Page Range | 28549-28745 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 28745 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to the Western Balkans | |
82 FR 28743 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to North Korea | |
82 FR 28730 - In the Matter of the Amendment of the Designation of Hizballah (and Other Aliases) as a Foreign Terrorist Organization Pursuant to Section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as Amended | |
82 FR 28659 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 28731 - In the Matter of the Amendment of the Designation of al-Qa'ida in the Arabian Peninsula (and Other Aliases) as a Foreign Terrorist Organization Pursuant to Section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act | |
82 FR 28731 - In the Matter of the Amendment of the Designation of al-Qa'ida in the Arabian Peninsula and Other Aliases as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist Entity Pursuant to Executive Order 13224 | |
82 FR 28731 - In the Matter of the Amendment of the Designation of Hizballah (and Other Aliases) as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
82 FR 28617 - Agency for International Development Acquisition Regulation (AIDAR): Agency Warrant Program for Individual Cooperating Country National Personal Services Contractors (CCNPSCs) | |
82 FR 28621 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
82 FR 28696 - Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health; Notice of Advisory Board Charter Renewal | |
82 FR 28644 - Meeting of the Ocean Exploration Advisory Board (OEAB) | |
82 FR 28664 - Submission of Proposed Recommendations for Industry on Developing Continuous Manufacturing of Solid Dosage Drug Products in Pharmaceutical Manufacturing; Establishment of a Public Docket | |
82 FR 28665 - Patient-Focused Drug Development for Alopecia Areata; Public Meeting; Request for Comments | |
82 FR 28605 - Approval of Missouri Air Quality Implementation Plans; Determination of Attainment for the 2010 1-Hour Primary Sulfur Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standard; Jefferson County Nonattainment Area | |
82 FR 28614 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Maryland; Permits, Approvals, and Registrations | |
82 FR 28656 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
82 FR 28616 - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From the Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry: Alternative Monitoring Method | |
82 FR 28562 - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From the Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry: Alternative Monitoring Method | |
82 FR 28697 - Cancellation Notification of the Public Teleconference of the President's Commission on Combating Drug Addiction and the Opioid Crisis (Commission) | |
82 FR 28661 - Request for Nominations for Voting Members on Public Advisory Panels or Committees; Device Good Manufacturing Practice Advisory Committee and the Medical Devices Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 28732 - Notice of Intent To Rule on a Land Release Request at Elkins, Randolph County Regional Airport, Elkins, WV | |
82 FR 28674 - Housing Trust Fund Federal Register; Allocation Notice | |
82 FR 28619 - Notice of Proposed Changes to the National Handbook of Conservation Practices for the Natural Resources Conservation Service | |
82 FR 28667 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request Information Collection Request Title: Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) Program Deeming Applications for Free Clinics, OMB No. 0915-0293-Extension | |
82 FR 28692 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments; Requested; Extension Without Change, of a Previously Approved Collection; FBI National Academy: End-of-Session Student Course Questionnaire; FBI National Academy: General Remarks Questionnaire | |
82 FR 28668 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Information Collection Request Title: Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) Program Deeming Applications for Health Centers, OMB No. 0906-XXXX-New | |
82 FR 28697 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28550 - Irish Potatoes Grown in Certain Designated Counties in Idaho, and Malheur County, Oregon; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
82 FR 28589 - Grapes Grown in a Designated Area of Southeastern California and Imported Table Grapes; Removing Varietal Exemptions | |
82 FR 28669 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Information Collection Request Title: Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) Program Deeming Applications for Health Center Volunteer Health Professionals | |
82 FR 28618 - Council for Native American Farming and Ranching | |
82 FR 28552 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Thames River, New London, CT | |
82 FR 28658 - Radio Broadcasting Services; AM or FM Proposals To Change the Community of License | |
82 FR 28567 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Establishment of a Nonessential Experimental Population of the Oregon Silverspot Butterfly in Northwestern Oregon | |
82 FR 28582 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Removal of the Hualapai Mexican Vole From the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife | |
82 FR 28672 - Draft Report on Carcinogens Monograph on Haloacetic Acids Found as Water Disinfection By-Products; Availability of Document; Request for Comments; Notice of Peer-Review Meeting | |
82 FR 28676 - Peter F. Kelly, D.P.M.; Decision and Order | |
82 FR 28621 - Revised National Environmental Policy Act Procedures and Categorical Exclusions | |
82 FR 28695 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection; eComments Requested Generic Clearance for Cognitive, Pilot, and Field Studies for Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Data Collection Activities | |
82 FR 28676 - Boundary Adjustment at Delaware Water Gap National Recreation Area | |
82 FR 28675 - Agency Information Collection Activities; OMB Control Number 1004-0103; Mineral Materials Disposal | |
82 FR 28643 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting | |
82 FR 28645 - Caribbean Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 28654 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; NSPS for Kraft Pulp Mills (Renewal) | |
82 FR 28655 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; NESHAP for Polyether Polyols Production (Renewal) | |
82 FR 28657 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; National Estuary Program (Renewal) | |
82 FR 28656 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Requirements for Certified Applicators Using 1080 Collars for Livestock Protection (Renewal) | |
82 FR 28653 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; General Administrative Requirements for Assistance Programs (Renewal) | |
82 FR 28701 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28715 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28711 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28724 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28594 - Airworthiness Directives; Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Airplanes | |
82 FR 28659 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
82 FR 28659 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Savings and Loan Holding Companies | |
82 FR 28640 - Certain Stainless Steel Wire Rod From India: Continuation of Antidumping Duty Order | |
82 FR 28628 - Foreign-Trade Zone 57-Mecklenburg County, North Carolina; Application for Production Authority; Gildan Yarns, LLC (Cotton and Cotton/Polyester Yarns); Salisbury, North Carolina | |
82 FR 28627 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 57-Charlotte, North Carolina, Notification of Proposed Production Activity, DNP Imagingcomm America Corporation (Coatings and Lamination on Semi-Completed Coated Paper), Concord, North Carolina | |
82 FR 28642 - Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act Provisions; General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Application for Exempted Fishing Permits | |
82 FR 28731 - Mission Mountain Railroad, L.L.C.-Discontinuance of Service Exemption-in Flathead County, Mont. | |
82 FR 28617 - Regulatory Reform Task Force | |
82 FR 28592 - Airworthiness Directives; British Aerospace Regional Aircraft Airplanes | |
82 FR 28596 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
82 FR 28734 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
82 FR 28629 - Certain Hardwood Plywood Products From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances, in Part | |
82 FR 28641 - Certain Cold-Drawn Mechanical Tubing of Carbon and Alloy Steel From India and the People's Republic of China: Postponement of Preliminary Determinations of Countervailing Duty Investigations | |
82 FR 28645 - Extension of the Cancer Immunotherapy Pilot Program | |
82 FR 28639 - Drawn Stainless Steel Sinks From the People's Republic of China: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Final Determination of No Shipments; 2015-2016 | |
82 FR 28628 - Foreign-Trade Zone 143-Sacramento, California Application for Subzone Expansion; Mitsubishi Chemical Carbon Fiber and Composites, Inc. Sacramento, California | |
82 FR 28728 - Presidential Declaration of a Major Disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of KANSAS | |
82 FR 28556 - Safety Zones; Annual Fireworks Displays Within the Sector Columbia River Captain of the Port Zone | |
82 FR 28618 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 28620 - Notice of Public Meetings of the Kansas Advisory Committee To Discuss Next Steps in the Committee's Study of Civil Rights and School Funding in Kansas | |
82 FR 28646 - Notice of Filing; City of Dover, Delaware | |
82 FR 28649 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 28651 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 28722 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq MRX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Regarding Quote Mitigation | |
82 FR 28724 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Expediting List Selection in Arbitration | |
82 FR 28712 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 1049, Communications to Customers | |
82 FR 28698 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rule 912 | |
82 FR 28708 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq GEMX, LLC; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rule 912 | |
82 FR 28718 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Schedule To Make Several Non-Substantive Changes | |
82 FR 28705 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 | |
82 FR 28719 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rule 996A | |
82 FR 28702 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq MRX, LLC; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rule 912 | |
82 FR 28716 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq MRX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Chapter 19 | |
82 FR 28726 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Change To Modify the NYSE Amex Options Fee Schedule | |
82 FR 28693 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
82 FR 28650 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
82 FR 28646 - Algonquin Northern Maine Generating Company; Notice of Intent to File License Application, Filing of Pre-Application Document (Pad), Intent To Waive Certain Procedural Matters, Commencement of Pre-Filing Process, and Scoping; Request for Comments on the Pad and Scoping Document, and Identification of Issues and Associated Study Requests | |
82 FR 28648 - Tesoro Refining & Marketing Company LLC v. Frontier Aspen LLC; Notice of Complaint | |
82 FR 28648 - Rover Pipeline LLC; Notice of Amendment | |
82 FR 28651 - CXA Sundevil Holdco, Inc.; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 28652 - Southern Natural Gas Company, LLC; Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Fairburn Expansion Project | |
82 FR 28650 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 28650 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 28559 - Domestic Mail Manual; Incorporation by Reference | |
82 FR 28737 - Nissan North America, Inc., Receipt of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
82 FR 28736 - Spartan Motors USA, Inc., Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
82 FR 28657 - Information Collection Approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) | |
82 FR 28659 - Announcement of the Award of 43 Single-Source Low-Cost Extension Supplement Grants Within the Office of Refugee Resettlement's Unaccompanied Alien Children's (UAC) Program | |
82 FR 28671 - National Institute of Mental Health; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28670 - National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28673 - National Institute on Drug Abuse; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28674 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28671 - National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 28671 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 28729 - Announcement of Growth Accelerator Fund Competition | |
82 FR 28739 - Solicitation of Nominations for Appointment to the Veterans and Community Oversight and Engagement Board | |
82 FR 28670 - Meeting of the Advisory Committee on Minority Health | |
82 FR 28553 - Safety Zone, Delaware River; Dredging | |
82 FR 28611 - Air Plan Approval; ME; New Motor Vehicle Emission Standards | |
82 FR 28549 - Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Procedures | |
82 FR 28603 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Redmond, OR | |
82 FR 28565 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
82 FR 28561 - Correction to Incorporations by Reference | |
82 FR 28560 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Western Mojave Desert, Rate of Progress Demonstration | |
82 FR 28566 - Structure and Practices of the Video Relay Services Program | |
82 FR 28643 - Notice of Availability of the Final Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement and Restoration Plan To Compensate for Injuries to Natural Resources in Portland Harbor, Oregon | |
82 FR 28733 - Notice of Final Federal Agency Actions on Proposed Highway in Washington | |
82 FR 28732 - Notice of Final Federal Agency Actions on The Hampton Roads Crossing Study in the Cities of Hampton and Norfolk, Virginia | |
82 FR 28599 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Natural Resources Conservation Service
First Responder Network Authority
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Drug Enforcement Administration
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Workers Compensation Programs Office
National Endowment for the Arts
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
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Special Inspector General for Afghanistan Reconstruction.
Final rule.
The Special Inspector General for Afghanistan Reconstruction (SIGAR) published an interim final rule enacting changes to its Freedom of Information Act regulation to comply with the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016 on January 4th, 2017. SIGAR is now adopting those amendments as final with changes.
This final rule is effective July 24, 2017.
William Gaertner, Associate General Counsel, Special Inspector General for Afghanistan Reconstruction, 2530 Crystal Drive, Arlington, VA 22202, (703) 545-5994.
On January 28, 2008, the President signed into law the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2008 (Pub. L. 110-181), which created SIGAR to conduct independent and objective audits, investigations and analysis to promote economy and efficiency, and to detect and deter waste, fraud, and abuse in the reconstruction of Afghanistan. The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), as amended, provides for access by the public to records of executive branch agencies, subject to certain restrictions and exemptions. In order to establish procedures to facilitate public interaction with SIGAR, the agency published 5 CFR part 9301 setting forth SIGAR's regulations governing the access provisions of those statutes and Executive Order 12958. On June 30, 2016 the President signed into law the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016 (Pub. L. 114-185). SIGAR published an interim final rule amending its FOIA regulations based on the changes made in the FOIA Improvements Act of 2016 on January 4th, 2017.
SIGAR received comments on its interim final rule from two government agencies. SIGAR reviewed these comments and is making changes to the interim final rule based on those comments.
This final rule amends portions of SIGAR's existing regulation implementing provisions of the FOIA (5 U.S.C. 552). The provisions of this amendment shall apply to all components of SIGAR. The FOIA provides for the disclosure of agency records and information to the public, unless that information is exempted under delineated statutory exemptions under the FOIA. The procedures established here are intended to ensure that SIGAR fully satisfies its responsibility to the public to disclose agency information, but continues to safeguard sensitive information properly.
This Final Rule amends SIGAR's regulations implementing the FOIA to facilitate the interaction of the public with SIGAR. SIGAR's policy of disclosure follows the Presidential Memorandum of January 21, 2009, “Transparency and Open Government,” 74 FR 4685, and the Attorney General's March 19, 2009 FOIA policy guidance, advising Federal agencies to apply a presumption of disclosure in FOIA decision making. This Final Rule incorporates portions the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016, signed into law by the President on June 30, 2016. This amendment maintains SIGAR's compliance with the FOIA and those amendments to the FOIA adopted in the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016.
Finally, notice of proposed rulemaking is not required, because the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. Chapter 6) do not apply. It has been determined that this rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action for the purposes of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, a regulatory impact analysis is not required.
Administrative practice and procedure, Freedom of information.
Accordingly, as stated in the preamble, SIGAR is adopting the interim rule published January 4, 2017, at 82 FR 711, as final with the following changes:
5 U.S.C. 552; Pub. L. 110-175, 121 Stat. 2524 (2007); 5 U.S.C. 301 and 552; Exec. Order 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235; Exec. Order No. 13392, 70 FR 75373-75377, 3 CFR, 2006 Comp., pp. 216-200.
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii)
(d) * * *
(3)
(f) * * *
(3) SIGAR determines that unusual circumstances apply to the processing of a request, provides timely notice to the requester, and delay is excused for an additional ten days, but SIGAR still fails to respond within the timeframe established by the additional delay. This provision applies only to search fees or duplication fees for educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media requesters. However, the following exceptions shall apply:
(i) Notwithstanding § 9301.8(f)(3), if SIGAR determines that unusual circumstances apply and that more than 5000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, SIGAR may continue to charge search fees, or duplication fees for requesters in preferred status, for as long as necessary, after timely written notice has been made to the requester and SIGAR has discussed with the requester how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone, or made three good-faith attempts to do so.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final rule.
This rule implements a recommendation from the Idaho-Eastern Oregon Potato Committee (Committee) to decrease the assessment rate established for the 2017-2018 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.0025 to $0.002 per hundredweight of potatoes handled. The Committee locally administers the marketing order which regulates the handling of potatoes grown in certain designated counties in Idaho, and Malheur County, Oregon. Assessments upon potato handlers are used by the Committee to fund reasonable and necessary expenses of the program. The fiscal period begins August 1 and ends July 31. The assessment rate will remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated.
Effective August 1, 2017.
Barry Broadbent, Senior Marketing Specialist, or Gary D. Olson, Regional Director, Northwest Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (503) 326-2724, Fax: (503) 326-7440, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement No. 98 and Order No. 945, both as amended (7 CFR part 945), regulating the handling of Irish potatoes grown in certain designated counties in Idaho, and Malheur County, Oregon, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this final rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13771, 13563, and 13175.
This action falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this rule does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017 titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the marketing order now in effect, Idaho-Eastern Oregon potato handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate as established herein will be applicable to all assessable potatoes beginning August 1, 2017, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This rule decreases the assessment rate established for the Committee for the 2017-2018 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.0025 to $0.002 per hundredweight of potatoes handled.
The Idaho-Eastern Oregon potato marketing order provides authority for the Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to cover the expenses of administering the program. The members of the Committee are
For the 2014-2015 and subsequent fiscal periods, the Committee recommended, and USDA approved, an assessment rate of $0.0025 per hundredweight of potatoes that would continue in effect from fiscal period to fiscal period unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other information available to USDA.
The Committee met on November 9, 2016, to consider the Committee's projected 2017-2018 financial requirements, the size of the Committee's operating reserve, and the order's continuing assessment rate. The Committee unanimously recommended an assessment rate of $0.002 per hundredweight of potatoes for the 2017-2018 fiscal period. The assessment rate of $0.002 is $0.0005 lower than the rate currently in effect. The assessment rate decrease is necessary to reduce the funds held in reserve to less than approximately one fiscal period's budgeted expenses, the maximum level allowed by the order.
The Committee adopted a budget of $119,075 for the 2016-2017 fiscal period. It expects to recommend a similar level of budgeted expenditures for the 2017-2018 fiscal period at its next scheduled meeting in June 2017. The Committee expects its budget for major expenditures for the 2017-2018 fiscal period to be close to the budgeted amounts for the 2016-2017 fiscal period. These expenditures include $68,638 for administrative expenses, $35,437 for travel/office expenses, and $15,000 for marketing order contingency.
The assessment rate recommended by the Committee was derived by dividing anticipated expenses by expected shipments of Idaho-Eastern Oregon potatoes. Potato shipments for 2017-2018 are estimated at 32 million hundredweight which should provide $64,000 in assessment income at the proposed assessment rate. Income derived from handler assessments, along with other income, interest earned, and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, will be adequate to cover budgeted expenses. Funds in the reserve (projected to be $158,275 on July 31, 2017) are expected to be reduced to comply with the maximum permitted by the order of approximately one fiscal period's expenses.
The assessment rate will continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information.
Although this assessment rate will be in effect for an indefinite period, the Committee will continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee or USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA will evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking will be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's 2017-2018 budget, and those for subsequent fiscal periods, will be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 450 producers of potatoes in the production area and approximately 32 handlers subject to regulation under the marketing order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (13 CFR 121.201) as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000.
During the 2015-2016 fiscal period, the most recent full year of statistics available, 33,606,000 hundredweight of Idaho-Eastern Oregon potatoes were inspected under the order and sold into the fresh market. Based on information provided by the National Agricultural Statistics Service, the average producer price for the 2015 Idaho potato crop (the most recent full marketing year recorded) was $7.00 per hundredweight. Multiplying $7.00 by the shipment quantity of 33,606,000 hundredweight yields an annual crop revenue estimate of $235,242,000. The average annual fresh potato revenue for each of the 450 producers is therefore calculated to be $522,760 ($235,242,000 divided by 450), which is less than the Small Business Administration threshold of $750,000. Consequently, on average, a majority of the Idaho-Eastern Oregon potato producers may be classified as small entities.
In addition, based on information reported by USDA's Market News Service, the average free-on-board (f.o.b.) shipping point price for the 2015 Idaho potato crop was $7.47 per hundredweight. Multiplying $7.47 by the shipment quantity of 33,606,000 hundredweight yields an annual crop revenue estimate of $251,036,820. The average annual fresh potato revenue for each of the 32 handlers is therefore calculated to be $7,844,900 ($251,036,820 divided by 32), which is slightly more than the Small Business Administration threshold of $7,500,000. Given the likelihood that there may be several large handlers, some of the Idaho-Eastern Oregon potato handlers may be classified as small entities.
This rule decreases the assessment rate established for the Committee and collected from handlers for the 2017-2018 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.0025 to $0.002 per hundredweight of potatoes handled. The Committee unanimously recommended an assessment rate of $0.002 per hundredweight of potatoes for the 2017-2018 fiscal period. The assessment rate of $0.002 per hundredweight is $0.0005 lower than the rate for the 2016-2017 fiscal period. The quantity of assessable potatoes for the 2017-2018 fiscal period is estimated at 32 million hundredweight. Thus, the $0.002 rate should provide $64,000 in assessment income. Income derived from handler assessments, along with other income, interest earned, and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, will be adequate to cover budgeted expenses.
The Committee adopted a budget of $119,075 for the 2016-2017 fiscal period and expects to recommend a similar amount in budgeted expenditures for the 2017-2018 fiscal period at its next scheduled meeting in June 2017. The major budgeted expenditures for the 2016-2017 year
The lower assessment rate is necessary to reduce the reserve balance to less than approximately one fiscal period's budgeted expenses. The reserve balance on July 31, 2017, is projected to be $158,275. Assessment income for the 2017-2018 fiscal period is estimated at $64,000, while expenses are estimated to be $119,075. The Committee anticipates compensating for the reduced assessment revenue with $5,100 from miscellaneous income, $100 from interest income, and $49,875 from its reserve fund. The reserve fund is projected to be under the maximum authorized level at the end of the 2017-2018 fiscal period.
The Committee discussed alternatives to this change, including suspending assessments for one year, recommending other assessment rate levels, and leaving the current rate in place. Prior to arriving at this assessment rate recommendation, the Committee considered information from the Board's Executive Committee on the cost savings resulting from recent administrative changes in the Committee office and the level of anticipated Committee expenses moving forward. The Committee debated between suspending assessments for one year and recommending the assessment rate be lowered to $0.002 per hundredweight of potatoes. Based on the market and shipping quantities, the Committee recommended the rate of $0.002 per hundredweight. The Committee believes this assessment rate, in combination with other income, interest earned, and funds utilized from the Committee's financial reserve, will provide sufficient funds to meet its expenses.
A review of historical information and preliminary information pertaining to the upcoming fiscal period indicates that the producer price for the 2017 crop could range between $6.00 and $9.00 per hundredweight of potatoes. Therefore, the estimated assessment revenue for the 2017-2018 fiscal period as a percentage of total producer revenue could range between 0.022 and 0.033 percent.
This action decreases the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to producers. However, decreasing the assessment rate will reduce the burden on handlers, and may reduce the burden on producers. In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Idaho-Eastern Oregon potato industry and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the November 9, 2016, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0178 (Generic Vegetable and Specialty Crops). No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This rule imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Idaho-Eastern Oregon potato handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. As noted in the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this final rule.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
A proposed rule concerning this action was published in the
Two comments were received during the comment period in response to the proposal. Both comments were received from outside of the regulated production area. One comment supported the proposed assessment decrease. The other comment did not support the proposal, however, it did not address the merits of the proposed rule. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the rule as proposed, based on the comments received.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
After consideration of all relevant material presented, including the information and recommendation submitted by the Committee and other available information, it is hereby found that this rule, as hereinafter set forth, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
Marketing agreements, Potatoes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 945 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On and after August 1, 2017, an assessment rate of $0.002 per hundredweight is established for Idaho-Eastern Oregon potatoes.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating
This deviation is effective from 9 p.m. on July 31, 2017 to 7 a.m. on September 12, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2017-0517 is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email James L. Rousseau, Bridge Management Specialist, First District Bridge Branch, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 617-223-8619, email
Amtrak, the owner of the bridge, requested a temporary deviation in order to facilitate installation of a lift span emergency generator. The Amtrak Bridge across the Thames River, mile 3.0 at New London, Connecticut has a horizontal clearance of 150 feet and a vertical clearance of 29 feet at mean high water and 31 feet at mean low water in the closed position. The bridge has a vertical clearance of 75 feet in the intermediate raised position and 135 feet in the fully open position at mean high water. The existing drawbridge operating regulations are listed at 33 CFR 117.224.
This temporary deviation will allow the Amtrak Bridge to require a 2 hour advance notice between 9 p.m. and 7 a.m. from July 31, 2017 to September 12, 2017, while a crane barge is present next to the lift span. The presence of the crane barge reduces the horizontal clearance to 70 feet. Additionally, between July 31, 2017 and September 10, 2017 the lift span will be in the down position during daytime hours but will be able to open when requested.
The waterway is transited by recreational traffic, commercial vessels, ferries, and military vessels. Vessels that can pass under the bridge without an opening may do so at all times. When the barge is located next to the lift span, the bridge will not be able to open immediately for emergencies. There is no alternate route for vessels unable to pass through the bridge when in the closed position.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by this temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing temporary safety zones in portions of Marcus Hook Range, Deepwater Point Range, and New Castle Range, on the Delaware River, to facilitate the annual maintenance dredging of the Federal Navigation Channel. The safety zones will be established for the waters in the vicinity of the dredge and associated pipeline, including dredge pipe which is located in Marcus Hook Anchorage No. 7 and Pea Patch Island Anchorage No. 5. This regulation is necessary to provide for the safety of life on navigable waters of the Delaware River, in the vicinity of dredging activity, and is intended to protect mariners from the hazards associated with pipe-laying and dredging operations.
This rule is effective without actual notice from June 26, 2017 until September 1, 2017. For purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from June 17, 2017 through June 26, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions about this rulemaking, call or email Petty Officer Amanda Boone, U.S. Coast Guard, Sector Delaware Bay, Waterways Management Division, Coast Guard; telephone (215) 271-4814, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) (B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because doing so would be impractical and contrary to the public interest. Final details for the dredging operation were not received by the Coast Guard until June 15, 2017. Vessels transiting through New Castle Range, Deepwater Point Range, Marcus Hook Range or attempting to enter the waters of Marcus Hook Anchorage No. 7 and Pea Patch Island Anchorage No. 5 during pipe-laying or dredging operations may be at risk. Delaying this rule for the purpose of providing a notice and comment period would be contrary to the public interest as it would inhibit the Coast Guard's ability to protect the public from the hazards associated with pipe-laying and dredging operations. We are issuing this rule, and, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making it effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231; 33 CFR 1.05-1 and 160.5; and Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1. The Captain of the Port (COTP), Delaware Bay, has determined that potential hazards associated with dredging and pipe laying operations, beginning June 17, 2017, will be a safety concern for vessels attempting to transit the Delaware River, along New Castle Range, Deepwater Point Range, Marcus Hook Range or attempting to enter the waters of Marcus Hook Anchorage No. 7 and Pea Patch Island Anchorage No. 5. This rule is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment on the navigable waters within the safety zones while dredging is being conducted.
The Coast Guard Captain of the Port is temporarily establishing safety zones on portions of the Delaware River from June 17, 2017 until September 1, 2017, unless cancelled earlier by the Captain of the Port, to facilitate maintenance dredging being conducted in New Castle Range, Deepwater Point Range and Marcus Hook Range. Maintenance dredging in the channel will be conducted with the cutter suction dredge ILLINOIS and associated pipeline. Pipeline will be a combination of floating hoses immediately behind the dredge and submerged pipeline leading to upland disposal areas. Due to the hazards related to cutter suction dredging, the associated pipeline, and the location of the submerged pipeline, safety zones will be established in the following areas:
(1) Safety zone one includes all waters within 150 yards of the dredge and all related dredge equipment. The safety zone will be established for the duration of the maintenance project. Vessels requesting to transit shall contact the dredge ILLINOIS on VHF channel 13 or 16, at least 1 hour, as well as 30 minutes, prior to arrival.
(2) Safety zone two includes all the waters of Pea Patch Island Anchorage No. 5 found in 33 CFR 110.157(a)(6), where submerged pipeline will be located which poses a risk to anchored vessels. The safety zone will be in place only during the time in which the dredge ILLINOIS is conducting dredging operations in New Castle Range. Vessels requesting to transit shall contact the dredge ILLINOIS on VHF channel 13 or 16, at least 1 hour, as well as 30 minutes, prior to arrival.
(3) Safety zone three includes all the waters of Marcus Hook Anchorage No. 7 found in 33 CFR 110.157(a)(8). Vessels requesting to transit Marcus Hook Range shall contact the dredge ILLINOIS on VHF channel 13 or 16, at least 1 hour, as well as 30 minutes, prior to arrival. Vessels shall then transit around the dredge project area, utilizing Marcus Hook Anchorage, while operating at the minimum safe speed necessary to maintain steerage and reduced wake. Vessels wishing to anchor in Marcus Hook Anchorage No. 7 must obtain permission from the COTP at least 24 hours in advance by calling 215-271-4807. The COTP will permit one vessel at a time to anchor on a “first-come, first-served” basis. Vessels will only be allowed to anchor for a 12 hour period. Vessels that require an examination by the Public Health Service, Customs or Immigration authorities will be directed to an anchorage for the required inspection by the COTP. Vessels are encouraged to use Mantua Creek Anchorage No.9, Naval Base Philadelphia Anchorage No. 10, and Deepwater Point Anchorage No. 6 as alternative anchorages.
Entry into, transiting, or anchoring within the safety zones is prohibited unless vessels obtain permission from the Captain of the Port or make satisfactory passing arrangements with the dredge ILLINOIS per this rule and the Rules of the Road (33 CFR chapter I, subchapter E).
The Captain of the Port will implement and terminate the safety zones individually once all submerged pipeline has been recovered and dredging operations are completed in each range respectively. Notice of the implementation and the termination of the safety zone will be made in accordance with 33 CFR 165.7.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, and duration of the safety zones. Although this regulation will restrict access to regulated areas, the effect of this rule will not be significant because there are a number of alternate anchorages available for vessels to anchor. Furthermore, vessels may be permitted to transit through the safety zone with the permission of the Captain of the Port or make satisfactory passing arrangements with the dredge ILLINOIS in accordance with this rule and the Rules of the Road (33 CFR chapter I, subchapter E). Extensive notification of the safety zones to the maritime public will be made via maritime advisories allowing mariners to alter their plans accordingly.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that it is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule adjusts rates in accordance with applicable statutory and regulatory mandates. It is categorically excluded under section 2.B.2, figure 2-1, paragraph 34(g) of the Instruction, which pertains to minor regulatory changes that are editorial or procedural in nature. A Record of Environmental Consideration (REC) supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated in the
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
. 33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(1) Safety zone one includes all waters within 150 yards of the dredge ILLINOIS and all related dredge equipment.
(2) Safety zone two includes all the waters of Pea Patch Island Anchorage No. 5 found in 33 CFR 110.157(a)(6), where submerged pipeline will be located causing a hazard to anchoring vessels. The safety zone will be in place only during the time in which the dredge ILLINOIS is conducting dredging operations in New Castle Range.
(3) Safety zone three includes all the waters of Marcus Hook Anchorage No. 7 found in 33 CFR 110.157(a)(8). The safety zone will be in place only during the time in which the dredge ILLINOIS is conducting dredging operations in Marcus Hook Range.
(b)
(2)
(c)
(1) Safety zone two will be in place only during the time that dredge ILLINOIS is conducting dredging operations in New Castle Range. Safety zone three will be in place only during time in which the dredge ILLINOIS is conducting dredging operations in Marcus Hook Range.
(2) Vessels requesting to transit Marcus Hook Range shall contact the dredge ILLINOIS on VHF channel 13 or 16, at least 1 hour, as well as 30 minutes, prior to arrival. Vessels shall then transit around the dredge project, utilizing Marcus Hook Anchorage, while operating at the minimum safe speed necessary to maintain steerage and reduced wake.
(3) Vessels wishing to anchor in Marcus Hook Anchorage No. 7 during the time in which the dredge ILLINOIS is conducting dredging operations in Marcus Hook Range, must obtain permission from the COTP at least 24 hours in advance by calling 215-271-4807. The COTP will permit one vessel at a time to anchor on a “first-come, first-served” basis. Vessel will only be allowed to anchor for a 12 hour period. Vessels that require an examination by the Public Health Service, Customs or Immigration authorities will be directed to an anchorage by the COTP for the required inspection. Vessels are encouraged to use Mantua Creek Anchorage No. 9, Naval Base Philadelphia Anchorage No. 10, and Deepwater Point Anchorage No. 6 as alternative anchorages.
(4) The Captain of the Port will implement and terminate the safety zones individually once all submerged pipeline has been recovered and dredging operations are completed in each range respectively. Notice of the
(5) Entry into, transiting, or anchoring within the safety zone is prohibited unless vessels obtain permission from the Captain of the Port or make satisfactory passing arrangements, via VHF-FM channel 16, with the dredge ILLINOIS per this rule and the Rules of the Road (33 CFR chapter I, subchapter E).
(6) To request permission to enter the safety zone, the Captain of the Port's representative can be contact via VHF-FM channel 16. Vessels granted permission to enter and transit through the safety zone must do so in accordance with the directions provided by the Captain of the Port or designated representative. No person or vessel may enter or remain in a safety zone without permission from the Captain of the Port. All persons and vessels within a safety zone shall obey the directions or orders of the Captain of the Port or their designated representative.
(7) At least one side of the main navigational channel will be kept clear for safe passage of vessels in the vicinity of the safety zones. At no time will the main navigational channel be closed to vessel traffic. Vessels requesting to transit shall contact the dredge ILLINOIS on VHF channel 13 or 16, at least 1 hour, as well as 30 minutes, prior to arrival.
(8) This section applies to all vessels that intend to transit through the safety zones except vessels that are engaged in the following operations: enforcement of laws; service of aids to navigation, and emergency response.
(d)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing safety zones at various locations in the Sector Columbia River Captain of the Port zone. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters during fireworks displays. This regulation prohibits persons and vessels from being in the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Columbia River or a designated representative.
This rule is effective July 4, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email LCDR Laura Springer, Waterways Management Division, Marine Safety Unit Portland, Coast Guard; telephone 503-240-9319, email
The Coast Guard is establishing five new fireworks displays to be conducted during the 2017 season. These new safety zones are listed in existing 33 CFR 164.1315. Additionally, the Coast Guard is consolidating two fireworks display safety zones into the table in § 165.1315.
On April 7, 2017, the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled, “Safety Zone; Annual Fireworks Displays within the Sector Columbia River Captain of the Port Zone” (82 FR 16976). There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to this fireworks display. During the comment period that ended May 8, 2017, we received one comment. There are no changes in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM.
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making it effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Port Sector Columbia River has determined that fireworks displays create hazardous conditions for the maritime public because of the large number of vessels near the displays, as well as the noise, falling debris, and explosions that occur during the event. Because firework discharge sites pose a potential hazard to the maritime public, these safety zones are necessary in order to restrict vessel movement and reduce vessel congregation in the proximity of the firework discharge sites.
As noted above, we received one comment stating, “The Coast Guard should establish five new fireworks display safety zones at various locations in the Sector Columbia River Captain of the Port zone. In addition to adding new fireworks display safety zones, this proposed rule making would consolidate existing safety zones into one regulation and eliminate one safety zone listed in two regulations.” In essence, this comment restates what the rule is seeking to accomplish. There are no changes in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM.
The rule establishes five new fireworks display safety zones to revise 33 CFR 165.1315 to include multiple locations in the Sector Columbia River COTP Zone. The added safety zones would cover all waters of the Oregon
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-day of the safety zones. Vessel traffic would be able to safely transit around these safety zones which would impact small designated areas of the Oregon coast, Tillamook Bay, the Columbia River and its tributaries, and the Clatskanie River for less than 1 hour during the evening when commercial vessel traffic is normally low. Moreover, the Coast Guard would issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone, and the rule would allow vessels to seek permission to enter the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves safety zones that are approximately 3 hours in duration and would prohibit entry within 450 yards of the launch sites. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. A preliminary environmental analysis checklist and Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
Postal Service
Final rule.
The Postal Service announces the issuance of the
This final rule is effective on June 23, 2017. The incorporation by reference of the DMM dated January 22, 2017, is approved by the Director of the
Lizbeth Dobbins (202) 268-3789.
The most recent issue of the
Changes to mailing standards will continue to be published through
Administrative practice and procedure, Incorporation by reference.
In view of the considerations discussed above, the Postal Service hereby amends 39 CFR part 111 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 552(a); 13 U.S.C. 301-307; 18 U.S.C. 1692-1737; 39 U.S.C. 101, 401, 403, 404, 414, 416, 3001-3011, 3201-3219, 3403-3406, 3621, 3622, 3626, 3632, 3633, and 5001.
(f) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a state implementation plan revision submitted by the State of California to meet Clean Air Act requirements applicable to the Western Mojave Desert ozone nonattainment area. Specifically, the EPA is approving the initial six-year 15 percent rate of progress demonstration to address requirements for the 1997 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standards.
This final rule is effective on July 24, 2017.
The EPA has established docket number EPA-R09-OAR-2017-0028 for this action. Generally, documents in the docket for this action are available electronically at
Tom Kelly, Air Planning Office (AIR-2), EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3856,
Throughout this document, the terms “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.
On March 9, 2017, the EPA proposed to approve, under section 110(k)(3) of the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act), the initial six-year 15 percent rate of progress (ROP) demonstration to address requirements for the 1997 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) for the Western Mojave Desert (WMD) nonattainment area. 82 FR 13086. This demonstration is contained in a state implementation plan (SIP) submittal from the California Air Resources Board entitled “Proposed Updates to the 1997 8-Hour Ozone Standard, State Implementation Plans: Coachella Valley and Western Mojave Desert 8-hour Ozone Nonattainment Areas” (“2014 SIP Update”).
The WMD is classified as Severe-15 with an attainment date no later than June 15, 2019.
The EPA's proposed action provided a 30-day public comment period. We received one comment, which was submitted anonymously. The comment did not address the EPA's proposed action and did not provide specific information relevant to the basis for EPA's proposed approval. We are not revising any portion of the proposed rule based on this comment.
For the reasons discussed in our March 9, 2017 proposal and summarized above, the EPA is approving, under CAA section 110(k)(3), the ROP demonstration contained in the 2014 SIP Update as meeting the requirements of CAA section 182(b)(1) and 40 CFR 51.1105(a)(1) and 51.1100(o)(4).
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by August 22, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental regulations, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(486) * * *
(ii) * * *
(A) * * *
(
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule; technical amendment.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking action to correct paragraph numbering in the Incorporations by Reference (IBR) section of our regulations that specifically lists material that can be purchased from the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM). This action assigns the appropriate IBR paragraph numbers by correcting paragraph ordering errors.
Mrs. Lula H. Melton, Air Quality Assessment Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (E143-02), Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, NC 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-2910; fax number: (919) 541-0516; email address:
This action corrects paragraph ordering errors in 40 CFR 60.17(h) as highlighted in the editorial note at the end of § 60.17. The editorial note mentions that amendments could not be incorporated into § 60.17(h) as requested in a final rule published August 30, 2016 (Revisions to Test Methods, Performance Specifications, and Testing Regulations for Air Emission Sources (81 FR 59799)), because paragraph (h)(207) already existed as of the effective date. This issue occurred when two rules that both added incorporation by reference paragraphs in § 60.17(h) published out of order.
Section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B), provides that, when an agency for good cause finds that notice and public procedure are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, the agency may issue a rule without providing notice and an opportunity for public comment. We have determined that there is good cause for making this technical amendment final without prior proposal and opportunity for public amendment because only simple publication errors are being corrected that do not
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency amends title 40, chapter I of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401,
The additions read as follows:
(h) * * *
(191) ASTM D6911-15, Standard Guide for Packaging and Shipping Environmental Samples for Laboratory Analysis, approved January 15, 2015, IBR approved for appendix A-8: Method 30B.
(202) ASTM E617-13, Standard Specification for Laboratory Weights and Precision Mass Standards, approved May 1, 2013, IBR approved for appendix A-3: Methods 4, 5, 5H, 5I, and appendix A-8: Method 29.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The EPA is taking direct final action to amend the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From the Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry. This direct final rule provides a compliance alternative for sources that would otherwise be required to use a hydrogen chloride (HCl) continuous emissions monitoring system (CEMS) to demonstrate compliance with the HCl emissions limit. This compliance alternative is needed due to the current unavailability of the HCl calibration gases used for CEMS quality assurance purposes.
This rule is effective on July 5, 2017 without further notice, unless the EPA receives significant adverse comment by July 3, 2017. If the EPA receives significant adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2016-0442, at
Mr. Brian Storey, Sector Policies and Programs Division (D243-04), Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-1103; fax number: (919) 541-5450; and email address:
The EPA is publishing this direct final rule without a prior proposed rule because we view this as a noncontroversial action and do not anticipate significant adverse comment. However, in the “Proposed Rules”
If the EPA receives significant adverse comment on all or a distinct portion of this direct final rule, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
Categories and entities potentially regulated by this direct final rule include:
This table is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be regulated by this direct final rule. To determine whether your facility is affected, you should examine the applicability criteria in 40 CFR 63.1340. If you have questions regarding the applicability of any aspect of this action to a particular entity, consult either the air permitting authority for the entity or your EPA Regional representative as listed in 40 CFR 63.13.
Do not submit information containing CBI to the EPA through
Under the rule published in 2013 (78 FR 10006, February 12, 2013), the owner or operator of a kiln subject to the emission limits for HCl in 40 CFR 63.1343 may demonstrate compliance by one of the following methods:
• Option 1—An owner or operator of a kiln may demonstrate compliance by operating a CEMS meeting the requirements of performance specification (PS) 15, PS-18, or any other PS for HCl CEMS in appendix B to part 60, with compliance based on a 30-kiln operating day rolling average.
• Option 2—If the kiln is controlled using a wet scrubber, tray tower, or dry scrubber, the owner or operator, as an alternative to using a CEMS, may demonstrate compliance with the HCl limit using one of two options, described below.
Under Option 2, a performance test must be conducted by the owner or operator using Method 321. While conducting the Method 321 performance test (note Method 321 is the HCl stack testing performance method required by this rule), the owner or operator must simultaneously measure a control device parameter in order to establishe a site-specific parameter limit that must be continuously monitored to determine compliance. If the kiln is controlled using a wet scrubber or tray tower, the owner or operator must also monitor the pressure drop across the scrubber and/or liquid flow rate and pH during the HCl performance test. If the kiln is controlled using a dry scrubber, the sorbent injection rate must be monitored during the performance test. As an alternative under Option 2, the owner or operator may establish sulfur dioxide (SO
The 2013 rule requires that if a source chooses to (or is required to) monitor HCl emissions using a CEMS (Option 1), they must do so in accordance with PS-15, PS-18, or any other PS for HCl CEMS in appendix B to part 60 of this chapter. (See 40 CFR part 60, appendix B.) Quality assurance procedures for HCl CEMS require that they be capable of reading HCl concentrations that span a range of possible emission levels below as well as above expected HCl emission concentrations. These quality assurance procedures require the use of National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)-traceable calibration gases for HCl.
Following our decision to create PS-18 and Procedure 6 for HCl continuous monitoring in 2012, the EPA worked with NIST and commercial gas vendors on development of NIST-traceable HCl gas standards to support the PS-18 in the 2013 rulemaking. While some of the low HCl concentration (<10 parts per million, or ppm) NIST-traceable gases have been available on a limited basis since 2013, the full range of HCl concentrations required to support all HCl emissions monitoring technologies (including integrated path that requires concentrations 100 times higher) are not widely available at this time.
The approach used by NIST in 2013 was to certify the Research Gas Material (RGM) cylinders as primary gas standards. These cylinders contain HCl gas and are provided to NIST by vendors for NIST certification, and subsequently used by the vendors as transfer standards to prepare the Gas Manufacturer Intermediate Standards (GMIS). The GMIS cylinders are then used to produce NIST-traceable gas cylinders that are sold commercially.
In addition, the commercial establishment of NIST-traceable gases is dependent on collaboration between
As a result, on July 25, 2016 (81 FR 48356), the EPA provided an additional compliance alternative for sources that would otherwise be required to use an HCl CEMS (Option 1). The alternative was provided for a period of 1 year. In the alternative, the HCl CEMS was still required to be installed and operated, but actual compliance with the HCl emissions limit was determined by a three-run stack test. The HCl CEMS still provided a continuous readout of HCl emissions, but because the CEMS was not calibrated with the required NIST-traceable calibration gases, the HCl measurement was not considered to be sufficiently accurate on an absolute basis for compliance. However, it was found to be sufficient to indicate any relative change in HCl emissions occurring subsequent to the compliance test. Therefore, the HCl CEMS under the compliance alternative functioned as a continuous parameter monitoring system (CPMS), as in the case of the particulate matter (PM) CPMS requirement (see 78 FR 10014-10015, 10019-10020, February 12, 2013).
It is the EPA's understanding that the availability of NIST-traceable calibration gases for HCl has not changed since the compliance alternative approval in 2016. Thus, the EPA intends to extend the use of this compliance alternative until such time as the NIST-traceable calibration gases for HCl become readily available.
Under this extension of the compliance alternative, the owner or operator will demonstrate initial compliance by conducting a performance test using Method 321 and will monitor compliance with an operating parameter limit through use of the HCl CEMS operating as a HCl CPMS. For the HCl CPMS, the owner or operator will use the average HCl CPMS indicated output, typically displayed as parts per million by volume (ppmv), wet basis HCl recorded at in-stack oxygen concentration during the HCl performance test to establish the operating limit. To determine continuous compliance with the operating limit, the owner or operator will record the indicated HCl CPMS output data for all periods when the process is operating and use all the HCl CPMS data, except data obtained during times of monitor malfunctions. Thus, continuous compliance with the operating limit will be demonstrated by using all valid hourly average data collected by the HCl CPMS for all operating hours to calculate the arithmetic average operating parameter in units of the operating limit (indicated ppm) on a 30-kiln operating day rolling average basis, updated at the end of each new kiln operating day. An exceedance of the kiln 30-day operating limit would trigger evaluation of the control system operation and resetting the operating limit based on a new correlation with performance testing. For kilns with inline raw mills, performance testing and monitoring HCl to establish the site specific operating limit must be conducted during both raw mill on and raw mill off conditions.
As is the case for the PM CPMS requirements (see 40 CFR 63.1349(b)(1)(i)), this alternative for HCl compliance monitoring includes a scaling factor of 75 percent of the emission standard as a benchmark (2.25 ppmv, dry basis at 7-percent oxygen). Sources that choose this option will conduct a Method 321 test to determine compliance with the HCl emissions standard and during this testing will also monitor their HCl CPMS output in indicated ppm to determine where their HCl CPMS output would intersect 75 percent of their allowed HCl emissions, and set their operating level at that ppm output. This scaling procedure alleviates re-testing concerns for sources that operate well below the emission limit and provides greater operational flexibility while assuring continuous compliance with the HCl emission standard. For sources whose Method 321 compliance tests place them at or above 75 percent of the emission standard, their operating limit is determined by the average of three Method 321 test runs (for sources with no inline raw mill) or the time weighted average of six Method 321 test runs (for kilns with inline raw mills). By adopting a scaling factor as well as the use of 30 days of averaged HCl CPMS measurements, the parametric limit in no way imposes a stringency level higher than the level of the HCl emissions standard and will avoid triggering unnecessary retests for many facilities, especially for the lower-emitting sources.
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was, therefore, not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose any new information collection burden under the PRA. OMB has previously approved the information collection activities contained in the existing regulation (40 CFR part 63, subpart LLL) and has assigned OMB control number 2060-0416. This action does not change the information collection requirements.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities. This action does not create any new requirements or burdens and no costs are associated with this direct final action.
This action does not contain an unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local, or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175. It will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized tribal governments, nor preempt tribal law. The EPA is aware of one tribally owned Portland cement facility currently subject to 40 CFR part 63, subpart LLL that will be subject to this direct final rule. However, the provisions of this direct final rule are not expected to impose new or substantial direct compliance costs on tribal governments since the provisions in this direct final rule are
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes that this action does not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations, and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994). This action does not affect the level of protection provided to human health or the environment.
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedures, Air pollution control, Hazardous substances, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency is amending title 40, chapter I, part 63 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(l) * * *
(4) If you monitor continuous performance through the use of an HCl CPMS according to § 63.1349(b)(6)(v)(A) through (G), for any exceedance of the 30-kiln operating day HCl CPMS average value from the established operating limit, you must:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule.
This rule identifies communities where the sale of flood insurance has been authorized under the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) that are scheduled for suspension on the effective dates listed within this rule because of noncompliance with the floodplain management requirements of the program. If the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) receives documentation that the community has adopted the required floodplain management measures prior to the effective suspension date given in this rule, the suspension will not occur and a notice of this will be provided by publication in the
The effective date of each community's scheduled suspension is the third date (“Susp.”) listed in the third column of the following tables.
If you want to determine whether a particular community was suspended on the suspension date or for further information, contact Patricia Suber, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4149.
The NFIP enables property owners to purchase Federal flood insurance that is not otherwise generally available from private insurers. In return, communities agree to adopt and administer local floodplain management measures aimed at protecting lives and new construction from future flooding. Section 1315 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4022, prohibits the sale of NFIP flood insurance unless an appropriate public body adopts adequate floodplain management measures with effective enforcement measures. The communities listed in this document no longer meet that statutory requirement for compliance with program regulations, 44 CFR part 59. Accordingly, the communities will be suspended on the effective date in the third column. As of that date, flood insurance will no longer be available in the community. We recognize that some of these communities may adopt and submit the required documentation of legally enforceable floodplain management measures after this rule is published but prior to the actual suspension date. These communities will not be suspended and will continue to be eligible for the sale of NFIP flood insurance. A notice withdrawing the suspension of such communities will be published in the
In addition, FEMA publishes a Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM) that identifies the Special Flood Hazard Areas (SFHAs) in these communities. The date of the FIRM, if one has been published, is indicated in the fourth column of the table. No direct Federal financial assistance (except assistance pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act not in connection with a flood) may be provided for construction or acquisition of buildings in identified SFHAs for communities not participating in the NFIP and identified for more than a year on FEMA's initial FIRM for the community as having flood-prone areas (section 202(a) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4106(a), as amended). This prohibition against certain types of Federal assistance becomes effective for the communities listed on the date shown in the last column. The Administrator finds that notice and public comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b), are impracticable and unnecessary because communities listed in this final rule have been adequately notified.
Each community receives 6-month, 90-day, and 30-day notification letters addressed to the Chief Executive Officer stating that the community will be suspended unless the required floodplain management measures are met prior to the effective suspension date. Since these notifications were made, this final rule may take effect within less than 30 days.
Flood insurance, Floodplains.
Accordingly, 44 CFR part 64 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4001
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; delay of compliance date.
In this document, the Commission sets aside the effectiveness, in part, of the
Effective June 23, 2017 the compliance date for the VRS Provider Interoperability Profile, 47 CFR 64.621(b), as published at 82 FR 19322, April 27, 2017 is delayed indefinitely.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Bob Aldrich, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, (202) 418-0996, email
This is a summary of the Commission's
The Commission sent a copy of document FCC 17-26 to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act,
FCC 17-26 Report and Order contains a modified information collection. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public to comment on the modified information collection requirements contained in FCC 17-26 Report and Order, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), Public Law 104-13, in a separate published
1. By way of background, in the
2. The Commission has determined that until it acts on the
3. Document DA 17-76 sets August 25, 2017 as the deadline for compliance with the VRS Provider Interoperability Profile. 47 CFR 64.621(b)(1). To avoid the possibility of subjecting VRS providers to conflicting obligations pending Commission action on the
Pursuant to sections 1, 2, 225, and 251 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 225, 251, document FCC 17-26 is
The Commission's Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, Reference Information Center,
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service or USFWS), with the support of the State of Oregon Parks and Recreation Department (OPRD), will reestablish the Oregon silverspot butterfly (
This final rule is effective June 23, 2017.
This final rule is available on
Laura Todd, Field Supervisor, at the Newport Field Office, U.S. Fish and
We listed the Oregon silverspot butterfly as a threatened species under the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Species listed as endangered or threatened are afforded protection primarily through the prohibitions of section 9 of the Act and the requirements of section 7 of the Act. Section 9 of the Act, among other things, prohibits the take of endangered wildlife. “Take” is defined by the Act as harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or attempt to engage in any such conduct. Our regulations in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations (50 CFR 17.31) generally extend the prohibition of take to threatened wildlife species. Section 7 of the Act outlines the procedures for Federal interagency cooperation to conserve federally listed species and protect designated critical habitat. It mandates that all Federal agencies use their existing authorities to further the purposes of the Act by carrying out programs for the conservation of listed species. It also states that Federal agencies must, in consultation with the Service, ensure that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of a listed species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. Section 7 of the Act does not affect activities undertaken on private land unless they are authorized, funded, or carried out by a Federal agency.
The 1982 amendments to the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
As discussed below (see Relationship of the NEP to Recovery Efforts), we intend to reintroduce the Oregon silverspot butterfly into areas of suitable habitat within its historical range for the purpose of restoring populations to meet recovery goals. Oregon silverspot butterfly populations have been reduced from at least 20 formerly known locations to only 5, thus reintroductions are important to achieve biological redundancy in populations and to broaden the distribution of populations within the geographic range of the subspecies. The restoration of multiple populations of the Oregon silverspot butterfly distributed across its range is one of the recovery criteria identified for the subspecies (USFWS 2001, pp. 39-41).
When we establish experimental populations under section 10(j) of the Act, we must determine whether such a population is essential or nonessential to the continued existence of the species. This determination is based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available. Our regulations (50 CFR 17.80(b)) state that an experimental population is considered essential if its loss would be likely to appreciably reduce the likelihood of survival of that species in the wild. All other populations are considered nonessential. We find the experimental population of Oregon silverspot butterfly in northwestern Oregon to be nonessential for the following reasons:
(1) Oregon silverspot butterflies are currently found at five locations, from the central Oregon coast to northern California (see Biological Information, below).
(2) There are ongoing management efforts, including captive rearing and release, to maintain or expand Oregon silverspot butterfly populations at these five locations (VanBuskirk 2010, entire; USFWS 2012, entire).
(3) The experimental population will not provide demographic support to the existing wild populations (see Location and Boundaries of the NEP, below).
(4) The experimental population will not possess any unique genetic or adaptive traits that differ from those in the wild populations because it will be established using donor stock from extant wild populations of Oregon silverspot butterflies (see Donor Stock Assessment and Effects on Donor Populations, below).
(5) Loss of the experimental population will not preclude other recovery options, including future efforts to reestablish Oregon silverspot butterfly populations elsewhere. Therefore, we conclude the reintroduced populations of Oregon silverspot butterfly at two sites in northwest Oregon are appropriately established as a nonessential experimental population (NEP) under section 10(j) of the Act.
With the NEP designation, the relevant population is treated as if it were listed as a threatened species for the purposes of establishing protective regulations, regardless of the species' designation elsewhere in its range. This approach allows us to develop tailored take prohibitions that are necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of the species. In these situations, the general regulations that extend most section 9 prohibitions to threatened species do not apply to that species. The protective regulations adopted for an experimental population in a section 10(j) rule contain the applicable prohibitions and exceptions for that population. These section 9 prohibitions and exceptions apply on all lands within the NEP.
For the purposes of section 7 of the Act, which addresses Federal cooperation, we treat an NEP as a threatened species when the NEP is located within a National Wildlife Refuge or unit of the National Park Service, and Federal agency conservation requirements under section 7(a)(1) and the Federal agency consultation requirements of section 7(a)(2) of the Act apply. Section 7(a)(1) of the Act requires all Federal agencies to use their authorities to carry out programs for the conservation of listed species. Section 7(a)(2) requires that Federal agencies, in consultation with the Service, ensure that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely
Before authorizing the release as an experimental population (including eggs, propagules, or individuals) of an endangered or threatened species, and before authorizing any necessary transportation to conduct the release, the Service must find, by regulation, that such release will further the conservation of the species. In making such a finding, the Service uses the best scientific and commercial data available to consider the following factors (see 49 FR 33893, August 27, 1984): (1) Any possible adverse effects on extant populations of a species as a result of removal of individuals, eggs, or propagules for introduction elsewhere (see Donor Stock Assessment and Effects on Donor Populations, below); (2) the likelihood that any such experimental population will become established and survive in the foreseeable future (see Likelihood of Population Establishment and Survival, below); (3) the relative effects that establishment of an experimental population will have on the recovery of the species (see Relationship of the NEP to Recovery Efforts, below); and (4) the extent to which the introduced population may be affected by existing or anticipated Federal or State actions or private activities within or adjacent to the experimental population area (see Extent to Which the Reintroduced Population May Be Affected by Land Management Within the NEP, below).
Furthermore, as set forth at 50 CFR 17.81(c), all regulations designating experimental populations under section 10(j) must provide: (1) Appropriate means to identify the experimental population, including, but not limited to, its actual or proposed location, actual or anticipated migration, number of specimens released or to be released, and other criteria appropriate to identify the experimental population(s) (see Location and Boundaries of the NEP, below); (2) a finding, based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available, and the supporting factual basis, on whether the experimental population is, or is not, essential to the continued existence of the species in the wild (see discussion in this section, above); (3) management restrictions, protective measures, or other special management concerns of that population, which may include but are not limited to, measures to isolate and/or contain the experimental population designated in the regulation from natural populations (see Extent to Which the Reintroduced Population May Be Affected by Land Management Within the NEP, below); and (4) a process for periodic review and evaluation of the success or failure of the release and the effect of the release on the conservation and recovery of the species (see Reintroduction Effectiveness Monitoring and Donor Population Monitoring, below).
Under 50 CFR 17.81(d), the Service must consult with appropriate State fish and wildlife agencies, local governmental entities, affected Federal agencies, and affected private landowners in developing and implementing experimental population rules. To the maximum extent practicable, section 10(j) rules represent an agreement between the Service, the affected State and Federal agencies, and persons holding any interest in land that may be affected by the establishment of an experimental population.
Section 10(j)(2)(C)(ii) of the Act states that critical habitat shall not be designated for any experimental population that is determined to be nonessential. Accordingly, we cannot designate critical habitat in areas where we establish an NEP.
The Oregon silverspot butterfly is a small, darkly marked coastal subspecies of the Zerene fritillary, a widespread butterfly species in montane western North America (USFWS 2001, p. 1). Historically, the Oregon silverspot butterfly was documented at 20 locations, from the border of northern California to the southern coast of Washington (McCorkle
The Oregon silverspot butterfly has a 1-year life cycle, which begins when female adults lay eggs on or near early blue violets (
The Oregon silverspot butterfly occupies three types of grassland habitat: marine terrace and coastal headland meadows, stabilized dunes, and montane grasslands. Key resources needed by the Oregon silverspot butterfly in all of these habitats include: (1) The early blue violet, which is the primary host plant for Oregon silverspot caterpillars; (2) a variety of nectar plants that bloom during the butterfly flight period, including, but not limited to, yarrow (
Habitat quality is largely determined by violet densities and the abundance and availability of nectar plants during the flight season. Field studies have demonstrated that female Oregon silverspot butterflies select areas with high violet densities for egg-laying (Damiani 2011, p. 7). Based on laboratory studies, from 200 to 300 violet leaves are needed to allow an Oregon silverspot butterfly to develop from caterpillar to pupae (Andersen
Historically, habitats with these key resources were likely widely distributed along the Oregon and Washington coasts (Hammond and McCorkle 1983, p. 222). Loss of habitat and key resources occurred as a result of human development and due to ecological succession and invasion of shrubs, trees, and tall introduced grasses, which crowd-out the subspecies' host plants and nectar resources (Hammond and McCorkle 1983, p. 222). Loss of habitat was the primary threat to the subspecies identified in our 2001 Revised Recovery Plan for the Oregon Silverspot Butterfly (USFWS 2001, entire). More recently, during a periodic review of the subspecies' status, we identified the reduced size, number, and isolation of Oregon silverspot butterfly populations as additional severe and imminent threats to the subspecies (USFWS 2012, pp. 24-25).
Additional information on the biology, habitat, and life history of the butterfly can be found in our Revised Recovery Plan for the Oregon Silverspot Butterfly
We are establishing an NEP to promote the conservation and recovery of the Oregon silverspot butterfly. The recovery strategy for the Oregon silverspot butterfly, as detailed in our 2001 revised recovery plan, is to protect and manage habitat, and to augment and restore populations (USFWS 2001, pp. 39-41). Recovery criteria for the Oregon silverspot butterfly are (USFWS 2001, p. 42):
1. At least two viable Oregon silverspot butterfly populations exist in protected habitat in each of the following areas: Coastal Mountains, Cascade Head, and Central coast in Oregon; and Del Norte County in California; and at least one viable Oregon silverspot butterfly population exists in protected habitat in each of the following areas: Long Beach Peninsula, Washington, and Clatsop Plains, Oregon. This criterion includes the development of comprehensive management plans.
2. Habitats are managed long term to maintain native, early successional grassland communities. Habitat management maintains and enhances early blue violet abundance, provides a minimum of five native nectar species dispersed abundantly throughout the habitat and flowering throughout the entire flight-period, and reduces the abundance of invasive, nonnative plant species.
3. Managed habitat at each population site supports a minimum viable population of 200 to 500 butterflies for at least 10 years.
The reintroduction of Oregon silverspot butterflies within the NEP area will help address the limited number of populations and the subspecies' diminished geographic range. In addition, it is likely to contribute to meeting recovery criteria, as both NEP areas have the biological attributes to support a viable population of butterflies and will be managed consistent with the subspecies' biological needs.
Section 10(j) of the Act requires that an experimental population be geographically separate from other populations of the same species. We identified the boundary of the NEP as those Public Land Survey System sections intersecting with a 4.25-mi (6.8-km) radius around the release locations. This boundary was selected to encompass all likely movements of Oregon silverspot butterflies away from the release areas while maintaining geographic separation from existing populations. This 4.25-mi (6.8-km) radius is greater than the longest known flight distance of the Oregon silverspot butterfly (4.1 mi (6.6 km)) (VanBuskirk and Pickering 1999, pp. 3-4, Appendix 1). Although this flight distance had previously been reported as “5 miles” (VanBuskirk and Pickering 1999, p. 4; USFWS 2010, p. 10), a more precise measurement using the locations where the individual butterfly in question was marked and recaptured (rather than the general distance between the populations) resulted in a distance of 4.1 mi (6.8 km).
The NEP areas are geographically isolated from existing Oregon silverspot butterfly populations by a sufficient distance to preclude significant contact between populations. There is an extremely small potential that butterflies dispersing 4.1 mi (6.8 km) from the release site on Nestucca Bay NWR may interact with butterflies dispersing 4.1 mi (6.8 km) from Cascade Head, because these locations are 8 mi (13 km) apart. Nevertheless, the likelihood of butterflies from these two sites interbreeding is remote because of the distance between the sites and the fact that there is little or no suitable habitat with appropriate larval host plants and adult nectar sources between Nestucca Bay NWR and Cascade Head. Even if butterflies dispersed and were present within the same area, we do not believe the occasional presence of a few individual butterflies meets a minimal biological definition of a population.
As with definitions of “population” used in other experimental population rules (
Saddle Mountain SNA, managed by OPRD, is located in central Clatsop County, in northwest Oregon. Saddle Mountain was historically occupied by the Oregon silverspot butterfly, which was last documented at this site in 1973 (McCorkle
Saddle Mountain SNA is a 3,225-acre (ac) (1,305-hectare (ha)) park known for its unique botanical community, which thrives on the thin rocky soils, with few invasive weeds. Habitat suitable for the Oregon silverspot butterfly consists of approximately 60 ac (24 ha) of meadows on the slopes of Saddle Mountain near its upper peaks at 3,288 ft (1,002 m) above sea-level. Based on recent plant surveys (OPRD 2012, p. 2), the release site contains high-quality butterfly habitat with sufficient densities of the requisite species (
We will reintroduce the Oregon silverspot butterfly at the Saddle Mountain NEP area, centered on the coastal prairie habitat on top of Saddle Mountain. The NEP encompasses all the Public Land Survey System sections that intersect with a 4.25-mi (6.8-km) radius around the release area. The subspecies is generally sedentary within habitat areas, and the reintroduced butterflies are expected to stay in or near meadows on top of Saddle Mountain, which have an abundance of the plant species they need to survive. The Saddle Mountain butterfly population will be released into permanently protected suitable habitat. Reintroduction of the Oregon silverspot butterfly as an NEP in this area will address OPRD's concerns regarding potential impacts to park management activities, such as trail maintenance, and potential opposition from surrounding landowners to the reintroduction of a federally listed species without an NEP. Surrounding land cover is primarily forest (OPRD 2014, pers. comm.) and is not suitable Oregon silverspot butterfly habitat; therefore, we do not expect butterflies to use areas outside of Saddle Mountain SNA.
The Nestucca Bay NWR, managed by the Service, is located in the southwest corner of Tillamook County, along the northern Oregon coast. Although the Oregon silverspot butterfly was never documented at this site, it is within the historical range of the subspecies along the coast, and a small amount of remnant coastal prairie occurred on the site prior to commencement of restoration efforts in 2011. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that the Oregon silverspot butterfly once inhabited the area, but no surveys were conducted to document its presence. Currently occupied Oregon silverspot butterfly sites nearest to the NEP area are 10 mi (16 km) to the east at Mount Hebo and 8 mi (13 km) south at Cascade Head, with little or no suitable habitat in between. There are currently no known extant Oregon silverspot butterfly populations to the north of the release site, but the subspecies was historically documented near Cape Meares, 20 mi (32 km) to the north of Nestucca Bay NWR, where it was last observed in 1968 (McCorkle
The Nestucca Bay National Wildlife Refuge Comprehensive Conservation Plan includes a goal to promote the recovery of the Oregon silverspot butterfly by establishing an NEP on the refuge (USFWS 2013, p. 2-4). The approximately 1,203-ac (487-ha) refuge has 25 to 30 ac (10 to 12 ha) of coastal prairie habitat in varying stages of restoration, including the conversion of degraded grasslands on the Cannery Hill Unit from nonnative pasture grasses to native coastal grasses and forbs with an emphasis on the plant species and structure required to support the Oregon silverspot butterfly. Since 2011, invasive weed abundance has been minimized, and thousands of violet and nectar plants have been planted to enhance and restore the coastal prairie ecosystem. Funding acquired by the refuge in 2015 is now being used to complete habitat restoration on the remaining acreage prior to the release of Oregon silverspot butterflies.
The NEP area is centered on coastal prairie habitat on the Cannery Hill Unit of the refuge, where we will release Oregon silverspot butterflies. The NEP encompasses all Public Land Survey System sections that intersect with a 4.25-mi (6.8-km) radius around the release area. We will release Oregon silverspot butterflies into permanently protected suitable habitat at Nestucca Bay NWR, which will be managed to provide the plant community needed for the butterfly to become established and to support a population. Reintroduction of the Oregon silverspot butterfly as an NEP in this area will address adjacent landowner concerns regarding the impact a federally listed species might have on the sale or development of their property. As little or no suitable habitat is currently available on adjacent properties, and Oregon silverspot butterflies are sedentary and non-migratory, we consider the likelihood of butterflies moving on to these adjacent lands to be low. Despite a few adjacent properties through which Oregon silverspot butterflies might occasionally move, the primary surrounding land cover is agriculture and forest (USFWS 2013, p. 4-3), which are not suitable habitat for the subspecies; therefore, occurrence of Oregon silverspot butterflies in surrounding areas, if any, is expected to be limited.
The best available scientific data indicate that the reintroduction of Oregon silverspot butterflies into suitable habitat is biologically feasible and would promote the conservation of the species. Oregon silverspot butterfly population augmentations have been conducted on the central Oregon coast from 2000 through 2015 (USFWS 2012, p. 10; Engelmeyer 2015, p. 4). Based on the knowledge gained from these efforts, we anticipate the NEP areas will become successfully established. Butterflies will be released into high-quality habitat in sufficient amounts to support large butterfly populations, and no unaddressed threats to the species are known to exist at these sites.
The coastal headland meadows of the Nestucca Bay NWR are being restored with the specific intent of providing high densities of the plant species needed by the Oregon silverspot butterfly. Ongoing habitat enhancement and management will maintain suitable habitat and minimize the abundance and distribution of invasive, nonnative plant species, which degrade habitat quality. The Nestucca Bay NWR has committed to the management required to restore and maintain suitable habitat specifically for a population of the Oregon silverspot butterfly. The upper meadows of the Saddle Mountain SNA have an abundance of the key resources, including an intact plant community with an abundance of plants needed to support the Oregon silverspot butterfly. Habitat quality has been maintained through natural processes, including vertical drainage patterns associated with steep ridges, thin rocky soils,
Based on all of these considerations, we anticipate that reintroduced Oregon silverspot butterflies are likely to become established and persist at Nestucca Bay NWR and Saddle Mountain SNA.
The largest threat to Oregon silverspot butterfly populations is a lack of suitable habitat. Without regular disturbance, coastal prairie habitat is vulnerable to plant community succession, resulting in loss of prairie habitat to brush and tree invasion. Invasive, nonnative plants also play a significant role in the degradation of habitat quality and quantity for this butterfly.
The reasons for the extirpation of the original population of Oregon silverspot butterflies on Saddle Mountain between 1973 and 1980 are unknown. The habitat on top of Saddle Mountain is currently suitable for supporting a population of the butterfly. The grassland habitat at this location has been self-sustaining likely due to the 3,000-ft (914-m) elevation, thin rocky soil type, steep slopes, primarily native composition of the plant community, and lack of human disturbance to the ecosystem. The Saddle Mountain SNA, protected as a special botanical area, has an annual day-use rate of 68,928 visitors per year. OPRD maintains a trail, accessible only by foot, which leads to the top of the mountain. The extremely steep grade on either side of the trail discourages visitors from straying off trail and into the adjacent meadow areas. Park rules do not allow collection of plants or animals (OPRD 2010). Continuance of this management regime is expected to protect the reintroduced population and contribute to its successful establishment. We acknowledge there is some uncertainty regarding population establishment and long-term viability at this site given that we have not identified the original cause of local extirpation. Nevertheless, this site has been identified as one of the most promising for a reintroduction effort given the lack of identifiable threats, density of host plants, and overall quality of habitat (VanBuskirk 2010, p. 27).
The Nestucca Bay NWR will address habitat threats by monitoring and maintaining habitat quality for the benefit of the Oregon silverspot butterfly, in accordance with the Nestucca Bay National Wildlife Refuge Comprehensive Conservation Plan, which sets specific targets for abundance of violet and nectar species. All management actions taken in the vicinity of the reintroduced population will defer to the habitat needs of the butterfly (USFWS 2013, pp. 4-37-4-43). As described above, the Nestucca Bay NWR is actively working to restore habitat specifically for the benefit of the Oregon silverspot butterfly in anticipation of a potential reintroduction. Restoration efforts have proven successful in establishing high-quality habitat that is likely to support all life stages of the subspecies. Nestucca Bay NWR's demonstrated commitment to reestablishing and maintaining high-quality habitat suitable for the Oregon silverspot butterfly is expected to contribute to the successful establishment of the NEP at this site.
We will use captive-reared butterflies to populate the NEP areas using proven release methods developed by the Oregon silverspot butterfly population augmentation program from 2000 to 2015 (USFWS 2012, p. 10; Engelmeyer 2015, p. 2). We will release captive-reared caterpillars or pupae into suitable habitat within the NEP areas, following the guidance in the Captive Propagation and Reintroduction Plan for the Oregon Silverspot Butterfly (VanBuskirk 2010, entire). We will determine the number of individuals to release based on the number of available healthy offspring and the amount of suitable habitat available, with violet densities as the primary measure of habitat suitability. The ultimate goal is the establishment of self-sustaining populations of between 200 to 500 butterflies for 10 years at each NEP area, similar to the recovery criteria for the other habitat conservation areas.
Based on guidance from the Captive Propagation and Reintroduction Plan for the Oregon Silverspot Butterfly (VanBuskirk 2010, entire), we will establish populations in each NEP area from offspring of at least 50 mated females. Because the number of female butterflies available for collection for the captive-rearing program is limited to 5 percent of the donor population per year, it may be necessary to release caterpillars or pupae incrementally over a period of a few years. We will use annual butterfly counts during the flight period to monitor population establishment success. Butterfly survey methods used at the occupied sites (Pollard 1977, p. 116; Pickering 1992, p. 3) will also be used to assess population establishment success in the NEP areas.
Individual Oregon silverspot butterflies used to establish populations at both NEP areas will most likely come from the offspring of the Mount Hebo population. Additional genetic research on the subspecies is in progress and may suggest that butterflies from other populations should be included in the captive-rearing program to enhance genetic diversity. If populations other than the Mount Hebo population are used as donor stock, we will evaluate the impact of taking females from those populations on the survival and recovery of the subspecies prior to issuing a recovery permit for such take.
The Mount Hebo Oregon silverspot butterfly population has historically been the largest and most stable population, averaging an annual index count of 1,457 butterflies per year between 2000 to 2014 (USFWS 2012, p. 10; Patterson 2014, p. 11); therefore, it is the least likely to be impacted by the removal of up to 5 percent of the population. Demographic modeling indicates that the optimal strategy for captive-rearing of Oregon silverspot butterflies to increase the probability of persistence is to take females from larger donor populations (Crone
The Mount Hebo population occurs in an environment similar to the Saddle Mountain NEP area (
The Captive Propagation and Reintroduction Plan for the Oregon Silverspot Butterfly (VanBuskirk 2010, entire) contains further information on the captive-rearing program, release procedures, genetic considerations, population dynamics, effects of releases on population viability of the Oregon silverspot butterfly, and the potential for reintroduction to Saddle Mountain SNA and Nestucca Bay NWR (copies of this document are available online at
Based on the current legal and biological status of the subspecies and the need for management flexibility, and in accordance with section 10(j) of the Act, we are designating all Oregon silverspot butterflies released within the boundaries of the NEP areas as members of the NEP. Such designation allows us to establish special protective regulations for management of Oregon silverspot butterflies.
With the experimental population designation, the relevant population is treated as threatened for purposes of section 9 of the Act, regardless of the species' designation elsewhere in its range. Treating the experimental population as threatened allows us the discretion to devise management programs and specific regulations for such a population. When designating an experimental population, the general regulations that extend most section 9 prohibitions to threatened species do not apply to that species, and the section 10(j) rule contains the prohibitions and exemptions necessary and advisable to conserve that species.
The 10(j) rule will further the conservation of the subspecies by facilitating its reintroduction into two areas of suitable habitat within its historical range. The rule provides assurances to landowners and development interests that the reintroduction of Oregon silverspot butterflies will not interfere with natural resource developments or with human activities (although the Act's section 7(a)(2) consultation requirements would still apply on Nestucca Bay NWR). Without such assurances, some landowners and developers, as well as the State, would object to the reintroduction of Oregon silverspot butterflies to these two areas. Except as described in this NEP rule, take of any member of the Oregon silverspot butterfly NEP will continue to be prohibited under the Act.
We conclude that the effects of Federal, State, or private actions and activities will not pose a threat to Oregon silverspot butterfly establishment and persistence at Saddle Mountain SNA or the Nestucca Bay NWR because the best information, including activities currently occurring in Oregon silverspot butterfly populations rangewide, indicates that activities currently occurring, or likely to occur, at prospective reintroduction sites within NEP areas are compatible with the species' recovery. The reintroduced Oregon silverspot butterfly populations will be managed by OPRD and the Service, and protected from major development activities through the following mechanisms:
(1) Development activities and timber harvests are not expected to occur in the Saddle Mountain SNA, which is protected as a special botanical area. Trail maintenance and other park maintenance activities will continue to occur within the NEP area, but are expected to have minimal impact on the butterfly meadow habitat areas due to the terrain and steepness of the slopes. Because of the rugged nature of the area, and also to protect the important botanical resources at this site, maintenance activities in this area are generally limited to trail maintenance by hand crews, with minimal impacts on the meadow areas. Additionally, the Oregon silverspot butterfly NEP area at Saddle Mountain SNA will be protected by the Oregon State regulations prohibiting collection of animals on State lands (Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) 736-010-0055(2)(d)). Private timberlands surrounding the SNA do not contain suitable butterfly habitat, and, therefore, activities on adjacent lands are not expected to impact the butterfly.
(2) In accordance with the Nestucca Bay NWR Comprehensive Conservation Plan, all refuge management actions taken in the vicinity of the reintroduced population will defer to the habitat needs of the butterfly (USFWS 2013, pp. 4-37-4-43). In addition, the refuge must complete section 7(a)(2) consultation on all actions that may affect the butterfly. Oregon silverspot butterflies may occasionally visit or fly within adjacent properties near the NEP area, which may be subject to future development. However, given the lack of suitable habitat for this subspecies on adjacent properties, as well as the butterfly's sedentary and non-migratory nature, we consider negative impacts to the Oregon silverspot butterfly from development on adjacent sites to be unlikely, as there is little likelihood of individuals moving to these sites.
Management issues related to the Oregon silverspot butterfly NEP that have been considered include:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
Oregon silverspot butterfly surveys will be conducted annually within Oregon silverspot butterfly habitat at Nestucca Bay NWR and Saddle Mountain SNA using a modified Pollard walk methodology (Pickering
Habitat quality monitoring will also be conducted to ensure the resources needed by an Oregon silverspot butterfly population are maintained in large enough quantities to sustain the reintroduced populations. Violet density counts and other habitat quality parameters will be measured periodically, in conjunction with the butterfly population counts. Reintroduction efforts will be fully evaluated after 5 years to determine whether to continue or terminate the reintroduction efforts.
We will conduct annual Oregon silverspot butterfly surveys within the populations where donor stock is obtained using a modified Pollard walk methodology (Pickering
We do not anticipate impacts to other listed species by the reintroduction of the Oregon silverspot butterfly.
In the proposed rule published on December 23, 2016 (81 FR 94296), we requested that all interested parties submit written comments on the proposal by February 21, 2017. We also contacted appropriate Federal and State agencies, scientific experts and organizations, and other interested parties and invited them to comment on the proposal. Newspaper notices inviting general public comment were published in the Daily Astorian, Lincoln County News Guard, and the Tillamook Headlight Herald. During the public comment period, we received public comments from six individuals or organizations, including three submissions by individuals asked to serve as peer reviewers. We did not receive any comments from Federal or State agencies or Tribes. We did not receive any requests for a public meeting.
We reviewed all comments received from the public and peer reviewers for substantive issues and new information regarding the establishment of an experimental population of Oregon silverspot butterfly in northwestern Oregon. Substantive comments are addressed in the following summary, and have been incorporated into the final rule as appropriate. Any substantive changes incorporated into the final rule are summarized in the Summary of Changes from the Proposed Rule section, below.
In accordance with our peer review policy published on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), we solicited expert opinion from five knowledgeable individuals with scientific expertise in the species' biology, habitat, and butterfly reintroductions in general. We received responses from three of the peer reviewers.
All three peer reviewers expressed strong support for the reintroduction with an associated 10(j) rule and agreed the action is likely to contribute to the conservation of the subspecies. Two peer reviewers specifically stated that, in their judgment, we used the best available science. We incorporated specific updated information, comments, and suggestions from peer reviewers into the final rule as described in our responses, below.
In response to peer review comments, in this final rule we have:
• Clarified the definition of “high-quality habitat” in our Biological Information section;
• Changed all references of the Oregon silverspot butterfly from being “territorial” to “sedentary;” and
• Clarified our intent to monitor habitat quality as well as Oregon silverspot butterfly population counts, following the reintroductions (see Reintroduction Effectiveness Monitoring, above, and Regulation Promulgation, below).
Based on the above information, and using the best scientific and commercial data available (in accordance with 50 CFR 17.81), we find that reintroducing the Oregon silverspot butterfly into the Saddle Mountain SNA and the Nestucca Bay NWR and the associated protective measures and management practices under this rulemaking will further the conservation of the subspecies. The nonessential experimental population status is appropriate for the reintroduction areas because we have determined that these populations are not essential to the continued existence of the subspecies in the wild.
As set forth above in
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
Executive Order 13771 (“Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs”), signed on January 30, 2017 (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017), directs agencies to reduce regulation and control regulatory costs and provides that “for every one new regulation issued, at least two prior regulations be identified for elimination, and that the cost of planned regulations be prudently managed and controlled through a budgeting process.” Office of Management and Budget (OMB) guidance clarifies that Executive Order 13771 only applies to rules designated by OMB as significant pursuant to Executive Order 12866. OMB has not designated this final rule a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, the requirements of Executive Order 13771 are not applicable to it. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017, titled Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs'” (February 2, 2017).
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996; 5 U.S.C. 60
The area that would be affected under this rule includes the release areas at Saddle Mountain SNA and Nestucca Bay NWR and adjacent areas into which individual Oregon silverspot butterflies may disperse. Because of the regulatory flexibility for Federal agency actions provided by the NEP designation and the exemption for incidental take in the rule, we do not expect this rule to have significant effects on any activities within Federal, State, or private lands within the NEP. In regard to section 7(a)(2) of the Act, the population would be treated as proposed for listing, and Federal action agencies are not required to consult on their activities, except on National Wildlife Refuge and National Park land where the subspecies is managed as a threatened species. Section 7(a)(4) of the Act requires Federal agencies to confer (rather than consult) with the Service on actions that are likely to jeopardize the continued existence of a proposed species. However, because the NEP is, by definition, not essential to the survival of the species, conferring will likely never be required for the Oregon silverspot butterfly populations within the NEP areas. Furthermore, the results of a conference are advisory in nature and do not restrict agencies from carrying out, funding, or authorizing activities. In addition, section 7(a)(1) of the Act requires Federal agencies to use their authorities to carry out programs to further the conservation of listed species, which would apply on any lands within the NEP areas. Within the boundaries of the Nestucca Bay NWR, the subspecies would be treated as a threatened species for the purposes of section 7(a)(2) of the Act. As a result, and in accordance with these regulations, some modifications to proposed Federal actions within Nestucca Bay NWR may occur to benefit the Oregon silverspot butterfly, but we do not expect projects to be substantially modified because these lands are already being administered in a manner that is compatible with Oregon silverspot butterfly recovery.
This rule broadly authorizes incidental take of the Oregon silverspot butterfly within the NEP areas. The regulations implementing the Act define “incidental take” as take that is incidental to, and not the purpose of, the carrying out of an otherwise lawful activity such as, agricultural activities and other rural development, camping, hiking, hunting, vehicle use of roads and highways, and other activities in the NEP areas that are in accordance with Federal, Tribal, State, and local laws and regulations. Intentional take for purposes other than authorized data collection or recovery purposes would not be authorized. Intentional take for research or recovery purposes would require a section 10(a)(1)(A) recovery permit under the Act.
The principal activities on private property near the NEP areas are timber production, agriculture, and activities associated with private residences. We believe the presence of the Oregon silverspot butterfly will not affect the use of lands for these purposes because there will be no new or additional economic or regulatory restrictions imposed upon States, non-Federal entities, or private landowners due to the presence of the Oregon silverspot butterfly, and Federal agencies would have to comply with sections 7(a)(1) and 7(a)(4) of the Act only in these areas, except on Nestucca Bay NWR lands where section 7(a)(2) of the Act applies. Therefore, this rulemaking is not expected to have any significant adverse impacts to activities on private lands within the NEP areas.
In accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1501
(1) This rule will not “significantly or uniquely” affect small governments. We have determined and certify under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, 2 U.S.C. 1502
(2) This rule will not produce a Federal mandate of $100 million or greater in any year (
In accordance with Executive Order 12630, the rule does not have significant takings implications. This rule allows for the take of reintroduced Oregon silverspot butterflies when such take is incidental to an otherwise legal activity, such as recreation (
A takings implication assessment is not required because this rule (1) will not effectively compel a property owner to suffer a physical invasion of property, and (2) will not deny all economically beneficial or productive use of the land or aquatic resources. This rule will substantially advance a legitimate government interest (conservation and recovery of a listed species) and will not present a barrier to all reasonable and expected beneficial use of private property.
In accordance with Executive Order 13132, we have considered whether this rule has significant Federalism effects and have determined that a federalism summary impact statement is not required. This rule will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. In keeping with Department of the Interior policy, we requested information from and coordinated development of this rule with the affected resource agencies in Oregon. Achieving the recovery goals for this subspecies will contribute to its eventual delisting and its return to State management. No intrusion on State policy or administration is expected; roles or responsibilities of Federal or State governments will not change; and fiscal capacity will not be substantially directly affected. The rule maintains the existing relationship between the State and the Federal Government, and is undertaken in coordination with the State of Oregon. Therefore, this rule does not have significant Federalism effects or implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement under the provisions of Executive Order 13132.
In accordance with Executive Order 12988, the Office of the Solicitor has determined that this rule will not unduly burden the judicial system and meets the requirements of sections (3)(a) and (3)(b)(2) of the Order.
This rule does not contain any new collection of information that requires approval by OMB under the PRA of 1995. OMB has previously approved the information collection requirements associated with Service permit application forms and activities associated with native endangered and threatened species and assigned OMB Control Number 1018-0094. That approval expired May 31, 2017; however, the Service is currently seeking new approval. In accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10, the agency may continue to conduct or sponsor this collection of information while the submission is pending at OMB. We estimate the annual burden associated with this information collection to be 17,166 hours per year. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The reintroduction of native species into suitable habitat within their historical or established range is categorically excluded from NEPA documentation requirements consistent with the Department of Interior's Department Manual (516 DM 8.5B(6)).
In accordance with the presidential memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments” (59 FR 22951; May 4, 1994), Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249; November 9, 2000), and the Department of the Interior Manual Chapter 512 DM 2, we have considered possible effects on federally recognized Indian tribes and have determined that there are no tribal lands affected by this rule.
Executive Order 13211 requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking certain actions. This rule is not expected to significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. Because this action is not a significant energy action, no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
A complete list of all references cited in this final rule is available at
The primary authors of this rule are staff members of the Service's Newport Field Office (see
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
(h) * * *
(d) Oregon Silverspot Butterfly (
(1)
(A) The Nestucca Bay NEP area, centered on the coastal prairie habitat on the Cannery Hill Unit of the Nestucca Bay National Wildlife Refuge (Nestucca Bay NEP area), includes Township 4 South, Range 10 West, Sections 15 through 36; Township 4 South, Range 11 West, Sections 13, 24, 25, and 36; Township 5 South, Range 10 West, Sections 2 through 11, 14 through 23, 27 through 30; and Township 5 South, Range 11 West, Sections 12, 13, 24, and 25.
(B) The Saddle Mountain NEP area, centered on the coastal prairie habitat on top of Saddle Mountain State Natural Area (Saddle Mountain NEP area), includes Township 6 North, Range 7 West, Sections 7, 17 through 20, 29 through 32; Township 6 North, Range 8 West, Sections 1 through 36; Township 6 North, Range 9 West, Sections 1, 11 through 14, 23 through 26, 35, and 36; Township 5 North, Range 7 West, Sections 5 through 8, 17, 18, and 19; Township 5 North, Range 8 West, Sections 1 through 24; and Township 5 North, Range 9 West, Sections 1, 2, 3, 11, 12, 13, and 14.
(ii) The nearest known extant population to the Nestucca Bay NEP area is 8 miles (13 kilometers) to the south, beyond the longest known flight distance of the butterfly (4.1 miles (6.6 kilometers)) and with little or no suitable habitat between them. The nearest known extant population to the Saddle Mountain NEP area is 50 miles (80 kilometers) to the south, well beyond the longest known flight distance of the butterfly (4.1 miles (6.6 kilometers)). Given its habitat requirements, movement patterns, and distance from extant populations, the NEP is wholly separate from extant populations, and we do not expect the reintroduced Oregon silverspot butterflies to become established outside the NEP areas. Oregon silverspot butterflies outside of the NEP boundaries will assume the status of Oregon silverspot butterflies within the geographic area in which they are found.
(iii) We will not change the NEP designations to “essential experimental,” “threatened,” or “endangered” within the NEP areas without engaging in notice-and-comment rulemaking. Additionally, we will not designate critical habitat for this NEP, as provided by 16 U.S.C. 1539(j)(2)(C)(ii).
(2)
(ii) Any person with a valid permit issued by the Service under 50 CFR 17.32 may take the Oregon silverspot butterfly for educational purposes, scientific purposes, the enhancement of propagation or survival of the species, zoological exhibition, and other conservation purposes consistent with the Act. Additionally, any employee or agent of the Service, any other Federal land management agency, or a State conservation agency, who is designated by the agency for such purposes, may, when acting in the course of official duties, take an Oregon silverspot butterfly in the wild in the NEP area if such action is necessary:
(A) For scientific purposes;
(B) To relocate Oregon silverspot butterflies to avoid conflict with human activities;
(C) To relocate Oregon silverspot butterflies within the NEP area to improve Oregon silverspot butterfly survival and recovery prospects or for genetic purposes;
(D) To relocate Oregon silverspot butterflies from one population in the NEP into another in the NEP, or into captivity;
(E) To euthanize an injured Oregon silverspot butterfly;
(F) To dispose of a dead Oregon silverspot butterfly, or salvage a dead Oregon silverspot butterfly for scientific purposes;
(G) To relocate an Oregon silverspot butterfly that has moved outside the NEP area back into the NEP area; or
(H) To aid in law enforcement investigations involving the Oregon silverspot butterfly.
(3)
(ii) A person may not possess, sell, deliver, carry, transport, ship, import, or export by any means, Oregon silverspot butterflies, or parts thereof, that are taken or possessed in a manner not expressly allowed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section or in violation of applicable State fish and wildlife laws or regulations or the Act.
(iii) Any manner of take not described under paragraph (d)(2) of this section is prohibited in the NEP areas.
(iv) A person may not attempt to commit, solicit another to commit, or cause to be committed any take of the Oregon silverspot butterfly, except as expressly allowed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(4)
(5)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
Under the authority of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act), we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), are removing the Hualapai Mexican vole (
This rule is effective July 24, 2017.
This final rule is available on the Internet at
Steven Spangle, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Arizona Ecological Services Field Office (see
Under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act; 16 U.S.C. 1531
We listed the Hualapai Mexican vole as an endangered subspecies on October 1, 1987, without critical habitat (52 FR 36776). At the time of listing, the primary threats to the Hualapai Mexican vole were degraded habitat due to drought, elimination of ground cover from grazing by livestock and elk (
On August 23, 2004, we received a petition dated August 18, 2004, from the Arizona Game and Fish Department (AGFD) requesting that the Hualapai Mexican vole be removed from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife (List) under the Act. The petition clearly identified itself as such and included the requisite identification information for the petitioners, as required at 50 CFR 424.14(a). Included in the petition was information in support of delisting the Hualapai Mexican vole based on an error in original classification due to evidence that the Hualapai Mexican vole is not a valid subspecies.
The petition asserts that the original scientific data used at the time the subspecies was classified were in error and that the best available scientific data do not support the taxonomic recognition of the Hualapai Mexican vole as a distinguishable subspecies (AGFD 2004, p. 4). The petition's assertions are primarily based on the results of an unpublished genetic analysis (Busch
On May 15, 2008, we announced a 90-day finding in the
Goldman (1938, pp. 493-494) described and named the Hualapai Mexican vole as
Based on morphological measurements, the Hualapai Mexican vole was previously considered one of three subspecies of Mexican voles (
The final rule listing the Hualapai Mexican vole as an endangered species (52 FR 36776; October 1, 1987) stated that this subspecies occupied the Hualapai Mountains, but also acknowledged that Spicer
In May 1998, we reviewed Frey and Yates' 1995 unpublished report, “Hualapai Vole (
Since the Hualapai Mexican vole was listed in 1987 (52 FR 36776; October 1, 1987), several focused surveys of the subspecies' distribution, habitat requirements, and genetic relationships to other Mexican vole subspecies were undertaken. We briefly describe these studies below. Researchers did not collect or analyze samples from the same locations, so locations and analyses across studies do not necessarily correlate fully. These studies represent the best scientific information available for the Service to analyze the Hualapai Mexican vole's distribution and taxonomic classification.
At the time of listing, we recognized the Hualapai Mexican vole as one of three subspecies of Mexican voles in Arizona based on Goldman (1938, pp. 493-494), Hall (1981, p. 481), and Hoffmeister (1986, p. 443). Since that time, Frey and LaRue (1993, pp. 176-177) referred to voles in Arizona, New Mexico, and Texas as
In a 1989 unpublished Master's thesis, Frey conducted an extensive study of geographic variation of specimens from throughout the range of the
Frey and Yates (1993, pp. 1-23) conducted a genetic analyses of
Frey and Yates (1995) continued their genetic work on Mexican vole subspecies and analyzed 173 specimens from 28 populations (16 from Arizona, 10 from New Mexico, 1 from Utah, and 1 from Mexico) using protein electrophoresis and mitochondrial DNA. They found that six populations (Hualapai Mountains, Hualapai Indian Reservation, Music Mountains, Aubrey Cliffs/Chino Wash, Santa Maria Mountains, and Bradshaw Mountains) could be the Hualapai Mexican vole subspecies (Frey and Yates 1995, p. 9). The authors found unique alleles at two loci in these six populations, which identified them as being closely related (Frey and Yates 1995, p. 9). Based on geographic proximity, Frey and Yates (1995, p. 8) suspected that two other populations (Round Mountain and Sierra Prieta) could also be the Hualapai Mexican vole subspecies, but they did not have adequate samples for genetic verification.
Additional genetic analyses were conducted by Busch
Busch
In 2003, AGFD sent the Busch
Busch
According to AGFD, the field and laboratory studies concluded that
The AGFD provided a summary of factors affecting the Hualapai Mexican vole in their 2004 status assessment and petition. AGFD stated that the species is found in more xeric and mesic habitats than other vole species, so trampling of seeps and spring areas by cattle is no longer considered a threat to Hualapai Mexican voles as previously thought when the subspecies was listed (AGFD 2004, pp. 5-6). Further, AGFD stated that because the Hualapai Mexican voles' range is not as restricted as once thought, grazing and recreational uses are no longer threats to the subspecies (AGFD 2004, p 7). Finally, based on five genetic and two taxonomic reviews, the AGFD stated that all 14 populations analyzed by Busch
In summary, the various analyses and reviews present multiple interpretations of the taxonomy and distribution of Hualapai Mexican voles in Arizona, none of which correlates to that of our original listing. The 1987 final listing rule for the Hualapai Mexican vole (52 FR 36776; October 1, 1987) relied on the best available information at the time, and only included Hualapai Mexican voles found in the Hualapai Mountains. The various published and unpublished reports all offer different conclusions about which populations may or may not be Hualapai Mexican voles. At this time, the best available scientific information presents conflicting information on the taxonomy of Mexican voles in general. The majority (
The Mexican vole is recognized by the scientific community as a species, including the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and ITIS. The Mexican vole is listed as least concern by IUCN in view of its wide distribution, presumed large population, occurrence in a number of protected areas, and because it is unlikely to be declining at nearly the rate required to qualify for listing in a threatened category (Álvarez-Castañeda, S.T. & Reid, F. 2016). The Mexican vole species occurs from the southern Rocky Mountains southward in the Sierra Madre of Mexico to central Oaxaca Mexico (Tamarin 1985 p. 99). The existence of several populations improves the ability of the species to withstand environmental and demographic stochasticity (for example, wet or dry, warm or cold years); the ability of the species to adapt over time to long-term changes in the environment (for example, climate changes); and the ability of the species to withstand catastrophic events (for example, droughts, hurricanes). In general, the more populations there are, the more likely the species is to sustain populations over time, even under changing environmental conditions. The distribution of the Mexican vole populations allows for sustained populations into the future. Based on the best available scientific and commercial data at this time, we find that the original data for classification were in error, and we are removing the Hualapai Mexican vole (
In our June 4, 2015, combined 12-month finding and proposed rule (80 FR 31875), we requested that all interested parties submit comments or information concerning the proposed delisting of the Hualapai Mexican vole. We provided notification of this document through email, letters, and news releases to the appropriate Federal, State, and local agencies; county governments; elected officials; media outlets; local jurisdictions; scientific organizations; interested groups; and other interested parties. We also posted the document on our Web site (
In accordance with our peer review policy published on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), we solicited expert opinions from five knowledgeable individuals with scientific expertise that included genetics, conservation biology, and ecology of voles and the ecosystems upon which they depend. We received comments from two peer reviewers associated with academic research institutions. One researcher noted that the data gathered and analyzed to date do not appear to support an integrative approach to taxonomy. For example, using a current genome-side marker like single nucleotide polymorphisms (or SNPs) would be preferable. The same researcher stated that there is a strong reliance on mitochondrial DNA and lack of a thorough study of morphology, behavior, and ecology of this subspecies. The other peer reviewer noted that in the case of
We reviewed all comments we received from the peer reviewers and the public for substantive issues and new informative regarding the proposed delisting of the Hualapai Mexican vole. We received four comments on the proposed rule. Two were in favor of delisting the Hualapai Mexican vole. One commenter provided a conservation status review to support the proposed delisting by documenting the current conservation status of the Hualapai Mexican vole and its likely synonymous populations, as well as an evaluation of potential threats to the larger, taxonomically valid subspecies. One commenter opposed the delisting of the Hualapai Mexican vole. Substantive comments we received during the comment period are addressed below.
(1)
We received reviews from two peer reviewers. One of the peer reviewers stated that although it is still unclear exactly what the numbers are, it is clear that the numbers of these voles in the mountains of western Arizona are larger than was earlier suspected. Kime
(2)
(3)
The petition asserts that the Hualapai Mexican vole should be delisted. Working within the framework of the regulations for making delisting determinations, as discussed above, the petition asserts that the original data we used in our recognition of the Hualapai Mexican vole as a subspecies, and thus a listable entity under the Act, were in error. In determining whether to recognize the Hualapai Mexican vole as a valid (distinguishable) subspecies, we must base our decision on the best available scientific and commercial data. Additionally, we must provide transparency in application of the Act's definition of a species through careful review and analyses of all the relevant data.
Under section 3 of the Act and our implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.02, a “species” includes any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature. As such, a “species” under the Act may include any taxonomically defined species of fish, wildlife, or plant; any taxonomically defined subspecies of fish, wildlife, or plant; or any distinct population segment of any vertebrate species as determined by us per our Policy Regarding the Recognition of District Vertebrate Population Segments [DPSs] Under the Endangered Species Act (61 FR 4722; February 7, 1996). We note that Congress has instructed the Secretary to exercise this authority with regard to DPS's “* * * sparingly and only when the biological evidence indicates that such action is warranted.”
Our implementing regulations provide further guidance on determining whether a particular taxon or population is a species or subspecies for the purposes of the Act: “the Secretary shall rely on standard taxonomic distinctions and the biological expertise of the Department and the scientific community concerning the relevant taxonomic group” (50 CFR 424.11(a)). For each species, section 4(b)(1)(A) of the Act
For purposes of being able to determine what is a listable entity under the Act, we must necessarily follow a more operational approach and evaluate and consider all available types of data, which may or may not include genetic information, to determine whether a taxon is a distinguishable species or subspecies. As a matter of practice, and in accordance with our regulations, in deciding which alternative taxonomic interpretations to recognize, the Service will rely on the professional judgment available within the Service and the scientific community to evaluate the most recent taxonomic studies and other relevant information available for the subject species. Therefore, we continue to make listing decisions based solely on the basis of the best scientific and commercial data available for each species under consideration on a case-specific basis.
In making our determination whether we recognize the Hualapai Mexican vole as a distinguishable subspecies and, thus, whether the petitioned action is warranted, we considered all available data that may inform the taxonomy of the Hualapai Mexican vole, such as ecology, morphology, and genetics.
In determining whether to recognize the Hualapai Mexican vole as a distinguishable subspecies, we must first define the criteria used to make this decision given the available information. Within the taxonomic literature, there are no universally agreed-upon criteria for delineating, defining, or diagnosing subspecies boundaries. Each possible subspecies has been subject to unique evolutionary forces, different methods of selection will act on each subspecies (genetic drift versus allopatric speciation), and the potential divergence time (recent versus more distant) will, therefore, lead to different signals, particularly genetically; as such, the methods for detecting each will be different (Amec 2015, pp. 101-102). Therefore, we conclude that the best scientific and commercial information available indicate that the Hualapai Mexican vole is not a distinguishable subspecies, and we, therefore, do not recognize it as a listable entity under the Act. (A “listable entity” is one that qualifies as a “species” under the definition in section 3 of the Act and is thus eligible to be listed as an endangered species or a threatened species.) Because we found that the Hualapai Mexican vole is not a valid listable entity, conducting a distinct population segment (DPS) analysis would be inappropriate.
After a review of all information available, we are removing the Hualapai Mexican vole from the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife (List). Section 4(a)(1) of the Act and regulations (50 CFR part 424) issued to implement the listing provisions of the Act set forth the procedures for adding species to or removing them from the List. The regulations at 50 CFR 424.11(d) state that a species may be delisted if (1) it becomes extinct, (2) it recovers, or (3) the original classification data were in error.
At this time, the best available scientific information presents conflicting information on the taxonomy of Mexican voles in general, and no longer supports the recognition of a separate Hualapai Mexican vole subspecies. Reviews of the published and unpublished reports have inconsistent conclusions because of different genetic analyses and data sets. However, there is sufficient evidence to indicate that the currently listed entity for the Hualapai Mexican vole is no longer a valid taxonomic subspecies. Additionally, the Mexican vole is listed as least concern by IUCN in view of its wide distribution, presumed large population, occurrence in a number of protected areas, and because it is unlikely to be declining at nearly the rate required to qualify for listing in a threatened category (Álvarez-Castañeda, S.T. & Reid, F. 2016). We consider the entity that was previously described as Hualapai Mexican vole (
Based on the best available scientific and commercial data, we have determined that the Hualapai Mexican vole is not a valid taxonomic subspecies, and therefore, is not a listable entity under the Act. In conclusion, we find that the Hualapai Mexican vole (
This final rule revises 50 CFR 17.11(h) to remove the Hualapai Mexican vole from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife. Because no critical habitat was ever designated for this subspecies, this rule will not affect 50 CFR 17.95.
On the effective date of this rule (see
We have determined that environmental assessments and environmental impact statements, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, need not be prepared in connection with regulations adopted pursuant to section 4(a) of the Act. We published a notice outlining our reasons for this determination in the
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments” (59 FR 22951), Executive Order 13175, and the Department of Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with recognized Federal Tribes on a government-to-government basis. Therefore, we solicited information from Native American Tribes during the proposed rule's comment periods to determine potential effects on them or their resources that may result from the delisting of the Hualapai Mexican vole. No comments were received from Native American Tribes.
A complete list of all references cited in this rule is available on
The primary authors of this rule are the staff members of the Arizona Ecological Services Field Office, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (see
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule would implement a recommendation from the California Desert Grape Administrative Committee (Committee) to remove varietal exemptions from the regulations established under the California table grape marketing order (order) and the table grape import regulation (import regulation). The order regulates the handling of table grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California and is administered locally by the Committee. The import regulation is authorized under section 8e of the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended, and regulates the importation of table grapes into the United States. In conjunction with this proposed rule, administrative exemptions that were previously granted for other varieties of imported grapes, including those that are genetically related to the four varieties exempted under the order's regulations and import regulation, would be removed.
Comments must be received by August 22, 2017.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposal. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Stop 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or Internet:
Kathie Notoro, Marketing Specialist, or Jeffrey Smutny, Regional Director, California Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (559) 487-5901; Fax: (559) 487-5906, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This proposed rule is issued under Marketing Order No. 925, as amended (7 CFR part 925), regulating the handling of grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
This proposed rule is also issued under section 8e of the Act, which provides that whenever certain specified commodities, including table grapes, are regulated under a Federal marketing order, imports of those commodities into the United States are prohibited unless they meet the same or comparable quality, grade, size, and maturity requirements as those in effect for the domestically produced commodities.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this proposed rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175. Additionally, because this rule does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771. See the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017, titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This action is not intended to have retroactive effect.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file a petition with USDA stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. A handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
There are no administrative procedures which must be exhausted prior to any judicial challenge to the provisions of import regulations issued under section 8e of the Act.
Under the terms of the order, fresh market shipments of
Historically, four varieties of grapes have been exempted from requirements
The varietal exemptions were made effective in both the order's regulations and the import regulation on a continuing basis in 1985 (50 FR 18849; May 3, 1985). Subsequently, sixteen other grape varieties genetically related to one or more of the four exempted varieties were subject to administrative exemptions from regulation under the import regulation because they were not grown in the production area.
The order regulates all vinifera species of table grapes, including the exempted varieties. Accordingly, the proposed rule would update the order's regulations to remove all varietal exemptions including the original varietal exemptions and subsequent administrative exemptions. Pursuant to section 8(e), corresponding updates would also be made to the import regulations.
The Committee believes it is important that table grapes marketed in the U.S. during the regulatory period are of a consistently high quality, grade, size, and maturity. Updating the regulations to remove outdated varietal exemptions will improve the marketing of table grapes; better meet the needs of consumers; increase returns to growers, handlers, and importers; and foster repeat purchases by consumers.
Section 925.6 of the order defines varieties to mean and to include all classifications or subdivisions of
Section 925.52(a)(1) of the order provides authority to regulate the handling of any grade, size, quality, maturity, or pack of any and all grape varieties during any period. Section 925.53 provides authority for the Committee to recommend to USDA changes to regulations issued pursuant to § 925.52.
Section 925.55 of the order specifies that when grapes are regulated pursuant to § 925.52, such grapes must be inspected by the Federal or Federal-State Inspection Service and certified to ensure they meet applicable requirements.
Section 925.304 of the order's administrative rules and regulations specifies the grade, size, quality, maturity, pack, and container requirements for shipments of all varieties of
The corresponding grade, size, quality, and maturity requirements for imported table grapes are contained in 7 CFR 944.503, which also specifies the regulatory exemption for the Emperor, Calmeria, Almeria, and Ribier varieties.
In the early 1980s, when the order and import regulation were established, there were fewer grape varieties grown in the production area. The distinct characteristics of individual table grape varieties were recognized by consumers, and grapes were marketed accordingly. Regulatory exemptions were provided for the handling of certain varieties that were not grown in the production area but imported into the United States to satisfy market demand. Progeny and genetically-related hybrids of those exempted varieties were also exempted administratively because they were not being grown in the production area.
As a result of extensive breeding programs, the number of different grape varieties cultivated in the production area has expanded. Now, varieties administratively exempted from the import regulation, such as the Red Globe variety, are being grown in the production area.
In addition, as a result of the extensive breeding programs introducing new hybrids, the distinguishing characteristics of each variety have become less pronounced. Table grapes are now typically marketed by color and presence or absence of seeds, rather than by specific variety, such as “red seedless” instead of “Emperor”, “green seeded” instead of “Calmeria” or “Almeria”, or “black seeded” grapes instead of “Ribier”.
According to a March 2011 consumer research study sponsored by the Desert Grape Growers League of California entitled, “Consumer Awareness of Grape Varieties Online Study,” the presence or absence of seeds, overall appearance, and price are the dominant factors in grape purchases by retail customers. Most customers surveyed could not name a single grape variety without prompting. A copy of this study can be obtained by contacting the Committee or the USDA contact persons listed in the
To update the regulations to reflect changes in production in the production area, as well as changes in consumer understanding about table grapes and consumer considerations when purchasing them, the Committee recommended at its meeting on November 12, 2015, that the order's administrative rules and regulations be updated to remove exemptions provided for the Emperor, Calmeria, Almeria, and Ribier varieties. Under the proposed rule, all table grapes handled in the production area during the regulatory period would be subject to the grade, size, quality, maturity, pack, and container requirements specified in the order and would be subject to inspection and certification requirements, regardless of variety. The Committee believes that ensuring consistently high quality grade, size, and maturity, as verified through inspection and certification, would encourage repeat purchases by consumers, thereby increasing returns to producers and handlers.
As required under section 8e of the Act, varietal exemptions would likewise no longer apply to imported grapes. Accordingly, all table grapes offered for importation into the United States during the regulatory period would be subject to the grade, size, quality, and maturity regulations specified in the import regulation and would be subject to inspection and certification requirements.
The proposed rule would modify the introductory paragraph of § 925.304—California Desert Grape Regulation 6—of the order's regulations by removing the four historically exempt varieties: Emperor, Calmeria, Almeria, and Ribier. Additionally, § 944.503(a)(1) of the import regulation would be modified by removing the exemptions for Emperor, Calmeria, Almeria, and Ribier varieties from the import regulation. In conjunction with these actions, administrative exemptions for imported varieties, including Italia Pirovano (Blanca Italia), Christmas Rose, Muscatel, Barlinka, Dauphine, Kyoho, Waltham Cross, Alphonse Lavallee, Bien Donne, Bonnoir (Bonheur), La Rochelle, Queen, Rouge, Sonita, Tokay and Red Globe, would be removed.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this proposed rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened.
Currently, there are approximately 12 handlers of southeastern California grapes who are subject to regulation under the order and about 38 table grape producers in the production area. Additionally, there are approximately 135 importers of grapes. Small agricultural service firms are defined by the Small Business Administration (13 CFR 121.201) as those having annual receipts of less than $7,500,000, and small agricultural producers are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $750,000. According to the Committee's inspection reports, seven of the 12 handlers subject to regulation have annual grape sales of less than $7.5 million. In addition, the Committee estimates that at least nine of the 38 producers have annual receipts of less than $750,000 and would be considered small businesses under the Small Business Administration threshold of $750,000. Based on the foregoing, it may be concluded that slightly more than half of the grape handlers and a minority of the grape producers could be classified as small entities.
Chile, Mexico, and Peru are the major countries that export table grapes to the United States. According to the 2015 data from the U.S. Department of Agriculture, Foreign Agricultural Service, shipments of table grapes imported into the United States from Chile were valued at $805,226,000; from Mexico were valued at $329,494,000; and those from Peru were valued at $204,349,000. The total value of table grapes imported into the United States in 2015 was $1,344,077,000. When this value is divided by the total number of importers (135), it is estimated that the average grape importer received over $9.9 million in revenue from the sale of grapes. Therefore, it may be concluded that the average table grape importer is not classified as a small entity.
This rule would remove the varietal exemptions from the introductory paragraph of § 925.304 of the regulations of the California desert grape marketing order and from § 944.503(a)(1) of the table grape import regulation. Authority for the change to the California desert grape order is provided in §§ 925.52(a)(1) and 925.53. Authority for the change to the table grape import regulation is provided in section 8e of the Act.
In conjunction with this action, administrative regulatory exemptions previously granted for other imported
The majority of grapes imported into the United States are from Chile. Recent data indicate total imports of grapes from Chile average approximately 352,102.2 metric tons annually. Of this amount, the quantity of exempt varieties of Chilean grapes imported during the regulatory period averages approximately 8,164.7 metric tons, which represents less than four percent of the grapes imported from Chile. Of these exempt shipments, the majority (81 percent, based on a ten-year average) are of the Red Globe variety, which is now grown in the production area. All other exempt varieties are of the varietal types also grown in the production area.
As a result of the proposed changes, all table grapes grown in the production area or imported into the United States during the regulatory period would be subject to inspection and certification requirements, as established under the order. Fees for inspection and certification, which are performed by USDA's Federal or Federal-State Inspection Service, are typically 3.8 cents per package. This estimated increase in costs would represent only a small percentage of the value of the grapes. Grape prices can vary significantly, ranging from $6 to $44 per package. The inspection cost per package represents less than two-tenths of one percent of the midpoint of the range of prices per package ($25).
In addition, some of the exempted varieties are currently being inspected on a voluntary basis to meet buyer requirements, but the quantity is unknown. For those products, the proposed changes would result in no increased cost.
The benefits of removing the exemptions, as discussed below, are expected to outweigh any additional costs incurred by handlers and importers.
According to industry research, table grape consumers make purchases based upon the quality characteristics of the grapes. Consumers are more likely to make repeat purchases following satisfactory experiences with previous purchases. Rather than selecting grapes by variety, consumers purchase varietal types that will meet their needs, such as “red seedless” or “black seeded” grapes. Therefore, the Committee believes that it is important to ensure that all table grapes shipped or imported during the regulatory period are of consistent high quality, regardless of variety. It is expected that removing the regulatory exemptions will ensure that all table grapes marketed in the United States during the regulatory period will be of a consistent quality, better meeting the needs of consumers and fostering repeat purchases, thus increasing the demand for grapes and increasing returns to producers, handlers, and importers.
The Committee considered alternatives to this action, including maintaining the current varietal exemptions. However, the Committee anticipates that subjecting all grape varieties and variety types grown in the production area to the requirements under the order and the import regulation would best ensure that consumers receive quality grapes, which in turn would provide producers, handlers, and importers with higher returns.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189. No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This proposed rule would not impose any additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large grape handlers or importers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. In addition, USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
Further, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the table grape industry, and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations. Like all Committee meetings, the November 12, 2015, meeting was a public meeting. All entities, both large and small, were able to express their views on this issue. Interested persons are invited to submit comments on this proposed rule, including the regulatory and informational impacts of this action on small businesses.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
In accordance with section 8e of the Act, the United States Trade Representative has concurred with the issuance of this proposed rule.
A 60-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to this proposal. All written comments received in a timely manner will be considered before a final determination is made on this matter.
Grapes, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Avocados, Food grades and standards, Grapefruit, Grapes, Imports, Kiwifruit, Limes, Olives, Oranges.
For the reasons set forth above, 7 CFR parts 925 and 944 are proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
During the period April 10 through July 10 each year, no person shall pack or repack any variety of grapes on any Saturday, Sunday, Memorial Day, or the observed Independence Day holiday, unless approved in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, nor handle any variety of grapes unless such grapes meet the requirements specified in this section.
(a)(1) Pursuant to section 8e of the Act and Part 944—Fruits, Import Regulations, and except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section, the importation into the United States of any variety of
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for British Aerospace Regional Aircraft Jetstream Series 3101 and Jetstream Model 3201 airplanes that would supersede AD 2014-07-09. This proposed AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as inadequate instructions for inspection for corrosion on the rudder upper hinge bracket and certain internal wing and drainage paths. We are issuing this proposed AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 7, 2017.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
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For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact BAE Systems (Operations) Limited, Customer Information Department, Prestwick International Airport, Ayrshire, KA9 2RW, Scotland, United Kingdom; telephone: +44 1292 675207; fax: +44 1292 675704; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Doug Rudolph, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4059; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On April 4, 2014, we issued AD 2014-07-09, Amendment 39-17823 (79 FR 22367; April 22, 2014). That AD required actions intended to address an unsafe condition on British Aerospace Regional Aircraft Model Jetstream Series 3101 and Jetstream Model 3201 airplanes and was based on mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country.
Since we issued AD 2014-07-09, more extensive reports of corrosion have been received, resulting in the need to inspect additional areas.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued EASA AD No.: 2017-0073, dated April 27, 2017 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
Maintenance instructions for BAE Jetstream 3100 and 3200 aeroplanes, which are approved by EASA, are currently defined and published in the BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd Jetstream Series 3100 & 3200 Corrosion Prevention and Control Programme (CPCP) document, JS/CPCP/01. These instructions have been identified as mandatory for continued airworthiness.
Failure to accomplish these instructions could result in an unsafe condition.
EASA issued AD 2012-0036 to require operators to comply with the inspection instructions as contained in the CPCP at Revision 6.
Since that AD was issued, reports have been received of finding extensive corrosion. While affected areas are covered by an existing zonal inspection, it has been determined that this inspection is inadequate to identify the corrosion in those areas. Consequently, new inspection items 52-11-002 C1, 200/EX/01 C2, 500/IN/02 C1, 600/IN/04 C1 and 700/IN/04 C1 have been added to the CPCP at Revision 8.
For the reason described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of EASA AD 2012-0036, which is superseded, and requires accomplishment of the actions specified in BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd Jetstream Series 3100 & 3200 CPCP, JS/CPCP/01, Revision 8 (hereafter referred to as `the CPCP' in this AD).
You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
BAE Systems (Operations) Limited has issued British Aerospace Jetstream Series 3100 & 3200 Corrosion Prevention and Control Programme, Manual Ref: JS/CPCP/01, Revision 8, dated October 15, 2016. The service information describes procedures for a comprehensive corrosion prevent and control program. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD will affect 42 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 100 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $357,000, or $8,500 per product.
The scope of damage found in the required inspection could vary significantly from airplane to airplane. We have no way of determining how much damage may be found on each airplane or the cost to repair damaged parts on each airplane or the number of airplanes that may require repair.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 7, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2014-07-09, Amendment 39-17823 (79 FR 22367; April 22, 2014) (“2014-07-09”).
This AD applies to British Aerospace Regional Aircraft Jetstream Series 3101 and Jetstream Model 3201 airplanes, all serial numbers, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 5: Time Limits.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as inadequate instructions for inspection for corrosion on the rudder upper hinge bracket and certain internal wing stations and drainage paths. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct corrosion on the rudder upper hinge bracket and internal wing, areas of the passenger/crew door hinges and supporting structure, the main spar joint, and the engine support attachment bolts, which could lead to reduced structural integrity of the airplane with consequent loss of control.
Comply with paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done:
(1) Before further flight after the effective date of this AD, incorporate BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Jetstream Series 3100 & 3200 Corrosion Prevention and Control Programme, Manual Ref. JS/CPCP/01, Revision 8, dated October 15, 2016, into the Limitations of your FAA-approved maintenance program (instructions for continued airworthiness) on the basis of which the operator or the owner ensures the continuing airworthiness of each operated airplane, as applicable to the airplane model.
(2) Do all tasks at the times specified in BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Jetstream Series 3100 & 3200 Corrosion Prevention and Control Programme, Manual Ref. JS/CPCP/01, Revision 8, dated October 15, 2016, or within the next 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, except for the following, which must be done within 12 months after the effective date of this AD: 52-11-002 C1, 200/EX/01 C2, 500/IN/02 C1, 600/IN/04 C1, and 700/IN/04 C1.
(3) If any discrepancy, particularly corrosion, is found during any inspections or tasks required by paragraphs (f)(1) or (2) of this AD, within the compliance time specified, repair or replace, as applicable, all damaged structural parts and components and do the maintenance procedures for corrective action following BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Jetstream Series 3100 & 3200 Corrosion Prevention and Control Programme, Manual Ref. JS/CPCP/01, Revision 8, dated October 15, 2016. If no compliance time is defined, do the applicable corrective action before further flight.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No.: 2017-0073, dated April 27, 2017; and BAE Systems (Operations) Limited Jetstream Series 3100 & 3200 Corrosion Prevention and Control Programme, Manual Ref. JS/CPCP/01, Revision 8, dated October 15, 2016; for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Models DA 42, DA 42 M-NG, and DA 42 NG airplanes. This proposed AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as crack formation on the flap bell crank, which could cause the flap bell crank to fail. We are issuing this proposed AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 7, 2017.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH, N.A. Otto-Straße 5, A-2700 Wiener Neustadt, Austria, telephone: +43 2622 26700; fax: +43 2622 26780; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Mike Kiesov, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4144; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued AD No. 2017-0074, dated April 28, 2017 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
Cracks and deformation have been found on the flap bell crank Part Number (P/N) D60-2757-11-00. Frequent high load conditions have been identified as the root cause.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to failure of the flap bell crank and consequent reduced control of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Diamond Aircraft Industries (DAI) issued Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) 42-126/MSB 42NG-066 and the corresponding Work Instruction (WI) MSB 42-126/WI-MSB 42NG-066 (single document), hereafter referred to as `the applicable MSB' in this [EASA] AD, providing inspection and modification instructions.
For the reason described above, this [EASA] AD requires modification of the flap control system by installing two spacers to replace a single long spacer, repetitive inspections of the flap bell crank, and, depending on findings, replacement of the flap bell crank with an improved part. Installation of an improved flap bell crank constitutes terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by this [EASA] AD.
You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH has issued Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 42-126 MSB/42NG-066, dated March 27, 2017 (single document), and Work Instruction WI-MSB 42-126/WI-MSB 42NG-066, dated March 27, 2017 (single document). In combination, this service information describes procedures for repetitively inspecting the flap bell crank for cracks, replacing the flap bell crank if cracks are found, and modification of the flap control system. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD will affect 190 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 4 work-hours per product to comply with the initial inspection requirement of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the initial inspection requirement of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $64,000, or $340 per product.
We also estimate that it would take about 2 work-hours per product to comply with the repetitive inspection requirement of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the repetitive inspection requirement of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $32,300, or $170 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary replacement action would take about 1 work-hour and require parts costing $430, for a cost of $515 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701:
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 7, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH Model DA 42, DA 42 M-NG, and DA 42 NG airplanes, serial numbers 42.004 through 42.427, 42.AC001 through 42.AC151, 42.M001 through 42.M026, 42.N001 through 42.N067, 42.N100 through 42.N129, 42.NC001 through 42.NC008, and 42.MN001 through 42.MN033, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 27: Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as crack formation on the flap bell crank. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the flap bell crank, which could result in reduced control.
Unless already done, do the following actions:
(1) Inspect the flap bell crank, part number (P/N) D60-2757-11-00, and modify the flap control system by installing two spacers, P/N DS BU2-10-06-0065-C, where the flap actuator rod end bearing is connected to the flap bell crank, following the Instructions section in Diamond Aircraft Industries GmbH (DAI) Work Instruction WI-MSB 42-126/WI-MSB 42NG-066, dated March 27, 2017 (single document), as specified in DAI Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 42-126/MSB 42NG-066, dated March 27, 2017 (single document), at whichever of the following compliance times occurs later:
(i) Before exceeding 600 hours time-in-service (TIS), and repetitively thereafter at intervals not to exceed 200 hours TIS.
(ii) Within the next 100 hours TIS after the effective date of this AD or within the next 6 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first, and repetitively thereafter at intervals not to exceed 200 hours TIS.
(2) If any discrepancies are found during any inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, before further flight, replace the flap bell crank with an improved part, P/N D60-2757-11-00_01, following the Instructions section in DAI Work Instruction WI-MSB 42-126/WI-MSB 42NG-066, dated March 27, 2017 (single document), as specified in DAI Mandatory Service Bulletin MSB 42-126/MSB 42NG-066, dated March 27, 2017 (single document). Installing P/N D60-2757-11-00_01 terminates the repetitive inspections required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD. This installation as terminating action may be done in lieu of the inspections required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2017-0074, dated April 28, 2017. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Model A318 and A319 series airplanes; Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes; and Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211,
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 7, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office-EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0212, dated October 25, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A318 and A319 series airplanes; Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes; and Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, and -232 airplanes. The MCAI states:
In service occurrences were reported where, as a consequence [during an emergency water landing and] of an airframe ground contact above certified vertical speed/vertical acceleration, the vertical strut at Frame (FR) 65 penetrated through the cabin floor.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to injury of occupants and/or delays during emergency evacuation.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Airbus developed mod 153724, a structural change which prevents the central vertical strut at FR65 to pass through the cabin floor, and issued Service Bulletin (SB) A320-53-1262 to provide instructions for installation of this modification on aeroplanes in service. After SB A320-53-1262 was issued, incorrect MSN [manufacturer serial number] allocations and configuration definitions were identified in it. Consequently Airbus revised that SB, and in addition issued SB A320-53-1333 and SB A320-53-1334.
For the reason described above, this [EASA] AD requires modification of the fuselage structure at FR65.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued the following Airbus service information:
• Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1262, excluding Appendix 01 and including Appendix 02, Revision 01, dated July 29, 2016;
• Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1333, excluding Appendix 01 and including Appendix 02, dated July 29, 2016; and
• Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1334, excluding Appendix 01 and including Appendixes 02 and 03, dated July 29, 2016.
The service information describes procedures for modifying the fuselage structure at FR 65. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane configurations. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 1,123 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 7, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to the airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4) of this AD, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers, except those on which Airbus Modification 153724 was embodied in production.
(1) Airbus Model A318-111, -112, -121, and -122 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, -115, -131, -132, and -133 airplanes.
(3) Airbus Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes.
(4) Airbus Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, and -232 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This proposed AD was prompted by reports of a vertical strut penetrating through the cabin floor during an emergency water landing and on airframe ground contact at certain speeds/accelerations. We are issuing this AD to prevent the central vertical strut at frame (FR) 65 from penetrating through the cabin floor in certain conditions, which could lead to injury of occupants and delays during an emergency evacuation.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 72 months after the effective date of this AD, modify the fuselage structure at FR 65, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD.
(1) For Model A318 and A319 series airplanes; Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes; and Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, and -232 airplanes, as identified in Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1262, Revision 01, dated July 29, 2016: Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1262, excluding Appendix 01 and including Appendix 02, Revision 01, dated July 29, 2016.
(2) For Model A320-211, -212, -214, -232, and -233 airplanes, as identified in Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1333, dated July 29, 2016: Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1333, excluding Appendix 01 and including Appendix 02, dated July 29, 2016.
(3) For Model A321-211, -213, and -231 airplanes as identified in Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1334, dated July 29, 2016: Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-1334, excluding Appendix 01 and including Appendixes 02 and 03, dated July 29, 2016.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0212, dated October 25, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149. Information may be emailed to:
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2012-23-10, which applies to all Airbus Model A318 series airplanes; Model A319 series airplanes; Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes; and Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, and -232 airplanes. AD 2012-23-10 requires modifying the affected slide rafts. Since we issued AD 2012-23-10, we received a report that Air Cruisers developed a modification of the slide and slide/raft, which is part of the escape slide pack assembly, to improve its deployment. This proposed AD would retain the requirements of AD 2012-23-10. This proposed AD would also require replacing each escape slide pack assembly having a certain part number with a new escape slide pack assembly. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 7, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
For Airbus service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On November 13, 2012, we issued AD 2012-23-10, Amendment 39-17266 (77 FR 70369, November 26, 2012) (“AD 2012-23-10”). AD 2012-23-10 requires actions intended to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes.
Since we issued AD 2012-23-10, we have determined that it may no longer address the unsafe condition, and that it is necessary to replace each escape slide pack assembly having a certain part number with a new escape slide pack assembly having a certain part number, or modify the escape slide pack.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2016-0043, dated March 4, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
Two occurrences were reported on Airbus A320 family aeroplanes where the escape slide raft inflation system did not deploy when activated. This was due to the rotation of the cable guide in a direction, which resulted in jamming of the inflation control cable. Additionally, one case was reported where the system did not deploy properly due to a cracked inflation hose fitting. Investigation conducted by Air Cruisers
This condition, if not corrected, could delay the evacuation from the aeroplane in case of emergency, possibly resulting in injury to the occupants.
To address this potential unsafe condition, DGAC France issued AD F-2004-072 [which correlates with FAA AD 2004-26-07, Amendment 39-13919 (70 FR 1176, January 6, 2005)], to introduce an inflation hose retainer preventing an incomplete inflation of emergency escape slides, which could delay passenger evacuation, and EASA issued AD 2011-0160 (later revised twice) to require modification of the affected slide rafts or replacement thereof with modified units.
Since EASA AD 2011-0160R2 [which correlates with FAA AD 2012-23-10 and issued as a stand-alone, non-superseding AD] was issued, Air Cruisers [Zodiac Aero Evacuation Systems] developed a modification of the slide and slide/raft, part of the escape slide pack assemblies, to improve its deployment. Modified slides and slide/rafts are identified by a different Part Number (P/N); consequently, also the escape slide pack assemblies are identified by a different P/N.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of DGAC France AD F-2004-072 (EASA approval 2004-5335) and EASA AD 2011-0160R2, which are superseded, and requires installation of modified escape slide pack assemblies.
Appendix 1 of this [EASA] AD provides a comprehensive list of escape slide pack assemblies P/N that, at the issue date of the [EASA] AD, are not approved for further installation on any aeroplane.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued the following service information, which describes procedures for replacing certain escape slide pack assemblies. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models in different configurations.
• Service Bulletin A320-25-1B81, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A320-25-1B82, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A320-25-1B83, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A320-25-1B84, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015.
Zodiac Aerospace has issued Zodiac Aero Evacuation Systems Service Bulletin S.B. A320 004-25-96, Revision 1, dated September 18, 2015; and Zodiac Aero Evacuation Systems Service Bulletin S.B. A320 004-25-97, Revision 1, dated September 18, 2015. The service information describes modification of the escape slide pack. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models in different configurations.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 959 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The actions required by AD 2012-23-10, and retained in this proposed AD take about 19 work-hours per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Required parts cost about $341 per product. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the actions that are required by AD 2012-23-10 is $1,956 per product.
We also estimate that it would take about 6 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $0 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $489,090, or $510 per product.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by August 7, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2012-23-10, Amendment 39-17266 (77 FR 70369, November 26, 2012) (“AD 2012-23-10”).
This AD applies to all Airbus Model A318-111, -112, -121, and -122 airplanes; Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, -115, -131, -132, and -133 airplanes; Model A320-211, -212, -214, -231, -232, and -233 airplanes; and Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, and -232 airplanes; certificated in any category; all manufacturer serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 25, Equipment/Furnishings.
This AD was prompted by reports of the escape raft inflation system not deploying when activated due to the rotation of the cable guide in a direction which resulted in jamming of the inflation control cable. We are issuing this AD to prevent non-deployment of the escape slide raft, which could result in delayed evacuation from the airplane during an emergency and consequent injury to the passengers.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2012-23-10, with no changes. Except as provided by paragraph (i) of this AD, within 36 months after December 31, 2012 (the effective date of AD 2012-23-10): Modify the escape slide rafts that have a part number (P/N) specified in figure 1 to paragraphs (g), (j)(1), and (j)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1723, dated December 17, 2010 (for Model A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes); or Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1724, dated December 17, 2010 (for Model A318 series airplanes).
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2012-23-10, with no changes. Replacement of all affected escape slide rafts on any affected airplane with slide rafts that have been modified in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-85, Revision 2, dated January 3, 2012, is acceptable for compliance with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD, provided that prior to or concurrently with accomplishing the modification, the installation of the cable guide assembly is done in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-56, dated November 12, 1999.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (i) of AD 2012-23-10, with no changes. Before the effective date of this AD: Airplanes on which Airbus Modification 151459 or Modification 151502 has been embodied in production, and on which no escape slide raft replacements have been made since first flight, are not affected by the requirement specified in paragraph (g) of this AD.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (j) of AD 2012-23-10, with no changes.
(1) For airplanes other than those identified in paragraph (i) of this AD: After accomplishment of the modification required by paragraph (g) of this AD or after accomplishment of the alternative modification specified in paragraph (h) of this AD, no person may install, on any airplane, an escape slide raft specified in figure 1 to paragraphs (g), (j)(1), and (j)(2) of this AD, unless it has been modified in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1723, dated December 17, 2010 (for Model A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes); Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1724, dated December 17, 2010 (for Model A318 series airplanes); or Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-85, Revision 2, dated January 3, 2012 (for Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes), including the installation of the cable guide assembly in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-56, dated November 12, 1999.
(2) For airplanes identified in paragraph (i) of this AD: As of December 31, 2012 (the effective date of AD 2012-23-10), no person may install, on any airplane, an escape slide raft specified in figure 1 to paragraphs (g), (j)(1), and (j)(2) of this AD, unless it has been modified in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1723, dated December 17, 2010 (for Model A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes); Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1724, dated December 17, 2010 (for Model A318 series airplanes); or Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-85, Revision 2, dated January 3, 2012 (for Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes), including the installation of the cable guide assembly in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-56, dated November 12, 1999.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (k) of AD 2012-23-10, with no changes. This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (h) and (j) of this AD, if those actions were performed before December 31, 2012 (the effective date of AD 2012-23-10), using Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-85, dated November 30, 2010; or Air Cruisers Service Bulletin S.B.A320 004-25-85, Revision 1, dated September 30, 2011; which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, replace each escape slide pack assembly having a part number identified as “old” in table 1 to paragraphs (l), (m)(2), (n)(2), and (o)(1) of this AD, with a new escape slide pack assembly having the corresponding part number identified as “new” in table 1 to paragraphs (l), (m)(2), (n)(2), and (o)(1) of this AD, using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
(1) Modification of an airplane in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (m)(1)(i) through (m)(1)(iv) of this AD, as applicable to the airplane model and escape slide pack assembly part number, is an acceptable method of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (l) of this AD for that airplane.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B81, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015 (for airplanes equipped with slide/rafts having P/Ns D30664-405, D30664-407, D30664-409, D30664-505, D30664-507, D30664-509, D30664-511 D30665-405, D30665-407, D30665-409, D30665-505, D30665-507, D30665-509, and D30665-511).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B82, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015 (for airplanes equipped with slide/rafts having P/Ns D31516-121, D31516-125, D31516-317, D31516-417 or D31516-525, D31517-121, D31517-125, D31517-317, D31517-417, and D31517-525).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B83, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015 (for airplanes equipped with slides with re-entry line P/Ns D31516-119, D31516-123, D31516-519, D31516-523, D31516-315, D31516-415, D31517-119, D31517-123, D31517-519, D31517-523, D31517-315 and D31517-415).
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B84, Revision 01, dated December 10, 2015 (for airplanes equipped with slides with Dual Fastener P/N D31516-521 and D31517-521).
(2) An escape slide pack assembly not installed on an airplane and having a part number identified as “old” in table 1 to paragraphs (l), (m)(2), (n)(2), and (o)(1) of this AD can be modified to the corresponding part number identified as “new” in table 1 to paragraphs (l), (m)(2), (n)(2), and (o)(1) of this AD, in accordance with Zodiac Aero Evacuation Systems Service Bulletin S.B. A320 004-25-96, Revision 1, dated September 18, 2015; and Zodiac Aero Evacuations Systems Service Bulletin S.B. A320 04-25-97, Revision 1, dated September 18, 2015; as applicable.
(1) An airplane on which Airbus Modification 151459 or Modification 151502 has been embodied in production is not affected by the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD, provided it is determined that no escape slide pack assembly having a part number specified in figure 2 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, figure 3 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, and figure 4 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, is installed on that airplane as of the effective date of this AD.
(2) An airplane on which Airbus Modification 156766, Modification 156767, Modification 156768, Modification 156769, or Modification 156770, has been embodied in production is not affected by the requirements of paragraphs (g) and (l) of this AD, provided that it is determined that no escape slide raft, having a part number identified in figure 2 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, figure 3 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, and figure 4 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, or having a part number identified as “old” in table 1 to paragraphs (l), (m)(2), (n)(2), and (o)(1) of this AD, is installed on that airplane as of the effective date of this AD.
(1) As of the effective date of this AD, do not install on any airplane any escape slide pack assembly having a part number identified as “old” in table 1 to paragraphs (l), (m)(2), (n)(2), and (o)(1) of this AD.
(2) As of the effective date of this AD, do not install on any airplane an escape slide pack assembly having a part number identified in figure 2 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, figure 3 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD, and figure 4 to paragraphs (n) and (o)(2) of this AD.
(3) Installation of an escape slide pack assembly having a part number approved after March 18, 2016 (the effective date of EASA AD 2016-0043), constitutes compliance with the requirements of paragraph (l) of this AD, provided the conditions as specified in paragraphs (o)(3)(i) and (o)(3)(ii) of this AD are met.
(i) The part number must be approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA; and
(ii) The installation must be accomplished in accordance with airplane modification instructions approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA.
(p) Credit for Previous Actions
(1) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (m)(1) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the applicable service information in paragraphs (p)(1)(i) through (p)(1)(iv) of this AD.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B81, dated August 13, 2015.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B82, dated August 13, 2015.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B83, dated July 31, 2015.
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-25-1B84, dated July 31, 2015.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (m)(2) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Zodiac Aero Evacuation Systems Service Bulletin S.B. A320 004-25-96, dated July 9, 2015; and Zodiac Aero Evacuation Systems Service Bulletin S.B. A320 004-25-97, dated July 9, 2015; as applicable.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2016-0043, dated March 4, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact: Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
(3) For Airbus service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E surface area at Roberts Field, Redmond, OR, by removing the Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) part-time status, and would modify Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at the airport. The geographic coordinates for Roberts Field in the associated Class D and E airspace areas also would be amended to match the FAA's aeronautical database. These changes are necessary to accommodate airspace redesign for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations within the National Airspace System. Also, an editorial change would be made to the Class D and Class E airspace legal descriptions replacing Airport/Facility Directory with the term Chart Supplement.
Comments must be received on or before August 7, 2017.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-0390; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-11, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D and Class E airspace at Roberts Field, Redmond, OR to accommodate airspace redesign for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations within the National Airspace System.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic,
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by modifying Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E surface area at Roberts Field, Redmond, OR, by shortening the segment to within 8.5 miles (from 13.5 miles) of the airport. Also, this action would eliminate the following language from the legal description of Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E surface area at the airport, “This Class E airspace is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Airport/Facility Directory.”
Additionally, this action would modify Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface to reduce the area east (to within 9.6 miles, from 11.5 miles) and southeast (to within 13.1 miles, from 15 miles) of the airport, and expand the area southwest (to within 10.5 miles, from 7.6 miles) of the airport. Also, this action would update the geographic coordinates for Roberts Field and replace the outdated term Airport/Facility Directory with the term Chart Supplement in the Class D and Class E airspace legal descriptions. This proposed airspace redesign is necessary for the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 5,600 feet within a 5.1-mile radius of Roberts Field. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace within a 5.1 mile radius of Roberts Field. This Class E airspace is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 1 mile each side of the 122° bearing of Roberts Field extending from the 5.1-mile radius to 8.5 miles southeast of the airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.6 mile radius of Roberts Field from a 270° bearing from the airport clockwise to a 195° bearing from the airport, and within a 10.5-mile radius of Roberts Field from a 195° bearing from the airport clockwise to a 270° bearing from the airport, and within 2.6 miles each side of a 085° bearing from Roberts Field extending to 9.6 miles east of the airport, and within 4 miles northeast and 3 miles southwest of a 122° bearing from Roberts Field extending to 13.1 miles southeast of the airport.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to determine that the Jefferson County nonattainment area, in Missouri, has attained the 2010 1-hour primary Sulfur Dioxide (SO
Comments must be received on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2017-0251, to
Ms. Tracey Casburn, Environmental Protection Agency, Air Planning and Development Branch, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219 at (913) 551-7016, or by email at
Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA. This section provides additional information by addressing the following:
The EPA is proposing to determine that the Jefferson County 2010 1-hour primary SO
The EPA has made the monitoring data, the modeling data, the supplemental emissions inventory information and additional information submitted by the state to support this proposed action available in the docket to this rulemaking through
On June 2, 2010 (75 FR 35520), the EPA established a health-based 1-hour primary SO
Where states request a clean data determination of a designated SO
In the memorandum of April 23, 2014, from Steve Page, Director, EPA Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards to the EPA Air Division Directors “Guidance for 1-hr SO
Clean data determinations are not redesignations to attainment. For the EPA to redesignate an area to attainment, a state must submit and receive full approval of a redesignation request that satisfies all of the statutory criteria for redesignation to attainment, including a demonstration that the improvement in the area's air quality is due to permanent and enforceable reductions; have a fully approved SIP that meets all of the applicable requirements under CAA section 110 and CAA part D; and have a fully approved maintenance plan.
Generally, the EPA relies on ambient air quality monitoring data alone in order to make determinations of attainment for areas designated nonattainment for a particular NAAQS. However, given the Agency's historical approach toward SO
If a demonstration shows that the monitor(s) is or are located in the area of maximum concentration, the EPA believes that it may be appropriate to determine that the nonattainment area is attaining the standard based on monitoring data alone. The state did not submit a demonstration that the monitor was located in the area of maximum concentration, therefore its submittal needed to provide a modeling demonstration in support of a clean data determination.
The 2014 SO
The EPA believes that modeling a mix of current allowable emissions and actual emissions would be permissible in such an analysis as long as the same type of emissions are used for each source for all three years. For instance, if a state decided to use current allowables for a facility in a modeling analysis, the state would need to use current allowables for all three years of the analysis for that facility. The state would not necessarily need to use current allowables for the other sources in the analysis (
The EPA recognizes that its 2014 SO
On February 2, 2016, the state submitted a request asking the EPA to determine that the nonattainment area attained the 2010 1-hour primary SO
The EPA is proposing to issue a determination of attainment for the nonattainment area based on the area's 2013-2015 modeling demonstration, which is supported by monitoring data from the Mott Street monitor. The 2014 SO
The state modeled actual emissions for all sources except for the Doe Run Herculaneum facility, which was modeled at zero emissions, since the facility shut down in December 2013.
According to the 2014 SO
As noted earlier, the 2014 SO
The EPA reviewed the August 2016 submittal to determine if the appropriate meteorological inputs were utilized. The state determined that the 2013-2015 meteorological data collected at the Doe Run Herculaneum meteorological sites were inappropriate for use in the model analysis as the data were disjointed. The data were disjointed due to a 2013 Consent Judgment between the state and Doe Run that allowed Doe Run Herculaneum to cease meteorological measurements at certain towers and to move the remaining tower to allow for site remediation. The state elected to use the most recent full three-year period (2013-2015) of data as measured at a spatially representative NWS airport site. The state utilized the St. Louis, Missouri downtown airport (Cahokia) for surface data and the Lincoln, Illinois site for upper air data. The meteorological data from the time period of 2013-2015 was processed and paired with the emissions data as discussed later in this preamble. The EPA believes that the utilization of meteorological data from these sites was appropriate.
The EPA finds that the state sufficiently considered all significant sources of SO
To characterize the emissions from the sources in the modeling inventory, the state used hourly varying emissions, as reported to the EPA's Clean Air Markets Division (CAMD) program database, for three of the fifteen sources, and the 2014 actual emissions, as reported in the Missouri Emission Inventory System (MoEIS), for the remaining twelve sources. For the remaining twelve sources, the state converted the annual emissions to hourly emission rates utilizing operational hours reported by the facilities (as hourly emissions were not available for these twelve sources). The state's November 2016 supplemental information indicated that the state evaluated actual emissions for each year in the three-year period (2013-2015) separately. As can be expected, there were variations in hourly emissions during the modeled time period (2013-2015); emissions from either 2013 or 2015 were slightly higher than the 2014 emissions for six of the twelve sources. As such, in the November 2016 supplemental information, the state revised the modeling to reflect the highest hourly emissions (either reported to CAMD or converted to hourly emission rates by the State) for each interactive source during the three-year period. The variation in emissions resulted in only a 0.02 percent increase on the model-predicted concentrations; the highest modeled impact increased from 172.82 μg/m
The state did not include emissions from Doe Run Herculaneum in the modeling demonstration for any of the 2013-2015 emission years. The state modeled the facility at zero emissions from 2013-2015 even though the facility's primary smelting operation was active during 2013.
As previously described, the state submitted additional information to the EPA in February 2017. In this submittal, the state acknowledged that that emissions data for the 4th quarter of 2016 was not yet available nor quality assured for modeling purposes. Most of the modeled source inventory data will not be available until at least mid-2017. However, the state compared “data elements of 2016” to 2013 to determine whether the 2013 data could serve as a surrogate for 2016 data.
The supplemental information submitted by the state included an examination of variations in meteorology and in modeled source inventory emissions. This included a qualitative climatological comparison between the years 2013 and 2016 for the St. Louis, Missouri downtown airport location and highlighted the similarities and differences observed in those years. The state asserted that the meteorological information indicates that the differences in meteorological conditions from 2013 to 2016 are insignificant.
The state also provided 2016 emissions information, as reported to CAMD, for the three EGUs (Ameren's Labadie, Meramec and Rush Island facilities) and compared them to the modeled 2013 emissions data. Partial data for 2016 (through September 30, 2016) emissions data was provided in CAMD; the state compared available 2016 emissions data (January 1, 2016-September 30, 2016) to 2013 emissions data for these three sources.
While the state's analysis of available 2016 emissions and meteorology data is informative, the EPA interprets that the 2014 SO
The EPA acknowledges the Doe Run Herculaneum facility's primary smelting operation is permanently shut down and recognizes the corresponding relationship between the decrease in the emissions from Doe Run Herculaneum and the decreased monitored concentrations at the Mott Street monitor as seen in table 3. The maximum hourly SO
The maximum modeled impact from the 2013-2015 model scenario is 172.8 μg/m
If this proposed determination is made final, the requirements for the state to submit an attainment demonstration, a reasonable further progress plan, contingency measures, and other planning SIPs revisions related to attainment of the 2010 1-hour primary SO
If, after considering any comments received on this proposal, the EPA finalizes a clean data determination for this area, the state would need to continue to monitor and/or model air quality to verify continued attainment. The air agency would be expected to continue to operate an appropriate air quality monitoring network in the affected area, in accordance with the EPA regulations, to verify the attainment status of the area (see 40 CFR part 58).
This proposed clean data determination is limited to a determination that the area attained the 2010 1-hour primary SO
This action proposes to make a determination based on air quality monitoring data and modeling and would, if finalized, result in the suspension of certain Federal requirements and would not impose any additional requirements. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed action does not apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Sulfur dioxide, attainment determination.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Maine on August 18, 2015. This SIP revision includes Maine's revised regulation for new motor vehicle emission standards. Maine has updated its rule to be consistent with various updates made to California's low emission vehicle (LEV) program. Maine has adopted these revisions to reduce emissions of volatile organic compounds (VOC) and nitrogen oxides (NO
Written comments must be received on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2013-0089 at
Eric Rackauskas, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100 (mail code: OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone number (617) 918-1628, fax number (617) 918-0628, email
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
Organization of this document. The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
On August 18, 2015, the Maine Department of Environmental Protection (DEP) submitted a revision to its SIP consisting of Maine's amended Chapter 127 “New Motor Vehicle Emission Standards.” The regulation establishes motor vehicle emission standards for new gasoline powered passenger cars, light-duty trucks, medium-duty vehicles, as well as for heavy-duty diesel vehicles.
A prior version of Maine's Chapter 127 is currently in the Maine SIP. It was effective in the State of Maine on December 31, 2000 and approved by EPA into the SIP on April 28, 2005 (70 FR 21959). The SIP-approved version of Chapter 127 includes California's LEV I and LEV II standards, effective for model years 1994-2003 and 2004-2010, respectively. It does not include the California zero emission vehicle (ZEV) mandate for Maine.
Since that time, Maine has made several revisions to Chapter 127. The version included in Maine's August 18, 2015 SIP revision includes the following requirements, beyond those previously approved into the SIP. The SIP revision includes California's 2007 heavy-duty diesel engine (HDDE) emission standards. This was phased in from 2007 through 2009, with full compliance required for model year 2010 and subsequent engines. The California regulations were identical to EPA's HDDE rule that requires engines to emit 95% less NO
Maine's revised regulation also includes requirements for diesel fueled auxiliary power units (APUs). APUs are engines, other than the main vehicle engine, that could be used for heating or cooling a sleeper truck, or powering a refrigerator unit while the main vehicle engine is powered down. The amended Chapter 127 allows truck owners to install either a California certified or a Federal Tier 4 certified APU.
Maine's revised rule also includes the California ZEV program. In 2003, the California Air Resources Board (CARB) finalized modifications to the ZEV program that better aligned the requirements with the status of then-available technology development. The updated CARB regulations require that 10% of vehicles be ZEVs starting in
Maine's amended Chapter 127 also reflects changes to California's LEV II program that incorporated motor vehicle greenhouse gas (GHG) emission standards. These standards apply to model year 2009-2016 passenger cars, light-duty trucks, and medium-duty passenger vehicles, and maintain identical standards with California for all vehicle weight classes as required by Section 177 of the CAA. Maine originally adopted the vehicle GHG emission standards as part of their overall goal to reduce GHG emissions to 1990 levels by 2010, with a further reduction of another 10% by 2020.
Additionally, Maine's revised rule includes California's LEV III, updated GHG, and updated ZEV standards and sales requirements. These three items were `packaged' together by California as part of its Advanced Clean Cars (ACC) program. LEV III standards apply to 2015 and subsequent model year vehicles. The LEV III standards will increase the stringency of PM and evaporative emission standards, and reduce the fleet average hydrocarbon and NO
Maine's revised rule also requires that vehicles display an environmental performance label. Furthermore, the rule requires that aftermarket catalytic converters be certified to CARB standards as of June 1, 2018.
CARB adopted the first generation of LEV regulations (LEV I) in 1990, which impacted vehicles through the 2003 model year. CARB adopted California's second generation LEV regulation (LEV II) following a November 1998 hearing. Subsequent to the adoption of the California LEV II program in February 2000, EPA adopted separate Federal standards known as the Tier 2 regulations (February 10, 2000; 65 FR 6698). In December 2000, CARB modified the California LEV II program to take advantage of some elements of the Federal Tier 2 regulations to ensure that only the cleanest vehicle models would continue to be sold in California. EPA granted California a waiver for its LEV II program on April 22, 2003 (68 FR 19811). In 2012, CARB `packaged' the third generation LEV program (LEV III) with updated GHG emission standards and ZEV requirements as part of the ACC program. EPA granted California a waiver for the ACC program on January 9, 2013 (78 FR 2112).
The LEV II and LEV III regulations expanded the scope of LEV I regulations by setting strict fleet-average emission standards for light-duty, medium-duty (including sport utility vehicles) and heavy-duty vehicles. The standards for LEV II began with the 2004 model year and increased in stringency with each vehicle model year. The LEV III standards began in 2015 and continue to increase emission stringency with each progressive vehicle model year through 2025 and beyond.
The manufacturer must show that the overall fleet for a given model year meets the specified phase-in requirements according to the fleet average non-methane hydrocarbon requirement for that year. The fleet average non-methane hydrocarbon emission limits are progressively lower with each model year. The program also requires auto manufacturers to include a “smog index” label on each vehicle sold, which is intended to inform consumers about the amount of pollution produced by that vehicle relative to other vehicles.
In addition to meeting the LEV II and LEV III requirements, large or intermediate volume manufacturers must ensure that a certain percentage of the passenger cars and light-duty trucks that they market in California are ZEVs. This is referred to as the ZEV mandate. California has modified the ZEV mandate several times since it took effect. One modification allowed an alternative compliance program (ACP) to provide auto manufacturers with several options to meet the ZEV mandate. The ACP established ZEV credit multipliers to allow auto manufacturers to take credit for meeting the ZEV mandate by selling more partial ZEVs (PZEVs) and AT PZEVs than they are otherwise required to sell. On December 28, 2006, EPA granted California's request for a waiver of Federal preemption to enforce provisions of the ZEV regulations through 2011 vehicle model year. In a letter dated June 27, 2012, CARB requested that EPA grant a waiver of preemption that allowed updated ZEV regulations as part of the ACC program. These updated ZEV regulations will require manufacturers to produce increasing numbers of ZEVs and plug-in hybrid electric vehicles in 2018 and subsequent years. EPA granted this waiver on January 9, 2013 (78 FR 2112).
On October 15, 2005, California amended its LEV II program to include GHG emission standards for passenger cars, light-duty trucks, and medium-duty passenger vehicles. On December 21, 2005, California requested that EPA grant a waiver of preemption under CAA section 209(b) for its GHG regulations. On June 30, 2009, EPA granted CARB's request for a waiver of CAA preemption to enforce its GHG emission standards for new model year 2009 and later motor vehicles (July 8, 2009; 74 FR 32744-32784). Approval for updated and extended GHG emissions was granted by EPA as part of the January 9, 2013 ACC waiver (78 FR 2112), which includes regulations that incrementally reduce GHG emissions though 2025 and beyond.
Section 209(a) of the CAA prohibits states from adopting or enforcing standards relating to the control of emissions from new motor vehicles or new motor vehicle engines. However, under section 209(b) of the CAA, EPA shall grant a waiver of the section 209(a) prohibition to the State of California if EPA makes specified findings, thereby allowing California to adopt its own motor vehicle emission standards. Furthermore, other states may adopt California's motor vehicle emission standards under section 177 of the CAA.
For additional information regarding California's motor vehicle emission standards and adoption by other states, please see EPA's “California Waivers and Authorizations” Web page at URL address:
The CAA allows California to seek a waiver of the preemption which prohibits states from enacting emission standards for new motor vehicles. EPA must grant this waiver before California's rules may be enforced. When California files a waiver request, EPA publishes a notice for public
According to CAA section 209—State Standards, EPA shall grant a waiver unless the Administrator finds that California:
The most recent EPA waiver relevant to EPA's proposed approval of Maine's LEV program is “California State Motor Vehicle Pollution Control Standards; Notice of Decision Granting a Waiver of Clean Air Act Preemption for California's Advanced Clean Car Program and a Within the Scope confirmation for California's Zero Emissions Vehicle Amendments for 2017 and Earlier Model Years” (January 9, 2013; 78 FR 2112-2145). This final rulemaking allows California to strengthen standards for LEV regulations and GHG emissions from passenger cars, light-duty trucks and medium-duty vehicles. It also allows for continuing ZEV regulations by requiring more ZEV manufacturing and sales through 2025 and subsequent years.
Section 177 of the CAA allows other states to adopt and enforce California's standards for the control of emissions from new motor vehicles, provided that, among other things, such state standards are identical to the California standards for which a waiver has been granted under CAA section 209(b). In addition, the state must adopt such standards at least two years prior to the commencement of the model year to which the standards will apply. EPA issued guidance (CISD-07-16)
The provisions of section 177 of the CAA require Maine to amend the Maine LEV program at such time as the State of California amends its California LEV program. Maine has demonstrated its commitment to maintain a LEV program through the continued adoption of regulatory amendments to Maine's Chapter 127.
In addition, Maine's August 18, 2015 SIP submittal meets the anti-backsliding requirements of section 110(l) of the CAA. This SIP revision sets new requirements, the California LEV III standards, that are more stringent than the California LEV I and LEV II standards previously approved into the Maine SIP, and expands program coverage to model year vehicles not covered by the California LEV I and LEV II standards, and by extension, not previously included in the Maine SIP. Maine's revised Chapter 127 also includes increasingly stringent GHG emissions and LEV sales requirements that are not currently part of the Maine SIP.
EPA is proposing to approve, and incorporate into the Maine SIP, Maine's revised Chapter 127 “New Motor Vehicle Standards,” effective in the State of Maine on May 19, 2015, and submitted to EPA on August 18, 2015. The Maine Vehicle Emission Standards program amendments adopted by Maine include: the California LEV II GHG program beginning with model year 2009; the California LEV III program beginning with the 2015 model year; the updated California GHG emission standards beginning with model year 2017; and the California ZEV provision (updated in 2012). In addition, Maine's amendments include updated HDDE and diesel APU emission regulations, and the requirement that all aftermarket catalytic converters be CARB certified as of June 1, 2018. EPA is proposing to approve Maine's revised Chapter 127 into the Maine SIP because EPA has found that the requirements are consistent with the CAA.
In addition, EPA is proposing to remove 40 CFR 52.1035, which was promulgated on January 24, 1995 (60 FR 4737). This section states that Maine must comply with the requirements of 40 CFR 51.120, which are to implement the Ozone Transport Commission (OTC) LEV program. As noted above, Maine subsequently adopted the California LEV and LEV II program, that was approved by EPA into the SIP on April 28, 2005 (70 FR 21959). Furthermore, this proposed approval of Maine's revised Chapter 127, if finalized, will add the even more stringent California LEV III standards into Maine's SIP. Thus, Maine has satisfied 40 CFR 52.1035, and therefore, EPA is proposing to remove 40 CFR 52.1035 from the CFR. In addition, on March 11, 1997, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit vacated the provisions of 40 CFR. 51.120.
EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this notice or on other relevant matters. These comments will be considered before taking final action. Interested parties may participate in the Federal rulemaking procedure by submitting written comments to this proposed rule by following the instructions listed in the
In this rule, the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference Maine's Chapter 127, “New Motor Vehicle Emission Standards,” effective in the State of Maine on May 19, 2015. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this proposed action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Maryland. This revision pertains to Maryland's administrative procedures for the issuance, denial, and appeal of permits issued by the Maryland Department of the Environment (MDE). This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
Written comments must be received on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0576 at
David Talley, (215) 814-2117, or by email at
On February 22, 2016, the State of Maryland through the MDE formally submitted amendments to Maryland's general administrative provisions related to CAA permitting as a revision to Maryland's SIP.
The CAA's New Source Review (NSR) programs are preconstruction review and permitting programs applicable to new and modified stationary sources of air pollutants regulated under the CAA. The NSR programs of the CAA include a combination of air quality planning and air pollution control technology program requirements. Briefly, section 109 of the CAA requires EPA to promulgate primary national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) to protect public health and secondary NAAQS to protect public welfare. Once EPA sets those standards, states must develop, adopt, and submit to EPA for approval a SIP that contains emissions limitations and other control measures to attain and maintain the NAAQS. Pursuant to section 110, each SIP is required to contain a preconstruction review program for the construction and modification of any stationary source of air pollution to assure that the NAAQS are achieved and maintained; to protect areas of clean air; to protect air quality-related values (such as visibility) in national parks and other areas; to assure that appropriate emissions controls are applied; to maximize opportunities for economic development consistent with the preservation of clean air resources; and, to ensure that any decision to increase air pollution is made only after full public consideration of the consequences of the decision. Section 172 of the CAA requires a permit program in areas which are not attaining the NAAQS, and section 173 provides the specific requirements for that permit program.
MDE's February 22, 2016 SIP submittal consists of revisions to regulations under section 26.11.02 (Permits, Approvals, and Registration) of the Code of Maryland Regulations (COMAR) which EPA has previously approved into the Maryland SIP. The purpose of the revisions is to incorporate amended state statutory requirements
Maryland's SIP revision includes several amended administrative provisions under COMAR 26.11.02 (Permits, Approvals, and Registration). Specifically, 26.11.02.07 (Procedures for Denying, Revoking, or Reopening and Revising a Permit or Approval), 26.11.02.11 (Procedures for Obtaining Permits to Construct Certain Significant Sources), and 26.11.02.12 (Procedures for Obtaining Approvals of PSD Sources and NSR Sources, Certain Permits to Construct, and Case-by-Case MACT Determinations in Accordance with 40 CFR part 63, subpart B) have been revised as follows.
Under the currently approved SIP, COMAR 26.11.02.07, denials and approvals of permits to construct, State operating permits, and State-only enforceable portions of title V operating permits are considered “final actions” subject to judicial review if the permittee did not request a hearing before the OAH and MDE pursuant to the “contested case process.” In MDE's February 22, 2016 SIP submittal, MDE submitted for inclusion in the Maryland SIP a revised version of COMAR 26.11.02.07 which provides for a separate process for denials of permits to construct. Under the revised 26.11.02.07, denials of permits to construct immediately constitute “final determinations” which are subject to direct judicial review (without requiring permittees to seek review through the OAH), pursuant to the revised procedures for major permits in the revised COMAR 26.11.02.11 described below.
MDE's February 22, 2016 SIP submittal also includes a number of revisions MDE made to COMAR 26.11.02.11, which contains the procedures for processing permits to construct for “significant” sources. This section applies to modifications at sources: (a) For which a state operating permit is required; (b) which are subject to new source performance standards (NSPS) at 40 CFR part 60, national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants (NESHAPS) at 40 CFR part 61, or Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) requirements at 40 CFR part 52.21; (c) which, after control, will discharge 25 tons per year or more of a pollutant regulated under Environment Article, Title 2, of the Annotated Code of Maryland; and (d) of lead which will discharge 5 or more tons of elemental lead per year.
EPA's review of MDE's February 22, 2016 SIP submittal finds it consistent with all applicable requirements of the CAA and its implementing regulations. The COMAR public notice requirements meet or exceed the requirements of 40 CFR 51.160 and 51.161. Additionally, the revisions are approvable under section 110 of the CAA (specifically section 110(a)(2)(A) and (C) and section 173 for NSR programs). Under section 110(a)(2)(C), the SIP must include a program to enforce the emission limits and control measures in a state's SIP (as required by section 110(a)(2)(A)) and must also contain a program to regulate modification/construction of sources so that the NAAQS are achieved. Section 173 requires the permits program for nonattainment NSR and requires states to have a SIP with a permit program that ensures sources are required to comply with certain things like stringent emission limitations (
EPA is proposing to approve MDE's February 22, 2016 SIP submittal as a revision to the Maryland SIP as the SIP submittal meets requirements in the CAA under sections 110 and 173. EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this document. These comments will be considered before taking final action.
In this proposed rulemaking, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the MDE rules regarding permit issuance and denial as described in Section II of this preamble. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rule, related to Maryland's administrative processes for preconstruction permitting, does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to amend the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From the Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry. In the “Rules and Regulations” section of this issue of the
Written comments must be received by July 3, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2016-0442, at
Mr. Brian Storey, Sector Policies and Programs Division (D243-04), Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina, 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-1103; fax number: (919) 541-5450; and email address:
This document proposes to take action on amendments to the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Pollutants From the Portland Cement Manufacturing Industry. We have published a direct final rule to amend 40 CFR part 63, subpart LLL, by revising the testing and monitoring requirements for HCl in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this issue of the
If we receive no adverse comment, we will not take further action on this proposed rule. If we receive adverse comment on a distinct portion of the direct final rule, we will withdraw that portion of the rule and it will not take effect. In this instance, we would address all public comments in any subsequent final rule based on this proposed rule.
If we receive adverse comment on a distinct provision of the direct final rule, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
The regulatory text for this proposal is identical to that for the direct final rule published in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this issue of the
Categories and entities potentially regulated by this proposed rule include:
This table is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be regulated by this proposed rule. To determine whether your facility is affected, you should examine the applicability criteria in 40 CFR 63.1340. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of any aspect of this action to a particular entity, consult either the air permitting authority for the entity or your EPA Regional representative as listed in 40 CFR 63.13.
For a complete discussion of the administrative requirements applicable to this action, see the direct final rule in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this issue of the
U.S. Agency for International Development.
Proposed rule; withdrawal.
The U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID) has decided not to implement the Agency Warrant Program for individual Cooperating Country National Personal Services Contractors and is therefore withdrawing the August 19, 2016 proposed rule amending the Agency for International Development Acquisition Regulation (AIDAR) to incorporate this warrant program into the regulation.
USAID is withdrawing the proposed rule published on August 19, 2016 (81 FR 55405) as of June 23, 2017.
Lyudmila Bond, Telephone: 202-567-4753 or Email:
On August 19, 2016 USAID published a proposed rule at 81 FR 55405 revising the Agency for International Development Acquisition Regulation (AIDAR) to incorporate USAID Cooperating Country National Warrant Program into the regulation. The warrant program was intended to address a shortage of U.S. direct-hire contracting officers by delegating limited contracting officer authorities to a select number of Cooperating Country National Personal Services Contractors.
The purpose of this rule withdrawal is to inform the public that USAID will not be publishing a final rule to implement this warrant program.
Surface Transportation Board.
Announcement of Regulatory Reform Task Force listening session.
Notice is hereby given of a listening session for the Regulatory Reform Task Force (RRTF).
The listening session will be held on Tuesday, July 25, 2017, at 10 a.m. E.D.T.
The listening session will be held in the Hearing Room on the first floor of the Board's headquarters at 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423.
Rachel D. Campbell (202) 245-0357;
The RRTF was established to comply with the spirit of Exec. Order No. 13,777, 82 FR 12285 (Mar. 1, 2017), and to move forward ongoing agency regulatory and process review initiatives. The RRTF's mission is to identify rules and practices that are burdensome, unnecessary, or outdated, and to recommend how they should be addressed. On May 25, 2017, the RRFT submitted its first status report, which is available for viewing on the Board's Web site at
For that reason, the RRTF will hold a listening session that will be open to the public. Members of the RRTF will be present at the listening session, which will be on the record with a transcript prepared. The RRTF will release the transcript following the listening session. Interested persons not able to attend may provide written comments by July 25, 2017. Written comments should reference Docket No. EP 738, and should be addressed to: Regulatory Reform Task Force, Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423-0001. Submitted comments will become part of the record.
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Office of Tribal Relations, USDA.
Notice of public meeting.
This notice announces a forthcoming meeting of The Council for Native American Farming and Ranching (CNAFR), a public advisory committee of the Office of Tribal Relations (OTR). Notice of the meetings are provided in accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended. This will be the second meeting held during fiscal year 2017 and will consist of, but not be limited to: Hearing public comments, update of USDA programs and activities, and discussion of committee priorities. This meeting will be open to the public.
The meeting will be held on July 20-21, 2017. The meeting will be open to the public on both days with time set aside for public comment on July 20 at approximately 2:00-4:00 p.m. The OTR will make the agenda available to the public via the OTR Web site (
The meeting will be held in Carnall Hall's “The Classroom” at the University of Arkansas, 465 N. Arkansas Ave., Fayetteville, AR 72701. Written comments may be submitted to the CNAFR Contact Person: Abby Cruz, Designated Federal Officer and Senior Policy Advisor for the Office of Tribal Relations, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Whitten Bldg., 501-A, Washington, DC 20250; by Fax: (202) 720-1058; or by email:
Questions should be directed to the CNAFR Contact Person: Abby Cruz, Designated Federal Officer and Senior Policy Advisor for the Office of Tribal Relations, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Whitten Bldg., 501-A, Washington, DC 20250; by Fax: (202) 720-1058; or by email:
In accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended (5 U.S.C. App. 2), USDA established an advisory council for Native American farmers and ranchers. The CNAFR is a discretionary advisory committee established under the authority of the Secretary of Agriculture, in furtherance of the
The CNAFR will operate under the provisions of the FACA and report to the Secretary of Agriculture. The purpose of the CNAFR is (1) to advise the Secretary of Agriculture on issues related to the participation of Native American farmers and ranchers in USDA programs; (2) to transmit recommendations concerning any changes to USDA regulations or internal guidance or other measures that would eliminate barriers to program participation for Native American farmers and ranchers; (3) to examine methods of maximizing the number of new farming and ranching opportunities created by USDA programs through enhanced extension and financial literacy services; (4) to examine methods of encouraging intergovernmental cooperation to mitigate the effects of land tenure and probate issues on the delivery of USDA programs; (5) to evaluate other methods of creating new farming or ranching opportunities for Native American producers; and (6) to address other related issues as deemed appropriate.
The Secretary of Agriculture selected a diverse group of members representing a broad spectrum of persons interested in providing solutions to the challenges of the aforementioned purposes. Equal opportunity practices were considered in all appointments to the CNAFR in accordance with USDA policies. The Secretary selected the members in December 2016.
Interested persons may present views, orally or in writing, on issues relating to agenda topics before the CNAFR. Written submissions may be submitted to the CNAFR Contact Person on or before July 14, 2017. Oral presentations from the public will be heard approximately 2:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. on July 20, 2017. Individuals interested in making formal oral presentations should also notify the CNAFR Contact Person and submit a brief statement of the general nature of the issue they wish to present and the names, tribal affiliations, and addresses of proposed participants by July 14, 2017. All oral presentations will be given three (3) to five (5) minutes depending on the number of participants.
The OTR will also make the agenda available to the public via the OTR Web site (
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated,
Comments regarding this information collection received by July 24, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Natural Resources Conservation Service (NRCS), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).
Notice of availability of proposed changes to the National Handbook of Conservation Practices for public review and comment.
Notice is hereby given of the intention of NRCS to issue a series of revised conservation practice standards in the National Handbook of Conservation Practices. These standards include: Anaerobic Digester (Code 366), Contour Farming (Code 330), Crosswind Ridges (Code 588), Dam (Code 402), Mulching (Code 484), Pond Sealing or Lining—Geomembrane or Geosynthetic Clay Liner (Code 521), Stream Crossing (Code 578), Strip-Cropping (Code 585), Structure for Water Control (Code 587), Water and Sediment Control Basin (Code 638), Waste Recycling (Code 633), Waste Treatment Lagoon (Code 359). NRCS State Conservationists who choose to adopt these practices for use within their States will incorporate them into section IV of their respective electronic Field Office Technical Guide. These practices may be used in conservation systems that treat highly erodible land (HEL) or on land determined to be a wetland. Section 343 of the Federal Agriculture Improvement and Reform Act of 1996 requires NRCS to make available for public review and comment all proposed revisions to conservation practice standards used to carry out HEL and wetland provisions of the law.
Comments should be submitted, identified by Docket Number NRCS-2017-0001, using any of the following methods:
•
•
NRCS will post all comments on
Bill Reck, National Environmental Engineer, Conservation Engineering Division, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Natural Resources Conservation Service, 1400 Independence Avenue Southwest, South Building, Room 6136, Washington, DC 20250.
Electronic copies of the proposed revised standards are available through
The amount of the proposed changes varies considerably for each of the conservation practice standards addressed in this notice. To fully understand the proposed changes, individuals are encouraged to compare these changes with each standard's current version as shown at
Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Kansas Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold meetings on Friday, July 28, 2017,
These meetings will take place on Friday, July 28, 2017,
Melissa Wojnaroski, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to these discussions. These meetings are available to the public through the above call in numbers. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Regional Programs Unit, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 55 W. Monroe St., Suite 410, Chicago, IL 60615. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324, or emailed to Corrine Sanders at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
United States Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of Commission Telephonic Business Meeting.
Thursday, June 29, 2017, at 12:00 p.m. EST.
Meeting to take place by telephone.
Brian Walch, (202) 376-8371,
This business meeting is open to the public by telephone only. Participant Access Instructions: Dial in 5-10 minutes prior to the start time using the phone number and Conference Passcode below.
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First Responder Network Authority, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The First Responder Network Authority (FirstNet) publishes this notice to request comments on proposed revisions to its procedures for implementing the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), categorical exclusions, and related extraordinary circumstances. Pursuant to Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations, FirstNet is soliciting comments on its proposed revisions to its NEPA implementing procedures from members of the interested public. Additionally, in this notice, FirstNet is providing a synopsis of the proposed changes to its NEPA implementing procedures and categorical exclusions to assist the public in reviewing those changes.
Comments due on or before July 24, 2017.
The public is invited to submit written comments to FirstNet's proposed revisions to its NEPA implementing procedures, categorical exclusions, and related extraordinary circumstances. Written comments may
Eli Veenendaal, First Responder Network Authority, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 3122 Sterling Circle, Suite 100 Boulder, CO 80301 or
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321
Further, NEPA and the CEQ implementing regulations provide for environmental review of a proposed government action in the form of a Categorical Exclusion (CE), Environmental Assessment (EA), or Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). A CE is “a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment,” and does not require further NEPA review in the form of either an EA or EIS.
The Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012 (Pub. L. 112-96, Title VI, 126 Stat. 156 (codified at 47 U.S.C. 1401
To help facilitate FirstNet's mission, the Act requires the Federal Communications Commission (“FCC”) to reallocate and grant a license to FirstNet for the use of the 700MHz D block spectrum and existing public safety broadband spectrum.
On April 28, 2014, FirstNet, as a newly created federal entity, published a notice in the
As it has continued to mature as an organization, FirstNet, as mentioned above, has identified the need to modify its NEPA implementing procedures, CEs, and related extraordinary
Generally, FirstNet's proposed revisions include: (1) Updates to the process for determining and documenting categorically excluded activities; (2) the addition of criteria that may trigger the need for the development of an EA; (3) modifications necessary to account for FirstNet's changes in organizational structure and internal policies and procedures; (4) modifications to the definition and role of an Applicant in the environmental review process; and (5) the establishment of two new CEs and updates to its extraordinary circumstances. A synopsis of proposed changes is listed below and a full version of the revised implementing procedures and administrative record supporting the establishment of two new CEs is available at
FirstNet is seeking to modify its implementing procedures to reflect organizational changes that have occurred since the publishing of its existing procedures. Primary changes include: (1) Renaming the General Manager to Chief Executive Officer (CEO); (2) clarifying the roles of the Director of Environmental Compliance and/or NEPA Coordinator, the Office of Chief Counsel, and an Applicant; (3) updating the procedures from a Directive to a Policy; (4) the addition, removal, and updates to legal authorities used or cited throughout the policy; and (5) corrections to any minor clerical errors.
FirstNet proposes moving the “Definition” section from Appendix B to the body of the policy and adding references to applicable definitions from the FCC regulations. FirstNet is also seeking to modify the term “Applicant” to mean “any person, entity, or Federal, state, tribal, or territorial government body that seeks to take an action related to the NPSBN or an action that is otherwise under the direct control and responsibility of FirstNet, including, but not limited to, actions that occur under any type of agreement related to the use of the spectrum licensed to FirstNet under station license call sign WQQE234, or actions requiring the approval of or funding provided by FirstNet.”
FirstNet is seeking to amend the process for applying and documenting CEs by removing and replacing all of the section entitled “General Requirements for Categorical Exclusions” with the following language:
“CEs are categories of actions that FirstNet has found, based on past experience with similar actions, do not individually or cumulatively have significant environmental impacts and normally do not require any further NEPA review. FirstNet actions, including those of Applicants, that fit the description of actions in Appendix B, Categorical Exclusions, and where no extraordinary circumstances exist, are categorically excluded from further environmental review. The approved list of FirstNet actions that normally qualify for a CE are only those listed in Appendix B, Categorical Exclusions. A CE may be applied to a proposed action in accordance with the following requirements:
(a) FirstNet shall not be required to, but may at its discretion, document its determination that a CE applies to a proposed action.
(b) Documentation prepared by an Applicant to demonstrate that an action qualifies for a CE shall be provided for FirstNet's independent review and evaluation.
(c) Any action that normally would be classified as a CE but would involve any of the extraordinary circumstances identified in Appendix C shall require FirstNet, in cooperation with the Applicant, to conduct and document the appropriate environmental analysis to determine if the action warrants a CE or if the preparation of an EA or EIS is required.
(d) Extraordinary circumstances that, if present, may result in a potentially significant environmental effect are listed in Appendix C.
(e) The list of approved FirstNet CEs is subject to continual review and can be modified by amending/revising this policy, in consultation with CEQ.
(f) The use of a CE does not relieve FirstNet or an Applicant of obligations to comply with other statutes or required consultations, such as under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531
FirstNet is seeking to amend the requirements for determining the necessity of preparing an EA. Primary changes include adding criteria to account for existing FCC environmental regulatory requirements, removing overlapping or redundant language, and adding criteria for conducting tiered environmental reviews. Accordingly, FirstNet proposes removing and replacing all of the section entitled “General Requirements for Environmental Assessments” with the following language:
“FirstNet or an Applicant shall prepare an EA, as defined in 40 CFR 1508.9, for a proposed action that FirstNet determines may have significant environmental impacts. Actions normally requiring an EA include those:
(a) That fall within the scope of actions described in 47 CFR 1.1307(a);
(b) Where a particular facility, operation, or transmitter would cause human exposure to levels of radiofrequency radiation in excess of applicable health and safety guidelines found in 47 CFR 1.1307(b);
(c) That involve the construction or modification of certain antenna structures over 450 feet in height that are subject to the FCC's antenna structure registration rules in 47 CFR part 17;
(d) That have an adverse effect on a historic property so as to require an EA under 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(4); and
(e) That meet categorical exclusion criteria, but for which extraordinary circumstances are present, requiring further environmental analysis and potentially the preparation of an EA to determine if there are significant impacts associated with the action.”
FirstNet is proposing to move portions of the section “General Requirements for Environmental Assessments” to a new section entitled, “Environmental Assessment Development Process.” Primary changes include removing overlapping or redundant language, and adding criteria for conducting tiered environmental reviews. Accordingly, FirstNet proposes removing the section entitled “Environmental Assessment Development Process” to include the following language:
“FirstNet or an Applicant shall develop an EA in accordance with the following process and requirements.
(a) The FirstNet CEO or delegate can decide to prepare an EA as a planning tool to inform decision makers of the environmental impacts of a proposed action.
(b) FirstNet or an Applicant, in preparing an EA, shall ensure, at minimum, the contents of the EA: (1) comply with the requirements of 40 CFR 1508.9; (2) include the information specified in 47 CFR 1.1311; (3) explain the environmental consequences of the proposed action; and (4) set forth sufficient analysis for FirstNet to determine the potential impacts associated with the proposed action.
(c) If FirstNet determines, based on an independent review, that the proposed action will not have a significant impact, FirstNet may issue a FONSI as described in 40 CFR 1508.13.
(d) If, after review of the EA, FirstNet determines that the proposed action may have a significant environmental impact, FirstNet, in coordination with the Applicant, may amend the action described in the EA to avoid, minimize, or mitigate the potential environmental impacts.
(e) If actions cannot be taken to avoid, minimize, or mitigate the potential environmental impacts and FirstNet determines that the proposed action will have a significant environmental impact, FirstNet, in coordination with the Applicant, shall proceed with the preparation of an EIS.
(f) Rather than preparing a single EA or EIS as a basis for approving an entire project, FirstNet, as necessary, may conduct one or more rounds or “tiers” of environmental reviews. These tiered reviews may cover general matters in a broader EA or EIS (
FirstNet is proposing to remove extraneous and duplicative language from the body of the implementing procedures as this language is already cited in E.O. 12898, “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations” which is referenced in this section.
FirstNet is seeking to amend the section entitled “Environmental Determinations and Final Decisions” related to CEs by removing language that conflicts with the proposed changes to the application of CEs. Accordingly, FirstNet proposes removing and replacing the existing language with the following:
“(a) Categorical Exclusion (CE)
1. FirstNet or Applicant actions that fall within a CE and where no extraordinary circumstances exist do not require any further NEPA review.
2. If a proposed action is determined to fall within a CE, FirstNet shall not be required to, but may at its discretion, document its determination that a CE applies to a proposed action, unless extraordinary circumstances exist.”
FirstNet proposes to remove and replace its existing list of extraordinary circumstances with the criteria established by the FCC regulations that require the development of an EA. Accordingly, the current list of extraordinary circumstances will be removed and replaced with the following:
“The following extraordinary circumstances or First Responder Network Authority (FirstNet) actions with respect to the following types of facilities may significantly affect the environment and may require further environmental review and the preparation of an Environmental Assessment (EA):
1. Facilities that are to be located in an officially designated wilderness area.
2. Facilities that are to be located in an officially designated wildlife preserve.
3. Facilities that: (i) May affect listed threatened or endangered species or designated critical habitats; or (ii) are likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any proposed endangered or threatened species or likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of proposed critical habitats, as determined by the Secretary of the Interior pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531).
4. Facilities that may affect prehistoric or historic districts, sites, buildings, structures, or objects that are significant in American history, architecture, archeology, engineering, or culture and that are listed, or are eligible for listing, in the National Register of Historic Places (
a. The mounting of antennas
i. All antennas that are part of the deployment fit within enclosures (or if the antennas are exposed, within imaginary enclosures) that are individually no more than three (3) cubic feet in volume, and all antennas on the structure, including any pre-existing antennas on the structure, fit within enclosures (or if the antennas are exposed, within imaginary enclosures) that total no more than six (6) cubic feet in volume;
ii. All other wireless equipment associated with the structure, including pre-existing enclosures and including equipment on the ground associated with antennas on the structure, are cumulatively no more than 17 cubic feet in volume, exclusive of:
1. Vertical cable runs for the connection of power and other services;
2. Ancillary equipment installed by other entities that is outside of the Applicant's ownership or control, and
3. Comparable equipment from pre-existing wireless deployments on the structure;
iii. The deployment will involve no new ground disturbance; and
iv. The deployment would otherwise require the preparation of an EA under 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(4) solely because of the age of the structure.
b. The mounting of antennas (including associated equipment such as wiring, cabling, cabinets, or backup-power) on buildings or other non-tower structures where the deployment meets the following conditions:
i. There is an existing antenna on the building or structure;
ii. One of the following criteria is met:
1.
2.
a. It is a replacement for a pre-existing antenna;
b. The new antenna will be located in the same vicinity as the pre-existing antenna,
c. The new antenna will be visible only from adjacent streets and surrounding public spaces that also afford views of the pre-existing antenna,
d. The new antenna is not more than three (3) feet larger in height or width (including all protuberances) than the pre-existing antenna; and
e. No new equipment cabinets are visible from the adjacent streets or surrounding public spaces; or
3.
a. It is located in the same vicinity as a pre-existing antenna;
b. The new antenna is visible only from adjacent streets and surrounding public spaces that also afford views of the pre-existing antenna;
c. The pre-existing antenna was not deployed pursuant to the exclusion in this subsection (47 CFR 1.1307(a)(4)(ii)(B)(2)(iii));
d. The new antenna is not more than three (3) feet larger in height or width (including all protuberances) than the pre-existing antenna; and
e. No new equipment cabinets are visible from the adjacent streets or surrounding public spaces;
c. The new antenna complies with all zoning conditions and historic preservation conditions applicable to existing antennas in the same vicinity that directly mitigate or prevent effects, such as camouflage or concealment requirements;
d. The deployment of the new antenna involves no new ground disturbance; and
e. The deployment would otherwise require the preparation of an EA under 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(4) solely because of the age of the structure.
5. Facilities that may affect tribal religious sites.
6. Facilities to be located in a floodplain (See Executive Order [E.O.] 11988, Floodplain Management, as amended).
7. Facilities whose construction will involve significant change in surface features (
8. Antenna towers and/or supporting structures that are to be equipped with high intensity white lights and located in residential neighborhoods, as defined by the applicable zoning law.
9. FirstNet actions granting permits or leases, or renewals thereof, or equipment authorizations or modifications in existing facilities require the preparation of an EA, subject to the specific conditions specified in 47 CFR 1.1307(b), if the particular facility, operation, or transmitter would cause human exposure levels of radio frequency radiation in excess of the limits described in 47 CFR 1.1310 and 2.1093.
10. If an interested person alleges that a particular action, otherwise categorically excluded, may have a significant environmental effect, the person shall submit to FirstNet a written petition setting forth in detail the reasons justifying or circumstances necessitating environmental consideration in the decision-making process. FirstNet shall review the petition and consider the environmental concerns that have been raised. If FirstNet determines that the action may have a significant environmental impact, FirstNet will require the Applicant to prepare an EA, which will serve as the basis for the determination to proceed with or terminate environmental processing.
11. FirstNet shall require an EA for an otherwise categorically excluded action involving a new or existing antenna structure, for which an antenna structure registration application (Federal Communications Commission [FCC] Form 854) is required under 47 CFR part 17, if the proposed antenna structure will be over 450 feet in height above ground level and involves either:
a. Construction of a new antenna structure;
b. Modification or replacement of an existing antenna structure involving a substantial increase in size as defined in 47 CFR (C)(1)(3) of Appendix B to Part 1, Nationwide Programmatic Agreement for Collocations of Wireless Antennas; or
c. Addition of lighting or adoption of a less preferred lighting style as defined in 47 CFR 17.4(c)(1)(iii) of this chapter. FirstNet shall consider whether to require an EA for other antenna structures subject to 47 CFR 17.4(c) of this chapter in accordance with 47 CFR 17.4(c)(8). An EA required pursuant to this note will be subject to the same procedures that apply to any EA required for a proposed tower or modification of an existing tower for which an antenna structure registration application (FCC Form 854) is required, as set forth in 47 CFR 17.4(c).
12. If FirstNet is responsible for processing a particular action otherwise categorically excluded, and determines that the proposal may have a significant environmental impact, FirstNet on its own motion, shall require the Applicant to submit an EA.”
FirstNet, as discussed above, has a statutory mission to ensure the establishment of the NPSBN. As an FCC licensee, FirstNet actions related to network deployment will be the same activities as those undertaken by other FCC licensees and will be subject to the same FCC environmental review process. Thus, as federal entities, both FirstNet and the FCC are subject to the same NEPA requirements and will be performing a review of the same activities. Consequently, FirstNet, in an effort to establish a more efficient environmental review process, is seeking to more closely align its CEs with those of the FCC. More specifically, as described below, FirstNet's proposed CE B-1 relies upon the FCC CE, as listed in 47 CFR 1.1306, as a benchmark for establishing the updated FirstNet CE B-1. In addition to proposed CE B-1, FirstNet is seeking to establish a CE B-15 that will account for the use of cells on wheels, systems on wheels, and similar network equipment.
FirstNet has carefully reviewed the Administrative Record for the proposed CEs to ensure it fulfills the goal of balancing increased administrative efficiency in NEPA compliance with avoidance of misinterpretations and
The following is a summary of the proposed revisions to the CEs that may be applied to actions related to the deployment of the NPSBN to which NEPA applies. Key proposed changes include: (1) Reorganizing CEs into two separate groups (
[A.1.] “The issuance of bulletins and information publications that do not concern environmental matters or substantial facility design, construction, or maintenance practices.”
FirstNet does not propose any change to this existing CE.
[A.2.] “Procurement activities related to the day-to-day operation of FirstNet, including routine procurement of goods or services.”
FirstNet does not propose any change to this existing CE.
[A.3.] “Personnel and Administrative Actions.”
FirstNet does not propose any change to this existing CE.
[A.4.] “Purchase or lease of existing facilities or a portion thereof where use or operation will remain unchanged.”
FirstNet does not propose any change to this existing CE.
[B.1.] “Actions related to network deployment that are subject to and satisfy the environmental requirements established under 47 CFR 1.1306 as described below:
(a) Except as provided in 47 CFR 1.1307 (c) and (d), FirstNet's actions not covered by 47 CFR 1.1307 (a) and (b) are deemed individually and cumulatively to have no significant effect on the quality of the human environment and are categorically excluded from environmental processing.
(b) Specifically, any FirstNet action with respect to any new application, or minor or major modifications of existing or authorized facilities or equipment, will be categorically excluded, provided such proposals do not:
(1) Involve a site location specified under 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(1)-(7).
(2) Involve high intensity lighting under 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(8).
(3) Result in human exposure to radio frequency radiation in excess of the applicable safety standards specified in 47 CFR 1.1307(b).
(c) Any FirstNet action with respect to any new application, or minor or major modifications of existing or authorized facilities or equipment, will be categorically excluded, subject to the following:
(1) Unless 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(4) is applicable, the provisions of 47 CFR 1.1307(a) requiring the preparation of Environmental Assessments (EAs) do not encompass the construction of wireless facilities, including deployments on new or replacement poles, if:
(i) The facilities will be located in a right-of-way that is designated by a Federal, State, local, or tribal government for communications towers, above-ground utility transmission or distribution lines, or any associated structures and equipment;
(ii) The right-of-way is in active use for such designated purposes; and
(iii) The facilities would not:
(A) Increase the height of the tower or non-tower structure by more than 10 percent or 20 feet, whichever is greater, over existing support structures that are located in the right-of-way within the vicinity of the proposed construction;
(B) Involve the installation of more than four new equipment cabinets or more than one new equipment shelter;
(C) Add an appurtenance to the body of the structure that would protrude from the edge of the structure more than 20 feet, or more than the width of the structure at the level of the appurtenance, whichever is greater (except that the deployment may exceed this size limit if necessary to shelter the antenna from inclement weather or to connect the antenna to the tower via cable); or
(D) Involve excavation outside the current site, defined as the area that is within the boundaries of the leased or owned property surrounding the deployment or that is in proximity to the structure and within the boundaries of the utility easement on which the facility is to be deployed, whichever is more restrictive.
(2) Such wireless facilities are subject to 47 CFR 1.1307(b) and require EAs if their construction would result in human exposure to radiofrequency radiation in excess of the applicable health and safety guidelines cited in 47 CFR 1.1307(b).
(d) The provisions of 47 CFR 1.1307(a) requiring the preparation of EAs do not encompass the mounting of antenna(s) and associated equipment (such as wiring, cabling, cabinets, or backup-power), on or in an existing building, or on an antenna tower or other man-made structure, unless 47 CFR 1.1307(a)(4) is applicable. Such antennas are subject to 47 CFR 1.1307(b) and require EAs if their construction would result in human exposure to radiofrequency radiation in excess of the applicable health and safety guidelines cited in 47 CFR 1.1307(b). The provisions of 47 CFR 1.1307(a) and (b) do not encompass the installation of aerial wire or cable over existing aerial corridors of prior or permitted use or the underground installation of wire or cable along existing underground corridors of prior or permitted use, established by the Applicant or others. The use of existing buildings, towers, or corridors is an environmentally desirable alternative to the construction of new facilities and is encouraged. The provisions of 47 CFR 1.1307(a) and (b) do not encompass the construction of new submarine cable systems.
(e) The specific height of an antenna tower or supporting structure, as well as the specific diameter of a satellite Earth station, in and of itself, will not be deemed sufficient to warrant
(f) The construction of an antenna tower or supporting structure in an established “antenna farm” (
FirstNet proposes to establish this CE to better align its existing environmental review process with the FCC's rules for environmental review that FirstNet must comply with as a licensee of the FCC. Further, the establishment of this CE ensures that FirstNet takes appropriate measures to protect environmental and historic resources when conducting tower and antenna siting activities (
[B.2.] “Internal modifications or equipment additions (
This CE was formerly classified as A-5 but has been reclassified as B-5. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.3] “Construction of buried and aerial telecommunications lines, cables, and related facilities.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-6 but has been reclassified as B-3. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.4.] “Changes to existing transmission lines that involve less than 20 percent pole replacement, or the complete rebuilding of existing distribution lines within the same right of way. Changes to existing transmission lines that require 20 percent or greater pole replacement will be considered the same as new construction.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-9 but has been reclassified as B-5. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.5.] “Changes or additions to existing substations, switching stations, telecommunications switching or multiplexing centers, or external changes to buildings or small structures requiring one acre (0.4 hectare) or more but no more than five acres (2 hectares) of new physically disturbed land or fenced property.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-10 but has been reclassified as B-5. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.6.] “Construction of substations, switching stations, or telecommunications switching or multiplexing centers requiring no more than five acres (2 hectares) of new physically disturbed land or fenced property.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-11 but has been reclassified as B-6. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.7.] “Changes or additions to telecommunication sites, substations, switching stations, telecommunications switching or multiplexing centers, buildings, or small structures requiring new physical disturbance or fencing of less than one acre (0.4 hectare).”
This CE was formerly classified as A-12 but has been reclassified as B-7. Further, FirstNet proposes to remove the term “wireless” from the CE as such activities related to wireless facilities fall within the scope of proposed CE B-1.
[B.8.] “Ordinary maintenance or replacement of equipment or small structures (
This CE was formerly classified as A-13 but has been reclassified as B-8. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.9.] “The construction of telecommunications facilities within the fenced area of an existing substation, switching station, or within the boundaries of an existing electric generating facility site.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-14 but has been reclassified as B-9. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.10.] “Testing or monitoring work (
This CE was formerly classified as A-15 but has been reclassified as B-10. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.11.] “Studies and engineering undertaken to define proposed actions or alternatives sufficiently so that environmental effects can be assessed.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-16 but has been reclassified as B-11. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.12.] “Rebuilding of power lines or telecommunications cables where road or highway reconstruction requires the Applicant to relocate the lines either within or adjacent to the new road or highway easement or right-of-way.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-17 but has been reclassified as B-12. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.13.] “Phase or voltage conversions, reconductoring or upgrading of existing electric distribution lines, or telecommunication facilities.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-18 but has been reclassified as B-13. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.14.] “Construction of standby diesel electric generators (one megawatt or less total capacity) and associated facilities, for the primary purpose of providing emergency power, at an existing Applicant headquarters or district office, telecommunications switching or multiplexing site, or at an industrial, commercial, or agricultural facility served by the Applicant.”
This CE was formerly classified as A-19 but has been reclassified as B-14. No other changes to this CE have been proposed.
[B.15.] “Deployment of Cells on Wheels, Systems on Wheels, or other deployable architecture intended for temporary placement (no more than two years) on an impervious surface.”
FirstNet proposes to establish this CE to account for activities related to the use of deployable or similar equipment. This CE is supported by long-standing CEs and administrative records. In particular, these include exclusions from the U.S. Department of Homeland Security and U.S. Army.
The Charlotte Regional Partnership, Inc., grantee of FTZ 57, submitted a
DNP already has authority to slit foreign jumbo rolls of thermal transfer ribbons, dye sublimation transfer ribbon (STR), and assemble STR photo printer components (including photo printer packages—printer cartridges and paper) within Subzone 57C. DNP's new activity would add foreign status coatings and lamination to semi-completed coated paper to the scope of authority. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), additional FTZ authority would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials/components described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt DNP from customs duty payments on the foreign-status materials/components used in export production. On its domestic sales, DNP would be able to choose the duty rate during customs entry procedures that applies to the finished products in the existing scope of authority for the foreign-status materials/components noted below. Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment.
The materials/components sourced from abroad include: Polyurethane composed of urethane resin, m-xylylene diisocyanate and ethyl acetate; catalyst for sealant and adhesive formulation; polyurethane resin; binding agent for polyurethane coatings; propylene film; coated wood-free paper; chemical reaction initiators; components of printing ink; plastic film; chemical binders; and, resin—binder used in ink (duty rate ranges from free to 6.5%)
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is August 2, 2017.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Christopher Wedderburn at
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Sacramento-Yolo Port District, grantee of FTZ 143, requesting expanded subzone status for the facilities of Mitsubishi Chemical Carbon Fiber and Composites, Inc., located in Sacramento, California. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on June 1, 2017.
Subzone 143D consists of the following sites in Sacramento:
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Christopher Kemp of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is August 2, 2017. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to August 17, 2017.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Christopher Kemp at
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Charlotte Regional Partnership, Inc., grantee of FTZ 57, requesting export-only production authority on behalf of Gildan Yarns, LLC (Gildan), located in Salisbury, North Carolina. The application conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.23) was docketed on June 16, 2017.
The Gildan facility (400 employees, 104 acres) is located within Site 19 of FTZ 57. The facility is used to produce spun cotton and cotton/polyester yarns for export. Production under FTZ procedures could exempt Gildan from customs duty payments on the foreign component used in export production. The sole foreign-origin material (representing 10% of the value of the finished product) to be used in the export production is polyester staple fiber (duty rate 4.3%). Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment. The request indicates that the savings from FTZ procedures would help improve the plant's international competitiveness.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Elizabeth Whiteman of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is August 22, 2017. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Elizabeth Whiteman at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that certain hardwood plywood products (hardwood plywood) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is April 1, 2016, through September 30, 2016.
Effective June 23, 2017.
Amanda Brings or Ryan Mullen, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3927 or (202) 482-5260, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The Department published the notice of initiation of this investigation on December 16, 2016.
The product covered by this investigation is hardwood plywood from the PRC. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. The Department calculated export prices in accordance with section 772(a) of the Act. Because the PRC is a non-market economy, within the meaning of section 771(18) of the Act, the Department calculated normal value (NV) in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act. In addition, pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, the Department preliminarily relied upon facts otherwise available, with adverse inferences, for Shandong Dongfang Bayley Wood Co., Ltd. (Bayley), certain separate rate applicants, and the PRC-wide entity. As the Department preliminarily determined that Bayley is not entitled to a separate rate, the company is included within the PRC-wide entity. For a full description of the methodology underlying the Department's preliminary determination,
In accordance with section 733(e) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, the Department preliminarily determines that critical circumstances exist with respect to imports of hardwood plywood from the PRC for certain separate rate respondents and the PRC-wide entity (of which Bayley and certain separate rate respondents are a part), but do not exist for Linyi Chengen Import and Export Co., Ltd. and certain separate rate respondents. For a full description of the methodology and results of the Department's critical circumstances analysis,
In the
The Department preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
Consistent with section 733(b)(3) of the Act, the Department disregards
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, the Department will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation section entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Because the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for the Linyi Dongfangjuxin Wood Co., Ltd./Linyi Chengen Import and Export Co., Ltd. combination is zero or
Should the final estimated weighted-average dumping margin be zero or
Section 733(e)(2) of the Act provides that, given an affirmative determination of critical circumstances, any suspension of liquidation shall apply to unliquidated entries of merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the later of (a) the date which is 90 days before the date on which the suspension of liquidation was first ordered, or (b) the date on which notice of initiation of the investigation was published. The Department preliminarily finds that critical circumstances exist for imports of subject merchandise from the PRC-wide entity, as discussed above.
In accordance with section 733(e)(2)(A) of the Act, the suspension of liquidation shall apply to all unliquidated entries of merchandise from the producer/exporter combinations identified in this paragraph that were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date which is 90 days before the publication of this notice.
To determine the cash deposit rate, the Department normally adjusts the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the amount of domestic subsidy pass-through and export subsidies determined in a companion CVD proceeding when CVD provisional measures are in effect. Accordingly, where the Department has made a preliminary affirmative determination for domestic subsidy pass-through or export subsidies, the Department has offset the calculated estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the appropriate rate(s). Any such adjusted rates may be found in the Preliminary Determination Section's chart of estimated weighted-average dumping margins above.
Should provisional measures in the companion CVD investigation expire prior to the expiration of provisional measures in this LTFV investigation, the Department will direct CBP to begin collecting cash deposits at a rate equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margins calculated in this preliminary determination unadjusted for the passed-through domestic subsidies or for export subsidies at the time the CVD provisional measures expire.
These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.
The Department intends to disclose to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, the Department intends to verify information provided by mandatory respondent Linyi Chengen Import and Export Co., Ltd. that it relied upon in making its final determination. Because mandatory respondent Shandong Dongfang Bayley Wood Co., Ltd. did not provide information requested by the Department and the Department preliminarily determines that it has been uncooperative, verification will not be conducted for Shandong Dongfang Bayley Wood Co., Ltd.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last final verification report is issued in this investigation. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(1) provide that the Department will issue the final determination within 75 days after the date of its preliminary determination. Accordingly, the Department will make its final determination no later than 75 days after the signature date of this preliminary determination.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, the Department will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of its preliminary determination of sales at LTFV. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether imports of the subject merchandise are materially injuring, or
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise subject to this investigation is hardwood and decorative plywood, and certain veneered panels as described below. For purposes of this proceeding, hardwood and decorative plywood is defined as a generally flat, multilayered plywood or other veneered panel, consisting of two or more layers or plies of wood veneers and a core, with the face and/or back veneer made of non-coniferous wood (hardwood) or bamboo. The veneers, along with the core may be glued or otherwise bonded together. Hardwood and decorative plywood may include products that meet the American National Standard for Hardwood and Decorative Plywood, ANSI/HPVA HP-1-2016 (including any revisions to that standard).
For purposes of this investigation a “veneer” is a slice of wood regardless of thickness which is cut, sliced or sawed from a log, bolt, or flitch. The face and back veneers are the outermost veneer of wood on either side of the core irrespective of additional surface coatings or covers as described below.
The core of hardwood and decorative plywood consists of the layer or layers of one or more material(s) that are situated between the face and back veneers. The core may be composed of a range of materials, including but not limited to hardwood, softwood, particleboard, or medium-density fiberboard (MDF).
All hardwood plywood is included within the scope of this investigation regardless of whether or not the face and/or back veneers are surface coated or covered and whether or not such surface coating(s) or covers obscures the grain, textures, or markings of the wood. Examples of surface coatings and covers include, but are not limited to: Ultra violet light cured polyurethanes; oil or oil-modified or water based polyurethanes; wax; epoxy-ester finishes; moisture-cured urethanes; paints; stains; paper; aluminum; high pressure laminate; MDF; medium density overlay (MDO); and phenolic film. Additionally, the face veneer of hardwood plywood may be sanded; smoothed or given a “distressed” appearance through such methods as hand-scraping or wire brushing. All hardwood plywood is included within the scope even if it is trimmed; cut-to-size; notched; punched; drilled; or has underwent other forms of minor processing.
All hardwood and decorative plywood is included within the scope of this investigation, without regard to dimension (overall thickness, thickness of face veneer, thickness of back veneer, thickness of core, thickness of inner veneers, width, or length). However, the most common panel sizes of hardwood and decorative plywood are 1219 x 1829 mm (48 x 72 inches), 1219 x 2438 mm (48 x 96 inches), and 1219 x 3048 mm (48 x 120 inches).
Subject merchandise also includes hardwood and decorative plywood that has been further processed in a third country, including but not limited to trimming, cutting, notching, punching, drilling, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the in-scope product.
The scope of the investigation excludes the following items: (1) Structural plywood (also known as “industrial plywood” or “industrial panels”) that is manufactured to meet U.S. Products Standard PS 1-09, PS 2-09, or PS 2-10 for Structural Plywood (including any revisions to that standard or any substantially equivalent international standard intended for structural plywood), and which has both a face and a back veneer of coniferous wood; (2) products which have a face and back veneer of cork; (3) multilayered wood flooring, as described in the antidumping duty and countervailing duty orders on Multilayered Wood Flooring from the People's Republic of China, Import Administration, International Trade Administration. See Multilayered Wood Flooring from the People's Republic of China, 76 FR 76690 (December 8, 2011) (amended final determination of sales at less than fair value and antidumping duty order), and Multilayered Wood Flooring from the People's Republic of China, 76 FR 76693 (December 8, 2011) (countervailing duty order), as amended by Multilayered Wood Flooring from the People's Republic of China: Amended Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, 77 FR 5484 (February 3, 2012); (4) multilayered wood flooring with a face veneer of bamboo or composed entirely of bamboo; (5) plywood which has a shape or design other than a flat panel, with the exception of any minor processing described above; (6) products made entirely from bamboo and adhesives (also known as “solid bamboo”); and (7) Phenolic Film Faced Plyform (PFF), also known as Phenolic Surface Film Plywood (PSF), defined as a panel with an “Exterior” or “Exposure 1” bond classification as is defined by The Engineered Wood Association, having an opaque phenolic film layer with a weight equal to or greater than 90g/m3 permanently bonded on both the face and back veneers and an opaque, moisture resistant coating applied to the edges.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are wooden furniture goods that, at the time of importation, are fully assembled and are ready for their intended uses. Also excluded from the scope of this investigation is “ready to assemble” (“RTA”) furniture. RTA furniture is defined as (A) furniture packaged for sale for ultimate purchase by an end-user that, at the time of importation, includes (1) all wooden components (in finished form) required to assemble a finished unit of furniture, (2) all accessory parts (
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are kitchen cabinets that, at the time of importation, are fully assembled and are ready for their intended uses. Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are RTA kitchen cabinets. RTA kitchen cabinets are defined as kitchen cabinets packaged for sale for ultimate purchase by an end-user that, at the time of importation, includes (1) all wooden components (in finished form) required to assemble a finished unit of cabinetry, (2) all accessory parts (
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are finished table tops, which are table tops imported in finished form with pre-cut or drilled openings to attach the underframe or legs. The table tops are ready for use at the time of import and require no further finishing or processing.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are finished countertops that are imported in finished form and require no further finishing or manufacturing.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are laminated veneer lumber door and window components with (1) a maximum width of 44 millimeters, a thickness from 30 millimeters to 72 millimeters, and a length of less than 2413 millimeters (2) water boiling point exterior adhesive, (3) a modulus of elasticity of 1,500,000 pounds per square inch or higher, (4) finger-jointed or lap-jointed core veneer with all layers oriented so that the grain is running parallel or with no more than 3 dispersed layers of veneer oriented with the grain running perpendicular to the other layers; and (5) top layer machined with a curved edge and one or more profile channels throughout.
Imports of hardwood plywood are primarily entered under the following Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheadings: 4412.10.0500; 4412.31.0520; 4412.31.0540; 4412.31.0560; 4412.31.0620; 4412.31.0640; 4412.31.0660;
Imports of hardwood plywood may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 4412.39.4011; 4412.39.4012; 4412.39.4019; 4412.39.4031; 4412.39.4032; 4412.39.4039; 4412.39.4051; 4412.39.4052; 4412.39.4059; 4412.39.4061; 4412.39.4062; 4412.39.4069; 4412.39.5010; 4412.39.5030; 4412.39.5050; 4412.99.6000; 4412.99.7000; 4412.99.8000; 4412.99.9000; 4412.10.9000; 4412.94.5100; 4412.94.9500; and 4412.99.9500. While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On May 5, 2017, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published the preliminary results of the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on drawn stainless steel sinks (drawn sinks) from the People's Republic of China (PRC). The period of review (POR) is April 1, 2015, through March 31, 2016. No interested party submitted comments on the preliminary results. Therefore, for the final results, we continue to find that Guangdong Dongyuan Kitchenware Industrial Co., Ltd. (Dongyuan) and Guangdong Yingao Kitchen Utensils Co. Ltd. (Yingao) made sales at of subject merchandise at prices below normal value (NV) during the period of review (POR). We also continue to grant separate rates to ten companies which demonstrated eligibility for separate rate status but were not selected for individual examination. Finally, we continue to find that New Shichu Import and Export Company Limited (New Shichu) made no shipments of subject merchandise during the POR.
Effective June 23, 2017.
Terre Keaton Stefanova or Rebecca Janz, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1280 or (202) 482-2972, respectively.
On May 5, 2017, the Department published the
The products covered by the order include drawn stainless steel sinks. Imports of subject merchandise are currently classified under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheadings 7324.10.0000 and 7324.10.0010. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of the order is dispositive.
As noted above, we received no comments from interested parties on the
For further discussion of the issues addressed in this proceeding,
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b), the Department determined, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review. The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions directly to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this administrative review.
For Dongyuan and Yingao, which have above weighted-average dumping margins above zero or
For the respondents which were not selected for individual examination in this administrative review and which qualified for a separate rate, the assessment rate is equal to the average of the weighted-average dumping margins assigned to Dongyuan and Yingao, or 1.78 percent.
The Department has refined its assessment practice in NME cases. Pursuant to this refinement in practice, for entries that were not reported in the U.S. sales databases submitted by Dongyuan or Yingao, the Department will instruct CBP to liquidate such entries at the PRC-wide rate. In addition, because the Department determined that New Shichu had no shipments of the subject merchandise, any suspended entries of subject merchandise from New Shichu will be liquidated at the PRC-wide rate.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise from the PRC entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For the companies listed above that have a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be that rate established in the final results of this review (except, if the rate is zero or
This notice serves as the only reminder to importers of their responsibility, under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2), to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
As a result of the determinations by the Department of Commerce (the Department) and the International Trade Commission (ITC) that revocation of the antidumping duty order on certain stainless steel wire rods (wire rods) from India would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, the Department is publishing a notice of continuation of the antidumping duty order.
Effective June 23, 2017.
Andre Gziryan, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-2201.
On December 1, 1993, the Department published the AD order on wire rods from India.
As a result of this sunset review, the Department determined that revocation of the antidumping duty order on wire rods from India would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping and notified the ITC of the magnitude of the margins likely to prevail should the order be revoked.
On June 6, 2017, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 752(a) of the Act, the ITC determined that revocation of the antidumping duty order on wire rods from India would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to an industry in the United States within a reasonably foreseeable time.
The merchandise covered by the antidumping duty order is certain stainless steel wire rods from India, which are hot-rolled or hot-rolled annealed and/or pickled rounds, squares, octagons, hexagons or other shapes, in coils. Wire rods are made of alloy steels containing, by weight, 1.2 percent or less of carbon and 10.5 percent or more of chromium, with or without other elements. These products are only manufactured by hot-rolling and are normally sold in coiled form, and are of solid cross section. The majority of wire rods sold in the United States are round in cross-section shape, annealed, and pickled. The most common size is 5.5 millimeters in diameter.
The wire rods subject to this order are currently classifiable under subheadings 7221.00.0005, 7221.00.0017, 7221.00.0018, 7221.00.0030, 7221.00.0045, and 7221.00.0075 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS).
As a result of the determinations by the Department and the ITC that revocation of the antidumping duty order would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act, the Department hereby orders the continuation of the antidumping duty order on wire rods from India.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect antidumping duty cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise. The effective date of continuation of this order will be the date of publication in the
This five-year sunset review and this notice are in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and published pursuant to section 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective June 23, 2017.
Ryan Mullen at (202) 482-5620 (India); Mandy Mallott and Alex Rosen, (202) 482-6430 and (202) 482-7814, respectively (the People's Republic of China), AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On May 9, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Department) initiated countervailing duty (CVD) investigations on certain cold-drawn mechanical tubing of carbon and alloy steel (cold-drawn mechanical tubing) from India and the People's Republic of China (PRC).
Section 703(b)(1) of the Act requires the Department to issue the preliminary determination in a CVD investigation within 65 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation. However, if the petitioner makes a timely request for a postponement, section 703(c)(1)(A) of the Act allows the Department to postpone, making the preliminary determination until no later than 130 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation.
On June 14, 2017, ArcelorMittal Tubular products, Michigan Seamless Tube, LLC, Plymouth Tube Co. USA, PTC Alliance Corp., Webco Industries, Inc., and Zekelman Industries Inc. (collectively, the petitioners), submitted timely requests pursuant to section 703(c)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(e) to postpone the preliminary determinations.
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
The Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries, Greater Atlantic Region, NMFS, has made a preliminary determination that an Exempted Fishing Permit application from the Commercial Fisheries Research Foundation and the University of Rhode Island contains all of the required information and warrants further consideration. The Exempted Fishing Permit would exempt participating commercial fishing vessels from Federal lobster escape vent, trap limit, and trap tag regulations and restrictions on egg-bearing and v-notched female and sublegal lobsters for American lobster and Jonah crab research in a designated Wind Energy Area.
Regulations under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and the Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act require publication of this notification to provide interested parties the opportunity to comment on applications for proposed Exempted Fishing Permits.
Comments must be received on or before July 10, 2017.
You may submit written comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
Cynthia Hanson, Fishery Management Specialist, (978) 281-9180,
The Commercial Fisheries Research Foundation (CFRF) and the University of Rhode Island (URI) submitted a complete application for an Exempted Fishing Permit (EFP) on May 25, 2017, to conduct commercial fishing activities that the regulations would otherwise restrict. The EFP would authorize four vessels (three active and one alternate) to conduct a cooperative ventless trap survey to determine distribution and habitat use of American lobster and Jonah crab in the Rhode Island/Massachusetts Wind Energy Area in Lobster Management Area (LMA) 2. The study is designed to better understand potential impacts of wind turbine construction on crustacean populations.
Funding for this study has been awarded under the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management Award (Grant #M13AC00009). CFRF and URI are requesting exemptions from Federal lobster regulations on:
1. Gear specifications at 50 CFR 697.21(c)(2) to allow for closed escape vents;
2. Trap limits for LMA 2, at § 697.19(b), to be exceeded by 80 additional traps per fishing vessel, for a total of 240 additional traps;
3. Trap tag requirements at § 697.19(j);
4. Minimum legal size possession restrictions at § 697.20(a)(4); and
5. Possession restrictions on berried and standard v-notch females at § 697.20(d) and (g).
If the EFP is approved, three active vessels will survey lobsters and Jonah crabs at 24 established sampling sites within the study area, with an alternate vessel available in case of mechanical issues. Each active vessel will fish 8 standard Atlantic large whale-compliant trawls with 10 traps (6 ventless, 4 standard) per trawl, for a total of 80 traps (48 ventless, 32 standard) per vessel. One trawl will be deployed at each of the fixed sample sites, and fished twice a month from July through November 2017, with a soak time of five days. There would never be more than 240 additional traps in the water at any time as a result of this project.
During sampling, biological information will be recorded for all lobsters and up to 10 Jonah crabs from each trap, and other bycatch species will also be enumerated, weighed, and measured. The possession exemptions are required to sample all catch. All species will be returned promptly to the water after sampling. No catch from this project will be landed for sale.
If approved, the applicant may request minor modifications and extensions to the EFP throughout the study period. EFP modifications and extensions may be granted without further notice if they are deemed essential to facilitate completion of the proposed research and have minimal impacts that do not change the scope or impact of the initially approved EFP request. Any fishing activity conducted outside the scope of the exempted fishing activity would be prohibited.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of scoping meetings, request for comments.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council's Surfclam and Ocean Quahog Committee will hold four public meetings related to the Excessive Shares Amendment.
Written comments will be accepted until July 21, 2017. Four scoping meetings will be held during this comment period. For dates, times, and locations, see
Written comments may be sent by any of the following methods:
•
• Mail or hand deliver to Dr. Christopher Moore, Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, 800 North State Street, Suite 201, Dover, Delaware 19901. Mark outside of the envelope “SCOQ Excessive Shares Amendment Scoping Comments.”
• FAX to (302) 674-5399; Include “SCOQ Excessive Shares Amendment Scoping Comments” in the subject line.
• A Web form for submitting comments is available on the Council's Web site:
• Comments may also be provided verbally at any of the four scoping meetings. See
Dr. Christopher Moore, Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council is developing this Amendment to the Surfclam and Ocean Quahog (SCOQ) Fishery Management Plan (FMP; called Excessive Shares Amendment) to (1) implement measures that specifically define what constitutes an excessive share in the SCOQ Individual Fishing Quota (ITQ) program, (2) review and if necessary revise goals and objectives in the FMP. During the scoping comment period, which will include scoping meetings, the public may provide comments on the range of issues and information that should be considered, including comments related to the excessive shares issue in the SCOQ ITQ fisheries and goals and objectives of the FMP, as well as any other issues that might be of concern regarding to the management of the SCOQ ITQ fishery. Additional information and background documents about the amendment can be found at:
The dates and locations of the scoping meetings are as follows:
• Monday, July 10, 2017, 6:30 p.m., Hilton Garden Inn Providence Airport, 1 Thurber Street, Warwick, RI 02886, telephone: (401) 734-9600.
• Tuesday, July 11, 2017, 6:30 p.m., Internet Webinar, Connection information to be available at
• Wednesday, July 12, 2017, 6:30 p.m., The Grand Hotel, 1045 Beach Avenue, Cape May, NJ 08204, telephone: (609) 884-5611.
• Monday, July 17, 2017, 6 p.m., Ocean Pines Branch Library, 1107 Cathell Road, Berlin, MD 21811, telephone: (410) 208-4014.
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of availability of a Final Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement and Restoration Plan.
In this notice, NMFS announces the availability of the Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement and Restoration Plan to Compensate for Injuries to Natural Resources in Portland Harbor, Oregon.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1960, requires an assessment of any Federal action that may impact the environment, which, in this case, is the selection of a Restoration Plan. The purpose of the PEIS/RP is to evaluate, in compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the potential direct, indirect, and cumulative impacts of implementing the alternative programmatic approaches to restoration in the Portland Harbor area.
Obtaining documents: You may download the PEIS/RP at
Megan Callahan Grant at (503) 231-2213 or email at
NOAA, the Department of the Interior (U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service), the Oregon Department of Fish and Wildlife, the Nez Perce Tribe, the Confederated Tribes of the Warm
In January of 2007, the Portland Harbor Trustee Council released a Pre-Assessment Screen (PAS) for the Portland Harbor Superfund site. The PAS concluded that natural resources in the area have been affected or potentially affected from releases or discharges of contaminants. Based on the conclusions of the PAS, the Portland Harbor Trustee Council determined that proceeding past the pre-assessment phase to a full natural resource damage assessment was warranted.
Exposed living natural resources include, but are not limited to: (1) Aquatic-dependent mammals such as mink and river otter, and species they depend on as prey items; (2) migratory birds, including osprey, bald eagle, mergansers and other waterfowl, great blue heron, spotted sandpiper and other shorebirds, cliff swallow, belted kingfisher, and other species; (3) threatened and endangered species; (4) anadromous and resident fish, including salmon and steelhead; (5) reptiles and amphibians; (6) aquatic invertebrates; (7) wapato and other aquatic plants.
Exposed habitat types and water natural resources include wetland and upland habitats, groundwater, and surface water. The services that are provided by these potentially affected natural resources include, but are not limited to: (1) Habitat for trust resources, including food, shelter, breeding, foraging, and rearing areas, and other factors essential for survival; (2) consumptive commercial resource use such as commercial fishing; (3) consumptive recreational resource use such as hunting and fishing; (4) non-consumptive uses such as wildlife viewing, photography, and other outdoor recreation activities; (5) primary and secondary contact activities such as swimming and boating; (6) cultural, spiritual, and religious use; (7) option and existence values; (8) traditional foods.
An Assessment Plan was completed in June of 2010. Based on this plan, scientific literature and studies being conducted by the Trustee Council seek to document injuries from hazardous substances found in Portland Harbor. The objective of these studies is to demonstrate (1) how the contamination has harmed the organisms that inhabit the riverine sediments, (2) how the contamination has harmed the fish and wildlife that come into contact with the contaminated sediments or that eat contaminated prey items, and (3) how the harm to the natural resources has impacted the people that use these resources. Concurrent with the damage assessment, the Trustee Council is conducting restoration planning.
By identifying criteria and guidance to be used in selecting feasible restoration projects, the Restoration Plan provides a framework to maximize the benefits of restoration projects to the affected resources and services in the defined areas of the Lower Willamette River. The Trustee Council analyzed three alternatives including: (1) (Preferred) integrated habitat restoration actions that will benefit multiple species and services (those species listed above as potentially affected by releases of hazardous substances, such as salmon and resident fish, mammals such as mink and river otter, and aquatic-dependent birds such as osprey and bald eagle); (2) species-specific restoration actions (for example, augmenting a species population through artificial production); and (3) a no-action alternative (no action takes place and the public is not compensated). Two additional alternatives for restoration were considered but not moved forward for detailed study because they did not meet the purpose and need for the project. The first was an alternative without any defined geographic boundary, and the second was an alternative including a requirement that all restoration would occur within the defined geographic area called the Superfund Study Area.
The Draft Portland Harbor Programmatic EIS and Restoration Plan was released for public comment on July 9, 2012. The comment period ended October 8, 2012, and a public Open House meeting was held on July 17, 2012.
Comments were received from 21 parties, resulting in 193 individual comments. The Final PEIS includes responses to these comments as Appendix F.
The Trustee Council has opened an Administrative Record (Record). The Record includes documents that the Trustees relied upon during the development of the Final Restoration Plan and Final PEIS. The Record is on file at the offices of Parametrix, a contractor to NOAA. The Record is also available at:
In accordance with NEPA, a Federal agency must prepare a concise public Record of Decision (ROD) at the time the agency makes a decision in cases involving an EIS (40 CFR 1505.2). The Trustees will issue a ROD pursuant to NEPA regulations at 40 CFR 1505.2. Accordingly, the ROD for the Final RP/PEIS will provide and explain the Trustees' decisions regarding the selection of a preferred alternative. The Trustees will issue the ROD no earlier than 30 days after the Environmental Protection Agency publishes a notice in the
Office of Ocean Exploration and Research (OER) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice of public meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda of a forthcoming meeting of the Ocean Exploration Advisory Board (OEAB). OEAB members will discuss and provide advice on Federal ocean exploration programs, with a particular emphasis on National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Office of Ocean Exploration and Research (OER) activities; the use of ocean exploration data by decision makers, including those in the not-for-
The announced meeting is scheduled for Tuesday, July 11, 2017 from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. EDT and Wednesday, July 12, 2017 from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. EDT.
The meeting will be held at Oceaneering Advanced Technologies, 7001 Dorsey Road, Hanover, Maryland 21076.
Mr. David McKinnie, Designated Federal Officer, Ocean Exploration Advisory Board, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, 7600 Sand Point Way NE., Seattle, WA 98115, (206) 526-6950.
NOAA established the OEAB under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) and legislation that gives the agency statutory authority to operate an ocean exploration program and to coordinate a national program of ocean exploration. The OEAB advises NOAA leadership on strategic planning, exploration priorities, competitive ocean exploration grant programs and other matters as the NOAA Administrator requests.
OEAB members represent government agencies, the private sector, academic institutions, and not-for-profit institutions involved in all facets of ocean exploration—from advanced technology to citizen exploration.
In addition to advising NOAA leadership, NOAA expects the OEAB to help to define and develop a national program of ocean exploration—a network of stakeholders and partnerships advancing national priorities for ocean exploration.
The OEAB expects that public statements at its meetings will not be repetitive of previously submitted verbal or written statements. In general, each individual or group making a verbal presentation will be limited to three minutes. The Designated Federal Officer must receive written comments by July 3, 2017 to provide sufficient time for OEAB review. Written comments received after July 3, 2017 will be distributed to the OEAB but may not be reviewed prior to the meeting date. Seats will be available on a first-come, first-served basis.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The Caribbean Fishery Management Council's District Advisory Panels (DAPs) for Puerto Rico, St. Croix and St. Thomas/St. John, USVI, will hold a joint meeting.
The meeting will be held on Thursday, July 6, 2017, from 9:30 a.m. to 5 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Verdanza Hotel, Tartak St., Isla Verde, Puerto Rico.
Caribbean Fishery Management Council, 270 Muñoz Rivera Avenue, Suite 401, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918, telephone: (787) 766-5926.
The DAPs will meet to discuss the items contained in the following agenda:
The meeting is open to the public, and will be conducted in English. Fishers and other interested persons are invited to attend and participate with oral or written statements regarding agenda issues.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. For more information or request for sign language interpretation and/other auxiliary aids, please contact Mr. Miguel A. Rolón, Executive Director, Caribbean Fishery Management Council, 270 Muñoz Rivera Avenue, Suite 401, San Juan, Puerto Rico, 00918, telephone (787) 766-5926, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Commerce.
Notice.
On June 29, 2016, the United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) implemented the Cancer Immunotherapy Pilot Program, which permits patent applications pertaining to cancer immunotherapy to be advanced out of turn for examination and reviewed earlier (accorded special status). To date, over 80 petitions
Pinchus M. Laufer, Patent Attorney (telephone (571) 272-7726; electronic mail at
For questions relating to a specific petition, please contact Gary B. Nickol, Supervisory Patent Examiner (telephone (571) 272-0835; electronic mail at
The USPTO published a notice for the implementation of the Cancer Immunotherapy Pilot Program on June 29, 2016.
The Cancer Immunotherapy Notice established that the pilot program would run for twelve months from June 29, 2016. The USPTO is hereby extending the pilot program through December 31, 2018 in view of the continued interest in the pilot program. The extension also will allow the USPTO to continue its evaluation of the pilot program. The requirements of the pilot program have not been modified.
Various stakeholders from around the world have filed petitions to participate in the pilot program—they are independent inventors, universities, research institutions, hospitals, medical centers, government agencies, and large and small companies. To date, over 80 petitions requesting participation in the pilot program have been filed, and 9 patents have been granted under the pilot program. The USPTO may again extend the pilot program (with or without modifications) depending on the feedback from the participants, continued interest, and the effectiveness of the pilot program.
Take notice that on June 15, 2017, City of Dover, Delaware submitted its Supplement to the May 16, 2017 tariff filing (Deficiency Filing).
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant and all the parties in this proceeding.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k. With this notice, we are initiating informal consultation with: (a) The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and/or NOAA Fisheries under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and the joint agency regulations thereunder at 50 CFR, part 402 and (b) the State Historic Preservation Officer, as required by section 106, National Historic Preservation Act, and the implementing regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation at 36 CFR 800.2.
l. With this notice, we are designating Algonquin as the Commission's non-federal representative for carrying out informal consultation, pursuant to section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act.
m. The current license for the Squa Pan Project was issued with an effective date of December 4, 1991, for a term of 30 years and expires on December 3, 2021. Section 5.5(d) of the Commission's regulations provides that an existing licensee must file its Notice of Intent (NOI) no later than five years before the expiration of the license; therefore the date for Algonquin to file its NOI was December 3, 2016. Algonquin filed a Notice of Intent to File License Application (NOI) on December 8, 2016, along with a request for an extension until August 2017 to file a Pre-Application Document (PAD). No other entity filed an NOI or PAD.
On January 5, 2017 the Commission issued a Notice of Existing Licensee's Failure to File Notice of Intent to File a New License Application. The notice set a deadline of 120 days from the issuance date for Algonquin and competing applicants to file NOIs, PADs and requests to use an alternative licensing process. The notice also denied Algonquin's request for an extension until August 2017 to file a PAD because it would unreasonably shorten the time available for preparation of a license application and/or conducting necessary studies.
On May 1, 2017, Algonquin filed an updated NOI and PAD, pursuant to 18 CFR 5.6 of the Commission's regulations. No other entity filed an NOI, PAD or request to use an alternative licensing process.
Because the licensee states its unequivocal intent to submit an application for a new license for Project No. 2368, and no other entity has filed an NOI, PAD, or request for an alternative licensing process, the Commission intends to waive section 16.24(a) of the Commission's regulations, and allow Algonquin to file an application for a new license for the project. The Commission's process plan and schedule for relicensing Project No. 2368 can be found in Appendix B of Scoping Document 1, issued concurrently with this notice.
n. A copy of the PAD is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site (
Register online at
o. With this notice we are soliciting comments on the PAD and Commission's staff Scoping Document 1 (SD1), as well as study requests. All comments on the PAD and SD1, and study requests should be sent to the address above in paragraph h. In addition, all comments on the PAD and SD1, study requests, requests for cooperating agency status, and all communications to and from Commission staff related to the merits of the potential application must be filed with the Commission.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file all documents using the Commission's eFiling system at
All filings with the Commission must bear the appropriate heading: Comments on Pre-Application Document, Study Requests, Comments on Scoping Document 1,”Request for Cooperating Agency Status, or Communications to and from Commission Staff. Any individual or entity interested in submitting study requests, commenting on the PAD or SD1, and any agency requesting cooperating status must do so by August 29, 2017.
p. Although our current intent is to prepare an environmental assessment (EA), there is the possibility that an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) will be required. Nevertheless, this meeting will satisfy the NEPA scoping requirements, irrespective of whether an EA or EIS is issued by the Commission.
Commission staff will hold two scoping meetings in the vicinity of the project at the time and place noted below. The daytime meeting will focus on resource agency, Indian tribes, and non-governmental organization concerns, while the evening meeting is primarily for receiving input from the public. We invite all interested individuals, organizations, and agencies to attend one or both of the meetings, and to assist staff in identifying particular study needs, as well as the scope of environmental issues to be addressed in the environmental document. The times and locations of these meetings are as follows:
Phone: (207) 760-9292.
Scoping Document 1 (SD1), which outlines the subject areas to be addressed in the environmental document, was mailed to the individuals and entities on the Commission's mailing list. Copies of SD1 will be available at the scoping meetings, or may be viewed on the web at
The potential applicant and Commission staff will conduct an Environmental Site Review of the project on Thursday, July 27, 2017, starting at 9:00 a.m. All participants should meet at the Squa Pan Dam, located at Squapan Hydro Road, Masardis, Maine 04732. All participants are responsible for their own transportation. Anyone with questions about the site visit should contact Mr. James Veil of Algonquin at (207-551-9881) on or before July 13, 2017.
At the scoping meetings, staff will: (1) Initiate scoping of the issues; (2) review and discuss existing conditions and resource management objectives; (3) review and discuss existing information and identify preliminary information and study needs; (4) review and discuss the process plan and schedule for pre-filing activity that incorporates the time frames provided for in Part 5 of the Commission's regulations and, to the extent possible, maximizes coordination of federal, state, and tribal permitting and certification processes; and (5) discuss the appropriateness of any federal or state agency or Indian tribe acting as a cooperating agency for development of an environmental document.
Meeting participants should come prepared to discuss their issues and/or concerns. Please review the PAD in preparation for the scoping meetings. Directions on how to obtain a copy of the PAD and SD1 are included in item n. of this document.
The meetings will be recorded by a stenographer and will be placed in the public records of the project.
Take notice that on June 15, 2017, pursuant to Rule 206 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure,
Complainant states that a copy of the complaint was served on Respondent.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
On May 17, 2017, Rover Pipeline LLC (Rover), 1300 Main Street, Houston, Texas 77002, filed a variance request in Docket No. CP15-93-000. The Commission is treating the variance request as an application to amend its Rover Pipeline Project under section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations, and hereby gives notice of the proposed amendment. Specifically, Rover requests authorization to install a third 3,550 horsepower natural gas compressor unit at the Majorsville Compressor Station and a new equipment run at the Majorsville Meter Station in Marshall County, West Virginia. The proposal would increase the point capacity of the Majorsville Compressor Station and the Majorsville Meter Station from 300 million cubic feet per day (MMcf/d) to 400 MMcf/d, all as more fully set forth in the request which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may be viewed on the web at
Any questions regarding the proposed amendment should be directed to Mr. Kelly Allen, Manager, Regulatory Affairs Department, Rover Pipeline LLC, 1300 Main Street, Houston, Texas 77002, by telephone at (713) 989-2606.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental analysis (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding, or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below, file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit 5 copies of filings made with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party in the proceeding. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commenters will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified date(s). Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of CXA Sundevil Holdco, Inc.'s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is July 6, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On February 3, 2017, Southern Natural Gas Company, LLC (Southern) filed an application in Docket No. CP17-46-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Fairburn Expansion Project, and would add 343,164 dekatherms per day of firm transportation service to its existing pipeline system.
On February 17, 2017 the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Southern would upgrade and construct certain compression and pipeline facilities in Fayetteville and Fulton Counties, Georgia (including installing a new 4.9-mile-long 30-inch-diameter Fairburn Lateral and the new 18,000-horsepower electric Fairburn Compressor Station); and Clayton and Cobb Counties Georgia.
On March 20, 2017, the Commission issued a
The EPA and the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers are cooperating agencies in the preparation of the EA.
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), General Administrative Requirements for Assistance Programs (Renewal), to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through June 30, 2017. Public comments were previously requested via the
Additional comments may be submitted on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OARM-2016-0762, to (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Elizabeth January, Office of Grants and Debarment, National Policy, Training and Compliance Division, Mail Code: 3903R, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (617) 918-8655; fax number: (202) 565-2470; email address:
Supporting documents for the General Administrative Requirements for Assistance Programs (EPA ICR No. 0938.21, OMB Control No. 2030-0020), which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), NSPS for Kraft Pulp Mills, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Additional comments may be submitted on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OECA-2014-0034, to: (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Patrick Yellin, Monitoring, Assistance, and Media Programs Division, Office of Compliance, Mail Code 2227A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-2970; fax number: (202) 564-0050; email address:
Supporting documents for this ICR, NSPS for Kraft Pulp Mills (40 CFR part 60, subpart BBa) (Renewal), (EPA ICR No. 2485.03, OMB Control No. 2060-0690), which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
There is also an increase in the total capital and O&M costs as currently identified in the OMB Inventory of Approved Burdens. This increase is due to an increase in the estimated number of sources, and because in year 2 of this ICR existing sources will need to repeat performance tests that are required every 5 years.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), NESHAP for Polyether Polyols, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through May 31, 2017. Public comments were previously requested via the
Additional comments may be submitted on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OECA-2014-0063, to: (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Patrick Yellin, Monitoring, Assistance, and Media Programs Division, Office of Compliance, Mail Code 2227A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-2970; fax number: (202) 564-0050; email address:
Supporting documents for this renewal ICR, NESHAP for Polyether Polyols (40 CFR part 63, subpart PPP), (EPA ICR No. 1811.10, OMB Control No. 2060-0415), which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), Requirements for Certified Applicators Using 1080 Collars for Livestock Protection to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through May 31, 2017. Public comments were previously requested via the
Additional comments may be submitted on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0460, to (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Amaris Johnson, Field and External Affairs Division (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 703-305-9542; email address:
Supporting documents for the Requirements for Certified Applicators Using 1080 Collars for Livestock Protection ICR (EPA ICR No. 1249.11, OMB Control No. 2070-0074), which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), National Estuary Program (Renewal) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through June 30, 2017. Public comments were previously requested via the
Additional comments may be submitted on or before July 24, 2017.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OW-2006-0369, to (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Vince Bacalan, Oceans and Coastal Protection Division, Office of Wetlands, Oceans, and Watersheds, 4504T, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-566-0930; fax number: 202-566-1336; email address:
Supporting documents for the National Estuary Program ICR (EPA ICR No. 1500.08, OMB Control No. 2040-0138), which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Prospective grant recipients seek funding to develop or oversee and coordinate implementation of Comprehensive Conservation Management Plans (CCMPs) for estuaries of national significance. In order to receive funds, grantees must submit an annual work plan to EPA which are used to track performance of each of the 28 estuary programs currently in the NEP. EPA provides funding to NEPs to support long-term implementation of CCMPs if such programs pass a program evaluation process. The primary purpose of the program evaluation process is to help EPA determine whether the 28 programs included in the National Estuary Program (NEP) are making adequate progress implementing their CCMPs and therefore merit continued funding under Sec. 320 of the Clean Water Act. EPA also requests that each of the 28 NEPs receiving Sec. 320 funds report information that can be used in the GPRA reporting process. This reporting is done on an annual basis and is used to show environmental results that are being achieved within the overall National Estuary Program. This information is ultimately submitted to Congress along with GPRA information from other EPA programs.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has received Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for a revision of a currently
Cathy Williams, Office of the Managing Director, at (202) 418-2918, or email:
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Beginning first on May 5, 1997, OMB approved under OMB Control No. 3060-0767, the Commission's collections of information pursuant to sections 1.2110, 1.2111, and 1.2112 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.2110, 1.2111, and 1.2112, and their predecessors, regarding ownership and designated entity status of parties involved with Commission licenses. The Commission collects this information in several contexts, including when determining the eligibility of applicants to participate in Commission auctions (including eligibility to claim designated entity benefits), the eligibility of parties to hold a Commission license/authorization (including eligibility for designated entity benefits), the eligibility of parties to whom licenses/authorizations are being assigned or transferred, and the repayment by license/authorization holders of the amount of bidding credits received in Commission auctions to avoid unjust enrichment. Applicants and licensees/authorization holders claiming eligibility for designated entity status are subject to audits and a record-keeping requirement regarding FCC-licensed service concerning such claims of eligibility, to confirm that their representations are, and remain, accurate.
The collection of this information will enable the Commission to determine whether applicants are qualified to bid on and hold Commission licenses/authorizations and, if applicable, to receive designated entity benefits, and is designed to ensure the fairness of the auction, licensing, and license/authorization assignment and transfer processes. The information collected will be reviewed and, if warranted, referred to the Commission's Enforcement Bureau for possible investigation and administrative action. The Commission may also refer allegations of anticompetitive auction conduct to the Department of Justice for investigation.
OMB has approved separately the routine collections of information pursuant to these Commission rules in applications to participate in Commission auctions, FCC Form 175, OMB Control No. 3060-0600, and in Commission licensing applications, FCC Form 601, OMB Control No. 3060-0798, and assignment/transfer of control applications, FCC Form 603, OMB Control No. 3060-0800. On occasion, the Commission may collect information from auction applicants and license/authorization holders pursuant to these rules under this information collection to clarify information provided in these forms or in circumstances to which the standard forms may not directly apply.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
The following applicants filed AM or FM proposals to change the community of License: Alpha Media Licensee, LLC, Station NEW, Facility ID 198622, BNPH- 20151013AIK, From Longview, TX, To Hallsville, TX; Byrne Acquisition Group, LLC, Station WAHT, Facility ID 24482, BP-20170424AAT, From Clemson, SC, To Cowpens, SC; Central Florida Educational Foundational, Inc., Station WPOZ, Facility ID 9876, BPED-20170504ABA, From Union Park, FL, To Orlando, FL; Educational Media Foundation, Station KLRW, Facility ID 92140, BPED-20170530AAM, From Byrne, TX, To San Angelo, TX; Isleta Radio Company, Station KRKE, Facility ID 22391, BP- 20151123BZF, From Milan, NM, To Moriarty, NM; Point Ten, LLC, Station KXFM, Facility ID 5470, BPH-20151110ANR, From Santa Maria, CA, To Port Hueneme, CA; SLC Divestiture Trust I (W. Lawrence Patrick, Trustee), Station KDWY, Facility ID 77947, BMPH- 20170223ABT, From Oakley, UT, To Diamondville, WY; Sun Valley Media Group, LLC, Station KPTO, Facility ID 129638, BP-20170531ABF, From Pocatello, ID, To Hailey, ID.
The agency must receive comments on or before August 22, 2017.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Tung Bui, 202-418-2700.
The full text of these applications is available for inspection and copying during normal business hours in the Commission's Reference Center, 445 12th Street SW.,
Federal Election Commission.
Tuesday, June 6, 2017 at 10:00 a.m. and its continuation at the conclusion of the open meeting on June 8, 2017 and its continuation on June 21, 2017 at 10:00 a.m.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC.
This meeting was closed to the public.
82 FR 26928.
This meeting was continued on Thursday, June 21, 2017.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than July 20, 2017.
A.
1.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The application also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 10(c)(4)(B) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(4)(B)). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than July 20, 2017.
1.
Office of Refugee Resettlement (ORR), Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of award of 43 single-source low-cost extension supplement grants under the Unaccompanied Alien Children's (UAC) Program.
ACF, ORR, announces the award of 43 single-source low-cost extension supplement grants for a total of $34,847,803 under the Unaccompanied Alien Children's (UAC) Program.
Low-cost extension supplement grants will support activities from January 1, 2017 through January 31, 2017.
Jallyn Sualog, Director, Division of Unaccompanied Alien Children Operations, Office of Refugee
The following supplement grants will support the immediate need for additional capacity of shelter services to accommodate the increasing number of UACs referred by DHS into ORR care. The increase in the UAC population necessitates the need for expansion of services to expedite the release of UAC. In order to be prepared for an increase in referrals for shelter and post release/home studies services, ORR will solicit proposals from forty three grantees to accommodate the extensive amount of referrals from DHS.
ORR has specific requirements for the provision of services. Award recipients must have the infrastructure, licensing, experience, and appropriate level of trained staff to meet those requirements. The expansion of the existing shelter services and post-release/home studies programs through this supplemental award is a key strategy for ORR to be prepared to meet its responsibility of safe and timely release of Unaccompanied Alien Children referred to its care by DHS and to provide services for vulnerable youth post release. This will allow the US Border Patrol to continue its vital national security mission to prevent illegal migration, trafficking, and protect the borders of the United States.
(A) Section 462 of the Homeland Security Act of 2002, which in March 2003, transferred responsibility for the care and custody of Unaccompanied Alien Children from the Commissioner of the former Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS) to the Director of ORR of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
(B) The Flores Settlement Agreement, Case No. CV85-4544RJK (C.D. Cal. 1996), as well as the William Wilberforce Trafficking Victims Protection Reauthorization Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-457), which authorizes post release services under certain conditions to eligible children. All programs must comply with the Flores Settlement Agreement, Case No. CV85-4544-RJK (C.D. Cal. 1996), pertinent regulations and ORR policies and procedures.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is requesting nominations for voting members to serve on the Device Good Manufacturing Practice Advisory Committee and device panels of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee in the Center for Devices and Radiological Health. In accordance with the 21st Century Cures Act, this notice provides an annual opportunity for patients, representatives of patients, and sponsors of medical device submissions to provide recommendations for individuals with appropriate expertise to fill voting member positions on classification panels.
FDA seeks to include the views of women and men, members of all racial and ethnic groups, and individuals with and without disabilities on its advisory committees and, therefore, encourages nominations of appropriately qualified candidates from these groups.
Nominations received on or before August 22, 2017, will be given first consideration for membership on the Device Good Manufacturing Practice Advisory Committee and Panels of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee. Nominations received after August 22, 2017, will be considered for nomination to the committee as later vacancies occur.
All nominations for membership should be submitted electronically by logging into the FDA Advisory Nomination Portal:
Regarding all nomination questions for membership, contact the following persons listed in table 1:
FDA is requesting nominations for voting members for vacancies listed in table 2:
The Committee reviews regulations proposed for issuance regarding good manufacturing practices governing the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, packing, storage, and installation of devices, and makes recommendations to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner) regarding the feasibility and reasonableness of those proposed regulations. The committee also advises the Commissioner with regard to any petition submitted by a manufacturer for an exemption or variance from good manufacturing practice regulations that is referred to the committee.
The Committee reviews and evaluates data on the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational devices and makes recommendations for their regulation. The panels engage in a number of activities to fulfill the functions the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) envisions for device advisory panels. With the exception of the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel, each panel, according to its specialty area performs the following duties: (1) Advises the Commissioner regarding recommended classification or reclassification of devices into one of three regulatory categories, (2) advises on any possible risks to health associated with the use of devices, (3) advises on formulation of product development protocols, (4) reviews premarket approval applications for medical devices, (5) reviews guidelines and guidance documents, (6) recommends exemption of certain devices from the application of portions of the FD&C Act, (7) advises on the necessity to ban a device, and (8) responds to requests from the Agency to review and make recommendations on specific issues or problems concerning the safety and effectiveness of devices. With the exception of the Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel, each panel, according to its specialty area, may also make appropriate recommendations to the Commissioner on issues relating to the design of clinical studies regarding the safety and effectiveness of marketed and investigational devices.
The Dental Products Panel also functions at times as a dental drug panel. The functions of the dental drug panel are to evaluate and recommend whether various prescription drug products should be changed to over-the-counter status and to evaluate data and make recommendations concerning the approval of new dental drug products for human use.
The Medical Devices Dispute Resolution Panel provides advice to the Commissioner on complex or contested scientific issues between FDA and medical device sponsors, applicants, or manufacturers relating to specific products, marketing applications, regulatory decisions and actions by FDA, and Agency guidance and policies. The panel makes recommendations on issues that are lacking resolution, are highly complex in nature, or result from challenges to regular advisory panel proceedings or Agency decisions or actions.
The Committee consists of a core of nine members including the Chair. Members and the Chair are selected by the Secretary of Health and Human Services. Persons nominated for membership as a health professional or officer or employee of any Federal, State, or local government should have knowledge of or expertise in any one or more of the following areas: Quality assurance concerning the design, manufacture, and use of medical devices. To be eligible for selection as a representative of the general public, nominees should possess appropriate qualifications to understand and contribute to the committee's work. Three of the members shall be officers or employees of any State or local government or of the Federal Government; two shall be representative of the interests of the device manufacturing industry; two shall be representatives of the interests of physicians and other health professionals; and two shall be representatives of the interests of the general public. Almost all non-Federal members of this committee serves as Special Government Employees. Members are invited to serve for overlapping terms of 4 years. The particular needs at this time for this committee are listed in Table 2 of this document.
The Medical Devices Advisory Committee with its 18 panels shall consist of a maximum of 159 standing members. Members are selected by the Commissioner or designee from among authorities in clinical and administrative medicine, engineering, biological and physical sciences, and other related professions. Almost all non-Federal members of this committee serve as Special Government Employees. A maximum of 122 members shall be standing voting members and 37 shall be nonvoting members who serve as representatives of consumer interests and of industry interests. FDA is publishing separate documents announcing the Request for Nominations Notification for Non-Voting Representatives on certain panels of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee. Persons nominated for membership on the panels should have adequately diversified experience appropriate to the work of the panel in such fields as clinical and
Any interested person may nominate one or more qualified individuals for membership on one or more of the advisory panels or advisory committees. Self-nominations are also accepted. Nominations must include a current, complete resume or curriculum vitae for each nominee, including current business address and/or home address, telephone number, and email address if available. Nominations must also specify the advisory committee(s) for which the nominee is recommended. Nominations must also acknowledge that the nominee is aware of the nomination unless self-nominated. FDA will ask potential candidates to provide detailed information concerning such matters related to financial holdings, employment, and research grants and/or contracts to permit evaluation of possible sources of conflict of interest.
This notice is issued under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2) and 21 CFR part 14, relating to advisory committees.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of docket; request for comments.
In connection with promoting the use of innovative technologies, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is establishing a public docket to invite discussion of issues related to the adoption of continuous manufacturing by the pharmaceutical industry.
Submit electronic or written comments by September 21, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before September 21, 2017. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the Engineering Research Center for Structured Organic Particulate Systems (C-SOPS) document to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 2201, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Sau (Larry) Lee, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm. 2128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-2905,
During a May 7, 2015, workshop on the Future of Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, FDA agreed that interested parties could submit for Agency consideration draft guidance or other materials discussing the science, technology, and best practices related to continuous manufacturing. On June 13, 2016, C-SOPS submitted to FDA an industry-coordinated best practices document on continuous manufacturing. FDA is interested in public comments about the science, technology, and practices discussed in the C-SOPS document and is opening this docket for that purpose. In addition, FDA is seeking comments on other recommendations regarding continuous manufacturing that have already been published, including “Regulatory and Quality Considerations for Continuous Manufacturing: May 20-21, 2014, Continuous Manufacturing Symposium.” FDA invites comment on control strategy, facility, and process validation considerations for continuous manufacturing of solid oral dosage forms. This request is not limited to comments on the proposal described in the C-SOPS submission.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the C-SOPS document at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA, the Agency, or we) is announcing a public meeting and an opportunity for public comment on “Patient-Focused Drug Development for Alopecia Areata.” Patient-Focused Drug Development is part of FDA's performance commitments under the fifth authorization of the Prescription Drug User Fee Act (PDUFA V). The public meeting is intended to allow FDA to obtain patients' perspectives on the impact of alopecia areata, including on daily life. FDA is also seeking patients' views on treatment approaches and decision factors taken into account when selecting a treatment.
The public meeting will be held on September 11, 2017, from 1 p.m. to 5 p.m. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by November 13, 2017. See the
The public meeting will be held at the FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Entrance for the public meeting participants (non-FDA employees) is through Building 1 where routine security check procedures will be performed. For more information on parking and security procedures, please refer to
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2017. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential
FDA will post the agenda approximately 5 days before the meeting at:
Meghana Chalasani, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 1146, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-6525, FAX: 301-847-8443,
FDA has selected alopecia areata as the focus of a public meeting under the Patient-Focused Drug Development initiative. This initiative involves obtaining a better understanding of patients' perspectives on the severity of a disease and the available therapies for that condition. Patient-Focused Drug Development is being conducted to fulfill FDA performance commitments that are part of the PDUFA reauthorization under Title I of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) (Pub. L. 112-144). The full set of performance commitments is available on the FDA Web site at
FDA committed to obtain the patient perspective on at least 20 disease areas during the course of PDUFA V. For each disease area, the Agency is conducting a public meeting to discuss the disease and its impact on patients' daily lives, the types of treatment benefits that matter most to patients, and patients' perspectives on the adequacy of the available therapies. These meetings will include participation of FDA review divisions, the relevant patient communities, and other interested stakeholders.
On April 11, 2013, FDA published a notice in the
As part of Patient-Focused Drug Development, FDA will obtain patient and patient stakeholder input on the symptoms of alopecia areata that matter most to patients and on current approaches to treating alopecia areata. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune disease that causes hair loss. The hair loss usually occurs on the scalp but can also affect the beard, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. While there is currently no cure, there are available treatments, such as corticosteroids or non-drug therapies, which may help hair regrowth. FDA is interested in the perspectives of patients with alopecia areata on: (1) The impact of their condition, (2) treatment approaches, and (3) decision factors taken into account when selecting a treatment.
The questions that will be asked of patients and patient stakeholders at the meeting are listed in this section and organized by topic. For each topic, a brief initial patient panel discussion will begin the dialogue. This will be followed by a facilitated discussion inviting comments from other patient and patient stakeholder participants. In addition to input generated through this public meeting, FDA is interested in receiving patient input addressing these questions through electronic or written comments, which can be submitted to the Dockets Management Staff (see
1. Of all the symptoms or disease manifestations that you experience because of your condition, which one to three symptoms or manifestations have the most significant impact on your life? Examples may include location or type of hair loss (
2. Are there specific activities that are important to you but that you cannot do at all or as fully as you would like because of your condition? Examples of activities may include daily hygiene, engagement in personal relationships, participation in sports or social activities, completion of school or work activities, etc.
3. How do your symptoms and their negative impacts affect your daily life on the best days? On the worst days?
4. How has your condition changed over time?
• Would you define your condition today as being well-managed?
5. What worries you most about your condition?
1. What are you currently doing to help treat your condition or its symptoms? Examples may include prescription medicines, over-the-counter products, and non-drug therapies such as diet modification.
• How has your treatment regimen changed over time, and why?
2. How well does your current treatment regimen control your condition?
• How well have these treatments worked for you as your condition has changed over time?
3. What are the most significant downsides to your current treatments,
4. What specific things would you look for in an ideal treatment for your condition?
• What would you consider to be a meaningful improvement in your condition that a treatment could provide?
5. What factors do you take into account when making decisions about selecting a course of treatment?
If you wish to attend this meeting, visit
Patients who are interested in presenting comments as part of the initial panel discussions will be asked to indicate in their registration which topic(s) they wish to address. These patients also must send to
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this Information Collection Request must be received no later than August 22, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, in compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR must be received no later than August 22, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, in compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Total Estimated Annualized Burden Hours:
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR must be received no later than August 22, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, in compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Office of Minority Health, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice of meeting.
As stipulated by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) is hereby giving notice that the Advisory Committee on Minority Health (ACMH) will hold a meeting. This meeting will be open to the public. Preregistration is required for both public attendance and comment. Any individual who wishes to attend the meetings and/or participate in the public comment session should email
The meeting will be held on Monday, August 28, 2017, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. and Tuesday, August 29, 2017, from 9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the 5600 Fishers Lane Building, Room 05N76, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857.
Dr. Minh Wendt, Designated Federal Officer, ACMH; Tower Building, 1101 Wootton Parkway, Suite 600, Rockville, Maryland 20852. Phone: 240-453-8222, Fax: 240-453-8223;
In accordance with 42 U.S.C.§ 300u-6(c), the ACMH was established to provide advice to the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Minority Health in improving the health of each racial and ethnic minority group and on the development of goals and specific program activities of the Office of Minority Health.
Topics to be discussed during this meeting will include strategies to improve the health of racial and ethnic minority populations through the development of health policies and programs that will help eliminate health disparities, as well as other related issues.
Public attendance at this meeting is limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the designated contact person at least fourteen (14) business days prior to the meeting. Members of the public will have an opportunity to provide comments at the meeting. Public comments will be limited to three minutes per speaker. Individuals who would like to submit written statements should mail or fax their comments to the Office of Minority Health at least seven (7) business days prior to the meeting. Any members of the public who wish to have printed material distributed to ACMH committee members should submit their materials to the Designated Federal Officer, ACMH, Tower Building, 1101 Wootton Parkway, Suite 600, Rockville, Maryland 20852, prior to close of business on Monday, August 21, 2017.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
The National Toxicology Program (NTP) announces a meeting to peer review the
Canden Byrd, ICF, 2635 Meridian Parkway, Suite 200, Durham, NC, USA 27713. Phone: (919) 293-1660, Fax: (919) 293-1645, Email:
Haloacetic acids found as drinking water by-products were selected for review following solicitation of public comment, review by the NTP Board of Scientific Counselors on April 11, 2016, and approval by the NTP Director (
Water disinfection is among the most important and beneficial public health advances of the 20th century and has substantially reduced United States incidence of cholera, typhoid, and amoebic dysentery caused by waterborne pathogens. A consequence of the water disinfection process is formation of a large number of unintended compounds from chemicals and organic material in the water; these unintended chemicals are of potential public health concern. Haloacetic acids are the second largest group by weight (36%) of total halogenated disinfection by-products found in public water supplies. The draft RoC monograph includes a cancer hazard assessment of 13 haloacetic acids containing chlorine, bromine, or iodine, or a combination of these halogens that have been identified in disinfected water.
The draft monograph and preliminary agenda will be available on the NTP Web site at
Public comment at this meeting is welcome, with time set aside for the presentation of oral comments on the draft monograph. In addition to in-person oral comments at the NIEHS, public comments can be presented by teleconference line. There will be 50 lines for this call; availability is on a first-come, first-served basis. The lines will be open from 8:30 a.m. until adjournment at approximately 4:00 p.m. EDT on July 24, 2017, although oral comments will be received only during the formal public comment periods indicated on the preliminary agenda. The access number for the teleconference line will be provided to registrants by email prior to the meeting. Each organization is allowed one time slot. At least 7 minutes will be allotted to each time slot, and if time permits, the allotment may be extended to 10 minutes at the discretion of the chair.
Persons wishing to make an oral presentation are asked to register online at
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice of Fiscal Year 2017 Funding Awards.
The Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (HERA) established the Housing Trust Fund (HTF) to be administered by HUD. Pursuant to the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Security and Soundness Act of 1992 (the Act), as amended by HERA, Division A, eligible HTF grantees are the 50 states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of Northern Mariana Islands, and the United States Virgin Islands. In accordance with Section 1338(c)(4)(A) of the Act, this notice announces the formula allocation amount for each eligible HTF grantee.
Virginia Sardone, Director, Office of Affordable Housing Programs, Room 7164, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Washington, DC 20410-7000; telephone (202) 708-2684. (This is not a toll-free number.) A telecommunications device for hearing- and speech-impaired persons (TTY) is available at 800-877-8339 (Federal Relay Service).
Section 1131 of HERA Division A amended the Act to add a new section 1337 entitled “Affordable Housing Allocations” and a new section 1338 entitled “Housing Trust Fund.” HUD's implementing regulations are codified at 24 CFR part 93. Congress authorized the HTF with the stated purpose of: (1) Increasing and preserving the supply of rental housing for extremely low-income families with incomes between 0 and 30 percent of area median income and very low-income families with incomes between 30 and 50 percent of area median income, including homeless families, and (2) increasing homeownership for extremely low-income and very low-income families. Section 1337 of the Act provides for the HTF (and other programs) to be funded with an affordable housing set-aside by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac. The total set-aside amount is equal to 4.2 basis points (.042 percent) of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac's new mortgage purchases, a portion of which is for the HTF. Section 1338 of the Act directs HUD to establish, through regulation, the formula for distribution of amounts made available for the HTF. The statute specifies the factors to be used for the formula and priority for certain factors. The factors and methodology HUD uses to allocate HTF funds among eligible grantees are established in the HTF regulation. The funding announced for Fiscal Year 2017 through this notice is $219,168,373.94. This amount includes $12,702,747 of unobligated Fiscal Year 2016 HTF funds that will be reallocated by formula, which are comprised of $37,298 from American Samoa, Guam, and the Commonwealth of Northern Mariana Islands, three Insular Areas that declined their Fiscal Year 2016 allocations and $12,665,449 of Sequestered Fiscal Year 2016 funds. HUD may add any amounts that may become available to these FY 2017 HTF allocation amounts. Appendix A to this notice provides the names of the grantees and the amounts of the awards.
FY 2017 Housing Trust Fund Allocation Amounts
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) provides 60-day notice, invites public comments on, and plans to request approval to continue, the collection of information from applicants for authorization to purchase mineral materials from public lands. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has assigned control number 1004-0103 to this information collection.
Please submit comments on the proposed information collection by August 22, 2017.
Comments may be submitted by mail, fax, or electronic mail. Mail: U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management, 1849 C Street NW., Room 2134LM, Attention: Jean Sonneman, Washington, DC 20240. Fax: Jean Sonneman at 202-245-0050. Electronic mail:
George Brown, Division of Solid Minerals, at 202-912-7118. Persons who use a telecommunication device for the deaf may call the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339, to leave a message for Mr. Brown.
OMB regulations at 5 CFR 1320, which implement provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521, require that interested members of the public and affected agencies be given an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see 5 CFR 1320.8(d) and 1320.12(a)). This notice identifies an information collection that the BLM will be submitting to OMB for approval. The Paperwork Reduction Act provides that an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. Until OMB approves a collection of information, you are not obligated to respond.
The BLM will request a 3-year term of approval for this information collection activity. Comments are invited on: (1) The need for the collection of information for the performance of the functions of the agency; (2) the accuracy of the agency's burden estimates; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the information collection burden on respondents, such as use of automated means of collection of the information. A summary of the public comments will accompany our submission of the information collection requests to OMB.
Before including your address, telephone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comments, be advised that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask in your comment to withhold from public review your personal identifying information, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
The following information is provided for the information collection:
The following table details the individual components and respective hour burdens of this information collection request:
The authorities for this action are the Mineral Materials Act (30 U.S.C. 601-602) and the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501—3521).
National Park Service, Interior.
Notification of boundary adjustment.
The boundary of Delaware Water Gap National Recreation Area is adjusted to include three parcels of land totaling 1,055.89 acres of land, more or less. Fee simple interest in two parcels and a right-of-way over the third parcel will be donated by the Conservation Fund to the United States along with fee simple interest in 35.39 acres of other land already within the boundary. These properties are all located in Pike County, Pennsylvania.
The effective date of this boundary adjustment is June 23, 2017.
The map depicting this boundary adjustment is available for inspection at the following locations: National Park Service, Land Resources Program Center, Northeast Region, 200 Chestnut Street, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19106, and National Park Service, Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20240.
Superintendent John J. Donahue, Delaware Water Gap National Recreation Area, 1978 River Road (Off US209), Bushkill, PA 18324, telephone (570) 426-2418.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to 16 U.S.C. 460o-2(b), the boundary of Delaware Water Gap National Recreation Area is adjusted to include three parcels totaling 1,055.89 acres of land in Pike County, Pennsylvania: 1,054.26 acres (Tax Map Nos. 175.00-02-06, 176.00-02-01 and 183.00-01-19) in Lehman and Delaware Townships; and 0.47 acre (portion of Tax Map No. 113.00-01-05.004) and 1.16 acres (right-of-way over a portion of Tax Map No. 113.00-01-05.003) in Milford Township. The two parcels in Milford Township, together with 35.39 acres of fee interest already within the boundary (remaining portion of Tax Map No. 113.00-01-05.004, also known as Tract 12795 in the National Recreation Area), are part of a single property that cannot be subdivided. This boundary adjustment is depicted on Map No. 620/137,770 dated April, 2017.
Specifically, 16 U.S.C. 460o-2(b) states that the Secretary of the Interior may make adjustments in the boundary of the national recreation area by publication of the amended description thereof in the
On July 10, 2015, the Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration, issued an Order to Show Cause to Peter F. Kelly, D.P.M. (Respondent), of Roanoke, Virginia. ALJ Ex. 1, at 1. The Show Cause Order proposed the revocation of Respondent's Certificate of Registration No. BK0639279, the denial of any application to renew or modify his registration, and the denial of any other application for a DEA registration, on the ground that he has committed acts which render his registration “inconsistent with the public interest.”
As to the jurisdictional basis for the proceeding, the Show Cause Order alleged that Respondent is registered “as a practitioner in [s]chedules II-V,” under the above registration number, at the address of 4106 Electric Road, Roanoke, Virginia.
As to the substantive grounds for the proceeding, the Show Cause Order alleged that in June 2000, Respondent was indicted in the Circuit Court for Roanoke County, Virginia, on four felony counts of unlawful possession of
Next, the Show Cause Order alleged that “[f]rom approximately December 2007 until approximately September 2012, [Respondent's] employee, Vickie Mullen, used [his] DEA registration number to call-in and/or fax-in 72 prescriptions in her own name and 1[,]596 prescriptions in the names of others for controlled substances totaling 127,686 dosage units of hydrocodone (then a [s]chedule III controlled substance) and 5,370 dosage units of Ambien ([z]olpidem tartrate, a [s]chedule IV controlled substance).”
The Show Cause Order further alleged that “[o]n July 10, 2013, DEA executed an Administrative Inspection Warrant . . . at [Respondent's] registered location” and that the Agency found that Respondent was in violation of several record-keeping requirements.
The Show Cause Order also alleged that Respondent left controlled substances, which included hydrocodone, alprazolam, and diazepam, “out overnight in [his] office, rather than `stored in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet' as required by 21 CFR 1301.75(b).”
Following service of the Show Cause Order, Respondent, through his counsel, requested a hearing on the allegations. ALJ Ex. 2. The matter was placed on the docket of the Office of Administrative Law Judges and was initially assigned to Chief Administrative Law Judge John J. Mulrooney, II. However, on September 22, 2015, the matter was reassigned to Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) Charles Wm. Dorman, who conducted further pre-hearing procedures and an evidentiary hearing on January 12-13, 2016, in Roanoke, Virginia.
On April 11, 2016, the ALJ issued his Recommended Decision. With respect to Factor One, the ALJ found that the Board's 2005 Consent Order “is the only disciplinary action in the record” and that the Board terminated his probation one month early. R.D. 29. The ALJ noted, however, that while possessing a state license is a necessary condition for holding a DEA registration, it is not dispositive. As for Factor Three, the ALJ found that while in 2000, Respondent was convicted of possession of marijuana and other controlled substances, these were simple possession offenses which did not involve the manufacture, distribution or dispensing of controlled substances and thus did not fall within Factor Three.
The ALJ then addressed the various allegations of misconduct under Factors Two, Four and Five. The ALJ rejected the allegation that Respondent is responsible for the misuse of his registration by Ms. Mullen, holding that the Government was required to show that Respondent had entrusted his registration to Mullen and had failed to produce any evidence that Respondent had given his registration number to Mullen or that he had given her access to his registration whether expressly, impliedly, or negligently.
The ALJ also rejected the Government's contention that Respondent was put on notice that his registration was being misused when, in 2008, he was contacted by a pharmacist regarding two prescriptions that were called-in under his name, and that Respondent should have monitored Mullen and his PMP report.
The ALJ further rejected the Government's contention that Respondent violated 21 CFR 1301.92, by continuing to employ Mullen even after he learned of her diversion. R.D. 37-38. According to the ALJ, the regulation relied on by the Government “does not require the immediate termination of an employee; it only requires that the employer immediately assess the employee's conduct to determine what employment actions to take against the employee.” R.D. 37. The ALJ found that Respondent complied with the regulations because he told Mullen that she would be retained “only until her replacement showed minimal proficiency,” he “began advertising [her] position the same week that he discovered her diversion,” and
The ALJ further noted that Mullen was “Respondent's only insurance secretary,” that “her position was essential to the continued operation of . . . Respondent's practice,” and while “Respondent's office manager was competent to perform the duties of the insurance secretary, she could not do so and also perform her various duties.”
With respect to the recordkeeping allegations, the ALJ rejected Respondent's contention that he was not subject to the recordkeeping requirements of 21 U.S.C. 827(a), because he did not “regularly engage[] in the dispensing or administering of controlled substances and charge[d] his patients, either separately or together with charges for other professional services, for substances so dispense or administered.”
Based on the findings of the 2005 Virginia Board of Medicine Consent Order, the ALJ then found that the Government had proved that Respondent failed to conduct an initial inventory.
Next, the ALJ rejected the Government's contention that Respondent violated 21 CFR 1301.75, which requires that controlled substances be stored “in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet,” when he left the controlled substances out overnight for his office manager to administer to patients who were undergoing procedures the following morning.
However, the ALJ found that the Government proved the allegation that Respondent had aided and abetted the unlawful distribution of controlled substances by having his office manager, who was not registered, administer controlled substances to patients who were to have procedures on days when he was late arriving at his office.
Finally, the ALJ found that Respondent's 2000 state court convictions for unlawful possession of various controlled substances could be considered under Factor Five. The ALJ noted, however, that “these convictions occurred over 15 years ago, and [that] Respondent has not been convicted of any controlled substance offenses since 2000.”
Based on his findings of the recordkeeping violations, the aiding and abetting of the office manager's unlawful distribution of controlled substances, and the 2000 convictions, the ALJ concluded that the Government had established “a
While the ALJ found that Respondent had not “rebut[ted] the Government's
The ALJ thus recommended that Respondent's registration be suspended for a period of one year, to begin three months from the effective date of the Decision and Order in this matter, and that the suspension be stayed if during this period, Respondent completed courses in “controlled substance recordkeeping,” “control substance storage,” and “the administration of controlled substances.”
Respondent filed Exceptions to the Recommended Decision. Thereafter, the record was forwarded to my Office for Final Agency Action.
Having considered the record in its entirety, including Respondent's Exceptions, I agree with the ALJ that the Government has failed to prove that Respondent is liable either for entrusting his registration to Ms. Mullen (his insurance clerk) or because he knew or should have known of her criminal misconduct prior to August 20, 2012. I also agree with the ALJ that the Government has failed to prove that Respondent violated 21 CFR 1301.75, on those occasions when he left controlled substances outside of the controlled substances safe but the drugs were left locked in the drug room.
I further agree with the ALJ that Respondent failed to conduct an initial inventory and that he also failed to take a proper biennial inventory because he did not actually count the drugs that were on hand. In addition, I agree with the ALJ that Respondent aided and abetted a violation of 21 U.S.C. 841 when he directed his office manager to administer controlled substances to patients prior to procedures when he was not present in the office. Finally, I agree with the ALJ that Respondent was convicted in 2000 in state court of four felony offenses and one misdemeanor offense of unlawful possession of controlled substances.
I disagree, however, with the ALJ's rejection of the Government's contention that Respondent should have immediately terminated Mullen after he determined that she had been calling and faxing in fraudulent prescriptions and refill requests for hydrocodone and zolpidem. While I agree with the ALJ that Respondent did not acknowledge any of his misconduct, I disagree with his recommended sanction of a stayed suspension. Instead, I conclude that relevant factors support the imposition of an outright suspension of Respondent's registration for a period of one year, as well as the requirement that Respondent take a course in controlled substance recordkeeping if, following termination of the suspension, he intends to resume either administering or engaging in the direct dispensing of controlled substances. I make the following factual findings.
Respondent is a board certified Doctor of Podiatric Medicine who is licensed by the Virginia Board of Medicine. GX 2. At all times relevant to the events at issue, Respondent maintained offices in Roanoke, Bedford, Radford, and Rocky Mount, Virginia. RX 13, at 2.
Respondent is also the holder of DEA Certificate of Registration BK0639279, pursuant to which he is authorized to dispense controlled substances in schedules II through V, as a practitioner, at the registered address of 4106 Electric Road, P.O. Box 20566, Roanoke, VA 24018. ALJ Ex. 8, at 15. Respondent's registration does not expire until December 31, 2017.
On September 13, 2000, Respondent pled guilty in the Circuit Court of Roanoke County Virginia to four felony counts of possession of the controlled substances sufentanil, oxycodone (with acetaminophen), pethidine (meperidine), and hydromorphone,
Shortly after Respondent was sentenced, representatives of the DEA notified him that his registration was subject to revocation based on the above proceeding; the letter also offered Respondent the opportunity to voluntarily surrender his registration. RX 83, at 1. Sometime thereafter, Respondent's attorney wrote a letter to the DEA representatives informing them that he had successfully completed his probation and that all of his drug tests were negative and that his propensity for drug abuse risk was found to be negligible.
On October 15, 2004, the Virginia Board of Medicine notified Respondent that it would hold “an informal conference” to inquire into various allegations that he “violated certain laws and regulations governing the practice of podiatry in Virginia.” GX 2, at 1. The Board raised 19 different allegations including,
On February 3, 2005, Respondent and the Board entered into a Consent Order, which found that Respondent had violated various provisions of Virginia law. The findings included “that he . . . did not establish an initial inventory or maintain current and accurate records of his inventory, receipt and distribution of controlled substances,” and that he
Based on its findings, the Board imposed a monetary penalty of $2,000 and placed Respondent on probation for a period of one year.
On January 11, 2006, a Committee of the Board met to review Respondent's compliance with the Consent Order and found that he “had fully complied with all terms [of] the Order.” GX 4, at 1. The Board thus terminated Respondent's probation and restored his license to un-restricted status.
Sometime in 2004, Respondent hired Ms. Vicki Mullen to work at his Roanoke office, where her duties included preparing and filing insurance claim forms. Tr. 73, 81. According to Respondent's office manager, Mullen was authorized to use Respondent's signature stamp on the forms.
Beginning on or about December 31, 2007, Mullen began calling in prescriptions to pharmacies for various drugs including 90 to 120 dosage units of hydrocodone 10 mg (then a schedule III and now a schedule II controlled substance) and 30 dosage units of zolpidem (the generic version of Ambien, a schedule IV controlled substance). GX 12, at 1. According to the credited testimony, at one Walmart pharmacy, Mullen would call the pharmacy's doctor's line and leave a message for a prescription representing that she was calling on behalf of Respondent. The Walmart pharmacy would fill the prescriptions even though Mullen did not provide Respondent's DEA registration number.
On some occasions, the pharmacies would fax a refill request to Respondent's office. On these occasions, Mullen would use Respondent's signature stamp to manifest that he had approved the refill request and fax the authorization back to the pharmacy which typically authorized three refills.
However, notwithstanding Respondent's claim that Mullen did not have access to his DEA number,
Over the course of the scheme, Mullen called in or faxed in prescriptions and refill requests for 82 prescriptions for herself which Respondent had not authorized.
Between December 31, 2007 and August 20, 2012, Mullen called in, or stamped and faxed, prescriptions and refill requests for 1,596 prescriptions and refills for hydrocodone and zolpidem. GX 12. In total, the prescriptions resulted in the dispensing of 127,686 dosage units of hydrocodone and 5,370 dosage units of zolpidem under Respondent's registration.
While Mullen was able to continue her illegal activity for nearly five years, she came to the attention of the Virginia State Police as early as November 18, 2008. GX 6, at 2. According to the evidence, on November 17, 2008,
Finding the two prescriptions to be suspicious, the pharmacist called Respondent's office and was told that “no one named Liz Norville . . . worked at that office [and] that they had no patients by the name of” C.T. and S.F.
After Respondent acknowledged that Mullen had access to the fax machine and his signature stamp, the Government asked him what measures he had in place to supervise employees when he was in his other offices.
The same day, Detective Findley went to the pharmacy, interviewed the pharmacist and obtained a written statement from her, as well as the statement Respondent had provided to the pharmacist. GX 6, at 2; Tr. 189-90. Using video footage, the Detective, with the assistance of one of the store's asset protection officers, was able to identify the individual who picked up one of the prescriptions as M.F.,
Thereafter, on November 20, 2008, the Detective interviewed Mullen, who admitted that she had called in the forged prescriptions. RX 93-A. While on February 6, 2009, Mullen was indicted in state court on the charge that she “did obtain or attempt to obtain [Tramadol], by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, embezzlement, or subterfuge, or by the concealment of a material fact,” which was punishable as a Class 6 felony under Virginia law, at no point did the Detective tell Respondent that Mullen had been arrested.
The Detective further admitted that he did not obtain a Prescription Monitoring Program (PMP) report using Respondent's DEA registration number to determine what controlled substance prescriptions were being dispensed under his registration.
Notably, by November 17, 2008, Mullen's criminal conduct had already resulted in the dispensing of 200 prescriptions and refills, each being for 90 dosage units of hydrocodone, by three Walmart Pharmacies.
Mullen continued to work for Respondent until late September 2012, nearly five weeks after August 20, 2012, when his office manager found a faxed refill request from a Walmart Pharmacy (#1301) for 90 dosage units of Lortab 10 mg for a patient named J.L. GX 15, at 2;
Respondent then called the pharmacy. GX 15, at 2; Tr. 343. The pharmacist reviewed J.L.'s prescription history and told Respondent that J.L. had been obtaining Lortab prescriptions/refills on a monthly basis since May 17, 2011, “when the original prescription was called in by” a person who gave Vicki as her first name but a different last name than Mullen. GX 15, at 2; Tr. 348;
Respondent told the pharmacist “that somebody was fraudulently using [his] DEA number.” Tr. 350. He also told the
Respondent testified that he had called various pharmacies to report these incidents, but did not “exactly know when [he] did that,” before claiming that he might have done this on August 20, 2012, before he left for his Radford office. Tr. 359. Respondent then explained that he notified one of the Walmarts that his “DEA number [wa]s being . . . falsified and abused” and that “should go to all of the Walmarts” because “they're going to be on a network.”
Respondent further determined that only Mullen was working in his Roanoke office that afternoon as he and his office manager had worked at his Radford office. GX 15, at 2. Respondent confronted Mullen over the phone who “confessed to falsifying [his] signature, submitting the refill authorizations, and picking them up.”
Respondent called DEA and spoke with a Diversion Investigator, who told him to call Detective Findley. Tr. 347. Respondent called Detective Findley; the two met at Respondent's Radford office that afternoon.
Several days later, Respondent accessed the Virginia Court System's Web site and found the records of the 2009 criminal case in which Mullen pled guilty to obtaining drugs by fraud. RX 23, at 1-6. He also ran a PMP report on Mullen. RX 24. The Report showed that from January 21, 2008 through August 24, 2012, Mullen had obtained 56 prescriptions/refills for 90 dosage units of hydrocodone 10 mg and 26 prescriptions/refills for 30 dosage units of zolpidem 10 mg which were dispensed under Respondent's registration.
On August 24, 2012, Respondent had Mullen prepare a written statement regarding her misconduct.
While Respondent told Mullen that she would be fired, and placed an ad for her replacement, he retained her as an employee through September 28, 2012.
Respondent further asserted that “I needed to isolate [Mullen] from any of these communications, to keep the office safe from her.”
Respondent also asserted that at the time he decided to retain Mullen while she trained her replacement he acted in “proportion of things that I knew. So it wasn't . . . what we're looking at in retrospective now with this huge situation. It was only with a handful of information that I had, less than a dozen.”
Consistent with Mullen's August 24, 2012 statement, both Respondent and his office manager denied having any knowledge of Mullen's criminal activity, including the 2009 state proceeding, until late August 2012. Tr.75-76, 88 (office manager's testimony);
Respondent further testified that he never authorized Mullen to call in prescriptions for pain medications and/or controlled substances using his name and DEA number. Tr. 319. Indeed, he asserted that Ms. Mullen “doesn't know my DEA number.”
Asked whether he accepted responsibility for the “diversion that occurred out of [his] office and under [his] identity,” Respondent answered that Mullen “was not entrusted with [his] DEA number” and that “there was nothing I could do to supplement that.”
On July 10, 2013, DEA Diversion Investigators executed an Administrative Inspection Warrant (AIW), presumably at Respondent's Roanoke office as it was his registered location.
However, upon questioning by Government counsel, the DI testified that there was no beginning inventory, that this is the same as the initial inventory which must be created when a person first becomes registered and obtains drugs, and that there was also no biennial inventory.
The DI acknowledged, however, that Respondent had receipt records that went back beyond the period of the audit he conducted, which covered a period of two years.
Regarding the recordkeeping allegation, Respondent testified that DHP's inspector who audited his records did not raise any issue with respect to his recordkeeping and “said they were good.”
The DI also testified that in the summer of 2015, he interviewed Respondent's office manager.
The office manager also told the DI that “sometimes the controlled substances, which would be [h]ydrocodone, Xanax, and [d]iazepam . . . would be left out for . . . her to administer to the patient.”
The DI conceded that Respondent no longer has controlled substances in his office.
As to the allegation that he did not provide adequate security for the controlled substances that he left out of the safe the night before he would perform procedures, Respondent
As for his practice of allowing his office manager to administer controlled substances to patients prior to procedures, Respondent testified that this “was not a routine practice” and occurred only “on occasion.”
While Respondent testified that he would leave drugs outside of the safe (in the storage room) either the night before the procedure or if he had “come in earlier in the morning,” he further explained that he would leave out only the aliquot for “just that one patient,” and that it was kept “behind the locked door” of the drug room.
Asked by the ALJ whether he thought “it was improper to have [his office manager] administer” controlled substances to patients when he was “not in the office,” Respondent maintained that he “thought it was a common practice.”
Asked by the ALJ when he first started using the PMP, Respondent testified: “August 24, 2012.”
Under the CSA, “[a] registration pursuant to section 823 of this title to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance . . . may be suspended or revoked by the Attorney General upon a finding that the registrant . . . has committed such acts as would render his registration under section 823 of this title inconsistent with the public interest as determined under such section.” 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4). So too, “[t]he Attorney General may deny an application for [a practitioner's] registration . . . if the Attorney General determines that the issuance of such registration . . . would be inconsistent with the public interest.”
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board or professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant's experience in dispensing or conducting research with respect to controlled substances.
(3) The applicant's conviction record under Federal or State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws relating to controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.
“[T]hese factors are . . . considered in the disjunctive.”
Under the Agency's regulation, “[a]t any hearing for the revocation or suspension of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving [by substantial evidence] that the requirements for such revocation or suspension pursuant to . . . 21 U.S.C. [§ ] 824(a) . . . are satisfied.” 21 CFR 1301.44(e). In this matter, I conclude that the Government's evidence with respect to Factors Two, Four, and Five
As to Factor Three, I agree with the ALJ that there is no evidence that Respondent has been convicted of an offense under either federal or state law “relating to the manufacture, distribution or dispensing of controlled substances,” 21 U.S.C. 823(f)(3), and that the simple possession offenses of which he has been convicted are properly considered under Factor Five. The Agency has recognized, however, there are a number of reasons why even a person who has engaged in criminal misconduct may never have been convicted of an offense under this factor, let alone prosecuted for one.
In the Show Cause Order, the Government alleged that Respondent is “responsible for the misuse of [his] registration by” Ms. Mullen. ALJ Ex. 1, at 2. Moreover, in its post-hearing brief, the Government asserts that Respondent “knew or should have known about the diversion that Ms. Mullen was committing under his name” based on the fraudulent tramadol prescriptions that were brought to his attention by a pharmacist in November 2008. Gov. Post-Hrng. Br. 15-16. The Government notes Respondent's testimony that he “didn't think [these acts of diversion] had anything to do with him,” even though the prescriptions were called in under his name, and argues that “he admitted [that] he made no changes in his office practices, did not discuss the situation with his employees and did not begin to use Virginia's PMP to monitor the drugs being prescribed under his” registration.
The ALJ rejected the allegation, reasoning that the Government did not prove that Respondent “provide[d] Mullen with access to his registration number expressly, impliedly, or negligently,” R.D. 34, or that Respondent either had knowledge or was willfully blind to Mullen's actions prior to August 20, 2012.
First, the ALJ's opinion suggests that he gave weight to Respondent's testimony that he did not believe that the 2008 incident had anything to do with him.
As for Respondent's contention that he did not believe the incident involved him, the incident obviously involved him because his name was being used as the purported issuer of the prescriptions. Moreover, neither Respondent nor the ALJ explained why one would reasonably expect an employee who was engaged in criminal activity by calling in fraudulent prescriptions to give her actual name. Indeed, with respect to the person who was calling in the prescriptions, there were only two possibilities: either the prescriptions were being called in by someone who did not work for him or by someone who did.
I agree with the ALJ that the Government did not prove that Respondent either had actual knowledge of, or was willfully blind to, Mullen's criminal behavior until August 20, 2012.
The Agency has further explained that “the precise scope of” the duty to investigate “necessarily depends upon the facts and circumstances.”
Nonetheless, the Agency has not previously held that the potential misuse by an employee or agent of a
Moreover, even if the duty had been announced prior to the 2008 incident, I would find unpersuasive the Government's contention that Respondent should be held liable because “he made no changes in his office practices, did not discuss the situation with his employees and did not begin to use Virginia's PMP to monitor the drugs being prescribed under his DEA number.” Gov. Post-Hrng. Br., at 16-17.
The Government offered no explanation as to what changes Respondent should have made to his office practices (other than to check his PMP report) or other steps he should have taken “to properly monitor Ms. Mullen.” As for its claim that Respondent did not discuss the situation with his employees, while there is evidence that he did not discuss the matter with Mullen, perhaps Mullen would have confessed and perhaps not. Thus, it is unclear what this would have accomplished. Finally, as for the contention that Respondent should have checked his own PMP report, under Virginia law in effect at the time of the 2008 incident, Respondent was not authorized to obtain a PMP report showing his own prescribings.
Given the scope of the diversion, there is much about this case (such as the failure of the detective to tell Respondent of Mullen's arrest and convictions, not to mention that the terms of her probation did not prohibit her from working in a doctor's office; the fact that prescriptions which were missing Respondent's DEA number were routinely filled notwithstanding that they were facially invalid; as well as that the prescriptions were for hydrocodone in quantities and dosings that were clearly outside of the scope of what is usually prescribed by podiatrists), which is deeply disturbing. While the Government believes Respondent's and his office manager's testimony as to his lack of knowledge is implausible, the burden was on the Government to prove otherwise under the theory it advanced in this case.
Nonetheless, where a practitioner receives credible information that fraudulent prescriptions under his name are being presented for state but not federally-controlled drugs, and the state PMP permits a practitioner to obtain information as to his controlled substance prescribings, that practitioner has a duty to obtain that information and to determine whether unlawful prescriptions for federally controlled substances are also being dispensed under his registration. Moreover, even if state law does not authorize a practitioner to obtain a PMP report of the dispensings which have been attributed to him, a practitioner is obligated to obtain that information from a pharmacy that reports a fraudulent prescription to him. If information obtained from either the PMP or a pharmacy shows that one's registration is being misused, a registrant must report that information to DEA (as well as local law enforcement authorities) even if the practitioner concludes that no employee or agent is involved in the misuse of his registration.
In conclusion, I agree with the ALJ's legal conclusion that on this record, the Government has not sustained the allegation that Respondent is liable for Mullen's criminal misconduct. However, regardless of whether a registrant has entrusted his registration to an employee, upon receiving credible information that his registration may be the subject of misuse, a registrant has a duty to conduct a reasonable investigation to determine whether his employees are involved in the misuse of his registration. A failure to do so constitutes “other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.” 21 U.S.C. 823(f)(5).
To establish a violation of this duty, the Government is not required to prove that the registrant had actual knowledge or was willfully blind to the fact that an employee was engaged in diversion. Rather, the Government is required to show only that the registrant received credible information creating a suspicion that his registration was being misused, that reasonable measures were available to the registrant to determine if his/her employee or agent was misusing his registration, and that the registrant failed to take such measures.
As found above, even after Mullen admitted to Respondent that she had submitted the fraudulent refill authorization for hydrocodone and he was told by Detective Findley that Mullen had a history of submitting fraudulent prescriptions which included the 2008 tramadol prescriptions, Respondent continued to employ Mullen. Indeed, within days of receiving this information, Respondent found the state court records showing that Mullen had pled guilty to obtaining prescription drugs by fraud. He also obtained a PMP report showing that from January 21, 2008 through August 24, 2012, Mullen had filled 56 prescriptions/refills for 90 dosage units of hydrocodone 10 mg and 26 prescriptions/refills for zolpidem 10 mg. Respondent nonetheless continued to employ Mullen for another five weeks, asserting that he needed to retain her because she was his insurance clerk and needed her to maintain his cash flow while a new insurance clerk was hired and trained.
The ALJ rejected the Government's contention that Respondent violated 21 CFR 1301.92 because he continued to employ Mullen “even after learning of her diversion.” Show Cause Order (ALJ
In the ALJ's view, “Respondent immediately assessed both the seriousness of Mullen's violations and her position of responsibility, as required under” the regulation.
Continuing, the ALJ explained that “[f]or small businesses that depend on each employee performing essential business functions, it is reasonable to expect that terminating an employee can be a process rather than an instantaneous action.”
Section 1301.92 is contained in a section of part 1301 which follows the heading: “EMPLOYEE SCREENING-NON-PRACTITIONERS,” thus raising the question, which was not addressed by either party or the ALJ as to whether it even applies to Respondent who is a practitioner. I need not decide this question because under the public interest standard applicable to practitioners, the Agency's authority includes not only those acts that constitute violations of its regulations, it also includes “[s]uch other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.”
Of further note, 21 CFR 1301.76(a), which is titled “[o]ther security controls for practitioners,” provides, in part, that “[t]he registrant shall not employ as an agent or employee who has access to controlled substances, any person who has been convicted of a felony offense relating to controlled substances.”
Moreover, whether I were to apply section 1301.92 or evaluate Respondent's conduct under Factor Five, I would come to the same result. Here, the evidence shows that by August 24, 2012, Respondent knew that Mullen had been convicted in state court of two counts of prescription fraud. And once he obtained the PMP report which showed the controlled substances prescriptions she obtained under his DEA registration, Respondent knew that Mullen had committed at least another 82 felony offenses of prescription fraud.
To the extent the ALJ's recommendation suggests that Respondent properly “assessed . . . the seriousness of Mullen's violations,” R.D. 37, I disagree. Indeed, proof that Mullen had committed a single act of prescription fraud should have resulted in her immediate termination. Of further note, when confronted on cross-examination as to why he retained Mullen even after he obtained the PMP report, Respondent attempted to minimize the scope of Mullen's misconduct when he testified that “I acted upon the, you know, the proportion of things that I knew. So it wasn't—it wasn't what we're looking at in retrospective now with this huge situation. It was only with a handful of information that I had, less than a dozen.” Tr. 426.
However, by August 24, 2012, Mullen's criminal conduct in obtaining prescriptions for herself alone made this an indisputably “huge situation” given that she had obtained more than 5,000 dosage units of hydrocodone 10 mg, the strongest dosage form of this highly abused controlled substance, not to mention another 780 dosage units of zolpidem. Notably, the ALJ, in his discussion as to why he rejected the Government's contention that Respondent should have immediately fired Mullen, did not address this testimony.
I also disagree with the ALJ that the measures undertaken by Respondent justify his failure to immediately terminate Mullen. As for his moving the fax machine into the secure medications room, this did not address Mullen's ability to phone in prescriptions. So too, while Respondent took away Mullen's keys to the office, obviously she was allowed into the office in order to train her replacement and Respondent offered no testimony that anyone was watching Mullen on those days when he was at his other offices.
As for the ALJ's finding that Respondent “monitored his DEA number on the PMP system,” R.D.37, while Respondent claimed he did this “every month,” Tr. 382, he offered conflicting testimony as to when he started doing so. Specifically, after testifying that he checked the PMP every month to see if anyone was misusing his number, when then asked by his counsel if he had found any misuse since August 2012, Respondent answered: “No. I will say I've been doing every month for approximately a year, nine months, something like that that. No, no deviations there.”
To be sure, there is evidence that Respondent called local pharmacies to alert them to Mullen's actions. Yet the evidence also shows while Respondent claimed to have called “a handful of these” pharmacies on August 20, 2012 (the day the refill authorization form was found on the fax), at least 12 refills for 90 or 120 dosage units of hydrocodone were nonetheless dispensed by several of these pharmacies after that date, including by those he called. Moreover, Respondent saw patients at four different locations
I further reject Respondent's contention that he was justified in continuing to employ Mullen because he needed to maintain his cash flow while a new insurance clerk was hired and trained. The evidence showed that Respondent's office manager could have performed these duties, and while she testified that she could not do so and perform her other duties, no evidence was offered that Respondent could not have hired someone to fill the office manager's duties or that he could not have hired a billing service. Moreover, Respondent offered no evidence that he did not have access to other sources of funds (such as his savings, credit cards, or a line of credit) to support his practice while a new insurance clerk was hired and trained. As for the ALJ's suggestion that Respondent acted reasonably because he ran a small business and Mullen performed an essential business function, a DEA registrant is obligated at all times to act in the public interest.
It is true that “there was no evidence that Mullen used her position in . . . Respondent's office to generate any fraudulent prescriptions after August 20, 2012.” R.D. 38. Respondent was nonetheless willing to risk causing additional harm to the public health and safety. His conduct in continuing to employ a serial diverter clearly constitutes “conduct which
Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 827(a)(1), “every registrant shall . . . as soon . . . as such registrant first engages in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances . . . and every second year thereafter, make a complete and accurate record of all stocks thereof on hand.”
The evidence shows that in 2005, Respondent entered into a Consent Order which found that he “did not establish an initial inventory.” GX 3, at 1-2. Moreover, during the July 2013 inspection, Diversion Investigators found that Respondent did not have a biennial inventory which was based on an actual count of the drugs on hand as required by DEA regulations.
In his Exceptions, Respondent raises two contentions to the ALJ's findings. First, he argues that because he was engaged in administering medication to his patients, he was “not required to perform the initial and biennial inventories that are required of other registrants.” Exceptions, at 1 (citations omitted). Respondent points to 21 U.S.C. 827(c)(1)(B), which states, in relevant part, that the recordkeeping provisions of section 827 “shall not apply . . . to the administering of a controlled substance in schedule II, III, IV, or V unless the practitioner regularly engages in the dispensing or administering of controlled substances and charges his patients, either separately or together with charges for other professional services, for substances so dispensed or administered.” Exceptions, at 1-2. Respondent argues that “DEA had the burden of proof as to this allegation,” and because the Government failed “to offer evidence that [he] falls into the statutory exception,” the allegation must be rejected.
Respondent is mistaken. Section 827(a) states that “
Fatal to Respondent's contention is 21 U.S.C. 885(a)(1). It provides that:
It shall not be necessary for the United States to negative any exemption or
Because section 827(c) is clearly an exception to the generally applicable recordkeeping requirements and Respondent is “the person claiming its benefit,” he had the burden of producing evidence to show why he was entitled to the exception.
As found above, on occasion, the night before he was to perform a procedure, Respondent would set out in a cup—outside of the controlled substance safe—the controlled substances that his office manager was to provide to his first patient. However, the evidence shows that the drugs were nonetheless kept locked in his medication room which was secured with a steel door (and door frame) that had a deadbolt lock. The evidence also shows that this office was a freestanding building and that Respondent had a security monitoring system.
The ALJ rejected the Government's contention that Respondent violated 21 CFR 1301.75, which provides that “[c]ontrolled substances listed in [s]chedules II, III, IV, and V shall be
Of note, section 1301.75(b) does not require that most schedule II through V controlled substances be stored in a safe, and indeed, section 1301.75(e) specifies two drugs (carfentanil etorphine hydrochloride and diprenorphine) which “shall be stored in a safe or steel cabinet equivalent to a U.S. Government Class V security container.” 21 CFR 1301.75(b) & (e). And while the use of the word “cabinet” to describe a small room appears archaic,
The Government alleged and the ALJ found that Respondent aided and abetted the unlawful distribution of controlled substances when he allowed his office manager to administer the controlled substances, which he had set out in the drug room the night before, to those patients who were undergoing procedures and he had yet to arrive at his office. R.D. 44-46. The evidence showed that Respondent's office manager did not hold a registration to dispense controlled substances.
In so holding, the ALJ reasoned that because in his post-hearing brief, “Respondent described [the office manager's] administration of controlled substances as occurring only on `limited occasions,' ” “Respondent himself argued . . . that [she] did not administer controlled substances in the usual course of business.”
Respondent takes exception to the ALJ's legal conclusion. He argues that his office manager was an agent within the meaning of the CSA, which defines the term as “an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser.” Exceptions, at 4 (quoting 21 U.S.C. 802(3)). Respondent further notes that “[w]hile the phrase `in the usual course of business' is used many times in the CSA and the associated regulations, it is not defined.”
I need not decide whether the frequency of the office manager's administrations of controlled substances to Respondent's patients was sufficient to establish that she was acting in the usual course of her employment when she did so. Rather, I conclude that because under Virginia law, the office manager could not legally administer controlled substances to Respondent's patients, it does not matter whether she did so only “on limited occasions” or routinely, and that because her conduct was unlawful, it cannot qualify under section 822(c) as “acting in the usual course of [a registrant's] business or employment.”
The Virginia Drug Control Act defines the term “[a]dminister [to] mean[ ] the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient . . . by (i) a practitioner or by his authorized agent and under his direction or (ii) the patient . . . at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner.” Va. Code § 54.1-3401. Even assuming that the office manager's conduct in providing the drugs to patients falls within the provision allowing a practitioner's “authorized agent” to do so, the Virginia Drug Control Act contained extensive and detailed provisions governing the circumstances in which drugs can be administered by someone other than a licensed prescribing practitioner.
Pursuant to a specific order for a patient and under
In his Post-Hearing Brief, Respondent implies that this practice was lawful under the Board of Medicine's Rules governing Office-Based Anesthesia. Resp. Post-Hrng. Br. 50. He specifically notes that Board's “requirements for office based anesthesia” do not apply to “[m]inimal sedation/anxiolysis.”
Accordingly, I reject Respondent's exception that his office manager was exempt from registration because she was “acting in the usual course of [her] . . . employment” and that he is not liable for aiding and abetting the unlawful distribution of controlled substances. As explained above, I further hold that on those occasions when Respondent was not physically present in the office and his office manager administered the controlled substances to various patients, she engaged in an unlawful distribution under 21 U.S.C. 841(a)(1).
Neither case supports Respondent. As for
As for
As the ALJ found, in 2000, Respondent pled guilty in state court to four felony counts of the unlawful possession of controlled substances which included sufentanil, oxycodone, pethidine, and hydromorphone, as well as one misdemeanor count of unlawful possession of marijuana. R.D. 47. While the ALJ noted that the Agency had “declined to revoke” Respondent's registration based on these convictions and the convictions were over 15 years old, he rejected Respondent's contention that because the Agency entered into the Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with Respondent it is now estopped from seeking revocation based on these convictions.
Respondent takes exception to the ALJ's ruling. Exceptions, at 10-11. He argues that that “[t]he ALJ cited no basis for his finding that the MOA did not estopped [sic] DEA from relying on [his] 2000 conviction [sic] in its attempt to sanction him today.”
I disagree. While the MOA noted that “[i]n light of [his] past actions, authority exists under 21 U.S.C. [823(f) and 824a)(4)] for DEA to initiate Show Cause action to revoke [his ] registration” and that “[i]n lieu of initiating procedures for the revocation of [his] [r]egistration,” the parties had agreed to various terms including the renewal of his registration, none of those terms precluded the Agency from relying on the state court convictions in any subsequent proceeding.
Moreover, Respondent cites no Agency decision which holds that following the entry of an MOA, the Agency is precluded from considering the conduct which gave rise to the MOA in a subsequent proceeding.
I therefore reject Respondent's exceptions that I am precluded from considering Respondent's state court convictions by the MOA. However, in light of the fact that Respondent's convictions occurred 17 years ago and that there is no evidence that Respondent has been subsequently convicted of either a federal or state offense related to controlled substances (whether falling within the scope of Factor Three or Factor Five), I place only limited weight on the state court convictions.
Given Respondent's knowledge that Mullen had fraudulently obtained controlled substance prescriptions/refills 82 times from January 21, 2008 through August 24, 2012, as well as his knowledge that Mullen had been convicted in state court of two counts of prescription fraud, I conclude that he has committed “other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety” when he failed to immediately terminate Mullen. 21 U.S.C. 823(f)(5). I further conclude that Respondent's convictions for the unlawful possession of various controlled substances provide limited support for the finding that Respondent has committed “other conduct which may threaten public health or safety.”
As also found above, Respondent failed to comply with the CSA's requirement that he “make a complete and accurate record of all stocks . . . on hand” both when he first engaged in the dispensing of controlled substances as well as “every second year thereafter.” 21 U.S.C. 827(a)(1); 21 CFR 1304.11(a) & (c). He also violated the CSA by directing his office manager, who does not hold a registration, to administer controlled substances to those patients who were to undergo procedures when Respondent was not at his office. 21 U.S.C. 841(a); 18 U.S.C. 2. Both his failure to maintain proper records and his conduct in directing his office manager to administer controlled substances to patients is relevant in assessing Respondent's experience in dispensing controlled substances (Factor Two) and his compliance with applicable laws related to controlled substances (Factor Four).
I therefore hold that the Government has met its
Where, as here, the Government has established grounds to revoke a registration or deny an application, a respondent must then “present[ ] sufficient mitigating evidence” to show why he can be entrusted with a new registration.
While a registrant must accept responsibility for his misconduct and demonstrate that he will not engage in future misconduct in order to establish that his continued registration is consistent with the public interest, DEA has repeatedly held that these are not the only factors that are relevant in determining the appropriate disposition of the matter.
So too, the Agency can consider the need to deter similar acts, both with respect to the respondent in a particular case and the community of registrants.
Having considered the relevant facts and circumstances, I disagree with the ALJ's recommended sanction of a one year suspension which would not be effective for three months from the date of my Final Order and which would be stayed provided Respondent takes certain courses within that period. Instead, because I find Respondent's failure to immediately terminate Mullen upon determining that she had fraudulently obtained 82 prescriptions for herself is egregious misconduct, which clearly posed a threat to public health and safety, I am compelled to reject the ALJ's recommended sanction and conclude that the imposition of a substantial period of outright suspension is warranted.
Notably, Respondent did not acknowledge his misconduct in retaining Mullen, and instead, justified his decision to retain her until a new insurance clerk was hired and trained because of his need to maintain his cash flow. Moreover, when confronted as to why he had retained Mullen even after he obtained the PMP report which listed 82 different prescriptions which she had fraudulently obtained, Respondent attempted to minimize the scope of her misconduct, testifying that he “acted upon . . . the proportion of things that I knew. So it wasn't . . . what we're looking at in retrospective now with this huge situation. It was only with a handful of information that I had, less than a dozen.” Tr. 426.
It is true that there is no evidence that Mullen continued her criminal acts during the five week period before she was finally terminated. Had the Government produced such evidence, I would revoke Respondent's registration. While it is also true that Respondent moved the fax machine into a room to which Mullen did not have access, this does not mitigate Respondent's misconduct because the evidence shows that many of the fraudulent prescriptions (whether for Mullen personally or for her co-conspirators) were phoned in.
Finally, I conclude that the Agency's interests in both specific and general deterrence also support a substantial period of outright suspension for this misconduct. As to specific deterrence, were Respondent to confront the same situation of a diverting employee in the future, he must know that there will be serious consequences for failing to act responsibly. Also, Respondent may confront different scenarios in which he is faced with the choice of placing his private interests over the public interest. As to the Agency's interests in general deterrence, the community of practitioner registrants must know that there will be substantial consequences for failing to promptly terminate employees who are diverting controlled substances.
Accordingly, based solely on Respondent's misconduct in retaining Mullen, I conclude that the factors relevant to this misconduct support the outright suspension of Respondent's registration for a period of one year. Moreover, I conclude that Respondent's failure to maintain complete and accurate inventories, as well as his misconduct in directing his unregistered office manager to administer controlled substances to patients, provide additional support for my conclusion that an outright suspension for one year is warranted.
While Respondent's failure to establish an initial inventory occurred sometime ago, his failure to maintain a complete and accurate biennial inventory based on an actual physical count of the controlled substances he had on hand is far more recent. While Respondent testified that he kept the records as he did based on the guidance he received from the state inspector in the 2005 time frame, the requirements to take an actual physical count “either as of the opening of business or as of the close of business on the inventory date” and to indicate this “on the inventory” are clear on the regulation's face. And even if Respondent was given erroneous advice by the state inspector, Respondent is responsible for knowing what is required by DEA's regulations.
As for the ALJ's observation that Respondent kept receipt records that “showed the number of containers, the number of dosages in the containers, and the strength of the dosages,” these records were prepared by Respondent's suppliers,
As for his practice of directing his office manager to administer controlled substances to patients who were undergoing procedures when he was running late and not in the office, the ALJ also found that there were several factors that mitigate the egregiousness of these violations. According to the ALJ, these factors include that this happened only “occasionally,” that Respondent had previously determined what medications should be administered to the patient based on his assessment of the patient's needs, that there is no evidence that the drugs were diverted, and that Respondent had ceased this practice after a patient questioned it. R.D. 50-51.
I do not take issue with the ALJ's conclusions that these factors mitigate the egregiousness of these violations. However, here again, the ALJ found that “Respondent never acknowledged that [the office manager's] administration of controlled substances violated DEA regulations. . . . Respondent never showed remorse for aiding and abetting dispensations by a non-registrant. Rather, the Respondent denied that these actions were wrongful.”
Respondent's violations in failing to take a proper inventory and in directing his unregistered office manager to administer controlled substances, coupled with his failure to acknowledge his misconduct with respect to both violations, provide additional support for my decision to suspend Respondent's registration for a period of one year. As for the state court convictions, because they did not involve distribution to others and occurred 17 years ago, I give them only limited weight in my determination as to the appropriate sanction.
Accordingly, I will order that Respondent's registration be suspended outright for a period of one year. While Respondent testified that he no longer uses controlled substances during his procedures, if, following termination of the suspension, he intends to resume administering and/or engaging in the direct dispensing of controlled substances, Respondent must provide evidence to the local DEA office that he has completed a course in controlled substance recordkeeping prior to doing so. If Respondent does not provide such evidence, his registration shall be restricted to prescribing controlled substances.
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 824(a) as well as 21 CFR 0.100(b), I order that DEA Certificate of Registration No. BK0639279 issued to Peter F. Kelly, D.P.M., be, and it hereby is, suspended for a period of one year. I further order that upon termination of the suspension, said registration shall be restricted to prescribing controlled substances, until such date that Peter F. Kelly, D.P.M., provides evidence that he has completed a course in controlled substance prescribing. This Order is effective July 24, 2017.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office of Justice Programs, Bureau of Justice Statistics, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until August 22, 2017.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time,
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
4.
This collection is requested by the FBI National Academy. These questionnaires have been designed to collect feedback from National Academy graduates and their supervisors to determine the type of impact the National Academy program had on their organization. The results are used to help determine if the National Academy program is functioning as intended and meeting its goals and objectives. We will utilize the students' comments to improve the current curriculum.
5.
For the FBI National Academy: General Remarks Questionnaire, students will respond to one questionnaire. The average time for reading the questionnaire directions is estimated to be two (2) minutes; the time to complete the questionnaire is estimated to be approximately 10 minutes. Thus the total time to complete the General Remarks Questionnaire is 12 minutes.
6.
Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, Department of Justice.
Notice of a new system of records.
Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, the Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the United States (Commission), Department of Justice, proposes to establish a new system of records to enable the Commission to carry out its statutory responsibility to receive, examine, adjudicate and render final decisions with respect to claims for compensation of individuals pursuant to the Guam World War II Loyalty Recognition Act. The system will include documentation provided by the claimants as well as background material that will assist the Commission in the processing of their claims. The system will also include the final decision of the Commission regarding each claim.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) and (11), this system of records notice is effective upon publication, with the exception of the routine uses that are subject to a 30-day period in which to comment, described below. Therefore, please submit any comments by July 24, 2017.
The public is invited to submit any comments via email at
Jeremy LaFrancois, Chief Administrative Counsel, Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, U.S. Department of Justice, 600 E Street NW., Suite 6002, Washington, DC 20579, or by telephone at (202) 616-6975.
On December 23, 2016, President Obama signed into law the Guam World War II Loyalty Recognition Act, Title XVII, Public Law 114-328, 130 Stat. 2000, 2641-2647 (2016) (the “Guam Loyalty Recognition Act” or “Act”). The Act authorizes the Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the United States (Commission) to adjudicate claims and determine the eligibility of individuals for payments under the Act, in recognition of harms suffered by residents of Guam as a result of the occupation of Guam by Imperial Japanese military forces during World War II.
The system of records covered by this notice is necessary for the Commission's
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), the Commission has provided a report to OMB and the Congress on the new system of records.
Claims Arising under the Guam World War II Loyalty Recognition Act, JUSTICE/FCSC-32.
Unclassified.
Offices of the Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW., Suite 6002, Washington, DC 20579.
Chief Administrative Counsel, Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW., Suite 6002, Washington, DC 20579. Telephone: (202) 616-6975. Fax: (202) 616-6993. Email
Authority to establish and maintain this system is contained in 5 U.S.C. 301 and 44 U.S.C. 3101, which authorize the Chairman of the Commission to create and maintain federal records of agency activities, and is further described in 22 U.S.C. 1622e, which vests all non-adjudicatory functions, powers and duties in the Chairman of the Commission.
To enable the Commission to carry out its statutory responsibility to determine the validity and amount of claims arising under the Guam World War II Loyalty Recognition Act.
Individuals who file claims pursuant to the Guam World War II Loyalty Recognition Act.
Claim information, including name and address of claimant and representative, if any; date and place of birth or naturalization; nature of claim; description of loss or injury including medical records; and other evidence establishing entitlement to compensation.
Claimant on whom the record is maintained.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), all or a portion of the records contained in this system of records may be disclosed as a routine use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3) under the circumstances or for the purposes described below, to the extent such disclosures are compatible with the purposes for which the information was collected.
a. Upon the issuance of a final decision awarding compensation, the Commission will certify its decision and other necessary personal information to the Department of the Treasury in order to process payment of the claim.
b. To contractors, grantees, experts, consultants, students, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for the federal government, when necessary to accomplish a Commission function related to this system of records;
c. To a Member of Congress or staff acting upon the Member's behalf when the Member or staff requests the information on behalf of, and at the request of, the individual who is the subject of the record;
d. Where a record, either alone or in conjunction with other information, indicates a violation or potential violation of law—criminal, civil, or regulatory in nature—the relevant records may be referred to the appropriate federal, state, local, territorial, tribal, or foreign law enforcement authority or other appropriate entity charged with the responsibility for investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing such law;
e. In an appropriate proceeding before the Commission, or before a court, grand jury, or administrative or adjudicative body, when the Department of Justice and/or the Commission determines that the records are arguably relevant to the proceeding; or in an appropriate proceeding before an administrative or adjudicative body when the adjudicator determines the records to be relevant to the proceeding;
f. To a former employee of the Commission for purposes of: Responding to an official inquiry by a federal, state, or local government entity or professional licensing authority, in accordance with applicable Commission regulations; or facilitating communications with a former employee that may be necessary for personnel-related or other official purposes where the Commission requires information and/or consultation from the former employee regarding a matter within that person's former area of responsibility;
g. To the National Archives and Records Administration for purposes of records management inspections conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906;
h. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) the Commission suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) the Commission has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to the individuals, the Commission (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Commission's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm;
i. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the Commission determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach;
j. To such recipients and under such circumstances and procedures as are mandated by federal statute or treaty.
Paper records maintained in file folders at the Commission's office and electronic records located on the Commission's Server.
Records maintained in this system of records will be retrieved by claim number and/or decision number. An alphabetical index may be used by the Commission for identification of a claim by claimants' name.
Records are maintained under 5 U.S.C. 301. The Commission has submitted a record schedule, schedule
Paper records are under security safeguards at the Commission's office. Such safeguards include storage in a central location within a limited access building and a further limited access suite. Accordingly, access is limited to Commission employees and contractors with appropriate security clearances. The electronic records are safeguarded by the DOJ JCON security procedures. Access to the Commission's data requires a password and is limited to Commission employees and contractors with appropriate security clearances.
The Commission's record access procedures are set forth in 45 CFR 503.5. That section provides that (a) Any individual requesting access to a record or information on himself or herself in person must appear at the offices of the Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW., Room 6002, Washington, DC, between the hours of 9 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, and (1) Provide information sufficient to identify the record,
(a) Any individual may request amendment of a record pertaining to himself or herself according to the procedure in paragraph (b) of this section, except in the case of records described under paragraph (d) of this section. (b) After inspection by an individual of a record pertaining to himself or herself, the individual may file a written request, presented in person or by mail, with the Administrative Officer, for an amendment to a record. The request must specify the particular portions of the record to be amended, the desired amendments and the reasons therefor. (c) Not later than ten (10) days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays) after the receipt of a request made in accordance with this section to amend a record in whole or in part, the Administrative Officer will: (1) Make any correction of any portion of the record which the individual believes is not accurate, relevant, timely or complete and thereafter inform the individual of such correction; or (2) Inform the individual, by certified mail return receipt requested, of the refusal to amend the record, setting forth the reasons therefor, and notify the individual of the right to appeal that determination as provided under 45 CFR 503.8. (d) The provisions for amending records do not apply to evidence presented in the course of Commission proceedings in the adjudication of claims, nor do they permit collateral attack upon what has already been subject to final agency action in the adjudication of claims in programs previously completed by the Commission pursuant to statutory time limitations.
The Commission's notification procedures are set forth in 45 CFR 503.5. That section provides that (a) Any individual requesting access to a record or information on himself or herself in person must appear at the offices of the Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW., Room 6002, Washington, DC, between the hours of 9 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, and (1) Provide information sufficient to identify the record,
None.
None.
Office of Justice Programs, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
Department of Justice (DOJ), Office of Justice Programs, Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention (OJJDP) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encourages and will be accepted for an additional 30 day until July 24, 2017.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention, Office of Justice Programs, U.S. Department of Justice, 810 Seventh Street NW., Washington, DC 20531. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Office of Workers' Compensation Programs
Notice.
In accordance with the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) of 2015, Executive Order 13699 (June 26, 2015), and the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended (5 U.S.C. App. 2) and its implementing regulations issued by the General Services Administration (GSA), the Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health was established on July 2, 2015. Pursuant to FACA, Section 14(b)(2), the Secretary of Labor has renewed the Charter for two years.
The Charter renewal allows the Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health (Board) to continue its operations. The Board advises the Secretary of Labor (Secretary) with respect to: (1) The Site Exposure Matrices (SEM) of the Department of Labor; (2) medical guidance for claims examiners for claims with the EEOICPA program, with respect to the weighing of the medical evidence of claimants; (3) evidentiary requirements for claims under Part B of EEOICPA related to lung disease; and (4) the work of industrial hygienists and staff physicians and consulting physicians of the Department of Labor and reports of such hygienists and physicians to ensure quality, objectivity, and consistency. The Board, when necessary, coordinates exchanges of data and findings with the Department of Health and Human Services' Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health.
Membership of the Board currently consists of 15 members appointed by the Secretary, who also appointed a Chair. Public Law 106-398, Section 3687(a)(3). Pursuant to Section 3687(a)(2), membership is balanced and includes members from the scientific, medical and claimant communities. The members serve two-year terms. At the discretion of the Secretary, members may be appointed to successive terms or
The Board reports to the Secretary of Labor. As specified in Section 3687(i), the Board shall terminate five (5) years after the date of the enactment of the NDAA, which was December 19, 2014. Thus, the Board shall terminate on December 19, 2019.
Electronic copies of this
You may contact Douglas Fitzgerald, Designated Federal Officer, at
This is not a toll-free number.
Office of National Drug Control Policy (ONDCP).
Notice of cancellation of teleconference.
ONDCP is issuing this notice to advise the public that the Commission is cancelling the teleconference of the President's Commission on Combating Drug Addiction and the Opioid Crisis that was previously scheduled for Monday, June 26th at 4 p.m. EST. Please check the Commission's Web site or future
The cancellation is effective on June 20, 2017.
General information concerning the Commission and its meetings can be found on ONDCP's Web site at
The Commission was established in accordance with E.O. 13784 of March 29, 2017, the Commission's charter, and the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. App. 2, to obtain advice and recommendations for the President regarding drug issues. The Executive Order, charter, and information on the Members of the Commission are available on ONDCP's Web site. The Commission will function solely as an advisory body and will make recommendations regarding policies and practices for combating drug addiction with particular focus on the current opioid crisis in the United States. The Commission's final report is due October 1, 2017 unless there is an extension. Per E.O. 13784, the Commission shall:
a. Identify and describe the existing Federal funding used to combat drug addiction and the opioid crisis;
b. assess the availability and accessibility of drug addiction treatment services and overdose reversal throughout the country and identify areas that are underserved;
c. identify and report on best practices for addiction prevention, including healthcare provider education and evaluation of prescription practices, collaboration between State and Federal officials, and the use and effectiveness of State prescription drug monitoring programs;
d. review the literature evaluating the effectiveness of educational messages for youth and adults with respect to prescription and illicit opioids;
e. identify and evaluate existing Federal programs to prevent and treat drug addiction for their scope and effectiveness, and make recommendations for improving these programs; and;
f. make recommendations to the President for improving the Federal response to drug addiction and the opioid crisis.
The National Endowment for the Arts (NEA) has submitted the following public information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995: Applications from students for Agency Initiatives Poetry Out Loud or the Musical Theater Songwriting Challenge for High School Students. Copies of this ICR, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by visiting
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for the National Endowment for the Arts, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, 202/395-7316, within 30 days from the date of this publication in the
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is particularly interested in comments which:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Could help minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of electronic submission of responses through
The National Endowment for the Arts requests the review of applications from students for Agency Initiatives Poetry Out Loud or the Musical Theater Songwriting Challenge for High School Students. This entry is issued by the National Endowment for the Arts and contains the following information: (1)
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt Rule 912 (Consolidated Audit Trail—Fee Dispute Resolution) to establish the procedures for resolving potential disputes related to CAT Fees charged to Industry Members.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Bats BYX Exchange, Inc., Bats BZX Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), Investors' Exchange LLC, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC, MIAX PEARL, LLC, NASDAQ BX, Inc., Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, Nasdaq ISE, LLC, Nasdaq MRX, LLC,
Paragraph (a) of Proposed Rule 912 sets forth the definitions for Proposed Rule 912. Paragraph (a)(1) of Proposed Rule 912 states that, for purposes of Rule 912, the terms “CAT NMS Plan”, “Industry Member”, “Operating Committee”, and “Participant” are defined as set forth in the Rule 900 (Consolidated Audit Trail—Definitions), and the term “CAT Fee” is defined as set forth in the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add paragraph (a)(2) to Proposed Rule 912. New paragraph (a)(2) would define the term “Subcommittee” to mean a subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan. This definition is the same substantive definition as set forth in Section 1.1 of the CAT NMS Plan.
Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan requires Participants to adopt rules requiring that disputes with respect to fees charged to Industry Members pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan be determined by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee. Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan also states that decisions by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the right of any Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC pursuant to SEC Rule 608 or in any other appropriate forum. The Exchange proposes to adopt paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 912. Paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 912 states that disputes initiated by an Industry Member with respect to CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, shall be resolved by the Operating Committee, or a Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee, of the CAT NMS Plan, pursuant to the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures adopted pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan and set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 912. Decisions on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
The Operating Committee has adopted “Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures” governing the manner in which disputes regarding CAT Fees charged pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees will be addressed. These Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures, as they relate to Industry Members, are set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 912. Specifically, the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures provide the procedure for Industry Members that dispute CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to one or more of the Participants' Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees Rules, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, to apply for an opportunity to be heard and to have the CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member reviewed. The Procedures are modeled after the adverse action procedures adopted by various exchanges,
Under these Procedures, an Industry Member that disputes CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member and that desires to have an opportunity to be heard with respect to such disputed CAT Fees must file a written application with the Company within 15 business days after being notified of such disputed CAT Fees. The application must identify the disputed CAT Fees, state the specific reasons why the applicant takes exception to such CAT Fees, and set forth the relief sought. In addition, if the applicant intends to submit any additional documents, statements, arguments or other material in support of the application, the same should be so stated and identified.
The Company will refer applications for hearing and review promptly to the Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to Section 4.12 of the CAT NMS Plan with responsibility for conducting the reviews of CAT Fee disputes pursuant to these Procedures. This Subcommittee will be referred to as the Fee Review Subcommittee. The members of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to the provisions of Section 4.3(d) of the CAT NMS Plan regarding recusal and Conflicts of Interest. The Fee Review Subcommittee will keep a record of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will hold hearings promptly. The Fee Review Subcommittee will set a hearing date. The parties to the hearing shall furnish the Fee Review Subcommittee with all materials relevant to the proceedings at least 72 hours prior to the date of the hearing. Each party will have the right to inspect and copy the other party's materials prior to the hearing.
The parties to the hearing will consist of the applicant and a representative of the Company who shall present the reasons for the action taken by the Company that allegedly aggrieved the applicant. The applicant is entitled to be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel at all stages of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will determine all questions concerning the admissibility of evidence and will otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. Each of the parties will be permitted to make an opening statement, present witnesses and documentary evidence, cross examine opposing witnesses and present closing arguments orally or in writing as determined by the Fee Review Subcommittee. The Fee Review Subcommittee also will have the right to question all parties and witnesses to the proceeding. The Fee Review Subcommittee must keep a record of the hearing. The formal rules of evidence will not apply.
The Fee Review Subcommittee must set forth its decision in writing and send the written decision to the parties to the proceeding. Such decisions will contain the reasons supporting the conclusions of the Fee Review Subcommittee.
The decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to review by the Operating Committee either on its own motion within 20 business days after issuance of the decision or upon written request submitted by the applicant within 15 business days after issuance of the decision. The applicant's petition must be in writing and must specify the findings and conclusions to which the applicant objects, together with the reasons for such objections. Any objection to a decision not specified in writing will be considered to have been abandoned and may be disregarded. Parties may petition to
The Operating Committee will conduct the review. The review will be made upon the record and will be made after such further proceedings, if any, as the Operating Committee may order. Based upon such record, the Operating Committee may affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part, the decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee. The decision of the Operating Committee will be in writing, will be sent to the parties to the proceeding and will be final.
The Procedures state that a final decision regarding the disputed CAT Fees by the Operating Committee, or the Fee Review Subcommittee (if there is no review by the Operating Committee), must be provided within 90 days of the date on which the Industry Member filed a written application regarding disputed CAT Fees with the Company. The Operating Committee may extend the 90-day time limit at its discretion.
In addition, the Procedures state that any notices or other documents may be served upon the applicant either personally or by leaving the same at its, his or her place of business or by deposit in the United States post office, postage prepaid, by registered or certified mail, addressed to the applicant at its, his or her last known business or residence address. The Procedures also state that any time limits imposed under the Procedures for the submission of answers, petitions or other materials may be extended by permission of the Operating Committee. All papers and documents relating to review by the Fee Review Subcommittee or the Operating Committee must be submitted to the Fee Review Subcommittee or Operating Committee, as applicable.
The Procedures also note that decisions on such CAT Fee disputes made pursuant to these Procedures will be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
Finally, an Industry Member that files a written application with the Company regarding disputed CAT Fees in accordance with these Procedures is not required to pay such disputed CAT Fees until the dispute is resolved in accordance with these Procedures, including any review by the SEC or in any other appropriate forum. For these purposes, the disputed CAT Fees means the amount of the invoiced CAT Fees that the Industry Member has asserted pursuant to these Procedures that such Industry Member does not owe to the Company. The Industry Member must pay any invoiced CAT Fees that are not disputed CAT Fees when due as set forth in the original invoice.
Once the dispute regarding CAT Fees is resolved pursuant to these Procedures, if it is determined that the Industry Member owes any of the disputed CAT Fees, then the Industry Member must pay such disputed CAT Fees that are owed as well as interest on such disputed CAT Fees from the original due date (that is, 30 days after receipt of the original invoice of such CAT Fees) until such disputed CAT Fees are paid at a per annum rate equal to the lesser of (i) the Prime Rate plus 300 basis points, or (ii) the maximum rate permitted by applicable law.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements, interprets or clarifies Section 11.5 of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange and its Industry Members in meeting regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. In approving the Plan, the SEC noted that the Plan “is necessary and appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors and the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a national market system, or is otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.”
Section 6(b)(8) of the Act
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 425 (17 CFR 230.425) under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Regulation 14D (17 CFR 240.14d-1-240.14d-11) and Regulation 14E (17 CFR 240.14e-1-240.14f-1) and related Schedule 14D-9 (17 CFR 240.14d-101) require information important to security holders in deciding how to respond to tender offers. This information is made available to the public. Information provided on Schedule 14D-9 is mandatory. Schedule 14D-9 takes approximately 260.56 hours per response to prepare and is filed by 169 companies annually. We estimate that 25% of the 260.56 hours per response (65.14 hours) is prepared by the company for an annual reporting burden of 11,009 hours (65.14 hours per response × 169 responses).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
The Exchange proposes to adopt Rule 912 (Consolidated Audit Trail—Fee Dispute Resolution) to establish the procedures for resolving potential disputes related to CAT Fees charged to Industry Members.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Bats BYX Exchange, Inc., Bats BZX Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), Investors' Exchange LLC, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC, MIAX PEARL, LLC, NASDAQ BX, Inc., Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, Nasdaq ISE, LLC, Nasdaq MRX, LLC,
Paragraph (a) of Proposed Rule 912 sets forth the definitions for Proposed Rule 912. Paragraph (a)(1) of Proposed Rule 912 states that, for purposes of Rule 912, the terms “CAT NMS Plan”, “Industry Member”, “Operating Committee”, and “Participant” are defined as set forth in the Rule 900
Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan requires Participants to adopt rules requiring that disputes with respect to fees charged to Industry Members pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan be determined by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee. Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan also states that decisions by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the right of any Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC pursuant to SEC Rule 608 or in any other appropriate forum. The Exchange proposes to adopt paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 912. Paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 912 states that disputes initiated by an Industry Member with respect to CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, shall be resolved by the Operating Committee, or a Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee, of the CAT NMS Plan, pursuant to the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures adopted pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan and set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 912. Decisions on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
The Operating Committee has adopted “Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures” governing the manner in which disputes regarding CAT Fees charged pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees will be addressed. These Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures, as they relate to Industry Members, are set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 912. Specifically, the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures provide the procedure for Industry Members that dispute CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to one or more of the Participants' Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees Rules, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, to apply for an opportunity to be heard and to have the CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member reviewed. The Procedures are modeled after the adverse action procedures adopted by various exchanges,
Under these Procedures, an Industry Member that disputes CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member and that desires to have an opportunity to be heard with respect to such disputed CAT Fees must file a written application with the Company within 15 business days after being notified of such disputed CAT Fees. The application must identify the disputed CAT Fees, state the specific reasons why the applicant takes exception to such CAT Fees, and set forth the relief sought. In addition, if the applicant intends to submit any additional documents, statements, arguments or other material in support of the application, the same should be so stated and identified.
The Company will refer applications for hearing and review promptly to the Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to Section 4.12 of the CAT NMS Plan with responsibility for conducting the reviews of CAT Fee disputes pursuant to these Procedures. This Subcommittee will be referred to as the Fee Review Subcommittee. The members of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to the provisions of Section 4.3(d) of the CAT NMS Plan regarding recusal and Conflicts of Interest. The Fee Review Subcommittee will keep a record of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will hold hearings promptly. The Fee Review Subcommittee will set a hearing date. The parties to the hearing shall furnish the Fee Review Subcommittee with all materials relevant to the proceedings at least 72 hours prior to the date of the hearing. Each party will have the right to inspect and copy the other party's materials prior to the hearing.
The parties to the hearing will consist of the applicant and a representative of the Company who shall present the reasons for the action taken by the Company that allegedly aggrieved the applicant. The applicant is entitled to be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel at all stages of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will determine all questions concerning the admissibility of evidence and will otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. Each of the parties will be permitted to make an opening statement, present witnesses and documentary evidence, cross examine opposing witnesses and present closing arguments orally or in writing as determined by the Fee Review Subcommittee. The Fee Review Subcommittee also will have the right to question all parties and witnesses to the proceeding. The Fee Review Subcommittee must keep a record of the hearing. The formal rules of evidence will not apply.
The Fee Review Subcommittee must set forth its decision in writing and send the written decision to the parties to the proceeding. Such decisions will contain the reasons supporting the conclusions of the Fee Review Subcommittee.
The decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to review by the Operating Committee either on its own motion within 20 business days after issuance of the decision or upon written request submitted by the applicant within 15 business days after issuance of the decision. The applicant's petition must be in writing and must specify the findings and conclusions to which the applicant objects, together with the reasons for such objections. Any objection to a decision not specified in writing will be considered to have been abandoned and may be disregarded. Parties may petition to submit a written argument to the Operating Committee and may request an opportunity to make an oral argument before the Operating Committee. The Operating Committee will have sole discretion to grant or deny either request.
The Operating Committee will conduct the review. The review will be made upon the record and will be made after such further proceedings, if any, as the Operating Committee may order. Based upon such record, the Operating Committee may affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part, the decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee. The decision of the Operating Committee will be in writing, will be sent to the parties to the proceeding and will be final.
The Procedures state that a final decision regarding the disputed CAT Fees by the Operating Committee, or the Fee Review Subcommittee (if there is no review by the Operating Committee), must be provided within 90 days of the date on which the Industry Member
In addition, the Procedures state that any notices or other documents may be served upon the applicant either personally or by leaving the same at its, his or her place of business or by deposit in the United States post office, postage prepaid, by registered or certified mail, addressed to the applicant at its, his or her last known business or residence address. The Procedures also state that any time limits imposed under the Procedures for the submission of answers, petitions or other materials may be extended by permission of the Operating Committee. All papers and documents relating to review by the Fee Review Subcommittee or the Operating Committee must be submitted to the Fee Review Subcommittee or Operating Committee, as applicable.
The Procedures also note that decisions on such CAT Fee disputes made pursuant to these Procedures will be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
Finally, an Industry Member that files a written application with the Company regarding disputed CAT Fees in accordance with these Procedures is not required to pay such disputed CAT Fees until the dispute is resolved in accordance with these Procedures, including any review by the SEC or in any other appropriate forum. For these purposes, the disputed CAT Fees means the amount of the invoiced CAT Fees that the Industry Member has asserted pursuant to these Procedures that such Industry Member does not owe to the Company. The Industry Member must pay any invoiced CAT Fees that are not disputed CAT Fees when due as set forth in the original invoice.
Once the dispute regarding CAT Fees is resolved pursuant to these Procedures, if it is determined that the Industry Member owes any of the disputed CAT Fees, then the Industry Member must pay such disputed CAT Fees that are owed as well as interest on such disputed CAT Fees from the original due date (that is, 30 days after receipt of the original invoice of such CAT Fees) until such disputed CAT Fees are paid at a per annum rate equal to the lesser of (i) the Prime Rate plus 300 basis points, or (ii) the maximum rate permitted by applicable law.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements, interprets or clarifies Section 11.5 of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange and its Industry Members in meeting regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. In approving the Plan, the SEC noted that the Plan “is necessary and appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors and the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a national market system, or is otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.”
Section 6(b)(8) of the Act
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 (Consolidated Audit Trail—Fee Dispute Resolution) to establish the procedures for resolving potential disputes related to CAT Fees charged to Industry Members.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Bats BYX Exchange, Inc., Bats BZX Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), Investors' Exchange LLC, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC, MIAX PEARL, LLC, NASDAQ BX, Inc., Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, Nasdaq ISE, LLC, Nasdaq MRX, LLC,
Paragraph (a) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 sets forth the definitions for Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. Paragraph (a)(1) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 states that, for purposes of Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9, the terms “CAT NMS Plan”, “Industry Member”, “Operating Committee”, and “Participant” are defined as set forth in the Rule 6810 and Chapter IX, Section 8(a) (Consolidated Audit Trail—Definitions), respectively, and the term “CAT Fee” is defined as set forth in the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add paragraph (a)(2) to Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. New paragraph (a)(2) would define the term “Subcommittee” to mean a subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan. This definition is the same substantive definition as set forth in Section 1.1 of the CAT NMS Plan.
Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan requires Participants to adopt rules requiring that disputes with respect to fees charged to Industry Members pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan be determined by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee. Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan also states that decisions by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the right of any Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC pursuant to SEC Rule 608 or in any other appropriate forum. The Exchange proposes to adopt paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. Paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9 states that disputes initiated by an Industry Member with respect to CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, shall be resolved by the Operating Committee, or a Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee, of the CAT NMS Plan, pursuant to the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures adopted pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan and set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. Decisions on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
The Operating Committee has adopted “Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures” governing the manner in which disputes regarding CAT Fees charged pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees will be addressed. These Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures, as they relate to Industry Members, are set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 6896 and Chapter IX, Section 9. Specifically, the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures provide the procedure for Industry Members that dispute CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to one or more of the Participants' Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees Rules, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, to apply for an opportunity to be heard and to have the CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member reviewed. The Procedures are modeled after the adverse action procedures adopted by various exchanges,
Under these Procedures, an Industry Member that disputes CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member and that desires to have an opportunity to be heard with respect to such disputed CAT Fees must file a written application with the Company within 15 business days after being notified of such disputed CAT Fees. The application must identify the disputed CAT Fees, state the specific reasons why the applicant takes exception to such CAT Fees, and set forth the relief sought. In addition, if the applicant intends to submit any additional documents, statements, arguments or other material in support of the application, the same should be so stated and identified.
The Company will refer applications for hearing and review promptly to the Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to Section 4.12 of the CAT NMS Plan with responsibility for conducting the reviews of CAT Fee disputes pursuant to these Procedures. This Subcommittee will be referred to as the Fee Review Subcommittee. The members of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to the provisions of Section 4.3(d) of the CAT NMS Plan regarding recusal and Conflicts of Interest. The Fee Review Subcommittee will keep a record of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will hold hearings promptly. The Fee Review Subcommittee will set a hearing date. The parties to the hearing shall furnish the Fee Review Subcommittee with all materials relevant to the proceedings at least 72 hours prior to the date of the hearing. Each party will have the right to inspect and copy the other party's materials prior to the hearing.
The parties to the hearing will consist of the applicant and a representative of the Company who shall present the reasons for the action taken by the Company that allegedly aggrieved the applicant. The applicant is entitled to be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel at all stages of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will determine all questions concerning the admissibility of evidence and will otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. Each of the parties will be permitted to make an opening statement, present witnesses and documentary evidence, cross examine opposing witnesses and present closing arguments orally or in writing as determined by the Fee Review Subcommittee. The Fee Review Subcommittee also will have the right to question all parties and witnesses to the proceeding. The Fee Review Subcommittee must keep a record of the hearing. The formal rules of evidence will not apply.
The Fee Review Subcommittee must set forth its decision in writing and send the written decision to the parties to the proceeding. Such decisions will contain the reasons supporting the conclusions of the Fee Review Subcommittee.
The decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to review by the Operating Committee either on its own motion within 20 business days after issuance of the decision or upon written request submitted by the applicant within 15 business days after issuance of the decision. The applicant's petition must be in writing and must specify the findings and conclusions to which the applicant objects, together with the reasons for such objections. Any objection to a decision not specified in writing will be considered to have been abandoned and may be disregarded. Parties may petition to submit a written argument to the Operating Committee and may request an opportunity to make an oral argument before the Operating Committee. The Operating Committee
The Operating Committee will conduct the review. The review will be made upon the record and will be made after such further proceedings, if any, as the Operating Committee may order. Based upon such record, the Operating Committee may affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part, the decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee. The decision of the Operating Committee will be in writing, will be sent to the parties to the proceeding and will be final.
The Procedures state that a final decision regarding the disputed CAT Fees by the Operating Committee, or the Fee Review Subcommittee (if there is no review by the Operating Committee), must be provided within 90 days of the date on which the Industry Member filed a written application regarding disputed CAT Fees with the Company. The Operating Committee may extend the 90-day time limit at its discretion.
In addition, the Procedures state that any notices or other documents may be served upon the applicant either personally or by leaving the same at its, his or her place of business or by deposit in the United States post office, postage prepaid, by registered or certified mail, addressed to the applicant at its, his or her last known business or residence address. The Procedures also state that any time limits imposed under the Procedures for the submission of answers, petitions or other materials may be extended by permission of the Operating Committee. All papers and documents relating to review by the Fee Review Subcommittee or the Operating Committee must be submitted to the Fee Review Subcommittee or Operating Committee, as applicable.
The Procedures also note that decisions on such CAT Fee disputes made pursuant to these Procedures will be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
Finally, an Industry Member that files a written application with the Company regarding disputed CAT Fees in accordance with these Procedures is not required to pay such disputed CAT Fees until the dispute is resolved in accordance with these Procedures, including any review by the SEC or in any other appropriate forum. For these purposes, the disputed CAT Fees means the amount of the invoiced CAT Fees that the Industry Member has asserted pursuant to these Procedures that such Industry Member does not owe to the Company. The Industry Member must pay any invoiced CAT Fees that are not disputed CAT Fees when due as set forth in the original invoice.
Once the dispute regarding CAT Fees is resolved pursuant to these Procedures, if it is determined that the Industry Member owes any of the disputed CAT Fees, then the Industry Member must pay such disputed CAT Fees that are owed as well as interest on such disputed CAT Fees from the original due date (that is, 30 days after receipt of the original invoice of such CAT Fees) until such disputed CAT Fees are paid at a per annum rate equal to the lesser of (i) the Prime Rate plus 300 basis points, or (ii) the maximum rate permitted by applicable law.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements, interprets or clarifies Section 11.5 of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange and its Industry Members in meeting regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. In approving the Plan, the SEC noted that the Plan “is necessary and appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors and the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a national market system, or is otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.”
Section 6(b)(8) of the Act
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt Rule 912 (Consolidated Audit Trail—Fee Dispute Resolution) to establish the procedures for resolving potential disputes related to CAT Fees charged to Industry Members.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Bats BYX Exchange, Inc., Bats BZX Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), Investors' Exchange LLC, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC, MIAX PEARL, LLC, NASDAQ BX, Inc., Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, Nasdaq ISE, LLC, Nasdaq MRX, LLC,
Paragraph (a) of Proposed Rule 912 sets forth the definitions for Proposed Rule 912. Paragraph (a)(1) of Proposed Rule 912 states that, for purposes of Rule 912, the terms “CAT NMS Plan”, “Industry Member”, “Operating Committee”, and “Participant” are defined as set forth in the Rule 900 (Consolidated Audit Trail—Definitions), and the term “CAT Fee” is defined as set forth in the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add paragraph (a)(2) to Proposed Rule 912. New paragraph (a)(2) would define the term “Subcommittee” to mean a subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan. This definition is the same substantive definition as set forth in Section 1.1 of the CAT NMS Plan.
Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan requires Participants to adopt rules requiring that disputes with respect to fees charged to Industry Members pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan be determined by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee. Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan also states that decisions by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the right of any Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC pursuant to SEC Rule 608 or in any other appropriate forum. The Exchange proposes to adopt paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 912. Paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 912 states that disputes initiated by an Industry Member with respect to CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, shall be resolved by the Operating Committee, or a Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee, of the CAT NMS Plan, pursuant to the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures adopted pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan and set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 912. Decisions on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
The Operating Committee has adopted “Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures” governing the manner in which disputes regarding CAT Fees charged pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees will be addressed. These Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures, as they relate to Industry Members, are set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 912. Specifically, the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures provide the procedure for Industry Members that dispute CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to one or more of the Participants' Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees Rules, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, to apply for an opportunity to be heard and to have the CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member reviewed. The Procedures are modeled after the adverse action procedures adopted by various exchanges,
Under these Procedures, an Industry Member that disputes CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member and that desires to have an opportunity to be heard with respect to such disputed CAT Fees must file a written application with the Company within 15 business days after being notified of such disputed CAT Fees. The application must identify the disputed CAT Fees, state the specific reasons why the applicant takes exception to such CAT Fees, and set forth the relief sought. In addition, if the applicant intends to submit any additional documents, statements, arguments or other material in support of the application, the same should be so stated and identified.
The Company will refer applications for hearing and review promptly to the Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to Section 4.12 of the CAT NMS Plan with responsibility for conducting the reviews of CAT Fee disputes pursuant to these Procedures. This Subcommittee will be referred to as the Fee Review Subcommittee. The members of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to the provisions of Section 4.3(d) of the CAT NMS Plan regarding recusal and Conflicts of Interest. The Fee Review Subcommittee will keep a record of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will hold hearings promptly. The Fee Review Subcommittee will set a hearing date. The parties to the hearing shall furnish the Fee Review Subcommittee with all materials relevant to the proceedings at least 72 hours prior to the date of the hearing. Each party will have the right to inspect and copy the other party's materials prior to the hearing.
The parties to the hearing will consist of the applicant and a representative of the Company who shall present the reasons for the action taken by the Company that allegedly aggrieved the applicant. The applicant is entitled to be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel at all stages of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will determine all questions concerning the admissibility of evidence and will otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. Each of the parties will be permitted to make an opening statement, present witnesses and documentary evidence, cross examine opposing witnesses and present closing arguments orally or in writing as determined by the Fee Review Subcommittee. The Fee Review Subcommittee also will have the right to question all parties and witnesses to the proceeding. The Fee Review Subcommittee must keep a record of the hearing. The formal rules of evidence will not apply.
The Fee Review Subcommittee must set forth its decision in writing and send the written decision to the parties to the proceeding. Such decisions will contain the reasons supporting the conclusions of the Fee Review Subcommittee.
The decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to review by the Operating Committee either on its own motion within 20 business days after issuance of the decision or upon written request submitted by the applicant within 15 business days after
The Operating Committee will conduct the review. The review will be made upon the record and will be made after such further proceedings, if any, as the Operating Committee may order. Based upon such record, the Operating Committee may affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part, the decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee. The decision of the Operating Committee will be in writing, will be sent to the parties to the proceeding and will be final.
The Procedures state that a final decision regarding the disputed CAT Fees by the Operating Committee, or the Fee Review Subcommittee (if there is no review by the Operating Committee), must be provided within 90 days of the date on which the Industry Member filed a written application regarding disputed CAT Fees with the Company. The Operating Committee may extend the 90-day time limit at its discretion.
In addition, the Procedures state that any notices or other documents may be served upon the applicant either personally or by leaving the same at its, his or her place of business or by deposit in the United States post office, postage prepaid, by registered or certified mail, addressed to the applicant at its, his or her last known business or residence address. The Procedures also state that any time limits imposed under the Procedures for the submission of answers, petitions or other materials may be extended by permission of the Operating Committee. All papers and documents relating to review by the Fee Review Subcommittee or the Operating Committee must be submitted to the Fee Review Subcommittee or Operating Committee, as applicable.
The Procedures also note that decisions on such CAT Fee disputes made pursuant to these Procedures will be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
Finally, an Industry Member that files a written application with the Company regarding disputed CAT Fees in accordance with these Procedures is not required to pay such disputed CAT Fees until the dispute is resolved in accordance with these Procedures, including any review by the SEC or in any other appropriate forum. For these purposes, the disputed CAT Fees means the amount of the invoiced CAT Fees that the Industry Member has asserted pursuant to these Procedures that such Industry Member does not owe to the Company. The Industry Member must pay any invoiced CAT Fees that are not disputed CAT Fees when due as set forth in the original invoice.
Once the dispute regarding CAT Fees is resolved pursuant to these Procedures, if it is determined that the Industry Member owes any of the disputed CAT Fees, then the Industry Member must pay such disputed CAT Fees that are owed as well as interest on such disputed CAT Fees from the original due date (that is, 30 days after receipt of the original invoice of such CAT Fees) until such disputed CAT Fees are paid at a per annum rate equal to the lesser of (i) the Prime Rate plus 300 basis points, or (ii) the maximum rate permitted by applicable law.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements, interprets or clarifies Section 11.5 of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange and its Industry Members in meeting regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. In approving the Plan, the SEC noted that the Plan “is necessary and appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors and the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a national market system, or is otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.”
Section 6(b)(8) of the Act
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form F-4 (17 CFR 239.34) is used by foreign issuers to register securities in business combinations, reorganizations and exchange offers pursuant to federal securities laws pursuant to the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 163 (17 CFR 230.163) provides an exemption from section 5(c) (15 U.S.C. 77e(c)) under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 1049, Communications to Customers. The proposed rule change is intended to update and modernize Rule 1049, to be retitled “Options Communications,” and to conform it to rules of other options exchanges regarding communications to customers. It makes both organizational and substantive changes that have previously been made by other options exchanges.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange is a party to a 17d-2 agreement with the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) and other options exchanges (the “Options Multiparty 17d-2 Agreement” or the “17d-2 Agreement”).
Phlx Rule 1049, Communications to Customers, is not currently a Common Rule under the 17d-2 Agreement. Rule 1049 sets forth a range of requirements applicable to members, member organizations, or persons associated with a member organization utilizing any advertisement, educational material, sales literature or other communications to any customer or member of the public. The purpose of this proposed rule change is to update, clarify and conform Rule 1049 to the rules of FINRA and other options exchanges regarding options communications to customers that are included as Common Rules under the 17d-2 Agreement, so that it too may qualify as a Common Rule under the 17d-2 Agreement. The proposed rule change would make both organizational and substantive changes that have previously been made by other exchanges in order to conform to FINRA rules.
Specifically, this proposed rule change is based upon, and makes changes that have previously been made to, Chicago Board Options Exchange (“CBOE”) Rule 9.21 (a Common Rule) over the past ten years, on a cumulative basis, by SR-CBOE-2013-043;
Rule 1049(e) currently defines terms used in Rule 1049. Phlx proposes to redesignate paragraph (e) as paragraph (a). Phlx also proposes to delete the existing definitions of “advertisement”,
The Exchange proposes corresponding amendments throughout Rule 1049 to the provisions referring to advertisement, educational material and sales literature, including deletion of Commentary .02A of Rule 1049, which outlines what is permitted in an advertisement, and Commentary .03 of Rule 1049, which concerns the content of educational material.
Rule 1049(a) currently contains an outline of the “General Rule” for options communications. Phlx proposes to redesignate Rule 1049(a) as Rule 1049(d), and to incorporate limitations on the use of options communications currently contained in Commentary .01 of Rule 1049 into proposed Rule 1049(d).
Phlx proposes to amend Rule 1049(b) to include the types of communications proposed to be added to the definition of “options communications” in proposed Rule 1049(a). Current Rule 1049(b) which imposes an obligation to obtain advance approval by a Registered Options Principal (“ROP”) for most options communications, would be replaced by new language set forth in Rule 1049(b)(i)-(iv). Rule 1049(b)(i) would preserve this requirement with respect to retail communications. However, proposed Rule 1049(b)(ii) would remove correspondence, as defined in Rule 1049(a), from the pre-approval requirement. All correspondence would, however, be subject to general supervision and review requirements.
Finally, proposed Rule 1049(b)(iv) would require copies of the options communications to be retained by the member or member organization in accordance with Rule 17a-4
Rule 1049(c) currently requires members to obtain approval from the Exchange for every advertisement and all educational material. This requirement applies regardless of whether the options communications are used before or after the delivery of a current ODD. Phlx proposes to amend this provision to require Exchange approval only with respect to retail communications of a member or member organization pertaining to standardized options that is not accompanied or preceded by the applicable current ODD. Such retail communications would be required to be submitted at least ten calendar days prior to use (or such shorter period as the Exchange may allow in particular instances). The Exchange pre-approval requirement for options
Rule 1049(c) would also be amended to delete references to “advertisements” and “educational material,” which as discussed above would no longer be defined, and to include instead the types of communications added to the definition of “options communications” in proposed Rule 1049(a). The Exchange is also proposing to add language which would further exempt the ODD and a prospectus from Exchange review as these documents have other further requirements under the Securities Act of 1933.
Proposed new Rule 1049(e) would set forth (i) standards for options communications that are not preceded or accompanied by an ODD and (ii) standards for options communications used prior to delivery of an ODD. These requirements generally would clarify and restate the requirements contained in the current Commentary .02A of Rule 1049 which, as noted above, would be deleted.
Proposed new Commentary .01 would include and amend the provisions found in current Section A of Commentary .02 regarding how the Rule 1049(e)(i)(B) requirement that options communications contain contact information for obtaining a copy of the ODD may be satisfied. As noted above, the current provisions of Commentary .01 regarding limitations on the use of options communications are proposed to be incorporated into proposed Rule 1049(d).
Proposed Commentary .02, Projections, would be revised to amend and include the provisions currently located in Section B of Commentary .04, which pertain to standards for “Sales Literature” that contains projected performance figures. These provisions would be amended to apply to options communications rather than to the deleted defined term Sales Literature. As previously noted, the provisions of Commentary .02 that outline what is permitted in an advertisement are proposed to be deleted, and the provisions relating to standards for options communications used prior to delivery of the ODD are proposed to be incorporated into proposed Rule 1049(e)(ii). Proposed Rule 1049(e)(i) would limit all options communications that are not preceded or accompanied by the ODD.
Proposed Commentary .03, Historical Performance, would be revised to amend and include the provisions currently found in Section C of Commentary .04 pertaining to standards for sales literature that contains historical performance figures. These provisions would be amended to apply to options communications rather than to the deleted defined term sales literature. Existing Commentary .03, which concerns the content of educational material (another defined term proposed to be deleted), is proposed to be deleted as noted above. Proposed Rule 1049(e)(i) would limit all options communications that are not preceded or accompanied by the ODD.
Proposed Commentary .04, Options Programs, would contain the provisions of current Section D of Commentary .04, and would require communications regarding an options program (
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
In its most recent approval order for the 17d-2 Agreement
Without this relief, the statutory obligation of each individual SRO could result in a pattern of multiple examinations of broker-dealers that maintain memberships in more than one SRO (“common members”). In its decision, the Commission noted that such regulatory duplication would add unnecessary expenses for common members and their SROs. Finally, it observed that under paragraph (c) of Rule 17d-2, the Commission may declare joint plans for the allocation of regulatory responsibilities with respect to their common members effective if, after providing for notice and comment, it determines that the plan is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors, to foster cooperation and coordination among the SROs, to remove impediments to, and foster the development of, a national market system and a national clearance and settlement system, and is in conformity with the factors set forth in Section 17(d) of the Act.
The 17d-2 Plan covering the Common Rules is designed to eliminate regulatory duplication and unnecessary expense for common members and the SROs including Phlx, with respect to the Common Rules. By amending Rule 1049 so that it, like CBOE Rule 9.21, is “substantially similar” to the FINRA rules of similar purpose and therefore eligible to become a Common Rule for purposes of the 17d-2 Agreement, the Exchange is eliminating regulatory duplication and unnecessary expense as contemplated by Commission Rule 17d-
Additionally, the modernization of Rule 1049 promotes just and equitable principles of trade, removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and protects investors and the public interest, because it is designed to alert members to requirements with respect to options communications and to bring clarity to its members and the public regarding the Exchange's options communications rule. The Exchange therefore believes that the proposed rule change will help ensure that investors are protected from potentially false or misleading communications with the public distributed by Exchange members.
The Exchange does not believe that the amendments to Rule 1049 proposed herein will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act inasmuch as the amendments conform Rule 1049 more closely to the Common Rules regarding options communications to customers under the 17d-2 Agreement.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-Phlx-2017-39 and should be submitted on or before July 14, 2017.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 701(17 CFR 230.701) under the Securities Act of 1933 (“Securities Act”) (15 U.S.C. 77a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Chapter 19 to notify members of a systems issue related to allocations made pursuant to Supplementary Material .02(a)-(b) to Rule 1901.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend Chapter 19 to notify members of a systems issue related to allocations made pursuant to Supplementary Material .02(a)-(b) to Rule 1901 (“Flash auction”). Pursuant to Supplementary Material .02 to Rule 1901, when the automatic execution of an incoming order would result in an impermissible Trade Through,
This enhanced allocation was intended for the PMM when orders are allocated in the regular market, and not for the allocation of an order exposed pursuant to Supplementary Material .02 to Rule 1901 (
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because the proposed rule language more accurately reflects the way contracts will be allocated in the Flash auction until the systems issue is resolved. Due to a systems issue, allocations in the Flash auction do not take place in the manner described in Supplementary Material .02(a)-(b) to Rule 1901. The proposed rule change makes this clear in the Exchange's rules, and supplements notifications given to members and the Commission pursuant to Regulation SCI. While the Exchange intends to allocate contracts in the Flash auction as described in Supplementary Material .02(a)-(b) to Rule 1901, the Exchange is taking this temporary measure to ensure that members are properly notified of the current system behavior. The proposed rule change does not make any permanent changes to the Exchange's treatment of Flash auction allocations, which will be processed correctly when the Exchange migrates its trading system to INET in Q3 2017. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will promote just and equitable principles of trade since it is a temporary change, and is designed solely to provide additional notification and clarity to members of the Flash auction allocation issue. The Exchange intends to amend the manner in which the system operates to conform to the current rule text as symbols migrate to INET in Q3 2017.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative for 30 days after the date of filing. However, Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to make several non-substantive changes. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to make certain clarifying and non-substantive changes to its fee schedule in order to improve formatting and increase overall readability. The Exchange notes that these changes are purely clerical and do not substantively amend any fee or rebate, nor do they alter the manner in which the Exchange assesses fees or calculates rebates. The proposed changes are simply intended to increase overall readability and improve formatting. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to add a title page and table of contents page to the fee schedule.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed change will not impose a burden on competition, as the changes are purely clerical and do not amend any fee or rebate within the BOX Fee Schedule.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”),
The Exchange proposes to proposal to adopt Rule 996A (Consolidated Audit Trail—Fee Dispute Resolution) to establish the procedures for resolving potential disputes related to CAT Fees charged to Industry Members.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Bats BYX Exchange, Inc., Bats BZX Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc., Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”), Investors' Exchange LLC, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC, MIAX PEARL, LLC, NASDAQ BX, Inc., Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, Nasdaq ISE, LLC, Nasdaq MRX, LLC,
Paragraph (a) of Proposed Rule 996A sets forth the definitions for Proposed Rule 996A. Paragraph (a)(1) of Proposed Rule 996A states that, for purposes of Rule 996A, the terms “CAT NMS Plan”, “Industry Member”, “Operating Committee”, and “Participant” are defined as set forth in the Rule 910A (Consolidated Audit Trail—Definitions), and the term “CAT Fee” is defined as set forth in the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add paragraph (a)(2) to Proposed Rule 996A. New paragraph (a)(2) would define the term “Subcommittee” to mean a subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan. This definition is the same substantive definition as set forth in Section 1.1 of the CAT NMS Plan.
Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan requires Participants to adopt rules requiring that disputes with respect to fees charged to Industry Members pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan be determined by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee. Section 11.5 of the CAT NMS Plan also states that decisions by the Operating Committee or Subcommittee on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the right of any Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC pursuant to SEC Rule 608 or in any other appropriate forum. The Exchange proposes to adopt paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 996A. Paragraph (b) of Proposed Rule 996A states that disputes initiated by an Industry Member with respect to CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, shall be resolved by the Operating Committee, or a Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee, of the CAT NMS Plan, pursuant to the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures adopted pursuant to the CAT NMS Plan and set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 996A. Decisions on such matters shall be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
The Operating Committee has adopted “Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures” governing the manner in which disputes regarding CAT Fees charged pursuant to the Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees will be addressed. These Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures, as they relate to Industry Members, are set forth in paragraph (c) of Proposed Rule 996A. Specifically, the Fee Dispute Resolution Procedures provide the procedure for Industry Members that dispute CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member pursuant to one or more of the Participants' Consolidated Audit Trail Funding Fees Rules, including disputes related to the designated tier and the fee calculated pursuant to such tier, to apply for an opportunity to be heard and to have the CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member reviewed. The Procedures are modeled after the adverse action procedures adopted by various exchanges,
Under these Procedures, an Industry Member that disputes CAT Fees charged to such Industry Member and that desires to have an opportunity to be heard with respect to such disputed CAT Fees must file a written application with the Company within 15 business days after being notified of such disputed CAT Fees. The application must identify the disputed CAT Fees, state the specific reasons why the applicant takes exception to such CAT Fees, and set forth the relief sought. In addition, if the applicant intends to submit any additional documents, statements, arguments or other material in support of the application, the same should be so stated and identified.
The Company will refer applications for hearing and review promptly to the Subcommittee designated by the Operating Committee pursuant to Section 4.12 of the CAT NMS Plan with responsibility for conducting the reviews of CAT Fee disputes pursuant to these Procedures. This Subcommittee will be referred to as the Fee Review Subcommittee. The members of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to the provisions of Section 4.3(d) of the CAT NMS Plan regarding recusal and Conflicts of Interest. The Fee Review Subcommittee will keep a record of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will hold hearings promptly. The Fee Review Subcommittee will set a hearing date. The parties to the hearing shall furnish the Fee Review Subcommittee with all materials relevant to the
The parties to the hearing will consist of the applicant and a representative of the Company who shall present the reasons for the action taken by the Company that allegedly aggrieved the applicant. The applicant is entitled to be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel at all stages of the proceedings.
The Fee Review Subcommittee will determine all questions concerning the admissibility of evidence and will otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. Each of the parties will be permitted to make an opening statement, present witnesses and documentary evidence, cross examine opposing witnesses and present closing arguments orally or in writing as determined by the Fee Review Subcommittee. The Fee Review Subcommittee also will have the right to question all parties and witnesses to the proceeding. The Fee Review Subcommittee must keep a record of the hearing. The formal rules of evidence will not apply.
The Fee Review Subcommittee must set forth its decision in writing and send the written decision to the parties to the proceeding. Such decisions will contain the reasons supporting the conclusions of the Fee Review Subcommittee.
The decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee will be subject to review by the Operating Committee either on its own motion within 20 business days after issuance of the decision or upon written request submitted by the applicant within 15 business days after issuance of the decision. The applicant's petition must be in writing and must specify the findings and conclusions to which the applicant objects, together with the reasons for such objections. Any objection to a decision not specified in writing will be considered to have been abandoned and may be disregarded. Parties may petition to submit a written argument to the Operating Committee and may request an opportunity to make an oral argument before the Operating Committee. The Operating Committee will have sole discretion to grant or deny either request.
The Operating Committee will conduct the review. The review will be made upon the record and will be made after such further proceedings, if any, as the Operating Committee may order. Based upon such record, the Operating Committee may affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part, the decision of the Fee Review Subcommittee. The decision of the Operating Committee will be in writing, will be sent to the parties to the proceeding and will be final.
The Procedures state that a final decision regarding the disputed CAT Fees by the Operating Committee, or the Fee Review Subcommittee (if there is no review by the Operating Committee), must be provided within 90 days of the date on which the Industry Member filed a written application regarding disputed CAT Fees with the Company. The Operating Committee may extend the 90-day time limit at its discretion.
In addition, the Procedures state that any notices or other documents may be served upon the applicant either personally or by leaving the same at its, his or her place of business or by deposit in the United States post office, postage prepaid, by registered or certified mail, addressed to the applicant at its, his or her last known business or residence address. The Procedures also state that any time limits imposed under the Procedures for the submission of answers, petitions or other materials may be extended by permission of the Operating Committee. All papers and documents relating to review by the Fee Review Subcommittee or the Operating Committee must be submitted to the Fee Review Subcommittee or Operating Committee, as applicable.
The Procedures also note that decisions on such CAT Fee disputes made pursuant to these Procedures will be binding on Industry Members, without prejudice to the rights of any such Industry Member to seek redress from the SEC or in any other appropriate forum.
Finally, an Industry Member that files a written application with the Company regarding disputed CAT Fees in accordance with these Procedures is not required to pay such disputed CAT Fees until the dispute is resolved in accordance with these Procedures, including any review by the SEC or in any other appropriate forum. For these purposes, the disputed CAT Fees means the amount of the invoiced CAT Fees that the Industry Member has asserted pursuant to these Procedures that such Industry Member does not owe to the Company. The Industry Member must pay any invoiced CAT Fees that are not disputed CAT Fees when due as set forth in the original invoice.
Once the dispute regarding CAT Fees is resolved pursuant to these Procedures, if it is determined that the Industry Member owes any of the disputed CAT Fees, then the Industry Member must pay such disputed CAT Fees that are owed as well as interest on such disputed CAT Fees from the original due date (that is, 30 days after receipt of the original invoice of such CAT Fees) until such disputed CAT Fees are paid at a per annum rate equal to the lesser of (i) the Prime Rate plus 300 basis points, or (ii) the maximum rate permitted by applicable law.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements, interprets or clarifies Section 11.5 of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Exchange and its Industry Members in meeting regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. In approving the Plan, the SEC noted that the Plan “is necessary and appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors and the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a national market system, or is otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.”
Section 6(b)(8) of the Act
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend MRX Rule 804(h), regarding quote mitigation.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend MRX Rule 804, entitled “Market Maker Quotations,” to specifically amend Rule 804(h) which addresses the Exchange's quote traffic mitigation plan to adopt a similar quote mitigation plan to that of NASDAQ PHLX LLC (“Phlx”).
ISE Mercury, LLC (now known as MRX) implemented its quote mitigation plan in 2013, at the time it filed its Form 1 application.
MRX Rule 804(h) provides that MRX shall utilize a mechanism so that newly-received quotations and other changes to the Exchange's best bid and offer are not disseminated for a period of up to,
Phlx Rule 1082(a)(ii)(C) sets forth the conditions under which Phlx disseminates updated quotations based on changes in the Exchange's disseminated price and/or size. Phlx disseminates an updated bid and offer price, together with the size associated with such bid and offer, when: (1) Phlx's disseminated bid or offer price increases or decreases; (2) the size associated with Phlx's disseminated bid or offer decreases; or (3) the size associated with Phlx's bid (offer) increases by an amount greater than or equal to a percentage (never to exceed 20%)
The Exchange will not be adopting Phlx Rule 1082(a)(ii)(C)(4). This functionality is not necessary on INET. Phlx adopted 1082(a)(ii)(C)(4) when it was not operating on INET, with its subsequent replatform to INET functionality, 1082(a)(ii)(C)(4) was no longer necessary because of the real-time features which exist on INET. The INET functionality rendered the rule text in 1082(a)(ii)(C)(4) as unnecessary.
The Exchange will begin a system migration to Nasdaq INET in Q3 of 2017.
Upon completion of the migration to INET, MRX will set an initial percentage of 3% to be applied to all issues, which will be announced in an Options Trader Alert. MRX will continue to monitor the quote activity on the market and would not notify participants of any incremental increase in the size of the Exchange's quote to be disseminated to OPRA.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Phlx quote mitigation process has been in place since 2007. Phlx is operating on the INET system today, the same system that MRX will migrate to for its operating system. The Exchange believes that Phlx's quote mitigation process has successfully controlled Phlx's quote capacity. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to utilize a similar process as Phlx to mitigate quotes for MRX given the system architecture which will be utilized on MRX with the upcoming migration. Additionally, Nasdaq, Inc., a common parent to Phlx and MRX, has experience with this quote mitigation strategy on INET. The Exchange has selected to mitigate MRX at 3% to start and determine if the percentage will need to be adjusted thereafter. The Exchange has selected to mitigate MRX at 3% initially because, unlike Phlx, which is a mature market with various auction offerings and higher volumes, MRX is a not as large in volume and has fewer functional offerings,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange proposes to mitigate all options trading on MRX. All options exchanges have a quote mitigation process in place in connection with their participation in the Penny Pilot Program.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 13e-3 (17 CFR 240.13e-3) and Schedule 13E-3 (17 CFR 240.13e-100)—Rule 13e-3 prescribes the filing, disclosure and dissemination requirements in connection with a going private transaction by an issuer or an affiliate. Schedule 13E-3 provides shareholders and the marketplace with material information concerning a going private transaction. The information collected permits verification of compliance with securities laws requirements and ensures the public availability and dissemination of the collected information. This information is made available to the public. Information provided on Schedule 13E-3 is mandatory. We estimate that Schedule 13E-3 is filed by approximately 77 issuers annually and it takes approximately 137.42 hours per response. We estimate that 25% of the 137.42 hours per response is prepared by the filer for a total annual reporting burden of 2,646 hours (34.36 hours per response × 77 responses).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
On April 26, 2017, Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”)
The proposed rule change was published for comment in the
Under FINRA Rules 12402 (Cases with One Arbitrator) and 12403 (Cases with Three Arbitrators) of the Code of Arbitration Procedure for Customer Disputes (“Customer Code”) and FINRA Rule 13403 (Generating and Sending Lists to the Parties) of the Code of Arbitration Procedure for Industry Disputes (“Industry Code,” and together with the Customer Code, the “Codes”), a party must serve an answer on each other party to an arbitration within the timeframes specified under the applicable provisions of the Codes. For example, FINRA Rule 12303 requires a respondent to serve an answer specifying the relevant facts and available defenses to the statement of claim on each other party to the arbitration within 45 days of receipt of the statement of claim (the “answer due date”).
Currently, when parties to an arbitration agree to extend the deadline for when an answer is due, the ODR Director uses that new, agreed-upon extended answer due date as the last answer due date for sending the arbitrator list or lists to the parties.
FINRA is therefore proposing to amend FINRA Rules 12402(c)(1), 12403(b)(1), and 13403(c)(1) to provide that the ODR Director will send the list or lists generated by NLSS to all parties at the same time, within approximately 30 days after the last answer is due, regardless of the parties' agreement to extend any answer due date.
As parties must return the ranked arbitrator list or lists to the ODR Director no more than 20 days after the date upon which the ODR Director sent the list or lists to the parties,
As noted above, the Commission received five comment letters on the proposed rule change, all of which supported the proposal.
After careful review of the proposed rule change and the comment letters, the Commission finds that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities association.
As stated in the Notice, the proposal would “enable the parties, or their counsel, to evaluate and rank the arbitrator list or lists at the same time that they prepare their responses in those circumstances where the parties request an extension to answer.”
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to modify the NYSE Amex Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”). The Exchange proposes to implement the fee change effective June 9, 2017. The proposed change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of this filing is to establish fees and credits for a recently adopted Exchange trading mechanism known as Broadcast Order Liquidity Delivery Mechanism (“BOLD”), which was launched on May 31, 2017.
BOLD is a new feature within the Exchange's trading system that provides automated order handling in eligible orders that are executable against quotations disseminated by other exchanges that are participants in the Options Order Protection and Locked/Crossed Market Plan.
First, the Exchange proposes to adopt definitions related to BOLD. The Exchange proposes to define the “BOLD Mechanism” as referring to “the Exchange's automated order handling for eligible orders in designated classes, pursuant to Rule 994NY.”
Regarding pricing, the Exchange proposes that Non-Customer
The Exchange proposes that, beginning in June 2017, volume
Finally, the Exchange proposes to make a clarifying change to the ACE Program to make clear that ATP Holders that achieve Tier 2 and are eligible to receive the $0.19 per contract credit for Electronic Customer Complex Orders would receive such credit “regardless of whether the Complex Order trades against interest in the Complex Order Book or with individual orders and quotes in the Consolidated Book.”
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes applying standard transaction fees (based on participant type and whether a Penny Pilot issue) for Non-Customer and Professional Customer orders executed using the BOLD Mechanism is reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory, because these market participants would be subject to the same or lower fees as are currently imposed on these market participants for Electronic transactions executed on the Exchange.
Further, the Exchange believes the proposed treatment of Customer orders executed via BOLD—
Further, the proposal to include orders executed via the BOLD Mechanism for purposes of calculating monthly volume thresholds for the Market Maker Sliding Scale and the ACE Program, as well as to apply fees incurred for BOLD transactions to the Prepayment Program, are reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory as these programs are designed to encourage participation by Customers and Market Makers in the full spectrum of NYSE Amex Options transactions. The Exchange also believes it is reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory to not impose Marketing Charges on NYSE Amex Market Makers for orders executed via the BOLD Mechanism because such orders do not interact with quoted markets but are required to be filled at prices no worse than the NBBO. The Exchange believes that removing the Marketing Charges should incentivize Market Makers to more actively provide liquidity in response to orders submitted via BOLD.
In addition, the Exchange believes the proposed changes are consistent with the Act because to the extent the BOLD Mechanism permits the Exchange to continue to attract greater volume and liquidity, the proposed change would improve the Exchange's overall competitiveness and strengthen its market quality for all market participants.
Finally, the Exchange believes the proposed clarifying change to the ACE Program regarding how credits for Complex Orders would be handled is consistent with the Act as this change would add clarity, transparency and internal consistency to the Fee Schedule. In addition, the proposal to remove extraneous language from Section I.C. of the Fee Schedule
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of KANSAS (FEMA-4319-DR), dated 06/16/2017.
Effective 06/16/2017.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 06/16/2017, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 15183B and for economic injury is 15184B.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
The U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) announces the 2017 Growth Accelerator Fund Competition, pursuant to the America Competes Act, to recognize the nation's most innovative accelerators and award them cash prizes they may use to fund their operations costs and allow them to bring startup companies to scale and new ideas to life.
The submission period for entries begins 12:00 p.m. EDT, June 23, 2017 and ends July 21, 2017 at 4:59 p.m. EDT. Winners will be announced no later than Fall 2017.
Nagesh Rao, Office of Investment and Innovation, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 Third Street SW., 6th Floor, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6565,
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• What is your accelerator's mission in one sentence?
• What specific elements make your accelerator model stand out?
• What experiences prepare your team for this?
• What gaps does or will your accelerator and/or thrust/program fill?
• What are the specifics of your model and how it will accomplish the above?
• What has been your success/metrics so far?
• Please explain your overall statistics of the start-up life cycle?
• What is your plan for the prize money if you win?
• Provide basics of business plan and phases for implementation.
• Aside from the founding team members, what do you look for in staff?
• What are the largest risk factors you see?
• What are your fundraising goals or metrics? (aside from the 4-to-1 match)
• Is there a plan in place to secure/work to secure funds (cash, in-kind donations, or sponsorships) in a 4-to-1 proportion to the prize dollars received?
• Aside from metrics required by SBA, what are 5 key metrics you will use to self-evaluate?
• What does success look like?
Additionally, participants in this Competition must utilize models of operation that include most, if not all, of the following elements:
• Selective process to choose participating startups.
• Regular networking opportunities offered to startups.
• Introductions to customers, partners, suppliers, advisory boards and other players.
• High-growth and tech-driven startup mentorship and commercialization assistance.
• Shared working environments focused on building a strong startup community.
• Resource sharing and co-working arrangements for startups.
• Opportunities to pitch ideas and startups to investors along with other capital formation avenues to startups.
• Small amounts of angel money, seed capital or structured loans to startups.
• Service to underserved communities, such as women, veterans, and economically disadvantaged individuals.
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15 U.S.C. 3719
Based upon a review of the Administrative Record assembled pursuant to Section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1189) (“INA”), and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I have concluded that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that the following are aliases of Hizballah (and other aliases): Lebanese Hizballah, also known as Lebanese Hezbollah, also known as LH; Foreign Relations Department, also known as FRD; and External Security Organization, also known as ESO, also known as Foreign Action Unit, also known as Hizballah ESO, also known as Hizballah International, also known as Special Operations Branch, also known as External Services Organization, also known as External Security Organization of Hezbollah.
Therefore, pursuant to Section 219(b) of the INA, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1189(b), I hereby amend the designation of Hizballah as a foreign terrorist organization to include the following new aliases: Lebanese Hizballah, also known as Lebanese Hezbollah, also known as LH; Foreign Relations Department, also known as FRD; and External Security Organization, also known as ESO, also known as Foreign Action Unit, also known as Hizballah ESO, also known as Hizballah International, also known as Special Operations Branch, also known as External Services Organization, also known as External Security Organization of Hezbollah.
This determination shall be published in the
Based upon a review of the administrative record assembled in this matter pursuant to Section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1189 (“INA”), and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I have concluded that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that al-Qa'ida in the Arabian Peninsula uses the additional aliases Sons of Abyan, Sons of Hadramawt, Sons of Hadramawt Committee, Civil Council of Hadramawt, and National Hadramawt Council.
Therefore, pursuant to Section 219(b) of the INA, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1189(b), I hereby amend the designation of al-Qa'ida in the Arabian Peninsula as a Foreign Terrorist Organization to include Sons of Abyan, Sons of Hadramawt, Sons of Hadramawt Committee, Civil Council of Hadramawt, and National Hadramawt Council as aliases.
This determination shall be published in the
Based upon a review of the administrative record assembled in this matter, and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I have concluded that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that al-Qa'ida in the Arabian Peninsula (and other aliases) uses the additional aliases Sons of Abyan, Sons of Hadramawt, Sons of Hadramawt Committee, Civil Council of Hadramawt, and National Hadramawt Council.
Therefore, pursuant to Section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, I hereby amend the designation of al-Qa'ida in the Arabian Peninsula (and other aliases) as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist to include Sons of Abyan, Sons of Hadramawt, Sons of Hadramawt Committee, Civil Council of Hadramawt, and National Hadramawt Council as aliases.
This determination shall be published in the
Based upon a review of the administrative record assembled in this matter, and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I have concluded that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that Hizballah (and other aliases): Lebanese Hizballah, also known as Lebanese Hezbollah, also known as LH; Foreign Relations Department, also known as FRD; and External Security Organization, also known as ESO, also known as Foreign Action Unit, also known as Hizballah ESO, also known as Hizballah International, also known as Special Operations Branch, also known as External Services Organization, also known as External Security Organization of Hezbollah.
Therefore, pursuant to Section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, I hereby amend the designation of Hizballah as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist to include the following new aliases: Lebanese Hizballah, also known as Lebanese Hezbollah, also known as LH; Foreign Relations Department, also known as FRD; and External Security Organization, also known as ESO, also known as Foreign Action Unit, also known as Hizballah ESO, also known as Hizballah International, also known as Special Operations Branch, also known as External Services Organization, also known as External Security Organization of Hezbollah.
This determination shall be published in the
On June 5, 2017, Mission Mountain Railroad, L.L.C. (MMT), filed with the Board a petition under 49 U.S.C. 10502 for exemption from the prior approval requirements of 49 U.S.C. 10903 to discontinue its lease operations over approximately 2.7 miles of rail line owned by BNSF Railway Company (BNSF) in Flathead County, Mont. (the Line). The Line is located from milepost 1225.19 to milepost 1227.58 and from milepost 1226.91 to Engineering Station 189+36 (milepost 1227.10) in Kalispell, Mont. and traverses United States Postal Service Zip Code 59901.
MMT states that based on information in BNSF's possession, the Line does not contain any federally granted rights-of-way. It states that any documentation in MMT's possession will be made available to those requesting it.
MMT states that it began operating over the Line in December 2004
As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the discontinuance of service shall be protected under
By issuance of this notice, the Board is instituting an exemption proceeding pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 10502(b). A final decision will be issued by September 22, 2017.
Because this is a discontinuance proceeding and not an abandonment proceeding, trail use/rail banking and
Any offer of financial assistance (OFA) under 49 CFR 1152.27(b)(2) to subsidize continued rail service will be due no later than October 2, 2017, or 10 days after service of a decision granting the petition for exemption, whichever occurs sooner. Each OFA must be accompanied by a $1,700 filing fee.
All filings in response to this notice must refer to Docket No. AB 1009 (Sub-No. 1X) and must be sent to: (1) Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423-0001; and (2) Karl Morell, 440 1st Street NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001. Replies to this petition are due on or before July 13, 2017.
Persons seeking further information concerning discontinuance procedures may contact the Board's Office of Public Assistance, Governmental Affairs, and Compliance at (202) 245-0238 or refer to the full abandonment and discontinuance regulations at 49 CFR pt. 1152. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) DOT.
Notice and request for comment.
The FAA is requesting public comment on the Elkins, Randolph County Regional Airport Authority's proposal to change 2.03 acres of airport property at Elkins, Randolph County Regional Airport, Elkins, West Virginia from aeronautical to non-aeronautical use and to enter into a long term non-aeronautical lease concerning the subject property.
In accordance with federal regulations this notice is required to be published in the
Comments must be received on or before July 24, 2017.
Comments on this application may be mailed or delivered to the following address: Nils A. Heinke, President, Elkins, Randolph County Regional Airport, 400 Airport Road, Elkins, West Virginia 26241, 304-636-2726.
And at the FAA Beckley Airports Field Office:, Matthew DiGiulian, Manager, Beckley Airports Field Office, 176 Airport Circle, Room 101, Beaver, West Virginia, (304) 252-6216.
Connie Boley-Lilly, Program Specialist, Beckley Airports Field Office, location listed above.
The request for change in use of on-airport property may be reviewed in person at this same location.
The following is a brief overview of the request:
The Elkins, Randolph County Regional Airport Authority, requests to change the use of 2.03 acres of on-airport property from aeronautical to non-aeronautical use and to enter into a long term non-aeronautical lease concerning this property. No land shall be sold as part of this land release request. The property is situated on the southeast corner of the airport. The Emerson Phares Building is an 80′ x 146′ brick and mortar building situated on 2.03 acres. This building was built in 1988 for the purpose of housing an FAA Flight Service Station. It is no longer needed by the FAA for that purpose. The release is being requested in order to re-classify the building as non-aeronautical use for the purpose of entering into a long term lease agreement with the Randolph County Commission. The lease term will be for a minimum of 30 years to utilize the building as a 911 Emergency Services Communications Center. The release of the property to facilitate the reclassification of the building will result in a direct benefit to the Airport Authority which will be realized in the form of monetary gain from the collection of rental/lease fees. The 2.03 acre area requested to be designated as non-aeronautical is unable to be utilized for aviation purposes because it is located outside the airport perimeter fence, and airside operations area, and is inaccessible by aircraft. The subject acreage is currently being used as rental property and once was occupied by an FAA Flight Service Station. The purpose of this request is to permanently change the use of the property given there is no potential for future aviation use, as demonstrated by the Airport Layout Plan. Subsequent to the implementation of the proposed change in use, rents received by the airport from this property must be used in accordance with FAA's Policy and Procedures Concerning the Use of Airport Revenue, published in the
Any person may inspect the request by appointment at the FAA office address listed above. Interested persons are invited to comment. All comments will be considered by the FAA to the extent practicable.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Notice of limitation on claims for judicial review of actions by FHWA.
This notice announces actions taken by FHWA that are final. The actions relate to the widening of Interstate 64 to a consistent six-lane facility between Interstates 664 and 564 and the addition of a new bridge-tunnel parallel to the existing Interstate 64 Hampton Roads Bridge Tunnel. Those actions grant licenses, permits, and approvals for the project.
By this notice, FHWA is advising the public of final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(
For FHWA: Mr. Edward Sundra, Director of Program Development, FHWA Virginia Division, 400 North 8th Street, Richmond, Virginia 23219; telephone:
Notice is hereby given that FHWA has taken final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(
This notice applies to all Federal agency decisions as of the issuance date of this notice and all laws under which such actions were taken, including but not limited to:
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23 U.S.C. 139(
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of limitation on claims for judicial review of actions by FHWA.
This notice announces actions taken by the FHWA that are final. The action relates to the issuance of a Finding of No Significant Impact for the Interstate 5 Joint Base Lewis-McChord (JBLM) Congestion Relief Project in the vicinity of JBLM in southern Pierce County, State of Washington.
By this notice, the FHWA is advising the public of final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(
For FHWA, Dean Moberg, Area Engineer, Federal Highway Administration, 711 S. Capitol Way, Suite 501, Olympia, WA 98501-1284, 360-534-9344, or
Notice is hereby given that FHWA has taken final agency action(s) subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(
This notice applies to all Federal agency decisions that are final as of the issuance date of this notice and all laws under which such actions were taken, including but not limited to
23 U.S.C. 139(
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 10 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in one eye. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemptions will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these CMV drivers.
The exemptions were granted May 25, 2017. The exemptions expire on May 25, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at
On April 24, 2017, FMCSA published a notice of receipt of exemption applications from certain individuals, and requested comments from the public (82 FR 18954). That notice listed 10 applicants' case histories. The 10 individuals applied for exemptions from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), for drivers who operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated the 10 applications on their merits and made a determination to grant exemptions to each of them.
The vision requirement in the FMCSRs provides:
A person is physically qualified to drive a commercial motor vehicle if that person has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber (49 CFR 391.41(b)(10)).
FMCSA recognizes that some drivers do not meet the vision requirement but have adapted their driving to accommodate their limitation and demonstrated their ability to drive safely. The 10 exemption applicants listed in this notice are in this category. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons, including amblyopia, complete loss of vision, enucleation, glaucoma, and prosthetic eye. In most cases, their eye conditions were not recently developed. Nine of the applicants were either born with their vision impairments or have had them since childhood.
The one individual that sustained their vision condition as an adult has had it for 12 years.
Although each applicant has one eye which does not meet the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), each has at least 20/40 corrected vision in the other eye, and in a doctor's opinion, has sufficient vision to perform all the tasks necessary to operate a CMV. Doctors' opinions are supported by the applicants' possession of valid commercial driver's licenses (CDLs) or non-CDLs to operate CMVs. Before issuing CDLs, States subject drivers to knowledge and skills tests designed to evaluate their qualifications to operate a CMV.
All of these applicants satisfied the testing requirements for their State of residence. By meeting State licensing requirements, the applicants demonstrated their ability to operate a CMV, with their limited vision, to the satisfaction of the State.
While possessing a valid CDL or non-CDL, these 10 drivers have been
The qualifications, experience, and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the April 24, 2017 notice (82 FR 18954).
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. Without the exemption, applicants will continue to be restricted to intrastate driving. With the exemption, applicants can drive in interstate commerce. Thus, our analysis focuses on whether an equal or greater level of safety is likely to be achieved by permitting each of these drivers to drive in interstate commerce as opposed to restricting him or her to driving in intrastate commerce.
To evaluate the effect of these exemptions on safety, FMCSA considered the medical reports about the applicants' vision as well as their driving records and experience with the vision deficiency.
To qualify for an exemption from the vision requirement, FMCSA requires a person to present verifiable evidence that he/she has driven a commercial vehicle safely with the vision deficiency for the past 3 years. Recent driving performance is especially important in evaluating future safety, according to several research studies designed to correlate past and future driving performance. Results of these studies support the principle that the best predictor of future performance by a driver is his/her past record of crashes and traffic violations. Copies of the studies may be found at Docket Number FMCSA-1998-3637.
FMCSA believes it can properly apply the principle to monocular drivers, because data from the Federal Highway Administration's (FHWA) former waiver study program clearly demonstrate the driving performance of experienced monocular drivers in the program is better than that of all CMV drivers collectively (See 61 FR 13338, 13345, March 26, 1996). The fact that experienced monocular drivers demonstrated safe driving records in the waiver program supports a conclusion that other monocular drivers, meeting the same qualifying conditions as those required by the waiver program, are also likely to have adapted to their vision deficiency and will continue to operate safely.
The first major research correlating past and future performance was done in England by Greenwood and Yule in 1920. Subsequent studies, building on that model, concluded that crash rates for the same individual exposed to certain risks for two different time periods vary only slightly (See Bates and Neyman, University of California Publications in Statistics, April 1952). Other studies demonstrated theories of predicting crash proneness from crash history coupled with other factors. These factors—such as age, sex, geographic location, mileage driven and conviction history—are used every day by insurance companies and motor vehicle bureaus to predict the probability of an individual experiencing future crashes (See Weber, Donald C., “Accident Rate Potential: An Application of Multiple Regression Analysis of a Poisson Process,” Journal of American Statistical Association, June 1971). A 1964 California Driver Record Study prepared by the California Department of Motor Vehicles concluded that the best overall crash predictor for both concurrent and nonconcurrent events is the number of single convictions. This study used 3 consecutive years of data, comparing the experiences of drivers in the first 2 years with their experiences in the final year.
Applying principles from these studies to the past 3-year record of the 10 applicants, no drivers were involved in crashes and one driver was convicted of a moving violation in a CMV. All the applicants achieved a record of safety while driving with their vision impairment, demonstrating the likelihood that they have adapted their driving skills to accommodate their condition. As the applicants' ample driving histories with their vision deficiencies are good predictors of future performance, FMCSA concludes their ability to drive safely can be projected into the future.
We believe that the applicants' intrastate driving experience and history provide an adequate basis for predicting their ability to drive safely in interstate commerce. Intrastate driving, like interstate operations, involves substantial driving on highways on the interstate system and on other roads built to interstate standards. Moreover, driving in congested urban areas exposes the driver to more pedestrian and vehicular traffic than exists on interstate highways. Faster reaction to traffic and traffic signals is generally required because distances between them are more compact. These conditions tax visual capacity and driver response just as intensely as interstate driving conditions. The veteran drivers in this proceeding have operated CMVs safely under those conditions for at least 3 years, most for much longer. Their experience and driving records lead us to believe that each applicant is capable of operating in interstate commerce as safely as he/she has been performing in intrastate commerce. Consequently, FMCSA finds that exempting these applicants from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption. For this reason, the Agency is granting the exemptions for the 2-year period allowed by 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to the 10 applicants listed in the notice of April 24, 2017 (82 FR 18954).
We recognize that the vision of an applicant may change and affect his/her ability to operate a CMV as safely as in the past. As a condition of the exemption, therefore, FMCSA will impose requirements on the 10 individuals consistent with the grandfathering provisions applied to drivers who participated in the Agency's vision waiver program.
Those requirements are found at 49 CFR 391.64(b) and include the following: (1) That each individual be physically examined every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time oaf the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must have a copy of the certification when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
FMCSA received one comment in this proceeding. Cheyenne Imlay stated she is against granting the exemptions due to safety concerns. FMCSA is required to evaluate medical reports regarding each applicant's vision deficiency, as well as each applicant's driving records,
Based upon its evaluation of the 10 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10):
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
If the exemption is still effective at the end of the 2-year period, the person may apply to FMCSA for a renewal under procedures in effect at that time.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition.
Spartan Motors USA, Inc. (Spartan), has determined that certain model year (MY) 2017 Spartan Emergency Response Metro Star motor vehicles do not fully comply with Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 120,
For further information on this decision contact Kerrin Bressant, Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), telephone (202) 366-1110, facsimile (202) 366-5930.
Notice of receipt of the petition was published, with a 30-day public comment period on April 11, 2017, in the
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(b) The rim size designation, and in case of multipiece rims, the rim type designation. For example: 20 x 5.50, or 20 x 5.5.
In support of its petition, Spartan provided the following: Chassis cabs affected by this condition are manufactured in two or more stages. While in general, Spartan is the incomplete vehicle manufacturer, in this case, Spartan provides a label that contains the requirements identified in 49 CFR 567.5(a)(2)(iv), which states that a label must be affixed to an incomplete vehicle that contains the “GROSS AXLE WEIGHT RATING” or “GVWR”, followed by the appropriate value in kilograms and (pounds) for each axle, identified in order from front to rear (
While the actual wheel stamping may be 24.5, the physical size (outside diameter) is 22.5. If a service provider were to reference the rim size of the incorrectly stamped rim, and attempt to install a tire with an inside diameter of 24.5, it would be too large for the 22.5 size rim and thus not fit. Given the label being provided and the construction details sheet provided in accordance with NFPA® 1901 Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus 2016 edition, Spartan believes the
To view Spartan's petition analyses in its entirety you can visit
No comments were received during the receipt notice comment period.
In this case, the agency agrees that the noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. As stated by Spartan, if a service provider tried to mount a 24.5 diameter tire on a 22.5 diameter rim it would be unsuccessful. The inability to mount the incorrect tire on the rim precludes one's ability to actually drive with an incorrect tire-rim combination on public roadways. Furthermore, FMVSS No. 120 paragraph S5.3 requires vehicles be labeled with proper tire/rim size combinations. This additional information is available to assist the vehicle operator with tire/rim size information.
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, this decision only applies to the subject motorcycles that Spartan no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, the granting of this petition does not relieve vehicle distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant vehicles under their control after Spartan notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8).
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Receipt of petition.
Nissan North America, Inc. (Nissan), has determined that certain model year (MY) 2016-2017 Nissan Titan Crew Cab motor vehicles do not fully comply with Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 201,
The closing date for comments on the petition is July 24, 2017.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments on this petition. Comments must refer to the docket and notice number cited in the title of this notice and submitted by any of the following methods:
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• Comments may also be faxed to (202) 493-2251.
Comments must be written in the English language, and be no greater than 15 pages in length, although there is no limit to the length of necessary attachments to the comments. If comments are submitted in hard copy form, please ensure that two copies are provided. If you wish to receive confirmation that comments you have submitted by mail were received, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard with the comments. Note that all comments received will be posted without change to
All comments and supporting materials received before the close of business on the closing date indicated above will be filed in the docket and will be considered. All comments and supporting materials received after the closing date will also be filed and will be considered to the fullest extent possible.
When the petition is granted or denied, notice of the decision will also be published in the
All comments, background documentation, and supporting materials submitted to the docket may be viewed by anyone at the address and times given above. The documents may also be viewed on the Internet at
DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement is available for review in a
This notice of receipt of Nissan's petition is published under 49 U.S.C. 30118 and 30120 and does not represent any agency decision or other exercise of judgment concerning the merits of the petition.
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Paragraphs S10.4(b)(2) of FMVSS No. 201 states in pertinent part:
(2) If a seat belt anchorage is located on the pillar, Target RP2 is any point on the anchorage. . .
V.
In support of its petition, Nissan submitted the following reasoning:
1. In the subject vehicles, the HIC(d) value deviation for target RP2 observed in the MGA test is inconsequential because it is impossible for an occupant's head to strike this target at the same angle as the MGA test.
(a) When attempting to replicate the MGA test condition with an AM50 Hybrid III dummy (AM50 ATD), the AM50 ATD's head cannot contact the RP2 compliance test impact point when the rear seat
(b) When attempting to replicate the MGA test condition with an AM50 Hybrid III dummy (AM50 ATD), the AM50 ATD's head cannot contact the RP2 compliance test impact point when the
2. As previously demonstrated in section 1, it is not possible for the AM50 ATD to contact the D-Ring anchor cap in the same head form orientation as used in the MGA test. It was then attempted to replicate any possible real world contact of the AM50 Hybrid III dummy's head (AM50 ATD) and the rear pillar d-ring anchor cap. A small range exists where it is possible for the head of the AM50 ATD to contact the rear seat belt d-ring anchor cap albeit in a manner different than the compliance test. This range is bounded on one end by the AM50 contact with either the rear seat when in the design position or the rear trim when the seat is in the folded position.
(a) Interference between the AM50 ATD and the back of the front seat limits the horizontal approach angle to thirty-four degrees (34°). A test conducted in support of this petition with a horizontal approach angle of 34º and a vertical approach angle of 0º at a velocity of 24.5 kph resulted in a HIC(d) value of 646.2.
(b) With the rear seat in the folded position, in order for the AM50 ATD's head to contact the RP2 target, a horizontal approach angle of seventy-one degrees (71º) would be required; the resultant deceleration, and thus HIC(d) value, would be lower than 1,007.9 due to head contact with the edge of the D-ring bolt trip cap and off-axis loading of the D-Ring bolt. A test conducted in support of this petition with a horizontal approach angle of 71º and vertical approach angle of 0º at a velocity of 24.6 kph resulted in a HIC(d) value of 891.7.
(c) With the rear seat in the design position, in order for the AM50 ATD's head to contact the RP2 target a horizontal approach angle of sixty-five degrees (65º) would be required, with the resultant HIC(d) similar to the above, and well below the regulatory threshold.
3. In addition to the above, Nissan is aware of four crash tests that demonstrate the test dummy's head does not contact the RP2 target during the crash event:
(a) In the Insurance Institute for Highway Safety Side Impact Moving Deformable Barrier (MDB) Test conducted at a ninety-degree (90º) side impact at 50 kph the test dummy head does not contact FMVSS No. 201U S10.4(b)(2) target RP2.
(b) In the New Car Assessment Program (NCAP) Side Impact Moving Deformable Barrier Test conducted at 61.9 kph, the test dummy head does not contact FMVSS No. 201U S10.4(b)(2) target RP2.
(c) In a frontal impact sled test conducted as part of an internal Nissan evaluation, the test dummy's head, in a fully rearward position, does not contact the RP2 target.
(d) In a second row 18 mph side impact rigid pole test conducted as part of an internal evaluation, the test dummy's head does not contact the RP2 target.
Nissan concluded by expressing the belief that the subject noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition to be exempted from providing notification of the noncompliance, as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118, and a remedy for the noncompliance, as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120, should be granted.
To view Nissan's petition analyses and any supplemental information in its entirety you can visit
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and
49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8.
Notice, amended.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) is seeking nominations of qualified candidates to be considered for appointment as a member of the Veterans and Community Oversight and Engagement Board (herein after referred in this section to as “the Board”) for the VA West Los Angeles Campus in Los Angeles, CA (“Campus”). The Board is established to coordinate locally with the Department of Veterans Affairs to identify the goals of the community and Veteran partnership; provide advice and recommendations to the Secretary to improve services and outcomes for Veterans, members of the Armed Forces, and the families of such Veterans and members; and provide advice and recommendations on the implementation of the Draft Master Plan approved by the Secretary on January 28, 2016, and on the creation and implementation of any other successor master plans.
Nominations for membership on the Board must be received no later than 5:00p.m. EST on July 7, 2017.
All nominations should be mailed to the Veterans Experience Office, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW. (30), Washington, DC 20420; or sent electronically to the Advisory Committee Management Office mailbox at
Kellie Condon, Ph.D., Designated Federal Officer, Veterans Experience Office, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW. (30), Washington, DC 20420, telephone 805-868-2076 or via email at
In carrying out the duties set forth in the West LA Leasing Act, the Board shall:
(1) Provide the community with opportunities to collaborate and communicate by conducting public forums; and
(2) Focus on local issues regarding the Department that are identified by the community with respect to health care, implementation of the Master Plan, and any subsequent plans, benefits, and memorial services at the Campus. Information on the Master Plan can be found at
The Board is a statutory committee established as required by Section 2(i) of the West Los Angeles Leasing Act of 2016, Public Law 114-226 (the West LA Leasing Act). The Board operates in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. App. 2.
The members of the Board are appointed by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs from the general public, from various sectors and organizations, and shall meet the following qualifications, as set forth in the West LA Leasing Act:
(1) Not less than 50% of members shall be Veterans; and
(2) Non-Veteran members shall be:
a. Family members of Veterans,
b. Veteran advocates,
c. Service providers,
d. Real estate professionals familiar with housing development projects, or
e. Stakeholders.
In accordance with the Board Charter, the Secretary shall determine the number, terms of service, and pay and allowances of Board members, except that a term of service of any such member may not exceed two years. The Secretary may reappoint any Board member for additional terms of service.
To the extent possible, the Secretary seeks members who have diverse professional and personal qualifications including but not limited to subject matter experts in the areas described above. We ask that nominations include any relevant experience and information so that VA can ensure diverse Board membership.
(1) A letter of nomination that clearly states the name and affiliation of the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
(2) The nominee's contact information, including name, mailing address, telephone numbers, and email address;
(3) The nominee's curriculum vitae, not to exceed three pages and a one page cover letter; and
(4) A summary of the nominee's experience and qualifications relative to the membership criteria and professional qualifications criteria listed above.
The Department makes every effort to ensure that the membership of VA Federal advisory committees is diverse in terms of points of view represented and the committee's capabilities. Appointments to this Board shall be made without discrimination because of a person's race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. Nominations must state that the nominee is willing to serve as a member of the Board and appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude membership. An ethics review is conducted for each selected nominee.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |