Page Range | 52643-52822 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 52647 - Privacy Act Regulations; Correction | |
82 FR 52821 - World Freedom Day, 2017 | |
82 FR 52746 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
82 FR 52743 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
82 FR 52748 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
82 FR 52728 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 52643 - National Organic Program (NOP); Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices | |
82 FR 52675 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Atlantic Bluefish Fishery; Quota Transfer | |
82 FR 52722 - Information Session; Implementation of the Water Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act of 2014 | |
82 FR 52667 - Notification of Partial Voluntary Withdrawal of Delegation of Authority; Connecticut; National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Asbestos | |
82 FR 52667 - State of Iowa; Approval and Promulgation of the State Implementation Plan, the Operating Permits Program, and the 111(d) Plan; Withdrawal | |
82 FR 52674 - Community Right-to-Know; Adopting 2017 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Codes for Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) Reporting; Withdrawal | |
82 FR 52724 - Information Collection Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
82 FR 52743 - Notice on Outer Continental Shelf Oil and Gas Lease Sales | |
82 FR 52762 - Order Scheduling Filing of Statements on Review | |
82 FR 52756 - Meeder Funds Trust, et al. | |
82 FR 52764 - Release of Waybill Data | |
82 FR 52710 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 52767 - Notice of Final Federal Agency Actions of Proposed Highway/Interchange Improvement in California; Statute of Limitations on Claims | |
82 FR 52766 - Notice To Rescind Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Impact Statement: Taylorsville Mobility Study, Salt Lake County, State of Utah | |
82 FR 52713 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 52739 - National Advisory Council; Meeting | |
82 FR 52739 - Georgia; Amendment No. 7 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
82 FR 52723 - Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 52723 - Information Collection Approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) | |
82 FR 52741 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
82 FR 52742 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
82 FR 52740 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
82 FR 52736 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 52743 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Environmental Information-ATF Form 5000.29 | |
82 FR 52712 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 52700 - International Fisheries; Pacific Tuna Fisheries; Fishing Restrictions for Tropical Tuna in the Eastern Pacific Ocean for 2018 to 2020 | |
82 FR 52763 - Data Collection Available for Public Comments | |
82 FR 52737 - Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 52738 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 52747 - Submission for OMB Review; comments request | |
82 FR 52748 - Submission for OMB Review; Comments Request | |
82 FR 52767 - Hours of Service of Drivers: Application for Exemption; Rail Delivery Services, Inc. (RDS) | |
82 FR 52764 - Review of the Designation as a Foreign Terrorist Organization of Islamic Resistance Movement (Hamas and Other Aliases) | |
82 FR 52764 - Additional Information About Participating in the Process Concerning the Administration's Action Following a Determination of Import Injury With Regard to Certain Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells | |
82 FR 52746 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 52711 - Notice of Petitions by Firms for Determination of Eligibility To Apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance | |
82 FR 52678 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; China Basin, Mission Creek, San Francisco, CA | |
82 FR 52744 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act | |
82 FR 52712 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Take of Anadromous Fish | |
82 FR 52733 - Granting of Requests for Early Termination of the Waiting Period Under the Premerger Notification Rules | |
82 FR 52730 - Granting of Requests for Early Termination of the Waiting Period Under the Premerger Notification Rules | |
82 FR 52728 - Red Ventures Holdco, LP and Bankrate, Inc.; Analysis To Aid Public Comment | |
82 FR 52735 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
82 FR 52649 - Medical Devices; Gastroenterology-Urology Devices; Classification of the Prostatic Artery Embolization Device | |
82 FR 52647 - Medical Devices; Immunology and Microbiology Devices; Classification of the Automated Indirect Immunofluorescence Microscope and Software-Assisted System | |
82 FR 52719 - South Carolina Electric & Gas Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
82 FR 52720 - Notice of Commission Staff Attendance at the Southwest Power Pool, Inc. Meetings | |
82 FR 52720 - Notice of Filing; Northern Natural Gas Company | |
82 FR 52721 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
82 FR 52718 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 52765 - Generalized System of Preferences: Import Statistics Relating to Competitive Need Limitations and Deadline for Filing Petitions | |
82 FR 52717 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Generic Application Package for Departmental Generic Grant Programs | |
82 FR 52757 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt New Equity Trading Rules To trade Securities Pursuant to Unlisted Trading Privileges, Including Orders and Modifiers, Order Ranking and Display, and Order Execution and Routing on Pillar, the Exchange's New Trading Technology Platform | |
82 FR 52749 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE American LLC; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 1 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To Amend NYSE American Rule 980NY To Clarify the Priority of Electronic Complex Orders and To Modify Aspects of the Complex Order Auction Process | |
82 FR 52762 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To List and Trade Shares of the GraniteShares Platinum Trust Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.201-E | |
82 FR 52763 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade Shares of the iShares Inflation Hedged Corporate Bond ETF, a Series of the iShares U.S. ETF Trust, Under Rule 14.11(i), Managed Fund Shares | |
82 FR 52744 - Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments | |
82 FR 52738 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 52737 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 52738 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 52776 - VA New Hampshire Vision 2025 Task Force | |
82 FR 52772 - Hazardous Materials: Notice of Applications for Special Permits | |
82 FR 52774 - Hazardous Materials: Notice of Applications for Special Permits | |
82 FR 52775 - Hazardous Materials: Notice of Applications for Special Permits | |
82 FR 52771 - Request for Comments on the Renewal of a Previously Approved Information Collection: Determination of Fair and Reasonable Rates for Carriage of Agriculture Cargoes on U.S. Commercial Vessels-46 CFR 382 | |
82 FR 52771 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel ARCADIA; Invitation for Public Comments | |
82 FR 52770 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel THE SPACE BETWEEN; Invitation for Public Comments | |
82 FR 52769 - Petition for Waiver of Compliance | |
82 FR 52769 - Notice of Application for Approval To Discontinue or Modify a Railroad Signal System | |
82 FR 52746 - Meetings of Humanities Panel | |
82 FR 52776 - Advisory Committee on Former Prisoners of War, Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 52718 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Lender's Application Process (LAP) | |
82 FR 52680 - Safety Zone; Delaware River; Marcus Hook, NJ | |
82 FR 52682 - Air Plan Approval; Rhode Island; Enhanced Motor Vehicle Inspection and Maintenance Program | |
82 FR 52655 - Air Plan Approval; Rhode Island; Enhanced Motor Vehicle Inspection and Maintenance Program | |
82 FR 52664 - Air Plan Approval; NH; Approval of Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements and Single Source Order | |
82 FR 52683 - Air Plan Approval; OR, Oakridge; PM2.5 | |
82 FR 52683 - Air Plan Approval; NH; Approval of Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements and Single Source Order | |
82 FR 52651 - Determination of Attainment by the Attainment Date for the 2008 Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard; District of Columbia, Maryland, and Virginia; Washington, DC-MD-VA Area | |
82 FR 52676 - Airworthiness Directives; Intreprinderea De Constructii Aeronautice Gliders | |
82 FR 52780 - Setting and Adjusting Patent Fees During Fiscal Year 2017 | |
82 FR 52644 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc., Airplanes | |
82 FR 52669 - Benzovindiflupyr; Pesticide Tolerances |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Economic Development Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
National Park Service
Ocean Energy Management Bureau
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
National Endowment for the Humanities
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Maritime Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final rule; delay of effective date.
The United States Department of Agriculture's Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) is delaying the effective date of the Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule published in the
As of November 9, 2017, the effective date of the final rule published on January 19, 2017 (82 FR 7042), delayed on February 9, 2017 (82 FR 9967), further delayed on May 10, 2017 (82 FR 21677), is further delayed until May 14, 2018.
Paul Lewis, Ph.D., Director, Standards Division. Telephone: (202) 720-3252; Fax: (202) 260-9151.
The OLPP final rule amends the organic livestock and poultry production requirements of the USDA organic regulations by adding new provisions for livestock handling and transport for slaughter and avian living conditions; and expands and clarifies existing requirements covering livestock care and production practices and mammalian living conditions. The rule finalized a proposed rule that AMS published in the
Because significant policy and legal issues addressed within the final rule warranted further review by USDA, AMS delayed the effective date by an additional 180 days from May 19, 2017 to November 14, 2017. In addition, AMS published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) that solicited public comments on the direction that USDA should take with respect to the rule. The NPRM presented four options for agency action: “Option 1: Implement,” allowing the Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule to take effect on November 14, 2017; “Option 2: Suspend,” suspending the Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule indefinitely; “Option 3: Delay,” delaying the Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule's effective date beyond November 14, 2017; and “Option 4: Withdraw,” withdrawing the Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule. The 30-day public comment period closed on June 9, 2017.
AMS received over 47,000 comments on the four options for agency action. Over 40,000 of commenters, including over 34,600 submitted as form letters, supported “Option 1: Implement”; twenty-eight other commenters supported “Option 4: Withdraw”; a few chose “Option 2: Suspend”; and only one chose “Option 3: Delay.” The remaining commenters did not indicate a clear preference.
Most commenters supporting “Option 1: Implement” expressed concern animals would be harmed if USDA did otherwise. Some said consumers expect animal welfare to be a part of organic certification and consumers are concerned about humane transport and slaughter procedures. Noting the inclusive nature of the rule development process, these commenters advocated for clear, consistent standards so that organic farmers would be on a “level playing field.” Others said they believed “Option 1: Implement” would strengthen USDA's organic seal broadly and benefit organic farmers.
Commenters supporting “Option 2: Suspend” included veterinarians and farmers, and commenters supporting “Option 4: Withdraw” included organic producers and trade associations. These commenters gave similar reasons for their positions, including the economic costs and regulatory compliance burdens; increased consumer prices and reduced availability of organic eggs; biosecurity and food safety risks; and potentially higher avian mortality rates. Some commenters stated that the Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule is unnecessary because current regulations are sufficient and the final rule is outside the scope of the NOP's authority and role. Others noted the significant investment costs in land and facilities that would be required to implement the poultry space and outdoor access requirements, making business unsustainable for many organic farmers. This final rule adopts Option 3: Delay, so that important questions regarding USDA's statutory authority to promulgate the OLPP rule and the likely costs and benefits of that rule, can be more fully assessed through the notice and comment process prior to AMS making a final decision on whether the OLPP final rule should take effect.
The Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule consisted, in large part, of rules clarifying how producers and handlers participating in the National Organic Program must treat livestock and poultry to ensure their wellbeing. (82 FR 7042.) Although animal welfare is an important USDA priority, AMS believes that OFPA's reference to additional regulatory standards “for the care” of organically produced livestock is limited to health care practices similar to those specified by Congress in the statute, rather than as reflecting a stand-alone concern for animal welfare. AMS intends to seek public comment on this interpretation.
AMS also is concerned that the Organic Livestock and Poultry Practices final rule is not consistent with USDA regulatory policy principles, including those expressed in Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, because the requirements in that rule may not represent the most innovative and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends; may impose costs that are not justified by the potential benefits; and may not reasonably be tethered to OFPA's statutory text, nature, and purpose. AMS intends to seek public comment on these questions. Of note, during the course of
Due to these significant concerns regarding statutory authority for, and costs and benefits of, the OLPP rule, including the question whether the OLPP final rule was based on a mathematically flawed assessment of benefits, AMS is selecting Option 3: Delay. AMS is issuing this final rule to further delay the effective date for until May 14, 2018 to allow for AMS to issue another notice of proposed rulemaking to receive comments on USDA statutory authority under the OFPA to regulate animal welfare; the likely costs and benefits of the OLPP rule viewed in terms of the statutory objectives of the OPFA, as interpreted above; whether the OLPP rule's requirements represent the most innovate and least burdensome way to achieve regulatory ends; and the revised calculations and analysis of the benefits of the OLPP rule. This delay will provide additional time for AMS to solicit comment on these important issues and review all the comments prior to making a final decision on the direction of the OLPP final rule.
To preserve the status quo rather than allow an expansive set of new requirements to become effective only to be delayed, suspended, or withdrawn a short time later and to allow AMS to receive and consider comments on the issues discussed above, this final rule action is effective upon publication because AMS believes that the 30-day delay is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to the public interest. When agencies establish good cause for an immediate effective date, Congress intended that, combined with unavoidable time limitations, “the primary consideration was to be the `convenience or necessity of the people affected.' ”
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2016-13-14, which applied to certain Bombardier, Inc., Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. AD 2016-13-14 required an inspection to determine if certain left and right main landing gear (MLG) retract actuator rod ends were installed, repetitive liquid penetrant inspections (LPIs) of affected left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends, and corrective actions if necessary. This new AD retains the actions specified in AD 2016-13-14 and also requires replacement of the left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends. This AD was prompted by a report of a cracked MLG retract actuator rod end. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective December 19, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of July 20, 2016 (81 FR 43481, July 5, 2016).
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q-Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone: 416-375-4000; fax: 416-375-4539; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Aziz Ahmed, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone: 516-228-7329; fax: 516-794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2016-13-14, Amendment 39-18579 (81 FR 43481, July 5, 2016) (“AD 2016-13-14”). AD 2016-13-14 applied to certain Bombardier, Inc., Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian AD CF-2016-16R1, dated June 27, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
There has been a single reported case of a cracked MLG retract actuator rod end in service. A supplier disclosure letter and subsequent Bombardier analysis indicate that the MLG retract actuator rod end P/N [part number] P3A2750 and P3A2750-1 may develop fatigue cracking. This condition, if not corrected, could lead to left hand (LH) or right hand (RH) MLG collapse.
This [Canadian] AD mandates the inspection [to determine if certain left and right main landing gear MLG retract actuator rod ends are installed, repetitive LPIs of affected left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends, and corrective actions if necessary], and replacement of the LH and RH MLG retract actuator rod ends P/N P3A2750 and P3A2750-1 [which is terminating action for the repetitive LPIs].
This [Canadian] AD was revised to clarify paragraph B. and C. [of this Canadian AD], which specifies when the Liquid Penetrant Inspections (LPI) should begin.
Corrective actions include replacing cracked MLG retract actuator rod ends. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Bombardier, Inc., has issued Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-142, dated May 4, 2016. This service information describes procedures for an inspection to determine if certain left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends are installed, repetitive LPIs of the left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends, and replacement of left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 52 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
The actions required by AD 2016-13-14, and retained in this AD, take about 1 work-hour per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the inspection that is required by AD 2016-13-14 is $85 per product.
We also estimate that it will take about 3 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts will cost about $2,019 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $118,248, or $2,274 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions will take about 3 work-hours and require parts costing $2,019, for a cost of $2,274 per product. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective December 19, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2016-13-14, Amendment 39-18579 (81 FR 43481, July 5, 2016) (“AD 2016-13-14”).
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc., Model DHC-8-400, -401 and -402 airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers 4001, and 4003 through 4325 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 32, Landing gear.
This AD was prompted by a report of a cracked main landing gear (MLG) retract actuator rod end. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends, which could lead to left or right MLG collapse.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2016-13-14, with no changes. Within 100 flight cycles after July 20, 2016 (the effective date of AD 2016-13-14), inspect the left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends to determine if part number (P/N) P3A2750 or P3A2750-1 is installed. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number can be conclusively determined from that review.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2016-13-14, with no changes. For each left or right MLG retract actuator rod end having P/N P3A2750 or P3A2750-1: At the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, do an LPI to detect cracks of the MLG retract actuator rod end, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-142, dated May 4, 2016, except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD. Thereafter, repeat the LPI at intervals not to exceed 600 flight cycles.
(1) If the MLG retract actuator rod end has accumulated more than 6,000 flight cycles as of July 20, 2016 (the effective date of AD 2016-13-14): Inspect within 100 flight cycles after July 20, 2016.
(2) If the MLG retract actuator rod end has accumulated 6,000 flight cycles or fewer as of July 20, 2016 (the effective date of AD 2016-13-14): Inspect within 600 flight cycles after July 20, 2016.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (i) of AD 2016-13-14, with no changes. If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD, before further flight, replace the cracked MLG retract actuator rod end, P/N P3A2750 or P3A2750-1, with a MLG retract actuator rod end, P/N P3A6460, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-142, dated May 4, 2016, except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD.
This paragraph restates the optional replacement specified in paragraph (j) of AD 2016-13-14, with no changes. Replacement of the left and right side MLG retract actuator rod ends, P/N P3A2750 or P3A2750-1, with left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends, P/N P3A6460, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-142, dated May 4, 2016, except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD, constitutes terminating action for the actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD for that airplane.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (k) of AD 2016-13-14, with no changes. If it is not possible to complete all the instructions in Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-142, dated May 4, 2016, because of the configuration of the airplane: Before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, New York ACO Branch, FAA; or Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA); or Bombardier, Inc.'s TCCA Design Approval Organization (DAO).
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (l) of AD 2016-13-14, with no changes. As of July 20, 2016 (the effective date of AD 2016-13-14), no person may install a left or right MLG retract actuator rod end, P/N P3A2750 or P3A2750-1, on any airplane.
Within 1,800 flight cycles after accomplishing the initial inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, replace the left and right side MLG retract actuator rod ends having P/N P3A2750 or P3A2750-1, with left and right MLG retract actuator rod ends having P/N P3A6460, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-142, dated May 4, 2016, except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD. Accomplishing this replacement terminates the requirements of paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD for that airplane.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian AD CF-2016-16R1, dated June 27, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Aziz Ahmed, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone: 516-228-7329; fax: 516-794-5531.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on July 20, 2016 (81 FR 43481, July 5, 2016).
(i) Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-142, dated May 4, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(4) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q-Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone: 416-375-4000; fax: 416-375-4539; email:
(5) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Standards Branch, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(6) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
In rule document 2017-24300, appearing on pages 51757-51758 in the issue of Wednesday, November 8, 2017, make the following correction:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is classifying the automated indirect immunofluorescence microscope and software-assisted system into class II (special controls). The special controls that apply to the device type are identified in this order and will be part of the codified language for the automated indirect immunofluorescence microscope and software-assisted system's classification. We are taking this action because we have determined that classifying the device into class II (special controls) will provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device. We believe this action will also enhance patients' access to beneficial innovative devices, in part by reducing regulatory burdens.
This order is effective November 14, 2017. The classification was applicable on April 9, 2015.
Steven Tjoe, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4550, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-5866,
Upon request, FDA has classified the automated indirect immunofluorescence microscope and software-assisted system as class II (special controls), which we have determined will provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. In addition, we believe this action will enhance patients' access to beneficial innovation, in part by reducing regulatory burdens by placing the device into a lower device class than the automatic class III assignment.
The automatic assignment of class III occurs by operation of law and without any action by FDA, regardless of the level of risk posed by the new device. Any device that was not in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, is automatically classified as, and remains within, class III and requires premarket approval unless and until FDA takes an action to classify or reclassify the device (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(1)). We refer to these devices as “postamendments devices” because they were not in commercial distribution prior to the date of enactment of the Medical Device Amendments of 1976, which amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act).
FDA may take a variety of actions in appropriate circumstances to classify or reclassify a device into class I or II. We may issue an order finding a new device to be substantially equivalent under section 513(i) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c(i)) to a predicate device that does not require premarket approval. We determine whether a new device is substantially equivalent to a predicate by means of the procedures for premarket notification under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act and part 807 (21 U.S.C. 360(k) and 21 CFR part 807, respectively).
FDA may also classify a device through “De Novo” classification, a common name for the process authorized under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act. Section 207 of the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 established the first procedure for De Novo classification (Pub. L. 105-115). Section 607 of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act modified the De Novo application process by adding a second procedure (Pub. L. 112-144). A device sponsor may utilize either procedure for De Novo classification.
Under the first procedure, the person submits a 510(k) for a device that has not previously been classified. After receiving an order from FDA classifying the device into class III under section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act, the person then requests a classification under section 513(f)(2).
Under the second procedure, rather than first submitting a 510(k) and then a request for classification, if the person determines that there is no legally marketed device upon which to base a determination of substantial equivalence, that person requests a classification under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act.
Under either procedure for De Novo classification, FDA is required to classify the device by written order within 120 days. The classification will be according to the criteria under section 513(a)(1) of the FD&C Act. Although the device was automatically placed within class III, the De Novo classification is considered to be the initial classification of the device.
We believe this De Novo classification will enhance patients' access to beneficial innovation, in part by reducing regulatory burdens. When FDA classifies a device into class I or II via the De Novo process, the device can serve as a predicate for future devices of that type, including for 510(k)s (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(2)(B)(i)). As a result, other device sponsors do not have to submit a De Novo request or premarket approval application (PMA) in order to market a substantially equivalent device (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(i), defining “substantial equivalence”). Instead, sponsors can use the less-burdensome 510(k) process, when necessary, to market their device.
For this device, FDA issued an order on November 14, 2014, finding the NOVA View® Automated Fluorescence Microscope not substantially equivalent to a predicate not subject to PMA. Thus, the device remained in class III in accordance with section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act when we issued the order.
On December 11, 2014, Inova Diagnostics, Inc. submitted a request for De Novo classification of the NOVA
Therefore, on April 9, 2015, FDA issued an order to the requestor classifying the device into class II. FDA is codifying the classification of the device by adding 21 CFR 866.4750. We have named the generic type of device automated indirect immunofluorescence microscope and software-assisted system, and it is identified as a device that acquires, analyzes, stores, and displays digital images of indirect immunofluorescent slides. It is intended to be used as an aid in the determination of antibody status in clinical samples. The device may include a fluorescence microscope with light source, a motorized microscope stage, dedicated instrument controls, a camera, a computer, a sample processor, or other hardware components. The software may include fluorescent signal acquisition and processing software, data storage and transferring mechanisms, or assay specific algorithms to suggest results. A trained operator must confirm results generated with the device.
FDA has identified the following risks to health associated specifically with this type of device and the measures required to mitigate these risks in table 1.
FDA has determined that special controls, in combination with the general controls, address these risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. In order for a device to fall within this classification, and thus avoid automatic classification in class III, it would have to comply with the special controls named in this final order. The necessary special controls appear in the regulation codified by this order. This device is subject to premarket notification requirements under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act.
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final order establishes special controls that refer to previously approved collections of information found in other FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in part 807, subpart E, regarding premarket notification submissions have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120 and the collections of information in 21 CFR parts 801 and 809, regarding labeling have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Biologics, Laboratories, Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 866 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360
(a)
(b)
(1) The labeling for the device must reference legally marketed assays intended for use with the device.
(2) Premarket notification submissions must include the following information:
(i) A detailed description of the device that includes:
(A) A detailed description of instrumentation and equipment, and illustrations or photographs of non-standard equipment or methods, if applicable;
(B) Detailed documentation of the software, including, but not limited to, stand-alone software applications and hardware-based devices that incorporate software, if applicable;
(C) A detailed description of appropriate internal and external
(D) Detailed description and specifications for sample preparation, processing, and storage, if applicable;
(E) Methodology and protocols for detecting fluorescence and visualizing results; and
(F) Detailed specification of the criteria for test results interpretation and reporting.
(ii) Data demonstrating the performance characteristics of the device, which must include:
(A) A comparison study of the results obtained with the conventional manual method (
(B) Device clinical performance established by comparing device results at multiple U.S. sites to the clinical diagnostic standard used in the United States, using patient samples from the assay-specific intended use population and the differential diagnosis population. For all samples, the diagnostic clinical criteria and the demographic information must be collected and provided. Clinical validation must be based on the determination of clinical sensitivity and clinical specificity using the test results (
(C) Device precision/reproducibility data generated from within-run, between-run, between-day, between-lot, between-operator, between-instruments, between-site, and total precision for multiple nonconsecutive days (as applicable) using multiple operators, multiple instruments and at multiple sites. A well-characterized panel of patient samples or pools from the associated assay specific intended use population must be used;
(D) Device linearity data generated from patient samples covering the assay measuring range, if applicable;
(E) Device analytical sensitivity data, including limit of blank, limit of detection, and limit of quantitation, if applicable;
(F) Device assay specific cutoff, if applicable;
(G) Device analytical specificity data, including interference by endogenous and exogenous substances, if applicable;
(H) Device instrument carryover data, if applicable;
(I) Device stability data including real-time stability under various storage times and temperatures, if applicable; and
(J) Information on traceability to a reference material and description of value assignment of calibrators and controls, if applicable.
(iii) Identification of risk mitigation elements used by the device, including description of all additional procedures, methods, and practices, incorporated into the directions for use that mitigate risks associated with testing.
(3) Your 21 CFR 809.10 compliant labeling must include:
(i) A warning statement that reads “The device is for use by a trained operator in a clinical laboratory setting”;
(ii) A warning statement that reads “All software-aided results must be confirmed by the trained operator”;
(iii) A warning statement that reads “This device is only for use with reagents that are indicated for use with the device”; and
(iv) A description of the protocol and performance studies performed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section and a summary of the results, if applicable.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is classifying the prostatic artery embolization device into class II (special controls). The special controls that apply to the device type are identified in this order and will be part of the codified language for the prostatic artery embolization device's classification. We are taking this action because we have determined that classifying the device into class II (special controls) will provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device. We believe this action will also enhance patients' access to beneficial innovative devices, in part by reducing regulatory burdens.
This order is effective November 14, 2017. The classification was applicable on June 21, 2017.
Benjamin Fisher, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. G108, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-0245,
Upon request, FDA has classified the prostatic artery embolization device as class II (special controls), which we have determined will provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. In addition, we believe this action will enhance patients' access to beneficial innovation, in part by reducing regulatory burdens by placing the device into a lower device class than the automatic class III assignment.
The automatic assignment of class III occurs by operation of law and without any action by FDA, regardless of the level of risk posed by the new device. Any device that was not in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, is automatically classified as, and remains within, class III and requires premarket approval unless and until FDA takes an action to classify or reclassify the device (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(1)). We refer to these devices as “postamendments devices” because they were not in commercial distribution prior to the date of enactment of the Medical Device Amendments of 1976, which amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act).
FDA may take a variety of actions in appropriate circumstances to classify or reclassify a device into class I or II. We may issue an order finding a new device to be substantially equivalent under section 513(i) of the FD&C Act to a predicate device that does not require premarket approval (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(i)). We determine whether a new device is substantially equivalent to a predicate by means of the procedures
FDA may also classify a device through “De Novo” classification, a common name for the process authorized under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(2)). Section 207 of the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 established the first procedure for De Novo classification (Pub. L. 105-115). Section 607 of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act modified the De Novo application process by adding a second procedure (Pub. L. 112-144). A device sponsor may utilize either procedure for De Novo classification.
Under the first procedure, the person submits a 510(k) for a device that has not previously been classified. After receiving an order from FDA classifying the device into class III under section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act, the person then requests a classification under section 513(f)(2).
Under the second procedure, rather than first submitting a 510(k) and then a request for classification, if the person determines that there is no legally marketed device upon which to base a determination of substantial equivalence, that person requests a classification under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act.
Under either procedure for De Novo classification, FDA shall classify the device by written order within 120 days. The classification will be according to the criteria under section 513(a)(1) of the FD&C Act. Although the device was automatically within class III, the De Novo classification is considered to be the initial classification of the device.
We believe this De Novo classification will enhance patients' access to beneficial innovation, in part by reducing regulatory burdens. When FDA classifies a device into class I or II via the De Novo process, the device can serve as a predicate for future devices of that type, including for 510(k)s (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(2)(B)(i)). As a result, other device sponsors do not have to submit a De Novo request or pre-market approval in order to market a substantially equivalent device (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(i), defining “substantial equivalence”). Instead, sponsors can use the less-burdensome 510(k) process, when necessary, to market their device.
On August 5, 2016, BioSphere Medical, S.A., submitted a request for De Novo classification of the Embosphere® Microspheres. FDA reviewed the request to classify the device under the criteria for classification set forth in section 513(a)(1) of the FD&C Act.
We classify devices into class II if general controls by themselves are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, but there is sufficient information to establish special controls that, in combination with the generals controls, provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device for its intended use (see 21 U.S.C. 360c(a)(1)(B)). After review of the information submitted in the request, we determined that the device can be classified into class II with the establishment of special controls. FDA has determined that these special controls, in addition to the general controls, will provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
Therefore, on June 21, 2017, FDA issued an order to the requester classifying the device into class II. FDA is codifying the classification of the device by adding 21 CFR 876.5550. We have named the generic type of device prostatic artery embolization device, and it is identified as an intravascular implant intended to occlude the prostatic arteries to prevent blood flow to the targeted area of the prostate, resulting in a reduction of lower urinary tract symptoms related to benign prostatic hyperplasia. This does not include cyanoacrylates and other embolic agents which act by in situ polymerization or precipitation, or embolization devices used in neurovascular applications (see 21 CFR 882.5950).
FDA has identified the following risks to health associated specifically with this type of device and the measures required to mitigate these risks in table 1.
FDA has determined that special controls, in combination with the general controls, address these risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. In order for a device to fall within this classification, and thus avoid automatic classification in class III, it would have to comply with the special controls named in this final order. The necessary special controls appear in the regulation codified by this order. This device is subject to premarket notification requirements under section 510(k).
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final order establishes special controls that refer to previously approved collections of information found in other FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in the guidance document “De Novo Classification Process (Evaluation of Automatic Class III Designation)” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0844; the collections of information in part 21 CFR part 814, subparts A through E, regarding premarket approval, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; the collections of
Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 876 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360l, 371.
(a)
(b)
(1) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be tested:
(i) Evaluation of suitability for injection through catheters intended for use in embolization; and
(ii) Evaluation of the size distribution of the device.
(3) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device.
(4) Performance data must support the shelf life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf life.
(5) Clinical data must evaluate post-embolization damage due to non-target embolization under anticipated use conditions.
(6) The labeling must include:
(i) Specific instructions on safe device preparation and use;
(ii) The device shelf life;
(iii) Data regarding urinary retention; and
(iv) Data regarding post-prostatic artery embolization syndrome.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is making a final determination that the Washington, DC-MD-VA marginal ozone nonattainment area (the Washington Area) attained the 2008 ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) by the July 20, 2016 attainment date. This determination is based on complete, certified, and quality assured ambient air quality monitoring data for the Washington Area for the 2013-2015 monitoring period. The effect of this determination of attainment is that the Washington Area will not be bumped up or reclassified as a moderate nonattainment area. This determination of attainment is not equivalent to a redesignation, and the states in the Washington Area and the District of Columbia must meet the statutory requirements for redesignation in order to be redesignated to attainment. This determination is also not a clean data determination. This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This final rule is effective on December 14, 2017.
EPA established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0369. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Gavin Huang, (215) 814-2042, or by email at
On April 25, 2017 (82 FR 19011), EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPR) for the Washington Area. The Washington Area consists of the Counties of Calvert, Charles, Frederick, Montgomery, and Prince George's in Maryland; the Counties of Arlington, Fairfax, Loudoun, and Prince William and the Cities of Alexandria, Fairfax, Falls Church, Manassas, and Manassas Park in Virginia; and the entirety of the District of Columbia. In the NPR, EPA proposed to determine, in accordance with its statutory obligations under section 181(b)(2)(A) of the CAA and the Provisions for Implementation of the 2008 Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (40 CFR part 51, subpart AA), that the Washington Area attained the 2008 ozone NAAQS by the applicable attainment date of July 20, 2016.
Section 181(b)(2)(A) of the CAA requires that EPA determine whether an area has attained the NAAQS by its attainment date based on complete and certified air quality data from the three full calendar years preceding an area's attainment date. The 2008 ozone NAAQS level is 0.075 parts per million (ppm).
The specific requirements of this determination of attainment by the attainment date and the rationale for EPA's proposed action are explained in the NPR and will not be restated here. EPA received comments that are addressed in Section III of this rulemaking action.
EPA received adverse comments from one commenter, the Center for Biological Diversity (hereinafter referred to as the “Commenter”). The Commenter expressed general concern about the “increasing trend in ozone levels” and the lack of data at monitoring stations. The Commenter's specific concerns are summarized and addressed in this section. EPA also received non-adverse comments.
Design values are the metrics (
Second, for the River Terrace monitor (AQS ID #11-001-0041), EPA did not conduct any data substitution analysis. As explained in the NPR, the reason for the lack of 2014 and 2015 data at the
Third, as to the Commenter's concerns about what type of analysis was performed to achieve data completeness at the Takoma Recreation Center monitor, EPA's preamble in the NPR incorrectly stated that “EPA also conducted for these two monitors a substitution analysis as a check on the validity of the meteorological analysis and regression analysis.”
Contrary to the Commenter's suggestion, the regression analysis was included in the docket with the proposed action. The submittal letter from the DC DOEE cited in the comment (Docket EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0369-0008) included a 21-page document entitled “Data Substitution Analysis 2013 Ozone Season, Takoma Recreation Center Station” (Docket EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0369-0007). The document makes it clear that DC DOEE compared seven years of temperature data from 2009 through 2015 from Reagan International Airport with actual measured ozone concentrations from 2009 through 2015 at eight nearby ozone ambient monitors to determine whether there was a measured temperature below which none of those monitors recorded an exceedance of the 0.075 ppm ozone standard. Docket EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0369-0007, pp. 5-7. This analysis determined that during this seven-year period, none of these monitors exceeded the 0.075 ppm ozone standard when the temperature was below 84 degrees Fahrenheit. Based on this finding, DC DOEE concluded that any ozone season day during 2013 (the year with missing data) for which the high temperature did not exceed 84 degrees Fahrenheit would likely measure below the 0.075 ppm ozone standard. Based on this assumption, DC DOEE flagged 68 days during the 2013 ozone season in the Takoma Recreation Center monitor's data as “BG,” meaning “missing ozone data [but] not likely to exceed the level of the standard.” Docket EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0369-0007, pp. 5-7. Adding these 68 days in 2013 determined to be days below the ozone standard to the existing data set did not result in enough data points to meet the minimum yearly 75% completeness standard for ozone at this monitor. Therefore, the DC DOEE's analysis then used a regression analysis to determine whether additional ozone season days with missing data could be assumed to be below the ozone standard at the Takoma Recreation Center monitor. Docket EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0369-0007, p. 7. Using this regression analysis, measured ozone values at the nearby McMillan ozone monitor were found to correlate strongly with measured ozone values at the Takoma Recreation Center monitor, such that an equation could be developed to predict missing ozone values at the Takoma Recreation Center monitor by using actual measured values from the McMillan monitor in the equation for those missing days. The regression equation identified a number of days in 2013 at the Takoma Recreation Center monitor where the temperature exceeded 85 degrees but the predicted ozone values did not exceed 0.075 ppm. Using this method, DC DOEE added 4 days in September 2013 with temperatures above 85 degrees and 5 days in October 2013 with temperatures exceeding 85 degrees to the 2013 ozone data for the Takoma Recreation Center monitor, also using the “BG” flag. In total, 77 days were added to the Takoma Recreation Center monitoring station.
The lack of data, as represented by a “BG” or other null code, for those days when the Takoma Recreation Center monitor did not measure valid ozone readings, does not automatically mean a failure to meet the data completeness requirements of 40 CFR part 50, appendix P. Nor does appendix P require “modeled data projections.” Rather, when there is a lack of data represented by a null code, section 2.3(b) of appendix P provides that those missing days may be used if they are reasonably assumed to be less than the level of the standard. The detailed temperature and regression analyses approved by the Regional Administrator, and included in the docket, establish the basis for EPA's conclusion that certain missing days at the Takoma Recreation Center monitor can be assumed to be less than the level of the NAAQS and therefore may be
EPA is making a final determination, in accordance with its statutory obligations under section 181(b)(2)(A) of the CAA and the Provisions for Implementation of the 2008 Ozone NAAQS (40 CFR part 51, subpart AA), that the Washington Area attained the 2008 ozone NAAQS by the applicable attainment date of July 20, 2016. This determination of attainment does not constitute a redesignation to attainment or a clean data determination.
This rulemaking action finalizes a determination of attainment by the attainment date for the 2008 ozone NAAQS based on air quality data and does not impose additional requirements. For that reason, this determination of attainment:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the Washington Area marginal nonattainment area does not include any Indian country located in these states, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by January 16, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action.
This action determining that the Washington Area attained the 2008 ozone NAAQS by its July 20, 2016 attainment date may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) Based upon EPA's review of the air quality data for the 3-year period 2013 to 2015, the Washington, DC-MD-VA marginal ozone nonattainment area has attained the 2008 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) by the applicable attainment date of July 20, 2016. Therefore, EPA has met the requirement pursuant to Clean Air Act section 181(b)(2)(A) to determine, based on the area's air quality as of the attainment date, whether the area attained the standard. EPA also determined that the Washington, DC-MD-VA marginal nonattainment area will not be reclassified for failure to attain by its applicable attainment date pursuant to section 181(b)(2)(A).
(k) Based upon EPA's review of the air quality data for the 3-year period 2013 to 2015, the Washington, DC-MD-VA marginal ozone nonattainment area has attained the 2008 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) by the applicable attainment date of July 20, 2016. Therefore, EPA has met the requirement pursuant to Clean Air Act section 181(b)(2)(A) to determine, based on the area's air quality as of the attainment date, whether the area attained the standard. EPA also determined that the Washington, DC-MD-VA marginal nonattainment area will not be reclassified for failure to attain by its applicable attainment date pursuant to section 181(b)(2)(A).
(c) Based upon EPA's review of the air quality data for the 3-year period 2013 to 2015, the Washington, DC-MD-VA marginal ozone nonattainment area has attained the 2008 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) by the applicable attainment date of July 20, 2016. Therefore, EPA has met the requirement pursuant to Clean Air Act section 181(b)(2)(A) to determine, based on the area's air quality as of the attainment date, whether the area attained the standard. EPA also determined that the Washington, DC-MD-VA marginal nonattainment area will not be reclassified for failure to attain by its applicable attainment date pursuant to section 181(b)(2)(A).
Environmental Protection Agency.
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of Rhode Island. These revisions include regulations to update the enhanced motor vehicle inspection and maintenance (I/M) program in Rhode Island. The revised program includes a test and repair network consisting of on-board diagnostic (OBD2) testing for model year 1996 and newer vehicles and tailpipe exhaust test, using a dynamometer, for model year 1995 and older vehicles. The intended effect of this action is to approve the revised program into the Rhode Island SIP. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This direct final rule will be effective January 16, 2018, unless EPA receives adverse comments by December 14, 2017. If adverse comments are received, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2009-0436 at
Ariel Garcia, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Region 1 Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100 (mail code: OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone number: (617) 918-1660, email:
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
On January 28, 2009, the State of Rhode Island submitted a formal revision to its State Implementation Plan (SIP). This SIP revision included regulations to update the enhanced motor vehicle inspection and maintenance (I/M) program in Rhode Island. Rhode Island submitted a supplement to this 2009 SIP revision on February 17, 2017; this supplement included the emissions modeling and I/M SIP narrative required by EPA's I/M regulations. EPA is approving Rhode Island's revised I/M program because it is consistent with the CAA's I/M requirements and EPA's I/M regulations, and will strengthen the SIP. Specifically, the SIP revisions include amendments to the Rhode Island Department of Environmental Management's (DEM's) Air Pollution Control Regulation (APCR) No. 34, “Rhode Island Motor Vehicle Inspection/Maintenance Program,” and the Rhode Island Division of Motor Vehicles' (DMV's) regulation “Rhode Island Motor Vehicle Safety and Emissions Control Regulation No. 1,” and other administrative and technical documentation required in a SIP submittal to address the requirements for the implementation of the motor vehicle I/M program in Rhode Island. Please note that if EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
The CAA, 42 U.S.C. 7401
As a result of having areas designated nonattainment for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS (see 40 CFR 81.340 for Rhode Island), and by virtue of its inclusion in the OTR, Rhode Island has implemented an enhanced vehicle emissions testing program throughout the entire State. Rhode Island began implementing an I/M program in January 2000. The Rhode Island I/M program was first approved into the SIP on February 9, 2001(66 FR 9661), and Rhode Island's SIP submittal included all of the elements required of an I/M program as specified in 40 CFR part 51, subpart S. Since that time, the program has been modified in a number of ways. Most notably it has been changed to a test and repair network, and now also includes on-board diagnostic (OBD2) testing of model year 1996 and newer vehicles.
On April 5, 2001 (66 FR 18156), EPA published in the
The OBD2 system monitors the status of up to 11 emission control related subsystems by performing either continuous or periodic functional tests of specific components and vehicle conditions. The first three testing categories: Misfire; fuel trim; and comprehensive components, are continuous, while the remaining eight only run after a certain set of conditions has been met. The algorithms for running these eight periodic monitors are unique to each manufacturer and involve such things as ambient temperature as well as driving conditions. Most vehicles will have at least five of the eight remaining monitors (catalyst, evaporative system, oxygen sensor, heated oxygen sensor, and exhaust gas recirculation or EGR system) while the remaining three (air conditioning, secondary air, and heated catalyst) are not necessarily applicable to all vehicles. When a vehicle is scanned at an OBD2-I/M test site, these monitors can appear as either “Ready” (meaning the monitor in question has
The OBD2 system is also designed to fully evaluate the vehicle's emissions control system. If the OBD2 system detects a problem that may cause vehicle emissions to exceed 1.5 times the Federal Test Procedure (FTP) standards, then the Malfunction Indicator Light (MIL) is illuminated. By turning on the MIL, the OBD2 system notifies the vehicle operator that an emissions-related fault has been detected and the vehicle should be repaired as soon as possible, thus reducing the harmful emissions contributed by the vehicle.
EPA's revised OBD2 I/M rule applies to those areas that are required to implement I/M programs under the CAA, which includes Rhode Island. The revised I/M program submitted by Rhode Island on January 28, 2009, and supplemented on February 17, 2017, includes OBD2 testing for model year 1996 and newer vehicles, and continues to require that 1995 and older vehicles (up to 25 years old) continue to receive a tailpipe emissions test using a dynamometer to meet the previously SIP-approved exhaust emissions standards,
EPA's OBD2 program requires scan tool equipment to read the vehicle's built-in computer sensors in model year 1996 and newer vehicles. The OBD2-I/M check consists of two types of examination: A visual check of the dashboard display function and status; and an electronic examination of the OBD2 computer itself. The failure criteria for OBD2 testing is any Diagnostic Trouble Code (DTC) or combination of DTCs that result in the MIL to be commanded on. A DTC is a code that indicates a malfunction in an emission control system or component which may cause emissions to increase to 1.5 times the limit due to the malfunction. Rhode Island has incorporated these OBD2 program elements into its program.
If the OBD2 scan reveals DTCs that have not commanded the MIL on, the motorist should be advised of the issue, but the vehicle should not be failed unless other non-DTC based failure criteria have been met. Vehicles may fail an inspection if the vehicle connector is missing, tampered with or otherwise inoperable, if the MIL is commanded and is not visually illuminated, and if the MIL is commanded on for one or more DTCs as defined in the Society of Automotive Engineering (SAE) J2012 guidance document, and EPA regulations.
Vehicles are rejected from testing if the scan of the OBD2 system reveals a “Not Ready” code for any OBD2 component. EPA's Final Implementation Guidance (“Performing Onboard Diagnostic System Checks as part of a Vehicle Inspection and Maintenance Program,” EPA 420-R-01-015, June 2001) allows states the flexibility to permit model year 1996 to 2000 vehicles with two or fewer unset readiness codes, and model year 2001 and newer vehicles with one unset readiness code to complete an OBD2-I/M inspection without being rejected. Vehicles would still fail if the MIL was commanded on or if other failure criteria were met, or be rejected from inspection if three or more unset readiness codes were encountered. If the MIL is not commanded to be illuminated the vehicle would pass the OBD2 inspection even if DTCs are present. Rhode Island's testing program is consistent with the EPA recommended readiness failure criteria. Rhode Island DEM's APCR No. 34 requires that the program meet the OBD2 testing requirements and procedures set forth in 40 CFR 85.2222.
EPA believes that for an OBD2-I/M test program to be most effective, it should be designed to allow for: (1) Real-time data link connections to a centralized testing database; (2) quality-controlled input of vehicles and owner identification information; and (3) automated generation of test reports. Rhode Island has incorporated these OBD2 program elements into the State's I/M program.
As previously stated above, Section 182 of the CAA requires I/M programs in those areas of the nation that are most impacted by carbon monoxide and ozone pollution. Rhode Island has had varying nonattainment designations and classifications for the ozone NAAQS.
The SIP describes in detail the areas subject to the enhanced I/M program and, consistent with 40 CFR 51.372, includes the legal authority necessary to establish program boundaries. The Rhode Island I/M regulations (RI DEM's APCR No. 34 “Rhode Island Motor Vehicle Inspection/Maintenance Program,” and RI DMV's “Rhode Island Motor Vehicle Safety and Emissions Control Regulation No. 1”) and authorizing legislation (Rhode Island General Laws at Title 31, Chapter 31-47.1) ensure that the enhanced I/M program be implemented statewide.
Today's rulemaking discusses the I/M program designed, in part, to meet the enhanced I/M performance standard for ozone precursors in Rhode Island. EPA's performance standard establishes an emission reduction target that must be met by an I/M program in order for the SIP to be approvable. The program, as documented in the SIP, must meet the performance standard in actual operation, with provisions for appropriate adjustments if the standard is not met.
The emissions modeling conducted as part of the performance standard evaluation in the I/M SIP submittal illustrates that the revised Rhode Island I/M program, contained in the January 28, 2009 and February 17, 2017 SIP revisions, is more stringent than the federally-required performance
Included in Rhode Island's February 17, 2017 submittal is the appropriate vehicle emission modeling demonstration, using EPA's MOtor Vehicle Emissions Simulator Model (MOVES), considering the required performance standards and the actual Rhode Island program as it is currently being implemented statewide, as well as a comparison to the preceding I/M program approved on February 9, 2001 (66 FR 9661), that the State is no longer implementing. The modeling runs considered evaluations with 2015, 2016, and 2017 compliance dates. Rhode Island has demonstrated that reductions from its updated program are greater than those achieved by the preceding I/M program, and the EPA performance standard. The MOVES modeling performed reflects the fact that Rhode Island tests all gasoline-powered vehicles that are less than 25 years old. Model year 1996 and newer vehicles are tested with OBD2, and pre-1996 vehicles (
Under the CAA and EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of the network to be employed and the required legal authority. Also, for enhanced I/M areas, the SIP needs to include a description of the evaluation schedule and protocol, the sampling methodology, the data collection and analysis system, the resources and personnel for evaluation and related details of the evaluation program, as well as the legal authority establishing the evaluation program.
Rhode Island has maintained its decentralized test and repair I/M network program design utilizing contractors to manage and oversee the inspection portion of the program. Rhode Island's decentralized infrastructure meets all the federal I/M requirements. Rhode Island has implemented a continuous ongoing evaluation program consistent with the federal I/M rule. Rhode Island commits to developing and submitting the annual and biennial reports described by 40 CFR 51.366 and the results of the evaluation programs are included in the annual and biennial reports. In addition, the ongoing evaluation program consists of conducting on-road testing, as required by 40 CFR 51.371, by using remote sensing to test the emissions performance of the required amount of vehicles in the State's motor vehicle fleet. The remote sensing data collected by Rhode Island continually supports that the Rhode Island I/M program is efficiently reducing emissions. Rhode Island has sufficient legal authority to implement this contractor managed program in concert with local inspection stations and to conduct the program evaluation, as necessary to implement I/M consistent with federal requirements. Details of the network type and program evaluation are included in section 3 of the SIP narrative.
Under the CAA and EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of the resources that will be used for program operation and must discuss how the performance standard will be met, including: (1) A detailed budget plan describing the source of funds for personnel, program administration, program enforcement, purchase of necessary equipment (such as vehicles for undercover audits), and for other requirements discussed throughout the I/M rule; and (2) a description of personnel resources, the number of personnel dedicated to overt and covert auditing, data analysis, program administration, enforcement, and other necessary functions, and the training attendant to each function.
Rhode Island operates a self-funded I/M program, in which, revenue from the inspection fee charged to motorists is used for all expenses associated with the administration, implementation, and enforcement of the enhanced I/M program. The Rhode Island DEM provides additional support to the I/M program by providing a full-time “Air Quality Specialist” that devotes 100% of staff time to serving as a DEM to the Rhode Island DMV's operation of the Rhode Island I/M program. Rhode Island has adequate staff dedicated to overt and covert auditing, data analysis, program administration, enforcement, and other necessary program functions. Section 4 of the State's SIP narrative, and the appendices to the SIP narrative, describe the budget, staffing support, and equipment needed to implement the program.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a detailed test schedule, including the test year selection scheme if testing is other than annual. The SIP must also include the legal authority necessary to implement and enforce the test frequency requirement and explain how the test frequency will be integrated with the enforcement process. In addition, in enhanced I/M programs, the SIP needs to demonstrate that the network of stations providing testing services is sufficient to ensure customer convenience by providing short waiting times for a test, and short driving distances to the test center.
The Rhode Island SIP revision requires biennial inspections for all subject motor vehicles that are at least two years old, or newer vehicles that have driven at least 24,000 miles. The inspections are conducted based on when the vehicle is initially purchased. To provide motorist's convenience, Rhode Island has set geographic criteria ensuring that at least one testing facility is located in each city or town in the State. Section 5 of the SIP narrative and the contract with the I/M program vendor includes additional information for ensuring convenient testing wait times and convenient testing locations. The authority for enforcing the testing frequency is contained in the Rhode Island DMV's “Rhode Island Motor Vehicle Safety and Emissions Control Regulation No. 1,” covering the emissions testing of light-duty vehicles in Rhode Island.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a detailed description of the number and types of vehicles to be covered by the program, and a plan for identifying subject vehicles, including vehicles that are routinely operated in the area but may not be registered in the area. Also, the SIP must include a description of any special exemptions which will be granted by the program, and an estimate of the percentage and number of vehicles granted such exemptions. Such exemptions need to be accounted for in the emission reduction analysis. In addition, the SIP needs to include legal authority necessary to implement and enforce the vehicle coverage requirement.
The Rhode Island I/M program covers all light-duty vehicles and light-duty trucks, rated up to and including 8,500 pounds GVWR, operating on all fuel
Rhode Island exempts special classes of vehicles from the emissions testing program being approved in today's Direct Final Rulemaking, including: Vehicles older than 25 model years old;
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of each test procedure used. The SIP also must include the rule, ordinance, or law describing and establishing the test procedures. Rhode Island's enhanced I/M program requires that all vehicles, equipped with OBD2 technology, be subjected to an OBD2 inspection. Rhode Island gasoline-powered vehicles are tested using one of three methods: (1) OBD2 testing, (2) a dynamometer test to test tailpipe exhaust emissions, or (3) a two-speed idle test. Rhode Island diesel-powered vehicles are tested using one of two methods: (1) An OBD2 test on OBD2-equipped diesel vehicles, or (2) a dynamometer opacity test. The Rhode Island I/M SIP revision and associated regulations obligate the State to perform OBD2 testing on all model year 1996 and newer vehicles, in accordance with EPA procedures. All model year 1995 and older covered vehicles, excluding full time four-wheel-drive vehicles, continue to receive a tailpipe emissions test using a dynamometer to meet the previously SIP-approved exhaust emissions standards for gasoline-powered vehicles or opacity emission standards for diesel-powered vehicles. A gasoline-powered vehicle which cannot be tested using either OBD2 or the dynamometer test, will be given a two-speed idle test.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include written technical specifications for all test equipment used in the program and address each of the requirements set forth at 40 CFR 51.358. The specifications must describe the emission analysis process, the necessary test equipment, the required features, and written acceptance testing criteria and procedures.
Rhode Island's SIP submittal provides written equipment specifications as contained in EPA's Final Implementation Guidance and the appendices of EPA's I/M rule. The Rhode Island SIP submission and its appendices address the requirements in 40 CFR 51.358 and include descriptions of performance features and functional characteristics of the computerized test systems. The SIP submittal references 40 CFR part 51 and Part 85, and are consistent with the procedures outlined in 40 CFR 85.2222 and EPA's June 2001 Final Implementation Guidance. The necessary test equipment, required features, and acceptance testing criteria are discussed in section 8 of the Rhode Island SIP narrative.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of quality control and recordkeeping procedures. The SIP also must include the procedures manual, rule, and ordinance or law describing and establishing quality control procedures and requirements.
The Rhode Island I/M SIP narrative and contract contain descriptions and requirements establishing the quality control procedures in accordance with the federal I/M rule and EPA's Final Implementation Guidance. These requirements will help ensure that equipment calibrations are properly performed and recorded and that the necessary compliance document security is maintained. As described in section 9 of the SIP narrative, the Rhode Island SIP complies with all specifications for quality control set forth in Section 51.359 and Appendix A of the federal I/M rule, and EPA's Final Implementation Guidance.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a maximum waiver rate expressed as a percentage of initially failed vehicles. This waiver rate is used for estimating emission reduction benefits in the modeling analysis. Corrective action must be taken if the waiver rate exceeds that estimated in the SIP, or a state must revise its SIP and claim emission reductions accordingly. The SIP also must describe the waiver criteria and procedures, including cost limits, quality assurance methods and measures, and administration. Lastly, the SIP must include the necessary legal authority, ordinance(s), or rules to issue waivers, set and adjust cost limits as required, and carry out any other functions necessary to administer the waiver system, including enforcement of the waiver provisions.
Cost limits for the minimum expenditure waivers must be in accordance with the CAA and the federal I/M rule. According to federal requirements, expenditures of at least $450 for actual, non-tampering related repairs, must be spent in order to
The Rhode Island I/M program commits to a waiver rate of one percent per inspection cycle, that is, a maximum of 1% of initially failed vehicles are allowed to receive a waiver in a given two-year period. The 1% waiver rate is used in the performance standard modeling demonstration discussed in Section IV.B.,
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must provide information concerning motorist enforcement, including: (1) A description of the existing compliance mechanism if it will continue to be used for the program, and the demonstration that it is as effective, or more effective, than registration denial enforcement; (2) an identification of the agencies responsible for performing each of the applicable activities in this section; (3) a description of, and accounting for, all classes of exempt vehicles; and (4) a description of the plan for testing fleet vehicles, and any other special classes of subject vehicles, such as those operated (but not necessarily registered) in the program area. Also, a SIP must include a determination of the current compliance rate based on a study of the system including an estimate of compliance losses due to loopholes, counterfeiting, and unregistered vehicles. Estimates of the effect of closing such loopholes and otherwise improving the enforcement mechanism must be supported with detailed analyses. In addition, the SIP needs to include the legal authority to implement and enforce the program. Lastly, the SIP must include a commitment to an enforcement level and minimum compliance level used for modeling purposes and to be maintained, at a minimum, in practice.
The State of Rhode Island has chosen to use a program of denying registration to anyone who fails to meet emissions testing requirements. The motorist compliance enforcement program will be implemented primarily by the Rhode Island DMV. However, State police and local law enforcement can provide citations for vehicles not complying with the I/M program. The enforcement strategy is described in the Rhode Island SIP submittal. The enforcement strategy is designed to ensure a high rate of compliance. Any motorist who operates their vehicle on the highways in Rhode Island that is not in compliance with the I/M program will face fines and suspension of their registration. Those not receiving the emissions test as scheduled will be subject to fines and late penalties, and will also be denied registration when their registration expires. Rhode Island presently has over a 96% compliance rate with the emissions inspection program. The legal authority to implement and enforce the program is included in Rhode Island's I/M regulations and the State's General Laws. Additional detail of the motorist compliance enforcement program is included in section 11 of the SIP narrative.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of enforcement program oversight and information management activities.
The Rhode Island I/M SIP revision provides for regular auditing of its enforcement program and adherence to effective management practices, including adjustments to improve the program when necessary. These program oversight and information management activities are described in the SIP narrative, and include a description of the emissions testing database and how this system interfaces with registration records. If a vehicle is out of compliance with the emissions testing requirement, registration is denied. This is done through computer matching and is directly available to law enforcement. The SIP describes the procedures to be followed in identifying noncomplying vehicles, along with appropriate follow-up and program documentation audits in section 12 of the SIP narrative.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of the quality assurance program, and written procedure manuals covering both overt and covert performance audits, record audits, and equipment audits.
The Rhode Island SIP submittal includes a description of the quality assurance program. The quality assurance program will include overt and covert performance audits, digital audits on station and inspector performance, and equipment audits. Rhode Island covers all of its program's inspection stations with the implemented quality assurance plan and conducts overt and/or covert audits, both in response to customer complaints and as targeted follow-up. Detailed quality assurance/quality control (QA/QC) procedures are included in the SIP submittal at section 13 of the SIP narrative and in the inspection program service agreement contract.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a penalty schedule and legal authority for establishing and imposing penalties, civil fines, station and inspector license suspension, and
The Rhode Island I/M SIP revision includes specific penalties in its enforcement against contractors, stations and inspectors in accordance with the federal I/M rule. Based on the Rhode Island SIP submittal, dated January 28, 2009 and supplemented on February 17, 2017, the State's enforcement procedures can be pursued through contractual or regulatory action. The State, through the contract that it has been authorized to enter into and directly under Rhode Island General Laws at Title 31, Chapter 31-47.1, has the authority to immediately suspend a station inspector for violations that directly affect emission reduction benefits and a variety of other violations of procedures. Details on enforcement against contractors, stations, and inspectors are found in section 14 of the SIP submittal narrative.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must describe the types of data to be collected. EPA's I/M rule also requires that the SIP describe the procedures for data analysis and reporting to allow for monitoring and evaluation of the program.
The Rhode Island I/M SIP revision provides for collecting test data to link specific test results to specific vehicles, I/M program registrants, test sites, and inspectors. The test data and quality control data which will be collected are described in section 15 of the SIP narrative and the inspection program service agreement contract. The data will be used to generate reports concerning test data, quality assurance, quality control, enforcement, as well as necessary changes and identified weaknesses in the I/M program. Rhode Island has also committed to collecting all data necessary for quality assurance and enforcement reports, as required by section 51.366 of the federal I/M rule. Details on data analysis and reporting are found in section 16 of Rhode Island's SIP narrative.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of the training program, the written and hands-on tests, and the licensing or certification process.
The Rhode Island I/M SIP submittal provides details on the inspector training program. The Rhode Island I/M SIP provides for implementation of training, licensing, and refresher programs for emission inspectors. The SIP and the inspection contract describe the inspector training program and curriculum including written and hands-on testing. All inspectors will be required to be certified to inspect vehicles in the Rhode Island I/M program. Further details of the inspector training program are included in section 17 of the SIP narrative and Appendix I of the SIP revision.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a plan for consumer protection and informing the public, on an ongoing basis, of the air quality problems, the need for and benefits of a motor vehicle inspection program, and how to find a qualified repair technician, amongst other information related to the requirements of the I/M program.
Rhode Island has implemented a Web site for the State's I/M program.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a description of the technical assistance program to be implemented, a description of the procedures and criteria to be used in meeting the performance monitoring requirements of this section for enhanced I/M programs, and a description of the repair technician training resources available in the community.
In the SIP submittal, Rhode Island provided additional detail and a description of the technical assistance, performance monitoring and repair technician training programs to be implemented. The SIP revision, as detailed in section 19 of the SIP narrative, provides for regularly informing repair facilities about changes to the inspection program, training course schedules, common problems, and potential solutions for particular engine families, diagnostic tips, repairs, and other assistance issues. As described in the SIP submittal, the State has also ensured that repair technicians may utilize the telephone hotline, or the electronic inquiry system on the program Web site, with any repair questions or concerns. Performance monitoring statistics of repair facilities will be provided to motorists whose vehicles fail the I/M test, as required in enhanced I/M areas. The State has committed to ensure that adequate repair technician training exists by establishing training courses at technical schools in the area.
Under EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must describe, for enhanced I/M programs, the procedures used to incorporate the vehicle recall lists provided into the inspection or registration database, the quality control methods used to insure that recall repairs are properly documented and tracked, and the method (inspection failure or registration denial) used to enforce the recall requirements. EPA, through a private contractor, has established the National On-Board Diagnostics Clearinghouse which serves, amongst other functions, as a computerized database listing all emissions-related vehicle recalls.
The Rhode Island I/M SIP will ensure that vehicles subject to the enhanced I/M program, that are included in either a voluntary emission recall or a remedial plan determination pursuant to the CAA, have had the appropriate repairs made prior to inspection. Section 1.4.5 of the Rhode Island DMV's
Under the CAA and EPA's I/M rule, the SIP must include a detailed description of the on-road testing program required in enhanced I/M areas, including the types of testing, test limits and criteria, the number of vehicles (the percentage of the fleet) to be tested, the number of employees to be dedicated to the on-road testing effort, the methods for collecting, analyzing, utilizing, and reporting the results of on-road testing, and the portion of the program budget to be dedicated to on-road testing. Also, the SIP must include the legal authority necessary to implement the on-road testing program, including the authority to enforce off-cycle inspection and repair requirements. In addition, emission reduction credit for on-road testing programs can only be granted for a program designed to obtain significant emission reductions over and above those predicted to be achieved by other aspects of the I/M program. The SIP needs to include technical support for the claimed additional emission reductions.
The I/M SIP submitted by Rhode Island on January 28, 2009, and supplemented on February 17, 2017, includes a description of the status of an on-road testing program in section 21 of the SIP narrative. Rhode Island's SIP highlights that the on-road testing program implemented consists of testing using remote sensing technology. Rhode Island conducts on-road tests using remote sensing on the appropriate number of vehicles required by the federal I/M rule. Since Rhode Island has not included additional modeling credit for the on-road portion of the State's inspection program when demonstrating that EPA's performance standard was met, the State's approach is acceptable.
A more detailed analysis of the SIP submittal and how Rhode Island meets the federal requirements is contained in EPA's technical support document (TSD) prepared for this action. The TSD is available from the EPA Regional Office listed above and in the docket for this action. The criteria used to review the submitted SIP revisions are based on the requirements set forth in Section 182 of the CAA and in the federal I/M regulations, 40 CFR part 51, subpart S. Based on these requirements, EPA developed a detailed I/M approvability checklist to be used nationally to determine if I/M programs meet the requirements of the CAA and the federal I/M rule. The checklist states the federal requirements, referenced by section of the rule, and whether the Rhode Island program meets such requirements. This checklist, the CAA, and the federal I/M regulation formed the basis for EPA's technical review. EPA has reviewed the Rhode Island I/M SIP revisions using the criteria stated above. The Rhode Island I/M regulations and accompanying materials contained in the SIP submittal represent an acceptable plan to comply with the I/M requirements and meet all the criteria required for EPA to approve the SIP submittal. EPA's review of the materials submitted indicates that Rhode Island has revised its I/M program in accordance with the requirements of the CAA, 40 CFR part 51, and all of EPA's technical requirements for approvable vehicle inspection and maintenance programs, including OBD2. EPA's detailed I/M approvability checklist serves as the TSD for this action.
EPA is approving the SIP revisions submitted by the State of Rhode Island on January 28, 2009, and supplemented with a SIP revision on February 17, 2017. These SIP revisions contain the State's revised vehicle inspection and maintenance program. Specifically, EPA is approving the Rhode Island DEM Air Pollution Control Regulation No. 34 entitled “Rhode Island Motor Vehicle Inspection/Maintenance Program” (effective January 5, 2009), and the Rhode Island DMV's “Rhode Island Motor Vehicle Safety and Emissions Control Regulation No. 1” (effective January 28, 2009), and incorporating these rules into the Rhode Island SIP. EPA is approving Rhode Island's revised I/M program because it is consistent with the CAA and EPA's I/M regulations and it will strengthen the Rhode Island SIP.
EPA is publishing this action without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If the EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a notice withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. EPA will not institute a second comment period on the proposed rule. All parties interested in commenting on the proposed rule should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on January 16, 2018 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule. Please note that if EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of Rhode Island's regulations described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by January 16, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The addition and revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of New Hampshire. The revisions establish recordkeeping and reporting obligations for sources of air pollution. Additionally, we are approving an order limiting emissions of volatile organic compounds from a facility in the State. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act.
This direct final rule is effective January 16, 2018, unless EPA receives adverse comments by December 14, 2017. If adverse comments are received, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2017-0266 at
Bob McConnell, Environmental Engineer, Air Quality Planning Unit, Air Programs Branch (Mail Code OEP05-02), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, Massachusetts 02109-3912; (617) 918-1046;
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
On February 10, 2017, NH DES submitted a single source order limiting emissions of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from Sturm Ruger & Company as a SIP revision request. On May 11, 2017, NH DES submitted a state regulation identified as Env-A 900, Owner or Operator Recordkeeping and Reporting Obligations, as a SIP revision request. A description of these submittals and our evaluation of them appears below in Section II of this preamble. Please note that if EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of these rules or on the VOC Order, and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule or Order, EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule or Order that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
On May 11, 2017, NH DES submitted a state regulation identified as Env-A 900, Owner or Operator Recordkeeping and Reporting Obligations, as a SIP revision request. New Hampshire provided additional material supporting this request to EPA by letter dated September 14, 2017. EPA previously approved a prior version of Env-A 900 within a direct final rule published on November 5, 2012. 77 FR 66388. Since
New Hampshire amended Env-A 907.01 by including specific language outlining the types of general information that should be reported, such as facility name, physical location, mailing address, and operating time covered by the report. The State also added a requirement that the source indicate whether the report is a revision to a previously submitted report.
New Hampshire revised sections Env-A 907.02 and .03 in a number of ways affecting non-SIP pollutants, such as hazardous air pollutants and carbon dioxide, and so only portions of the revisions are being incorporated into the New Hampshire SIP. New Hampshire clarified which portions of Env-A 900 are to be made part of the SIP within their September 14, 2017 correspondence to EPA. Of relevance to criteria pollutant reporting which is subject to SIP approval, within revised Env-A 907.02, the State clarified the definition of “emissions unit,” and also provided clarification of which sources are subject to the annual reporting requirement, and which sources are exempt. The State also specifies which pollutant emissions must be reported, and lists what information must be reported. The provisions of revised Env-A 907.03 now address annual compliance certifications for Title V permittees, which is not required to be part of the SIP and was therefore withdrawn by New Hampshire's September 14, 2017 letter mentioned above.
New Hampshire made a minor revision to Env-A 907.04 which identifies recordkeeping requirements for unclassifiable processes, and made a minor change to the form required for reporting by certain coating and printing facilities.
We have reviewed New Hampshire's changes to Env-A 900, Owner or Operator Recordkeeping and Reporting Obligations, and determined that they are acceptable. Additionally, the updated rule meets the anti-backsliding requirements of section 110(l) of the CAA in that it will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress, or with any other applicable requirement of the CAA. The regulation we are approving is not less stringent that the version of the rule we previously approved. Therefore, we are approving the updated Env-A 900 regulation, with the exception of the portions that were withdrawn, into the New Hampshire SIP.
On February 10, 2017, New Hampshire submitted a revised order establishing reasonably available control technology (RACT) for control of VOCs for Sturm Ruger & Company located in Newport, NH. EPA most recently approved a previous version of RACT for this facility on August 21, 2014. 79 FR 49458. Subsequently, the company added 13 dewaxing pre-heat kilns, the exhaust from which is controlled by afterburners that achieve a minimum of 99% destruction of VOCs. The revised order provides operational requirements for the afterburners, including a required minimum operating temperature, a calibration schedule for the thermocouple and temperature controller on the afterburners, and recordkeeping requirements.
Other changes made to the order reflect recent changes made to New Hampshire's VOC regulations. For example, the emission rate for rustproofing operations provided in section 3.b of the order was lowered from 3.5 to 2.8 lbs VOC/gallon of coating in accordance with Env-A 1212.04(a). Additionally, the limits for camouflage coatings in section 3.d of the order were also lowered. Our review of the updated order indicates that the proposed changes are acceptable. Additionally, the updated order meets the requirements of section 110(l) of the CAA in that it will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress, or with any other applicable requirement of the CAA. Therefore, we are approving the updated order into the New Hampshire SIP.
EPA is approving portions of New Hampshire's revised regulation Env-A 900, Owner or Operator Recordkeeping and Reporting Obligations, and RACT Order ARD-03-001 issued to Sturm Ruger & Company, as revisions to the New Hampshire SIP.
The EPA is publishing this action without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If the EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a notice withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. The EPA will not institute a second comment period on the proposed rule. All parties interested in commenting on the proposed rule should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on January 16, 2018 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule. Please note that if EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference portions of New Hampshire regulation Env-A 900, Owner or Operator Recordkeeping and Reporting Obligations, and RACT Order ARD-03-001, which are described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the State implementation plan, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully Federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update to the SIP compilation.
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by January 16, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The revision and addition read as follows:
(c) * * *
(d)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Withdrawal of direct final rule.
Due to adverse comments, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is withdrawing the direct final rule for “State of Iowa; Approval and Promulgation of the State Implementation Plan, the 111(d) Plan, and the Operating Permits Program,” published in the
The direct final rule published at 82 FR 43303, September 15, 2017, is withdrawn effective November 14, 2017.
Heather Hamilton Environmental Protection Agency, Air Planning and Development Branch, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219 at 913-551-7039, or by email at
Due to adverse comments, EPA is withdrawing the direct final rule to approve revisions to the Iowa State Implementation Plan (SIP), the 111(d) plan, and the Operating Permits Program. In the direct final rule published on September 15, 2017, (82 FR 43303), we stated that if we received adverse comment by October 16, 2017, the rule would be withdrawn and not take effect. EPA received adverse comments. EPA will address the comments in a subsequent final action based upon the proposed action also published on September 15, 2017 (82 FR 43315). EPA will not institute a second comment period on this action.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Administrative practice and procedure, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Intergovernmental relations, Operating permits, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, the direct final rule published at 82 FR 43303, September 15, 2017, is withdrawn effective November 14, 2017.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notification of partial withdrawal of delegation of asbestos program.
This document notifies affected sources and other interested parties that the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection (CT DEEP) has voluntarily and partially withdrawn from the delegation of authority to implement and enforce the federal asbestos program provisions at 40 CFR part 61, subpart M. The withdrawal action only applies to sources that are not subject to CT DEEP's title V operating permit program, or that are subject to the title V operating permit program but have not yet received a title V operating permit from CT DEEP. CT DEEP will continue to implement and enforce 40 CFR part 61, subpart M for all sources that have already obtained a title V operating permit, or that obtain such a permit after the effective date of this action.
This delegation withdrawal is effective on December 14, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R01-OAR-
Eric Wortman, Air Permits, Toxics and Indoor Programs Unit, Office of Ecosystem Protection, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square (OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone number (617) 918-1624, fax number (617) 918-0624, email
Throughout this document whenever ” we,” ” us,” or ” our” is used, we mean EPA. Organization of this document. The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
EPA first promulgated standards to regulate asbestos emissions on April 6, 1973 (38 FR 8820). These standards have since been amended several times and are codified in 40 CFR part 61, subpart M, “National Emission Standard for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Asbestos” (Asbestos NESHAP).
Prior to the 1990 Clean Air Act (CAA) Amendments, section 112(d) of the CAA allowed states to develop and submit to the Administrator a procedure for implementing and enforcing NESHAPs. The 1990 Amendments to the Act revised section 112 extensively, removed delegation provisions from 112(d)(1), and added section 112(l), which now provides the mechanism for delegating section 112 standards to state, local, and tribal agencies. Section 112(l) of the CAA authorizes the Administrator to delegate to each state, when appropriate, the authority to implement and enforce NESHAPs for stationary sources located in such state. The federal regulations governing EPA's delegation of authority for section 112 federal rules as promulgated without changes are located at 40 CFR part 63, subpart E.
In general, delegations are implemented through agreements between the EPA regional offices and state or local air pollution control agencies. In a letter dated May 11, 1988, CT DEEP requested full delegation of the Asbestos NESHAP regulations. In a letter dated February 27, 1990, the EPA granted delegation of full administrative and enforcement authority for the Asbestos NESHAP to CT DEEP. On April 23, 1999, the EPA approved CT DEEP's mechanism for receiving delegation of Section 112 standards through the State's title V operating permit program. EPA also reconfirmed previously delegated standards for sources that obtained title V operating permits.
On February 7, 2017, pursuant to the provisions at 40 CFR 63.96(b)(7), CT DEEP notified EPA of its intent to voluntarily and partially withdraw from delegation of the Asbestos NESHAP. Subsequently, CT DEEP provided electronic notice to the public and affected sources of the partial delegation withdrawal on June 20, 2017. Notification was also published in the Hartford Courant on June 27, 2017, and CT DEEP accepted written comments through 5 p.m. on July 31, 2017. In the notification, CT DEEP affirmed it will continue to assure compliance with all applicable CAA Section 112 requirements under an issued title V operating permit. CT DEEP received three written comments from the public and regulated community during the public comment period. After reviewing the comments received, CT DEEP sent a letter to the EPA on August 18, 2017 indicating CT DEEP completed the public comment procedures required by § 63.96(b)(7). The letter also requested that EPA proceed with a
Among other things, the Asbestos NESHAP at 40 CFR 61.145(b) requires all owners or operators of a demolition or renovation (demo/reno) activity that is subject to the Asbestos NESHAP to notify the EPA Administrator in writing before certain renovation and/or demolition activities occur and within specified time frames. Since the State of Connecticut was fully delegated the Asbestos NESHAP pursuant to Section 112(d) of the CAA prior to the 1990 amendments, the EPA determined that the State of Connecticut's regulations governing demo/reno activities at the time of delegation were adequate for the purposes of effectively implementing and enforcing the Asbestos NESHAP. This included the requirement that the owners or operators of a demo/reno activity notify in writing the designated state agency in advance of commencing the demo/reno activity. Because the EPA viewed this as a duplicative notification effort in relation to the state and federal requirements, the EPA determined that, with certain exceptions, notification to the designated state agency satisfied the federal notification requirement. On October 2, 1997 (62 FR 51654), the EPA published a notification in the
As a result of CT DEEP's partial, voluntary withdrawal from delegation of the Asbestos NESHAP, owners or operators of a demo/reno activity subject to the rule must submit the required notifications to the EPA, unless the owner or operator has a title V operating permit from CT DEEP. This notification requirement to EPA
Nothing in this notification or CT DEEP's voluntary, partial withdrawal changes any source's obligation to comply with state or local laws. All sources subject to such laws must still comply with the state and local regulations. The Connecticut Department of Public Health implements an asbestos program under the Regulations of Connecticut State Agencies. Sources that are subject to the Asbestos NESHAP must also comply with the Connecticut Department of Public Health's asbestos program regulations. This includes potentially duplicative notification requirements for owners or operators of demo/reno activity subject to the Asbestos NESHAP, as well as the Connecticut Department of Public Health's asbestos program. Owners or operators of affected sources should continue to work with their state or local agencies to ensure any applicable requirements are being met. More information on the Connecticut Department of Public Heath asbestos program can be accessed online at
Based on CT DEEP's voluntary and partial withdrawal relating to implementation and enforcement of the Asbestos NESHAP, the EPA is issuing this notification. As noted above, the CT DEEP will retain its delegation to implement and enforce the Asbestos NESHAP for sources that have obtained a title V operating permit from CT DEEP, or for sources that receive a title V operating permit in the future (once the permit is issued). CT DEEP will continue to assure compliance with all applicable CAA Section 112 requirements for all sources that have title V operating permits or obtain title V operating permits after the date of this action. The delegation withdrawal is effective on December 14, 2017.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Asbestos, Hazardous substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
This action is issued under the authority of section 112 of the Clean Air Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 7412.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of benzovindiflupyr in or on the bulb onion subgroup 3-07A, the green onion subgroup 3-07B, and increases an existing tolerance on sugarcane. Interregional Research Project Number 4 (IR-4) and Syngenta Crop Protection requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective November 14, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before January 16, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0448, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0448, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
In the
The documents referenced summaries of the petitions prepared by Syngenta Crop Protection, LLC, the registrant, which are available in the dockets EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0448 and EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0752 at
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for benzovindiflupyr including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with benzovindiflupyr follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
The rat is the most sensitive species tested, and the target organs of benzovindiflupyr are the liver, thyroid, and kidneys. Hepatotoxicity was manifested as changes in liver weights, liver hypertrophy, and decreased triglycerides. The kidney effects were tubular cell pigment deposits, changes in the tubular basophilia, and increased urea. Enlargement and focal c-cell hyperplasia of the thyroid were observed. An increased incidence of cell hypertrophy in the pituitary pars distalis was noted in the F1 generation males and females in the 2-generation reproductive toxicity rat study. Mouse studies revealed distended large intestines, soft feces and hyperplasia of the colon and caecum. Indications of general malaise including decreased body weight and food consumption, decreased activity, decreased grip strength, piloerection, decreased response to stimulus, hunched posture, gait changes and/or ataxia were reported in the rat and mouse studies. In several studies, females tended to be more sensitive than males and effects were generally seen at lower doses with gavage dosing than with dietary dosing.
There are no concerns for developmental or reproductive toxicity following benzovindiflupyr exposure. Decreased fetal weight and ossification in the rat developmental toxicity studies occurred at maternally toxic doses. There were no maternal or fetal adverse effects in the rabbit developmental study. In rat reproduction studies, offspring effects (decreased body weight, liver and pituitary effects) occurred at doses higher than those causing parental effects; thus, there was no quantitative increase in sensitivity in rat pups. There were no single-dose developmental effects identified in the developmental toxicity studies in rats or rabbits. Although decreases in growing follicle counts were noted in the 2-generation reproduction toxicity study, this effect did not result in reduced fertility in the rat. Furthermore, the antral follicle counts at a later stage in development were not decreased, so the decreased growing follicle count effect is not considered adverse.
No evidence of specific neurotoxicity was observed in the acute oral (gavage) and sub-chronic oral (dietary) neurotoxicity (ACN and SCN) studies in rats, conducted on the benzovindiflupyr technical product. Although
The mouse immunotoxicity study was negative by the T-cell Dependent Antigen Response (TDAR) assay in the mouse.
No systemic effects were noted at the limit dose of 1,000 milligrams/kilogram/day (mg/kg/day) in the 28-day dermal rat study.
The Agency classified benzovindiflupyr as showing “
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by benzovindiflupyr as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for benzovindiflupyr used for human risk assessment is discussed in Unit III.B. of the final rule published in the
1.
i.
Such effects were identified for benzovindiflupyr. In estimating acute dietary exposure, EPA used 2003-2008 food consumption information from the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA's) National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, What We Eat in America, (NHANES/WWEIA). As to residue levels in food, EPA assumed 100 percent crop treated (PCT) and tolerance-level residues.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the Surface Water Concentration Calculator (SWCC) model and the Pesticide Root Zone Model Ground Water (PRZM-GW) model, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of benzovindiflupyr for acute exposures are estimated to be 8.41 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 0.14 ppb for ground water and for chronic exposures are estimated to be 5.41 ppb for surface water and 0.14 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For the acute dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 8.41 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water. For the chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 5.41 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
Benzovindiflupyr is currently registered for the following uses that could result in residential exposures: Turf and ornamentals. EPA assessed residential exposure using the following assumptions: For handlers, exposure is expected as a result of application to turf and ornamentals. Post-application exposure is also expected as a result of being in an environment that has been previously treated with benzovindiflupyr. Both handler and
The residential scenarios used for the benzovindiflupyr aggregate assessments were as follows: Adults: Inhalation exposures from treating ornamentals with a manually pressurized handwand or backpack sprayer; Children 1 to <2 years old: Post-application hand-to-mouth exposures from treated turf. These scenarios resulted in the highest residential exposures and are considered protective of other exposure scenarios.
Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at
4.
EPA has not found benzovindiflupyr to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and benzovindiflupyr does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that benzovindiflupyr does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicity database for benzovindiflupyr is complete.
ii. There is no indication that benzovindiflupyr is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional UFs to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that benzovindiflupyr results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to benzovindiflupyr in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by benzovindiflupyr.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
Benzovindiflupyr is currently registered for uses that could result in short-term residential exposure, and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with short-term residential exposures to benzovindiflupyr.
Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 2100 for adults and 510 for children. Because EPA's level of concern for benzovindiflupyr is a MOE
4.
An intermediate-term adverse effect was identified; however, benzovindiflupyr is not registered for any use patterns that would result in intermediate-term residential exposure. Intermediate-term risk is assessed based on intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic dietary exposure. Because there is no intermediate-term residential exposure and chronic dietary exposure has already been assessed under the appropriately protective cPAD (which is at least as protective as the POD used to assess intermediate-term risk), no further assessment of intermediate-term risk is necessary, and EPA relies on the chronic dietary risk assessment for evaluating intermediate-term risk for benzovindiflupyr.
5.
6.
An adequate analytical method is available to enforce the proposed tolerances for benzovindiflupyr in plant and livestock commodities. A Quick, Easy, Cheap, Effective, Rugged, and Safe (QuEChERS) multi-residue method (EN15662:2009) was developed for the determination of residues of benzovindiflupyr via liquid chromatography-mass spectrometry/mass spectrometry (LC-MS/MS).
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established any MRLs for benzovindiflupyr.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of benzovindiflupyr, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on onion, bulb, subgroup 3-07A at 0.02 ppm; onion, green, subgroup 3-07B at 0.40 ppm; and the existing “sugarcane, cane” tolerance is increased from 0.04 ppm to 0.30 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule; withdrawal.
In the
Effective November 14, 2017 the direct final rule published in the
A list of potentially affected entities is provided in the
In the August 17, 2017
Since the direct final rule and proposed rule's publication, EPA received a public comment supporting the overall update, but noting that the direct final rule inadvertently omitted one of the covered NAICS codes updated by OMB. As a result of this omission, EPA is withdrawing the direct final rule published in the
To access the docket, please go to
EPA finds that there is “good cause” under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B)) to withdraw the direct final rule discussed in this document without prior notice and comment. Alongside the direct final rule, EPA published an identical proposed rule and gave notice in the
For this document, notice and comment is impracticable and unnecessary because EPA is under a time limit to publish this withdrawal before the direct final rule is to take effect to limit confusion among Federal agencies and the regulated community. As such, EPA has determined that this document is not subject to the 30-day delay of effective date generally required by 5 U.S.C. 553(d). This withdrawal must become effective prior to the effective date of the direct final rule being withdrawn.
This document withdraws regulatory requirements that have not gone into effect. As such, the Agency has determined that this withdrawal will not have any adverse impacts, economic or otherwise. The statutory and Executive Order review requirements applicable to the direct final rule being withdrawn were discussed in the August 17, 2017
Pursuant to the CRA (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Community right-to-know, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Toxic chemicals.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; quota transfer.
NMFS announces that the State of New Jersey is transferring a portion of its 2017 commercial bluefish quota to the State of Rhode Island. This quota adjustment is necessary to comply with the Atlantic Bluefish Fishery Management Plan quota transfer provisions. This announcement informs the public of the revised commercial bluefish quotas for New Jersey and Rhode Island.
Effective November 8, 2017, through December 31, 2017.
Cynthia Hanson, Fishery Management Specialist, (978) 281-9180.
Regulations governing the Atlantic bluefish fishery are found in 50 CFR 648.160 through 648.167. The regulations require annual specification of a commercial quota that is apportioned among the coastal states from Maine through Florida. The process to set the annual commercial quota and the percent allocated to each state are described in § 648.162 and the initial 2017 allocations were published on March 13, 2017 (82 FR 13402).
The final rule implementing Amendment 1 to the Bluefish Fishery Management Plan published in the
New Jersey is transferring 50,000 lb (22,680 kg) of Atlantic bluefish commercial quota to Rhode Island. This transfer was requested by state officials in Rhode Island to ensure their 2017 commercial bluefish quota would not be exceeded. Both states have agreed to the transfer and certified that it meets all pertinent requirements. The revised bluefish quotas for calendar year 2017 are now: New Jersey, 1,215,633 lb (551,402 kg); and Rhode Island, 731,563 lb (331,831 kg); based on the initial quotas published in the 2016-2018 Atlantic Bluefish Specifications and subsequent transfers.
This action is taken under 50 CFR part 648 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Intreprinderea De Constructii Aeronautice Model IS-28B2 gliders. This proposed AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracks at stringers in the rear fuselage of several Model IS-28B2 gliders. We are issuing this proposed AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by December 29, 2017.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Aeroclubul Romaniei, Bd.Lascar Catargiu, Nr.54, cod: 010673, Sector 1, Bucharest, Romania; telephone: 011+40 021-312-36-19; fax: 011+40 021-312-36-19; Internet:
You may review this referenced service information at the FAA, Policy and Innovation Division, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jim Rutherford, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Standards Branch, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4165; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued AD No.: 2016-0233, dated November 23, 2016 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for Intreprinderea De Constructii Aeronautice Model IS-28B2 gliders. The MCAI states:
Cracks were reportedly detected, located at stringers in the rear fuselage of a number of IS-28B2 sailplanes. The subsequent investigation attributed these cracks to induction of a pre-stress during the manufacturing process of the affected parts.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to reduced structural strength, possibly resulting in a loss of structural integrity of the sailplane.
To address this potentially unsafe condition, Aeroclubul Romaniei (AR) issued Service Bulletin (SB) SB-IS-28B2-AR-01 to provide inspection instructions. AR is currently developing modification(s) to provide a design solution for the affected sailplanes.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires repetitive inspections of the structure of the rear fuselage and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s).
This [EASA] AD is considered to be an interim action and further AD action may follow.
Aeroclubul Romaniei has issued Aeroclubul Romaniei Service Bulletin No.: SB-IS-28B2-AR-01, Revision 003, dated February 9, 2017 (ARSB No. AR-01), and Aeroclubul Romaniei Service Bulletin No.: SB-IS-28B2-AR-02, Revision 01, dated February 24, 2017 (ARSB No. AR-02). ARSB No. AR-01 describes procedures for inspection of the rear fuselage area to detect any cracks, ruptures, or corrosion. ARSB No. AR-02 describes procedures for installation of a modification to the upper stringer of the rear fuselage. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD will affect 30 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 2 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $5,100, or $170 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 15 work-hours and require parts costing $1,000, for a cost of $2,275 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to small airplanes, gliders, and domestic business jet transport airplanes to the Director of the Policy and Innovation Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by December 29, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Intreprinderea De Constructii Aeronautice IS-28B2 gliders, all serial numbers, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 53: Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracks at stringers in the rear fuselage of several Model IS-28B2 gliders. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks, which could lead to reduced structural strength resulting in loss of structural integrity and loss of control.
Unless already done, do the following actions in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2):
(1) Within 90 days after the effective date of this AD and repetitively thereafter at intervals not to exceed 50 hours time-in-service (TIS), inspect the rear fuselage structure following the instructions in Aeroclubul Romaniei Service Bulletin (SB) No.: SB-IS-28B2-AR-01, Revision 003, dated February 9, 2017.
(2) If any crack or corrosion is detected during any inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, before further flight, modify the rear fuselage structure following the instructions in Aeroclubul Romaniei SB No.: SB-IS-28B2-AR-02, Revision 01, dated February 24, 2017.
(3) Completion of the modification to the rear fuselage structure as required in paragraph (f)(2) of this AD terminates the repetitive inspections required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD.
Although Aeroclubul Romaniei SB No.: SB-IS-28B2-AR-01, Revision 003, dated February 9, 2017, specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not require that action.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to MCAI AD No.: 2016-0233, dated November 23, 2016; Aeroclubul Romaniei Service Bulletin No.: SB-IS-28B2-AR-01, Revision 003, dated February 9, 2017, and Aeroclubul Romaniei Service Bulletin No.: SB-IS-28B2-AR-02, Revision 01, dated February 24, 2017. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to temporarily modify the operating schedule that governs the 3rd Street Bridge, across China Basin, Mission Creek, mile 0.0, at San Francisco, California. This action is necessary to allow the bridge owner, the City of San Francisco, to keep the drawspan in the closed-to-navigation position in order to conduct critical mechanical and structural rehabilitation over an estimated 18 month period, scheduled to commence in February 2018. The temporary change to the regulations is expected to meet the reasonable needs of navigation on the waterway. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must reach the Coast Guard on or before December 14, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-1015 using Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions on this proposed rule, call or email Carl T. Hausner, Chief, Bridge Section, Eleventh Coast Guard District; telephone 510-437-3516; email
On October 20, 2017, the City of San Francisco submitted a request to the Coast Guard to temporarily change the drawbridge operating schedule for the 3rd Street Bridge.
The 3rd St Bridge at mile 0.0, across China Basin, Mission Creek, at the City of San Francisco, California, has a vertical clearance of 3 feet at mean high water and 8 feet at mean low water. The waterway users are recreational, law enforcement, and search and rescue.
The purpose of this proposed temporary rule is to allow the bridge owner to conduct critical mechanical and structural rehabilitation of the bridge. It is reported that the bridge is not structurally deficient; however, clear evidence of damaged and buckled steel members and other damage to the bridge and the trunnion mechanism have been identified. Without preventative maintenance, the damage will worsen and ultimately compromise the structural integrity of the bridge. The work will include blast cleaning and painting structural steel, replacing the bridge deck, repairing the fender systems, repairing the concrete counter weight, coating steel piles to inhibit corrosion, and repairing the bridge endlocks.
The existing regulations in 33 CFR 117.149 require the bridge to open on signal if at least one hour notice is given.
The Coast Guard proposes to change the drawbridge operation regulations in 33 CFR 117.149 by temporarily modifying the regulation for the draw of the 3rd Street bridge. This proposed change will allow the bridge owner to secure the bridge in the closed-to-navigation position in order to conduct critical rehabilitation work on the bridge.
China Basin, Mission Creek, is 0.64 miles in length with the 3rd Street Bridge at the mouth of the basin. Approximately 35 vessels are moored upstream of the bridge and require the drawspan to open in order to depart the basin into San Francisco Bay. The City of San Francisco has indicated that they will assist vessel owners in China Basin, Mission Creek, and find alternate moorings during the closure period. Vessels able to transit the bridge, while in the closed-to-navigation position, can continue to do so during the closure period.
There are no alternative routes into China Basin, Mission Creek.
In the event of an emergency, the bridge operator can open on signal if at least 45 days advance notice is given.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes and Executive Orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the limited number of vessels impacted and the ability of those vessel owners, located upstream of the bridge, to receive assistance from the City of San Francisco in finding alternate moorings while the bridge is in the closed-to-navigation position. In addition, rehabilitation of the bridge is
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the bridge may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above, this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this proposed rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule simply promulgates the operating regulations or procedures for drawbridges. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review, under paragraph 32(e) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.1D. We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in this docket and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
Bridges.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 117 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 499; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a) The draw of the 3rd Street bridge, mile 0.0, at San Francisco, need not be opened for the passage of vessels. The draw shall be returned to operable condition within 45 days after notification by the District Commander to do so.
(b) The draw of the 4th Street bridge, mile 0.2, at San Francisco, shall open on signal if at least one hour notice is given.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish a temporary safety zone on the waters of the Delaware River between Marcus Hook Range and Tinicum Range. The safety zone will temporarily restrict vessel traffic from transiting or anchoring in portions of the Delaware River while rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations are being conducted to facilitate the Main Channel Deepening project for the Delaware River. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from hazards created by rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP) or his designated representatives. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before November 21, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-0935 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this rulemaking, call or email Petty Officer Amanda Boone, Waterways Management Branch, U.S. Coast Guard Sector Delaware Bay; telephone (215) 271-4889, email
The Army Corps of Engineers notified the Coast Guard that Great Lakes Dredging and Dock Company will be conducting rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations, beginning November 30, 2017 through March 15, 2018, to facilitate the deepening of the main navigational channel to the new project depth of 45 feet. The COTP has determined that potential hazards associated with rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations will be a safety concern for anyone within 500 yards of the drill boat APACHE or dredges TEXAS and NEW YORK.
The purpose of this proposed rulemaking is to ensure the safety of personnel, vessels, and the marine environment within a 500-yard radius of rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations. The Coast Guard proposes this rulemaking under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231.
This proposed rule would establish a safety zone from November 30, 2017 through March 15, 2018. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters in the Delaware River within 500 yards of vessels and machinery being used by personnel to conduct rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations between Marcus Hook Range and Tinicum Range. The safety zone will be enforced in an area and in a manner that does not conflict with transiting commercial and recreational traffic, except for the short periods of time when explosive detonation are being conducted. The explosive detonation will not occur more than three times a day. At all other times, at least one side of the main navigational channel will be open for vessels to transit.
The duration of the zone is intended to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in these navigable waters while operations are being conducted. For the duration of the project, in the vicinity of the rock blasting, rock removal, and dredging operation, one side of the main navigational channel will be closed. Vessels wishing to transit the safety zone in the main navigational channel may do so if they can make satisfactory passing arrangements with drill boat APACHE or the dredges TEXAS and NEW YORK in accordance with the Navigational Rules in 33 CFR subchapter E via VHF-FM channel 13 at least 30 minutes prior to arrival. If vessels are unable to make satisfactory passing arrangements with the drill boat APACHE or the dredges TEXAS and NEW YORK, they may request permission from the COTP, or his designated representative, on VHF-FM channel 16. All vessels must operate at the minimum safe speed necessary to maintain steerage and reduce wake.
No vessels may transit through the safety zone during times of explosive detonation. During explosive detonation, vessels will be required to maintain a 500 yard distance from the drill boat APACHE. The drill boat APACHE will make broadcasts via VHF-FM channels 13 and 16, at 15 minutes, 5 minutes, and 1 minute prior to detonation, as well as a countdown to detonation on VHF-FM channel 16. Sector Delaware Bay will ensure notice is given to the maritime community of dates and times of blasting via broadcast notice to mariners on VHF-FM channel 16. After every explosive detonation, a survey will be conducted to ensure the navigational channel is clear for vessels to transit. The drill boat APACHE will broadcast via VHF-FM channel 13 and 16, when the survey has been completed and the channel is clear to transit. Vessels wishing to transit the safety zone in the main navigational channel may do so if they can make satisfactory passing arrangements with drill boat APACHE or the dredges TEXAS and NEW YORK in accordance with the Navigational Rules in 33 CFR subchapter E via VHF-FM channel 13 at least 30 minutes prior to arrival. If vessels are unable to make satisfactory passing arrangements with the drill boat APACHE or the dredge TEXAS and NEW YORK, they may request permission from the COTP, or his designated representative, on VHF-FM channel 16.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and traffic management of the safety zone. The Coast Guard does not anticipate a significant economic impact because the safety zone will be enforced in an area and in a manner that does not conflict with transiting commercial and recreational traffic, except for the short periods of time when explosive detonations are being conducted. The blasting detonations will not occur more than three times a day. At all other times, at least one side of the main navigational channel will be open for vessels to transit. Moreover, the Coast Guard will work in coordination with the pilots to ensure vessel traffic is limited during the times of detonation and Broadcast Notice to Mariners are made via VHF-FM marine channel 13 and 16 when blasting operations will occur.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to anchor in or transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves a safety zone that would prohibit entry within 500 yards of rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. A preliminary Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(2) The operator of any vessel requesting to transit through the safety zone shall proceed as directed by the drill boat APACHE, the dredges TEXAS and NEW YORK, or the designated representative of the Captain of the Port and must operate at the minimum safe speed necessary to maintain steerage and reduce wake.
(3) No vessels may transit through the safety zone during times of explosive detonation. During explosive detonation, vessels will be required to maintain a 500 yard distance from the drill boat APACHE. The drill boat APACHE will make broadcasts, via VHF-FM Channel 13 and 16, at 15 minutes, 5 minutes, and 1 minute prior to detonation, as well as a countdown to detonation on VHF-FM Channel 16.
(4) After every explosive detonation a survey will be conducted by the dredging contractor to ensure the navigational channel is clear for vessels to transit. The drill boat APACHE will broadcast, via VHF-FM channel 13 and 16, when the survey has been completed and the channel is clear to transit. Vessels requesting to transit through the safety zone shall proceed as directed by the Captain of the Port and contact the drill boat APACHE on VHF-FM channel 13 to make safe passing arrangements.
(d)
(e)
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of Rhode Island. These revisions include regulations to update the enhanced motor vehicle inspection and maintenance (I/M) program in Rhode Island. The revised program includes a test and repair network consisting of on-board diagnostic (OBD2) testing for model year 1996 and newer vehicles and tailpipe exhaust test, using a dynamometer, for model year 1995 and older vehicles. The intended effect of this action is to propose approval of the revised program into the Rhode Island SIP. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act.
Written comments must be received on or before December 14, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2009-0436 at
Ariel Garcia, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Region 1 Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100 (mail code: OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone number: (617) 918-1660, email:
In the Final Rules section of this
For additional information, see the direct final rule which is located in the Rules Section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of New Hampshire. The revisions establish recordkeeping and reporting obligations for sources of air pollution. Additionally, we are proposing approval of an order limiting emissions of volatile organic compounds from a facility in the state. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act.
Written comments must be received on or before December 14, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2017-0266 at
Bob McConnell, Environmental Engineer, Air Quality Planning Unit, Air Programs Branch (Mail Code OEP05-02), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, Massachusetts, 02109-3912; (617) 918-1046;
In the Final Rules Section of this
For additional information, see the direct final rule which is located in the Rules Section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to make a finding of attainment by the attainment date and a clean data determination (CDD) for the Oakridge-Westfir (Oakridge), Oregon fine particulate matter nonattainment area (Oakridge NAA). The finding is based upon quality-assured, quality-controlled, and certified ambient air monitoring data showing the area has monitored attainment of the 2006 24-hour fine particulate matter (PM
The EPA also proposes to approve revisions to Oregon's State Implementation Plan (SIP) consisting of the updated Oakridge-Westfir PM
Comments must be received on or before December 14, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2017-0051 at
Christi Duboiski, 206-753-9081,
Throughout this document, wherever “we”, “us” or “our” is used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On October 17, 2006, the EPA strengthened the 24-hour PM
Following promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS, the EPA is required by section 107(d)(1) of the CAA to designate areas throughout the United States as attainment, nonattainment, or unclassifiable for the NAAQS. Nonattainment areas include both areas that are violating the NAAQS, and nearby areas with emissions sources or activities that contribute to violations in those areas. States with areas designated nonattainment are required to prepare and submit a plan for attaining the NAAQS in the area as expeditiously as practicable.
The requirements for attainment plans for the 2006 24-hour PM
The requirements of subpart 1 for attainment plans include, among other things: (i) The section 172(c)(1) requirements to provide for the implementation of reasonably available control measures (RACM), including reasonably available control technology (RACT), and attainment of the NAAQS; (ii) the section 172(c)(2) requirement to demonstrate reasonable further progress (RFP); (iii) the section 172(c)(3) requirement for emissions inventories; and (iv) the section 172(c)(9) requirement for contingency measures.
The subpart 4 requirements for Moderate areas are generally comparable with the subpart 1 requirements and include: (i) Section 189(a)(1)(B) requirements to demonstrate attainment by the outermost statutory Moderate area attainment date (
In 1994, the EPA designated Oakridge a nonattainment area for PM
In 1997, the EPA revised the particulate standard to include PM
On December 12, 2012, LRAPA, in coordination with the ODEQ, submitted the Oakridge Attainment Plan. On October 21, 2016, the EPA finalized partial approval and partial disapproval of this plan (81 FR 72714). In that action, the EPA approved the description of the Oakridge NAA and listing as nonattainment, and the 2008 base year emission inventory as meeting the section 172(c)(3) requirement for emissions inventories. The EPA disapproved all other elements of the submittal. The disapproval action for the Oakridge Attainment Plan started a sanctions clock for the imposition of offset sanctions and highway sanctions 18 months and 24 months respectively after the November 21, 2016 effective date, pursuant to section 179(a) of the CAA and our regulations at 40 CFR 52.31. In addition to sanctions, the EPA must promulgate a FIP no later than two years from the date of the finding if the deficiency has not been corrected within that time period.
The Oakridge Attainment Plan included control measures that were fully implemented and modeled attainment by the December 2014 deadline. However, leading up to the deadline, the
In order to measure progress towards meeting the attainment date, both LRAPA and the EPA followed monitoring data closely to ensure the area was meeting targets consistent with the modeling demonstration submitted in the 2012 Oakridge Attainment Plan. Prior to the December 31, 2015, attainment date deadline, LRAPA determined Oakridge would not come into attainment based on 2013-2015 monitoring data. Under section 188(d), the EPA has discretion to grant an extension to the attainment date for an area if the state requests the extension and meets the statutory criteria for such an extension. On December 14, 2015, LRAPA requested a 1-year extension of the 2015 attainment date for the Oakridge NAA. On July 18, 2016, the EPA granted a 1-year extension of the 2006 24-hour attainment date for the Oakridge NAA (81 FR 46612) from December 31, 2015 to December 31, 2016 (extended attainment date), on the basis that the State met the criteria for such an extension under the CAA.
Notwithstanding the extension of the attainment date to December 31, 2016, the applicable Moderate area attainment demonstration date for the Oakridge NAA remains December 31, 2015. The PM
The EPA authorizes this approach because of the potential availability of extensions of the attainment date under relevant provisions of the CAA. In other words, if ambient data show attainment-level concentrations in the final statutory attainment year, but the three-year average does not demonstrate attainment, a state may be eligible for up to two 1-year extensions of the attainment date.
Because the initial Oakridge Attainment Plan did not adequately address the PM
Under CAA section 188(b)(2) the EPA is required to determine within six months of the applicable attainment date whether a nonattainment area attained the standard by that date. As discussed above, on July 18, 2016, the EPA granted a 1-year extension of the attainment date from December 31, 2015 to December 31, 2016 (81 FR 46612). Under the EPA regulations at 40 CFR part 50, Appendix N, the 2006 primary and secondary 24-hour PM
The EPA's finding of attainment is based upon data that has been collected and quality-assured in accordance with 40 CFR part 58 and recorded in the EPA Air Quality System (AQS) database. Ambient air quality monitoring data for the 3-year period must meet data completeness requirements. The ambient air quality monitoring data completeness requirements are met when quarterly data capture rates for all four quarters in a calendar year are at least 75 percent.
The EPA reviewed the PM
The design value (the metrics calculated in accordance with 40 CFR part 50, appendix N, for determining compliance with the NAAQS) for the 2006 24-hour PM
Additionally, the EPA is proposing to determine that the area has clean data for demonstrating attainment of the 2006 24-hr PM
Although a CDD suspends the requirement for submission of certain attainment planning elements, it does not relieve the EPA of its responsibility to take action on a state's SIP submission. Oregon submitted the Oakridge Update to address the previously disapproved elements of the SIP and EPA is proposing to approve the state's revisions. In the event that EPA determines in its final action that the Oakridge Update should not be approved, the Clean Data Determination (if finalized as proposed) would suspend Oregon's obligation to submit a revised SIP to address the attainment planning requirements related to attainment of the 2006 24-hour PM
Neither the proposed finding of attainment by the attainment date nor CDD is equivalent to the redesignation of the area to attainment. This proposed action, if finalized, will not constitute a redesignation to attainment under section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA, because the state must have an approved maintenance plan for the area as required under section 175A of the CAA, and a determination that the area has met the other requirements for redesignation in order to be redesignated to attainment. The designation status of the area will remain nonattainment for the 2006 PM
On January 20, 2017, the ODEQ in coordination with LRAPA submitted the Oakridge Update to satisfy the Moderate
The air pollution ordinances adopted by the City of Oakridge from 2012-2016 (ordinances 903, 913, 914 and 920) require emission reductions contributing to the 2015 attainment demonstration and the monitored attainment of the 2006 24-hr PM
The EPA has evaluated the Oakridge Update to determine whether it meets the applicable CAA requirements of subpart 1 and subpart 4, as specified in the PM
Section 172(c)(3) of the CAA requires a state with an area designated as nonattainment to submit a “comprehensive, accurate, current inventory of actual emissions from all sources of the relevant pollutant” for the nonattainment area. By requiring an accounting of actual emissions from all sources of the relevant pollutants in the area, this section provides for the base year inventory to include all emissions from sources in the nonattainment area that contribute to the formation of a particular NAAQS pollutant. For the 2006 24-hour PM
In addition to the base year inventory submitted to meet the requirements of CAA section 172(c)(3), the state must also submit an attainment projected inventory for the NAA for the attainment year and each QM year, and any other year of significance for meeting applicable CAA requirements. Projected emission inventories for future years must account for, among other things, the ongoing effects of economic growth and adopted emissions control requirements, and are expected to be the best available representation of future emissions. The SIP submission should include documentation explaining how the state calculated the emissions data for the base year and projected inventories. The specific PM
The Oakridge Update has two emissions inventories for the area: a 2008 base year inventory for the nonattainment area and the 2015 attainment projected inventory for the nonattainment area. In addition, LRAPA developed a projected emissions inventory for 2016 for informational purposes to demonstrate the further effectiveness of the field compliance improvements and curtailment program for year 2015. Each inventory presents PM
The inventories are based on Typical Season Day and Worst Case Day emissions. LRAPA chose to develop a seasonal inventory representing a four-month period in 2008 (January, February, November, and December) during the wood-heating season. The agency examined ambient PM
It has been determined that condensable emissions currently are not required to be reported for the mobile source and residential wood combustion portion of the inventory since the EPA's best tools to date do not have a declarative answer for the condensable emissions portion for these sources. In addition, the point source, non-road and the “all other stationary area source” categories, which constitute 0.1%, 1% and 1% respectively of the worst-case day direct PM
LRAPA selected the year 2008 as the base year of the emissions inventory for the nonattainment area. The 2008 base year inventory is one of the three years used to designate the area as nonattainment and was inventoried for the National Emission Inventory. It is also the middle year of the five-year period, 2006-2010, used for determining the base design value. This inventory provides the basis for the control measure analysis and the attainment demonstration in the Oakridge Update.
The 2008 base year emission inventory for the nonattainment area was initially submitted as part of the 2012 Oakridge Attainment Plan and approved in a final rulemaking action completed on October 21, 2016 (81 FR 72714). The Oakridge Update contains a revised 2008 base year emission inventory for the nonattainment area because an updated version of MOVES (2014a) was available for calculating on-road emissions. LRAPA surveyed all source sectors within the nonattainment area and developed accurate, actual emissions for sources as they existed in 2008 using well established techniques. Table 2 presents a summary of both seasonal inventories and the annual average daily precursor emissions.
In addition to developing a 2008 base year inventory, LRAPA developed a projected year inventory for 2015. This inventory is relevant to the December 31, 2015 attainment demonstration. LRAPA developed the 2015 projected year inventory by estimating the impact on emissions from anticipated demographic and economic trends and from adopted federal, state and local control measures in effect through December 31, 2014. A summary of the Oakridge NAA 2015 projected seasonal inventory is provided in Table 3.
The EPA has reviewed the results, procedures, and methodologies for the Oakridge NAA emissions inventories. The EPA has determined that the 2008 base year inventory for the nonattainment area and the 2015 attainment projected inventory for the nonattainment area are based on the most current and accurate information available to LRAPA at the time the Oakridge Update and its inventories were being developed. The selection of 2008 as a base year is consistent with emissions inventory requirements in 40 CFR 51.1008(a)(1)(i) because it is one of three years used to designate the area as nonattainment and it is also a year already inventoried for the National Emission Inventory. Weather conditions in 2008 were typical and temperature-dependent emissions from home heating and from mobile sources are considered representative for the 2006-2010 period. The selection of 2015 for the attainment projected inventory for the nonattainment area is consistent with 40 CFR 51.1008(2)(2)(i) because 2015 is the attainment year in the attainment demonstration.
The EPA finds the worst case day (episodic) approach that LRAPA used for the 2008 and 2015 inventories to be consistent with the PM
Additionally, the 2008 and 2015 inventories sufficiently account for PM
The composition of PM
The EPA interprets the CAA to require states to evaluate sources of all four PM
Section 189(e) of the CAA requires that the control requirements for major stationary sources of direct PM
The state has different options for demonstrating that a particular precursor does not need to be controlled in the nonattainment area for the purposes of the attainment plan: (1) A comprehensive precursor demonstration to establish that the state does not need to address the precursor in the attainment plan for purposes of the control strategy, RFP, QMs and associated reports, contingency measures, MVEB, or regional emissions analyses in transportation conformity determinations, and/or (2) a major stationary source precursor
In the 2012 Oakridge Attainment Plan and the Oakridge Update, LRAPA discusses the five pollutants that contribute to the mass of the ambient PM
The Oakridge Update contains information necessary to evaluate a comprehensive precursor demonstration for all sources of SO
LRAPA's VOC precursor demonstration examined both ambient and modeled PM
LRAPA presents several analyses involving observed chemical data, a source apportionment analysis, and an independent modeling effort to substantiate the demonstration. The PM
The EPA confirmed that LRAPA performed a contribution-based analysis for SO
For LRAPA's VOC precursor demonstration, the state agency presented multiple analyses of observed data, source apportionment modeling, and independent modeling. All of the analyses and modeling support the conclusion that VOCs contribute only a small amount to PM
While the Portland State University modeling was conducted for Klamath Falls, both Klamath Falls and Oakridge were nonattainment for the 24-hour PM
The EPA also examined an independent regional air quality modeling effort for PM
Based on a review of the information provided by LRAPA, the EPA believes LRAPA's methodology is appropriate for the area and that LRAPA's concentration-based analyses are accurate and sufficiently comprehensive to establish a precursor demonstration for SO
The general SIP planning requirements for nonattainment areas under subpart 1 include CAA section 172(c)(1), which requires implementation of all RACM, including RACT. The terms RACM and RACT are not further defined within subpart 1, but past guidance has described “reasonable available” controls as those controls that are technologically and economically feasible, and necessary for attainment in a given area.
The SIP planning requirements for particulate matter nonattainment areas in CAA subpart 4 require states to develop attainment plans that implement RACM and RACT on appropriate sources within a nonattainment area. Section 189(a)(1)(C) requires that states with areas classified as Moderate nonattainment areas have SIP provisions to assure that RACM and RACT level controls are implemented by no later than four years after designation of the area. As with subpart 1, the terms RACM and RACT are not specifically defined within subpart 4, and the provisions of subpart 4 do not identify specific control measures that must be implemented to meet the RACM and RACT requirements. However, past policy has described RACM (including RACT) as those measures that are technologically and economically feasible and needed for expeditious attainment of the standard. 81 FR 58034. The PM
To meet the Moderate area control strategy requirements, a state first needs to identify all sources of direct PM
CAA section 110(a)(2)(A) provides generally that each SIP “shall include enforceable emission limitations and other control measures, means or techniques . . . as well as schedules and timetables for compliance, as may be necessary or appropriate to meet the applicable requirement of the Act.” Section 172(c)(6) of the CAA, which applies specifically to nonattainment area plans, imposes comparable requirements. Measures necessary to meet RACM/RACT and the additional control measure requirements under section 172(c)(6) must be adopted by the state in an enforceable form (57 FR 13541) and submitted to the EPA for approval into the SIP under CAA section 110.
In the Oakridge Update, LRAPA evaluated and selected control measures consistent with the process set forth in 40 CFR 51.1009 that constitute RACM/RACT in the Oakridge NAA. Based on emissions inventory information and other technical analyses, LRAPA first identified source categories in the Oakridge NAA and associated emissions of PM
LRAPA, in coordination with the Oakridge PM
LRAPA's approach to the RACM/RACT analysis targets emissions that occur during the wintertime when stagnant air episodes occur and concentrations of emissions accumulate, leading to exceedances of the 2006 24-hour PM
LRAPA believes that the implementation of the mandatory curtailment program was key in helping this area attain the 24-hour PM
The wood stove changeout programs in Oakridge provided incentives for homeowners to replace older uncertified wood stoves with newer, cleaner certified wood stoves. Between 2009 and 2012, the changeout program replaced 90 uncertified wood stoves in the Oakridge NAA. The removal and destruction of the old wood stoves assures emissions reductions are permanent. The changeouts are enforceable because a statewide building code prohibits the installation of any uncertified wood stove in the future. The Heat Smart Program, a statewide mandate requiring removal of uncertified wood stoves at the time of home sale, went into effect in 2010. This statewide rule closely mirrors the existing requirement in the Oakridge ordinance. LRAPA is responsible for the implementation of the Heat Smart Program in the Oakridge NAA, however, the ODEQ is required to confirm residences where owners removed or changed-out uncertified wood stoves upon home sale. Under the rule, all uncertified devices on the property being sold must be removed at the time of home sale. Three Heat Smart removals were recorded and occurred prior to December 31, 2014. The changeout programs described above are modeled to collectively provide PM
LRAPA applied national and state measures to reduce mobile source emissions, such as fuel economy standards and vehicle emissions standards including Oregon Low Emission Vehicle regulations (LEV II). These mobile measures are modeled to collectively provide direct PM
There are two existing industrial sources in the Oakridge area that are minor sources of PM
LRAPA expects the ancillary and supplemental control measures, listed in Table 5, to increase compliance with regulations and encourage behaviors that reduce emissions. The supplemental control measures were implemented when it became clear the Oakridge NAA would not attain the 2006 24-hr PM
LRAPA asserts that while the expanded education and outreach is not a permanent and enforceable measures in itself, the program to enhance education, outreach, and public awareness is key to supporting the implementation of the mandatory permanent and enforceable curtailment programs, including increasing compliance rates with curtailments on red advisory days. Further discussion of these measures can be found in the Oakridge Update.
The EPA proposes to approve the primary control measures listed in Table 5 and sections of the City of Oakridge Ordinance 920 identified below in Section IV Proposed Action, regulating wood and other solid fuel burning in the Oakridge NAA. LRAPA appropriately followed a process to analyze control measures and to select RACM/RACT level controls for this specific NAA consistent with the requirement of section 172(c)(1) and the procedures for Moderate NAAs identified at 40 CFR 51.1009. The result of this process was LRAPA's adoption and implementation of a control strategy that includes the identified technologically and economically feasible control measures for sources of direct PM
The EPA proposes to find that the Oakridge Update provides for the implementation of RACM/RACT as required by CAA sections 189(a)(1)(C) and 172(c)(1). The EPA's evaluation of the Oakridge Update indicates that the control strategy includes permanent and enforceable requirements and takes appropriate credit for emissions reductions from those control measures. The EPA is proposing to approve LRAPA's analysis and selection of RACM/RACT as meeting the requirements of subparts 1 and 4.
CAA section 189(a)(1)(B) requires each state with a Moderate nonattainment area to submit a plan that includes, among other things, either (i) a demonstration (including air quality modeling) that the plan will provide for attainment by the applicable attainment date; or (ii) a demonstration that attainment by such date is impracticable. For model attainment demonstrations, the EPA's modeling requirements are in 40 CFR part 51, appendix W (82 FR 5182, January 17, 2017). The EPA's guidance recommendations for model input preparation, model performance evaluation, use of the model output for the attainment demonstration, and modeling documentation are described in
Air quality modeling is used to establish emissions targets, the combination of emissions of PM
In addition to a modeled attainment demonstration that focuses on locations with an air quality monitor, the PM
For an attainment demonstration, a thorough review of all modeling inputs and assumptions is especially important because the modeling must ultimately support a conclusion that the plan (including its control strategy) will provide for timely attainment of the applicable NAAQS. The EPA recommends that states prepare a modeling protocol in order to establish, prior to actual modeling, agreed upon procedures with the appropriate EPA Regional Office for all phases of the modeling analysis.
LRAPA used a “linear roll-forward” model as the basis for projecting future design values and the effect of control strategies. In the Oakridge Update, this model is referred to as “a proportional roll-back/roll-forward” and also as a “rollback model”. We use the term roll-forward here but are referring to the same model as in the Oakridge Update. A standard roll-forward model assumes all sources contribute to the WAC monitor in proportion to their weight in the emissions inventory on a species-by-species basis. The model does not explicitly treat chemistry leading to secondary PM
LRAPA developed multiple emission inventories for modeling attainment, one for the 2008 base year and multiple for the 2015 attainment year. The inventories used for modeling are the worst-case season day as defined in section III.A.2. Because of the simple form of the roll-forward model and the small, homogeneous airshed of the nonattainment area, the planning inventory for the nonattainment area did not need to be expanded or modified for use as an inventory for modeling. The projected 2015 attainment year inventory accounts for all changes (
To calculate the projected 2015 PM
LRAPA chose the 2006-2010 period for the baseline to represent conditions before emission controls and calculated a baseline design value of 39.5 μg/m
The Oakridge Update also contains an unmonitored area analysis and supplemental information as additional support for the modeling demonstration. LRAPA conducted a saturation study in
The model inputs, model design, modeling emission inventories, supplemental information, and attainment test methodology are appropriate for nonattainment planning and for an attainment demonstration in the Oakridge NAA. The roll-forward model used by LRAPA is not the standard attainment model used in larger areas and in areas with significant secondary PM
The EPA is proposing to find that LRAPA's model adequately meets the current EPA modeling requirements, and uses acceptable modeling techniques to demonstrate attainment by December 31, 2015. The EPA also proposes to find that the modeling is adequate for purposes of supporting the control strategy analysis, RFP, and contingency measures.
CAA section 189(a)(1)(B) requires that each Moderate area attainment plan include a demonstration that the plan provides for attainment by the latest applicable Moderate area deadline or, alternatively, that attainment by the latest applicable attainment date is impracticable. A demonstration that the plan provides for attainment must be based on air quality modeling consistent with the EPA's modeling regulations (51.1011(a)(2); 51.1011(a)(4)(ii); and 81 FR 58049). In SIP submissions to demonstrate attainment, the state should document that its required control strategy in the plan represents the application of RACM/RACT to existing sources.
CAA section 188(c) states, in relevant part, that the Moderate area attainment date “shall be as expeditiously as practicable but no later than the end of the sixth calendar year after the area's designation as nonattainment.” For the 2006 24-hour PM
In addition, the EPA's August 24, 2016, PM
In the Attainment Demonstration section of the Oakridge Update, LRAPA described how its chosen control strategies would provide the emissions reductions needed to demonstrate attainment by December 31, 2015. The majority of projected control strategy air quality benefits came from the wood smoke curtailment program, the wood stove changeout program, and the Heat Smart program. A more detailed discussion of these strategies can be found in section III. C. RACT/RACM above.
Table 6 lists the control strategies, the modeled PM
We have evaluated the Oakridge attainment demonstration, supporting air quality modeling, supplemental analyses, and RACM/RACT control strategy analyses which address the adoption of all reasonable measures. The EPA's evaluation of the Oakridge Update indicates that the control strategy includes permanent and enforceable requirements and takes appropriate credit for emissions reductions from those control measures. We are proposing to approve the Oakridge attainment demonstration for the area. LRAPA showed that emission controls were in place in order to demonstrate attainment by December 31, 2015 for the 2006 PM
The area needed to identify at least 4.1 µg/m
Finally, the unmonitored area analysis confirms that the WAC is the highest neighborhood-scale location in the nonattainment area on polluted winter days. Given the high contribution of wood smoke to high PM
CAA section 172(c)(2) requires nonattainment area plans to provide for RFP. In addition, CAA section 189(c) requires PM
An attainment plan for a PM
The CAA does not specify the starting point for counting the 3-year periods for QMs under CAA section 189(c). However, the EPA's longstanding interpretation of the CAA is that the first QM should fall 3 years after the latest date on which the state should have submitted the attainment plan. For the 2006 PM
The Oakridge Update identifies direct PM
LRAPA provided a projected year emissions inventory and modeled concentrations for 2016 which is within the three-year period after the applicable attainment date (3 years after December 31, 2014). The 2016 projected emissions inventory and modeling reflects the contingency measures implemented in 2015 in order to meet the 2006 24-hr PM
In the Oakridge Update, LRAPA outlined their plan to submit to the EPA, by June 30, 2017, a Quantitative Milestone report and an annual RFP update in the event the standard was not attained by December 31, 2016. The QM report would explain ongoing progress in implementing the required control measures in the area until attainment of the 2006 24-hr PM
The EPA proposes to find that the Oakridge Update adequately meets both the RFP and QM requirements for this area as specified in the CAA and the PM
As of the time the state submitted the Oakridge Update, the area was attaining the 2006 24-hour PM
The EPA finds that the adopted measures listed in Table 7 are being implemented and sufficient incremental reductions in emissions occurred over the attainment period to satisfy the RFP requirement. Further, the EPA concludes that the accounting of control measure implementation and the resultant emissions reductions satisfy the QM requirement for the area. For these reasons, the EPA proposes to approve the submitted Oakridge Update as meeting both the RFP and QM requirements.
The requirement to submit and achieve milestones does not continue after attainment of the NAAQS. Although section 189(c) states that revisions shall contain milestones which are to be achieved until the area is redesignated to attainment, such milestones are designed to show reasonable further progress “toward attainment by the applicable attainment date,” as defined by section 171. Thus, it is clear that once the area has attained the standard, a demonstration to satisfy the QM requirement is no longer necessary. This interpretation is supported by language in section 189(c)(3), which mandates that a state that fails to achieve a milestone must submit a plan that assures that the state will achieve the next milestone or attain the NAAQS if there is no next milestone.
Under CAA section 172(c)(9), PM
• Contingency measures must be fully adopted rules or control measures that are ready to be implemented quickly upon failure to meet RFP or failure of the area to meet the NAAQS by its attainment date.
• The SIP must contain trigger mechanisms for the contingency measures, specify a schedule for implementation, and indicate that the measures will be implemented without further action by the state or by the EPA. In general, we expect all actions needed to affect full implementation of the measures to occur within 60 days after the EPA notifies the state of a failure.
• The contingency measures shall consist of control measures that are not otherwise included in the control strategy or that achieve emissions reductions not otherwise relied upon in the control strategy for the area.
• The measures should provide for emissions reductions equivalent to approximately one year of reductions needed for RFP calculated as the overall level of reductions needed to demonstrate attainment divided by the number of years from the base year to the attainment year. 81 FR 58066.
In 2014, LRAPA determined the Oakridge NAA was not making reasonable further progress toward attaining the 2006 24-hr PM
• A stricter advisory program, reducing the red advisory threshold by 5 μg/m
• Expanding field compliance with a dedicated Oakridge Police Department compliance officer.
The contingency measures for stronger enforcement on more red advisory days were modeled and projected to reduce the future year design value by 1.7 µg/m
In order to address the next potential triggering event, failure to attain the applicable standard, LRAPA identified two additional contingency measures and submitted them as part of the Oakridge Update. In accordance with basic requirements for valid contingency measures, these two measures are not required to meet other attainment plan requirements and are not relied on in the control strategy. The contingency measures in the Oakridge Update are:
• An increase in the number of red advisory days each winter. LRAPA projects that by reducing the red advisory thresholds by 3 μg/m
• Prohibition of fireplace use on yellow advisory days (in addition to the existing prohibition on red advisory days).
These contingency measures were adopted as part of the City of Oakridge Ordinance 920. In accordance with basic requirements for valid contingency measures, they will go into effect for the October 1, 2017, wood heating season with minimal further action by the state or the EPA in response to a triggering event; in this case the measures adopted by LRAPA will automatically go into effect if the EPA makes a finding that Oakridge fails to attain by the applicable attainment date. Implementation of the contingency measures are projected to reduce the future year design value by 2.8 µg/m
The Oakridge Update includes contingency measures that would take effect upon failure of the Oakridge NAA to attain by the applicable attainment date, December 31, 2016. The Oakridge NAA monitored attainment of the 2006 24-hour PM
Section 176(c) of the CAA requires Federal actions in nonattainment and maintenance areas to “conform to” the goals of SIPs. This means that such actions will not cause or contribute to violations of a NAAQS, worsen the severity of an existing violation, or delay timely attainment of any NAAQS or interim milestones. Actions involving Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) or Federal Transit Administration (FTA) funding or approval are subject to the transportation conformity rule (40 CFR part 93, subpart A) as well as the Oregon transportation conformity SIP which cites the national rule (77 FR 60627). Under this rule, metropolitan planning organizations (MPOs) in nonattainment and maintenance areas coordinate with state air quality and transportation agencies, the EPA, the FHWA and the FTA to demonstrate that their long-range transportation plans and transportation improvement programs (TIPs) conform to applicable SIPs. This demonstration is typically determined by showing that estimated emissions from existing and planned highway and transit systems are less than or equal to the motor vehicle emissions budgets (MVEB) contained in a SIP.
The emissions inventories should identify MVEB for the attainment year and each RFP milestone year for direct PM
Oakridge is considered an isolated rural nonattainment area, so transportation conformity under 40 CFR 93.109(g) is only needed when a non-exempt federally-funded project is funded or approved. The Oakridge Update includes budgets for direct PM
For MVEB to be approvable, they must meet, at a minimum, the EPA's adequacy criteria (40 CFR 93.118(e)(4)). In this notice, the EPA is proposing to approve the comprehensive precursor demonstration for SO
The EPA proposes to:
• Determine that the Oakridge area attained the 2006 24-hour PM
• Make a clean data determination (CDD) in accordance with the EPA's clean data policy. In the event that EPA determines in its final action that the Oakridge Update should not be approved, the Clean Data Determination would suspend Oregon's obligation to submit a revised SIP to address the attainment planning requirements related to attainment of the 2006 24-hour PM
• Fully approve the remaining elements of the Oakridge Update as meeting the requirements section 110(k) of the CAA. Specifically, the EPA has determined the Oakridge Update meets the substantive statutory and regulatory requirements for base year and projected emissions inventories for the nonattainment area, and an attainment demonstration with modeling analysis and imposition of RACM/RACT level emission controls, RFP plan, QMs, and contingency measures. Therefore, the EPA is proposing to approve these elements.
• Approve, and incorporate by reference, the following sections in the City of Oakridge Ordinance 920: Section 1 Definitions; Section 2(1) Curtailment; Section 2(2) Prohibited materials; Section 3 Solid Fuel Burning Devices Upon Sale of the Property; Section 4 Solid Fuel Burning Devices Prohibited; Section 5 Solid Fuel Burning Devices Exemptions; Section 7 Contingency Measures.
In this rule, we are proposing to include in a final rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, we are proposing to incorporate by reference the provisions described above in Section IV. Proposed Action. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this proposed action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes regulations under the Tuna Conventions Act to implement provisions included in Resolution C-17-02 (
Comments on the proposed rule and supporting documents must be submitted in writing by December 14, 2017.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2017-0129, by any of the following methods:
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Rachael Wadsworth, NMFS at 562-980-4036.
The United States is a member of the IATTC, which was established under the 1949 Convention for the Establishment of an Inter-American Tropical Tuna Commission. In 2003, the IATTC adopted the Convention for the Strengthening of the IATTC Established by the 1949 Convention between the United States of America and the Republic of Costa Rica (Antigua Convention). The Antigua Convention entered into force in 2010. The United States acceded to the Antigua Convention on February 24, 2016. The full text of the Antigua Convention is available at:
The IATTC consists of 21 member nations and five cooperating non-member nations. It facilitates scientific research into, as well as the conservation and management of, tuna and tuna-like species in the IATTC Convention Area. The IATTC Convention Area is defined as waters of the EPO within the area bounded by the west coast of the Americas and by 50° N. latitude, 150° W. longitude, and 50° S. latitude. The IATTC maintains a scientific research and fishery monitoring program and regularly assesses the status of tuna, sharks, and billfish stocks in the IATTC Convention Area to determine appropriate catch limits and other measures deemed necessary to promote sustainable fisheries and prevent the overexploitation of these stocks.
As a Party to the Antigua Convention and a member of the IATTC, the United States is legally bound to implement decisions of the IATTC. The Tuna Conventions Act (16 U.S.C. 951
The IATTC adopted Resolution C-17-02 (
The intent of this Resolution is to manage fishing activities for tropical tuna stocks in the EPO and to address the recent increases in the purse seine fishing capacity in the IATTC Convention Area, which has the
Resolution C-17-02 includes three provisions that were in effect for 2017 and that apply to purse seine vessels of class sizes 4-6 fishing for tropical tuna in the EPO. First, the Resolution C-17-02 maintains the requirement that each vessel must cease fishing for 72 days during one of the following two periods: July 29 to October 8, or from November 9 to January 19 of the following year. Second, the Resolution maintains the closure for purse seine vessels within the area of 96° and 110° W. and between 4° N. and 3° S. from 0000 hours on October 9 to 2400 hours on November 8. And third, the Resolution maintains the requirement that all tropical tuna be retained on board and landed, except fish considered unfit for human consumption for reasons other than size, as well as an exception on the final set of a trip, when there may be insufficient well space remaining to accommodate all the tuna caught in that set.
Resolution C-17-02 also revises provisions related to purse seine vessels requesting an exemption due to force majeure. The Commission previously defined force majeure in Resolutions C-13-01 and C-17-01 as a purse seine vessel that is disabled by mechanical and/or structural failure, fire and explosions. Resolution C-17-02 narrows the definition to situations where a vessel is disabled in the course of “fishing operations.” The revised definition would exclude situations where a vessel was rendered inoperable while not at sea,
Resolution C-17-02 removes two measures for 2018 to 2020 that were in effect for 2017. The provisions for 2018 to 2020 do not include the exception for allowing a purse seine vessel with a dolphin mortality limit to fish for 10 days during the closure period. The Commission had adopted this exception as a new measure for only 2017. In addition, Resolution C-17-02 removes a long standing provision that allowed purse seine vessels of class size 4 (
Resolution C-17-02 also increases the U.S. annual catch limit for bigeye tuna in the IATTC Convention Area from 500 mt to 750 mt for longline vessels greater than 24 m in overall length. In addition, Resolution C-17-02 regulates for the first time the practice of IATTC members and cooperating non-members (CPCs) transferring longline catch limits for bigeye tuna. The previous IATTC resolutions on tropical tuna did not address transfers of longline catch. A few IATTC members reportedly transferred portions of their catch limits to other IATTC members, but there were no formal procedures for such transfers in the resolutions. The Commission adopted provisions to regulate any transfer to improve transparency and to increase the information collected about such transfers. Resolution C-17-02 specifies that no more than 30 percent of a CPCs catch limit may be transferred. Furthermore, a transfer may not be made retroactively to cover an overage of a catch limit for bigeye tuna and may not be retransferred to any other CPC. Ten days in advance of any transfer, both CPCs involved in a transfer must notify the IATTC (either separately or jointly). All notifications of a transfer of any catch limit must specify the tonnage to be transferred and the year in which the transfer will occur. Each CPC that receives a transfer would be responsible for management of the transferred catch limit, including monitoring and monthly reporting of catch.
Resolution C-17-02 also includes several new provisions on purse seine vessels fishing with FADs in the IATTC Convention Area. NMFS interprets the Resolution as differentiating between “active FADs”—defined as a FAD that it is deployed at sea, starts transmitting its location, and is being tracked by the vessel—and non-active FADs that do not have equipment capable of transmitting their location. As explained herein, the Resolution includes requirements that apply solely to active FADs (
To ensure compliance with the active FAD limits, the Resolution requires reporting on active FADs for each vessel in the IATTC Convention Area. The Resolution instructs the IATTC scientific staff and IATTC Permanent Working Group on FADs to develop, at the latest by November 30, 2017, guidance on the reporting of active FAD data in accordance with the Resolution. Vessel owners and operators must ensure that daily information on all active FADs in the IATTC Convention Area is recorded and the information must be reported at monthly intervals to the IATTC. To ensure confidentiality on any location information, these reports may be submitted with a time delay of at least 60 days but no later than 90 days.
The Resolution also includes restrictions on all FAD deployments and recovery in the IATTC Convention Area. The Resolution provides that purse seine vessels of class size 4-6 must ensure that FADs are not deployed during a period of 15 days prior to the start of the selected 72-day closure period. In addition, the Resolution provides that class 6 purse seine vessels (greater than 363 mt carrying capacity) must recover (
In addition, the Resolution imposes design standards for all FADs to reduce the entanglement of marine life,
This proposed rule would implement the provisions of Resolution C-17-02 as described above. These proposed regulations would apply to U.S. commercial fishing vessels that are used to fish for tropical tuna stocks in the IATTC Convention Area. These proposed regulations would apply from 2018 to 2020. Per Resolution C-17-02, the proposed regulations would maintain three existing U.S. regulations for purse seine vessels, revise several existing regulations for both purse seine and longline vessels, and add several new regulations on transferring longline catch limits and FAD management. The proposed new regulations are further described below.
As described previously, there are several new provisions on transfers of bigeye catch limits for longline vessels. NMFS and U.S. Department of State would be responsible for arranging any transfers of a bigeye tuna catch limit for the United States with another IATTC CPC. Currently, the IATTC CPCs with which the United States could conduct a transfer, per paragraph 16 of Resolution C-17-02, include China, Japan, South Korea, and Chinese Taipei. NMFS would ensure that the total catch limit transferred either to the United States or from the United States would not exceed 30 percent of the catch limit designated to those CPCs or the United States by the IATTC. In addition, these transfers would not be allowed to be made to retroactively cover an overage of a U.S. catch limit for bigeye tuna. The United States would not be allowed to retransfer any of the transferred catch limit it receives from another CPC to another CPC.
Per requirements of the Resolution, NMFS will notify the IATTC of the transfer 10 days in advance, either separately or with the other CPC transferring catch. The notification would specify the tonnage to be transferred and the year in which the transfer would occur. NMFS will be responsible for the management of the transferred catch limit, including monitoring and monthly reporting of catch.
If the United States engages in a transfer of a bigeye tuna catch limit with another IATTC member, NMFS would publish a notice in the
In addition, the proposed regulations include several new restrictions on FADs in the IATTC Convention Area. The proposed regulations define the term “Active FAD” as a fish aggregating device that is equipped with gear capable of tracking location, such as radio or satellite buoys. An Active FAD would be considered active unless/until the tracking equipment is removed and the vessel owner or operator notifies NMFS Highly Migratory Species (HMS) Branch that this vessel is no longer active (
The proposed regulations would also require reporting on Active FADs in the IATTC Convention Area. U.S. vessels owners and operators would be required to maintain daily information on all Active FADs for each vessel in the IATTC Convention Area and report this information monthly to the address specified by NMFS HMS Branch. NMFS will distribute any guidance or templates developed by the IATTC FAD Working Group prior to the effective date of the final rule. These reports would be required to be submitted no later than 90 days after the month covered by the report. For example, reports covering the month of January 2018 could be submitted on or before May 1, 2018.
The proposed regulations also clarify that the reporting on FAD interactions, which is already required by regulations at 50 CFR 300.25(i), must be submitted within 30 days of each landing or transshipment of tuna or tuna-like species.
In addition, the proposed regulations include restrictions on FAD deployments and removals in the IATTC Convention Area. The proposed regulations specify that U.S. vessel owners, operators, and crew of purse seine vessels of class size 4-6 must ensure that FADs are not deployed during a period of 15 days prior to the start of the 72-day closure period selected by the vessel per 50 CFR 300.25(e)(1). In addition, the proposed regulations specify that U.S. vessel owners, operators, and crew of purse seine vessels of class size 6 (greater than 363 mt carrying capacity) must recover (
As described previously, Resolution C-17-02 includes broadly worded restrictions on the use of entangling material on FADs. In order to establish clear standards for FAD designs that meet the requirements of Resolution C-17-02, NMFS proposes to provide two options to meet the Resolution restrictions by following guidance developed by the International Seafood Sustainability Foundation (ISSF) in 2015 (available at
The proposed regulations would require that, no later than January 1, 2019, all FADs onboard or deployed by U.S. purse seine vessel owners and operators in the IATTC Convention Area are consistent with either the “Lower Entanglement Risk FADs” or “Non-Entangling FADs” as described in the ISSF Guide (
The proposed regulations provide two options for vessel owners and operators and identifies materials that are acceptable in both the surface component of the FAD (
To meet the requirements of the Non-Entangling FADs (see diagram third from left in Figure 1), the FAD would be required to be free from netting, and the raft would either not be covered at all or only covered with shade cloth or canvas. The subsurface structure would be made with ropes, canvas, or nylon sheets. Although biodegradable material is not required under Resolution C-17-02 or these proposed regulations, this option is presented for the purposes of discussion and to solicit public feedback. To meet the requirements of the Non-Entangling FAD plus the biodegradable option for a FAD (see diagram furthest to the right in Figure 1), the FAD would be constructed in the same manner as the previously described Non-Entangling FAD and the material would only include biodegradable materials. NMFS is considering definitions for biodegradable, but examples of biodegradable materials could include non-plastic and non-metal materials, as well as natural materials such as bamboo, palm leaves, coconut fiber or sisal fiber.
Alternatively, the “Lower Entanglement Risk FADs” (see diagram second from the left in Figure 1) would require that if netting is used for either the surface or subsurface components that only small mesh would be used (
In addition, NMFS is soliciting the public for information on additional materials or configurations that have been demonstrated to reduce or avoid entanglements when used in FAD construction. Taking into account enforceability, NMFS will evaluate this input and consider including it in the final rule. NMFS acknowledges that additional materials may be recognized in the future that are effective at reducing or avoiding entanglement. Therefore, NMFS will update these regulations as appropriate.
After consultation with the Department of State and Homeland Security, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the Tuna Conventions Act of 1950, as amended, and other applicable laws, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
NMFS is amending the supporting statement for the West Coast Region Pacific Tuna Fisheries Logbook and Fish Aggregating Device Form, Office of Management and Business (OMB) Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) requirements (OMB Control No. 0648-0148) to include the data collection requirements for FADs as described in the preamble. NMFS estimates that the public reporting burden for this collection of information will average 3 minutes per form, including time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. NMFS requests any comments on the addition of the FAD data collection form to the PRA package, including whether the paperwork would unnecessarily burden any vessel owners and operators. Public comment is sought regarding: Whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Send comments on these or any other aspects of the collection of information to the
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. All currently approved NOAA collections of information may be viewed at:
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The rationale for the certification is provided in the following paragraphs.
As described in the
The absence of the proposed rule action would allow U.S. fisheries to target tropical tuna stocks in the IATTC Convention Area without restrictions (except for existing permit requirements). This may contribute to overfishing conditions of tuna resources. Managing stocks at or above levels able to produce maximum sustainable yield is intended to benefit both the stocks and the fisheries in the EPO by allowing the production of the stocks to be maintained at levels where the largest catch can be taken overtime. Alternatively, the implementation of Resolution C-17-02 will result in the sharing of sustainable benefits from Pacific tuna fishery resources among the IATTC CPC countries. The entities directly affected by the actions of this proposed rule are: (1) U.S. purse seine vessels that fish for tuna or tuna-like species in the IATTC Convention Area, and (2) U.S. longline vessels greater than 24 meters in overall length that catch bigeye tuna in the IATTC Convention Area.
The United States Small Business Administration (SBA) defines a “small business” (or “small entities”) as one with annual revenue that meets or is below an established size standard. On December 29, 2015, NMFS issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the U.S. SBA current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry in all NMFS rules subject to the RFA after July 1, 2016.
NMFS prepared analyses for this regulatory action in light of the new size standard. All of the entities directly regulated by this regulatory action are commercial finfish fishing businesses. Under the new size standards, the U.S. purse seine vessels this action applies to are considered large and small businesses. The longline vessels this action applies to are considered to be small businesses.
There are two components to the U.S. tuna purse seine fishery in the EPO: (1) Large purse seine vessels of class size 6 that typically have been based in the western and central Pacific Ocean (WCPO), and (2) coastal purse seine vessels with smaller fish hold volumes (size class 2-3; between 46-181 mt carrying capacity) that are based on the U.S. West Coast. Although Resolution C-17-02 and the proposed regulations include restrictions for class size 4-5 (182-363 mt carrying capacity) purse seine vessels, there are no (nor have there been in the past ten years) any U.S. vessels of class sizes 4-5 registered to fish in the IATTC Convention Area. Therefore, the proposed regulations for class size 4-5 purse seine vessels are not expected to have any impact to U.S. vessel owners or operators.
As of September 2017, there are 17 class size 6 purse seine vessels registered to fish in the IATTC Convention Area. The number of U.S. size class 6 purse seine vessels on the IATTC Regional Vessel Register has increased substantially in the past two years due to previous uncertainty in the negotiations regarding the South Pacific Tuna Treaty and the interest expressed by vessel owners that typically fish in the WCPO in relocating to the EPO. From 2005 through 2014, three or fewer class 6 purse seine vessels fished in the Convention Area. In 2015 and 2016, fifteen and eighteen vessels fished in the Convention Area, respectively.
The U.S. class size 6 purse seine vessels target skipjack tuna by fishing on floating objects and unassociated sets; they also catch and retain yellowfin and bigeye tuna. Since at least 2005, the observer coverage rate on class size 6 vessels in the EPO has been 100 percent. In addition, one U.S. class 6 purse seine vessel has permission to fish on dolphins in 2017 and may be eligible to fish on dolphins in the future; but, this vessel could also fish on floating
For large purse seine vessels that fished exclusively in the EPO in 2015 and 2016, ex-vessel price information is not available to NMFS because these vessels did not land on the U.S. West Coast, and the cannery receipts are not available through the IATTC. However, estimates for large purse seine vessels based in the WCPO that fish in both the EPO and WCPO may be used as a proxy for U.S. large purse seine vessels. The number of these U.S. purse seine vessels is approximated by the number with Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission (WCPFC) Area Endorsements, which are the NMFS-issued authorizations required for a vessel to fish commercially for highly migratory species (HMS) on the high seas in the WCPFC Convention Area. As of October 2017, the number of purse seine vessels with WCPFC Area Endorsements was 37.
Based on (limited) financial information about the affected fishing fleets, and using individual vessels as proxies for individual businesses, NMFS believes that over half of the vessels in the purse seine fleet are small entities as defined by the RFA; that is, they are independently owned and operated and not dominant in their fields of operation, and have annual receipts of no more than $11 million. Within the purse seine fleet, analysis of average revenue, by vessel, for the three years of 2014-2016 reveals that average fleet revenue was $10,201,962; 22 participating vessels qualified as small entities with their average of the most recent three years of vessel revenue for which data is available of less than $11 million.
As of September 2017, the IATTC Regional Vessel Register lists 158 U.S. longline vessels that have the option to fish in the IATTC Convention Area, 37 of which are large-scale longline vessels (
In addition, there are U.S. longline vessels based on the U.S. West Coast, some of which operate under the Pacific HMS permit and high seas permits. U.S. West Coast-based longline vessels operating under the Pacific HMS permit fish primarily in the EPO and are currently restricted to fishing with deep-set longline gear outside of the U.S. West Coast EEZ. There have been fewer than three U.S. West Coast-based vessels operating under the HMS permit since 2005; therefore, landings and ex-vessel revenue are confidential. However, the number of Hawaii-permitted longline vessels that have landed in U.S. West Coast ports has increased from one vessel in 2006 to 18 vessels in 2016. In 2016, 928 mt of HMS (excluding striped marlin, pelagic thresher shark, and bigeye thresher shark) were landed into West Coast ports by Hawaii permitted longline vessels with total ex-vessel revenue of about $5.4 million. The average ex-vessel revenue for each vessel is approximately $302,222. This is well below the $11 million threshold for finfish harvesting businesses.
The proposed action is not expected to have a significant adverse economic impact on either the profitability of a substantial number of small entities or a disproportional economic effect on small entities relative to large entities. Under the new size standards, the entities impacted by the action related to purse seine vessels are considered large and small business, and the entities impacted by the action related to longline vessels are considered small business. However, disproportional economic effects between small and large businesses are not expected. Several proposed measures for 2018-2020 would maintain regulations that have been in place for years for tropical tuna management in the IATTC Convention Area; therefore, these actions are routine for the purse seine and longline fisheries. The proposed changes to the 2017 regulations include removing two regulations, revising two regulations, and adding several new regulations. These changes and the expected economic effects are discussed in more detail below.
As described previously, the proposed action would prohibit FAD deployment 15 days in advance of the selected closure period. For those U.S. purse seine operators that typically deploy FADs before the closure period, this restriction could result in adjustments in fishing practices. For example, vessel operators that typically deploy FADs during that time period might choose to deploy more FADs at earlier dates before the closure or choose to deploy fewer FADs overall. In addition, the proposed action would require purse seine vessels to remove, within 15 days prior to the start of the selected closure period, a number of FADs equal to the number of FADs set upon by the vessel during that same period. Vessel operators that typically set on FADs fifteen days prior to the closure period may choose to adjust their fishing practices to not set on FADs, or to set on fewer FADs, within 15 days prior to the start of the selected closure period to avoid or reduce the number of FADs to remove. If vessel owners or operators make one set per day, they would need to remove 15 FADs to comply with this proposed regulation. For those vessel owners that remove FADs to comply with this regulation, it would be expected that they would pick up the FAD after making the set and there would be an additional time burden for vessel operators and crew to pull the FAD(s) out of the water. These proposed restrictions on FAD deployments and removals would not restrict the number of FADs in the water, but could change the amount of time vessel operators or crew engage in activities with FADs on the water. Thus, these measures are not expected to reduce the overall profitability of the fishery. Because all U.S. purse seine vessels fishing with FADs would be impacted in a similar manner, no disproportionate impacts between small and large businesses are expected.
The proposed action includes a range of options to comply with the restrictions on entangling materials on FADs in the IATTC Convention Area. Although information compiled by ISSF showed that the majority of the U.S. purse seine fleet currently use materials on FADs that have a high risk of entanglement (
With these additional restrictions on FADs, U.S. purse seine vessels will continue to have the option to fish on
In summary, the proposed action is not expected to substantially change the typical fishing practices of affected vessels. In addition, any impact to the income of U.S. vessels is expected to be minor. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the action is neither expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities nor to have a disproportional economic impact on the small entities relative to the large entities. Given these conclusions, an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
Administrative practice and procedure, Fish, Fisheries, Fishing, Marine resources, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Treaties.
Dated: November 8, 2017.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 300, subpart C, is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 951
(a)
(3)
(ii)
(m) Fail to stow gear as required in § 300.25(a)(4)(iv) or (e)(6).
(n) Use a fishing vessel of class size 4-6 to fish with purse seine gear in the Convention Area in contravention of § 300.25(e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(5) or (e)(6).
(ee) Fail to ensure characters of a unique code are marked indelibly on a FAD deployed or modified on or after January 1, 2017, in accordance with § 300.28(a)(2).
(ff) Fail to record or report data on FADs as required in § 300.22(a)(3).
(ii) Activate the transmission equipment attached to a FAD in a location other than on a purse seine vessel at sea as required in § 300.28(b).
(jj) Fail to turn on the tracking equipment for an Active FAD before deploying at sea as required in § 300.28(b).
(kk) Have more Active FADs than specified in § 300.28(c) in the IATTC Convention Area at any one time.
(ll) Deploy a FAD in the IATTC Convention Area during a period of 15 days prior to the start of the selected closure period in contravention of § 300.28(d)(1).
(mm) Fail to remove from the water a number of FADs in the IATTC Convention Area equal to the number of FADs set upon by the vessel during the 15 days prior to the start of the selected closure period as required in § 300.28(d)(2).
(nn) Deploy, or have onboard a vessel, a FAD in the IATTC Convention Area with non-authorized materials as required at § 300.28(e).
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) Fishing seasons for all tuna species begin on 0000 hours Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) January 1 and end either on 2400 hours UTC December 31 or when NMFS closes the fishery for a specific species.
(2) For the calendar years 2018, 2019, 2020, there is a limit of 750 metric tons of bigeye tuna that may be caught by longline gear in the Convention Area by U.S. commercial fishing vessels that are over 24 meters in overall length. The catch limit within a calendar year is subject to increase if the United States receives a transfer of catch limit from another IATTC member or cooperating non-member, per paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
(5) If the United States engages in a transfer of a bigeye tuna catch limit with another IATTC member or cooperating non-member, NMFS will publish a notice in the
(e)
(i) From 0000 hours Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) July 29, to 2400 hours UTC October 8, or
(ii) From 0000 hours UTC November 9 to 2400 hours UTC January 19 of the following year.
(2) A vessel owner, manager, or association representative of a vessel that is subject to the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section must provide written notification to the Regional Administrator declaring to which one of the two closure periods identified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section his or her vessel will adhere in that year. This written notification must be submitted by fax at (562) 980-4047 or email at
(3) If written notification is not submitted per paragraph (e)(2) of this section for a vessel subject to the requirements under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, that vessel must adhere to the second closure period under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
(4) * * *
(ii) If the request for an exemption due to force majeure is accepted by the IATTC, the vessel must observe a closure period of 40 consecutive days in the same year during which the force majeure event occurred, in one of the two closure periods described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
(iii) If the request for an exemption due to force majeure is accepted by the IATTC and the vessel has already observed a closure period described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section in the same year during which the force majeure event occurred, the vessel must observe a closure period of 40 consecutive days the following year the force majeure event occurred, in one of the two closure periods described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
(iv) Any purse seine vessel for which a force majeure request is accepted by the IATTC, must carry an observer aboard authorized pursuant to the International Agreement on the International Dolphin Conservation Program.
(5) A fishing vessel of the United States of class size 4-6 (more than 182 metric tons carrying capacity) may not be used from 0000 hours on October 9 to 2400 hours on November 8 in 2017 to fish with purse seine gear within the area bounded at the east and west by 96° and 110° W. longitude and bounded at the north and south by 4° N. and 3° S. latitude.
(6) At all times while a vessel is in a time/area closed period established under paragraphs (e)(1) or (e)(5) of this section, unless fishing under exceptions established under paragraphs (e)(4) of this section, the fishing gear of the vessel must be stowed in a manner as not to be readily available for fishing. In particular, the boom must be lowered as far as possible so that the vessel cannot be used for fishing, but so that the skiff is accessible for use in emergency situations; the helicopter, if any, must be tied down; and launches must be secured.
(a)
(2) U.S. purse seine vessel owners and operators shall ensure the characters of the unique code or unique identifier be marked indelibly at least five centimeters in height on the upper portion of the attached radio or satellite buoy in a location that does not cover the solar cells used to power the equipment. For FADs without attached radio or satellite buoys, the characters shall be on the uppermost or emergent top portion of the FAD. The vessel owner or operator shall ensure the marking is visible at all times during daylight. In circumstances where the on-board observer is unable to view the code, the captain or crew shall assist the observer (
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) U.S. vessel owners, operators, and crew of purse seine vessels of class size 6 (greater than 363 metric tons carrying capacity) must remove from the water a number of FADs equal to the number of FADs set upon by the vessel during the 15 days prior to the start of the closure period selected by the vessel per § 300.25(e)(1).
(e)
(1) Non-Entangling FADs must not include netting on any parts of the FAD, and the raft must either not be covered or covered with shade cloth or canvas. The subsurface structure must be made with ropes, canvas, or nylon sheets (diagram on the right in Figure 1 to paragraph (e)(2)).
(2) Lower Entanglement Risk FADs may use small mesh netting (mesh may not exceed 7 centimeters/2.5 when stretched) for either the surface or subsurface components. If the raft is
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by December 14, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
*Billing Code 3410-DM
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,
Comments regarding this information collection received by December 14, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725—17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice and opportunity for public comment.
The Economic Development Administration (EDA) has received petitions for certification of eligibility to apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance from the firms listed below. Accordingly, EDA has initiated investigations to determine whether increased imports into the United States of articles like or directly competitive with those produced by each of these firms contributed importantly to the total or partial separation of the firm's workers, or threat thereof, and to a decrease in sales or production of each petitioning firm.
Any party having a substantial interest in these proceedings may request a public hearing on the matter. A written request for a hearing must be submitted to the Trade Adjustment Assistance Division, Room 71030, Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230, no later than ten (10) calendar days following publication of this notice. These petitions are
Please follow the requirements set forth in EDA's regulations at 13 CFR 315.9 for procedures to request a public hearing. The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance official number and title for the program under which these petitions are submitted is 11.313, Trade Adjustment Assistance for Firms.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of decision and availability of decision documents associated with the issuance of one Section 10(a)(1)(A) permit to enhance the propagation and survival of endangered and threatened species.
This notice advises the public that one direct take permit has been issued pursuant to Section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA) for continued operation, monitoring, and evaluation of hatchery programs rearing and releasing Sacramento River winter-run Chinook salmon into the Upper Sacramento River Basin. This notice also announces the availability of the associated decision documents. Section 10(a)(1)(A) Permit 16477 was issued to the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service for the implementation of two Hatchery and Genetic Management Plans (HGMPs) at Livingston Stone National Fish Hatchery.
The permit was issued on September 29, 2017 subject to certain conditions set forth therein. Subsequent to issuance, the necessary countersignatures by the applicants were received. The permits expire on December 31, 2027.
Requests for copies of the decision documents or any of the other associated documents should be directed to NOAA's National Marine Fisheries Service, California Central Valley Office, 650 Capitol Mall, Suite 5-100, Sacramento, California 95814. The documents are also available online at
Amanda Cranford, Sacramento, California (Phone: 916-930-3706; Fax: 916-930-3629; email:
This notice is relevant to the following species and evolutionarily significant unit (ESU)/distinct population segment (DPS):
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Notice and request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) is proposing a new information collection, titled, “Debt Collection Quantitative Disclosure Testing”.
Written comments are encouraged and must be received on or before December 14, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
You may submit comments, identified by the title of the information collection, OMB Control Number (see below), and docket number (see above), by any of the following methods:
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Documentation prepared in support of this information collection request is available at
The survey will explore consumer comprehension and decision making in response to debt collection disclosure forms. The survey will oversample respondents who have had experience with debt collection in the past.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-54 with attached Policy Justification, Sensitivity of Technology, and Section 620C(d) Certification.
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Included in the possible sale are up to one hundred twenty-three (123) APX-126 Advanced Identification Friend or Foe (AIFF) Combined Interrogator Transponder (CIT); one (1) Joint Mission Planning System (JMPS); one (1) F-16V Simulator; upgrade to two (2) existing simulators; one (1) Avionics Level Test Station; Secure Communications, cryptographic equipment and navigation equipment; upgrade and integration of the Advanced Self-Protection Integrated Suite (ASPIS) I to ASPIS II on twenty-six (26) F-16s; Ground Support System, systems integration and test; spares and repair parts, support and test equipment; personnel training and training equipment; publications and technical documentation; U.S. Government and contractor engineering, logistical, and technical support services; and other related elements of logistics and program support.
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Greece has requested a possible purchase of an upgrade of its existing F-16 fleet to an F-16 Block V configuration which includes up to one hundred twenty-five (125) APG-83 Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) Radars (includes two (2) spares); one hundred twenty-three (123) Modular Mission Computers (MMCs); one hundred twenty-three (123) LINK-16 Multifunctional Information Distribution System Joint Tactical Radio Systems (MIDS-JTRS) with TACAN and EHSI; one hundred twenty-three (123) LN260 Embedded Global Navigation Systems (EGI)/Inertial Navigation Systems (INS); and one hundred twenty-three (123) Improved Programmable Display Generators (iPDGs). Also included in the proposed sale are up to one hundred twenty-three (123) APX-126 Advanced Identification Friend or Foe (AIFF) Combined Interrogator Transponders (CIT); one (1) Joint Mission Planning System (JMPS); one (1) F-16V Simulator; upgrade to two (2) existing simulators; one (1) Avionics Level Test Station; Secure Communications, cryptographic equipment and navigation equipment; upgrade and integration of the Advanced Self-Protection Integrated Suite (ASPIS) I to ASPIS II on twenty-six (26) F-16s; Ground Support System, systems integration and test; spares and repair parts, support and test equipment; personnel training and training equipment; publications and technical documentation; U.S. Government and contractor engineering, logistical, and technical support services; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The total estimated program cost is $2.404 billion.
This proposed sale will contribute to U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives by helping to improve the security of a NATO ally which is an important partner for political stability and economic progress in Europe. The upgrade of F-16 aircraft to an F-16 Block V configuration will bolster the Hellenic Air Force's ability to support NATO and remain interoperable with the U.S. and the NATO alliance. It will also help Greece sustain operations in the future, thereby reducing the threat the alliance's enemies pose to the U.S. and the alliance.
The proposed sale will improve Greece's capability to meet current and future security threats. Greece will use this capability as a deterrent to regional threats, strengthen its homeland defense, and execute counter-terrorism operations.
Greece currently employs a mix of F-16s in Block 30, Block 50, Block 52+, and Block 52+ Advanced configurations. Therefore, Greece will have no difficulty absorbing the upgrade of these aircraft from an operation and support standpoint.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be Lockheed Martin of Fort Worth, TX. There are currently no known offsets. However, Greece typically requests offsets. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between Greece and the contractor.
The proposed sale will require the assignment of approximately 3-5 additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Greece.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
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1. The proposed sale for upgrade of Greece's F-16s to Block V will involve the release of sensitive and/or classified (up to SECRET) elements to Greece, including hardware, accessories, components, and associated software. The F-16 Block V aircraft system is UNCLASSIFIED, except as noted below. The aircraft utilizes the F-16 airframe and features advanced avionics and systems including the AN/APG-83 Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) Radar, Modular Mission Computers (MMCs); LINK-16 Multifunctional Information Distribution System Joint Tactical Radio System LINK-16 Multifunctional Information Distribution System Joint Tactical Radio System (MIDS-JTRS); Advanced Self-Protection Integrated Suite (ASPIS) II ship-sets; LN260 Embedded Global Navigation Systems (EGI)-Inertial Navigation System (INS); Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing Systems (JHMCS II); Improved Programmable Display Generators (iPDGs); APX-126 Advanced Identification Friend or Foe (AIFF) Combined Interrogator Transponder (CIT); and Joint Mission Planning System (JMPS).
2. Additional sensitive areas include operating manuals and maintenance technical orders containing performance information, operating and test procedures, and other information related to support operations and repair. The hardware, software, and data identified are classified (up to SECRET) to protect vulnerabilities, design, and performance parameters and other similar critical information.
3. The AN/APG-83 is an Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar upgrade for the F-16. It includes higher processor power, higher transmission power, more sensitive receiver electronics, and Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), which creates higher-resolution ground maps from a greater distance than existing mechanically scanned array radars (
4. The Modular Mission Computer (MMC) is the central aircraft computer of the F-16. It serves as the hub for all aircraft subsystems and avionics data transfer. The hardware and software are classified SECRET.
5. The Multifunctional Informational Distribution System-Joint Tactical Radio System (MIDS-JTRS) is classified CONFIDENTIAL. The MIDS-JTRS is a secure data and voice communication network using Link-16 architecture. The system provides enhanced situational awareness, positive identification of participants within the network, secure fighter-to-fighter connectivity, secure voice capability, and ARN-118 TACAN functionality. It provides three major functions: Air Control, Wide Area Surveillance, and Fighter-to-Fighter. The MIDS-JTRS can be used to transfer data in Air-to-Air, Air-to-Surface, and Air-to-Ground scenarios. The MIDS terminal hardware, publications, performance specifications, operational capability, parameters, vulnerabilities to countermeasures, and software documentation are classified CONFIDENTIAL. The classified information to be provided consists of that which is necessary for the operation, maintenance, and repair (through intermediate level) of the data link terminal, installed systems, and related software.
6. The Advanced Self-Protection Integrated Suite II (ASPIS II) is an enhanced version of the original ASPIS I integrated Electronic Warfare (EW) system, which provides passive radar warning, wide spectrum Radio Frequency (RF) jamming, and control and management of the entire EW system. It is an externally mounted EW pod. The suite includes an ALQ-187 EW System, ALR-93 Radar Warning Receiver, and ALE-47 Countermeasure Dispenser System. Greece has upgraded ASPIS I to II on all but a remaining twenty-six jets. The commercially developed system software and hardware are UNCLASSIFED. The system is classified SECRET when loaded with a U.S. derived EW database.
7. The Embedded Global Positioning System (EGI)-Inertial Navigation System (INS)/LN-260 is a sensor that combines Global Positioning System (GPS) and inertial sensor inputs to provide accurate location information for navigation and targeting. The EGI-INS/LN-260 is UNCLASSIFIED. The GPS cryptovariable keys needed for highest GPS accuracy are classified up to SECRET.
8. The Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS) is a modified HGU-55/P helmet that incorporates a visor-projected Heads-Up Display (HUD) to cue weapons and aircraft sensors to air and ground targets. In close combat, a pilot must currently align the aircraft to shoot at a target. JHMCS allows the pilot to simply look at a target to shoot. This system projects visual targeting and aircraft performance information on the back of the helmet's visor, enabling the pilot to monitor this information without interrupting his field of view through the cockpit canopy. The system uses a magnetic transmitter unit fixed to the pilot's seat and a magnetic field probe mounted on the helmet to define helmet pointing positioning. A Helmet Vehicle Interface (HVI) interacts with the aircraft system bus to provide signal generation for the helmet display. This provides significant improvement for close combat targeting and engagement. Hardware is UNCLASSIFIED; technical data and documents are classified up to SECRET.
9. The Improved Programmable Display Generator (iPDG) and color multifunction displays utilize ruggedized commercial liquid crystal display technology that is designed to withstand the harsh environment found in modern fighter cockpits. The display generator is the fifth generation graphics processor for the F-16. Through the use of state-of-the-art microprocessors and graphics engines, it provides orders of magnitude increases in throughput, memory, and graphics capabilities. The hardware and software are UNCLASSIFIED.
10. The AN/APX-126 Advanced Identification Friend or Foe (AIFF) Combined Interrogator Transponder (CIT) is a system capable of transmitting and interrogating Mode V. It is UNCLASSIFIED unless/until Mode IV and/or Mode V operational evaluator parameters are loaded into the equipment. Elements of the IFF system classified up to SECRET include software object code, operating characteristics, parameters, and technical data. Mode IV and Mode V anti-jam performance specifications/data, software source code, algorithms, and tempest plans or reports will not be offered, released, discussed, or demonstrated.
11. The Joint Mission Planning System (JMPS) is a multi-platform PC based mission planning system. JMPS hardware is UNCLASSIFIED and the software is classified up to SECRET.
12. Software, hardware, and other data/information, which is classified or sensitive, is reviewed prior to release to protect system vulnerabilities, design data, and performance parameters. Some end-item hardware, software, and other data identified above are classified at the CONFIDENTIAL and SECRET level. Potential compromise of these systems is controlled through management of the basic software programs of highly sensitive systems and software-controlled weapon systems on a case-by-case basis.
13. If a technologically advanced adversary obtains knowledge of the specific hardware and software source code in this proposed sale, the information could be used to develop countermeasures or equivalent systems that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
14. Greece is both willing and able to protect U.S. classified military information. Greek physical and document security standards are equivalent to U.S. standards. Greece has signed a General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) with the United States and is in negotiations with CENTCOM on the Communications Interoperability and Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA). The Government of Greece has demonstrated its willingness and capability to protect sensitive military technology and information released to its military in the past.
15. A determination has been made that the Greece can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
16. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of Greece.
Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before December 14, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Alfreida Pettiford, 202-245-6110.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing an extension of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before January 16, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Take notice that on September 28, 2017, the Kansas Corporation Commission (KCC) made a filing styled as a Motion to Show Cause. In the filing, KCC alleges that Northern Natural Gas Company (Northern) has failed to comply with the Commission's June 2, 2010 Order regarding Northern's buffer zone around the Cunningham storage field in Pratt and Kingman Counties, Kansas.
The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to this proceeding should, on or before the comment date listed below, file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the Natural Gas Act (18 CFR 157.10).
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission hereby gives notice that members of its staff may attend the following Southwest Power Pool-related meetings:
Unless otherwise noted, all of the meetings above will be held at either:
Further information and dial in instructions may be found at
The discussions may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
These meetings are open to the public.
For more information, contact Patrick Clarey, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (317) 249-5937 or
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified date(s). Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency is announcing plans to hold an information session on January 17, 2018 in Washington, DC. The purpose the session is to provide prospective borrowers with a better understanding of the Water Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act (WIFIA) program requirements and application process.
The session in Washington, DC will be held on January 17, 2018 from 9:00 a.m.-3:00 p.m. (MT).
The session in Washington, DC will be held at: U.S. EPA Headquarters, William Jefferson Clinton East Building, 1201 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004.
For further information about this notice, including registration information, contact Karen Fligger, EPA Headquarters, Office of Water, Office of Wastewater Management at tel.: 202-564-2992; or email:
Members of the public are invited to participate in the session as capacity allows.
Under WIFIA (33 U.S.C. 3901
Water Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act, 33 U.S.C. 3901
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has received Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the following public information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number, and no person is required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. Comments concerning the accuracy of the burden estimates and any suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the person listed in the
Nicole Ongele, Office of the Managing Director, at (202) 418-2991, or email:
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before January 16, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
(1) A correction of the routing instructions and description of an AM station directional antenna system field monitoring point, when the point itself is not changed.
(2) A change in the type of AM station directional antenna monitor. See Sec. 73.69.
(3) A change in the location of the station main studio when prior authority to move the main studio location is not required.
(4) The location of a remote control point of an AM or FM station when prior authority to operate by remote control is not required.
Also, information collection requirements are contained in 47 CFR 73.3544(c) which requires a change in the name of the licensee where no change in ownership or control is involved may be accomplished by written notification by the licensee to the Commission.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before December 14, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper
47 CFR 1.221(h) requires that, in a program carriage complaint proceeding filed pursuant to § 76.1302 that the Chief, Media Bureau refers to an administrative law judge for an initial decision, each party, in person or by attorney, shall file a written appearance within five calendar days after the party informs the Chief Administrative Law Judge that it elects not to pursue alternative dispute resolution pursuant to § 76.7(g)(2) or, if the parties have mutually elected to pursue alternative dispute resolution pursuant to § 76.7(g)(2), within five calendar days after the parties inform the Chief Administrative Law Judge that they have failed to resolve their dispute through alternative dispute resolution. The written appearance shall state that the party will appear on the date fixed for hearing and present evidence on the issues specified in the hearing designation order.
47 CFR 1.229(b)(2) requires that, in a program carriage complaint proceeding filed pursuant to § 76.1302 that the Chief, Media Bureau refers to an administrative law judge for an initial decision, a motion to enlarge, change, or delete issues shall be filed within 15 calendar days after the deadline for submitting written appearances pursuant to § 1.221(h), except that persons not named as parties to the proceeding in the designation order may file such motions with their petitions to intervene up to 30 days after publication of the full text or a summary of the designation order in the
47 CFR 1.229(b)(3) provides that any person desiring to file a motion to modify the issues after the expiration of periods specified in paragraphs (a), (b)(1), and (b)(2) of § 1.229, shall set forth the reason why it was not possible to file the motion within the prescribed period.
47 CFR 1.248(a) provides that the initial prehearing conference as directed by the Commission shall be scheduled 30 days after the effective date of the order designating a case for hearing, unless good cause is shown for scheduling such conference at a later date, except that for program carriage complaints filed pursuant to § 76.1302 that the Chief, Media Bureau refers to an administrative law judge for an initial decision, the initial prehearing conference shall be held no later than 10 calendar days after the deadline for submitting written appearances pursuant to § 1.221(h) or within such shorter or longer period as the Commission may allow on motion or notice consistent with the public interest.
47 CFR 1.248(b) provides that the initial prehearing conference as directed by the presiding officer shall be scheduled 30 days after the effective date of the order designating a case for hearing, unless good cause is shown for scheduling such conference at a later date, except that for program carriage complaints filed pursuant to § 76.1302 that the Chief, Media Bureau refers to an administrative law judge for an initial decision, the initial prehearing conference shall be held no later than 10 calendar days after the deadline for submitting written appearances pursuant to § 1.221(h) or within such shorter or longer period as the presiding officer may allow on motion or notice consistent with the public interest.
47 CFR 76.7. Pleadings seeking to initiate FCC action must adhere to the requirements of Section 76.6 (general pleading requirements) and Section 76.7 (initiating pleading requirements). Section 76.7 is used for numerous types of petitions and special relief petitions, including general petitions seeking special relief, waivers, enforcement, show cause, forfeiture and declaratory ruling procedures.
47 CFR 76.7(g)(2) provides that, in a proceeding initiated pursuant to § 76.7 that is referred to an administrative law judge, the parties may elect to resolve the dispute through alternative dispute resolution procedures, or may proceed with an adjudicatory hearing, provided that the election shall be submitted in writing to the Commission and the Chief Administrative Law Judge.
47 CFR 76.9. A party that wishes to have confidentiality for proprietary information with respect to a submission it is making to the FCC must file a petition pursuant to the pleading requirements in Section 76.7 and use the method described in Sections 0.459 and 76.9 to demonstrate that confidentiality is warranted. The petitions filed pursuant to this provision are contained in the existing information collection requirement and are not changed by the rule changes.
47 CFR 76.61(a) permits a local commercial television station or qualified low power television station that is denied carriage or channel positioning or repositioning in accordance with the must-carry rules by a cable operator to file a complaint with the FCC in accordance with the procedures set forth in Section 76.7.
47 CFR 76.61(a)(1) states that whenever a local commercial television station or a qualified low power television station believes that a cable operator has failed to meet its carriage or channel positioning obligations, pursuant to Sections 76.56 and 76.57, such station shall notify the operator, in writing, of the alleged failure and identify its reasons for believing that the cable operator is obligated to carry the signal of such station or position such signal on a particular channel.
47 CFR 76.61(a)(2) states that the cable operator shall, within 30 days of receipt of such written notification, respond in writing to such notification and either commence to carry the signal of such station in accordance with the terms requested or state its reasons for believing that it is not obligated to carry such signal or is in compliance with the channel positioning and repositioning and other requirements of the must-carry rules. If a refusal for carriage is based on the station's distance from the cable system's principal headend, the operator's response shall include the location of such headend. If a cable operator denies carriage on the basis of the failure of the station to deliver a good quality signal at the cable system's principal headend, the cable operator must provide a list of equipment used to make the measurements, the point of measurement and a list and detailed description of the reception and over-the-air signal processing equipment used, including sketches such as block diagrams and a description of the methodology used for processing the signal at issue, in its response.
47 CFR 76.914(c) permits a cable operator seeking revocation of a franchising authority's certification to file a petition with the FCC in accordance with the procedures set forth in Section 76.7.
47 CFR 76.1003(a) permits any multichannel video programming distributor (MVPD) aggrieved by conduct that it believes constitute a violation of the FCC's competitive access to cable programming rules to commence an adjudicatory proceeding at the FCC to obtain enforcement of the rules through the filing of a complaint, which must be filed and responded to in accordance with the procedures specified in Section 76.7, except to the extent such procedures are modified by Section 76.1003.
47 CFR 76.1001(b)(2) permits any multichannel video programming distributor to commence an adjudicatory proceeding by filing a complaint with the Commission alleging that a cable operator, a satellite cable programming vendor in which a cable operator has an attributable interest, or a satellite broadcast programming vendor, has engaged in an unfair act involving terrestrially delivered, cable-affiliated programming, which must be filed and responded to in accordance with the procedures specified in § 76.7, except to the extent such procedures are modified by §§ 76.1001(b)(2) and 76.1003. In program access cases involving terrestrially delivered, cable-affiliated programming, the defendant has 45 days from the date of service of the complaint to file an answer, unless otherwise directed by the Commission. A complainant shall have the burden of proof that the defendant's alleged conduct has the purpose or effect of hindering significantly or preventing the complainant from providing satellite cable programming or satellite broadcast programming to subscribers or consumers; an answer to such a complaint shall set forth the defendant's reasons to support a finding that the complainant has not carried this burden. In addition, a complainant alleging that a terrestrial cable programming vendor has engaged in discrimination shall have the burden of proof that the terrestrial cable programming vendor is wholly owned by, controlled by, or under common control with a cable operator or cable operators, satellite cable programming vendor or vendors in which a cable operator has an attributable interest, or satellite broadcast programming vendor or vendors; an answer to such a complaint shall set forth the defendant's reasons to support a finding that the complainant has not carried this burden.
47 CFR 76.1003(b) requires any aggrieved MVPD intending to file a complaint under this section to first notify the potential defendant cable operator, and/or the potential defendant satellite cable programming vendor or satellite broadcast programming vendor, that it intends to file a complaint with the Commission based on actions alleged to violate one or more of the provisions contained in Sections 76.1001 or 76.1002 of this part. The notice must be sufficiently detailed so that its recipient(s) can determine the nature of the potential complaint. The potential complainant must allow a minimum of ten (10) days for the potential defendant(s) to respond before filing a complaint with the Commission.
47 CFR 76.1003(c) describes the required contents of a program access complaint, in addition to the requirements of Section 76.7 of this part.
47 CFR 76.1003(c)(3) requires a program access complaint to contain evidence that the complainant competes with the defendant cable operator, or with a multichannel video programming distributor that is a customer of the defendant satellite cable programming or satellite broadcast programming vendor or a terrestrial cable programming vendor alleged to have engaged in conduct described in § 76.1001(b)(1).
47 CFR 76.1003(d) states that, in a case where recovery of damages is sought, the complaint shall contain a clear and unequivocal request for damages and appropriate allegations in support of such claim.
47 CFR 76.1003(e)(1) requires cable operators, satellite cable programming vendors, or satellite broadcast programming vendors whom expressly reference and rely upon a document in asserting a defense to a program access complaint filed or in responding to a material allegation in a program access complaint filed pursuant to Section 76.1003, to include such document or documents, such as contracts for carriage of programming referenced and relied on, as part of the answer. Except as otherwise provided or directed by the Commission, any cable operator, satellite cable programming vendor or satellite broadcast programming vendor upon which a program access complaint is served under this section shall answer within twenty (20) days of service of the complaint, provided that the answer shall be filed within forty-five (45) days of service of the complaint if the complaint alleges a violation of Section 628(b) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, or Section 76.1001(a).
47 CFR 76.1003(e)(2) requires an answer to an exclusivity complaint to provide the defendant's reasons for refusing to sell the subject programming to the complainant. In addition, the defendant may submit its programming contracts covering the area specified in the complaint with its answer to refute allegations concerning the existence of an impermissible exclusive contract. If there are no contracts governing the specified area, the defendant shall so certify in its answer. Any contracts submitted pursuant to this provision may be protected as proprietary pursuant to Section 76.9 of this part.
47 CFR 76.1003(e)(3) requires an answer to a discrimination complaint to state the reasons for any differential in prices, terms or conditions between the complainant and its competitor, and to specify the particular justification set forth in Section 76.1002(b) of this part relied upon in support of the differential.
47 CFR 76.1003(e)(4) requires an answer to a complaint alleging an unreasonable refusal to sell programming to state the defendant's reasons for refusing to sell to the complainant, or for refusing to sell to the complainant on the same terms and conditions as complainant's competitor, and to specify why the defendant's actions are not discriminatory.
47 CFR 76.1003(f) provides that, within fifteen (15) days after service of an answer, unless otherwise directed by the Commission, the complainant may file and serve a reply which shall be responsive to matters contained in the answer and shall not contain new matters.
47 CFR 76.1003(g) states that any complaint filed pursuant to this subsection must be filed within one year of the date on which one of three specified events occurs.
47 CFR 76.1003(h) sets forth the remedies that are available for violations of the program access rules, which include the imposition of damages, and/or the establishment of prices, terms, and conditions for the sale of programming to the aggrieved multichannel video programming distributor, as well as sanctions available under title V or any other provision of the Communications Act.
47 CFR 76.1003(j) states in addition to the general pleading and discovery rules contained in § 76.7 of this part, parties to a program access complaint may serve requests for discovery directly on opposing parties, and file a copy of the request with the Commission. The respondent shall have the opportunity to object to any request for documents that are not in its control or relevant to the dispute. Such request shall be heard, and determination made, by the Commission. Until the objection is ruled upon, the obligation to produce the disputed material is suspended. Any party who fails to timely provide discovery requested by the opposing party to which it has not raised an objection as described above, or who fails to respond to a Commission order for discovery material, may be deemed in default and an order may be entered in accordance with the allegations contained in the complaint, or the complaint may be dismissed with prejudice.
47 CFR 76.1003(l) permits a program access complainant seeking renewal of an existing programming contract to file a petition along with its complaint requesting a temporary standstill of the price, terms, and other conditions of the existing programming contract pending resolution of the complaint, to which the defendant will have the opportunity to respond within 10 days of service of the petition, unless otherwise directed by the Commission.
47 CFR 76.1302(a) states that any video programming vendor or multichannel video programming distributor aggrieved by conduct that it believes constitute a violation of the regulations set forth in this subpart may commence an adjudicatory proceeding at the Commission to obtain enforcement of the rules through the filing of a complaint. The complaint shall be filed and responded to in accordance with the procedures specified in Section 76.7, except to the extent such procedures are modified by Section 76.1302.
47 CFR 76.1302(b) states that any aggrieved video programming vendor or multichannel video programming distributor intending to file a complaint under this section must first notify the potential defendant multichannel video programming distributor that it intends to file a complaint with the Commission based on actions alleged to violate one or more of the provisions contained in Section 76.1301 of this part. The notice must be sufficiently detailed so that its recipient(s) can determine the specific nature of the potential complaint. The potential complainant must allow a minimum of ten (10) days for the potential defendant(s) to respond before filing a complaint with the Commission.
47 CFR 76.1302(c) specifies the content of carriage agreement complaints, in addition to the requirements of Section 76.7 of this part.
47 CFR 76.1302(c)(1) provides that a program carriage complaint filed pursuant to § 76.1302 must contain the following: Whether the complainant is a multichannel video programming distributor or video programming vendor, and, in the case of a multichannel video programming distributor, identify the type of multichannel video programming distributor, the address and telephone number of the complainant, what type of multichannel video programming distributor the defendant is, and the address and telephone number of each defendant.
47 CFR 76.1302(d) sets forth the evidence that a program carriage complaint filed pursuant to § 76.1302 must contain in order to establish a prima facie case of a violation of § 76.1301.
47 CFR 76.1302(e)(1) provides that a multichannel video programming distributor upon whom a program carriage complaint filed pursuant to § 76.1302 is served shall answer within sixty (60) days of service of the complaint, unless otherwise directed by the Commission.
47 CFR 76.1302(e)(2) states that an answer to a program carriage complaint shall address the relief requested in the complaint, including legal and documentary support, for such response, and may include an alternative relief proposal without any prejudice to any denials or defenses raised.
47 CFR 76.1302(f) states that within twenty (20) days after service of an answer, unless otherwise directed by the Commission, the complainant may file and serve a reply which shall be responsive to matters contained in the answer and shall not contain new matters.
47 CFR 76.1302(h) states that any complaint filed pursuant to this subsection must be filed within one year of the date on which one of three events occurs.
47 CFR 76.1302(j)(1) states that upon completion of such adjudicatory proceeding, the Commission shall order appropriate remedies, including, if necessary, mandatory carriage of a video programming vendor's programming on defendant's video distribution system, or the establishment of prices, terms, and conditions for the carriage of a video programming vendor's programming.
47 CFR 76.1302(k) permits a program carriage complainant seeking renewal of an existing programming contract to file a petition along with its complaint requesting a temporary standstill of the price, terms, and other conditions of the existing programming contract pending resolution of the complaint, to which the defendant will have the opportunity to respond within 10 days of service of the petition, unless otherwise directed by the Commission. To allow for sufficient time to consider the petition for temporary standstill prior to the expiration of the existing programming contract, the petition for temporary standstill and complaint shall be filed no later than thirty (30) days prior to the expiration of the existing programming contract.
47 CFR 76.1513(a) permits any party aggrieved by conduct that it believes constitute a violation of the FCC's regulations or in section 653 of the Communications Act (47 U.S.C. 573) to
47 CFR 76.1513(b) provides that an open video system operator may not provide in its carriage contracts with programming providers that any dispute must be submitted to arbitration, mediation, or any other alternative method for dispute resolution prior to submission of a complaint to the Commission.
47 CFR 76.1513(c) requires that any aggrieved party intending to file a complaint under this section must first notify the potential defendant open video system operator that it intends to file a complaint with the Commission based on actions alleged to violate one or more of the provisions contained in this part or in Section 653 of the Communications Act. The notice must be in writing and must be sufficiently detailed so that its recipient(s) can determine the specific nature of the potential complaint. The potential complainant must allow a minimum of ten (10) days for the potential defendant(s) to respond before filing a complaint with the Commission.
47 CFR 76.1513(d) describes the contents of an open video system complaint.
47 CFR 76.1513(e) addresses answers to open video system complaints.
47 CFR 76.1513(f) states within twenty (20) days after service of an answer, the complainant may file and serve a reply which shall be responsive to matters contained in the answer and shall not contain new matters.
47 CFR 76.1513(g) requires that any complaint filed pursuant to this subsection must be filed within one year of the date on which one of three events occurs.
47 CFR 76.1513(h) states that upon completion of the adjudicatory proceeding, the Commission shall order appropriate remedies, including, if necessary, the requiring carriage, awarding damages to any person denied carriage, or any combination of such sanctions. Such order shall set forth a timetable for compliance, and shall become effective upon release.
82 FR 48810.
Tuesday, October 24, 2017 at 11:15 a.m. and its Continuation at the Conclusion of the Open Meeting on October 26, 2017.
This meeting was held on Tuesday, October 24 at 10:30 a.m. and continued on Tuesday, November 7, 2017 at 10:00 a.m.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Federal Trade Commission.
Proposed consent agreement.
The consent agreement in this matter settles alleged violations of federal law prohibiting unfair methods of competition. The attached Analysis to Aid Public Comment describes both the allegations in the complaint and the terms of the consent orders—embodied in the consent agreement—that would settle these allegations.
Comments must be received on or before December 5, 2017.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Joseph A. Lipinsky, Northwest Region, (206-220-4473), 915 Second Ave., Room 2896, Seattle, WA 98174.
Pursuant to Section 6(f) of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 2.34, 16 CFR 2.34, notice is hereby given that the above-captioned consent agreement containing a consent order to cease and desist, having been filed with and accepted, subject to final approval, by the Commission, has been placed on the public record for a period of thirty (30) days. The following Analysis to Aid Public Comment describes the terms of the consent agreement, and the allegations in the complaint. An electronic copy of the full text of the consent agreement package can be obtained from the FTC Home Page (for November 3, 2017), on the World Wide Web, at
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before December 5, 2017. Write “In the Matter of Red Ventures Holdco, LP and Bankrate, Inc., File No. 1710196” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the public Commission Web site, at
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you prefer to file your comment on paper, write “In the Matter of Red Ventures Holdco, LP and Bankrate, Inc., File No. 1710196” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite CC-5610 (Annex D), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your
Because your comment will be placed on the publicly accessible FTC Web site at
Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must be filed in paper form, must be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and must comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record.
Visit the FTC Web site at
The Federal Trade Commission (“Commission”) has accepted, subject to final approval, an Agreement Containing Consent Order (“Consent Agreement”) with Red Ventures Holdco, LP (“Red Ventures”) and Bankrate, Inc. (“Bankrate”). The Consent Agreement is intended to remedy the anticompetitive effects that likely would result from Red Ventures' proposed acquisition of Bankrate (the “Transaction”). Under the Consent Agreement, Red Ventures will divest
The Transaction, if consummated, would result in the likely lessening of competition between the two leading providers of third-party paid referral services for senior living facilities. Senior living facility operators use a variety of methods to find residents, including in-house marketing efforts, unpaid referrals from doctors or other professionals working with the elderly, and third-party paid referral services. The evidence shows that third-party paid referral services for senior living facilities represents a relevant product market, and that A Place for Mom (“APFM”) and
The Proposed Order preserves competition between APFM and
Red Ventures is a marketing company providing proprietary internet content and customer leads in a variety of industries. Two of its largest shareholders are private equity firms General Atlantic and Silver Lake Partners. They control two of the seven positions on the board of Red Ventures GP, LLC, the entity that manages Red Ventures, and they have approval rights for two other positions. They also must approve significant capital expenditures by Red Ventures. General Atlantic and Silver Lake jointly own APFM, which is the largest third-party paid referral service company for senior living facilities.
Bankrate is a marketing company providing proprietary internet content and customer leads for providers in a variety of industries. In connection with the market for providing leads for senior living facilities, Bankrate owns and operates
Pursuant to an agreement executed on July 2, 2017, Red Ventures agreed to acquire 100 percent of Bankrate.
The Commission's Complaint alleges that the relevant product market within which to analyze the Transaction is third-party paid referral services for senior living facility operators.
Senior living facilities provide a range of specialized long-term residential living options tailored to the needs of senior consumers. Referral services companies generate and collect customer leads for senior living facilities. While many small referral services companies generate leads through marketing and networking efforts similar to those used by real estate agents, APFM and
Once the referral services companies qualify the leads, they provide the customer leads to the senior living facilities operators. The senior living facilities' sales staff then contacts the leads and seeks to consummate sales. When a consumer moves into a senior living facility, the senior living facility operator pays the referral services company a referral fee, typically based on a percentage of the first month's rent and care.
The Commission's Complaint alleges that the relevant geographic market in which to analyze the effects of the Merger is the United States. Although
The Commission's Complaint alleges that
The Commission's Complaint alleges that the Transaction, if consummated, may substantially lessen present and future competition between APFM and
General Atlantic and Silver Lake have the ability to influence or control the management of
Entry into the relevant market would not be timely, likely, or sufficient to deter or counteract the anticompetitive effects of the Transaction. The primary barrier to entry is the network and scale needed to acquire and convert qualified leads into actual move-ins at senior living facilities. This requires the ability not only to compete effectively in search engine optimization and marketing, but also to establish contracts with hundreds of senior living facilities nationwide, and have the necessary infrastructure, including experienced senior advisors, to convert leads into paying referrals.
The Proposed Order resolves the anticompetitive concerns raised by the Transaction by eliminating the only overlap between Red Ventures/Bankrate and APFM. The Proposed Order restores current and potential competition by accepting a divestiture of the
The Proposed Order allows the Commission to appoint a monitor to ensure compliance with the terms of the Proposed Order, including the provision of transition services to an acquirer and firewalls related to
The Commission does not intend this analysis to constitute an official interpretation of the proposed Order or to modify its terms in any way.
By direction of the Commission.
Section 7A of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18a, as added by Title II of the Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvements Act of 1976, requires persons contemplating certain mergers or acquisitions to give the Federal Trade Commission and the Assistant Attorney General advance notice and to wait designated periods before consummation of such plans. Section 7A(b)(2) of the Act permits the agencies, in individual cases, to terminate this waiting period prior to its expiration and requires that notice of this action be published in the
The following transactions were granted early termination—on the dates indicated—of the waiting period provided by law and the premerger notification rules. The listing for each transaction includes the transaction number and the parties to the transaction. The grants were made by the Federal Trade Commission and the Assistant Attorney General for the Antitrust Division of the Department of Justice. Neither agency intends to take any action with respect to these proposed acquisitions during the applicable waiting period.
Theresa Kingsberry, Program Support Specialist, Federal Trade Commission Premerger Notification Office, Bureau of Competition, Room CC-5301, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 326-3100.
By direction of the Commission.
Section 7A of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18a, as added by Title II of the Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvements Act of 1976, requires persons contemplating certain mergers or acquisitions to give the Federal Trade Commission and the Assistant Attorney General advance notice and to wait designated periods before consummation of such plans. Section 7A(b)(2) of the Act permits the agencies, in individual cases, to terminate this waiting period prior to its expiration and requires that notice of this action be published in the
The following transactions were granted early termination—on the dates indicated—of the waiting period provided by law and the premerger notification rules. The listing for each transaction includes the transaction number and the parties to the transaction. The grants were made by the Federal Trade Commission and the Assistant Attorney General for the Antitrust Division of the Department of Justice. Neither agency intends to take any action with respect to these proposed acquisitions during the applicable waiting period.
Theresa Kingsberry, Program Support Specialist, Federal Trade Commission Premerger Notification Office, Bureau of Competition, Room CC-5301, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 326-3100.
By direction of the Commission.
Data collection efforts previously approved for JSA, include: Data collection activities to document program implementation, a staff survey, a baseline information form for program participants, and a follow-up survey for JSA participants approximately 6 months after program enrollment. Approval for these activities expires on February 28, 2018.
This
In compliance with the requirements of Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201, Attn: OPRE Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
Attn: Desk Officer for the Administration for Children and Families.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Advisory Committee to the Director, National Institutes of Health.
The meeting will be open to the public, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Sleep Disorders Research Advisory Board.
The meeting will be open to the public, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia (FEMA-4338-DR), dated September 15, 2017, and related determinations.
This amendment was issued October 26, 2017.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of September 15, 2017.
DeKalb and Haralson Counties for Public Assistance [Categories C-G] (already designated for debris removal and emergency protective measures [Categories A and B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program).
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Committee management; notice of open Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) National Advisory Council (NAC) will meet in person on November 28-30, 2017 in Washington, DC. The meeting will be open to the public.
The NAC will meet Tuesday, November 28, 2017 from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Wednesday, November 29, 2017 from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., and Thursday, November 30, 2017 from 8:30 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time (EST). Please note that the meeting may close early if the NAC has completed its business.
The meeting will be held at The National Association of Counties located at 660 North Capitol Street NW., Washington, DC 20001. It is recommended that attendees register with FEMA by November 21 by providing their name, telephone number, email address, title, and organization to the person listed in
For information on facilities or services for people with disabilities and others with access and functional needs, or to request assistance at the meeting, contact the person listed in
To facilitate public participation, members of the public are invited to provide written comments on the issues to be considered by the NAC. The “Agenda” section below outlines these issues. The full agenda and any related documents for this meeting will be posted by Friday, November 17 on the NAC Web site at
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A public comment period will be held on Wednesday, November 29 from 1:30 p.m. to 1:45 p.m. EST. All speakers must limit their comments to 5 minutes. Comments should be addressed to the NAC. Any comments not related to the agenda topics will not be considered by the NAC. To register to make remarks during the public comment period, contact the individual listed in
Deana Platt, Designated Federal Officer, Office of the National Advisory Council, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3184, telephone (202) 646-2700, fax (540) 504-2331, and email
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. Appendix.
The NAC advises the FEMA Administrator on all aspects of emergency management. The NAC incorporates state, local, and tribal government, and private sector input in the development and revision of FEMA plans and strategies. The NAC includes a cross-section of officials, emergency managers, and emergency response providers from state, local, and tribal governments, the private sector, and nongovernmental organizations.
On Wednesday, November 29, the NAC will hear from the Office of Response and Recovery and will engage in an open discussion with the FEMA Administrator. The three NAC subcommittees (Federal Insurance and Mitigation Subcommittee, Preparedness and Protection Subcommittee, and Response and Recovery Subcommittee) will provide reports to the NAC about their work, whereupon the NAC will deliberate on any recommendations presented in the subcommittees' reports, and, if appropriate, vote on recommendations for the FEMA Administrator. Potential recommendation topics include (1) disaster housing and (2) disaster costs.
On Thursday, November 30, the NAC will review potential topics for research before the next in-person meeting, review agreed upon recommendations, and confirm charges for the subcommittees.
The full agenda and any related documents for this meeting will be posted by Friday, November 17 on the NAC Web site at
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before October 21, 2017, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by November 29, 2017.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before October 21, 2017. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Nominations submitted by State Historic Preservation Officers:
A request to move has been received for the following resource:
Additional documentation has been received for the following resource:
60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before October 28, 2017, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by November 29, 2017.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before October 28, 2017. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Nominations submitted by State Historic Preservation Officers:
Nomination submitted by Federal Preservation Officer:
The State Historic Preservation Officer reviewed the following nomination and responded to the Federal Preservation Officer within 45 days of receipt of the nomination and supports listing the property in the National Register of Historic Places.
60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before October 14, 2017, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by November 29, 2017.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before October 14, 2017. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Nominations submitted by State Historic Preservation Officers:
A request for removal has been made for the following resources:
Additional documentation has been received for the following resources:
60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
Bureau of Ocean Energy Management, Interior.
List of Restricted Joint Bidders.
Pursuant to the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM) regulatory restrictions on joint bidding, the Director of the BOEM is publishing a List of Restricted Joint Bidders. Each entity within one of the following groups is restricted from bidding with any entity in any of the other following groups at Outer Continental Shelf oil and gas lease sales to be held during the bidding period November 1, 2017, through April 30, 2018.
This List of Restricted Joint Bidders will cover the period November 1, 2017, through April 30, 2018, and replace the prior list published on April 28, 2017 (82 FR 19750), which covered the period of May 1, 2017, through October 31, 2017.
30 CFR 556.511-556.515.
United States International Trade Commission.
November 17, 2017 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-589 and 731-TA-1394-1396 (Preliminary) (Forged Steel Fittings from China, Italy, and Taiwan). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations on November 20, 2017; views of the Commission are currently scheduled to be completed and filed on November 28, 2017.
5.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until December 14, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Shawn Stevens, ATF Industry Liaison, Federal Explosives Licensing Center, either by mail at 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
On November 7, 2017, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Northern District of Ohio in the lawsuit entitled
The proposed consent decree resolves claims by the United States in the associated complaint under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (“CERCLA”) against Dover Chemical Corporation (“Dover Chemical”) for response actions and past and future response costs relating to Operable Unit 2 of the Dover Chemical Corporation Superfund Site in Dover, Ohio. Under the proposed consent decree, Dover Chemical agrees to perform the remedial actions, estimated to cost $7.4 million, selected by EPA. Dover also agrees to pay past and future response costs incurred by the United States. The proposed consent decree includes a covenant not to sue Dover Chemical under sections 106 and 107 of CERCLA or under section 7003 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (“RCRA”), conditioned upon the satisfactory performance by Dover Chemical of its obligations under the proposed consent decree.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the proposed consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Acting Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
Under Section 7003(d) of RCRA, a commenter may request an opportunity for a public meeting in the affected area.
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $51.00 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury. For a paper copy without the exhibits and signature pages, the cost is $8.75.
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.
The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice at least once monthly of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when agencies no longer need them for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives of the United States and to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking administrative, legal, research, or other value. NARA publishes notice in the
NARA must receive requests for copies in writing by December 13, 2017. Once NARA finishes appraising the records, we will send you a copy of the schedule you requested. We usually prepare appraisal memoranda that contain additional information concerning the records covered by a proposed schedule. You may also request these. If you do, we will also provide them once we have completed the appraisal. You have 30 days after we send to you these requested documents in which to submit comments.
You may request a copy of any records schedule identified in this notice by contacting Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA) using one of the following means:
You must cite the control number, which appears in parentheses after the name of the agency that submitted the schedule, and a mailing address. If you would like an appraisal report, please include that in your request.
Margaret Hawkins, Director, by mail at Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA), National Archives and Records Administration, 8601 Adelphi Road, College Park, MD 20740-6001, by phone at 301-837-1799, or by email at
NARA publishes notice in the
Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records on paper, film, magnetic tape, and other media. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing records retention periods and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. These schedules provide for timely transfer into the National Archives of historically valuable records and authorize the agency to dispose of all other records after the agency no longer needs them to conduct its business. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.
The schedules listed in this notice are media neutral unless otherwise specified. An item in a schedule is media neutral when an agency may apply the disposition instructions to records regardless of the medium in which it creates or maintains the records. Items included in schedules submitted to NARA on or after December 17, 2007, are media neutral unless the item is expressly limited to a specific medium. (See 36 CFR 1225.12(e).)
Agencies may not destroy Federal records without Archivist of the United States' approval. The Archivist approves destruction only after thoroughly considering the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value.
In addition to identifying the Federal agencies and any subdivisions requesting disposition authority, this notice lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records (or notes that the schedule has agency-wide applicability when schedules cover records that may be accumulated throughout an agency); provides the control number assigned to each schedule, the total number of schedule items, and the number of temporary items (the records proposed for destruction); and includes a brief description of the temporary records. The records schedule itself contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their disposition. If NARA staff has prepared an appraisal memorandum for the schedule, it also includes information about the records. You may request additional information about the disposition process at the addresses above.
1. Department of the Air Force, Air National Guard (DAA-AFU-2017-0004, 2 items, 1 temporary item). Records lacking historical value in a collection of records relating to actions of the Northeast Air Defense Sector (NEADS) on the day of the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, and several years afterwards. Included are records showing availability of personnel for December 2001 through May 2002, air tasking order printouts for 2002 through 2004, and electronic and audiovisual records that are duplicates, unreadable, or pertaining to non-significant matters unrelated to the terrorist attacks or their aftermath. Proposed for permanent retention are briefings, reports, emails, correspondence, audio recordings, and other records relating to NEADS operations, procedures, and policies regarding the terrorist attacks and their aftermath.
2. National Indian Gaming Commission, Agency-wide (DAA-0600-2017-0013, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Master files of two electronic information systems containing results, notes, checklists, and working papers for gaming minimum control standards, tribal facilities, and tribal financial statement audits.
3. National Indian Gaming Commission, Agency-wide (DAA-0600-2017-0014, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Master files of an electronic information system used to track the costs and billing for background investigations of casino management contractors.
4. National Indian Gaming Commission, Agency-wide (DAA-0600-2017-0015, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Master files of an electronic information system used as a workflow system to store information on tribal gaming casino contacts and third-party gaming management contracts review data.
5. National Indian Gaming Commission, Agency-wide (DAA-0600-2017-0016, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Master files of an electronic information system used to record, process, and report tribal fees and payments for internal accounting and external reporting of Class II and Class III tribal gaming operations.
6. Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of Legislative and Intergovernmental Affairs (DAA-0266-2016-0005, 2 items, 1 temporary item). Routine Congressional correspondence regarding constituent issues. Proposed for permanent retention are Congressional and intergovernmental records concerning proposed legislation, amendments to various acts, drafts of bills, and Congressional testimonies.
7. United States International Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary (DAA-0081-2017-0003, 13 items, 9 temporary items). Records to include master files of an electronic information system that maintains investigative case files for violations of import injuries, intellectual property-based imports, and related case exhibits. System also serves as a repository for violations of protective orders, action jackets related to operational matters, and mediation program records. Proposed for permanent retention are action jackets
10:00 a.m., Thursday, November 16, 2017.
Board Room, 7th Floor, Room 7047, 1775 Duke Street (All visitors must use Diagonal Road Entrance), Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
Open.
1. Corporate Stabilization Fund Quarterly Report.
2. NCUA's Rules and Regulations, Corporate Credit Unions.
3. NCUA's 2018—2019 Operating Fund Budget.
4. Overhead Transfer Rate Methodology.
11:30 a.m.
11:45 a.m., Thursday, November 16, 2017.
Board Room, 7th Floor, Room 7047, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
Closed.
1. Supervisory Action. Closed pursuant to Exemptions (8), (9)(i)(B), and (9)(ii).
2. Supervisory Action. Closed pursuant to Exemptions (8), (9)(i)(B), and (9)(ii).
Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, Telephone: 703-518-6304
National Endowment for the Humanities, National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities.
Notice of Meetings.
The National Endowment for the Humanities will hold eleven meetings of the Humanities Panel, a federal advisory committee, during December, 2017. The purpose of the meetings is for panel review, discussion, evaluation, and recommendation of applications for financial assistance under the National Foundation on the Arts and Humanities Act of 1965.
See
The meetings will be held at Constitution Center at 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20506, unless otherwise indicated.
Elizabeth Voyatzis, Committee Management Officer, 400 7th Street SW., Room 4060, Washington, DC 20506; (202) 606-8322;
Pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
Because these meetings will include review of personal and/or proprietary financial and commercial information given in confidence to the agency by grant applicants, the meetings will be closed to the public pursuant to sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6) of Title 5, U.S.C., as amended. I have made this determination pursuant to the authority granted me by the Chairman's Delegation of Authority to Close Advisory Committee Meetings dated April 15, 2016.
In accordance with the purposes of Sections 29 and 182b of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2232b), the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) will hold a meeting December 7-8, 2017, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Procedures for the conduct of and participation in ACRS meetings were published in the
Thirty-five hard copies of each presentation or handout should be provided 30 minutes before the meeting. In addition, one electronic copy of each presentation should be emailed to the Cognizant ACRS Staff one day before meeting. If an electronic copy cannot be provided within this timeframe, presenters should provide the Cognizant ACRS Staff with a CD containing each presentation at least 30 minutes before the meeting.
In accordance with Subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463 and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), certain portions of this meeting may be closed, as specifically noted above. Use of still, motion picture, and television cameras during the meeting may be limited to selected portions of the meeting as determined by the Chairman. Electronic recordings will be permitted only during the open portions of the meeting.
ACRS meeting agendas, meeting transcripts, and letter reports are available through the NRC Public Document Room at
Video teleconferencing service is available for observing open sessions of ACRS meetings. Those wishing to use this service should contact Mr. Theron Brown, ACRS Audio Visual Technician (301-415-6702), between 7:30 a.m. and 3:45 p.m. (ET), at least 10 days before the meeting to ensure the availability of this service. Individuals or organizations requesting this service will be responsible for telephone line charges and for providing the equipment and facilities that they use to establish the video teleconferencing link. The availability of video teleconferencing services is not guaranteed.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Overseas Private Investment Corporation (OPIC).
Notice and request for comments.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, agencies are required to publish a Notice in the
Comments must be received within thirty (30) calendar days of publication of this Notice.
Mail all comments and requests for copies of the subject form to OPIC's Agency Submitting Officer: James Bobbitt, Overseas Private Investment Corporation, 1100 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20527. See
OPIC Agency Submitting Officer: James Bobbitt, (202) 336-8558.
OPIC received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice published in
Overseas Private Investment Corporation (OPIC).
Notice and request for comments.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, agencies are required to publish a Notice in the
Comments must be received within thirty (30) calendar days of publication of this Notice.
Mail all comments and requests for copies of the subject form to OPIC's Agency Submitting Officer: James Bobbitt, Overseas Private Investment Corporation, 1100 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20527. See
OPIC Agency Submitting Officer: James Bobbitt, (202) 336-8558.
OPIC received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice published in
12:00 p.m. on Wednesday, November 15, 2017.
Closed Commission Hearing Room 10800.
This meeting will be closed to the public.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matters at the closed meeting.
Chairman Clayton, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matters of the closed meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
On September 8, 2017, NYSE American LLC (the “Exchange” or “NYSE American”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
NYSE American Rule 980NY governs the trading of ECOs in the Exchange's Complex Matching Engine (“CME”). As described more fully in the Notice, NYSE American proposes to amend NYSE American Rule 980NY to provide additional specificity, transparency, and clarity to its processing of ECOs. The proposal also corrects inaccuracies in NYSE American Rule 980NY.
The proposal amends NYSE American Rule 980NY(c), “Execution of Complex Orders,” to indicate that ECOs may be executed not only without consideration of prices of the same complex order that might be available on other exchanges, as the rule currently provides, but also without consideration of the prices of single-legged orders that might be available on other exchanges. In addition, the proposal revises and reorganizes current NYSE American Rule 980NY(c) by replacing current text and adding new paragraphs (ii), “Execution of Electronic Complex Orders During Core Trading,” and (iii), “Electronic Complex Orders in the Consolidated Book.”
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(iii), which incorporates existing paragraphs (c)(ii)(B) and (C) and renumbers them as (iii)(A) and (B), addresses incoming ECOs that are not marketable. New NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(iii)(A) makes clear that an ECO, or portion thereof, that is not executed on arrival will be ranked in the Consolidated Book and that any incoming orders and quotes that can trade with a resting ECO would execute according to NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(ii).
Because of the number of modifications to current NYSE American Rule 980NY(e), “Electronic Complex Order Auction (“COA”) Process,” the proposal deletes the existing rule in its entirety and replaces it with new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e), which is designed to describe the COA process more clearly, accurately, and logically.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(2) provides that, upon entry into the System, a COA-eligible order will trade immediately, in full or in a permissible ratio, with any ECOs resting in the Consolidated Book that are priced better than the contra-side Complex BBO.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(3) provides that NYSE American will initiate a COA by sending a request for response (“RFR”) message to all ATP Holders that subscribe to RFR messages. RFR messages will identify the component series, the size and side of the market of the order and any contingencies.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(4) defines the “Response Time Interval” (“RTI”) as the period of time during which RFR Responses may be entered. The rule further provides that NYSE American will determine the length of the RTI, provided, however, that the duration will not be less than 500 milliseconds and will not exceed one second. These provisions are consistent with current NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(3). Finally, new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(4) indicates
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(5), which describes the characteristics of RFR Responses, retains some provisions of current NYSE American Rules 980NY(e)(4) and (e)(7) and modifies other aspects of those rules. Specifically, new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(5) retains the following provisions in current NYSE American Rules 980NY(e)(4) and (7): Any ATP Holder may submit RFR Responses during the RTI;
New NYSE American Rules 980NY(e)(6)(A) and (B) replace existing NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(8), and new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(C) replaces existing NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(9). As noted above, the new rules introduce and incorporate the concept of the initial Complex BBO—the BBO for a given complex order strategy derived from the best bid (“BB”) and best offer (“BO”) for each individual component series of a complex order as recorded at the start of the RTI—as a benchmark against which incoming interest is measured to determine whether a COA should end early.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(A)(i) provides that incoming opposite-side ECOs or COA-eligible orders that lock or cross the initial Complex BBO will cause the COA to end early. If the incoming ECO or COA-eligible order is also executable against the limit price of the initiating COA-eligible order, it will be ranked with RFR Responses to execute with the COA-eligible order pursuant to new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(7).
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(A)(ii) provides that incoming opposite-side ECOs or COA-eligible orders that are executable against the limit price of the COA-eligible order, but do not lock or cross the initial Complex BBO, will not cause the COA to end early and will be ranked with RFR Responses to execute with the COA-eligible order pursuant to NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(7). NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(A)(iii) provides that incoming opposite-side ECOs or COA-eligible orders that are either not executable on arrival against the limit price of the initiating COA-eligible order or do not lock or cross the initial Complex BBO will not cause the COA to end early.
New NYSE American Rules 980NY(e)(6)(A)(iv) and (v) describe the treatment of incoming opposite-side ECOs and COA-eligible orders that do not execute with the initiating COA-eligible order or were not executable on arrival. An incoming opposite-side ECO that did not execute against the initiating COA-eligible order or was not executable on arrival will trade pursuant to NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(ii) or (iii).
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(B)(i) indicates that an incoming ECO or COA-eligible order on the same side of the market as the initiating COA-eligible order that is priced higher (lower) than the initiating COA-eligible order to buy (sell) will cause the COA to end early.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(C)(i) provides that updates to the leg markets that cause the same-side Complex BBO to lock or cross any RFR Response(s) and/or ECOs received during the RTI, or ECOs resting in the Consolidated Book, will cause the COA to end early.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(7), which describes the allocation of COA-eligible orders at the conclusion of a COA, will replace current NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6) in its entirety.
NYSE American also proposes to modify Commentary .02 to NYSE American Rule 980NY to make clear that the price improvement requirement provided in Commentary .02 applies if each leg of the contra-side Complex BBO for the components of the ECO includes Customer interest.
After careful review of the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as amended, is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
NYSE American Rule 980NY(c) currently provides that ECOs submitted
The Commission believes that the proposal to add new NYSE American Rules 980NY(c)(ii) and (iii), and the accompanying changes to delete certain existing rule text, will benefit market participants by more clearly describing, respectively, the treatment of incoming marketable ECOs (which are executed immediately) and incoming non-marketable ECOs (which are routed to the Consolidated Book) during Core Trading Hours. In particular, new NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(ii) specifies that an incoming marketable ECO would trade against the best-priced contra-side interest resting in the Consolidated Book. New NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(ii) further provides that if, at a price, the leg markets can execute against an incoming ECO in full (or in a permissible ratio), and each leg includes Customer interest, the leg markets (Customer and non-Customer interest) will have first priority at that price and will trade with the incoming ECO pursuant to NYSE American Rule 964NY(b) before ECOs resting in the Consolidated Book can trade at that price.
The Commission believes that the introductory language in new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e) is similar to the text of current NYSE American Rule 980NY(e), but provides additional clarity by indicating that an incoming ECO could execute immediately against interest resting in the Consolidated Book pursuant to NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(ii), or be subject to a COA.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(2) provides that, upon entry into the System, a COA-eligible order will trade immediately, in full or in a permissible ratio, with any ECOs resting in the Consolidated Book that are priced better than the contra-side Complex BBO. NYSE American believes that the immediate price improvement opportunity for an incoming COA-eligible order from ECOs resting in the Consolidated Book obviates the need to start a COA.
The Commission believes that new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(3)(i) could enhance competition by encouraging market participants to submit aggressively priced COA-eligible orders because only COA-eligible orders priced better than the same-side leg market and ECO interest would be able to initiate a COA. The Commission believes that new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(3)(ii) will provide NYSE American with flexibility to determine when the price of a COA-eligible order, based on the number of ticks away from the current contra-side market, warrants the initiation of a COA. The Commission believes that permitting only one COA at a time for any complex order strategy will help to provide for the orderly processing of trading interest on NYSE American.
As noted above,
As discussed more fully above, new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(5), which describes the characteristics of RFR Responses, retains features of the current provisions addressing RFR Responses,
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(A)(i) provides that incoming opposite-side ECOs or COA-eligible orders that lock or cross the initial Complex BBO will cause the COA to end early.
New NYSE American Rule 980(e)(6)(A)(ii) provides that incoming opposite-side ECO or COA-eligible orders that are executable against the limit price of the COA-eligible order, but do not lock or cross the initial Complex BBO, will not cause the COA to end early and will be ranked with RFR Responses to execute with the COA-eligible order pursuant to NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(7). The Commission believes that allowing the COA to continue under these circumstances could provide the potential for the COA-eligible order to receive price improvement as the auction continues. The Commission notes that, in this case, the incoming contra-side interest does not raise leg market priority concerns that would require an early termination of the COA because the incoming contra-side interest does not lock or cross the initial Complex BBO.
NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(A)(iii) provides that incoming opposite-side ECOs or COA-eligible orders that are either not executable on arrival against the limit price of the initiating COA-eligible order or do not lock or cross the initial Complex BBO will not cause the COA to end early. The Commission believes that because the incoming contra-side interest does not lock or cross the initial Complex BBO, it is not necessary to end the COA early to protect the priority of interest in the leg market under these circumstances.
New NYSE American Rules 980NY(e)(6)(A)(iv) and (v) describe the treatment of incoming opposite-side ECOs and COA-eligible orders that did not execute with the initiating COA-eligible order or were not executable on arrival. Such an incoming opposite-side ECO would trade pursuant to NYSE American Rule 980NY(c)(ii) or (iii), and an incoming opposite-side COA-eligible order would initiate a subsequent COA. The Commission believes that allowing these incoming ECOs and COA-eligible orders to trade with interest resting in the Consolidated Book, or to initiate a new COA, as applicable, will allow NYSE American to provide additional execution opportunities for these orders. In addition, the Commission believes that new NYSE American Rules 980NY(e)(6)(A)(iv) and (v) will enhance the transparency of NYSE American's rules by providing additional detail regarding the treatment of incoming opposite-side ECOs and COA-eligible
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(B) states that when a COA ends early, or at the end of the RTI, the initiating COA-eligible order will execute pursuant to new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(7) ahead of any interest that arrived during the COA. The Commission believes that this provision establishes the priority of the initiating COA-eligible order to trade before trading interest that arrives during the auction. The Commission notes that the rules of two other options exchanges similarly establish the priority of the auctioned order to trade prior to interest that arrives during the auction.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(B)(i) indicates that an incoming ECO or COA-eligible order on the same side of the market as the initiating COA-eligible order that is priced higher (lower) than the initiating COA-eligible order to buy (sell) will cause the COA to end early.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(B)(ii) provides that an incoming same-side ECO or COA-eligible order that is priced equal to or lower (higher) than the initiating COA-eligible order to buy (sell), and that also locks or crosses the contra-side initial Complex BBO, will cause the COA to end early. NYSE American states that ending the COA early under these circumstances will allow the COA-eligible order to execute, ahead of the incoming order, against RFR Responses or ECOs received during the RTI until the point, while preserving the priority of the incoming order to trade with the resting leg markets.
New NYSE American Rules 980NY(e)(6)(B)(iv), (v), and (vi) further describe the treatment of incoming same-side COA-eligible orders or ECOs received during the RTI. An incoming same-side ECO or COA-eligible order that caused a COA to end early, if executable, will trade against any RFR Responses and/or ECOs received during the RTI that did not trade with the initiating COA-eligible order.
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(B)(iii) states that an incoming same-side ECO or COA-eligible order that is priced equal to, or lower (higher) than the initiating COA-eligible order to buy (sell), but does not lock or cross the contra-side initial Complex BBO, will not cause the COA to end early. The Commission believes that, under these circumstances, the incoming same-side interest does not raise leg market priority concerns that would require an early termination of the COA because the incoming interest does not lock or cross the contra-side initial Complex BBO.
The Commission believes that new NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6)(C) will provide greater clarity and specificity regarding the impact of leg market updates on the COA. The Commission believes that providing for an early end to the COA when the leg market updates cause the same-side Complex BBO to lock or cross RFR Responses or ECOs received during the RTI, or ECOs resting in the Consolidated Book,
New NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(7), which describes the allocation of COA-eligible orders at the conclusion of a COA, will replace current NYSE American Rule 980NY(e)(6) in its entirety.
The Commission believes that the proposed changes to Commentary .02 to NYSE American Rule 980NY clarify the circumstances under which an ECO that executes against another ECO must trade at a price that is better than leg market interest. Specifically, Commentary .02 indicates that the ECOs must trade at an improved price when each leg of the contra-side Complex BBO for the components of the ECO includes Customer interest.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning whether Amendment No. 1 is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, prior to the thirtieth day after the date of publication of the notice of Amendment No. 1 in the
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice.
Notice of an application for an order under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act and under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and (2) of the Act.
The requested order would permit certain registered open-end investment companies to acquire shares of certain registered open-end investment companies that are outside of the same group of investment companies as the acquiring investment companies, in
Meeder Funds Trust (the “Trust”), a Massachusetts business trust registered under the Act as an open-end investment company with multiple series; Meeder Asset Management, Inc., an Ohio corporation registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Adviser,”), and Adviser Dealer Services, Inc. (the “Distributor”), an Ohio corporation registered as a broker-dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”).
The application was filed on May 16, 2017 and amended on September 15, 2017.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on December 4, 2017 and should be accompanied by proof of service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit, or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to Rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Michael Wible, Thompson Hine LLP, 41 South High Street, Suite 1700, Columbus, Ohio 43215.
James D. McGinnis, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-3025, or Parisa Haghshenas, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6723 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Applicants request an order to permit (a) registered open-end management investment companies (the “Investing Funds”) that are not part of the same “group of investment companies,” as defined in section 12(d)(1)(G)(ii) of the Act, as the Trust, to acquire shares in series of the Trust (the “Funds”)
2. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the Application. Such terms and conditions are designed to, among other things, help prevent any potential (i) undue influence over a Fund through control or in connection with certain services, transactions, and underwritings; (ii) excessive layering of fees; and (iii) overly complex fund structures, which are the concerns underlying the limits in sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
3. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
On July 28, 2017, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to adopt equities trading rules to implement Pillar, a new trading technology platform, in order to introduce trading of UTP Securities on the Exchange. Under the proposal, the Pillar platform rules, as set forth in NYSE Rules 1P-13P, would govern trading in UTP Securities on the Exchange.
Pursuant to the proposal, UTP Securities would trade under the Exchange's current parity allocation model.
The Exchange represents that the proposal to trade UTP Securities on Pillar is based in part on the equity trading rules of NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”) and NYSE American LLC (“NYSE American”), with the following substantive differences. First, as noted earlier, the Exchange would use a parity allocation model with a setter priority allocation for the participant that sets the best bid or offer on the Exchange (“BBO”).
The Exchange represents that it will announce the implementation of trading UTP Securities on Pillar by a Trader Update. The Exchange anticipates that the implementation will occur in the first quarter of 2018. If the Exchange begins trading UTP Securities on Pillar, certain current NYSE trading rules would not be applicable. The Exchange proposes to mark the affected Exchange rules with a preamble to state that the rules are not applicable to trading UTP Securities on Pillar.
The Notice contains a detailed description of the proposal. The following section briefly summarizes the proposal.
The Exchange proposes several new rules and changes to existing rules in NYSE Rule 7P. Currently, Section 1 of NYSE Rule 7P sets forth general provisions relating to equities trading on Pillar, such as hours of business and clearance and settlement. The Exchange proposes to add NYSE Rules 7.10 (clearly erroneous executions); 7.11 (limit up-limit down); and 7.16 (short sales) to Section 1 of NYSE Rule 7P and amend NYSE Rule 7.18 (halts).
Section 3 of NYSE Rule 7P sets forth the rules for trading on Pillar. The Exchange proposes to add to this section new NYSE Rules 7.31 (orders and modifiers); 7.34 (trading sessions); 7.36 (order ranking and display); 7.37 (order execution and routing); and 7.38 (odd and mixed lots). Finally, the Exchange proposes to add new NYSE Rule 7.46 to Section 5 of NYSE Rule 7P to establish rules to implement the Tick Size Pilot Plan.
The Exchange proposes to establish rules relating to clearly erroneous executions, the limit up-limit down plan, short sales, and trading halts with respect to UTP Securities.
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.10 would set forth the Exchange's rules governing clearly erroneous executions.
The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based on NYSE Arca Rule 7.10-E and NYSE American Rule 7.10E, except that the proposed rule would omit references to: (1) The Late Trading Session,
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.11 would establish rules governing how the Exchange would comply with the Regulation NMS Plan to Address Extraordinary Market Volatility (“LULD Plan”). The LULD Plan addresses extraordinary market volatility and is intended to prevent trades in NMS securities from occurring outside of specified price bands, and the proposed rule would implement the LULD Plan on the Exchange's Pillar platform. The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based on NYSE American 7.11E with the following differences: (1) There would be no option for member organizations to enter an instruction to cancel Limit Orders that cannot be traded or routed at prices within the price bands; (2) there would be no provisions and references relating to Q Orders, Limit IOC Cross Orders, or orders with specific routing instructions because the Exchange will not offer these order types;
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.16 would set forth the Exchange's short sale rule, which would govern short sales and compliance with Regulation SHO. The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based on NYSE Arca Rule 7.16-E and NYSE American Rule 7.16E with two substantive differences. First, because the proposed rule would not apply to the Exchange's listed securities, the Exchange would not evaluate the triggering of the short sale price restrictions pursuant to Rule 201 of Regulation SHO for covered securities in which the Exchange is not the listing market.
Current NYSE Rule 7.18 governs trading halts in an UTP Security. The Exchange proposes to add proposed Rule 7.18(b), which would set forth how the Exchange would process new and existing orders in an UTP Security during an UTP Regulatory Halt.
The Exchange proposes trading rules for Pillar, including a description of order types and modifiers, trading sessions, how orders are displayed and ranked, how orders are executed and routed, and how odd lots and mixed lots are ranked and executed.
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.31 would set forth the primary order types, as well as time-in-force modifiers, auction-only orders, orders with conditional or undisplayed price and/or size, orders with instructions not to route, pegged orders, and other order instructions and modifiers that would be available on Pillar. The Exchange represents that the proposed orders and modifiers are a subset of those offered on NYSE Arca and NYSE American, with several substantive differences.
The proposed NYSE rule differs from the NYSE Arca and NYSE American rules as follows: (1) NYSE would not offer auctions in UTP Securities (Auction-Only Orders would be routed to the primary listing markets); (2) Limit Orders entered before the Core Trading Session would be designated for both the Early and Core Trading Sessions; (3) the Exchange would not offer the option to designate certain orders with a Non-Display Remove Modifier; (4) Intermarket Sweep Orders would not be available to floor brokers; (5) Pegged Orders would be available only to floor brokers;
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.34 would specify that the Exchange would operate Early and Core Trading Sessions. The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based on NYSE Arca Rule 7.34-E and NYSE American Rule 7.34E, except for the following substantive differences: (1) The Exchange would offer two trading sessions—an Early Trading Session and a Core Trading Session—instead of three trading sessions;
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.36 would set forth how orders are ranked and displayed, and the priority of orders. As noted earlier, the Exchange would use a parity allocation model for the trading of UTP securities. The Exchange represents that proposed subsections NYSE Rule 7.36(a)-(g) are based on NYSE Arca Rule 7.36-E(a)-(g) and NYSE American Rule 7.36(a)-(g) with several substantive differences. The Exchange would add the term “Participant” based on the term “individual participant” in current NYSE Rule 72(c)(ii), and a new term “Aggressing Order.”
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.36(h) sets forth the rules for Setter Priority. The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based in part on current NYSE Rule 72, with several substantive differences: (1) In addition to establishing the BBO,
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.37 would govern how orders would execute and route. Proposed NYSE Rule 7.37(a) would govern order execution. Proposed NYSE Rule 7.37(b) would govern order allocation, as described further below. And proposed NYSE Rule 7.37(c)-(g) would govern routing, the data feeds the Exchange would use, the prohibition on quotations that lock or cross the protected best bid or offer, and exceptions to the Commission's Order Protection Rule.
The Exchange represents that proposed Rule 7.37 is based on NYSE Arca Rule 7.37-E(a)-(f) and NYSE American Rule 7.37E(a)-(f), with the following substantive differences. The proposed rule would not include references to Inside Limit Orders and orders with specific routing instructions since the Exchange will not offer these order types. Proposed NYSE Rule 7.37 would not include rule text from NYSE Arca Rules 7.37-E(b)(3) or (d)(1)
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.37(b) would establish how Aggressing Orders are allocated against contra-side orders. The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based in part on current NYSE Rule 72(c) with the following substantive differences: (1) The Exchange would maintain separate allocation wheels at each price for displayed and non-displayed orders on each side of the market;
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.38 sets forth how odd-lot and mixed-lot orders would be ranked and executed. The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based on NYSE Arca Rule 7.38-E and NYSE American 7.38E, except that, if the display price of an odd-lot order to buy (sell) is greater than (less than) its working price, the order would be ranked and allocated based on its display price.
Proposed NYSE Rule 7.46 sets forth the rules for the Tick Size Pilot Plan. The Exchange represents that the proposed rule is based on NYSE American Rule 7.46E, except that: (1) The Exchange would not include text relating to Market Pegged Orders or Limit IOC Cross Orders (as the Exchange would not offer these orders); (2)
The Exchange proposes to amend NYSE Rule 103B(I) (Security Allocation and Reallocation) to state that UTP Securities will not be allocated to a DMM Unit. Also, the Exchange proposes to amend NYSE Rule 107B (Supplemental Liquidity Providers) to change “NYSE-listed securities” to “NYSE-traded securities.” According to the Exchange, the change reflects that UTP Securities would be eligible for assignment to Supplemental Liquidity Providers.
The Exchange does not plan to offer a retail liquidity program for UTP Securities on Pillar. For this reason, the Exchange proposes that NYSE Rule 107C would not apply to trading UTP Securities on Pillar. Also, proposed rules based on NYSE Arca rules that cross reference NYSE Arca Rule 7.44-E would not include that rule reference.
Under the Exchange's proposal, several current NYSE rules would not apply to trading in UTP Securities as they are superseded by the proposed rules. Several additional rules, which do not have counterparts in the proposed Pillar rules, would not apply to trading in UTP Securities as they are related to auctions and floor-based point-of-sale trading. Further information about current NYSE rules that would not apply to UTP trading on the Pillar platform can be found in the Notice.
The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act, the Commission is providing notice of the grounds for disapproval under consideration. In particular, the Commission is instituting proceedings to allow for additional analysis of the proposed rule change's consistency with Sections 6(b)(5) and 6(b)(8) of the Act.
As discussed above, NYSE proposes to commence UTP trading of Tape B and C securities and to do so on its new Pillar trading platform. There would be no DMM assigned to UTP Securities; there would be no Floor-based point of sale for UTP Securities; the Exchange would not conduct auctions in UTP Securities; and the Exchange would allocate executions in UTP Securities using a modified version of its parity allocation system, granting one place on the allocation wheel to each Floor Broker Participant and one place on the allocation wheel to orders collectively represented in the Exchange Book. Additionally, Floor Brokers would be able to use certain order types, such as Pegging Orders, that would not be available to other market participants.
The Commission seeks commenters' views on whether the Exchange's proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) and Section 6(b)(8) of the Act. In particular, the Commission seeks commenters' view on the following questions.
• Unlike the Exchange's existing trading model for its listed securities, there would be no DMM assigned to UTP Securities, no Floor-based point of sale for UTP Securities, no Crossing Orders, and no auction in UTP Securities. Given these differences from the market structure in which Floor Brokers currently operate, what are commenters' views on the role that Floor Brokers would play in trading UTP Securities on the Exchange?
• What benefits or costs, if any, would the activities of Floor Brokers create for trading of UTP Securities on the Exchange? What benefits or costs, if any, would accrue to the customers of the Floor Brokers? Would these benefits or costs vary depending on the type of Floor Broker customer or the means the customer used to submit an order through a Floor Broker? What benefits or costs, if any, would accrue to participants on the Exchange that are not customers of a Floor Broker?
• Would providing Floor Brokers with parity allocation in UTP Securities, or providing them with exclusive use of certain order instructions, unfairly discriminate against market participants who do not submit orders through a Floor Broker? Would providing parity to Floor Brokers, or providing them with exclusive use of certain order instructions, impose a burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate?
The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data and arguments with respect to the concerns identified above, as well as any others they may have with the proposal. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is inconsistent with Section 6(b)(5), Section 6(b)(8), or any other provision of the Act, or the rules and regulation
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments regarding whether the proposal should be disapproved by December 5, 2017. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by December 19, 2017.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On September 12, 2017, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On February 10, 2017, the Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc. (“CHX” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”)
Pursuant to Commission Rule of Practice 431,
Accordingly,
It is further
By the Commission.
On September 7, 2017, Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider the proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
60-Day notice and request for comments.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) intends to request approval, from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the collection of information described below. The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, requires federal agencies to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before January 16, 2018.
Send all comments to Andrea Giles, Supervisory Financial Analyst, Office of Credit Risk Management, Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street, 7th Floor, Washington, DC 20416.
Andrea Giles, Supervisory Financial Analyst, 202-205-6301,
Small Business Lending Companies (SBLCs) and Non-federally regulated lenders (NFRLs). NFRL's are non-depository lending institutions authorized by SBA primarily to make loans under section 7(a) of the Small Business Act. As sole regulator of these institutions, SBA requires them to submit audited financial statements annually as well as interim, quarterly financial statements and other reports to facilitate the Agency's oversight of these lenders.
SBA is requesting comments on (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly
Based upon a review of the Administrative Record assembled pursuant to Section 219(a)(4)(C) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1189(a)(4)(C)) (“INA”), and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I conclude that the circumstances that were the basis for the designation of the aforementioned organization as a Foreign Terrorist Organization have not changed in such a manner as to warrant revocation of the designation and that the national security of the United States does not warrant a revocation of the designation. Therefore, I hereby determine that the designation of the aforementioned organization as a Foreign Terrorist Organization, pursuant to Section 219 of the INA (8 U.S.C. 1189), shall be maintained.
This determination shall be published in the
Surface Transportation Board.
Notice; correction.
The Surface Transportation Board (STB) published a document in the
Alexander Dusenberry, (202) 245-0319.
In the
The waybill sample contains confidential railroad and shipper data; therefore, if any parties object to these requests, they should file their objections with the Director of the Board's Office of Economics by November 22, 2017.
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Additional information about participation; request for comments and notice of public hearing.
In a
November 20, 2017 at midnight EST: Deadline for submission of written comments and requests to testify at the public hearing.
November 29, 2017 at midnight EST: Deadline for submission of written responses to the initial round of comments.
December 6, 2017 at 9:30 a.m. EST: The TPSC will hold a public hearing in Rooms 1 and 2, 1724 F Street NW., Washington DC.
USTR strongly prefers electronic submissions made through the Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Victor Mroczka, Office of WTO and Multilateral Affairs, at
In response to inquiries from interested parties, USTR is providing the following clarifying information about the procedures for participation in the TPSC process. Please review the
• You should include a summary of no more than two pages that identifies the key points with your written comment.
• The deadline to submit both written comments and requests to testify at the hearing is November 20, 2017 at midnight EST. A request to testify must include your comments.
• The TPSC will not accept written testimony at the hearing. You must include any materials you intend to use during your testimony with the written comments you submitted.
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice of statistics availability and deadline for submission of petitions.
Import statistics for the first nine months of 2017 relating to competitive need limitations (CNLs) under the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) program are available on the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR). These import statistics identify some articles for which the 2017 trade levels may exceed statutory CNLs.
In a
The GSP Subcommittee of the Trade Policy Staff Committee (TPSC) must receive your CNL waiver petition by midnight, December 5, 2017.
USTR strongly prefers electronic submissions made through the Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Naomi Freeman at (202) 395-2974 or
The GSP program provides for the duty-free treatment of designated articles when imported from designated BDCs. The GSP program is authorized by Title V of the Trade Act of 1974 (19 U.S.C. 2461
Section 503(c)(2)(A) of the Trade Act (19 U.S.C. 2463(c)(2)(A)) sets out the two different measures for CNLs. When the President determines that a BDC has exported to the United States during a calendar year either (1) a quantity of a GSP-eligible article having a value in excess of the applicable amount for that year ($180 million for 2017), or (2) a quantity of a GSP-eligible article having a value equal to or greater than 50 percent of the value of total U.S. imports of the article from all countries (50 percent CNL), the President must terminate GSP duty-free treatment for that article from that BDC no later than July 1st of the next calendar year, unless the President grants a waiver before the exclusion goes into effect. Interested parties should submit CNL waiver petitions based on 2017 annual review procedures in the event that the Congress extends the GSP program beyond its current December 31, 2017 expiration date. CNLs do not apply to least-developed countries or beneficiaries of the African Growth and Opportunity Act.
Any interested party may submit a petition seeking a waiver of the 2017 CNL for individual BDCs with respect to specific GSP-eligible articles. In addition, under section 503(c)(2)(F) of the Trade Act (19 U.S.C. 2463(c)(2)(F)), the President may waive the 50 percent CNL with respect to an eligible article imported from a BDC, if the value of total imports of that article from all countries during the calendar year did not exceed the applicable
USTR has compiled interim import statistics for the first nine months of 2017 to provide advance notice of articles that may exceed the CNLs shown below for 2017. You also can find this information on the USTR Web site at
USTR has organized the interim 2017 import statistics to show, for each article, the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading and BDC of origin, the value of imports of the article from the specified country for the first nine months of 2017, and the corresponding share of total imports of that article from all countries. The list includes the GSP-eligible articles from BDCs which, based on interim nine-month 2017 data, exceed $120 million, or an amount greater than 42 percent of the total value of U.S. imports of that product.
USTR is providing the list on its Web site, which includes the relevant nine-month trade statistics for each of these products, as a courtesy for informational purposes only. The list is based on interim 2017 trade data, and may not include all articles that may be affected by the GSP CNLs. Regardless of whether or not an article is included on the list referenced in this notice, all determinations and decisions regarding application of the CNLs of the GSP program will be based on full calendar-year 2017 import data for each GSP-eligible article. USTR advises interested parties to conduct their own review of anticipated full calendar-year 2017 import data with regard to the possible application of GSP CNLs.
In order to be assured of consideration, you must submit your petition by the midnight, December 5, 2017, deadline to docket number USTR-
The GSP Subcommittee strongly encourages on-line submissions, using the
USTR will not accept hand-delivered submissions. USTR will not accept submissions for review that do not provide the information required by sections 2007.0 and 2007.1 of the GSP regulations, except upon a detailed showing in the submission that the petitioner made a good faith effort to obtain the information required.
The
Please do not attach separate cover letters or data attachments to electronic submissions; rather, include any such information in the comments themselves. Similarly, to the extent possible, please include any exhibits, annexes, or other attachments in the same file as the comment itself, rather than submitting them as separate files.
For any electronic submissions that contain business confidential information, the file name of the business confidential version should begin with the characters “BC”. Any page containing business confidential information must be clearly marked “BUSINESS CONFIDENTIAL” on the top of that page and the submission should clearly indicate, via brackets, highlighting, or other means, the specific information that is business confidential. A filer requesting business confidential treatment must certify that the information is business confidential and would not customarily be released to the public by the submitter. Filers of submissions containing business confidential information also must submit a public version of their comments that we will place in the docket for public inspection. The file name of the public version should begin with the character “P”. The “BC” and “P” should be followed by the name of the person or entity submitting the comments. Filers submitting comments containing no business confidential information should name their file using the name of the person or entity submitting the comments.
You will receive a submission tracking number upon completion of the submissions procedure at
As noted, the GSP Subcommittee strongly urges submitters to file comments through
We will post comments in the docket for public inspection, except business confidential information. You can view comments on the
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Rescind Notice of Intent to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Taylorsville Mobility Study.
The FHWA is issuing this notice to advise the public that the Notice of Intent (NOI), issued on March 2, 2010, to prepare an EIS is being rescinded for the proposed Taylorsville Mobility Study transportation project. The proposed EIS was to analyze and address the regional transportation connectivity needs on the west side of the Salt Lake Valley in the area bounded by 6200 South, 4700 South; Bangerter Highway and Redwood Road in Salt Lake County, State of Utah. For Further Information, contact: Edward T. Woolford, Environmental Program Manager, Federal Highway Administration, 2520 West 4700 South, Suite 9A, Salt Lake City, Utah 84129, by telephone (801) 955-3524.
This Notice of Intent to prepare an EIS for the area mentioned is being rescinded after an initial planning analysis, conducted by FHWA and the Utah Department of Transportation, concluded the analysis did not lead to the initiation of an EIS or a Federal agency action.
23 U.S.C. 315; 49 CFR 1.48.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Notice of limitation on claims for judicial review of actions by the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans), pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 327.
The FHWA, on behalf of Caltrans, is issuing this notice to announce actions taken by Caltrans, that are final. The actions relate to the proposed highway project, Alameda Creek Bridge Replacement Project on State Route 84 (SR-84) between the City of Fremont and the town of Sunol in southern Alameda County, State of California. Those actions grant licenses, permits, and approvals for the project.
By this notice, the FHWA, on behalf of Caltrans, is advising the public of final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1). A claim seeking judicial review of the Federal Agency Actions on the highway project will be barred unless the claim is filed on or before April 13, 2018. If the Federal law that authorizes judicial review of a claim provides a time period of less than 150 days for filing such claim, then that shorter time period still applies.
For Caltrans: Brian Gassner, Environmental Branch Chief, Office of Environmental Analysis, California Department of Transportation—District 4, 111 Grand Avenue, Oakland, California, 8 a.m. to 5 p.m., (510) 286-6025,
Effective July 1, 2007, the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) assigned, and the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) assumed, environmental responsibilities for this project pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 327. Notice is hereby given that Caltrans, has taken final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1) by issuing licenses, permits, and approvals for the following highway project in the State of California. Caltrans proposes to replace the Alameda Creek Bridge and realign the bridge approaches on SR-84 from postmile 13.0 to 13.6. The project would replace the existing 1928, two-lane bridge with a new, two-lane structure with standard eight-foot wide shoulders, approximately 75 feet north of the existing bridge. The purpose of this project is to correct structural and geometric deficiencies of the Alameda Creek Bridge and its approaches while providing a facility that meets driver expectations of SR-84's operating speed, all of which improve safety. The actions by the Federal agencies, and the laws under which such actions were taken, are described in the Final Environmental Impact Report (EIR)/Environmental Assessment (EA) for the project, approved on September 25, 2017, and in the Caltrans Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) issued on August 16, 2017, and in other documents in the Caltrans project records. The Final EIR/EA, FONSI, and other project records are available by contacting Caltrans at the address provided above. The Caltrans Final EIR/EA and FONSI can be viewed and downloaded from the project Web site at
(1) Council on Environmental Quality regulations;
(2) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA);
(3) Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21);
(4) Department of Transportation Act of 1966;
(5) Federal Aid Highway Act of 1970;
(6) Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990;
(7) Noise Control Act of 1970;
(8) 23 CFR part 772 FHWA Noise Standards, Policies and Procedures;
(9) Department of Transportation Act of 1966, Section 4(f);
(10) Clean Water Act of 1977 and 1987;
(11) Endangered Species Act of 1973;
(12) Migratory Bird Treaty Act;
(13) National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended;
(14) Historic Sites Act of 1935;
(15) Executive Order 13112, Invasive Species;
(16) Executive Order 11990—Protection of Wetlands; and
(17) Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended.
23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1).
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; grant of application for exemption.
FMCSA announces its decision to grant Rail Delivery Services, Inc. (RDS), an exemption from the logbook requirements for its drivers who may not meet all of the conditions for utilization of the 100 air-mile radius log book exemption. This exemption enables RDS' drivers who stay within the 100 air-mile radius, but may occasionally take more than 12 hours to return to their work-reporting location, from having to complete a daily record of duty status (RODS) on those days. Instead the drivers will at all times use an electronic logging device system called Geotab to track all hours-of-service (HOS) data including real-time vehicle locations. FMCSA has analyzed the exemption application and the public comments and has determined that the exemption, subject to the terms and conditions imposed, is likely to achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.
The exemption is applicable from 12:01 a.m., November 14, 2017 through 11:59 p.m., November 14, 2022.
Mr. Thomas Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 614-942-6477. Email:
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews the safety analyses and the public comments, and
RDS is, according to its Web site at
On a weekly basis, RDS expects that about 15% of its drivers will return to their work reporting location more than 12 hours after coming on duty, due to waiting times at rail yards and shipper locations, while still operating within the required 100 air-mile radius. The drivers who occasionally exceed the 12-hour limitation nearly always return to the terminal within 14 hours.
On average, less than 2% of RDS drivers exceed the daily 14-hour limit. If a CMV is operated beyond the 14th hour, the departments work diligently to determine whether the truck was over the HOS limits, or utilized for personal conveyance. In virtually all of these cases, owner-operators are using their vehicles for personal conveyance.
According to RDS, nearly all its drivers operate within a 70- to 80-mile radius of their home terminal. They are home every day and for the most part meet the exemption requirements of the 100 air-mile radius provision. Some of these drivers record their hours worked on an “exempt” log. Other drivers complete a grid log, even though they meet the 100 air-mile radius exemption. Both types of paper logs are time consuming for the drivers and the RDS Safety Department. For this reason, RDS has embarked on the use of system incorporating a vehicle recording device to accurately record all the drivers' activities, including on-duty time, driving time, and total hours for the day.
This electronic system allows for accuracy and real-time follow up. RDS believes that with this system it is improving the safety of the motoring public by ensuring that the drivers do not falsify their log books or operate when they are tired. Additionally, proactive measures have been implemented by RDS to improve highway safety. RDS states that the use of a daily log book or an “exempt” log does not enable the carrier to monitor and respond to these events in real-time. Violations are discovered 12 to 24 hours later. However, with the electronic tracking system, all departments see the events in real-time and can respond immediately.
RDS believes that the use of the electronic system, along with its increased focus on driver training and education, goes beyond compliance with the Federal regulations. The system has allowed and will continue to allow RDS to provide additional timely oversight of drivers and has improved, and will enable the company to enhance, safety and reduce fatigue.
On July 7, 2017, FMCSA published notice of this application and requested public comment (82 FR 31680). The Agency received 17 docket comments, 6 supporting the request, including those from the Intermodal Association of North America (IANA); Farruggio's Express; and California Multimodal, Inc. LLC. The Advocates for Highway and Auto Safety (Advocates) and others opposed the request.
Those in favor commented that RDS' implementation and use of fleet management and tracking devices provides robust functionality with instantaneous feedback, visibility and transparency that far exceeds the traditional, paper-based logbook its drivers are required to complete under the existing HOS rules (when not meeting the RODS exception in 49 CFR 395.1) and ELD mandate.
Commenters also noted that RDS' telematics provides management with immediate data on driving events and potentially unsafe driver behaviors, such as HOS violations, speeding, sudden braking, harsh cornering, and seatbelt usage, allowing the company to proactively manage driver safety, training and education; and quickly identify potential safety and/or non-compliance trends across the company. Addressing these safety matters before they become serious patterns and problems, promulgates and cultivate its safety culture on a real-time basis.
Advocates failed to see how the exemption would be necessary if RDS has implemented “the Geo Tab system [which] meets the requirements of the ELD rule.” If RDS has implemented an ELD compliant system, there is no need for an exception from the present rule requiring drivers who fail to meet the 100-air mile radius exception as their RODS is automatically being recorded by the system and carrier.
All comments are available for review in the docket for this notice.
FMCSA has evaluated RDS' application for exemption and the public comments and decided to grant the exemption. The Agency believes that RDS' overall safety program will likely enable it to achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety achieved without the exemption (49 CFR 381.305(a)).
FMCSA believes that RDS' use of the Geotab 7 system, along with RDS' increased focus on driver training and education, goes beyond basic compliance with the Federal regulations. The electronic system will allow RDS to provide additional timely oversight of safety issues. FMCSA has therefore decided to grant the exemption, subject to the terms and conditions outlined below.
RDS' drivers who stay within the 100 air-mile radius but may occasionally exceed the 12-hour limitation are exempt from having to complete a daily record of duty status (RODS) at those times if, at all times, their hours of service data is recorded by the Geotab system. The exemption is contingent upon RDS maintaining USDOT registration, minimum levels of public liability insurance, and not being subject to any “imminent hazard” or other out-of-service (OOS) order issued by FMCSA.
Drivers must have a copy of this exemption document or FMCSA-issued equivalent in their possession while operating under the terms of the exemption. The exemption document or FMCSA-issued equivalent must be presented to law enforcement officials upon request. RDS must have a “Satisfactory” safety rating with FMCSA, or be “unrated.”
This exemption from the requirements of 49 CFR 395.1(e)(1) is effective from 12:01 a.m., November 14,
This exemption is limited strictly to the provisions of 49 CFR 395.1(e)(1) (Short haul operations; 100 air-mile radius driver). These drivers must comply with all other applicable provisions of the FMCSRs.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), as implemented by 49 CFR 381.600, during the period this exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation applicable to interstate commerce that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a firm or person operating under the exemption. States may, but are not required to, adopt the same exemption with respect to operations in intrastate commerce.
Under this exemption, RDS must notify FMCSA within 5 business days of any accident (as defined in 49 CFR 390.5), involving any of the motor carrier's drivers operating under the terms of this exemption. The notification must include the following information:
(a) Identity of Exemption: “RDS”
(b) Date of the accident,
(c) City or town, and State, in which the accident occurred, or closest to the accident scene,
(d) Driver's name and license number,
(e) Co-driver's name and license number,
(f) Vehicle number and State license number,
(g) Number of individuals suffering physical injury,
(h) Number of fatalities,
(i) The police-reported cause of the accident,
(j) Whether the driver was cited for violation of any traffic laws, motor carrier safety regulations, and
(k) The total driving time and total on-duty time of the CMV driver prior to the accident.
Accident notifications shall be emailed to
FMCSA believes that RDS' drivers will continue to maintain their previous safety record while operating under this exemption. However, should problems occur, FMCSA will take all steps necessary to protect the public interest, including revocation or restriction of the exemption. FMCSA will immediately revoke or restrict the exemption for failure to comply with its terms and conditions.
Under part 235 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) and 49 U.S.C. 20502(a), this provides the public notice that on September 20, 2017, the Union Pacific Railroad (UP) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) seeking approval to discontinue or modify a signal system. FRA assigned the petition Docket Number FRA-2017-0111.
Union Pacific seeks to discontinue the automatic block signals (ABS) on the Utah Service Unit, Montana Subdivision, in the cities of Pocatello, Chubbuck, Fort Hall, Blackfoot, Firth, Shelley and Idaho Falls in the state of Idaho.
There are 43 active Highway-Rail Grade Crossings and 2 hot-box and dragging equipment detectors in the area which will remain as currently installed.
The reason for the discontinuance of the ABS is that the condition of the signal system would require complete replacement to avert safety issues and FRA defects, and the amount of traffic on the subdivision does not warrant the cost of replacement.
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or comments. FRA does not anticipate scheduling a public hearing in connection with these proceedings since the facts do not appear to warrant a hearing. If any interested parties desire an opportunity for oral comment, they should notify FRA, in writing, before the end of the comment period and specify the basis for their request.
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Communications received by December 29, 2017 will be considered by FRA before final action is taken. Comments received after that date will be considered if practicable.
Anyone can search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Under 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Under part 211 of Title 49 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), this document provides the public notice that on November 1, 2017, BNSF Railway (BNSF) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) for a waiver of compliance from certain
Pursuant to 49 CFR 231.35, BNSF seeks relief from AAR Standard S-2044, Appendix D1, the approved industry standard for safety appliances for flatcars with full decks. BNSF requests permission to alter Boeing aircraft fuselage flatcars and idler cars by modifying the transverse end and side handhold arrangement at the BL and AR corners of the flatcars. In order to transport the aircraft fuselages safely, the BR and AL side and end handholds will be positioned six (6) inches above the deck of the flatcar which will allow employees to safely utilize the handholds. BNSF states that ergonomic analysis of this arrangement indicates this modification does not compromise rail safety.
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or comments. FRA does not anticipate scheduling a public hearing about these proceedings since the facts do not appear to warrant a hearing. If any interested parties desire an opportunity for oral comment and a public hearing, they should notify FRA, in writing, before the end of the comment period and specify the basis for their request.
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Communications received by January 3, 2018, will be considered by FRA before final action is taken. Comments received after that date will be considered if practicable.
Anyone can search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Under 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before December 14, 2017.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2017-0182. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the Internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel THE SPACE BETWEEN is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2017-0182 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
By Order of the Maritime Administrator
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before December 14, 2017.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2017-0183. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the Internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel ARCADIA is:
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
The Maritime Administration (MARAD) invites public comments on our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection. The information to be collected will be used by the Maritime Administration in determining fair and reasonable guideline rates for the carriage of preference cargoes on U.S.-flag vessels. In addition, U.S.-flag vessel operators are required to submit Post Voyage Reports to the Maritime Administration after completion of a cargo preference voyage. We are required to publish this notice in the
Comments must be submitted on or before January 16, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by Docket No. DOT-MARAD-2017-0184 through one of the following methods:
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Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the Department's performance; (b) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (c) ways for the Department to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (d) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information. The agency will summarize and/or include your comments in the request for OMB's clearance of this information collection.
Albert Bratton, Telephone Number:
In addition, this data collection requires U.S.-flag operators to submit vessel-operating costs and capital costs data to MARAD officials on an annual basis. This information is needed by MARAD to establish fair and reasonable guideline rates for carriage of specific cargoes on U.S. vessels.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
Notice of actions on special permit applications.
In accordance with the procedures governing the application for, and the processing of, special permits from the Department of Transportation's Hazardous Material Regulations, notice is hereby given that the Office of Hazardous Materials Safety has received the application described herein.
Comments must be received on or before December 14, 2017.
Record Center, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, Washington, DC 20590.
Comments should refer to the application number and be submitted in triplicate. If confirmation of receipt of comments is desired, include a self-addressed stamped postcard showing the special permit number.
Ryan Paquet, Director, Office of Hazardous Materials Approvals and Permits Division, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue Southeast, Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 366-4535.
Copies of the applications are available for inspection in the Records Center, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue Southeast, Washington, DC, or at
This notice of receipt of applications for special permit is published in accordance with part 107 of the Federal hazardous materials transportation law (49 U.S.C. 5117(b); 49 CFR 1.53(b)).
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
List of applications for modification of special permits.
In accordance with the procedures governing the application for, and the processing of, special permits from the Department of Transportation's Hazardous Material Regulations, notice is hereby given that the Office of Hazardous Materials Safety has received the application described herein. Each mode of transportation for which a particular special permit is requested is indicated by a number in the “Nature of Application” portion of the table below as follows: 1—Motor vehicle, 2—Rail freight, 3—Cargo vessel, 4—Cargo aircraft only, 5—Passenger-carrying aircraft.
Comments must be received on or before November 29, 2017.
Record Center, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation Washington, DC 20590.
Comments should refer to the application number and be submitted in triplicate. If confirmation of receipt of comments is desired, include a self-addressed stamped postcard showing the special permit number.
Ryan Paquet, Director, Office of Hazardous Materials Approvals and Permits Division, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 366-4535.
Copies of the applications are available for inspection in the Records Center, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington DC, or at
This notice of receipt of applications for special permit is published in accordance with part 107 of the Federal hazardous materials transportation law (49 U.S.C. 5117(b); 49 CFR 1.53(b)).
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
List of applications for special permits.
In accordance with the procedures governing the application for, and the processing of, special permits from the Department of Transportation's Hazardous Material Regulations, notice is hereby given that the Office of Hazardous Materials Safety has received the application described herein. Each mode of transportation for which a particular special permit is requested is indicated by a number in the “Nature of Application” portion of the table below as follows: 1—Motor vehicle, 2—Rail freight, 3—Cargo vessel, 4—Cargo aircraft only, 5—Passenger-carrying aircraft.
Comments must be received on or before December 14, 2017.
Record Center, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation Washington, DC 20590.
Comments should refer to the application number and be submitted in triplicate. If confirmation of receipt of comments is desired, include a self-addressed stamped postcard showing the special permit number.
Ryan Paquet, Director, Office of Hazardous Materials Approvals and Permits Division, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 366-4535.
Copies of the applications are available for inspection in the Records Center, East Building, PHH-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue Southeast, Washington DC or at
This notice of receipt of applications for special permit is published in accordance with part 107 of the Federal hazardous materials transportation law (49 U.S.C. 5117(b); 49 CFR 1.53(b)).
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the VA New Hampshire Vision 2025 Task Force, which is a subcommittee of the Special Medical Advisory Group (SMAG), will meet November 29, 2017 from 8:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m. ET and November 30, 2017 from 8:00 a.m.-12:30 p.m. ET at the Department of Veterans Affairs, Manchester VA Medical Center, 718 Smyth Road, Manchester, NH 03104, Building 1, 1st Floor, Training & Education Room. The meeting is open to the public.
The purpose of the Subcommittee is to develop a comprehensive set of options and recommendations to develop a future vision of what VA must do to best meet the needs of New Hampshire Veterans. The recommendations will be reviewed by the SMAG and then those final recommendations will be forwarded to the Secretary and Under Secretary for Health for decision and action.
The agenda will include review of the history of Manchester's use of Care in the Community (non-VA care and the CHOICE program); recommendations from seven clinical service lines; an update on facility master planning; an update on VA's market assessment work in New Hampshire; and an update on transforming the culture of Manchester VA. No time will be allocated at this meeting for receiving oral presentations from the public. However, the public may submit written statements for the Subcommittee's review to Brenda Faas, Designated Federal Officer, Department of Veterans Affairs at
Because the meeting will be held in a federal government building, anyone attending must be prepared to show a valid photo government issued ID. Please allow 15 minutes before the meeting begins for this process.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Advisory Committee on Former Prisoners of War (FPOW) will meet November 29-30, 2017, from 9:00 a.m.-4:30 p.m. EST at the Atlanta Regional Benefits Office, 1700 Clairmont Road, Decatur, GA 30033 and December 1, 2017, from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. EST at the Atlanta Marriot Marquis, 265 Peachtree Center Avenue, Atlanta, GA 30303. Sessions are open to the public, except when the Committee is conducting a tour of VA facilities, participating in off-site events, and participating in workgroup sessions. Tours of VA facilities are closed, to protect from disclosure Veterans' information which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
The purpose of the Committee is to advise the Secretary of Veterans Affairs on the administration of benefits under Title 38 U.S.C., for Veterans who are FPOWs, and to make recommendations on the needs of such Veterans for compensation, health care, and rehabilitation.
On Wednesday, November 29, the Committee will convene an open session to recognize and hear briefings from Veterans Health Administration (VHA) and external stakeholders from 9:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.
On Thursday, November 30, the Committee will assemble an open session for discussion and briefings from Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA) and Veterans Health Administration (VHA) officials from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. From 4:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., the Committee will convene a closed session in order to protect patient privacy as the committee tours the Atlanta Regional Benefits Office. On Friday, December 1, the Committee will conduct an open session from 9:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m. to discuss committee recommendations. From 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m., the Committee will convene a closed session for discussion of committee issues. At 12:00 p.m., the committee meeting will formally adjourn.
Public participation will commence as follows:
FPOWs who wish to speak at the public forum are invited to submit a 1-2 page commentary for inclusion in official meeting records. Any member of the public may also submit a 1-2 page commentary for the Committee's review.
Any member of the public wishing to attend the meeting or seeking additional information should contact Ms. Leslie N. Williams, Designated Federal Officer, Advisory Committee on Former Prisoners of War at
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (Office or USPTO) sets or adjusts patent fees as authorized by the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (Act or AIA). The USPTO operates like a business in that external and internal factors affect the demand for patent products and services. The fee adjustments are needed to provide the Office with a sufficient amount of aggregate revenue to recover its aggregate cost of patent operations (based on current projections), while maintaining momentum towards achieving strategic goals.
This rule is effective on January 16, 2018. The changes to § 1.18(b)(1) shall apply to those international design applications under the Hague Agreement having a date of international registration on or after January 16, 2018.
Brendan Hourigan, Director of the Office of Planning and Budget, by telephone at (571) 272-8966; or Dianne Buie, Office of Planning and Budget, by telephone at (571) 272-6301.
This rule was proposed in a notice of proposed rulemaking published at 81 FR 68150 (Oct. 3, 2016) (hereinafter NPRM).
The Office issues this final rule under Section 10 of the AIA (Section 10), which authorizes the Director of the USPTO to set or adjust by rule any patent fee established, authorized, or charged under title 35 of the United States Code (U.S.C.) for any services performed, or materials furnished, by the Office. Section 10 prescribes that fees may be set or adjusted only to recover the aggregate estimated costs to the Office for processing, activities, services, and materials relating to patents, including administrative costs of the Office with respect to such patent fees. Section 10 authority includes flexibility to set individual fees in a way that furthers key policy factors, while taking into account the cost of the respective services. Section 10 also establishes certain procedural requirements for implementing or revising fee regulations, such as public hearings and input from the Patent Public Advisory Committee (PPAC) and Congressional oversight.
This rulemaking represents the second iteration of patent fee rulemaking by the USPTO to set fees under the authority of the AIA; the first AIA patent fee setting rule was published in January 2013. This current rulemaking is a result of the USPTO assessing its costs and fees, as is consistent with federal fee setting standards. Following a biennial review of fees, costs, and revenues that began in 2015, the Office concluded that targeted fee adjustments were necessary to continue to fund patent operations, enhance patent quality, continue to work toward patent pendency goals, support the Patent Trial and Appeal Board (PTAB)'s continued efforts to deliver high quality and timely decisions, fund general support costs necessary for patent operations (
This final rule sets or adjusts 202 patent fees for large, small, and micro entities (any reference herein to “large entity” includes all entities other than those that have established entitlement to either a small or micro entity fee discount). The fees for small and micro entity rates are tiered, with small entities at a 50 percent discount and micro entities at a 75 percent discount. Small entity fee eligibility is based on the size or certain non-profit status of the applicant's business. Micro entity fee eligibility is described in Section 10(g) of the Act. There are also 42 new fees being introduced or replacing one of the 14 fees that are being discontinued. This final rule applies small entity discounts to two additional fees and applies micro entity discounts to six additional fees.
In summary, the routine fees to obtain a patent (
The final rule is significant and results in a need for a Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) under Executive Order 12866 Regulatory Planning and Review, 58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993). The Office prepared a RIA to analyze the costs, benefits, and transfer payments of the final rule over a five-year period, FY 2017-FY 2021. The RIA includes a comparison of the final rule fee schedule to the current fee schedule (baseline) and to two other alternatives.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that this rule involves a transfer payment from one group to another that does not affect the total resources available to society. The costs and benefits that the Office identifies and analyzes in the RIA are strictly qualitative. Qualitative costs and benefits have effects that are difficult to express in either dollar or numerical values. Monetized costs and benefits, on the other hand, have effects that can be expressed in dollar values. The Office did not identify any monetized costs and benefits of the rulemaking, but found that the final rule has significant qualitative benefits with no identified costs.
The qualitative costs and benefits that the RIA assesses are: (1) Fee schedule design—a measure of how well the fee schedule aligns to the Office's key fee setting policy factors—and (2) securing aggregate revenue to cover aggregate
Additional details describing the costs and benefits are available at
The Leahy-Smith America Invents Act was enacted into law on September 16, 2011.
Section 10(b) of the AIA requires the Office to reduce by 50 percent the fees for small entities that are set or adjusted under Section 10(a) for filing, searching, examining, issuing, appealing, and maintaining patent applications and patents.
Section 10(g) of the AIA amended chapter 11 of title 35, U.S.C., to add Section 123 concerning micro entities. The Act provides that the Office must reduce by 75 percent the fees for micro entities for filing, searching, examining, issuing, appealing, and maintaining patent applications and patents. Micro entity fees were implemented through the previous patent fee rule, and the Office will maintain this 75 percent micro entity discount for the appropriate fees and implement micro entity fees for additional services as appropriate.
The Secretary of Commerce established the PPAC under the American Inventors Protection Act of 1999. 35 U.S.C. 5. The PPAC advises the Under Secretary of Commerce for Intellectual Property and Director of the USPTO on the management, policies, goals, performance, budget, and user fees of patent operations.
When adopting fees under Section 10 of the Act, the Director must provide the PPAC with the proposed fees at least 45 days prior to publishing the proposed fees in the
Consistent with this framework, on October 20, 2015, the Director notified the PPAC of the Office's intent to set or adjust patent fees and submitted a preliminary patent fee proposal with supporting materials. The preliminary patent fee proposal and associated materials are available at
The overall strategy of this final rule is to establish a fee schedule that generates sufficient multi-year revenue to recover the aggregate cost to maintain USPTO operations and accomplish the USPTO's strategic goals in accordance with the authority granted to the USPTO by AIA Section 10. A similar strategy guided the initial AIA patent fee setting in 2013. The overriding principles behind this strategy are to operate within a sustainable funding model to avoid disruptions caused by fluctuations in available financial resources, and to continue strategic
In addition to the overriding principles outlined above, the Office also assesses alignment with the four key fee setting policy factors: Foster innovation, align fees with the full cost of products and services, set fees to facilitate the effective administration of the patent and trademark systems, and offer application processing options for applicants. Each factor promotes a particular aspect of the U.S. patent system. Fostering innovation is an important policy factor to ensure that applicants can access the U.S. patent system without significant barriers to entry, and innovation is incentivized by granting inventors certain short-term exclusive rights to stimulate additional inventive activity. Aligning fees with the full cost of products and services recognizes that as a fully fee-funded entity, the Office must account for all of its costs even as it elects to set some fees below, at, or above cost. This factor also recognizes that some applicants may use particular services in a much more costly manner than other applicants (
The balance of this sub-section presents the specific fee setting considerations the Office reviewed in developing the final patent fee schedule. Specific considerations are: (1) Historical costs of patent operations and investments to date in meeting the Office's strategic goals; (2) projected costs to meet the Office's operational needs and strategic goals; and (3) sustainable funding. Additionally, the Office carefully considered the comments, advice, and recommendations offered by the public and PPAC during the public comment period for the NPRM. Collectively, these considerations informed the Office's chosen rulemaking strategy.
(1)
The Office has made significant progress towards its strategic priorities for patent quality, backlog, pendency, and IT system modernization for several years now. For more information about the Office's performance record and progress towards its strategic goals,
(2)
(a) Quality, Backlog, and Pendency. The Office developed the strategic goal of optimizing patent quality and timeliness in response to feedback from the intellectual property community and in recognition that a sound, efficient, and effective intellectual property system is essential for technological innovation and for patent holders to reap the benefits of patent protection. In addition to timeliness of patent protection, the quality of application review is critical to the value of an issued patent. Issuance of quality patents provides certainty in the market and allows businesses and innovators to make informed and timely decisions on product and service development. Under this final rule, the Office will continue to improve patent quality through ongoing efforts related to the three quality pillars: (1) Excellence in work products; (2) excellence in measuring patent quality; and (3) excellence in customer service.
In addition to quality, the USPTO continues to focus on backlog and pendency reduction. First action and average total pendency in FY 2016 were 16.2 months and 25.3 months respectively compared to 21.9 months and 32.4 months in FY 2012. The patent application backlog was reduced from 608,283 in FY 2012 to 537,655 at the end of FY 2016. This rulemaking aims to produce revenues adequate to continue the USPTO's progress towards attaining its strategic goals for patent backlog and pendency.
Similarly, the PTAB manages pendency and inventory for appeals. In the past few years, the Office has made great strides in reducing the backlog and pendency for
(b) Information Technology. Revenue generated from the final fee structure will enable the USPTO to continue investing in modernizing the USPTO IT systems and infrastructure. Some current systems remain obsolete and difficult to maintain, leaving the USPTO vulnerable to potential disruptions in patent operations. However, the Office's efforts on PE2E, the large-scale patent IT improvement and modernization program, have already delivered value to examiners and customers alike. To date, the Docket & Application Viewer (DAV), a case management tool for examiners, was first released in March 2015. By the end of FY 2016, 100 percent of patent examiners were using DAV. The eDAN legacy system was retired in December 2016, as its full functionality was replaced by DAV. Other PE2E releases include pilots for Official Correspondence (replaces Office Action Correspondence System (OACS)), an authoring and workflow solution that offers DAV integration, and Examiner Search (replaces Examiner's Automated Search Tool (EAST)), which supports modern, scalable enterprise searches; both represent significant advances in how
(3)
The USPTO's annual budget delineates prospective spending levels (aggregate cost) to execute core mission activities and strategic initiatives. In the FY 2018 President's Budget, the USPTO estimated that its aggregate patent operating cost for FY 2017, including administrative costs, would be $2.986 billion. After evaluating relevant risk factors, the Office determined that a minimum balance of $300 million in the operating reserve was adequate for FY 2017 and FY 2018, which is below the optimal balance of three months operating expenses, or about $746 million in FY 2017. Based on the latest estimates as shown in the FY 2018 President's Budget, the spending requirement would exceed projected fee collections and other income of $2.876 billion and draw $110 million from the patent operating reserve, leaving a $245 million balance in the patent operating reserve, or $55 million less than the desired minimum of $300 million. This is partially due to the fact that these fee adjustments will only be in place for the last month of FY 2017. In FY 2018, when the fee adjustments will be fully implemented, the operating reserve is projected to rise above the desired minimum, with an end-of-year balance of $343 million. In FY 2019, budgetary requirements are projected to exceed income, taking the operating reserve down to $341 million. Then the operating reserve is projected to continue growing, to $418 million at the end of FY 2020 and $501 million at the end of FY 2021. This exceeds the desired minimum, but falls short of the optimal level of $841 million in FY 2021. The operating reserve is not projected to reach its optimal level within the next five years.
Fee setting authority allows the Office to align the fee schedule with the four fee setting policy factors discussed earlier in this document (
The Office estimates that the final patent fee schedule will produce aggregate revenue to recover the aggregate cost of the USPTO, including for the implementation of its strategic and management goals, objectives, and initiatives in FY 2017 and beyond.
Using the strategic goals (optimizing patent quality and timeliness and providing domestic and global leadership to improve intellectual property policy, protection, and enforcement worldwide) and the management goal of organizational excellence as a foundation, the final rule should provide sufficient aggregate revenue to recover the aggregate cost of patent operations, including improving patent quality, reducing the patent application backlog, decreasing patent application pendency, delivering high quality and timely PTAB decisions, investing in modernizing the patent business IT capability and infrastructure, and implementing a sustainable funding model.
The Office carried out three primary steps in developing the final fee schedule:
These three steps are iterative and interrelated. The following is a description of how the USPTO carries out these three steps.
Calculating prospective aggregate cost is accomplished primarily through the annual USPTO budget formulation process. The Budget is a five-year plan (that the Office prepares annually) for carrying out base programs and new initiatives to implement the strategic goals and objectives.
The first activity performed to determine prospective aggregate cost is to project the level of demand for patent products and services. Demand for products and services depend on many factors, including domestic and global economic activity. The USPTO also takes into account overseas patenting activities, policies and legislation, and known process efficiencies. Because filing, search, and examination costs are the largest share of the total patent operating cost, a primary production workload driver is the number of patent application filings (
The second activity is to calculate the aggregate cost to execute the requirements. In developing its Budget, the Office first looks at the cost of status quo operations (the base requirements). The base requirements are adjusted for anticipated pay raises and inflationary increases for the budget year and four out years (detailed calculations and assumptions for this adjustment can be found in the FY 2018 President's Budget). The Office then estimates the prospective cost for expected changes in production workload and new initiatives over the same period of time (refer to “Program Changes by Sub-Program” sections of the Budget). The Office reduces cost estimates for completed initiatives and known cost savings expected over the same five-year horizon. Finally, the Office estimates its three-month target operating reserve level based on this aggregate cost calculation for the year to determine if operating reserve adjustments are necessary.
The FY 2018 President's Budget identifies that, during FY 2017, patent operations will cost $2.986 billion, including $2.002 billion for patent examination activities; $180 million for IT systems and support contributing to direct patent operations; $87 million for activities related to patent appeals and AIA trial proceedings; $27 million for activities related to intellectual property protection, policy, and enforcement; and $688 million for general support costs necessary for patent operations (
Table 2 below provides key underlying production workload projections and assumptions from the Budget used to calculate aggregate cost. Table 3 presents the total budgetary requirements (prospective aggregate cost) for FY 2017 through FY 2021 and the estimated collections and operating reserve balances that would result from the adjustments contained in this final rule.
The USPTO continuously updates both patent fee collections projections and workload projections based on the latest data. Patent production workload projections have been updated since the NPRM was published in October 2016. The most recent projections are shown in Table 2. UPR filings growth projections were revised downward during the FY 2018 budget formulation process due to revised RGDP estimates and more conservative estimates of out year growth.
Over the five year planning horizon budgetary requirements increased compared to the prior NPRM outlook projections. The primary drivers of the requirements variance are investments to modernize IT systems and infrastructure and updated assumptions about the resources necessary to meet production commitments in the Patent Pendency Model and PTAB models. The FY 2018 Budget is based on a framework of continuous and comprehensive budget reviews designed to ensure that all operational and administrative costs are reviewed and funds are reallocated when necessary to focus on high-priority and effective programs—primarily core mission activities—and mitigate risk by retaining minimum operating reserve balances. In addition, the USPTO operates similarly to a business in that the Office makes a determined effort to monitor and adjust spending in response to changes in workload, income, and operating reserve balances. These activities are carried out as regular parts of the budget execution and budget formulation processes.
As described in “
To calculate the aggregate revenue estimates, the Office first analyzes relevant factors and indicators to calculate or determine prospective fee workload (
The Office considers economic activity when developing fee workloads and aggregate revenue forecasts for its products and services. Major economic indicators include the overall condition of the U.S. and global economies, spending on research and development activities, and investments that lead to the commercialization of new products and services. The most relevant economic indicator that the Office uses is the RGDP, which is the broadest measure of economic activity and is anticipated to grow approximately two percent for FY 2017 based on OMB and CBO estimates.
These indicators correlate with patent application filings, which are a key driver of patent fees. Economic indicators also provide insight into market conditions and the management of intellectual property portfolios, which influence application processing requests and post-issuance decisions to maintain patent protection. When developing fee workload forecasts, the Office considers other influential factors, including overseas activity, policies and legislation, court decisions, process efficiencies, and anticipated applicant behavior.
Anticipated applicant behavior in response to fee changes is measured using an economic principle known as elasticity, which for the purpose of this action measures how sensitive applicants and patentees are to changes in fee amounts. The higher the elasticity measure (in absolute value), the greater the applicant response to the relevant fee change. If elasticity is low enough (
When estimating aggregate revenue, the USPTO prepares a high and a low range of fee collection estimates. This range accounts for the inherent uncertainty, sensitivity, and volatility of predicting fluctuations in the economy and market environment; interpreting policy and process efficiencies; and developing fee workload and fee collection estimates from assumptions. The Office estimates a range for all its major workload categories including application filings, extensions of time, PTAB fees, maintenance fees, PCT filings, and trademark filings. Additional detail about how the Office calculates aggregate revenue is discussed in the document entitled, “Setting and Adjusting Patent Fees during FY 2017—Aggregate Revenue Estimating Methodology.” Details about projected workloads for each of the fee setting alternatives considered are available in the aggregate revenue tables for each alternative. All of these documents are available at
Patent fees are collected for patent-related services and products at different points in time within the patent application examination process and over the life of the pending patent application and granted patent. Approximately half of all patent fee collections are from issue and maintenance fees, which subsidize the cost of filing, search, and examination activities. Changes in application filing levels immediately impact current year fee collections, because fewer patent application filings means the Office collects fewer fees to devote to production-related costs, such as additional examining staff and overtime. The resulting reduction in production activities creates an out year revenue impact because less production output in one year results in fewer issue and maintenance fee payments in future years.
The USPTO's five-year estimated aggregate patent fee revenue (
Once the Office finalizes the annual requirements and aggregate prospective cost for a given year during the budget formulation process, the Office sets specific fee amounts that, together, will derive the aggregate revenue required to recover the estimated aggregate prospective cost during that time frame. Calculating individual fees is an iterative process that encompasses many variables. One variable that the USPTO considers to inform fee setting is the historical cost estimates associated with individual fees. The Office's Activity-Based Information (ABI) provides historical cost for an organization's activities and outputs by individual fee using the activity-based costing (ABC) methodology. ABC is commonly used for fee setting throughout the Federal government. Additional information about the methodology, including the cost components related to respective fees, is available in the document entitled “
When the Office implements a new process or service, historical ABI data is typically not available. However, the Office will use the historical cost of a similar process or procedure as a starting point to estimate the full cost of a new activity or service.
The Office projects that the aggregate revenue generated from the new patent fees will recover the prospective aggregate cost of its patent operations including contributions to the operating reserve per the strategic objective of implementing a sustainable funding model. As detailed previously, the PPAC supports this approach, stating that it “agrees that the Office should set its fees to establish an adequate revenue stream over a sustained period to fund the people and infrastructure essential for a high quality, low pendency examination process, and to fund its operating reserve.” It is important to recognize that each individual fee is not necessarily set equal to the estimated cost of performing the activities related to the fee. Instead, as described in Part III. Rulemaking Goals and Strategies, some of the fees are set at, above, and below their unit costs to balance the four key fee setting policy factors
For some fees in this final rule, the USPTO does not maintain individual historical cost data for the service provided, such as maintenance fees. Instead, the Office evaluates the policy factors described in Part III to inform fee setting. By setting fees at particular levels, the USPTO aims to: (1) Foster an environment where examiners can provide and applicants can receive prompt, quality interim and final decisions; (2) encourage the prompt conclusion of prosecuting an application, resulting in pendency reduction and the faster dissemination of patented information; and (3) help recover costs for activities that strain the patent system.
The rationale for the fee changes are grouped into three major categories, discussed below: (A) Fees where large entity amounts stayed the same or did
The
The Office is adjusting slightly (
For those fees changing by greater than plus or minus 10 percent and 20 dollars, the individual fee rationale discussion is divided into three categories, including: (1) New and significant fees; (2) patent enrollment fees; and (3) fees adjusted and amended to include discounts for small and micro entities. Note: Three fees in this section have fee changes less than 10 percent but are included here because they met this criteria in either the NPRM (
New and significant fees are further divided into subcategories according to the function of the fees, including: (a) Mega-sequence listing filing; (b) design and plant search, examination, and issue; (c) request for continued examination (RCE); (d) information disclosure statements; (e) certificate of correction; (f) request for
As discussed above, for purposes of comparing amounts in the individual fee rationale discussion, the Office has included the current fees as the baseline to calculate the dollar change and percent change for new fees.
The following fees fall under the category of new and significant. A discussion of the rationale for each fee follows.
The Office sets two new fees to manage handling of sequence listings of 300 MB or more. Pricing for this fee is divided into two tiers with Tier 1 for file sizes 300 MB to 800 MB and Tier 2 for file sizes greater than 800 MB.
The level of effort associated with the handling of mega-sequence listings is significant, because the Office's systems require extra storage and special handling for files beyond 300 MB. The Office has not yet collected actual cost data for sequence listings with file sizes of 300 MB or greater. However, based on historical data, on average, less than 10 applications per year contained sequence listing files greater than 300 MB. Based on previously filed applications with lengthy sequence listings, the Office determined that some applications disclosed sequence data that met the length thresholds for being included in the sequence listing but that was neither invented by the applicants nor claimed. Mega-sequence listings, in particular, often included sequences that were available in the prior art, were not essential material, and could have been described instead, for example, by name and a publication or accession reference. Further, claims accompanying such applications were frequently directed to the manipulation of sequence data rather than the substance of the sequences themselves. Submission of a mega-sequence listing in these applications would not have been necessary to complete the application if applicants limited the number of sequences that were described in such a way as to be required in a sequence listing. The fee should encourage applicants to draft their specifications such that sequence data that is not essential material is not required to be included in a sequence listing. The fee would also apply to the submission of mega-sequence listings received in national stage applications under 35 U.S.C. 371, including mega-sequence listings received by the Office pursuant to PCT Article 20. A reduced number of mega-sequence listings will benefit the Office and the public by reducing the strain on Office resources, thus facilitating the effective administration of the patent system.
In the NPRM, the Office proposed a design issue fee of $800 and a plant issue fee of $1,000. In this final rule, after carefully considering comments from the PPAC and the public, the Office sets the design issue fee to $700 and the plant issue fee to $800, 13 percent and 20 percent less than the fees proposed in the NPRM respectively. Design and plant patents are unlike utility patents in that they do not pay maintenance fees after the patent has been granted. Under the current utility fee structure, entry costs (filing, search, and examination fees) are intentionally
The moderate increases to RCE fees support the fee setting policy factor to align fees with costs. The increase would more closely align the fee rates with the cost of processing RCEs, as calculated using the most recently available cost data (FY 2015). Specifically, the Office is increasing the first RCE fee rate from $1,200 to $1,300 for large entities, a $100 increase (8 percent). The FY 2015 cost to examine a first RCE was $2,187 with the increase in the first RCE fee rate significantly below FY 2015 unit cost, this service will continue to recover only a portion of the total cost in the future.
The Office is increasing the second and subsequent RCE fee rate from $1,700 to $1,900 for large entities, a $200 increase (12 percent). The FY 2015 cost to examine a second and subsequent RCE was $1,540. When combined, first and second and subsequent RCE fees collected 62.5 percent of the examination costs. In order to approach cost recovery and limit the increase to the first RCE fee rate, the Office sets the second and subsequent RCE fee rate with a slightly larger increase. Had this fee structure been in place in FY 2015, the Office would have recovered 68.6 percent of RCE costs as opposed to the 62.5 percent that was realized. In FY 2015, the Office collected fees for 112,634 first RCEs and for 57,931 second and subsequent RCEs.
While this fee structure will not achieve full cost recovery for RCEs, it will bring collections closer to cost and therefore reduce the subsidy for RCE filings currently provided by other patent fees. In addition to the fee adjustments, the USPTO is committed to focusing on initiatives that will reduce the need for RCEs. Examples of initiatives the Office has already implemented to reduce the need for RCEs include the Quick Path Information Disclosure Statement (QPIDS) pilot program (
The Office is increasing the submission fee for an Information Disclosure Statement (IDS) from $180 to $240. The adjustment is an effort to set the fee optimally to encourage early submission of an IDS when possible while keeping the fee low enough to encourage timely filings during the time period (and under the conditions) when the fee would be required.
The Office is increasing the fee for a certificate of correction by $50 to $150. This adjustment will encourage applicants to submit accurate information initially, while at the same time not increasing the rate too much above unit cost recovery, which could discourage disclosure of needed corrections when an error has been identified. Whenever a mistake of a clerical or typographical nature, or of minor character, which was not the fault of the USPTO, appears in a patent and a showing has been made that such mistake occurred in good faith, the Director may, upon payment of this fee, issue a certificate of correction, if the correction does not involve such changes in the patent as would constitute new matter or would require reexamination.
The Office is establishing a new fee for smaller, streamlined reexamination filings. The streamlined filings will reduce the cost to the USPTO, allowing the Office to pass on the cost savings to applicants. This fee will apply to
Note that micro entity status is only available to patent owner requesters, not to third party requesters. The change is consistent with the USPTO's fee setting policy factors to align fees to costs, offer additional processing options, and facilitate the effective administration of the patent system, and is also consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 123.
Based on feedback on the NPRM, the Office has eliminated the proposed increase to the notice of appeal fee. The Notice of Appeal fees will remain at current rates (
In the past few years, the Office has made great strides in reducing the backlog and pendency for
The AIA established two new trial proceedings:
Post-grant review is a trial proceeding created by the AIA that allows the Office to review the patentability of one or more claims in a patent on any ground that could be raised under 35 U.S.C. 282(b)(2) and (b)(3) in effect on September 16, 2012. The post-grant review process begins when a third party files a petition within nine months of the grant of the patent. A post-grant review may be instituted upon a showing that it is more likely than not that at least one challenged claim is unpatentable or that the petition raises an unsettled legal question that is important to other patents or patent applications. If the trial is instituted and not dismissed, the Board will issue a final determination within one year of institution. This period can be extended for good cause for up to six months from the date of one year after instituting the review.
In FY 2016, the PTAB received nearly 1,700 AIA trial filings and the Office expects that number to grow in the coming fiscal years. In order to keep up with demand and continue to provide high quality decisions within the statutory time limits, the Office needs to close the gap between the cost and the fees for performing these services. When the fees for these services were initially set, the Office had to estimate what the costs would be without the benefit of historical cost information. Now that the trials have been in place for three fiscal years, the Office has actual historical cost data available to more accurately set these fees and recover costs. In this final rule, the Office is setting the
The Office sets a new fee to encourage timely filing of sequence listings in international applications as another way to facilitate the effective administration of the patent system. When an applicant does not provide a sequence listing in searchable format with the international application or provides a defective sequence listing, the United States, acting as International Searching Authority (ISA/US) or as International Preliminary Examining Authority (IPEA/US), must issue an invitation to the applicant to provide the missing or corrected sequence listing. This additional process creates a delay in the issuance of the International Search Report (ISR) or International Preliminary Report on Patentability (Chapter II). The most recent data shows that the ISA/US issues ISRs within 16 months of the priority date for 75 percent of all international applications searched by the ISA/US. However, when the ISA/US issues an invitation to provide a sequence listing, the ISA/US issues ISRs within 16 months in only 28 percent of those international applications. The time limit for issuance of the ISR under PCT Rule 42 in most circumstances is 16 months from the priority date. This new fee will help compensate the Office for the extra work associated with issuing the invitation and handling the response, while better positioning the Office to meet applicable treaty timeframes. The fee is similar in size and scope to fees charged by other international intellectual property offices.
For each issued patent, the Office may grant one or more reissue patents. However, current practice dictates that only one maintenance fee is required for all of the possible reissue patents granted from a single patent. This change of practice would require payment of maintenance fees for each reissue patent, instead of a single maintenance fee payment for the group of reissue patents. The large majority of reissue patents are granted after the first stage maintenance fee payment has already been paid on the initial patent. Over the last six years, approximately 150 reissue patents per year would have been subject to additional fees due to this rule change. This is a significantly higher level than the Office experienced prior to FY 2010. For example, between FY 2003 and FY 2009, the average was 27 per year. The Office expects this change in practice to encourage patent owners to prioritize which reissue patents they want to maintain. If an owner wishes to maintain all reissue patents in force, he or she may do so by paying the appropriate maintenance fees. For reissue patents that are not maintained, subject matter previously covered by the patent would become available in the public domain to improve upon and further foster innovation.
The following fee adjustments are comprised of Office of Enrollment and Discipline (OED) fees and other patent practitioner enrollment fees. In addition to the fee rate changes, there are four new fees introduced in this section. The purpose of amending the fees in this section is to better align fees with actual costs. During the previous patent fee setting effort, historical cost information for these activities was not available. Since then, the Office has developed cost information to more appropriately make these fee adjustments. No enrollment or disciplinary fees have been increased since 2008, and only two fees were adjusted that year. All other enrollment and discipline fees were last changed much earlier, specifically, between 1991 and 2004. In fact, one OED fee has been unchanged since 1982. As time passes, the difference between the fee charged by the Office and the cost to the Office to perform the service increases, resulting in greater subsidies by other patent fees. The increases to these fees will help to close the gap between the fee charged and the cost to perform the service. A discussion of the rationale for each fee change follows.
The Office increases the application fee for admission to the examination for registration to practice from $40 to $100, about half of the historical cost of this service.
The fee for registration to practice or for a grant of limited recognition under § 11.9(b) or (c) is currently set at $100, and both transactions have the same fee code. This rule creates a new fee code for On Grant of Limited Recognition, allowing for a separate accounting of registration to practice or for a grant of limited recognition. Both Registration to Practice and Grant of Limited Recognition are increasing to $200, which is still below the estimated cost of performing these services. The Office is eliminating the reference to § 11.9(c) in the current provision. The Office does not presently impose a fee for an unregistered individual to prosecute an international patent application in the manner described in § 11.9(c). The Office is using the existing fee code for Registration to Practice fees and creating a new fee code for Grant of Limited Registration.
The Office is increasing the fee for the delivery of a certificate of good standing. A practitioner may also request a certificate of good standing as an attorney or agent that has been authentically signed by the Director of OED and crafted for framing. The Office is increasing the fee for both of these services to cost recovery, $40 and $50, respectively.
The Office is increasing the fees for petitions to the OED Director regarding enrollment or recognition. However, the new fees are still significantly below cost recovery. Any petition from any action or requirement of the staff of OED reporting to the OED Director shall be taken to the OED Director accompanied by payment of the $400 fee.
The Office is adjusting the fees for a review of the OED Director's decision regarding enrollment or recognition. A party dissatisfied with a final decision of the OED Director regarding enrollment or recognition may seek review of the decision upon petition to the USPTO Director accompanied by payment of the new $400 fee. This is an increase from the current fee but is still set significantly below cost recovery.
The Office is setting the fee for administrative reinstatement at $200. Reinstatement fees are imposed on practitioners seeking to be reinstated to active status. Raising the fee, while still set far below cost recovery, helps to close the gap between the fee and the cost for performing this service.
The Office is creating a fee for USPTO-assisted reset of user IDs and passwords for an OED Information System—Customer Interface (OEDIS-CI) account set at $70. The enhancement of the OEDIS-CI was implemented in FY 2015. With this enhancement, customers are now able to perform this process on-line as a self-service option free of charge. This fee would only be charged if it was requested that the USPTO perform this task instead of the self-service option.
The Office is creating and setting the fee for USPTO-assisted roster maintenance (change of address) in an OEDIS-CI account at $70. With the OEDIS-CI enhancement, customers are now able to perform this process on-line as a self-service method free of charge. This fee would only be charged if it was requested that the USPTO perform this task instead of the self-service option.
The Office is setting the fee for a registration examination review session at $450. Setting this fee at cost recovery relieves the administrative and cost burden of providing the review sessions. A private commercial entity currently provides this service to the public at a lower cost than the USPTO. The availability of the private-sector option has reduced demand for the USPTO-provided sessions and therefore increased the cost per registrant of USPTO-provided sessions.
The Office is setting the fee for changing a practitioner's registration status from agent to attorney. The Office currently charges $100 for this service. The fee would remain unchanged; however, 37 CFR 1.21(a)(2)(iii) would specifically provide for this fee.
Within this section, where new micro entity fees are set, it is expected that an applicant or patent holder would have paid the current small entity fee (or large entity in the event there is not a small entity fee) and dollar and percent changes are calculated from the current small entity fee amount (or large entity fee, where applicable). The following table lists fees where new small and/or micro entity fees are provided. Providing these fee reductions for small and micro entity innovators continues the Office's efforts to foster innovation across all patent system users.
This section describes fees that are being discontinued and replaced with new fees. The purpose of this action is to simplify the fee schedule, more clearly inform customers of costs upfront, and align with the Office's new financial software for which fixed fee rates, not variable (
There are currently pairs of fees for copying patent-related file wrappers: a base fee and an excess fee. For both paper copies and electronic copies, these pairs are replaced with a single fee irrespective of size. A single fee allows customers to more easily budget and plan expenses for this service.
The catch-all fee of “Computer Records” currently priced “at cost” is being replaced by five fees that encompass the work currently performed using this code: Copy of Patent Grant Single-Page TIFF Images (52 week subscription); Copy of Patent Grant Full-Text W/Embedded Images, Patent Application Publication Single-Page TIFF Images, or Patent Application Publication Full-Text W/Embedded Images (52 week subscription); Copy of Patent Technology Monitoring Team (PTMT) Patent Bibliographic Extract and Other DVD (Optical Disc); Copy of U.S. Patent Custom Data Extracts; and Copy of Selected Technology Reports, Miscellaneous Technology Areas. Explicitly stating the service and fee at the start provides customers clearer information to aid decision making.
These specific fees recover the USPTO's costs for processing, validating, packaging, and shipping of these products to customers worldwide. For the copy of Patent Grant Single-Page TIFF Images, when a customer orders this service, the customer is sent expedited weekly packages (one for each Tuesday in the Calendar Year) via United Parcel Service. Each package contains at a minimum one Blu-ray and one DVD optical disc. For the other three services listed for $5,200, the expedited weekly packages (one for each Tuesday or Thursday in the Calendar Year) typically contain either a single Blu-ray or DVD optical disc. As an alternative to requesting and paying for these services, the USPTO has provided customers the ability to download this information at no cost since June 2010. This information is currently provided in the two locations referenced earlier, BDSS and PDD since October 2015 and June 2013 respectively.
Similar to the single fee for copying Patent-Related File Wrappers, the “Labor Charge” per hour with its variable charges is replaced with a single fee for “Expedited Service.” Following the same theme, shorter than standard shipping is currently billed under a catch-all code but is now replaced with a set fee for “Overnight Delivery.”
To comply with Presidential Executive Order 13681, Improving the Security of Consumer Financial Transactions, current self-service copiers will be discontinued and the USPTO will enter into a “No Cost” contract with a vendor who will keep all payments collected in exchange for providing this service.
The USPTO's new Financial Manager system allows users to create their own deposit accounts so the Office is retiring the “Establish Deposit Account” fee. The fee associated with “Uncertified Statement Re Status of Maintenance Fee Payments” is discontinued due to lack of use. Customers have had the ability to do this online for more than 10 years. The fee associated with “Petitions for documents in form other than that provided by this part, or in form other than that generally provided by Director, to be decided in accordance with merits” is also discontinued due to lack of use.
The remaining fees pertaining to Patent-Related File Wrapper copies have never been used since their inception many years ago and therefore are being discontinued.
The USPTO published a proposed rule on October 3, 2016 soliciting comments on the proposed fee schedule. In response, the USPTO received comments from five intellectual property organizations, one federal agency, and nineteen individual commenters representing law firms, corporations, or themselves. These comments are posted on the USPTO's Web site at
Over the five year planning horizon budgetary requirements increased compared to the prior NPRM outlook projections. The primary drivers of the requirements variance are investments to modernize IT systems and infrastructure and updated assumptions about the resources necessary to meet production commitments in the Patent Pendency Model and PTAB model. In addition, UPR filings growth projections were revised downward during the FY 2018 budget formulation process due to revised RGDP estimates and more conservative estimates of out year growth. With the FY 2018 President's Budget, and under the fee rates included in this final rule, the operating reserve level estimates do not reach the optimal level of three months of expenses in the five year budget horizon.
As described in Part III. B. of the final rule, which summarizes the USPTO's operating reserve policy, the USPTO will continue to assess the patent operating reserve balance against its target balance annually, and at least every two years, the Office will evaluate whether the target balance continues to be sufficient to provide the funding stability needed by the Office. A key assumption is that the USPTO will
The USPTO continues to communicate the importance of continued access to all fees collected as a critical component of sustainable funding strategy to the public, lawmakers, and the executive branch. While fee diversion remains a possibility without an explicit law eliminating the possibility, the Office will continue its educational efforts in this area.
The financial outlook presented in this final rule reduces the trajectory of the estimated optimal operating reserve level because of changes in fees made in response to stakeholder feedback and in recognition of a changing outlook for Office operations and finances.
The Office received five comments regarding the proposed increases in PTAB fees, including two comments about fees for AIA trial proceedings.
The patent pro bono programs are individually run as regional programs available to assist inventors and small businesses in their state or region. Each program sets the standards for participation, performs the intake function, screens potential clients, screens potential volunteer patent attorneys, and attempts to match the client with the volunteer attorney. These programs may be comprised of bar associations, non-profits, universities, or others. The USPTO, as a federal agency, does not direct the pro bono activities of these programs, but rather, provides resources and expertise to help establish and expand the reach of the programs.
The Office recognizes that applicants may in some cases need to appeal an examiner's decision. The appeal process, however, results in a high cost to the Office irrespective of whether the PTAB affirms or reverses the rejected claims on appeal because the PTAB must process, review, and decide the appeal on the merits. In addition, Office data show that more than 65 percent of the appeals decided on the merits by the PTAB result in an affirmance of at least some of the rejected claims (September 2016 Appeals and Interferences Statistics). The data demonstrate that the PTAB is affirming a larger percentage of rejected claims than it reverses.
The fee increase also will allow the PTAB to continue to reduce the appeals inventory and improve pendency for appeals. Additionally, the Office notes that the notice of appeal fee provides an appellant two months to file a brief, and to have that brief reviewed by two examiners and a supervisor with a subsequent conference regarding the rejection, the brief, and whether the appellant will forward the case to the PTAB for consideration of the appeal on the merits. If the examiner decides to reopen the case or allow it, the cost to an appellant for filing the notice of appeal would be less than the appellant would incur in filing an RCE, which is the other option available when facing rejection. The Office considered the relationship between the options of an appeal, on the one hand, and requesting an RCE, on the other, when determining the appropriate fee rates in this rulemaking.
Between 2012 and 2016 the PTAB also received more than 5,500 petitions for AIA trial proceedings, and met all statutory deadlines in those proceedings. Despite the high demand for these services, the PTAB has continued to meet all AIA statutory deadlines. By targeting a fee increase to the AIA trial fees, the Office is addressing the subsidization of these proceedings in order to allow the PTAB to continue to maintain the appropriate level of judicial and administrative resources to provide high quality and timely decisions for AIA trial proceedings.
As part of the EPQI, the USPTO solicited stakeholder feedback through various outreach efforts and used this feedback to develop and refine multiple programs to improve quality. One of these programs is the Increasing Clarity and Reasoning in Office Action program in which the Office included tips and techniques for drafting clear Office actions as part of examiner training. For example, as part of the Office's training on 35 U.S.C. 101, the USPTO not only taught the relevant changes in the law, but also included examples on how to write clear rejections as well as tips for responding to arguments. As a result of this training, there was a statistically significant improvement in the correctness and clarity of 35 U.S.C. 101 rejections. As part of the Quality Metrics program, the Office overhauled its quality metrics for work products and for examination processes. With respect to work products, the Office used data from the new Master Review Form to create clarity and correctness metrics on a per statute basis, which will allow the Office to better assess how to improve Office action quality. With respect to examination processes, the Office is evaluating certain types of transactions, such as rework and reopenings, to identify trends and examiner behaviors indicative of either best practices or potential quality concerns. Rather than setting targets for the particular transactions, the Office is conducting a root-cause analysis to allow for reopenings and rework where appropriate while providing training to ensure examiners have the necessary skills and resources to be as efficient as possible. These programs highlight only a couple of the programs that the Office is currently implementing to improve quality.
While providing refunds or deducting base or bonus pay from examiners is beyond the scope of this rulemaking, the Office continues to review new and revised approaches to determine what approaches may better incentivize the patent workforce to achieve its strategic goals.
Further, given the lack of maintenance fees to subsidize front-end costs for design patents, the new fee rates aim to more closely align design-related fees with their costs. Even with the increased fee rates, design application processing costs will continue to be subsidized by non-design specific fee revenues. Still, the Office believes the moderate fee rate increases in filing, search, examination, and issue are more appropriately aligned to costs and support the policy factor to foster innovation.
The $411 increase in the RCE expense shown from FY 2014 to FY 2015 comes from an increase in cost for RCE specific work. Total Adjusted Activity expense for the activities `Prepare All Subsequent Actions' and `Perform Subsequent Search' increased the most for applications with RCE activities both before and during the RCE itself. No material changes were made in overhead allocations; however, overhead costs increased, specifically related to investment in Information Technology associated with the Patent End to End System.
In this section the Office provides tables of all fees set or adjusted in the final rule.
Section 1.18(b)(3) is being amended to provide that the issue fee for issuing an international design application designating the United States, where the issue fee is paid through the International Bureau, is the amount established in Swiss currency pursuant to Hague Agreement Rule 28 as of the date of mailing of the notice of allowance (§ 1.311). The amendment would facilitate processing of the issue fee by the International Bureau and would maintain parity in the treatment of the amount of the issue fee due whether paid directly to the USPTO or through the International Bureau in the event the issue fee changes after the mailing of the notice of allowance.
Section 1.1031 is being amended by adding paragraph (f) concerning the designation fee for the United States. As § 1.1031 concerns international design application fees, the Office believes it appropriate to include a provision therein regarding the U.S. designation fee. The amendment is consistent with the U.S. designation fee currently in effect.
This final rule sets and adjusts fees under Section 10(a) of the AIA. Section 10(a) of the AIA authorizes the Director of the USPTO to set or adjust by rule any patent fee established, authorized, or charged under Title 35 of the United States Code (U.S.C.) for any services performed, or materials furnished, by the Office. Section 10 prescribes that fees may be set or adjusted only to recover the aggregate estimated cost to the Office for processing, activities, services, and materials relating to patents, including administrative costs of the Office with respect to such patent fees. Section 10 authority includes flexibility to set individual fees in a way that furthers key policy factors, while taking into account the cost of the respective services. Section 10(e) of the AIA sets forth the general requirements for rulemakings that set or adjust fees under this authority. In particular, Section 10(e)(1) requires the Director to publish in the
The PPAC advises the Under Secretary of Commerce for Intellectual Property and Director of the USPTO on the management, policies, goals, performance, budget, and user fees of patent operations. When proposing fees under Section 10 of the Act, the Director must provide the PPAC with the proposed fees at least 45 days prior to publishing the proposed fees in the
Consistent with this framework, on October 20, 2015, the Director notified the PPAC of the Office's intent to set or adjust patent fees and submitted a preliminary patent fee proposal with supporting materials. The preliminary patent fee proposal and associated materials are available at
The USPTO publishes this Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) as required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601,
The objective of the rule is to implement the fee setting provisions of Section 10 of the Act by setting or adjusting patent fees to recover the aggregate cost of patent operations, including administrative costs, while facilitating effective administration of the U.S. patent system. In setting fees under the Act, the Office seeks to secure a sufficient amount of aggregate revenue to recover the aggregate cost of patent operations, including for achieving strategic and operational goals, such as enhancing patent quality, optimizing the timeliness of patent processing (through reducing patent backlog and pendency), delivering high quality and timely PTAB decisions, invest in modernizing the Patent business IT systems and infrastructure, and implementing a sustainable funding model. Additional information on the Office's strategic goals may be found in the Strategic Plan, available at
The Office did not receive any public comments in response to the IRFA. The Office received comments about fees in general as well as particular fees. Details of those comments are discussed and analyzed above in Part VI. Discussion of Comments.
The Office did not receive any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule.
The Small Business Act (SBA) size standards applicable to most analyses conducted to comply with the RFA are set forth in 13 CFR 121.201. These regulations generally define small businesses as those with less than a specified maximum number of employees or less than a specified level of annual receipts for the entity's industrial sector or North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code. As provided by the RFA, and after consulting with the SBA, the Office formally adopted an alternate size standard for the purpose of conducting an analysis or making a certification under the RFA for patent-related regulations.
The Act provides that fees set or adjusted under Section 10(a) “for filing, searching, examining, issuing, appealing, and maintaining patent applications and patents shall be reduced by 50 percent” with respect to the application of such fees to any “small entity” (as defined in 37 CFR 1.27) that qualifies for reduced fees under 35 U.S.C. 41(h)(1). 125 Stat. at 316-17. 35 U.S.C. 41(h)(1), in turn, provides that certain patent fees “shall be reduced by 50 percent” for a small business concern as defined by Section 3 of the SBA, and to any independent inventor or nonprofit organization as defined in regulations described by the Director.
Section 10(g) of the Act creates a new category of entity called a “micro entity.” 35 U.S.C. 123;
The changes in the rule apply to any entity, including a small or micro entity that pays any patent fee set forth in the final rule. The reduced fee rates (50 percent for small entities and 75 percent for micro entities) apply to any small entity asserting small entity status and to any micro entity certifying micro entity status for filing, searching, examining, issuing, appealing, and maintaining patent applications and patents. The Office reviews historical data to estimate the percentages of application filings asserting small entity status. Table 29 presents a summary of such small and micro entity filings by type of application (utility, reissue, plant, design) over the last five years.
Because the percentage of small entity filings varies widely between application types, the Office has averaged the small entity filing rates over the past five years for those application types in order to estimate future filing rates by small and micro entities. Those average rates appear in the last column of Table 29. The Office estimates that small entity filing rates will continue for the next five years at these average historic rates.
The Office forecasts the number of projected patent applications (
Using the estimated filings for the next five years, and the average historic rates of small entity filings, Table 30 presents the Office's estimates of the number of patent application filings by all applicants, including small and micro entities, over the next five fiscal years by application type.
The Office has undertaken an elasticity analysis to examine if fee adjustments may impact small entities and, in particular, whether increases in fees would result in some such entities not submitting applications. Elasticity measures how sensitive patent applicants and patentees are to fee changes. If elasticity is low enough (demand is
The USPTO continuously updates both patent fee collections projections and workload projections based on the latest data. The estimated number of patent applications have been updated since the NPRM was published in October 2016. UPR filings growth projections were revised downward during the FY 2018 budget formulation process due to revised RGDP estimates and more conservative estimates of out year growth. The most recent projections are shown in Table 30.
When implemented, this rule will not change the burden of existing reporting and recordkeeping requirements for payment of fees. The current requirements for small and micro entities will continue to apply. Therefore, the professional skills necessary to file and prosecute an application through issue and maintenance remain unchanged. This action is only to adjust patent fees and not to set procedures for asserting small entity status or certifying micro entity status, as previously discussed.
The full fee schedule (
The USPTO considered several alternative approaches to this rule, discussed below, including full cost recovery for individual services, an across the board adjustment to fees, and a baseline (current fee rates). The discussion here begins with a description of the fee schedule adopted for this final rule.
The USPTO chose the patent fee schedule in this final rule because it will enable the Office to achieve its goals effectively and efficiently without unduly burdening small entities, erecting barriers to entry, or stifling incentives to innovate. The alternative selected here achieves the aggregate revenue needed for the Office to offset aggregate cost, and is therefore beneficial to all entities that seek patent protection. Also, the alternative selected here benefits from improvements in the design of the fee schedule.
This alternative offers small entities a 50 percent fee reduction and micro entities a 75 percent fee reduction. Under this selected alternative, small and micro entities will pay some higher fees than under some of the other alternatives considered. However, the fees are not as high as those initially proposed to PPAC or in the NPRM.
In summary, the fees to obtain a patent will increase slightly. For example, fees for both tiers of RCEs will increase slightly. Maintenance fee rates remain unchanged at all three stages; however, all reissue patents are now subject to maintenance fee payments if the patent owner wishes to maintain them. In an effort to continue reducing the inventory of
The final fee schedule for this rule, as compared to existing fees (labeled Alternative 1—Final Rule Fee Schedule—Setting and Adjusting Patent Fees during Fiscal Year 2017) is available at
In addition to the fee schedule set forth in Alternative 1, above, the Office considered several other alternative approaches.
The USPTO considered setting most individual large entity fees at the historical cost of performing the activities related to the particular service in FY 2015. This alternative continues existing and offers new small and micro entity discounts where eligible under AIA authority. Aside from maintenance fees, fees for which there is no FY 2015 cost data would be set at current rates under this alternative. The Office no longer collects activity based information for maintenance fees, and previous year unit costs were negligible. This alternative sets maintenance fees at approximately half of the amount of current maintenance fee rates. For the small number of services that have a variable fee, the aggregate revenue table does not list a fee. Instead, for those services with an estimated workload, the workload is listed in dollars rather than units to develop revenue estimates. Fees without either a fixed fee rate or a workload estimate are assumed to provide zero revenue to the Office. Note, this alternative bases fee rates for FY 2017 through FY 2021 on FY 2015 historical costs. The Office recognizes that this approach does not account for inflationary factors that would likely increase costs and necessitate higher fees in the out years.
It is common practice in the Federal government to set individual fees at a level sufficient to recover the cost of that single service. In fact, official guidance on user fees, as cited in OMB Circular A-25:
Alternative 2 would not generate enough aggregate revenue to sufficiently cover the aggregate cost of patent operations and support the Office's strategic priorities to optimize the quality and timeliness of patent processing, deliver high quality and timely PTAB decisions, continue investing in modernizing the USPTO IT systems and infrastructure, or implement a sustainable funding model for operations (this alternative produces enough revenue to meet the minimum patent operating reserve level by the end of FY 2019, but does not keep building towards the optimal patent operating reserve level). It is important for the Office to balance accomplishing the priorities together so that it has sufficient resources to maintain them.
Both the current and final fee schedules are structured to collect more fees at the back-end (
The Office has not attempted to estimate the quantitative elasticity impacts for application filings (
Similarly, the Office suspects that renewal rates could change as well, given significant fee reductions for maintenance fees at each of the three stages. While some innovators and firms may choose to file fewer applications given the higher front-end costs, others, whose claims are allowed or upheld, may seek to fully maximize the benefits of obtaining a patent by keeping those patents in force for longer than they would have previously (
The fee schedule for Alternative 2: Unit Cost Recovery is available at
In years past, the USPTO used its authority to adjust statutory fees annually according to increases in the consumer price index (CPI), which is a commonly used measure of inflation. Building on this prior approach and incorporating the additional authority under the AIA to set small and micro entity fees, Alternative 3 would set fees by applying a one-time 5.0 percent, across the board inflationary increase to the baseline (current fees) beginning in FY 2017. Five percent represents the change in revenue needed to cover budgetary requirements.
As estimated by the Congressional Budget Office, projected CPI rates by fiscal year are: 2.17 percent in FY 2017, 2.39 percent in FY 2018, 2.38 percent in FY 2019, and 2.42 percent in both FY 2020 and FY 2021. The Office elected not to apply the estimated cumulative inflationary adjustment (9.96 percent), from FY 2017 through FY 2021, because doing so would result in significantly more fee revenue than needed to meet the Office's core mission and strategic priorities. Under this alternative, nearly every existing fee would be increased and no fees would be discontinued or reduced. Given that all entities (large,
The fee schedule for Alternative 3: Across the Board Adjustment is available at
The Office considered a no-action alternative. This alternative would retain the current fee schedule, meaning that the Office would continue the small and micro entity discounts that Congress provided in Section 10 of the Act and maintain fees as of January 14, 2017.
This approach would not provide sufficient aggregate revenue to accomplish the Office's rulemaking goals, as set forth in the FY 2018 President's Budget or the Strategic Plan. Optimizing patent quality and timeliness, delivering high quality and timely PTAB decisions and investing in modernizing the USPTO IT systems and infrastructure would continue, but at a slower rate due to funding limitations. Sustainable funding would not be achieved. Without a fee increase, the USPTO would draw the operating reserve down to nothing by FY 2020, and have to cut expenditures.
The RFA provides that an agency also consider four specified “alternatives” or approaches, namely: (1) Establishing different compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) clarifying, consolidating, or simplifying compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) using performance rather than design standards; and (4) exempting small entities from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof. 5 U.S.C. 604(c). The USPTO discusses each of these specified alternatives or approaches below and describes how this rule is adopting these approaches.
As discussed above, the changes in this rule would continue existing fee discounts for small and micro entities that take into account the reduced resources available to them as well as offer new discounts when applicable under AIA authority. Specifically, micro entities would continue to pay a 75 percent reduction in patent fees and non-micro, small entities would continue to pay 50 percent of the fee.
This rule sets fee levels but does not set or alter procedural requirements for asserting small or micro entity status. To pay reduced patent fees, small entities must merely assert small entity status to pay reduced patent fees. The small entity may make this assertion by either checking a box on the transmittal form, “Applicant claims small entity status,” or by paying the small entity fee exactly. The process to claim micro entity status is similar in that eligible entities need only submit a written certification of their status prior to or at the time a reduced fee is paid. This rule does not change any reporting requirements for any small or micro entity. For both small and micro entities, the burden to establish their status is nominal (making an assertion or submitting a certification) and the benefit of the fee reductions (50 percent for small entities and 75 percent for micro entities) is significant.
This rule makes the best use of differing requirements for small and micro entities. It also makes the best use of the redesigned fee structure, as discussed further below.
This rule does not take any actions beyond setting or adjusting patent fees; therefore, there are no clarifications, consolidations, or simplifications subject to discussion here.
Performance standards do not apply to the current rule.
This rule maintains a 50 percent reduction in fees for small entities and a 75 percent reduction in fees for micro entities. The Office considered exempting small and micro entities from paying patent fees, but determined that the USPTO would lack statutory authority for this approach. Section 10(b) of the Act provides that “fees set or adjusted under subsection (a) for filing, searching, examining, issuing, appealing, and maintaining patent applications and patents
The USPTO is the sole agency of the United States Government responsible for administering the provisions of title 35, United States Code, pertaining to examining and granting patents. It is solely responsible for issuing rules to comply with Section 10 of the AIA. No other Federal, state, or local entity has jurisdiction over the examination and granting of patents.
Other countries, however, have their own patent laws, and an entity desiring a patent in a particular country must make an application for patent in that country, in accordance with the applicable law. Although the potential for overlap exists internationally, this cannot be avoided except by treaty (such as the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, or the PCT). Nevertheless, the USPTO believes that there are no other duplicative or overlapping rules.
This rule has been determined to be significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866 (Sept. 30, 1993), as amended by Executive Order 13258 (Feb. 26, 2002) and Executive Order 13422 (Jan. 18, 2007). The Office has developed a RIA as required for rulemakings deemed to be significant. The complete RIA is available at
The Office has complied with Executive Order 13563 (Jan. 18, 2011). Specifically, the Office has, to the extent feasible and applicable: (1) Made a reasoned determination that the benefits justify the costs of the rule; (2) tailored the rule to impose the least burden on society consistent with obtaining the regulatory objectives; (3) selected a regulatory approach that maximizes net benefits; (4) specified performance objectives; (5) identified and assessed available alternatives; (6) involved the public in an open exchange of information and perspectives among experts in relevant disciplines, affected stakeholders in the private sector, and the public as a whole, and provided on-line access to the rulemaking docket; (7) attempted to promote coordination, simplification, and harmonization across government agencies and
This final rule is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017) because this rule involves a transfer payment.
This rule does not contain policies with federalism implications sufficient to warrant preparation of a Federalism Assessment under Executive Order 13132 (Aug. 4, 1999).
Under the Congressional Review Act provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801-808), prior to issuing any final rule, the USPTO will submit a report containing the final rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the Government Accountability Office. The changes in this final rule are expected to result in an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, a major increase in costs or prices, or significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of United States-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises in domestic and export markets. Therefore, this final rule is expected to result in a “major rule” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
The changes in this rule do not involve a Federal intergovernmental mandate that will result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, of $100 million (as adjusted) or more in any one year, or a Federal private sector mandate that will result in the expenditure by the private sector of $100 million (as adjusted) or more in any one year, and will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions are necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
This rule involves information collection requirements that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Administrative practice and procedure, Courts, Freedom of information, Inventions and patents, Reporting and record keeping requirements, Small businesses.
Administrative practice and procedure, Inventions and patents, Lawyers.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 37 CFR parts 1, 41, and 42 are to be amended as follows:
35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2), unless otherwise noted.
(a) Basic fee for filing each application under 35 U.S.C. 111 for an original patent, except design, plant, or provisional applications:
(b) Basic fee for filing each application under 35 U.S.C. 111 for an original design patent:
(c) Basic fee for filing each application for an original plant patent:
(d) Basic fee for filing each provisional application:
(e) Basic fee for filing each application for the reissue of a patent:
(f) Surcharge for filing the basic filing fee, search fee, examination fee, or the inventor's oath or declaration on a date later than the filing date of the application, an application that does not contain at least one claim on the filing date of the application, or an application filed by reference to a previously filed application under § 1.57(a), except provisional applications:
(h) In addition to the basic filing fee in an application, other than a provisional application, for filing or later presentation at any other time of each claim in independent form in excess of 3:
(i) In addition to the basic filing fee in an application, other than a provisional application, for filing or later presentation at any other time of each claim (whether dependent or independent) in excess of 20 (note that § 1.75(c) indicates how multiple dependent claims are considered for fee calculation purposes):
(j) In addition to the basic filing fee in an application, other than a provisional application, that contains, or is amended to contain, a multiple dependent claim, per application:
(k) Search fee for each application filed under 35 U.S.C. 111 for an original
(l) Search fee for each application under 35 U.S.C. 111 for an original design patent:
(m) Search fee for each application for an original plant patent:
(n) Search fee for each application for the reissue of a patent:
(o) Examination fee for each application filed under 35 U.S.C. 111 for an original patent, except design, plant, or provisional applications:
(p) Examination fee for each application under 35 U.S.C. 111 for an original design patent:
(q) Examination fee for each application for an original plant patent:
(r) Examination fee for each application for the reissue of a patent:
(e) To request continued examination pursuant to § 1.114:
(1) For filing a first request for continued examination pursuant to § 1.114 in an application:
(2) For filing a second or subsequent request for continued examination pursuant to § 1.114 in an application:
(h) For filing a petition under one of the following sections which refers to this paragraph (h):
§ 1.84—for accepting color drawings or photographs.
§ 1.91—for entry of a model or exhibit.
§ 1.102(d)—to make an application special.
§ 1.138(c)—to expressly abandon an application to avoid publication.
§ 1.313—to withdraw an application from issue.
§ 1.314—to defer issuance of a patent.
(m) For filing a petition for the revival of an abandoned application for a patent, for the delayed payment of the fee for issuing each patent, for the delayed response by the patent owner in any reexamination proceeding, for the delayed payment of the fee for maintaining a patent in force, for the delayed submission of a priority or benefit claim, for the extension of the twelve-month (six-month for designs) period for filing a subsequent application (§§ 1.55(c) and (e), 1.78(b), (c), and (e), 1.137, 1.378, and 1.452), or for filing a petition to excuse applicant's failure to act within prescribed time limits in an international design application (§ 1.1051):
(p) For an information disclosure statement under § 1.97(c) or (d):
(t) For filing a petition to convert an international design application to a design application under 35 U.S.C. chapter 16 (§ 1.1052):
(a)(1) Issue fee for issuing each original patent, except a design or plant patent, or for issuing each reissue patent:
(2) [Reserved]
(b)(1) Issue fee for issuing an original design patent:
(2) [Reserved]
(3) Issue fee for issuing an international design application designating the United States, where the issue fee is paid through the International Bureau (Hague Agreement Rule 12(3)(c)) as an alternative to paying the issue fee under paragraph (b)(1) of this section: The amount established in Swiss currency pursuant to Hague Agreement Rule 28 as of the date of mailing of the notice of allowance (§ 1.311).
(c)(1) Issue fee for issuing an original plant patent:
(2) [Reserved]
(b) Copies of Office documents to be provided in paper, or in electronic form, as determined by the Director (for other patent-related materials
(1) Copy of a patent application as filed, or a patent-related file wrapper and contents, stored in paper in a paper file wrapper, in an image format in an image file wrapper, or if color documents, stored in paper in an Artifact Folder:
(i) If provided on paper:
(A) Application as filed: $35.00.
(B) File wrapper and contents: $280.00.
(C) [Reserved]
(D) Individual application documents, other than application as filed, per document: $25.00.
(ii) If provided on compact disc or other physical electronic medium in single order or if provided electronically (
(A) Application as filed: $35.00.
(B) File wrapper and contents: $55.00.
(C) [Reserved]
(iii) [Reserved]
(iv) If provided to a foreign intellectual property office pursuant to a bilateral or multilateral agreement (
(4) For assignment records, abstract of title and certification, per patent: $35.00.
(c) Library service (35 U.S.C. 13): For providing to libraries copies of all patents issued annually, per annum: $50.00.
(f) Uncertified copy of a non-United States patent document, per document: $25.00.
(h) Copy of Patent Grant Single-Page TIFF Images (52 week subscription): $10,400.00.
(i) Copy of Patent Grant Full-Text W/Embedded Images, Patent Application Publication Single-Page TIFF Images, or Patent Application Publication Full-Text W/Embedded Images (52 week subscription): $5,200.00.
(j) Copy of Patent Technology Monitoring Team (PTMT) Patent Bibliographic Extract and Other DVD (Optical Disc) Products: $50.00.
(k) Copy of U.S. Patent Custom Data Extracts: $100.00.
(l) Copy of Selected Technology Reports, Miscellaneous Technology Areas: $30.00.
(c) In reexamination proceedings:
(1)(i) For filing a request for
(A) Forty (40) or fewer pages;
(B) Lines that are double-spaced or one-and-a-half spaced;
(C) Text written in a non-script type font such as Arial, Times New Roman, or Courier;
(D) A font size no smaller than 12 point;
(E) Margins which conform to the requirements of § 1.52(a)(1)(ii); and
(F) Sufficient clarity and contrast to permit direct reproduction and electronic capture by use of digital imaging and optical character recognition.
(ii) The following parts of an
(A) The copies of every patent or printed publication relied upon in the request pursuant to § 1.510(b)(3);
(B) The copy of the entire patent for which reexamination is requested pursuant to § 1.510(b)(4); and
(C) The certifications required pursuant to § 1.510(b)(5) and (6).
(2) For filing a request for
(3) For filing with a request for reexamination or later presentation at any other time of each claim in independent form in excess of three and also in excess of the number of claims in independent form in the patent under reexamination:
(4) For filing with a request for reexamination or later presentation at any other time of each claim (whether dependent or independent) in excess of 20 and also in excess of the number of claims in the patent under reexamination (note that § 1.75(c) indicates how multiple dependent claims are considered for fee calculation purposes):
(e) For maintaining an original or any reissue patent, except a design or plant patent, based on an application filed on or after December 12, 1980, in force beyond four years, the fee being due by three years and six months after the original grant:
(f) For maintaining an original or any reissue patent, except a design or plant patent, based on an application filed on or after December 12, 1980, in force beyond eight years, the fee being due by seven years and six months after the original grant:
(g) For maintaining an original or any reissue patent, except a design or plant patent, based on an application filed on or after December 12, 1980, in force beyond twelve years, the fee being due by eleven years and six months after the original grant:
The Patent and Trademark Office has established the following fees for the services indicated:
(a) Registration of attorneys and agents:
(l) For admission to examination for registration to practice:
(i) Application Fee (non-refundable): $100.00.
(ii) Registration examination fee.
(A) For test administration by commercial entity: $200.00.
(B) For test administration by the USPTO: $450.00.
(iii) For USPTO-administered review of registration examination: $450.00.
(2) On registration to practice or grant of limited recognition:
(i) On registration to practice under § 11.6 of this chapter: $200.00.
(ii) On grant of limited recognition under § 11.9(b) of this chapter: $200.00.
(iii) On change of registration from agent to attorney: $100.00.
(3) [Reserved]
(4) For certificate of good standing as an attorney or agent:
(i) Standard: $40.00.
(ii) Suitable for framing: $50.00.
(5) For review of decision:
(i) By the Director of Enrollment and Discipline under § 11.2(c) of this chapter: $400.00.
(ii) Of the Director of Enrollment and Discipline under § 11.2(d) of this chapter: $400.00.
(6) Recovery/Retrieval of OED Information System Customer Interface account by USPTO:
(i) For USPTO-assisted recovery of ID or reset of password: $70.00.
(ii) For USPTO-assisted change of address: $70.00.
(7) [Reserved]
(8) [Reserved]
(9)(i) Delinquency fee: $50.00.
(ii) Administrative reinstatement fee: $200.00.
(10) On application by a person for recognition or registration after
(b) Deposit accounts:
(1) [Reserved]
(2) Service charge for each month when the balance at the end of the month is below $1,000: $25.00.
(3) Service charge for each month when the balance at the end of the month is below $300 for restricted subscription deposit accounts used exclusively for subscription order of patent copies as issued: $25.00.
(c) [Reserved]
(d) [Reserved]
(e) International type search reports: For preparing an international type search report of an international type search made at the time of the first action on the merits in a national patent application: $40.00.
(f) [Reserved]
(g) [Reserved]
(h) For recording each assignment, agreement, or other paper relating to the property in a patent or application, per property:
(1) If submitted electronically, on or after January 1, 2014: $0.00.
(2) If not submitted electronically: $50.00.
(i) Publication in Official Gazette: For publication in the Official Gazette of a notice of the availability of an application or a patent for licensing or sale: Each application or patent: $25.00.
(j) [Reserved]
(k) [Reserved]
(l) [Reserved]
(m) For processing each payment refused (including a check returned “unpaid”) or charged back by a financial institution: $50.00.
(n) For handling an application in which proceedings are terminated pursuant to § 1.53(e): $130.00.
(o) The submission of very lengthy sequence listings (mega-sequence listings) are subject to the following fees:
(1) Submission of sequence listings in electronic form ranging in size from 300 MB to 800 MB:
(2) Submission of sequence listings in electronic form exceeding 800 MB in size:
(p) Additional Fee for Overnight Delivery: $40.00.
(q) Additional Fee for Expedited Service: $160.00.
(b) Maintenance fees are not required for any plant patents or for any design patents.
(a) * * *
(5) Late furnishing fee for providing a sequence listing in response to an invitation under PCT Rule 13
(c) Late furnishing fee for providing a sequence listing in response to an invitation under PCT Rule 13
(a) The basic national fee for an international application entering the national stage under 35 U.S.C. 371:
(b) * * *
(2) If the search fee as set forth in § 1.445(a)(2) has been paid on the international application to the United States Patent and Trademark Office as an International Searching Authority:
(3) If an international search report on the international application has been prepared by an International Searching Authority other than the United States International Searching Authority and is provided, or has been previously communicated by the International Bureau, to the Office:
(4) In all situations not provided for in paragraph (b)(1), (2), or (3) of this section:
(c) The examination fee for an international application entering the national stage under 35 U.S.C. 371:
(2) In all situations not provided for in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
(d) In addition to the basic national fee, for filing or on later presentation at any other time of each claim in independent form in excess of 3:
(e) In addition to the basic national fee, for filing or on later presentation at any other time of each claim (whether dependent or independent) in excess of 20 (note that § 1.75(c) indicates how multiple dependent claims are considered for fee calculation purposes):
(f) In addition to the basic national fee, if the application contains, or is amended to contain, a multiple dependent claim, per application:
(a) International design applications filed through the Office as an office of indirect filing are subject to payment of a transmittal fee (35 U.S.C. 382(b) and Article 4(2)) in the amount of:
(f) The designation fee for the United States shall consist of:
(1) A first part established in Swiss currency pursuant to Hague Rule 28 based on the combined amounts of the basic filing fee (§ 1.16(b)), search fee (§ 1.16(l)), and examination fee (§ 1.16(p)) for a design application. The first part is payable at the time of filing the international design application; and
(2) A second part (issue fee) as provided in § 1.18(b). The second part is payable within the period specified in a notice of allowance (§ 1.311).
35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2), 3(a)(2)(A), 21, 23, 32, 41, 134, 135, and Public Law 112-29.
(b) * * *
(4) In addition to the fee for filing a notice of appeal, for forwarding an appeal in an application or
35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2), 6, 21, 23, 41, 135, 311, 312, 316, 321-326; Pub. L. 112-29, 125 Stat. 284; and Pub. L. 112-274, 126 Stat. 2456.
(a) On filing a petition for
(1)
(2)
(3) In addition to the
(4) In addition to the
(b) On filing a petition for post-grant review or covered business method patent review of a patent, payment of the following fees are due:
(1) Post-Grant or Covered Business Method Patent Review request fee: $16,000.00.
(2) Post-Grant or Covered Business Method Patent Review Post-Institution fee: $22,000.00.
(3) In addition to the Post-Grant or Covered Business Method Patent Review request fee, for requesting review of each claim in excess of 20: $375.00
(4) In addition to the Post-Grant or Covered Business Method Patent Review Post-Institution fee, for requesting review of each claim in excess of 15: $825.00.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |