICS 623110), with total revenues of $27.5 million or less in any 1 year. (For details, see the Small Business Administration's Web site at
This proposed rule sets forth updates of the SNF PPS rates contained in the SNF PPS final rule for FY 2015 (79 FR 45628). Based on the above, we estimate that the aggregate impact would be an increase of $500 million in payments to SNFs, resulting from the SNF market basket update to the payment rates, as adjusted by the MFP adjustment and forecast error adjustment. While it is projected in Table 12 that most providers would experience a net increase in payments, we note that some individual providers within the same region or group may experience different impacts on payments than others due to the distributional impact of the FY 2016 wage indexes and the degree of Medicare utilization.
Guidance issued by the Department of Health and Human Services on the proper assessment of the impact on small entities in rulemakings, utilizes a cost or revenue impact of 3 to 5 percent as a significance threshold under the RFA. According to MedPAC, Medicare covers approximately 12 percent of total patient days in freestanding facilities and 22 percent of facility revenue (Report to the Congress: Medicare Payment Policy, March 2015, available at
In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2015, that threshold is approximately $144 million. This proposed rule would not impose spending costs on state, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $144 million.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it issues a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on state and local governments, preempts state law, or otherwise has federalism implications. This proposed rule would have no substantial direct effect on state and local governments, preempt state law, or otherwise have federalism implications.
This proposed regulation is subject to the Congressional Review Act provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this proposed rule was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
Grant programs—health, Health facilities, Health professions, Health records, Medicaid, Medicare, Nursing homes, Nutrition, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services proposes to amend 42 CFR chapter IV as set forth below:
Secs. 1102, 1128I, 1819, 1871 and 1919 of the Social Security Act, (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1320a-7, 1395i, 1395hh and 1396r).
(u)
(1)
(i) The category of work for each individual that performs direct care (including, but not limited to, whether the individual is a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, licensed vocational nurse, certified nursing assistant, therapist, or other type of medical personnel as specified by CMS);
(ii) Resident census data; and
(iii) Information on staff turnover and tenure, and on the hours of care provided by each category of staff per resident per day (including, but not limited to, start date, end date (as applicable), and hours worked for each individual).
(2)
(3)
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Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |