Page Range | 44207-44487 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 44485 - United States Policy on Pre- and Post-Strike Measures To Address Civilian Casualties in U.S. Operations Involving the Use of Force | |
81 FR 44220 - Ocean Disposal; Amendments to Restrictions on Use of Dredged Material Disposal Sites in the Central and Western Regions of Long Island Sound; Connecticut | |
81 FR 44260 - Initiation of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Administrative Reviews | |
81 FR 44303 - Production of Confidential Business Information in Pending Enforcement Litigation; Transfer of Information Claimed as Confidential Business Information to the United States Department of Justice and Parties to Certain Litigation | |
81 FR 44301 - Proposed Consent Decree, Clean Air Act Citizen Suit | |
81 FR 44274 - Brass Sheet and Strip From Germany: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Final Determination of No Shipments; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 44408 - GPS Adjacent Band Compatibility Assessment Testing | |
81 FR 44309 - Notice of Tribal Consultation and Urban Confer Sessions on the State of the Great Plains Area Indian Health Service; Correction | |
81 FR 44277 - Stainless Steel Sheet and Strip From the People's Republic of China: Postponement of Preliminary Determination of Antidumping Duty Investigation | |
81 FR 44303 - National Environmental Justice Advisory Council; Notification of Public Teleconference and Public Comment | |
81 FR 44400 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 2 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 2, To Require Listed Companies to Publicly Disclose Compensation or Other Payments by Third Parties to Board of Director's Members or Nominees | |
81 FR 44390 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Miami International Securities Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the MIAX Options Fee Schedule | |
81 FR 44300 - Charter Renewal of Department of Defense Federal Advisory Committees | |
81 FR 44314 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Fair Housing Initiatives Program Grant Application and Monitoring Reports | |
81 FR 44313 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Enterprise Income Verification (EIV) Systems User Access Authorization Form and Rules of Behavior and User Agreement | |
81 FR 44315 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Enterprise Income Verification (EIV) Systems-Debts Owed to Public Housing Agencies and Terminations | |
81 FR 44409 - Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 44277 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to the U.S. Air Force 86 Fighter Weapons Squadron Conducting Long Range Strike Weapon Systems Evaluation Program at the Pacific Missile Range Facility at Kauai, Hawaii | |
81 FR 44230 - Policy for Credentialing Officers of Towing Vessels | |
81 FR 44379 - Security-Based Swap Data Repositories; DTCC Data Repository (U.S.) LLC; Notice of Filing of Application for Registration as a Security-Based Swap Data Repository | |
81 FR 44353 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Add Interpretation and Policy .01 to Rule 16.1 To Specify the Calculation Methodology for Counting Professional Orders | |
81 FR 44372 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Partial Amendment No. 2 to Proposed Rule Change To Adopt FINRA Capital Acquisition Broker Rules | |
81 FR 44359 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend FINRA Rule 7730 (Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE)) | |
81 FR 44339 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade Shares of the JPMorgan Diversified Event Driven ETF Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 | |
81 FR 44299 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 44333 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS), Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittee on Plant Operations and Fire Protection; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 44335 - Tennessee Valley Authority, Watts Bar Nuclear Plant, Unit 2 | |
81 FR 44333 - Reno Creek In Situ Uranium Recovery Project in Campbell County, Wyoming | |
81 FR 44328 - Notice of Meeting for Captain John Smith Chesapeake National Historic Trail Advisory Council | |
81 FR 44327 - Notice of the September to December 2016 Meeting Schedule for the Gateway National Recreation Area Fort Hancock 21st Century Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 44406 - Florida Central Railroad Company, Inc.-Discontinuance of Service Exemption-in Lake County, Fla. | |
81 FR 44320 - John H. Chafee Coastal Barrier Resources System; Bay and Gulf Counties, FL; Middlesex and Monmouth Counties, NJ; Availability of Draft Maps and Request for Comments | |
81 FR 44301 - Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Savannah River Site | |
81 FR 44406 - Consent Based Social Security Number Verification (CBSV) Service | |
81 FR 44331 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Benzene Standard | |
81 FR 44332 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Trade Activity Participant Report | |
81 FR 44330 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Personal Protective Equipment for General Industry | |
81 FR 44337 - New Postal Products | |
81 FR 44271 - Environmental Technologies Trade Advisory Committee Public Meeting | |
81 FR 44260 - Siskiyou County Resource Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 44326 - Filing of Plats of Survey: California | |
81 FR 44325 - Notice of Public Meeting: Resource Advisory Council (RAC) to the Boise District, Bureau of Land Management, U.S. Department of the Interior | |
81 FR 44322 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Availability of Proposed Low-Effect Habitat Conservation Plans, Lake, County, FL | |
81 FR 44324 - Upper Great Plains Wind Energy Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement; Record of Decision | |
81 FR 44316 - Notice of Intent To Prepare a Draft Environmental Impact Statement for the Kauai Island Utility Cooperative Long-Term Habitat Conservation Plan, Kauai, Hawaii | |
81 FR 44337 - Order Extending a Temporary Exemption From Compliance With Rules 13n-1 to 13n-12 Under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 | |
81 FR 44300 - Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Northern New Mexico | |
81 FR 44335 - Privacy Act of 1974; Revised System of Records | |
81 FR 44305 - Seeking Input on the Public Release of Data Collected Through Transactional Data Reporting | |
81 FR 44329 - Dioctyl Terephthalate (DOTP) From Korea; Institution of Antidumping Duty Investigation and Scheduling of Preliminary Phase Investigation | |
81 FR 44326 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
81 FR 44272 - Certain Frozen Fish Fillets From the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Final Results of Antidumping Duty New Shipper Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 44270 - Carbon Steel Butt-Weld Pipe Fittings From Brazil, Japan, Taiwan, Thailand, and the People's Republic of China: Final Results of the Expedited Sunset Reviews of the Antidumping Duty Orders | |
81 FR 44328 - Finished Carbon Steel Flanges From India, Italy, and Spain; Institution of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Investigations and Scheduling of Preliminary Phase Investigations | |
81 FR 44312 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 44310 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 44275 - Certain Frozen Warmwater Shrimp From Brazil, India, the People's Republic of China and Thailand: Final Results of the Expedited Second Sunset Reviews of the Antidumping Duty Orders | |
81 FR 44308 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 44259 - Notice of a Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
81 FR 44258 - Notice of a Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
81 FR 44212 - Standards of Performance for Stationary Compression Ignition Internal Combustion Engines | |
81 FR 44328 - Alloy Magnesium From China; Determination | |
81 FR 44310 - National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 44310 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 44309 - Center for Scientific Review: Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 44338 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 44356 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 44395 - Lord Abbett Family of Funds and Lord, Abbett & Co. LLC; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 44365 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 44395 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 44366 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Provide a Process for an Expedited Suspension Proceeding and Adopt a Rule To Prohibit Disruptive Quoting and Trading Activity | |
81 FR 44338 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change Regarding Use of Rule 144A Securities By the Fidelity Corporate Bond ETF, Fidelity Investment Grade Bond ETF, Fidelity Limited Term Bond ETF, and Fidelity Total Bond ETF | |
81 FR 44388 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Fixed Income Clearing Corporation; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change To Suspend the Interbank Service of the GCF Repo® Service | |
81 FR 44357 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Credit LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Revise the ICC Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures | |
81 FR 44393 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade Shares of the Natixis Seeyond International Minimum Volatility ETF Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 | |
81 FR 44404 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; International Securities Exchange, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Penny Pilot Program | |
81 FR 44377 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ISE Mercury, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Penny Pilot Program | |
81 FR 44393 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ISE Gemini, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Penny Pilot Program | |
81 FR 44349 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Relating to Professionals Order Counting | |
81 FR 44373 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change to the Professional Designation | |
81 FR 44363 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Amending Rules 340, 341, and 359 To Extend the Time Within Which a Member or Member Organization or an ATP Holder Must File a Uniform Termination Notice for Securities Industry Registration | |
81 FR 44209 - Safety Zone; Southern California Annual Fireworks for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone | |
81 FR 44249 - Pacific Island Pelagic Fisheries; 2016 U.S. Territorial Longline Bigeye Tuna Catch Limits | |
81 FR 44304 - T. Parker Host, Inc. v. Kinder Morgan Liquids Terminals, LLC, et al.: Notice of Filing of Complaint and Assignment | |
81 FR 44304 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
81 FR 44298 - Marine Mammals; Pinniped Removal Authority; Approval of Application | |
81 FR 44210 - Air Plan Approval and Air Quality Designation; TN; Redesignation of the Sullivan County Lead Nonattainment Area to Attainment | |
81 FR 44409 - Surety Companies Acceptable on Federal Bonds-Non-Renewal: Greenwich Insurance Company | |
81 FR 44306 - Submission for OMB Review; Bankruptcy | |
81 FR 44307 - Information Collection; Termination Settlement Proposal Forms-FAR (SF 1435 Through 1440) | |
81 FR 44407 - Public Hearing | |
81 FR 44231 - Television Broadcasting Services; Cordele, Georgia | |
81 FR 44409 - Cost-Based and Inter-Agency Billing Rates for Medical Care or Services Provided by the Department of Veterans Affairs | |
81 FR 44241 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 44246 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 44251 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Observer Coverage Requirements for Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area Trawl Catcher Vessels | |
81 FR 44232 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 44235 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 44238 - Airworthiness Directives; Embraer S.A. Airplanes | |
81 FR 44207 - Airworthiness Directives; Textron Aviation Inc. Airplanes | |
81 FR 44244 - Airworthiness Directives; REIMS AVIATION S.A. Airplanes | |
81 FR 44271 - Cyber Security Trade Mission to Turkey | |
81 FR 44456 - Medicare Program: Expanding Uses of Medicare Data by Qualified Entities | |
81 FR 44414 - Connect America Fund, ETC Annual Reports and Certifications, Rural Broadband Experiments |
Foreign Agricultural Service
Forest Service
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Army Department
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Indian Health Service
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Federal Aviation Administration
Fiscal Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.thefederalregister.org and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2008-15-06 for certain Textron Aviation Inc. Models 175 and 175A airplanes (type certificate previously held by Cessna Aircraft Company). AD 2008-15-06 required checking the airplane logbook to determine if the original engine mounting brackets had been replaced. If the original engine mounting brackets were still installed, the AD required repetitively inspecting those brackets for cracks and replacing any cracked engine mounting bracket until all four original engine mounting brackets were replaced. Replacing all four original engine mounting brackets terminated the actions required in AD 2008-15-06. Since we issued AD 2008-15-06, we have determined that the applicability needs to be changed to add one serial number and remove another. This new AD retains the actions required in AD 2008-15-06 and changes the Applicability section. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective August 11, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain other publication listed in this AD as of September 2, 2008 (73 FR 43845, July 29, 2008).
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Cessna Aircraft Company, Product Support, P.O. Box 7706, Wichita, Kansas 67277; telephone: (316) 517-5800; fax: (316) 942-9006; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Gary Park, Aerospace Engineer, Wichita Aircraft Certification Office, 1801 Airport Road, Room 100, Wichita, Kansas 67209; telephone: (316) 946-4123; fax: (316) 946-4107, email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2008-15-06, Amendment 39-15618 (73 FR 43845, July 29, 2008), (“AD 2008-15-06”). AD 2008-15-06 applied to certain Textron Aviation Inc. Models 175 and 175A airplanes (type certificate previously held by Cessna Aircraft Company). The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (81 FR 21501, April 12, 2016) or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (81 FR 21501, April 12, 2016) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (81 FR 21501, April 12, 2016).
We reviewed Cessna Single Engine Service Bulletin SEB07-2, Revision 2, dated June 18, 2007. The service information describes procedures for inspecting the upper and lower engine mounting brackets on both the left and right sides for cracks and replacing cracked engine mounting brackets. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD will affect 1,218 airplanes in the U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to do each inspection:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements:
There is no estimated cost of compliance difference between this AD and AD 2008-15-06 since there is no change in the number of affected airplanes or in the required actions. The cost impact on the public will be in the removal of serial number 691 and the addition of serial number 619.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective August 11, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 2008-15-06, Amendment 39-15618 (73 FR 43845, July 29, 2008) (“AD 2008-15-06”).
This AD applies to the Textron Aviation Inc. airplane models and serial numbers (type certificate previously held by Cessna Aircraft Company) that are certificated in any category listed in Table 1 to paragraph (c) of this AD. The new airplane affected by this AD is model number 175A, serial number 619, manufactured in 1960.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC)/Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 71, Power Plant.
This AD was prompted by the determination that one airplane needs to be added and another airplane needs to be removed from the Applicability section. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks in the engine mounting brackets, which could result in failure of the engine mounting bracket. This failure could lead to the engine detaching from the firewall.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Check the airplane logbook to determine if all four of the original engine mounting brackets have been replaced. Do the logbook check at the following compliance time, as applicable. The owner/operator holding at least a private pilot certificate as authorized by section 43.7 may do this action.
(i)
(ii)
(2) If you can positively determine that all four of the original engine mounting brackets have been replaced, no further action is required. Make an entry into the airplane logbook showing compliance with this portion of the AD in accordance with 14 CFR 43.9. The owner/operator holding at least a private pilot certificate as authorized by section 43.7 may do this action.
(3) If you cannot positively determine that all four of the original engine mounting brackets have been replaced, inspect each of the upper and lower engine mounting brackets on both the left and right sides for cracks following Cessna Single Engine Service Bulletin SEB07-2, Revision 2, dated June 18, 2007. Do the inspections at the following compliance times, as applicable.
(i)
(ii)
If cracks are found in any of the engine mounting brackets during any inspection required in paragraph (g)(3) of this AD, including all subparagraphs, before further flight after the inspection in which cracks are found, replace the cracked engine mounting bracket(s) following Cessna Single Engine Service Bulletin SEB07-2, Revision 2, dated June 18, 2007. Replacing the cracked engine mounting bracket terminates the repetitive inspections required in paragraphs (g)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD only for the replaced engine mounting bracket.
To terminate the repetitive inspections required in paragraphs (g)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD, you may replace all four original engine mounting brackets following Cessna Single Engine Service Bulletin SEB07-2, Revision 2, dated June 18, 2007.
(1) The Manager, Wichita Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) AMOCs approved for AD 2008-15-06 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
For more information about this AD, contact Gary Park, Aerospace Engineer, Wichita ACO, 1801 Airport Road, Room 100, Wichita, Kansas 67209; telephone: (316) 946-4123; fax: (316) 946-4107, email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on September 2, 2008 (73 FR 43845, July 29, 2008).
(i) Cessna Single Engine Service Bulletin SEB07-2, Revision 2, dated June 18, 2007.
(ii) Reserved.
(4) For Cessna Aircraft Company service information identified in this AD, contact Cessna Aircraft Company, Product Support, P.O. Box 7706, Wichita, Kansas 67277; telephone: (316) 517-5800; fax: (316) 942-9006; Internet:
(5) You may view this service information at FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148. In addition, you can access this service information on the Internet at
(6) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce a safety zone for the San Diego, CA POPS Fireworks Display on the waters of San Diego Bay, CA on specific evenings from July 1, 2016 to September 4, 2016. This safety zone is necessary to provide for the safety of the participants, spectators, official vessels of the events, and general users of the waterway. Our regulation for the southern California annual fireworks for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone identifies the regulated area for the events. During the enforcement period, no spectators shall anchor, block, loiter in, or impede the transit of official patrol vessels in the regulated area without the approval of the Captain of the Port, or designated representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1123 will be enforced from 9:00 p.m. through 10:00 p.m. on July 1 through July 3, July 8 and July 9, July 15 and July 16, July 29 and July 30, August 5 and August 6, August 12 and August 13, August 20, August 26 and August 27 and September 1 through September 4, 2016 for Item 1 in Table 1 of 33 CFR 165.1123.
If you have questions on this publication, call or email Petty Officer Randolph Pahilanga, Waterways Management, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Diego, CA; telephone 619-278-7656, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the regulations in 33 CFR 165.1123 for a safety zone on the waters of San Diego Bay, CA for the San Diego, CA POPS Fireworks Display in 33 CFR 165.1123, Table 1, Item 1 of that section, from 9:00 p.m. through 10:00 p.m. on specific evenings from July 1, 2016 to September 4, 2016. This enforcement action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during the fireworks events. Our regulation for southern California annual fireworks events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone identifies the regulated entities for the events. Under the provisions of 33 CFR 165.1123, a vessel may not enter the regulated area, unless it receives permission from the Captain of the Port, or his designated representative. Spectator vessels may safely transit outside the regulated area but may not anchor, block, loiter, or impede the transit of participants or official patrol vessels. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, state, or local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.
This document is issued under authority of 33 CFR 165.1123 and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this document in the
If the Captain of the Port or his designated representative determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated on this document, he or she may use a Broadcast Notice to Mariners or other communications coordinated with the event sponsor to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Final rule.
On July 15, 2015, the State of Tennessee, through the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation (TDEC), submitted a request for the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to redesignate the Bristol, Tennessee 2008 lead nonattainment area (hereafter referred to as the “Bristol Area” or the “Area”) to attainment for the 2008 lead National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and an associated State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision containing a maintenance plan and a reasonably available control measures (RACM) determination for the Area. EPA is taking the following separate final actions related to the July 15, 2015, redesignation request and SIP revision: Determining that the Bristol Area is continuing to attain the 2008 lead NAAQS; approving and incorporating into the SIP the State's plan for maintaining attainment of the 2008 lead standard; approving and incorporating into the SIP the State's RACM determination; and redesignating the Bristol Area to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS.
This rule will be effective August 8, 2016.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R04-OAR-2012-0323. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Sean Lakeman of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Lakeman may be reached by phone at (404) 562-9043 or via electronic mail at
On November 12, 2008, EPA promulgated a revised primary and secondary lead NAAQS of 0.15 micrograms per cubic meter (μg/m
EPA designated the Bristol Area as a nonattainment area for the 2008 lead NAAQS on November 22, 2010 (effective December 31, 2010), using 2007-2009 ambient air quality data.
In a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) published on April 26, 2016 (81 FR 24536), EPA proposed to approve four separate but related actions: (1) To approve Tennessee's RACM determination for the Bristol Area pursuant to Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) section 172(c)(1) into the SIP; (2) to determine that the Area is continuing to attain the 2008 lead NAAQS; (3) to approve Tennessee's maintenance plan for maintaining the 2008 lead NAAQS in the Area into the SIP; and (4) to
Approval of Tennessee's redesignation request changes the legal designation of the Bristol Area, found at 40 CFR 81.343, from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS. Approval of Tennessee's associated SIP revision also incorporates a plan into the SIP for maintaining the 2008 lead NAAQS in the Sullivan County (Bristol Area), Tennessee, through 2025 and a RACM determination for the Area.
EPA is taking a number of final actions regarding Tennessee's July 15, 2015, request to redesignate the Bristol Area to attainment and associated SIP revision. First, EPA is determining that the State's Subpart 1 RACM determination for the Area meets the requirements of CAA section 172(c)(1) and incorporating this RACM determination into the SIP.
Second, EPA is determining, based upon review of quality-assured and certified ambient monitoring data for the 2012-2014 period and upon review of preliminary data in Air Quality System for 2015, that the Area continues to attain the 2008 lead NAAQS following EPA's August 29, 2012, determination of attainment.
Third, EPA is approving the maintenance plan for the Area and incorporating it into the SIP.
Fourth, EPA is approving Tennessee's request for redesignation of the Area from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS. As mentioned above, approval of the redesignation request changes the official designation of the Bristol Area from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS.
Under the CAA, redesignation of an area to attainment and the accompanying approval of a maintenance plan under section 107(d)(3)(E) are actions that affect the status of a geographical area and do not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those imposed by state law. A redesignation to attainment does not in and of itself create any new requirements, but rather results in the applicability of requirements contained in the CAA for areas that have been redesignated to attainment. Moreover, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Are not economically significant regulatory actions based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Are not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Will not have disproportionate human health or environmental effects under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by September 6, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is finalizing amendments to the standards of performance for stationary compression ignition (CI) internal combustion engines to allow manufacturers to design the engines so that operators can temporarily override performance inducements related to the emission control system for stationary CI internal combustion engines. The amendments apply to engines operating during emergency situations where the operation of the engine or equipment is needed to protect human life, and to require compliance with Tier 1 emission standards during such emergencies. The EPA is also amending the standards of performance for certain stationary CI internal combustion engines located in remote areas of Alaska.
This final rule is effective on September 6, 2016.
Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available (
In addition to being available in the docket, an electronic copy of this final rule will be available on the World Wide Web (WWW). Following signature, a copy of this final rule will be posted at the following address:
Ms. Melanie King, Energy Strategies Group, Sector Policies and Programs Division (D243-01), Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-2469; facsimile number: (919) 541-5450; email address:
On July 11, 2006, the EPA promulgated standards of performance for stationary CI internal combustion engines (71 FR 39154). These standards, known as new source performance standards (NSPS), implement section 111(b) of the Clean Air Act, and are issued for categories of sources that cause, or contribute significantly to, air pollution that may reasonably be anticipated to endanger public health or welfare. The standards are codified at 40 CFR part 60 subpart IIII. The standards apply to new stationary sources of emissions,
In 2011, the EPA finalized revisions to the NSPS for stationary CI engines that amended the standards for engines with a displacement greater than 10 liters per cylinder, and also for engines located in remote areas of Alaska (76 FR 37954, June 28, 2011). In this action, the EPA is finalizing amendments to the NSPS regarding performance inducements for Tier 4 engines and the criteria for defining remote areas of Alaska. The final amendments are discussed below.
Many Tier 4 final engines are equipped by the engine manufacturer with selective catalytic reduction (SCR) to reduce emissions of NO
The final amendments allow engine manufacturers to design into their stationary CI engines a dormant AECD that can be activated for up to 120 engine hours per use during a qualified emergency situation to prevent emission controls from interfering with engine operation. The EPA is finalizing amendments that allow engine manufacturers to offer, and operators to request, re-activations of the AECD for additional time in increments of 120 engine hours in cases of a prolonged emergency situation. During the emergency situation, the engine must meet the Tier 1 emission standard in 40 CFR 89.112 that applies to the engine's rated power. Operators activating the AECD will be required to report the incident to the engine manufacturers, and engine manufacturers will submit an annual report to the EPA summarizing the use of these AECDs during the prior year. These final amendments are discussed in more detail below.
The EPA is using the definition of qualified emergency situation established in the August 8, 2014, amendments for nonroad engines. This definition is found in the introductory text to 40 CFR 1039.665 and is cross-referenced in the NSPS for stationary CI internal combustion engines, specifically in 40 CFR 60.4204(f). The definition specifies that a qualified emergency situation is one in which the condition of an engine's emission controls poses a significant direct or indirect risk to human life. An example
Section 1039.665 specifies provisions allowing for AECDs that are necessary to ensure proper function of engines and equipment in emergency situations. It also includes specific criteria that the engine manufacturer must meet to ensure that any adverse environmental impacts are minimized. These criteria are cross-referenced in the NSPS for stationary CI engines and are as follows:
• The AECD must be designed so that it cannot be activated more than once without the specific permission of the certificate holder. Reactivation of the AECD must require the input of a temporary code or equivalent security feature.
• The AECD must become inactive within 120 engine hours of becoming active. The engine must also include a feature that allows the operator to deactivate the AECD once the emergency is over.
• The manufacturer must show that the AECD deactivates emission controls (such as inducement strategies) only to the extent necessary to address the expected emergency situation.
• The engine controls must be configured to record in non-volatile electronic memory the total number of activations of the AECD for each engine.
• The manufacturer must take appropriate additional steps to induce operators to report AECD activation and request resetting of the AECD. The EPA recommends including one or more persistent visible and/or audible alarms that are active from the point when the AECD is activated to the point when it is reset.
• The manufacturer must provide purchasers with instructions on how to activate the AECD in emergency situations, as well as information about penalties for overuse.
The EPA is requiring stationary CI engines to meet different emission standards for the very narrow period of operation where there is an emergency situation with a risk to human life and the owner or operator is warned that the inducement is about to occur. The emission standards that apply when the AECD is activated during the qualified emergency situation are the Tier 1 standards in 40 CFR 89.112. Engine manufacturers indicated that meeting the Tier 2 or 3 standards in 40 CFR 89.112 is not feasible because the base engine used in Tier 4 configurations does not have exhaust gas recirculation (EGR), which is the engine design technology used to meet the Tier 2 and 3 standards. The EGR is not needed for Tier 4 because NO
Manufacturers may ask for approval of the use of emergency AECDs at any time; however, the EPA encourages manufacturers to obtain preliminary approval before submitting an application for certification. Otherwise, the EPA's review of the AECD, which may include many unique features, may delay the approval of the application for certification.
The manufacturer is required to keep records to document the use of emergency AECDs until the end of the calendar year 5 years after the onset of the relevant emergency situation. The manufacturer must submit an annual compliance report to the EPA within 90 calendar days of the end of each calendar year in which it authorizes use of an AECD. The annual report must include a description of each AECD activation and copies of the reports submitted by owners or operators (or statements that an owner or operator did not submit a report, to the extent of the manufacturer's knowledge). If an owner or operator fails to report the use of an emergency AECD to the manufacturer, the manufacturer, to the extent it has been made aware of the AECD activation, must send written notification to the operator that failure to meet the submission requirements may subject the operator to penalties.
Owners or operators who purchase engines with this dormant feature will receive instructions from the engine manufacturer on how to activate the AECD in qualified emergency situations, as well as information about penalties for overuse. The EPA would consider appropriate use of this feature to be during a situation where operation of a stationary CI engine is needed to protect human life (or where impaired operation poses a significant direct or indirect risk to human life), and temporarily overriding emission controls enables full operation of the equipment. The EPA is adopting this provision to give operators the means to obtain short-term relief one time without the need to contact the engine manufacturer or the EPA. In a qualified emergency situation, delaying the activation to obtain approval could put lives at risk, and would be unacceptable. However, the EPA retains the authority to evaluate, after the fact, whether it was reasonable to judge that there was a significant risk to human life to justify the activation of the AECD. Where the EPA determines that it was not reasonable to judge (1) that there was a significant risk to human life; or (2) that the emission control strategy was curtailing the ability of the engine to perform, the owner or operator may be subject to penalties for tampering with emission controls. The owner or operator requirements also include a specific prohibition on operating the engine with the AECD beyond the time reasonably needed for such operation. The owner or operator may also be subject to penalties for tampering if they continue to operate the engine with the AECD once the emergency situation has ended or the problem causing the emission control strategy to interfere with the performance of the engine has been or can reasonably be fixed. Nevertheless, the EPA will consider the totality of the circumstances when assessing penalties, and retain discretion to reduce penalties where the EPA determines that an owner or operator acted in good faith.
The owner or operator must send a written report to the engine manufacturer within 60 calendar days after activating an emergency AECD. If any consecutive reactivations occur, this report is still due 60 calendar days from the first activation. The report must include:
• Contact name, mail and email addresses, and telephone number for the responsible company or entity.
• A description of the emergency situation, the location of the engine during the emergency, and the contact information for an official who can verify the emergency situation (such as a county sheriff, fire marshal, or hospital administrator).
• The reason for AECD activation during the emergency situation, such as the lack of DEF, or the failure of an emission-related sensor when the engine was needed to respond to an emergency situation.
• The engine's serial number (or equivalent).
• A description of the extent and duration of the engine operation while the AECD was active, including a statement describing whether or not the AECD was manually deactivated after the emergency situation ended.
Paragraph 40 CFR 1039.665(g) specifies that failure to provide this information to the engine manufacturer within the deadline is improper use of the AECD and is prohibited.
The EPA is finalizing an amendment to the NSPS for stationary CI internal combustion engines that would align the definition of remote areas of Alaska with the definition currently used in the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) for Stationary Reciprocating Internal Combustion Engines, which can be found at 40 CFR part 63, subpart ZZZZ. The amendment specifies that engines in areas that are accessible by the Federal Aid Highway System (FAHS) can be considered remote if each of the following conditions is met: (1) The only connection to the FAHS is through the Alaska Marine Highway System, or the stationary CI engine operation is within an isolated grid in Alaska that is not connected to the statewide electrical grid referred to as the Alaska Railbelt Grid; (2) at least 10 percent of the power generated by the engine on an annual basis is used for residential purposes; and (3) the generating capacity of the facility is less than 12 megawatts, or the engine is used exclusively for backup power for renewable energy. The Alaska Railbelt Grid is defined as the service areas of the six regulated public utilities that extend from Fairbanks to Anchorage and the Kenai Peninsula. These utilities are Golden Valley Electric Association; Chugach Electric Association; Matanuska Electric Association; Homer Electric Association; Anchorage Municipal Light & Power; and the City of Seward Electric System. Background on the provisions related to remote areas of Alaska can be found in the proposal for this rulemaking (80 FR 68808, November 6, 2015).
The following NSPS provisions that currently apply to stationary CI internal combustion engines for engines that are located in areas of Alaska that are not accessible by the FAHS will be extended to stationary CI internal combustion engines located in the areas identified above:
• Exemption for all pre-2014 model year engines from diesel fuel sulfur requirements (see 40 CFR 60.4216(d));
• Allowance for owners and operators of stationary CI engines to use engines certified to marine engine standards, rather than land-based nonroad engine standards (see 40 CFR 60.4216(b));
• No requirement to meet emission standards that would necessitate the use of aftertreatment devices for NO
• No requirement to meet emission standards that would necessitate the use of aftertreatment devices for PM until the 2014 model year (see 40 CFR 60.4216(c)); and
• Allowance for the blending of used lubricating oil, in volumes of up to 1.75 percent of the total fuel, if the sulfur content of the used lubricating oil is less than 200 parts per million and the used lubricating oil is “on-spec,”
This section presents a summary of the public comments that the EPA received on the proposed amendments and the responses developed. The EPA received 7 public comments on the proposed rule. The comments can be obtained online from the Federal Docket Management System at
The EPA does not agree with the commenter that the proposed definition is not sufficiently generalized and that the examples provided are not representative of stationary engines. One of the examples is “an engine being used to provide electrical power to a data center that routes ‘911’ emergency response telecommunications,” which would likely be a stationary generator. The possible scenarios provided in the definition are merely examples and are not intended to be the only types of applications and situations that can qualify. The use of the word “example” in the definition is an indication that they are just examples and not limits on interpreting the definition. It would not be possible to provide examples of all of the potential uses of engines in qualified emergency situations.
Another commenter opposed any hour limit during an emergency situation. According to the commenter, because emergencies are sudden, uncontrollable, and unlikely, there is no need to limit the amount of override time allowable to keep engines running during emergencies. The commenter also expressed concern about the procedures set forth for reactivation of the AECD, and urged the EPA to remove the requirements for resetting of the AECD. The commenter stated that the engine manufacturer is not the appropriately qualified entity to determine a facility's qualified emergency, and that there need not be such stringent requirements for activation of the AECD, since the EPA has the authority to evaluate after the fact whether or not it was reasonable to justify the qualified emergency.
Further, the EPA's decision to adopt requirements concerning initial AECD activation periods, reactivation and notification that are identical to such requirements in the nonroad engine rules is influenced by our desire to allow for dual certification of stationary and nonroad engines, which reduces the burden of the rule on engine manufacturers. The Truck and Engine Manufacturers Association noted in their public comments
The EPA does not expect any significant economic impacts as a result of this final rule. A significant economic impact for the amendment allowing the temporary override of inducements in emergency situations is not anticipated because AECDs are expected to be activated rarely (if ever), and, thus, the impacts to affected sources and consumers of affected output will be minimal.
The economic impact from the change to the criteria for remote areas of Alaska will be a cost savings for owners or operators of engines that are located in the additional areas that will now be considered remote. The precise savings depends on the number and size of engines that will be installed each year. Information provided by the Alaska Energy Authority indicated that one to two new engines are expected to be installed each year. Information provided by the state of Alaska indicated that the expected initial capital cost savings per engine ranges from $28,000 to $163,000, depending on the size of the engine. There will also be annual operating and maintenance cost savings due to avoidance of the need to obtain and store DEF.
The EPA does not expect any significant environmental impacts as a result of the amendment to allow a temporary override of inducements in emergency situations. The AECDs are expected to be activated rarely (if ever) and will only affect emissions for a very short period.
The EPA also does not expect significant environmental impacts as a result of the amendments to the criteria for remote areas of Alaska. As an example, allowing the use of a Tier 3 engine instead of a Tier 4 engine would result in less reductions for a 250 horsepower (HP) stationary CI engine of 5.4 tons per year (tpy) of NO
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
The information collection activities in this rule have been submitted for approval to the OMB under the PRA. The Information Collection Request (ICR) document that the EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR number 2196.05. The only new information collection activity in this rule is the reporting by engine owners and operators and engine manufacturers that would occur if the AECD is activated during a qualified emergency situation. The EPA expects that it is unlikely that these AECDs will ever need to be activated. Therefore, the EPA estimates that there will be no additional burden from this reporting requirement.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for the EPA's regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9. When OMB approves this ICR, the Agency will announce that approval in the
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. As mentioned earlier in this preamble, the EPA is harmonizing the NSPS for stationary CI engines in this action with an existing rule issued by the EPA for nonroad CI engines. Thus, this action is reducing regulatory impacts to small entities as well as other affected entities. The EPA is also including additional remote areas of Alaska in the regulatory flexibility provisions already in the rule for remote areas of Alaska, which further reduces the burden of the existing rule on small entities and other affected entities. We have, therefore, concluded that this action will relieve regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local, or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. It will not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the federal government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the federal government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175. This final rule would impose compliance costs primarily on engine manufacturers, depending on the extent to which they take advantage of the flexibilities offered. The final amendments to expand the areas that are considered remote areas of Alaska would reduce the compliance costs for owners and operators of stationary engines in those areas. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes that this action does not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994). The provisions being finalized in this action are designed to eliminate risks to human life and are expected to be used rarely, if at all, and will only affect emissions for a very short period. Other changes the EPA is finalizing have minimal effect on emissions.
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, title 40, chapter I, part 60 of the Code of the Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(f) * * *
(1) Remote areas of Alaska; and
(h) Stationary CI ICE certified to the standards in 40 CFR part 1039 and equipped with auxiliary emission control devices (AECDs) as specified in 40 CFR 1039.665 must meet the Tier 1 certification emission standards for new nonroad CI engines in 40 CFR 89.112 while the AECD is activated during a qualified emergency situation. A qualified emergency situation is defined in 40 CFR 1039.665. When the qualified emergency situation has ended and the AECD is deactivated, the engine must resume meeting the otherwise applicable emission standard specified in this section.
(g) * * *
(1) Remote areas of Alaska; and
(f) Owners and operators of stationary CI ICE certified to the standards in 40 CFR part 1039 and equipped with AECDs as specified in 40 CFR 1039.665 must meet the Tier 1 certification emission standards for new nonroad CI engines in 40 CFR 89.112 while the AECD is activated during a qualified emergency situation. A qualified emergency situation is defined in 40 CFR 1039.665. When the qualified emergency situation has ended and the AECD is deactivated, the engine must resume meeting the otherwise applicable emission standard specified in this section.
(j) Stationary CI ICE manufacturers may equip their stationary CI internal combustion engines certified to the emission standards in 40 CFR part 1039 with AECDs for qualified emergency situations according to the requirements of 40 CFR 1039.665. Manufacturers of stationary CI ICE equipped with AECDs as allowed by 40 CFR 1039.665 must meet all of the requirements in 40 CFR 1039.665 that apply to manufacturers. Manufacturers must document that the engine complies with the Tier 1 standard in 40 CFR 89.112 when the AECD is activated. Manufacturers must provide any relevant testing, engineering analysis, or other information in sufficient detail to support such statement when applying for certification (including amending an existing certificate) of an engine equipped with an AECD as allowed by 40 CFR 1039.665.
(h) The requirements for operators and prohibited acts specified in 40 CFR 1039.665 apply to owners or operators of stationary CI ICE equipped with AECDs for qualified emergency situations as allowed by 40 CFR 1039.665.
(e) Owners or operators of stationary CI ICE equipped with AECDs pursuant to the requirements of 40 CFR 1039.665 must report the use of AECDs as required by 40 CFR 1039.665(e).
(b) Except as indicated in paragraph (c) of this section, manufacturers, owners and operators of stationary CI ICE with a displacement of less than 10 liters per cylinder located in remote areas of Alaska may meet the requirements of this subpart by manufacturing and installing engines meeting the requirements of 40 CFR parts 94 or 1042, as appropriate, rather than the otherwise applicable requirements of 40 CFR parts 89 and 1039, as indicated in §§ 60.4201(f) and 60.4202(g).
(c) Manufacturers, owners and operators of stationary CI ICE that are located in remote areas of Alaska may choose to meet the applicable emission standards for emergency engines in §§ 60.4202 and 60.4205, and not those for non-emergency engines in §§ 60.4201 and § 60.4204, except that for 2014 model year and later non-emergency CI ICE, the owner or operator of any such engine that was not certified as meeting Tier 4 PM standards, must meet the applicable requirements for PM in §§ 60.4201 and 60.4204 or install a PM emission control device that achieves PM emission reductions of 85 percent, or 60 percent for engines with a displacement of greater than or equal to 30 liters per cylinder, compared to engine-out emissions.
(d) The provisions of § 60.4207 do not apply to owners and operators of pre-2014 model year stationary CI ICE subject to this subpart that are located in remote areas of Alaska.
(f) The provisions of this section and § 60.4207 do not prevent owners and operators of stationary CI ICE subject to this subpart that are located in remote areas of Alaska from using fuels mixed with used lubricating oil, in volumes of up to 1.75 percent of the total fuel. The sulfur content of the used lubricating oil must be less than 200 parts per million. The used lubricating oil must meet the on-specification levels and properties for used oil in 40 CFR 279.11.
(1) Areas of Alaska that are not accessible by the Federal Aid Highway System (FAHS).
(2) Areas of Alaska that meet all of the following criteria:
(i) The only connection to the FAHS is through the Alaska Marine Highway System, or the stationary CI ICE operation is within an isolated grid in Alaska that is not connected to the statewide electrical grid referred to as the Alaska Railbelt Grid.
(ii) At least 10 percent of the power generated by the stationary CI ICE on an annual basis is used for residential purposes.
(iii) The generating capacity of the source is less than 12 megawatts, or the stationary CI ICE is used exclusively for backup power for renewable energy.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) today is amending federal regulations that designated, and placed restrictions on the use of, the Central Long Island Sound and Western Long Island Sound dredged material disposal sites, located offshore from New Haven and Stamford, Connecticut, respectively. The amended regulations incorporate standards and procedures for the use of those sites consistent with those recommended in the Long Island Sound Dredged Material Management Plan, which was completed by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers on January 11, 2016. The Dredged Material Management Plan identifies a wide range of alternatives to open-water disposal and recommends standards and procedures for determining which alternatives to pursue for different dredging projects, so as to reduce or eliminate the open-water disposal of dredged material.
This final regulation is effective on August 8, 2016.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R01-OW-2016-0068. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Stephen Perkins, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Mail Code: OEP06-3, Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone (617) 918-1501, electronic mail:
Organization of this document. The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
On February 10, 2016, EPA published in the
To support this goal, the restrictions in the 2005 Rule contemplated that there would be a regional dredged material management plan (DMMP) for Long Island Sound that would help to guide the management of dredged material from projects which occur after completion of the DMMP. The amended restrictions in this Final Rule incorporate standards and procedures for the use of those sites consistent with those recommended in the Long Island Sound DMMP, which was completed by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) on January 11, 2016.
The restrictions imposed on the sites in the 2005 Rule also included conditions that specified that use of the sites would be suspended if, within 120 days of completion of the DMMP, and subject to EPA's consideration of public comments, EPA does not issue legally binding final amendments adopting such procedures and standards. Any such suspension in the use of the sites would be lifted if and when EPA issues the required final rule.
EPA received comments on the Proposed Rule from 119 individuals, groups or entities. Comments were received from the Connecticut Congressional Delegation, USACE, the states of Connecticut and New York, a number of municipalities, environmental groups, harbor and marine trade groups, and many private citizens. Approximately eighty percent of the commenters supported the Proposed Rule, with some offering suggested improvements. The remainder expressed opposition in part or in whole to the Proposed Rule. A document containing copies of all of the public comments received by EPA and a document containing EPA's response to each of the comments have been placed in the public docket and on the Web site identified in the
The charge to the Steering Committee includes: Developing a baseline for the volume and percentage of dredged material being placed in open water and the volume and percentage being beneficially used; establishing a reasonable and practicable series of stepped objectives (with timeframes) for reducing the amount of dredged material placed in open-water sites and increasing the amount of material that is beneficially used, while also recognizing that there will be fluctuations in annual volumes of dredged material generated due to the very nature of the dredging program; and developing methods for accurately tracking reductions with due consideration for annual fluctuations. EPA agrees, and has provided, that the stepped objectives should incorporate an adaptive management approach toward continuous improvement. The Final Rule also provides that, when tracking progress, the Steering Committee will recognize that exceptional circumstances may result in delays in meeting an objective, and that exceptional circumstances should be infrequent, irregular and unpredictable. In carrying out its tasks, the Steering Committee will guide and utilize the LIS RDT, as appropriate.
To be clear, neither the 2005 Rule nor the new amendments to the Rule
In response to this comment and Comment #5 below, the Final Rule clarifies certain of the roles and expectations of the LIS RDT. It establishes the relationship between the Steering Committee, which provides policy-level direction to the LIS RDT, and the LIS RDT, which has the responsibility for execution. It also provides additional detail on the organization and procedures for the LIS RDT. EPA views the charter under which the LIS RDT has operated during the development of the DMMP as a useful starting point for a new charter that encompasses the new roles, responsibilities, and makeup of the LIS RDT. The current LIS RDT charter will serve as the interim guide for the LIS RDT's process until a new charter is developed.
Recommendations from the LIS RDT or its members are not binding upon the USACE, EPA or any other state or federal agency. While the USACE must fully consider the recommendations, EPA does not intend for the LIS RDT to in any way usurp the USACE's authority to make independent decisions regarding the placement of dredged material. At the same time, the USACE's decisions regarding whether to authorize dredged material disposal under the MPRSA continue to be subject to EPA review and concurrence under Section 103(c) of the MPRSA, 33 U.S.C. 1413(c), and 40 CFR 225.2. While EPA will also consider recommendations of the LIS RDT or its members, EPA also does not intend for the LIS RDT to in any way usurp EPA's authority to make independent decisions in its review of USACE decisions regarding whether to authorize the open-water disposal of dredged material.
EPA does not intend for the LIS RDT, in the exercise of its responsibility to review projects, to unduly delay the USACE's decision-making. EPA expects that the LIS RDT will report to the USACE on its review of specific projects within 30 days of receipt of project information. If the LIS RDT fails to report to the USACE in this timeframe, the USACE may proceed with its permit decision process. The Final Rule contains language clarifying this point.
Regarding USACE's concerns about the FACA, EPA has carefully reviewed the roles of the LIS RDT and Steering Committee as contained in the Final Rule and finds that the LIS RDT and Steering Committee are exempt from the FACA under 2 U.S.C. 1534(b).
If a beneficial use is selected for a project and that beneficial use happens
The DMMP makes clear the USACE's willingness to use the authorities available to it to pay for what it lawfully can. The authorities that allow USACE to pursue alternatives beyond the Base Plan all require some prescribed percentage of non-federal cost-sharing. Identifying future sources of non-federal cost sharing is one of the important challenges for the Steering Committee and LIS RDT.
Beyond trying to find funding sources for costs above the Federal Standard, another important role for the LIS RDT is to identify incentives and remove barriers to beneficial use such that the cost of alternatives becomes more competitive with open-water disposal. It has become clear in recent years that sandy dredged material is a valuable commodity, especially along New England's beachfronts. Thus there are economic as well as environmental factors that result in most suitable sandy dredge material being used beneficially, principally for beach and nearshore bar nourishment. The next challenge is to find economic and beneficial environmental uses for suitable silty material. As coastal resiliency becomes an increasingly important priority, EPA is hopeful that, and thinks that there is a good chance that, opportunities for beneficial uses of silty material will emerge and expand.
The concern about the possibility that a project might not go forward was echoed by the Connecticut Congressional Delegation. In order to effectively maintain the balance between environmental and economic benefits of Long Island Sound, they urged that some certainty regarding the potential cost of maintenance projects must be included in the final language. Knowing the makeup of dredged material from each navigation project is different, they understand that placement alternatives need to be examined on a case-by-case basis. They noted that EPA itself recognizes in the Proposed Rule that the lack of clarity on future project costs “could result in deferral of maintenance or improvement projects that could impact navigation.” The delegation expressed hope that the Final Rule will more clearly address this issue.
The possibility that EPA and USACE might disagree whether or not an alternative is “practicable” is rooted, in part, in the fact that the two agencies have different regulatory definitions of the term “practicable.” That difference has existed since at least 1988, when the USACE's current regulatory definition was promulgated. At the same time, although the two definitions are different, they are similar and have important commonalities. Under both definitions, a practicable alternative must be
In any event, EPA's definition of “practicable” and its application do not directly affect the USACE's definition of the Federal Standard. If EPA determines that an alternative is “practicable,” then non-federal sponsors will need to be found to pay for the incremental cost above what the USACE can legally participate in. One of the important roles of the Steering Committee and LIS RDT described earlier, is the identification and piloting of beneficial use alternatives, identifying possible resources, and eliminating regulatory barriers. EPA expects that the Steering Committee and LIS RDT will, generally and on a project specific basis, facilitate the process of matching projects, beneficial use alternatives, and the resources necessary to implement them, thus mitigating the risk that a project cannot proceed.
EPA's definition of “practicable” requires that the alternative be “available at reasonable incremental cost.” Said differently, by definition, a “practicable alternative” will not impose
EPA cannot eliminate in advance the possibility that no entity will have the means to pay the non-federal share of an alternative EPA has determined is practicable, whether in Long Island Sound or anywhere else in the country. However, in Long Island Sound, with the states and federal agencies working in partnership to implement beneficial use alternatives, EPA believes that the likelihood of a project not going forward because of a lack of funding for the reasonable incremental cost of a practicable alternative has been made as remote as possible.
EPA strongly disagrees with the suggestion that toxic sediments might be disposed of at the sites. EPA's MPRSA regulations require rigorous physical, chemical, and biological testing and analysis of sediments is conducted prior to issuance of any permit to place material at the sites.
The USACE's Disposal Area Monitoring System (DAMOS) has gathered information on dredged material placement sites in the Sound since the late 1970s. The program has generated over 200 detailed reports addressing questions and concerns related to placement of dredged material in the Sound. Sequential surveys of biological conditions at sites following the placement of dredged material consistently show a rapid recovery of the benthic community to that of the surrounding habitat outside the disposal sites and within the sites. The USACE and EPA monitor benthic health and recovery and the results support the conclusion that there is no evidence of long-term effects on the marine environment.
With the nearly 40-year record of surveys, there have been multiple opportunities to evaluate the effects of large storms (both hurricanes and nor'easters) on the dredged material mounds on the seafloor. These investigations have demonstrated long-term stability of the mounds even at the most exposed sites.
EPA understands the USACE's comment as objecting to being considered a “permittee,” rather than an indication that the USACE is not subject to the restrictions. Since the other proposed revisions to the 2005 Rule eliminated the use of the word “permittee,” there is no longer a need to specifically qualify what “permittee” refers to. Consistent with the USACE's comment and EPA's intention that the restrictions apply to all persons who may dispose of dredged material at the sites, but not that the USACE would be an actual permittee, EPA has revised the sentence in question in 40 CFR 228.15(b)(4)(vi) to read (in pertinent part): “The restrictions apply to the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) when it is authorizing its own dredged material disposal from a USACE dredging project . . . .”
The Final Rule incorporates the standards and procedures contained in the Proposed Rule and, pursuant to the comments discussed above, revises them as follows.
A sentence, restating the common goal to reduce or eliminate open water disposal of dredged material in Long Island Sound, has been added to the introductory paragraph (b)(4)(vi) in the Final Rule. Another sentence in the same paragraph has been revised to clarify that although the USACE is not a permittee, the restrictions also apply to the USACE when it is authorizing its own dredged material disposal from a USACE dredging project.
The Final Rule establishes a Long Island Sound Dredging Steering Committee consisting of high level representatives from the states, EPA, the USACE, and, as appropriate, other federal and state agencies. The Steering Committee will provide policy-level direction to the LIS RDT and facilitate high-level collaboration among the agencies critical to accelerating the development and use of alternatives to open-water disposal of dredged material. The charge to the Steering Committee includes: developing a baseline for the volume and percentage of dredged material being placed in open water and the amount and percentage being beneficially used; establishing a reasonable and practicable series of stepped objectives (with timeframes) for reducing the amount of open water placement and increasing the amount of beneficially used material, while also recognizing that there will be fluctuations in annual volumes of dredged material generated due to the very nature of the dredging program; and developing accurate methods for tracking reductions with due consideration for annual fluctuations. The Final Rule specifies that the stepped objectives should incorporate an adaptive management approach toward continuous improvement. When tracking progress, the Steering Committee will recognize that exceptional circumstances may result in delays meeting an objective. Exceptional circumstances should be infrequent, irregular, and unpredictable. In carrying out its tasks, the Steering Committee shall guide and utilize the LIS RDT, as appropriate.
Participation of Connecticut, New York, and Rhode Island on the Steering Committee and LIS RDT is voluntary; it is not legally mandated by the new regulations. That said, EPA expects, as discussed earlier, that Connecticut and New York (and possibly Rhode Island) will participate and that each of the member agencies will commit the necessary resources to support the work of the Steering Committee and the LIS RDT, including collecting the data necessary to support the establishment of the baseline and tracking and reporting the future disposition of dredged materials. EPA expects the Steering Committee, with the support of the LIS RDT, to guide a concerted effort to spur greater use of beneficial use alternatives, including piloting alternatives, identifying possible resources, and eliminating regulatory barriers. The Final Rule contains provisions establishing the Steering Committee and setting out the responsibilities described above. [(b)(4)(vi)(E)]
The Final Rule clarifies certain of the roles and responsibilities of the LIS RDT. Again, participation by the states on the LIS RDT is voluntary, but EPA expects the states to participate and to provide the resources necessary for meaningful participation. The Final Rule establishes the relationship between the Steering Committee, which provides policy-level direction for the LIS RDT, and the LIS RDT, which has the responsibility for execution. It more explicitly calls for project proponents to consult with the LIS RDT at the earliest possible stage to expand consideration of beneficial use alternatives. The Final Rule sets a clear expectation that the LIS RDT will report to USACE on its review of final projects within 30 days of receipt of project information. It also provides additional detail on the organization and procedures for the LIS RDT. EPA views the charter under which the LIS RDT has operated during the development of the DMMP as a useful starting point for a new charter that encompasses the revised roles, responsibilities and makeup of the LIS RDT. The current LIS RDT charter should serve as the interim guide for the LIS RDT's process until a new charter is developed. [(b)(4)(vi)(F)]
Lastly, the Final Rule provides the potential for reconsidering the rule, upon petition, if in ten years the amount of dredged material disposed of at the sites has not been maintained or reduced. [(b)(4)(vi)(H)]
The preamble to the 2005 Rule described how the dredged material disposal site designation process that culminated in the designation of the CLDS and WLDS was consistent with the requirements of the MPRSA, the CWA, the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA), the Endangered Species Act (ESA), and the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSFCMA).
In the preamble to the Proposed Rule, EPA determined that the proposed amendments to the 2005 Rule, and the process by which they were developed, also are consistent with the laws noted above. 81 FR 7060-7061. One of the important factors in this determination was that the amended Rule would provide the same or greater protection of water quality and the marine environment as the 2005 Rule. 81 FR 7060. EPA's conclusions regarding compliance with those laws has not changed following consideration of public comments.
As the preamble to the Proposed Rule explained, the proposed amendments to the 2005 Rule do not make decisions about the suitability of any particular dredged material for open-water disposal or about any other type of management of the material. Such decisions will be made for specific
At the time of the Proposed Rule, consultation and coordination with state and federal agencies regarding the CZMA, ESA, MSFCMA, respectively, were underway. Those consultations have been completed, as discussed below.
In the preamble to the 2005 Rule, EPA explained in detail how its designation of the CLDS and WLDS complied with the MPRSA. 70 FR 32502-32508. In the preamble for the Proposed Rule, EPA explained how the proposed amendments to the 2005 Rule also complied with the MPRSA. As part of such compliance, EPA has finalized updates to the Site Management and Monitoring Plan (SMMP) for both the CLDS and the WLDS.
Under the CZMA, EPA, like any other federal agency, is required to provide relevant states with a determination that any activity it proposes that could affect the uses or natural resources of a state's coastal zone is consistent to the maximum extent practicable with the enforceable policies of the state's coastal zone management program. EPA determined that the amendments to the 2005 Rule are consistent with the enforceable policies of the coastal zone management programs of both Connecticut and New York and provided each state with a written determination to that effect. EPA consulted with each state's coastal zone management program prior to this final rulemaking. In a letter dated April 8, 2016, the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection concurred with EPA's determination with regard to Connecticut's coastal zone management program. The New York State Department of State (NY DOS) provided its concurrence on April 25, 2016. NY DOS's concurrence was conditioned on the Final Rule including provisions that address NY DOS's comments on the Proposed Rule. EPA believes the changes to the Proposed Rule described above are consistent with NY DOS's condition(s) and, thus, considers NY DOS to have concurred with the Final Rule.
Since the 2005 Rule, NOAA's National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service listed the Atlantic sturgeon as an endangered species under the ESA. Parts of Long Island Sound are among the distinct population segments listed as endangered by NMFS in 2012. EPA's analysis considered the Atlantic sturgeon as well as sea turtles and listed marine mammals. Consistent with the ESA, EPA consulted with NMFS and USFWS on this rulemaking action and the updating of the SMMPs for the two disposal sites. NMFS has concurred with EPA's determination that any adverse effects on listed species from this action would be insignificant or discountable, and that this action is not likely to adversely affect any listed species or critical habitat of such species under NMFS jurisdiction. EPA sent a “no effects” determination for species under USFWS jurisdiction to the USFWS and did not receive any response, so EPA assumed concurrence. No additional consultation or coordination is required.
EPA coordinated with NMFS on this rulemaking action and the updating of SMMPs for the two disposal sites, consistent with the Essential Fish Habitat provisions of the MSFCMA. NMFS has concurred with our determination that it is unlikely that this action will result in adverse effects to any essential fish habitat. Therefore, no additional coordination is required.
EPA is publishing this Final Rule to amend the restrictions on the use of the CLDS and WLDS. This action is consistent with, and retains a number of, the restrictions contained in the original designation of these sites in 2005. Certain of those restrictions required completion of a DMMP that would identify procedures and standards for reducing or eliminating the disposal of dredged material in Long Island Sound. Since the DMMP has been completed EPA's Final Rule removes the restrictions related to its development. The 2005 restrictions further require EPA, within 120 days of completion of the DMMP, to issue final amendments to the restrictions to incorporate procedures and standards consistent with those recommended in the DMMP for reducing or eliminating the disposal of dredged material in Long Island Sound. While the Final Rule was not issued within 120 days of completion of the DMMP (which would have been May 10), and use of the CLDS and WLDS was temporarily suspended, issuance of today's Final Rule satisfies that requirement such that the suspension of the sites has been lifted and they are now available for use.
The Final Rule incorporates the standards and procedures recommended in the DMMP and augments them by establishing a Steering Committee to provide policy guidance and direction to the LIS RDT and to: Develop a baseline for the volume and percentage of dredged material being placed in open water and the amount and percentage being beneficially used; establish a reasonable and practicable series of stepped objectives (with timeframes) for reducing the amount of open water placement and increasing the amount of beneficially used material, while also recognizing that there will be fluctuations in annual volumes of dredged material generated due to the very nature of the dredging program; and develop accurate methods for tracking reductions with due consideration for annual fluctuations. The stepped objectives will incorporate an adaptive management approach toward continuous improvement. The Rule provides that when tracking progress, the Steering Committee will recognize that exceptional circumstances may result in delays meeting an objective. Exceptional circumstances should be infrequent, irregular, and unpredictable. The Final Rule also provides that in carrying out its tasks, the Steering Committee shall
The Final Rule also expressly allows any person to submit a petition seeking changes to the rule if, in ten years, the amount of dredged material disposed of at the sites has not been maintained or reduced.
This action is not a significant regulatory action, as defined in the Executive Order, and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA because it would not require persons to obtain, maintain, retain, report or publicly disclose information to or for a federal agency.
This action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA). The amended restrictions in this rule are only relevant for dredged material disposal projects subject to the MPRSA. Non-federal projects involving 25,000 cubic yards or less of material are not subject to the MPRSA and, instead, are regulated under CWA section 404. This action will, therefore, have no effect on such projects. “Small entities” under the RFA are most likely to be involved with smaller projects not covered by the MPRSA. Therefore, EPA does not believe a substantial number of small entities will be affected by today's rule. Furthermore, the amendments to the restrictions also will not have significant economic impacts on a substantial number of small entities because they primarily will create requirements to be followed by regulatory agencies rather than small entities, and will create requirements (
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications within the meaning of the Executive Order. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175 because the restrictions will not have substantial direct effects on Indian tribes, on the relationship between the federal government and Indian Tribes, or the distribution of power and responsibilities between the federal government and Indian Tribes. EPA consulted with the affected Indian tribes in making this determination.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not economically significant as defined in Executive Order 12866, and because EPA does not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have a disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations.
Executive Order 13158 (65 FR 34909, May 31, 2000) requires EPA to “expeditiously propose new science-based regulations, as necessary, to ensure appropriate levels of protection for the marine environment.” EPA may take action to enhance or expand protection of existing marine protected areas and to establish or recommend, as appropriate, new marine protected areas. The purpose of the Executive Order is to protect the significant natural and cultural resources within the marine environment, which means, ”those areas of coastal and ocean waters, the Great Lakes and their connecting waters, and submerged lands thereunder, over which the United States exercises jurisdiction, consistent with international law.”
EPA expects that this rule will afford additional protection to the waters of Long Island Sound and organisms that inhabit them. Building on the existing protections of the MPRSA, the ocean dumping regulations, the 2005 Rule, the CWA, and other relevant statutes and regulations, the final regulatory amendments are designed to promote and support reductions in open-water disposal of dredged material in Long Island Sound.
Section 6(a)(i) of Executive Order 13547, (75 FR 43023, July 19, 2010) requires, among other things, that EPA and certain other agencies “. . . to the fullest extent consistent with applicable law . . . take such action as necessary to implement the policy set forth in section 2 of this order and the stewardship principles and national priority objectives as set forth in the Final Recommendations and subsequent guidance from the Council.” The policies in section 2 of Executive Order 13547 include, among other things, the following: “. . . it is the policy of the United States to: (i) protect, maintain, and restore the health and biological diversity of ocean, coastal, and Great Lakes ecosystems and resources; (ii) improve the resiliency of ocean, coastal, and Great Lakes ecosystems, communities, and economies. . . .” As with Executive Order 13158 (Marine Protected Areas), the overall purpose of the Executive Order is to promote protection of ocean and coastal environmental resources.
EPA expects that this Final Rule will afford additional protection to the waters of Long Island Sound and
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Water pollution control.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, title 40, Chapter I, of the
33 U.S.C. 1412 and 1418.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(4) Central Long Island Sound Dredged Material Disposal Site (CLDS).
(i)
(v)
(vi)
(C) Disposal of dredged material at the designated sites pursuant to the designation in this paragraph (b)(4) shall be allowed if, after full consideration of recommendations provided by the Long Island Sound Regional Dredging Team (LIS RDT) if the members of the LIS RDT reach consensus, or provided by the LIS RDT's member agencies if no consensus is achieved, the USACE finds (and EPA does not object to such finding), based on a fully documented analysis, that for a given dredging project:
(
(
(
(
(
(
(D)
(E) There is established a Long Island Sound Dredging Steering Committee (Steering Committee), consisting of high-level representatives from the states of Connecticut and New York, EPA, USACE, and, as appropriate, other federal and state agencies. The Steering Committee will provide policy-level direction to the Long Island Sound Regional Dredging Team (LIS RDT) and facilitate high-level collaboration among
(F) The goal of the Long Island Sound Regional Dredging Team (LIS RDT), working in cooperation with, and support of, the Steering Committee, is to reduce or eliminate wherever practicable the open-water disposal of dredged material. The LIS RDT's purpose, geographic scope, membership, organization, and procedures are provided as follows:
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(G) If the volume of open-water disposal of dredged material, as measured in 2026, has not declined or been maintained over the prior ten years, then any party may petition EPA to conduct a rulemaking to amend the restrictions on the use of the sites.
(5) Western Long Island Sound Dredged Material Disposal Site (WLDS).
(v)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of availability.
The Coast Guard announces the availability of Navigation and Vessel Inspection Circular (NVIC) 03-16, Guidelines for Credentialing Officers of Towing Vessels. This NVIC provides guidance to mariners concerning regulations governing endorsements to Merchant Mariner Credentials for service on towing vessels.
The policy announced in NVIC 03-16 is effective on July 7, 2016.
If you have questions about NVIC 03-16, call or email Luke B. Harden, Mariner Credentialing Program Policy Division (CG-CVC-4), U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 202-372-2357, or
Navigation and Vessel Inspection Circular (NVIC) 03-16, Guidelines for Credentialing Officers of Towing Vessels is available in the docket for this notice of availability and can also be viewed by going to
On December 24, 2014, the Coast Guard published a final rule in the
NVIC 03-16 describes policy for merchant mariners to qualify for and renew endorsements to Merchant Mariner Credentials for service on towing vessels. Notable provisions of this NVIC include:
1. Providing guidance on grandfathering provisions contained in the rule published December 24, 2014 (78 FR 77796).
2. Revising the “Frequently Asked Questions” to include discussion of the provisions of the new rule, and to include questions that have arisen with regularity since publication of the predecessor NVIC 04-01.
3. Revising the Towing Officer Assessment Records (TOARs) to include guidance to Designated Examiners on how to perform assessment of the tasks in the TOARs and to add certain tasks necessary to fully assess the competence of candidates for endorsements. For example, the task “Maneuver through a bridge” was added to the Near Coastal/Oceans TOAR as this TOAR is for an endorsement that will be valid where bridges are common.
4. Providing additional guidance on TOARs restricted to Local Limited Areas.
5. Providing guidance on endorsements that will be restricted to routes without locks and to service upon harbor-assist vessels or Integrated Tug Barge (ITB) and Articulated Tug Barge (ATB) vessels.
This notice of availability is issued under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 552(a).
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
A petition for rulemaking was filed by Sunbelt-South Tele-Communications, Ltd. (Sunbelt), the licensee of WSST-TV, channel 51, Cordele, Georgia, requesting the substitution of channel 22 for channel 51 at Cordele. Sunbelt filed comments reaffirming its interest in the proposed channel substitution and stating that if the proposal is granted, it will promptly file an application for the facilities specified in the rulemaking petition and construct the station. Sunbelt asserts that adopting the proposal would serve the public interest because it would remove any potential interference with authorized wireless operations in the Lower 700 MHz A Block adjacent to channel 51 in Cordele. In addition, Sunbelt agrees that WSST-TV will be protected in the incentive auction at its channel 51 operating parameters even after its move to channel 22, and recognizes that as a result of repacking during the incentive auction, it may be required to move from channel 22.
This rule is effective August 8, 2016.
Joyce Bernstein,
This is a synopsis of the Commission's
This document does not contain information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. In addition, therefore, it does not contain any information collection burden “for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees,” pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
The Commission will send a copy of this
Television.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 73 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 154, 303, 334, 336, and 339.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2011-17-05, for certain Airbus Model A300 B2-1C, A300 B2-203, A300 B2K-3C, A300-B4-103, A300 B4-203, and A300 B4-2C airplanes. AD 2011-17-05 currently requires repetitive inspections in sections 13 through 18 of the fuselage between rivets of the longitudinal lap joints between frames (FR) 18 and 80 for cracking, and repair or modification if necessary. Since we issued AD 2011-17-05, we have determined that a revised inspection program is necessary. This proposed AD would include a revised repetitive inspection program of all longitudinal lap joints and repairs between frames 18 and 80 to address this widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are proposing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the longitudinal lap joints of the fuselage, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 22, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425- 227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On September 23, 2011, we issued AD 2011-17-05, Amendment 39-16769 (76 FR 63177, October 12, 2011) (“AD 2011-17-05”). AD 2011-17-05 requires actions intended to address an unsafe condition on certain Airbus Model A300 B2-1C, A300 B2-203, A300 B2K-3C, A300-B4-103, A300 B4-203, and A300 B4-2C airplanes.
Since we issued AD 2011-17-05, we have determined it is necessary to require a revised inspection program for the longitudinal lap joints and repairs between FR 18 and FR 80 because additional cracking was found in an expanded area.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0265, dated December 9, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
Cracks were found on in-service aeroplanes in sections 13 to 18 of the fuselage between rivets of longitudinal lap joints between frames (FR) 18 and FR80.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the aeroplane.
To address this unsafe condition, Airbus developed an inspection programme for the longitudinal lap joints and repairs between FR18 and FR80, and EASA issued AD 2007-0091 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2011-17-05] to require the implementation of that programme.
Since EASA AD 2007-0091 was issued, [a] new Widespread Fatigue Damage regulation has been issued. This new regulation led to the revision of the maintenance programme for the longitudinal lap joints and repairs between FR18 and FR80.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of EASA AD 2007-0091, which is superseded, and requires implementation of the revised inspection programme.
Required actions include repetitive inspections of the bonded inner
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as widespread fatigue damage. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the longitudinal lap joints of the fuselage, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
Unlike the procedures described in the service information, this proposed AD would not permit further flight if cracks are detected. We have determined that, because of the safety implications and consequences associated with that cracking, any cracked upper shell structure must be repaired before further flight.
The MCAI refers to Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-0211, Revision 08, dated November 26, 2013, for compliance times and for the new inspections. However, paragraph (l) of this proposed AD would require operators to do the initial inspections within 180 days after the effective date of this AD, in a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA); and thereafter at intervals approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA. We find that 180 days is an appropriate amount of time to accomplish the initial inspections and address the unsafe condition.
These differences have been coordinated with the EASA and Airbus.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 4 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 22, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 2011-17-05, Amendment 39-16769 (76 FR 63177, October 12, 2011) (“AD 2011-17-05”).
This AD applies to Airbus Model A300 B2-1C, A300 B2-203, A300 B2K-3C, A300-B4-103, A300 B4-203, and A300 B4-2C airplanes; certificated in any category; all manufacturer serial numbers, except those on which Airbus Modification 2611 has been embodied in production.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation done by the design approval holder indicating that certain sections of the longitudinal lap joints are subject to widespread fatigue damage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the longitudinal lap joints of the fuselage, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (l) of AD 2011-17-05, with revised formatting. For airplanes on which any inspections of the fuselage bonded inner doublers of the longitudinal lap joints in Sections 13 through 18 (except Sections 16 and 17 at Stringer 31 left-hand and right-hand) for disbonding and cracking have not been done as of November 16, 2011 (the effective date of AD 2011-17-05), as specified by Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229: Prior to the accumulation of 24,000 total flight cycles or within 15 years since new, whichever occurs first; or within 60 days after November 16, 2011; whichever occurs later; do a detailed inspection of the fuselage bonded inner doublers of the longitudinal lap joints in Sections 13 through 18 (except Sections 16 and 17 at Stringer 31 left-hand and right-hand) for disbonding and cracking, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997. If no disbonding and no cracking are found, repeat the inspection thereafter at the applicable intervals specified in paragraph (h) of this AD.
(1) If no cracking is found, and “minor” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1 year for areas below stringer 22, and at intervals not to exceed 2 years for areas above and including stringer 22.
(2) If no cracking is found, and “major” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Within 1,000 flight cycles after doing the inspection, repair, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
(3) If any cracking is found, repair prior to further flight, in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
This paragraph restates the repetitive intervals specified in table 1 of AD 2011-17-05. At the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, repeat the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
(1) For Sections 13 and 14 as specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997: Repeat the inspection at intervals not to exceed 7 years or 12,000 flight cycles, whichever occurs first.
(2) For Sections 15 through 18 as specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997: Repeat the inspection within 8.5 years or 12,000 flight cycles, whichever occurs first.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (m) of AD 2011-17-05. For airplanes on which any inspections of the fuselage bonded inner doublers of the longitudinal lap joints in Sections 13 through 18 (except Sections 16 and 17 at Stringer 31 left-hand and right-hand) for disbonding and cracking have been done as of November 16, 2011 (the effective date of AD 2011-17-05), as specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229; except for airplanes on which a repair of that area has been done as specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229: Within 7 years or 12,000 flight cycles (for Sections 13 and 14), or within 8.5 years or 12,000 flight cycles (for Sections 15 and 18), after doing the inspection, whichever occurs first; or within 60 days after November 16, 2011, whichever occurs later, do a detailed inspection of the fuselage bonded inner doublers of the longitudinal lap joints in Sections 13 through 18 (except Sections 16 and 17 at Stringer 31 left-hand and right-hand) for disbonding and cracking, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997. If no disbonding and no cracking are found, repeat the inspection at the applicable time specified in paragraph (h) of this AD.
(1) If no cracking is found, and “minor” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1 year for areas below stringer 22, and at intervals not to exceed 2 years for areas above and including stringer 22.
(2) If no cracking is found, and “major” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Within 1,000 flight cycles after doing the inspection, repair, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
(3) If any cracking is found, repair prior to further flight, in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (n) of AD 2011-17-05, with no changes. For airplanes on which any inspections of the fuselage bonded inner doublers of the longitudinal lap joints in Sections 16 and 17 at Stringer 31 left-hand
(1) If no cracking is found, and “minor” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1 year for areas below stringer 22, and at intervals not to exceed 2 years for areas above and including stringer 22. Doing a repair in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, terminates the repetitive inspections required by this paragraph for that area.
(2) If no cracking is found, and “major” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Within 1,000 flight cycles after doing the inspection, repair, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
(3) If any cracking is found, repair prior to further flight, in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (o) of AD 2011-17-05, with no changes. For airplanes on which any inspections of the fuselage bonded inner doublers of the longitudinal lap joints in Sections 16 and 17 at Stringer 31 left-hand and right-hand for disbonding and cracking have been done as of November 16, 2011, as specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229; except airplanes on which a repair of that area has been done as specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229: Within 7 years or 12,000 flight cycles after doing the inspection, whichever occurs first; or within 60 days after November 16, 2011; whichever occurs later; do a detailed inspection of the fuselage bonded inner doubles of the longitudinal lap joints in Sections 16 and 17 at Stringer 31 left-hand and right-hand for disbonding and cracking, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997. If no disbonding and no corrosion are found, repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7 years or 12,000 flight cycles, whichever occurs first.
(1) If no cracking is found, and “minor” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Repeat the inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1 year for areas below stringer 22, and at intervals not to exceed 2 years for areas above and including stringer 22. Doing a repair, in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, terminates the repetitive inspections required by this paragraph for that area.
(2) If no cracking is found, and “major” disbonding, as defined in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997, is found: Within 1,000 flight cycles after doing the inspection, repair, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
(3) If any cracking is found, repair prior to further flight, in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-229, Revision 5, dated April 8, 1997.
Within 180 days after the effective date of this AD, do rototest and ultrasonic inspections, as applicable, for cracking of all longitudinal lap joints and repairs between frames 18 and 80; and repair any cracking before further flight; using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). Repeat the applicable inspection, including post-repair inspections, thereafter at intervals approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA. Accomplishing the initial inspection and applicable repairs required by this paragraph terminates the actions required by paragraphs (g) through (k) of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0265, dated December 9, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes; and Model A340-200, -300, -500, and -600 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a determination that, due to significant differences among all airspeed sources, the flight controls will revert to alternate law, the autopilot (AP) and the auto-thrust (A/THR) will automatically disconnect, and the flight director (FD) bars will be automatically removed. Then, if two airspeed sources become similar while still erroneous, the flight guidance computers will display the FD bars again, and enable
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 22, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1138; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0124R1, dated February 2, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes; and Model A340-200, -300, -500, and -600 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
It was determined that, when there are significant differences between all airspeed sources, the flight controls of an Airbus A330 or A340 aeroplane will revert to alternate law, the autopilot (AP) and the auto-thrust (A/THR) automatically disconnect, and the Flight Directors (FD) bars are automatically removed. Further analyses have shown that, after such an event, if two airspeed sources become similar while still erroneous, the flight guidance computers will display the FD bars again, and enable the re-engagement of AP and A/THR. However, in some cases, the AP orders may be inappropriate, such as possible abrupt pitch command. In order to prevent such events which may, under specific circumstances, constitute an unsafe condition, EASA issued AD 2010-0271 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2011-02-09, Amendment 39-16583 (76 FR 4219, January 25, 2011)] to require an amendment of the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) to ensure that flight crews apply the appropriate operational procedure.
Since EASA AD 2010-0271 was issued, new Flight Control Primary Computer (FCPC) software standards were developed that inhibit autopilot engagement under unreliable airspeed conditions. Consequently, EASA issued AD 2011-0199 (later revised) [which corresponds to FAA AD 2013-19-14, Amendment 39-17596 (78 FR 68347, November 14, 2013)] for A330 and A340-200/300 aeroplanes, and AD 2013-0107 [which also corresponds to FAA AD 2013-19-14], for A340-500/600 aeroplanes to require a software standard upgrade of the three FCPCs by either modification or replacement.
Since EASA AD 2011-0199R1 and AD 2013-0107 were issued, new FCPC software standards, as specified in Appendix 1 of this [EASA] AD, were developed to correct aeroplane behaviour in case of undetected erroneous (Radio Altimeter) RA information and to introduce other improvements. In addition, the new FCPC software standards implement enhanced Angle of Attack (AOA) monitoring in order to better detect cases of AOA blockage, including multiple AOA blockage.
For the reasons described above, EASA issued AD 2015-0124 to require the latest software standard upgrade of the three FCPCs, by either modification or replacement.
At the time [EASA] AD 2015-0124 was issued, some of the Airbus SBs listed in Appendix 1 were not available. Since, some have been published, and for this reason, this [EASA] AD is revised to introduce the date of publication of these SBs.
There are still two SBs that remain unavailable at this time. It is expected that this [EASA] AD will be revised again when these SBs are published.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We reviewed the following service information:
• Service Bulletin A330-27-3205, Revision 02, dated March 23, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A320-27-3207, dated June 30, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-27-4195, dated November 24, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A340-27-4196, dated November 24, 2015.
The service information describes procedures for upgrading (replacing or modifying) the software standards for the FCPCs. The service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified
Paragraph (7) of EASA AD 2015-0124R1, dated February 2, 2016, is specific to Model A330 airplanes that were modified in service to a multi-role transport tanker (MRTT) configuration using Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3156. This Model A330 is not type-validated by the FAA. Therefore, we have not included the provisions for the Model A330 MRTT airplanes in this proposed AD.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 92 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 22, 2016.
This AD affects the ADs identified in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(4) of this AD:
(1) AD 2012-08-02, Amendment 39-17018 (77 FR 24829, April 26, 2012) (“AD 2012-08-02”).
(2) AD 2013-03-06, Amendment 39-17341 (78 FR 15279, March 11, 2013) (“AD 2013-03-06”).
(3) AD 2013-05-08, Amendment 39-17380 (78 FR 27015, May 9, 2013; corrected August 29, 2013 (78 FR 53237)) (“AD 2013-05-08”).
(4) AD 2013-19-14, Amendment 39-17596 (78 FR 68347, November 14, 2013) (“AD 2013-19-14”).
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(7) of this AD, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Model A330 -223F and -243F airplanes.
(2) Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, and -243 airplanes.
(3) Model A330-301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes.
(4) Model A340-211,—212, and -213 airplanes.
(5) Model A340-311, -312, and -313 airplanes.
(6) Model A340-541 airplanes.
(7) Model A340-642 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by a determination that, due to significant differences among all airspeed sources, the flight controls will revert to alternate law, the autopilot (AP) and the auto-thrust (A/THR) will automatically disconnect, and the flight director (FD) bars will be automatically removed. Then, if two airspeed sources become similar while still erroneous, the flight guidance computers will display the FD bars again, and enable the re-engagement of the AP and A/THR. In some cases, however, the AP orders may be inappropriate, such as possible abrupt pitch command. We are issuing this AD to prevent autopilot engagement under unreliable airspeed conditions, which could result in reduced controllability of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD: Upgrade (by modification or replacement, as applicable) the three flight control primary computers (FCPCs), as specified in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(3), and (h)(4) of this AD, except for Model A340-500 and -600 series airplanes with hardware standard FCPC 2K2, do the upgrade in accordance with a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
For the upgrade required by paragraph (g) of this AD, applicable service information is identified in paragraphs (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(3), and (h)(4) of this AD.
(1) For Model A330 airplanes with hardware standard FCPC 2K2: Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3205, Revision 02, dated March 23, 2016.
(2) For Model A330 airplanes with hardware standard FCPC 2K1 or FCPC 2K0: Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3207, dated June 30, 2015.
(3) For Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes with hardware standard FCPC 2K0 or FCPC 2K1: Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-4195, dated November 24, 2015.
(4) For Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes with hardware standard FCPC 2K2: Airbus Service Bulletin A340-27-4196, dated November 24, 2015.
After accomplishing the FCPC upgrade required by paragraph (g) of this AD, the AFM operational procedures required by the AFM revisions identified in paragraphs (i)(1), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this AD are no longer required and can be removed from the AFM for that airplane only.
(1) The AFM revision required by paragraph (g) of AD 2013-03-06.
(2) The AFM revision required by paragraph (g) of AD 2013-19-14.
(3) The AFM revision required by paragraph (h) of AD 2013-19-14.
Accomplishing the FCPC upgrade required by paragraph (g) of this AD terminates the dispatch limitations required by paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of AD 2012-08-02 for that airplane only, and after accomplishing the FCPC upgrade, those dispatch limitations can be removed from the AFM for that airplane only.
Accomplishing the FCPC upgrade required by paragraph (g) this AD constitutes compliance with the requirements of paragraph (l) and paragraphs (o)(1) through (o)(4) of AD 2013-05-08.
Accomplishing the FCPC upgrade required by paragraph (g) this AD constitutes compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (i) and (j) of AD 2013-19-14.
For Airbus Model A330 series airplanes having Airbus Modification 202680 (installation of FCPC 2K2 with software standard P13/M22) incorporated in production: The actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD are not required, provided it can be positively determined that since the date of issuance of the original certificate of airworthiness or the original export certificate of airworthiness, no FCPC has been replaced on that airplane with an FCPC having an earlier standard.
This paragraph provides credit for the applicable actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3205, dated March 9, 2015; or Airbus Service Bulletin A330-27-3205, Revision 01, dated July 3, 2015; which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0124R1, dated February 2, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 45 80; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Embraer S.A. Models EMB-500 and EMB-505 airplanes. This proposed AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as incorrect installation of passenger seat attachment fittings. We are issuing this proposed AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 22, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Embraer—S.A., Phenom Maintenance Support, Avenida Brigadeiro Faria Lima, 2170, São José dos Campos—SP—12227-901, P.O. Box 36/2, Brasil; phone: +55 12 3927 1000; fax: +55 12 3927-2619; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jim Rutherford, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4165; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC), which is the aviation authority for Brazil, has issued AD No.: 2016-05-01, dated May 27, 2016 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for Embraer S.A. Models EMB-500 and EMB-505 airplanes and was based on mandatory continuing airworthiness information originated by an aviation authority of another country. The MCAI states:
There is the possibility that certain attachment fittings of passenger seats have been incorrectly installed. This AD results from a determination that the passenger seat on which the attachment fittings were improperly installed may not meet certain static strength, and dynamic strength criteria. Failure to meet static and dynamic strength criteria could result in injuries to the occupants during an emergency landing condition.
This AD requires the inspection of each passenger seat for the correct installation of the attachment fittings and correction, if necessary.
Embraer S.A. has issued Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-25-0016; and Embraer S.A. SB No.: 505-25-0020, both dated December 8, 2015. The service information describes procedures for inspection of the passenger seat attachment fittings and correction to the fittings if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD will affect 203 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 4 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $69,020, or $340 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 6 work-hours for a cost of $510 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
According to the manufacturer, all of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 22, 2016.
None.
(1) This AD applies to Embraer S.A. Model EMB-500 airplanes, serial numbers 50000322, 50000324 through 50000328, 50000330 through 50000344, 50000346 through 50000350, and 50000353, certificated in any category; and Embraer S.A. Model EMB-505 airplanes, serial numbers 50500004 through 50500215, 50500217 through 50500245, 50500247 through 50500255, 50500257 through 50500259, 50500261 through 50500263, 50500265, and 50500267, certificated in any category.
(2) The airplanes identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this AD had passenger seats installed at manufacturer as listed in Embraer S.A. Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-25-0016, dated December 8, 2015; or Embraer S.A. SB No.: 505-25-0020, dated December 8, 2015. Since these are line replaceable units and the unsafe condition of this AD was originated during manufacturing, any passenger seat replaced during routine maintenance is not affected by the actions of this AD.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 25: Equipment/Furnishing.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as incorrect installation of passenger seat attachment fittings. We are issuing this proposed AD to detect and correct improperly installed seat attachment fittings, which could result in seat damage causing injury to occupants during an emergency landing condition.
Unless already done, do the following actions in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD following the Accomplishment Instructions in Embraer S.A. Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-25-0016, dated December 8, 2015; or Embraer S.A. SB No.: 505-25-0020, dated December 8, 2015, as applicable:
(1) Within the next 30 months after the effective date of this AD, inspect each applicable passenger seat for the correct installation of attachment fittings.
(2) If any discrepancy is found during the inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, before further flight, correct the discrepancy.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to MCAI Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD No.: 2016-05-01, dated May 27, 2016, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM); reopening of comment period.
We are revising an earlier proposed airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, B4-622, B4-605R, B4-622R, F4-605R, F4-622R, and C4-605R variant F airplanes. The NPRM proposed to require repetitive detailed inspections of the lower frame fittings, related investigative actions, and corrective actions if necessary. The NPRM was prompted by reports of cracks in the frame base fittings connecting the frame lower positions to the center wing box. This action revises the NPRM by replacing the proposed requirements with new repetitive detailed inspections for cracking of the lower frame fittings of the frame foot, and replacement with a new frame foot if cracking is found. This action also provides optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections. We are proposing this supplemental NPRM (SNPRM) to detect and correct cracking of the lower frame fittings, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane. Since these actions impose an additional burden over those proposed in the NPRM, we are reopening the comment period to allow the public the chance to comment on these proposed changes.
We must receive comments on this SNPRM by August 22, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, B4-622, B4-605R, B4-622R, F4-605R, F4-622R, and C4-605R variant F airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The NPRM was prompted by reports of cracks in the frame base fittings connecting the frame lower positions to the center wing box. The NPRM proposed to require repetitive detailed inspections of the lower frame fittings, related investigative actions, and corrective actions if necessary.
Since we issued the NPRM, we have determined that repairs to address cracking in the frame foot area found during accomplishment of the detailed inspection of the lower frame fittings specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6111, Revision 05, including Appendix 01, dated January 28, 2013, are not adequate to prevent further cracking. The European Aviation Safety Agency, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0217, dated October 30, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition on all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, B4-622, B4-605R, B4-622R, F4-605R, F4-622R, and C4-605R variant F airplanes. The MCAI states:
During accomplishment of Airbus Service Bulletin (SB) A300-53-6111 (EASA AD 2012-0103), addressing detailed visual inspections of the lower frame fittings between Frame (FR) 41 and FR46, a crack was detected on one A300-600 aeroplane in the area 2 of the foot of FR46 at junction radius level.
This frame, previously repaired due to a crack finding in the frame foot area 1, was not due to be inspected before reaching the post-repair inspection threshold,
Further investigation determined that the repairs specified in Airbus SB A300-53-6111 were of limited effect to prevent cracking in the frame foot area 2.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the fuselage of all aeroplanes operated up to the extended service goal (ESG).
As a temporary action and until an improvement of the existing repairs was made available, EASA issued AD 2012-0229 [AD * * *] to require a one-time detailed inspection (DET) of the frame feet that were repaired in accordance with Airbus SB
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, a detailed study was performed resulting in the development of a new inspection programme.
Consequently, Airbus cancelled SB A300-53-6111 and replaced it with SB A300-53-6177, introducing repetitive DET of the lower frame fittings between FR41 and FR46 for the entire fleet. In addition to this new inspection programme, Airbus designed a new frame foot which can be installed on aeroplanes through Airbus SB A300-53-6176.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD supersedes EASA AD 2012-0103, not retaining its requirements, and instead requires the new inspection programme for the lower frame fittings. This [EASA] AD also introduces an optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by the [EASA] AD.
Corrective actions include replacing any cracked lower frame fittings with a new frame foot. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued Service Bulletin A300-53-6177, dated May 20, 2015. The service information describes procedures for repetitive detailed inspections for cracking of the lower frame fittings between FR41 and FR46. Airbus has also issued Service Bulletin A300-53-6176, dated May 20, 2015. The service information describes procedures for replacing all lower frame feet between frame FR41 and FR46 with new, improved frame feet. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this proposed AD. We considered the comments received.
United Parcel Service (UPS) requested that the compliance times in the proposed AD (in the NPRM) be revised to be less complex. UPS stated that the proposed compliance times contain a method known as “Average Flight Time” (AFT) which results in a variable flight hour limit and adds an unnecessary complexity to the threshold table and subsequent inspection actions. UPS added that use of the AFT method, along with a lack of standard procedures for implementing the AFT method would create uncertainty for operators and inspectors trying to determine the correct compliance time. UPS stated that a defined threshold and repetitive inspection interval would adequately provide for timely detection of possible damage.
We disagree with the commenter's request to revise the compliance times in this proposed AD. The compliance times in this proposed AD correspond with those in the MCAI AD, which refers to Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6177, dated May 20, 2015. In Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6177, dated May 20, 2015, the inspection thresholds and intervals are based on the accumulation of both flight cycles and flight hours, and are listed in tables appropriately grouping airplanes with average flight time utilization above 1.5 hours, and airplanes with average flight time utilization at or below 1.5 hours. We have determined these compliance times acceptable for this proposed AD.
However, we do acknowledge that a fixed compliance time for a fleet could be easier for operators to schedule and record compliance. Therefore, under the provisions of paragraph (j)(1) of this proposed AD, we will consider requests for approval of an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) if a proposal is submitted that is supported by technical data that includes fatigue and damage tolerance analysis. We have not changed this proposed AD in this regard.
FedEx objected to the reporting requirement in the proposed AD (in the NPRM).
We infer that FedEx wants the reporting requirement removed. We disagree that the reporting requirement should be removed from this proposed AD. We have determined that reporting the inspection findings will enable the manufacturer to obtain better insight into the extent of the cracking. We have made no change to this proposed AD in this regard.
UPS requested that we revise the proposed AD (in the NPRM) to remove the requirement to include the AD reference in repair approvals. UPS noted its concerns that the NPRM will increase requests for approval of alternative methods of compliance (AMOCs) and result in delays to other services and actions addressed by the FAA on a daily basis.
We agree with the commenter's request to remove from this proposed AD the requirement that repair approvals must specifically refer to this AD. Since late 2006, we have included a standard paragraph titled “Airworthy Product” in all MCAI ADs in which the FAA develops an AD based on a foreign authority's AD. The MCAI or referenced service information in an FAA AD often directs the owner/operator to contact the manufacturer for corrective actions, such as a repair. Briefly, the Airworthy Product paragraph allowed owners/operators to use corrective actions provided by the manufacturer if those actions were FAA-approved. In addition, the paragraph stated that any actions approved by the State of Design Authority (or its delegated agent) are considered to be FAA-approved.
In the proposed AD (in the NPRM) we proposed to prevent the use of repairs that were not specifically developed to correct the unsafe condition, by requiring that the repair approval provided by the State of Design Authority or its delegated agent specifically refer to this FAA AD. This change was intended to clarify the method of compliance and to provide operators with better visibility of repairs that are specifically developed and approved to correct the unsafe condition. In addition, we proposed to change the phrase “its delegated agent” to include “the Design Approval Holder (DAH) with a State of Design Authority's design organization approval (DOA)” to refer to a DAH authorized to approve required repairs for the AD.
In its comments to the proposed AD (in the NPRM), UPS stated the following: “The proposed wording, being specific to repairs, eliminates the interpretation that Airbus messages or other approved EASA documents are acceptable for approving minor deviations (corrective actions) needed during accomplishment of a[n AD] mandated Airbus service bulletin.”
This comment has made the FAA aware that some operators have misunderstood or misinterpreted the Airworthy Product paragraph to allow the owner/operator to use messages provided by the manufacturer as approval of deviations during the accomplishment of an AD-mandated action. The Airworthy Product paragraph does not approve messages or other information provided by the manufacturer for deviations to the requirements of the AD-mandated actions. The Airworthy Product paragraph only addresses the requirement to contact the manufacturer for corrective actions for the identified unsafe condition and does not cover deviations from other AD requirements.
To address this misunderstanding and misinterpretation of the Airworthy Product paragraph, we have changed that paragraph and retitled it “Contacting the Manufacturer.” This paragraph now clarifies that for any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer, the actions must be accomplished using a method approved by the FAA, EASA, or Airbus's EASA DOA.
The “Contacting the Manufacturer” paragraph also clarifies that, if approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature. The DOA signature indicates that the data and information contained in the document are EASA-approved, which is also FAA-approved. Messages and other information provided by the manufacturer that do not contain the DOA-authorized signature approval are not EASA-approved, unless EASA directly approves the manufacturer's message or other information.
This clarification does not remove flexibility afforded previously by the Airworthy Product paragraph. Consistent with long-standing FAA policy, such flexibility was never intended for required actions. This is also consistent with the recommendation of the AD Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee to increase flexibility in complying with ADs by identifying those actions in manufacturers' service instructions that are “Required for Compliance” with ADs. We continue to work with manufacturers to implement this recommendation. But once we determine that an action is required, any deviation from the requirement must be approved as an AMOC.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
Certain changes described above expand the scope of the NPRM. As a result, we have determined that it is necessary to reopen the comment period to provide additional opportunity for the public to comment on this SNPRM.
We estimate that this SNPRM affects 123 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate that it would take about 541 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this SNPRM, and 1 work-hour per product for reporting. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $0 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this SNPRM on U.S. operators to be $5,666,610, or $46,070 per product.
We estimate that the optional terminating modification would take about 529 work-hours and require parts costing $131,500, for a cost of $176,465.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this proposed AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this proposed AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this proposed AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 22, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-620, B4-622, B4-605R, B4-622R, F4-605R, F4-622R, and C4-605R variant F airplanes; certificated in any category; all serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by reports of cracks in the frame base fittings connecting the frame lower positions to the center wing box. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the lower frame fittings, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6177, dated May 20, 2015, except where Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6177, dated May 20, 2015, specifies a compliance time “from issuance of Revision 04 of Service Bulletin A300-53-6111,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD: Perform a detailed inspection for cracking of the lower frame fittings between frame (FR) 41 and FR46 of the frame foot, and if any crack is found, before further flight, replace with a new frame foot, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6177, dated May 20, 2015. Repeat the inspection thereafter at the applicable intervals specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6177, dated May 20, 2015.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD: Submit a report of the findings (both positive and negative) of each inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD. Send the report to Airbus Service Bulletin Reporting Online Application on Airbus World (
(1) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection.
(2) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
Replacement of all lower frame feet between FR41 and FR46, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6176, dated May 20, 2015, terminates the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0217, dated October 30, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain REIMS AVIATION S.A. Model F406 airplanes. This proposed AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracks found in the horizontal stabilizer rear attach structure and the vertical fin rear spar attach structure. We are issuing this proposed AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 22, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact ASI Aviation,
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Albert Mercado, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4119; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued AD No.: 2016-0101, dated May 25, 2016 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
Fatigue cracks and holes elongation were found on horizontal stabilizer fittings on F406 aeroplanes having accumulated more than 2 500 flight hours (FH).
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could result in loss of structural integrity of the horizontal stabilizer fittings.
To initially address this issue, DGAC France published AD 2001-161 to require repetitive visual inspections of the fittings, and, dependings on findings, replacement with a serviceable part.
Since that AD was issued, during maintenance, cracks were found on a slice plate of horizontal stabilizer fittings. Consequently, ASI Aviation issued Service Bulletin (SB) CAB01-5 Revision 2 to provide instructions for additional eddy-current non-destructive test (NDT) inspections.
For the reasons described above, this AD retains the requirements of DGAC France AD 2001-161, which is superseded, and requires the additional NDT inspections.
You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
ASI Aviation has issued Service Bulletin CAB01-5 Rev 2, dated December 3, 2015. The service information describes procedures for inspecting the horizontal stabilizer rear attach structure and the vertical fin rear spar attach structure for cracks and oversized bolt holes and making all necessary repairs and replacements. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD will affect 7 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 20.5 work-hours per product to comply with the basic inspections requirements of this proposed AD (18 work-hours to remove the horizontal stabilizer to gain access for the inspection and 2.5 work-hours to do the inspection). The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the proposed inspection on U.S. operators to be $12,197.50, or $1,742.50 per product.
We estimate that it would take about 25 work-hours per product to reinstall the horizontal stabilizer after doing the proposed inspection and any proposed necessary repairs or replacements. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed action on U.S. operators to be $14,875, or $2,125 per product.
In addition, we estimate any proposed necessary corrective actions as follows:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 22, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to REIMS AVIATION S.A. F406 airplanes, serial numbers F406-0001 through F406-0098, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 55: Stabilizers.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracks found in the horizontal stabilizer rear attach structure and the vertical fin rear spar attach structure. We are issuing this AD to prevent structural failure of the horizontal stabilizer and/or the vertical fin rear spar attach structure, which could result in damage to the airplane and loss of control.
Unless already done, do the following actions:
(1) At whichever of the compliance times specified in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (iii) of this AD that occurs the latest after the effective date of this AD, and repetitively thereafter every 2,400 hours time-in-service (TIS), do a visual and non-destructive test (NDT) inspection of the horizontal stabilizer splice plate assembly, part number (P/N) 6032183-1 or P/N 406-5518-32183-100 (as applicable), and the attach structure assembly P/N 6031210-1. Do the inspections following the Accomplishment Instructions in ASI Aviation Service Bulletin CAB01-5 Rev 2, dated December 3, 2015.
(i) Before accumulating 2,500 hours TIS; or
(ii) Within the next 100 hours TIS; or
(iii) At the next 600-hour inspection.
(2) If, during any inspection as required by paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, any oversized bolt hole or crack is detected on the horizontal stabilizer splice plate assembly or attach structure assembly, before further flight, repair or replace the affected part with a serviceable part following the Accomplishment Instructions in ASI Aviation Service Bulletin CAB01-5 Rev 2, dated December 3, 2015. After taking the necessary corrective action, continue with the repetitive inspection specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No.: 2016-0101, dated 25 May 25, 2016, and ASI Aviation Service Kit SKRA40611-Rev. 2, dated December 3, 2015, ASI Service Kit SK406-137, dated December 3, 2015 (which superseded ASI Aviation Service Kit SKRA406-12-Rev. 2, dated December 3, 2015), and ASI Aviation Service Kit SKRA406-13-Rev. 2, dated December 3, 2015, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 767-200, and -300 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the frame-to-floor-beam joints and frames common to shear ties at certain locations of fuselage structure are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections for cracking of the frame inner chords and webs common to the floor beam joint and at frames common to the shear ties at certain sections on the left and right fuselage sides, and corrective action if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the frame inner chords and webs common to the floor beam joint and at frames common to the shear ties at certain sections on the left and right fuselage sides, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 22, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Wayne Lockett, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057 3356; phone: 425-917-6447; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as widespread fatigue damage. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
An evaluation by the DAH indicates that the frame to floor beam joints and frames common to shear ties at certain locations of fuselage structure are subject to WFD. This condition, if not corrected, could result in cracking of the frame inner chords and webs common to the floor beam joint and at frames common to the shear ties at certain sections on the left and right fuselage sides, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0265, Revision 1, dated March 18, 2016. The service information describes procedures for doing a detailed inspection and a surface high frequency eddy current
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously. For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this proposed AD. Corrective actions correct or address any condition found. Corrective actions in an AD could include, for example, repairs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 306 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 22, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 767-200, and -300 series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53; Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the frame-to-floor-beam joints and frames common to shear ties at certain locations of fuselage structure are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the frame inner chords and webs common to the floor beam joint and at frames common to the shear ties at certain sections on the left and right fuselage sides, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as provided by paragraph (h) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0265, Revision 1, dated March 18, 2016: Do the actions required in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD; and do all applicable corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0265, Revision 1, dated March 18, 2016. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD thereafter at the applicable intervals specified
(1) Do a detailed inspection and a surface high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection for cracking of the frame inner chord and web common to the floor beam joint in section 41 and 43 on the left and right sides.
(2) Do a detailed inspection and a surface HFEC inspection for cracking of the section 43 and 46 frames common to the shear ties on the left and right sides.
Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0265, Revision 1, dated March 18, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0265, dated March 18, 2015. This service information is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Wayne Lockett, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6447; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed specifications; request for comments.
NMFS proposes a 2016 limit of 2,000 metric tons (mt) of longline-caught bigeye tuna for each U.S. Pacific territory (American Samoa, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands). NMFS would allow each territory to allocate up to 1,000 mt each year to U.S. longline fishing vessels in a specified fishing agreement that meets established criteria. As an accountability measure, NMFS would monitor, attribute, and restrict (if necessary) catches of longline-caught bigeye tuna, including catches made under a specified fishing agreement. The proposed catch limits and accountability measures would support the long-term sustainability of fishery resources of the U.S. Pacific Islands.
NMFS must receive comments by July 22, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0140, by either of the following methods:
•
•
NMFS prepared environmental analyses that describe the potential impacts on the human environment that would result from the proposed catch limits and accountability measures. The environmental analyses are available at
Jarad Makaiau, NMFS PIRO Sustainable Fisheries, 808-725-5176.
NMFS proposes to specify a catch limit of 2,000 mt of longline-caught bigeye tuna for each U.S. participating territory in 2016. NMFS would also authorize each U.S. Pacific territory to allocate up to 1,000 mt of its 2,000-mt bigeye tuna limit to U.S. longline fishing vessels that are permitted to fish under the Fishery Ecosystem Plan for Pelagic Fisheries of the Western Pacific (FEP). Those vessels must be identified in a specified fishing agreement with the applicable territory. The Western Pacific Fishery Management Council recommended these specifications.
NMFS will monitor catches of longline-caught bigeye tuna by the longline fisheries of each U.S Pacific territory, including catches made by U.S. longline vessels operating under specified fishing agreements. The criteria that a specified fishing agreement must meet, and the process for attributing longline-caught bigeye tuna, will follow the procedures in 50 CFR 665.819 (Territorial catch and fishing effort limits). When NMFS projects that a territorial catch or allocation limit will be reached, NMFS would, as an accountability measure, prohibit the catch and retention of longline-caught bigeye tuna by vessels in the applicable territory (if the territorial catch limit is projected to be reached), and/or vessels in a specified fishing agreement (if the allocation limit is projected to be reached).
NMFS will consider public comments on the proposed action and will announce the final specifications in the
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator for Fisheries has determined that this proposed specification is consistent with the applicable FEPs, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable laws, subject to further consideration after public comment.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce has certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that these proposed specifications, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. A description of the proposed action, why it is being considered, and the legal basis for it are contained in the preamble to this proposed specification.
The proposed action would specify a 2016 limit of 2,000 metric tons (mt) (4,409,240 lb) of longline-caught bigeye tuna for each U.S. Pacific territory (American Samoa, Guam, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI)). Without this catch limit, these U.S territories would not be subject to a limit because they, as Participating Territories to the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission (WCPFC), do not have a bigeye tuna limit under international measures adopted by the WCPFC. NMFS would also allow each territory to allocate up to 1,000 mt (2,204,620 lb) of its 2,000 mt bigeye tuna limit each year to U.S. longline fishing vessels in a specified fishing agreement that meets established criteria set forth in 50 CFR 665.819. As an accountability measure, NMFS would monitor, attribute, and restrict (if necessary) catches of longline-caught bigeye tuna by vessels in the applicable U.S. territory (if the territorial catch limit is projected to be reached), or by vessels operating under the applicable specified fishing agreement (if the allocation limit is projected to be reached). Payments under the specified fishing agreements support fisheries development in the U.S. Pacific territories and the long-term sustainability of fishery resources of the U.S. Pacific Islands.
This proposed action would directly apply to longline vessels federally permitted under the Fishery Ecosystem Plan for Pelagic Fisheries of the Western Pacific (Pelagic FEP), specifically Hawaii longline limited entry, American Samoa longline limited entry, and Western Pacific general longline permit holders. As of June 2016, 139 vessels possessed Hawaii longline limited entry permits (out of 164 total permits), 40 possessed American Samoa longline limited entry permits (out of 60 total permits), and one vessel held a Western Pacific general longline permit.
According to landings information provided in the environmental assessment prepared in support of this action and logbook information, Hawaii-based longline vessels landed approximately 25,791,000 lb of pelagic fish valued at $93,963,000 in 2012 and 27,053,000 lb of pelagic fish valued at $88,552,000 in 2013. With 129 vessels making either a deep- or shallow-set trip in 2012, and 135 vessels in 2013, the ex-vessel value of pelagic fish caught by Hawaii-based longline fisheries averaged about $728,000 and $656,000 per vessel in 2012 and 2013 respectively. In 2014, 140 vessels made approximately 1,431 trips, with 19,115 sets, and 47,130,556 hooks. In 2015, 142 vessels made approximately 1,448 trips, with 18,469 sets, and 47,489,544 hooks. Final catch, landings, and revenue information for the Hawaii-based longline fleet in 2014 and 2015 are not yet available.
In 2013, 22 American Samoa longline vessels turned in logbooks reporting the landing of 162,444 pelagic fish (approximately 6 million lb) valued at $6,772,386. Albacore made up the largest proportion of pelagic landings in American Samoa at 4,525,453 lb and bigeye tuna comprised of 187,954 lb. With 22 active longline vessels, the ex-vessel value of pelagic fish caught by the American Samoa longline fishery averaged about $307,836 per vessel in 2013. With regard to Guam and CNMI, no longline fishing has occurred since 2011.
On December 29, 2015, NMFS issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the U.S. Small Business Administration's (SBA) current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry in all NMFS rules subject to the RFA after July 1, 2016. Id. at 81194.
Based on this information, NMFS has determined that all vessels permitted federally under the Pelagic FEP are small entities,
Amendment 7 to the Pelagic FEP established a process by which NMFS could specify catch and/or effort limits for pelagic fisheries in American Samoa, Guam and CNMI, regardless of whether the WCPFC adopts a limit for those entities or not. Amendment 7 also allows NMFS to authorize the government of each territory to allocate a portion of their catch and/or effort limits through territorial fishing agreements. Specifically, bigeye tuna landed by vessels included in a fishing agreement are attributed to the U.S territory to which the agreement
In accordance with Federal regulations at 50 CFR part 300, subpart O, vessels that possess both an American Samoa and Hawaii longline permit are not subject to the U.S bigeye tuna limit. Therefore, these vessels may retain bigeye tuna and land fish in Hawaii after the date that NMFS projects the fishery would reach that limit. Further, catches of bigeye tuna made by such vessels are attributed to American Samoa, provided the fish was not caught in the U.S. EEZ around Hawaii. In 2015, all dual American Samoa/Hawaii longline permitted vessels were included in the fishing agreement with CNMI. Therefore, NMFS attributed bigeye catches by those vessels to the CNMI.
The 2016 U.S. bigeye tuna catch limit established in 50 CFR 300, Subpart O is 3,554 mt, which is about 1.5% higher than the 2015 limit. In 2015, the U.S. longline fishery was subject to a catch limit of 3,502 mt (WCPFC limit of 3,554 mt less the 2014 catch overage of 52 mt). NMFS closed the fishery on August 5, 2015, because the fishery reached the limit (80 FR 46515, July 28, 2015). However, effective October 9, 2015, NMFS specified the 2015 catch and allocation limits for the CNMI and all vessels in the Hawaii longline fleet immediately entered into a specified fishing agreement with the CNMI. NMFS forecasted vessels listed in the CNMI specified fishing agreement would reach the 1,000-mt allocation limit on November 30, 2015 and issued a notice that it would restrict retention of bigeye tuna by vessels identified in that agreement on that date (80 FR 74002, November 27, 2015). Effective November 25, 2015, NMFS specified the 2015 catch and allocation limit for Guam and all Hawaii longline vessels immediately entered into a second specified fishing agreement with Guam on that date. Preliminary data from PIFSC indicate that Hawaii longline vessels caught the entire 1,000-mt bigeye tuna allocation provided by the CNMI specified fishing agreement, but did not reach the 1,000 mt allocation limit provided by the Guam specified fishing agreement before the 2015 fishing year ended on December 31, 2015 (NMFS PIFSC unpublished data; Preliminary 2015 U.S. Part 1 annual report to the WCPFC).
Through this action, Hawaii-based longline vessels could again potentially enter into one or more fishing agreements with participating territories. This would enhance the ability of these vessels to extend fishing effort in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean and provide more bigeye tuna for markets in Hawaii. Providing opportunity to land bigeye tuna in Hawaii in the last quarter of the year when market demand is high will result in positive economic benefits for fishery participants and net benefits to the nation. Allowing participating territories to enter into specified fishing agreements under this action, provides benefits to the territories by providing funds for territorial fisheries development projects. In terms of the impacts of reducing the limits of bigeye tuna catch by longline vessels based in the territories from an unlimited amount to 2,000 mt, this is not likely to adversely affect vessels based in the territories.
Historical catch of bigeye tuna by the American Samoa longline fleet has been less than 2,000 mt, even including the catch of vessels based in American Samoa, catch by dual permitted vessels that land their catch in Hawaii, and catch attributed to American Samoa from U.S. vessels under specified fishing agreements (which occurred in 2011 and 2012). With regard to Guam and CNMI, no longline fishing has occurred since 2011.
Under the proposed action, longline fisheries managed under the Pelagic FEP are not expected to expand substantially nor change the manner in which they are currently conducted, (
For the reasons above, NMFS does not expect the proposed action to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As such, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
This action is exempt from review under the procedures of E.O. 12866 because this action contains no implementing regulations.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS is proposing regulations to modify observer coverage requirements for catcher vessels participating in the trawl limited access fisheries in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area (BSAI). If approved, this proposed rule would allow the owner of a trawl catcher vessel to request, on an annual basis, that NMFS place the vessel in the full observer coverage category for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following calendar year. This action is necessary to relieve vessel owners who request full observer coverage of the reporting requirements and observer fee liability associated with the partial observer coverage category. In addition, this proposed rule makes minor technical corrections to observer program regulations. This proposed rule is intended to promote the goals and objectives of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (BSAI FMP), and other applicable laws.
Submit comments on or before August 8, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-
•
•
Electronic copies of the Regulatory Impact Review/Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (Analysis) and the Categorical Exclusion prepared for this action are available from
Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection-of-information requirements contained in this rule may be submitted to NMFS at the above address; by email to
Alicia M Miller, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fisheries of the BSAI under the BSAI FMP. The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) prepared the BSAI FMP pursuant to the Magnuson-Stevens Act (16 U.S.C. 1801,
This proposed rule is consistent with Section 3.2.4.1 of the BSAI FMP. Section 3.2.4.1 requires observer coverage for trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI groundfish fisheries and describes which vessels and processors are in the full observer coverage category and which are in the partial observer coverage category. Section 3.2.4.1 also authorizes that exceptions to these classifications may be implemented through regulations. The Council recommended and NMFS concurs that this proposed rule would authorize an exception to allow the owner of a trawl catcher vessel in the partial observer coverage category to request placement in the full observer coverage category, and that this exception could be implemented through a regulatory amendment without the need to amend the BSAI FMP.
If approved, this proposed rule would amend North Pacific Groundfish and Halibut Observer Program (Observer Program) regulations to allow the owner of a trawl catcher vessel to request, on an annual basis, that NMFS place the vessel in the full observer coverage category for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following calendar year. This proposed rule would relieve trawl catcher vessel owners who request full observer coverage of the observer fee liability and reporting requirements associated with the partial observer coverage category. This proposed rule would establish a regulatory process to allow a trawl catcher vessel owner, on an annual basis, to request that NMFS place the vessel in the full observer coverage category for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following calendar year. This proposed rule is intended to provide flexibility to the owner of a trawl catcher vessel by allowing a vessel owner to request, on an annual basis, placement in the full observer coverage category; doing so would provide additional observer data. Implementation of this proposed rule would benefit the owners and operators of trawl catcher vessels that participate in the BSAI limited access fisheries while continuing to allow NMFS to collect the data necessary to conserve and manage the BSAI groundfish fisheries.
The following sections describe (1) the Observer Program, (2) the need for the proposed action, and (3) this proposed rule.
Regulations implementing the Observer Program require observer coverage on fishing vessels and at processing plants to allow NMFS-certified observers (observers) to obtain information necessary for the conservation and management of the BSAI and Gulf of Alaska groundfish and halibut fisheries. Observers collect biological samples and fishery-dependent information on total catch and fishing vessel interactions with protected species. Managers use data collected by observers to monitor quotas, manage groundfish catch and bycatch, and document and reduce fishery interactions with protected resources. Scientists use observer-collected data for stock assessments and marine ecosystem research.
The Observer Program was implemented in 1990 (55 FR 4839, February 12, 1990). In 2013, NMFS restructured the funding and deployment systems of the Observer Program (77 FR 70062, November 21, 2012). Under the restructured Observer Program, all vessels and processors in the groundfish and halibut fisheries off Alaska are placed into one of two categories: (1) The full observer coverage category, where vessels and processors obtain observer coverage by contracting directly with observer providers; and (2) the partial observer coverage category, where NMFS has the flexibility to deploy observers when and where they are needed, as described in the annual deployment plan that is developed by NMFS in consultation with the Council. As explained below, the deployment of observers in the partial observer coverage category is funded through a fee.
NMFS funds observer deployment in the partial observer coverage category by assessing a 1.25 percent fee on the ex-vessel value of retained groundfish and halibut from vessels that are not in the full observer coverage category. This observer fee is based on the total ex-vessel value of landed catch and calculated using a standardized price from the prior year's landings. NMFS intends that the fee be split equally between the processor receiving landed catch and the vessel harvesting the catch. The processor collects the vessel owner's portion of the observer fee and submits full payment to NMFS after the end of the year. More information about the observer fee for the partial observer coverage category is provided in the most recent annual notice of the standard ex-vessel prices for the observer fee (80 FR 77606; December 15, 2015), and in the final rule implementing the restructured observer program (77 FR 70062, November 21, 2012).
When the Observer Program was restructured, the Council and NMFS decided, based on data needs and costs, which vessels and processors to place in the full and partial observer coverage categories. Regulations implementing
Throughout this proposed rule, the trawl fisheries in the BSAI that are not part of a catch share program mentioned in the previous paragraph are referred to collectively as “the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries”. Vessels participating in the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries primarily target Pacific cod or yellowfin sole. NMFS does not allocate transferable PSC limits to trawl catcher vessels in the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries; therefore, trawl catcher vessels are placed in the partial observer coverage category when participating in these fisheries. The BSAI trawl limited access fisheries are managed with halibut and crab PSC limits that apply to the directed fishery as a whole or to operational category and gear type. Section 3.5 in the Analysis provides additional information about the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries, the Observer Program, and observer coverage categories.
The Council initiated this proposed action in response to comments on the proposed rule to restructure the Observer Program (77 FR 23326, April 18, 2012), and testimony to the Council. As detailed in the final rule for the restructured program, (77 FR 70062, November 21, 2012), some participants in the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries commented that their catcher vessels needed full (100 percent) observer coverage while directed fishing for Pacific cod. Full observer coverage, according to the participants, was necessary to comply with private contractual arrangements contained in their voluntary AFA agreements to manage halibut PSC at the vessel and cooperative level. Specifically, trawl catcher vessel owners expressed concern that if their vessels were placed in the partial observer coverage category and not randomly selected for observer coverage, a vessel owner would have to use halibut PSC rates extrapolated from other observed vessels for its halibut PSC accounting within the cooperative. Some vessel owners wanted the option to carry an observer on all fishing trips (
Participants in the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries also testified that allowing trawl catcher vessels to continue to carry an observer on all trips, as they had prior to Observer Program restructuring in 2013, would allow them to shift seamlessly between the AFA pollock trawl fishery where full observer coverage is required and other fisheries such as the BSAI Pacific cod limited access trawl fishery where only partial observer coverage is required. Participants in the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries testified that under the full observer coverage category requirements, a trawl catcher vessel owner could contract with the same observer provider in both the AFA pollock trawl and other BSAI trawl limited access fisheries. This operational efficiency would allow vessel owners and operators to coordinate with a single observer provider when moving between the AFA pollock fishery and the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries.
In a response to these comments on the restructured program, NMFS stated that neither the Council's motion nor the proposed rule for restructuring the Observer Program addressed an allowance for voluntary participation in the full observer coverage category (77 FR 70062, November 21, 2012). Therefore, this type of change could not be made in the final rule for the Observer Program restructuring. NMFS described that further analysis and a subsequent rulemaking would be needed to revise regulations to authorize vessel owners to request placement in the full observer coverage category and to relieve these vessel owners and associated processors from the observer fee liability for landings by trawl catcher vessels in the partial observer coverage category. NMFS highlighted the need to analyze the placement of vessels in a particular coverage category not only in terms of the economic impacts on a vessel owner, but also in terms of impacts on the fee base for the partial observer coverage category.
Since 2013, and with the concurrence of the Council, NMFS has allowed the owner of a BSAI trawl catcher vessels to request, on an annual basis, full observer coverage by submitting a letter of request to NMFS. Under this interim policy, a vessel owner could request, by December 1, to have a trawl catcher vessel comply with full observer coverage requirements in the following calendar year. Vessel owners then contract with a full coverage observer provider for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following year.
By regulation, catcher vessels participating in the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries are in the partial observer coverage category, and those landings are subject to the partial observer coverage fee liability as well as the requirement to log fishing trips in the Observer Declare and Deploy System (ODDS). ODDS is the internet-based communication platform that NMFS uses to receive information about fishing plans by vessels in the partial observer coverage category and to notify vessel owners if a fishing trip has been randomly selected for observer coverage. The owner and operator of a catcher vessel placed in the full observer coverage category are not required to log fishing trips in ODDS.
Under the interim policy, the owner of a trawl catcher vessel complies with full observer coverage requirements, but is not placed in the full observer coverage category by regulation and therefore, is required to comply with the partial observer coverage category reporting requirements and associated observer fee liability. This results in duplicative observer coverage costs and additional reporting requirements for those vessel owners that requested full observer coverage under the interim policy.
In February 2016, the Council unanimously recommended that NMFS revise regulations to allow the owner of a BSAI trawl catcher vessel in the partial observer coverage category to request, on an annual basis, that NMFS place the catcher vessel in the full observer coverage category for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI for the following year. Any trawl catcher vessel that NMFS did not place in the full observer coverage category would remain in the partial observer coverage category under existing regulations at §§ 679.50 and 679.51. Once NMFS notifies a catcher vessel owner that the catcher vessel has been placed in the full observer coverage category, the catcher vessel operator would then be subject to full observer coverage requirements described at § 679.51(a)(2) for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following year.
The rationale for the two major provisions of the proposed rule follows below. Alternatives, options, and
This proposed rule would allow the owner of a trawl catcher vessel to annually request full observer coverage in lieu of partial observer coverage for directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following year. This closely aligns with the interim policy, in place since 2013, under which NMFS allows the owner of a BSAI trawl catcher vessel to annually request full observer coverage for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following year. This proposed rule would establish a regulatory process to allow the owner of a trawl catcher vessel to submit a request for full observer coverage to NMFS by October 15 of the year prior to the year in which the catcher vessel would be placed in the full observer coverage category. NMFS would then place the vessel in the full observer coverage category for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the following year. This annual request is consistent with the Council's and NMFS' previous decision to require full observer coverage on catcher vessels only in fisheries with transferable PSC limits. The owner of a trawl catcher vessel could request the appropriate observer coverage category that would meet their private contractual agreements.
This proposed rule would not restrict which trawl catcher vessel owners could request full observer coverage, allowing the owner of any trawl catcher vessel to request full observer coverage for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following year. The Council considered restricting the option to AFA trawl catcher vessels because those are the vessels that have, thus far, requested full observer coverage under the interim policy. However, the Analysis did not identify any reason to restrict which BSAI trawl catcher vessel owners may request to increase their observer coverage requirements (see Section 3.7.3 and Section 3.7.4 of the Analysis for additional detail).
Section 3.7 of the Analysis describes the potential impact of the proposed rule on the costs of observer coverage, fee receipts, and observer deployment rates in the partial observer coverage category if NMFS approves trawl catcher vessel owners' requests and places the vessels in the full observer coverage category. Section 3.7 of the Analysis describes that this proposed rule could result in some cost savings and reduced administrative burden for trawl catcher vessel owners and operators, some slightly reduced fee receipts for the partial observer coverage category, and some potential for a limited decrease in observer deployment rates in the partial observer coverage category relative to current management. Observer deployment for vessels and processors in the partial observer coverage category will continue to be analyzed and evaluated in the Observer Program annual deployment plan and the Observer Program Annual Report.
This proposed rule would not alter existing observer coverage requirements for trawl catcher vessels delivering unsorted codends to a mothership in the BSAI. A trawl catcher vessel delivering unsorted codends to a mothership is not required to carry an observer because the catch is not brought onboard the catcher vessel, but is sorted aboard the mothership with full observer coverage.
This proposed rule would establish an annual deadline of October 15 for a trawl catcher vessel owner to request placement in the full observer coverage category for the following year. This deadline is earlier than the current deadline of December 1 under the interim policy. The October 15 deadline is necessary to balance the need to improve information available to analysts during the final preparations of the partial observer coverage annual deployment plan with the need to allow vessel owners the time to make business decisions for the following year. The October 15 deadline also provides full coverage observer providers adequate time to coordinate observer availability for the following year. Sections 3.6 and 3.7.1.2 of the Analysis provide additional detail on the rationale for the October 15 deadline and describe alternative deadlines that were considered but not proposed.
This proposed rule would revise regulations at 50 CFR part 679 to establish a process to allow the owner of a trawl catcher vessel to request, on an annual basis, that NMFS place the vessel in the full observer coverage category for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following calendar year. This proposed rule would add a paragraph at § 679.51(a)(2)(i)(C)(
The owner of a trawl catcher vessel that requests full observer coverage in lieu of partial observer coverage for all directed fishing for groundfish in the BSAI trawl limited access fisheries in the following year would submit a request to NMFS using ODDS, which is described at § 679.51(a)(1)(ii). Once a request is received, NMFS would consider the request and would notify the vessel owner whether the request has been approved or denied. This notification would occur through ODDS. Once NMFS has notified the vessel owner that a request to be placed in the full observer coverage category for the following year has been approved, the owner and operator of the trawl catcher vessel would be subject to full observer coverage requirements as described at § 679.51(a)(2) for all directed fishing for groundfish using trawl gear in the BSAI in the following year. Once approved by NMFS for placement in the full observer coverage category, a trawl catcher vessel could not be placed in the partial observer coverage category until the next year. Until NMFS provides notification of approval, a catcher vessel would remain in the partial observer coverage category as described at § 679.51(a)(1)(i).
The owner of a trawl catcher vessel placed in the full observer coverage category would contract directly with a permitted full coverage observer provider to procure observer services as described at § 679.51(d). The owner of a trawl catcher vessel in the full observer coverage category would not be required to log fishing trips in ODDS under § 679.51(a)(1), and landings made by a vessel in the full observer coverage category would not be subject to the 1.25 percent partial observer coverage fee under § 679.55.
This proposed rule would establish an annual deadline of October 15 for a trawl catcher vessel owner to request that a trawl catcher vessel operating in the BSAI be placed in the full observer coverage category for the following year as described in proposed regulations at § 679.51(a)(4)(iii). A vessel owner would be required to submit a request for full observer coverage by the October 15 annual deadline. NMFS would approve all requests that contained the information required by ODDS and were submitted on or before October 15. If NMFS disapproves a request to place a catcher vessel in the full observer coverage category, the catcher vessel would remain in the partial observer
The proposed rule specifies at proposed § 679.51(a)(4)(v) that if NMFS denies a request for placement in the full observer coverage category, NMFS would issue an Initial Administrative Determination, which would explain in writing the reasons for the denial. Under proposed § 679.51(a)(3)(vi), the vessel owner could appeal a denial to the National Appeals Office according to the procedures in 15 CFR part 906.
This proposed rule would make minor technical corrections to Observer Program regulations. This proposed rule would correct inaccurate cross references in §§ 679.84 and 679.93 to observer coverage requirements in § 679.51. This proposed rule would also standardize references to the observer sampling station and the Observer Sampling Manual throughout part 679, and update check-in/check-out report submission methods by removing a discontinued email address in § 679.5.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) and 305(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the BSAI FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
An initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) was prepared, as required by section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA). The IRFA describes the economic impact this proposed rule, if adopted, would have on small entities. A further description of the action, why it is being considered, and the legal basis for this action are explained earlier in the preamble to this proposed rule. A copy of the IRFA is available from NMFS (see
This proposed rule would directly regulate the owners of trawl catcher vessels that participate in the BSAI groundfish limited access fisheries. The Small Business Administration has established size standards for all major industry sectors in the United States.
For RFA purposes only, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (NAICS code 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide.
This proposed rule would provide the owners of BSAI trawl catcher vessels that currently are placed in the partial observer coverage category the opportunity for placement in the full observer coverage category. One-hundred catcher vessels used trawl gear in the BSAI in 2014. NMFS estimates that 13 of these trawl catcher vessels would be directly regulated small entities. The owners of three of these catcher vessels requested to be placed in the full observer coverage category for all their BSAI groundfish fishing during at least one year from 2013 through 2015.
This proposed rule proposes one new reporting requirement and eliminates one reporting requirement for a vessel owner who requests placement of their vessel in the full observer coverage category for a year. Any trawl catcher vessel owner who requests placement of their trawl catcher vessel in the full observer coverage category would be required to submit a request to NMFS. This request would be a new reporting requirement, and would only apply to those catcher vessel owners who request placement of their vessel in the full observer coverage category. The reporting requirement to log fishing trips in ODDS does not apply to vessels in the full observer coverage category; therefore, this proposed rule would remove a reporting requirement for these directly regulated small entities to log fishing trips in ODDS.
The RFA requires identification of any significant alternatives to this proposed rule that accomplish the stated objectives, consistent with applicable statutes, and that would minimize any significant economic impact of this proposed rule on small entities. As noted in the IRFA, this proposed rule is expected to create a net benefit for the directly regulated small entities because it offers trawl catcher vessel owners an opportunity to change their observer coverage category. The benefits of this proposed rule to trawl catcher vessel owners are expected to outweigh the costs of paying for an observer to be on board the vessel during all groundfish fishing in the BSAI, and the cost of the annual request to NMFS. If the benefits to a catcher vessel owner do not outweigh the costs, a catcher vessel owner can choose not to request that their vessel be placed in the full observer coverage category, and so would not be impacted by this proposed rule.
The Council considered the status quo (Alternative 1), and two action alternatives (Alternative 2 and Alternative 3). Alternative 3 included one option and three suboptions. The preferred alternative (Alternative 3 with Suboption 3) described in this proposed rule would provide the owners of BSAI trawl catcher vessels an option of requesting, on an annual basis, placement in the full observer coverage category rather than remaining in the partial observer coverage category. No new requirements would be imposed under the preferred alternative unless the catcher vessel owner requested the full observer coverage category. Of the action alternatives analyzed, the preferred alternative provides the most flexibility for the owner of a trawl catcher vessel to request full observer coverage in lieu of partial observer coverage.
Alternative 1 (status quo) would have continued to offer catcher vessel owners the option of carrying full observer coverage under the interim policy, but would not remove the requirement in regulations for continued payment of the partial observer coverage fee in addition to the cost of full observer coverage. Alternative 2 is more restrictive than the preferred alternative because it would have permanently placed AFA trawl catcher vessels in the full observer coverage category rather than offering the vessel owners an option to request full observer coverage on an annual basis. Alternative 3 Option 1 would have allowed only the owners of AFA trawl catcher vessels to request placement in the full observer coverage category, rather than providing the opportunity to the owners of all BSAI trawl catcher vessels. Alternative 3 Suboption 1 would have established an earlier deadline to submit the request for full observer coverage than under the preferred alternative. Directly regulated small entities opposed the earlier deadline because they wanted more time to make business decisions about observer coverage in the following year. Alternative 3 Suboption 2 would have established a one-time request to be placed in the full observer coverage category rather than an annual request as is the case under the preferred alternative. In summary, the preferred alternative of Alternative 3, Suboption 3 (this proposed rule) offers the widest range of options to the widest range of directly regulated small entities, as compared to all other alternatives.
No relevant Federal rules have been identified that would duplicate or overlap with the proposed action.
This proposed rule contains a collection-of-information requirement subject to review and approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). This requirement has been submitted to OMB for approval under OMB Control No. 0648-0318. The public reporting burden for Request for Full Observer Coverage Category is estimated to average 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information.
Public comment is sought regarding: Whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Send comments on these or any other aspects of the collection of information to NMFS at the
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, and no person shall be subject to penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number. All currently approved NOAA collections of information may be viewed at
Alaska, Fisheries, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 679 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 773
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) * * *
(
(
(
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Foreign Agricultural Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, this notice announces the Foreign Agricultural Service's intention to request an extension for a currently approved information collection in support of the regulation providing for the issuance of certificates of quota eligibility (CQEs) required to enter sugar and sugar-containing products under the tariff-rate quotas (TRQs) into the United States.
Comments on this notice must be received by no later than September 6, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
We invite you to submit comments as requested in this document. In your comment, include the Regulation Identifier Number (RIN) and volume, date, and page number of this issue of the
•
•
Comments will be available for inspection online at
Persons with disabilities who require an alternative means for communication of information (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.) should contact USDA's Target Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
William Janis, International Economist, Import Policies and Export Reporting Division, AgStop 1021, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-1021 or telephone (202) 720-2194, fax to (202) 720-0876, or email
The terms under which Certificates for Quota Eligibility (CQEs) will be issued to foreign countries that have been allocated a share of the WTO or have an allocation under a FTA TRQ are set forth in 15 CFR part 2011, Allocation of Tariff-Rate Quota on Imported Sugars, Syrups, and Molasses, Subpart A—Certificates of Quota. This regulation provides for the issuance of CQEs by the Secretary of Agriculture and in general prohibits sugar subject to the above-mentioned TRQs from being imported into the United States or withdrawn from a warehouse for consumption at the in-quota duty rates unless such sugar is accompanied by a valid CQE.
CQEs are distributed to foreign countries by the Director of the Import Policies and Export Reporting Division, Foreign Agriculture Service, or his or her designee. The distribution of CQEs is in such amounts and at such times as the Director determines are appropriate to enable the foreign country to fill its quota allocation for such quota period in a reasonable manner, taking into account harvesting periods, U.S. import requirements, and other relevant factors. The information required to be collected on the CQE is used to monitor and control the imports of products subject to the WTO and FTA sugar TRQs. A valid CQE, duly executed and issued by the Certifying Authority of the foreign country, is required for eligibility to enter the products into U.S. customs territory under the TRQs.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments also will become a matter of public record.
FAS is committed to complying with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act which requires Government agencies, to the maximum extent feasible, to provide the public the option of electronically submitting information collection. CQEs permit exporters to ship raw cane sugar to the United States at the U.S. sugar price, which is ordinarily higher than the world sugar price. Therefore, in contrast to most information collection documents, CQEs have a monetary value equivalent to the substantial benefits to exporters. CQEs have always been carefully handled as secure documents and distributed only to foreign government-approved Certifying Authorities.
Foreign Agricultural Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, this notice announces the Department's intention to request an extension for a currently approved information collection in support of the Export Sales Reporting program.
Comments should be submitted no later than September 6, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
We invite you to submit comments as requested in this document. In your comment, include the Regulation Identifier Number (RIN) and volume, date, and page number of this issue of the
•
•
Comments will be available for inspection online at
Persons with disabilities who require an alternative means for communication of information (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.) should contact USDA's Target Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
Peter W. Burr, Branch Chief, Export Sales Reporting, STOP 1025, Foreign Agricultural Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-1025; or by telephone (202) 720-9209; or by email:
USDA's Export Sales Reporting System was created after the large unexpected purchase of U.S. wheat and corn by the Soviet Union in 1972. To make sure that all parties involved in the production and export of U.S. grain have access to up-to-date export information, the U.S. Congress mandated an export sales reporting requirement in 1973. Prior to the establishment of the Export Sales Reporting System, it was difficult for the public to obtain information on export sales activity until the actual shipments had taken place. This frequently resulted in considerable delay in the availability of information.
Under the Export Sales Reporting System, U.S. exporters are required to report all large sales of certain designated commodities by 3:00 p.m. (Eastern Time) on the next business day after the sale is made. The designated commodities for these daily reports are wheat (by class), barley, corn, grain sorghum, oats, soybeans, soybean cake and meal, and soybean oil. Large sales for all reportable commodities except soybean oil are defined as 100,000 metric tons or more of one commodity in 1 day to a single destination or 200,000 tons or more of one commodity during the weekly reporting period. Large sales for soybean oil are 20,000 tons and 40,000 tons, respectively.
Weekly reports are also required, regardless of the size of the sales transaction, for all of these commodities, as well as wheat products, rye, flaxseed, linseed oil, sunflowerseed oil, cotton (by staple length), cottonseed, cottonseed cake and meal, cottonseed oil, rice (by class), cattle hides and skins (cattle, calf, and kip), beef and pork. The reporting week for the export sales reporting system is Friday-Thursday. The Secretary of Agriculture has the authority to add other commodities to this list.
U.S. exporters provide information on the quantity of their sales transactions, the type and class of commodity, the marketing year of shipment, and the destination. They also report any changes in previously reported information, such as cancellations and changes in destinations.
The estimated total annual burden of 47,907 hours in the OMB inventory for the currently approved information collection remains unchanged.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Siskiyou County Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Yreka, California. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held July 18, 2016, at 5:00 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Klamath National Forest (NF) Supervisor's Office, Conference Room, 1711 South Main Street, Yreka, California.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Natalie Stovall, RAC Coordinator, by phone at 530-841-4411 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to:
1. Approve prior meeting notes,
2. Update on ongoing projects,
3. Public comment period,
4. Review meeting schedule,
5. Proposal reviews,
6. Vote on proposals, and
7. Schedule meeting for August.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments may be sent to Natalie Stovall, RAC Coordinator, 1711 S. Main Street, Yreka, California 96097; by email to
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce (“the Department”) has received requests to conduct administrative reviews of various antidumping and countervailing duty orders and findings with May anniversary dates. In accordance with the Department's regulations, we are initiating those administrative reviews.
Brenda E. Waters, Office of AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-4735.
The Department has received timely requests, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(b), for administrative reviews of various antidumping and countervailing duty orders and findings with May anniversary dates.
All deadlines for the submission of various types of information, certifications, or comments or actions by the Department discussed below refer to the number of calendar days from the applicable starting time.
If a producer or exporter named in this notice of initiation had no exports, sales, or entries during the period of review (“POR”), it must notify the Department within 30 days of publication of this notice in the
In the event the Department limits the number of respondents for individual examination for administrative reviews initiated pursuant to requests made for the orders identified below, the Department intends to select respondents based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) data for U.S. imports during the period of review. We intend to place the CBP data on the record within five days of publication of the initiation notice and to make our decision regarding respondent selection within 30 days of publication of the initiation
In the event the Department decides it is necessary to limit individual examination of respondents and conduct respondent selection under section 777A(c)(2) of the Act:
In general, the Department has found that determinations concerning whether particular companies should be “collapsed” (
In the event the Department limits the number of respondents for individual examination in the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on aluminum extrusions from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”), the Department intends to select respondents based on volume data contained in responses to Q&V questionnaires. Further, the Department intends to limit the number of Q&V questionnaires issued in the review based on CBP data for U.S. imports of aluminum extrusions from the PRC. The extremely wide variety of individual types of aluminum extrusion products included in the scope of the order on aluminum extrusions would preclude meaningful results in attempting to determine the largest PRC exporters of subject merchandise by volume. Therefore, the Department will limit the number of Q&V questionnaires issued based on the import values in CBP data which will serve as a proxy for imported quantities. Parties subject to the review to which the Department does not send a Q&V questionnaire may file a response to the Q&V questionnaire by the applicable deadline if they desire to be included in the pool of companies from which the Department will select mandatory respondents. The Q&V questionnaire will be available on the Department's Web site at
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), a party that has requested a review may withdraw that request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The regulation provides that the Department may extend this time if it is reasonable to do so. In order to provide parties additional certainty with respect to when the Department will exercise its discretion to extend this 90-day deadline, interested parties are advised that the Department does not intend to extend the 90-day deadline unless the requestor demonstrates that an extraordinary circumstance has prevented it from submitting a timely withdrawal request. Determinations by the Department to extend the 90-day deadline will be made on a case-by-case basis.
In proceedings involving non-market economy (“NME”) countries, the Department begins with a rebuttable presumption that all companies within the country are subject to government control and, thus, should be assigned a single antidumping duty deposit rate. It is the Department's policy to assign all exporters of merchandise subject to an administrative review in an NME country this single rate unless an exporter can demonstrate that it is sufficiently independent so as to be entitled to a separate rate.
To establish whether a firm is sufficiently independent from government control of its export activities to be entitled to a separate rate, the Department analyzes each entity exporting the subject merchandise under a test arising from the
All firms listed below that wish to qualify for separate rate status in the administrative reviews involving NME countries must complete, as appropriate, either a separate rate application or certification, as described below. For these administrative reviews, in order to demonstrate separate rate eligibility, the Department requires entities for whom a review was requested, that were assigned a separate rate in the most recent segment of this proceeding in which they participated, to certify that they continue to meet the criteria for obtaining a separate rate. The Separate Rate Certification form will be available on the Department's Web site at
Entities that currently do not have a separate rate from a completed segment of the proceeding
For exporters and producers who submit a separate-rate status application or certification and subsequently are selected as mandatory respondents, these exporters and producers will no longer be eligible for separate rate status unless they respond to all parts of the questionnaire as mandatory respondents.
Initiation of Reviews:
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.221(c)(1)(i), we are initiating administrative reviews of the following antidumping and countervailing duty orders and findings. We intend to issue the final results of these reviews not later than May 31, 2017.
None.
During any administrative review covering all or part of a period falling between the first and second or third and fourth anniversary of the publication of an antidumping duty order under 19 CFR 351.211 or a determination under 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4) to continue an order or suspended investigation (after sunset review), the Secretary, if requested by a domestic interested party within 30 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the review, will determine, consistent with
For the first administrative review of any order, there will be no assessment of antidumping or countervailing duties on entries of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the relevant provisional-measures “gap” period, of the order, if such a gap period is applicable to the POR.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under administrative protective orders in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
On April 10, 2013, the Department published
Any party submitting factual information in an antidumping duty or countervailing duty proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness
On September 20, 2013, the Department modified its regulation concerning the extension of time limits for submissions in antidumping and countervailing duty proceedings:
These initiations and this notice are in accordance with section 751(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(a)) and 19 CFR 351.221(c)(1)(i).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice.
As a result of these sunset reviews, the Department of Commerce (the Department) finds that revocation of the antidumping duty orders on carbon butt-weld pipe fittings (BWPF) from Brazil, Japan, Taiwan, Thailand, and the People's Republic of China (PRC) would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping at the levels indicated in the “Final Results of Sunset Reviews” section of this notice.
Matthew Renkey, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2312.
On March 1, 2016, the Department published the notice of initiation of the third sunset reviews of the antidumping duty orders on BWPF from Brazil, Japan, Taiwan, Thailand, and the PRC, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).
On March 31, 2016, we received complete substantive responses for each review from the domestic interested parties within the 30-day deadline specified in 19 CFR 351.218(d)(3)(i). We received no substantive responses from respondent interested parties with respect to any of the orders covered by these sunset reviews, nor was a hearing requested. On May 9, 2016, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(e), TFA, MIW, and HL filed comments on the adequacy of responses in these sunset reviews. Pursuant to section 751(c)(3)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(e)(1)(ii)(C)(2), the Department is conducting expedited (120-day) sunset reviews of these orders.
The merchandise covered by the orders consists of certain carbon steel butt-weld type fittings, other than couplings, under 14 inches in diameter, whether finished or unfinished. These imports are currently classified under subheading 7307.93.30 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). The HTSUS subheading is provided for convenience and customs purposes. The written product description remains dispositive.
All issues raised in these reviews, including the likelihood of continuation or recurrence of dumping in the event of revocation and the magnitude of the margins likely to prevail if the orders were revoked, are addressed in the accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at
Pursuant to sections 751(c)(1) and 752(c)(1), (2) and (3) of the Act, we determine that revocation of the antidumping duty orders on BWPF from Brazil, Japan, Taiwan, Thailand, and the PRC would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping up to the following weighted-average margin percentages:
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Timely notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
We are issuing and publishing these results and notice in accordance with sections 751(c), 752(c), and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218.
International Trade Administration, DOC.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda of a meeting of the Environmental Technologies Trade Advisory Committee (ETTAC).
The meeting is scheduled for Tuesday, July 26, 2016, at 9:30 a.m. Eastern Standard Time (EST).
The meeting will be held in the Global Room at the National Association of Manufacturers (NAM), 733 10th Street NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC 20001.
Ms. Maureen Hinman, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries (OEEI), International Trade Administration, Room 4053, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (
The meeting will take place from 9:30 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. EDT. The general meeting is open to the public and time will be permitted for public comment from 1:30-2:00 p.m. EDT. Those interested in attending must provide notification by Wednesday, July 13, 2016 at 5:00 p.m. EDT, via the contact information provided above. Written comments concerning ETTAC affairs are welcome any time before or after the meeting. Minutes will be available within 30 days of this meeting.
Supplemental notice.
The United States Department of Commerce, International Trade Administration, is amending the Notice published at 80 FR 76670 (December 10, 2015), regarding the Information and Communication Technology Trade Mission to Turkey, scheduled for November 28-December 1, 2016, to amend the title, dates, and deadline for submitting applications for the event.
Amendments to Revise the Event Title and Dates.
Due to the U.S. holidays around the original dates of the mission, it has been determined that to allow for optimal execution of recruitment and event scheduling for the mission, the title of the mission was amended from “Information and Communication Technology Trade Mission” to “Cyber Security Trade Mission,” and the dates of the mission modified from November 28-December 1, 2016, to December 5-8, 2016. As a result of the shift of the event dates the date of the application deadline is revised from September 6, 2016 to the new deadline of September 16, 2016. Applications will now be accepted through September 16, 2016 (and after that date if space remains and scheduling constraints permit). Interested U.S. companies and trade associations/organizations providing cyber security products and services which have not already submitted an application are encouraged to do so.
The proposed schedule is updated as follows:
The U.S. Department of Commerce will review applications and make selection decisions on a rolling basis in accordance with the Notice published at 80 FR 76670 (December 10, 2015). The applicants selected will be notified as soon as possible.
Gemal Brangman, Team Leader, Trade Promotion Programs, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230, Tel: 202-482-3773, Fax: 202-482-9000,
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (“the Department”) published the
Effective Date: July 7, 2016.
Paul Walker or Kenneth Hawkins, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: 202-482-0413 or 202-482-6491, respectively.
The Department published the
The product covered by the order is frozen fish fillets, including regular, shank, and strip fillets and portions thereof, whether or not breaded or marinated, of the species
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this review are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues which parties raised is attached to this notice as an appendix. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file in the Central Records Unit (“CRU”), Room B8024 of the main Department of Commerce building, as well as electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (“ACCESS”). ACCESS is available to registered users at
Based on a review of the record and comments received from interested parties regarding our
The dumping margin for the final results of this new shipper review is as follows:
The Department
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b), the Department will
For assessment purposes, we calculated importer (or customer)-specific assessment rates for merchandise subject to this review. We will continue to direct CBP to assess importer specific assessment rates based on the resulting per-unit (
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this new shipper review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For subject merchandise produced and exported by HHFISH, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established in the final results of this new shipper review (except, if the rate is zero or
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (“APO”) of their
We are issuing and publishing this new shipper review and notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(2)(B) and 777(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.214.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On April 11, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published the preliminary results of the administrative review of the antidumping duty (AD) order on brass sheet and strip from Germany.
George McMahon or Eric Greynolds, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1167 or (202) 482-6071, respectively.
On April 11, 2016, the Department published the
The scope of the order covers shipments of brass sheet and strip, other than leaded and tinned, from Germany. The chemical composition of the covered products is currently defined in the Copper Development Association (CDA) 200 Series or the Unified Numbering System (UNS) C2000; this review does not cover products the chemical compositions of which are defined by other CDA or UNS series. In physical dimensions, the products covered by this review have a solid rectangular cross section over 0.006 inches (0.15 millimeters) through 0.188 inches (4.8 millimeters) in finished thickness or gauge, regardless of width. Coiled, wound-on-reels (traverse wound), and cut-to-length products are included. The merchandise is currently classified under Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) item numbers 7409.21.00.50, 7409.21.00.75, 7409.21.00.90, 7409.29.00.50, 7409.29.00.75, and 7409.29.0090. Although the HTSUS item numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this order remains dispositive.
As noted above, the Department received no comments concerning the
As a result of this review, the Department determines that the following dumping margins on brass sheet and strip from Germany exist for the period March 1, 2014, through February 28, 2015:
Upon issuance of the final results of this administrative review, the Department shall determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries, in accordance with section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212. The Department intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the notice of final results of administrative review for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for respondents noted above will be the rate established in the final results of this administrative review; (2) for merchandise exported by manufacturers or exporters not covered in this administrative review but covered in a prior segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company specific rate published for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the original investigation, but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding for the manufacturer of the subject merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 7.30 percent, the all-others rate determined in the less than fair value investigation. These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation, which is subject to sanction.
We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Commerce.
As a result of these sunset reviews, the Department of Commerce (the Department) finds that revocation of the antidumping duty (AD) orders would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping at the dumping margins identified in the “Final Results of Reviews” section of this notice.
Kate Johnson, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4929.
On March 1, 2016, the Department published the notice of initiation of the sunset reviews of the AD
On March 29 and 31, 2016, respectively, the Department received complete substantive responses to the
The products covered by the
The frozen warmwater shrimp and prawn products included in the
The products described above may be processed from any species of warmwater shrimp and prawns. Warmwater shrimp and prawns are generally classified in, but are not limited to, the Penaeidae family. Some examples of the farmed and wild-caught warmwater species include, but are not limited to, whiteleg shrimp (
Frozen shrimp and prawns that are packed with marinade, spices or sauce are included in the scope of the
Excluded from the
The products covered by the
A complete discussion of all issues raised in these reviews is provided in the accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum. The issues discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum include the likelihood of continuation or recurrence of dumping and the magnitude of the margins likely to prevail if the
Pursuant to sections 751(c)(1) and 752(c)(1) and (3) of the Act, the Department determines that revocation of the AD
This notice also serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective orders (APO) of their responsibility concerning the
We are issuing and publishing the results and notice in accordance with sections 751(c), 752(c), and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Toni Page at (202) 482-1398 or Lingjun Wang at (202) 482-2316, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On March 3, 2016, the Department of Commerce (Department) initiated an antidumping duty (AD) investigation of imports of stainless steel sheet and strip from the People's Republic of China.
Sections 733(c)(1)(B)(i) and (ii) of the Act permit the Department to postpone the time limit for the preliminary determination if it concludes that the parties concerned are cooperating and determines that the case is extraordinarily complicated by reason of the number and complexity of the transactions to be investigated or adjustments to be considered, the novelty of the issues presented, or the number of firms whose activities must be investigated, and additional time is necessary to make the preliminary determination. Under this section of the Act, the Department may postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 190 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation.
The Department determines that the parties involved in this investigation are cooperating, and that the investigation is extraordinarily complicated. Additional time is required to analyze the questionnaire responses and issue any appropriate requests for clarification and additional information.
Therefore, in accordance with section 733(c)(1)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1), the Department is postponing the time period for the preliminary determination of this investigation by 50 days, to September 9, 2016. Pursuant to section 735(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(1), the deadline for the final determination will continue to be 75 days after the date of the preliminary determination, unless postponed at a later date.
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 733(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; proposed incidental harassment authorization; request for comments.
NMFS (hereinafter, “we” or “our”) received an application from the U.S. Department of the Air Force, 86 Fighter Weapons Squadron (86 FWS), requesting an Incidental Harassment Authorization (IHA) to take marine mammals, by harassment, incidental to a Long Range Strike Weapon Systems Evaluation Program (LRS WSEP) in the Barking Sands Underwater Range Extension (BSURE) area of the Pacific Missile Range Facility (PMRF) at Kauai, Hawaii. 86 FWS's activities are military readiness activities per the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), as amended by the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year 2004. Pursuant to the MMPA, NMFS requests comments on its proposal to issue an IHA to 86 FWS to incidentally take, by Level A and Level B harassment, two species of marine mammals, the dwarf sperm whale (
NMFS must receive comments and information no later than August 8, 2016.
Comments on the application should be addressed to Jolie Harrison, Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service, 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910. The email address for providing email comments is
An electronic copy of the application may be obtained by writing to the address specified above, telephoning the contact listed below (see
Laura McCue, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA(16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings for marine mammals shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting of such taking are set forth. NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.”
The NDAA of 2004 (Pub. L. 108-136) removed the “small numbers” and “specified geographical region” limitations indicated earlier and amended the definition of harassment as it applies to a “military readiness activity” to read as follows (Section 3(18)(B) of the MMPA): (i) Any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild [Level A Harassment]; or (ii) any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where such behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered [Level B Harassment].
On May 12, 2016, NMFS received an application from 86 FWS for the taking of marine mammals, by harassment, incidental to the LRS WSEP within the PMRF in Kauai, Hawaii from September 1, 2016 through August 31, 2017. 86 FWS submitted a revised version of the renewal request on June 9, 2016 and June 20, 2016, which we considered adequate and complete.
The proposed LRS WSEP training activities would occur on September 1, 2016, with a backup date of September 2, 2016.
86 FWS proposes actions that include LRS WSEP test missions of the Joint Air-To-Surface Stand-off Missile (JASSM) and the Small Diameter Bomb-I/II (SDB-I/II) including detonations at the water surface. These activities qualify as a military readiness activities under the MMPA and NDAA.
The following aspects of the proposed LRS WSEP training activities have the potential to take marine mammals: Munition strikes and detonation effects (overpressure and acoustic components). Take, by Level B harassment of individuals of dwarf sperm whale and pygmy sperm whale could potentially result from the specified activity. Additionally, although NMFS does not expect it to occur, 86 FWS has also requested authorization for Level A Harassment of one individual dwarf sperm whale. Therefore, 86 FWS has requested authorization to take individuals of two cetacean species by Level A and Level B harassment.
86 FWS's LRS WSEP training activities may potentially impact marine mammals at or near the water surface in the absence of mitigation. Marine mammals could potentially be harassed, injured, or killed by exploding and non-exploding projectiles, falling debris, or ingestion of military expended materials. However, based on analyses provided in 86 FWS's 2016 application, 2016 Environmental Assessment (EA), and for reasons discussed later in this document, we do not anticipate that 86 FWS's LRS WSEP activities would result in any serious injury or mortality to marine mammals.
86 FWS proposes to conduct air-to-surface mission in the BSURE area of the PMRF. The LRS WSEP test objective is to conduct operational evaluations of long range strike weapons and other munitions as part of LRS WSEP operations to properly train units to execute requirements within Designed Operational Capability Statements, which describe units' real-world operational expectations in a time of war. Due to threats to national security, increased missions involving air-to-surface activities have been directed by the Department of Defense (DoD). Accordingly, the U.S. Air Force seeks the ability to conduct operational evaluations of all phases of long range strike weapons within the U.S. Navy's Hawaii Range Complex (HRC). The actions would fulfill the Air Force's requirement to evaluate full-scale maneuvers for such weapons, including scoring capabilities under operationally realistic scenarios. LRS WSEP objectives are to evaluate air-to-surface and maritime weapon employment data, evaluate tactics, techniques, and procedures in an operationally realistic environment, and to determine the impact of tactics, techniques, and procedures on combat Air Force training. The munitions associated with the proposed activities are not part of a typical unit's training allocations, and prior to attending a WSEP evaluation, most pilots and weapon systems officers have only dropped weapons in simulators or used the aircraft's simulation mode. Without WSEP operations, pilots would be using these weapons for the first time in combat. On average, half of the participants in each unit drop an actual weapon for the first time during a WSEP evaluation. Consequently, WSEP is a military readiness activity and is the last opportunity for squadrons to receive operational training and evaluations before they deploy.
86 FWS proposes to schedule the LRS WSEP training missions over one day on September 1, 2016, with a backup day the following day. The proposed missions would occur on a weekday during daytime hours only, with all missions occurring in one day. This IHA would be valid from September 1, 2016 through August 31, 2017.
The specific planned impact area is approximately 44 nautical miles (nm)(81 kilometers (km)) offshore of Kauai, Hawaii, in a water depth of about 15,240 feet (ft) (4,645 meters (m)) (see Figure 2-2 of 86 FWS's application). All activities will take place within the PMRF, which is located in Hawaii off the western shores of the island of Kauai and includes broad ocean areas to the north, south, and west (see Figure 2-1 of 86 FWS's application).
Within the PMRF, activities would occur in the BSURE area, which lies in Warning Area 188 (W-188). The BSURE consists of about 900 nm
The LRS WSEP training missions, classified as military readiness activities, refer to the deployment of live (containing explosive charges) missiles from aircraft toward the water surface. The actions include air-to-surface test missions of the JASSM and the SDB-I/II including detonations at the water surface.
Aircraft used for munition releases would include bombers and fighter aircraft. Additional airborne assets, such as the P-3 Orion or the P-8 Poseidon, would be used to relay telemetry (TM) and flight termination system (FTS) streams between the weapon and ground stations. Other support aircraft would be associated with range clearance activities before and during the mission and with air-to-air refueling operations. All weapon delivery aircraft would originate from an out base and fly into military-controlled airspace prior to employment. Due to long transit times between the out base and mission location, air-to-air refueling may be conducted in either W-188 or W-189. Bombers, such as the B-1, would deliver the weapons, conduct air-to-air refueling, and return to their originating base as part of one sortie. However, when fighter aircraft are used, the distance and corresponding transit time to the various potential originating bases would make return flights after each mission day impractical. In these cases, the aircraft would temporarily (less than one week) park overnight at Hickam Air Force Base (HAFB) and would return to their home base at the conclusion of each mission set. Multiple weapon release aircraft would be used during some missions, each potentially releasing multiple munitions. The LRS WSEP missions scheduled for 2016 are proposed to occur in one day, with the following day reserved as a back-up day. Approximately 10 Air Force personnel would be on temporary duty to support the mission.
Aircraft flight maneuver operations and weapon release would be conducted in W-188A boundaries of PMRF. Chase aircraft may be used to evaluate weapon release and to track weapons. Flight operations and weapons delivery would be in accordance with published Air Force directives and weapon operational release parameters, as well as all applicable Navy safety regulations and criteria established specifically for PMRF. Aircraft supporting LSR WSEP missions would primarily operate at high altitudes—only flying below 3,000 feet for a limited time as needed for escorting non-military vessels outside the hazard area or for monitoring the area for protected marine species (
Post-mission surveys would focus on the area down current of the weapon impact location. Range clearance procedures for each mission would cover a much larger area for human safety. Weapon release parameters would be conducted as approved by PMRF Range Safety. Daily mission briefs would specify planned release conditions for each mission. Aircraft and weapons would be tracked for time, space, and position information. The 86 FWS test director would coordinate with the PMRF Range Safety Officer, Operations Conductor, Range Facility Control Officer, and other applicable mission control personnel for aircraft control, range clearance, and mission safety.
The JASSM is a stealthy precision cruise missile designed for launch outside area defenses against hardened, medium-hardened, soft, and area type targets. The JASSM has a range of more than 200 nm (370 km) and carries a 1,000-pound (lb) warhead with approximately 300 lbs of 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (TNT) equivalent net explosive weight (NEW). The specific explosive used is AFX-757, a type of plastic bonded explosive (PBX). The weapon has the capability to fly a preprogrammed route from launch to a target, using Global Positioning System (GPS) technology and an internal navigation system (INS) combined with a Terminal Area Model when available. Additionally, the weapon has a Common Low Observable Auto-Routing function that gives the weapon the ability to find the route that best utilizes the low observable qualities of the JASSM. In either case, these routes can be modeled prior to weapon release. The JASSM-ER has additional fuel and a different engine for a greater range than the JASSM (500 nm (926 km)) but maintains the same functionality of the JASSM.
The SDB-I is a 250-lb air-launched GPS-INS guided weapon for fixed soft to hardened targets. SDB-II expands the SDB-I capability with network enabling and uses a tri-mode sensor infrared, millimeter, and semi-active laser to attack both fixed and movable targets. Both munitions have a range of up to 60 NM (111 km). The SDB-I contains 37 lbs of TNT-equivalent NEW, and the SDB-II contains 23 lbs NEW. The explosive used in both SDB-I and SDB-II is AFX-757.
Initial phases of the LRS WSEP operational evaluations are proposed for September 2016 and would consist of releasing only one live JASSM/JASSM-ER and up to eight SDBs in military controlled airspace (Table 1). Immediate evaluations for JASSM/JASSM-ER and SDB-I are needed; therefore, they are the only munitions being proposed for
A typical mission day would consist of pre-mission checks, safety review, crew briefings, weather checks, clearing airspace, range clearance, mitigations/monitoring efforts, and other military protocols prior to launch of weapons. Potential delays could be the result of multiple factors including, but not limited to; adverse weather conditions leading to unsafe take-off, landing, and aircraft operations, inability to clear the range of non-mission vessels or aircraft, mechanical issues with mission aircraft or munitions, or presence of protected species in the impact area. If the mission is cancelled due to any of these, one back-up day has also been scheduled as a contingency. These standard operating procedures are usually done in the morning, and live range time may begin in late morning once all checks are complete and approval is granted from range control. The range would be closed to the public for a maximum of four hours per mission day.
Each long range strike weapon would be released in W-188A and would follow a given flight path with programmed GPS waypoints to mark its course in the air. Long range strike weapons would complete their maximum flight range (up to 500 nm distance for JASSM-ER) at an altitude of approximately 18,000 ft (equivalent in kms) mean sea level (MSL) and terminate at a specified location for scoring of the impact. The cruise time would vary among the munitions but would be about 45 minutes for JASSM/JASSM-ER and 10 minutes for SDB-I/II. The time frame between employments of successive munitions would vary, but releases could be spaced by approximately one hour to account for the JASSM cruise time. The routes and associated safety profiles would be contained within W-188A boundaries. The objective of the route designs is to complete full-scale evasive maneuvers that avoid simulated threats and would, therefore, not consist of a standard “paper clip” or regularly shaped route. The final impact point on the water surface would be programmed into the munitions for weapons scoring and evaluations.
All missions would be conducted in accordance with applicable flight safety, hazard area, and launch parameter requirements established for PMRF. A weapon hazard region would be established, with the size and shape determined by the maximum distance a weapon could travel in any direction during its descent. The hazard area is typically adjusted for potential wind speed and direction, resulting in a maximum composite safety footprint for each mission (each footprint boundary is at least 10 nm from the Kauai coastline). This information is used to establish a Launch Exclusion Area and Aircraft Hazard Area. These exclusion areas must be verified to be clear of all non-mission and non-essential vessels and aircraft before live weapons are released. In addition, a buffer area must also be clear on the water surface so that vessels do not enter the exclusion area during the launch window. Prior to weapon release, a range sweep of the hazard area would be conducted by participating mission aircraft or other appropriate aircraft, potentially including S-61N helicopter, C-26 aircraft, fighter aircraft (F-15E, F-16, F-22), or the Coast Guard's C-130 aircraft.
PMRF has used small water craft docked at the Port Allen public pier to keep nearshore areas clear of tour boats for some mission launch areas. However, for missions with large hazard areas that occur far offshore from Kauai, it would be impractical for these smaller vessels to conduct range clearance activities. The composite safety footprint weapons associated with LRS WSEP missions is anticipated to be rather large; therefore, it is likely that range clearing activities would be conducted solely by aircraft.
The Range Facility Control Officer is responsible for establishing hazard clearance areas, directing clearance and surveillance assets, and reporting range status to the Operations Conductor. The Control Officer is also responsible for submitting all Notice to Airmen (NOTAMs) and Notice to Mariners (NOTMARs), and for requesting all Federal Aviation Administration airspace clearances.
There are 25 marine mammal species with potential or confirmed occurrence in the proposed activity area; however, not all of these species occur in this region during the project timeframe. Table 2 lists and summarizes key information regarding stock status and abundance of these species. Please see NMFS' 2015 Stock Assessment Reports (SAR), available at
Of these 25 species, six are listed as endangered under the ESA and as depleted throughout its range under the MMPA. These are: humpback whale, blue whale, fin whale, sei whale, sperm whale, and the Hawaiian monk seal.
Of the 25 species that may occur in Hawaiian waters, only certain stocks occur in the impact area, while others are island-associated or do not occur at the depths of the impact area (
We have reviewed 86 FWS's species descriptions, including life history information, distribution, regional distribution, diving behavior, and acoustics and hearing, for accuracy and completeness. We refer the reader to Sections 3 and 4 of 86 FWS's application and to Chapter 3 in 86 FWS's EA rather than reprinting the information here.
Below, for those species that are likely to be taken by the activities described, we offer a brief introduction to the species and relevant stock as well as available information regarding population trends and threats, and describe any information regarding local occurrence.
Dwarf sperm whales are found throughout the world in tropical to warm-temperate waters (Caretta
There is one stock of dwarf sperm whales in Hawaii. Sighting data suggests a small resident population off Hawaii Island (Baird, in press). There are no current abundance estimates for this stock. In 2002, a survey off Hawaii estimated the abundance at 17,159; however, this data is outdated and is no longer used. PBR cannot be calculated due to insufficient data. It has been suggested that this species is probably one of the more abundant species of cetaceans in Hawaiian waters (Baird, in press). One of their main threats is interactions with fisheries; however, dwarf sperm whales are also sensitive to high-intensity underwater sounds and navy sonar testing. This stock is not listed as endangered under the ESA and is not considered strategic or designated as depleted under the MMPA (Caretta
Pygmy killer whales are found in tropical and subtropical waters throughout the world (Ross and Leatherwood 1994). This species prefers deeper waters, with observations of this species in greater than 4,000 m depth (Baird
There is a single stock of Pygmy killer whales in Hawaii. Current abundance estimates for this stock are unknown. A 2002 survey in Hawaii estimated 7,138 animals; however, this data is outdated and is no longer used. PBR cannot be calculated due to insufficient data. (Caretta
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components (
Sound travels in waves, the basic components of which are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude. Frequency is the number of pressure waves that pass by a reference point per unit of time and is measured in hertz (Hz) or cycles per second. Wavelength is the distance between two peaks of a sound wave. Amplitude is the height of the sound pressure wave or the “loudness” of a sound and is typically measured using the decibel (dB) scale. A dB is the ratio between a measured pressure (with sound) and a reference pressure (sound at a constant pressure, established by scientific standards). It is a logarithmic unit that accounts for large variations in amplitude; therefore, relatively small changes in dB ratings correspond to large changes in sound pressure. When referring to sound pressure levels (SPLs; the sound force per unit area), sound is referenced in the context of underwater sound pressure to 1 microPascal (μPa). One pascal is the pressure resulting from a force of one newton exerted over an area of one square meter. The source level (SL) represents the sound level at a distance of 1 m from the source (referenced to 1 μPa). The received level is the sound level at the listener's position. Note that we reference all underwater sound levels in this document to a pressure of 1 µPa and all airborne sound levels in this document are referenced to a pressure of 20 µPa.
Root mean square (rms) is the quadratic mean sound pressure over the duration of an impulse. Rms is calculated by squaring all of the sound amplitudes, averaging the squares, and then taking the square root of the average (Urick, 1983). Rms accounts for both positive and negative values; squaring the pressures makes all values positive so that one can account for the values in the summation of pressure levels (Hastings and Popper, 2005). This measurement is often used in the context of discussing behavioral effects, in part because behavioral effects, which often result from auditory cues, may be better expressed through averaged units than by peak pressures.
When underwater objects vibrate or activity occurs, sound-pressure waves are created. These waves alternately compress and decompress the water as the sound wave travels. Underwater sound waves radiate in all directions away from the source (similar to ripples on the surface of a pond), except in cases where the source is directional. The compressions and decompressions associated with sound waves are
Even in the absence of sound from the specified activity, the underwater environment is typically loud due to ambient sound. Ambient sound is defined as environmental background sound levels lacking a single source or point (Richardson
• Wind and waves: The complex interactions between wind and water surface, including processes such as breaking waves and wave-induced bubble oscillations and cavitation, are a main source of naturally occurring ambient noise for frequencies between 200 Hz and 50 kHz (Mitson, 1995). In general, ambient sound levels tend to increase with increasing wind speed and wave height. Surf noise becomes important near shore, with measurements collected at a distance of 8.5 km from shore showing an increase of 10 dB in the 100 to 700 Hz band during heavy surf conditions.
• Precipitation: Sound from rain and hail impacting the water surface can become an important component of total noise at frequencies above 500 Hz, and possibly down to 100 Hz during quiet times.
• Biological: Marine mammals can contribute significantly to ambient noise levels, as can some fish and shrimp. The frequency band for biological contributions is from approximately 12 Hz to over 100 kHz.
• Anthropogenic: Sources of ambient noise related to human activity include transportation (surface vessels and aircraft), dredging and construction, oil and gas drilling and production, seismic surveys, sonar, explosions, and ocean acoustic studies. Shipping noise typically dominates the total ambient noise for frequencies between 20 and 300 Hz. In general, the frequencies of anthropogenic sounds are below 1 kHz and, if higher frequency sound levels are created, they attenuate rapidly (Richardson
The sum of the various natural and anthropogenic sound sources at any given location and time—which comprise “ambient” or “background” sound—depends not only on the source levels (as determined by current weather conditions and levels of biological and shipping activity) but also on the ability of sound to propagate through the environment. In turn, sound propagation is dependent on the spatially and temporally varying properties of the water column and sea floor, and is frequency-dependent. As a result of the dependence on a large number of varying factors, ambient sound levels can be expected to vary widely over both coarse and fine spatial and temporal scales. Sound levels at a given frequency and location can vary by 10-20 dB from day to day (Richardson
The sounds produced by the proposed WSEP activities are considered impulsive, which is one of two general sound types, the other being non-pulsed. The distinction between these two sound types is important because they have differing potential to cause physical effects, particularly with regard to hearing (
Impulsive sound sources (
Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals, and exposure to sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess these potential effects, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Current data indicate that not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
• Low frequency cetaceans (13 species of mysticetes): functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 7 Hz and 25 kHz (up to 30 kHz in some species), with best hearing estimated to be from 100 Hz to 8 kHz (Watkins, 1986; Ketten, 1998; Houser
• Mid-frequency cetaceans (32 species of dolphins, six species of larger toothed whales, and 19 species of beaked and bottlenose whales): functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 150 Hz and 160 kHz with best hearing from 10 to less than 100 kHz (Johnson, 1967; White, 1977; Richardson
• High frequency cetaceans (eight species of true porpoises, six species of river dolphins, and members of the genera
• Phocid pinnipeds in Water: functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 75 Hz and 100 kHz with best hearing between 1-50 kHz (Møhl, 1968; Terhune and Ronald, 1971, 1972; Richardson
• Otariid pinnipeds in Water: functional hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 100 Hz and 48 kHz, with best hearing between 2-48 kHz (Schusterman
The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall
There are two marine mammal species (both cetaceans, the dwarf and pygmy sperm whale) with expected potential to co-occur with 86 FWS WSEP military readiness activities. The
Please refer to the information given previously (
Richardson
We describe the more severe effects (
When PTS occurs, there is physical damage to the sound receptors in the ear (
Relationships between TTS and PTS thresholds have not been studied in marine mammals—PTS data exists only for a single harbor seal (Kastak
Non-auditory physiological effects or injuries that theoretically might occur in marine mammals exposed to high level underwater sound or as a secondary effect of extreme behavioral reactions (
When a live or dead marine mammal swims or floats onto shore and is incapable of returning to sea, the event is termed a “stranding” (16 U.S.C. 1421h(3)). Marine mammals are known to strand for a variety of reasons, such as infectious agents, biotoxicosis, starvation, fishery interaction, ship strike, unusual oceanographic or weather events, sound exposure, or combinations of these stressors sustained concurrently or in series (
1.
Marine mammal hearing plays a critical role in communication with conspecifics, and interpretation of environmental cues for purposes such as predator avoidance and prey capture. Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
Currently, TTS data only exist for four species of cetaceans (bottlenose dolphin, beluga whale [
2.
Habituation can occur when an animal's response to a stimulus wanes with repeated exposure, usually in the absence of unpleasant associated events (Wartzok
Available studies show wide variation in response to underwater sound; therefore, it is difficult to predict specifically how any given sound in a particular instance might affect marine mammals perceiving the signal. If a marine mammal does react briefly to an underwater sound by changing its behavior or moving a small distance, the impacts of the change are unlikely to be significant to the individual, let alone the stock or population. However, if a sound source displaces marine mammals from an important feeding or breeding area for a prolonged period, impacts on individuals and populations could be significant (
Changes in dive behavior can vary widely and may consist of increased or decreased dive times and surface intervals as well as changes in the rates of ascent and descent during a dive (
Disruption of feeding behavior can be difficult to correlate with anthropogenic sound exposure, so it is usually inferred by observed displacement from known foraging areas, the appearance of secondary indicators (
Variations in respiration naturally vary with different behaviors and alterations to breathing rate as a function of acoustic exposure can be expected to co-occur with other behavioral reactions, such as a flight response or an alteration in diving. However, respiration rates in and of themselves may be representative of annoyance or an acute stress response. Various studies have shown that respiration rates may either be unaffected or could increase, depending on the species and signal characteristics, again highlighting the importance in understanding species differences in the tolerance of underwater noise when determining the potential for impacts resulting from anthropogenic sound exposure (
Marine mammals vocalize for different purposes and across multiple modes, such as whistling, echolocation click production, calling, and singing. Changes in vocalization behavior in response to anthropogenic noise can occur for any of these modes and may result from a need to compete with an increase in background noise or may reflect increased vigilance or a startle response. For example, in the presence of potentially masking signals, humpback whales and killer whales have been observed to increase the length of their songs (Miller
Avoidance is the displacement of an individual from an area or migration path as a result of the presence of a sound or other stressors, and is one of the most obvious manifestations of disturbance in marine mammals (Richardson
A flight response is a dramatic change in normal movement to a directed and rapid movement away from the perceived location of a sound source. The flight response differs from other avoidance responses in the intensity of the response (
Behavioral disturbance can also impact marine mammals in more subtle ways. Increased vigilance may result in costs related to diversion of focus and attention (
Many animals perform vital functions, such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing, on a diel cycle (24-hour cycle). Disruption of such functions resulting from reactions to stressors such as sound exposure are more likely to be significant if they last more than one diel cycle or recur on subsequent days (Southall
3.
Neuroendocrine stress responses often involve the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system. Virtually all neuroendocrine functions that are affected by stress—including immune competence, reproduction, metabolism, and behavior—are regulated by pituitary hormones. Stress-induced changes in the secretion of pituitary hormones have been implicated in failed reproduction, altered metabolism, reduced immune competence, and behavioral disturbance (
The primary distinction between stress (which is adaptive and does not normally place an animal at risk) and “distress” is the cost of the response. During a stress response, an animal uses glycogen stores that can be quickly replenished once the stress is alleviated. In such circumstances, the cost of the stress response would not pose serious fitness consequences. However, when an animal does not have sufficient energy reserves to satisfy the energetic costs of a stress response, energy
Relationships between these physiological mechanisms, animal behavior, and the costs of stress responses are well-studied through controlled experiments and for both laboratory and free-ranging animals (
4.
Under certain circumstances, marine mammals experiencing significant masking could also be impaired from maximizing their performance fitness in survival and reproduction. Therefore, when the coincident (masking) sound is man-made, it may be considered harassment when disrupting or altering critical behaviors. It is important to distinguish TTS and PTS, which persist after the sound exposure, from masking, which occurs during the sound exposure. Because masking (without resulting in TS) is not associated with abnormal physiological function, it is not considered a physiological effect, but rather a potential behavioral effect.
The frequency range of the potentially masking sound is important in determining any potential behavioral impacts. For example, low-frequency signals may have less effect on high-frequency echolocation sounds produced by odontocetes but are more likely to affect detection of mysticete communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as those produced by surf and some prey species. The masking of communication signals by anthropogenic noise may be considered as a reduction in the communication space of animals (
Masking affects both senders and receivers of acoustic signals and can potentially have long-term chronic effects on marine mammals at the population level as well as at the individual level. Low-frequency ambient sound levels have increased by as much as 20 dB (more than three times in terms of SPL) in the world's ocean from pre-industrial periods, with most of the increase from distant commercial shipping (Hildebrand, 2009). All anthropogenic sound sources, but especially chronic and lower-frequency signals (
The LRS WSEP training exercises proposed for the incidental take of marine mammals have the potential to take marine mammals by exposing them to impulsive noise and pressure waves generated by live ordnance detonation at the surface of the water. Exposure to energy, pressure, or direct strike by ordnance has the potential to result in non-lethal injury (Level A harassment), disturbance (Level B harassment), serious injury, and/or mortality. In addition, NMFS also considered the potential for harassment from vessel and aircraft operations.
Explosive detonations at the water surface send a shock wave and sound energy through the water and can release gaseous by-products, create an oscillating bubble, or cause a plume of water to shoot up from the water surface. The shock wave and accompanying noise are of most concern to marine animals. Depending on the intensity of the shock wave and size, location, and depth of the animal, an animal can be injured, killed, suffer non-lethal physical effects, experience hearing related effects with or without behavioral responses, or exhibit temporary behavioral responses or tolerance from hearing the blast sound. Generally, exposures to higher levels of impulse and pressure levels would result in greater impacts to an individual animal.
The effects of underwater detonations on marine mammals are dependent on several factors, including the size, type, and depth of the animal; the depth, intensity, and duration of the sound; the depth of the water column; the substrate of the habitat; the standoff distance between activities and the animal; and the sound propagation properties of the environment. Thus, we expect impacts to marine mammals from LRS WSEP activities to result primarily from acoustic pathways. As such, the degree of the effect relates to the received level and duration of the sound exposure, as influenced by the distance between the animal and the source. The further away from the source, the less intense the exposure should be.
The potential effects of underwater detonations from the proposed LRS WSEP training activities may include one or more of the following: temporary or permanent hearing impairment, non-auditory physical or physiological effects, behavioral disturbance, and masking (Richardson
In the absence of mitigation, impacts to marine species could result from physiological and behavioral responses to both the type and strength of the acoustic signature (Viada
Serious Injury/Mortality: 86 FWS proposes to use surface detonations in its training exercises. The explosions from these weapons would send a shock wave and blast noise through the water, release gaseous by-products, create an oscillating bubble, and cause a plume of water to shoot up from the water surface. The shock wave and blast noise are of most concern to marine animals. In general, potential impacts from explosive detonations can range from brief effects (such as short term behavioral disturbance), tactile perception, physical discomfort, slight injury of the internal organs, and death of the animal (Yelverton
Non-lethal injury includes slight injury to internal organs and the auditory system; however, delayed lethality can be a result of individual or cumulative sublethal injuries (DoN, 2001). Immediate lethal injury would be a result of massive combined trauma to internal organs as a direct result of proximity to the point of detonation (DoN, 2001).
Disturbance includes a variety of effects, including subtle changes in behavior, more conspicuous changes in activities, and displacement. Numerous studies have shown that underwater sounds are often readily detectable by marine mammals in the water at distances of many kilometers. However, other studies have shown that marine mammals at distances more than a few kilometers away often show no apparent response to activities of various types (Miller
Controlled experiments with captive marine mammals showed pronounced behavioral reactions, including avoidance of loud sound sources (Ridgway
Because the few available studies show wide variation in response to underwater sound, it is difficult to quantify exactly how sound from the LRS WSEP operational testing would affect marine mammals. It is likely that the onset of surface detonations could result in temporary, short term changes in an animal's typical behavior and/or avoidance of the affected area. These behavioral changes may include (Richardson
The biological significance of any of these behavioral disturbances is difficult to predict, especially if the detected disturbances appear minor. However generally, one could expect the consequences of behavioral modification to be biologically significant if the change affects growth, survival, or reproduction. Significant behavioral modifications that could potentially lead to effects on growth, survival, or reproduction include:
• Drastic changes in diving/surfacing patterns (such as those thought to cause beaked whale stranding due to exposure to military mid-frequency tactical sonar);
• Habitat abandonment due to loss of desirable acoustic environment; and
• Cessation of feeding or social interaction.
The onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic sound depends on both external factors (characteristics of sound sources and their paths) and the specific characteristics of the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography) and is difficult to predict (Southall
Natural and artificial sounds can disrupt behavior by masking, or interfering with, a marine mammal's ability to hear other sounds. Masking occurs when the receipt of a sound interferes with by another coincident sound at similar frequencies and at similar or higher levels (Clark
The marine mammals most vulnerable to vessel strikes are slow-moving and/or spend extended periods of time at the surface in order to restore oxygen levels within their tissues after deep dives (
Dolphins within Hawaiian waters are exposed to recreational, commercial, and military vessels. Behaviorally, marine mammals may or may not respond to the operation of vessels and associated noise. Responses to vessels vary widely among marine mammals in general, but also among different species of small cetaceans. Responses may include attraction to the vessel (Richardson
Aircraft produce noise at frequencies that are well within the frequency range of cetacean hearing and also produce visual signals such as the aircraft itself and its shadow (Richardson
There are fewer reports of reactions of odontocetes to aircraft than those of pinnipeds. Responses to aircraft by pinnipeds include diving, slapping the water with pectoral fins or tail fluke, or swimming away from the track of the aircraft (Richardson
Another potential risk to marine mammals is direct strike by ordnance, in which the ordnance physically hits an animal. While strike from an item at the surface of the water while the animals is at the surface is possible, the potential risk of a direct hit to an animal within the target area would be so low because marine mammals spend the majority of their time below the surface of the water, and the potential for one bomb or missile to hit that animal at that specific time is highly unlikely since there are only a total of eight bombs on one day.
Detonations of live ordnance would result in temporary changes to the water environment. An explosion on the surface of the water from these weapons could send a shock wave and blast noise through the water, release gaseous by-products, create an oscillating bubble, and cause a plume of water to shoot up from the water surface. However, these effects would be temporary and not expected to last more than a few seconds. Similarly, 86 FWS does not expect any long-term impacts with regard to hazardous constituents to occur. 86 FWS considered the introduction of fuel, debris, ordnance, and chemical materials into the water column within its EA and determined the potential effects of each to be insignificant. We summarize 86 FWS's analyses in the following paragraphs (for a complete discussion of potential effects, please refer to section 3.0 in 86 FWS's EA).
Metals typically used to construct bombs and missiles include aluminum, steel, and lead, among others. Aluminum is also present in some explosive materials. These materials would settle to the seafloor after munitions detonate. Metal ions would slowly leach into the substrate and the water column, causing elevated concentrations in a small area around the munitions fragments. Some of the metals, such as aluminum, occur naturally in the ocean at varying concentrations and would not necessarily impact the substrate or water column. Other metals, such as lead, could cause toxicity in microbial communities in the substrate. However, such effects would be localized to a very small distance around munitions fragments and would not significantly affect the overall habitat quality of sediments in the BSURE area. In addition, metal fragments would corrode, degrade, and become encrusted over time.
Chemical materials include explosive byproducts and also fuel, oil, and other fluids associated with remotely controlled target boats. Explosive byproducts would be introduced into the water column through detonation of live munitions. Explosive materials would include 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (TNT) and research department explosive (RDX), among others. Various byproducts are produced during and immediately after detonation of TNT and RDX. During the very brief time that a detonation is in progress, intermediate products may include carbon ions,
Chemicals introduced into the water column would be quickly dispersed by waves, currents, and tidal action, and eventually become uniformly distributed. A portion of the carbon compounds such as carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide would likely become integrated into the carbonate system (alkalinity and pH buffering capacity of seawater). Some of the nitrogen and carbon compounds, including petroleum products, would be metabolized or assimilated by phytoplankton and bacteria. Most of the gas products that do not react with the water or become assimilated by organisms would be released into the atmosphere. Due to dilution, mixing, and transformation, none of these chemicals are expected to have significant impacts on the marine environment.
Explosive material that is not consumed in a detonation could sink to the substrate and bind to sediments. However, the quantity of such materials is expected to be inconsequential. Research has shown that if munitions function properly, nearly full combustion of the explosive materials will occur, and only extremely small amounts of raw material will remain. In addition, any remaining materials would be naturally degraded. TNT decomposes when exposed to sunlight (ultraviolet radiation), and is also degraded by microbial activity (Becker, 1995). Several types of microorganisms have been shown to metabolize TNT. Similarly, RDX decomposes by hydrolysis, ultraviolet radiation exposure, and biodegradation.
While we anticipate that the specified activity may result in marine mammals avoiding certain areas due to temporary ensonification, this impact to habitat and prey resources would be temporary and reversible. The main impact associated with the proposed activity would be temporarily elevated noise levels and the associated direct effects on marine mammals, previously discussed in this notice. Marine mammals are anticipated to temporarily vacate the area of live detonations. However, these events are usually of short duration, and animals are anticipated to return to the activity area during periods of non-activity. Thus, based on the preceding discussion, we do not anticipate that the proposed activity would have any habitat-related effects that could cause significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals or their populations.
In order to issue an incidental take authorization under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (where relevant).
The NDAA of 2004 amended the MMPA as it relates to military-readiness activities and the incidental take authorization process such that “least practicable adverse impact” shall include consideration of personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
NMFS and 86 FWS have worked to identify potential practicable and effective mitigation measures, which include a careful balancing of the likely benefit of any particular measure to the marine mammals with the likely effect of that measure on personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the “military-readiness activity.” We refer the reader to Section 11 of 86 FWS's application for more detailed information on the proposed mitigation measures which include the following:
Protected species surveys typically begin within one hour of weapon release and as close to the impact time as feasible, given human safety requirements. Survey personnel must depart the human hazard zone before weapon release, in accordance with Navy safety standards. Personnel conduct aerial surveys within an area defined by an approximately 2-NM (3,704 m) radius around the impact point, with surveys typically flown in a star pattern. This survey distance is consistent with requirements already in place for similar actions at PMRF and encompasses the entire TTS threshold ranges (SEL) for mid-frequency cetaceans (Table 5). For species in which potential exposures have been calculated (dwarf sperm whale and pygmy sperm whale), the survey distance would cover over half of the PTS SEL range. Given operational constraints, surveying these larger areas would not be feasible.
Observers would consist of aircrew operating the C-26, S-61N, and C-130 aircraft from PMRF and the Coast Guard. These aircrew are trained and experienced at conducting aerial marine mammal surveys and have provided similar support for other missions at PMRF. Aerial surveys are typically conducted at an altitude of about 200 feet, but altitude may vary somewhat depending on sea state and atmospheric conditions. If adverse weather conditions preclude the ability for aircraft to safely operate, missions would either be delayed until the weather clears or cancelled for the day. For 2016 Long Range Strike WSEP missions, one day has been designated as a weather back-up day. The C-26 and other aircraft would generally be operated at a slightly higher altitude than the helicopter. The observers will be provided with the GPS location of the impact area. Once the aircraft reaches the impact area, pre-mission surveys typically last for 30 minutes, depending on the survey pattern. The fixed-wing aircraft are faster than the helicopter; and, therefore, protected species may be more difficult to spot. However, to compensate for the difference in speed, the aircraft may fly the survey pattern multiple times.
If a protected species is observed in the impact area, weapon release would be delayed until one of the following conditions is met: (1) The animal is observed exiting the impact area; (2) the animal is thought to have exited the impact area based on its course and speed; or (3) the impact area has been clear of any additional sightings for a period of 30 minutes. All weapons will be tracked and their water entry points will be documented.
Post-mission surveys would begin immediately after the mission is complete and the Range Safety Officer declares the human safety area is reopened. Approximate transit time from the perimeter of the human safety
A typical mission day would consist of pre-mission checks, safety review, crew briefings, weather checks, clearing airspace, range clearance, mitigations/monitoring efforts, and other military protocols prior to launch of weapons. Potential delays could be the result of multiple factors including, but not limited to, adverse weather conditions leading to unsafe take-off, landing, and aircraft operations, inability to clear the range of non-mission vessels or aircraft, mechanical issues with mission aircraft or munitions, or presence of protected species in the impact area. If the mission is cancelled due to any of these, one back-up day has also been scheduled as a contingency. These standard operating procedures are usually done in the morning, and live range time may begin in late morning once all checks are complete and approval is granted from range control. The range would be closed to the public for a maximum of four hours per mission day.
Standard impulsive and acoustic metrics were used for the analysis of underwater energy and pressure waves in this document. Several different metrics are important for understanding risk assessment analysis of impacts to marine mammals: SPL is the ratio of the absolute sound pressure to a reference level, SEL is measure of sound intensity and duration, and positive impulse is the time integral of the pressure over the initial positive phase of an arrival.
The criteria and thresholds used to estimate potential pressure and acoustic impacts to marine mammals resulting from detonations were obtained from Finneran and Jenkins (2012) and include mortality, injurious harassment (Level A), and non-injurious harassment (Level B). In some cases, separate thresholds have been developed for different species groups or functional hearing groups. Functional hearing groups included in the analysis are low-frequency cetaceans, mid-frequency cetaceans, high-frequency cetaceans, and phocids.
Based on the ranges presented in Table 5 and factoring operational limitations associated with the mission, 86 FWS estimates that during pre-mission surveys, the proposed monitoring area would be approximately 2 km (3.7 miles) from the target area radius around the impact point, with surveys typically flown in a star pattern, which is consistent with requirements already in place for similar actions at PMRF and encompasses the entire TTS threshold ranges (SEL) for mid-frequency cetaceans. For species in which potential exposures have been calculated (dwarf sperm whale and pygmy sperm whale), the survey distance would cover over half of the PTS SEL range. Given operational constraints, surveying these larger areas would not be feasible.
Post-mission monitoring determines the effectiveness of pre-mission mitigation by reporting sightings of any marine mammals. Post-mission monitoring surveys will commence once the mission has ended or, if required, as soon as personnel declare the mission area safe. Post-mission monitoring will be identical to pre-mission surveys and will occur approximately 30 minutes after the munitions have been detonated, concentrating on the area down-current of the test site. Observers will document and report any marine mammal species, number, location, and behavior of any animals observed.
We have carefully evaluated 86 FWS's proposed mitigation measures in the context of ensuring that we prescribe the means of effecting the least practicable impact on the affected marine mammal species and stocks and their habitat. Our evaluation of potential measures included consideration of the following factors in relation to one another:
• The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure is expected to minimize adverse impacts to marine mammals;
• The proven or likely efficacy of the specific measure to minimize adverse impacts as planned; and
• The practicability of the measure for applicant implementation.
Any mitigation measure(s) prescribed by NMFS should be able to accomplish, have a reasonable likelihood of accomplishing (based on current science), or contribute to the accomplishment of one or more of the general goals listed here:
1. Avoidance or minimization of injury or death of marine mammals wherever possible (goals 2, 3, and 4 may contribute to this goal).
2. A reduction in the numbers of marine mammals (total number or number at biologically important time or location) exposed to stimuli expected to result in incidental take (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing takes by behavioral harassment only).
3. A reduction in the number of times (total number or number at biologically important time or location) individuals would be exposed to stimuli that we expect to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing harassment takes only).
4. A reduction in the intensity of exposures (either total number or number at biologically important time or location) to training exercises that we expect to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing the severity of harassment takes only).
5. Avoidance or minimization of adverse effects to marine mammal habitat, paying special attention to the food base, activities that block or limit passage to or from biologically important areas, permanent destruction of habitat, or temporary destruction/disturbance of habitat during a biologically important time.
6. For monitoring directly related to mitigation—an increase in the probability of detecting marine mammals, thus allowing for more effective implementation of the mitigation.
Based on our evaluation of 86 FWS's proposed measures, as well as other measures that may be relevant to the specified activity, we have preliminarily
In order to issue an Authorization for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that we must set forth “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for an authorization must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and our expectations of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals present in the proposed action area.
86 FWS submitted marine mammal monitoring and reporting measures in their IHA application. We may modify or supplement these measures based on comments or new information received from the public during the public comment period. Any monitoring requirement we prescribe should improve our understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species in action area (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual responses to acute stressors, or impacts of chronic exposures (behavioral or physiological).
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of an individual; or (2) Population, species, or stock.
• Effects on marine mammal habitat and resultant impacts to marine mammals.
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
NMFS proposes to include the following measures in the LRS WSEP Authorization (if issued). They are:
(1) 86 FWS will track the use of the PMRF for missions and protected species observations, through the use of mission reporting forms.
(2) 86 FWS will submit a summary report of marine mammal observations and LRS WSEP activities to the NMFS Pacific Islands Regional Office (PIRO) and the Office of Protected Resources 90 days after expiration of the current Authorization. This report must include the following information: (i) Date and time of each LRS WSEP exercise; (ii) a complete description of the pre-exercise and post-exercise activities related to mitigating and monitoring the effects of LRS WSEP exercises on marine mammal populations; and (iii) results of the LRS WSEP exercise monitoring, including number of marine mammals (by species) that may have been harassed due to presence within the activity zone.
(3) 86 FWS will monitor for marine mammals in the proposed action area. If 86 FWS personnel observe or detect any dead or injured marine mammals prior to testing, or detects any injured or dead marine mammal during live fire exercises, 86 FWS must cease operations and submit a report to NMFS within 24 hours.
(4) 86 FWS must immediately report any unauthorized takes of marine mammals (
The NDAA amended the definition of harassment as it applies to a “military readiness activity” to read as follows (Section 3(18)(B) of the MMPA): (i) Any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild [Level A Harassment]; or (ii) any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where such behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered [Level B Harassment].
NMFS' analysis identified the physiological responses, and behavioral responses that could potentially result from exposure to explosive detonations. In this section, we will relate the potential effects to marine mammals from detonation of explosives to the MMPA regulatory definitions of Level A and Level B harassment. This section will also quantify the effects that might occur from the proposed military readiness activities in PMRF BSURE area.
86 FWS thresholds used for onset of temporary threshold shift (TTS; Level B Harassment) and onset of permanent threshold shift (PTS; Level A Harassment) are consistent with the thresholds outlined in the Navy's report titled, “Criteria and Thresholds for U.S. Navy Acoustic and Explosive Effects Analysis Technical Report,” which the Navy coordinated with NMFS. NMFS believes that the thresholds outlined in the Navy's report represent the best available science. The report is available on the internet at:
Of the potential effects described earlier in this document, the following are the types of effects that fall into the Level B harassment category:
Behavioral Harassment—Behavioral disturbance that rises to the level described in the above definition, when resulting from exposures to non-impulsive or impulsive sound, is Level B harassment. Some of the lower level physiological stress responses discussed earlier would also likely co-occur with the predicted harassments, although these responses are more difficult to detect and fewer data exist relating these responses to specific received levels of sound. When predicting Level B harassment based on estimated behavioral responses, those takes may have a stress-related physiological component.
Temporary Threshold Shift—As discussed previously, TTS can affect how an animal behaves in response to the environment, including conspecifics, predators, and prey. NMFS classifies TTS (when resulting from exposure to explosives and other impulsive sources) as Level B harassment, not Level A harassment (injury).
Of the potential effects that were described earlier, the following are the types of effects that fall into the Level A Harassment category:
Permanent Threshold Shift—PTS (resulting from exposure to explosive detonations) is irreversible and NMFS considers this to be an injury.
Table 4 outlines the explosive thresholds used by NMFS for this Authorization when addressing noise impacts from explosives.
86 FWS completed acoustic modeling to determine the distances to NMFS's explosive thresholds from their explosive ordnance, which was then used with each species' density to determine number of exposure estimates. Below is a summary of those modeling efforts.
The maximum estimated range, or radius, from the detonation point to which the various thresholds extend for all munitions proposed to be released in a 24-hour time period was calculated based on explosive acoustic characteristics, sound propagation, and sound transmission loss in the Study Area, which incorporates water depth, sediment type, wind speed, bathymetry, and temperature/salinity profiles (Table 5). The ranges were used to calculate the total area (circle) of the zones of influence for each criterion/threshold. To eliminate “double-counting” of animals, impact areas from higher impact categories (
The resulting total number of marine mammals potentially exposed to the various levels of thresholds is shown in Table 7. An animal is considered “exposed” to a sound if the received sound level at the animal's location is above the background ambient acoustic level within a similar frequency band. The exposure calculations from the model output resulted in decimal values, suggesting in most cases that a fraction of an animal was exposed. To eliminate this, the acoustic model results were rounded to the nearest whole animal to obtain the exposure estimates from 2016 missions. Furthermore, to eliminate “double-counting” of animals, exposure results from higher impact categories (
Density estimates for marine mammals were derived from the Navy's 2014 Marine Species Density Database (NMSDD). NMFS refers the reader to Section 3 of 86 FWS's application for detailed information on all equations used to calculate densities presented in Table 6.
Table 7 indicates the modeled potential for lethality, injury, and non-injurious harassment (including behavioral harassment) to marine mammals in the absence of mitigation measures. 86 FWS and NMFS estimate that one marine mammal species could be exposed to injurious Level A harassment noise levels (187 dB SEL) and two species could be exposed to Level B harassment (TTS and Behavioral) noise levels in the absence of mitigation measures.
Based on the mortality exposure estimates calculated by the acoustic model, zero marine mammals are expected to be affected by pressure levels associated with mortality or serious injury. Zero marine mammals are expected to be exposed to pressure levels associated with slight lung injury or gastrointestinal tract injury.
NMFS generally considers PTS to fall under the injury category (Level A Harassment). An animal would need to stay very close to the sound source for an extended amount of time to incur a serious degree of PTS, which could increase the probability of mortality. In this case, it would be highly unlikely for this scenario to unfold given the nature of any anticipated acoustic exposures that could potentially result from a mobile marine mammal that NMFS generally expects to exhibit avoidance behavior to loud sounds within the BSURE area.
NMFS has relied on the best available scientific information to support the issuance of 86 FWS's authorization. In
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “. . . an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.” A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
To avoid repetition, the discussion below applies to all the species listed in Table 7 for which we propose to authorize incidental take for 86 FWS's activities.
In making a negligible impact determination, we consider:
• The number of anticipated injuries, serious injuries, or mortalities;
• The number, nature, and intensity, and duration of Level B harassment;
• The context in which the takes occur (
• The status of stock or species of marine mammals (
• Impacts on habitat affecting rates of recruitment/survival; and
• The effectiveness of monitoring and mitigation measures to reduce the number or severity of incidental take.
For reasons stated previously in this document and based on the following factors, 86 FWS's specified activities are not likely to cause long-term behavioral disturbance, serious injury, or death.
The takes from Level B harassment would be due to potential behavioral disturbance and TTS. The takes from Level A harassment would be due to potential PTS. Activities would only occur over a timeframe of one day in September, 2016.
Noise-induced threshold shifts (TS, which includes PTS) are defined as increases in the threshold of audibility (
In addition, there are different degrees of PTS: Ranging from slight/mild to moderate and from severe to profound. Profound PTS or the complete loss of the ability to hear in one or both ears is commonly referred to as deafness. High-frequency PTS, presumably as a normal process of aging that occurs in humans and other terrestrial mammals, has also been demonstrated in captive cetaceans (Ridgway and Carder, 1997; Yuen
In terms of what is analyzed for the potential PTS (Level A harassment) in one marine mammal as a result of 86 FWS's LRS WSEP operations, if it occurs, NMFS has determined that the levels would be slight/mild because research shows that most cetaceans show relatively high levels of avoidance. Further, it is uncommon to sight marine mammals within the target area, especially for prolonged durations. Avoidance varies among individuals and depends on their activities or reasons for being in the area.
NMFS' predicted estimates for Level A harassment take (Table 7) are likely overestimates of the likely injury that will occur. NMFS expects that successful implementation of the required aerial-based mitigation measures could avoid Level A take. Also, NMFS expects that some individuals would avoid the source at levels expected to result in injury. Nonetheless, although NMFS expects that Level A harassment is unlikely to occur at the numbers proposed to be authorized, because it is difficult to quantify the degree to which the mitigation and avoidance will reduce the number of animals that might incur PTS, we are proposing to authorize (and analyze) the modeled number of Level A takes (one), which does not take the mitigation or avoidance into consideration. However, we anticipate that any PTS incurred because of mitigation and the likely short duration of exposures, would be in the form of only a small degree of permanent threshold shift and not total deafness.
While animals may be impacted in the immediate vicinity of the activity, because of the short duration of the actual individual explosions themselves (versus continual sound source operation) combined with the short duration of the LRS WSEP operations, NMFS has preliminarily determined that there will not be a substantial impact on marine mammals or on the normal functioning of the nearshore or offshore waters off Kauai and its ecosystems. We do not expect that the proposed activity would impact rates of recruitment or survival of marine mammals since we do not expect mortality (which would remove individuals from the population) or serious injury to occur. In addition, the proposed activity would not occur in areas (and/or times) of significance for the marine mammal populations potentially affected by the exercises (
Moreover, the mitigation and monitoring measures proposed for the IHA (described earlier in this document) are expected to further minimize the potential for harassment. The protected species surveys would require 86 FWS to search the area for marine mammals, and if any are found in the impact zone, then the exercise would be suspended until the animal(s) has left the area or relocated outside of the zone. Furthermore, LRS WSEP missions may be delayed or rescheduled for adverse weather conditions.
Based on the preliminary analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the mitigation and monitoring measures, NMFS finds that 86 FWS's LRS WSEP operations will result in the incidental take of marine mammals, by Level A and Level B harassment only, and that the taking from the LRS WSEP exercises will have a negligible impact on the affected species or stocks.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of marine mammals implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
No marine mammal species listed under the ESA are expected to be affected by these activities. Therefore, NMFS has determined that a section 7 consultation under the ESA is not required.
In 2015, 86 FWS provided NMFS with an EA titled, Environmental Assessment/Overseas Environmental Assessment for the Long Range Strick Weapon Systems Evaluation Program Operational Evaluations. The EA analyzed the direct, indirect, and cumulative environmental impacts of the specified activities on marine mammals. NMFS will review and evaluate the 86 FWS EA for consistency with the regulations published by the Council of Environmental Quality (CEQ) and NOAA Administrative Order 216-6, Environmental Review Procedures for Implementing the National Environmental Policy Act, and determine whether or not to adopt it. Information in 86 FWS's application, EA, and this notice collectively provide the environmental information related to proposed issuance of the IHA for public review and comment. We will review all comments submitted in response to this notice as we complete the NEPA process, including decision of whether to sign a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI), prior to a final decision on the IHA request. The 2016 NEPA documents are available for review at
As a result of these preliminary determinations, we propose to issue an IHA to 86 FWS for conducting LRS WSEP activities, for a period of one year from the date of issuance, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated. The proposed Authorization language is provided in the next section. The wording contained in this section is proposed for inclusion in the Authorization (if issued).
1. This Authorization is valid for a period of one year from the date of issuance.
2. This Authorization is valid only for activities associated with the LRS WSEP operations utilizing munitions identified in the Attachment.
3. The incidental taking, by Level A and Level B harassment, is limited to: Dwarf sperm whale (
The taking by serious injury or death of these species, the taking of these species in violation of the conditions of this Incidental Harassment Authorization, or the taking by harassment, serious injury or death of any other species of marine mammal is prohibited and may result in the modification, suspension or revocation of this Authorization.
When conducting this activity, the following mitigation measures must be undertaken:
• If daytime weather and/or sea conditions preclude adequate monitoring for detecting marine mammals and other marine life, LRS WSEP strike operations must be delayed until adequate sea conditions exist for monitoring to be undertaken.
• On the morning of the LRS WSEP strike mission, the test director and safety officer will confirm that there are no issues that would preclude mission execution and that the weather is adequate to support monitoring and mitigation measures.
• If post-mission surveys determine that an injury or lethal take of a marine mammal has occurred, the next mission will be suspended until the test procedure and the monitoring methods have been reviewed with NMFS and appropriate changes made.
The holder of this Authorization is required to cooperate with the National Marine Fisheries Service and any other Federal, state or local agency monitoring the impacts of the activity on marine mammals.
The holder of this Authorization will track their use of the PMRF BSURE area for the LRS WSEP missions and marine mammal observations, through the use of mission reporting forms.
Proposed monitoring area would be approximately 2 km (3.7 miles) from the target area radius around the impact point, with surveys typically flown in a star pattern. Aerial surveys would be conducted at an altitude of about 200 feet, but altitude may vary somewhat depending on sea state and atmospheric conditions. If adverse weather conditions preclude the ability for aircraft to safely operate, missions would either be delayed until the weather clears or cancelled for the day. The observers will be provided with the GPS location of the impact area. Once the aircraft reaches the impact area, pre-mission surveys typically last for 30 minutes, depending on the survey pattern. The aircraft may fly the survey pattern multiple times.
The holder of this Authorization is required to:
(a) Submit a draft report on all monitoring conducted under the IHA within 90 days of the completion of
1. Date and time of each LRS WSEP mission;
2. A complete description of the pre-exercise and post-exercise activities related to mitigating and monitoring the effects of LRS WSEP missions on marine mammal populations; and
3. Results of the monitoring program, including numbers by species/stock of any marine mammals noted injured or killed as a result of the LRS WSEP mission and number of marine mammals (by species if possible) that may have been harassed due to presence within the zone of influence.
The draft report will be subject to review and comment by the National Marine Fisheries Service. Any recommendations made by the National Marine Fisheries Service must be addressed in the final report prior to acceptance by the National Marine Fisheries Service. The draft report will be considered the final report for this activity under this Authorization if the National Marine Fisheries Service has not provided comments and recommendations within 90 days of receipt of the draft report.
(b) Reporting injured or dead marine mammals:
i. In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by this IHA, such as an injury for species not authorized (Level A harassment), serious injury, or mortality, 86 FWS shall immediately cease the specified activities and report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, and the Pacific Islands Regional Stranding Coordinator, NMFS. The report must include the following information:
A. Time and date of the incident;
B. Description of the incident;
C. Environmental conditions (
D. Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
E. Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
F. Fate of the animal(s); and
G. Photographs or video footage of the animal(s).
ii. In the event that 86 FWS discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
The report must include the same information identified in 6(b)(i) of this IHA. Activities may continue while NMFS reviews the circumstances of the incident. NMFS will work with 86 FWS to determine whether additional mitigation measures or modifications to the activities are appropriate.
iii. In the event that 86 FWS discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the activities authorized in the IHA (
• The holder of this Authorization must inform the Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service, (301-427-8400) or designee (301-427-8401) prior to the initiation of any changes to the monitoring plan for a specified mission activity.
• A copy of this Authorization must be in the possession of the safety officer on duty each day that long range strike missions are conducted.
• This Authorization may be modified, suspended or withdrawn if the holder fails to abide by the conditions prescribed herein, or if NMFS determines the authorized taking is having more than a negligible impact on the species or stock of affected marine mammals.
We request comment on our analysis, the draft authorization, and any other aspect of this
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce (NOAA).
Notice of availability.
NMFS announces approval of an application for a Letter of Authorization (LOA) from the states of Oregon, Washington, and Idaho for lethal removal of individually identifiable predatory California sea lions (
Additional information about our determination may be obtained by visiting the NMFS West Coast Region's Web site:
Mr. Robert Anderson at the above address, by phone at (503) 231-2226, or by email at
Section 120 of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361,
In December 2006, NMFS received an application from the Idaho Department of Fish and Game, Oregon Department of Fish and Wildlife, and the Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife (collectively referred to as the States) requesting authorization under section 120 of the MMPA to intentionally take, by lethal methods, individually identifiable predatory California sea lions in the Columbia River, which were then having a significant negative impact on the recovery of threatened and endangered Pacific salmon and steelhead. As required under the MMPA, NMFS convened a Pinniped-Fishery Interaction Task Force (Task Force). The role of the Task Force is to recommend to NMFS approval or denial of the States' application along with recommendations of the proposed location, time, and method of such taking, criteria for evaluating the success of the action, and the duration of the intentional lethal taking authority. The Task Force must also suggest non-lethal alternatives, if available and practicable, including a recommended course of action. NMFS partially approved the States' 2006 request, issuing a LOA on March 17, 2008, and on March 24, 2008, NMFS published a notice in the
Shortly after NMFS issued the LOA, the Humane Society of the United States (HSUS) filed a lawsuit in the U.S. District Court in Oregon, alleging that NMFS' LOA violated section 120 of the MMPA and the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). In November 2008, the district court issued an order upholding NMFS' approval of the lethal removal program and its evaluation of impacts under NEPA. Plaintiffs appealed to the Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals which declined to halt the removal program while the appeal was pending. Subsequently, the Ninth Circuit vacated and remanded the LOA to NMFS in November 2010 (
On August 18, 2011, the States submitted a new request for lethal removal of California sea lions at Bonneville Dam under substantially the same conditions as the prior authorizations. On March 15, 2012, NMFS issued a LOA to the States. In renewed litigation by HSUS this LOA was upheld in district court on February 15, 2013, and later affirmed by the Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals (
On January 27, 2016, NMFS received an application from the States to extend the 2012 LOA through June 30, 2021. The States are not requesting any changes or modifications to the terms and conditions of the 2012 LOA. Pursuant to the MMPA, NMFS determined that the application contains sufficient information to warrant convening the Task Force. On March 28, 2016, NMFS published a notice in the
As required under section 7(a)(2) under the ESA, NMFS completed formal consultation, and in accordance with NEPA, NMFS completed a supplemental environmental assessment (EA) to the 2008 EA with a finding of no significant impact. In considering a state's application to lethally remove pinnipeds, NMFS is also required, pursuant to section 120(b)(1) of the MMPA, to determine that individually identifiable pinnipeds are having a significant negative impact on the decline or recovery of at-risk salmonid fishery stocks. Based on these requirements, considerations, and analyses, NMFS has determined that the requirements of section 120 of the MMPA have been met and it is therefore reasonable to issue a new LOA to the States for the lethal removal of individually identifiable predatory California sea lions through 2021.
Notice.
The Department of Defense has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by August 8, 2016.
Fred Licari, 571-372-0493.
Comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be emailed to Ms. Jasmeet Seehra, DoD Desk Officer, at
You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:
•
Written requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Licari at WHS/ESD Directives Division, 4800 Mark Center Drive, East Tower, Suite 02G09, Alexandria, VA 22350-3100.
Department of Defense.
Renewal of Federal Advisory Committee.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that it is renewing the charter for the United States Military Academy Board of Visitors (“the Board”).
Jim Freeman, Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, 703-692-5952.
This committee's charter is being renewed pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 4355 and in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended) and 41 CFR 102-3.50(a). The charter and contact information for the Board's Designated Federal Officer (DFO) can be obtained at
The Board provides independent advice and recommendations to the President of the United States on the state of morale and discipline, curriculum, instruction, physical equipment, fiscal affairs, academic methods, and other matters relating to the United States Military Academy that the Board decides to consider. The Board is composed of 15 members: (a) The Chair of the Senate Committee on Armed Services, or designee; (b) Three other members of the Senate designated by the Vice President or the President pro tempore of the Senate, two of whom are members of the Senate Committee on Appropriations; (c) The Chair of the House Committee on Armed Services, or designee; (d) Four other members of the House of Representatives designated by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, two of whom are members of the House Committee on Appropriations; and (e) Six persons designated by the President. Board members who are full-time or permanent part-time Federal officers or employees are appointed as regular government employee members pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.130(a), whereas, Board members who are not full-time or permanent part-time Federal officers or employees are appointed as experts or consultants pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3109 to serve as special government employee (SGE) members. The DoD, as necessary and consistent with the Board's mission and DoD policies and procedures, may establish subcommittees, task forces, or working groups to support the Board, and all subcommittees must operate under the provisions of FACA and the Government in the Sunshine Act. Subcommittees will not work independently of the Board and must report all recommendations and advice solely to the Board for full deliberation and discussion. Subcommittees, task forces, or working groups have no authority to make decisions and recommendations, verbally or in writing, on behalf of the Board. No subcommittee or any of its members can update or report, verbally or in writing, directly to the DoD or any Federal officers or employees. The Board's DFO, pursuant to DoD policy, must be a full-time or permanent part-time DoD officer or employee, and is required to be in attendance at all Board and subcommittee meetings for the entire duration of each and every meeting. The public or interested organizations may submit written statements to the Board membership about the Board's mission and functions. Such statements may be submitted at any time or in response to the stated agenda of planned Board. All written statements must be submitted to the Board's DFO who will ensure the written statements are provided to the membership for their consideration.
Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces a meeting of the Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board (EM SSAB), Northern New Mexico. The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of this meeting be announced in the
Wednesday, July 27, 2016, 1:00 p.m.-5:15 p.m.
Santa Fe Community College, Jemez Complex, 6401 Richards Avenue, Santa Fe, New Mexico 87508.
Menice Santistevan, Northern New Mexico Citizens' Advisory Board (NNMCAB), 94 Cities of Gold Road, Santa Fe, NM 87506. Phone (505) 995-0393; Fax (505) 989-1752 or Email:
Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces a meeting of the Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board (EM SSAB), Savannah River Site. The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of this meeting be announced in the
Monday, July 25, 2016, 1:00 p.m.-5:00 p.m.
Tuesday, July 26, 2016, 8:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m.
New Ellenton Community Center, 212 Pine Hill Avenue, New Ellenton, South Carolina 29809.
James Giusti, Office of External Affairs, Department of Energy, Savannah River Operations Office, P.O. Box A, Aiken, SC 29802; Phone: (803) 952-7684.
Administrative & Outreach Committee Update
Facilities Disposition & Site Remediation Committee Update
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of proposed consent decree; request for public comment.
In accordance with section 113(g) of the Clean Air Act, as amended (“CAA” or the “Act”), notice is hereby given of a proposed consent decree to address a lawsuit filed by Sierra Club:
Written comments on the proposed consent decree must be received by August 8, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID number EPA-HQ-OGC-2016-0363, online at
Matthew C. Marks, Air and Radiation Law Office (2344A), Office of General Counsel, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone: (202) 564-3276; fax number (202) 564-5603; email address:
In 2012, EPA disapproved certain aspects of Louisiana's regional haze SIP 77 FR 33642 (June 7, 2012); 77 FR 39425 (July 3, 2012). When EPA disapproves a SIP submission in whole or in part, section 110(c) of the Act requires EPA to promulgate a FIP within two years unless the State corrects the deficiency and EPA approves the plan revision. The proposed consent decree would resolve the lawsuit filed by Sierra Club by requiring EPA to take certain actions by March 31, 2017 and December 15, 2017. See the proposed consent decree for details.
For a period of thirty (30) days following the date of publication of this notice, the Agency will accept written comments relating to the proposed consent decree from persons who were not named as parties or intervenors to the litigation in question. EPA or the Department of Justice may withdraw or withhold consent to the proposed consent decree if the comments disclose facts or considerations that indicate that such consent is inappropriate, improper, inadequate, or inconsistent with the requirements of the Act. Unless EPA or the Department of Justice determines that consent to this consent decree should be withdrawn, the terms of the decree will be affirmed.
The official public docket for this action (identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OGC-2016-0363) contains a copy of the proposed consent decree. The official public docket is available for public viewing at the Office of Environmental Information (OEI) Docket in the EPA Docket Center, EPA West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC. The EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is (202) 566-1744, and the telephone number for the OEI Docket is (202) 566-1752.
An electronic version of the public docket is available through
It is important to note that EPA's policy is that public comments, whether submitted electronically or in paper, will be made available for public viewing online at
You may submit comments as provided in the
If you submit an electronic comment, EPA recommends that you include your name, mailing address, and an email address or other contact information in the body of your comment and with any disk or CD-ROM you submit. This ensures that you can be identified as the submitter of the comment and allows EPA to contact you in case EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties or needs further information on the substance of your comment. Any identifying or contact information provided in the body of a comment will be included as part of the comment that is placed in the official public docket, and made available in EPA's electronic public docket. If EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, EPA may not be able to consider your comment.
Use of the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”) is providing notice of disclosure in civil enforcement litigation against Navistar International Corp. and Navistar, Inc. pursuant to 40 CFR 2.209(d). In response to discovery requests received by the United States in the litigation styled,
Access by DOJ and/or the parties to the Navistar Litigation to material, including CBI, discussed in this document, is ongoing and expected to continue during the Navistar Litigation.
Edward Kulschinsky, Air Enforcement Division, Office of Civil Enforcement (2242A); telephone number: 202-564-4133; fax number: 202-564-0069; email address:
The United States has initiated a civil enforcement action alleging that Navistar International Corp. and Navistar, Inc., violated Title II of the Clean Air Act in connection with the production and sale of on-highway heavy-duty diesel engines in calendar years 2009 and 2010. This notice is being provided, pursuant to 40 CFR 2.209(d), to inform affected businesses that EPA intends to transmit certain information, which has been submitted by vehicle and engine manufacturers that is claimed to be, or has been determined to be, potential confidential business information (collectively “CBI”), to defendants in this enforcement action. The information includes EPA communications with, and information provided by, vehicle and engine manufacturers in connection with the certification of heavy-duty diesel motor vehicle engines or non-road engines, some of which may include CBI.
The parties to the Navistar Litigation have entered into an Agreed Confidentiality Order,
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notification of public teleconference.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), Public Law 92-463, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) hereby provides notice that the National Environmental Justice Advisory Council (NEJAC) will meet on the dates and times described below. All meetings are open to the public. Members of the public are encouraged to provide comments relevant to the specific issues being considered by the NEJAC. For additional information about registering to attend the meeting or to provide public comment, please see “Registration” under
The NEJAC will host a public teleconference meeting on Wednesday, July 20, 2016, at 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time. The topics of discussion will include: (1) Water infrastructure financing in vulnerable and overburdened communities and (2) the implementation and outreach of EPA's Revised Agricultural Worker Protection Regulation. Public comment period relevant to the specific issues being considered by the NEJAC (see
Questions or correspondence concerning the teleconference meeting should be directed to Karen L. Martin, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, by mail at 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., (MC2201A), Washington, DC 20460; by telephone at 202-564-0203; via email at
The Charter of the NEJAC states that the advisory committee “will provide independent advice and recommendations to the Administrator about broad, crosscutting issues related to environmental justice. The NEJAC's efforts will include evaluation of a broad range of strategic, scientific, technological, regulatory, community engagement and economic issues related to environmental justice.”
Registrations for the July 20, 2016, pubic teleconference will be processed
Individuals or groups making remarks during the public comment period will be limited to seven (7) minutes. To accommodate the number of people who want to address the NEJAC, only one representative of a particular community, organization, or group will be allowed to speak. Written comments can also be submitted for the record. The suggested format for individuals providing public comments is as follows: Name of speaker; name of organization/community; city and state; and email address; brief description of the concern, and what you want the NEJAC to advise EPA to do. Written comments received by registration deadline, will be included in the materials distributed to the NEJAC prior to the teleconference. Written comments received after that time will be provided to the NEJAC as time allows. All written comments should be sent to Karen L. Martin, EPA, via email at
For information about access or services for individuals requiring assistance, please contact Karen L. Martin, at (202) 564-0203 or via email at
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreements under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreements to the Secretary, Federal Maritime Commission, Washington, DC 20573, within twelve days of the date this notice appears in the
By Order of the Federal Maritime Commission.
Notice is given that a complaint has been filed with the Federal Maritime Commission (Commission) by T. Parker Host, Inc., hereinafter “Complainant,” against Kinder Morgan Liquids Terminals, LLC, Kinder Morgan Bulk
Complainant alleges that by banning Complainant from entering on or coordinating port calls at all marine terminals owned or operated by Respondents, as well as informing Complainant's customers that as of July 1, 2016 Complainant has been banned from coordinating port calls at all marine terminals owned or operated by Respondents, Respondents have violated the Shipping Act, 46 U.S.C. 41106, which states that marine terminal operators “may not give any undue or unreasonable preference or advantage or impose any undue or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage with respect to any person; or unreasonably refuse to deal or negotiate.”
Complainant requests that the Commission enter an order declaring the “Blacklist Notice” and/or Respondents' actions described in their complaint violate 46 U.S.C. 41106 and are unlawful and unenforceable, and further declaring that Complainant may continue to provide vessel agency services at Respondents' terminals as it currently does, and that Respondent be required to answer the charges made in the Complaint. Complainant also requests that after taking evidence and conducting a hearing, the Commission order Respondents to cease and desist from violation of the Shipping Act; to put in place lawful and reasonable practices to insure no continuing similar violations of the Shipping Act; to pay Complainant's reasonable attorney fees pursuant to 46 U.S.C. 41305(e); to pay monetary penalties for violating the Shipping Act pursuant to 46 U.S.C. 41107; and that the Commission make any further orders as it determines to be just and proper.
The full text of the complaint can be found in the Commission's Electronic Reading Room at
This proceeding has been assigned to the Office of Administrative Law Judges. The initial decision of the presiding officer in this proceeding shall be issued by June 29, 2017, and the final decision of the Commission shall be issued by January 12, 2018.
Federal Acquisition Service (FAS), General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice.
FAS is publishing this notice to solicit comments regarding the public release of transactional data reported in accordance with the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) Transactional Data Reporting clauses. GSA FAS will consider comments received in establishing its final position on which Transactional Data Reporting (TDR) data elements are releasable under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and which elements will therefore be released to the general public via a public data extract.
Submit comments on or before August 29, 2016.
Mr. Adam Jones, Procurement Analyst, FAS Office of Acquisition Management, at
Submit comments identified by “Notice FAS-2016-01; Seeking Input on the Public Release of Data Collected Through Transactional Data Reporting” by any of the following methods:
•
•
Contractors subject to Transactional Data Reporting will be required to report eleven standard data elements. Any data
GSA intends to share transactional data to the maximum extent allowable to promote transparency and competition while respecting that some data could be exempt from disclosure. Accordingly, a public data extract, containing information that would otherwise be releasable under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (
The data released to the public will provide valuable market intelligence that can be used by vendors for crafting more efficient, targeted business development strategies that incur lower administrative costs. This will be particularly beneficial for small businesses, which often do not have the resources to invest in dedicated business development staff or acquire business intelligence through third-parties.
As
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for comments regarding the extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning Bankruptcy. A notice was published in the
Submit comments on or before August 8, 2016.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
•
•
Curtis E. Glover, Sr., Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, GSA, 202-501-1448 or email
Under statute, contractors may enter into bankruptcy which may have a significant impact on the contractor's ability to perform its Government contract. The Government often does not receive adequate and timely notice of this event. The clause at 52.242-13 requires contractors to notify the contracting officer within 5 days after the contractor enters into bankruptcy.
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension, with changes, to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning Termination Settlement Proposal Forms—FAR (Standard Forms 1435 through 1440), as prescribed at FAR subpart 49.6, Contract Termination Forms and Formats.
Submit comments on or before September 6, 2016.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0012, Termination Settlement Proposal Forms—FAR (Standard Forms 1435 through 1440) by any of the following methods:
•
•
Mr. Curtis E. Glover Sr., Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, at 202-501-1448, or email
The termination settlement proposal forms (Standard Forms 1435 through 1440) provide a standardized format for listing essential cost and inventory information needed to support the terminated contractor's negotiation position per FAR subpart 49.6—Contract Termination Forms and Formats. Submission of the information assures that a contractor will be fairly reimbursed upon settlement of the terminated contract.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The CSPED evaluation consists of the following two interconnected components or “studies”:
1.
2.
The following table provides the burden estimates for the implementation and cost study and the impact study components of the current request. The requested extension period is estimated to be two years and three months, from July 1, 2016 to September 30, 2018. Thus, burden hours for all components are annualized over two years and three months.
Indian Health Service (IHS), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice; Correction.
The Indian Health Service (IHS) published a document in the
CAPT Chris Buchanan, Acting Director, Great Plains Area, Indian Health Service, 115 4th Ave. SE., Suite 309, Aberdeen, South Dakota, (605) 226-7584, Fax (605) 226-7541.
In the
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final notice.
New or modified Base (1-percent annual chance) Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, and/or regulatory floodways (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations) as shown on the indicated Letter of Map Revision (LOMR) for each of the communities listed in the table below are finalized. Each LOMR revises the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and in some cases the Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, currently in effect for the listed communities. The flood hazard determinations modified by each LOMR will be used to calculate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and their contents.
The effective date for each LOMR is indicated in the table below.
Each LOMR is available for inspection at both the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the table below and online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) makes the final flood hazard determinations as shown in the LOMRs for each community listed in the table below. Notice of these modified flood
The modified flood hazard determinations are made pursuant to section 206 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
The new or modified flood hazard information is the basis for the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of being already in effect in order to remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
This new or modified flood hazard information, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities.
This new or modified flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings, and for the contents in those buildings. The changes in flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.
Interested lessees and owners of real property are encouraged to review the final flood hazard information available at the address cited below for each community or online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before October 5, 2016.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1631, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A. The
As a condition of granting access to the EIV system, each prospective user of the system must (1) request access to the system; (2) agree to comply with HUD's established rules of behavior; and (3) review and signify their understanding of their responsibilities of protecting data under the Federal Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 522a, as amended). As such, the collection of information about the user and the type of system access required by the prospective user is required by HUD to: (1) Identify the user; (2) determine if the prospective user in fact
HUD collects the following information from each prospective user: Public Housing Agency (PHA) code, organization name, organization address, prospective user's full name, HUD-assigned user ID, position title, office telephone number, facsimile number, type of work which involves the use of the EIV system, type of system action requested, requested access roles to be assigned to prospective user, public housing development numbers to be assigned to prospective PHA user, and prospective user's signature and date of request. The information is collected electronically and manually (for those who are unable to transmit electronically) via a PDF-fillable or Word-fillable document, which can be emailed, faxed or mailed to HUD. If this information is not collected, the Department will not be in compliance with the Federal Privacy Act and be subject to civil penalties.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Inez C. Downs, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Inez C. Downs at
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
The Department seeks to identify families who no longer participate in a HUD rental assistance program due to adverse termination of tenancy and/or assistance, and owe a debt to a Public Housing Agency (PHA). In accordance with 24 CFR 982.552 and 960.203, the PHA may deny admission to a program if the family is not suitable for tenancy for reasons such as, but not limited to: Unacceptable past performance in meeting financial obligations, history of criminal activity, eviction from Federally assisted housing in the last five years, family has committed fraud, bribery, or any other corrupt or criminal act in connection with a Federal housing program, or if a family currently owes rent or other amounts to the PHA or to another PHA in connection with a Federally assisted housing program under the U.S. Housing Act of 1937.
Within the scope of this collection of information, HUD seeks to collect from all PHAs, the following information:
1. Amount of debt owed by a former tenant to a PHA;
2. If applicable, indication of executed repayment agreement;
3. If applicable, indication of bankruptcy filing;
4. If applicable, the reason for any adverse termination of the family from a Federally assisted housing program.
This information is collected electronically from PHAs via HUD's EIV system. This information is used by HUD to create a national repository of families that owe a debt to a PHA and/or have been terminated from a federally assisted housing program. This national repository is available within the EIV system for all PHAs to access during the time of application for rental assistance. PHAs are able to access this information to determine a family's suitability for rental assistance, and avoid providing limited Federal housing assistance to families who have previously been unable to comply with HUD program requirements. If this information is not collected, the Department is at risk of paying limited Federal dollars on behalf of families who may not be eligible to receive rental housing assistance. Furthermore, if this information is not collected, the public will perceive that there are no consequences for a family's failure to comply with HUD program requirements.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of intent; announcement of public scoping meeting; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), intend to prepare a draft environmental impact statement (DEIS) to evaluate the impacts of several alternatives relating to the requested issuance of an Endangered Species Act (ESA) Incidental Take Permit (ITP) to the Kauai Island Utility Cooperative (KIUC) that would authorize take of listed species caused by activities covered under the Kauai Island Utility Cooperative Long-term Habitat Conservation Plan (KIUC LTHCP). We also provide this notice to announce a public scoping period.
The public scoping period begins with the publication of this notice in the
• July 20, 2016—Kauai Community College, 3-1901 Kaumualii Highway, Lihue, Kauai, HI 96766, 5 to 7 p.m.
The scoping meeting will provide the public an opportunity to ask questions, discuss issues with Service and State staff regarding the DEIS, and provide written comments.
To request further information or submit written comments, please use one of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
We request that you send comments by only one of the methods described above. See the Public Availability of Comments section below for more information.
Lasha-Lynn Salbosa, by telephone at 808-792-9442, or by email at
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), intend to prepare a draft environmental impact statement (DEIS) to evaluate the impacts of several alternatives relating to the requested issuance of an Endangered Species Act (ESA) Incidental Take Permit (ITP) to the Kauai Island Utility Cooperative (KIUC) that would authorize take of listed species caused by activities covered under the Kauai Island Utility Cooperative Long-term Habitat Conservation Plan (KIUC LTHCP). We also provide this notice to announce a public scoping period.
The KIUC LTHCP is being prepared by KIUC to address the effects of its generation, transmission, and distribution of electricity on listed species within the plan area, which covers the full geographic extent of the Island of Kauai, Hawaii. KIUC anticipates requesting incidental take coverage for the endangered Hawaiian petrel (
This notice was prepared pursuant to the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321
Section 9 of the ESA prohibits “take” of fish and wildlife species listed as endangered under section 4 (16 U.S.C. 1538 and 16 U.S.C. 1533, respectively). The ESA implementing regulations extend, under certain circumstances, the prohibition of take to threatened species (50 CFR 17.31). Under section 3 of the ESA, the term “take” means to “harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill,
Under section 10(a) of the ESA, the Service may issue permits to authorize incidental take of listed fish and wildlife species. “Incidental take” is defined by the ESA as take that is incidental to, and not the purpose of, carrying out an otherwise lawful activity. Section 10(a)(1)(B) of the ESA contains provisions for issuing ITPs to non-Federal entities for the take of endangered and threatened species, provided the following criteria are met:
• The taking will be incidental;
• The applicant will, to the maximum extent practicable, minimize and mitigate the impact of such taking;
• The applicant will develop a proposed HCP and ensure that adequate funding for the plan will be provided;
• The taking will not appreciably reduce the likelihood of the survival and recovery of the species in the wild; and
• The applicant will carry out any other measures that the Service may require as being necessary or appropriate for the purposes of the HCP.
Regulations governing permits for endangered and threatened species are at 50 CFR 17.22 and 17.32.
In 2011, the KIUC Short-Term Habitat Conservation Plan (STHCP) was approved by the Service, and KIUC received an ITP for the Covered Species (
Current estimates of the Newell's shearwater population, of which 90 percent nest on Kauai, range from 16,200 to 24,300, based on at-sea population estimates from 1998 through 2011 (Joyce 2013), and projected under various annual levels of decline (Griesemer and Holmes 2011). The Newell's shearwater rangewide population has experienced an over 75 percent decline from 1993 through 2009 (Day et al. 2003; Holmes et al. 2009). The Hawaiian petrel population nests on several of the southeastern Hawaiian Islands, including Hawaii and Maui, with the total population estimated at 20,000 individuals (Spear et al. 1995). The majority of the breeding population nests on Kauai (Ainley et al. 1997). An updated assessment of the Hawaiian petrel population on Kauai is under way (A. Raine, personal communication, September 30, 2015). Seabird colony monitoring data reflect significant threats from feral pig, cat, barn owl, and rat predation, as well as habitat degradation from invasive plants. Combined with the take caused by power line collisions and light attraction, these threat factors have resulted in the extirpation of at least three breeding colonies of these species on Kauai since 2011 (Holmes and Troy 2008).
The 2011 STHCP established a comprehensive monitoring and research program designed to further evaluate the impact of the power line system on seabird populations and to provide key biological data to more adequately inform a longer term HCP and take authorization. To this end, KIUC provides funding to the Kauai Endangered Seabird Recovery Project (KESRP), a project of the University of Hawaii's Pacific Cooperative Studies Unit, to monitor seabird colonies and develop approaches to assess seabird-power line collisions. Due to the remote location of many power lines on Kauai and the nocturnal behavior of seabirds, in 2012 KESRP developed an acoustic song-meter monitoring system to detect seabird collisions. This acoustic system became the foundation for KIUC's Underline Monitoring Program (UMP) and has been accepted and is funded by KIUC.
During the course of implementation of the KIUC STHCP, KESRP observed a total of 28 seabird power line collisions using night vision equipment. Of the 28 seabird power line collisions observed, only one of these collision events definitively resulted in an immediate grounded bird within the observer's field of view. Additionally, about 25 deceased Newell's shearwaters have been opportunistically found from 2011 through 2015, associated with KIUC power lines or lights. The acoustic system, which is able to monitor the power lines for seabird collisions more extensively than human observers can, has detected a minimum of 1,012 and 1,002 seabird collision events in 2014 and 2015, respectively (KIUC STHCP 2014 and 2015 UMP Reports). Since 2012, KESRP, in collaboration with KIUC, has identified all high and medium risk power line spans that pose a threat to the Covered Species. These high and medium risk lines are continually monitored every year, and those data are used to plan and test for effective minimization measures, including reconfiguring lines or installing bird diverters. While the acoustic system has been successful in detecting seabird power line collisions, only a subset of the power line system can be monitored and therefore collisions outside of the monitored areas must be estimated. Moreover, while a minimum of 1,002 seabird collision events have been detected in 2015, the fate of the birds that collided with these lines is unknown. Based on KESRP field observations, it is certain that some portion of these collisions results in immediate grounding or mortality, and that some additional proportion results in harm or injury, or potential mortality sometime after the collision event. Previous scientific studies based on waterfowl and their interactions with power lines have estimated that this subsequent mortality after the collision event could range from 20 percent to 74 percent of total detected collisions (Bevanger 1995; Bevanger 1999; Beaulaurier 1981; and Shaw et al. 2010).
The STHCP has been successful in guiding measures that KIUC has implemented to mitigate the effects of its existing facilities on the Covered Species; increasing knowledge related to the impact of KIUC's power line system on seabird populations; providing key biological data concerning the Covered Species; and improving our understanding of the effectiveness of conservation measures to more adequately inform a longer term habitat conservation plan and take authorization.
In 2015, KIUC spent $2.32 million to implement the conservation program under the STHCP. Sixty-two percent of this budget funded seabird colony management (
The STHCP expiration date was in May 2016. On April 12, 2016, we received an application for renewal of that permit pending preparation of the LTHCP.
The KIUC LTHCP is being prepared by KIUC to cover the generation, transmission, and distribution of electricity within the plan area, which covers the full geographic extent of the Island of Kauai, Hawaii. KIUC intends to submit the LTHCP as part of the its application for a Federal ITP and a State incidental take license, in accordance with respective Federal and State permit issuance criteria. KIUC intends to develop the LTHCP in coordination with the Service, Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources-Division of Forestry and Wildlife, Kauai Endangered Seabird Recovery Project, Kauai Seabird Habitat Conservation Program, Kauai Humane Society, and the National Tropical Botanical Garden.
In response to the Service's recommendation in 2011, KIUC was participating in the planning for a State-sponsored islandwide HCP (the “Kauai Seabird Habitat Conservation Program” or “KSHCP”) which was intended to address take of the Covered Species from attraction to, or collision with various lights and power lines on the island of Kauai, due to activities by numerous entities in addition to KIUC. However, in November 2015, the State, in consultation with the Service, decided to limit the KSHCP planning effort just to light attraction take. As a result of this decision to limit the KSHCP to light attraction take, KIUC is now seeking long-term incidental take authorization through its own separate KIUC LTHCP.
The KIUC LTHCP and ITP will address the incidental take of the Covered Species caused by Covered Activities that are described and analyzed in the LTHCP. In accordance with the requirements of section 10(a)(2)(A) of the ESA, the LTHCP will also address: The impacts to the Covered Species caused by the taking; the steps KIUC will take to minimize and mitigate those impacts; the funding that will be available to implement those steps; what alternative actions to the taking that KIUC considered and the reasons why such alternatives are not being utilized; and other measures that the Service may require as being necessary or appropriate for purposes of the plan.
The KIUC intends to utilize new information generated through implementation of the STHCP to develop a long-term HCP addressing the Covered Species in support of its request for a 30-year ITP. It is anticipated that KIUC will request authorization for the lethal take of approximately 100 to 1,000 individuals annually of the Covered Species combined. A more specific total combined amount of take, and a more specific amount of take for each Covered Species that KIUC will request will be described in the LTHCP.
KIUC's existing facilities include over 1,400 miles of electrical transmission and distribution lines, two fossil fuel-fired generating stations, two hydroelectric stations, two 12-megawatt solar energy parks, twelve substations, and approximately 3,500 streetlights. Covered Activities under the KIUC LTHCP are expected to include: (1) KIUC operations, including actions necessary to construct, operate, maintain and repair all existing and certain planned KIUC facilities and infrastructure; (2) minimization measures, including installation of bird deterrents, undergrounding power lines, line reconfiguring, line removal, relocating facilities, and line rerouting; and (3) mitigation measures, including construction and maintenance of predator-proof fenced enclosures, invasive predator reduction efforts, and seabird colony monitoring and habitat management activities to create or enhance seabird breeding habitat. The KIUC LTHCP is also expected to include the following as Covered Activities: 600 new streetlights; approximately 15 miles of new transmission lines (much of it on already constructed poles or underground); approximately 15 miles per year of line improvements, re-configured, or undergrounded distribution lines; the closure of one substation and the construction of 3 or more new facilities, including the Aepo Substation, Hanahanapuni Switching Station, and the Kilohana Switching station. Additional substations may also be built for renewable projects that cannot be integrated into the existing facilities due to their location, capacity, or operation constraints.
The KIUC LTHCP is expected to include a variety of conservation measures to mitigate unavoidable impacts to the Covered Species. One set of measures is intended to improve the breeding success of the Covered Species. These measures are likely to include: the installation and maintenance of predator-proof fencing at two or more locations encompassing at least several hundred acres of existing Covered Species breeding colonies in northern, interior areas of Kauai; post-fencing efforts to greatly reduce or eliminate predator populations from within the fenced areas; efforts to reduce predator populations at other locations; and one or more social attraction projects to create new breeding areas within appropriate habitat for the Covered Species. Other mitigation measures are expected to include: continued implementation of
NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321
The DEIS will consider the impacts of the issuance of an ESA section 10(a)(1)(B) permit on the human environment. The DEIS will also include an analysis of a reasonable range of alternatives. Such alternatives may include, but are not limited to, variations in: The permit term or permit structure; the level of take allowed; the level, location, or type of minimization, mitigation, or monitoring provided under the HCP; the scope of Covered Activities; the list of Covered Species; or a combination of these factors. Other alternatives could include undergrounding, reconfiguring or taking other measures to minimize the take at all five power line segments that accounted for 72 percent of all seabird collisions in 2014, expanding existing predator control areas to maximize seabird protection, and the addition of one or more seabird colony management sites in the Upper Manoa Valley. Additionally, a No Action Alternative will be included. Under the No Action Alternative, the Service would not issue an ITP, and KIUC would be obligated to avoid incidental take of federally-listed species or risk violation of Federal and State law.
The DEIS will identify and describe direct, indirect, and cumulative impacts on biological resources, land use, air quality, water quality, water resources, socioeconomics, climate, and other environmental resources that could occur with the implementation of the proposed action and alternatives. The Service will also identify measures, consistent with NEPA and other relevant considerations of national policy, to avoid or minimize any significant effects of the proposed action on the quality of the human environment. Following completion of the environmental review, the Service will publish a notice of availability and a request for comment on the DEIS, which will include a draft of the proposed KIUC LTHCP.
We request data, comments, new information, or suggestions from the public, other concerned governmental agencies, the scientific community, Native Hawaiian organizations or entities, industry, or any other interested party on this notice. We will consider these comments in developing the DEIS. We seek specific comments on:
1. Biological information and relevant data concerning the Covered Species;
2. Additional information concerning the range, distribution, population size, and population trends of the Covered Species;
3. Potential direct, indirect, and cumulative impacts that implementation of the proposed Covered Activities and mitigation/minimization measures could have on the Covered Species; and other endangered or threatened species, and their communities or habitats; and other aspects of the human environment;
4. Whether there are connected, similar, or reasonably foreseeable cumulative actions;
5. Other possible alternatives to the proposed permit action that the Service should consider, including additional or alternative mitigation and minimization measures;
6. Other current or planned activities in the subject area and their possible impacts on Covered Species;
7. The presence of archaeological sites, buildings and structures, historic events, sacred and traditional areas, and other historic preservation concerns, which are required to be considered in project planning by the National Historic Preservation Act; and
8. Identification of any other environmental issues that should be considered with regard to the proposed KIUC LTHCP and permit action.
You may submit your comments and materials by one of the methods listed above in the
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we use in preparing the DEIS, will be available for public inspection by appointment, during normal business hours, at the Service's Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office (see
See
Persons needing reasonable accommodations in order to attend and participate in the public scoping meeting should contact the Service's Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office using one of the methods listed above in
We provide this notice in accordance with the requirements of section 10 of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the availability of six John H. Chafee Coastal Barrier Resources System (CBRS) draft revised maps for public review and comment. The draft maps, all dated May 16, 2016, are for four existing CBRS units located in Bay and Gulf Counties, Florida, and for three existing units and three proposed new units located in Middlesex and Monmouth Counties, New Jersey.
To ensure consideration, we must receive your written comments by August 22, 2016.
You may submit written comments by one of the following methods:
•
•
We request that you send comments by only the methods described above. We will post all information received on
Katie Niemi, Coastal Barriers Coordinator, (703) 358-2071 (telephone); or
Coastal barriers are typically elongated, narrow landforms located at the interface of land and sea, and are inherently dynamic ecosystems. Coastal barriers provide important habitat for fish and wildlife, and serve as the mainland's first line of defense against the impacts of severe storms. With the passage of the Coastal Barrier Resources Act (CBRA) in 1982 (Pub. L. 97-348), Congress recognized that certain actions and programs of the Federal Government have historically subsidized and encouraged development on coastal barriers, where severe storms are much more likely to occur, and the result has been the loss of natural resources; threats to human life, health, and property; and the expenditure of millions of tax dollars each year.
The CBRA established the CBRS, which comprised 186 geographic units encompassing approximately 453,000 acres of undeveloped lands and associated aquatic habitat along the Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico coasts. The CBRS was expanded by the Coastal Barrier Improvement Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-591) to include additional areas along the Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico coasts, as well as areas along the coasts of the Great Lakes, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and Puerto Rico. The CBRS now comprises a total of 859 geographic units, encompassing approximately 3.3 million acres of relatively undeveloped coastal barrier lands and associated aquatic habitat. These areas are depicted on a series of maps entitled “John H. Chafee Coastal Barrier Resources System.”
Most new Federal expenditures and financial assistance that would have the effect of encouraging development are prohibited within the CBRS. However, development can still occur within the CBRS, provided that private developers or other non-Federal parties bear the full cost, rather than the American taxpayers.
The CBRS includes two types of units, System Units and Otherwise Protected Areas (OPAs). System Units generally comprise private lands that were relatively undeveloped at the time of their designation within the CBRS. Most new Federal expenditures and financial assistance, including Federal flood insurance, are prohibited within System Units. OPAs generally comprise lands established under Federal, State, or local law or held by a qualified organization primarily for wildlife refuge, sanctuary, recreational, or natural resource conservation purposes. OPAs are denoted with a “P” at the end of the unit number. The only Federal spending prohibition within OPAs is the prohibition on Federal flood insurance.
The Secretary of the Interior (Secretary), through the Service, is responsible for administering the CBRA, which includes maintaining the official maps of the CBRS, consulting with Federal agencies that propose to spend funds within the CBRS, preparing updated maps of the CBRS, and making recommendations to Congress regarding changes to the CBRS. Aside from three minor exceptions, only Congress—through new legislation—can modify the maps of the CBRS to add or remove land. These exceptions, which allow the Secretary to make limited modifications to the CBRS (16 U.S.C. 3503(c)-(e)), are for: (1) Changes that have occurred to the CBRS as a result of natural forces, (2) voluntary additions to the CBRS by property owners, and (3) additions of excess Federal property to the CBRS.
The Service receives numerous requests from property owners and other interested parties who seek to remove areas from the CBRS. When assessing whether a proposed change to remove an area from the CBRS constitutes an appropriate technical correction, we consider whether the original intent of the boundaries is reflected on the maps (
The Service generally does not recommend removals from the CBRS, unless there is clear and compelling evidence that a mapping error was made. In cases where mapping errors are found, the Service supports changes to the maps and works with Congress and other interested parties to create comprehensively revised maps using modern digital technology.
Through this notice, we are developing a new CBRS mapping protocol for critical facilities located within and immediately adjacent to the CBRS. Under certain limited circumstances, the Service may consider mapping a CBRS area to allow for the protection of existing critical facilities (
The Service has developed this new protocol for critical facilities to allow for the protection of the Bayshore Regional Sewerage Authority (BRSA) Wastewater Treatment Facility in Monmouth County, New Jersey (see Proposed Map Modifications section below). In cases where the Service recommends the removal of an area from the CBRS in accordance with this protocol, the change will become effective only if the updated map is adopted through legislation enacted by Congress.
The Service has prepared six comprehensively revised draft maps dated May 16, 2016, that propose modifications to the CBRS in Florida and New Jersey. Below is a summary of the changes depicted on the draft maps.
The Service has prepared three draft maps for St. Andrew Complex P31/P31P located in Bay County, Florida. The draft maps for Units P31 and P31P remove approximately 125 acres from the CBRS (98 acres of fastland and 27 acres of associated aquatic habitat) and add approximately 1,582 acres to the CBRS (131 acres of fastland and 1,451 acres of associated aquatic habitat). The draft maps remove areas (some of which were inappropriately included within the CBRS in the past) and add areas that meet the CBRA criteria for inclusion within the CBRS (16 U.S.C. 3503(g)(1)). The draft maps also reclassify certain areas from System Unit to OPA, and vice versa.
The Service has prepared two draft maps for Cape San Blas Unit P30/P30P located in Gulf County, Florida. The draft maps for Unit P30/P30P remove approximately 65 acres from the CBRS (52 acres of fastland and 13 acres of associated aquatic habitat) and add approximately 642 acres to the CBRS (61 acres of fastland and 581 acres of associated aquatic habitat). The draft maps remove areas that were inappropriately included within the CBRS in the past and add areas that meet the CBRA criteria for inclusion within the CBRS (16 U.S.C. 3503(g)(1)). The draft maps also reclassify certain areas from System Unit to OPA, and vice versa.
The Service has prepared a draft map for Seidler Beach Unit NJ-02, Cliffwood Beach Unit NJ-03P, and Conaskonk Point Unit NJ-04, located in Middlesex and Monmouth Counties, New Jersey. The draft map also includes three proposed new OPAs, Seidler Beach Unit NJ-02P, Sayreville Unit NJ-15P, and Matawan Point Unit NJ-16P, which are within the vicinity of the existing units. The draft map for Units NJ-02/NJ-02P, NJ-03P, NJ-04, NJ-15P, and NJ-16P, removes approximately 21 acres from the CBRS (15 acres of fastland and 6 acres of associated aquatic habitat) and adds approximately 393 acres to the CBRS (116 acres of fastland and 277 acres of associated aquatic habitat). The draft map removes areas that were inappropriately included within the CBRS in the past. Additionally, a strip of wetlands along the northeastern side of the BRSA facility is removed to allow for the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers to construct a planned levee to protect a wastewater treatment facility from future storm damage. This proposed removal is in accordance with the protocol described in the Mapping Protocol for the Protection of Existing Critical Facilities section above. The draft map also adds areas that meet the CBRA criteria for inclusion within the CBRS (16 U.S.C. 3503(g)(1) and reclassifies an area from System Unit to OPA.
The draft maps for Units P30/P30P, P31/P31P, NJ-02/NJ-02P, NJ-03P, NJ-04, NJ-15P, and NJ-16P propose additions to the CBRS, including the creation of three new units that are consistent with a directive in Section 4 of Public Law 109-226 concerning recommendations for expansion of the CBRS. The proposed boundaries depicted on the draft maps for Florida and New Jersey are based upon the best data available to the Service at the time the draft maps were created. Our assessment indicated that any new areas proposed for addition to the CBRS were relatively undeveloped at the time the draft maps were created.
Section 2 of Public Law 106-514 requires that we consider the following criteria when assessing the development status of a potential addition to the CBRS: (1) Whether the density of development is less than one structure per five acres of land above mean high tide (which generally suggests eligibility for inclusion within the CBRS); and (2) whether there is existing infrastructure consisting of: A road, with a reinforced road bed, to each lot or building site in the area; a wastewater disposal system sufficient to serve each lot or building site in the area; electric service for each lot or building site in the area; and a fresh water supply for each lot or building site in the area (which generally suggests ineligibility for inclusion within the CBRS).
If, upon review of the draft maps, interested parties find that any areas proposed for addition to the CBRS are currently developed (according to the criteria established by Section 2 of Public Law 106-514), they may submit supporting documentation of such development to the Service during this public comment period. For any areas proposed for addition to the CBRS on the draft maps, we will consider the density of development and level of infrastructure on the ground as of the close of the comment period on the date listed in the
Section 4 of Public Law 109-226 requires the Secretary to provide an opportunity for the submission of public comments. We invite the public to review and comment on the draft maps dated May 16, 2016, for CBRS Units P30/P30P, P31/P31P, NJ-02/NJ-02P, NJ-03P, NJ-04, NJ-15P, and NJ-16P. The Service is specifically notifying the following stakeholders concerning the availability of the draft revised maps: The Chair and Ranking Member of the House of Representatives Committee on Natural Resources; the Chair and Ranking Member of the Senate Committee on Environment and Public Works; the members of the Senate and House of Representatives for the
Interested parties may submit written comments and accompanying data through
Following the close of the comment period, we will review all comments received on the draft maps and we will make adjustments to the draft maps, as appropriate, based on information received through public comments, updated aerial imagery, CBRA criteria, and objective mapping protocols. We will then prepare final recommended maps to be submitted to Congress. The final recommended maps will become effective only if they are adopted by Congress through legislation.
The draft maps, unit summaries (containing historical changes and more detailed information regarding proposed changes to the units), and digital boundary data can be accessed and downloaded from the Service's Web site at:
Interested parties may also contact the Service individual identified in the
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comment/information.
We, the Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received five applications for incidental take permits (ITPs) and one renewal of an ITP under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act) in Lake County, Florida. We request public comment on the permit applications and accompanying proposed habitat conservation plans (HCPs), as well as on our preliminary determination that the plans qualify as low-effect under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). To make this determination, we used our environmental action statements and low-effect screening forms, which are also available for review.
To ensure consideration, please send your written comments by August 8, 2016.
If you wish to review the applications and HCPs, you may request documents by email, U.S. mail, or phone (see below). These documents are also available for public inspection by appointment during normal business hours at the office below. Send your comments or requests by any one of the following methods.
Erin M. Gawera, telephone: (904) 731-3121; email:
We, the Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received five applications for incidental take permits (ITPs) and one renewal of an ITP under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act). Walton Acquisitions FL, LLC requests a 20-year ITP; EPC Holdings 808 LLC and Parkview Oaks, LLC request a 25-year ITP; Mattamy Orlando, LLC (Ladd Property) requests a 5-year ITP; Mattamy Orlando, LLC (NOLA Property) requests a 5-year ITP; Mattamy Orlando, LLC (Clermont Self Storage Property) requests a 5-year ITP; and Richard Bosserman requests a 10-year renewal of ITP permit #TE105732-1. We request public comment on the permit applications and accompanying proposed habitat conservation plans (HCPs), as well as on our preliminary determination that the plans qualify as low-effect under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). To make this determination, we used our environmental action statement and low-effect screening form, which are also available for review.
Section 9 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Regulations governing incidental take permits for threatened and endangered species are at 50 CFR 17.32 and 17.22, respectively. The Act's take prohibitions do not apply to federally listed plants on private lands unless such take would
Walton Acquisitions FL, LLC is requesting take of approximately 6.03 acres (ac) of occupied sand skink foraging and sheltering habitat incidental to construction of a residential project, and they seek a 20-year permit. The 505.99-ac project is located on parcel number 21-20-24-000100000900 within Sections 21, 22, 27, and 28, Township 22 South, and Range 26 East, Lake County, Florida. The project includes construction of a residential development and the associated infrastructure, and landscaping. The applicant proposes to mitigate for the take of the sand skink by the purchase of 12.06 mitigation credits within the Collany Conservation Bank or another Service-approved sand skink bank.
EPC Holdings 808 LLC and Parkview Oaks, LLC request take of approximately 1.58 ac of occupied sand skink foraging and sheltering habitat incidental to construction of a residential project, and they seek a 25-year permit. The 1433-ac project is located on parcels identified with by the Lake County Property Appraiser with the Alternate Key IDs of 1037051, 2804271, 1031028, 1065062, 3029038, 3029020, 3029011, 3859093, 1017301, 2868180, 3854637, 3884096, 1590361, 3860074, 1070015, 3860073, 1070015, and 3859995, 1590817, 3019890, 1027764, 2934590, 2934581, 2934603, and 1065101, within Sections 16, 17, 20, 21, 28, and 29, Township 21 South, and Range 26 East, Lake County, Florida. The project includes construction of a residential development and the associated infrastructure, and landscaping. The applicant proposes to mitigate for the take of the sand skink by the purchase of 3.16 mitigation credits within the Collany Conservation Bank or another Service-approved sand skink bank.
Mattamy Orlando, LLC is requesting take of approximately 10.65 ac of occupied sand skink foraging and sheltering habitat incidental to construction of a residential project, and they seek a 5-year permit. The 17.75-ac project is located on parcel numbers 342226000200000200, 342226130000C00001, and 342226000200000600 within Section 34, Township 22 South, and Range 26 East, Lake County, Florida. The project includes construction of a residential development and the associated infrastructure, and landscaping. The applicant proposes to mitigate for the take of the sand skink by the purchase of 21.3 mitigation credits within the Hatchineha Conservation Bank or another Service-approved sand skink bank.
Mattamy Orlando, LLC is requesting take of approximately 9.67 ac of occupied sand skink foraging and sheltering habitat incidental to construction of a residential project, and they seek a 5-year permit. The 541-ac project is located on parcel numbers 27-22-26-00-030-0000-500, 34-22-26-00-010-0000-100, and 35-22-26-00-010-0000-600 within Sections 27, 34, 35 and 36, Township 22 South, and Range 26 East, Lake County, Florida. The project includes construction of a residential development and the associated infrastructure, and landscaping. The applicant proposes to mitigate for the take of the sand skink by the purchase of 19.34 mitigation credits within the Hatchineha Conservation Bank or another Service-approved sand skink bank.
Mattamy Orlando, LLC is requesting take of approximately 9.1 ac of occupied sand skink foraging and sheltering habitat incidental to construction of a mixed commercial and residential project, and they seek a 5-year permit. The 16.25-ac project is located on parcel numbers 342226130000A00000, 34226130000000100, 342226130000C00000, and 342226000200000200 within Section 34, Township 22 South, Range 26 East, Lake County, Florida. The project includes construction of a mixed commercial and residential development and the associated infrastructure, and landscaping. The applicant proposes to mitigate for the take of the sand skink by the purchase of 18.2 mitigation credits within the Hatchineha Conservation Bank or another Service-approved sand skink bank.
Richard Bosserman has been approved for take of approximately 1.9 ac of sand skink-occupied habitat incidental to construction of a commercial facility, and seeks a 10-year extension on an existing permit. The 29.6-ac project is located within Section 27, Township 22 South, and Range 26 East, Clermont, Lake County, Florida. The applicant's HCP describes the mitigation and minimization measures the applicant completed to address the effects of the project to the sand skink.
We have determined that the applicants' proposals, including the proposed mitigation and minimization measures, would have minor or negligible effects on the species covered in their HCPs. Therefore, we determined that the ITPs for each of the applicants are “low-effect” projects and qualify for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), as provided by the Department of the Interior Manual (516 DM 2 Appendix 1 and 516 DM 6 Appendix 1). A low-effect HCP is one involving (1) Minor or negligible effects on federally listed or candidate species and their habitats, and (2) minor or negligible effects on other environmental values or resources.
We will evaluate the HCPs and comments we receive to determine whether the ITP applications meet the requirements of section 10(a) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
If you wish to comment on the permit applications, HCPs, and associated documents, you may submit comments by any one of the methods in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comments, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying
We provide this notice under Section 10 of the Act and NEPA regulations (40 CFR 1506.6).
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability.
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service) and the Western Area Power Administration (Western), as joint lead agencies, issued the Upper Great Plains Wind Energy Final Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement (Final PEIS) on May 1, 2015. The Service has decided to implement Alternative 1, as described in the Final PEIS and summarized in the Record of Decision (ROD). Alternative 1 was identified as both the agency-preferred alternative and the environmentally preferred alternative.
You may request copies of the Final PEIS and ROD, or more information, by one of the following methods.
To view comments on the final PEIS from the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), or for information on EPA's role in the EIS process, see EPA's Role in the EIS Process under
Kelly Hogan, 303-236-4355 (phone) or
The Record of Decision (ROD) we announce today documents the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service's (Service) decision to implement the Programmatic Regional Wind Energy Development Evaluation Process (Alternative 1) of the Upper Great Plains Wind Energy Final Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement (Final PEIS) (DOE/EIS-0408), published in the
In response to an increase in wind energy development in the Upper Great Plains Region (UGP Region), which encompasses all or parts of the States of Iowa, Minnesota, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, and South Dakota, the Service (Service) and the Western Area Power Administration (Western) have prepared the Upper Great Plains Wind Energy Final PEIS to streamline their procedures for conducting environmental reviews of wind energy applications by implementing standardized evaluation procedures and identifying measures to address potential environmental impacts associated with wind energy projects in the UGP Region.
The Service and Western cooperatively prepared the PEIS to (1) assess the potential environmental impacts associated with wind energy projects within the UGP Region that may propose placement of project elements on grassland or wetland easements managed by the Service, or that may interconnect to Western's transmission system, and (2) evaluate how environmental impacts would differ under alternative sets of environmental evaluation procedures, best management practices, avoidance strategies, and mitigation measures that the agencies would request project developers to implement, as appropriate, for specific wind energy projects. Four alternatives, including the No Action alternative, were analyzed in the PEIS.
The PEIS analyzes, to the extent practicable, the impacts resulting from development of wind energy projects and the effectiveness of best management practices (BMPs), avoidance of sensitive areas, and mitigation measures in reducing potential impacts. Impacts and mitigation have been analyzed for each environmental resource, and all components of wind energy projects have been addressed, including turbines, transformers, collector lines, overhead lines, access roads, substation installations, and operational and maintenance activities. Many of the impacts resulting from constructing and operating these types of wind energy infrastructure are well known from existing wind energy projects.
In addition to the PEIS, the Service and Western engaged in informal consultation under Section 7 of the ESA in support of the PEIS process. A programmatic biological assessment (Programmatic BA) has been prepared for listed and candidate species occurring in the UGP Region. Development of the Programmatic BA was closely coordinated with the Service's North Dakota Ecological Services Field Office. That office issued a letter of concurrence with the Programmatic BA on July 7, 2015, as a result of this consultation.
The agencies also investigated a programmatic approach to section 106 consultations under the National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA) (54 U.S.C. 300101
The EPA is charged under section 309 of the Clean Air Act to review all Federal agencies' environmental impact statements (EISs) and to comment on the adequacy and the acceptability of the environmental impacts of proposed actions in the EISs.
EPA also serves as the repository (EIS database) for EISs prepared by Federal agencies and provides notice of their availability in the
The Service's purpose and need for Federal action, as presented in the Draft and Final PEIS, is to streamline the environmental review process for wind energy projects that would unavoidably impact grassland or wetland easements administered by the Service and would therefore require an easement exchange to accommodate wind energy development.
Four alternatives, including the No Action Alternative, were analyzed in the PEIS and are briefly described below. More detailed information on the alternatives may be found in the Final PEIS, which can be accessed from the Web site provided above.
Under the No Action Alternative, the Service would continue to consider requests for easement exchanges to accommodate wind energy project requests under the procedures currently used to evaluate and address the environmental impacts associated with wind energy projects. Requests would be processed, reviewed, and evaluated on a case-by-case basis, including separate NEPA, section 7, and section 106 reviews performed for each specific project.
The Service has decided to adopt a Programmatic Regional Wind Energy Development Process to address requests for Service easement exchanges to accommodate wind energy development. Under Alternative 1, the Service will adopt a standardized structured process for collecting information and evaluating and reviewing environmental impacts of wind energy requests. Best management practices and mitigation measures developed in the PEIS programmatic process would be employed to minimize the potential environmental impacts of wind energy projects. Project-specific NEPA analyses, either environmental assessments (EAs) or streamlined EISs, would tier off (eliminate repetitive discussions of the same issues) the analyses in the Final PEIS as long as the appropriate identified conservation measures were implemented as part of proposed projects. In accordance with 40 CFR 1502.20, these project-specific NEPA documents would summarize the information and issues covered in the Final PEIS or incorporate relevant discussions by reference. This approach would allow for more efficient NEPA documents that would properly focus on local or site-specific issues. The decision to pursue a tiered EA or EIS would be made similar to any other proposal. If the potential for new significant impacts appeared low, then an EA process could be initiated, with the understanding that the identification of any potentially new significant impact would require transition to an EIS process. It is anticipated that the tiered NEPA document in most instances will be an EA. If there appeared to be a potential for new significant environmental impacts, based on the project description and site location, then a tiered EIS process would be initiated.
Project-specific ESA Section 7 consultations would utilize the Programmatic BA so long as the applicable best management practices, minimization measures, mitigation measures, and monitoring requirements established in the Programmatic BA were implemented. Project proponents who could not agree to the requirements in the Programmatic BA would be required to conduct a separate ESA Section 7 consultation with the Service. NHPA section 106 and related tribal consultation would continue unchanged from the present practices; since cultural resources issues are very site specific, it was not possible to address them programmatically beyond including general avoidance and protection measures and committing to the established processes and procedures. The primary objective of Alternative 1 was to collect relevant natural resources information; evaluate the typical impacts of wind energy projects and associated facilities on those resources; identify effective best management practices, minimization measures, and mitigation measures that could reduce impacts; provide information about areas that would be more sensitive to development impacts and encourage avoidance of siting projects in these areas; and have all this material available to support site-specific tiered environmental reviews. The parallel Programmatic BA would similarly expedite the ESA section 7 consultation by having previously established minimization measures, mitigation measures, and monitoring requirements, by species, that if committed to and implemented would constitute compliance with ESA section 7 without a separate consultation.
Alternative 2 would not allow easement exchanges to accommodate wind energy facilities.
In essence, Alternative 3 is a minimalist approach that would incorporate all mandated environmental review requirements, but would not extend beyond them. Easement exchanges would occur for wind energy projects as presented by developers without consideration of best management practice and other issues to limit environmental impacts.
The Service has determined that Alternative 1, the agency-preferred alternative, best meets the agency's needs. Alternative 1 is also the environmentally preferred alternative, and would afford the greatest protection for environmental resources that would be impacted by future wind energy projects. Therefore, it is the Service's decision to implement Alternative 1, and use the program defined by that alternative for all applicable future wind energy project affecting Service easements in the UGP Region. This decision is based on the information contained in the Upper Great Plains Wind Energy Final PEIS. The ROD was prepared pursuant to the requirements of the CEQ regulations for implementing NEPA at 42 U.S.C. 1505.2 and the Department of the Interior's implementing regulations in part 46 of title 43 of the Code of Federal Regulations (43 CFR 46.205, 46.210, and 46.215).
Bureau of Land Management, U.S. Department of the Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (FLPMA) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (FACA), the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM) Boise District Resource Advisory Council (RAC), will hold a meeting as indicated below.
The meeting will be held August 3, 2016, at the Boise District Office, 3948 Development Avenue, Boise, Idaho
Larry Ridenhour, Public Affairs Specialist and RAC Coordinator, BLM Boise District, 3948 Development Ave., Boise, Idaho 83705, telephone (208) 384-3393.
The 15-member Council advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in southwestern Idaho. During the August meeting the Boise District RAC will receive updates on Soda Fire emergency stabilization and rehabilitation actions, sage-grouse conservation implementation efforts, programmatic assessments for herbicide treatments and vegetation seeding projects and management actions associated with Skinny Dipper Hot Springs. The RAC's subcommittee on the proposed Tri-State Fuel Breaks Project will report on their meetings to date. Agenda items and location may be modified due to changing circumstances. The public may present written or oral comments to members of the Council. At each full RAC meeting, time is provided in the agenda for hearing public comments. Depending on the number of persons wishing to comment and time available, the time for individual oral comments may be limited. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance should contact the BLM Coordinator as provided above. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or questions. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
The plats of survey of lands described below are scheduled to be officially filed in the Bureau of Land Management, California State Office, Sacramento, California.
August 8, 2016.
A copy of the plats may be obtained from the California State Office, Bureau of Land Management, 2800 Cottage Way, Sacramento, California 95825, upon required payment.
Chief, Branch of Geographic Services, Bureau of Land Management, California State Office, 2800 Cottage Way W-1623, Sacramento, California 95825, 1-916-978-4310. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 to contact the above individual during normal business hours. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
A person or party who wishes to protest a survey must file a notice that they wish to protest with the Chief, Branch of Geographic Services. A statement of reasons for a protest may be filed with the notice of protest and must be filed with the Chief, Branch of Geographic Services within thirty days after the protest is filed. If a protest against the survey is received prior to the date of official filing, the filing will be stayed pending consideration of the protest. A plat will not be officially filed until the day after all protests have been dismissed or otherwise resolved. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
T. 33 N., R. 5 W., the dependent resurvey of a portion of the subdivisional lines, the subdivision of sections 25 and 26, and the metes-and-bounds survey of Tract 37 and certain lots in section 25, accepted June 6, 2016.
T. 3 N., R. 26 E., the dependent resurvey of a portion of the east boundary and a portion of the subdivisional lines, the subdivision of section 13, and the survey of the meanders of the full-pool line of a portion of Lake Havasu Reservoir, accepted March 9, 2016.
T. 3 N., R. 27 E., the dependent resurvey of a portion of the subdivisional lines, the subdivision of section 18, and the survey of the meanders of the full-pool line of a portion of Lake Havasu Reservoir, accepted March 9, 2016.
T. 3 S., R. 2 E., the supplemental plat showing parcels 1 through 6 of Tract 9 in section 6, accepted March 28, 2016.
T. 9 N., R. 23 E., the supplemental plat showing a corrected distance measurement on the west boundary of Lot 6 in the NW.
T. 10 N., R. 4 E., the dependent resurvey of a portion of the subdivisional lines and a portion of the Camp Cady Military Reservation boundary and the subdivision of section 20, accepted June 21, 2016.
43 U.S.C., chapter 3.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before June 18, 2016, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by July 22, 2016.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 2280, Washington, DC 20240; by all other carriers, National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1201 Eye St. NW., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20005; or by fax, 202-371-6447.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before June 18, 2016. Pursuant to § 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
A request for removal was received for the following resource:
Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice of meetings.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 1-16), notice is hereby given of the September through December 2016 meeting schedule of the Gateway National Recreation Area Fort Hancock 21st Century Advisory Committee.
The meetings will take place in the Beech Room at the Thompson Park Visitor Center, 805 Newman Springs Road, Lincroft, NJ. Thompson Park is part of the Monmouth County Park System.
The meetings will take place on the following dates: Thursday, September 8, 2016; Friday, October 14, 2016; and Friday, December 2, 2016.
Daphne Yun, Acting Public Affairs Officer, Gateway National Recreation Area, Sandy Hook Unit, 210 New York Avenue, Staten Island, New York 10305, (718) 354-4602, email
Under section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 1-16), the purpose of the Committee is to provide advice to the Secretary of the Interior, through the Director of the National Park Service, on the development of a reuse plan and on matters relating to future uses of certain buildings at the Fort Hancock and Sandy Hook Proving Ground National Historic Landmark which lie within Gateway National Recreation Area.
The Committee Web site,
All comments will be made part of the public record and will be electronically distributed to all Committee members. Before including your address, telephone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your written comments, you should be aware that your entire comment including your personal identifying information will be publicly available. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice of meeting.
As required by the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 1-16), the National Park Service (NPS) is hereby giving notice that the Advisory Council for the Captain John Smith Chesapeake National Historic Trail (Council) will hold a meeting. The Council will meet for the purpose of discussing segment planning, land and resource management and the National Register of Historic Places eligibility process. Designated through an amendment to the National Trails System Act (16 U.S.C. 1241 to 1251, as amended), the Captain John Smith Chesapeake National Historic trail consists of “a series of water routes extending approximately 3,000 miles along the Chesapeake Bay and the tributaries of the Chesapeake Bay in the States of Virginia, Maryland, Delaware, and in the District of Columbia,” tracing the 1607-1609 voyages of Captain John Smith to chart the land and waterways of the Chesapeake Bay. In 2012, the trail was extended to include four river segments closely associated with Captain John Smith's exploration of the Chesapeake Bay, including the north and west branches of the Susquehanna River.
The Council will meet from 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. on Monday, August 1, 2016, and from 9:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. on Tuesday, August 2, 2016 (EASTERN).
The meeting will be held at the Columbia Crossing River Trails Center at Columbia River Park, 41 Walnut Street, Columbia, PA 17512. For more information, please contact the NPS Chesapeake Bay Office, 410 Severn Avenue, Suite 314, Annapolis, MD 21403, telephone (410) 260-2477.
Christine Lucero, Partnership Coordinator, telephone (757) 258-8914 or email
This meeting is open to the public. Preregistration is required for both public attendance and comment. Any individual who wishes to attend the meeting and/or participate in the public comment session should register via email at
Comments will be taken for 30 minutes at the end of the meeting on August 2, 2016, (from 1:30 p.m. to 2:00 p.m.). Before including your address, telephone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. All comments will be made part of the public record and will be electronically distributed to all Council members.
On the basis of the record
The Commission, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), instituted this review on February 1, 2016 (81 FR 5136) and determined on May 6, 2016, that it would conduct an expedited review (81 FR 32346, May 23, 2016).
The Commission made this determination pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)). It completed and filed its determination in this review on June 30, 2016. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4618 (June 2016), entitled
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the institution of investigations and commencement of preliminary phase antidumping and countervailing duty investigation nos. 701-TA-563 and 731-TA-1331-1333 (Preliminary) pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether there is a reasonable indication that an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury, or the establishment of an industry in the United States is materially retarded, by reason of imports of finished carbon steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain provided for in subheading 7307.91.50 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, that are alleged to be sold in the United States at less than fair value and alleged to be subsidized by the Government of India. Unless the Department of Commerce extends the time for initiation, the Commission must reach a preliminary determination in antidumping and countervailing duty investigations in 45 days, or in this case
Amy Sherman (202-205-3289), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all other parties to the investigations (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
These investigations are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.12 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the institution of an investigation and commencement of preliminary phase antidumping duty investigation No. 731-TA-1330 (Preliminary) pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether there is a reasonable indication that an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury, or the establishment of an industry in the United States is materially retarded, by reason of imports of dioctyl terephthalate (“DOTP”) from Korea, provided for in subheading 2917.39.20 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, that are alleged to be sold in the United States at less than fair value. Unless the Department of Commerce extends the time for initiation, the Commission must reach a preliminary determination in antidumping duty investigations in 45 days, or in this case by August 15, 2016. The Commission's views must be transmitted to Commerce within five business days thereafter, or by August 22, 2016.
Keysha Martinez (202-205-2136), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the
For further information concerning the conduct of this investigation and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 207).
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the investigation must be served on all other parties to the investigation (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
This investigation is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.12 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Personal Protective Equipment for General Industry,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before August 8, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) for General Industry Standard information collections codified in regulations 29 CFR part 1910, subpart I. The Standard requires that PPE—including equipment for eyes, face, head, and extremities; protective clothing; respiratory devices; and protective shields and barriers—be provided, used, and maintained in a sanitary and reliable condition wherever it is necessary by reason of hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants encountered in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any part of the body through absorption, inhalation or physical contact. This ICR covers hazard assessment and verification records and record disclosure during inspections. Occupational Safety and Health Act sections 2(b)(9) and 8(g)(2) authorize this information collection.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Office of the Secretary, DOL.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)] sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Benzene Standard,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before August 8, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Benzene Standard information collection requirements codified in regulations 29 CFR 1910.1028. The Standard requires an Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) covered employer subject to the Standard to monitor worker exposure, to provide medical surveillance, and to maintain accurate records of worker exposure to benzene. Employers, workers, physicians, and the Government use these records to ensure exposure to benzene in the workplace does not harm workers. OSH Act sections 2(b)(9), 6, and 8(c) authorize this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years,
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Office of the Secretary, DOL.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Trade Activity Participant Report” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before August 8, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Trade Activity Participant Report (TAPR) information collection. The TAPR is a data collection and reporting system that supplies critical information on the operation of the Trade Adjustment Assistance program and the outcomes for its participants. The State collects required information for use by Federal, State, and local, agencies to report program management information to Congress and other Federal agencies, and to improve the effectiveness of job training programs. The Trade Act of 1974, as amended authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated,
The ACRS Subcommittee on Plant Operations and Fire Protection will hold a meeting on July 28, 2016, at the U.S. NRC Region II Office, 245 Peachtree Center Avenue NE., 8th floor, Salon A, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-1257.
The meeting will be open to public attendance. Visitors wishing to attend that meeting must report to the NRC Security Desk on the 8th floor.
The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will meet with Region II staff to discuss items of mutual interest. The Subcommittee will hear presentations by and hold discussions with representatives of the NRC staff and other interested persons regarding this matter. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Derek Widmayer (Telephone 301-415-5375 or Email:
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC Web site at
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft supplemental environmental impact statement; request for comment.
By letter dated October 3, 2012, AUC LLC (AUC) submitted an application to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) for a new source and byproduct materials license for the proposed Reno Creek
Submit comments by August 22, 2016. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC is able to assure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
For additional direction on accessing information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Jill Caverly, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-7674; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2013-0164 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Please include Docket ID NRC-2013-0164 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
Under the NRC's environmental protection regulations in part 51 of title 10 of the
In May 2009, the NRC staff issued NUREG-1910, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for
The Draft SEIS for the proposed Reno Creek ISR Project may also be accessed on the Internet at
The Draft SEIS was prepared in response to an application submitted by AUC by letter dated October 3, 2012. The applicant proposes the construction, operation, aquifer restoration, and decommissioning of an ISR facility.
The Draft SEIS was prepared by the NRC and its contractor, Southwest Research Institute. The NRC has prepared this Draft SEIS in compliance with NEPA and the NRC's regulations for implementing NEPA (10 CFR part 51).
The proposed Reno Creek ISR Project will be located in Campbell County between the communities of Wright, Edgerton and Gillette and would encompass approximately 2,451 hectares (6,057 acres).
The Draft SEIS is being issued as part of the NRC's process to decide whether to issue a license to AUC pursuant to 10 CFR part 40. In the Draft SEIS, the NRC staff has assessed the potential environmental impacts from the construction, operation, aquifer restoration, and decommissioning of the proposed Reno Creek ISR Project. The NRC staff assessed the impacts of the proposed action and an alternative on land use; historical and cultural resources; visual and scenic resources; climatology, meteorology and air quality; geology, minerals and soils; water resources; ecological resources; socioeconomics; environmental justice; noise; traffic and transportation; public and occupational health and safety; and waste management. Additionally, the Draft SEIS analyzes and compares the benefits and costs of the proposed action.
The NRC staff evaluated site-specific data and information on the Reno Creek ISR Project to determine if AUC's proposed activities and the site characteristics were consistent with those evaluated in the GEIS. NRC then determined which relevant sections of, and impact conclusions in, the GEIS could be incorporated by reference. The NRC staff also determined if additional data or analysis was needed to assess the potential environmental impacts for a specific environmental resource area. The NRC documented its assessments and conclusions in the Draft SEIS.
In addition to the action proposed by AUC, the NRC staff addressed the no-action alternative. The no-action alternative serves as a baseline for comparing the potential environmental impacts of the proposed action.
After weighing the impacts of the proposed action and comparing the alternative, the NRC staff, in accordance with 10 CFR 51.71(f), sets forth its preliminary recommendation regarding the proposed action. Unless safety issues mandate otherwise, the NRC staff preliminarily recommends that the proposed action be approved (
The Draft SEIS is being issued for public comment. The public comment period on the Draft SEIS begins with publication of this notice and continues until August 22, 2016. Written comments should be submitted as described in the
For the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; withdrawal by applicant.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has granted the request of the Tennessee Valley Authority (the licensee) to withdraw its license amendment application dated December 15, 2015, for a proposed amendment to Facility Operating License No. NPF-96 issued to the licensee for operation of the Watts Bar Nuclear Plant (WBN), Unit 2. The proposed amendment would have revised Technical Specification (TS) 3.6.12, “Ice Condenser Doors.”
The license amendment application was withdrawn on June 2, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0019 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Robert Schaaf, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6020, email:
The NRC has granted the Tennessee Valley Authority's request to withdraw its December 15, 2015, license amendment application (ADAMS Accession No. ML15350A250) for a proposed amendment to Facility Operating License No. NPF-96 issued to the licensee for operation of the WBN, Unit 2, located in Rhea County, Tennessee.
The licensee requested to amend TS 3.6.12, “Ice Condenser Doors,” to revise the surveillance frequency of three surveillance requirements (SRs) that perform visual inspection and torque testing on the ice condenser lower inlet doors during the first cycle after receipt of the WBN, Unit 2, Facility Operating License. The purpose of the proposed amendment was to preclude an additional plant shutdown to perform surveillance testing on the ice condenser lower inlet doors based on the projected schedule for startup of WBN, Unit 2. Based on the current schedule for the startup of WBN, Unit 2, the licensee has determined that the three SRs can be performed as specified in TS 3.6.12 without requiring a unit shutdown specifically for the purpose of performing the ice condenser door SRs.
This proposed amendment request was noticed in the
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission.
Notice of revised system of records.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as amended, the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) is revising the notice for Privacy Act system-of-records OSHRC-6. OSHRC's Privacy Act system-of-records notices are published at 72 FR 54301, 54301-03, Sept. 24, 2007, and 71 FR 19556, 19556-67, Apr. 14, 2006, with additional blanket routine uses published at 73 FR 45256, 45256-57, Aug. 4, 2008, and 80 FR 60182, 60182, Oct. 5, 2015.
Comments must be received by OSHRC on or before August 16, 2016. The revised system of records will become effective on that date, without any further notice in the
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Ron Bailey, Attorney-Advisor, Office of the General Counsel, via telephone at (202) 606-5410, or via email at
The Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4), requires federal agencies such as OSHRC to publish in the
E-Filing/Case Management System.
None.
Electronic records are maintained in a private cloud within an Oracle Database, operated by MicroPact at 12901 Worldgate Drive, Suite 800, Herndon, VA 20170. Paper records are maintained by the Office of the Executive Secretary, located at 1120
This system of records covers (1) ALJs; (2) Commission members and their staff; (3) OSHRC employees entering data into the e-filing/case management system, or assigned responsibilities with respect to a particular case; and (4) parties, the parties' points of contact, and the parties' representatives in cases that have been, or presently are, before OSHRC.
The electronic records contain the following information: (1) The names of those covered by the system of records and, as to parties, their points of contact; (2) the telephone and fax numbers, business email addresses, and/or business street addresses of those covered by the system of records; (3) the names of OSHRC cases, and information associated with the cases, such as the inspection number, the docket number, the state in which the action arose, the names of the representatives, and whether the case involved a fatality; (4) events occurring in cases and the dates on which the events occurred; (5) documents filed in cases and the dates on which the documents were filed; and (6) the names of OSHRC employees entering data into the e-filing/case management system, or assigned responsibilities with respect to a particular case. The paper records are hard copies of the electronic records in the e-filing/case management system.
29 U.S.C. 661.
This system of records is maintained for the purpose of processing cases that are before OSHRC.
In addition to the Blanket Routine Uses discussed in 71 FR at 19558-59, 73 FR at 45256-57, and 80 FR at 60182, when considered appropriate, records in this system may be referred to a bar association or similar federal, state, or local licensing authority for a possible disciplinary action. Also, records may be disclosed to vetted MicroPact employees in order to ensure that the e-filing/case management system is properly maintained. And, in accordance with 29 U.S.C. 661(g), OSHRC's case files may be disclosed to the public for the purpose of inspecting and/or copying the records at OSHRC.
None.
At MicroPact's secure facility, the information is stored in a database contained on a separate database server behind the application server serving the data. Paper records are stored in the records room and in file cabinets.
Electronic records contained in the case e-filing/case management system may be retrieved by any of the data items listed under “Categories of Records in the System,” including docket number, inspection number, any part of a representative's name or the case name, and user. Paper records may be retrieved manually by docket number or case name.
Electronic records contained in the e-filing/case management system are safeguarded as follows. Data going across the Internet is encrypted using SSL encryption. Every system is password protected. MicroPact, which stores the data in a private cloud within an Oracle Database, operates its own datacenter that is protected by physical security measures. Only authorized MicroPact employees who have both physical key and key card access to the datacenter can physically access the sites where data is stored. Only authorized and vetted MicroPact employees have access to the servers containing any PII.
The access of parties and their representatives to electronic records in the system is limited to active files pertaining to cases in which the parties are named, or the representatives have entered appearances. The access of OSHRC employees is limited to personnel having a need for access to perform their official functions and is additionally restricted through password identification procedures.
Paper records are maintained in a records room that can only be accessed using a smartcard or a key. Some paper records are also maintained in file cabinets. During duty hours, these records are under surveillance of personnel charged with their custody, and after duty hours, the records are secured behind locked doors. Access to the cabinets is limited to personnel having a need for access to perform their official functions.
Under Records Disposition Schedule N1-455-90-1, paper case files may be destroyed 20 years after a case closes. Under Records Disposition Schedule N1-455-11-2, electronic records pertaining to those paper case files may be deleted when no longer needed for the conduct of current business.
Supervisory Information Technology Specialist (electronic records contained in the e-filing/case management system) and the Executive Secretary (all other records), OSHRC, 1120 20th Street NW., Ninth Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457.
Individuals interested in inquiring about their records should notify: Privacy Officer, OSHRC, 1120 20th Street NW., Ninth Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. For an explanation on how such requests should be drafted, refer to 29 CFR 2400.5 (notification), and 29 CFR 2400.6 (procedures for requesting records).
Individuals who wish to gain access to their records should notify: Privacy Officer, OSHRC, 1120 20th Street NW., Ninth Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. For an explanation on how such requests should be drafted, refer to 29 CFR 2400.6 (procedures for requesting records).
Individuals who wish to contest their records should notify: Privacy Officer, OSHRC, 1120 20th Street NW., Ninth Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457. For an explanation on the specific procedures for contesting the contents of a record, refer to 29 CFR 2400.8 (Procedures for requesting amendment), and 29 CFR 2400.9 (Procedures for appealing).
Information in this system is derived from the individual to whom it applies or is derived from case processing records maintained by the Office of the Executive Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel, or from information provided by the parties who appear before OSHRC.
None.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing recent Postal Service filings for the Commission's consideration concerning negotiated service agreements. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service has filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The requests(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
1.
2.
39 U.S.C. 3642 and 39 CFR 3020.30
This notice will be published in the
On March 18, 2016, under its authority in Section 36 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) granted a temporary exemption from compliance with Rules 13n-1 to 13n-12 (“SDR Rules”) until June 30, 2016. The Commission also granted an extension of the exemptions from Exchange Act Sections 13(n)(5)(D)(i), 13(n)(5)(F), 13(n)(5)(G), 13(n)(5)(H), 13(n)(7)(A), 13(n)(7)(B), 13(n)(7)(C) and 29(b) provided in the DFA Effective Date Order
Since March 18, 2016, two entities have filed applications to register with the Commission as SDRs.
The SDR Rules Release
Since March 18, 2016, two entities have filed applications to register with the Commission as SDRs. ICE Trade Vault, LLC (“ICE Trade Vault”) filed with the Commission a Form SDR seeking registration as an SDR on March 29, 2016 and amended that form on April 18, 2016. The Commission's notice of ICE Trade Vault's application for registration as an SDR was published in the
Subject to certain exceptions, Section 36 of the Exchange Act
By the Commission.
On May 11, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds it appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider this proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Regulation ATS sets forth a regulatory regime for “alternative trading systems” (“ATSs”), which are entities that carry out exchange functions but which are not required to register as national securities exchanges under the Act. In lieu of exchange registration, an ATS
Under Rule 303, ATSs are required to preserve all records made pursuant to Rule 302, which includes information relating to subscribers, trading summaries, and time-sequenced order information. Rule 303 also requires ATSs to preserve any notices provided to subscribers, including, but not limited to, notices regarding the ATSs operations and subscriber access. For an ATS subject to the fair access requirements described in Rule 301(b)(5)(ii) of Regulation ATS, Rule 303 further requires the ATS to preserve at least one copy of its standards for access to trading, all documents relevant to the ATS's decision to grant, deny, or limit access to any person, and all other documents made or received by the ATS in the course of complying with Rule 301(b)(5) of Regulation ATS. For an ATS subject to the capacity, integrity, and security requirements for automated systems under Rule 301(b)(6) of Regulation ATS, Rule 303 requires an ATS to preserve all documents made or received by the ATS related to its compliance, including all correspondence, memoranda, papers, books, notices, accounts, reports, test scripts, test results and other similar records. As provided in Rule 303(a)(1), ATSs are required to keep all of these records, as applicable, for a period of at least three years, the first two in an easily accessible place. In addition, Rule 303 requires ATSs to preserve records of partnership articles, articles of incorporation or charter, minute books, stock certificate books, copies of reports filed pursuant to Rule 301(b)(2), and records made pursuant to Rule 301(b)(5) for the life of the ATS.
The information contained in the records required to be preserved by Rule 303 will be used by examiners and other representatives of the Commission, state securities regulatory authorities, and the self-regulatory organizations (“SROs”) to ensure that ATSs are in compliance with Regulation ATS as well as other applicable rules and regulations. Without the data required by the Rule, regulators would be limited in their ability to comply with their statutory obligations, provide for the protection of investors, and promote the maintenance of fair and orderly markets.
Respondents consist of ATSs that choose to register as broker-dealers and comply with the requirements of Regulation ATS. There are currently 84 respondents. To comply with the record preservation requirements of Rule 303, these respondents will spend approximately 1,260 hours per year (84 respondents at 15 burden hours/respondent). At an average cost per burden hour of $109.60, the resultant total related internal cost of compliance for these respondents is $138,096 per year (1,260 burden hours multiplied by $109.60/hour).
Compliance with Rule 303 is mandatory. The information required by Rule 303 is available only for the examination of the Commission staff, state securities authorities and the SROs. Subject to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 522 (“FOIA”), and the Commission's rules thereunder (17 CFR 200.80(b) (4) (iii)), the Commission does not generally publish or make available information contained in any reports, summaries, analyses, letters, or memoranda arising out of, in anticipation of, or in connection with an examination or inspection of the books and records of any person or any other investigation.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares of the JPMorgan Diversified Event Driven ETF under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares (“Shares”) of the following under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares
The Fund is a series of J.P. Morgan Exchange-Traded Fund Trust (“Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust.
Commentary .06 to Rule 8.600 provides that, if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
According to the Registration Statement, the Fund will seek to provide long term, total return. The Fund will seek to achieve its investment objective by employing an event-driven investment strategy, primarily investing in companies that the Adviser believes will be impacted by pending or anticipated corporate or special situation events. In executing this investment strategy, the Fund will seek to capture the price difference between a security's market price and the anticipated value post-event, based on the assumption that an event or catalyst will affect future pricing. It will do so based on its systematic investment process. The Adviser believes it has identified (and will continue to identify) a set of event-driven investment return sources that have a low correlation to each other and traditional markets and have distinct risk and return profiles (each a “return factor”).
Each return factor represents a potential source of investment return that results from, among other things, assuming a particular risk or taking advantage of a behavioral bias. The Adviser believes that, in general, the Fund's event-driven investment returns will be attributable to the individual contributions of the various return factors. By employing this return factor based approach, the Fund will seek to provide positive total returns over time while maintaining a relatively low correlation with traditional markets. The exposure to individual return factors may vary based on the market opportunity of the individual return factors. Additional return factors may be identified over time.
Under normal market conditions,
The Fund will invest its assets globally to gain exposure to equity securities (across market capitalizations) in developed markets. The Fund may use both long and short positions (achieved primarily through the use of derivative instruments as described below). The Fund generally will maintain a total net long market exposure. However, the Fund may have net long or net short exposure to one or more industry sectors, individual markets and/or currencies.
According to the Registration Statement, the Adviser will make use of derivatives (as described below), in implementing its strategies. Under normal market conditions, the Adviser currently expects that a significant portion of the Fund's exposure will be attained through the use of derivatives in addition to its exposure through direct investment. For example, the Fund may use a total return swap to establish both long and short positions in order to gain the desired exposure rather than physically purchasing and selling short each instrument. Derivatives may also be used to increase gain, to effectively gain targeted exposure from its cash positions, to hedge various investments and/or for risk management. As a result of the Fund's use of derivatives and to serve as collateral, the Fund may hold significant amounts of U.S. Treasury obligations, including Treasury bills, bonds and notes and other obligations issued or guaranteed by the U.S. Treasury, other short-term investments, including money market funds and foreign currencies in which certain derivatives are denominated.
According to the Registration Statement, the amount that may be invested in any one instrument will vary and generally depend on the return factors employed by the Adviser at that time. However, with the exception of specified investment limitations for certain assets described below, there are no stated percentage limitations on the amount that can be invested in any one type of instrument, and the Adviser may, at times, focus on a smaller number of instruments. Moreover, the Fund will generally be unconstrained by any particular capitalization, style or sector and may invest in any developed region or country.
The Fund will purchase a particular instrument when the Adviser believes that such instrument will allow the Fund to gain the desired exposure to a return factor. Conversely, the Fund will consider selling a particular instrument when it no longer provides the desired exposure to a return factor. In addition, investment decisions will take into account a return factor's contribution to the Fund's overall volatility.
In addition to its main return factors, the Fund may utilize return factors that use debt securities. The Fund may invest, either directly or through financial derivative instruments, debt securities that are subject to a downgrade from investment grade to non-investment grade (also known as high yield/junk bond) status. For example, the Fund may invest in the bonds that have been downgraded while hedging credit risk more broadly by using credit default swaps indices in order to attempt to keep the Fund's exposure market neutral.
According to the Registration Statement, under normal market conditions, the Fund will invest principally (
The Fund may invest in exchange-listed-and-traded common stocks, preferred stocks,
The Fund may invest in exchange-listed and over-the-counter (“OTC”) “Depositary Receipts”
The Fund may invest in the following cash and cash equivalents: Investments in money market funds (for which the Adviser and/or its affiliates serve as investment adviser or administrator), bank obligations,
The Fund may invest in corporate debt.
In addition to money market funds referenced above, the Fund may invest in shares of non-exchange-traded investment company securities including investment company securities for which the Adviser and/or its affiliates may serve as investment
The Fund may invest in exchange traded funds (“ETFs”).
The Fund may purchase and sell futures contracts on indexes of securities.
The Fund may invest in swaps as follows: Credit default swaps (“CDSs”), CDS indices and total return swaps on equity securities, equity indexes, fixed income securities, and fixed income futures.
The Fund may invest in forward and spot currency transactions.
The Fund may invest in OTC and exchange-traded call and put options on equities, fixed income securities and currencies or options on indexes of equities, fixed income securities and currencies.
The Fund may invest in U.S. Government obligations, which may include direct obligations of the U.S. Treasury, including Treasury bills, notes and bonds, all of which are backed as to principal and interest payments by the full faith and credit of the United States, and separately traded principal and interest component parts of such obligations that are transferable through the Federal book-entry system known as Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities (“STRIPS”) and Coupons Under Book Entry Safekeeping (“CUBES”).
While the Fund, under normal market conditions, will invest at least fifty percent (50%) of its assets in the securities and financial instruments described above, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in other assets and financial instruments, as described below.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and non-U.S. convertible securities, which are bonds or preferred stock that can convert to common stock.
The Fund may invest in reverse repurchase agreements.
The Fund may invest in sovereign obligations, which are investments in debt obligations issued or guaranteed by a foreign sovereign government or its agencies, authorities or political subdivisions.
The Fund may invest no more than 5% of its assets in equity and debt securities that are restricted securities (Rule 144A securities), in addition to Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser, as referenced below.
Under normal market conditions, the Fund may invest no more than 5% of its assets in OTC common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants, rights and contingent value rights (“CVRs”) of U.S. and foreign corporations (including emerging market securities).
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser, consistent with Commission guidance. The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of liquidity is being maintained, and will consider taking appropriate steps in order to maintain adequate liquidity if, through a change in values, net assets, or other circumstances, more than 15% of the Fund's net assets are held in illiquid assets. Illiquid assets include securities subject to contractual or other restrictions on resale and other instruments that lack readily available markets as determined in accordance with Commission staff guidance.
The Fund may invest in other investment companies to the extent permitted by Section12(d)(1) of the 1940 Act and rules thereunder and/or any applicable exemption or exemptive order under the 1940 Act with respect to such investments.
The Fund may invest in securities denominated in U.S. dollars, major reserve currencies, and currencies of other countries in which the Fund may invest.
The Fund may invest in both investment grade and high yield debt securities.
The Fund intends to qualify for and to elect treatment as a separate regulated investment company (“RIC”) under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code.
The Fund is a diversified series of the Trust. The Fund intends to meet the diversification requirements of the 1940 Act.
The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives may result in leverage). That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
The Fund proposes to seek certain exposures through transactions in the specific derivative instruments described above. The derivatives to be used are futures, swaps, NDFs, foreign forward currency contracts, and call and put options. Derivatives, which are
Investments in derivative instruments will be made in accordance with the 1940 Act and consistent with the Fund's investment objective and policies. To limit the potential risk associated with such transactions, the Fund will segregate or “earmark” assets determined to be liquid by the Adviser in accordance with procedures established by the Trust's Board of Trustees (the “Board”) and in accordance with the 1940 Act (or, as permitted by applicable regulation, enter into certain offsetting positions) to cover its obligations under derivative instruments. These procedures have been adopted consistent with Section 18 of the 1940 Act and related Commission guidance. In addition, the Fund will include appropriate risk disclosure in its offering documents, including leveraging risk. Leveraging risk is the risk that certain transactions of the Fund, including the Fund's use of derivatives, may give rise to leverage, causing the Fund to be more volatile than if it had not been leveraged.
According to the Registration Statement, the consideration for a purchase of Creation Units will generally be cash, but may consist of an in-kind deposit of a designated portfolio of equity securities and other investments (the “Deposit Instruments”) and an amount of cash computed as described below (the “Cash Amount”) under some circumstances. The size of a Creation Unit will be 100,000 Shares and will be subject to change. The Cash Amount together with the Deposit Instruments, as applicable, are referred to as the “Portfolio Deposit”, which represents the minimum initial and subsequent investment amount for a Creation Unit of the Fund.
In the event the Fund requires Deposit Instruments and a Cash Amount in consideration for purchasing a Creation Unit, the function of the Cash Amount is to compensate for any differences between the net asset value (“NAV”) per Creation Unit and the Deposit Amount (as defined below). The Cash Amount would be an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares (per Creation Unit) and the “Deposit Amount,” which is an amount equal to the aggregate market value of the Deposit Instruments. If the Cash Amount is a positive number (the NAV per Creation Unit exceeds the Deposit Amount), the “Authorized Participant” (as defined below) will deliver the Cash Amount. If the Cash Amount is a negative number (the NAV per Creation Unit is less than the Deposit Amount), the Authorized Participant will receive the Cash Amount. The Administrator, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), will make available on each business day, immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m. Eastern time (“E.T.”)), the list of the names and the required number of shares of each Deposit Instrument to be included in the current Portfolio Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day), as well as information regarding the Cash Amount for the Fund. Such Portfolio Deposit is applicable, subject to any adjustments as described below, in order to effect creations of Creation Units of the Fund until such time as the next-announced Portfolio Deposit composition is made available.
The identity and number of the Deposit Instruments and Cash Amount required for the Portfolio Deposit for the Fund changes as rebalancing adjustments and corporate action events are reflected from time to time. In addition, the Trust reserves the right to accept a basket of securities or cash that differs from Deposit Instruments or to permit the substitution of an amount of cash (
In addition to the list of names and numbers of securities constituting the current Deposit Instruments of a Portfolio Deposit, the Administrator, through the NSCC, also will make available on each business day, the estimated Cash Component adjusted through the close of the trading day.
To be eligible to place orders with the Distributor to create Creation Units of the Fund, an entity or person either must be (1) a “Participating Party,”
Shares may be redeemed only in Creation Units at their NAV next determined after receipt of a redemption request in proper form by the Distributor, only on a business day and only through an Authorized Participant. The Trust will not redeem Shares in amounts less than Creation Units.
Although the Fund will generally pay redemption proceeds in cash, there may be instances when it will make redemptions in-kind. In these instances, the Administrator, through NSCC, will make available immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m. E.T.) on each day that the Exchange is open for business, the identity of the Fund's assets and/or an amount of cash that will be applicable (subject to possible amendment or correction) to redemption requests received in proper form on that day. Unless cash redemptions are permitted or required for the Fund, the redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit generally consist of “Redemption Instruments” as announced by the Administrator on the
Should the Redemption Instruments have a value greater than the NAV of the Shares being redeemed, a compensating cash payment to the Trust equal to the differential plus the applicable redemption transaction fee will be required to be arranged for by or on behalf of the redeeming shareholder. The Fund reserves the right to honor a redemption request by delivering a basket of securities or cash that differs from the Redemption Instruments.
The NAV of Shares, under normal market conditions, will be calculated each business day as of the close of the Exchange, which is typically 4:00 p.m. E.T. On occasion, the Exchange will close before 4:00 p.m. E.T. When that happens, NAV will be calculated as of the time the Exchange closes. The price at which a purchase of a Creation Unit is effected will be based on the next calculation of NAV after the order is received in proper form.
Securities for which market quotations are readily available will generally be valued at their current market value. Other securities and assets, including securities for which market quotations are not readily available or market quotations are determined not to be reliable; or, if their value has been materially affected by events occurring after the close of trading on the exchange or market on which the security is principally traded but before the Fund's NAV is calculated, may be valued at fair value in accordance with policies and procedures adopted by the Trust's Board of Trustees. Fair value represents a good faith determination of the value of a security or other asset based upon specifically applied procedures. Fair valuation may require subjective determinations.
U.S. exchange-traded common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants, rights, REITs, and Depositary Receipts will be valued at the last sale price or official market closing price on the primary exchange on which such security trades. Exchange-traded non-U.S. equity securities will be valued at the last sale price or official market closing price on the primary exchange on which such security trades.
OTC equity securities will be priced utilizing market quotations provided by approved pricing services or by broker quotation. For OTC warrants, rights and CVRs, if no pricing service or broker quotation is available, then the warrant, right or CVR will be valued intrinsically based on the terms of issuance.
Shares of non-exchange-traded open-end investment companies will be valued at their current day NAV published by the relevant fund. ETFs will be valued at the last sale price or official market closing price on the primary exchange on which such ETF trades.
CDS and total return swaps will be priced utilizing market quotations provided by approved pricing services.
Forward and spot currency transactions will be valued based on foreign exchange rates obtained from an approved pricing service, using spot and forward rates available at the time NAV of the Fund is calculated.
Commercial paper will be valued at prices supplied by approved pricing services which is generally based on bid-side quotations.
Options traded on U.S. exchanges will be valued at the composite mean price, using the National Best Bid and Offer quotes (“NBBO”) on the valuation date. NBBO consists of the highest bid price and lowest ask price across any of the exchanges on which an option is quoted.
Options traded on foreign exchanges will be valued at the settled price on the valuation date, or if no settled price is available, at the last sale price available prior to the calculation of the Fund's NAV.
Futures traded on U.S. and foreign exchanges are valued at the settled price, or if no settled price is available, at the last sale price as of the close of the exchanges on the valuation date.
OTC derivatives will be priced utilizing market quotations provided by approved pricing services.
In addition, non-Western Hemisphere equity securities or derivatives involving non-Western Hemisphere equity reference obligations will normally be subject to adjustment (fair value) each day by applying a fair value factor provided by approved pricing services to the values obtained as described above.
Convertible securities will be valued at prices supplied by approved pricing services which is generally based on bid-side quotations.
Corporate debt securities will be valued at prices supplied by approved pricing services which is generally based on bid-side quotations.
Bank obligations, short-term funding agreements, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, U.S. Government obligations, sovereign obligations, and Rule 144A securities will be valued at prices supplied by approved pricing services which is generally based on bid-side quotations.
On each business day, before commencement of trading in Fund Shares on NYSE Arca, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the identities and quantities of the portfolio instruments and other assets held by the Fund that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day.
In order to provide additional information regarding the intra-day value of Shares of the Fund, the NYSE Arca or a market data vendor will disseminate every 15 seconds through the facilities of the Consolidated Tape Association or other widely disseminated means an updated Intra-Day Indicative Value (“IIV”) for the Fund as calculated by a third party market data provider.
A third party market data provider will calculate the IIV for the Fund. The third party market data provider may use market quotes if available or may fair value securities against proxies (such as swap or yield curves).
With respect to specific derivatives:
• NDFs and foreign forward currency contracts may be valued intraday using market quotes, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• Futures may be valued intraday using the relevant futures exchange data, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• CDS and CDS indices swaps may be valued using intraday data from market vendors, or based on underlying asset price, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• Total return swaps may be valued intraday using the underlying asset price, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• Exchange-listed options may be valued intraday using the relevant exchange data, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• OTC options may be valued intraday through option valuation models (
The Fund's disclosure of derivative positions in the Disclosed Portfolio will include information that market participants can use to value these positions intraday. On a daily basis, the Adviser will disclose on the Fund's Web site the following information regarding each portfolio holding, as applicable to the type of holding: Ticker symbol, CUSIP number or other identifier, if any; a description of the holding (including the type of holding, such as the type of swap); the identity of the security, index or other asset or instrument underlying the holding, if any; for options, the option strike price; quantity held (as measured by, for example, par value, notional value or number of shares, contracts or units); maturity date, if any; coupon rate, if any; effective date, if any; market value of the holding; and the percentage weighting of the holding in the Fund's portfolio. The Web site information will be publicly available at no charge.
The Adviser believes there will be minimal impact to the arbitrage mechanism as a result of the use of derivatives. Market makers and participants should be able to value derivatives as long as the positions are disclosed with relevant information. The Adviser believes that the price at which Shares trade will continue to be disciplined by arbitrage opportunities created by the ability to purchase or redeem creation Shares at their NAV, which should ensure that Shares will not trade at a material discount or premium in relation to their NAV.
The Adviser does not believe there will be any significant impacts to the settlement or operational aspects of the Fund's arbitrage mechanism due to the use of derivatives. Because derivatives generally are not eligible for in-kind transfer, they will typically be substituted with a “cash in lieu” amount when the Fund processes purchases or redemptions of creation units in-kind.
The Fund's Web site (
The Fund's portfolio holdings will be disclosed on its Web site daily after the close of trading on the Exchange and prior to the opening of trading on the Exchange the following day.
Investors can also obtain the Trust's Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”), the Fund's Shareholder Reports, and its Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Trust's SAI and Shareholder Reports are available free upon request from the Trust, and those documents and the Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's Web site at
Quotation and last sale information for the Shares and for portfolio holdings of the Fund that are U.S. exchange listed, including common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants, rights, ETFs, REITs, and U.S. exchange-traded ADRs will be available via the Consolidated Tape Association (“CTA”) high speed line. Quotation and last sale information for such U.S. exchange-listed securities, as well as futures will be available from the exchange on which they are listed. Quotation and last sale information for exchange-listed options cleared via the Options Clearing Corporation will be available via the Options Price Reporting Authority. Quotation and last sale information for non-U.S. equity securities (including GDRs and EDRs) will be available from the exchanges on which they trade and from major market data vendors, as applicable. Price information for OTC common stocks (including certain OTC ADRs), preferred stocks, warrants, rights and CVRs will be available from one or more major market data vendors or broker dealers in the securities.
Quotation information for OTC options, cash equivalents, swaps, money market funds, non-exchange-listed investment company securities (other than money market funds), Rule 144A securities, U.S. Government obligations, U.S. Government agency obligations, sovereign obligations, corporate debt, and reverse repurchase agreements may be obtained from brokers and dealers who make markets in such securities or through nationally recognized pricing services through subscription agreements. The U.S. dollar value of foreign securities, instruments and currencies can be derived by using foreign currency exchange rate quotations obtained from nationally recognized pricing services. Forwards and spot currency price information will be available from major market data vendors.
In addition, the IIV, which is the Portfolio Indicative Value, as defined in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600(c)(3), will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session.
With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund.
The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Shares will trade on the NYSE Arca Marketplace from 4:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. E.T. in accordance with NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.34 (Opening, Core, and Late Trading Sessions). The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.6, the minimum price variation (“MPV”) for quoting and entry of orders in equity securities traded on the NYSE Arca Marketplace is $0.01, with the exception of securities that are priced less than $1.00 for which the MPV for order entry is $0.0001.
The Shares of the Fund will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3
The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by the Exchange as well as cross-market surveillances administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity. When such situations are detected, surveillance analysis follows and investigations are opened, where appropriate, to review the behavior of all relevant parties for all relevant trading violations.
The Exchange, or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-listed equity securities (including Depositary Receipts, ETFs, REITs, common and preferred stocks, warrants, rights, certain futures, and certain exchange-traded options with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”), and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
Not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund in the aggregate invested in equity securities (other than non-exchange-traded investment company securities) shall consist of equity securities whose principal market is not a member of the ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. Not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund in the aggregate invested in futures contracts or exchange-traded options shall consist of futures contracts or options whose principal market is not a member of ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.
All statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolio, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets, or (c) the applicability of Exchange rules and surveillance procedures shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange.
The issuer has represented to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If the Fund is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 5.5(m).
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit (“ETP”) Holders in an Information Bulletin (“Bulletin”) of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares of the Fund. Specifically, the Bulletin will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) NYSE Arca Equities Rule 9.2(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its ETP Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (3) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Opening and Late Trading Sessions when an updated IIV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (4) how information regarding the IIV and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (5) the requirement that ETP Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (6) trading information.
In addition, the Bulletin will reference that the Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Bulletin will discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the
The basis under the Act for this proposed rule change is the requirement under Section 6(b)(5)
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600. The Adviser is not registered as a broker-dealer but is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to such broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio. The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by the Exchange, as well as cross-market surveillances administered by FINRA on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange represents that these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange, or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-listed equity securities, certain futures, and certain exchange-traded options with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to FINRA's TRACE. Not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund in the aggregate invested in equity securities (other than non-exchange-traded investment company securities) shall consist of equity securities whose principal market is not a member of the ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. Not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund in the aggregate invested in futures contracts or exchange-traded options shall consist of futures contracts or options whose principal market is not a member of ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
All statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolio, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets, or (c) the applicability of Exchange rules and surveillance procedures shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange.
The issuer has represented to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If the Fund is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 5.5(m).
The IIV will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session. The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser, consistent with Commission guidance.
The Shares of the Fund will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act, as provided by NYSE Arca Equities Rule 5.3. A minimum of 100,000 Shares of the Fund will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares of the Fund that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information is publicly available regarding the Fund and the respective Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. The Fund's portfolio holdings will be disclosed on its Web site daily after the close of trading on the Exchange and prior to the opening of trading on the Exchange the following day. On a daily basis, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the following information regarding each portfolio holding, as applicable to the type of holding: Ticker symbol, CUSIP number or other identifier, if any; a description of the holding (including the type of holding); the identity of the security, index or other asset or instrument underlying the holding, if any; quantity held (as measured by, for example, par value, notional value or number of shares, contracts or units); maturity date, if any; coupon rate, if any; effective date, if any; market value of the holding; and the percentage weighting of the holding in the Fund's portfolio. The Web site information will be publicly available at no charge.
Investors can also obtain the Trust's Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”), the Fund's Shareholder Reports, and its Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Trust's SAI and Shareholder Reports are available free upon request from the Trust, and those documents and the Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's Web site at
Quotation information for OTC options, cash equivalents, swaps, money market funds, Rule 144A securities, U.S. Government obligations, U.S. Government agency obligations,
The Web site for the Fund will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information. Moreover, prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its ETP Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares of the Fund. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.12 have been reached or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable, and trading in the Shares will be subject to NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the IIV, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares. The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives may result in leverage). That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures relating to trading in the Shares of the Fund and may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the IIV, the Disclosed Portfolio for the Fund, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares of the Fund.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that holds fixed income and equity securities and that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the NASDAQ Options Market LLC (“NOM”) Rules at Chapter I, Section 1, entitled “Definitions,” to add specificity to the definition of a Professional with respect to the manner in which the volume threshold will be calculated by the Exchange.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of “Professional” at Chapter I, Section 1(49) to specify the manner in which the Exchange calculates orders to determine if an order should be treated as Professional.
The definition of the term Professional at Chapter I, Section 1(48), currently states, “any person or entity that (i) is not a broker or dealer in securities, and (ii) places more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s).” In order to properly represent orders entered on the Exchange Participants are required to indicate whether Public Customer
The Exchange accepts orders routed from other markets that are marked Professional. The designation of Professional or Professional order does not result in any different treatment of such orders for purposes of Exchange rules concerning away market protection. That is, all non-broker or dealer orders, including those that meet the definition of Professional orders, are treated equally for purposes of Exchange away market protection rules.
The Exchange proposes to count each order entered by a Professional toward the number of orders, regardless of the options exchange to which the order was routed in determining Professional orders.
A cancel and replace order is a type of order that replaces a prior order. The Exchange believes that the second order (the replacement order) should be counted as a new order. With respect to “single-strike algorithms,” which are a series of cancel and replace orders in an individual strike which track the NBBO, these orders shall be counted as new orders.
An order that converts into multiple subordinate orders to achieve an execution strategy
In order to make clear when orders will count as new orders, the Exchange offers the following scenarios as examples.
• The Exchange proposes to count multiple orders that were submitted by the member as separate orders as multiple orders.
• The Exchange proposes to count a single order submitted by a member, which was automatically executed in multiple parts by the trading system, as one order, because the member did not intervene to create multiple orders. Another example is where an order was entered in the trading system and only partially filled, the order would count as one order. The subsequent fills, which could be multiple executions, would not count as additional orders in determining the 390 limit. The manner in which the order is ultimately executed, as one order or multiple orders, should not itself determine whether the activity is that of a Professional; also the member did not intervene in that circumstance.
• The Exchange proposes to not count an order which reprices, for example because of a locked and crossed market, as a new order because the member did not intervene.
• The Exchange proposes to count orders, which result in multiple orders due to cancel and replacement orders, as new orders. This is because in this situation the member did intervene to create the subsequent orders.
• The Exchange proposes to count an order submitted by the Public Customer as a single order, on the same side and series, as a single order despite the fact that a broker broke-up the order into multiple orders for purposes of execution.
The Exchange notes that other options exchanges have issued notices which describe the manner in which those Exchanges believe thresholds should be computed for determining if an order qualifies as a Professional order.
Below are some examples of the calculation of Professional orders.
A Public Customer has an order to buy 100 calls at a volatility level of 35. The order then generates a child order resulting in a 1.00 bid for 100 options which is sent to exchange A. After the underlying stock price ticks up 2 cents the child order is then adjusted to reflect a 35 level volatility which in this case (50 delta) results in a 1.01 bid sent to Exchange A replacing the current 1.00 bid.
In determining the number of orders that attribute to the 390 order count, in this case, because the child order is being canceled and replaced in the “same series” this would only count as one (1) order for purposes of Professional designation calculation.
A Public Customer has an order to buy 20k Vega at a 35 volatility level in symbol XYZ. The order then generates 50 child orders across different strikes. Throughout the day those 50 orders are adjusted as the stock moves resulting in the replacement of child orders to the tune of 5 times per order (50 x 5 cancels) resulting in 250 total orders generated to Exchange A.
In determining the number of orders that attribute to the 390 order count, in this case, because the child orders generated are across multiple series it would be necessary to count all 250 orders.
In addition to the above examples, the Exchange provides the below chart to demonstrate the manner in which it will count orders.
The Exchange proposes to implement this rule on July 1, 2016 to provide market participants with advance notice for their quarterly calculations. The Exchange will issue an Options Trader Alert in advance to inform market participants of such date.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that counting all orders toward the number of orders, regardless of the options exchange to which the order was routed, will promote the consistent application of its rules by making clear that all order types shall be counted as well as all orders for the purpose of determining whether the definition of Professional has been met.
With respect to determining the Professional designation, a cancel and replace order that replaces a prior order shall be counted as a second order. An order that is filled partially or in its entirety or is a replacement order that is automatically canceled or reduced by the number of contracts that were
The Exchange believes that counting cancel and replace orders with “single-strike algorithms,” which are a series of cancel and replace orders in an individual strike which track the NBBO, as new orders is consistent with the Act because the Public Customer is specifically instructing the executing broker in the “single-strike algorithm” scenario to cancel and replace these orders. Tracking the NBBO
The Exchange's adoption of the Professional order was to treat orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month in his or her own beneficial account differently from Public Customer orders for purposes of pricing.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment will provide more certainty to market participants in determining the computation of the number of orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s) to determine the Professional designation. The Exchange notes that other options exchanges have issued notices describing the manner in which they believe that Professional order should be counted when determining if an order qualifies as a Professional order.
NOM's System executes order based on Price-Time priority, however, a marketplace advantage afforded to Public Customer orders on the Exchange is that members are generally not assessed transaction fees for the execution of Public Customer orders. The purpose of these marketplace advantages is to attract retail order flow to the Exchange by leveling the playing field for retail investors over market Professionals.
Finally, the proposed guidance is being issued to stem confusion as to the manner in which options exchanges compute the Professional order volume. The Exchange's Rules may be similar to notices issued by NYSE Arca, Inc, NYSE MKT LLC (“NYSE MKT”) and International Securities Exchange LLC (“ISE”).
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the Exchange will uniformly apply the rules to calculate volume on all members in determining Professional orders. The designation of Professional orders would not result in any different treatment of such orders for purposes of the Exchange's Rules concerning order protection or routing to away exchanges. Also, SIFMA supports the guidance issued by NYSE Arca and NYSE MKT. The guidance is being issued to stem confusion as to the manner in which options exchanges compute the Professional order volume.
The Exchange is adopting similar counting methods the Exchange believes is currently being utilized by NYSE
The Exchange believes that counting all orders entered by a Professional toward the number of orders, regardless of the options exchange to which the order was routed, does not create an undue burden on intra-market competition because this proposed rule change will be consistently applied to all members in determining Professional orders.
The Exchange believes that its application of cancel and replace orders does not create an undue burden on intra-market competition because this application is consistent with Exchange Rules, where the replacement order is viewed as a new order. This treatment is consistent with the manner in which this order type is applied today within the Order Book.
The Exchange's treatment of subordinate orders does not create an undue burden on intra-market competition because allowing orders on the same side of the market to be counted as a single order is consistent with the original intent of the Professional order designation which is to count distinct orders and focus on the number of orders generated.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose an undue burden on inter-market competition because other exchanges have announced the intent to adopt similar guidance.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
The Exchange has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. The Commission notes that it has considered a substantially similar proposed rule change filed by CBOE and PHLX which it approved after a notice and comment period.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to add Interpretation and Policy .01 to Rule 16.1 to specify the manner in which the Exchange calculates average daily order submissions for purposes of counting Professional orders, as further described below.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to add Interpretation and Policy .01 to Rule 16.1 to specify the methodology for counting average daily order submissions in listed options to determine whether a person or entity meets the definition of a Professional (“Professional order counting”). The proposed rule change is designed to harmonize Professional order counting with the recently adopted rules of competing options exchanges—specifically the Chicago Board of Options Exchange, Inc. (“CBOE”) and NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC (“PHLX”).
Rule 16.1(a)(46) defines a Professional “as any person or entity that (A) is not a broker or dealer in securities; and (B) places more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s).” In adopting Rule 16.1(a)(46), the Exchange believed that identifying Professional accounts based upon the average number of orders entered in qualified accounts is an appropriate, objective approach that will reasonably distinguish such persons and entities from non-professional, retail investors or market participants. In order to properly represent orders entered on the Exchange, Options Members are required to indicate whether Customer orders are “Professional” orders.
The advent of new multi-leg spread products and the proliferation of the use of complex orders and algorithmic execution strategies by both institutional and retail market participants has raised questions as to what should be counted as an “order” for Professional order counting purposes. The proposed changes would specifically address the counting of multi-leg spread products, algorithm generated orders, and complex orders for purposes of determining Professional status. In addition, the proposal is intended to provide guidance regarding the methodology used by the Exchange when calculating average daily orders for Professional order counting purposes.
As proposed, the rule would provide that an order would count as one order for Professional counting purposes, unless one of the exceptions enumerated in the proposed rule stipulates otherwise (each an “Exception”). The first Exception relates to the treatment of complex orders for purposes of computing orders for Professional order counting purposes. Specifically, the proposed rule provides that a complex order of eight (8) option legs or less would count as one order, whereas a complex order comprised of nine (9) option legs or more counts as
The second Exception relates to calculations for parent/child orders. As proposed, if a parent order submitted for the beneficial account(s) of a person or entity other than a broker or dealer is subsequently broken up into multiple child orders on the
The third Exception would govern the counting methodology for cancel/replace orders. As proposed, any order that cancels and replaces an existing order would count as a
The Exchange proposes to implement the rule on July 1, 2016, which would be announced in a circular distributed to Members.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposal is designed to adopt a reasonable and objective approach to determine Professional status that is consistent with the approach being utilized on other options exchanges, which benefits market participants by providing consistency across exchanges regarding the Professional order counting.
The Exchange notes that it is not amending the threshold of 390 orders in listed options per day but, consistent with other exchanges, is revising the method for counting Professional orders in the context of multi-part orders and cancel/replace activity. In short, the proposal addresses how to account for complex orders, parent/child orders, and cancel/replace orders. The Exchange believes that distinguishing between complex orders with nine or more option legs and those orders with eight or fewer option legs is a reasonable and objective approach. In addition, the Exchange believes the proposal appropriately distinguishes between parent/child orders that are generated by a broker's efforts to obtain an execution on a larger size order while minimizing market impact and multi-part orders that used by more sophisticated market participants. Similarly, the Exchange believes that the proposal that cancel/replace orders would count as separate orders with
In addition, the Exchange believes that proposed changes to Rule 16.1 provide a more conservative order counting regime for Professional order counting purposes that would identify more traders as Professionals to which the Exchange's definition of Professional was designed to apply and create a better competitive balance for all participants on the Exchange, consistent with the Act. As the options markets have evolved to become more electronic and more competitive, the Exchange believes that the distinction between registered broker-dealers and professional traders who are currently treated as public customers has become increasingly blurred. More and more, the category of public customer today includes sophisticated algorithmic traders including former market makers and hedge funds that trade with a frequency resembling that of broker-dealers. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable under the Act to treat those customers who meet the high level of trading activity established in the proposal differently than customers who do not meet that threshold and are more typical retail investors to ensure that professional traders do not take advantage of priority and/or fee benefits intended for public customers. The Exchange notes that it is not unfair to differentiate between different types of investors in order to achieve certain marketplace balances. The Exchange's Rules currently differentiate between Customers, Order Entry Firms, Market Makers, and the like.
These differentiations have been recognized to be consistent with the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the rules of the Exchange or other exchanges that accord priority or fee benefits to public customers over broker-dealers are unfairly discriminatory. Nor does the Exchange believe that it is unfairly discriminatory to accord such benefits to only those public customers who on average do not place more than one order per minute (390 per day) under the counting regime that the Exchange proposes. The Exchange believes that such differentiations drive competition in the marketplace and are within the business judgment of the Exchange. Accordingly, the Exchange also believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirement of Section 6(b)(8)
Based on the foregoing, the Exchange believes the proposal, which establishes an objective methodology for counting average daily order submissions for Professional order counting purposes, is consistent with the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that its proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will help ensure fairness in the marketplace and promote competition among all market participants. The Exchange believes that this proposal would help establish more competition among market participants and promote the purposes for which the Exchange's Professional rule was originally adopted. Moreover, the proposal would ensure consistency and help to eliminate confusion as to the manner in which options exchanges compute the Professional order volume.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
The Exchange has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. The Commission notes that it has considered a substantially similar proposed rule change filed by CBOE and PHLX which it approved after a notice and comment period.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Regulation ATS sets forth a regulatory regime for “alternative trading systems” (“ATSs”), which are entities that carry out exchange functions but which are not required to register as national securities exchanges under the Act. In lieu of exchange registration, an ATS can instead opt to register with the Commission as a broker-dealer and, as a condition to not having to register as an exchange, must instead comply with Regulation ATS. Rule 302 of Regulation ATS (17 CFR 242.302) describes the recordkeeping requirements for ATSs. Under Rule 302, ATSs are required to make a record of subscribers to the ATS, daily summaries of trading in the ATS, and time-sequenced records of order information in the ATS.
The information required to be collected under Rule 302 should increase the abilities of the Commission, state securities regulatory authorities, and the self-regulatory organizations (“SROs”) to ensure that ATSs are in compliance with Regulation ATS as well as other applicable rules and regulations. If the information is not collected or collected less frequently, the regulators would be limited in their ability to comply with their statutory obligations, provide for the protection of investors, and promote the maintenance of fair and orderly markets.
Respondents consist of ATSs that choose to register as broker-dealers and comply with the requirements of Regulation ATS. There are currently 84 respondents. These respondents will spend approximately 3,780 hours per year (84 respondents at 45 burden hours/respondent) to comply with the recordkeeping requirements of Rule 302. At an average cost per burden hour of $65, the resultant total related internal cost of compliance for these respondents is $245,700 per year (3,780burden hours multiplied by $65/hour).
Compliance with Rule 302 is mandatory. The information required by Rule 302 is available only for the examination of the Commission staff, state securities authorities, and the SROs. Subject to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 522 (“FOIA”), and the Commission's rules thereunder (17 CFR 200.80(b)(4)(iii)), the Commission does not generally publish or make available information contained in any reports, summaries, analyses, letters, or memoranda arising out of, in anticipation of, or in connection with an examination or inspection of the books and records of any person or any other investigation.
ATSs are required to preserve, for at least three years, any records made in the process of complying with the requirements set out in Rule 302.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The purpose of proposed rule change is to revise the ICC Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures to provide for the use of a committed foreign exchange (“FX”) facility, to make changes to the investment guidelines as well as additional clean-up changes, and to provide additional clarification regarding the calculation of collateral haircuts. These revisions do not require any changes to the ICC Clearing Rules.
In its filing with the Commission, ICC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
ICC proposes changes to the ICC Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures to provide for the use of a committed FX facility, to make changes to the investment guidelines as well as additional clean-up changes, and to provide additional clarification regarding the calculation of collateral haircuts. ICC believes such revisions will facilitate the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and derivative agreements, contracts, and transactions for which it is responsible. The proposed revisions are described in detail as follows.
ICC has revised its Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures to provide for the use of a committed FX facility. ICC has established a committed FX facility which provides for same day settled spot FX transactions. The facility allows ICC to use available United States Dollars (“USD”) to convert into Euro to meet a Euro liquidity need, for example in the unlikely event of a Clearing Participant default when Euro is needed for liquidity but only USD is available. In addition, the policy has been revised to document that the FX facility will be tested twice a year.
Additionally, ICC has revised its Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures to make changes to the ICC Treasury Department investment guidelines for operating capital and guaranty fund and margin cash. ICC has updated the list of permitted investments to add short term US Treasury securities (with a final maturity of no greater than 98 days) and remove Money Market Mutual Funds. ICC has also updated its investment policy for operating capital to include Treasury/agency reverse repurchase (“repo”) agreements. ICC has updated the governance section of the operating capital investment policy to note that the Risk Committee will review any proposed changes to the policy and make recommendations to the Board. Further, ICC has removed reference to an obsolete financial report.
ICC also has made additional clean-up changes throughout the Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures. Specifically, ICC has removed outdated language stating that ICC treasury services are provided by The Clearing Corporation. Further, throughout the document, ICC changed references to the “Director of Operations” to the “Chief Operating Officer,” to correctly reflect the officer title. ICC removed reference to specific reverse repo counterparties to reflect the addition of multiple reverse repo counterparties. Further, ICC notes that it has arrangements in place to settle tri-party and bilateral reverse repo transactions, both of which settle delivery vs. payment (“DVP”). As a result, ICC has clarified references throughout the policy from “DVP reverse repo” to more specifically refer to “bilateral reverse repo.” ICC removed reference to the titles of specific agreements that it may enter to effect reverse repo transactions and added general language to encompass all agreements that may be required. ICC removed information regarding the monitoring of available liquidity resources and added reference to the ICC Liquidity Risk Management Framework. ICC clarified that its committed repo facility may be used to convert sovereign debt into cash and that the facility will be tested twice per calendar year. ICC removed outdated information under the “ICE Clear Credit Banking Relationships” section of the policy and added language stating that ICC endeavors to maintain banking relationships with highly creditworthy and reliable bank institutions that provide operational and strategic support with respect to holding margin and Guaranty Fund cash and collateral. ICC also removed references to specific banking counterparties, as ICC's banking relationships have expanded to include multiple counterparties. ICC replaced the specific names with a generic reference, to capture all counterparties utilized by ICC. ICC also updated certain SWIFT banking information throughout the policy. Further, ICC updated the list of applications used by the Treasury Department to perform daily operations.
Finally, ICC revised its Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures to provide additional clarification regarding the calculation of collateral haircuts when yield rates are less than or equal to one basis point. This change documents current ICC practices as related to collateral haircut calculation; there is no change to the collateral haircut methodology.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
In addition, the proposed revisions to the ICC Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures are consistent with the relevant requirements of Rule 17Ad-22.
ICC does not believe the proposed revisions would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition. The revisions to ICC's Treasury Operations Policies and Procedures to provide for the use of a committed FX facility, to make changes to the investment guidelines as well as additional clean-up changes, and to provide additional clarification regarding the calculation of collateral haircuts apply uniformly across all CPs. Therefore, ICC does not believe the proposed revisions impose any burden on competition that is inappropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule changes have not been solicited or received. ICC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by ICC.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICC-2016-009 and should be submitted on or before July 28, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA is proposing to amend FINRA Rule 7730 to create a new Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product that would be available to institutions of higher education.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
FINRA Rule 7730 sets forth the TRACE data products offered by FINRA. FINRA's data product offerings include both real-time as well as historic data for most TRACE-eligible securities. FINRA is proposing to create a new Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product, which would be made available solely to institutions of higher education and would include masked dealer identifiers.
FINRA periodically receives requests from academics for access to TRACE data. FINRA's existing Historic TRACE Data product provides transaction-level data on an 18-month delayed basis for all transactions that have been reported to TRACE in the classes of TRACE-eligible securities that currently are disseminated.
In response to these requests from academics, the proposed rule change would create a new Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product that would include transaction-level data on corporate bonds (except a transaction that is a List or Fixed Offering Price Transaction
While FINRA understands that masked dealer identifiers may be very useful to academics in connection with their research activities, we also appreciate that firms may be concerned regarding the potential for reverse engineering. To address this issue, in addition to uniquely masking dealer identities for each academic institution, FINRA proposes to take mitigating steps, including to limit transactions included in the Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product to transactions that are at least 36 months old. In addition, FINRA would impose certain requirements on subscribers regarding the terms of use of the data. In the written agreement with subscribers to Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data, among other things, FINRA will: (1) Explicitly require subscribers to agree that they will not attempt to reverse engineer the identity of any market participant; (2) prohibit the redistribution of data in the Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product; (3) require users to disclose each intended use of the data (including a description of each study being performed and the names of each individual who will have access to the data for the study); (4) require users to ensure that any data presented in work product be sufficiently aggregated so as
If the Commission approves the proposed rule change, FINRA will announce the effective date of the proposed rule change in a
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act,
Pursuant to the proposal, FINRA will make available to institutions of higher education an enhanced historic TRACE data product that will include transaction-level data on corporate bonds on a 36-month delayed basis with masked identifying information regarding the dealer reporting each transaction. Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data would be made available only to institutions of higher education. FINRA believes that the additional granularity provided by this new data product will enable researchers to track the behavior of individual dealers or group of dealers and observe their behaviors, and may facilitate the ability of academic researchers to study the impact of various events on measures such as intermediation costs, dealer participation and liquidity, thereby enhancing understanding of the market for corporate bonds and the behavior of its participants. Thus, FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is in the public interest and consistent with the Act.
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
FINRA's existing Historic TRACE Data product provides transaction-level data on an 18-month delayed basis for all transactions that have been reported to TRACE in the classes of TRACE-eligible securities that currently are disseminated. As detailed above, FINRA is proposing to create a new Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product, which would be made available solely to institutions of higher education with a 36-month delay and would include masked dealer identifiers associated with individual reported transactions, which is not available in the existing Historic TRACE Data product.
The proposed rule change would expand the benefits of FINRA's TRACE initiatives by providing additional transparency on corporate bond trading for academic research purposes. The analysis that can be conducted using masked dealer identifiers associated with individual reported transactions could incorporate estimates of anonymized dealer positions and hence potentially enhance the ability for researchers to analyze and understand dealer networks and liquidity provision in the corporate bond market.
The proposal to create a new Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product would not impose any additional reporting requirements or costs on firms and, as a result, would have no direct impact on firms. However, FINRA considered the potential for indirect costs regarding possible information leakage due to the inclusion of masked dealer identifiers in the data. To investigate whether the dissemination of masked dealer identifiers pose a risk for reverse engineering of the data to reveal the identity of individual firms, FINRA analyzed 15,533,134 corporate bond secondary market trades (that occurred between February 6, 2012 and February 5, 2016) in 21,164 unique corporate bonds that were issued between February 6, 2012 and February 7, 2015.
The analysis below attempts to answer the question of whether primary underwriter information can be reliably linked to the largest seller in a given CUSIP and potentially unmask the true identity of the firm.
Figure 1a plots the number of distinct corporate bond CUSIPs that are traded within the first
Figure 1a suggests that largest seller information in a specific corporate bond can accurately be linked to the primary underwriter, unmasking the identity of the trading firm for approximately 10% of the CUSIPs. Alternatively, a researcher could limit its sample to those CUSIPs that are traded in the secondary market by a single masked dealer identifier within the first
For example, in Figure 1b below, on the day of issuance (
Hence, these finding confirm that primary underwriter information alone is not sufficient to discover the true identity of the trading firm where the only other information used in the analysis is the information to be contained in the Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product.
However, FINRA acknowledges the potential for reverse engineering of masked dealer identifiers to determine the true identities of individual firms, and has taken a number of measures, as discussed above, to reduce this risk and mitigate any potential impacts.
FINRA may consider expanding TRACE data product offerings in the future to make transaction-level information with masked dealer identifiers available to academics for other types of TRACE-eligible securities. However, FINRA believes that starting with corporate bonds is an appropriate first step because most data requests received from academics have related to corporate bond data, and because corporate bonds generally are traded by a greater number of dealers and, therefore, do not present the same likelihood for accurate reverse engineering by academics.
The proposed rule change was published for comment in
SIFMA generally supports the proposal but recommends specific modifications to further guard against information leakage. Specifically, SIFMA's suggestions include that TRACE data should be delayed a minimum of four years prior to being included in the academic data product; that transactions be grouped by dealer rather than masked on an individual basis (excluding information on List or Fixed Offering Price Transactions and Takedown Transactions);
FINRA has considered concerns regarding information leakage due to masked dealer identifiers and the specific comments received. In response to comments, FINRA has modified the proposal in two significant ways. First, FINRA has modified the proposal to extend the data delay period to 36 months rather than the 24-month delay proposed in
BDA and SIFMA also suggest using groupings, rather than masked individual dealer IDs, in the academic data product. FINRA has considered this alternative and continues to believe that transaction-level information masked at the individual dealer level is appropriate. FINRA believes that groupings will reduce the utility of the data for academic researchers and prevent them from accurately undertaking studies that analyze dealer behavior, or that need to control for dealer-specific factors. However, FINRA notes that masked identifiers will be made unique per subscriber. FINRA believes that, while changing the masked identifier per data request as suggested by BDA would impede research by a single subscriber, assigning unique masked identifiers per subscriber may both help guard against coordinated efforts at attempting reverse engineering dealer identities as well as assist FINRA in identifying the source of conduct that violates the FINRA subscription agreement. FINRA may consider amending or discontinuing the Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product, as currently proposed, if future experience shows that anonymized dealer identifier are reverse engineered by academics.
BDA states that prohibiting users from attempting to reverse engineer a dealer's identity will not extend to a reader of any study. However, FINRA notes that the user agreement also will require that any data presented in work product be sufficiently aggregated so as to prevent reverse engineering of any dealer or transaction, and believes that this measure would protect against reverse engineering by readers of published works.
Wharton supports the proposed academic data product and states that the “[a]cademic community's primary interest in having broker IDs is not related to the desire to determine the identities/names of underlying brokers, but most importantly to assess the role of brokers in bond market liquidity and
BDA and SIFMA raised concerns around the inclusion of primary market transaction information (for List or Fixed Offering Price Transactions and Takedown Transactions) in Academic TRACE Data. FINRA confirms that List or Fixed Offering Price Transactions and Takedown Transactions will not be included in the Academic Corporate Bond TRACE Data product.
BDA, CCI
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rules 340, 341 and 359 to harmonize the requirement of when a member or member organization or an ATP Holder must file an Uniform Termination Notice for Securities Industry Registration (“Form U-5”) with the rules of other exchanges and FINRA. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change
The Exchange proposes to amend Rules 340, 341 and 359 to harmonize the requirement of when a member or member organization or an ATP Holder must file a Form U-5 with the requirements on other exchanges and the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”). This filing is not intended to address any other registration requirements in Exchange rules.
Specifically, under current Commentary .01 to Rule 340, members and member organizations (collectively, “Members”) are required to electronically file a Form U-5 and any amendment thereto to the Central Registration Depository (“CRD”) within ten (10) days of the date of termination of an employee that has been approved for admission to the trading floor. Under current Commentary .09 to Rule 341, Members must submit information concerning the termination of employment of a member, registered employee or an officer on Form U-5 within ten (10) days of the date of termination.
The Exchange proposes to amend these three rules by replacing the current requirements of when to electronically file a Form U-5 with the same requirement in each rule that a member, member organization, or ATP Holder (as applicable) promptly file a Form U-5 electronically with CRD, but not later than 30 calendar days after the date of termination of a member, ATP Holder, registered employee or approved person (as applicable). The proposed rule would further require that any amendment to a Form U-5 must also be promptly filed electronically with CRD, but not later than 30 calendar days after learning of the facts or circumstances giving rise to the amendment. Finally, the proposed rule would provide that all Forms U-5 must also be provided to the terminated person concurrently with filing.
The proposed rule text is based on the requirements of other exchanges and FINRA and therefore would harmonize the requirement of when a member or member organization or an ATP Holder must file a Form U-5 with the rules of other exchanges and FINRA.
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes are consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market by conforming the time period within which Members and ATP Holders must file a Form U-5 to the requirement that such forms be filed promptly, but not later than 30 days after the termination event. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes would protect investors and the public interest by adding that Form U-5s should be filed promptly, rather than requiring only that they be filed within 10 days. In addition, the Exchange believes that adding the requirement that a Form U-5 be filed not later than 30 days after the event would eliminate the disparity among the exchanges, other SROs and the affected persons stemming from the cessation of their employment. In this regard, the proposed changes would foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities as they would both harmonize the time period for filing the requisite Form U-5 across multiple self-regulatory organizations and establish a known consistent standard to further ensure adherence. Such action would not affect nor diminish the abilities of the Exchange, its Members or an ATP Holder to fulfill their regulatory responsibilities under the Act or the rules promulgated thereunder,
The Exchange believes this additional transparency and clarity removes a potential impediment to, and would contribute to perfecting, the mechanism for a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, would protect investors and the public interest by harmonizing the time period for filing the requisite Form U-5 across multiple SROs, and by imposing the requirement that such forms be filed promptly.
The Exchange does not believe that these proposed rule changes would impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed changes are not designed to address any competitive issue but rather to harmonize Exchange time-filing requirements to a standard prevalent among other exchanges and FINRA, thereby reducing any potential confusion and making the Exchange's rules easier to understand and navigate. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes would serve to promote regulatory clarity and consistency, thereby reducing burdens on the marketplace and facilitating investor protection.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSEMKT-2016-52 and should be submitted on or before July 28, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 17Ad-10 generally requires registered transfer agents to: (1) Create and maintain current and accurate securityholder records; (2) promptly and accurately record all transfers, purchases, redemptions, and issuances, and notify their appropriate regulatory agency if they are unable to do so; (3) exercise diligent and continuous attention in resolving record inaccuracies; (4) disclose to the issuers for whom they perform transfer agent functions and to their appropriate regulatory agency information regarding record inaccuracies; (5) buy-in certain record inaccuracies that result in a physical over issuance of securities; and (6) communicate with other transfer agents related to the same issuer. These requirements assist in the creation and maintenance of accurate securityholder records, enhance the ability to research errors, and ensure the transfer agent is aware of the number of securities that are properly authorized by the issuer, thereby avoiding over issuance.
The rule also has specific recordkeeping requirements. It requires registered transfer agents to retain certificate detail that has been deleted for six years and keep current an accurate record of the number of shares
There are approximately 413 registered transfer agents. We estimate that the average number of hours necessary for each transfer agent to comply with Rule 17Ad-10 is approximately 80 hours per year, which generates an industry-wide annual burden of 33,040 hours (413 times 80 hours). This burden is of a recordkeeping nature but also includes a small amount of third party disclosure and SEC reporting burdens. At an average staff cost of $50 per hour, the industry-wide internal labor cost of compliance (a monetization of the burden hours) is approximately $1,652,000 per year (33,040 × $50).
In addition, we estimate that each transfer agent will incur an annual external cost burden of $18,000 resulting from the collection of information. Therefore, the total annual external cost on the entire transfer agent industry is approximately $7,434,000 ($18,000 times 413). This cost primarily reflects ongoing computer operations and maintenance associated with generating, maintaining, and disclosing or providing certain information required by the rule.
The amount of time any particular transfer agent will devote to Rule 17Ad-10 compliance will vary according to the size and scope of the transfer agent's business activity. We note, however, that at least some of the records, processes, and communications required by Rule 17Ad-10 would likely be maintained, generated, and used for transfer agent business purposes even without the rule.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes a proposal to adopt a new NASDAQ Options Market LLC rule to clearly prohibit disruptive quoting and trading activity on the Exchange, as further described below.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange is filing this proposal to adopt an options rule to clearly prohibit disruptive quoting and trading activity on the Exchange and to permit the Exchange to take prompt action to suspend Members or their clients that violate such rule pursuant to Rule 9400.
As a national securities exchange registered pursuant to Section 6 of the Act, the Exchange is required to be organized and to have the capacity to enforce compliance by its members and persons associated with its members, with the Act, the rules and regulations thereunder, and the Exchange's Rules. Further, the Exchange's Rules are required to be “designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade . . . and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.”
The process described above, from the identification of disruptive and potentially manipulative or improper quoting and trading activity to a final resolution of the matter, can often take several years. The Exchange believes that this time period is generally necessary and appropriate to afford the subject Member adequate due process, particularly in complex cases. However, as described below, the Exchange believes that there are certain obvious and uncomplicated cases of disruptive and manipulative behavior or cases where the potential harm to investors is so large that the Exchange should have the authority to initiate an expedited suspension proceeding in order to stop the behavior from continuing on the Exchange.
In recent years, several cases have been brought and resolved by the Exchange and other SROs that involved allegations of wide-spread market manipulation, much of which was ultimately being conducted by foreign persons and entities using relatively rudimentary technology to access the markets and over which the Exchange and other SROs had no direct jurisdiction. In each case, the conduct involved a pattern of disruptive quoting and trading activity indicative of manipulative layering
The following two examples are instructive on the Exchange's rationale for the proposed rule change.
In July 2012, Biremis Corp. (formerly Swift Trade Securities USA, Inc.) (the “Firm”) and its CEO were barred from the industry for, among other things, supervisory violations related to a failure by the Firm to detect and prevent disruptive and allegedly manipulative trading activities, including layering, short sale violations, and anti-money laundering violations.
In September of 2012, Hold Brothers On-Line Investment Services, Inc. (the “Firm”) settled a regulatory action in connection with the Firm's provision of a trading platform, trade software and trade execution, support and clearing services for day traders.
The Exchange also notes the current criminal proceedings that have commenced against Navinder Singh Sarao. Mr. Sarao's allegedly manipulative trading activity, which included forms of layering and spoofing in the futures markets, has been linked as a contributing factor to the “Flash Crash” of 2010, and yet continued through 2015.
The Exchange believes that the activities described in the cases above provide justification for the proposed rule change, which is described below. In addition, while the examples provided are related to the equities market, the Exchange believes that this type of conduct should be prohibited for all Exchange members, equities and options. The Exchange believes that these patterns of disruptive and allegedly manipulative quoting and trading activity need to be addressed and the product should not limit the action taken by the Exchange. For this reason, the Exchange now proposes a corresponding options rule.
The Exchange adopted Rule 9400 to set forth procedures for issuing suspension orders, immediately prohibiting a Member from conducting continued disruptive quoting and trading activity on the Exchange. Importantly, these procedures provide
Paragraph (b) of Rule 9400 governs the appointment of a Hearing Panel as well as potential disqualification or recusal of Hearing Officers. The Exchange's Rules provide for a Hearing Officer to be recused in the event he or she has a conflict of interest or bias or other circumstances exist where his or her fairness might reasonably be questioned in accordance with Rules 9233(a). In addition to recusal initiated by such a Hearing Officer, a party to the proceeding will be permitted to file a motion to disqualify a Hearing Officer. However, due to the compressed schedule pursuant to which the process would operate under Rule 9400, the rule requires such motion to be filed no later than 5 days after the announcement of the Hearing Panel and the Exchange's brief in opposition to such motion would be required to be filed no later than 5 days after service thereof. Pursuant to existing Rule 9233(c), a motion for disqualification of a Hearing Officer shall be decided by the Chief Hearing Officer based on a prompt investigation. The applicable Hearing Officer shall remove himself or herself and request the Chief Executive Officer to reassign the hearing to another Hearing Officer such that the Hearing Panel still meets the compositional requirements described in Rule 9231(b). If the Chief Hearing Officer determines that the Respondent's grounds for disqualification are insufficient, it shall deny the Respondent's motion for disqualification by setting forth the reasons for the denial in writing and the Hearing Panel will proceed with the hearing.
Under paragraph (c) of the Rule, the hearing would be held not later than 15 days after service of the notice initiating the suspension proceeding, unless otherwise extended by the Chairman of the Hearing Panel with the consent of the Parties for good cause shown. In the event of a recusal or disqualification of a Hearing Officer, the hearing shall be held not later than five days after a replacement Hearing Officer is appointed. Paragraph (c) also governs how the hearing is conducted, including the authority of Hearing Officers, witnesses, additional information that may be required by the Hearing Panel, the requirement that a transcript of the proceeding be created and details related to such transcript, and details regarding the creation and maintenance of the record of the proceeding. Paragraph (c) also states that if a Respondent fails to appear at a hearing for which it has notice, the allegations in the notice and accompanying declaration may be deemed admitted, and the Hearing Panel may issue a suspension order without further proceedings. Finally, if the Exchange fails to appear at a hearing for which it has notice, the Hearing Panel may order that the suspension proceeding be dismissed.
Under paragraph (d) of the Rule, the Hearing Panel would be required to issue a written decision stating whether a suspension order would be imposed. The Hearing Panel would be required to issue the decision not later than 10 days after receipt of the hearing transcript, unless otherwise extended by the Chairman of the Hearing Panel with the consent of the Parties for good cause shown. The Rule states that a suspension order shall be imposed if the Hearing Panel finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the alleged violation specified in the notice has occurred and that the violative conduct or continuation thereof is likely to result in significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors.
Paragraph (d) also describes the content, scope and form of a suspension order. A suspension order shall be limited to ordering a Respondent to cease and desist from violating Rule 2170 and/or to ordering a Respondent to cease and desist from providing access to the Exchange to a client of Respondent that is causing violations of Rule 2170. Under the rule, a suspension order shall also set forth the alleged violation and the significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors that is likely to result without the issuance of an order. The order shall describe in reasonable detail the act or acts the Respondent is to take or refrain from taking, and suspend such Respondent unless and until such action is taken or refrained from. Finally, the order shall include the date and hour of its issuance. A suspension order would remain effective and enforceable unless modified, set aside, limited, or revoked pursuant to paragraph (e), as described below. Finally, paragraph (d) requires service of the Hearing Panel's decision and any suspension order consistent with other portions of the rule related to service.
Paragraph (e) of Rule 9400 states that at any time after the Hearing Officers served the Respondent with a suspension order, a Party could apply to the Hearing Panel to have the order modified, set aside, limited, or revoked. If any part of a suspension order is modified, set aside, limited, or revoked, paragraph (e) of Rule 9400 provides the Hearing Panel discretion to leave the cease and desist part of the order in place. For example, if a suspension order suspends Respondent unless and until Respondent ceases and desists providing access to the Exchange to a client of Respondent, and after the order is entered the Respondent complies, the Hearing Panel is permitted to modify the order to lift the suspension portion of the order while keeping in place the cease and desist portion of the order. With its broad modification powers, the Hearing Panel also maintains the discretion to impose conditions upon the removal of a suspension—for example, the Hearing Panel could modify an order to lift the suspension portion of the order in the event a Respondent complies with the cease and desist portion of the order but additionally order that the suspension will be re-imposed if Respondent violates the cease and desist provisions of the modified order in the future. The Hearing Panel generally would be required to respond to the request in writing within 10 days after receipt of the request. An application to modify, set aside, limit or revoke a suspension order would not stay the effectiveness of the suspension order.
Finally, paragraph (f) provides that sanctions issued under Rule 9400 would constitute final and immediately effective disciplinary sanctions imposed by the Exchange, and that the right to have any action under the Rule reviewed by the Commission would be governed by Section 19 of the Act. The filing of an application for review would not stay the effectiveness of a suspension order unless the Commission otherwise ordered.
The Exchange currently has authority to prohibit and take action against manipulative trading activity, including disruptive quoting and trading activity, pursuant to its general market
Proposed Chapter III, Section 16 would prohibit Members from engaging in or facilitating disruptive options quoting and trading activity on the Exchange, as described in proposed Chapter III, Section 16(i) and (ii), including acting in concert with other persons to effect such activity. The Exchange believes that it is necessary to extend the prohibition to situations when persons are acting in concert to avoid a potential loophole where disruptive quoting and trading activity is simply split between several brokers or customers. The Exchange believes, that with respect to persons acting in concert perpetrating an abusive scheme, it is important that the Exchange have authority to act against the parties perpetrating the abusive scheme, whether it is one person or multiple persons.
To provide proper context for the situations in which the Exchange proposes to utilize its authority, the Exchange believes it is necessary to describe the types of disruptive options quoting and trading activity that would cause the Exchange to use its authority. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to adopt Chapter III, Section 16(i) and (ii) providing additional details regarding disruptive options quoting and trading activity. Proposed Chapter III, Section 16(i)(a) describes disruptive options quoting and trading activity containing many of the elements indicative of layering. It would describe disruptive options quoting and trading activity as a frequent pattern in which the following facts are present: (i) A party enters multiple limit orders on one side of the market at various price levels (the “Displayed Orders”); and (ii) following the entry of the Displayed Orders, the level of supply and demand for the security changes; and (iii) the party enters one or more orders on the opposite side of the market of the Displayed Orders (the “Contra-Side Orders”) that are subsequently executed; and (iv) following the execution of the Contra-Side Orders, the party cancels the Displayed Orders. Proposed Chapter III, Section 16(i)(b) describes disruptive options quoting and trading activity containing many of the elements indicative of spoofing and would describe disruptive quoting and trading activity as a frequent pattern in which the following facts are present: (i) A party narrows the spread for a security by placing an order inside the national best bid or offer; and (ii) the party then submits an order on the opposite side of the market that executes against another market participant that joined the new inside market established by the order described in proposed (b)(i) that narrowed the spread. The Exchange believes that the proposed descriptions of disruptive quoting and trading activity articulated in the rule are consistent with the activities that have been identified and described in the client access cases described above.
The Exchange proposes to make clear in proposed Chapter III, Section 16(ii), unless otherwise indicated, the descriptions of disruptive options quoting and trading activity do not require the facts to occur in a specific order in order for the rule to apply. For instance, with respect to the pattern defined in proposed Chapter III, Section 16(i)(a) it is of no consequence whether a party first enters Displayed Orders and then Contra-side Orders or vice-versa. However, as proposed, supply and demand must change following the entry of the Displayed Orders. The Exchange also proposes to make clear that disruptive options quoting and trading activity includes a pattern or practice in which some portion of the disruptive options quoting and trading activity is conducted on the Exchange and the other portions of the disruptive options quoting and trading activity are conducted on one or more other exchanges. The Exchange believes that this authority is necessary to address market participants who would otherwise seek to avoid the prohibitions of the proposed Rule by spreading their activity amongst various execution venues. In sum, proposed Chapter III, Section 16 coupled with Rule 9400 would provide the Exchange with authority to promptly act to prevent disruptive quoting and trading activity from continuing on the Exchange.
Below is an example of how the proposed rule would operate.
Assume that through its surveillance program, Exchange staff identifies a pattern of potentially disruptive options quoting and trading activity. After an initial investigation the Exchange would then contact the Member responsible for the orders that caused the activity to request an explanation of the activity as well as any additional relevant information, including the source of the activity. If the Exchange were to continue to see the same pattern from the same Member and the source of the activity is the same or has been previously identified as a frequent source of disruptive options quoting and trading activity then the Exchange could initiate an expedited suspension proceeding by serving notice on the Member that would include details regarding the alleged violations as well as the proposed sanction. In such a case the proposed sanction would likely be to order the Member to cease and desist providing access to the Exchange to the client that is responsible for the disruptive quoting and trading activity and to suspend such Member unless and until such action is taken.
The Member would have the opportunity to be heard in front of a Hearing Panel at a hearing to be conducted within 15 days of the notice. If the Hearing Panel determined that the violation alleged in the notice did not occur or that the conduct or its continuation would not have the potential to result in significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors, then the Hearing Panel would dismiss the suspension order proceeding.
If the Hearing Panel determined that the violation alleged in the notice did occur and that the conduct or its continuation is likely to result in significant market disruption or other significant harm to investors, then the Hearing Panel would issue the order including the proposed sanction, ordering the Member to cease providing access to the client at issue and suspending such Member unless and until such action is taken. If such Member wished for the suspension to be lifted because the client ultimately responsible for the activity no longer would be provided access to the Exchange, then such Member could apply to the Hearing Panel to have the order modified, set aside, limited or revoked. The Exchange notes that the issuance of a suspension order would not alter the Exchange's ability to further investigate the matter and/or
The Exchange reiterates that it already has broad authority to take action against a Member in the event that such Member is engaging in or facilitating disruptive or manipulative trading activity on the Exchange. For the reasons described above, and in light of recent cases like the client access cases described above, as well as other cases currently under investigation, the Exchange believes that it is equally important for the Exchange to have the authority to promptly initiate expedited suspension proceedings against any Member who has demonstrated a clear pattern or practice of disruptive options quoting and trading activity, as described above, and to take action including ordering such Member to terminate access to the Exchange to one or more of such Member's clients if such clients are responsible for the activity.
The Exchange recognizes that its authority to issue a suspension order is a powerful measure that should be used very cautiously. Consequently, the rules have been designed to ensure that the proceedings are used to address only the most clear and serious types of disruptive quoting and trading activity and that the interests of Respondents are protected. For example, to ensure that proceedings are used appropriately and that the decision to initiate a proceeding is made only at the highest staff levels, the rules require the CRO or another senior officer of the Exchange to issue written authorization before the Exchange can institute an expedited suspension proceeding. In addition, the rule by its terms is limited to violations of Chapter III, Section 16, when necessary to protect investors, other Members and the Exchange. The Exchange will initiate disciplinary action for violations of Chapter III, Section 16, pursuant to Rule 9400. Further, the Exchange believes that the expedited suspension provisions described above that provide the opportunity to respond as well as a Hearing Panel determination prior to taking action will ensure that the Exchange would not utilize its authority in the absence of a clear pattern or practice of disruptive options quoting and trading activity.
The Exchange also notes that that it may impose temporary restrictions upon the automated entry or updating of orders or quotes/orders as the Exchange may determine to be necessary to protect the integrity of the Exchange's systems pursuant to Rule 4611(c).
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
Further, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with Sections 6(b)(1) and 6(b)(6) of the Act,
As explained above, the Exchange notes that it has defined the prohibited disruptive quoting and trading activity by modifying the traditional definitions of layering and spoofing
Through this proposal, the Exchange does not intend to modify the definitions of spoofing and layering that have generally been used by the Exchange and other regulators in connection with actions like those cited above. The Exchange believes that the pattern of disruptive and allegedly manipulative quoting and trading activity was widespread across multiple exchanges, and the Exchange, FINRA, and other SROs identified clear patterns of the behavior in 2007 and 2008 in the equities markets.
Further, the Exchange believes that adopting a rule applicable to Options Participants is consistent with the Act because the Exchange believes that this type of behavior should be prohibited for all members, not just equities members. The type of product should not be the determining factor, rather the behavior which challenges the market structure is the primary concern for the Exchange. While this behavior may not be as prevalent on the options market
The Exchange further believes that the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(7) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, the Exchange believes that each self-regulatory organization should be empowered to regulate trading occurring on its market consistent with the Act and without regard to competitive issues. The Exchange is requesting authority to take appropriate action if necessary for the protection of investors, other Members and the Exchange. The Exchange also believes that it is important for all exchanges to be able to take similar action to enforce their rules against manipulative conduct thereby leaving no exchange prey to such conduct.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change imposes an undue burden on competition, rather this process will provide the Exchange with the necessary means to enforce against violations of manipulative quoting and trading activity in an expedited manner, while providing Members with the necessary due process. The Exchange believes that adopting a rule applicable to Options Participants does not impose an undue burden on competition because this type of behavior should be prohibited for all members, not just equities members. The Exchange's proposal would treat all members, equities and options, in a uniform manner with respect to the type of disciplinary action that would be taken for violations of manipulative quoting and trading activity.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On December 4, 2015, Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “SEC” or “Commission”) proposed rule change SR-FINRA-2015-054, pursuant to which FINRA proposed to adopt a rule set that would apply exclusively to firms that meet the definition of “capital acquisition broker” (“CAB”) and that elect to be governed under this rule set (collectively, the “CAB Rules”).
The Commission published the proposed rule change for public comment in the
In response to comments on the Notice of Filing, on March 29, 2016, FINRA filed Partial Amendment No. 1, which amended proposed CAB Rule 016(c)(2) to clarify that the definition of “capital acquisition broker” does not include any broker or dealer that effects securities transactions that would require the broker or dealer to report the transaction under the FINRA Rules 6300 Series, 6400 Series, 6500 Series, 6600 Series, 6600 Series, 6700 Series, 7300 Series or 7400 Series. The Commission published Partial Amendment No. 1 for comment in the
On June 28, 2016, FINRA filed Partial Amendment No. 2 to its proposed rule change in response to comments on the Notice of Filing. Partial Amendment No. 2 is described in Item II below, which has been prepared by FINRA. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on Partial Amendment No. 2 from interested persons.
In response to comments on the Notice of Filing, the Order Instituting Proceedings, and Partial Amendment No. 1, FINRA filed this Partial Amendment No. 2 to amend proposed CAB Rule 016(c)(1)(F) regarding a CAB's authority to engage in qualifying, identifying, soliciting, or acting as a placement agent or finder in connection with unregistered securities transactions. As revised by Partial Amendment No. 2, a CAB would be permitted to engage in:
The purpose of this proposed rule change is to provide a rule set for member firms that advise companies on mergers and acquisitions, advise issuers on raising debt and equity capital in private placements with institutional investors, or provide advisory services on a consulting basis to companies that need assistance analyzing their strategic and financial alternatives. Consistent with this purpose, this amendment would narrow the range of activities that a CAB would be permitted to engage in with regard to securities transactions involving institutional investors. Previously proposed CAB Rule 016(c)(1)(F) would have permitted a CAB to engage in qualifying, identifying, soliciting, or acting as a placement agent or finder with respect to institutional investors in connection with purchases or sales of unregistered securities. This authority would have been limited by proposed CAB Rule 016(c)(2), which would have prohibited CABs from effecting securities transactions that would require the broker or dealer to report the transaction under the FINRA trade reporting rules.
As amended, a CAB would be permitted to engage in qualifying, identifying, soliciting, or acting as a placement agent or finder (i) on behalf of an issuer in connection with a sale of
Accordingly, under revised proposed CAB Rule 016(c)(1)(F), a CAB would be permitted to qualify, identify, solicit or act as a placement or agent only in two circumstances. First, a CAB could perform these functions on behalf of an issuer in connection with an initial offering of unregistered securities to institutional investors (as such term is defined in proposed CAB Rule 016(i)). Second, a CAB could perform these functions on behalf of an issuer or control person in connection with an initial or secondary securities transaction related to a change of control of a privately-held company. Except as described in proposed CAB Rules 016(c)(1)(F)(ii) and 016(c)(1)(G),
With this Partial Amendment No. 2, FINRA included (1) Exhibit 4, which reflects changes to the text of the proposed rule change pursuant to this Partial Amendment No. 2, marked to show additions to the text as proposed in the original filing as amended by Partial Amendment No. 1; and (2) Exhibit 5, which reflects the changes to the current rule text that are proposed in the proposed rule change, as amended by this Partial Amendment No. 2.
Within 180 days after the date of publication of the initial Notice of Filing in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, as amended by Partial Amendment No. 2, is consistent with the Exchange Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change. The Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-FINRA-2015-054 and should be submitted on or before July 18, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Exchange Rules at Chapter I, Section 1, entitled “Definitions” to add specificity to the definition of a Professional with respect to the manner in which the volume threshold will be calculated by the Exchange.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed
The Exchange proposes to amend the definition of “Professional” at Chapter I, Section 1(49) to specify the manner in which the Exchange calculates orders to determine if an order should be treated as Professional.
The definition of the term Professional at Chapter I, Section 1(49) currently states, “any person or entity that (i) is not a broker or dealer in securities, and (ii) places more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s).” In order to properly represent orders entered on the Exchange Participants are required to indicate whether Public Customer
The Exchange accepts orders routed from other markets that are marked Professional. The designation of Professional or Professional order does not result in any different treatment of such orders for purposes of Exchange rules concerning away market protection. That is, all non-broker or dealer orders, including those that meet the definition of Professional orders, are treated equally for purposes of Exchange away market protection rules.
The Exchange proposes to count each order entered by a Professional toward the number of orders, regardless of the options exchange to which the order was routed in determining Professional orders.
A cancel and replace order is a type of order that replaces a prior order. The Exchange believes that the second order (the replacement order) should be counted as a new order. With respect to “single-strike algorithms,” which are a series of cancel and replace orders in an individual strike which track the NBBO, these orders shall be counted as new orders.
An order that converts into multiple subordinate orders to achieve an execution strategy shall be counted as one order per side and series, even if the order is routed away.
In order to make clear when orders will count as new orders, the Exchange offers the following scenarios as examples.
• The Exchange proposes to count multiple orders that were submitted by the member as separate orders as multiple orders.
• The Exchange proposes to count a single order submitted by a member, which was automatically executed in multiple parts by the trading system, as one order, because the member did not intervene to create multiple orders. Another example is where an order was entered in the trading system and only partially filled, the order would count as one order. The subsequent fills, which could be multiple executions, would not count as additional orders in determining the 390 limit. The manner in which the order is ultimately executed, as one order or multiple orders, should not itself determine whether the activity is that of a Professional; also the member did not intervene in that circumstance.
• The Exchange proposes to not count an order which reprices, for example because of a locked and crossed market, as a new order because the member did not intervene.
• The Exchange proposes to count orders, which result in multiple orders due to cancel and replacement orders, as new orders. This is because in this situation the member did intervene to create the subsequent orders.
• The Exchange proposes to count an order submitted by the Public Customer as a single order, on the same side and series, as a single order despite the fact that a broker broke-up the order into multiple orders for purposes of execution.
The Exchange notes that other options exchanges have issued notices which describe the manner in which those Exchanges believe thresholds should be computed for determining if an order qualifies as a Professional order.
Below are some examples of the calculation of Professional orders.
A Public Customer has an order to buy 100 calls at a volatility level of 35. The order then generates a child order resulting in a 1.00 bid for 100 options which is sent to exchange A. After the underlying stock price ticks up 2 cents the child order is then adjusted to reflect a 35 level volatility which in this case (50 delta) results in a 1.01 bid sent to Exchange A replacing the current 1.00 bid.
In determining the number of orders that attribute to the 390 order count, in this case, because the child order is being canceled and replaced in the “same series” this would only count as one (1) order for purposes of Professional designation calculation.
A Public Customer has an order to buy 20k Vega at a 35 volatility level in symbol XYZ. The order then generates 50 child orders across different strikes. Throughout the day those 50 orders are adjusted as the stock moves resulting in the replacement of child orders to the tune of 5 times per order (50 x 5 cancels) resulting in 250 total orders generated to Exchange A.
In determining the number of orders that attribute to the 390 order count, in this case, because the child orders generated are across multiple series it would be necessary to count all 250 orders.
In addition to the above examples, the Exchange provides the below chart to demonstrate the manner in which it will count orders.
The Exchange proposes to implement this rule on July 1, 2016 to provide market participants with advance notice for their quarterly calculations. The Exchange will issue an Options Trader Alert in advance to inform market participants of such date.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that counting all orders toward the number of orders, regardless of the options exchange to which the order was routed, will promote the consistent application of its rules by making clear that all order types shall be counted as well as all orders for the purpose of determining whether the definition of Professional has been met.
With respect to determining the Professional designation, a cancel and replace order that replaces a prior order shall be counted as a second order. An order that is filled partially or in its entirety or is a replacement order that is automatically canceled or reduced by the number of contracts that were executed will not count as second order because it was not replaced.
The Exchange believes that counting cancel and replace orders with “single-strike algorithms,” which are a series of cancel and replace orders in an individual strike which track the NBBO, as new orders is consistent with the Act because the Public Customer is specifically instructing the executing broker in the “single-strike algorithm” scenario to cancel and replace these orders. Tracking the NBBO
The Exchange's adoption of the Professional order was to treat orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month in his or her own beneficial account differently from Public Customer orders for purposes of priority within the order Book and pricing.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment will provide more certainty to market participants in determining the computation of the number of orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s) to determine the Professional designation. The Exchange notes that other options exchanges have issued notices describing the manner in which they believe that Professional order should be counted when determining if an order qualifies as a Professional order.
Customer priority is one of the marketplace advantages provided to Public Customer orders on the Exchange. Customer priority means that Customer orders are given execution priority over non-Customer orders and quotations of specialists and BX Options Market Makers
Finally, the proposed guidance is being issued to stem confusion as to the manner in which options exchanges compute the Professional order volume. The Exchange's Rules may be similar to notices issued by NYSE Arca, Inc, NYSE MKT LLC (“NYSE MKT”) and International Securities Exchange LLC (“ISE”).
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the Exchange will uniformly apply the rules to calculate volume on all members in determining Professional orders. The designation of Professional orders would not result in any different treatment of such orders for purposes of the Exchange's Rules concerning order protection or routing to away exchanges. Also, SIFMA supports the guidance issued by NYSE Arca and NYSE MKT. The guidance is being issued to stem confusion as to the manner in which options exchanges compute the Professional order volume.
The Exchange is adopting similar counting methods the Exchange believes is currently being utilized by NYSE MKT, NYSE ARCA and ISE related to designation of Professional orders.
The Exchange believes that counting all orders entered by a Professional toward the number of orders, regardless of the options exchange to which the order was routed, does not create an undue burden on intra-market competition because this proposed rule change will be consistently applied to all members in determining Professional orders.
The Exchange believes that its application of cancel and replace orders does not create an undue burden on intra-market competition because this application is consistent with Exchange Rules, where the replacement order is viewed as a new order. This treatment is consistent with the manner in which this order type is applied today within the Order Book.
The Exchange's treatment of subordinate orders does not create an undue burden on intra-market competition because allowing orders on the same side of the market to be counted as a single order is consistent with the original intent of the Professional order designation which is to count distinct orders and focus on the number of orders generated.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose an undue burden on inter-market competition because other exchanges have announced the intent to adopt
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
The Exchange has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. The Commission notes that it has considered a substantially similar proposed rule change filed by CBOE and PHLX which it approved after a notice and comment period.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
ISE Mercury proposes to amend its rules to extend a pilot program to quote and to trade certain options classes in penny increments (“Penny Pilot Program”). The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Under the Penny Pilot Program, the minimum price variation for all participating options classes, except for the Nasdaq-100 Index Tracking Stock (“QQQQ”), the SPDR S&P 500 Exchange Traded Fund (“SPY”) and the iShares Russell 2000 Index Fund (“IWM”), is $0.01 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at less than $3 per contract and $0.05 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at $3 per contract or greater. QQQQ, SPY and IWM are quoted in $0.01 increments for all options series. The Penny Pilot Program is currently scheduled to expire on June 30, 2016. The Exchange proposes to extend the Penny Pilot Program through December 31, 2016, and to provide a revised date for adding replacement issues to the Penny Pilot Program. The Exchange proposes that any Penny Pilot Program issues that have been delisted may be replaced on the second trading day following July 1, 2016. The replacement issues will be selected based on trading activity for the most recent six month period excluding the month immediately preceding the replacement (
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
• Send an Email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On April 6, 2016 and as amended on April 25, 2016, DTCC Data Repository (U.S.) LLC (“DDR”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a Form SDR seeking registration as a security-based swap data repository (“SDR”) under Section 13(n) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”)
Section 763(i) of the Dodd-Frank Act added Section 13(n) to the Exchange Act, which requires an SDR to register with the Commission and provides that, to be registered and maintain registration as an SDR, an SDR must comply with certain requirements and “core principles” described in Section 13(n) and any requirement that the Commission may impose by rule or regulation.
The Commission adopted Exchange Act Rules 13n-1 through 13n-12 (“SDR rules”), which require an SDR to register with the Commission and comply with certain “duties and core principles.”
Concurrent with the Commission's adoption of the SDR rules, the Commission adopted Regulation SBSR,
To be registered with the Commission as an SDR and maintain such
In determining whether an applicant meets the criteria set forth in Rule 13n-1(c), the Commission will consider the information reflected by the applicant on its Form SDR, as well as any additional information obtained from the applicant. For example, Form SDR requires an applicant to provide, among other things, contact information, a list of the asset class(es) for which the applicant is collecting and maintaining data or for which it proposes to collect and maintain data, a description of the functions that it performs or proposes to perform, and general information regarding its business organization.
DDR currently operates as a trade repository under the regulatory framework of other authorities. Specifically, DDR is a swap data repository regulated and provisionally registered by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”).
DDR is a New York limited liability company, and is a wholly owned subsidiary of DTCC Deriv/SERV LLC, which, in turn, is a wholly owned subsidiary of The Depository Trust & Clearing Corporation (“DTCC”).
According to DDR, the number of directors on the Board is determined by DTCC Deriv/SERV LLC (“DTCC Deriv/SERV”) as the sole LLC member of DDR.
Additionally, DDR represents that it welcomes suggestions from market participants of proposed or alternative candidates to serve on the DDR Board, which may be submitted through the notices procedures described in the Operating Procedures of DDR's Rulebook.
DDR's Rulebook provides that its Chief Compliance Officer (“CCO”) is appointed by the Board and reports directly to the chief executive officer of DDR.
DDR directors must comply with DDR's Board Code of Ethics and Conflicts of Interest Policy (the “Code”), which is intended to focus directors on their duties as fiduciaries and provide guidance to directors to help them recognize and deal with ethical issues, provide mechanisms to report unethical conduct, help foster a culture of honesty and accountability, and address actual and potential conflicts of interest.
DDR has applied to register as an SDR with the Commission to accept data in respect of all SBS transactions in the credit, equity, and interest rates derivatives asset classes.
DDR represents that, if registered with the Commission, it would, among other things: (i) Perform all of the required functions of an SDR under the Commission's Rules 13n-1 through 13n-11; (ii) accept, from or on behalf of Users, transaction and life-cycle data for SBS as specified in the Commission's Regulation SBSR, as and when required to be reported to an SDR thereunder; (iii) verify and maintain swap and SBS data as required by such regulations; (iv) publicly disseminate SBS data as and when required under the Commission's Regulation SBSR, either directly or through one or more third parties; (v) provide access to swap and SBS data to appropriate regulators; and (vi) generate reports with respect to transaction data maintained in DDR, in each case as specified in further detail in DDR's Operating Procedures and applicable publications.
DDR represents that it would provide access to its SDR service on a fair, open and equal basis.
DDR represents that it may summarily terminate a User's account and access to SDR services when the Board determines that: (a) The User has materially breached its User Agreement, DDR's Operating Procedures, or the rules contained in its Rulebook, which threatens or may cause immediate harm to the normal operation of DDR's system, or any applicable law including those relating to the regulations administered and enforced by the U.S. Department of Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control or the Canadian Government Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions; or (b) the User's account or User's IT system is causing material harm to the normal operation of DDR's system.
DDR represents that its services would be available to all market participants on a fair, open and equal basis. DDR represents that a market participant must be on-boarded as a DDR User to be granted access to the DDR system, receive trade information, confirm or verify transactions, submit messages, or receive reports.
DDR has represented that it would accept data in respect of all SBS trades in the credit equity, and interest rate
Exhibits GG.2 (for credit derivatives), GG.4 (for equity derivatives), and GG.6 (for interest rates) to DDR's application enumerate the required fields and acceptable values for the submission of trade information into the DDR system. Upon submission of a transaction, DDR will perform validation checks to ensure that each submitted record is in the proper format and will also perform validation and consistency checks against certain data elements, including, for example, sequencing of time and date fields (
• Schema validations—check that a submission is consistent with the accepted format (
• Core validations—the basic checks that ensure the submission can be accepted into the SDR (
• Business validation—applied at the point of in-bound submission processing to ensure integrity and logical consistency. These validations will ensure that the messages are well formed and provide a logical and complete description of the core trade economics and ensure that DDR does not degrade the quality of the information held within the repository by allowing incomplete or illogical trade descriptions to be accepted and stored; and
• Regulatory validations—regulatory-specific validations applied following the normal business validations. (For example, if the same field is required by one jurisdiction and is optional for another, the jurisdiction requiring the field would have a regulatory validation to check for the field.)
DDR represents that DDR may reject a transaction record submitted due to the submission failing to meet DDR validations, including but not limited to the submission failing to be in a format that can be ingested by DDR, failing to meet jurisdictional (
In connection with the reporting of “pre-enactment and transitional SBS,” DDR represents that it will accept the following types of historical trades: (i) “Historical Expired,” which are pre-enactment SBS executed before July 21, 2010 but expired or terminated before the compliance date for Regulation SBSR, (ii) “Historical,” which are transitional SBS executed after July 21, 2010 but expired or terminated before the compliance date for Regulation SBSR, and (iii) “Backload,” which are pre-enactment SBS or transitional SBS in existence on or after the compliance date for Regulation SBSR.
DDR represents that its SDR services verification processes are designed to reasonably establish that the transaction data that has been submitted to DDR is complete and accurate.
According to DDR, a transaction record is verified if it (i) is submitted by a Trusted Source (which is defined as an entity, which has entered into a User agreement, been recognized as a Trusted Source by DDR and provides the definitive report of a given position),
DDR represents that it would attempt to contact counterparties to a trade reported to DDR who are not Users (a “Non-User”), where such party's LEI is provided and there is email contact information available to DDR in the information or static data maintained by the DTCC trade repositories
The DDR system will provide trade detail reports that will enable Users to view all transaction records, which will allow Users to reconcile the transaction records in the SDR services to their own risk systems.
Under DDR's policies and procedures, Users are responsible for resolving any disputes between themselves uncovered during any reconciliation process and, as appropriate, for submitting correct information.
DDR represents that, with respect to flags that are applied to publicly disseminated reports to help prevent a distorted view of the market, DDR has established the following flags that indicate that additional information is needed to understand the publicly disseminated price: Inter-affiliate, Nonstandard flag, Off market flag, Pricing context, and Compressed trade.
DDR's SDR service would allow DDR to calculate open positions for persons with open SBS for which DDR maintains records. DDR's policies and procedures relating to its calculation of positions are provided in Exhibit DD.
DDR's policies and procedures state that pursuant to Commission regulation (
DDR has proposed that its Users will be required to provide Legal Entity Identifiers for the following fields: Platform ID, ultimate parent ID, counterparty ID, broker ID, and execution agent ID.
DDR represents that it accepts transaction IDs in the UTI field.
DDR represents that it captures the UIC for ultimate parent ID in DDR's system at the time a User on-boards to DDR as this is static information that does not vary by trade. DDR requires that each User provide the LEI of the ultimate parent for each account that is registered with DDR, with the exception of (1) natural persons who are not required to provide an LEI for ultimate parent and (2) asset managers and the funds they manage (for asset managers, if the ultimate parent LEI of the fund is unavailable, DDR will accept the LEI for the fund).
DDR represents that each User is required to create, among other identifiers, the branch ID, trading desk ID, and trader ID. With respect to branch ID, DDR represents that it requires the User to provide the two digit ISO alpha country code and the two digit subdivision (city) code where the branch or other unincorporated office is located. DDR represents that if the User has more than one branch in the same subdivision (city), the branch ID will also include a single digit following the country and city code referencing the specific branch, such as 1 or 2, for example.
DDR represents that each User is required to create the product ID. DDR represents that the product ID for all asset classes will be the ISDA taxonomy.
Rule 906(a) of Regulation SBSR requires a registered SDR to identify any SBS reported to it for which the registered SDR does not have the counterparty ID and (if applicable) the broker ID, branch ID, execution agent ID, trading desk ID, and trader ID of each direct counterparty. Once a day, the registered SDR must send a report to each participant of the registered SDR (or, if applicable, an execution agent) identifying, for each SBS to which that participant is a counterparty, the SBS(s) for which the registered SDR lacks the counterparty ID and (if applicable) broker ID, branch ID, execution agent ID, trading desk ID, or trader ID.
DDR's policies and procedures provide that to assist each User in identifying and supplying missing UIC information, the User's position report, which shall be made available each day to all Users, can be used to identify each SBS transaction for which DDR lacks any of the required UICs.
According to DDR, its public price dissemination (“PPD”) solution provides Users with a way to report prices publicly pursuant to the
DDR's policies and procedures state that DDR requires a separate message for public dissemination and for updating the position record.
DDR represents that the PPD will receive messages with the following potential entries in the “Action” field for a UTI: New, Modify, and Cancel.
DDR represents that the DDR system is supported by DTCC and relies on the disaster recovery program maintained by DTCC.
DDR represents that it retains the right to exercise emergency authority in the event of circumstances determined by DDR to require such response or upon request by the designated regulators as applicable, and that any exercise of DDR's emergency authority shall be adequate to address the nature and scope of any such emergency.
Pursuant to its policies and procedures, DDR shall notify the designated regulators, as soon as reasonably practicable, of an invocation of emergency authority or a material system outage is detected by DDR.
DDR represents that it shall avoid conflicts of interest in decision-making with respect to emergency authority taken.
DDR represents that any emergency actions taken by DDR may be terminated by the CEO and in his/her absence, any other officer of DDR, and that any such termination of an emergency action will be followed by the issuance of an Important Notice as soon as reasonably practicable.
DDR represents that DTCC has established a Technology Risk Management Team, whose role is to manage information security risk and ensure the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of the organization's information assets, but that DDR will be
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning DDR's Form SDR, including whether DDR has satisfied the requirements for registration as an SDR. To the extent possible, commenters are requested to provide empirical data and other factual support for their views. In addition, the Commission seeks comment on the following issues:
1. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's application for registration as an SDR demonstrates that DDR is so organized, and has the capacity, to be able to assure the prompt, accurate, and reliable performance of its functions as an SDR, comply with any applicable provisions of the securities laws and the rules and regulations thereunder, and carry out its functions in a manner consistent with the purposes of Section 13(n) of the Exchange Act and Commission's SDR rules.
2. Exchange Act Rule 13n-5(b)(1)(iii) requires every SDR to establish, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to satisfy itself that the transaction data that has been submitted to the SDR is complete and accurate. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures concerning verification of trade data are sufficiently detailed and reasonably designed to satisfy DDR that the transaction data that has been submitted to DDR is complete and accurate, as required by Exchange Act Rule 13n-5(b)(1)(iii).
3. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures to address confirmation of data accuracy and completeness for bespoke, bilateral SBS transactions (
4. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are sufficiently detailed and reasonably designed to ensure that the transaction data and positions that it maintains are complete and accurate, as required by Exchange Act Rule 13n-5(b)(3).
5. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are sufficiently detailed and reasonably designed to ensure that it has the ability to protect the privacy of SBS transaction information that it receives, as required by Exchange Act Rule 13n-9.
6. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are sufficiently detailed and reasonably designed to ensure that it has the ability to calculate positions, as required by Exchange Act Rule 13n-5(b)(2).
7. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are sufficiently detailed and reasonably designed to provide a mechanism for Users and their counterparties to effectively resolve disputes over the accuracy of SBS data that DDR would maintain, as required by Exchange Act Rule 13n-5(b)(6). Are DDR's policies and procedures, including with respect to the specified timeframe, relating to dispute resolution adequate? Why or why not?
8. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are sufficiently detailed and reasonably designed to ensure that its systems that support or are integrally related to the performance of its activities provides adequate levels of capacity, integrity, resiliency, availability, and security, as required by Exchange Act Rule 13n-6.
9. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are sufficiently detailed and reasonably designed for the CCO's handling, management response, remediation, retesting, and closing of noncompliance issues, as required by Exchange Act Rule 13n-11(c)(7).
10. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies or procedures could result in an unreasonable restraint of trade or impose any material anticompetitive burden on the trading, clearing, or reporting of transactions.
11. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's proposed dues, fees, or other charges, discounts or rebates and the process for setting dues, fees, or other charges, discounts or rebates are fair and reasonable and not unreasonably discriminatory. Please address whether such proposed dues, fees, other charges, discounts, or rebates are applied consistently across all similarly situated users of DDR's services, including, but not limited to, Users, market infrastructures (including central counterparties), venues from which data can be submitted to DDR (including exchanges, SBS execution facilities, electronic trading venues, and matching and confirmation platforms), and third party service providers.
12. Exchange Act Rule 13n-4(c)(2)(i)-(iii) provides that each SDR (i) shall establish governance arrangements that are well defined and include a clear organizational structure with effective internal controls; (ii) must establish governance arrangements that provide for fair representation of market participants; and (iii) must provide representatives of market participants, including end-users, with the opportunity to participate in the process for nominating directors and with the right to petition for alternative candidates. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's governance arrangements are appropriate in light of the requirements of Rule 13n-4(c)(2)(i)-(iii).
13. Exchange Act Rule 13n-4(c)(3)(i)-(ii) provides that each SDR must establish, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify and mitigate potential and existing conflicts of interest in the SDR's decision-making process on an ongoing basis, and, with respect to the decision-making process for resolving any conflicts of interest, each SDR shall require the recusal of any person involved in such conflict from such decision-making. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are appropriate in light of the requirements of Exchange Act Rule Exchange Act Rule 13n-4(c)(3)(i)-(ii).
14. Rule 903(a) of Regulation SBSR provides, in relevant part, that if no system has been recognized by the Commission, or a recognized system has not assigned a UIC to a particular person, unit of a person, or product, the registered SDR shall assign a UIC to that person, unit of person, or product using its own methodology. Is the methodology that DDR proposes to use with respect to UICs as described in its application materials appropriate in light of the requirements under Rule
15. Rule 907(c) of Regulation SBSR requires a registered SDR to make its Regulation SBSR policies and procedures publicly available on its Web site. The Commission has stated that this public availability requirement will allow all interested parties to understand how the registered SDR is utilizing the flexibility it has in operating the transaction reporting and dissemination system, and will provide an opportunity for market participants to make suggestions to the registered SDR for altering and improving those policies and procedures, in light of the new products or circumstances, consistent with the principles set out in Regulation SBSR.
16. Regulation SBSR imposes duties on various market participants to report SBS transaction information to a registered SDR. Please provide your views as to whether the DDR application and the associated policies and procedures (including technical specifications for submission of data) provide sufficient information to potential participants of DDR about how they would discharge these regulatory duties when reporting to DDR. In particular, please provide your views as to whether DDR's technical specifications for submission of data are sufficiently detailed, especially with regard to historical SBSs (including pre-enactment and transitional SBS) and bespoke SBS. Please describe in detail what additional information you believe is necessary to allow you to satisfy any reporting obligation you may incur under Regulation SBSR.
17. Rule 906(a) of Regulation SBSR provides, in relevant part, that a participant of a registered SDR must provide the missing information with respect to its side of each SBS referenced in the report to the registered SDR within 24 hours. DDR represents that in order to be granted access to the DDR system, receive trade information, confirm or verify transactions, submit messages, or receive reports, a market participant must be on-boarded as a DDR User. Please provide your views as to whether this form of access afforded to the non-reporting-side is fair, open, and not unreasonably discriminatory.
18. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures relating to Rule 906(a) are sufficiently detailed, appropriate and reasonably designed to ensure data accuracy and completeness, including with respect to the requirement that once a day, a registered SDR shall send a report to each participant identifying, for each SBS to which that participant is a counterparty, the SBS for which the registered SDR lacks counterparty ID and (if applicable) broker ID, branch ID, execution agent ID, desk ID, and trader ID.
19. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures relating to Rule 905(b) are sufficiently detailed, appropriate and reasonably designed to ensure data accuracy and completeness.
20. Please provide your views as to whether DDR has provided sufficient information to explain the SBS transaction information that it would publicly disseminate to discharge its duties under Rule 902 of Regulation SBSR. Please describe any additional information that you feel is necessary. Please offer any suggestions generally for how the publicly disseminated information could be made more useful.
21. Please provide your views as to whether DDR has provided sufficient information to explain how Users would be required to report life cycle events under Rule 901(e). Please describe any additional information that you feel is necessary. In particular, please indicate whether you believe DDR's specifications are reasonably designed to identify the specific data element(s) that change and thus that trigger the report of the life cycle event.
22. Please provide your views as to whether DDR has provided sufficient information about how an agent could report SBS transaction information to DDR on behalf of a principal (
23. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures for the use of condition flags for transactions having special characteristics under Rule 907(a)(4) of Regulation SBSR are consistent with the goal of preventing market participants without knowledge of these characteristics receiving a distorted view of the market. Are there additional condition flags that you believe DDR should utilize? If so, please describe them and why you believe they are appropriate.
24. Exchange Act Rule 13n-10 requires that, before accepting any SBS data from a market participant or upon a market participant's request, an SDR shall furnish to the market participant a disclosure document that contains certain written information, which must reasonably enable the market participant to identify and evaluate accurately the risks and costs associated with using the SDR's services. This written information includes the SDR's criteria for providing others with access to its services and data it maintains, its criteria for those seeking to connect to or link with it, its description of its policies and procedures regarding its noncommercial and/or commercial use of the SBS transaction information that it receives from a participant, any registered entity, or any other person, its description of all the SDR's services, including any ancillary services, and its description of its governance arrangements. Based on the materials provided in DDR's Form SDR application, please provide your views as to whether the disclosures provided by the application are sufficiently detailed to meet the objectives of Exchange Act Rule 13n-10.
25. In addition to serving as an SDR for the credit and equity derivatives asset classes, DDR has applied to serve as an SDR for what it describes as SBS transactions in the interest rates derivatives asset class. Please provide your views about DDR's description of this asset class. Please also provide your views as to whether DDR has provided sufficient information about how a User reports SBS transaction information in this asset class. Is this information provided sufficient? Why or why not? Please describe any additional information that you believe should be provided.
26. Exchange Act Rule 13n-4(b)(5) requires that an SDR shall provide direct electronic access to the Commission (or any designee of the Commission, including another registered entity). Based on the materials provided in DDR's Form SDR application, please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures are sufficient to meet the
27. Rule 901(i) of Regulation SBSR provides that a person must report information about a pre-enactment SBS or transitional SBS “to the extent that information about such transaction is available.” Is it clear that DDR's policies and procedures, including regarding validations, will allow parties to submit transaction records for pre-enactment SBS and transitional SBS with data elements missing, pursuant to Rule 901(i)?
28. Please provide your views as to whether DDR's policies and procedures relating to how it would conduct validations of transaction records for historic and newly executed SBS are sufficiently detailed to meet the objectives of Exchange Act Rule 13n-5(b)(1)(iii), and what further clarifications, if any, you believe would be appropriate.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. All submissions should refer to File Number SBSDR-2016-02.
To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method of submission. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
Copies of the Form SDR, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the Form SDR that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the Form SDR between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Section, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m.
All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SBSDR-2016-02 and should be submitted on or before August 8, 2016.
On May 5, 2016, the Fixed Income Clearing Corporation (“FICC” or the “Corporation”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) proposed rule change SR-FICC-2016-002 pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FICC seeks the Commission's approval to suspend the interbank service of the GCF Repo® service, as described more fully below. The suspension does not require changes to the text of the Government Securities Division (“GSD”) Rulebook (the “GSD Rules”), however, the suspension requires changes to FICC's Real-Time Trade Matching (“RTTM®”) system.
The GCF Repo service allows dealer members of FICC's Government Services Division to trade general collateral finance repos (“GCF Repos”)
The GCF Repo service has operated on both an “interbank” and “intrabank” basis. “Interbank” means that the two GCF Repo Participants which have been matched in a GCF Repo transaction each clear at a different clearing bank. “Intrabank” means that the two GCF Repo Participants which have been matched in a GCF Repo transaction clear at the same clearing bank.
Since 2011, FICC has made several changes to its GCF Repo service in order to comply with recommendations made by the Tri-Party Repo Infrastructure Reform Task Force (“TPR”), an industry group formed and sponsored by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. The main purpose of the TPR was to develop recommendations to address the risk presented by triparty repo transactions due to the morning reversal (commonly referred to as the “unwind”) process, by replacing it with a process by which transactions are collateralized all day. The GCF Repo service was originally designed to have transactions “unwind” every morning in order to mirror the transactions in the triparty repo market. Prior to Triparty Reform, transactions submitted on “Day 1” unwound on the morning of “Day 2.” To “unwind” means that the securities are returned to the lender of securities in the transaction and the cash is returned to the borrower of securities. Because of certain changes to the way in which the Triparty Reform effort was to proceed
All collateral that is settled via the interbank service is unwound the next morning to FICC's account at the pledging Clearing Bank in order to make the collateral available for collateral substitutions. In order to facilitate this intraday collateral substitution process, the Clearing Banks currently extend credit each business day to FICC at no charge. This uncapped and uncommitted credit extension to FICC facilitates the GCF Repo settlement process for both the intra-day and end of day settlement. The final changes related to the Triparty Reform effort would have eliminated the need for uncapped and uncommitted credit (a TPR goal) by including the development of interactive messages for the collateral substitution process (this was referred to as the “Sub Hub”), which would have eliminated the need for the current morning unwind of interbank GCF Repos, and would have allowed for substitution of collateral across the Clearing Banks with minimal intra-day credit required. The last change was also going to include a streamlined end of day GCF Repo settlement process to reduce the amount of cash and collateral needed in order to complete settlement. This change would have incorporated the concept of a “cap” on FICC credit from the Clearing Banks, and an automated solution would have been developed to process the interbank GCF Repo settlement without breaching the defined and agreed to caps. As a result, the amount of credit that FICC would have needed from the Clearing Banks would have been managed to a minimal amount.
Plans to implement the Sub Hub have not come to fruition. Therefore, to continue providing the interbank service, FICC would need a capped line of credit (without the benefits of any re-design to manage the amounts of needed credit). In other words, the capped line of credit would be applied to the interbank service as the service currently operates, and not in the re-designed fashion that was contemplated by the Triparty Reform effort, which would have allowed for smaller settlement amounts. FICC states that there would be prohibitive operational constraints in attempting to trade and settle GCF Repos while attempting to implement a cap on interbank GCF Repo trading and settlement. Specifically, FICC states that inter-dealer brokers would need to be integrated as a group from a technological perspective in order to be able to track the GCF Repo Participants' real-time netted positions, from an intrabank and interbank perspective, to ensure that the cap is not breached. FICC states that this would require an integrated pre-trade check across each inter-dealer broker's platform and FICC to ensure conformity to the cap, which is not feasible.
FICC seeks to suspend the interbank service of the GCF Repo service because: (1) FICC cannot operate the current interbank service within a capped credit amount; and (2) it is not feasible to institute a pre-trade validation system. FICC seeks to suspend the interbank service of the GCF Repo service after July 15, 2016 (the “Suspension Date”), which is approximately six (6) weeks prior to the date that one of the Clearing Banks has stated it will begin to impose the capped line of credit (September 1, 2016 or the “Capped Charges Date”). According to FICC's proposal, subsequent to the Suspension Date, inter-dealer brokers would only be permitted to execute transactions among GCF Repo Participants within the same Clearing Bank. Inter-dealer brokers would establish two markets for GCF Repo trading—one for each Clearing Bank. This is the same approach that FICC utilized when it previously suspended the interbank service between 2003 and 2008. In addition, GSD would only accept and process transactions among GCF Repo Participants that settle within the same Clearing Bank. As a result, the RTTM® system would not accept and process transactions among GCF Repo Participants who settle at different Clearing Banks. FICC states that it will continue to explore whether there are other ways to re-introduce the interbank service in the future.
Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Act
As described above, Triparty Reform efforts have sought to eliminate the need for Clearing Banks to provide FICC with uncapped and uncommitted credit within the settlement process. Specifically, the Sub Hub project described above, if approved and implemented, would have eliminated the need for the current morning unwind of interbank GCF Repos, and would have allowed for substitution of collateral across the Clearing Banks with minimal intra-day credit required. A streamlined end of day GCF Repo settlement process would have reduced the amount of cash and collateral needed in order to complete settlement, in which circumstances, there would have been a cap on the line of credit from the Clearing Banks to FICC, with an automated solution to process the interbank GCF Repo settlement within the cap. As a result, the amount of credit that FICC would have needed from the Clearing Banks would have been managed to a minimal amount.
However, in the Sub Hub's absence, according to FICC, a capped line of credit without the benefits of any re-design to manage the amounts of needed credit would present prohibitive operational constraints in attempting to trade and settle GCF Repos on an interbank basis. Specifically, inter-dealer brokers would need to be integrated as a group from a technological perspective in order to be able to track the GCF Repo Participants' real-time netted positions to ensure that the cap is not breached. This would require an integrated pre-trade check across each inter-dealer broker's platform and FICC to ensure conformity to the cap, which, FICC states, is not feasible. Accordingly, suspension of the interbank service will enable FICC to avoid accepting GCF Repo trades for clearing in an amount exceeding a Clearing Bank's capped line of credit, while allowing FICC to continue to clear GCF Repo transactions on an intrabank basis, thereby promoting the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions, consistent with section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act, particularly those set forth in section 17A,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend the MIAX Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule to clarify the circumstances that trigger the assessment of fees to, and billing of, Member or Non-Member users of the Exchange's System
New users of the System (and existing users of the System that seek to add connectivity) require testing and certification prior to actual use in the production environment. It has been the Exchange's experience that such users frequently must engage in internal business and technological decision-making and production processes that extend beyond the timing of their application, testing and certification with the Exchange for use of the System in the production environment. In order to ensure that Member and Non-Member users of the System are not assessed fees and billed unnecessarily during this time, the Exchange is proposing the below changes to the Fee Schedule relating to the timing of such assessment and billing.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section 3)a) of the Fee Schedule to provide that MIAX will assess a one-time Membership Application Fee on the earlier of (i) the date the applicant is certified in the membership system, or (ii) once an application for MIAX membership is finally denied.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Section 3)b) of the Fee Schedule to provide that Monthly Trading Permit Fees will be assessed with respect to Electronic Exchange Members (“EEMs”)
The Exchange also proposes to amend Section 4)a) of the Fee Schedule to state that Application Programming Interface (“API”) Testing and Certification Fees for EEMs (other than Clearing Firms) will be assessed (i) initially per API for FIX, FIX Drop Copy (“FXD”)
The Exchange also proposes to amend Section 4)b) of the Fee Schedule to provide that API Testing and Certification Fees for Third Party Vendors, Service Bureaus and other non-Members will be assessed (i) initially per API for FIX, FXD, CTD and MEI in the month the Non-Member has been credentialed to use one or more ports in the production environment for the tested API, and (ii) each time a Third Party Vendor, Service Bureau, or other non-Member initiates a change to its system that requires testing and certification. The Exchange also proposes that such fees will not be assessed in situations where the Exchange initiates a mandatory change to its System requiring testing and certification by Non-Members of the Exchange.
The Exchange additionally proposes to amend Section 4)(c) of the Fee Schedule to provide that Member Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fees will be assessed (i) initially per connection in the month the Individual Firm has been credentialed to use any API or Market Data feeds in the production environment utilizing the tested network connection, and (ii) each time an Individual Firm initiates a change to its system that requires network connectivity testing and certification. The Exchange also proposes that such fees will not be assessed in situations where the Exchange initiates a mandatory change to its System requiring testing and certification by Members of the Exchange.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section 4)d) of the Fee Schedule to provide that Non-Member Network Connectivity Testing and Certification Fees will be assessed (i) initially per connection in the month the Service Bureau, Extranet Provider or other Non-Member has been credentialed to use any API or Market Data feeds in the production environment using the tested network connection, and (ii) each time a Service Bureau, Extranet Provider or other non-Member initiates a change to its system that requires network connectivity testing and certification. The Exchange also proposes that such fees will not be assessed in situations where the Exchange initiates a mandatory change to its System requiring testing and certification by Members of the Exchange.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section 5)a) of the Fee Schedule to provide that Monthly Member Network Connectivity Fees for the applicable connectivity will be assessed in any month the Member is credentialed to use any of the MIAX APIs or Market Data feeds in the production environment and will be pro-rated when a Member makes a change to the connectivity (by adding or deleting connections) with such pro-rated fees based on the number of trading days that the Member has been credentialed to use any of the MIAX APIs or Market Data feeds in the production environment through such connection, divided by the total number of trading days in such month multiplied by the applicable monthly rate.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section 5)b) of the Fee Schedule to provide that Monthly Non-Member Network Connectivity Fees for the applicable connectivity will be assessed in each month the Non-Member has been credentialed to use any of the MIAX APIs or Market Data feeds in the production environment and will be pro-rated when a Non-Member makes a change to the connectivity (by adding or deleting connections) with such pro-rated fees based on the number of trading days that the Non-Member has been credentialed to use any of the MIAX APIs or Market Data feeds via the network connection in the production environment through such connection, divided by the total number of trading days in such month multiplied by the applicable monthly rate.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section 5)d)i) of the Fee Schedule to provide that MIAX will assess monthly FIX Port Fees on Members in each month the Member is credentialed to use a FIX Port in the production environment and based upon the number of credentialed FIX Ports.
The Exchange further proposes to amend Section 5)d)ii) of the Fee Schedule to provide that MIAX will assess monthly MEI Port Fees on Market Makers in each month the Member has been credentialed to use the MEI Port in the production environment and has been assigned to quote in at least one class. The amount of the monthly MEI Port Fee will be based upon the number of classes in which the Market Maker was assigned to quote in any given day within the calendar month, and upon the class volume percentages set forth in the MEI Port Fee table in Section 5)d)ii). The class volume percentage is based on the total national average daily volume in classes listed on MIAX in the prior calendar quarter.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Section 5)d)iii) of the Fee Schedule to provide that CTD Port Fees will be assessed in any month the Member is credentialed to use the CTD Port in the production environment.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Section 5)d)iv) of the Fee Schedule to provide that FXD Port Fees will be assessed in any month the Member is credentialed to use the FXD Port in the production environment.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section 5)e) of the Fee Schedule to provide that MIAX Member Participant Identifier (“MPID”) Fees will be assessed in each month the Member is credentialed to use such MPIDs in the production environment.
The Exchange additionally proposes to amend Section 6 of the Fee Schedule to provide that, with respect to each of the Exchange's data feeds including MIAX Top of Market (“ToM”), Administrative Information Subscriber (“AIS”) and MIAX Order Feed (“MOR”), MIAX will assess Market Data Fees applicable to such data feed on Internal and External Distributors in each month the Distributor is credentialed to use such data feed in the production environment.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to provide all users of the Exchange with greater transparency as to when non-transactional fees will be assessed to such users. The Exchange believes that defining the timing in the Fee Schedule will benefit all market
The Exchange is also proposing minor technical amendments to the Fee Schedule throughout the Fee Schedule (
The proposed rule change will become effective July 1, 2016.
The Exchange believes that its proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The proposed rule change furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(4) of the Act
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed changes would increase both intermarket and intramarket competition by defining the timing of non-transactional fee assessments for all users of the Exchange, thereby creating greater clarity around the Exchange's assessment of such fees for participants that wish to begin and continue using the Exchange's facilities, and enabling them to assess the competitive nature of the fees. This should benefit all market participants and improve competition on the Exchange.
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees and rebates to remain competitive with other exchanges and to attract order flow to the Exchange. The Exchange believes that the proposal will enhance competition, because market participants will have more clarity surrounding when they will be assessed non-transactional fees and will also understand that they will not be assessed such fees until such time as they are ready to use the Exchange.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days after the date of the filing, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On May 5, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
ISE Gemini proposes to amend its rules to extend a pilot program to quote and to trade certain options classes in
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Under the Penny Pilot Program, the minimum price variation for all participating options classes, except for the Nasdaq-100 Index Tracking Stock (“QQQQ”), the SPDR S&P 500 Exchange Traded Fund (“SPY”) and the iShares Russell 2000 Index Fund (“IWM”), is $0.01 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at less than $3 per contract and $0.05 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at $3 per contract or greater. QQQQ, SPY and IWM are quoted in $0.01 increments for all options series. The Penny Pilot Program is currently scheduled to expire on June 30, 2016.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
• Send an Email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Section 6 of the Act sets out a framework for the registration and regulation of national securities exchanges. Under Rule 6a-3, one of the rules that implements Section 6, a national securities exchange (or an exchange exempted from registration based on limited trading volume) must provide certain supplemental information to the Commission, including any material (including notices, circulars, bulletins, lists, and periodicals) issued or made generally available to members of, or participants or subscribers to, the exchange. Rule 6a-3 also requires the exchanges to file monthly reports that set forth the volume and aggregate dollar amount of certain securities sold on the exchange each month. The information required to be filed with the Commission pursuant to Rule 6a-3 is designed to enable the Commission to carry out its statutorily mandated oversight functions and to ensure that registered and exempt exchanges continue to be in compliance with the Act.
The Commission estimates that each respondent makes approximately 12 such filings on an annual basis at an average cost of approximately $20 per response. Currently, 19 respondents (19 national securities exchanges) are subject to the collection of information requirements of Rule 6a-3. The Commission estimates that the total burden for all respondents is 114 hours and $4,560 per year.
Compliance with Rule 6a-3 is mandatory for registered and exempt exchanges. Information received in response to Rule 6a-3 shall not be kept confidential; the information collected is public information. As set forth in Rule 17a-1 (17 CFR 240.17a-1) under the Act, a national securities exchange is required to retain records of the collection of information for at least five years.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order pursuant to (a) section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) granting an exemption from
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants, c/o Brooke A. Fapohunda, Esq., Lord, Abbett & Co. LLC, 90 Hudson Street, Jersey City, NJ 07302.
Kaitlin C. Bottock, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-8658 or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Each Fund is organized as a Maryland corporation or Delaware statutory trust. Each Fund is registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company. Certain of the Funds consist of multiple series and all may offer additional series in the future (such series thereof, each also a “Fund”). Certain of the Funds either are, or may be, money market funds that comply with Rule 2a-7 under the Act (collectively, “Money Market Funds”). Lord Abbett is a Delaware limited liability company and serves as the investment adviser to the Funds.
2. At any particular time, while some Funds are lending money to banks or other entities by entering into repurchase agreements, or purchasing other short-term instruments, other Funds may need to borrow money from the same or similar banks for temporary purposes to satisfy redemption requests, to cover unanticipated cash shortfalls such as a trade “fail” in which cash payment for a security sold by a Fund has been delayed, or for other temporary purposes. Certain Funds currently have a $500 million committed line of credit with State Street Bank & Trust Company (“Committed Credit Facility”) for short-term temporary or emergency purposes, including the funding of shareholder redemptions and trade settlements.
3. When a Fund borrows money under the Committed Credit Facility, it would pay interest on the borrowed cash at a rate that would be higher than the rate that would be earned by other (non-borrowing) Funds on investments in repurchase agreements and other short-term instruments of the same maturity as the bank loan. Applicants assert that this differential represents the profit earned by the lender on loans and is not attributable to any material difference in the credit quality or risk of such transactions.
4. The Funds seek to enter into master interfund lending agreements (“Interfund Lending Agreements”) with each other that would permit each Fund to lend money directly to and borrow money directly from other Funds through an interfund facility (“Facility”) for temporary purposes (“Interfund Loan”). The Money Market Funds typically will not participate as borrowers. It is anticipated that, in order to comply with Rule 2a-7 under the Act, the Money Market Funds will lend through the Facility only if the requisite determinations contemplated by that Rule have been made by Lord Abbett. Applicants state that the Facility would both reduce the Funds' potential borrowing costs and enhance the ability of the lending Funds to earn higher rates of interest on their short-term loans. Although the Facility would reduce the Funds' need to borrow from banks, the Funds would be free to establish committed lines of credit or other borrowing arrangements with unaffiliated banks.
5. Applicants anticipate that the Facility would provide a borrowing Fund with significant savings at times when the cash position of the borrowing Fund is insufficient to meet temporary cash requirements. This situation could arise when shareholder redemptions exceed anticipated volumes and certain Funds have insufficient cash on hand to satisfy such redemptions. When the Funds liquidate portfolio securities to meet redemption requests, they often do not receive payment in settlement for up to three days (or longer for certain transactions). However, redemption requests normally are effected immediately. The Facility would provide a source of immediate, short-term liquidity pending settlement of the sale of portfolio securities.
6. Applicants also anticipate that a Fund could use the Facility when a sale of securities “fails,” for example, due to a delay in the delivery of cash to the Fund's custodian or improper delivery instructions by the broker effecting the
7. While bank borrowings generally could supply needed cash to cover unanticipated redemptions and sales fails, under the Facility, a borrowing Fund would pay lower interest rates than the rate that would be available to the Fund under short-term loans offered by banks. In addition, Funds making short-term cash loans directly to other Funds would earn interest at a rate higher than they otherwise could obtain from investing their cash in repurchase agreements. Thus, applicants assert that the Facility would benefit both borrowing and lending Funds.
8. The interest rate to be charged to the Funds on any Interfund Loan (the “Interfund Loan Rate”) would be the average of the “Repo Rate” and the “Bank Loan Rate,” both as defined below. The Repo Rate for any day would be the highest rate available to a lending Fund from investment in overnight repurchase agreements with counterparties approved by the Fund or Lord Abbett. The Bank Loan Rate for any day would be calculated by the Interfund Lending Committee (as defined below) each day an Interfund Loan is made according to a formula established by each Fund's board of directors or trustees (“Fund Board” and each such director or trustee, a “Director”) that is intended to approximate the lowest interest rate at which short-term bank loans would be available to the Funds. The formula would be based upon a publicly available rate (
9. Certain members of Lord Abbett's Operations, Legal and Compliance Departments would administer the Facility (“Interfund Lending Committee”). No portfolio manager of any Fund will serve as a member of the Interfund Lending Committee. The Facility would be available to any Fund. On any day on which a Fund intends to borrow money, the Interfund Lending Committee would make an Interfund Loan from a lending Fund to a borrowing Fund only if the Interfund Loan Rate is: (i) More favorable to the lending Fund than the Repo Rate; and (ii) more favorable to the borrowing Fund than the Bank Loan Rate. Under the Facility, the portfolio manager(s) for each participating Fund could provide standing instructions to participate daily as a borrower or lender. The Interfund Lending Committee on each business day would collect data on the uninvested cash and borrowing requirements of all participating Funds from the Funds' custodian. The Interfund Lending Committee would allocate loans among borrowing Funds without any further communication from a Fund's portfolio manager(s). Applicants anticipate that there typically will be far more available uninvested cash each day than borrowing demand. Therefore, after the Interfund Lending Committee has allocated cash for Interfund Loans, the Interfund Lending Committee will invest any remaining cash in accordance with the standing instructions of the portfolio manager(s) or such remaining amounts will be invested directly by the Fund's portfolio manager(s).
10. The Interfund Lending Committee would allocate borrowing demand and cash available for lending among the Funds on what the Interfund Lending Committee believes to be an equitable basis, subject to certain administrative procedures applicable to all Funds, such as the time of filing requests to participate, minimum loan lot sizes, and the need to minimize the number of transactions and associated administrative costs. To reduce transaction costs, each InterFund Loan normally would be allocated in a manner intended to minimize the number of participants necessary to complete the loan transaction. The method of allocation and related administrative procedures would be approved by each Fund Board, including a majority of the Directors who are not “interested persons” of the Fund, as that term is defined in section 2(a)(19) of the Act (“Independent Fund Board Members”), to ensure that both borrowing and lending Funds participate on an equitable basis.
11. The Interfund Lending Committee would: (i) Monitor the Interfund Loan Rate and the other terms and conditions of the loans; (ii) limit the borrowings and loans entered into by each Fund to ensure that they comply with the Fund's investment policies and limitations; (iii) ensure equitable treatment of each Fund; and (iv) make quarterly reports to each Fund Board concerning any transactions by the Fund under the Facility and the Interfund Loan Rate charged.
12. Lord Abbett, through the Interfund Lending Committee, would administer the Facility as a disinterested fiduciary as part of its duties under the investment management contract with each Fund and as part of its duties under the administrative services agreement with the Funds, and would receive no additional fee as compensation for its services in connection with the administration of the Facility. No Fund will pay any additional fees in connection with the administration of the Facility (
13. No Fund may participate in the Facility unless: (i) The Fund has obtained shareholder approval for its participation, if such approval is required by law; (ii) the Fund has fully disclosed all material information concerning the Facility in its prospectus and/or statement of additional information (“SAI”); and (iii) the Fund's participation in the Facility is consistent with its investment objectives, investment limitations and organizational documents.
14. As part of each Fund Board's review of the continuing appropriateness of a Fund's participation in the Facility as required by condition 14, the Directors of the Fund, including a majority of the Independent Fund Board Members, also will review the process in place to assess: (i) If the Fund participates as a lender, any effect its participation may have on the Fund's liquidity; and (ii) if the Fund participates as a borrower, whether the Fund's portfolio liquidity is sufficient to satisfy its obligations under the Facility along with its other liquidity needs.
15. In connection with the Facility, applicants request an order pursuant to section 6(c) of the Act exempting them from the provisions of sections 18(f) and 21(b) of the Act; pursuant to section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act exempting them from section 12(d)(1) of the Act;
1. Section 17(a)(3) of the Act generally prohibits any affiliated person of a registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person, from borrowing money or other property from the registered investment company. Section 21(b) of the Act generally prohibits any registered management company from lending money or other property to any person, directly or indirectly, if that person controls or is under common control with that company. Section 2(a)(3)(C) of the Act defines an “affiliated person” of another person, in part, to be any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with, such other person. Section 2(a)(9) of the Act defines “control” as the “power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a company,” but excludes circumstances in which “such power is solely the result of an official position with such company.” Applicants state that the Funds may be under common control by virtue of having Lord Abbett as their common investment adviser and/or by having common officers, directors and/or trustees.
2. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that an exemptive order may be granted where an exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order exempting a proposed transaction from section 17(a) provided that: (i) The terms of the transaction, including the consideration to be paid or received, are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (ii) the transaction is consistent with the policy of the investment company as recited in its registration statement and reports filed under the Act; and (iii) the transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act. Applicants believe that the proposed arrangements satisfy these standards for the reasons discussed below.
3. Applicants assert that sections 17(a)(3) and 21(b) of the Act were intended to prevent a party with strong potential adverse interests to, and some influence over the investment decisions of, a registered investment company from causing or inducing the investment company to engage in lending transactions that unfairly inure to the benefit of such party and that are detrimental to the best interests of the investment company and its shareholders. Applicants assert that the Facility transactions do not raise these concerns because: (i) Lord Abbett, through the Interfund Lending Committee, would administer the program as a disinterested fiduciary as part of its duties under the investment management contract with each Fund and as part of its duties under the administrative services agreement with the Funds; (ii) all Interfund Loans would consist only of uninvested cash reserves that the lending Fund otherwise would invest in short-term repurchase agreements or other short-term instruments; (iii) the Interfund Loans would not involve a significantly greater risk than other such investments; (iv) the lending Fund would earn interest at a rate higher than it could otherwise obtain through such other investments; and (v) the borrowing Fund would pay interest at a rate lower than otherwise available to it under its bank loan agreements. Moreover, applicants assert that the other terms and conditions that applicants propose also would effectively preclude the possibility of any Fund obtaining an undue advantage over any other Fund.
4. Section 17(a)(1) of the Act generally prohibits any affiliated person of a registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person, from selling securities or other property to the investment company. Section 17(a)(2) of the Act generally prohibits any affiliated person of a registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person, from purchasing securities or other property from the investment company. Section 12(d)(1) of the Act generally prohibits any registered investment company from purchasing or otherwise acquiring any security issued by any other investment company except in accordance with the limitations set forth in that section.
5. Applicants state that the obligation of a borrowing Fund to repay an Interfund Loan could be deemed to constitute a security for the purposes of sections 17(a)(1) and 12(d)(1) of the Act. Applicants also state that a pledge of assets in connection with an Interfund Loan could be construed as a purchase of the borrowing Fund's securities or other property for purposes of section 17(a)(2) of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt persons or transactions from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if and to the extent that such exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Applicants contend that the standards under sections 6(c), 17(b), and 12(d)(1)(J) are satisfied for all the reasons set forth above in support of their request for relief from sections 17(a)(3) and 21(b) and for the reasons discussed below. Applicants also state that the requested relief from section 17(a)(2) of the Act meets the standards of section 6(c) and 17(b) because any collateral pledged to secure an Interfund Loan would be subject to the same conditions imposed by any other lender to a Fund that imposes conditions on the quality of or access to collateral for a borrowing (if the lender is another Fund) or the same or better conditions (in any other circumstance).
6. Applicants state that section 12(d)(1) was intended to prevent the pyramiding of investment companies in order to avoid imposing on investors additional and duplicative costs and fees attendant upon multiple layers of investments. Applicants submit that the Facility does not involve these abuses. Applicants note that there will be no duplicative costs or fees to the Funds or their shareholders, and that Lord Abbett will receive no additional compensation for its services in administering the Facility. Applicants also note that the purpose of the Facility is to provide economic benefits for all the participating Funds and their shareholders.
7. Section 18(f)(1) of the Act prohibits any open-end investment company from issuing any senior security except that any such company is permitted to borrow from any bank, provided, that immediately after the borrowing, there is asset coverage of at least 300 per centum for all borrowings of the company. Under section 18(g) of the Act, the term “senior security” generally includes any bond, debenture, note or similar obligation or instrument constituting a security and evidencing indebtedness. Applicants request exemptive relief under section 6(c) from section 18(f)(1) to the limited extent necessary to permit a Fund to borrow directly from other Funds.
8. Applicants believe that granting relief under section 6(c) is appropriate because the Funds would remain subject to the requirement of section 18(f)(1) that all borrowings of a Fund, including combined interfund and bank borrowings, have at least 300% asset coverage. Based on the conditions and safeguards described in the application, applicants also submit that to allow the Funds to borrow from other Funds pursuant to the Facility is consistent
9. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act generally prohibit any affiliated person of a registered investment company, or any affiliated person of such a person, when acting as principal, from effecting any transaction in which the investment company is a joint or joint and several participant, unless, upon application, the transaction has been approved by the Commission. Rule 17d-1(b) under the Act provides that in passing upon an application filed under the rule, the Commission will consider whether the participation of the registered investment company in a joint enterprise, joint arrangement, or profit-sharing plan on the basis proposed is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of the other participants.
10. Applicants assert that the purpose of section 17(d) is to avoid overreaching by and unfair advantage to insiders. Applicants assert that the Facility is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act in that it offers both reduced borrowing costs and enhanced returns on loaned funds to all participating Funds and their shareholders. Applicants note that each Fund would have an equal opportunity to borrow and lend on equal terms consistent with its investment policies and limitations. Applicants assert that each Fund's participation in the Facility would be on terms that are no different from or less advantageous than that of other participating Funds.
Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the following conditions:
1. The Interfund Loan Rate will be the average of the Repo Rate and the Bank Loan Rate.
2. On each business day, the Interfund Lending Committee will compare the Bank Loan Rate with the Repo Rate and will make cash available for Interfund Loans only if the Interfund Loan Rate is: (i) More favorable to the lending Fund than the Repo Rate and (ii) more favorable to the borrowing Fund than the Bank Loan Rate.
3. If a Fund has outstanding bank borrowings, any Interfund Loans to the Fund: (i) Will be at an interest rate equal to or lower than the interest rate of any outstanding bank loan; (ii) will be secured at least on an equal priority basis with at least an equivalent percentage of collateral to loan value as any outstanding bank loan that requires collateral; (iii) will have a maturity no longer than any outstanding bank loan (and in any event not over seven days); and (iv) will provide that, if an event of default by the Fund occurs under any agreement evidencing an outstanding bank loan to the Fund, that event of default will automatically (without need for action or notice by the lending Fund) constitute an immediate event of default under the Interfund Lending Agreement entitling the lending Fund to call the Interfund Loan (and exercise all rights with respect to any collateral) and that such call will be made if the lending bank exercises its right to call its loan under its agreement with the borrowing Fund.
4. A Fund may make an unsecured borrowing through the Facility if its outstanding borrowings from all sources immediately after the interfund borrowing total 10% or less of its total assets, provided that if the Fund has a secured loan outstanding from any other lender, including but not limited to another Fund, the Fund's interfund borrowing will be secured on at least an equal priority basis with at least an equivalent percentage of collateral to loan value as any outstanding loan that requires collateral. If a Fund's total outstanding borrowings immediately after an interfund borrowing would be greater than 10% of its total assets, the Fund may borrow through the Facility only on a secured basis. A Fund may not borrow through the Facility or from any other source if its total outstanding borrowings immediately after such borrowing would be more than 33 1/3% of its total assets.
5. Before any Fund that has outstanding interfund borrowings may, through additional borrowings, cause its outstanding borrowings from all sources to exceed 10% of its total assets, the Fund must first secure each outstanding Interfund Loan by the pledge of segregated collateral with a market value at least equal to 102% of the outstanding principal value of the loan. If the total outstanding borrowings of a Fund with outstanding Interfund Loans exceed 10% of its total assets for any other reason (such as a decline in net asset value or because of shareholder redemptions), the Fund will within one business day thereafter: (i) Repay all its outstanding Interfund Loans; (ii) reduce its outstanding indebtedness to 10% or less of its total assets; or (iii) secure each outstanding Interfund Loan by the pledge of segregated collateral with a market value at least equal to 102% of the outstanding principal value of the loan until the Fund's total outstanding borrowings cease to exceed 10% of its total assets, at which time the collateral called for by this condition (5) shall no longer be required. Until each Interfund Loan that is outstanding at any time that a Fund's total outstanding borrowings exceed 10% is repaid or the Fund's total outstanding borrowings cease to exceed 10% of its total assets, the Fund will mark the value of the collateral to market each day and will pledge such additional collateral as is necessary to maintain the market value of the collateral that secures each outstanding Interfund Loan at least equal to 102% of the outstanding principal value of the Interfund Loan.
6. No Fund may lend to another Fund through the Facility if the loan would cause its aggregate outstanding loans through the Facility to exceed 15% of the lending Fund's current net assets at the time of the loan.
7. A Fund's Interfund Loans to any one Fund shall not exceed 5% of the lending Fund's net assets.
8. The duration of Interfund Loans will be limited to the time required to receive payment for securities sold, but in no event more than seven days. Loans effected within seven days of each other will be treated as separate loan transactions for purposes of this condition.
9. A Fund's borrowings through the Facility, as measured on the day when the most recent loan was made, will not exceed the greater of 125% of the Fund's total net cash redemptions for the preceding seven calendar days or 102% of the Fund's sales fails for the preceding seven calendar days.
10. Each Interfund Loan may be called on one business day's notice by a lending Fund and may be repaid on any day by a borrowing Fund.
11. A Fund's participation in the Facility must be consistent with its investment objectives, investment limitations, and organizational documents.
12. The Interfund Lending Committee will calculate total Fund borrowing and lending demand through the Facility, and allocate loans on an equitable basis among the Funds, without the intervention of a Fund's portfolio manager(s). The Interfund Lending Committee will not solicit cash for the Facility from any Fund or prospectively publish or disseminate loan demand data to any portfolio manager. The Interfund Lending Committee will invest any amounts remaining after satisfaction of borrowing demand in accordance with the standing instructions of the portfolio manager(s) or such remaining amounts will be invested directly by the Fund's portfolio manager(s).
13. The Interfund Lending Committee will monitor the Interfund Loan Rates charged and the other terms and conditions of the Interfund Loans and will make a quarterly report to each Fund Board concerning the participation of the Funds in the Facility and the terms and other conditions of any extensions of credit under the Facility.
14. Each Fund Board, including a majority of the Independent Fund Board Members, will:
(a) review, no less frequently than quarterly, the relevant Fund's participation in the Facility during the preceding quarter for compliance with the conditions of any order permitting such transactions;
(b) establish the Bank Loan Rate formula used to determine the interest rate on Interfund Loans and review, no less frequently than annually, the continuing appropriateness of the Bank Loan Rate formula; and
(c) review, no less frequently than annually, the continuing appropriateness of the relevant Fund's participation in the Facility.
15. In the event an Interfund Loan is not paid according to its terms and such default is not cured within two business days from its maturity or from the time the lending Fund makes a demand for payment under the provisions of the Interfund Lending Agreement, Lord Abbett promptly will refer such loan for arbitration to an independent arbitrator selected by each Fund Board involved in the loan who will serve as arbitrator of disputes concerning Interfund Loans.
16. Each Fund will maintain and preserve for a period of not less than six years from the end of the fiscal year in which any transaction by it under the Facility occurred, the first two years in an easily accessible place, written records of all such transactions setting forth a description of the terms of the transactions, including the amount, the maturity, and the Interfund Loan Rate, the rate of interest available at the time the Interfund Loan is made on overnight repurchase agreements and bank borrowings, and such other information presented to the Fund Board in connection with the review required by conditions (13) and (14).
17. The Interfund Lending Committee will prepare and submit to each Fund Board for review an initial report describing the operations of the Facility and the procedures to be implemented to ensure that all Funds are treated fairly. After the commencement of the Facility, the Interfund Lending Committee will provide quarterly reports on the operations of the Facility to each Fund Board. Each Fund's chief compliance officer, as defined in Rule 38a-1(a)(4) under the Act (a “Fund CCO”), shall prepare an annual report for its Fund Board for each year that the Fund participates in the Facility, which report evaluates the Fund's compliance with the terms and conditions of the application and the procedures established to achieve such compliance.
Additionally, each Fund CCO will also annually file a certification pursuant to Item 77Q3 of Form N-SAR, as such Form may be revised, amended, or superseded from time to time (“N-SAR”), for each year that the Fund participates in the Facility, that certifies that the Fund and Lord Abbett have established procedures reasonably designed to achieve compliance with the terms and conditions of the order. In particular, the certification will address procedures designed to achieve the following objectives:
(a) That the Interfund Loan Rate will be higher than the Repo Rate, but lower than the Bank Loan Rate;
(b) compliance with the collateral requirements as set forth in the application;
(c) compliance with the percentage limitations on interfund borrowing and lending;
(d) allocation of interfund borrowing and lending demand in an equitable manner and in accordance with procedures established by the Fund Board; and
(e) that the interest rate on any Interfund Loan does not exceed the interest rate on any third-party borrowings of a borrowing Fund at the time of the Interfund Loan.
Additionally, each Fund's independent registered public accountants, in connection with their audit examination of the Fund, will review the operation of the Facility for compliance with the conditions of the application and their review will form the basis, in part, of the auditor's report on internal accounting controls in Form N-SAR.
18. No Fund will participate in the Facility upon receipt of the requisite regulatory and shareholder approval unless it has fully disclosed in its prospectus and/or SAI all material facts about its intended participation.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
On March 15, 2016, The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
Amendment No. 2 also revised the proposal to explicitly permit the required disclosure to be made in an information statement in addition to other ways specified in the proposal; limit the required disclosure to the material terms of agreements or arrangements relating to compensation and payments in connection with a person's board service or candidacy; and permit Web site disclosure through a hyperlink to another Web site, provided that the other Web site is continuously accessible. Amendment No. 2 also added that a foreign private issuer would be permitted to follow home country practice in lieu of the proposal's requirements provided that it complies with the conditions set forth in Nasdaq Rule 5615. In addition, the amendment revised the effective date of the disclosure requirements to thirty days after Commission approval of the proposed rule and included a statement from Nasdaq that it would notify listed companies of the effective date.
Nasdaq is proposing to adopt Rule 5250(b)(3) to require each listed company to publicly disclose the material terms of all agreements or arrangements between any director or nominee for director on the company's board and any person or entity other than the company relating to compensation or other payment in connection with that person's candidacy or service as a director.
The proposal as modified by Amendment No. 2 would require a listed company to disclose this information either on or through the company' Web site or in the definitive proxy or information statement
The proposed rule states that a Company must make the disclosure required by the rule at least annually until the earlier of the resignation of the director or one year following the termination of the agreement or arrangement.
The proposal further provides that if a company undertakes reasonable efforts to identify all such agreements or arrangements, including asking each director or nominee in a manner designed to allow timely disclosure, and makes the required remedial disclosure promptly if it discovers an agreement or arrangement that should have been disclosed but was not, then the company will not be considered deficient with respect to the rule.
The Exchange also proposes to make a change to Nasdaq Listing Rule 5615, which permits foreign private issuers to follow their home country practice in lieu of certain corporate governance requirements of the Exchange, provided that the issuer fulfills the conditions set forth in that rule. Under the proposal, the required disclosure of third-party payments to directors will be included among the rule provisions where a foreign private issuer would be permitted to follow home country practice.
As previously stated, the Commission received a total of eight comment letters from seven commenters.
One comment letter stated its aim as ensuring that Nasdaq was fully informed as it considered whether to move forward with the proposed rule change, in view of what it described as the somewhat complex arrangements that can exist when a board member of an issuer is a general partner of a venture capital fund partnership that owns a substantial interest in the issuer and is also a member or an associate of the venture capital firm that formed the venture capital fund.
Finally, two commenters recommended that the proposed rule change not be approved.
The other commenter opposing approval of the proposed rule change, similarly, believed that proposal “may be duplicative” because the Commission already has rules that “may already address the disclosures covered in the proposed rule change.”
In its Response Letter, Nasdaq cited the letters that had been received in support of its proposed rule change, noting that the submitters of these letters shared the Exchange's view that the proposed disclosures would be meaningful to shareholders and relevant to their investment and voting decisions. In response to the view of opposing commenters that existing Commission regulations may already require the disclosure mandated by the proposed rule, Nasdaq noted that the proposal would not require separate disclosure when disclosure sufficient to satisfy the proposed rule has been made by a company under existing Commission proxy rules. Acknowledging that there are various Commission rules that may, in some circumstances, apply to third party director payments, Nasdaq stated, nonetheless, that the nature, scope and timing of these required disclosures may not in all cases be the same as the disclosure mandated by its proposal.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
The development, implementation, and enforcement of standards governing the initial and continued listing of securities on an exchange are activities of critical importance to financial markets and the investing public. Listing requirements, among other things, serve as a means for an exchange to provide listed status only to companies that meet certain initial and continued quantitative and qualitative
The majority of the commenters, as described above, were supportive of the proposal and thought it was important to ensure that investors have material information about third party payments to nominees and existing directors. Two commenters, however, requested that the
The Commission recognizes that there may be some overlap with Commission disclosure requirements. Depending on the facts and circumstances, various provisions under the federal securities laws, such as Items 401(a) and 402(k) of Regulation S-K, Item 5(b) of Schedule 14A, and Item 5.02(d) of Form 8-K, may require disclosure of third party compensation arrangements with or payments to nominees and/or board members.
The proposal contains certain exceptions to address some of the concerns raised by commenters about overlap with Commission rules. For example, an exception is provided for disclosure of arrangements or agreements that have been disclosed under Item 5(b) of Schedule 14A or Item 5.02(d) of Form 8-K in the current fiscal year. In addition, in Amendment No. 2, Nasdaq made clear that if, in response to a Commission disclosure requirement, a company provides disclosure in a definitive proxy or information statement sufficient to comply with the proposed rule, such disclosure would also satisfy the company's disclosure obligation under the Nasdaq rule. Further, the proposal permits listed companies, to the extent the disclosure is not otherwise required in a proxy or information statement, to disclose the information on a Web site, either directly or through a hyperlink. This should help to mitigate any disclosure burden on companies that have already provided the required disclosure in a prior Commission filing because the rule only would require the company to post a link to that filing on its Web site.
To the extent, there are certain factual scenarios that would require disclosure not otherwise required under Commission rules, we believe that it is within the purview of a national securities exchange to impose heightened governance requirements, consistent with the Act, that are designed to improve transparency and accountability into corporate decision making and promote investor confidence in the integrity of the securities markets.
Concerning the instant proposal, to the extent that it would, in certain situations, provide investors and market participants additional information to make informed investment and voting decisions, we believe it is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
Finally, the Commission notes that certain changes and clarifications were made to the proposal by Nasdaq in response to comments. Amendment No. 2 clarified that non-cash compensation includes indemnification and further clarified in the proposed rule language that the material terms of the agreement or arrangement that need to be disclosed are those relating to compensation and not limited to cash payments. Further, Nasdaq amended the rule language concerning an exception to disclosure relating to relationships that existed prior to a nominee's candidacy. That proposed change states that no additional disclosure is required if the prior relationship between the nominee and the third party has been publicly disclosed in a definitive proxy or
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether Amendment No. 2 is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 2, prior to the 30th day after the date of publication of the notice of Amendment No. 2 in the
Because Amendment No. 2 provided additional transparency to the disclosure requirements imposed by the proposed rule change, enhanced its provisions, and provided a revised date of effectiveness which will allow listed companies time to comply with the new requirements, the Commission finds good cause for approving the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 2, on an accelerated basis, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The ISE proposes to amend its rules to extend a pilot program to quote and to trade certain options classes in penny increments (“Penny Pilot Program”). The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Under the Penny Pilot Program, the minimum price variation for all participating options classes, except for the Nasdaq-100 Index Tracking Stock (“QQQQ”), the SPDR S&P 500 Exchange Traded Fund (“SPY”) and the iShares Russell 2000 Index Fund (“IWM”), is $0.01 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at less than $3 per contract and $0.05 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at $3 per contract or greater. QQQQ, SPY and IWM are quoted in $0.01 increments for all options series. The Penny Pilot Program is currently scheduled to expire on June 30, 2016.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
• Send an Email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Social Security Administration.
Notice of revised transaction fee for consent based Social Security number verification service.
We provide fee-based Social Security number (SSN) verification service to enrolled private businesses and government agencies who obtain a valid, signed consent form from the Social Security number holder. We originally published a notice announcing the CBSV service in the
Based on the consent forms, we verify the number holders' SSNs for the requesting party. The Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a(b)), section 1106 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1306) and our regulation at 20 CFR 401.100, establish the legal authority for us to provide SSN verifications to third party requesters based on consent.
The CBSV process provides the business community and other government entities with consent-based SSN verifications in high volume. We developed CBSV as a user-friendly, internet-based application with safeguards that will protect the public's information. In addition to the benefit of providing high volume, centralized SSN verification services to the business community in a secure manner, CBSV provides us with cost and workload management benefits.
Based on the most recent cost analysis, we will adjust the fiscal year 2017 fee to $1.00 per SSN verification transaction. New customers will still be responsible for the one-time $5,000 enrollment fee.
The changes described above are effective October 1, 2016.
Michael Wilkins, Office of Data Exchange and Policy Publications, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, [410-966-4965], for more information about the CBSV service, visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
Florida Central Railroad Company, Inc. (Florida Central), filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR part 1152, subpart F—
Florida Central has certified that: (1) No local traffic has moved over the Line for at least two years; (2) there is no overhead traffic to be rerouted over other lines; (3) no formal complaint filed by a user of rail service on the Line (or by a state or local government entity acting on behalf of such user) regarding cessation of service over the Line is pending either with the Surface Transportation Board or any U.S. District Court or has been decided in favor of a complainant within the two-year period; and (4) the requirements at 49 CFR 1105.12 (newspaper publication) and 49 CFR 1152.50(d)(1) (notice to governmental agencies) have been met.
As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the discontinuance of service shall be protected under
Provided no formal expression of intent to file an offer of financial assistance (OFA) to subsidize continued rail service has been received, this exemption will become effective on August 6, 2016, unless stayed pending reconsideration. Petitions to stay that do not involve environmental issues and formal expressions of intent to file an OFA to subsidize continued rail service under 49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2)
A copy of any petition filed with the Board should be sent to Florida Central's representative: Audrey L. Brodrick, Fletcher & Sippel LLC, 29 North Wacker Drive, Suite 920, Chicago, IL 60606.
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at “
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Susquehanna River Basin Commission.
Notice.
The Susquehanna River Basin Commission will hold a public hearing on August 4, 2016, in Harrisburg, Pennsylvania. At this public hearing, the Commission will hear testimony on the projects listed in the Supplementary Information section of this notice. The Commission will also hear testimony on a proposal to rescind its Information Technology Services Fee Policy. Such projects and the proposal are intended to be scheduled for Commission action at its next business meeting, tentatively scheduled for September 8, 2016, which will be noticed separately. The public should take note that this public hearing will be the only opportunity to offer oral comment to the Commission for the listed projects and proposal. The deadline for the submission of written comments is August 15, 2016.
The public hearing will convene on August 4, 2016, at 2:30 p.m. The public hearing will end at 5:00 p.m. or at the conclusion of public testimony, whichever is sooner. The deadline for the submission of written comments is August 15, 2016.
The public hearing will be conducted at the Pennsylvania State Capitol, Room 8E-B, East Wing, Commonwealth Avenue, Harrisburg, PA.
Jason Oyler, General Counsel, telephone: (717) 238-0423, ext. 1312; fax: (717) 238-2436. Information concerning the applications for these projects is available at the SRBC Water Resource Portal at
The public hearing will cover a proposed rescission to the Commission's Information Technology Services Fee Policy, as posted on the SRBC Public Participation Center Web page at
1. Project Sponsor and Facility: Bloomfield Borough Water Authority, Centre Township, Perry County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.302 mgd (30-day average) from Well 3.
2. Project Sponsor and Facility: Cabot Oil & Gas Corporation (Susquehanna River), Great Bend Township, Susquehanna County, PA. Application for renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 2.000 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 20120904).
3. Project Sponsor and Facility: Elizabethtown Area Water Authority, Elizabethtown Borough, Lancaster County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.201 mgd (30-day average) from Well 1.
4. Project Sponsor and Facility: Elizabethtown Area Water Authority, Mount Joy Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.106 mgd (30-day average) from Well 3.
5. Project Sponsor and Facility: Elizabethtown Area Water Authority, Elizabethtown Borough, Lancaster County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.130 mgd (30-day average) from Well 4.
6. Project Sponsor and Facility: Elizabethtown Area Water Authority, Mount Joy Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.187 mgd (30-day average) from Well 8.
7. Project Sponsor and Facility: Elizabethtown Area Water Authority, Mount Joy Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.216 mgd (30-day average) from Well 9.
8. Project Sponsor: Exelon Generation Company, LLC. Project Facility: Muddy Run Pumped Storage Project, Drumore and Martic Townships, Lancaster County, PA. Application for an existing hydroelectric facility.
9. Project Sponsor and Facility: Geisinger Health System, Mahoning Township, Montour County, PA. Modification to increase consumptive water use by an additional 0.319 mgd (peak day), for a total consumptive water use of up to 0.499 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 19910103).
10. Project Sponsor and Facility: Gilberton Power Company, West Mahanoy Township, Schuylkill County, PA. Application for renewal of consumptive water use of up to 1.510 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 19851202).
11. Project Sponsor and Facility: Gilberton Power Company, West Mahanoy Township, Schuylkill County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 1.870 mgd (30-day average) from the Gilberton Mine Pool.
12. Project Sponsor and Facility: Manbel Devco I, LP, Manheim Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 4.320 mgd (30-day average) from the Belmont Quarry.
13. Project Sponsor: Pennsylvania American Water Company. Project Facility: Nittany Water System, Walker Township, Centre County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.432 mgd (30-day average) from Nittany Well 1.
14. Project Sponsor and Facility: Republic Services of Pennsylvania, LLC, Windsor and Lower Windsor Townships, York County, PA. Application for renewal of groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.350 mgd (30-day average) from groundwater remediation wells (Docket No. 19860903).
15. Project Sponsor and Facility: SWN Production Company, LLC, Herrick Township, Bradford County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.101 mgd (30-day average) from the Fields Supply Well.
16. Project Sponsor and Facility: Talisman Energy USA Inc. (Susquehanna River), Sheshequin Township, Bradford County, PA. Application for renewal of surface water withdrawal of up to 1.500 mgd (peak day) (Docket No. 20120912).
17. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Chiques Creek), West Hempfield Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
18. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Conestoga River-1), Conestoga Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
19. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Conestoga River-1), Conestoga Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for consumptive water use of up to 0.100 mgd (peak day).
20. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Conestoga River-2), Conestoga Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.592 mgd (peak day).
21. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line
22. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Deep Creek), Hegins Township, Schuylkill County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
23. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Fishing Creek), Sugarloaf Township, Columbia County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.592 mgd (peak day).
24. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Little Fishing Creek), Mount Pleasant Township, Columbia County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
25. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Pequea Creek), Martic Township, Lancaster County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
26. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Roaring Creek), Franklin Township, Columbia County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
27. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Susquehanna River), Eaton Township, Wyoming County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.592 mgd (peak day).
28. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Susquehanna River), Eaton Township, Wyoming County, PA. Application for consumptive water use of up to 0.100 mgd (peak day).
29. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Susquehanna River-1), Montour Township and Catawissa Borough, Columbia County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
30. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Susquehanna River-1), Montour Township and Catawissa Borough, Columbia County, PA. Application for consumptive water use of up to 0.100 mgd (peak day).
31. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Susquehanna River-2), Montour Township, Columbia County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
32. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Susquehanna River-2), Montour Township, Columbia County, PA. Application for consumptive water use of up to 0.100 mgd (peak day).
33. Project Sponsor and Facility: Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC. Project: Atlantic Sunrise (Swatara Creek), East Hanover Township, Lebanon County, PA. Application for surface water withdrawal of up to 2.880 mgd (peak day).
34. Project Sponsor and Facility: Village of Windsor, Broome County, NY. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.380 mgd (30-day average) from Well 2.
35. Project Sponsor and Facility: West Manchester Township Authority, West Manchester Township, York County, PA. Application for groundwater withdrawal of up to 0.216 mgd (30-day average) from Well 7.
Interested parties may appear at the hearing to offer comments to the Commission on any project or proposal listed above. The presiding officer reserves the right to limit oral statements in the interest of time and to otherwise control the course of the hearing. Rules of conduct will be posted on the Commission's Web site,
Pub. L. 91-575, 84 Stat. 1509
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology, Department of Transportation.
Notice.
The Department of Transportation, through the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology (OST-R), is providing notice to the public that it will conduct additional testing of Global Positioning System/Global Navigation Satellite System (“GPS/GNSS”) receivers this July as part of the DOT Adjacent Band Compatibility Study (“the Study”). The goal of the Study is to evaluate the adjacent radio frequency band power levels that can be tolerated by GPS/GNSS receivers, and advance the Department's understanding of the extent to which such power levels impact devices used for transportation safety purposes, among other GPS/GNSS applications. In April 2016, radiated testing of GNSS devices took place in an anechoic chamber at the U.S. Army Research Laboratory at the White Sands Missile Range (WSMR) facility in New Mexico.
The Study provides for testing categories of receivers that include aviation (non-certified), cellular, general location/navigation, high precision and networks, timing, and space-based receivers. Approximately twelve receivers, representing each of these receiver categories, will be selected for additional testing from those receivers tested in April.
Stephen Mackey at the DOT/OST-R Volpe National Transportation Systems Center at
The Department obtained input from broad public outreach over the past year that included four public meetings with stakeholders on September 18 and December 4, 2014, and March 12 and October 2, 2015, public issuance of a draft test plan on September 9, 2015 (s
Discussion at the DOT public meetings highlighted the importance of conducting GPS/GNSS receiver acquisition testing which had always been planned as part of the DOT GPS Adjacent Band Compatibility Assessment, but was not feasible due to time constraints during the radiated test conducted at WSMR in April. The goal of the additional lab testing to be conducted at Zeta Associates in Fairfax, Virginia and MITRE Corporation in Bedford, Massachusetts, is:
(1) Receiver characterization for comparison with results obtained in April at the anechoic chamber at the U.S. Army Research Laboratory;
(2) Evaluation of Out Of Band Emission (OOBE) interference at prescribed and proposed levels with Long Term Evolution (LTE) uplink and downlink signals;
(3) GPS/GNSS signal acquisition characterization.
The same instrumentation will be used for these conducted tests at the Zeta Associates laboratory as for the radiated test at the U.S. Army Research Laboratory at WSMR, utilizing the same GNSS playback system and interference generation equipment with modifications to support OOBE and acquisition test requirements;
(4) Antenna characterizations.
The acquisition test will be conducted using 10 MHz LTE signals at four frequencies:
Information referenced in this Notice and further background can be viewed at:
Bureau of the Fiscal Service, Fiscal Service, Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
This is Supplement No. 11 to the Treasury Department Circular 570, 2015 Revision, published July 1, 2015, at 80 FR 37735.
Surety Bond Section at (202) 874-6850.
Notice is hereby given that the Certificate of Authority issued by the Treasury to the above-named company under 31 U.S.C. 9305 to qualify as an acceptable surety on Federal bonds will not be renewed, effective June 30, 2016. Federal bond-approving officials should annotate their reference copies of the Treasury Department Circular 570 (“Circular”), 2015 Revision, to reflect this change.
With respect to any bonds currently in force with the company, bond-approving officers may let such bonds run to expiration and need not secure new bonds. However, no new bonds should be accepted from the company, and bonds that are continuous in nature should not be renewed.
The Circular may be viewed and downloaded through the Internet at
Questions concerning this notice may be directed to the U.S. Department of the Treasury, Bureau of the Fiscal Service, Financial Accounting and Services Division, Surety Bond Section, 3700 East-West Highway, Room 6D22, Hyattsville, MD 20782.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C., App. 2, that the Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses will meet on August 8-9, 2016, in the auditorium of Building 7 at the San Francisco VA Medical Center, 4150 Clement Street, San Francisco, CA, from 9:00 a.m. until 4:15 p.m. (Pacific) on August 8 and from 8:30 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. on August 9. All sessions will be open to the public, and for interested parties who cannot attend in person, there is a toll-free telephone number (800) 767-1750; access code 56978#.
The purpose of the Committee is to provide advice and make recommendations to the Secretary of Veterans Affairs on proposed research studies, research plans, and research strategies relating to the health consequences of military service in the Southwest Asia theater of operations during the Gulf War in 1990-1991.
The Committee will review VA program activities related to Gulf War Veterans' illnesses, and updates on relevant scientific research published since the last Committee meeting. Presentations will include updates on the VA Gulf War Research Program, along with presentations describing new areas of research that can be applied to the health problems of Gulf War Veterans. Also, there will be a discussion of Committee business and activities.
The meeting will include time reserved for public comments each afternoon. A sign-up sheet for 5-minute comments will be available at the meeting. Individuals who wish to address the Committee may submit a 1-2 page summary of their comments for inclusion in the official meeting record. Members of the public may also submit written statements for the Committee's review to Dr. Victor Kalasinsky via email at
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
This document updates the Cost-Based and Inter-Agency billing rates for medical care or services provided by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) that apply in certain circumstances.
The rates set forth herein are effective July 7, 2016 and until further notice.
Romona Greene, Chief Business Office (10NB), Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 382-2521. (This is not a toll free number.)
VA's methodology for computing Cost-Based and Inter-Agency billing rates for medical care or services provided by VA is set forth in 38 CFR 17.102(h). Two sets of rates are obtained by applying this methodology, Cost-Based rates and Inter-Agency rates. Cost-Based rates apply to medical care and services that are provided by VA:
(a) In error or based on tentative eligibility;
(b) In a medical emergency;
(c) To pensioners of allied nations; and
(d) For research purposes in circumstances under which the VA Medical Services appropriation is to be reimbursed by the VA Research appropriation.
Inter-Agency rates apply to medical care and services that are provided by VA to beneficiaries of the Department of Defense (DoD) or other Federal agencies, when the care or services provided is not covered by an applicable sharing agreement. The Inter-Agency rates contained in this notice do not apply to sharing agreements between VA and DoD, unless otherwise stated. The calculations for the Cost-Based and Inter-Agency rates are the same with two exceptions. Inter-Agency rates are all-inclusive, and are not broken down into three components (Physician; Ancillary; and Nursing, Room and Board), and Inter-Agency rates do not include standard fringe benefit costs that cover government employee retirement, disability costs, and return on fixed assets. When VA pays for medical care or services from a non-VA source under circumstances in which the Cost-Based or Inter-Agency Rates would apply if the care or services had been provided by VA, the charge for such care or services will be the actual amount paid by VA for the care or services. Inpatient charges will be at the per diem rates shown for the type of bed section or discrete treatment unit providing the care.
The following table depicts the Cost-Based and Inter-Agency Rates that are effective upon publication of this notice and will remain in effect until the next
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Gina S. Farrisee, Deputy Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on June 30, 2016, for publication.
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) adopts rules to implement a competitive bidding process for Phase II of the Connect America Fund that will harness market forces to expand broadband in targeted rural areas. The Commission also adopts rules to establish the framework for the Remote Areas Fund auction to address those areas that receive no winning bids in the Phase II auction.
Effective August 8, 2016, except for the amendments to §§ 1.21001(b)(6), 54.313(e)(2), 54.315, 54.316(a)(4), (b)(4) and (5), and (c)(2), 54.804 (b) through (d), and 54.806, which contain new or modified information collection requirements that will not be effective until approved by the Office of Management and Budget. The Federal Communications Commission will publish a document in the
Alexander Minard, Wireline Competition Bureau, (202) 418-0428 or TTY: (202) 418-0484.
This is a summary of the Commission's Report and Order in WC Docket Nos. 10-90, 14-58, 14-259; FCC 16-64, adopted on May 25, 2016 and released on May 26, 2016. The full text of this document is available for public inspection during regular business hours in the FCC Reference Center, Room CY-A257, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554, or at the following Internet address:
The Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (FNPRM) that was adopted concurrently with the Report and Order is published elsewhere in this issue of the
1. Over the last several years, the Commission has engaged in a modernization of its universal service regime to support networks capable of providing voice and broadband, including developing a new forward-looking cost model to calculate the cost of providing service in rural and high-cost areas. In 2015, 10 price cap carriers accepted an offer of Phase II support calculated by a cost model in exchange for a state-level commitment to deploy and maintain voice and broadband service in the high-cost areas in their respective states. With this Report and Order (Order), the Commission now adopts rules to implement a competitive bidding process for Phase II of the Connect America Fund.
2. Specifically, building on decisions already made by the Commission, in this Order, the Commission:
• Adopt public interest obligations for recipients of support awarded through the Phase II competitive bidding process, that will be known in advance of the auction and that will continue for the duration of the term of support, recognizing that competitive bidding is likely to be more efficient if potential bidders know what their performance standards will be before bids are made. In particular, the Commission establishes four technology-neutral tiers of bids available for bidding with varying speed and usage allowances, all at reasonably comparable rates, and for each tier will differentiate between bids that would commit to either lower or higher latency.
○ The Commission's minimum performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide broadband speeds of at least 10 Mbps downstream and 1 Mbps upstream (10/1 Mbps) and offer at least 150 gigabytes (GB) of monthly usage.
○ The Commission's baseline performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide at least 25 Mbps downstream and 3 Mbps upstream (25/3 Mbps) and offer a minimum usage allowance of 150 GB per month, or that reflects the average usage of a majority of fixed broadband customers, using Measuring Broadband America data or a similar data source, whichever is higher.
○ The Commission's above-baseline performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide at least 100 Mbps downstream and 20 Mbps upstream (100/20 Mbps) and offer an unlimited monthly usage allowance.
○ The Commission's Gigabit performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide at least 1 Gigabit per second (Gbps) downstream and 500 Mbps upstream and offer an unlimited monthly usage allowance.
○ For each of the four tiers, bidders will designate one of two latency performance levels: (1) Low latency bidders will be required to meet 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of network round trip latency at or below 100 milliseconds (ms), or (2) High latency bidders will be required to meet 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of network round trip latency at or below 750 ms and, with respect to voice performance, demonstrate a score of four or higher using the Mean Opinion Score (MOS).
• Adopt the same interim service milestones for winning bidders in the Phase II auction as for price cap carriers that accepted Phase II model-based support.
• Finalize the Commission's decisions regarding areas eligible for the Phase II competitive bidding process.
• Establish a budget for the Phase II competitive bidding process of $215 million in annual support.
• Provide general guidance on auction design, with the specific details to be determined by the Commission at a future date in the
• Adopt a two-step application process, similar to Commission spectrum auctions and the Mobility Fund Phase I and Tribal Mobility Fund Phase I auctions. In the pre-auction short-form application, a potential bidder will need to establish its baseline financial and technical capabilities in order to be eligible to bid. In the long-form review process, winning bidders will be required to provide additional information regarding their qualifications. They will be required to obtain an acceptable letter of credit and designation as an eligible telecommunications carrier (ETC) before funding is authorized.
• Establish a baseline forfeiture for bidders that default before funding authorization.
• Establish a 180-day post-auction deadline for winning bidders to submit proof of their ETC designation during long-form review and forbear from the section 214(e)(5) service area conformance requirements.
• Adopt reporting requirements that will enable the Commission to monitor
• Adopt rules to establish the framework for the Remote Areas Fund, which will award support through a competitive bidding process to occur expeditiously after conclusion of the Phase II auction.
3.
4. The following charts summarize the Commission's approach:
5. The tiers set forth below are grounded in prior Commission Orders setting performance obligations requirements for speed and usage, as well as latency, that together must be met for the receipt of high-cost universal service support, and reflect the diversity of broadband offerings in the marketplace today. The Commission wants to maximize the number of consumers served within its finite budget. At the same time, the Commission sees the value to consumers in rural markets of having access to service during the 10-year term of support that exceeds its baseline requirements. The Commission wants to ensure that rural America is not left behind, and the consumers in those areas benefit from innovation and advances in technology. All things considered, the Commission values higher speeds over lower speeds, higher usage allowances over lower usage allowances, and lower latency over higher latency. The Commission also sees the benefits to achieving its other universal service objectives if a Phase II service provider will be able to provide broadband adequate to meet the needs of the entire community, including schools, libraries and rural health care providers, potentially reducing the overall cost of USF to consumers.
6. As discussed further below, all bids will be considered simultaneously, so that bidders that propose to meet one set of performance standards will be directly competing against bidders that propose to meet other performance standards. The Commission believes that this approach strikes a balance by providing sufficient granularity with respect to the performance characteristics of broadband offerings, while maintaining an auction design that will encourage a broad range of providers to participate in the auction. The Commission discusses its approach to ranking these service tiers below and seeks comment in the concurrently adopted Further Notice on auction procedures to assign weights to each tier and latency combination.
7. The Commission recognizes that some commenters have expressed concerns that it is difficult to plan a network deployment not knowing the performance obligations that may exist at the end of the 10-year term. Competitive bidding is likely to be more efficient if potential bidders know what their performance standards will be before bids are made. The Commission finds that establishing the service requirements now is preferable to doing so after support has been awarded, as it will provide more certainty for potential bidders. Winning bidders that comply with the performance requirements the Commission establishes today for each tier of service for the duration of the 10-year term will be deemed in compliance even if the Commission subsequently establishes different standards in a later proceeding (
8.
9. The Commission does so in recognition that some bidders may not be able to meet the speed requirement it establishes below for baseline performance in some areas. For example, there may be some areas where wireline telecommunications carriers—either incumbents or competitive carriers—may extend fiber closer to the end user but will only be able to provide 10/1 Mbps service. Providing flexibility for bidders to relax the speed standard where necessary will enable a broader range of providers to participate in the Phase II competitive bidding process.
10. The Commission is not persuaded to further roll back the minimum speed for Phase II to 4/1 Mbps, as WISPA and USTelecom have suggested. The Commission found ample basis in the record for revising the minimum speed requirement to 10/1 Mbps, when it did so in December 2014, and the most recent data indicate that a majority of Americans subscribe to speeds today that are higher than 10/1 Mbps.
11. The Commission recognizes that wireless and satellite providers have argued that a minimum usage allowance of even 100 GB is unrealistic for spectrum-based networks that have capacity limitations, and that the standards should be set at levels that do not exclude spectrum-based services.
12. Similarly, the Commission is not persuaded that it should relax this requirement to permit bidders to provide only 50 GB of usage, as suggested by one commenter. Winning bidders will be receiving support that will enable them to offer a service plan with the required usage allowance, and they will be free to offer other service plans with a lower usage allowance at a lower price, which may well prove attractive to consumers in the marketplace. The Commission is requiring only that at least one offering in Phase II funded areas meets or exceeds all requirements.
13.
14. For usage, consistent with the approach recently adopted for rate-of-return carriers electing the voluntary path to the model, the Commission requires bidders in this baseline tier to offer over the course of the 10-year term a minimum usage allowance of 150 GB per month, or a usage allowance that reflects the average usage of a majority of fixed broadband customers, using Measuring Broadband America data or a similar data source, whichever is higher, at a price that is reasonably comparable to similar offerings in urban areas. The Commission concludes that this standard will ensure that rural consumers will have available an offering that enables them to utilize their broadband connections in ways similar to consumers in urban areas, where fixed broadband services are widely available, while its reasonable comparability benchmarks will ensure that usage allowance is provided at a price that is reasonably comparable to service offerings with similar usage allowances in urban areas.
15.
16.
17.
18. Recently, the Commission adopted a minimum latency requirement that 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of network round trip latency are at or below 100 milliseconds for rate-of-return carriers that elect the voluntary path to model support. That standard also applies to price cap carriers that accepted the Phase II offer of model-based support. The Commission requires bidders that wish to submit low-latency bids to meet the same 100 millisecond latency standard.
19. However, the Commission recognizes that some bidders may not be able to meet that latency standard. For example high-earth orbit satellite providers cannot meet the latency requirement, but may be willing to offer higher speeds. After full consideration of the record, the Commission now concludes that bidders designating high latency performance will be required to meet a two-part standard for the latency of both their voice and broadband service: (1) Requirement that 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of network round trip latency are at or below 750 milliseconds, and (2) with respect to voice performance, the Commission requires high latency bidders to demonstrate a score of four or higher using the Mean Opinion Score (MOS), similar to the standard that the Commission adopted for one category of rural broadband experiments.
20. The Commission is not persuaded that it should eliminate altogether any millisecond measure of latency for Phase II support recipients. Some parties have urged the Commission to adopt alternative measures of service quality for recipients of Connect America Fund support, such as requiring voice service to be provided with an “R Factor” score at or above a minimum threshold value, and a Web page loading time standard. The Commission declines to adopt an alternative approach that would only use a voice quality test for providers that cannot meet the 100 ms latency standard. The Commission finds that the better approach is to measure latency the same way for all providers, but for entities submitting high latency bids to set a higher benchmark and require a demonstration of MOS of four or higher.
21. The Commission rejects arguments that a 100 ms latency designation should apply only to “latency-sensitive traffic.” Low latency, that is, shorter delays, is essential for most network-based applications and critical for others, such as VoIP and other interactive and highly interactive applications. Thus, requiring objectively measured latency performance standards is in line with network-based applications requirements and consumer-based perceptions of acceptable performance, particularly for voice services.
22. At the same time, the Commission is willing to entertain bids from entities that can only provide high latency, in the interest of making this auction as competitive as possible. For those providers offering high latency services, the Commission emphasizes the importance of providing quality voice services. The Commission particularly welcomes solutions such as the terrestrial voice service suggested by ViaSat. While the Commission does not adopt the MOS scoring metric as a
23. Bidders in the Phase II competitive bidding process that seek to meet the higher latency standard will be free to bid on all areas that are eligible for Phase II competitive bidding; the Commission will not limit them to bidding on census blocks that the cost model has determined are extremely high-cost. The Commission does not want to preclude the possibility, however, of consumers in these areas gaining access to low latency service in the years ahead. The Commission also would have concerns if consumers were widely dissatisfied with the quality of voice service associated with a double hop call. For that reason, the Commission reserves the option of including such areas in the auction that will occur shortly before the end of the six-year term of support for the price cap carriers that accept model-based support (
24. The Commission concludes that applicants seeking to deploy spectrum-based technologies that can meet the performance requirements will be eligible to bid in any tier. To ensure that these bidders have the capabilities to meet all standards, however, the Commission will require bidders proposing to use spectrum-based technologies to demonstrate that they have the proper authorizations or licenses, if applicable, and access to spectrum, to reach the fixed locations within the areas for which they seek support.
25. The Commission does not agree with commenters who argue that setting performance standards that could potentially exclude certain technologies disserves the public interest because it conflicts with the principle of competitive neutrality. The principle of competitive neutrality does not preclude the Commission from meeting other reasonable regulatory objectives, including as discussed above, the statutory requirement to ensure reasonably comparable service. The adoption of these technology-neutral tiers of performance standards, which are designed to meet reasonable regulatory objectives, is not objectionable simply because some service providers cannot meet the standards for a particular tier.
26. By soliciting bidders that make commitments to meet significantly higher performance standards, the Commission furthers the goal of providing access to advanced telecommunications and information services in all regions of the nation. By also entertaining bids from providers meeting service tiers that the Commission has previously established in other contexts, it helps ensure that services in rural and high-cost areas are reasonably comparable to those services provided in urban areas at reasonably comparable rates, and that consumers in these areas will not be left behind. Finally, the Commission emphasizes that to the extent there are eligible areas where there are no bidders willing to meet the standards for any of these tiers of service, it intends to take further action to ensure that those consumers are not left behind. As discussed below, the Commission will proceed expeditiously to conduct a subsequent Remote Areas Fund auction with further relaxed standards.
27.
28. When the Commission adopted a 10-year term for Phase II support awarded through competitive bidding in April 2014, it did not intend to suggest that it also would provide those recipients 10 years to meet their build-out obligations. Rather, the Commission provided for a longer term in order to provide additional support to those who competed for such support. Given the importance of the availability of broadband in the 21st century, one of the Commission's policy goals is to accelerate the deployment of broadband-capable networks. Spreading the service milestones over the entire 10-year term would slow the availability of new broadband infrastructure in these high-cost areas. Most winning bidders will likely undertake projects that are smaller in scale than the state-wide commitments undertaken by price cap carriers and so should be able to complete construction and commercially offer service well before the end of the sixth year. Therefore, the Commission does not believe it necessary to grant additional flexibility at this time.
29.
30. The Commission finds that requiring deployment to at least 95 percent of eligible locations is equally appropriate for recipients of Phase II support awarded through competitive
31. The Commission notes that, consistent with the approach it adopted for the price cap carriers, compliance with the deployment obligations will be determined at the state-level for recipients of support through the competitive bidding process. Thus, the Commission will not be looking at whether 95 percent of the eligible locations in a census block have service, nor will it be looking at whether 95 percent of the eligible locations in a given project within a state have service. Regardless of how a bidder chooses to place its bids for support, for administrative convenience, support will authorized on a state-level basis, and the geographic areas in a state that are funded will represent the service territory for the ETC that is awarded support through the competitive bidding process.
32. The Commission is not persuaded by commenters who argued it should provide more flexibility than it provided price cap carriers accepting model-based support. Unlike the price cap carriers who are required to accept or decline the offer of model-based support at the state level, bidders in the Phase II competitive bidding process will be able to bid on smaller projects. Potential bidders are responsible for undertaking the necessary due diligence in advance of bidding to identify particularly problematic census blocks when they are preparing their bids and have the option of not including such blocks in their bids. Therefore, the Commission see no reason to provide greater leniency in deployment obligations for recipients of support through the competitive bidding process.
33. Finally, the Commission remains open to the possibility of allowing Phase II recipients to substitute some number of unserved locations within partially served census blocks for locations within funded census blocks. In the
34.
35. In this section, the Commission finalizes decisions regarding the areas that will be subject to bidding in the Phase II auction. As a general matter, only census blocks lacking 10/1 Mbps service from any provider will be eligible for bidding, with two limited exceptions. The Commission directs the Bureau to release a preliminary list of eligible census blocks based on the most recent FCC Form 477 data and to conduct a streamlined challenge process to identify the final list of eligible census blocks for the Phase II competitive bidding process. The Commission also directs the Bureau to average costs at the census block level when generating the list of census blocks eligible for the Phase II competitive bidding process.
36. One of the Commission's objectives is to ensure that as many consumers as possible lacking 4/1 Mbps Internet access service become served through implementation of Phase II. The Commission concludes it would not be an efficient use of the Phase II support to make eligible in the auction high-cost or extremely high-cost census blocks in the declined states where the price cap carrier already is providing 10/1 Mbps or better service.
37.
38. The Commission concludes that it will conduct a limited challenge process to ensure that support is not provided to overbuild areas where another provider already is providing voice and broadband service meeting the Commission's requirements. The Commission directs the Bureau to release a preliminary list of eligible census blocks based on June 2015 Form 477 data and to invite parties to comment within 21 days of publication if those areas have become served subsequent to the June 2015 Form 477 data collection with 10/1 Mbps or greater service, with a minimum usage allowance of 150 GBs at a rate meeting the Commission's reasonable comparability benchmark, with latency not exceeding 100 ms.
39. The Bureau is not required to entertain challenges from parties seeking to establish that a block reported as served on a certified FCC Form 477 as of June 2015 or later is unserved. The Phase II challenge process was very time-consuming and administratively burdensome for all involved. The Commission found that it was difficult for the incumbent provider to prove a negative—that a competitor is not serving an area, and it expects that incumbents would face similar problems with challenging Form 477 data that indicate that a competitor serves an area. The Commission also observes that no party was able to demonstrate high latency by competitors in the Phase II challenge process, and very few providers prevailed in a challenge exclusively focused on a competitor's usage/price.
40. The Commission has taken several steps that make the deployment data it collects through Form 477 data more reliable than the June 2013 SBI data that was utilized in version 4.3 of the CAM for purposes of the offer of Phase II support to price cap carriers. Unlike SBI data, the submission of Form 477 data is mandatory for filers, and filers must certify that the data are accurate, thereby promoting the submission of complete and accurate data. Thus, entities should be making timely, accurate, and complete Form 477 filings as required by the Commission's rules; to the extent providers fail to indicate they serve a particular census block in FCC Form 477, there is no basis for protest if the Commission then determines such an area is unserved for purposes of the Phase II auction. Moreover, whereas SBI data were collected using varied methodologies by the states, Form 477 data are collected through a single, uniform process, which reduces the potential for inconsistent data from one state to the next. And while the SBI data were collected in pre-defined speed tiers, Form 477 filers offering fixed broadband service are required to report their advertised maximum speed for each technology they offer in each census block and distinguish between residential and nonresidential broadband, thereby allowing the Commission to more precisely determine which speeds are available in each census block. Finally, the use of Form 477 data ensures consistency in the data used to determine the existence of voice and broadband in a given census block.
41. Given the improvements in the data collection, the Commission concludes that it would not serve the public interest to entertain challenges from parties seeking to contest the reported status of a block as served for purpose of the Phase II competitive bidding process. Conducting a more resource-intensive challenge process would likely delay the implementation of the Phase II competitive bidding process. The Commission notes that it held the Phase II challenge process in 2014, and a number of parties took advantage of that opportunity to correct the SBI data. The Commission concludes in this instance it will be sufficient to rely on the certified FCC Form 477 filings and solicit comment on updated coverage through a streamlined challenge process.
42. While the Commission concludes that eligibility of areas for support in the Phase II competitive bidding process will be determined at the census block level, this does not mean that the census block will be the minimum geographic unit for purposes of bidding in the Phase II auction. As discussed below in its discussion of auction design, the Commission expects the minimum biddable unit to be a census block group containing one or more eligible census blocks.
43.
44. For purposes of ongoing monitoring and oversight by the Commission, the relevant state commission, and the Tribal government, where applicable, it now concludes that it is preferable to require a winning bidder to serve all of the locations in a given census block, rather than some subset of those locations in a given block that are served by a given node to the extent possible. As a practical matter, bidders (and ultimate awardees of funding) may not know which locations in a given block are “funded” and therefore must be served, and which are not “funded” and do not have to be served. Accordingly, to simplify this issue for all parties concerned, the Commission directs the Bureau to determine which census blocks are eligible by averaging costs at the census block level, to the extent possible, so that if a given census block is eligible for funding, the deployment obligation applies to all the locations in that census block.
45. For similar reasons, the Commission will not include in the Phase II auction those census blocks that are served by multiple price cap carriers and where at least one price cap carrier has accepted Phase II model-based support. It would be difficult for bidders to formulate a bid for a partial census block, as they would need to distinguish between locations that will be served by a price cap carrier that accepted Phase II model-based support and thus would be ineligible for Phase II auction support, and which locations will be served by price cap carriers that declined the support and thus would be eligible for Phase II auction support. Accordingly, for administrative simplicity, the Commission directs the Bureau not to include such census blocks in the list of census blocks that are eligible for the Phase II auction.
46. The Commission also takes this opportunity to clarify that extremely high-cost locations that are located in census blocks where the price cap carrier has accepted Phase II model-based support will not be eligible for Phase II auction support. In concluding that extremely high-cost areas would be eligible for bidding the Phase II auction, the Commission did not intend to make eligible extremely high-cost locations that are located within census blocks that are already receiving Phase II support. Rather, it intended to include in the auction those extremely high-cost census blocks that were not eligible for the Phase II offer of model-based support.
47. As discussed above, the Commission has encouraged stakeholders to propose an administratively feasible method for ensuring that unserved consumers in partially served census blocks are not left behind. The Commission is open to addressing these relatively few cases after it determines which areas remain unserved after the Phase II auction, and who the neighboring providers are.
48.
49. The Commission declines to permit price cap carriers in the declined territories to identify areas where they do not need support to be excluded from the Phase II competitive bidding process. Such a process likely would delay the implementation of the Phase II competitive bidding process and would unfairly place a decision of whether an area goes to auction in the hands of the carrier that declined the offer of model-based support. The Commission concludes that the public interest is better served by distributing Phase II auction support as soon as possible so that unserved communities are able to receive broadband as quickly as possible.
50. Consistent with the foregoing decisions, and prior Commission decisions, the Commission directs the Bureau to take all necessary steps to determine the census blocks that will be eligible for the Phase II auction. In particular, the Bureau shall determine which census blocks are served by unsubsidized competitors according to certified Form 477 data and thus ineligible for the Phase II competitive bidding process. The Bureau also shall add to the list any census blocks to which price cap carriers accepting model-based support indicated by December 31, 2015 that they do not intend to deploy, and the census blocks included in non-winning rural broadband experiment bids submitted in category one by entities that met the Commission's financial and technical documentation submission requirements, to the extent FCC Form 477 data indicate that such blocks are unserved with 10/1 Mbps broadband. To ensure that potential bidders are aware of the potential areas in the auction, the Commission directs the Bureau to publish expeditiously a preliminary list of eligible census blocks using the June 2015 Form 477 data. The Commission invites parties to notify the Bureau within 21 days of publication of this preliminary list if any of the census blocks on the preliminary list became served after June 30, 2015. The Commission delegates to the Bureau the task of conducting this streamlined challenge process.
51. The Bureau may subsequently update that list to the extent any corrections are made to the June 2015 Form 477 data or to reflect more recent Form 477 data, if publicly available. To the extent rate-of-return carriers identify census blocks that they will be unable to serve before the list is finalized, they also will be included. The Bureau shall publish a final list of eligible census blocks based on publicly available Form 477 data no later than three months prior to the deadline for submission of short-form applications for the Phase II auction.
52.
53.
54. The Commission has already adopted competitive bidding rules that allow for the subsequent determination of specific final auction procedures based on additional public input during the pre-auction process. Those competitive bidding rules together with the additional rules the Commission adopts today to establish Phase II winning bidders' performance obligations, eligible areas, and post-auction obligations and oversight establish the framework needed for the Commission to develop detailed auction procedures in the pre-auction process, including specific procedures for ranking bids based on bidders' performance requirement commitments, auction format, package bidding to enable bidders to aggregate eligible areas, and reserve prices. The Commission's decisions today are intended to narrow the scope of issues so that interested parties can focus constructively on the remaining details, while preserving its ability to make adjustments if circumstances or the record developed in the pre-auction process support such changes to assure that the auction will take place in a timely manner and fulfill the goals it establishes in this Order.
55.
56. Bids will be scored relative to the reserve price for the areas subject to the bid with lower bids selected first, taking into accounts the weights, on which the Commission seeks comment in the concurrently adopted Further Notice. The Commission concludes that this approach is more likely to ensure winning bidders across a wide range of states than selecting bids based on the dollar per location, which could result in support disproportionately flowing to those states where the cost to serve per location is, relatively speaking, lower than other states. The Commission declines to adopt an approach that would select bids on a dollar per location basis.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63. Once the long-form application has been approved, a public notice will be released announcing that the winning bidder is ready to be authorized. At that time, the winning bidder will be required to submit, within a specified number of days, at least one letter of credit and an opinion letter from counsel that meets the Commission's requirements as described below. After those documents are approved, a public notice will be released authorizing the winning bidder to begin receiving Phase II auction support.
64. Below, the Commission discusses the requirements it adopts for the short-form and the long-form applications for the Phase II competitive bidding process. Consistent with the approach the Commission took for the rural broadband experiments last year, it directs the Wireline Competition Bureau and the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau (Bureaus) to adopt the format and deadlines for the submission of documentation for the short-form and long-form applications, that are consistent with the Commission's universal service competitive bidding rules and Part 54 of the Commission's rules.
65.
66. The Commission will also require all applicants to indicate the type of bids that they plan to make and describe the technology or technologies that will be used to provide service for each bid. Applicants will also be required to submit with their short-form applications any information or documentation required to establish their eligibility for any bidding weights or preferences that the Commission ultimately adopts. To the extent that an applicant plans to use spectrum to offer its voice and broadband services, it must disclose whether it currently holds licenses for or leases spectrum. The applicant must demonstrate it has the proper authorizations, if applicable, and access to operate on the spectrum it intends to use, and that the spectrum resources will be sufficient to cover peak network usage and meet the minimum performance requirements to serve all of the fixed locations in eligible areas. Moreover, all applicants will be required to certify that they will retain their access to the spectrum for at least 10 years from the date of the funding authorization.
67. The Commission does not expect that these requirements will impose an unreasonable burden on potential bidders. The Commission had similar requirements for bidders in the rural broadband experiments, and it is not aware of any applicants having difficulty providing such baseline information. The Commission anticipates that as they prepare to participate in the auction, applicants will already have firm plans for where they will bid and the technologies they will use to provide service to the areas for which they will bid. Unlike the applicants participating in the Mobility Fund auctions, participants will likely be proposing to use a wide variety of technologies to provide service meeting the Commission's requirements. Because not all participants will have ETC designations to provide service in their relevant service areas, it will be useful for the Commission to have some insight into the types of technologies that bidders intend to use to meet their obligations prior to the auction. The project descriptions are intended to provide the Commission with some assurance that the applicant has thought through how it intends to provision service if awarded support.
68. To provide additional assurance to the Commission that the entities that intend to bid in the auction have some experience operating networks or are otherwise financially qualified, it adopts several alternative prequalification requirements. First, the Commission adopts a requirement that applicants certify in their short-form application that they have provided voice, broadband, and/or electric distribution or transmission services for at least two years and specify the number of years they have been operating, or they are the wholly-owned subsidiary of an entity that meets these requirements. Applicants that have provided voice or broadband services must also certify that they have filed FCC Form 477s as required during that time period. Recognizing the electric utilities also have significant experience building and operating networks, the Commission also will accept certifications from entities that have provided electric distribution or transmission services for at least two years (or their wholly-owned subsidiaries). Applicants that have operated only an electric distribution or transmission network must submit qualified operating or financial reports for the relevant time period that they have filed with the relevant financial institution along with a certification that the submission is a true and accurate copy of the forms that were submitted to the relevant financial institution. The Commission will accept the Rural Utilities Service (RUS) Form 7, Financial and Operating Report Electric Distribution; the RUS Form 12, Financial and Operating Report Electric Power Supply; the National Rural Utilities Cooperative Finance Corporation (CFC) Form 7, Financial and Statistical Report; the CFC Form 12, Operating Report; or the CoBank Form 7; or the functional replacement of one
69. Entities that meet the foregoing requirements will also submit audited financial statements from the prior fiscal year, including balance sheets, net income and cash flow, that have been audited by an independent certified public accountant with their short-form application. The Commission is not persuaded that it should permit applicants to submit reviewed financial statements in lieu of audited financial statements. While the Commission acknowledges that it collects in the section 54.313 annual report reviewed financial statements from privately held rate-of-return ETCs that are not RUS borrowers and are not audited in the normal course of business, the Commission concludes that the better approach for the Phase II auction is to require a financial audit. A financial review is a less fulsome review of an entity's financial health because it does not generally require the auditor to develop a detailed understanding of the internal controls environment and conduct more in-depth testing of individual transactions posted to the general ledger. The need to ensure that every Phase II auction recipient is in good financial health is critical. Authorized Phase II recipients will be required to take on obligations with defined timelines, so it is important that the Commission has insight into an entity's financial health to assess its ability to meet such obligations if awarded support. The Commission concludes that the additional cost of obtaining audited financial statements is outweighed by the importance of assuring the financial health of Phase II auction recipients.
70. However, the Commission concludes that to the extent an entity that otherwise meets these eligibility requirements does not already obtain an audit of its financial statements in the ordinary course of business, the Commission will permit that entity to wait until after it is announced as a winning bidder to submit audited financial statements. The Commission will require such entities that do not already have audited financial statements to certify that they will submit the prior fiscal year's audited financial statements by the deadline during the long-form application process. The Commission acknowledges that some potential bidders, particularly small entities, may be reluctant to bid in the Phase II auction because they do not want to pay the upfront costs of obtaining audited financial statements prior to finding out if they are winning bidders. Because such entities will be required to demonstrate that they have provided a voice, broadband, or electric distribution or transmission service for two years, the Commission concludes that this will give it reasonable assurance of an entity's financial health for permitting that entity to participate in the auction. The Commission concludes that on balance, its interest in maximizing participation in the Phase II auction outweighs the potential risk of qualifying an experienced entity to participate in the Phase II auction without reviewing that bidder's audited financial statements, particularly given that it will have the opportunity to scrutinize the bidder's audited financial statements at the long-form application stage before authorizing that entity to begin receiving support.
71. The Commission requires winning bidders that take advantage of this option to submit their audited financials no later than the deadline for submitting their proof of ETC designation (which is within 180 days of public notice announcing winning bidders). The Commission concludes that requiring winning bidders to submit their audited financials within the same timeframe as the ETC designations will help prevent unreasonable delays in authorizing Phase II auction support so that winning bidders can begin deploying broadband to unserved consumers. The Commission expects that bidders will take steps to prepare for an audit once they have submitted their short-form application so that they can immediately start the process upon being named a winning bidder. If the audit process takes longer than 180 days, winning bidders will have the option of seeking a waiver of this deadline. In considering such waiver requests, the Commission directs the Bureau to determine whether an entity demonstrated in its waiver petition that it took steps to prepare for an audit prior to being named a winning bidder and that it took immediate steps to obtain an audit after being announced as a winning bidder.
72. The Commission concludes that it is appropriate to adopt a base forfeiture of $50,000 for any entity that certifies in its short-form application that it will submit audited financials in its long-form application, but then ultimately defaults by failing to submit audited financial statements as required. Such forfeiture would also be subject to adjustment upward or downward as appropriate based on the criteria set forth in the Commission's forfeiture guidelines. The Commission finds that imposing such a forfeiture will create an incentive for bidders to certify truthfully in their short-form applications that they will obtain audited financial statements if announced as a winning bidder and will also create an incentive for winning bidders to actually go out and obtain those audited financial statements rather than default.
73. The Commission is not persuaded that it should adopt the alternative proposals suggested by ACA and WISPA including (1) requiring entities that are not audited in the ordinary course of business to make an upfront payment or deposit of $25,000 or (2) imposing a maximum forfeiture of $25,000 if an entity does not submit its audited financial statements as required. First, the Commission concludes that managing and tracking escrow arrangements would be too administratively burdensome and could potentially delay the auction. Second, the Commission finds that imposing a $25,000 upfront payment or maximum forfeiture would permit an entity to conduct a cost-benefit analysis that could encourage gaming. For example, an entity may decide it would be willing to pay $25,000 if it could preclude others from being winning bidders in certain areas and then default, or an entity may decide it is willing to pay $25,000 to default if it is ultimately unhappy with its winning bid. Instead, the Commission concludes that adopting a $50,000 base forfeiture rather than a maximum forfeiture will make it more difficult for an entity to perform such a strict cost-benefit analysis because the forfeiture may be increased if it is determined that such gaming has taken place. According to some commenters, the costs of a financial statement audit can vary and generally start at $25,000. The Commission finds that adopting a base forfeiture of $50,000 rather than $25,000 will further reduce the incentives for gaming. The Commission also concludes a base forfeiture of $50,000 is large enough to create an incentive for bidders take their obligation to get audited financial statements seriously given that it will be relying upon the winning bidders' certifications in the short-form application in permitting those bidders to participate in the Phase II auction.
74. Recognizing that the foregoing requirements would preclude from participating in the Phase II auction
75. For the latter group of potential bidders, the Commission concludes that its interest in having a level of insight into the financial health of a potential Phase II auction bidder over a longer period of time is a necessary prequalification to bid, particularly because this subset of bidders will not able to demonstrate that they have operated and maintained a voice, broadband and/or electric distribution or transmission network for at least two years.
76. The Commission also expects that a letter of interest from the bank will provide the Commission with an independent basis for some additional assurance regarding the financial status of the entity. The Commission does not anticipate that this requirement will be onerous. The Commission expects that interested bidders will already be considering which banks they will use to meet the letter of credit requirement described below, and that they will have to find a bank that will be willing to issue them a letter of credit in order to ultimately be authorized to begin receiving support. But the Commission cautions potential bidders that it will carefully scrutinize such letters and reserve the right not to allow such applicants to bid if the letter of interest is too vague to assess the likelihood of a future bank commitment.
77. The Commission recognizes that by adopting these requirements, it is potentially precluding interested bidders that have not been in operation long enough to meet these requirements or that are unable to meet these requirements for other reasons. By adopting alternative types of pre-qualification requirements, the Commission will implement a more narrowly tailored approach that balances maximizing participation in the auction with furthering the statutory principles of providing access to advanced services to all regions in the county and ensuring that those living in rural, insular and high-cost areas have access to reasonably comparable services. As stewards of the public's funding, it is the Commission's responsibility to implement safeguards to ensure that these funds are being used efficiently and effectively, and to protect consumers in rural and high-cost areas against being stranded without a service provider in the event a winning bidder defaults when another qualified competing bidder could have won the support instead.
78. Finally, the Commission will also require interested bidders to identify in their short-form applications if they have already been designated as ETCs in the areas they intend to bid. Consistent with the Commission's decision to permit bidders to wait until they have been announced as winning bidders to obtain their ETC designation, interested bidders will also be required to certify in their short-form applications that they acknowledge they must be designated as an ETC for the areas in which they will receive Phase II support before they are authorized to begin receiving such support.
79.
80. Like the Mobility Fund Phase I and Tribal Mobility Fund Phase I auctions, the Commission will require that winning bidders submit a self-certification regarding their financial and technical qualifications with their long-form applications. They must also submit a certification that specifies that they will be able to meet all of the applicable public interest obligations for the relevant tiers, including the requirement that they offer service at rates that are equal or lower to the Commission's reasonable comparability benchmarks for fixed wireline services offered in urban areas. Due to the varying types of technologies that entities may use to fulfill their Phase II competitive bidding process obligations, the Commission finds that it is also reasonable to require winning bidders to submit a description of the technology and system design they intend to use to deliver voice and broadband service, including a network diagram which must be certified by a professional engineer. The professional engineer must certify that the network is capable of delivering, to at least 95 percent of the required number of locations in each relevant state, voice and broadband service that meets the requisite performance requirements. There must be sufficient capacity to meet customer demand at or above the prescribed levels during peak usage periods. Entities proposing to use wireless technologies also must provide a description of their spectrum access in the areas for which they seek support and demonstrate that they have the required licenses to use that spectrum if applicable. This documentation will enable Commission staff to have assurance from a licensed engineer that the proposed network will be able to fulfill the service obligations to which the bidders will have to commit. The Commission reminds potential applicants that filing deadlines will be strictly enforced, and that bidders should not presume that they may obtain a waiver absent extraordinary circumstances.
81. The Commission notes that it required provisionally selected bidders in the rural broadband experiments to submit similar technical documentation, and the vast majority of provisionally selected bidders in the rural broadband experiments were able to meet these requirements. Similarly, the Commission is aware that RUS requires loan applicants to submit detailed network information as part of its application process. The Commission expects that potential bidders for the Phase II competitive bidding process will need to have already developed a network plan when making a decision about whether to participate in the auction. Accordingly, on balance the Commission concludes that its interest in assessing, before an entity is authorized to receive support, whether that entity is likely able to fulfill Phase II obligations outweighs any potential burdens this requirement may impose on bidders.
82. Similar to the requirements for Mobility Fund Phase I and Tribal Mobility Fund Phase I, the Commission will require that winning bidders certify that they have available funds for all project costs that will exceed the amount of support that will be received from the Phase II auction authorization for the first two years of their support
83. Finally, as discussed more fully below, in the Phase II competitive bidding process, participants will be subject to a defined forfeiture if they fail to meet within defined time periods the Commission's requirements to be authorized to receive support. The Commission expects that subjecting bidders to such a forfeiture payment if they are unable to get a letter of credit or meet the Commission's other requirements will underscore the requirement that bidders must do their own due diligence about their financial capability to meet their obligations before they participate in the Phase II competitive bidding process.
84.
85. In the
86. Additionally, the Commission reminds bidders to become familiar with the letter of credit requirements it adopts below and consider potential issuing banks in a timely fashion. To the extent that a bidder is the recipient of a loan or grant from RUS, it should consult with RUS regarding the need to obtain a letter of credit if it is authorized to receive support
87.
88. In response to concerns raised about the cost of maintaining a letter of credit for the entire support period, the Commission will require that the letter of credit only remain open until the recipient has certified that it has deployed broadband and voice service meeting the Commission's requirements to 100 percent of the required number of locations, and USAC has validated
89. The Commission does not adopt the proposals that would reduce the amount of the letter of credit to cover only the support that is disbursed for the first two years unless an entity fails to meet the first service milestone or that would cover only the support that is disbursed in the coming year. Both of these approaches would not permit the Commission to recover a significant portion of the public's funds that are disbursed to an entity in the event that the entity is not using the support for its intended purposes. The Commission recognizes that some entities may continue to operate partially-built networks even in the event of a default. However, as described below, the Commission will only authorize USAC to draw on the letter of credit for the entire amount of the letter of credit if the entity does not repay the Commission for the support associated with its compliance gap. If the entity fails to pay this support amount, the Commission concludes that the risk that the entity will be unable to continue to serve its customers or may go into bankruptcy is more likely, and thus it is necessary to ensure that the Commission can recover the entire amount of support that it has disbursed.
90.
91.
92. Specifically, the Commission requires generally that, for U.S. banks, the bank must be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) and have a Weiss bank safety rating of B- or higher. This will expand the number of eligible U.S. banks from fewer than 70 banks to approximately 3,600 banks. Whereas banks that intend to participate in the commercial markets obtain credit ratings, Weiss rates all banks that report sufficient data for Weiss to analyze. Importantly, Weiss is a subscription service and is not compensated by the banks that it rates. Weiss offers an independent and objective perspective of the safety of the banks it rates based on capitalization, asset quality, profitability, liquidity, and stability indexes. By requiring that the banks have a rating of at least B-, the Commission ensures that the bank has a rating that at a minimum demonstrates that the bank “offers good financial security and has the resources to deal with a variety of adverse economic conditions.” And by requiring that U.S. issuing banks also be FDIC-insured, the Commission has the added benefit of relying on the oversight of the FDIC and its protections. The Commission concludes that this approach achieves an appropriate balance between encouraging the participation in the auction, particularly of small entities, and protecting the public funds. The Commission expands the eligibility of banks to lower barriers to participation in the auction for entities that may not otherwise be able to obtain a letter of credit from a smaller pool of banks, while also ensuring that it puts in place adequate controls to protect the Fund by adopting alternative eligibility criteria that give the Commission independent assurance of the safety and the soundness of the bank issuing a letter of credit.
93. In lieu of obtaining a letter of credit from a U.S. bank that meets these requirements, the Commission will also permit entities to obtain letters of credit from CoBank or the National Rural Utilities Cooperative Finance Corporation (CFC) as long as these two entities retain assets that place them among the top 100 U.S. banks, and they maintain a credit rating of BBB- or better from Standard & Poor's (or the equivalent from a nationally-recognized credit rating agency). These entities are not traditional banks in that they do not accept deposits from members of the public. Thus, these entities do not have a Weiss bank safety rating and are not FDIC-insured. However, the Commission finds that CFC and CoBank can be considered banks in the context of the Commission's program because they use their capital resources to make loans.
94. CoBank has met the more stringent issuing bank eligibility requirements for the Mobility Fund and rural broadband experiments, and has issued a number of letters of credit for these programs. Although CoBank is not FDIC-insured, it is insured by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, which the Commission found provides protections that are equivalent to those indicated by holding FDIC-insured deposits. As long as CoBank retains its standing with assets equivalent to a top 100 U.S. bank and a qualified credit rating, the Commission sees no reason to exclude CoBank from eligibility simply because it is not rated by Weiss.
95. CFC's assets also make it comparable to commercial depository banks that are in the top 100 based on total assets and it has a credit rating from Standard & Poor's of A. But because CFC is not a depository institution and it is not part of the Farm Credit System, it is not FDIC or FCSIC-insured. Nevertheless, the Commission concludes that CFC is uniquely situated and should be made eligible to the extent it retains its standing with assets equivalent to a top 100 U.S. bank and a qualified credit rating. CFC is “owned by, and exclusively serves” rural utility providers, and CFC manages and funds
96. For non-U.S. banks, the Commission retains the same eligibility requirements that it adopted for the rural broadband experiments. Accordingly, for non-U.S. banks, the Commission requires that the bank be among the 100 largest non-U.S. banks in the world (determined on the basis of total assets as of the end of the calendar year immediately preceding the issuance of the letter of credit, determined on a U.S. dollar equivalent basis as of such date). The bank must also have a branch in the District of Columbia or other agreed-upon location in the United States, have a long-term unsecured credit rating issued by a widely-recognized credit rating agency that is equivalent to a BBB- or better rating by Standard & Poor's, and must issue the letter of credit payable in United States dollars.
97. The Commission is not persuaded that it should further expand the bank eligibility requirements to include all banks that are federally-insured. If the Commission were to permit entities to use any bank that is federally-insured, it would need to conduct a comprehensive review of every bank to determine whether it has adequate safety and soundness. Because the Commission lacks the expertise to conduct such a review and it would delay the authorization of winning bidders, it concludes that expanding the number of eligible U.S. banks to banks that are FDIC-insured and have a Weiss bank safety rating of B- or higher addresses the concerns of small entities while also using an objective and administratively feasible method to judge the financial security of a bank. The Commission also finds that relying on an independent evaluation of the safety and soundness of a bank that uses a rating based on a number of financial indices provides a more comprehensive view of a bank's financial viability than other proposals submitted in the record that would rely solely on the size of the bank or its capitalization.
98. The Commission notes that winning bidders have flexibility in how they structure their letter of credit arrangements with issuing banks and may choose to obtain multiple letters of credit over the build-out period. Entities may negotiate all the terms of their letter of credit with the issuing bank, including the length of the letter of credit, so long as the letter of credit is available to USAC for the entire duration of the build-out period and it is at a minimum an annual letter of credit that follows the terms and conditions of the Commission's model letter of credit. If a recipient has been issued a letter of credit from a bank that expires during the build-out period, that recipient must notify USAC immediately and an approved replacement letter of credit must be put in place before the letter of credit expires. If a bank fails so that it is no longer able to honor a letter of credit or if the bank no longer meets the eligibility requirements the Commission adopts herein, the recipient must notify USAC and will have 30 days to secure a letter of credit from another issuing bank that meets the Commission's eligibility requirements. The Commission also reserves the right to temporarily cease disbursements of monthly support until a recipient submits to the Commission a new letter of credit that meets its requirements and note that winning bidders will be subject to non-compliance measures if they fail to obtain a new and acceptable letter of credit.
99.
100.
101. Recognizing that the risk of a default will lessen as a recipient makes progress towards building its network, the Commission finds that it is appropriate to modestly reduce the value of the letter of credit in an effort to reduce the cost of maintaining a letter of credit as the recipient meets certain service milestones. Specifically, once an entity meets the 60 percent service milestone that entity may obtain a new letter of credit or renew its existing letter of credit so that it is valued at 90 percent of the total support amount already disbursed plus the amount that will be disbursed the next year. Once the entity meets the 80 percent service milestone that entity may obtain a new letter of credit valued at 80 percent of the total support amount already
102. The Commission is not persuaded, however, that it should further reduce the value of the letter of credit so that it only covers 50 percent of the total of support disbursed throughout the build-out period. The Commission concludes that the approach it adopts is better calibrated to the potential risk of default because it takes into account the substantial performance of the recipient. While the Commission acknowledges that reducing the value of the letter of credit to 50 percent of the amount of support disbursed would further reduce the costs for some recipients, it finds that on balance accomplishing the Commission's duty as stewards of the public's funds by ensuring that it can recover a substantial percentage of the support the Commission disburses in the event that an entity is not using the support for its intended use outweighs the potential costs for participants.
103.
104.
105.
106. Consistent with the Commission's decision to require winning bidders to obtain ETC designation from the relevant states or the Commission as applicable, as discussed more fully below the Commission will also require entities to submit appropriate documentation in their long-form application of their ETC designation in all areas for which they will receive support within 180 days of being announced as a winning bidder. In addition to submitting the relevant state or Commission orders, each winning bidder should provide documentation showing that the designated areas (
107.
108. An entity will be considered in default and will be subject to forfeiture if it fails to timely file a long-form
109. The Commission finds that by adopting such a forfeiture, it will impress upon recipients the importance of being prepared to meet all of the Commission's requirements for the post-selection review process and emphasize the requirement that they conduct a due diligence review to ensure that they are qualified to participate in the Phase II competitive bidding process and meet its terms and conditions.
110. In this section, the Commission adopts more specific details related to the implementation of the ETC designation requirement for the Phase II competitive bidding process. First, the Commission requires winning bidders in the Phase II competitive bidding process to submit proof of their ETC designation within 180 days of the public notice announcing them as winning bidders. Second, the Commission concludes that forbearance from the section 214(e)(5) service area conformance requirement for recipients of the Phase II competitive bidding process is appropriate and in the public interest.
111.
112. In the rural broadband experiments, the Commission learned that while states have diligently pursued resolution of the ETC designation applications filed by rural broadband experiment provisionally selected bidders, a number of states were unable to make a final decision on an ETC designation within a 90-day timeframe, often due to state-specific procedural requirements or because the application was contested. Of the 18 provisionally selected bidders that have been authorized or are still undergoing post-selection review, only nine were able to submit documentation of their ETC designations for all of their proposed service areas within the 90-day timeframe, and several of these entities had existing ETC designations that already covered their proposed service areas. The Commission therefore concludes that it would not be appropriate to adopt a rebuttable presumption that a state commission lacks jurisdiction over a potential recipient of support merely because the state has failed to complete an ETC proceeding within 90 days of initiating such a proceeding.
113. The Commission notes that only a limited number of provisionally selected bidders were selected for the rural broadband experiments. In the Phase II competitive bidding process, there may be situations where there are multiple winning bidders in each state that do not already have an ETC designation, and the Commission expects that states will need to have more time to address multiple petitions. On balance, the Commission concludes that 180 days should provide states with enough time to consider ETC designation applications, without unreasonably delaying the authorization of Phase II support and commencement of broadband deployment to consumers lacking service.
114. In the event the bidder is unable to obtain the necessary ETC designations within 180 days, the Commission finds that it would be appropriate to waive the 180-day timeframe if the bidder is able to demonstrate that it has engaged in good faith efforts to obtain an ETC designation, but the proceeding is not yet complete. A waiver of the 180-day deadline would be appropriate if, for example, an entity has an ETC application pending with a state and the state's next scheduled meeting at which it would consider the ETC application will occur after the 180-day window. This is consistent with the general approach the Commission took in the rural broadband experiments.
115. The Commission declines to adopt a hard rule requiring a winning bidder to file an ETC application within a specified amount of time to be considered acting in good faith, because, as it found in the rural broadband experiments, there were various circumstances impacting the ability of individual bidders to file their ETC applications. The Commission expects that winning bidders will have an incentive to file their ETC applications expeditiously so that they can meet the requirements to begin receiving support as soon as possible. Instead, based on what the Commission observed in the rural broadband experiments, when considering waivers of the 180-day timeframe for obtaining ETC designation, the Commission will presume that an entity will have acted in good faith if the entity files its ETC application within 30 days of the release of the public notice announcing that it is a winning bidder.
116. The Commission is not persuaded that it needs to take the further step of adopting a rebuttable presumption that a state lacks jurisdiction in the event that the ETC does not act on a petition within a certain amount of time or does not make a final decision on a petition within a certain amount of time. A number of state commenters explained that they need varying amounts of time to handle ETC petitions based on their available resources, the complexity of the application, and whether it is contested. The Commission has found through its experience with the rural broadband experiments that while some states may need more time to initiate action and make a decision on applications, they are committed to acting diligently within the framework of their existing state processes to act on ETC requests to expand voice and broadband-capable networks to their residents. The Commission saw no situations in the rural broadband experiments where a state refused to initiate action on a petition, took an unreasonable amount of time to declare that it did not have jurisdiction over a particular carrier, or
117. Due to the Commission's experience with the rural broadband experiments, the Commission also continues to conclude that there is nothing in the record before the Commission concerning the designation of ETCs that would warrant changing the existing framework by adopting rules requiring states to streamline their review of ETC petitions, or adopting a rebuttable presumption that states do not have jurisdiction over certain types of providers for purposes of the Phase II competitive bidding process. The rural broadband experiments have shown the Commission that obtaining an ETC designation from a state commission generally has not been too burdensome for most entities. Instead, most of the wide variety of entities that submitted bids and were provisionally selected did not face unreasonable delays in obtaining ETC designations. The Commission notes that a number of states acted on ETC applications that were submitted by WISPs, and only two states concluded that they lacked jurisdiction over particular providers, two that are WISPs that would provide VoIP service and one that is an electric company. Accordingly, the Commission is not persuaded that it should disturb the statutory construction giving states primary jurisdiction in designating ETCs. The Commission also notes that requiring that all entities seek ETC designation from the relevant states first rather than going straight to the Commission will ensure that all participants in the Phase II competitive bidding process must follow the same procedural requirements for submitting an application to obtain an ETC designation.
118. The Commission also declines to automatically grant petitions after they have been pending with the states for a certain amount of time. Determining whether an entity is qualified to become an ETC is a fact-intensive inquiry, and the more complex and contested petitions are likely to take more time. It would be adverse to the public interest to forgo this inquiry into an entity's qualifications simply because an application is taking more time to review.
119.
120. Accordingly, for those entities that obtain ETC designations as a result of being selected as winning bidders for the Phase II competitive bidding process, the Commission forbears from applying section 214(e)(5) of the Act and section 54.207(b) of its rules, insofar as those sections require that the service area of such an ETC conform to the service area of any rural telephone company serving an area eligible for Phase II support. The Commission notes that forbearing from the service area conformance requirement eliminates the need for redefinition of any rural telephone company service areas in the context of the Phase II competitive bidding process. However, if an existing ETC seeks support through the Phase II competitive bidding process for areas within its existing service area, this forbearance will not have any impact on the ETC's pre-existing obligations with respect to other support mechanisms and the existing service area.
121. The Commission concludes that forbearance is warranted in these limited circumstances. As the Commission noted above, its objective is to distribute support to winning bidders as soon as possible so that they can begin the process of deploying new broadband to consumers in those areas. Case-by-case forbearance would likely delay its post-selection review of entities once they are announced as winning bidders. The Act requires the Commission to forbear from applying any requirement of the Act or its regulations to a telecommunications carrier if the Commission determines that: (1) Enforcement of the requirement is not necessary to ensure that the charges, practices, classifications, or regulations by, for, or in connection with that telecommunications carrier or telecommunications service are just and reasonable and are not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory; (2) enforcement of that requirement is not necessary for the protection of consumers; and (3) forbearance from applying that requirement is consistent with the public interest. The Commission concludes each of these statutory criteria is met for winning bidders of the Phase II competitive bidding process.
122.
123.
124.
125. Accordingly, the analysis that the relevant state and the Commission historically undertook when deciding whether to redefine a rural telephone carrier's service area is not applicable to the Phase II competitive bidding process. Past concerns that an ETC serving only a relatively low cost portion of a rural carrier's service area might cream skim by receiving per line support based on the rural carrier's cost of serving the entire area are not relevant to Phase II support, which will be awarded through a competitive process. The incumbent rural telephone company will no longer be receiving support to serve the area won by another entity, the Phase II recipient's support will be based on the amount it bids to serve the area, and the Phase II recipient will be required to use its support to serve areas that the marketplace will not serve absent those subsidies. Because the service area redefinition analysis is not relevant to Phase II, it no longer serves the public interest for the states and the Commission to work together to define the service area of Phase II recipients serving rural telephone companies' service areas. The Commission notes that the actions it takes today do not otherwise impact the state's primary role in designating ETCs.
126. Similarly, the concerns about protecting rural carriers and avoiding the imposition of additional administrative burden on such carriers that led to the adoption of the service area conformance requirement nearly two decades ago are not applicable in these limited circumstances. First, the Commission notes that the affected incumbent rural telephone companies are affiliated with price cap holding companies, which typically serve both rural and urban areas. Second, each incumbent rural telephone company will not be automatically replaced by a competitive provider. Each price cap carrier holding company had the opportunity to accept model-based support and be the sole Connect America-supported provider throughout its territory. The price cap carrier holding company will also have the opportunity to compete so that Connect America support is provided to the most efficient provider. Only if the price cap carrier holding company chooses not to participate in the Phase II competitive bidding process or loses to a competitive carrier will it be replaced by a competitive provider as the sole recipient of Connect America support. Finally, the Commission notes that its decision to grant forbearance in these limited circumstances does not impose any additional administrative requirements on rural telephone companies.
127. The Commission also notes that requiring each Phase II recipient to conform its service areas to those of the rural telephone companies in the states they seek to serve could result in lengthy redefinition proceedings, which may delay the Commission's post-selection review of winning bidders and consequently delay its distribution of support and the deployment of advanced voice and broadband-capable networks. Some rural broadband experiment provisionally selected bidders found that it was time-consuming to obtain ETC designations in circumstances where the incumbent rural telephone company challenged their ETC petitions. The Commission expects that the forbearance it provides here will help accelerate the ETC designation process when applications are challenged because the state commission will not need to seek the Commission's agreement through a service redefinition process or wait 90 days for the service redefinition to be automatically granted if the Commission is unable to act within 90 days.
128. Finally, the Commission concludes that the forbearance in these limited circumstances will not harm competitive market conditions. If anything, forbearance may enhance competition by introducing new service providers to the market. Price cap carriers that have an existing network and customers in the areas won by another entity may choose to continue to operate in those areas, albeit without subsidies. And as the Phase II recipient is building a network in its funded areas, it may also find that it has a business case to build its network and provide service to customers in surrounding areas, thereby increasing competition and providing more options for consumers.
129. In this section the Commission adopts measures for ensuring that recipients of Connect America support to serve fixed locations awarded through a competitive bidding process use their support for its intended purposes. First, the Commission adopts reporting requirements that will enable the Commission to monitor recipients' progress in meeting their deployment obligations. Second, the Commission explains how the letter of credit requirement it adopts above will work with the existing support reduction framework it adopted in the
130.
131. The first location list will be due by the last business day of the second calendar month following the one-year anniversary of support authorization and must reflect the number and list of geocoded locations (if any) where the recipient already was offering service meeting the Commission's requirements and all new locations (if any) where the recipient was offering service meeting the requisite requirements by the end of the first year. Phase II auction recipients will then be required to submit a list of locations where they are newly offering service by the last business day of the second calendar month following each subsequent support year until they have met the final service milestone. Phase II auction recipients will be free—and indeed, encouraged—to submit information on a rolling basis throughout the year to the online portal, as soon as service is offered, so as to avoid filing all of their locations at the deadline. A best practice would be to submit the information no later than 30 days after service is initially offered to locations in satisfaction of deployment obligations, to avoid any potential issues with submitting large amounts of information at year end.
132. The Commission will also require that Phase II auction recipients file certifications that they have met their interim service milestones and are meeting the requisite public interest obligations by the last business day of the second calendar month following each relevant service milestone. As noted above, if an entity is able to build out its network more quickly to offer service and close-out its letter of credit before the final build-out deadline, it may notify the Commission at any time that it has met its final service milestone, and submit its final build-out certification and location list at that time. This notification will trigger USAC's verification that the build-out has been completed.
133. The Commission finds that collecting this information from recipients of support to serve fixed locations awarded through the competitive bidding process serves the public interest for the same reasons as collecting this information from price cap carriers and rate-of-return carriers accepting model-based support. As recommended by the Government Accountability Office, the Commission and USAC will analyze the data and determine how Connect America support is being used to “improve broadband availability, service quality, and capacity.” As the Commission has already decided, these data will also be made publicly available at a granular level and in a user friendly manner. The Commission finds that the benefits in collecting this information outweigh any potential burdens on the recipients in reporting these data, given that the Commission expects that recipients will be already collecting such data for their own business purposes, to certify that they have met service milestones, and to be prepared to respond to compliance reviews that it directs USAC to undertake. These auction recipients that fail to file their location lists and build-out certifications by the required deadline will be subject to the support reduction scheme in section 54.316(c) of the Commission's rules.
134. The Commission will also require these auction support recipients to certify each year after they have met their final service milestone that the network they operated in the prior year meets the Commission's performance requirements. Phase II auction recipients will continue to receive support after they have met their service milestones. This requirement will ensure that the Commission is able to monitor that Phase II auction recipients are continuing to use their Phase II auction support for its intended use, and they are continuing to offer service meeting the relevant minimum requirements. Because at this point in their support terms, Phase II auction recipients will no longer be filing their build-out certifications and locations lists, the Commission concludes that it is reasonable to collect this certification in recipients' annual section 54.313 reports due July 1st that Phase II auction recipients will already be filing each year.
135. The Commission concludes that the benefit to the Commission in being able to track the progress of Phase II recipients and monitor their use of the public's funds outweighs the potential costs that will be imposed on recipients. The Commission expects that Phase II auction recipients will already be tracking their progress and their expenses before they have to meet their first service milestone and then monitoring their network's performance after their build-out is completed to meet the terms and conditions of Phase II auction support. Accordingly, the Commission does not anticipate that these additional reporting requirements will impose unreasonable costs on recipients.
136. The Commission will also require recipients of Phase II competitive bidding support to identify the total amount of Phase II support, if any, that they used for capital expenditures in the previous calendar year. The Commission will collect this information in recipients' annual section 54.313 reports, recognizing that recipients will be required to file annual reports throughout their support term. As the Commission concluded in the
137. Finally, the Commission will require that in each section 54.313 annual report that is filed by Phase II recipients during their support term, they will be required to certify that they have available funds for all project costs that will exceed the amount of support that will be received from the authorization stemming from the Phase II auction for the next calendar year. This will give the Commission assurance that Phase II recipients have obtained enough funding to meet their Phase II obligations and also underscore Phase II recipients' obligation to conduct a due diligence review of their finances to ensure that they can meet their obligations.
138. The Commission provides as an example, an illustrative chart of the reporting requirements for a bidder in the baseline performance tier that begins to receive support in September 1, 2017 and takes the entire six years to build-out its network:
139. The Commission directs USAC to review, for these entities that are authorized to receive support after the Phase II competitive bidding process, compliance with deployment obligations and the Commission's public interest obligations at the state level—that is, whether the carrier is meeting interim and final service obligations for the total number of locations required for each state. As the Commission concluded in the
140. Finally, the Commission clarifies that price cap carriers that choose to use Phase II model-based support to deploy to locations in extremely high-cost census blocks may not use Phase II model-based support to serve extremely high-cost census blocks that an authorized Phase II auction recipient will be required to serve. In the
141. The Commission directs USAC to review the geocoded locations lists that are submitted by the price cap carriers regarding deployment to verify that no extremely high-cost locations are located in census blocks where a Phase II auction recipient has been authorized to begin receiving support. In other words, as of the date of authorization for another entity to serve a census block, that census block is no longer eligible for substitution of locations. If USAC determines that a price cap carrier has included such locations in its list to count towards its build-out obligation, that price cap carrier will be deemed to have not met the relevant Phase II model-based support build-out obligation and will be subject to the applicable non-compliance measures.
142. As ETCs comply with the new public interest and reporting requirements and broadband public interest obligations in this Order, the Commission will continue to monitor their behavior and performance. Based on that experience, the Commission may make additional modifications as necessary to its reporting requirements.
143.
144. The Commission previously has recognized that the first task for any major network upgrade is to complete an overall plan and then undertake detailed engineering analyses in the field to plan the construction of particular routes. Depending on the timing of funding authorization for recipients of high-cost support, it is possible that in the initial year of support, an ETC may not be able to spend the funding that is disbursed. Moreover, with any network upgrade, construction over the course of the deployment timetable will be dependent on the availability of necessary equipment, fiber, and construction crews. In some cases, weather may require construction projects to be deferred over the winter into the following spring. The Commission also has acknowledged that a price cap carrier may not deploy new facilities in every state in every year of the Phase II term. Accordingly, the Commission concludes that it is permissible for high-cost recipients to certify or have the relevant states certify on their behalf that they have used their support for its intended purpose if they have set aside a portion or all of the high-cost support in a given year in an account dedicated to future high-cost improvements, as described above.
145.
146. First, for interim milestones, if the ETC has a compliance gap of 50 percent or more of the number of locations that the ETC is required to offer service to by the relevant interim milestone (
147. Second, if an ETC misses the final milestone, it must identify by what percentage the milestone has been missed. It will then have 12 months from that date to come into full compliance with the milestone. If it does not come into full compliance within 12 months, the Wireline Competition Bureau or the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau will issue a letter and USAC will recover an amount of support that is equal to 1.89 times the average amount of support per location received in the state over the six-year period for the relevant number of locations the ETC has failed to offer service to, plus 10 percent of the ETC's total Phase II support received in the state over the six-year period for deployment. At this point, the ETC will have six months to repay the support USAC seeks to recover. If at the end of six months the ETC has not fully paid back the support, the Wireline Competition Bureau or the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau will issue a letter to that effect, and USAC will draw on the letter of credit to recover all of the support that has been disbursed to the ETC.
148. Third, if after the build-out has been verified and the ETC closes its letter of credit it is determined that the ETC does not have sufficient evidence to demonstrate that it is offering service to the total number of required locations, USAC will recover an amount of support that is equal to 1.89 times the average amount of support per location received in the state over the six-year period for the relevant number of locations for which the ETC has failed to produce sufficient evidence, plus 10 percent of the ETC's total support received in that state over the six-year time period. Because the ETC's build-out will have already been verified before it may close its letter of credit, the Commission does not find it necessary to require that the ETC continue to keep its letter of credit open in the event that the ETC does not repay the Commission after it is found to be lacking evidence. Instead, the Commission notes that if the ETC does not repay the Commission after six months it may be subject to additional non-compliance measures, including forfeitures.
149. The Commission concludes that drawing on the letter of credit in the event that the ETC fails to repay the support that USAC is instructed to recover will ensure that the Commission will be able to recover the support in the event that the ETC is unable to pay. The Commission notes that through the support reduction framework the Commission adopted in the
150. Finally, the Commission notes that Phase II auction recipients may also be subject to other sanctions for non-compliance with the terms and conditions of high-cost funding, including, but not limited to potential revocation of ETC designation and
151.
152. The Commission concludes that it will award support for the Remote Areas Fund through a competitive bidding process, with providers receiving support to serve defined areas that remain unserved with broadband service meeting the Commission's public interest obligations, determined based on the most recent publicly available FCC Form 477 data available prior to the opening of the filing window for short-form applications. For several reasons, the Commission concludes that it will be most efficient to award support from the Remote Areas Fund to serve a designated area through a competitive bidding process, rather than as a portable consumer subsidy. The Commission expects that the competitive process will drive down the amount of support awarded to serve these remote locations, enabling the Commission to utilize its Remote Areas funding most effectively. The Commission also believes this approach will best provide incentives for providers to deploy broadband-capable infrastructure in these remote areas. The Commission recognizes the need for service providers to have some assurance that there will be sufficient demand in these remote areas to warrant making the necessary investments to extend service, and by awarding support to serve a given area, bidders will be able to aggregate demand sufficiently to warrant the investments necessary to serve such areas. The Commission notes that a number of bidders in the rural broadband experiments were ultimately authorized to begin receiving support in category 3 which was limited to bids for only extremely high-cost census blocks, suggesting that these bidders were able to put together bids that enabled them to make a business case to serve the highest cost areas. Lastly, by moving swiftly to auction support from the Remote Areas Fund utilizing many of the same processes and procedures established for the Phase II auction, the Commission will bring service to consumers more quickly than would likely be the case if it were to adopt an approach that has never been implemented to date in the high-cost program. The Commission does not rule out the possibility of implementing some form of a portable consumer subsidy at a future date, however, should there remain areas after the Remote Areas Fund auction that remain unserved.
153. The areas eligible for the Remote Areas Fund auction will generally be those areas not subject to winning bids in the Phase II auction that are not served with voice and 10/1 Mbps broadband according to the most recently published FCC Form 477 data that are available prior to the opening of the expedited filing window for applicants for the Remote Areas Fund auction. The Commission directs the Bureau to publish the list of eligible areas within 60 days after the announcement of winning bidders in the Phase II auction. The Commission reserves the right to make further adjustments to the eligible areas based on lessons learned from the Phase II auction, however, and its progress in implementing other Connect America Fund reforms in the intervening period.
154. The Commission's goal is to commence the Remote Areas Fund auction within a year of the close of the Phase II Auction. The specific dates and deadlines will be announced in a
155. The Commission intends that the Remote Areas Fund auction will occur as soon as feasible after the Phase II auction, providing for a limited period of time in between so that applicants that may wish to participate in both auctions may plan and prepare for the Remote Areas auction taking into account winning bids in the Phase II auction. Bidders qualified to bid in the Phase II auction will be able automatically to participate in this subsequent auction without having to file another short-form application, so long as there is no material change in any information filed in their Phase II short-form application.
156. Consistent with the rules established for the Phase II competitive bidding process, the Commission will not require bidders to be ETCs in order to bid in the Remote Areas Fund auction. Rather, they may obtain ETC designation after being selected as a winning bidder. The Commission finds this will serve the public interest for the same reasons previously stated when it adopted these measures for Phase II. Similarly, the Commission adopts the same timelines for submitting proof of ETC designation for Remote Areas Fund winning bidders for the same reasons stated above for the Phase II auction.
157. Similarly, the Commission adopts rules providing for a short-form application process to qualify entities eligible to bid and a long-form application to be filed by winning bidders that are similar in substance to the rules adopted above for the Phase II auction. As the Commission stated above, this approach will balance the need to collect essential information with administrative efficiency and will provide the Commission with assurance that interested participants are qualified to meet the terms and conditions of the Remote Areas Fund, if authorized to receive support. The Commission delegates authority to the Bureaus to adjust the format and timing of the Remote Areas Fund applications based on experience gained with the implementation of the Phase II auction. The Commission's goal is to conduct the Remote Areas Fund auction generally utilizing the same format and procedures adopted for the Phase II auction, although the Commission recognizes that some adjustments may need to be made.
158. As a general matter, support from the Remote Areas Fund will be awarded on similar terms and subject to the same rules as Phase II support awarded through the Phase II auction. The Commission expects that recipients will be subject to the same interim and final service milestones as Phase II auction winners, although it reserves the right to make adjustments if necessary to encourage auction participation. Recipients will be subject to the same reporting obligations as Phase II recipients and subject to the same measures for non-compliance. The Commission expects, however, that it may be necessary to relax performance
159. The Commission does not decide at this time a number of issues that will need to be resolved before it can implement the Remote Areas Fund, including the public interest obligations for recipients of support, the term of support for the Remote Areas Fund, and whether to disburse support on a per-subscriber basis or a per-location basis. The Commission will decide those issues once it observes the outcome of the Phase II auction.
160. This document contains new information collection requirements subject to the PRA. It will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review under section 3507(d) of the PRA. OMB, the general public, and other Federal agencies will be invited to comment on the new information collection requirements contained in this proceeding. In addition, the Commission notes that pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, it previously sought specific comment on how the Commission might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The Commission describes impacts that might affect small businesses, which includes most businesses with fewer than 25 employees, in the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) in Appendix C,
161. The Commission will send a copy of this Report and Order to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act,
162. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), as amended, an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analyses (IRFA) was incorporated in the
163. Over the last several years, the Commission has engaged in a modernization of its universal service regime to support networks capable of providing voice and broadband, including developing a new forward-looking cost model to calculate the cost of providing service in rural and high-cost areas. In 2015, 10 price cap carriers accepted an offer of Phase II support calculated by a cost model in exchange for a state-level commitment to deploy and maintain voice and broadband service in the high-cost areas in their respective states. With this Report and Order (Order), the Commission now adopts rules to implement a competitive bidding process for Phase II of the Connect America Fund.
164. Specifically, building on decisions already made by the Commission, in this Order, the Commission:
• Adopt public interest obligations for recipients of support awarded through the Phase II competitive bidding process, that will be known in advance of the auction and that will continue for the duration of the term of support, recognizing that competitive bidding is likely to be more efficient if potential bidders know what their performance standards will be before bids are made. In particular, the Commission establishes four technology-neutral tiers of bids available for bidding with varying speed and usage allowances, all at reasonably comparable rates, and for each tier will differentiate between bids that would commit to either lower or higher latency.
○ The Commission's minimum performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide broadband speeds of at least 10 Mbps downstream and 1 Mbps upstream (10/1 Mbps) and offer at least 150 gigabytes (GB) of monthly usage.
○ The Commission's baseline performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide at least 25 Mbps downstream and 3 Mbps upstream (25/3 Mbps) and offer a minimum usage allowance of 150 GB per month, or that reflects the average usage of a majority of fixed broadband customers, using Measuring Broadband America data or a similar data source, whichever is higher.
○ The Commission's above-baseline performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide at least 100 Mbps downstream and 20 Mbps upstream (100/20 Mbps) and offer an unlimited monthly usage allowance.
○ The Commission's Gigabit performance tier requires that bidders commit to provide at least 1 Gigabit per second (Gbps) downstream and 500 Mbps upstream and offer an unlimited monthly usage allowance.
○ For each of the four tiers, bidders will designate one of two latency performance levels: (1) Low latency bidders will be required to meet 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of network round trip latency at or below 100 milliseconds (ms), or (2) High latency bidders will be required to meet 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of network round trip latency at or below 750 ms and, with respect to voice performance, demonstrate a score of four or higher using the Mean Opinion Score (MOS).
• Adopt the same interim service milestones for winning bidders in the Phase II auction as for price cap carriers that accepted Phase II model-based support.
• Finalize the Commission's decisions regarding areas eligible for the Phase II competitive bidding process.
• Establish a budget for the Phase II competitive bidding process of $215 million in annual support.
• Provide general guidance on auction design, with the specific details to be determined by the Commission at a future date in the
• Adopt a two-step application process, similar to Commission spectrum auctions and the Mobility Fund Phase I and Tribal Mobility Fund Phase I auctions. In the pre-auction short-form application, a potential bidder will need to establish its baseline financial and technical capabilities in order to be eligible to bid. In the long-form review process, winning bidders will be required to provide additional information regarding their qualifications. They will be required to
• Establish a baseline forfeiture for bidders that default before funding authorization.
• Establish a 180-day post-auction deadline for winning bidders to submit proof of their ETC designation during long-form review and forbear from the section 214(e)(5) service area conformance requirements.
• Adopt reporting requirements that will enable the Commission to monitor recipients' progress in meeting their interim deployment obligations, and a process by which the Wireline Competition Bureau (Bureau) or the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau will authorize the Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC) to draw on a letter of credit in the event of performance default.
• Adopt rules to establish the framework for the Remote Areas Fund, which will award support through a competitive bidding process to occur expeditiously after conclusion of the Phase II auction.
165. There were no relevant comments filed that specifically addressed the rules and policies proposed in the
166. Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, which amended the RFA, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel of the Small Business Administration (SBA), and to provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rule(s) as a result of those comments.
167. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rule(s) in this proceeding.
168. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the rules adopted herein. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small-business concern” under the Small Business Act. A “small-business concern” is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173. The Commission has included small incumbent LECs in this present RFA analysis. As noted above, a “small business” under the RFA is one that,
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189. The auction of the 1,053 800 MHz SMR geographic area licenses for the General Category channels was conducted in 2000. Eleven bidders won 108 geographic area licenses for the General Category channels in the 800 MHz SMR band qualified as small businesses under the $15 million size standard. In an auction completed in 2000, a total of 2,800 Economic Area licenses in the lower 80 channels of the 800 MHz SMR service were awarded. Of the 22 winning bidders, 19 claimed small business status and won 129 licenses. Thus, combining all three auctions, 40 winning bidders for geographic licenses in the 800 MHz SMR band claimed status as small business.
190. In addition, there are numerous incumbent site-by-site SMR licensees and licensees with extended implementation authorizations in the 800 and 900 MHz bands. The Commission does not know how many firms provide 800 MHz or 900 MHz geographic area SMR pursuant to extended implementation authorizations, nor how many of these providers have annual revenues of no more than $15 million. One firm has over $15 million in revenues. In addition, the Commission does not know how many of these firms have 1,500 or fewer employees. The Commission assumes, for purposes of this analysis, that all of the remaining existing extended implementation authorizations are held by small entities, as that small business size standard is approved by the SBA.
191.
192. In addition, the SBA's Cable Television Distribution Services small business size standard is applicable to EBS. There are presently 2,032 EBS licensees. All but 100 of these licenses are held by educational institutions. Educational institutions are included in this analysis as small entities. Thus, the Commission estimates that at least 1,932 licensees are small businesses. Since 2007, Cable Television Distribution Services have been defined within the broad economic census category of Wired Telecommunications Carriers; that category is defined as follows: “This industry comprises establishments primarily engaged in operating and/or providing access to transmission facilities and infrastructure that they own and/or lease for the transmission of voice, data, text, sound, and video using wired telecommunications networks. Transmission facilities may be based on a single technology or a combination of technologies.” The SBA defines a small business size standard for this category as any such firms having 1,500 or fewer employees. The SBA has developed a small business size standard for this category, which is: All such firms having 1,500 or fewer employees. According to Census Bureau data for 2007, there were a total of 955 firms in this previous category that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 939 firms had employment of 999 or fewer employees, and 16 firms had employment of 1000 employees or more. Thus, under this size standard, the majority of firms can be considered small and may be affected by rules adopted pursuant to the Order.
193.
194. In 2007, the Commission reexamined its rules governing the 700 MHz band in the
195.
196.
197.
198.
199. As of March 2010, there were 424,162 PLMR licensees operating 921,909 transmitters in the PLMR bands below 512 MHz. The Commission notes that any entity engaged in a commercial activity is eligible to hold a PLMR license, and that any revised rules in this context could therefore potentially impact small entities covering a great variety of industries.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207. 218-219 MHz Service. The first auction of 218-219 MHz spectrum resulted in 170 entities winning licenses for 594 Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) licenses. Of the 594 licenses, 557 were won by entities qualifying as a small business. For that auction, the small business size standard was an entity that, together with its affiliates, has no more than a $6 million net worth and, after federal income taxes (excluding any carry over losses), has no more than $2 million in annual profits each year for the previous two years. In the
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214. The first category of Satellite Telecommunications “comprises establishments primarily engaged in providing point-to-point telecommunications services to other establishments in the telecommunications and broadcasting industries by forwarding and receiving communications signals via a system of satellites or reselling satellite telecommunications.” For this category, Census Bureau data for 2007 show that there were a total of 512 firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 464 firms had annual receipts of under $10 million, and 18 firms had receipts of $10 million to $24,999,999. Consequently, the Commission estimates that the majority of Satellite Telecommunications firms are small entities that might be affected by rules adopted pursuant to the Order.
215. The second category of Other Telecommunications “primarily engaged in providing specialized telecommunications services, such as satellite tracking, communications telemetry, and radar station operation. This industry also includes establishments primarily engaged in providing satellite terminal stations and associated facilities connected with one or more terrestrial systems and capable of transmitting telecommunications to, and receiving telecommunications from, satellite systems. Establishments providing Internet services or voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services via client-supplied telecommunications connections are also included in this industry.” For this category, Census Bureau data for 2007 show that there were a total of 2,383 firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 2,346 firms had annual receipts of under $25 million. Consequently, the Commission estimates that the majority of Other Telecommunications firms are small entities that might be affected by its action.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224. In the Order the Commission adopts today, it establishes four technology-neutral tiers of bids available for bidding with varying speed and usage allowances, and for each tier will differentiate between bids that would offer either lower or higher latency. All bidders must offer a service at rates that are within a reasonable range of rates for comparable fixed wireline services offered in urban areas
225. Once a winning bidder is authorized to begin receiving Phase II auction support, it will have six years to deploy a voice and broadband-capable network meeting the relevant public interest obligations to the required number of locations included in its bid. Phase II auction recipients will also be required to meet interim service milestones. They will have to complete construction to 40 percent of the requisite number of locations in a state by the end of the third year of funding authorization, an additional 20 percent in subsequent years, with 100 percent by the end of the sixth year. Phase II recipients that at the end of their support term have deployed to at least 95 percent, but less than 100 percent of the number of funded locations will be required to refund support based on the number of funded locations left unserved in the state. The amount refunded will be based on one-half the average support for the top five percent of the highest cost funded locations nationwide.
226. Entities that are interested in participating in the Phase II auction will be required to file a short-form application in order to establish their eligibility to participate. In their short-form applications, they will be required to submit any information or documentation required to establish their eligibility for any bidding credits the Commission adopts. If applicants are already ETCs they will need to identify themselves as such and all applicants will be required to submit a certification acknowledging that they must be designated as an ETC for the area in which they will receive support prior to being authorized to begin receiving support. Applicants will be required to submit a certification of their financial and technical capabilities to provide the required service in the required timeframe and information that establishes their identity, including disclosing parties with ownership interests and any agreements the applicants may have relating to the support to be sought through the Phase II auction. Applicants will also be required to indicate the type of bid they intend to place and describe the technology or technologies that will be used to provide service for each category of bid. If an applicant plans to use spectrum, it must also provide additional details about its spectrum access, including demonstrating that it has the proper authorizations, if applicable, and access and that the spectrum resources will be sufficient to cover peak network usage and deliver the minimum performance requirements.
227. Applicants will also be required to certify in their short-form application that they have provided voice, broadband, and/or electric transmission or distribution services for at least two years or they are the wholly-owned subsidiary of such an entity, and specify the number of years they have been operating. Applicants that have provided voice or broadband services must also certify that they have filed FCC Form 477s as required during that time period. Applicants that have operated only an electric distribution or transmission network must submit qualified operating or financial reports for the relevant time period that they have filed with the relevant financial institution along with a certification stating that those submissions are the true and accurate copies of the submissions made to the relevant financial institution. Applicants that are able to demonstrate that they have operated such a network for at least two years will also be required to submit the prior fiscal year's audited financial statements. Applicants that meet these requirements but that do not audit their financial statements in the ordinary course of business can instead certify that they will submit their audited financial statements for the prior fiscal year during the long-form application review process if they are selected as a winning bidder. A winning bidder that fails to submit its audited financial statements during the long-form application stage will be subject to a forfeiture. If applicants cannot meet these requirements, in the alternative, applicants may instead submit audited financial statements from the three most recent consecutive fiscal years and a letter of interest from a qualified bank that the bank would provide a letter of credit to the bidder if the bidder were selected for bids of a certain dollar magnitude. The short-form application may also include additional certifications or requirements that are adopted in an auction procedures public notice.
228. Within a specified number of days of the release of a public notice announcing an entity as a winning bidder, that winning bidder will be required to file a long-form application. In this long-form application, winning bidders will be required to submit a self-certification regarding their financial and technical qualifications and a self-certification that specifies that that they will be able to meet all of the applicable public interest obligations for the relevant categories, including the requirement that they offer service at rates that are equal or lower to the Commission's reasonable comparability benchmarks for fixed wireline services offered in urban areas. Winning bidders will also be required to submit a description of the technology and system design they intend to use to deliver voice and broadband service, including a network diagram which must be certified by a professional engineer. The professional engineer must certify that the network is capable of delivering, to at least 95 percent of the required number of locations in each relevant state, voice and broadband service that meets the requisite performance requirements. Winning bidders proposing to use wireless technologies must also provide certain information related to their spectrum access and licenses if applicable.
229. Winning bidders will also have to certify in their long-form applications that they have available funds for all project costs that will exceed the amount of support that will be received
230. Within the number of days specified by public notice, the winning bidder will be required to submit a letter of credit commitment letter from a qualified bank as part of the long-form application process. Within 180 days of being announced as a winning bidder, winning bidders that demonstrated in their short-form application that they had provided a voice, broadband and/or electric distribution or transmission service for at least two years and did not submit their audited financials during the short-form application process, must submit their audited financial statements for the prior year. Within 180 days of an entity being announced as a winning bidder, the winning bidder will be required to submit appropriate documentation in its long-form application of its ETC designation in all areas for which it will receive support, documentation showing that the designated areas cover the bid areas, and a letter from an officer of the company certifying that the ETC designation covers the relevant areas where the winning bidder will receive support.
231. After the Commission has reviewed the winning bidder's long-form application and has determined that it is qualified to be authorized to begin receiving Phase II support, a public notice will be released stating that the winning bidder is ready to be authorized. At that point, the winning bidder will have the number of days specified by public notice to submit an irrevocable standby letter of credit from a bank that meets the Commission's requirements and an opinion letter from legal counsel. After the letter of credit and opinion letter are approved a public notice will be released authorizing the winning bidder to begin receiving Phase II auction support. Phase II recipients will be required to maintain an open and renewed letter of credit until USAC has verified that their build-outs are complete.
232. If an entity that files a short-form application defaults, it will be subject to a forfeiture. An entity will be considered in default if it fails to timely file a long-form application or meet document submission deadlines, is found ineligible or unqualified to receive Phase II support by the Bureaus on delegated authority, or otherwise defaults on its bid or is disqualified for any reason prior to the authorization of the support.
233. Once a Phase II recipient has been authorized to begin receiving support, it will be required to report certain information to the Commission so that the Commission can track the progress of Phase II recipients and monitor their use of the public's funds before and after they meet service milestones. Specifically, each year Phase II auction recipients will be required to submit by the last business day of the second calendar month following each support year a list of the geocoded locations and the total number of locations to which they have newly offered service meeting the requisite requirements with Connect America support in the prior year. The first list they submit, will also include a list of all of the locations where the recipient already offers service meeting the Commission's requirements before receiving support. Carrier are encouraged to submit their locations on a rolling basis to an online portal that will be developed by the Bureau and USAC, 30 days from the date of deployment. By the last business day of the second calendar month following the end of certain support years, recipients will also be required to submit certifications that they have met the relevant interim service milestones.
234. Like all recipients of Connect America support, all Phase II recipients are also required to file section 54.313 annual reports and section 54.314 certifications. In addition to other information required to be submitted in the section 54.313 annual reports, Phase II recipients will be required to identify the total amount of Connect America Phase II support they used for capital expenditures in the previous year and certify that they have available funds for all project costs that will exceed the amount of support that will be received from the Phase II auction for the next calendar year. After they have met the final service milestone, recipients will also be required to certify in their section 54.313 annual reports that the network they operated in the prior year met the Commission's performance requirements.
235. Analogous application and reporting requirements also are adopted for recipients of support awarded through the Remote Areas Fund auction.
236. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant alternatives that it has considered in reaching its approach, which may include the following four alternatives, among others: (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance or reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
237. The Commission has taken a number of steps to ensure that small entities have the opportunity to participate in the Phase II auction. For example, the Commission adopts different performance standards for bidders to maximize the types of entities that can participate in the Phase II auction. Recognizing that not all entities, including some small entities, will be able to meet the baseline performance standards the Commission adopts, it permits entities to choose to meet minimum performance requirements. Although the Commission will rank bids using weights and minimum performance bidders are not guaranteed a 10-year support term under certain circumstances, it does not restrict the geographic area where entities placing bids for relaxed standards can bid.
238. Because the Phase II challenge process was a resource-intensive process for all entities involved, the Commission has also decided to rely on Form 477 data and conduct a more streamlined challenge process to determine areas that are eligible for the Phase II auction. This means that competitors, who can be small entities, that qualify as an unsubsidized competitor will only have to file a Form 477 as they are already required to do to ensure that the areas they serve are not overbuilt and may submit comments within 30 days of the publication of the preliminary eligible census block list if they have built out since they have submitted June 2015 Form 477 data.
239. The Commission expects that the minimum geographic area for bidding will be a census block group containing one or more eligible census blocks. The Commission found adopting a larger minimum geographic unit would preclude entities from participating in the Phase II auction, including small
240. Based on lessons learned from the rural broadband experiments and in response to comments submitted by participating entities, including small entities, the Commission also adopts requirements for the short-form and long-form applications that will maximize the number and types of entities that can participate. For example, in the rural broadband experiments, the Commission required that provisionally selected bidders submit three years of audited financials. A number of entities, including small entities, could not meet this requirement because they had not been in business for three years or they claimed audited financials were prohibitively expensive. For the Phase II auction and the Remote Areas Fund, the Commission will require that applicants certify in their short-form application that they have provided voice, broadband, and/or electric distribution or transmission services for at least two years or that they are the wholly-owned subsidiary of such an entity. Applicants that have provided voice or broadband services must also certify that they have filed FCC Form 477s as required during that time period and submit their audited financial statements from the prior fiscal year. Applicants that have operated only an electric distribution or transmission network must submit qualified operating or financial reports. As an alternative, the Commission also permits applicants that have demonstrated that they have operated a network for two years but do not audit their financial statements in the ordinary course of business, many which may be small companies, to wait to submit audited financial statements until the long-form application review process. This will allow such applicants to avoid the cost of obtaining an audit if they are not ultimately announced as winning bidders. Also, by requiring only one year of audited financials, the Commission reduces the cost of this requirement for entities that have already demonstrated that they are able to maintain a voice, broadband, and/or electric distribution or transmission network for two years.
241. Recognizing that these requirements may preclude entities, including small entities, that have not operated a voice, broadband, and/or electric distribution or transmission network for two years, the Commission also provides the alternative of letting applicants instead submit three year of audited financials and a letter of interest from a qualified bank that the bank would provide a letter of credit to the bidder if the bidder were selected for bids of a certain dollar magnitude. The Commission concluded that its interest in having some level of insight into the financial health over a significant period of time of applicants that lack an operating history outweigh the costs of obtaining three years of financial statements for this subset of entities.
242. Additionally, the Commission has taken steps to reduce the costs of the letter of credit requirement for the recipients of support awarded through a competitive bidding process to serve fixed locations in response to claims from entities, particularly small entities, that the letter of credit requirement for the rural broadband experiments was prohibitively expensive. First, the Commission only requires that recipients maintain an open irrevocable standby letter of credit until it has been verified that they have met the final service milestone; in the rural broadband experiments the letter of credit originally had to be open and renewed for the entire support term. Second, recipients can modestly reduce the value of their letters of credit as they have made substantial progress in building out their networks by meeting certain service milestones. Third, the Commission has modified its issuing bank eligibility requirements for all recipients of support authorized through competitive bidding to serve fixed locations. The Commission has expanded the pool of eligible U.S. banks and made the National Rural Utilities Cooperative Finance Corporation (CFC) an eligible issuing bank. This will potentially reduce the costs and other challenges of obtaining a letter of credit for entities that lack established business relationships with larger banks.
243. The Commission notes that the reporting requirements it adopts are tailored to ensuring that support is used for its intended purpose and so that the Commission can monitor the progress of recipients in meeting their service milestones. The Commission finds that the importance of monitoring the use of the public's funds outweighs the burden of filing the required information on all entities, including small entities, particularly because much of the information that it requires they report is information it expects they will already be collecting to ensure they comply with the terms and conditions of support and they will be able to submit their location data on a rolling basis to help minimize the burden of uploading a large number of locations at once.
244.
245. Accordingly,
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
252.
Administrative practice and procedure, Civil rights, Claims, Communications common carriers, Cuba, Drug abuse, Environmental impact statements, Equal access to justice, Equal employment opportunity, Federal buildings and facilities, Government employees, Income taxes, Indemnity payments, Individuals with disabilities, Investigations, Lawyers, Metric system, Penalties, Radio, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Telecommunications, Television, Wages.
Communications common carriers, Health facilities, Infants and children, Internet, Libraries, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Schools, Telecommunications, Telephone.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR parts 1and 54 as follows:
15 U.S.C. 79,
(b) * * *
(6) Certification that the applicant is in compliance with all statutory and regulatory requirements for receiving the universal service support that the applicant seeks, or, if expressly allowed by the rules specific to a high-cost support mechanism, a certification that the applicant acknowledges that it must be in compliance with such requirements before being authorized to receive support;
47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 155, 201, 205, 214, 219, 220, 254, 303(r), 403, and 1302 unless otherwise noted.
(a) Recipients of Connect America Phase II support are required to offer broadband service with latency suitable for real-time applications, including Voice over Internet Protocol, and usage capacity that is reasonably comparable to comparable offerings in urban areas, at rates that are reasonably comparable to rates for comparable offerings in urban areas. For purposes of determining reasonable comparable usage capacity, recipients are presumed to meet this requirement if they meet or exceed the usage level announced by public notice issued by the Wireline Competition Bureau. For purposes of determining reasonable comparability of rates, recipients are presumed to meet this requirement if they offer rates at or below the applicable benchmark to be announced annually by public notice issued by the Wireline Competition Bureau, or no more than the non-promotional prices charged for a comparable fixed wireline service in urban areas in the state or U.S. Territory where the eligible telecommunications carrier receives support.
(1) Recipients of Connect America Phase II model-based support are required to offer broadband service at actual speeds of at least 10 Mbps downstream/1 Mbps upstream.
(2) Recipients of Connect America Phase II support awarded through a competitive bidding process are required to offer broadband service meeting the performance standards required in bid tiers based on performance standards.
(i) Winning bidders meeting the minimum performance tier standards are required to offer broadband service at actual speeds of 10 Mbps downstream and 1 Mbps upstream and to offer at least 150 gigabytes of monthly usage.
(ii) Winning bidders meeting the baseline performance tier standards are required to offer broadband service at actual speeds of at least 25 Mbps downstream and 3 Mbps upstream and offer a minimum usage allowance of 150 GB per month, or that reflects the average usage of a majority of fixed broadband customers, using Measuring Broadband America data or a similar data source, whichever is higher, and announced annually by public notice issued by the Wireline Competition Bureau over the 10-year term.
(iii) Winning bidders meeting the above-baseline performance tier standards are required to offer broadband service at actual speeds of at least 100 Mbps downstream and 20 Mbps upstream and offer an unlimited monthly usage allowance.
(iv) Winning bidders meeting the Gigabit performance tier standards are required to offer broadband service at actual speeds of at least 1 Gigabit per second downstream and 500 Mbps upstream and offer an unlimited monthly usage allowance.
(v) For each of the tiers in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section, bidders are required to meet one of two latency performance levels:
(A) Low latency bidders will be required to meet 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of network round trip latency at or below 100 milliseconds; and
(B) High latency bidders will be required to meet 95 percent or more of all peak period measurements of
(c)
(1) For purposes of meeting the obligation to deploy to the requisite number of supported locations in a state, recipients of Connect America Phase II model-based support may serve unserved locations in census blocks with costs above the extremely high-cost threshold instead of locations in eligible census blocks, provided that they meet the public interest obligations set forth in § 54.309(a) introductory text and (a)(1) for those locations and provided that the total number of locations covered is greater than or equal to the number of supported locations in the state.
(2) Recipients of Connect America Phase II support may elect to deploy to 95 percent of the number of supported locations in a given state with a corresponding reduction in support computed based on the average support per location in the state times 1.89.
(e) In addition to the information and certifications in paragraph (a) of this section, the following requirements apply to Phase II and Remote Areas Fund recipients:
(1) Any price cap carrier that elects to receive Connect America Phase II model-based support shall provide:
(i) On July 1, 2016 a list of the geocoded locations already meeting the § 54.309 public interest obligations at the end of calendar year 2015, and the total amount of Phase II support, if any, the price cap carrier used for capital expenditures in 2015.
(ii) On July 1, 2017 and every year thereafter ending July 1, 2021, the following information:
(A) The number, names, and addresses of community anchor institutions to which the eligible telecommunications carrier newly began providing access to broadband service in the preceding calendar year;
(B) The total amount of Phase II support, if any, the price cap carrier used for capital expenditures in the previous calendar year; and
(C) A certification that it bid on category one telecommunications and Internet access services in response to all FCC Form 470 postings seeking broadband service that meets the connectivity targets for the schools and libraries universal service support program for eligible schools and libraries (as described in § 54.501) located within any area in a census block where the carrier is receiving Phase II model-based support, and that such bids were at rates reasonably comparable to rates charged to eligible schools and libraries in urban areas for comparable offerings.
(2) Any recipient of Phase II or Remote Areas Fund support awarded through a competitive bidding process shall provide:
(i) Starting the first July 1st after receiving support until the July 1st after the recipient's support term has ended:
(A) The number, names, and addresses of community anchor institutions to which the eligible telecommunications carrier newly began providing access to broadband service in the preceding calendar year;
(B) The total amount of support, if any, the recipient used for capital expenditures in the previous calendar year; and
(C) A certification that it bid on category one telecommunications and Internet access services in response to all FCC Form 470 postings seeking broadband service that meets the connectivity targets for the schools and libraries universal service support program for eligible schools and libraries (as described in § 54.501) located within any area in a census block where the carrier is receiving support awarded through auction, and that such bids were at rates reasonably comparable to rates charged to eligible schools and libraries in urban areas for comparable offerings.
(ii) Starting the first July 1st after receiving support until the July 1st after the recipient's penultimate year of support, a certification that the recipient has available funds for all project costs that will exceed the amount of support that will be received for the next calendar year.
(iii) Starting the first July 1st after meeting the final service milestone in § 54.310(c) of this chapter until the July 1st after the Phase II recipient's support term has ended, a certification that the Phase II-funded network that the Phase II auction recipient operated in the prior year meets the relevant performance requirements in § 54.309 of this chapter, or that the network that the Remote Areas Fund recipient operated in the prior year meets the relevant performance requirements for the Remote Areas Fund.
(a) Application to participate in competitive bidding for Phase II support. In addition to providing information specified in § 1.21001(b) of this chapter and any other information required by the Commission, an applicant to participate in competitive bidding for Phase II auction support shall:
(1) Provide ownership information as set forth in § 1.2112(a) of this chapter;
(2) Certify that the applicant is financially and technically qualified to meet the public interest obligations of § 54.309 for each relevant tier and in each area for which it seeks support;
(3) Disclose its status as an eligible telecommunications carrier to the extent applicable and certify that it acknowledges that it must be designated as an eligible telecommunications carrier for the area in which it will receive support prior to being authorized to receive support;
(4) Indicate the tier of bids that the applicant plans to make and describe the technology or technologies that will be used to provide service for each tier of bid;
(5) Submit any information required to establish eligibility for any bidding weights adopted by the Commission in an order or public notice;
(6) To the extent that an applicant plans to use spectrum to offer its voice
(7) Submit specified operational and financial information.
(i) Submit a certification that the applicant has provided a voice, broadband, and/or electric transmission or distribution service for at least two years or that it is a wholly-owned subsidiary of such an entity, and specifying the number of years the applicant or its parent company has been operating, and submit the financial statements from the prior fiscal year that are audited by a certified public accountant. If the applicant is not audited in the ordinary course of business, in lieu of submitting audited financial statements it must certify that it will provide financial statements from the prior fiscal year that are audited by a certified independent public accountant by a specified deadline during the long-form application review process.
(A) If the applicant has provided a voice and/or broadband service it must certify that it has filed FCC Form 477s as required during this time period.
(B) If the applicant has operated only an electric transmission or distribution service, it must submit qualified operating or financial reports that it has filed with the relevant financial institution for the relevant time period along with a certification that the submission is a true and accurate copy of the reports that were provided to the relevant financial institution.
(ii) If an applicant cannot meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section, in the alternative it must submit the audited financial statements from the three most recent fiscal years and a letter of interest from a bank meeting the qualifications set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, that the bank would provide a letter of credit as described in paragraph (c) of this section to the bidder if the bidder were selected for bids of a certain dollar magnitude.
(b)
(2)
(i) Identification of the party seeking the support, including ownership information as set forth in § 1.2112(a) of this chapter;
(ii) Certification that the applicant is financially and technically qualified to meet the public interest obligations of § 54.309 for each tier in which it is a winning bidder and in each area for which it seeks support;
(iii) Certification that the applicant will meet the relevant public interest obligations for each relevant tier, including the requirement that it will offer service at rates that are equal or lower to the Commission's reasonable comparability benchmarks for fixed wireline services offered in urban areas;
(iv) A description of the technology and system design the applicant intends to use to deliver voice and broadband service, including a network diagram which must be certified by a professional engineer. The professional engineer must certify that the network is capable of delivering, to at least 95 percent of the required number of locations in each relevant state, voice and broadband service that meets the requisite performance requirements in § 54.309;
(v) Certification that the applicant will have available funds for all project costs that exceed the amount of support to be received from the Phase II auction for the first two years of its support term and that the applicant will comply with all program requirements, including service milestones;
(vi) A description of how the required construction will be funded, including financial projections that demonstrate the applicant can cover the necessary debt service payments over the life of the loan, if any;
(vii) Certification that the party submitting the application is authorized to do so on behalf of the applicant; and
(viii) Such additional information as the Commission may require.
(3) No later than the number of days provided by public notice, the applicant shall submit a letter from a bank meeting the eligibility requirements outlined in paragraph (c) of this section committing to issue an irrevocable stand-by letter of credit, in the required form, to the winning bidder. The letter shall at a minimum provide the dollar amount of the letter of credit and the issuing bank's agreement to follow the terms and conditions of the Commission's model letter of credit.
(4) No later than 180 days after the public notice identifying them as a winning bidder, bidders that did not submit audited financial statements in their short-form application pursuant to paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section must submit the financial statements from the prior fiscal year that are audited by a certified independent public accountant.
(5) No later than 180 days after the public notice identifying it as a winning bidder, the applicant shall certify that it is an eligible telecommunications carrier in any area for which it seeks support and submit the relevant documentation supporting that certification.
(6)
(ii) Any application that, as of the submission deadline, either does not identify the applicant seeking support as specified in the public notice announcing application procedures or does not include required certifications shall be denied.
(iii) An applicant may be afforded an opportunity to make minor modifications to amend its application or correct defects noted by the applicant, the Commission, the Administrator, or other parties. Minor modifications include correcting typographical errors in the application and supplying non-material information that was inadvertently omitted or was not available at the time the application was submitted.
(iv) Applications to which major modifications are made after the deadline for submitting applications shall be denied. Major modifications include, but are not limited to, any changes in the ownership of the applicant that constitute an assignment or change of control, or the identity of the applicant, or the certifications required in the application.
(v) After receipt and review of the applications, a public notice shall identify each winning bidder that may be authorized to receive Phase II auction support after the winning bidder submits a letter of credit and an accompanying opinion letter as described in paragraph (c) of this section, in a form acceptable to the Commission. Each such winning bidder shall submit a letter of credit and accompanying opinion letter as required by paragraph (c) of this section, in a form acceptable to the Commission no
(vi) After receipt of all necessary information, a public notice will identify each winning bidder that is authorized to receive Phase II auction support.
(c)
(1)
(i) Once the recipient has met its 60 percent service milestone, it may obtain a new letter of credit or renew its existing letter of credit so that it is valued at a minimum at 90 percent of the total support amount already disbursed plus the amount that will be disbursed in the coming year.
(ii) Once the recipient has met its 80 percent service milestone, it may obtain a new letter of credit or renew its existing letter of credit so that it is valued at a minimum at 80 percent of the total support that has been disbursed plus the amount that will be disbursed in the coming year.
(2) The bank issuing the letter of credit shall be acceptable to the Commission. A bank that is acceptable to the Commission is:
(i) Any United States bank
(A) That is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and
(B) That has a bank safety rating issued by Weiss of B- or better; or
(ii) CoBank, so long as it maintains assets that place it among the 100 largest United States Banks, determined on basis of total assets as of the calendar year immediately preceding the issuance of the letter of credit and it has a long-term unsecured credit rating issued by Standard & Poor's of BBB- or better (or an equivalent rating from another nationally recognized credit rating agency); or
(iii) The National Rural Utilities Cooperative Finance Corporation, so long as it maintains assets that place it among the 100 largest United States Banks, determined on basis of total assets as of the calendar year immediately preceding the issuance of the letter of credit and it has a long-term unsecured credit rating issued by Standard & Poor's of BBB- or better (or an equivalent rating from another nationally recognized credit rating agency); or
(iv) Any non-United States bank
(A) That is among the 50 largest non-U.S. banks in the world, determined on the basis of total assets as of the end of the calendar year immediately preceding the issuance of the letter of credit (determined on a U.S. dollar equivalent basis as of such date);
(B) Has a branch office in the District of Columbia or such other branch office agreed to by the Commission;
(C) Has a long-term unsecured credit rating issued by a widely-recognized credit rating agency that is equivalent to a BBB- or better rating by Standard & Poor's; and
(D) Issues the letter of credit payable in United States dollars
(3) A winning bidder for Phase II auction support shall provide with its letter of credit an opinion letter from its legal counsel clearly stating, subject only to customary assumptions, limitations, and qualifications, that in a proceeding under Title 11 of the United States Code, 11 U.S.C. 101
(4) Authorization to receive Phase II auction support is conditioned upon full and timely performance of all of the requirements set forth in this section, and any additional terms and conditions upon which the support was granted.
(i) Failure by a Phase II auction support recipient to meet its service milestones as required by § 54.310 will trigger reporting obligations and the withholding of support as described in § 54.320(c). Failure to come into full compliance within 12 months will trigger a recovery action by the Universal Service Administrative Company. If the Phase II recipient does not repay the requisite amount of support within six months, the Universal Service Administrative Company will be entitled to draw the entire amount of the letter of credit and may disqualify the Phase II auction support recipient from the receipt of Phase II auction support or additional universal service support.
(ii) The default will be evidenced by a letter issued by the Chief of the Wireline Competition Bureau or the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, or their respective designees, which letter, attached to a standby letter of credit draw certificate, shall be sufficient for a draw on the standby letter of credit for the entire amount of the standby letter of credit.
(a)
(4) Recipients subject to the requirements of § 54.310(c) shall report the number of locations for each state and locational information, including geocodes, where they are offering service at the requisite speeds. Recipients of Phase II Auction support and Remote Areas Fund support shall also report the technology they use to serve those locations.
(b)
(4) Recipients of Connect America Phase II auction support shall provide: By the last business day of the second calendar month following each service milestone in § 54.310(c), a certification that by the end of the prior support year, it was offering broadband meeting the requisite public interest obligations specific in § 54.309 to the required percentage of its supported locations in each state as set forth in § 54.310(c).
(5) Recipients of Remote Areas Fund support shall provide: By the last business day of the second calendar month following each service milestone specified by the Commission, a certification that by the end of the prior support year, it was offering broadband meeting the requisite public interest obligations to the required percentage of its supported locations in each state.
(c)
(1) Price cap carriers that accepted Phase II model-based support and rate-of-return carriers must submit the annual reporting information required by March 1 as described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. Eligible telecommunications carriers that file their reports after the March 1 deadline shall receive a reduction in support pursuant to the following schedule:
(i) An eligible telecommunications carrier that files after the March 1 deadline, but by March 9, will have its support reduced in an amount equivalent to seven days in support;
(ii) An eligible telecommunications carrier that files on or after March 9 will have its support reduced on a pro-rata daily basis equivalent to the period of non-compliance, plus the minimum seven-day reduction;
(iii)
(2) Recipients of support to serve fixed locations awarded through a competitive bidding process must submit the annual reporting information required by the last business day of the second calendar month following the relevant support years as described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. Eligible telecommunications carriers that file their reports after the deadline shall receive a reduction in support pursuant to the following schedule:
(i) An eligible telecommunications carrier that files after the deadline, but within seven days of the deadline, will have its support reduced in an amount equivalent to seven days in support;
(ii) An eligible telecommunications carrier that filed on or after the eighth day following the deadline will have its support reduced on a pro-rata daily basis equivalent to the period of non-compliance, plus the minimum seven-day reduction;
(iii)
The Commission will use competitive bidding, as provided in part 1, subpart AA of this chapter, to determine the recipients of Remote Areas Fund support and the amount of support that they may receive for specific geographic areas, subject to applicable post-auction procedures.
Remote Areas Fund support may be made available for census blocks identified as eligible by public notice.
(a) Any eligible telecommunications carrier is eligible to receive Remote Areas Fund support in eligible areas.
(b) An entity may obtain eligible telecommunications carrier designation after public notice of winning bidders in the Remote Areas Fund auction.
(c) To the extent any entity seeks eligible telecommunications carrier designation prior to public notice of winning bidders for Remote Areas Fund support, its designation as an eligible telecommunications carrier may be conditional subject to the receipt of Remote Areas Fund support.
(a) Any entity qualified to bid in the Phase II auction pursuant to § 54.315(a) shall be pre-qualified to bid in the Remote Areas Fund auction, subject to the requirement that there be no material change in any information previously submitted in the application to bid for Phase II support.
(b) In addition to providing information specified in § 1.21001(b) of this chapter and any other information required by the Commission, any applicant to participate in competitive bidding for Remote Areas Fund support shall:
(1) Provide ownership information as set forth in § 1.2112(a) of this chapter;
(2) Certify that the applicant is financially and technically qualified to meet the public interest obligations established for Remote Areas Fund support;
(3) Disclose its status as an eligible telecommunications carrier to the extent applicable and certify that it acknowledges that it must be designated as an eligible telecommunications carrier for the area in which it will receive support prior to being authorized to receive support;
(4) Describe the technology or technologies that will be used to provide service for each bid;
(5) Submit any information required to establish eligibility for any bidding weights adopted by the Commission in an order or public notice;
(6) To the extent that an applicant plans to use spectrum to offer its voice and broadband services, demonstrate it has the proper authorizations, if applicable, and access to operate on the spectrum it intends to use, and that the spectrum resources will be sufficient to cover peak network usage and deliver the minimum performance requirements to serve all of the fixed locations in eligible areas, and certify that it will retain its access to the spectrum for the term of support; and
(7) Submit specified operational and financial information.
(i) Submit a certification that the applicant has provided a voice, broadband, and/or electric transmission or distribution service for at least two years or that it is a wholly-owned subsidiary of such an entity, and specifying the number of years the applicant or its parent company has been operating, and submit the financial statements from the prior fiscal year that are audited by a certified public accountant. If the applicant is not audited in the ordinary course of business, in lieu of submitting audited financial statements it must certify that it will provide financial statements from the prior fiscal year that are audited by a certified independent public accountant by a specified deadline during the long-form application review process.
(A) If the applicant has provided a voice and/or broadband service it must certify that it has filed FCC Form 477s as required during this time period.
(B) If the applicant has operated only an electric transmission or distribution service, it must submit qualified operating or financial reports that it has filed with the relevant financial institution for the relevant time period along with a certification that the submission is a true and accurate copy of the reports that were provided to the relevant financial institution.
(ii) If an applicant cannot meet the requirements in paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section, in the alternative it must submit the audited financial statements from the three most recent fiscal years and a letter of interest from a bank meeting the qualifications set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, that the bank would provide a letter of credit as described in paragraph (d) of this section to the bidder if the bidder were selected for bids of a certain dollar magnitude.
(c)
(2)
(i) Identification of the party seeking the support, including ownership information as set forth in § 1.2112(a) of this chapter;
(ii) Certification that the applicant is financially and technically qualified to meet the public interest obligations for Remote Areas Fund support in each area for which it seeks support;
(iii) Certification that the applicant will meet the relevant public interest obligations, including the requirement that it will offer service at rates that are equal or lower to the Commission's reasonable comparability benchmarks for fixed wireline services offered in urban areas;
(iv) A description of the technology and system design the applicant intends to use to deliver voice and broadband service, including a network diagram which must be certified by a professional engineer. The professional engineer must certify that the network is capable of delivering, to at least 95 percent of the required number of locations in each relevant state, voice and broadband service that meets the requisite performance requirements for Remote Areas Fund support;
(v) Certification that the applicant will have available funds for all project costs that exceed the amount of support to be received from the Remote Areas Fund for the first two years of its support term and that the applicant will comply with all program requirements, including service milestones;
(vi) A description of how the required construction will be funded, including financial projections that demonstrate the applicant can cover the necessary debt service payments over the life of the loan, if any;
(vii) Certification that the party submitting the application is authorized to do so on behalf of the applicant; and
(viii) Such additional information as the Commission may require.
(3) No later than the number of days provided by public notice, the applicant shall submit a letter from a bank meeting the eligibility requirements outlined in paragraph (d) of this section committing to issue an irrevocable stand-by letter of credit, in the required form, to the winning bidder. The letter shall at a minimum provide the dollar amount of the letter of credit and the issuing bank's agreement to follow the terms and conditions of the Commission's model letter of credit.
(4) No later than 180 days after the public notice identifying them as a winning bidder, bidders that did not submit audited financial statements in their short-form application pursuant to paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section must submit the financial statements from the prior fiscal year that are audited by a certified independent public accountant.
(5) No later than 180 days after the public notice identifying it as a winning bidder, the applicant shall certify that it is an eligible telecommunications carrier in any area for which it seeks support and submit the relevant documentation supporting that certification.
(6)
(ii) Any application that, as of the submission deadline, either does not identify the applicant seeking support as specified in the public notice announcing application procedures or does not include required certifications shall be denied.
(iii) An applicant may be afforded an opportunity to make minor modifications to amend its application or correct defects noted by the applicant, the Commission, the Administrator, or other parties. Minor modifications include correcting typographical errors in the application and supplying non-material information that was inadvertently omitted or was not available at the time the application was submitted.
(iv) Applications to which major modifications are made after the deadline for submitting applications shall be denied. Major modifications include, but are not limited to, any changes in the ownership of the applicant that constitute an assignment or change of control, or the identity of the applicant, or the certifications required in the application.
(v) After receipt and review of the applications, a public notice shall identify each winning bidder that may be authorized to receive Remote Areas Fund support after the winning bidder submits a letter of credit and an accompanying opinion letter as described in paragraph (d) of this section, in a form acceptable to the Commission. Each such winning bidder shall submit a letter of credit and accompanying opinion letter as required by paragraph (d) of this section, in a form acceptable to the Commission no later than the number of business days provided by public notice.
(vi) After receipt of all necessary information, a public notice will identify each winning bidder that is authorized to receive Remote Areas Fund support.
(d)
(1)
(i) Once the recipient has met its 60 percent service milestone, it may obtain a new letter of credit or renew its existing letter of credit so that it is valued at a minimum at 90 percent of the total support amount already disbursed plus the amount that will be disbursed in the coming year.
(ii) Once the recipient has met its 80 percent service milestone, it may obtain a new letter of credit or renew its existing letter of credit so that it is valued at a minimum at 80 percent of the total support that has been disbursed plus the amount that will be disbursed in the coming year.
(2) The bank issuing the letter of credit shall be acceptable to the Commission. A bank that is acceptable to the Commission is:
(i) Any United States bank
(A) That is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and
(B) That has a bank safety rating issued by Weiss of B- or better; or
(ii) CoBank, so long as it maintains assets that place it among the 100 largest United States Banks, determined on basis of total assets as of the calendar year immediately preceding the issuance of the letter of credit and it has a long-term unsecured credit rating issued by Standard & Poor's of BBB- or better (or an equivalent rating from another nationally recognized credit rating agency); or
(iii) The National Rural Utilities Cooperative Finance Corporation, so long as it maintains assets that place it among the 100 largest United States Banks, determined on basis of total assets as of the calendar year immediately preceding the issuance of the letter of credit and it has a long-term unsecured credit rating issued by Standard & Poor's of BBB- or better (or an equivalent rating from another nationally recognized credit rating agency); or
(iv) Any non-United States bank:
(A) That is among the 50 largest non-U.S. banks in the world, determined on the basis of total assets as of the end of the calendar year immediately preceding the issuance of the letter of credit (determined on a U.S. dollar equivalent basis as of such date);
(B) Has a branch office in the District of Columbia or such other branch office agreed to by the Commission;
(C) Has a long-term unsecured credit rating issued by a widely-recognized credit rating agency that is equivalent to a BBB- or better rating by Standard & Poor's; and
(D) Issues the letter of credit payable in United States dollars
(3) A winning bidder for Remote Areas Fund support shall provide with its letter of credit an opinion letter from its legal counsel clearly stating, subject only to customary assumptions, limitations, and qualifications, that in a proceeding under Title 11 of the United States Code, 11 U.S.C. 101
(4) Authorization to receive Remote Areas Fund support is conditioned upon full and timely performance of all of the requirements set forth in this section, and any additional terms and conditions upon which the support was granted.
(i) Failure by a Remote Areas Fund support recipient to meet its service milestones as required by § 54.310 will trigger reporting obligations and the withholding of support as described in § 54.320(c). Failure to come into full compliance within 12 months will trigger a recovery action by the Universal Service Administrative Company. If the Remote Areas Fund recipient does not repay the requisite amount of support within six months, the Universal Service Administrative Company will be entitled to draw the entire amount of the letter of credit and may disqualify the Remote Areas Fund support recipient from the receipt of Remote Areas Fund support or additional universal service support.
(ii) The default will be evidenced by a letter issued by the Chief of the Wireline Competition Bureau or the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, or their respective designees, which letter, attached to a standby letter of credit draw certificate, shall be sufficient for a draw on the standby letter of credit for the entire amount of the standby letter of credit.
Recipients of Remote Areas Fund support shall be subject to the reporting obligations set forth in § 54.313.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Final rule.
This final rule implements requirements under Section 105 of the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015 that expand how qualified entities may use and disclose data under the qualified entity program to the extent consistent with applicable program requirements and other applicable laws, including information, privacy, security and disclosure laws. This rule also explains how qualified entities may create non-public analyses and provide or sell such analyses to authorized users, as well as how qualified entities may provide or sell combined data, or provide Medicare claims data alone at no cost, to certain authorized users. In addition, this rule implements certain privacy and security requirements, and imposes assessments on qualified entities if the qualified entity or the authorized user violates the terms of a data use agreement required by the qualified entity program.
These regulations are effective on September 6, 2016.
Allison Oelschlaeger, (202) 690-8257. Kari Gaare, (410) 786-8612.
On April 16, 2015, the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015 (MACRA) (Pub. L. 114-10) was enacted. The law included a provision, Section 105, Expanding the Availability of Medicare Data, which takes effect on July 1, 2016. This section expands how qualified entities will be allowed to use and disclose data under the qualified entity program, including data subject to section 1874(e) of the Social Security Act (the Act), to the extent consistent with other applicable laws, including information, privacy, security and disclosure laws.
The Qualified Entity program was established by Section 10332 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Affordable Care Act) (Pub. L. 111-148). The implementing regulations, which became effective January 6, 2012, are found in subpart G of 42 CFR part 401 (76 FR 76542). Under those provisions, CMS provides standardized extracts of Medicare Part A and B claims data and Part D drug event data (hereinafter collectively referred to as Medicare claims data) covering one or more geographic regions to qualified entities at a fee equal to the cost of producing the data. Under the original statutory provisions, such Medicare claims data must be combined with other non-Medicare claims data and may only be used to evaluate the performance of providers and suppliers. The measures, methodologies and results that comprise such evaluations are subject to review and correction by the subject providers and suppliers, after which the results are to be disseminated in public reports.
Those wishing to become qualified entities are required to apply to the program. Currently, fourteen organizations have applied and received approval to be a qualified entity. Of these organizations, two have completed public reporting while the other twelve are in various stages of preparing for public reporting. While we have been pleased with the participation in the program so far, we expect that the changes required by MACRA will increase interest in the program.
Under section 105 of MACRA, effective July 1, 2016, qualified entities will be allowed to use the combined data and information derived from the evaluations described in 1874(e)(4)(D) of the Act to conduct non-public analyses and provide or sell these analyses to authorized users for non-public use in accordance with the program requirements and other applicable laws. In highlighting the need to comply with other applicable laws, we particularly note that any qualified entity that is a covered entity or business associate as defined in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (“HIPAA”) regulations at 45 CFR 160.103 will need to ensure compliance with any applicable HIPAA requirements, including the restriction on the sale of protected health information (PHI) without authorization at 45 CFR 164.502(a)(5)(ii).
In addition, qualified entities will be permitted to provide or sell the combined data, or provide the Medicare claims data alone at no cost, again, in accordance with the program requirements and other applicable laws, to providers, suppliers, hospital associations, and medical societies. Qualified entities that elect to provide or sell analyses and/or data under these new provisions will be subject to an assessment if they or the authorized users to whom they disclose patient-identifiable data in the form of analyses or raw data act in a manner that violates the terms of a program-required Qualified Entity Data Use Agreement (QE DUA). Furthermore, qualified entities that make analyses or data available under these new provisions will be subject to new annual reporting requirements to aid CMS in monitoring compliance with the program requirements. These new annual reporting requirements will only apply to qualified entities that choose to provide or sell non-public analyses and/or provide or sell combined data, or provide Medicare claims data alone at no cost.
We believe these changes to the qualified entity program will be important in driving higher quality, lower cost care in Medicare and the health system in general. We also believe that these changes will increase interest in the qualified entity program, leading to more transparency regarding provider and supplier performance and innovative uses of data that will result in improvements to the healthcare delivery system while still ensuring appropriate privacy and security protections for beneficiary-identifiable data.
In the February 2, 2016
In the proposed rule, to implement the new statutory provisions of section 105 of MACRA, we proposed to amend and make conforming changes to part 401, subpart G, “Availability of Medicare Data for Performance Measurement.” We received approximately 50 comments on the proposed rule from a wide variety of individuals and organizations. Many of the comments were from providers or suppliers, or organizations representing providers and suppliers. We also received a number of comments from organizations engaged in performance measurement or data aggregation, some of whom are already qualified entities and others who may apply to be qualified entities in the future. Other comments came from registries, state Medicaid agencies, issuers, and individuals.
Many of the comments were positive and praised CMS for the proposed
A more detailed summary of the public comments and our responses can be found below in the appropriate sections of this final rule.
In accordance with Section 105(a)(1) of MACRA, we proposed to allow for the qualified entity's use of the combined data or information derived from the evaluations described in section 1874(e)(4)(D) of the Act to create non-public analyses and provide for the provision or sale of these analyses to authorized users in accordance with the program requirements discussed later in this section, as well as other applicable laws.
The statute, at 1874(e)(4)(D) of the Act, explicitly states, “data released to a qualified entity under this subsection shall not be subject to discovery or admission as evidence in judicial or administrative proceedings without consent of the applicable provider or supplier.” We believe this statutory shield only applies to data released to the qualified entity under 1874(e) and when that data is in the possession of the qualified entity. Once the Medicare data is used to create non-public analyses and those non-public analyses are shared with authorized users, we do not believe the statutory shield applies.
In the proposed rule, we defined combined data as a set of CMS claims data provided under subpart G combined with a subset of claims data from at least one of the other claims data sources described in § 401.707(d). We did not propose to establish a minimum amount of data that must be included in the combined data set from other sources.
However, we do recognize the value of combining claims data with clinical data for the development of non-public analyses and believe the use of clinical data in non-public analyses can significantly improve the value of these analyses to support quality and patient improvement activities. Clinical data such as laboratory test results or radiology and pathology reports, can add useful information about a patient's chronic condition burden, health status, and other factors that are not available in claims data. We can also see some value in combining consumer, socio-demographic, and other types of patient and provider level data with the Medicare data. As a result, we do want to clarify, that combined data requires at a minimum that the CMS claims data be combined with other sources of claims data, but that this does not prevent the qualified entity from merging other data (for example, clinical, consumer, or socio-demographic data) with the combined data for the development of non-public analyses.
In accordance with section 105(a)(1) of MACRA, we proposed a number of limitations on qualified entities with respect to the sale and provision of non-public analyses.
First, we proposed to limit qualified entities to only providing or selling non-public analyses to issuers after the issuer provides the qualified entity with claims data that represents a majority of the issuers' covered lives in the geographic region and during the time frame of the non-public analyses requested by the issuer.
We would like to clarify, however, that the requirement that an issuer provide the qualified entity with claims data for at least 50 percent of its covered lives for the time period and geographic region covered by the analyses does not mean that all analyses provided or sold to the issuer would need to be based on analyses that considered at least 50 percent of the issuers' covered lives. So long as Medicare data is combined with other claims data to create the analyses, certain analyses, such as those on rare diseases, could be based only on a subset of the Medicare claims data and other claims data collected by the qualified entity. For example, an issuer could provide data for at least 50 percent of their covered lives for the time period and geographic region of the non-public analyses to a qualified entity. The qualified entity could then use a subset of that data, such as patients with a specific rare disease, combine it with Medicare data for patients with that rare disease, and provide or sell analyses about patients with the rare disease to the issuer. We would like to note, however, that qualified entities will need to be careful when producing analyses for issuers based on small populations and limited claims data to ensure that the resulting analyses truly are patient de-identified.
We understand the desire to create an exceptions process to allow issuers who do not contribute a majority of their covered lives in the geographic region and during the timeframe of the non-public analyses requested by the issuer to receive analyses. However, we believe that imposing a standard threshold for issuer covered lives across all qualified entities and issuers is the simplest and least administratively burdensome method to ensure equal treatment of qualified entities and issuers under this program.
We also understand the interest in allowing qualified entities to provide or sell analyses to health insurance issuers who have made a good faith commitment to provide the qualified entity with claims data for the majority of their covered lives in the geographic region and during the time frame of the non-public analyses requested by the issuer. However, we believe that this type of policy could reduce the incentives for issuers to share their data with the qualified entity.
We recognize the desire to allow use of data from other sources to meet the issuer's claims submission threshold. However, due to the statutory limits on to whom the qualified entity may release patient identifiable data, we do not believe it would be possible for an issuer to ever verify whether the data the qualified entity holds is representative of the majority of the issuer's covered lives in the applicable geographic region during the applicable time frame unless the issuer or its business associate was the source of such data.
Regarding the definition of covered lives, we recognize that there is no commonly accepted definition of covered lives. We plan to rely on the methods of calculating covered lives established in regulations promulgated by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) in December of 2012. These regulations at 26 CFR 46.4375-1(c)(2) offer issuers four methods for calculating the average number of lives covered under a specified health insurance policy—(1) the actual count method, (2) the snapshot method, (3) the member months method, and (4) the state form method—and provide both the calculation method and an example for each of the four methods for counting covered lives. These calculations all only apply to health insurance policies and we would like to clarify that the calculation of covered lives for purposes of the qualified entity program does not include dental, disability, or life insurance policies. We have modified the regulatory text at § 401.716(b)(1) to refer directly to the IRS regulations.
Second, we proposed that except when patient-identifiable non-public analyses are shared with the patient's provider or supplier, all non-public analyses must be patient de-identified using the de-identification standards in the HIPAA Privacy Rule at 45 CFR 164.514(b). Additional information on the HIPAA de-identification standards can be found on the HHS Office for Civil Rights Web site at
Third, we proposed to bar qualified entities' disclosure of non-public analyses that individually identify a provider or supplier unless: (a) The analysis only individually identifies the singular recipient of the analysis or (b) each provider or supplier who is individually identified in a non-public analysis that identifies multiple providers/suppliers has been afforded an opportunity to review the aspects of the analysis about them, and, if applicable, request error correction. We describe the proposed appeal and error correction process in more detail in section II.A.4 below.
However, we recognize that in many cases providers or suppliers may wish to allow certain authorized users to receive analyses without the need for a review process. For example, clinicians that are part of a group practice may want to allow their practice manager, who may be functioning as the clinician's business associate, to receive analyses without first going through a provider/supplier review or being subject to a request for correction. We believe that the decision about who should be able to receive analyses that individually identify a provider or supplier without such review and opportunity to correct should rest with the individual provider or supplier. As a result, we are adding a third exception to the bar on disclosure of non-public analyses that individually identify a provider or supplier to allow providers or suppliers to designate, in writing, the authorized user(s) that may receive analyses from the qualified entity without first giving the provider or supplier individually identified in the analysis/es the opportunity to review the analyses, and, if applicable, request error correction.
We proposed to require the qualified entity's use of legally binding agreements with any authorized users to whom it provides or sells non-public analyses. For non-public analyses that only include patient de-identified data, we proposed to require the qualified entity to enter into a contractually binding non-public analyses agreement with any authorized users as a pre-condition to providing or selling such non-public analyses.
For non-public analyses that include patient identifiable data, we proposed to require the qualified entity to enter into a qualified entity Data Use Agreement (QE DUA) with any authorized users as a pre-condition to providing or selling such non-public analyses. As we also proposed to require use of the QE DUA in the context of the provision or sale of combined data, or the provision of Medicare data at no cost, we discuss our proposals related to the QE DUA and associated comments in the data disclosure discussion in section II.B below.
The statute generally allows qualified entities to provide or sell their non-public analyses to authorized users for non-public use, but it bars use or disclosure of such analyses for marketing (see section 105(a)(3)(c) of MACRA). We proposed additional limits on the non-public analyses, given the expansive types of non-public analyses that could be conducted by the qualified entities if no limits are placed on such analyses, and the potential deleterious consequences of some such analyses.
First, we proposed that the non-public analyses agreement require that non-public analyses conducted using combined data or the information derived from the evaluations described in section 1874(e)(4)(D) of the Act may not be used or disclosed for the following purposes: Marketing, harming or seeking to harm patients and other individuals both within and outside the healthcare system regardless of whether their data are included in the analyses (for example, an employer using the analyses to attempt to identify and fire employees with high healthcare costs), or effectuating or seeking opportunities to effectuate fraud and/or abuse in the healthcare system (for example, a provider using the analyses to identify ways to submit fraudulent claims that might not be caught by auditing software). We also proposed to adopt the definition of marketing at 45 CFR 164.501 in the HIPAA Privacy Rule.
As we did not receive any comments on the proposed definition of marketing, we will finalize the definition without modification.
Second, in accordance with section 105(a)(1)(B)(i) of MACRA, we proposed to require that any non-public analyses provided or sold to an employer may only be used by the employer for the purposes of providing health insurance to employees and retirees of the employer. We also further proposed that if the qualified entity is providing or selling non-public analyses to an employer that this requirement be included in the non-public analyses agreement. We did not receive any comments on this proposal, so are finalizing it without modification.
We also proposed to require qualified entities to include in the non-public analysis agreement a requirement to limit re-disclosure of non-public analyses or derivative data to instances in which the authorized user is a provider or supplier, and the re-disclosure is as a covered entity would be permitted under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(4)(i) or 164.502(e)(1). Accordingly, a provider or supplier may only re-disclose -identifiable health information to a covered entity for the purposes of the covered entity's quality assessment and improvement or for the purposes of care coordination activities, where that entity has a patient relationship with the individual who is the subject of the information, or to a business associate of such a covered entity under a written contract. We also generally proposed to require qualified entities to use a non-public analyses agreement to explicitly bar authorized users that are not providers or suppliers from re-disclosure of the non-public analyses or any derivative data except to the extent a disclosure qualifies as a “required by law” disclosure.
Fourth, we proposed to require qualified entities to impose a legally enforceable bar on the authorized user's linking de-identified analyses (or data or analyses derived from such non-public analyses) to any other identifiable source of information or in any other way attempting to identify any individual whose de-identified data is included in the analyses or any derivative data.
Finally, we proposed to require qualified entities to use their non-public analyses agreements to bind their non-public analyses recipients to reporting any violation of the terms of that non-public analyses agreement to the qualified entity. We did not receive any comments on this proposal, so are finalizing it without modification.
In accordance, with section 105(a)(6) of MACRA, we proposed that the qualified entity must follow the confidential review, appeal, and error correction requirements established at 401.717(f) under section 1874(e)(4)(C)(ii) of the Act.
Several commenters suggested provider or supplier notification as the first step for review of non-public analyses. One commenter recommended creating an alternative approach to individualized appeals, such as an accreditation process. Another commenter suggested that when a non-public analysis is released to one or more authorized users, or when a non-public analysis is subsequently used for a public report, the qualified entity need only provide an opportunity for the provider or supplier to have reviewed and, if necessary, requested error correction once before the initial release of the analysis. Another commenter recommended that providers and suppliers only be given one chance to request error correction of the underlying data, after which the data could be used in any future non-public analyses.
A few commenters suggested that a 60-day period to review the analyses may not be sufficient. On the other hand, several commenters suggested a 30-day review period for non-public analyses, while another commenter suggested giving providers and suppliers an ongoing right to review the analyses and request error correction.
That said, on further consideration, we believe that the addition of a procedural step whereby the qualified entity would confidentially notify a provider or supplier about the non-public analyses and give the provider or supplier the opportunity to opt-in to the review and error correction process established at § 401.717(a) through (e) is both consistent with the statute and has the potential to reduce the burden on both qualified entities and providers and suppliers. In some cases, notification may be sufficient to meet the needs of a provider or supplier and, as a result, the provider or supplier will choose not to opt-in to the review and correction process, reducing the paperwork and resource burden for both the qualified entity and the provider/supplier. In addition, where the analyses are similar to previous analyses or use data the provider or supplier has already corrected, the provider or supplier may also choose not to review the analyses.
Under this procedural step, a qualified entity must confidentially notify a provider or supplier that non-public analyses that individually identify the provider or supplier are going to be released at least 65 calendar days before disclosing the analyses to the authorized user. The first five days of the 65 day period is intended to allow time to notify the provider or supplier, and to allow them time to respond to the qualified entity. The next sixty days are reflective of the sixty day review period in § 401.717(a) through (e). The confidential notification about the non-public analyses should include a short summary of the analyses (which must include the measures being calculated, but does not have to include the methodologies and measure results), the process for the provider or supplier to request the analyses, the authorized users receiving the analyses, and the date on which the qualified entity will release the analyses to the authorized users. This notification can cover multiple non-public analyses that use different datasets and measures. The 65-day period begins on the date the qualified entity sends or emails the notification to providers and suppliers. As we presume some qualified entities may utilize National Provider Identifier (NPI) data as a means of contacting providers and suppliers, we would like to use this opportunity to remind providers and suppliers of the need to keep their NPI information up-to-date.
At any point during this 65-day period, the qualified entity must allow the provider or supplier to opt-in to the review and error correction process established at § 401.717(a) through (e) and request copies of the analyses and, where applicable, access to the data used in the analyses, and to request the correction of any errors in the analyses. However, if the provider or supplier chooses to opt-in to the review and correction process more than 5 days into the notification period, the time for the review and correction process is shortened from regulatory 60 days in § 401.717(a) through (e) to the number of days remaining between the provider or supplier opt-in date and the release
We understand the desire to create an alternative approach to individualized appeals, such as an accreditation process, however, we believe the statutory language at Section 105(a)(6) of MACRA requires that qualified entities allow providers and suppliers an opportunity to review analyses that individually identify the provider or supplier and, if necessary, and, when needed, request error correction in the analyses. In addition, as stated above, regardless of the statutory requirements, we believe that providers and suppliers should not be evaluated by a qualified entity without having a chance to review and, when needed, request error correction in the analyses.
Subject to other applicable law, section 105(a)(2) of MACRA expands the permissible uses and disclosures of data by a qualified entity to include providing or, where applicable, selling combined data for non-public use to certain authorized users, including providers of services, suppliers, medical societies, and hospital associations for use in developing and participating in quality and patient care improvement activities. Section 105(a)(3)(B) of MACRA. Subject to the same limits, it also permits a qualified entity to provide Medicare claims data for non-public use to these authorized users; however, a qualified entity may not charge a fee for providing such Medicare claims data. In addition, in order to provide or sell combined data or Medicare data, section 105(a)(4) of MACRA instructs the qualified entity to enter into a DUA with their intended data recipient(s).
To implement the provisions in Section 105(b) of MACRA, we proposed to provide that, subject to other applicable laws (including applicable information, privacy, security and disclosure laws) and certain defined program requirements, including that the data be used only for non-public purposes, a qualified entity may provide or sell combined data or provide Medicare claims data at no cost to certain authorized users, including providers of services, suppliers, medical societies, and hospital associations. Where a qualified entity is a HIPAA-covered entity or is acting as a business associate, compliance with other applicable laws will include the need to ensure that it fulfills the requirements under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, including the restriction on the sale of PHI at 45 CFR 164.502(a)(5)(ii).
In accordance with section 105(a)(2), we proposed to place a number of limitations on the sale or provision of combined data and the provision of Medicare claims data by qualified entities, including generally barring the disclosure of patient-identifiable data obtained through the qualified entity program.
We proposed to require any combined data or Medicare claims data that is provided to an authorized user by a qualified entity under subpart G be beneficiary de-identified in accordance with the de-identification standards in the HIPAA Privacy Rule at 45 CFR 164.514(b). We also proposed an exception that would allow a qualified entity to provide or sell patient-identifiable combined data and/or provide patient-identifiable Medicare claims data at no cost to an individual or entity that is a provider or supplier if the provider or supplier has a patient relationship with every patient about whom individually identifiable information is provided and the disclosure is consistent with applicable law.
Second, we proposed to require qualified entities to bind the recipients of their data to a DUA that will govern the use and, where applicable, re-disclosure of any data received through this program prior to the provision or sale of such data to an authorized user.
A qualified entity must enter a DUA with CMS as a condition of receiving Medicare data. Furthermore, in accordance with Section 105(a)(4) of MACRA, we proposed to require the execution of a DUA as a precondition to a qualified entity's provision or sale of data to an authorized user. As discussed above, we also proposed to require the qualified entity to enter into a DUA with any authorized user as a pre-condition to providing or selling non-public analyses that include patient-identifiable data. To help differentiate the DUA between CMS and the qualified entity from the DUAs between the qualified entity and the authorized user, we proposed certain clarifying changes that recognize that there are now two distinct DUAs in the qualified entity program—the CMS DUA, which is the agreement between CMS and a qualified entity, and what we will refer to as the QE DUA, which will be the legally binding agreement between a qualified entity and an authorized user.
As discussed above, we believe the statutory requirement that data not be subject to discovery or admitted into evidence without the provider or supplier's consent only applies to data released to the qualified entity under 1874(e) and when that data is in the possession of the qualified entity.
Regarding concerns about disclosure of competitively sensitive information, qualified entities only receive Medicare Parts A and B claims data and certain Part D drug event data from CMS. In addition, we only provide qualified entities with aggregated Part D cost information, not the proprietary individual component costs. As a result, we do not believe there is a risk that qualified entities would be in a position to disclose competitively sensitive information to authorized users.
Finally, as we stated in the proposed rule, we only have authority to impose requirements on the qualified entity. As a result, we must rely on the qualified entity to impose legally enforceable obligations on the authorized user.
In § 401.713(d), we proposed a number of contractually binding provisions that would be included in the QE DUA. First, we proposed to require that the QE DUA contain certain limitations on the authorized user's use of the combined data and/or Medicare claims data and/or non-public analyses that contain patient-identifiable data and/or any derivative data (hereinafter referred to as data subject to the QE DUA) to those purposes described in the first or second paragraph of the definition of “healthcare operations” under 45 CFR 164.501, or that which qualifies as “fraud and abuse detection or compliance activities” under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(4). We also proposed to require that all other uses and disclosures of data subject to the QE DUA be prohibited except to the extent a disclosure qualifies as a “required by law” disclosure. We did not receive any comments on our proposal to allow authorized users to use the data subject to the QE DUA for the purposes described in the first or second paragraph of the definition of “healthcare operations” under 45 CFR
We also proposed to require qualified entities to use the QE DUA to contractually prohibit the authorized users from using the data subject to the QE DUA for marketing purposes. We did not receive any comments on this proposal, and are finalizing it without modification.
We proposed at § 401.713(d)(3) to require qualified entities to contractually bind authorized users using the QE DUA to protect patient-identifiable data subject to the QE DUA, with at least the privacy and security protections that would be required of covered entities and their business associates under the HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules. We proposed to require that the QE DUA contain provisions that require that the authorized user maintain written privacy and security policies and procedures that ensure compliance with these HIPAA-based privacy and security standards and the other standards required under this subpart for the duration of the QE DUA. We also proposed to require QE DUA provisions detailing such policies and procedures survive termination of the QE DUA, whether for cause or not.
We also proposed at § 401.713(d)(7) to require that the qualified entity use the QE DUA to contractually bind an authorized user as a condition of receiving data subject to the QE DUA under the qualified entity program to notify the qualified entity of any violations of the QE DUA. We did not receive any comments on this proposal, so are finalizing it without modification.
In addition, we proposed at § 401.713(d)(4) to require that the qualified entity include a provision in its QE DUAs that prohibits the authorized user from re-disclosing or making public data subject to the QE DUA except as provided in paragraph (d)(5). We proposed at § 401.713(d)(5) to require that the qualified entity use the QE DUA to limit provider's and supplier's re-disclosures to a covered entity pursuant to 45 CFR 164.506(c)(4)(i) or 164.502(e)(1). Therefore, a provider or supplier would generally only be permitted to re-disclose data subject to the QE DUA to a covered entity or its business associate for activities focused on that covered entity's quality assessment and improvement, including the review of provider or supplier performance. We also proposed to require re-disclosure when required by law.
Regarding the recommendation to allow for re-disclosure of de-identified data in order to publish statistical results, we do not believe that this purpose is consistent with section 105(a)(5)(A) of the MACRA statute, which explicitly states that an authorized user who is provided or sold data shall not make public such data or any analysis using such data.
We also proposed to require qualified entities to impose a contractual bar using the QE DUA on the downstream recipients' linking of the re-disclosed data subject to the QE DUA to any other identifiable source of information. The only exception to this general policy would be if a provider or supplier were to receive identifiable information limited to its own patients.
While we understand that some authorized users may wish to link the de-identified data subject to the QE DUA, we believe that this creates too much risk of inadvertent re-identification. However, instead of linking the data themselves, authorized users could choose to share their additional data, in accordance with applicable law, with the qualified entity who could link this new data source to the existing data and then create de-identified analyses to share with the authorized user.
Section 105(a)(9)(A) of MACRA defines authorized users as: A provider of services, a supplier, an employer (as defined in section 3(5) of the Employee Retirement Insurance Security Act of 1974), a health insurance issuer (as defined in section 2791 of the Public Health Service act), a medical society or hospital association, and any other entity that is approved by the Secretary. We proposed a definition for authorized user at § 401.703(k) that is consistent with Section 105(a)(9)(A) of MACRA and includes two additional types of entities beyond those established in the statute—healthcare professional associations and state agencies. Specifically, we proposed to define an authorized user as: (1) A provider; (2) a supplier; (3) an employer; (4) a health insurance issuer; (5) a medical society; (6) a hospital association; (7) a healthcare professional association; or (8) a state agency.
We believe a separate approval process would be very costly for CMS and create additional burdens for qualified entities. We also believe that a standard list of authorized users is the simplest and least administratively burdensome method to ensure equal treatment of qualified entities. Because many of the suggested authorized users do not represent well defined groups, we would envision an approval process for each entity requesting analyses, which would potentially be more burdensome for smaller regional qualified entities that do not have the time or resources to devote to the approval process. Furthermore, we have an existing process through which entities can obtain Medicare data for research purposes. More information on accessing CMS data for research can be found on the ResDAC Web site at
We would like to note that with this change to the definition of authorized user a qualified entity is now also liable for the actions of the third party's contractors who enter into a QE DUA with the qualified entity.
We proposed to define an employer as having the same meaning as the term “employer” defined in Section 3(5) of the Employee Retirement Insurance Security Act of 1974.
We proposed to define a health insurance issuer as having the same meaning as the term “health insurance issuer” defined in Section 2791(b)(2) of the Public Health Service Act.
We proposed to define a medical society as a non-profit organization or association that provides unified representation for a large number of physicians at the national or state level and whose membership is comprised mainly of physicians.
We proposed to define a hospital association as a non-profit organization or association that provides unified representation for a large number of hospitals or health systems at the national or state level and whose membership is comprised of a majority of hospitals and health systems.
We proposed to define a healthcare provider and/or supplier association as a non-profit organization or association that represents providers and suppliers at the national or state level and whose membership is comprised of a majority of providers and/or suppliers. We did not receive any comments on this definition, so are finalizing it without modification.
We proposed to define a state agency as any office, department, division, bureau, board, commission, agency, institution, or committee within the executive branch of a state government.
Section 105(a)(8) of MACRA expands the information that a qualified entity must report annually to the Secretary if
Section 105(a)(8) of MACRA also requires a qualified entity to submit a report annually if it provides or sells data. Therefore, consistent with the statutory requirements, we also proposed to require qualified entities that provide or sell data under this subpart to provide the following information as part of its annual report: Information on the entities who received data, the uses of the data, the total amount of fees received for providing, selling, or sharing the data, and any QE DUA violations.
We recognize that some of the information we proposed to require of qualified entities in their annual reports will be sensitive commercial information. As noted above, anytime CMS receives a request for information under the FOIA, the agency always evaluates whether the information is subject to one of the FOIA exemptions, including Exemption 4, which protects commercial or financial information that is privileged and confidential. Contractual confidentiality provisions between authorized users and qualified entities will not negate CMS' obligations under FOIA, but we welcome identification of any materials within such reports that the qualified entity believes are subject to a FOIA exemption, and the rationale therefore.
Section 105(a)(7) of MACRA requires the Secretary to impose an assessment on a qualified entity in the case of a “breach” of a CMS DUA between the Secretary and a qualified entity or a breach of a QE DUA between a qualified entity and an authorized user. Because the term “breach” is defined in HIPAA, and this definition is not consistent with the use of the term for this program, we proposed instead to adopt the term “violation” when referring to a “breach” of a DUA for purposes of this program. We also proposed to define a “violation” to mean a failure to comply with a requirement in a CMS DUA or QE DUA. We also proposed to impose an assessment on any qualified entity that violates a CMS DUA or fails to ensure that their authorized users and their contractors/business associates do not violate a QE DUA.
While we recognize that it may be the authorized user who is responsible for the violation, we believe Section 105(a)(7) of MACRA does not give us the authority to impose an assessment on the authorized user. However, we do believe that the qualified entity could include terms in their agreement with the authorized user to require the authorized user to pay the assessment if the authorized user is responsible for the violation.
MACRA provides guidance only on the assessment amount and what triggers an assessment, but it does not dictate the procedures for imposing such assessments. We therefore proposed to model qualified entity program procedures on certain relevant provisions of Section 1128A of the Act (Civil Money Penalties) and part 402 (Civil Money Penalties, Assessments, and Exclusions) including the process and procedures for calculating the assessment, notifying a qualified entity of a violation, collecting the assessment, and providing qualified entities an appeals process.
Section 105(a)(7)(B) of MACRA specifies that when a violation occurs, the assessment is to be calculated based on the number of affected individuals who are entitled to, or enrolled in, benefits under part A of title XVIII of the Act, or enrolled in part B of such title. Assessments can be up to $100 per affected individual, but, given the broad discretion in establishing some lesser amount, we looked to part 402 as a model for proposing aggravating and mitigating circumstances that would be considered when calculating the assessment amount per impacted individual. However, violations under section 105(a)(7)(B) of MACRA are considered point-in-time violations, not continuing violations.
We proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(i) that CMS will calculate the amount of the assessment of up to $100 per individual entitled to, or enrolled in part A of title XVIII of the Act and/or enrolled in part B of such title whose data was implicated in the violation.
We generally proposed to determine the number of potentially affected individuals by looking at the number of beneficiaries whose Medicare claims information was provided either by CMS to the qualified entity or by the qualified entity to the authorized user in the form of individually identifiable or de-identified data sets that were potentially affected by the violation.
We proposed that a single beneficiary, regardless of the number of times their information appears in a singular non-public report or dataset, would only count towards the calculation of an assessment for a violation once. For qualified entities that provide or sell subsets of the dataset that CMS provided to them, combined information, or non-public analyses, we proposed to require that the qualified entity provide the Secretary with an accurate number of beneficiaries whose data was sold or provided to the authorized user and, thereby, potentially affected by the violation. In those instances in which the qualified entity is unable to establish a reliable number of potentially affected beneficiaries, we proposed to impose the assessment based on the total number of beneficiaries that were included in the data set(s) that was/were transferred to the qualified entity under the CMS DUA.
As noted above, MACRA allows an assessment in the amount of up to $100 per potentially affected individual. We therefore proposed to draw on 42 CFR part 402 to specify the factors and circumstances that will be considered in determining the assessment amount per potentially affected individual.
We proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(i)(A) that the following basic factors be considered in establishing the assessment amount per potentially affected individual: (1) The nature and extent of the violation; (2) the nature and extent of the harm or potential harm resulting from the violation; and (3) the degree of culpability and history of prior violations.
In addition, in considering these basic factors and determining the amount of the assessment per potentially affected individual, we proposed to take into account certain aggravating and mitigating circumstances.
We proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(i)(B)(
In addition, we proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(i)(B)(
We looked to the relevant provisions in 42 CFR part 402 and Section 1128A of the Act to frame proposals regarding the specific elements that would be included in the notice of determination. To that end, we proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(ii) that the Secretary would provide notice of a determination to a qualified entity by certified mail with return receipt requested. The notice of determination would include information on (1) the assessment amount, (2) the statutory and regulatory bases for the assessment, (3) a description of the violations upon which the assessment was proposed, (4) information concerning response to the notice, and (5) the means by which the qualified entity must pay the assessment if they do not intend to request a hearing in accordance with procedures established at Section 1128A of the Act and implemented in 42 CFR part 1005. We did not receive any comments on this proposal so are finalizing it without modification.
We also looked to the relevant provisions in 42 CFR part 402 and section 1128A of the Act to inform our proposals regarding what happens when a hearing is not requested.
We proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(iii) that an assessment will become final if a qualified entity does not request a hearing within 60 days of receipt of the notice of the proposed determination. At this point, CMS would impose the proposed assessment. CMS would notify the qualified entity, by certified mail with return receipt, of the assessment and the means by which the qualified entity may pay the assessment. Under these proposals, a qualified entity would not have the right to appeal an assessment unless it has requested a hearing within 60 days of receipt of the notice of the proposed determination. We did not receive any comments on these proposals so are finalizing them without modification.
We again looked to the relevant provisions in 42 CFR part 402 and section 1128A of the Act to inform our proposed policies regarding when an assessment becomes collectible.
We proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(iv) that an assessment becomes collectible after the earliest of the following situations: (1) On the 61st day after the qualified entity receives CMS's notice of proposed determination under § 401.719(d)(5)(ii), if the entity does not request a hearing; (2) immediately after the qualified entity abandons or waives its appeal right at any administrative level; (3) 30 days after the qualified entity receives the Administrative Law Judge's (ALJ) decision imposing an assessment under § 1005.20(d), if the qualified entity has not requested a review before the Department Appeal Board (DAB); or (4) 60 days after the qualified entity receives the DAB's decision imposing an assessment if the qualified entity has not requested a stay of the decision under § 1005.22(b). We did not receive any comments on this proposal so are finalizing it without modification.
We also looked to the relevant provisions in 42 CFR part 402 and section 1128A of the Act in framing our proposals regarding the collection of an Assessment.
We proposed at § 401.719(d)(5)(v) that CMS be responsible for collecting any assessment once a determination is made final by HHS. In addition, we proposed that the General Counsel may compromise an assessment imposed under this part, after consulting with CMS or Office of Inspector General (OIG), and the Federal government may recover the assessment in a civil action brought in the United States district court for the district where the claim was presented or where the qualified entity resides. We also proposed that the United States may deduct the amount of an assessment when finally determined, or the amount agreed upon in compromise, from any sum then or later owing the qualified entity. Finally, we proposed that matters that were raised or that could have been raised in a hearing before an ALJ or in an appeal under section 1128A(e) of the Act may not be raised as a defense in a civil action by the United States to collect an assessment. We did not receive any comments on these proposals so are finalizing them without modification.
We proposed at § 401.721(a)(7) that CMS may unilaterally terminate the qualified entity's agreement and trigger the data destruction requirements in the CMS DUA if CMS determines through our monitoring program at § 401.717(a) and (b) that a qualified entity or its contractor fails to monitor authorized users' compliance with the terms of their QE DUAs or non-public analysis use agreements. We stated in the proposed rule that we believe this proposed provision is consistent with the intent of MACRA to ensure the protection of data and analyses provided by qualified entities to authorized users under this subpart.
Section 105(c) of MACRA expands, at the discretion of the Secretary, the data that the Secretary may make available to qualified entities, including standardized extracts of claims data under titles XIX (Medicaid) and XXI (the Children's Health Insurance Program, CHIP) for one or more specified geographic areas and time periods as may be requested by the qualified entity. However, due to issues involving Medicaid data submitted to CMS, including lack of data timeliness and overall data quality, we proposed not to expand the data available to qualified entities from CMS and instead suggested that qualified entities would be better off seeking Medicaid and/or CHIP data through the State Medicaid Agencies.
We recognize commenters' interest in accessing Medicaid and CHIP data from CMS rather than going to each state individually. We believe that T-MSIS can create a framework for CMS collection of Medicaid and CHIP data that addresses many of the concerns about the timeliness and quality of the MSIS data that we raised in the proposed rule. As a result, we anticipate future rulemaking to make Medicaid and CHIP data available to qualified entities when the T-MSIS data becomes available and is determined to be of sufficient quality for use in public provider performance reporting.
Section 105(b) of MACRA allows qualified clinical data registries to request access to Medicare data for the purposes of linking the data with clinical outcomes data and performing risk-adjusted, scientifically valid analyses, and research to support quality improvement or patient safety. The CMS research data disclosure policies already allow qualified clinical data registries to request Medicare data for research purposes. More information on accessing CMS data for research can be found on the ResDAC Web site at
We believe that the requirements of the qualified entity program, which was created to allow for provider performance reporting, also create an appropriate framework for qualified clinical data registries to conduct analyses to support quality improvement and patient safety. In addition, we believe that the new parameters of the qualified entity program, discussed in detail above, would allow qualified clinical data registries to work directly with providers and suppliers on issues related to quality improvement and patient safety. Qualified clinical data registries could also elect to become qualified entities and work with providers and suppliers in accordance with applicable laws to develop new quality measures in the context of nonpublic analyses that could then be used across the healthcare system to measure provider and supplier performance.
We received several additional suggestions for improvements to the program regarding topics that were not specifically discussed in the preamble to the proposed rule.
We also do not prohibit qualified entities from publicly reporting their findings regarding provider and supplier performance at the state-level. Qualified entities are allowed to report on providers and suppliers at any level for which the measures can be used, provided the statutory and regulatory requirements are met, including that no patient information is disclosed.
We currently make data available to qualified entities on quarterly basis. We believe the timeliness of this data strikes the right balance between data completeness and data timeliness.
Finally, we do not believe that requirements in the CMS DUA are inconsistent with HIPAA. We use a very similar DUA to share data with HIPAA-
We are not able to address the breadth and scope of laws with which the qualified entity program requirements may intersect in this rule. Such analyses require case-by-case assessment of the facts at hand, and depending on jurisdiction, may vary based on which state laws apply. Entities should consult with their legal counsel to advise them on what laws apply to them, and to what effect.
For the most part, this final rule incorporates the provisions of the proposed rule. Those provisions of this final rule that differ from the proposed rule are as follows:
• We modified the definition of authorized user at § 401.703(j) to: Include a federal agency, change the term “state agency” to “state entity” to provide additional clarity, and include any contractors (or business associates) that need analyses or data to carry out work on behalf of authorized user third parties.
• We modified the definition of hospital association at § 401.703(n) to include organizations or associations at the local level.
• At § 401.703(r), we modified the definition of patient to extend the window for a face-to-face or telehealth appointment to at least once in the past 24 months.
• We added activities that qualify as treatment under 45 CFR 164.501 to permitted uses of the data subject to the QE DUA.
• We modified the terms of the QE DUA to permit authorized users to re-disclose data subject to the QE DUA as a covered entity would be permitted to disclose PHI for treatment activities, as allowed under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(2).
• At § 401.716(b)(2), we modified the requirements to clarify that a qualified entity may not provide or sell a non-public analysis to an issuer for a geographic area where the issuer does not provide coverage and, thus, does not have any covered lives to contribute to the analyses.
• At § 401.716(b)(4)(iii), we allowed for the disclosure of non-public analyses that individually identify a provider or supplier if every provider or supplier identified in the analysis has notified the qualified entity that analyses may be disclosed to that authorized user without prior review by the provider or supplier.
• We added a procedural step to the review and error correction process for non-public analyses at § 401.717(f) to include confidential notification of the provider or supplier.
• We added a new provision at § 401.722(a) to allow a qualified clinical data registry that agrees to meet the requirements in this subpart, with the exception of the requirement to submit information on the claims data from other sources it possesses, to request
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are required to provide 30-day notice in the
• The need for the information collection and its usefulness in carrying out the proper functions of our agency.
• The accuracy of our estimate of the information collection burden.
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Recommendations to minimize the information collection burden on the affected public, including automated collection techniques.
We solicited public comment on each of these issues for the following sections of this document that contain information collection requirements (ICRs).
Proposed § 401.718(c) and § 401.716(b)(2)(ii) require a qualified entity to enter into a QE DUA with an authorized user prior to providing or selling data or selling a non-public analyses that contains individually identifiable beneficiary information. Proposed § 401.713(d) requires specific provisions in the QE DUA. Proposed § 401.716(c) requires a qualified entity to enter into a non-public analyses agreement with the authorized user as a pre-condition to providing or selling de-identified analyses. We estimate that it will take each qualified entity a total of 40 hours to develop the QE DUA and non-public analyses agreement. Of the 40 hours, we estimate it will take a professional/technical services employee with an hourly labor cost of $75.08 a total of 20 hours to develop both the QE DUA and non-public analyses agreement and estimate that it will require a total of 20 hours of legal review at an hourly labor cost of $77.16 for both the QE DUA and non-public analyses agreement. We also estimate that it will take each qualified entity 2 hours to process and maintain each QE DUA or non-public analyses agreement with an authorized user by a professional/technical service employee with an hourly labor cost of $75.08. While there may be two different staff positions that perform these duties (one that is responsible for processing the QE DUAs and/or non-public analyses agreement and one that is responsible for maintaining the QE DUA and/or non-public analyses agreement), we believe that both positions would fall under the professional/technical services employee labor category with an hourly labor cost of $75.08. There are currently 15 qualified entities; however we estimate that number will increase to 20 if these proposals are finalized. This number includes qualified entities and “quasi qualified entities” (meaning qualified clinical data registries that are approved under § 401.722(a) as described in this preamble), which we hereinafter collectively refer to as “qualified entity”. This would mean that to develop each QE DUA and non-public analysis agreement, the burden cost per qualified entity would be $3,045 with a total estimated burden for all 15 qualified entities of $45,675. This does not include the two hours to process and maintain each QE DUA.
As discussed in the regulatory impact analysis below, we estimate that each qualified entity would need to process and maintain 70 QE DUAs or non-public analyses agreements as some authorized users may receive both datasets and a non-public analyses and would only need to execute one QE DUA. We estimate that it will take each qualified entity 2 hours to process and maintain each QE DUA or non-public analyses agreement. This would mean the burden cost per qualified entity to process and maintain 70 QE DUAs or non-public analyses agreements would be $10,511 with a total estimated burden for all 15 qualified entities of $157, 668. While we anticipate that the requirement to create a QE DUA and/or non-public analyses agreement will only be incurred once by a qualified entity, we believe that the requirement to process and maintain the QE DUAs and/or non-public analyses will be an ongoing cost.
These regulations would also require a qualified entity to submit additional information as part of its annual report to CMS. A qualified entity is currently required to submit an annual report to CMS under § 401.719(b). Proposed § 401.719(b)(3) and (4) provide for additional reporting requirements if a qualified entity chooses to provide or sell analyses and/or data to authorized users. The burden associated with this requirement is the time and effort necessary to gather, process, and submit the required information to CMS. As noted above, there are currently 15 qualified entities; however we estimate that number will increase to 20 if these proposals are finalized. Some qualified entities may not want to bear the risk of the potential assessments and have been able to accomplish their program goals under other CMS data sharing programs, therefore some qualified entities may not elect to provide or sell analyses and/or data to authorized users. As a result, we estimate that 15 qualified entities will choose to provide or sell analyses and/or data to authorized users, and therefore, would be required to comply with these additional reporting requirements within the first three years of the program. We further estimate that it would take each qualified entity 50 hours to gather, process, and submit the required information. We estimate that it will take each qualified entity 34 hours to gather the required information, 15 hours to process the information, and 1 hour to submit the information to CMS. We believe a professional or technical services employee of the qualified entity with an hourly labor cost of $75.08 will fulfill these additional annual report requirements. We estimate that 15 qualified entities will need to comply with this requirement and that the total estimated burden associated with this requirement is $56,310. We requested comment on the type of employee and the number of hours that will be needed to fulfill these additional annual reporting requirements.
As a reminder, the final rule for the qualified entity program, published December 7, 2011, included information about the burden associated with the provisions in that rule. Specifically, §§ 401.705 through 401.709 provide the application and reapplication requirements for qualified entities. The burden associated with these requirements is currently approved under OMB control number 0938-1144 with an expiration date of May 31, 2018. This package accounts for 35 responses. Section 401.713(a) states that as part of the application review and approval process, a qualified entity would be required to execute a DUA with CMS, that among other things, reaffirms the statutory bar on the use of Medicare data for purposes other than those referenced above. The burden associated with executing this DUA is currently approved under OMB control number 0938-0734 with an expiration date of December 31, 2017. This package accounts for 9,240 responses (this package covers all CMS DUAs, not only DUAs under the qualified entity program). We currently have 15 qualified entities and estimate it will increase to 20 so we have not surpassed the previously approved numbers.
We based the hourly labor costs on those reported by the Bureau of Labor
If you comment on these information collection and recordkeeping requirements, please submit your comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget,
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this regulation was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
We received a few comments on the anticipated effects of these modifications to the qualified entity program.
Given these procedural changes to the review and corrections process in the context of the non-public analyses, we believe that the 3 hours average estimate for providers and suppliers to review non-public analyses is a sufficient estimate of provider and supplier burden. This average takes into account the range of potential cases given the new review and corrections process. In some cases, for example, notification may be sufficient to meet the needs of providers or suppliers. In other cases, however, where the analyses are similar to previous analyses or use data the provider or supplier has already corrected, the provider or supplier may choose not to review the analyses. In addition, as discussed in the proposed rule, even if a provider or supplier requests the non-public analyses, there will be variability in the amount of time providers or suppliers will need for the review and corrections process.
As discussed in the proposed rule, we do not anticipate this rule will have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals because we anticipate that most qualified entities will focus their performance evaluation efforts on metropolitan areas where the majority of health services are provided. In addition, given the limited number of health services provided in rural regions, we anticipate that any analyses that included rural regions would not individually identify the providers or suppliers, but rather focus on regional or state metrics. As suggested by a commenter, we will monitor provider burden as the number of qualified
We have examined the impacts of this rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, 96), section 1102(b) of the Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999), and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)).
Executive Order 12866 directs agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for major rules with economically significant effects ($100 million or more in any 1 year). For the reasons discussed below, we estimate that the total impact of this final rule will be less than $58 million and therefore, it will not reach the threshold for economically significant effects and is not considered a major rule.
The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small businesses, if a rule has a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, we estimate that most hospitals and most other providers are small entities as that term is used in the RFA (including small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions). However, since the total estimated impact of this rule is less than $100 million, and the total estimated impact will be spread over 82,500 providers and suppliers (who are the subject of reports), no one entity will face significant impact. Of the 82,500 providers, we estimate that 78,605 will be physician offices that have average annual receipts of $11 million and 4,125 will be hospitals that have average annual receipts of $38.5 million. As discussed below, the estimated cost per provider is $8,426 (see table 5 below) and the estimated cost per hospital is $6,523 (see table 5 below). For both types of entities, these costs will be a very small percentage of overall receipts. Thus, we are not preparing an analysis of options for regulatory relief of small businesses because we have determined that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
For section 105(a) of MACRA, we estimate that two types of entities may be affected by the additional program opportunities: Qualified entities that choose to provide or sell non-public analyses or data to authorized users; and providers and suppliers who are identified in the non-public analyses create by qualified entities and provided or sold to authorized users.
We anticipate that most providers and suppliers that may be identified in qualified entities' non-public analyses will be hospitals and physicians. Many hospitals and most other healthcare providers and suppliers are small entities, either by being nonprofit organizations or by meeting the Small Business Administration definition of a small business (having revenues of less than $38.5 million in any 1 year) (for details see the Small Business Administration's Web site at
The analysis and discussion provided in this section and elsewhere in this final rule complies with the RFA requirements. Because we acknowledge that many of the affected entities are small entities, the analysis discussed throughout the preamble of this final rule constitutes our regulatory flexibility analysis for the remaining provisions and addresses comments received on these issues.
In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis, if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. Any such regulatory impact analysis must conform to the provisions of section 604 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a metropolitan statistical area and has fewer than 100 beds. We do not believe this final rule has impact on significant operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals because we anticipate that most qualified entities will focus their performance evaluation efforts on metropolitan areas where the majority of health services are provided. As a result, this rule will not have a significant impact on small rural hospitals. Therefore, the Secretary has determined that this final rule will not have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2016, that threshold is approximately $146 million. This final rule will not impose spending costs on state, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $146 million or more. Specifically, as explained below we anticipate the total impact of this rule on all parties to be approximately $58 million.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. We have examined this final rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132 and have determined that this regulation will not have any substantial direct effect on State or local governments, preempt States, or otherwise have a Federalism implication.
Because section 105(a) of MACRA allows qualified entities to use the data in new ways to provide or sell non-public analyses or data to authorized users, there is little quantitative information to inform our estimates on the number of analyses and datasets that the qualified entity costs may provide or sell or on the costs associated with the creation of the non-public analyses or datasets. Therefore, we look to the estimates from the original qualified entity rules to estimate the number of hours that it may take to create non-public analyses, to process provider/supplier appeals and revisions, and to complete annual reports. We also looked to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid's cost of providing data to qualified entities since qualified entities' data fees are equal to the government's cost to make the data available.
There are currently 15 qualified entities and these qualified entities all are in different stages of the qualified entity program. For example, some qualified entities have released public reports and some qualified entities are
We estimate that within the first year that 11 qualified entities will provide or sell on average 55 non-public analyses or provide or sell 35 datasets. We do not believe the number of datasets and non-public analyses per qualified entity will change in future years of the program.
In the original proposed rule for the qualified entity program (76 FR 33566), we estimated that each qualified entities' activities to analyze the Medicare claims data, calculate performance measures and produce public provider performance reports will require 5,500 hours of effort per qualified entity. We anticipate under this final rule that implements section 105(a) of MACRA that qualified entities will base the non-public analyses on their public performance reports. Therefore, the creation of the non-public analyses will require much less effort and only require a fraction of the time it takes to produce the public reports. We estimate that a qualified entity's activities for each non-public analysis to analyze the Medicare claims data, calculate performance measures, and produce the report will require 320 hours, between five and six percent of the time to produce the public reports. We anticipate that half of this time will be spent on data analysis, measure calculation, and report creation and the other half on data processing.
We anticipate that within the first year of the program a qualified entity will, on average, provide one-year datasets containing all data types for a cohort of 750,000 to 1.75 million beneficiaries to 35 authorized users. We estimate that it will require 226 hours to create each dataset that will be provided to an authorized user. We looked to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Centers' data costs and time to estimate a qualified entity's costs and time to create datasets. While the majority of the time will be devoted to computer processing, we anticipate about 100 hours will be spent on computer programming, particularly if the qualified entity is de-identiying the data.
We further estimate that, on average, each qualified entity will expend 7,500 hours of effort processing providers' and suppliers' appeals of their performance reports and producing revised reports, including legal review of the appeals and revised reports. These estimates assume that, as discussed below in the section on provider and supplier impacts, on average 25 percent of providers and suppliers will appeal their results from a qualified entity. Responding to these appeals in an appropriate manner will require a significant investment of time on the part of qualified entities. This equates to an average of four hours per appeal for each qualified entity. These estimates are similar to those in the Qualified Entities final rule. We assume that the complexity of appeals will vary greatly, and as such, the time required to address them will also vary greatly. Many appeals may be able to be dealt with in an hour or less while some appeals may require multiple meetings between the qualified entity and the affected provider or supplier. On average, however, we believe that this is a reasonable estimate of the burden of the appeals process on qualified entities. We discuss the burden of the appeals process on providers and suppliers below.
We estimate that each qualified entity will spend 40 hours creating a non-public analyses agreement template and a QE DUA. We also estimate that it will take a qualified entity 2 hours to process a QE DUA or non-public analyses agreement.
Finally, we estimate that each qualified entity will spend 50 hours on the additional annual reporting requirements.
Qualified entities will be required to notify CMS of inappropriate disclosures or use of beneficiary identifiable data pursuant to the requirements in the CMS DUA. We believe that the report generated in response to an inappropriate disclosure or use of beneficiary identifiable data will be generated as a matter of course by the qualified entities and therefore, will not require significant additional effort. Based on the assumptions we have described, we estimate the total impact on qualified entities for the first year of the program to be a cost of $27,925,198.
We note that numerous healthcare payers, community quality collaboratives, States, and other organizations are producing performance measures for healthcare providers and suppliers using data from other sources, and that providers and suppliers are already receiving performance reports from these sources. We anticipate that the review of non-public analyses will merely be added to those existing efforts to improve the statistical validity of the measure findings.
Table 4 reflects the hourly labor rates used in our estimate of the impacts of the first year of section 105(a) of MACRA on healthcare providers and suppliers.
We anticipate that the impacts on providers and suppliers consist of costs to review the performance reports generated by qualified entities and, if they choose, appeal the performance calculations. We believe, on average, each qualified entity will produce non-public analyses that in total include information on 7,500 health providers and suppliers. This is based on estimates in the qualified entity final rule, but also include an increase of 50 percent because we believe that more providers and suppliers will be included in the non-public analyses. We anticipate that the largest proportion of providers and suppliers will be physicians because they comprise the largest group of providers and suppliers, and are a primary focus of many recent performance evaluation efforts. We also believe that many providers and suppliers will be the recipients of the non-public analyses in order to support their own performance improvement activities, and therefore, there will be no requirement for a correction or appeals process. As discussed above, there is no requirement for a corrections or appeals process where the analysis only individually identifies the (singular) provider or supplier who is being provided or sold the analysis. Based on our review of information from existing programs, we assume that 95 percent of the recipients of performance reports (that is, an average of 7,125 per qualified entity) will be physicians, and 5 percent (that is, an average of 375 per qualified entity) will be hospitals and other suppliers. Providers and suppliers receive these reports with no obligation to review them, but we assume that most will do so to verify that their calculated performance measures reflect their actual patients and health events. Because these non-public analyses will be based on the same underlying data as the public performance reports, we estimate that it will take less time for providers or suppliers to review these analyses and generate an appeal. We estimate that, on average, each provider or supplier will devote three hours to reviewing these analyses. We also estimate that 25 percent of the providers and suppliers will decide to appeal their performance calculations, and that preparing the appeal will involve an average of seven hours of effort on the part of a provider or supplier. As with our assumptions regarding the level of effort required by qualified entities in operating the appeals process, we believe that this average covers a range of provider efforts from providers who will need just one or two hours to clarify any questions or concerns regarding their performance reports to providers who will devote significant time and resources to the appeals process.
Using the hourly costs displayed in Table 4, the impacts on providers and suppliers are calculated below in Table 5. Based on the assumptions we have described, we estimate the total impact on providers for the first year of the program to be a cost of $29,690,386.
As stated above in Table 3, we estimate the total impact on qualified entities to be a cost of $27,966,492. Therefore, the total impact on qualified entities and on providers and suppliers for the first year of the program is estimated to be $57,656,878.
The statutory provisions added by section 105(a) of MACRA are detailed and prescriptive about the permissible uses of the data under the Qualified Entity Program. We believe there are limited approaches that will ensure statutory compliance. We considered less prescriptive requirements on the provisions that will need to be included in the agreements between qualified entities and authorized users that received or purchased analyses or data. For example, we could have required less strenuous data privacy and security protections such as not setting a minimum standard for protection of beneficiary identifiable data or non-public analyses. In addition, we could have reduced additional restrictions on re-disclosure or permitted data or analyses to be re-disclosed to additional downstream users. While these approaches might reduce costs for qualified entities, we did not adopt such an approach because of the importance of protecting beneficiary data. We believe if we do not require qualified entities to provide sufficient evidence of data privacy and security protection capabilities, there will be increased risks related to the protection of beneficiary identifiable data.
As explained above, we estimate the total impact for the first year of the program on qualified entities and providers to be a cost of $57,656,878. While we anticipate the number of qualified entities to increase slightly, we do not anticipate significant growth in the qualified entity program given the qualified entity program requirements, as well as other existing programs that allow entities to obtain Medicare data. Based on these estimates, we conclude this final rule does not reach the threshold for economically significant effects and thus is not considered a major rule.
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this regulation was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
Claims, Freedom of information, Health facilities, Medicare, Privacy.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services amends 42 CFR part 401 as set forth below:
Secs. 1102, 1871, and 1874(e) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1395hh, and 1395w-5) and sec. 105, Pub. L. 114-10, 129 Stat. 87.
(j)
(1) A provider.
(2) A supplier.
(3) A medical society.
(4) A hospital association.
(5) An employer.
(6) A health insurance issuer.
(7) A healthcare provider and/or supplier association.
(8) A state entity.
(9) A federal agency.
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
(u)
(a)
(d)
(1)(i) The authorized user may be permitted to use such data and non-public analyses in a manner that a HIPAA Covered Entity could do under the following provisions:
(A) Activities falling under paragraph (1) of the definition of “health care operations” under 45 CFR 164.501: Quality improvement activities, including care coordination activities and efforts to track and manage medical costs; patient-safety activities; population-based activities such as those aimed at improving patient safety, quality of care, or population health, including the development of new models of care, the development of means to expand coverage and improve access to healthcare, the development of means of reducing healthcare disparities, and the development or improvement of methods of payment or coverage policies.
(B) Activities falling under paragraph (2) of the definition of “health care operations” under 45 CFR 164.501: Reviewing the competence or qualifications of health care professionals, evaluating practitioner and provider performance, health plan performance, conducting training programs in which students, trainees, or practitioners in areas of health care learn under supervision to practice or improve their skills as health care providers, training of non-health care professionals, accreditation, certification, licensing, or credentialing activities.
(C) Activities that qualify as “fraud and abuse detection or compliance activities” under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(4)(ii).
(D) Activities that qualify as “treatment” under 45 CFR 164.501.
(ii) All other uses and disclosures of such data and/or such non-public analyses must be forbidden except to the extent a disclosure qualifies as a “required by law” disclosure as defined at 45 CFR 164.103.
(2) The authorized user is prohibited from using or disclosing the data or non-public analyses for marketing purposes as defined at § 401.703(s).
(3) The authorized user is required to ensure adequate privacy and security protection for such data and non-public analyses. At a minimum, regardless of whether the authorized user is a HIPAA covered entity, such protections of beneficiary identifiable data must be at least as protective as what is required of covered entities and their business associates regarding protected health information (PHI) under the HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules. In all cases, these requirements must be imposed for the life of such beneficiary identifiable data or non-public analyses and/or any derivative data, that is until all copies of such data or non-public analyses are returned or destroyed. Such duties must be written in such a manner as to survive termination of the QE DUA, whether for cause or not.
(4) Except as provided for in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the authorized user must be prohibited from re-disclosing or making public any such data or non-public analyses.
(5)(i) At the qualified entity's discretion, it may permit an authorized user that is a provider as defined in § 401.703(b) or a supplier as defined in § 401.703(c), to re-disclose such data and non-public analyses as a covered entity will be permitted to disclose PHI under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(4)(i), under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(2), or under 45 CFR 164.502(e)(1).
(ii) All other uses and disclosures of such data and/or such non-public analyses is forbidden except to the extent a disclosure qualifies as a “required by law” disclosure.
(6) Authorized users who/that receive the beneficiary de-identified combined data or Medicare data as contemplated under § 401.718 are contractually prohibited from linking the beneficiary de-identified data to any other identifiable source of information, and must be contractually barred from attempting any other means of re-identifying any individual whose data is included in such data.
(7) The QE DUA must bind authorized user(s) to notifying the qualified entity of any violations of the QE DUA, and it must require the full cooperation of the authorized user in the qualified entity's efforts to mitigate any harm that may result from such violations, or to comply with the breach provisions governing qualified entities under this subpart.
(a)
(b)
(1) A qualified entity may only provide or sell a non-public analysis to a health insurance issuer as defined in § 401.703(l), after the health insurance issuer or a business associate of that health insurance issuer has provided the qualified entity with claims data that represents a majority of the health insurance issuer's covered lives, using one of the four methods of calculating covered lives established at 26 CFR 46.4375-1(c)(2), for the time period and geographic region covered by the issuer-requested non-public analyses. A qualified entity may not provide or sell a non-public analysis to a health insurance issuer if the issuer does not have any covered lives in the geographic region covered by the issuer-requested non-public analysis.
(2) Analyses that contain information that individually identifies one or more beneficiaries may only be disclosed to a provider or supplier (as defined at § 401.703(b) and (c)) when both of the following conditions are met:
(i) The analyses only contain identifiable information on beneficiaries with whom the provider or supplier have a patient relationship as defined at § 401.703(r).
(ii) A QE DUA as defined at § 401.713(d) is executed between the qualified entity and the provider or supplier prior to making any individually identifiable beneficiary information available to the provider or supplier.
(3) Except as specified under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, all analyses must be limited to beneficiary de-identified data. Regardless of the HIPAA covered entity or business associate status of the qualified entity and/or the authorized user, de-identification must be determined based on the standards for HIPAA covered entities found at 45 CFR 164.514(b).
(4) Analyses that contain information that individually identifies a provider or supplier (regardless of the level of the provider or supplier, that is, individual clinician, group of clinicians, or integrated delivery system) may not be disclosed unless one of the following three conditions apply:
(i) The analysis only individually identifies the provider or supplier that is being supplied the analysis.
(ii) Every provider or supplier individually identified in the analysis has been afforded the opportunity to appeal or correct errors using the process at § 401.717(f).
(iii) Every provider or supplier individually identified in the analysis has notified the qualified entity, in writing, that analyses can be disclosed to the authorized user without first going through the appeal and error correction process at § 401.717(f).
(c)
(1) The authorized user may not use the analyses or derivative data for the following purposes:
(i) Marketing, as defined at § 401.703(s).
(ii) Harming or seeking to harm patients or other individuals both within and outside the healthcare system regardless of whether their data are included in the analyses.
(iii) Effectuating or seeking opportunities to effectuate fraud and/or abuse in the healthcare system.
(2) If the authorized user is an employer as defined in § 401.703(k), the authorized user may only use the analyses or derivative data for purposes of providing health insurance to employees, retirees, or dependents of employees or retirees of that employer.
(3)(i) At the qualified entity's discretion, it may permit an authorized user that is a provider as defined in § 401.703(b) or a supplier as defined in § 401.703(c), to re-disclose the de-identified analyses or derivative data, as a covered entity will be permitted under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(4)(i), or under 45 CFR 164.502(e)(1).
(ii) All other uses and disclosures of such data and/or such non-public
(4) If the authorized user is not a provider or supplier, the authorized user may not re-disclose or make public any non-public analyses or derivative data except as required by law.
(5) The authorized user may not link the de-identified analyses to any other identifiable source of information and may not in any other way attempt to identify any individual whose de-identified data is included in the analyses.
(6) The authorized user must notify the qualified entity of any DUA violations, and it must fully cooperate with the qualified entity's efforts to mitigate any harm that may result from such violations.
(f) A qualified entity must comply with the following requirements before disclosing non-public analyses, as defined at § 401.716, which contain information that individually identifies a provider or supplier:
(1) A qualified entity must confidentially notify a provider or supplier that non-public analyses that individually identify the provider or supplier are going to be released to an authorized user at least 65 calendar days before disclosing the analyses. This confidential notification must include a short summary of the analyses (including the measures calculated), the process for the provider or supplier to request the analyses, the authorized users receiving the analyses, and the date on which the qualified entity will release the analyses to the authorized user.
(2) A qualified entity must allow providers and suppliers the opportunity to opt-in to the review and correction process as defined in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, anytime during the 65 calendar days. If a provider or supplier chooses to opt-in to the review and correction process more than 5 days into the notification period, the time for the review and correction process is shortened from 60 days to the number of days between the provider or supplier opt-in date and the release date specified in the confidential notification.
(a)
(b)
(2)
(c)
(b) * * *
(3) Non-public analyses provided or sold to authorized users under this subpart, including the following information:
(i) A summary of the analyses provided or sold, including—
(A) The number of analyses.
(B) The number of purchasers of such analyses.
(C) The types of authorized users that purchased analyses.
(D) The total amount of fees received for such analyses.
(E) QE DUA or non-public analyses agreement violations.
(ii) A description of the topics and purposes of such analyses.
(iii) The number of analyses disclosed with unresolved requests for error correction.
(4) Data provided or sold to authorized users under this subpart, including the following information:
(i) The entities who received data.
(ii) The basis under which each entity received such data.
(iii) The total amount of fees received for providing, selling, or sharing the data.
(iv) QE DUA violations.
(d) * * *
(5) In the case of a violation, as defined at § 401.703(t), of the CMS DUA or the QE DUA, CMS will impose an assessment on a qualified entity in accordance with the following:
(i)
(A)
(
(
(
(B)
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(C)
(
(
(D) The standards set for the qualified entity in this paragraph are binding, except to the extent that—
(
(
(ii)
(A) The assessment amount.
(B) The statutory and regulatory bases for the assessment.
(C) A description of the violations upon which the assessment was proposed.
(D) Any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that CMS considered when it calculated the amount of the proposed assessment.
(E) Information concerning response to the notice, including:
(
(
(
(
(F) The means by which the qualified entity may pay the amount if they do not intend to request a hearing.
(iii)
(A) CMS notifies the qualified entity, by certified mail with return receipt requested, of any assessment that has been imposed and of the means by which the qualified entity may satisfy the judgment.
(B) The qualified entity has no right to appeal an assessment for which the qualified entity has not requested a hearing.
(iv)
(A) Sixty (60) days after the qualified entity receives CMS's notice of proposed determination under paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, if the qualified entity has not requested a hearing.
(B) Immediately after the qualified entity abandons or waives its appeal right at any administrative level.
(C) Thirty (30) days after the qualified entity receives the ALJ's decision imposing an assessment under § 1005.20(d) of this title, if the qualified entity has not requested a review before the DAB.
(D) Sixty (60) days after the qualified entity receives the DAB's decision imposing an assessment if the qualified entity has not requested a stay of the decision under § 1005.22(b) of this title.
(v)
(A) The General Counsel may compromise an assessment imposed under this part, after consulting with CMS or OIG, and the Federal government may recover the assessment in a civil action brought in the United States district court for the district where the claim was presented or where the qualified entity resides.
(B) The United States or a state agency may deduct the amount of an assessment when finally determined, or the amount agreed upon in compromise, from any sum then or later owing the qualified entity.
(C) Matters that were raised or that could have been raised in a hearing before an ALJ or in an appeal under section 1128A(e) of the Act may not be raised as a defense in a civil action by the United States to collect an assessment.
(a) * * *
(7) Fails to ensure authorized users comply with their QE DUAs or analysis use agreements.
(a) A qualified clinical data registry that agrees to meet all the requirements in this subpart, with the exception of § 401.707(d), may request access to Medicare data as a quasi qualified entity in accordance with such qualified entity program requirements.
(b) Notwithstanding § 401.703(q) (generally defining combined data), for purposes of qualified clinical data registries acting as quasi qualified entities under the qualified entity program requirements, combined data means, at a minimum, a set of CMS claims data provided under this subpart combined with clinical data or a subset of clinical data.
(a) In particular, relevant agencies shall, consistent with mission objectives and applicable law, including the law of armed conflict:
(b) In addition to the responsibilities above, relevant agencies shall also, as appropriate and consistent with mission objectives and applicable law, including the law of armed conflict:
(b) The annual report shall also include information obtained from relevant agencies regarding the general sources of information and methodology used to conduct these assessments and, as feasible and appropriate, shall address the general reasons for discrepancies between post-strike assessments from the U.S. Government and credible reporting from nongovernmental organizations regarding non-combatant deaths resulting from strikes undertaken by the U.S. Government against terrorist targets outside areas of active hostilities.
(c) In preparing a report under this section, the DNI shall review relevant and credible post-strike all-source reporting, including such information from nongovernmental sources, for the purpose of ensuring that this reporting is available to and considered by relevant agencies in their assessment of deaths.
(d) The Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs may, as appropriate, request that the head of any relevant agency conduct additional reviews related to the intelligence assessments of deaths from strikes against terrorist targets outside areas of active hostilities.
(b) No part of this order modifies priorities in the collection of intelligence or the development, acquisition, or fielding of weapon systems and other technological capabilities.
(c) No part of this order shall prejudice or supplant established procedures pertaining to administrative or criminal investigative or judicial processes in the context of the military justice system or other applicable law and regulation.
(d) The policies set forth in this order are consistent with existing U.S. obligations under international law and are not intended to create new international legal obligations; nor shall anything in this order be construed to derogate from obligations under applicable law, including the law of armed conflict.
(e) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |