Page Range | 8743-8921 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 8867 - Sunshine Act Meeting; Farm Credit Administration Board | |
83 FR 8870 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
83 FR 8855 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
83 FR 8898 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Requirements of a Bona Fide Thrift or Savings Plan and Requirements of a Bona Fide Profit-Sharing Plan or Trust | |
83 FR 8900 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Representative Payee Report, Representative Payee Report Short Form, and Physician's/Medical Officer's Statement | |
83 FR 8901 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Telephone Point of Purchase Survey | |
83 FR 8898 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Powered Industrial Trucks Standard | |
83 FR 8899 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Survey of Employer Policies on the Employment of People With Disabilities | |
83 FR 8877 - Meunerie Sawyerville, Inc.; Denial of Hearing; Final Debarment Order | |
83 FR 8827 - Receipt of a Pesticide Petition Filed for Residues of Pesticide Chemicals in or on Various Commodities | |
83 FR 8758 - Methyl Bromide; Pesticide Tolerances for Emergency Exemptions | |
83 FR 8818 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; New Jersey; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2008 Lead, 2008 Ozone, 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide, 2010 Sulfur Dioxide, 2011 Carbon Monoxide, 2006 PM10 | |
83 FR 8866 - National Environmental Justice Advisory Council; Public Teleconference and Public Comment; Correction | |
83 FR 8866 - Settlement Agreement and Order on Consent: Gilt Edge Mine Superfund Site, Lead, Lawrence County, South Dakota | |
83 FR 8917 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Dead Sea Scrolls: The Exhibition” Exhibition | |
83 FR 8890 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; New; Correction | |
83 FR 8864 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
83 FR 8814 - Air Plan Approval; Virginia; Regional Haze Plan and Visibility for the 2010 SO2 | |
83 FR 8752 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Maryland; 2011 Base Year Inventory for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard for the Maryland Portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City Nonattainment Area | |
83 FR 8904 - PSEG Nuclear, LLC; Exelon Generation Company, LLC; Salem Nuclear Generating Station, Unit Nos. 1 and 2; Rod Position Indicators | |
83 FR 8812 - Plan for Periodic Review of Regulations | |
83 FR 8874 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
83 FR 8872 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
83 FR 8883 - Susceptibility Test Interpretive Criteria Recognized and Listed on the Susceptibility Test Interpretive Web Page; Reopening of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 8747 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Sacramento River, Sacramento, CA | |
83 FR 8839 - Stainless Steel Bar From Brazil: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2016-2017 | |
83 FR 8835 - Foreign-Trade Zone 231-Stockton, California; Withdrawal of Application for Subzone Expansion; Medline Industries, Inc.; Lathrop, California | |
83 FR 8918 - Notice of Continuation and Request for Nominations for the Intergovernmental Policy Advisory Committee on Trade | |
83 FR 8907 - New Postal Products | |
83 FR 8885 - Clinical Chemistry and Clinical Toxicology Devices Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 8859 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Reaffirmation Agreement | |
83 FR 8748 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Point Pleasant Canal, Point Pleasant, NJ | |
83 FR 8903 - 60-Day Notice for the “NEA Panelist Profile Data” | |
83 FR 8895 - Investigations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
83 FR 8890 - Notice of Determinations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance | |
83 FR 8903 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
83 FR 8920 - Drugged Driving Call to Action Meeting | |
83 FR 8918 - E.O. 13224 Designation of Jund al-Khilafah in Tunisia, aka ISIS-Tunisia, aka ISIS-Tunisia Province, aka Soldiers of the Caliphate, aka Jund al-Khilafa, aka Jund al Khilafah, aka Jund al-Khilafah fi Tunis, aka Soldiers of the Caliphate in Tunisia, aka Tala I Jund al-Khilafah, aka Vanguards of the Soldiers of the Caliphate, aka Daesh Tunisia, aka Ajnad, as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
83 FR 8832 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Redistricting Data Program | |
83 FR 8882 - E6(R2) Good Clinical Practice: Integrated Addendum to E6(R1); International Council for Harmonisation; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 8880 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Guidance for Industry, Researchers, Patient Groups, and Food and Drug Administration Staff on Meetings With the Office of Orphan Products Development | |
83 FR 8875 - Proposed Data Collections Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
83 FR 8870 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
83 FR 8807 - Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation Airplanes | |
83 FR 8810 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc., Airplanes | |
83 FR 8841 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Lighthouse Repair and Tour Operations at Northwest Seal Rock, California | |
83 FR 8830 - Meetings | |
83 FR 8832 - Notice of Public Meetings of the Texas Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 8831 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Montana Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 8830 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Texas Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 8831 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Alaska Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 8855 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
83 FR 8863 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
83 FR 8863 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
83 FR 8835 - Biodiesel From Indonesia: Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
83 FR 8837 - Biodiesel From Argentina: Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value and Final Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances, in Part | |
83 FR 8867 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Revisions; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8861 - Pieridae Energy (USA), Ltd. | |
83 FR 8874 - Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 8873 - Office for State, Tribal, Local and Territorial Support (OSTLTS), Tribal Advisory Committee (TAC) Meeting and 18th Biannual Tribal Consultation Session); Cancellation of Meeting | |
83 FR 8873 - Board of Scientific Counselors, Office of Public Health and Preparedness and Response, (BSC, OPHPR); Correction | |
83 FR 8877 - Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee (CLIAC); Notice of Charter Renewal | |
83 FR 8877 - Advisory Committee to the Director (ACD), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC): Notice of Charter Renewal | |
83 FR 8853 - Commission Agenda and Priorities; Notice of Hearing | |
83 FR 8907 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 2 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, To Amend Interpretation and Policy .07 of Exchange Rule 4.11, Position Limits, To Increase the Position Limits for Options on Certain Exchange Traded Products | |
83 FR 8912 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend EDGX Rule 21.1(c) To Further Align the Exchange's Rules With That of Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. as They Relate to the Equity Options Platform | |
83 FR 8914 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To Adopt New Order Type Protections, Butterfly and Box Spread Protections for Complex Order Strategy Trades | |
83 FR 8913 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 1082 and Eliminate Obsolete Language Referring to Legacy Phlx XL System | |
83 FR 8768 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Gulf of Alaska; Final 2018 and 2019 Harvest Specifications for Groundfish | |
83 FR 8764 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Atlantic Mackerel, Squid, and Butterfish Fisheries; Specifications | |
83 FR 8919 - Public Meeting Regarding NHTSA's Research Portfolio | |
83 FR 8860 - Southern LNG Company, L.L.C.; Application for Blanket Authorization To Export Liquefied Natural Gas to Non-Free Trade Agreement Countries on a Short-Term Basis | |
83 FR 8907 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
83 FR 8886 - National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 8886 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 8887 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 8828 - Radio Broadcasting Services; Desert Hills, Arizona | |
83 FR 8902 - Notice of Proposed Information Collection Requests: 2019-2021 IMLS Grants to States Program “Five Year State Plan Guidelines” | |
83 FR 8822 - Revisions to California State Implementation Plan; Bay Area Air Quality Management District; Stationary Sources; New Source Review | |
83 FR 8750 - Determination To Defer Sanctions; Bay Area Air Quality Management District | |
83 FR 8870 - Notice of Proposals To Engage in or To Acquire Companies Engaged in Permissible Nonbanking Activities | |
83 FR 8870 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
83 FR 8921 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request on Information Collection Tools Relating to IRS Customer Satisfaction Surveys | |
83 FR 8756 - Air Plan Approval; Illinois; Redesignation of the Illinois Portion of the St. Louis-St. Charles-Farmington, Missouri-Illinois Area to Attainment of the 2008 Ozone Standard | |
83 FR 8804 - Onions Grown in South Texas; Proposed Amendment to Marketing Order 959 | |
83 FR 8748 - Safety Zone; Tennessee River, Miles 446.0 to 454.5 | |
83 FR 8802 - Grapes Grown in a Designated Area of Southeastern California; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
83 FR 8745 - Airworthiness Directives; Agusta S.p.A. Helicopters | |
83 FR 8743 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters | |
83 FR 8887 - Drawn Stainless Steel Sinks From China; Institution of Five-Year Reviews | |
83 FR 8854 - Air University Board of Visitors Meeting |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Census Bureau
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Air Force Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Employment and Training Administration
Institute of Museum and Library Services
Federal Aviation Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, AS332L1, AS332L2, and EC225LP helicopters. This AD requires inspecting the sliding cabin plug door (sliding door). This AD was prompted by the failure of the sliding door's jettison mechanism due to corrosion. The actions of this AD are intended to address an unsafe condition in these products.
This AD is effective April 5, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain documents listed in this AD as of April 5, 2018.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
David Hatfield, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5116; email
On March 3, 2017, at 82 FR 12424, the
The NPRM proposed to require visually inspecting for and removing any sealing compound from the sliding doors and any corrosion from all visible bracket surfaces, measuring corrosion depth and performing a jettisoning test if there is corrosion, and measuring the clearance between the bracket and stainless steel pipe to ensure a minimum clearance. For Model EC225LP helicopters and Model AS332-series helicopters with modification AL25612, the NPRM also proposed inspecting for drain obstruction. The proposed requirements were intended to prevent corrosion damage, which can hinder jettisoning the door during an emergency, jeopardizing the safe evacuation of occupants.
The NPRM was prompted by AD No. 2015-0156, dated July 29, 2015, and corrected July 30, 2015, issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, to correct an unsafe condition for the Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, AS332L1, and AS332L2 helicopters manufactured before July 14, 2014, and equipped with sliding doors modified in accordance with Airbus Helicopters modification (MOD) AL25612 or 0725870. EASA AD No. 2015-0156 also applies to Airbus Helicopters Model EC225LP helicopters manufactured before July 14, 2014, and equipped with sliding doors.
EASA advises that the sliding door's emergency jettisoning mechanism failed during a scheduled inspection because of significant corrosion damage caused by water accumulation from a plastic-rubber compound that obstructed the water drain of the jettison mechanism system. According to EASA, this condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to jamming of the jettisoning mechanism, possibly preventing the jettisoning of the door during an emergency and jeopardizing the safe evacuation of occupants. To address this unsafe condition, EASA AD No. 2015-0156 requires a one-time inspection of the left hand and right hand sliding doors for corrosion.
Since the NPRM was issued, the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service has changed its organization structure. The new structure replaces product directorates with functional divisions. We have revised some of the office titles and nomenclature throughout this Final rule to reflect the new organizational changes. Additional information about the new structure can be found in the Notice published on July 25, 2017 (82 FR 34564).
After our NPRM was published, we received comments from two commenters.
Both commenters requested that we require replacement of the entire door jettisoning system. In support of this request, the commenters stated that only replacing corroded parts and not the entire system does not eliminate the danger of the parts corroding again.
We disagree. The AD does not only require the replacement of corroded parts. It also requires removing any sealing compound, measuring any corrosion and testing the door jettisoning mechanism, ensuring the clearance between the bracket and stainless steel pipe, and ensuring there is no obstruction of the drain on the roller well bracket. We determined that the combination of these actions reduces the risk of the corrosion recurring to an acceptable level and is therefore sufficient to correct the unsafe condition.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of France and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with France, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the EASA AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA, reviewed the relevant information, considered the comments received, and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
The EASA AD requires compliance within various times, depending on the helicopter model and modifications. This AD requires compliance within 30 days.
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. AS332-53.01.86, Revision 1, dated June 29, 2015 (ASB AS332-53.01.86), for Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, AS332L1, and AS332L2 helicopters and military model AS332B, B1, F1, M, and M1 helicopters; and Alert Service Bulletin No. EC225-53A048, Revision 0, dated August 18, 2014 (ASB EC225-53A048), for Model EC225LP helicopters. ASB AS332-53.01.86 and ASB EC225-53A048 specify checking areas of the emergency jettisoning system of the sliding doors for the absence of sealing compound, for corrosion on the visible surfaces of the bracket, for the absence of interference between the stainless steel pipe and the aluminum bracket, and for non-obstruction of the drain.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 24 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect that visually inspecting for corrosion requires 1 work-hour and no parts for a total cost of $85 per helicopter, and $2,040 for the U.S. fleet. Replacing corroded parts requires 8 work-hours and parts cost $500 for a total cost of $1,180 per helicopter. Replacing the door jettisoning system requires 16 work-hours and parts cost $4,500 for a total cost of $5,860 per helicopter.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to the following Airbus Helicopters, certificated in any category:
(1) Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, AS332L1, and AS332L2 helicopters with a date of manufacture on or before July 14, 2014, and with a sliding cabin plug door (sliding door) with Airbus Helicopters modification AL25612 or 0725870 installed; and
(2) Model EC225LP helicopters with a date of manufacture on or before July 14, 2014.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as corrosion of a jettisoning mechanism which, if not detected and corrected, could result in failure of a sliding door to jettison, preventing occupants from exiting the helicopter during an emergency.
This AD becomes effective April 5, 2018.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
Within 30 days:
(1) Visually inspect the left-hand and right-hand sliding doors for sealing compound as shown in Figure 1 of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. AS332-53.01.86, Revision 1, dated June 29, 2015 (ASB AS332-53.01.86), or Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. EC225-53A048, Revision 0, dated August 18, 2014 (ASB EC225-53A048), as applicable for your model helicopter. Remove any sealing compound.
(2) Inspect all visible bracket surfaces for corrosion. If there is any corrosion, remove the corrosion and measure the corrosion depth.
(i) If the measured corrosion depth is less than 0.5 mm, perform a jettisoning test. If the door passes the test, apply corrosion protectant. If the door does not pass the test, replace the jettisoning system before further flight.
(ii) If the measured corrosion depth is 0.5 mm or more, perform a jettisoning test. If the door passes the test, apply corrosion protectant, perform a jettisoning test at intervals not to exceed two months for not more than six months, and replace the jettisoning system within six months. If the door does not pass the test, replace the jettisoning system before further flight.
(3) Measure the clearance between the bracket and stainless steel pipe. If the clearance is less than 3 mm, remove the lockwire from the union and loosen the unions of the air vent pipe. Position the support and the air vent pipe to ensure a minimum clearance of 3 mm. Tighten the support and unions of the pipe and safety the union using lockwire.
(4) For Model EC225LP helicopters and Model AS332-series helicopters with modification AL25612, inspect for drain obstruction by compressing the middle rail roller well piston and injecting distilled water through the roller well to determine if the water drains. If the drain is obstructed, remove the sealing compound and adhesive from the gutter in the bracket area. Remove the drain from the gutter and unclog the drain and gutter using a spatula or brush. Clean the gutter on the bracket side and the drain. Apply adhesive to the gutter and then slide in the drain. Allow the adhesive to dry, and then apply sealing compound.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: David Hatfield, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5116; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2015-0156, dated July 29, 2015, and corrected July 30, 2015. You may view the EASA AD on the internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 5220, Emergency Exits.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. AS332-53.01.86, Revision 1, dated June 29, 2015.
(ii) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. EC225-53A048, Revision 0, dated August 18, 2014.
(3) For Airbus Helicopters service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Agusta S.p.A. Model AB139 and Model AW139 helicopters. This AD requires inspecting the thickness of the tail gearbox (TGB) central housing (housing). This AD was prompted by reports that the housing thickness does not conform to its type design. The actions of this AD are intended to detect and correct an unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective April 5, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain document listed in this AD as of April 5, 2018.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Leonardo S.p.A., Matteo Ragazzi, Head of Airworthiness, Viale G.Agusta 520, 21017 C.Costa di Samarate (Va) Italy; telephone +39-0331-711756; fax +39-0331-229046; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
On September 22, 2017, at 82 FR 44363, the
The NPRM was prompted by AD No. 2016-0246, dated December 13, 2016, issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, to correct an unsafe condition for Leonardo S.p.A. (formerly Finmeccanica S.p.A. and Agusta S.p.A.) Model AB139 and Model AW139 helicopters.
EASA advises that the thickness of some sections of the housing do not conform to the type design and could lead to premature cracks in the housing, resulting in failure of the tail gear rotor transmission and reduced control of the helicopter. The EASA AD consequently requires a one-time inspection to determine the thickness of the housing wall, and depending on the findings, replacing the housing or TGB assembly with an airworthy part.
The FAA is in the process of updating Agusta S.p.A.'s name change to Leonardo S.p.A. on its FAA type certificate. Because this name change is not yet effective, this AD specifies Agusta S.p.A. as the type certificate holder.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD, but we received no comments on the NPRM.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of Italy and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with Italy, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the EASA AD. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
If a housing has fewer than 7,500 hours TIS, the EASA AD requires a dimensional inspection of the housing wall at a helicopter's first return to a shop or service station for a TGB overhaul or repair after the EASA AD's effective date but no later than 7,500 hours TIS. This AD requires such an inspection only before reaching 7,500 hours TIS.
We reviewed Leonardo Helicopters Bollettino Tecnico No. 139-274, dated September 14, 2016 (BT 139-274), which specifies procedures for a dimensional check of the housing or TGB to determine the thickness of the housing wall. For housings with fewer than 7,500 flight hours, BT 139-274 specifies compliance with the dimensional check by measurement during the next repair or overhaul, and replacing the housing if it does not meet its thickness requirement. For housings with 7,500 or more flight hours, BT 139-274 specifies compliance with the dimensional check by ultrasonic inspection within 300 flight hours, and replacing the TGB if it does not meet its thickness requirement. BT 139-274 excludes certain serial-numbered housings from the applicability because they were inspected before delivery to customers.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 103 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect the following costs:
• Measuring the thickness of the housing requires .5 work-hour, and no parts are needed for a total cost of $43 per helicopter.
• Ultrasonic inspecting the thickness of the housing requires 2 work-hours, and no parts are needed for a total cost of $170 per helicopter.
• Replacing the TGB housing requires 5 work-hours, and parts cost $11,185 for a total cost of $11,610 per helicopter.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Agusta S.p.A. Model AB139 and Model AW139 helicopters, certificated in any category, with a tail gearbox (TGB) assembly part number (P/N) 3T6522A00239, 3T6522A00242, 3T6522A00243, or 3T6522A00246 that has a
This AD defines the unsafe condition as nonconforming thickness in a section of a TGB central housing, which can lead to a crack in the TGB central housing. This condition could result in the failure of the tail gear rotor transmission and loss of helicopter control.
This AD becomes effective April 5, 2018.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) For helicopters with a TGB central housing with less than 7,500 hours time-in-service (TIS), before accumulating 7,500 hours TIS, measure the thickness of the central housing in accordance with the Compliance Instructions, Part I paragraphs 1. and 2., of Leonardo Helicopters Bollettino Tecnico No. 139-274, dated September 14, 2016 (BT 139-274). If the thickness is less than 2.65 mm (0.104 inch), replace the TGB central housing before further flight.
(2) For helicopters with a TGB central housing with 7,500 or more hours TIS, within 300 hours TIS, ultrasonic inspect the TGB in accordance with the Compliance Instructions, Part II paragraphs 4. through 4.5 of BT 139-274. If the thickness is less than 2.65 mm (0.104 inch), replace the TGB before further flight.
(3) After the effective date of this AD, do not install a central housing P/N 3T6522A05144 or 3T6522A05146, all serial numbers except those listed in Table 1 of BT 139-274, on any helicopter unless it has passed inspection in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this AD.
Special flight permits are prohibited.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Matt Fuller, Senior Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Section, Rotorcraft Standards Branch, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2016-0246, dated December 13, 2016. You may view the EASA AD on the internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6720, Tail Rotor Control System.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Leonardo Helicopters Bollettino Tecnico No. 139-274, dated September 14, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Leonardo Helicopters service information identified in this AD, contact Leonardo S.p.A., Matteo Ragazzi, Head of Airworthiness, Viale G.Agusta 520, 21017 C.Costa di Samarate (Va) Italy; telephone +39-0331-711756; fax +39-0331-229046; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Tower Drawbridge across the Sacramento River, mile 59.0 at Sacramento, CA. The deviation is necessary to allow the local community to participate in footrace events. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position during the deviation period.
This deviation is effective from 8 a.m. on March 10, 2018 to 1 p.m. on March 11, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2018-0071, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Carl T. Hausner, Chief, Bridge Section, Eleventh Coast Guard District; telephone 510-437-3516, email
The California Department of Transportation has requested a temporary change to the operation of the Tower Drawbridge, mile 59.0, over Sacramento River, at Sacramento, CA. The drawbridge navigation span provides a vertical clearance of 30 feet above Mean High Water in the closed-to-navigation position. The draw operates as required by 33 CFR 117.189(a). Navigation on the waterway is commercial and recreational.
The drawspan will be secured in the closed-to-navigation position from 8 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. on March 10, 2018, and from 7:30 a.m. to 1 p.m. on March 11, 2018, to allow the community to participate in the Shamrock 5K footrace and the Shamrock Half Marathon, respectively. This temporary deviation has been coordinated with the waterway users. No objections to the proposed temporary deviation were raised.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Bridge Avenue Bridge (Route 13) across Point Pleasant Canal, mile 3.9, Point Pleasant, NJ. The temporary deviation is necessary to facilitate electrical transformer, and back-up diesel motor repairs. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective from March 1, 2018 through 3:30 p.m. on March 2, 2018. For purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from 7 a.m. on February 26, 2018, until March 1, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2018-0150] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Martin Bridges, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6422, email
The New Jersey Department of Transportation, who owns and operates the Bridge Avenue Bridge (Route 13) across the Point Pleasant Canal, mile 3.9, Point Pleasant, NJ, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulation. This temporary deviation is necessary to facilitate electrical transformer, and back-up diesel motor repairs. The bridge is a lift bridge, and has a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 30 feet above mean high water.
The current operating schedule is set out in 33 CFR 117.5. Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will remain in the closed-to-navigation position from 7 a.m. on February 26, 2018, to 3:30 p.m. on March 2, 2018. Point Pleasant Canal is used by a variety of vessels including recreational vessels, and small commercial vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
The bridge will not be able to open during the maintenance period. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a safety zone for all navigable waters of the Tennessee River, beginning at mile marker 446.0 and ending at mile marker 454.5 during periods of high water flow. This safety zone is necessary to provide safety for mariners transiting on the Tennessee River during periods of high water flow. Entry into this area will be prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Ohio Valley or designated representative.
This rule is effective on March 5, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Petty Officer Vera Max, MSD Nashville, Nashville, TN, at 615-736-5421 or at
The Captain of the Port Ohio Valley is establishing a safety zone for all navigable waters of the Tennessee River, from mile 446.0 to 454.5 during periods of high water flow. This safety zone is necessary to provide safety for mariners transiting on the Tennessee River during periods of high water flow. There have been temporary final rules issued in the past establishing a safety zone on the Tennessee River beginning at mile marker 446.0 and ending at mile marker 454.5 when flow rates reached or exceeded 100,000 cubic feet per second at Chickamauga lock and dam. Examples of these previous temporary final rules were published under docket numbers USCG-2013-0025 and USCG-2011-1148. This rulemaking is also necessary to more efficiently effect necessary safety measures during emergent high water events in the future by reducing administrative burden and the amount of paperwork required for multiple individual rulemakings. The Tennessee River beginning at mile marker 446.0 and ending at 454.5 poses a navigational hazard during periods of high water flow. A high water flow determination for this area is established when flow rates reach or exceed 100,000 cubic feet per second at Chickamauga lock and dam on the Tennessee River at mile marker 471.0. The Captain of the Port Sector Ohio Valley (COTP) has determined that additional safety measures are necessary
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The COTP has determined that potential hazards are associated with the Tennessee River beginning at mile marker 446.0 and ending at 454.5 posing a navigational hazard during periods of high water flow.
As noted above, we received no comments on our NPRM published January 13, 2017. The regulatory text of this rule was changed from the proposed rule in the NPRM to provide a certain effective date.
The COTP is establishing a safety zone for all navigable waters of the Tennessee River beginning at mile marker 446.0 and ending at mile marker 454.5. Vessels or persons will not be able to enter into, depart from, or move within this area without permission from the COTP or designated representative. Persons or vessels requiring entry into or passage through the safety zone will be required to request permission from the COTP, or designated representative. They can be contacted on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16, or through Coast Guard Sector Ohio Valley at 1-800-253-7465. This rule is effective during periods of high water flow when flow rates reach or exceed 100,000 cubic feet per second at Chickamauga lock and dam. The COTP will inform the public through broadcast notices to mariners during periods of high water flow when the safety zone is established as well as when flow rates fall below 100,000 cubic feet per second and the safety zone is no longer in effect.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-day of the safety zone. Vessel traffic will only be impacted during times of high water which pose dangerous navigational hazards when flow rates exceed 100,000 cubic feet per second at Chickamauga lock and dam. Moreover, the Coast Guard would issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone, and the rule would allow vessels to seek permission to enter the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above this rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone that will prohibit entry within the regulated area. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(h) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. An environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) Persons or vessels desiring entry into or passage through the zone must request permission from the COTP or a designated representative. U.S. Coast Guard Sector Ohio Valley may be contacted on VHF Channel 13 or 16, or at 1-800-253-7465.
(3) All persons and vessels shall comply with the instructions of the COTP and designated U.S. Coast Guard patrol personnel. On-scene U.S. Coast Guard patrol personnel include commissioned, warrant, and petty officers of the U.S. Coast Guard.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Interim final determination.
The EPA is making an interim final determination to defer imposition of sanctions based on a proposed determination, published elsewhere in this
This interim final determination is effective on March 1, 2018. However, comments will be accepted until April 2, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2018-0080 at
Laura Yannayon, EPA Region 9, (415) 972-3534,
Throughout this document, the terms “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.
On August 1, 2016 (81 FR 50339), the EPA issued a final limited approval and limited disapproval for revisions to the BAAQMD portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP) that had been submitted by CARB to the EPA for approval (the 2016 NSR action). The 2016 NSR action addressed the BAAQMD's permitting program for the issuance of New Source Review (NSR) permits for stationary sources, including review and permitting of major and minor sources under the Act. In our 2016 NSR action, we determined that while BAAQMD's SIP revision submittal strengthened the SIP, the submittal did not fully meet the requirements for NSR permitting programs under the CAA. Our 2016 NSR action included a final limited
On December 6, 2017, BAAQMD revised its NSR permit program rules and on December 14, 2017, CARB submitted the revised NSR permit program rules to the EPA for approval into the California SIP (December 2017 NSR submittal). These revised rules are intended to address the limited disapproval issues under title I, part D that we identified in our 2016 NSR action. In the Proposed Rules section of this
The EPA is providing the public with an opportunity to comment on this deferral of sanctions. If comments are submitted that change our assessment described in this interim final determination and the proposed full approval of BAAQMD's December 2017 NSR submittal with respect to the title I, part D deficiencies identified in our 2016 NSR action, we would take final action to lift this deferral of sanctions under 40 CFR 52.31. If no comments are submitted that change our assessment, then all sanctions and any sanction clocks triggered by our 2016 NSR action would be permanently terminated on the effective date of our final approval of BAAQMD's December 2017 NSR submittal.
We are making an interim final determination to defer CAA section 179 sanctions associated with our limited disapproval action on August 1, 2016 of BAAQMD's NSR permitting program with respect to the requirements of part D of title I of the CAA. This determination is based on our concurrent proposal to fully approve BAAQMD's December 2017 NSR submittal, which resolves the deficiencies that triggered sanctions under section 179 of the CAA.
Because the EPA has preliminarily determined that BAAQMD's December 2017 NSR submittal addresses the deficiencies under part D of title I of the CAA identified in our 2016 NSR action and is fully approvable, relief from sanctions should be provided as quickly as possible. Therefore, the EPA is invoking the good cause exception under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) in not providing an opportunity for comment before this action takes effect (5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)). However, by this action, the EPA is providing the public with a chance to comment on the EPA's determination after the effective date, and the EPA will consider any comments received in determining whether to reverse such action.
The EPA believes that notice-and-comment rulemaking before the effective date of this action is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. The EPA has reviewed the State's submittal and, through its proposed action, is indicating that it is more likely than not that the State has submitted a revision to the SIP that corrects deficiencies under part D of the Act that were the basis for the action that started the sanctions clocks. Therefore, it is not in the public interest to impose sanctions. The EPA believes that it is necessary to use the interim final rulemaking process to defer sanctions while the EPA completes its rulemaking process on the approvability of the State's submittal. Moreover, with respect to the effective date of this action, the EPA is invoking the good cause exception to the 30-day notice requirement of the APA because the purpose of this notice is to relieve a restriction (5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1)).
This action defers sanctions and imposes no additional requirements.
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA. This action defers sanctions and imposes no new requirements.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities. This action defers sanctions and imposes no new requirements.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. This action defers sanctions and imposes no new requirements. In addition, this action does not apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This rule is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This rule is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes that this action is not subject to Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994) because it does not establish an environmental health or safety standard. This action defers sanctions in accordance with CAA regulatory provisions and imposes no additional requirements.
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. The CRA allows the issuing agency to make a rule effective sooner than otherwise provided by the CRA if the agency makes a good cause finding that notice and comment rulemaking procedures are impracticable, unnecessary or contrary to the public interest (5 U.S.C. 808(2)). The EPA has made a good cause finding for this rule as discussed in section II of this preamble, including the basis for that finding.
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by April 30, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the EPA Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this rule for the purpose of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see CAA section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving the 2011 base year inventory for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City marginal nonattainment area for the 2008 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS). The State of Maryland submitted the emission inventory, which included the ozone precursors, nitrogen oxides (NO
This final rule is effective on April 2, 2018.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0149. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Sara Calcinore, (215) 814-2043, or by email at
Ground level ozone is formed when NO
On July 18, 1997, EPA promulgated a revised ozone NAAQS of 0.08 ppm, averaged over eight hours. 62 FR 38855. This 8-hour ozone NAAQS was determined to be more protective of public health than the previous 1979 1-hour ozone NAAQS. In 2008, EPA revised the 8-hour ozone NAAQS from 0.08 to 0.075 ppm.
On May 21, 2012, the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City area was designated as marginal nonattainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. 77 FR 30088. The designation of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City area as marginal nonattainment was effective July 20, 2012. The Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area is comprised of Cecil County in Maryland, as well as counties in Delaware, New Jersey, and Pennsylvania.
Under sections 172(c)(3) and 182(a)(1) of the CAA, Maryland is required to submit a comprehensive, accurate, and current inventory of actual emissions from all sources of the relevant pollutants,
On September 25, 2017, EPA simultaneously published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPR) (82 FR 44544) and a direct final rule (DFR) (82 FR 44522) approving Maryland's 2011 base year inventory for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS as a SIP revision. The DFR included an amendment to 40 CFR 52.1070 (identification of Maryland's SIP) and an amendment to 40 CFR 52.1075 (explanation of Maryland's base year emissions inventories). EPA received an adverse comment on the rulemaking and withdrew the DFR prior to the effective date of November 24, 2017.
Under CAA section 172(c)(3), states are required to submit a comprehensive, accurate, and current inventory of actual emissions from all sources (point, nonpoint, nonroad, and onroad) of the relevant pollutant or pollutants in the nonattainment area. CAA section 182(a)(1) requires that areas designated as nonattainment and classified as marginal submit an inventory of all sources of ozone precursors no later than 2 years after the effective date of designation. EPA's guidance for emissions inventory development calls for actual emissions to be used in the base year inventory. The state must report annual emissions as well as “summer day emissions.” As defined in 40 CFR 51.900(v), “summer day emissions” means, “an average day's emissions for a typical summer work weekday. The state will select the particular month(s) in summer and the day(s) in the work week to be represented.”
On January 19, 2017, MDE submitted a formal revision (SIP #16-15) to its SIP. The SIP revision consists of the 2011 base year inventory for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. MDE selected 2011 as its base year for SIP planning purposes, as recommended in EPA's final rule, “Implementation of the 2008 National Ambient Air Quality Standards for Ozone: State Implementation Plan Requirements.”
Table 1 summarizes the 2011 VOC and NO
Point sources are large, stationary, and identifiable sources of emissions that release pollutants into the atmosphere. Maryland obtained its point source data from the MDE Air and Radiation Management Administration (ARMA) point source emissions inventory. ARMA identifies and inventories stationary sources for the point source emissions inventory through inspections, investigations, permitting, and equipment registrations.
Area sources, also known as nonpoint sources, are sources of pollution that are small and numerous and have not been inventoried as specific point or mobile sources. To inventory these sources, they are grouped so that emissions can be estimated collectively using one methodology. Examples of nonpoint sources include residential heating emissions and emissions from consumer solvents. MDE calculated nonpoint emissions for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area by multiplying emissions factors specific for each source category with some known indicator of collective activity for each source category, such as population or employment data.
Nonroad sources are mobile sources other than onroad vehicles. In its 2011 base year inventory, MDE separated nonroad sources into two categories: “Nonroad Model NMIM” and M-A-R. Nonroad Model NMIM sources include lawn and garden equipment, airport service equipment, recreational land vehicles or equipment, recreational marine equipment, light commercial equipment, industrial equipment, construction equipment, agricultural or farm equipment, and logging equipment. MDE relied on EPA's nonroad emissions calculations from the National Mobile Inventory Model (NMIM- April 5, 2009) to calculate emissions from sources in the “Nonroad Model NMIM” category. M-A-R sources include railroads, commercial aviation, air taxis, general aviation, military aviation, and commercial marine vessels. MDE estimated M-A-R emissions using data from surveyed sources or state and federal reporting agencies. Onroad or highway sources are vehicles, such as cars, trucks, and buses, which are operated on public roadways. MDE estimated onroad emissions for these sources using EPA's Motor Vehicle Emission Simulator (MOVES) model, version 2010a, and appropriate activity levels, such as vehicle miles traveled (VMT) estimates developed from vehicle count data maintained by the State Highway Administration (SHA) of the Maryland Department of Transportation (MDOT).
EPA reviewed Maryland's 2011 base year emission inventory's results, procedures, and methodologies for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area and found them to be acceptable and approvable under CAA sections 110, 172(c)(3) and 182(a)(1) of the CAA. EPA's review and analysis is detailed in a Technical Support Document (TSD) prepared for this rulemaking. The TSD is available online at
EPA received two public comments on our September 25, 2017 proposal to approve Maryland's 2011 base year inventory for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. The comment submitted on October 25, 2017, was not related to this action and will not be addressed here.
CAA section 110(k) requires the EPA to act on a SIP revision within a set amount of time of when that SIP revision is submitted. The requirement is to act on each individual SIP submission. Nothing in the CAA requires EPA to act on groups of submittals, and likewise, there is no CAA requirement to act in a single action for SIPs submitted across an entire nonattainment area. Thus, EPA is appropriately acting to approve only Maryland's inventory submission for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
EPA is approving the Maryland SIP revision submitted on January 19, 2017, which is Maryland's 2011 base year
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866.
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by April 30, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action.
This action approving Maryland's 2011 base year inventory for the Maryland portion of the Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City nonattainment area for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to find that the St. Louis-St. Charles-Farmington, Missouri-Illinois (MO-IL) area, “the St. Louis area,” is attaining the 2008 ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS or standard) and is redesignating the Illinois portion of the St. Louis area, “the Metro-East area,” to attainment for the 2008 ozone NAAQS because the Metro-East area meets the statutory requirements for redesignation under the Clean Air Act (CAA). The St. Louis area includes Madison, Monroe and St. Clair Counties in Illinois (the Metro-East area), and Franklin, Jefferson, St. Charles, and St. Louis Counties and the City of St. Louis in Missouri. (EPA will address the Missouri portion of the St. Louis area in a separate rulemaking action.) EPA is also approving, as a revision to the Illinois State Implementation Plan (SIP), the State's plan for maintaining the 2008 ozone standard through 2030 in the St. Louis area. Finally, EPA finds adequate and is approving, as a SIP revision, the State's 2030 volatile organic compound (VOC) and oxides of nitrogen (NO
This final rule is effective March 1, 2018.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2017-0277. All documents in the docket are listed in the
Kathleen D'Agostino, Environmental Scientist, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-1767,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
This rule takes action on the submission from IEPA, dated May 8, 2017, requesting redesignation of the Metro-East area to attainment for the 2008 ozone standard. The background for this action is discussed in detail in EPA's proposal, dated December 8, 2017 (82 FR 57892). In that rulemaking, we noted that, under EPA regulations at 40 CFR part 50, the 2008 ozone NAAQS is attained in an area when the 3-year average of the annual fourth highest daily maximum 8-hour average concentration is equal to or less than 0.075 parts per million, when truncated after the thousandth decimal place, at all of the ozone monitoring sites in the area. (
As discussed in the December 8, 2017, proposal, quality-assured and certified monitoring data for 2014-2016 and preliminary data for 2017 show that the St. Louis area has attained and continues to attain the 2008 ozone standard. In the maintenance plan submitted for the area, Illinois has demonstrated that the ozone standard will be maintained in the area through 2030. Finally, Illinois adopted 2030 VOC and NO
EPA provided a 30-day review and comment period for the December 8, 2017, proposed rule. The comment period ended on January 8, 2018. We received two comments, which were related to general concerns about wildfires and the EPA Administrator. These comments are not specific to this action and thus are not addressed here.
No comments were submitted that change our assessment of the rule as described in our proposed action. Therefore, EPA is determining that the St. Louis nonattainment area is attaining the 2008 ozone standard, based on quality-assured and certified monitoring data for 2014-2016, and that the Metro-East portion of this area has met the requirements for redesignation under section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA. EPA is thus approving IEPA's request to change the legal designation of the Metro-East portion of the St. Louis area from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 ozone standard. EPA is also approving, as a revision to the Illinois SIP, the state's maintenance plan for the area. The maintenance plan is designed to keep the St. Louis area in attainment of the 2008 ozone NAAQS through 2030. Finally, EPA finds adequate and is approving, as a SIP revision, the newly-established 2030 MVEBs for the Metro-East area.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(d), EPA finds there is good cause for these actions to become effective immediately upon publication. This is because a delayed effective date is unnecessary due to the nature of a redesignation to attainment, which relieves the area from certain CAA requirements that would otherwise apply to it. The immediate effective date for this action is authorized under both 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1), which provides that rulemaking actions may become effective less than 30 days after publication if the rule “grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction,” and section 553(d)(3), which allows an effective date less than 30 days after publication “as otherwise provided by the agency for good cause found and published with the rule.” The purpose of the 30-day waiting period prescribed in section 553(d) is to give affected parties a reasonable time to adjust their behavior and prepare before the final rule takes effect. This rule,
Under the CAA, redesignation of an area to attainment and the accompanying approval of a maintenance plan under section 107(d)(3)(E) are actions that affect the status of a geographical area and do not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those imposed by state law. A redesignation to attainment does not in and of itself create any new requirements, but rather results in the applicability of requirements contained in the CAA for areas that have been redesignated to attainment. Moreover, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because redesignation is an action that affects the status of a geographical area and does not impose any new regulatory requirements on tribes, impact any existing sources of air pollution on tribal lands, nor impair the maintenance of ozone national ambient air quality standards in tribal lands.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by April 30, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Oxides of nitrogen, Ozone, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Designations and classifications, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR parts 52 and 81 are amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
42 U.S.C. 7401,
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes time-limited tolerances for residues of the fumigant methyl bromide, including its metabolites and degradates in or on post-harvest imported/domestic agricultural commodities. This action is in response to EPA's granting quarantine exemptions under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) authorizing use of the pesticide on specified agricultural commodities. This regulation establishes a maximum permissible level for residues of methyl bromide in or on these commodities. The time-limited tolerances expire on December 31, 2020.
This regulation is effective March 1, 2018. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before April 30, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0447, is available at
Michael Goodis, Director, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under section 408(g) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0447 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before April 30, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0447, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
EPA, on its own initiative, in accordance with FFDCA sections 408(e) and 408(l
Section 408(l)(6) of FFDCA requires EPA to establish a time-limited tolerance or exemption from the requirement for a tolerance for pesticide chemical residues in food that will result from the use of a pesticide under an emergency exemption granted by EPA under FIFRA section 18. Such tolerances can be established without providing notice or period for public comment. EPA does not intend for its actions on FIFRA section 18 related time-limited tolerances to set binding precedents for the application of FFDCA section 408 and the safety standard to other tolerances and exemptions. Section 408(e) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance or an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance on its own initiative,
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Section 18 of FIFRA authorizes EPA to exempt any Federal or State agency from any provision of FIFRA, if EPA determines that “emergency conditions exist which require such exemption.” EPA has established regulations governing such emergency exemptions in 40 CFR part 166.
Quarantine exemptions were issued to the Plant Protection and Quarantine (PPQ) division of the United States Department of Agriculture, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (USDA/APHIS), for the post-harvest use of the fumigant methyl bromide on imported and domestic commodities to target invasive, non-indigenous quarantine plant pests and to prevent the introduction and/or spread of any new or recently introduced foreign pest(s) to any U.S. geographical location.
After having reviewed the submissions, EPA determined that emergency conditions existed for the PPQ division of the USDA/APHIS, and that the criteria for approval of these quarantine exemptions were met. EPA authorized quarantine exemptions under FIFRA section 18 for the post-harvest use of methyl bromide in or on specified imported and domestic agricultural commodities to eliminate the threat of invasive plant pests.
As part of its evaluation of the proposed quarantine emergency uses, EPA assessed the potential risks presented by residues of methyl bromide in or on specified imported and
Because these time-limited tolerances are being approved under emergency conditions, EPA has not made any decisions about whether methyl bromide meets FIFRA's registration requirements for use on the specified agricultural commodities or whether permanent tolerances for these uses would be appropriate. Under these circumstances, EPA does not believe that these time-limited tolerance decisions serve as a basis for registration of methyl bromide by a State for special local needs under FIFRA section 24(c). Nor do these tolerances by themselves serve as the authority for persons other than certified fumigators to use this pesticide on the applicable crops under FIFRA section 18 absent the authorization of the quarantine exemption issued to the Plant Protection and Quarantine division of the United States Department of Agriculture, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service. For additional information regarding the quarantine exemptions for methyl bromide, contact the Agency's Registration Division at the address provided under
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. * * *”
Consistent with the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure expected as a result of these quarantine exemption requests and the time-limited tolerances for residues of methyl bromide on the specified agricultural commodities. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with establishing these time-limited tolerances follows.
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
1.
EPA assessed dietary exposures from methyl bromide in food as follows:
i.
ii.
iii.
EPA reviewed numerous residue trials submitted by industry (controlled fumigation trials) in support of the reregistration of methyl bromide. Residue levels were calculated using residue decline curves for each commodity assuming first order kinetics and taking into account minimum predicted time intervals between fumigation and market availability. USDA APHIS requested uses on additional crops, providing detailed use pattern data. For these crops, residue levels were translated from similar commodities having residue trial data, considering use patterns and taking into account time intervals between fumigation and market availability.
2.
The methyl bromide Estimated Drinking Water Concentration was derived from groundwater estimates. Based on data from the database of pesticides in groundwater (U.S. EPA, 1992), two wells in California (out of 20,429 wells monitored in Florida, California, and Hawaii) had methyl bromide levels of 2.5 and 6.4 microgram/Liter (μg/L). The highest groundwater monitoring value of 6.4 parts per billion (ppb) was used for both the acute and chronic (non-cancer) assessments. Concentrations of methyl bromide in surface water are considered negligible due to the rapid dissipation of methyl bromide from water to the air (half-life of 73 minutes).
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model.
3.
Methyl bromide is a restricted use pesticide and is not registered for any specific residential use patterns; however, there is potential for residential bystander inhalation exposure in and around port areas where post-harvest commodity fumigation treatments takes place. Buffers have been implemented on all methyl bromide labels, which reduce bystander exposures to levels that do not exceed the Agency's level of concern.
Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at:
4.
EPA has not found methyl bromide to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and methyl bromide does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that methyl bromide does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's website at
1.
2.
Therefore, toxicity studies on adults will not underestimate the risks methyl bromide poses to children.
3.
i. The toxicity database for methyl bromide is complete.
ii. There is no indication that methyl bromide is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional UFs to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that methyl bromide results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The use of inhalation studies to assess dietary risks is a conservative (protective) approach since inhalation exposure is expected to lead to a higher internal dose than dietary exposure since chemicals will enter the circulatory system before many of the detoxification processes associated with oral exposure (
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD) presented in Unit IV.A. Table 1. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs in Table 1 to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
An adequate enforcement methodology (King headspace method, J. Agricultural Food Chemistry, Vol 29, No. 5, pp 1003-1005) is available to enforce the tolerance expression. This
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
Methyl bromide Codex MRLs have been established for several commodities; however, there are no Codex MRLs for any of the commodities that are the subject of this quarantine action. Therefore, at this time, there are no harmonization issues.
Therefore, time-limited tolerances are established for residues of the fumigant methyl bromide, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on specified agricultural imported/domestic commodities. These tolerances expire on December 31, 2020.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA sections 408(e) and 408(l)(6). The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established in accordance with FFDCA sections 408(e) and 408(l)(6), such as the tolerances in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(b)
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS implements longfin squid,
Effective April 2, 2018.
Copies of supporting documents used by the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, including the Environmental Assessment (EA), the Regulatory Impact Review (RIR), and the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) analysis are available from: Dr. Christopher M. Moore, Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, 800 North State Street, Suite 201, Dover, DE 19901, telephone (302) 674-2331. The EA/RIR/RFA analysis is also accessible via the internet at
Douglas Christel, Fishery Policy Analyst, (978) 281-9141.
The regulations implementing the Atlantic Mackerel, Squid, and Butterfish Fishery Management Plan (FMP) require the Mid-Atlantic Council's Atlantic Mackerel, Squid, and Butterfish Monitoring Committee to develop specification recommendations for each species based upon the ABC advice of the Council's SSC. The FMP regulations also require the specification of annual catch limits (ACLs) and accountability measure (AM) provisions for butterfish. Both squid species are exempt from the ACL/AM requirements because they have a life cycle of less than one year. In addition, the regulations require the specification of domestic annual harvest (DAH), domestic annual processing (DAP), total allowable level of foreign fishing (TALFF), joint venture processing (JVP), commercial and recreational annual catch targets (ACT), the butterfish mortality cap in the longfin squid fishery, and initial optimum yield (IOY) for both squid species.
On December 13, 2017, NMFS published a proposed rule (82 FR 58583) for the 2018-2020 squid and butterfish specifications recommended by the Council. The proposed rule for this action included additional background on specifications and the details of how the Council derived its recommended specifications for longfin and
This action maintains the existing
This action maintains the existing longfin squid ABC of 23,400 mt for 2018 and projects continuing that ABC for 2019 and 2020. The IOY, DAH, and DAP are calculated by deducting an estimated discard rate (updated from 4.08 to 2.0 percent) from the ABC. This results in a IOY, DAH, and DAP of 22,932 mt for 2018 that would be maintained for the 2019 and 2020 fishing years. This action also maintains the existing allocation of longfin squid DAH among trimesters according to percentages specified in the FMP (see Table 3). The Council will review these specifications during its annual specifications process following annual data updates each spring, and may change its recommendations for 2019 or 2020 if new information is available.
This action implements a butterfish ABC of 17,801 mt in 2018, and projected ABCs of 27,108 mt in 2019, and 32,063 mt in 2020. For butterfish, the ACL is set equal to the ABC. Deducting an estimate of management uncertainty from each year's ABC/ACL (5 percent in 2018, 7.5 percent in 2019, and 10 percent in 2020) results in commercial ACTs of 16,911 mt in 2018, and projected ACTs of 25,075 mt in 2019, and 28,857 mt in 2020. This action maintains the butterfish cap for the longfin squid fishery at the 2014 level of 3,884 mt for 2018 and projects maintaining that level for 2019 and 2020. Subtracting the existing butterfish mortality cap in the longfin squid fishery (3,884 mt), catch in other fisheries (637 mt), and an estimate of discards in the directed butterfish fishery (2.4 percent) results in a DAH of 12,093 mt in 2018, and projected DAHs of 20,061 mt in 2019 and 23,752 mt in 2020. This action also maintains the existing allocation of the butterfish mortality cap among longfin squid trimesters according to percentages specified in the FMP (see Table 5). Finally, this action maintains the existing 1,000-mt set aside in each year to account for incidental landings of butterfish after a closure of the directed fishery. We will close the directed butterfish fishery once 11,093 mt is caught in 2018. The Council will review these specifications during its annual specifications process following annual data updates each spring, and may change its recommendations for 2019 or 2020 if new information is available.
NMFS received 10 comments in response to the proposed rule for this action. Two comments were from industry groups, the Garden State Seafood Association (GSSA) and Seafreeze, Ltd., Eight comments were from individuals. Five comments received were not relevant to the proposed action and are not included in this final rule.
As noted above in the response to Comment 3, terminal year recruitment estimates have been previously underestimated and revised upward based on additional data. We will not know whether the 2016 recruitment estimate was similarly underestimated until additional data are available. We agree that mechanical problems with the RSV
The SSC considered the constant ABC alternative advocated by the GSSA and Seafreeze, Ltd., but did not recommend it based on declining trends in biomass and recruitment. The SSC recognized that a stable ABC approach has been used in other fisheries, but noted that there are different needs for different species and that a stable ABC approach was not appropriate for butterfish for biological reasons. At the May 2017 meeting, the SSC also admitted that they lacked the social science expertise and Council guidance necessary for evaluating economic tradeoffs between the different alternatives and the associated impacts to fishing communities. The Council considered the SSC's input during their June 2017 meeting, and chose to follow the recommendations of the SSC instead of adopting a different suite of butterfish ABCs. We did not receive sufficient information through public comment to challenge recommendations by either the SSC or the Council, and have, therefore, implemented the proposed butterfish ABCs through this final rule.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this final rule is consistent with the Atlantic Mackerel, Squid, and Butterfish FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
This final rule is not an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because it is not significant under Executive Order 12866.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration during the proposed rule stage that this action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for the certification was published in the proposed rule and is not repeated here. No comments were received regarding this certification and no other information has been obtained that suggests any other conclusion. As a result, a regulatory flexibility analysis was not required and none was prepared.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule; harvest specifications and closures.
NMFS announces final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications, apportionments, and Pacific halibut prohibited species catch limits for the groundfish fishery of the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary to establish harvest limits for groundfish during the 2018 and 2019 fishing years and to accomplish the goals and objectives of the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska. The intended effect of this action is to conserve and manage the groundfish resources in the GOA in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act.
Harvest specifications and closures are effective at 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), March 1, 2018, through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2019.
Electronic copies of the Final Alaska Groundfish Harvest Specifications Environmental Impact Statement (EIS), Record of Decision (ROD), the Supplementary Information Report (SIR) to the EIS, and the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) prepared for this action are available from
Obren Davis, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the GOA groundfish fisheries in the exclusive economic zone of the GOA under the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP). The Council prepared the FMP under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, 16 U.S.C. 1801
The FMP and its implementing regulations require NMFS, after consultation with the Council, to specify the total allowable catch (TAC) for each target species, the sum of which must be within the optimum yield (OY) range of 116,000 to 800,000 metric tons (mt) (50 CFR 679.20(a)(1)(i)(B)). Section 679.20(c)(1) further requires NMFS to publish and solicit public comment on proposed annual TACs and apportionments thereof, Pacific halibut prohibited species catch (PSC) limits, and seasonal allowances of pollock and Pacific cod. Upon consideration of public comment received under § 679.20(c)(1), NMFS must publish notice of final harvest specifications for up to two fishing years as annual TACs and apportionments, Pacific halibut PSC limits, and seasonal allowances of pollock and Pacific cod, per § 679.20(c)(3)(ii). The final harvest specifications set forth in Tables 1 through 30 of this rule reflect the outcome of this process, as required at § 679.20(c).
The proposed 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications for groundfish of the GOA and Pacific halibut PSC limits were published in the
In June 2017, the Council recommended for Secretarial review Amendment 106 to the FMP. Amendment 106 would reclassify squid in the FMP as an “Ecosystem Component Species,” which is a category of non-target species that are not in need of conservation and management. Currently, NMFS annually sets an Overfishing Level (OFL), Acceptable Biological Catch (ABC), and TAC for squid in the GOA groundfish harvest specifications. Under Amendment 106, OFL, ABC, and TAC specifications would no longer be required. Proposed regulations to implement Amendment 106 would prohibit directed fishing for squid, require recordkeeping and reporting to monitor and report catch of squid species annually, and establish a squid maximum retainable amount when directed fishing for groundfish species at 20 percent to discourage retention, while allowing flexibility to prosecute groundfish fisheries. Further details will be available on publication of the proposed rule for Amendment 106. If Amendment 106 and its implementing regulations are approved by the Secretary of Commerce, Amendment 106 and its implementing regulations are anticipated to be effective by 2019. Until Amendment 106 is effective, NMFS will continue to publish OFLs, ABCs, and TACs for squid in the GOA groundfish harvest specifications.
In December 2017, the Council, its Advisory Panel (AP), and its Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) reviewed the most recent biological and harvest information about the condition of groundfish stocks in the GOA. This information was compiled by the Council's GOA Groundfish Plan Team and was presented in the draft 2017 SAFE report for the GOA groundfish fisheries, dated November 2017 (see
In previous years, the greatest changes from the proposed to the final harvest specifications have been based on recent NMFS stock surveys, which provide updated estimates of stock biomass and spatial distribution, and changes to the models used for producing stock assessments. At the November 2017 Plan Team meeting, NMFS scientists presented updated and new survey results, changes to stock assessment models, and accompanying stock assessment estimates for groundfish species and species groups that are included in the final 2017 SAFE report per the stock assessment schedule found in the 2017 SAFE report introduction. The SSC reviewed this information at the December 2017 Council meeting. Changes from the proposed to the final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications are discussed below.
The final 2018 and 2019 OFLs, ABCs, and TACs are based on the best available biological and socioeconomic information, including projected biomass trends, information on assumed distribution of stock biomass, and revised methods used to calculate stock biomass. The FMP specifies the formulas, or tiers, to be used to compute OFLs and ABCs. The formulas applicable to a particular stock or stock complex are determined by the level of reliable information available to fisheries scientists. This information is categorized into a successive series of six tiers to define OFL and ABC amounts, with Tier 1 representing the highest level of information quality available and Tier 6 representing the lowest level of information quality available. The Plan Team used the FMP tier structure to calculate OFL and ABC amounts for each groundfish species. The SSC adopted the final 2018 and 2019 OFLs and ABCs recommended by the Plan Team for all groundfish species. The Council adopted the SSC's OFL and ABC recommendations and the AP's TAC recommendations, with one exception for the arrowtooth flounder TAC, discussed below. The final TAC recommendations were based on the ABCs as adjusted for other biological and socioeconomic considerations, including maintaining the sum of all TACs within the required OY range of 116,000 to 800,000 mt.
The Council recommended 2018 and 2019 TACs that are equal to ABCs for pollock in the Southeast Outside (SEO) District, sablefish, shallow-water flatfish in the Central GOA and the West Yakutat and SEO Districts, deep-water flatfish, rex sole, flathead sole in the West Yakutat and SEO Districts, Pacific ocean perch, northern rockfish, shortraker rockfish, dusky rockfish, rougheye and blackspotted rockfish, demersal shelf rockfish, thornyhead rockfish, “other rockfish” in the Western and Central GOA and the West Yakutat District, big skate, longnose skate, other skates, sculpins, sharks, squids, and octopuses in the GOA. The Council recommended TACs for 2018 and 2019 that are less than the ABCs for pollock in the Western and Central GOA and the West Yakutat District, Pacific cod, shallow-water flatfish in the Western GOA, arrowtooth flounder, flathead sole in the Western and Central GOA, “other rockfish” in the SEO District, and Atka mackerel. The combined Western, Central, and West Yakutat pollock TACs and the GOA Pacific cod TACs are set to accommodate the State of Alaska's (State's) guideline harvest levels (GHLs) for Pacific cod so that the ABCs are not exceeded. The shallow-water flatfish, arrowtooth flounder, and flathead sole TACs are set to allow for increased harvest opportunities for these target species while conserving the halibut PSC limit for use in other, more fully utilized fisheries. The “other rockfish” TAC in the SEO District is set to reduce the amount of discards of the species in that complex. The Atka mackerel TAC is set to accommodate incidental catch amounts in other fisheries.
As noted in the proposed 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications for the GOA, the 2018 and 2019 Pacific cod OFL, ABC, and TAC is significantly lower than the 2018 Pacific cod OFL, ABC, and TAC published in the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017). Based on the final 2017 Pacific cod stock assessment, the 2018 and 2019 Pacific cod OFL and ABC is much lower than previously estimated. The final 2018 Pacific cod ABC and TAC is 18,000 mt and 13,096 mt, respectively, and the final 2019 Pacific cod ABC and TAC is 17,000 mt and 12,368 mt, respectively. The TACs are the basis for numerous seasonal and sector apportionments of Pacific cod, and such apportionments are significantly decreased as well. The final seasonal and sector
The final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications approved by the Secretary are unchanged from those recommended by the Council and are consistent with the preferred harvest strategy alternative in the EIS (see
Tables 1 and 2 list the final 2018 and 2019 OFLs, ABCs, TACs, and area apportionments of groundfish in the GOA. The sums of the 2018 and 2019 ABCs are 536,921 mt and 480,187 mt, respectively, which are lower than the 2017 ABC sum of 667,877 mt (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017). The 2018 harvest specifications set in this final action will supersede the 2018 harvest specifications previously set in the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017). The 2019 harvest specifications will be superseded in early 2019 when the final 2019 and 2020 harvest specifications are published. Pursuant to this final action, the 2018 harvest specifications therefore will apply for the remainder of the current year (2018), while the 2019 harvest specifications are projected only for the following year (2019) and will be superseded in early 2019 by the final 2019 and 2020 harvest specifications. Because this final action (published in early 2018) will be superseded in early 2019 by the publication of the final 2019 and 2020 harvest specifications, it is projected that this final action will implement the harvest specifications for the Gulf of Alaska for approximately one year.
NMFS' apportionment of groundfish species is based on the distribution of biomass among the regulatory areas over which NMFS manages the species. Additional regulations govern the apportionment of pollock, Pacific cod, and sablefish. Additional detail on the apportionment of pollock, Pacific cod, and sablefish are described below.
The ABC for the pollock stock in the combined Western, Central, and West Yakutat Regulatory Areas (W/C/WYK) includes the amount for the GHL established by the State for the Prince William Sound (PWS) pollock fishery. The Plan Team, SSC, AP, and Council have recommended that the sum of all State and Federal water pollock removals from the GOA not exceed ABC recommendations. For 2018 and 2019, the SSC recommended and the Council approved the W/C/WYK pollock ABC, including the amount to account for the State's PWS GHL. At the November 2017 Plan Team meeting, State fisheries managers recommended setting the PWS GHL at 2.5 percent of the annual W/C/WYK pollock ABC. For 2018, this yields a PWS pollock GHL of 4,037 mt, a decrease of 1,057 mt from the 2017 PWS GHL of 5,094 mt. For 2019, the PWS pollock GHL is 2,664 mt, a decrease of 2,430 mt from the 2017 PWS pollock GHL of 5,094 mt. After the GHL reductions, the 2018 and 2019 pollock ABC for the combined W/C/WYK areas is then apportioned between four statistical areas (Areas 610, 620, 630, and 640) as both ABCs and TACs, as described below and detailed in Tables 1 and 2. The total ABCs and TACs for the four statistical areas, plus the State GHL, do not exceed the combined W/C/WYK ABC.
Apportionments of pollock to the W/C/WYK management areas are considered to be “apportionments of annual catch limits (ACLs)” rather than “ABCs.” This more accurately reflects that such apportionments address management, rather than biological or conservation, concerns. In addition, apportionments of the ACL in this manner allow NMFS to balance any transfer of TAC among Areas 610, 620, and 630 pursuant to § 679.20(a)(5)(iv)(B) to ensure that the area-wide ACL and ABC are not exceeded.
NMFS establishes pollock TACs in the Western (Area 610) and Central (Areas 620 and 630) GOA and the West Yakutat (Area 640) and the SEO (Area 650) Districts of the GOA (see Tables 1 and 2). NMFS also establishes seasonal apportionments of the annual pollock TAC in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas of the GOA among Statistical Areas 610, 620, and 630. These apportionments are divided equally among each of the following four seasons: The A season (January 20 through March 10), the B season (March 10 through May 31), the C season (August 25 through October 1), and the D season (October 1 through November 1) (§§ 679.23(d)(2)(i) through (iv), and 679.20(a)(5)(iv)(A) and (B)). Additional detail is provided in this rule; Tables 3 and 4 list these amounts.
The 2018 and 2019 Pacific cod TACs are set to accommodate the State's GHL for Pacific cod in State waters in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas, as well as in PWS. The Plan Team, SSC, AP, and Council recommended that the sum of all State and Federal water Pacific cod removals from the GOA not exceed ABC recommendations. Accordingly, the Council set the 2018 and 2019 Pacific cod TACs in the Western, Central, and Eastern Regulatory Areas to account for State GHLs. Therefore, the 2018 Pacific cod TACs are less than the ABCs by the following amounts: (1) Western GOA, 2,425 mt; (2) Central GOA, 2,030 mt; and (3) Eastern GOA, 450 mt. The 2019 Pacific cod TACs are less than the ABCs by the following amounts: (1) Western GOA, 2,290 mt; (2) Central GOA, 1,917 mt; and (3) Eastern GOA, 425 mt. These amounts reflect the State's 2018 and 2019 GHLs in these areas, which are 30 percent of the Western GOA ABC and 25 percent of the Eastern and Central GOA ABCs.
NMFS establishes seasonal apportionments of the annual Pacific cod TAC in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas. Sixty percent of the annual TAC is apportioned to the A season for hook-and-line, pot, and jig gear from January 1 through June 10, and for trawl gear from January 20 through June 10. Forty percent of the annual TAC is apportioned to the B season for jig gear from June 10 through December 31, for hook-and-line and pot gear from September 1 through December 31, and for trawl gear from September 1 through November 1 (§§ 679.23(d)(3) and 679.20(a)(12)). The Western and Central GOA Pacific cod TACs are allocated among various gear and operational sectors. The Pacific cod sector apportionments are discussed in detail in a subsequent section and in Tables 5 and 6 of this rule.
The Council's recommendation for sablefish area apportionments takes into account the prohibition on the use of trawl gear in the SEO District of the Eastern Regulatory Area (§ 679.7(b)(1)) and makes available five percent of the combined Eastern Regulatory Area TACs to vessels using trawl gear for use as incidental catch in other groundfish fisheries in the WYK District (§ 679.20(a)(4)(i)). Tables 7 and 8 list the final 2018 and 2019 allocations of sablefish TAC to fixed gear and trawl gear in the GOA.
In October 2017, the Council's recommendations for the proposed 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications (82 FR 57924, December 8, 2017) were based largely on information contained in the final 2016 SAFE report for the GOA groundfish fisheries, dated November 2016. The final 2016 SAFE report for the GOA is available from the Council (see
As described previously, the SSC adopted the final 2018 and 2019 OFLs and ABCs recommended by the Plan Team. The Council adopted the SSC's OFL and ABC recommendations and the AP's TAC recommendations for 2018 and 2019, with one exception for the Central GOA arrowtooth flounder TAC. The AP recommended 2018 and 2019 arrowtooth flounder TACs of 73,480 mt and 70,700 mt, respectively. The Council revised this TAC recommendation to 48,000 mt for both 2018 and 2019. The Council's rationale included a concern that a higher arrowtooth flounder TAC would result in bycatch concerns, and that lower arrowtooth flounder TACs than those recommended by the AP are appropriate because catch rarely, if ever, approach the proposed ABCs or TACs. Also, the Council set this TAC to allow for increased harvest opportunities while conserving the halibut PSC limit for use in other, more fully utilized fisheries.
The final 2018 ABCs are higher than the proposed 2018 ABCs published in the proposed 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications (82 FR 57924, December 8, 2017) for pollock, sablefish, shallow-water flatfish, deep-water flatfish, rex sole, Pacific ocean perch, northern rockfish, dusky rockfish, rougheye and blackspotted rockfish, demersal shelf rockfish, thornyhead rockfish, and longnose skate. The final 2018 ABCs are lower than the proposed 2018 ABCs for Pacific cod, arrowtooth flounder, flathead sole, shortraker rockfish, other rockfish, big skate, other skates, sculpins, squids, and octopuses.
The final 2019 ABCs are higher than the proposed ABCs for sablefish, shallow-water flatfish, deep-water flatfish, rex sole, flathead sole, Pacific ocean perch, rougheye and blackspotted rockfish, demersal shelf rockfish, thornyhead rockfish, and longnose skate. The final 2019 ABCs are lower than the proposed 2019 ABCs for pollock, Pacific cod, arrowtooth flounder, northern rockfish, shortraker rockfish, dusky rockfish, other rockfish, big skates, other skates, sculpins, squids, and octopuses. For the remaining target species (Atka mackerel and sharks), the Council recommended the final 2018 and 2019 ABCs that are the same as the proposed 2018 and 2019 ABCs.
Additional information explaining the changes between the proposed and final ABCs is included in the final 2017 SAFE report, which was not available when the Council made its proposed ABC and TAC recommendations in October 2017. At that time, the most recent stock assessment information was contained in the final 2016 SAFE report. The final 2017 SAFE report contains the best and most recent scientific information on the condition of the groundfish stocks, as previously discussed in this preamble, and is available for review (see
Annual stock assessments incorporate a variety of new or revised inputs, such as survey data or catch information, as well as changes to the statistical models used to estimate a species' biomass and population trend. The biennial GOA trawl survey was conducted in 2017. Thus, changes to biomass and ABC estimates are based on survey biomass information, as well as fishery catch updates to species' assessment models. Some species, such as pollock and sablefish, have additional surveys conducted on an annual basis, which result in additional data being available for the assessments for these stocks.
The changes from the proposed 2018 TACs to the final 2018 TACs are within a range of plus 83 percent or minus 80 percent, and the changes from the proposed 2019 TACs to the final 2019 TACs are within a range of plus 73 percent or minus 80 percent. Based on changes in the estimates of overall biomass made by stock assessment scientists for 2018 and 2019, as compared to the estimates previously made for 2017 and 2018, the species or species group with the greatest TAC percentage increases are sablefish, shallow-water flatfish, rex sole, Pacific ocean perch, rougheye and blackspotted rockfish, demersal shelf rockfish, and longnose skates. Based on changes in the estimates of biomass, the species or species group with the greatest decreases in TACs are Pacific cod, arrowtooth flounder, shortraker rockfish, big skate, other skates, and octopuses. For all other species and species groups, changes from the proposed 2018 TACs to the final 2018 TACs and changes from the proposed 2019 TACs to the final 2019 TACs are less than a 10 percent change (either increase or decrease). These TAC changes correspond to associated changes in the ABCs and TACs, as recommended by the SSC, AP, and Council.
Detailed information providing the basis for the changes described above is contained in the final 2017 SAFE report. The final TACs are based on the best scientific information available. These TACs are specified in compliance with the harvest strategy described in the proposed and final rules for the 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications. The changes in TACs between the proposed rule and this final rule are compared in Table 1a.
The final 2018 and 2019 TAC recommendations for the GOA are within the OY range established for the GOA and do not exceed the ABC for any species or species group. Tables 1 and 2 list the final OFL, ABC, and TAC amounts for GOA groundfish for 2018 and 2019, respectively.
Section 679.20(b)(2) requires NMFS to set aside 20 percent of each TAC for pollock, Pacific cod, flatfish, sculpins, sharks, squids, and octopuses in reserve for possible apportionment at a later date during the fishing year. For 2018 and 2019, NMFS proposed reapportionment of all the reserves in the proposed 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications published in the
In the GOA, pollock is apportioned by season and area, and is further allocated for processing by inshore and offshore components. Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(5)(iv)(B), the annual pollock TAC specified for the Western and Central Regulatory Areas of the GOA is apportioned into four equal seasonal allowances of 25 percent. As established by § 679.23(d)(2)(i) through (iv), the A, B, C, and D season allowances are available from January 20 to March 10, March 10 to May 31, August 25 to October 1, and October 1 to November 1, respectively.
Pollock TACs in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas of the GOA are apportioned among Statistical Areas 610, 620, and 630 in proportion to the distribution of the pollock biomass, pursuant to § 679.20(a)(5)(iv)(A). In the A and B seasons, the apportionments previously were in proportion to the distribution of pollock biomass based on the four most recent NMFS winter surveys. In the C and D seasons, the apportionments were in proportion to the distribution of pollock biomass based on the four most recent NMFS summer surveys. For 2018 and 2019, the Council recommended, and NMFS approved, following the apportionment methodology that was used previously for the 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications. This methodology averages the winter and summer distribution of pollock in the Central Regulatory Area for the A season instead of using the distribution based on only the winter surveys. The average is intended to reflect the best available information about migration patterns, distribution of pollock, and the performance of the fishery in the area during the A season for the 2018 and 2019 fishing years. For the A season, the apportionment is based on an adjusted estimate of the relative distribution of pollock biomass of approximately 3 percent, 73 percent, and 24 percent in Statistical Areas 610, 620, and 630, respectively. For the B season, the apportionment is based on the relative distribution of pollock biomass at 4 percent, 85 percent, and 11 percent in Statistical Areas 610, 620, and 630, respectively. For the C and D seasons, the apportionment is based on the relative distribution of pollock biomass at 37 percent, 27 percent, and 37 percent in Statistical Areas 610, 620, and 630, respectively. The pollock chapter of the 2017 SAFE report (see
Within any fishing year, the amount by which a seasonal allowance is underharvested or overharvested may be added to, or subtracted from, subsequent seasonal allowances for the Western and Central Regulatory Areas in a manner to be determined by the Regional Administrator (§ 679.20(a)(5)(iv)(B)). The rollover amount is limited to 20 percent of the subsequent seasonal TAC apportionment for the statistical area. Any unharvested pollock above the 20-percent limit could be further distributed to the other statistical areas, in proportion to the estimated biomass in the subsequent season in those statistical areas and in an amount no more than 20 percent of the seasonal TAC apportionment in those statistical areas (§ 679.20(a)(5)(iv)(B)). The pollock TACs in the WYK and the SEO Districts of 6,833 mt and 8,773 mt, respectively, in 2018, and 4,509 mt and 8,773 mt, respectively, in 2019, are not allocated by season.
Section 679.20(a)(6)(i) requires the allocation of 100 percent of the pollock TAC in all GOA regulatory areas and all seasonal allowances to vessels harvesting pollock for processing by the inshore component after subtraction of amounts projected by the Regional Administrator to be caught by, or delivered to, the offshore component incidental to directed fishing for other groundfish species. Thus, the amount of pollock available to vessels harvesting pollock for processing by the offshore component is that amount that will be taken as incidental catch during directed fishing for groundfish species other than pollock, up to the maximum retainable amounts allowed by § 679.20(e) and (f). At this time, these incidental catch amounts of pollock are unknown and will be determined during the fishing year during the course of fishing activities by the offshore component. Therefore, amounts of pollock for processing by the inshore and offshore components are not shown in Tables 3 and 4. Tables 3 and 4 list the final 2018 and 2019 seasonal biomass distribution of pollock in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas, area apportionments, and seasonal allowances.
Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(12)(i), NMFS seasonally allocates the Pacific cod TACs in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas of the GOA among gear and operational sectors. NMFS also allocates the Pacific cod TACs annually between the inshore (90 percent) and offshore (10 percent) components in the Eastern Regulatory Area of the GOA (§ 679.20(a)(6)(ii)). In the Central GOA, the Pacific cod TAC is apportioned seasonally first to vessels using jig gear, and then among catcher vessels (CVs) less than 50 feet in length overall using hook-and-line gear, CVs equal to or greater than 50 feet in length overall using hook-and-line gear, catcher/processors (C/Ps) using hook-and-line gear, CVs using trawl gear, C/Ps using trawl gear, and vessels using pot gear (§ 679.20(a)(12)(i)(B)). In the Western GOA, the Pacific cod TAC is apportioned seasonally first to vessels using jig gear, and then among CVs using hook-and-line gear, C/Ps using hook-and-line gear, CVs using trawl gear, C/Ps using trawl gear, and vessels using pot gear (§ 679.20(a)(12)(i)(A)). The overall seasonal apportionments in the Western and Central GOA are 60 percent of the annual TAC to the A season and 40 percent of the annual TAC to the B season.
Under § 679.20(a)(12)(ii), any overage or underage of the Pacific cod harvest by each sector from the A season will be subtracted from, or added to, the subsequent B season allowance. In addition, any portion of the hook-and-line, trawl, pot, or jig sector allocations that NMFS determines is likely to go unharvested by a sector may be reallocated to other sectors for harvest during the remainder of the fishery year.
Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(12)(i)(A) and (B), a portion of the annual Pacific cod TACs in the Western and Central GOA will be allocated to vessels with a Federal Fisheries Permit (FFP) that use jig gear before the remaining Western and Central GOA Pacific cod TACs are apportioned among other non-jig sectors. In accordance with the FMP, the annual jig sector allocations may increase to up to 6 percent of the annual Western and Central GOA Pacific cod TACs, depending on the annual performance of the jig sector (see Table 1 of Amendment 83 to the FMP for a detailed discussion of the jig sector allocation process (76 FR 74670, December 1, 2011)). Jig sector allocation increases are established for a minimum of two years. NMFS has evaluated the 2017 harvest performance of the jig sector in the Western and Central GOA, and is establishing the 2018 and 2019 Pacific cod apportionments to this sector as follows.
NMFS allocates the jig sector 1.5 percent of the annual Pacific cod TAC in the Western GOA. This is a decrease from the 2017 jig sector allocation of 2.5 percent because in 2016 and 2017 this sector harvested less than 90 percent of its initial annual allocation, thus triggering the deduction of the 1.0 percent performance increase that the Western GOA jig sector received in 2017. The 2018 and 2019 allocations consist of a base allocation of 1.5 percent of the Western GOA Pacific cod TAC, and no additional performance increase in the Western GOA.
NMFS allocates the jig sector 1.0 percent of the annual Pacific cod TAC in the Central GOA. This is the same percent as the 2017 jig sector allocation because in 2017 this sector harvested less than 90 percent of its initial annual allocation. The 2018 and 2019 allocations consist of a base allocation of 1.0 percent of the Central GOA Pacific cod TAC, and no additional performance increase in the Central GOA.
Tables 5 and 6 list the seasonal apportionments and allocations of the 2018 and 2019 Pacific cod TACs.
Section 679.20(a)(4)(i) and (ii) require allocations of sablefish TACs for each of the regulatory areas and districts to fixed and trawl gear. In the Western and Central Regulatory Areas, 80 percent of each TAC is allocated to fixed gear, and 20 percent of each TAC is allocated to trawl gear. In the Eastern Regulatory Area, which is comprised of the WYK and SEO Districts, 95 percent of the TAC is allocated to fixed gear, and 5 percent is allocated to trawl gear. The trawl gear allocation in the Eastern Regulatory Area may only be used to support incidental catch of sablefish in directed trawl fisheries for other target species (§ 679.20(a)(4)(i)).
In recognition of the prohibition against trawl gear in the SEO District of the Eastern Regulatory Area, the Council recommended and NMFS approves the allocation of 5 percent of the Eastern Regulatory Area sablefish TAC to trawl gear in the WYK District, making the remainder of the WYK sablefish TAC available to vessels using fixed gear. NMFS allocates 100 percent of the sablefish TAC in the SEO District to vessels using fixed gear. This action results in a 2018 allocation of 240 mt to trawl gear and 1,589 mt to fixed gear in the WYK District, a 2018 allocation of 2,974 mt to fixed gear in the SEO District, and a 2019 allocation of 338 mt to trawl gear in the WYK District. Table 7 lists the allocations of the 2018 sablefish TACs to fixed and trawl gear. Table 8 lists the allocations of the 2019 sablefish TACs to trawl gear.
The Council recommended that a trawl sablefish TAC be established for two years so that retention of incidental catch of sablefish by trawl gear could commence in January in the second year of the groundfish harvest specifications. Both the 2018 and 2019 trawl allocations are specified in these final harvest specifications, in Tables 7 and 8, respectively.
The Council also recommended that the fixed gear sablefish TAC be established annually to ensure that this IFQ fishery is conducted concurrently with the halibut IFQ fishery and is based on the most recent sablefish survey information. Since there is an annual assessment for sablefish and since the final harvest specifications are expected to be published before the IFQ season begins on March 24, 2018, the Council recommended that the fixed gear sablefish TAC be set on an annual basis, rather than for two years, so that the best scientific information available could be considered in establishing the sablefish ABCs and TACs. Accordingly, while the 2018 fixed gear allocations are specified in Table 7, the 2019 fixed gear allocations are not specified in Table 8 and will be specified in the 2019 and 2020 harvest specifications.
With the exception of the trawl allocations that were provided to the Central GOA Rockfish Program (Rockfish Program) cooperatives (see Table 28c to 50 CFR part 679), directed fishing for sablefish with trawl gear in the GOA is closed during the fishing year. Also, fishing for groundfish with trawl gear is prohibited prior to January 20 (§ 679.23(c)). Therefore, it is not likely that the sablefish allocation to trawl gear would be reached before the effective date of the final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications.
The recommended 2018 and 2019 DSR TAC is 250 mt, and management of DSR is delegated to the State. The Alaska Board of Fisheries has apportioned the annual SEO District DSR TACs between the commercial fishery (84 percent) and the sport fishery (16 percent) after deductions were made for anticipated subsistence harvests (7 mt). This results in 2018 and 2019 allocations of 204 mt to the commercial fishery and 39 mt to the sport fishery.
The State deducts estimates of incidental catch of DSR in the commercial halibut fishery and pre-season “test fishery” DSR mortality from the DSR commercial fishery allocation. For example, in 2017, this resulted in 27 mt being available for the directed commercial DSR fishery apportioned in one DSR district. The State estimated that there was not sufficient DSR TAC available to have orderly fisheries in the three other DSR districts. DSR harvest in the halibut fishery is linked to the annual halibut catch limits; therefore, the State can only estimate potential DSR incidental catch because halibut catch limits are established by the International Pacific Halibut Commission (IPHC). For 2018 and 2019, the State will determine from the available DSR TAC of 250 mt the allocation available for the directed commercial DSR fishery in the DSR districts.
Federally permitted CVs using hook-and-line or jig gear fishing for groundfish and Pacific halibut in the SEO District of the GOA are required to retain all DSR (§ 679.20(j)).
These final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications for the GOA include the fishery cooperative allocations and sideboard limitations established by the Rockfish Program. Program participants are primarily trawl CVs and trawl C/Ps, with limited participation by vessels using longline gear. The Rockfish Program assigns quota share and cooperative quota to participants for primary (Pacific ocean perch, northern rockfish, and dusky rockfish) and secondary species (Pacific cod, rougheye and blackspotted rockfish, sablefish, shortraker rockfish, and thornyhead rockfish); allows a participant holding a license limitation program (LLP) license with rockfish quota share to form a rockfish cooperative with other persons; and allows holders of C/P LLP licenses to opt out of the fishery. The Rockfish Program also has an entry level fishery for rockfish primary species for vessels using longline gear. Longline gear includes hook-and-line, jig, troll, and handline gear.
Under the Rockfish Program, rockfish primary species in the Central GOA are allocated to participants after deducting for incidental catch needs in other directed groundfish fisheries (§ 679.81(a)(2)). Participants in the Rockfish Program also receive a portion of the Central GOA TAC of specific secondary species. In addition to groundfish species, the Rockfish Program allocates a portion of the halibut PSC limit (191 mt) from the third season deep-water species fishery allowance for the GOA trawl fisheries to Rockfish Program participants (§ 679.81(d) and Table 28d to 50 CFR part 679). Also, the Rockfish Program establishes sideboard limits to restrict the ability of harvesters operating under the Rockfish Program to increase their participation in other, non-Rockfish Program fisheries. These restrictions, as well as halibut PSC limits, are discussed in a subsequent section in this rule titled “Rockfish Program Groundfish Sideboard and Halibut PSC Limitations.”
Section 679.81(a)(2)(ii) and Table 28e to 50 CFR part 679 require allocations of 5 mt of Pacific ocean perch, 5 mt of northern rockfish, and 50 mt of dusky rockfish to the entry level longline fishery in 2018 and 2019. The allocation of each primary species for the entry level longline fishery may increase incrementally each year if the catch exceeds 90 percent of the allocation of that species. The incremental increase in the allocation would continue each year until it reaches the maximum percent of the TAC that may be allocated to the rockfish entry level longline fishery for that species. In 2017, the catch of Pacific ocean perch, northern rockfish, and dusky rockfish did not attain the 90 percent threshold, and those allocations for 2018 do not increase above the 2017 allocations. The remainder of the TACs for the rockfish primary species would be allocated to the CV and C/P cooperatives. Table 9 lists the allocations of the 2018 and 2019 TACs for each rockfish primary species to the entry level longline fishery, the potential incremental increases for future years, and the maximum percent of the TACs assigned to the Rockfish Program that may be allocated to the rockfish entry level longline fishery.
Section 679.81 requires allocations of the rockfish primary species among various sectors of the Rockfish Program. Tables 10 and 11 list the final 2018 and 2019 allocations of rockfish primary species in the Central GOA to the entry level longline fishery, and CV and C/P cooperatives in the Rockfish Program. NMFS also is setting aside incidental catch amounts (ICAs) for other directed fisheries in the Central GOA of 4,000 mt of Pacific ocean perch, 300 mt of northern rockfish, and 250 mt of dusky rockfish. These amounts are based on recent average incidental catches in the Central GOA by other groundfish fisheries.
Allocations among vessels belonging to CV or C/P cooperatives are not included in these final harvest specifications. Rockfish Program applications for CV cooperatives and C/P cooperatives are not due to NMFS until March 1 of each calendar year; therefore, NMFS cannot calculate 2018 and 2019 allocations in conjunction with these final harvest specifications. NMFS will post these allocations on the Alaska Region website at
Section 679.81(c) and Table 28c to 50 CFR part 679 requires allocations of rockfish secondary species to CV and C/P cooperatives in the Central GOA. CV cooperatives receive allocations of Pacific cod, sablefish from the trawl gear allocation, and thornyhead rockfish. C/P cooperatives receive allocations of sablefish from the trawl gear allocation, rougheye and blackspotted rockfish, shortraker rockfish, and thornyhead rockfish. Tables 12 and 13 list the apportionments of the 2018 and 2019 TACs of rockfish secondary species in the Central GOA to CV and C/P cooperatives.
Section 679.21(d) establishes the annual halibut PSC limit apportionments for trawl gear and hook-and-line gear, and authorizes the establishment of apportionments for pot gear. In December 2017, the Council recommended halibut PSC limits of 1,706 mt for trawl gear, 257 mt for hook-and-line gear, and 9 mt for the DSR fishery in the SEO District for both 2018 and 2019.
The DSR fishery in the SEO District is defined at § 679.21(d)(2)(ii)(A). This fishery is apportioned 9 mt of the halibut PSC limit in recognition of its small-scale harvests of groundfish (§ 679.21(d)(2)(i)(A)). The separate halibut PSC limit for the DSR fishery is intended to prevent that fishery from being impacted from the halibut PSC incurred by other GOA fisheries. NMFS estimates low halibut bycatch in the DSR fishery because (1) the duration of the DSR fisheries and the gear soak times are short, (2) the DSR fishery occurs in the winter when there is less overlap in the distribution of DSR and halibut, and (3) the directed commercial DSR fishery has a low DSR TAC.
The FMP authorizes the Council to exempt specific gear from the halibut PSC limits. NMFS, after consultation with the Council, exempts pot gear, jig gear, and the sablefish IFQ hook-and-line gear fishery categories from the non-trawl halibut PSC limit for 2018 and 2019. The Council recommended, and NMFS approves, these exemptions because: (1) The pot gear fisheries have low annual halibut bycatch mortality, (2) IFQ program regulations prohibit discard of halibut if any halibut IFQ permit holder on board a catcher vessel holds unused halibut IFQ for that vessel category and the IFQ regulatory area in which the vessel is operating (§ 679.7(f)(11)), (3) some sablefish IFQ fishermen hold halibut IFQ permits and are therefore required to retain the halibut they catch while fishing sablefish IFQ, and (4) NMFS estimates negligible halibut mortality for the jig gear fisheries. NMFS estimates that halibut mortality is negligible in the jig gear fisheries given the small amount of groundfish harvested by jig gear, the selective nature of jig gear, and the high survival rates of halibut caught and released with jig gear.
The best available information on estimated halibut bycatch consists of data collected by fisheries observers during 2017. The calculated halibut bycatch mortality through December 9, 2017, is 1,214 mt for trawl gear and 169 mt for hook-and-line gear for a total halibut mortality of 1,383 mt. This halibut mortality was calculated using groundfish and halibut catch data from the NMFS Alaska Region's catch accounting system. This accounting system contains historical and recent catch information compiled from each Alaska groundfish fishery.
Section 679.21(d)(4)(i) and (ii) authorizes NMFS to seasonally apportion the halibut PSC limits after consultation with the Council. The FMP and regulations require the Council and NMFS to consider the following information in seasonally apportioning halibut PSC limits: (1) Seasonal distribution of halibut; (2) seasonal distribution of target groundfish species relative to halibut distribution; (3) expected halibut bycatch needs on a seasonal basis relative to changes in halibut biomass and expected catch of target groundfish species; (4) expected bycatch rates on a seasonal basis; (5) expected changes in directed groundfish fishing seasons; (6) expected actual start of fishing effort; and (7) economic effects of establishing seasonal halibut allocations on segments of the target groundfish industry. The Council considered information from the 2017 SAFE report, NMFS catch data, State of Alaska catch data, IPHC stock assessment and mortality data, and public testimony when apportioning the halibut PSC limits. NMFS concurs with the Council's recommendations listed in Table 14, which show the final 2018 and 2019 Pacific halibut PSC limits, allowances, and apportionments.
Section 679.21(d)(4)(iii) and (iv) specify that any underages or overages of a seasonal apportionment of a halibut
Section 679.21(d)(3)(ii) authorizes further apportionment of the trawl halibut PSC limit to trawl fishery categories listed in § 679.21(d)(3)(iii). The annual apportionments are based on each category's proportional share of the anticipated halibut bycatch mortality during the fishing year and optimization of the total amount of groundfish harvest under the halibut PSC limit. The fishery categories for the trawl halibut PSC limits are: (1) A deep-water species fishery, composed of sablefish, rockfish, deep-water flatfish, rex sole, and arrowtooth flounder; and (2) a shallow-water species fishery, composed of pollock, Pacific cod, shallow-water flatfish, flathead sole, Atka mackerel, and “other species” (sculpins, sharks, squids, and octopuses) (§ 679.21(d)(3)(iii)). Halibut mortality incurred while directed fishing for skates with trawl gear accrues towards the shallow-water fishery halibut PSC limit (69 FR 26320, May 12, 2004).
NMFS will combine available trawl halibut PSC limit apportionments on May 15 during the second season deep-water and shallow-water fisheries for use in either fishery from May 15 through June 30 (§ 679.21(d)(4)(iii)(D)). This is intended to maintain groundfish harvest while minimizing halibut bycatch by these sectors to the extent practicable. This provides the deep-water and shallow-water trawl fisheries additional flexibility and the incentive to participate in fisheries at times of the year that may have lower halibut PSC rates relative to other times of the year.
Table 15 lists the final 2018 and 2019 apportionments of halibut PSC trawl limits between the trawl gear deep-water and shallow-water species fishery categories.
Table 28d to 50 CFR part 679 specifies the amount of the trawl halibut PSC limit that is assigned to the CV and C/P sectors that are participating in the Rockfish Program. This includes 117 mt of halibut PSC limit to the CV sector and 74 mt of halibut PSC limit to the C/P sector. These amounts are allocated from the trawl deep-water species fishery's halibut PSC third seasonal apportionment. After the combined CV and C/P halibut PSC limit allocation of 191 mt to the Rockfish Program, 150 mt remains for the trawl deep-water species fishery's halibut PSC third seasonal apportionment.
Section 679.21(d)(4)(iii)(B) limits the amount of the halibut PSC limit allocated to Rockfish Program participants that could be re-apportioned to the general GOA trawl fisheries during the current fishing year to no more than 55 percent of the unused annual halibut PSC limit apportioned to Rockfish Program participants. The remainder of the unused Rockfish Program halibut PSC limit is unavailable for use by any person for the remainder of the fishing year (§ 679.21(d)(4)(iii)(C)).
Section 679.21(d)(2)(i)(B) requires that the “other hook-and-line fishery” halibut PSC limit apportionment to vessels using hook-and-line gear must be apportioned between CVs and C/Ps in accordance with § 679.21(d)(2)(iii) in conjunction with these harvest specifications. A comprehensive description and example of the calculations necessary to apportion the “other hook-and-line fishery” halibut PSC limit between the hook-and-line CV and C/P sectors were included in the proposed rule to implement Amendment 83 to the FMP (76 FR 44700, July 26, 2011) and are not repeated here.
Pursuant to § 679.21(d)(2)(iii), the hook-and-line halibut PSC limit for the “other hook-and-line fishery” is apportioned between the CV and C/P sectors in proportion to the total Western and Central GOA Pacific cod allocations, which vary annually based on the proportion of the Pacific cod biomass between the Western, Central, and Eastern GOA. Pacific cod is apportioned among these two management areas based on the percentage of overall biomass per area, as calculated in the 2016 Pacific cod stock assessment. Updated information in the final 2017 SAFE report describes this distributional calculation, which is based on allocating ABC among regulatory areas on the basis of the three most recent stock surveys. For 2018 and 2019, the distribution of the total GOA Pacific cod ABC is 45 percent to the Western GOA, 45 percent to the Central GOA, and 10 percent to the Eastern GOA. Therefore, the calculations made in accordance with § 679.21(d)(2)(iii) incorporate the most recent information on GOA Pacific cod distribution with respect to establishing the annual halibut PSC limits for the CV and C/P hook-and-line sectors. The annual halibut PSC limits for both the CV and C/P sectors of the “other hook-and-line fishery” are divided into three seasonal apportionments, using seasonal percentages of 86 percent, 2 percent, and 12 percent.
For 2018 and 2019, NMFS apportions halibut PSC limits of 120 mt and 137 mt to the hook-and-line CV and hook-and-line C/P sectors, respectively. Table 16 lists the final 2018 and 2019 apportionments of halibut PSC limits between the hook-and-line CV and the hook-and-line C/P sectors of the “other hook-and-line fishery.”
No later than November 1 of each year, NMFS will calculate the projected unused amount of halibut PSC limit by either of the CV or C/P hook-and-line sectors of the “other hook-and-line fishery” for the remainder of the year. The projected unused amount of halibut PSC limit is made available to the other hook-and-line sector for the remainder of that fishing year (§ 679.21(d)(2)(iii)(C)), if NMFS determines that an additional amount of halibut PSC is necessary for that sector to continue its directed fishing operations.
The IPHC annually assesses the abundance and potential yield of the Pacific halibut stock using all available data from the commercial and sport fisheries, other removals, and scientific surveys. Additional information on the Pacific halibut stock assessment may be found in the IPHC's 2017 Pacific halibut stock assessment (December 2017), available on the IPHC website at
To monitor halibut bycatch mortality allowances and apportionments, the Regional Administrator uses observed halibut incidental catch rates, halibut discard mortality rates (DMRs), and estimates of groundfish catch to project when a fishery's halibut bycatch mortality allowance or seasonal apportionment is reached. Halibut incidental catch rates are based on observers' estimates of halibut incidental catch in the groundfish fishery. DMRs are estimates of the proportion of incidentally caught halibut that do not survive after being returned to the sea. The cumulative halibut mortality that accrues to a
In 2016, the DMR estimation methodology underwent revisions per the Council's directive. An interagency halibut working group (IPHC, Council, and NMFS staff) developed improved estimation methods that have undergone review by the GOA Plan Team, SSC, and the Council. A summary of the revised methodology is contained in the GOA proposed 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications (81 FR 87881, December 6, 2016), and the comprehensive discussion of the working group's statistical methodology is available from the Council (see
At the December 2017 meeting, the SSC, AP, and Council concurred with the revised DMR estimation methodology, and NMFS adopted for 2018 and 2019 the DMRs calculated under the revised methodology. The final 2018 and 2019 DMRs in this rule are unchanged from the DMRs in the proposed 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications (82 FR 57924, December 8, 2017). Table 17 lists these final 2018 and 2019 DMRs.
Amendment 93 to the FMP (77 FR 42629, July 20, 2012) established separate Chinook salmon PSC limits in the Western and Central GOA in the directed pollock trawl fishery. These limits require NMFS to close the pollock directed fishery in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas of the GOA if the applicable Chinook salmon PSC limit in that regulatory area is reached (§ 679.21(h)(8)). The annual Chinook salmon PSC limits in the pollock directed fishery of 6,684 salmon in the Western GOA and 18,316 salmon in the Central GOA are set at § 679.21(h)(2)(i) and (ii).
Amendment 97 to the FMP (79 FR 71350, December 2, 2014) established an initial annual PSC limit of 7,500 Chinook salmon for the trawl non-pollock groundfish fisheries in the Western and Central GOA. This limit is apportioned among three sectors directed fishing for groundfish species other than pollock: 3,600 Chinook salmon to trawl C/Ps; 1,200 Chinook salmon to trawl CVs participating in the Rockfish Program; and 2,700 Chinook salmon to trawl CVs not participating in the Rockfish Program (§ 679.21(h)(4)). NMFS will monitor the Chinook salmon PSC in the non-pollock GOA groundfish fisheries and close an applicable sector if it reaches its Chinook salmon PSC limit.
The Chinook salmon PSC limit for two sectors, trawl C/Ps and trawl CVs not participating in the Rockfish Program, may be increased in subsequent years based on the performance of these two sectors and their ability to minimize their use of their respective Chinook salmon PSC limits. If either or both of these two sectors limits its use of Chinook salmon PSC to a specified threshold amount in 2017 (3,120 for trawl C/Ps and 2,340 for trawl CVs), that sector will receive an incremental increase to its 2018 Chinook salmon PSC limit (§ 679.21(h)(4)). In 2017, the trawl C/P sector did not exceed 3,120 Chinook salmon PSC; therefore, the 2018 trawl C/P sector Chinook salmon PSC limit will be 4,080 Chinook salmon. In 2017, the Non-Rockfish Program CV sector did not exceed 2,340 Chinook salmon PSC; therefore, the 2018 Non-Rockfish Program CV sector limit will be 3,060 Chinook salmon.
Section 679.64 establishes groundfish harvesting and processing sideboard limitations on AFA C/Ps and CVs in the GOA. These sideboard limits are necessary to protect the interests of fishermen and processors who do not directly benefit from the AFA from those fishermen and processors who receive exclusive harvesting and processing privileges under the AFA. Section 679.7(k)(1)(ii) prohibits listed AFA C/Ps and C/Ps designated on a listed AFA C/P permit from harvesting any species of groundfish in the GOA. Additionally, § 679.7(k)(1)(iv) prohibits listed AFA C/Ps and C/Ps designated on a listed AFA C/P permit from processing any pollock harvested in a directed pollock fishery in the GOA and any groundfish harvested in Statistical Area 630 of the GOA.
AFA CVs that are less than 125 feet (38.1 meters) length overall, have annual landings of pollock in the Bering
Tables 18 and 19 list the final 2018 and 2019 groundfish sideboard limits for non-exempt AFA CVs. NMFS will deduct all targeted or incidental catch of sideboard species made by non-exempt AFA CVs from the sideboard limits listed in Tables 18 and 19.
The halibut PSC sideboard limits for non-exempt AFA CVs in the GOA are based on the aggregate retained groundfish catch by non-exempt AFA CVs in each PSC target category from 1995 through 1997 divided by the retained catch of all vessels in that fishery from 1995 through 1997 (§ 679.64(b)(4)(ii)). Table 20 lists the final 2018 and 2019 non-exempt AFA CV halibut PSC limits for vessels using trawl gear in the GOA, respectively.
Section 680.22 establishes groundfish catch limits for vessels with a history of participation in the Bering Sea snow crab fishery to prevent these vessels from using the increased flexibility provided by the Crab Rationalization Program to expand their level of participation in the GOA groundfish fisheries. Sideboard limits restrict these vessels' catch to their collective historical landings in each GOA groundfish fishery (except the fixed-gear sablefish fishery). Sideboard limits also apply to catch made using an LLP license derived from the history of a restricted vessel, even if that LLP license is used on another vessel.
The basis for these sideboard limits is described in detail in the final rules implementing the major provisions of Amendments 18 and 19 to the Fishery Management Plan for Bering Sea/Aleutian Islands King and Tanner Crabs (Crab FMP) (70 FR 10174, March 2, 2005), Amendment 34 to the Crab FMP (76 FR 35772, June 20, 2011), Amendment 83 to the GOA FMP (76 FR 74670, December 1, 2011), and Amendment 45 to the Crab FMP (80 FR 28539, May 19, 2015).
Tables 21 and 22 list the final 2018 and 2019 groundfish sideboard limitations for non-AFA crab vessels. All targeted or incidental catch of sideboard species made by non-AFA crab vessels or associated LLP licenses will be deducted from these sideboard limits.
The Rockfish Program establishes three classes of sideboard provisions: CV groundfish sideboard restrictions, C/P rockfish sideboard restrictions, and C/P opt-out vessel sideboard restrictions (§ 679.82(c)(1)). These sideboards are intended to limit the ability of rockfish harvesters to expand into other fisheries.
CVs participating in the Rockfish Program may not participate in directed fishing for dusky rockfish, Pacific ocean perch, and northern rockfish in the West Yakutat District and Western GOA from July 1 through July 31. Also, CVs may not participate in directed fishing for arrowtooth flounder, deep-water flatfish, and rex sole in the GOA from July 1 through July 31 (§ 679.82(d)(3)-(4)).
C/Ps participating in Rockfish Program cooperatives are restricted by rockfish and halibut PSC sideboard limits. These C/Ps are prohibited from directed fishing for dusky rockfish, Pacific ocean perch, and northern rockfish in the West Yakutat District and Western GOA from July 1 through July 31 (§ 679.82(e)(2)). Holders of C/P-designated LLP licenses that opt out of participating in a Rockfish Program cooperative will be able to access that portion of each rockfish sideboard limit that is not assigned to rockfish cooperatives (§ 679.82(e)(3) and (e)(7)). The sideboard ratio for each fishery in the West Yakutat District and the Western GOA is set forth in § 679.82(e)(4). Tables 23 and 24 list the final 2018 and 2019 Rockfish Program C/P sideboard limits in the West Yakutat District and the Western GOA. Due to confidentiality requirements associated with fisheries data, the sideboard limits for the West Yakutat District are not displayed.
Under the Rockfish Program, the C/P sector is subject to halibut PSC sideboard limits for the trawl deep-water and shallow-water species fisheries from July 1 through July 31 (§ 679.82(e)(3) and (e)(5)). Halibut PSC sideboard ratios by fishery are set forth in § 679.82(e)(5). No halibut PSC sideboard limits apply to the CV sector, as vessels participating in cooperatives receive a portion of the annual halibut PSC limit. C/Ps that opt out of the Rockfish Program are able to access that portion of the deep-water and shallow-water halibut PSC sideboard limit not assigned to C/P rockfish cooperatives. The sideboard provisions for C/Ps that elect to opt out of participating in a rockfish cooperative are described in § 679.82(c), (e), and (f). Sideboard limits are linked to the catch history of specific vessels that may choose to opt out. After March 1, NMFS will determine which C/Ps have opted-out of the Rockfish Program in 2018, and NMFS will know the ratios and amounts used to calculate opt-out sideboard ratios. NMFS will then calculate any applicable opt-out sideboards and post these limits on the Alaska Region website at
Amendment 80 to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (Amendment 80 Program) established a limited access privilege program for the non-AFA trawl C/P sector. The Amendment 80 Program established groundfish and halibut PSC catch limits for Amendment 80 Program participants to limit the ability of participants eligible for the Amendment 80 Program to expand their harvest efforts in the GOA.
Section 679.92 establishes groundfish harvesting sideboard limits on all Amendment 80 program vessels, other than the F/V
Groundfish sideboard limits for Amendment 80 Program vessels operating in the GOA are based on their average aggregate harvests from 1998 through 2004 (72 FR 52668, September 14, 2007). Tables 26 and 27 list the final 2018 and 2019 groundfish sideboard limits for Amendment 80 Program vessels. NMFS will deduct all targeted or incidental catch of sideboard species made by Amendment 80 Program vessels from the sideboard limits in Tables 26 and 27.
The halibut PSC sideboard limits for Amendment 80 Program vessels in the GOA are based on the historic use of halibut PSC by Amendment 80 Program vessels in each PSC target category from 1998 through 2004. These values are slightly lower than the average historic use to accommodate two factors: Allocation of halibut PSC cooperative quota under the Rockfish Program and the exemption of the F/V
Pursuant to § 679.20(d)(1)(i), if the Regional Administrator determines (1) that any allocation or apportionment of a target species or species group allocated or apportioned to a fishery will be reached; or (2) with respect to pollock and Pacific cod, that an allocation or apportionment to an inshore or offshore component or sector allocation will be reached, then the Regional Administrator may establish a directed fishing allowance (DFA) for that species or species group. If the Regional Administrator establishes a DFA and that allowance is or will be reached before the end of the fishing year, NMFS will prohibit directed fishing for that species or species group in the specified GOA subarea, regulatory area, or district (§ 679.20(d)(1)(iii)).
The Regional Administrator has determined that the TACs for the species listed in Table 29 are necessary to account for the incidental catch of these species in other anticipated groundfish fisheries for the 2018 and 2019 fishing years.
Consequently, in accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Regional Administrator establishes the DFA for the species or species groups listed in Table 29 as zero mt. Therefore, in accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for those species, areas, gear types, and components in the GOA listed in Table 29. These closures will remain in effect through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2019.
Section 679.64(b)(5) provides for management of AFA CV groundfish harvest limits and PSC bycatch limits using directed fishing closures and PSC closures according to procedures set out at §§ 679.20(d)(1)(iv), 679.21(d)(6), and 679.21(e)(3)(v). The Regional Administrator has determined that, in addition to the closures listed above, many of the non-exempt AFA CV sideboard limits listed in Tables 18 and 19 are necessary as incidental catch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries for the 2018 and 2019 fishing years. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iv), the Regional Administrator sets the DFAs for the species and species groups in Table 30 at zero mt. Therefore, in accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing by non-exempt AFA CVs in the GOA for the species and specified areas listed in Table 30. These closures will remain in effect through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2019.
Section 680.22 provides for the management of non-AFA crab vessel sideboards using directed fishing closures in accordance with § 680.22(e)(2) and (3). The Regional Administrator has determined that the non-AFA crab vessel sideboards listed in Tables 21 and 22 are insufficient to support a directed fishery and has set the sideboard DFA at zero mt, with the exception of Pacific cod pot CV sector apportionments in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas. Therefore, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing by non-AFA crab vessels in the GOA for all species and species groups listed in Tables 21 and 22, with the exception of the Pacific cod pot CV sector apportionments in the Western and Central Regulatory Areas.
Closures implemented under the 2017 and 2018 GOA harvest specifications for groundfish (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017) remain effective under authority of these final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications and until the date specified in those notices. Closures are posted at the following website:
NMFS received two letters during the public comment period for the proposed GOA groundfish harvest specifications. No changes were made to the final rule in response to the comment letters received. NMFS' response to public comments on the proposed GOA groundfish harvest specifications is provided below.
NMFS has determined that these final harvest specifications are consistent with the FMP and with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and
This action is authorized under 50 CFR 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
NMFS prepared an EIS for this action (see
An SEIS should be prepared if (1) the agency makes substantial changes in the proposed action that are relevant to environmental concerns, or (2) significant new circumstances or information exist relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the proposed action or its impacts (40 CFR 1502.9(c)(1)). After reviewing the information contained in the SIR and SAFE reports, the Regional Administrator has determined that (1) approval of the 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications, which were set according to the preferred harvest strategy in the EIS, does not constitute a substantial change in the action; and (2) there are no significant new circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the action or its impacts. Additionally, the 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications will result in environmental impacts within the scope of those analyzed and disclosed in the EIS. Therefore, supplemental National Environmental Policy Act documentation is not necessary to implement the 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications.
Section 604 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 604) requires that, when an agency promulgates a final rule under section 553 of Title 5 of the United States Code, after being required by that section, or any other law, to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking, the agency shall prepare a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA). The following constitutes the FRFA prepared in the final action.
Section 604 describes the required contents of a FRFA: (1) A statement of the need for, and objectives of, the rule; (2) a statement of the significant issues raised by the public comments in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, a statement of the assessment of the agency of such issues, and a statement of any changes made in the proposed rule as a result of such comments; (3) the response of the agency to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule, and a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rule in the final rule as a result of the comments; (4) a description of and an estimate of the number of small entities to which the rule will apply or an explanation of why no such estimate is available; (5) a description of the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements of the rule, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirement and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record; and (6) a description of the steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities consistent with the stated objectives of applicable statutes, including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency that affect the impact on small entities was rejected.
A description of this action, its purpose, and its legal basis are contained at the beginning of the preamble to this final rule and are not repeated here.
NMFS published the proposed rule on December 8, 2017 (82 FR 57924). NMFS prepared an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) to accompany this action, and included a summary in the proposed rule. The comment period closed on January 8, 2018. No comments were received on the IRFA or on the economic impacts of the rule more generally. The Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration did not file any comments on the proposed rule.
The entities directly regulated by this action include: (1) Entities operating vessels with groundfish FFPs catching FMP groundfish in Federal waters; (2) all entities operating vessels, regardless of whether they hold groundfish FFPs, catching FMP groundfish in the State-waters parallel fisheries; and (3) all entities operating vessels fishing for halibut inside three miles of the shore (whether or not they have FFPs).
For RFA purposes only, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (NAICS code 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual gross receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide.
Based on data from 2016 fishing activity, there were 920 individual catcher vessel entities with gross revenues meeting small entity criteria. Of these entities, 841 used hook-and-line gear, 114 used pot gear, and 31 used trawl gear (some of these entities used more than one gear type, thus the counts of entities using the different gear types do not sum to the total number of entities above). Three individual catcher/processors met the small entity criterion; two used hook-and-line gear, and one used trawl gear. Catcher/processor gross revenues were not reported for confidentiality reasons; however, small hook-and-line entities had average gross revenues of $340,000, small pot entities had average gross revenues of $720,000, and small trawl entities had average gross revenues of $1.83 million.
Some of these vessels are members of AFA inshore pollock cooperatives, of GOA rockfish cooperatives, or of Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands crab rationalization cooperatives, and, therefore, under the RFA it is the aggregate gross receipts of all participating members of the cooperative that must meet the threshold. Vessels that participate in these cooperatives are considered to be large entities within the meaning of the RFA. These relationships are accounted for, along with corporate affiliations among vessels, to the extent that they are known, in the estimated number of small entities. If affiliations exist of which NMFS is unaware, or if entities had non-fishing revenue sources, the estimates above may overstate the number of directly regulated small entities.
This action does not modify recordkeeping or reporting requirements.
NMFS considered alternative harvest strategies when choosing the preferred harvest strategy (Alternative 2) in December 2006. These included the following:
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Alternatives 1, 3, 4, and 5 do not meet the objectives of this action, and although Alternatives 1 and 3 may have a smaller adverse economic impact on small entities than the preferred alternative, Alternatives 4 and 5 would have a significant adverse economic impact on small entities. The Council rejected these alternatives as harvest strategies in 2006, and the Secretary did so in 2007.
Alternative 2 is the preferred alternative chosen by the Council: Set TACs that fall within the range of ABCs recommended through the Council harvest specifications process and TACs recommended by the Council. Under this scenario,
Alternative 2 selected harvest rates that will allow fishermen to harvest stocks at the level of ABCs, unless total harvests are constrained by the upper bound of the GOA OY of 800,000 mt. The sums of ABCs in 2018 and 2019 are 536,921 mt and 480,187 mt, respectively. The sums of the TACs in 2018 and 2019 are 427,512 mt and 376,417 mt, respectively. Thus, although the sum of ABCs in each year is less than 800,000 mt, the sums of the TACs in each year are less than the sums of the ABCs.
In most cases, the Council has set TACs equal to ABCs. The divergence between aggregate TACs and aggregate ABCs reflects a variety of special species- and fishery-specific circumstances:
• Pacific cod TACs are set equal to 70 percent in the Western GOA and 75 percent in the Central and Eastern GOA of the Pacific cod ABCs in each year to account for the GHL set by the State for its GHL Pacific cod fisheries (30 percent of the Western GOA ABC and 25 percent of the Central and Eastern GOA ABCs). Thus, the difference between the Federal TACs and ABCs does not actually reflect a Pacific cod harvest below the Pacific cod ABC, as the balance is available for the State's cod GHL fisheries.
• Shallow-water flatfish and flathead sole TACs are set below ABCs in the Western Regulatory Area. Arrowtooth flounder TACs are set below ABC in all GOA regulatory areas. Catches of these flatfish species rarely, if ever, approach the proposed ABCs or TACs. Important trawl fisheries in the GOA take halibut PSC, and are constrained by limits on the allowable halibut PSC mortality. These limits may force the closure of trawl fisheries before they have harvested the available groundfish ABC. Thus, actual harvests of groundfish in the GOA routinely fall short of some ABCs and TACs. Markets can also constrain harvests below the TACs, as has been the case with arrowtooth flounder, in the past. These TACs are set to allow for increased harvest opportunities for these targets while conserving the halibut PSC limit for use in other, more fully utilized fisheries.
• The other rockfish TAC is set below the ABC in the Southeast Outside District based on several factors. In addition to conservation concerns for the rockfish species in this group, there is a regulatory prohibition against using trawl gear east of 140° W longitude. Because most species of other rockfish are caught exclusively with trawl gear, the catch of such species with other gear types, such as hook-and-line, is low. The commercial catch of other rockfish in the Eastern Regulatory Area, which includes the West Yakutat and Southeast Outside Districts, has ranged from approximately 70 mt to 248 mt per year over the last decade.
• The GOA-wide Atka mackerel TAC is set below the ABC. The estimates of survey biomass continue to be unreliable in the GOA. Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS agrees that the Atka mackerel TAC in the GOA be set at an amount to support incidental catch in other directed fisheries.
Alternative 1 selects harvest rates that would allow fishermen to harvest stocks at the level of the ABCs, unless total harvests were constrained by the upper bound of the GOA OY of 800,000 mt. Although Alternative 1 may be consistent with the preferred alternative (Alternative 2), meet the objectives of the action, and have small entity impacts equivalent to the preferred alternative, it is not likely that Alternative 1 would result in reduced adverse economic impacts to directly-regulated small entities relative to Alternative 2. The selection of Alternative 1, which could increase all TACs up to the sum of ABCs, would not reflect the practical implications that increased TACs for some species probably would not be fully harvested. This could be due to a variety of reasons, which are addressed in the preamble to this rule and are summarized briefly here. There may be a lack of commercial or market interest in some species. Additionally, an underharvest of flatfish TACs could result due to constraints such as the fixed, and therefore constraining, PSC limits associated with the harvest of the GOA groundfish species. Furthermore, TACs may be set lower than ABC for conservation purposes, as is the case with other rockfish in the Eastern GOA. Finally, the TACs for two species (pollock and Pacific cod) cannot be set equal to ABC, as the TAC must be reduced to account for the State of Alaska's guideline harvest levels in these fisheries.
Alternative 3 selects harvest rates based on the most recent 5 years of harvest rates (for species in Tiers 1 through 3) or based on the most recent 5 years of harvests (for species in Tiers
Alternative 4 would lead to significantly lower harvests of all species to reduce TACs from the upper end of the OY range in the GOA to its lower end of 116,000 mt. Overall, this alternative would reduce 2018 TACs by about 69 percent. This would lead to significant reductions in harvests of species by small entities. While production declines in the GOA likely would be associated with offsetting price increases in the GOA, the size of these increases is very uncertain. Price increases would still be constrained by the availability of substitutes, and there are close substitutes for GOA groundfish species available in significant quantities from the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area. In addition, price increases are very unlikely to offset revenue declines from smaller production. Thus, this action would have a detrimental economic impact on small entities.
Alternative 5, which sets all harvests equal to zero, may also address conservation issues, but would have a significant adverse economic impact on small entities.
Impacts on marine mammals resulting from fishing activities conducted under this rule are discussed in the EIS and SIR (see
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness for this rule because delaying this rule would be contrary to the public interest. The Plan Team review occurred in November 2017, and the Council considered and recommended the final harvest specifications in December 2017. Accordingly, NMFS' review could not begin until after the December 2017 Council meeting, and after the public had time to comment on the proposed action. For all fisheries not currently closed because the TACs established under the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017) were not reached, it is possible that they would be closed prior to the expiration of a 30-day delayed effectiveness period because their TACs could be reached within that period. If implemented immediately, this rule would allow these fisheries to continue fishing because some of the new TACs implemented by this rule are higher than the TACs under which they are currently fishing.
In addition, immediate effectiveness of this action is required to provide consistent management and conservation of fishery resources based on the best available scientific information. This is particularly pertinent for those species that have lower 2018 ABCs and TACs than those established in the 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017). If implemented immediately, this rule would ensure that NMFS can properly manage those fisheries for which this rule sets lower 2018 ABCs and TACs, which are based on the most recent biological information on the condition of stocks, rather than managing species under the higher TACs set in the previous year's harvest specifications.
Certain fisheries, such as those for pollock and Pacific cod, are intensive, fast-paced fisheries. Other fisheries, such as those for sablefish, flatfish, rockfish, Atka mackerel, skates, sculpins, sharks, squids, and octopuses, are critical as directed fisheries and as incidental catch in other fisheries. U.S. fishing vessels have demonstrated the capacity to catch the TAC allocations in many of these fisheries. If this rule allowed for a 30-day delay in effectiveness and if a TAC were reached during those 30 days, NMFS would close directed fishing or prohibit retention for the applicable species. Any delay in allocating the final TACs in these fisheries would cause confusion to the industry and potential economic harm through unnecessary discards, thus undermining the intent of this rule. Waiving the 30-day delay allows NMFS to prevent economic loss to fishermen that could otherwise occur should the 2018 TACs (set under the 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications) be reached. Determining which fisheries may close is impossible because these fisheries are affected by several factors that cannot be predicted in advance, including fishing effort, weather, movement of fishery stocks, and market price. Furthermore, the closure of one fishery has a cascading effect on other fisheries by freeing-up fishing vessels, allowing them to move from closed fisheries to open ones, increasing the fishing capacity in those open fisheries, and causing them to close at an accelerated pace.
In fisheries subject to declining sideboard limits, a failure to implement the updated sideboard limits before initial season's end could deny the intended economic protection to the non-sideboarded sectors. Conversely, in fisheries with increasing sideboard limits, economic benefit could be denied to the sideboard-limited sectors.
If the final harvest specifications are not effective by March 24, 2018, which is the start of the 2018 Pacific halibut season as specified by the IPHC, the hook-and-line sablefish fishery will not begin concurrently with the Pacific halibut IFQ season. This would result in confusion for the industry and economic harm from unnecessary discard of sablefish that are caught along with Pacific halibut, as both hook-and-line sablefish and Pacific halibut are managed under the same IFQ program. Immediate effectiveness of the final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications will allow the sablefish IFQ fishery to begin concurrently with the Pacific halibut IFQ season.
Finally, immediate effectiveness also would provide the fishing industry the earliest possible opportunity to plan and conduct its fishing operations with respect to new information about TACs. Therefore, NMFS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
This final rule is a plain language guide to assist small entities in complying with this final rule as required by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. This final rule's primary purpose is to announce the final 2018 and 2019 harvest specifications and prohibited species bycatch allowances for the groundfish fisheries of the GOA. This action is necessary to establish harvest limits and associated management measures for groundfish during the 2018 and 2019 fishing years, and to accomplish the goals and objectives of the FMP. This action affects all fishermen who participate in the GOA fisheries. The specific OFL, ABC, TAC, and PSC amounts are provided in tables to assist the reader. NMFS will announce closures of directed fishing in the
16 U.S.C. 773
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule would implement a recommendation from the California Desert Grape Administrative Committee (Committee) to decrease the assessment rate established for the 2018 fiscal period and subsequent fiscal periods. This proposed rule also makes administrative revisions to the subpart headings to bring the language into conformance with the Office of Federal Register requirements.
Comments must be received by April 2, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposed rule. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or internet:
Maria Stobbe, Marketing Specialist or Jeffrey Smutny, Regional Director, California Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (559) 487-5901, Fax: (559) 487-5906, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This action, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, proposes an amendment to regulations issued to carry out a marketing order as defined in 7 CFR 900.2(j). This proposed rule is issued under Marketing Agreement No. 925 and Order No. 925, as amended (7 CFR part 925), regulating the handling of grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California. Part 925 (referred to as the “Order”) is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” The Committee locally administers the Order and is comprised of producers and handlers of grapes operating within the area of production, and a member of the public.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 13563 and 13175. This action falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this rule does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action, it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017, titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the Order now in effect, grape handlers in a designated area of southeastern California are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the Order are derived from such assessments. Assessment fees charged to grape handlers are used by the Committee to fund reasonable and necessary expenses of the program. It is intended that the assessment rate as proposed herein would be applicable to all assessable grapes beginning on January 1, 2018, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This proposed rule would decrease the assessment rate for the 2018 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.030 to $0.020 per 18-pound lug of grapes handled.
The Order provides authority for the Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Committee are producers and handlers of grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California, and a member of the public. They are familiar with the Committee's needs and with the costs for goods and services in their local area and are thus in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Thus, all directly affected persons have an opportunity to participate and provide input.
For the 2016 and subsequent fiscal periods the Committee recommended, and USDA approved, an assessment rate
The Committee met on November 30, 2017 and unanimously recommended 2018 fiscal year expenditures of $119,000, with an estimated cash reserve of $115,000, and an assessment rate of $0.020 per 18-pound lug of grapes. In comparison, last fiscal year's budgeted expenditures were $108,500. The assessment rate of $.020 is $0.010 lower than the rate currently in effect. The 2017 crop, at the higher assessment rate currently in effect, provided more income than required to cover expenses, resulting in an estimated cash reserve of $140,000. The cash reserves are sufficient to supplement this fiscal year's revenues at an assessment rate of $0.020 per 18-pound lug of grapes to fully fund the recommended 2018 budgeted expenditures.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2018 fiscal year include $65,000 for management and compliance services, $25,500 in office expenditures, and $28,500 for research. Budgeted expenses for these items in fiscal year 2017 were $50,000 for management and compliance services, $28,330 in office expenditures, and $28,500 for research.
The assessment rate recommended by the Committee was derived by considering anticipated expenses, expected shipments of grapes in the production area, and the level of funds in the authorized reserve. Grape shipments for fiscal year 2018 are estimated at 4,700,000 18-pound lugs, which should provide $94,000 in assessment income. Income derived from handler assessments, along with interest income and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, would be adequate to cover budgeted expenses. Funds in the reserve (currently $140,000) would be reduced by $25,000 and would be within the maximum permitted by the Order. Section 925.42(a)(2) authorizes the Committee to carry over excess funds into subsequent fiscal years provided that funds in the reserve not exceed approximately one fiscal period's expenses. The Committee may utilize the reserve funds to defray expenses during any fiscal period. The Committee proposes to utilize approximately $25,000 of its carry-over reserve funds to fully fund the fiscal year 2018 proposed budget, while assessing the new fiscal year 2018 crop at the proposed lower rate; thereby maintaining the carry-over reserve fund within the authorized limit allowed by the Order.
The proposed assessment rate would continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information.
Although this assessment rate would be in effect for an indefinite period, the Committee would continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee or USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA would evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking would be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's budget for fiscal year 2018 and those for subsequent fiscal periods would be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this proposed rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 38 producers of grapes in the production area and approximately 14 handlers subject to regulation under the Order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
Eleven of the 14 handlers subject to the Order have annual grape sales of less than $7,500,000, according to USDA Market News Service and Committee data. In addition, information from the Committee and USDA's Market News indicates that at least ten of 38 producers have annual receipts of less than $750,000. Thus, it may be concluded that a majority of the grape handlers regulated under the Order and about ten of the producers could be classified as small entities under the SBA's definitions.
This proposal would decrease the assessment rate collected from handlers for the 2018 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.030 to $0.020 per 18-pound lug of grapes. The Committee unanimously recommended fiscal year 2018 expenditures of $119,000 and an assessment rate of $0.020 per 18-pound lug. The proposed assessment rate of $0.020 is $0.010 lower than the 2017 rate. The quantity of assessable commodity for the 2018 fiscal year is estimated at 4,700,000 18-pound lugs. Thus, the $0.020 rate should provide $94,000 in assessment income. That amount plus the use of reserve funds of $25,000 should be adequate to meet this 2018 fiscal year's expenses. Income derived from handler assessments, along with interest income and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, would be adequate to cover budgeted expenses.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2018 fiscal year include $65,000 for management and compliance services, $25,500 in office expenditures, and $28,500 for research. Budgeted expenses for these items in 2017 were $50,000 for management and compliance services, $28,330 in office expenditures, and $28,500 for research.
Funds in the reserve (currently $140,000) would be reduced by $25,000 to be within the maximum permitted by the Order. Section 925.42 provides the Committee authority to carry over excess funds into subsequent fiscal years provided that funds in the reserve do not exceed approximately one fiscal period's expenses. The Committee is authorized to utilize the excess funds to defray expenses during any fiscal period. The Committee proposes to utilize approximately $25,000 of its carry-over reserve funds to fully fund the 2018 proposed budget, while assessing the new 2018 crop at the proposed lower rate; thereby maintaining the carry-over reserve fund within the authorized limit stated in the Order, approximately one fiscal period's expenses.
Prior to arriving at this budget and assessment rate, the Committee considered various options, such as maintaining the current assessment rate and expenditure levels. Alternative expenditure levels were discussed by the Committee, based upon the relative value of various activities to the grape
A review of historical crop and price information, as well as preliminary information pertaining to the upcoming fiscal period, indicates that the shipping point price for the 2017 season averaged about $21.62 per 18-pound lug of California desert grapes handled. If the 2018 price is similar to the 2017 price, estimated assessment revenue as a percentage of total estimated handler revenue would be 0.09 percent for the 2018 season ($0.020 divided by $21.62 per 18-pound lug).
This action would decrease the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to producers. However, decreasing the assessment rate would reduce the burden on handlers, and may reduce the burden on producers. In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the production area. The grape industry and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the November 30, 2017, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on this proposed rule, including the regulatory and information collection impacts of this action on small businesses.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189. No changes in those requirements are necessary as a result of this action. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This proposed rule would impose no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large southeastern California grape handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this action.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
A 30-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to this proposed rule. All written comments timely received will be considered before a final determination is made on this rule.
Grapes, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 925 is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On and after January 1, 2018, an assessment rate of $0.020 per 18-pound lug is established for grapes grown in a designated area of southeastern California.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule invites comments on a proposed amendment to Marketing Order No. 959, which regulates the handling of onions grown in south Texas. The proposed amendment would reduce the size of the South Texas Onion Committee (Committee) and make conforming and clarifying amendments as needed. The amendment would adjust the number of handlers and producers on the Committee to reflect a decrease in the number of onion producers and handlers in recent years.
Comments must be received by April 30, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposed rule. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or internet:
Geronimo Quinones, Marketing Specialist, or Julie Santoboni, Rulemaking Branch Chief, Marketing
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This action, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, proposes an amendment to regulations issued to carry out a marketing order as defined in 7 CFR 900.2(j). This proposal is issued under Marketing Order No. 959, as amended (7 CFR part 959), regulating the handling of onions grown in south Texas. Part 959 (referred to as the “Order”) is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” The Committee locally administers the Marketing Order and is comprised of onion producers and handlers operating within the area of production.
Section 608c(17) of the Act and the applicable rules of practice and procedure governing the formulation of marketing agreements and orders (7 CFR part 900) authorizes amendment of the Order through this informal rulemaking action. The Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) will consider comments received in response to this proposed rule, and based on all the information available, will determine if the Order amendment is warranted. If AMS determines amendment of the Order is warranted, a subsequent proposed rule and notice of referendum would be issued and producers would be allowed to vote for or against the proposed Order amendment. AMS would then issue a final rule effectuating any amendments approved by producers in the referendum.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this proposed rule in conformance with Executive Orders 13563 and 13175. This action falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this proposed rule does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017, titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
This proposal has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This rule is not intended to have retroactive effect. This rule shall not be deemed to preclude, preempt, or supersede any State program covering onions grown in south Texas.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. A handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed no later than 20 days after the date of entry of the ruling.
Section 1504 of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (2008 Farm Bill) (Pub. L. 110-246) amended section 8c(17) of the Act, which in turn required the addition of supplemental rules of practice to 7 CFR part 900 (73 FR 49307; August 21, 2008). The amendment of section 8c(17) of the Act and additional supplemental rules of practice authorize the use of informal rulemaking (5 U.S.C. 553) to amend Federal fruit, vegetable, and nut marketing agreements and orders. USDA may use informal rulemaking to amend marketing orders based on the nature and complexity of the proposed amendments, the potential regulatory and economic impacts on affected entities, and any other relevant matters.
AMS has considered these factors and has determined that the amendment proposed is not unduly complex and the nature of the proposed amendment is appropriate for utilizing the informal rulemaking process to amend the Order. A discussion of the potential regulatory and economic impacts on affected entities is discussed later in the “Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis” section of this proposed rule.
The proposed amendment was unanimously recommended by the Committee following deliberations at a public meeting held on June 7, 2017. The proposal would amend the Order by reducing the size of the Committee from 34 to 26 members. The change would remove one voting producer and handler member, and one alternate producer and handler member from each of the two districts.
Section 959.22 provides that the Committee consists of seventeen members, ten of whom shall be producers and seven of whom shall be handlers. For each member of the Committee there shall be an alternate.
This proposal would amend § 959.22 by reducing the size of the Committee from 34 to 26 members. The Committee size is based on membership per district. The Order initially established five districts, which were reestablished as two districts in § 959.110. Section 959.111 reapportioned the 34 Committee members between the two districts so that District 1 was comprised of 20 members and alternates and District 1 was comprised of 14 members and alternates. However, due to contractions in the size of the industry, the Committee has had difficulties finding nominees to fill positions on the Committee. The change would remove one voting producer and handler member, and one alternate producer and handler member from each of the two districts (eight members total). Conforming and clarifying changes would also be made to §§ 959.24, 959.26, 959.32, and §§ 959.110 and 959.111 would be removed.
This proposed action is necessary to adjust the number of handlers and producers on the Committee to reflect industry consolidation. There has been a decrease in the number of onion producers and handlers over the past 15 years. The current structure of the Committee requires 34 members, with half the members elected on biennial terms. Many seats remain vacant, as finding sufficient members to nominate has been challenging. Having a smaller size committee would enable it to fulfill membership and quorum requirements, thereby ensuring a more efficient and orderly flow of business.
For the reasons stated above, it is proposed that § 959.22 be modified to reduce the size of the Committee from 34 to 26 members. Conforming and clarifying changes would also be made to §§ 959.24, 959.26, 959.32, and §§ 959.110 and 959.111 would be removed.
Pursuant to the requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 60 producers of onions in the production area and approximately 30 handlers subject to regulation under the marketing order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
Based on information from the National Agricultural Statistics Service, the weighted grower price for South Texas onions during the 2015-16 season was approximately $12.30 per 50-pound equivalent. Furthermore, according to Committee data, total shipments were approximately three million 50-pound equivalents for the 2015-16 season with a total 2015-16 crop value estimated at $37 million. Dividing the crop value by the estimated number of producers (60) yields an estimated average receipt per producer of $617,000. This is below the $750,000 SBA definition of small producers. The average handler price for South Texas onions during the 2015-16 season was approximately $14.05 per 50-pound equivalent. Multiplying the average handler price by shipment information of 3 million 50-pound equivalent results in an estimated handler-level value of $42 million. Dividing this figure by the number of handlers (30) yields an estimated average annual handler receipts of $1.4 million, which is below the SBA definition of small agricultural service firms. Assuming a normal distribution, the majority of producers and handlers of South Texas onions may be classified as small entities.
The amendment proposed by the Committee would reduce the size of the Committee from 34 to 26 members under the Order. The reduction would remove one voting producer and handler member, and one alternate producer and handler member from each of the two districts.
The Committee's proposed amendment was unanimously recommended at a meeting on June 7, 2017. If this proposal is approved in referendum, there would be no direct financial effects on producers or handlers. Over the past 15 years there has been a 31-percent decrease in the number of onion producers, and a 34-percent decrease in the number of handlers in the production area. Many seats on the Committee remain vacant, as it has been challenging to find sufficient nominees. Having a smaller size Committee would enable it to fulfill membership and quorum requirements, thereby ensuring a more efficient and orderly flow of business.
The Committee believes this change will serve the needs of the Committee and the industry. No economic impact is expected if the amendment is approved because it would not establish any regulatory requirements on handlers, nor does it contain any assessment or funding implications. There would be no change in financial costs, reporting, or recordkeeping requirements if this proposal is approved.
Alternatives to this proposal, including making no changes at this time, were considered. However, the Committee believes that given reductions in the size of the industry, a smaller Committee size is necessary in order to ensure its ability to locally administer the program. Reducing the size of the Committee would enable it to fulfill membership and quorum requirements, thereby ensuring a more efficient and orderly flow of business.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0178 (Vegetable and Specialty Crops). No changes in those requirements are necessary as a result of this action. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This proposed rule would impose no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large South Texas onion handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this action.
The Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the South Texas onion production area. All interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and encouraged to participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the June 7, 2017, meeting was public, and all entities, both large and small, were encouraged to express their views on the proposal.
Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on the proposed amendment to the Order, including comments on the regulatory and information collection impacts of this action on small businesses.
Following analysis of any comments received on the amendment proposed in this proposed rule, AMS will evaluate all available information and determine whether to proceed. If appropriate, a proposed rule and notice of referendum would be issued, and producers would be provided the opportunity to vote for or against the proposed amendment. Information about the referendum, including dates and voter eligibility requirements, would be published in a future issue of the
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
The findings hereinafter set forth are supplementary to the findings and determinations which were previously made in connection with the issuance of Marketing Order 959; and all said previous findings and determinations are hereby ratified and affirmed, except insofar as such findings and determinations may be in conflict with the findings and determinations set forth herein.
1. Marketing Order 959 as hereby proposed to be amended and all of the terms and conditions thereof, would tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act;
2. Marketing Order 959 as hereby proposed to be amended regulates the
3. Marketing Order 959 as hereby proposed to be amended is limited in application to the smallest regional production area which is practicable, consistent with carrying out the declared policy of the Act, and the issuance of several marketing orders applicable to subdivisions of the production area would not effectively carry out the declared policy of the Act;
4. Marketing Order 959 as hereby proposed to be amended prescribes, insofar as practicable, such different terms applicable to different parts of the production area as are necessary to give due recognition to the differences in the production and marketing of onions produced or packed in the production area; and
5. All handling of onions produced or packed in the production area as defined in Marketing Order 959 is in the current of interstate or foreign commerce or directly burdens, obstructs, or affects such commerce.
A 60-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to this proposal. Any comments received on the amendment proposed in this proposed rule will be analyzed, and if AMS determines to proceed based on all the information presented, a producer referendum would be conducted to determine producer support for the proposed amendment. If appropriate, a final rule would then be issued to effectuate the amendment favored by producers participating in the referendum.
Onions, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 959 is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
The South Texas Onion Committee, consisting of thirteen members, eight of whom shall be producers and five of whom shall be handlers, is hereby established. For each member of the Committee there shall be an alternate. Producer members and alternates shall not have a proprietary interest in or be employees of a handler organization.
To determine a basis for selecting Committee members, the following districts of the production area are hereby established:
The Secretary shall select members and respective alternates from districts established pursuant to § 959.24 or § 959.25. Selections shall be as follows:
(a) Nine members of the Committee shall be necessary to constitute a quorum. Seven concurring votes, or two-thirds of the votes cast, whichever is greater, shall be required to pass any motion or approve any Committee action. At assembled meetings all votes shall be cast in person.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2017-01-07, which applies to all Dassault Aviation Model FAN JET FALCON airplanes, FAN JET FALCON SERIES C, D, E, F, and G airplanes; Model MYSTERE-FALCON 200 airplanes; Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes; and MYSTERE-FALCON 50 airplanes. AD 2017-01-07 requires a functional test or check of the main entry door closure and warning system, and applicable door closing inspections, adjustments, operational tests, and corrective actions if necessary. Since we issued AD 2017-01-07, we have determined that the required actions must be repetitively performed to ensure continued safety. This proposed AD would require repetitive door closing inspections, adjustments, operational tests, and corrective actions if necessary. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by April 16, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone: 201-440-6700; internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone: 206-231-3226; fax: 206-231-3398.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We issued AD 2017-01-07, Amendment 39-18774 (82 FR 1595, January 6, 2017) (“AD 2017-01-07”), for all Dassault Aviation Model FAN JET FALCON airplanes, FAN JET FALCON SERIES C, D, E, F, and G airplanes; Model MYSTERE-FALCON 200 airplanes; Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes; and MYSTERE-FALCON 50 airplanes. AD 2017-01-07 requires a functional test or check of the main entry door closure and warning system, and applicable door closing inspections, adjustments, operational tests, and corrective actions if necessary. AD 2017-01-07 resulted from a report that, during approach for landing, the main entry door detached from an airplane. We issued AD 2017-01-07 to detect and correct defective crew/passenger doors. Such a condition could result in the in-flight opening or detachment of the crew/passenger door, which could result in loss of control of the airplane and injury to persons on the ground.
Since we issued AD 2017-01-07, we have determined that repetitive door closing inspections, adjustments, operational tests, and corrective actions if necessary, must be repetitively performed to ensure continued safety.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2017-0123, dated July 20, 2017 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Dassault Aviation Model FAN JET FALCON, FAN JET FALCON SERIES C, D, E, F, and G airplanes; Model MYSTERE-FALCON 200 airplanes; Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes; and Model MYSTERE-FALCON 50 airplanes. The MCAI states:
During approach for landing, at an altitude of 7,000 feet, a MF20-D5 lost the main entry door (MED). The flight crew maintained control of the aeroplane to land uneventfully. The results of the preliminary technical investigations concluded that the cause of this event could be either a broken cable, or an unlocked safety catch, associated with one or two deficient micro switches.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to in-flight opening and/or detachment of the MED, possibly resulting in loss of control of the aeroplane, and/or injury to persons on the ground.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Dassault issued Service Bulletin (SB) F20-789, SB F200-133 and SB MF50-531, providing instructions for inspection/adjustment, and an operational test of the MED closure. Consequently, EASA issued AD 2015-0007 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2017-01-07] to require a one-time accomplishment of a functional test/check of the MED closure/warning system. It also required [a general visual] inspection and operational test of the MED [including the control and latching mechanisms] and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s).
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, EASA determined that the inspection and operational test of the MED must be repeated to ensure continued safety.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of EASA AD 2015-0007, which is superseded, and additionally requires repetitive inspections and operational tests of the MED.
Corrective actions include adjusting the telescopic rod bolts on the door until the clearance between the lower part of the door and the fuselage is within the specified tolerances. The corrective actions for the control and latching mechanisms include adjusting components and replacing damaged components (including pull latches, microswitches, pulleys, and cables). Signs of damage include cracks, corrosion, wear, and distortion. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the internet at
Dassault Aviation has issued the following service information.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F20-789, also referred to as 789, dated December 9, 2014.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F50-531, also referred to as 531, dated December 9, 2014.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F200-133, also referred to as 133, dated December 9, 2014.
This service information describes procedures for inspections, adjustments, and operational tests of certain doors and corrective actions. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 392 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by April 16, 2018.
This AD replaces AD 2017-01-07, Amendment 39-18774 (82 FR 1595, January 6, 2017) (“AD 2017-01-07”).
This AD applies to the airplanes specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this AD, certificated in any category, all serial numbers.
(1) Dassault Aviation Model FAN JET FALCON, FAN JET FALCON SERIES C, D, E, F, and G airplanes.
(2) Dassault Aviation Model MYSTERE-FALCON 200 airplanes.
(3) Dassault Aviation Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes.
(4) Dassault Aviation Model MYSTERE-FALCON 50 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by a report indicating that during approach for landing, the main entry door detached from an airplane. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct defective crew/passenger doors. Such a condition could result in the in-flight opening or detachment of the crew/passenger door, which could result in loss of control of the airplane and injury to persons on the ground.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2017-01-07, with no changes. Within 330 flight hours or 13 months, whichever occurs first after February 10, 2017 (the effective date of AD 2017-01-07), unless already done: Do the applicable door closing inspections, adjustments, and operational tests, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1) For Model FAN JET FALCON airplanes; Model FAN JET FALCON SERIES C, D, E, F, and G airplanes; and Model MYSTERE-FALCON 20-C5, 20-D5, 20-E5, and 20-F5 airplanes: Dassault Service Bulletin F20-789, also referred to as 789, dated December 9, 2014.
(2) For Model MYSTERE-FALCON 200 airplanes: Dassault Service Bulletin F200-133, also referred to as 133, dated December 9, 2014.
(3) For Model MYSTERE-FALCON 50 airplanes: Dassault Service Bulletin F50-531, also referred to as 531, dated December 9, 2014.
Within 72 months after accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 72 months, repeat the actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1)
(i) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(ii) AMOCs approved previously for AD 2017-01-07, Amendment 39-18774 (82 FR 1595, January 6, 2017), are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2017-0123, dated July 20, 2017, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 206-231-3226; fax 206-231-3398.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc., Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of arcing and smoke emanating from the windshields. This proposed AD would require a revision to the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to include an inspection of the windshield moisture seal for signs of cracks, erosion, wear, and other deterioration; doing that inspection and repair if necessary; and re-torqueing the windshield heater terminal lugs and applying sealant to the windshield heater screw heads. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by April 16, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q-Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone: 416-375-4000; fax: 416-375-4539; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Assata Dessaline, Aerospace Engineer, Avionics and Administrative Services Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone: 516-228-7301; fax: 516-794-5531.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian AD CF-2017-18, dated May 26, 2017 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc., Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
There have been numerous reports of arcing and smoke emanating from the windshields. Review of these incidents revealed that the windshield heater terminal lugs tend to loosen over time. Loose terminal lugs could create sparks that lead to burning of the lugs and, due to the excessive heat, cracking of the windshields. If not corrected, this condition could cause a loss of cabin pressure resulting in an emergency descent.
Required actions include a revision to the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to include an inspection of the windshield moisture seal for signs of cracks, erosion, wear, or other deterioration; doing that inspection and repair if necessary; and re-torqueing the windshield heater terminal lugs and applying sealant to the windshield heater screw heads. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the internet at
Bombardier, Inc., has issued Service Bulletin 84-30-16, Revision A, dated September 27, 2017. This service information describes procedures for re-torqueing the screws that fasten the windshield heater terminal lugs and applying sealant to the screw heads.
Bombardier, Inc., has also issued Q400 Dash 8 Temporary Revision MRB-0099, dated December 9, 2016, to Part 1 of Bombardier, Inc., Q400 Dash 8 Maintenance Requirements Manual (MRM), PSM 1-84-7. This temporary revision describes procedures for inspecting the moisture seal for the left and right windshields for signs of cracks, erosion, wear, and other deterioration.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 54 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide a cost estimate for the on-condition repair specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by April 16, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc., Model DHC-8-400, -401, and -402 airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers 4001 through 4524 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 30, Ice and Rain Protection.
This AD was prompted by reports of arcing and smoke emanating from the windshields. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct loose windshield heater terminal lugs. Loose terminal lugs could create sparks that lead to burning of the lugs and, due to the excessive heat, cracking of the windshields. If not corrected, such a condition could cause a loss of cabin pressure resulting in an emergency descent.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD: Revise the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the task specified in Q400 Dash 8 (Bombardier) Temporary Revision (TR) MRB-0099, dated December 9, 2016, into Part 1 of Bombardier, Inc., Q400 Dash 8 Maintenance Requirements Manual (MRM), PSM 1-84-7.
After the maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative actions (
Within 1,600 flight hours or 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first, do a general visual inspection of the moisture seal on the left and right windshields for signs of cracks, erosion, wear, and other deterioration (including discoloration, warping, or missing material). If any crack, erosion, wear, or other deterioration is found, before further flight, repair the moisture seal in accordance with a method approved by the Manager, New York ACO Branch, FAA; or Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA); or Bombardier, Inc.'s TCCA Design Approval Organization (DAO). If approved by the DAO, the approval must include the DAO-authorized signature.
Additional guidance for repair of the moisture seal can be found in PPG Aerospace Transparencies Abbreviated Component Maintenance Manual, Part Number NP-157901, dated June 16, 2015.
Within 8,000 flight hours or 60 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first: Re-torque the windshield heater terminal lug screws for the left and right windshields and apply Humiseal to the screw heads of the windshield heaters, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-30-16, Revision A, dated September 27, 2017.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian AD CF-2017-18, dated May 26, 2017, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Assata Dessaline, Aerospace Engineer, Avionics and Administrative Services Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone: 516-228-7301; fax: 516-794-5531.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q-Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone: 416-375-4000; fax: 416-375-4539; email:
Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS), National Ocean Service (NOS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notification of plan for periodic review of regulations; request for comments.
Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) section 610 requires that NOAA Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS) periodically review existing regulations that have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, such as small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. This plan describes how ONMS will perform this review and describes the regulations proposed for review in 2018.
Comments must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Comments may be submitted by:
•
Meredith Walz, NOAA Office of National Marine Sanctuaries, 1305 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910,
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601
Section 610 of the RFA, 5 U.S.C. 610, requires federal agencies to review existing regulations. It requires that ONMS publish a plan in the
In addition, section 605 of the RFA provides that, when a rule is promulgated, the head of an agency may certify to the Small Business Administration's Chief Counsel for Advocacy that a rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Guidance on implementing the requirements of RFA section 610 indicates that agencies should also determine if previously changed conditions may mean that a certified rule now does have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The purpose of the review is to determine whether existing rules should be left unchanged, or whether they should be revised or rescinded in order to minimize significant economic impacts on a substantial number of small entities, consistent with the objectives of other applicable statutes. In deciding whether change is necessary, RFA section 610(b) establishes five factors that agencies will consider in reviewing existing regulations:
(1) Whether the rule is still needed;
(2) What type of public complaints or comments were received concerning the rule;
(3) How complex is the rule;
(4) How much the rule overlaps, duplicates or conflicts with other federal rules, and, to the extent feasible, with state and local governmental rules; and
(5) How long it has been since the rule has been evaluated or how much the technology, economic conditions, or other factors have changed in the area affected by the rule.
ONMS will conduct reviews in such a way as to ensure that all rules for which a Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis was prepared are reviewed within 10 years of the year in which they were originally issued. During this same period, ONMS will also review other rules certified under RFA section 605 as not having significant impacts. ONMS will evaluate whether those rules now have a significant impact and therefore should be reviewed under RFA section 610. ONMS intends that it will conduct section 610 reviews on applicable regulations on an annual basis. ONMS will make RFA Section 610 review reports available at the following website:
One rulemaking finalized in 2008, and one rulemaking finalized in January 2009, are being reviewed under RFA section 610. The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) that these rules would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As a result, a regulatory flexibility analysis was not required, and none were prepared for the following actions:
1. “Gulf of the Farallones National Marine Sanctuary Regulations; Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary Regulations; and Cordell Bank National Marine Sanctuary Regulations”. RINs 0648-AT14, 0648-AT15, 0648-AT16 (73 FR 70488; November 20, 2008). ONMS issued this rule, along with final revised management plans, for the Gulf of the Farallones (now renamed Greater Farallones), Cordell Bank, and Monterey Bay national marine sanctuaries (GFNMS, CBNMS, and MBNMS respectively). This final rule updated the regulations for the three sanctuaries, and established new regulatory prohibitions for them. New prohibitions contained in the regulations included restrictions on: The introduction of introduced species; discharges from cruise ships and other vessels; attracting or approaching white sharks in GFNMS; anchoring vessels in seagrass in Tomales Bay; deserting vessels; motorized personal watercraft use in the MBNMS (definition revision); and, possessing, moving, or injuring historic resources. This final rule also codified three dredge disposal sites in the MBNMS that existed prior to the MBNMS designation in 1992, and expanded the boundaries of the MBNMS to include the Davidson Seamount and surrounding area.
2. “Channel Islands National Marine Sanctuary Regulations”. RIN 0648-AT17 (74 FR 3216; January 16, 2009). ONMS published this rule, along with final revised management plans, to finalize the regulations for the Channel Islands National Marine Sanctuary (CINMS or Sanctuary). The rule revised the regulations to implement prohibitions on: Exploring for, developing, or producing minerals within the sanctuary; abandoning matter on or in sanctuary submerged lands; taking marine mammals, sea turtles, or seabirds within or above the sanctuary; possessing within the sanctuary any marine mammal, sea turtle, or seabird; marking, defacing, damaging, moving, removing, or tampering with sanctuary signs, monuments, boundary markers, or similar items; introducing or otherwise releasing from within or into the sanctuary an introduced species; and operating motorized personal watercraft within waters of the sanctuary that are coextensive with the Channel Islands National Park. NOAA also made additional changes to the grammar and wording of several sections of the regulations to ensure clarity.
ONMS invites comments on these rules. ONMS plans to complete the RFA section 610 review of the regulations by November 1, 2018. Unless we publish a notification stating otherwise, ONMS will make the final report available at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the Commonwealth of Virginia (the Commonwealth or Virginia) that changes reliance on the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR) to reliance on the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) to address certain regional haze requirements. EPA's approval of this SIP revision would convert the Agency's limited approval/limited disapproval of Virginia's regional haze SIP to a full approval. EPA is also proposing to approve the visibility element of Virginia's infrastructure SIP submittals for the 2010 sulfur dioxide (SO
Written comments must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0601 at
Ellen Schmitt, (215) 814-5787 or at
On July 16, 2015, the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality (VA DEQ) submitted a revision to its SIP to update its regional haze plan and to meet visibility requirements in section 110(a)(2)(D) of the CAA.
In section 169A of the 1977 Amendments to the CAA, Congress created a program for protecting visibility in the nation's national parks and wilderness areas. This section of the CAA establishes “as a national goal the prevention of any future, and the remedying of any existing, impairment of visibility in mandatory Class I federal areas which impairment results from manmade air pollution.”
The CAA requires each state to develop, and submit for approval by EPA, a SIP to meet various air quality requirements, including the protection of visibility in Class I areas.
In a 2005 revision to the RHR,
In July 2008, the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit (D.C. Circuit) vacated CAIR.
After promulgating CSAPR, EPA conducted a technical analysis to determine whether compliance with CSAPR would satisfy the requirements of the RHR addressing alternatives to BART. In a June 7, 2012 action, EPA amended the RHR to provide that participation by a state's EGUs in a CSAPR trading program for a given pollutant—either a CSAPR federal trading program or an integrated CSAPR state trading program implemented through an approved CSAPR SIP revision—qualifies as a BART alternative for those EGUs for that pollutant.
Numerous parties filed petitions for review of CSAPR in the D.C. Circuit, and on August 21, 2012, the court issued its ruling, vacating and remanding CSAPR to EPA and ordering continued implementation of CAIR.
On June 7, 2012, EPA finalized a limited approval and a limited disapproval of several SIP revisions submitted by VA DEQ meant to address regional haze program requirements.
On July 16, 2015, the Commonwealth of Virginia submitted a SIP revision changing its reliance from CAIR to CSAPR in its SIP to meet BART for visibility purposes and for addressing reasonable progress requirements, thereby removing Virginia's need for the partial RH FIP.
The CAA requires states to submit, within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS, SIP revisions meeting the applicable elements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2). SIP revisions that are intended to meet the requirements of section 110(a) of the CAA are often referred to as infrastructure SIPs and the elements under 110(a) are referred to as infrastructure requirements. Several of these applicable elements are delineated within section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) of the CAA. Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) requires SIPs to contain adequate provisions to prohibit emissions in that state from having certain adverse air quality effects on neighboring states due to interstate transport of air pollution. There are four prongs within section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) of the CAA; section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) contains prongs 1 and 2, while section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) includes prongs 3 and 4. This rulemaking action addresses prong 4 which is related to interference with measures by another state to protect visibility. Prong 4 requires that a state's SIP include adequate provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from interfering with measures to protect visibility required to be included in another state's SIP. One way in which prong 4 can be satisfied is if a state has a fully approved regional haze program within its SIP.
Relying on its July 16, 2015 SIP submittal for demonstrating it should receive full approval of its regional haze program, Virginia requested that EPA take action to approve the prong 4 visibility requirements for the 2010 SO
Virginia submitted a SIP revision on July 16, 2015, seeking to correct the deficiencies identified in EPA's June 7, 2012 limited disapproval action, by replacing reliance on CAIR with reliance on CSAPR in its regional haze SIP.
Additionally, the July 16, 2015 submittal addressed prong 4 for the previously submitted infrastructure SIP revision regarding the 2010 SO
As did EPA's partial RH FIP for Virginia, the Commonwealth's July 16, 2015 regional haze SIP revision relies on CSAPR to address the deficiencies identified in EPA's limited disapproval of Virginia's regional haze SIP. EPA is proposing to find that this revision would satisfy the NO
In addition to the regional haze SIP submittal which Virginia submitted to EPA on July 16, 2015, the Commonwealth also submitted to EPA on the same date a SIP revision regarding the infrastructure requirements for the 2012 PM
EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this document. These comments will be considered before taking final action. All other applicable infrastructure requirements for the Commonwealth's infrastructure SIP submissions for the 2010 SO
EPA is proposing to take the following actions: (1) Approve Virginia's July 16, 2015 SIP submission that changes reliance on CAIR to reliance on CSAPR for certain elements of Virginia's regional haze program; (2) convert EPA's limited approval/limited disapproval of Virginia's regional haze program to a full approval; and (3) approve the prong 4 portions of Virginia's June 18, 2014 infrastructure
In 1995, Virginia adopted legislation that provides, subject to certain conditions, for an environmental assessment (audit) “privilege” for voluntary compliance evaluations performed by a regulated entity. The legislation further addresses the relative burden of proof for parties either asserting the privilege or seeking disclosure of documents for which the privilege is claimed. Virginia's legislation also provides, subject to certain conditions, for a penalty waiver for violations of environmental laws when a regulated entity discovers such violations pursuant to a voluntary compliance evaluation and voluntarily discloses such violations to the Commonwealth and takes prompt and appropriate measures to remedy the violations. Virginia's Voluntary Environmental Assessment Privilege Law, Va. Code Sec. 10.1-1198, provides a privilege that protects from disclosure documents and information about the content of those documents that are the product of a voluntary environmental assessment. The Privilege Law does not extend to documents or information that: (1) Are generated or developed before the commencement of a voluntary environmental assessment; (2) are prepared independently of the assessment process; (3) demonstrate a clear, imminent and substantial danger to the public health or environment; or (4) are required by law.
On January 12, 1998, the Commonwealth of Virginia Office of the Attorney General provided a legal opinion that states that the Privilege law, Va. Code Sec. 10.1-1198, precludes granting a privilege to documents and information “required by law,” including documents and information “required by federal law to maintain program delegation, authorization or approval,” since Virginia must “enforce federally authorized environmental programs in a manner that is no less stringent than their federal counterparts. . . .” The opinion concludes that “[r]egarding § 10.1-1198, therefore, documents or other information needed for civil or criminal enforcement under one of these programs could not be privileged because such documents and information are essential to pursuing enforcement in a manner required by federal law to maintain program delegation, authorization or approval.”
Virginia's Immunity law, Va. Code Sec. 10.1-1199, provides that “[t]o the extent consistent with requirements imposed by federal law,” any person making a voluntary disclosure of information to a state agency regarding a violation of an environmental statute, regulation, permit, or administrative order is granted immunity from administrative or civil penalty. The Attorney General's January 12, 1998 opinion states that the quoted language renders this statute inapplicable to enforcement of any federally authorized programs, since “no immunity could be afforded from administrative, civil, or criminal penalties because granting such immunity would not be consistent with federal law, which is one of the criteria for immunity.”
Therefore, EPA has determined that Virginia's Privilege and Immunity statutes will not preclude the Commonwealth from enforcing its regional haze program consistent with the federal requirements. In any event, because EPA has also determined that a state audit privilege and immunity law can affect only state enforcement and cannot have any impact on federal enforcement authorities, EPA may at any time invoke its authority under the CAA, including, for example, sections 113, 167, 205, 211 or 213, to enforce the requirements or prohibitions of the state plan, independently of any state enforcement effort. In addition, citizen enforcement under section 304 of the CAA is likewise unaffected by this, or any, state audit privilege or immunity law.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not expected to be an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rule addressing regional haze requirements and prong 4 requirements for the 2010 SO
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve elements of New Jersey's State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted regarding the infrastructure requirements of section 110(a)(1) and (2) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the 2008 lead, 2008 ozone, 2010 nitrogen dioxide, 2010 sulfur dioxide, 2011 carbon monoxide, 2006 particulate matter of 10 microns or less (PM
Written comments must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R02-OAR-2016-0625 at
Anthony (Ted) Gardella, Environmental Protection Agency, 290 Broadway, New York, New York 10007-1866, at (212) 637-3892, or by email at
The Supplementary Information section is arranged as follows:
The EPA is proposing to approve elements of the State of New Jersey's Infrastructure State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission, dated October 17, 2014, and as supplemented on March 15, 2017, as meeting the section 110(a) infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the following National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS or standard): 2008 ozone, 2008 lead, 2010 nitrogen dioxide (NO
The EPA is also proposing to approve three CAA section 110(a) infrastructure requirements for the 1997 ozone and the 1997 and 2006 PM
On March 27, 2008 (73 FR 16436), the EPA promulgated a revised NAAQS for ozone. The EPA revised the level of the 8-hour ozone NAAQS from 0.08 parts per million (ppm) to 0.075 ppm.
On October 15, 2008 (73 FR 66964), the EPA promulgated a new NAAQS, a rolling 3-month average NAAQS for lead. The 2008 lead NAAQS is 0.15 micrograms per cubic meter of air (µg/m
On January 22, 2010 (75 FR 6474), the EPA promulgated a new 1-hour primary NAAQS for NO
On June 2, 2010 (75 FR 35520), the EPA promulgated a revised primary NAAQS for SO
On December 14, 2012 (78 FR 3086), the EPA promulgated a revised primary NAAQS for PM
On September 21, 2006 (71 FR 61144), the EPA retained the primary and secondary 24-hour PM
On August 31, 2011 (54 FR 54294), the EPA retained the existing primary and secondary standards for CO of 9 ppm as an 8-hour average, and 35 ppm as a 1-hour standard average, neither to be exceeded more than once per year. The standards were initially established on April 30, 1971 (36 FR 8186).
Section 110(a)(1) of the CAA provides the procedural and timing requirements for SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) of the CAA lists specific elements that states must meet for SIP requirements related to a newly established or revised NAAQS. Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA require, in part, that states submit to EPA plans to implement, maintain and enforce each of the NAAQS promulgated by the EPA. By statute, SIPs meeting the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) are to be submitted by states within three years
On October 17, 2014 the New Jersey Department of Environmental Protection (NJDEP) submitted a revision to its SIP to address requirements under section 110(a)(2) of the CAA (the infrastructure requirements) related to the 2008 lead, 2008 ozone, 2010 NO
On March 30, 2016, New Jersey withdrew the portion of the October 17, 2014 SIP submittal addressing 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) (prongs 1 and 2) for the 2008 Ozone NAAQS. The EPA subsequently issued a Finding of Failure to submit to New Jersey.
On September 6, 2016
The infrastructure requirements of CAA section 110(a)(1) and (2) are discussed in the following EPA guidance documents: EPA's October 2, 2007, “Guidance on SIP Elements Required Under Section 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 1997 8-Hour Ozone and PM
The EPA reviews each infrastructure SIP submission for compliance with the applicable statutory provisions of CAA 110(a)(2). The 14 elements required to be addressed by CAA section 110(a)(2) are:
• 110(a)(2)(A): Emission limits and other control measures;
• 110(a)(2)(B): Ambient air quality monitoring/data system;
• 110(a)(2)(C): Program for enforcement of control measures;
• 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) and (II): Interstate pollution transport;
• 110(a)(2)(D)(ii): Interstate and international pollution abatement;
• 110(a)(2)(E): Adequate resources and authority, conflict of interest, oversight of local governments and local authorities;
• 110(a)(2)(F): Stationary source monitoring and reporting;
• 110(a)(2)(G): Emergency powers;
• 110(a)(2)(H): Future SIP revisions;
• 110(a)(2)(I): Plan revisions for nonattainment areas (under part D);
• 110(a)(2)(J): Consultation with government officials, public notification, and PSD and visibility protection;
• 110(a)(2)(K): Air quality modeling and data;
• 110(a)(2)(L): Permitting fees;
• 110(a)(2)(M): Consultation/participation by affected local entities.
Two elements identified in section 110(a)(2) are not governed by the three-year submission deadline of section 110(a)(1) because SIPs incorporating necessary local nonattainment area controls are not due within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS, but rather due at the time that the nonattainment area plan requirements are due pursuant to section 172 of the CAA. See 77 FR 46354 (August 3, 2012); 77 FR 60308 (October 3, 2012, footnote 1). These requirements are: (1) Submissions required by section 110(a)(2)(C) to the extent that subsection refers to a permit program as required in part D Title I of the CAA, and (2) submissions required by section 110(a)(2)(I) which pertain to the nonattainment planning requirements of part D, Title I of the CAA. As a result, this action does not address the nonattainment permit program requirements of 110(a)(2)(C) or the nonattainment planning requirements related to section 110(a)(2)(I).
One of the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(J) is that SIPs meet the applicable requirements of CAA part C related to visibility. New Jersey addresses visibility protection requirements through its Regional Haze SIP submittal which the EPA approved on January 3, 2012 (77 FR 19). As indicated in the EPA's September 2013 Infrastructure Guidance, although states are subject to visibility and regional haze program requirements under CAA part C, the visibility and regional haze requirements under CAA part C do not change due to promulgation of, or revision to, a NAAQS. The SIP is not required to be revised with respect to visibility protection since there are no new visibility obligations. Accordingly, air agencies do not need to address the visibility sub-element of section 110(a)(2)(J) in infrastructure SIP submissions. Hence, the EPA considers this sub-element to be not germane to infrastructure SIPs and therefore this action does not address the visibility sub-element of section 110(a)(2)(J).
The EPA is acting on a New Jersey SIP submittal dated October 17, 2014 which addresses the section 110 infrastructure requirements for the following seven NAAQS: 2008 ozone, 2008 lead, 2010 NO
New Jersey's October 2014 section 110 submittal demonstrates how the
The EPA's evaluation and rationale for proposing action on New Jersey's October 2014 infrastructure SIP submittal is detailed in the “Technical Support Document for EPA's Proposed Rulemaking for the New Jersey State Implementation Plan Revision For Meeting the Infrastructure Requirements In the Clean Air Act” dated February 2018 (TSD). The TSD also discusses in detail how New Jersey's SIP revision addresses the infrastructure requirements of section 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA. The TSD is available in the docket (EPA-R02-OAR-2016-0625). The reader should refer to this TSD for the EPA's detailed rationale for proposing approval of particular CAA section 110(a)(2) elements. The EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this document. These comments will be considered before taking final action.
The following summarizes the EPA's proposed findings, based on the detailed rationale discussed in the TSD, for New Jersey's SIP revision addressing the infrastructure requirements of section 110(a)(1) and (2) for the following seven NAAQS: 2008 ozone, 2008 lead, 2010 NO
In this rulemaking, the EPA is proposing to approve New Jersey's infrastructure SIP submittal for the seven NAAQS noted herein as addressing the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2) (A), (B), (C) (with the exception of program requirements for PSD and permitting programs for minor sources and minor modifications), (E), (F), (G), (H), (J) (with the exception of program requirements related to PSD), (K), (L), and (M) of the CAA.
In accordance with 40 CFR part 51, appendix V, EPA found that New Jersey's October 17, 2014 infrastructure SIP submittal is technically incomplete for the portions addressing the infrastructure elements in section 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), (D)(ii), and (J) relating to the permitting program for PSD, because New Jersey has not adequately addressed the requirements of part C of title I of the CAA for having a SIP approved PSD permit program. The EPA found the remainder of the SIP submittal to be administratively and technically complete. On October 28, 2014, EPA sent a letter to New Jersey Department of Environmental Protection notifying New Jersey of this determination. As a result of this incompleteness finding, the EPA is not taking action on the PSD related portions of section 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(ii), and (J) for the seven NAAQS included in New Jersey's October 2014 infrastructure SIP submittal, until New Jersey submits a SIP to address the PSD permit program requirements of part C of title I of the CAA.
The EPA does not anticipate any adverse consequences to New Jersey as a result of this incompleteness finding for the PSD related portions of section 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), (D)(ii), and (J) for New Jersey's 2014 infrastructure SIP revision. First, mandatory sanctions would not apply to New Jersey under CAA section 179 because the failure to submit a PSD SIP is neither required under title I part D of the CAA, nor in response to a SIP call under section 110(k)(5) of the CAA. Second, EPA is not subject to any further FIP duty from our finding of incompleteness because of the PSD FIP that has already been approved, and that addresses the SIP deficiency.
The EPA finds that the remainder of New Jersey's October 2014 infrastructure submittal provides the basic program elements specified in section 110(a)(2) of the CAA necessary to implement, maintain, and enforce the NAAQS. A detailed summary of EPA's review and rationale for approving New Jersey's infrastructure SIP submittal may be found in the TSD for this rulemaking action which is available on line at
The EPA is not acting on the portions of the SIP submittal addressing CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) with respect to the 2008 ozone, 2008 lead, 2010 NO
The following summarizes the EPA's proposed findings, based on the detailed rationale discussed in the TSD, for New Jersey's SIP revision addressing the
In this rulemaking, the EPA is also proposing to approve New Jersey's infrastructure SIP submittal for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS and the 1997 and 2006 PM
• Sub-element 110(E)(ii) [conflict of interest provisions]: Submitting for approval into the SIP the statutes or regulations necessary to substantially meet the requirements of CAA section 128(a)(2) that addresses conflict of interest;
• Sub-element 110(E)(iii) [oversight of local governments and local authorities]: Identify the local governments or authorities that: (a) Participate in the SIP planning efforts, (b) have been delegated responsibilities to implement or enforce portions of the SIP, and (c) provide copies of the agreement or memoranda of understanding (MOU) between the State and local governments or authorities;
• Element 110(G) [emergency powers]: Submit for approval into the SIP the current version of NJAC 7:27-12 “Prevention and Control of Air Pollution Emergencies” (Subchapter 12) and submit the current version the emergency criteria levels that the State will use in making alerts, warnings or emergencies.
With reference to New Jersey's infrastructure SIP submittal for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS and the 1997 and 2006 PM
With the State's submittal of information that addresses CAA section 110(a)(2)(E)(iii), the EPA is proposing to remove 40 CFR 52.1579 (Intergovernmental cooperation) that the EPA previously identified as not meeting the requirements of subpart M (Intergovernmental Consultation) of part 51 since the SIP had not adequately described the responsibilities of local agencies in developing, implementing and enforcing the SIP.
The EPA is proposing to approve New Jersey's infrastructure submittal dated October 17, 2014, as supplemented on March 15, 2017, for the 2008 ozone, 2008 lead, 2010 NO
The EPA is not taking action on the following elements that are not germane to infrastructure SIPs: Sections 110(a)(2)(C) (sub-element related to nonattainment permitting); 110(a)(2)(I); and the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(J). In addition, with respect to 2008 lead, 2010 NO
The EPA is proposing to delete the deficiency at 40 CFR 52.1579 because the deficiency identified would be resolved by the approval of CAA section 110(a)(2)(E)(iii) for each of the NAAQS indicated in this action.
In addition, the EPA is proposing to incorporate into the New Jersey SIP the following regulation and statutes:
N.J.S.A. 52:13D-14, 52:13D-16(a)-(b) and 52:13D-21(n) “New Jersey's Conflict of Interest Law,”
N.J.A.C 7:27-12, “Prevention and Control of Air Pollution Emergencies.”
In this rule, the EPA is proposing to include in a final rule regulatory text that iucludes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requiremnents of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the regulations and statutes identified at the bottom of Section VI of this rule. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rulemaking action, pertaining to New Jersey's section 110(a)(2) infrastructure requirements for the 1997 and 2008 ozone NAAQS, 1997, 2006 and 2012 PM
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve revisions to the Bay Area Air Quality Management District (BAAQMD or District) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). These revisions concern permit program rules governing the issuance of permits for stationary sources, including review and permitting of major sources and major modifications under parts C and D of title I of the Clean Air Act (CAA). The revisions correct deficiencies in BAAQMD Regulation 2, Rules 1 and 2, and Regulation 2, Rule 4, previously identified by the EPA in final rules dated August 1, 2016, and December 4, 2017, respectively. We are proposing to approve revisions that correct the identified deficiencies.
Any comments must arrive by April 2, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2018-0080 at
Laura Yannayon, EPA Region 9, (415) 972-3534,
Throughout this document, the terms “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.
For the purpose of this document, we are giving meaning to certain words or initials as follows:
(i) The word or initials
(ii) The word or initials APCO mean or refer to the Air Pollution Control Officer.
(iii) The word or initials
(iv) The initials
(v) The words
(vi) The initials
(vii) The initials
(viii) The initials or words
(ix) The initials
(x) The initials
(xi) The initials
(xii) The initials
(xiii) The initials
(xiv) The initials
(xv) The initials
(xvi) The initials
(xvii) The initials
(xviii) The initials
(xix) The initials
(xx) The initials
(xxi) The initials
Table 1 lists the rules addressed by this proposal with the dates they were adopted by BAAQMD and submitted by the CARB, which is the governor's designee for California SIP submittals. Regulation 2, Rule 1 contains general requirements that apply to all District air quality permitting programs. Regulation 2, Rule 2 contains the District's New Source Review (NSR) permit programs for both attainment and nonattainment pollutants. Regulation 2, Rule 4 contains requirements for banking emission reduction credits (ERCs).
On February 14, 2018, the EPA determined that the submittal of Regulation 2, Rules 1, 2 and 4 met the completeness criteria in 40 CFR part 51, appendix V, which must be met before formal EPA review.
The existing SIP-approved NSR program for new or modified stationary sources in the Bay Area consists of the rules identified below in Table 2. The EPA's approval of the rules identified above in Table 1 would have the effect of entirely superseding our prior approval of these rules in the current SIP-approved program.
This SIP submittal is intended to correct deficiencies previously identified by the EPA in our August 1, 2016, limited approval and limited disapproval ction for Rules 2-1 and 2-2 (81 FR 50339), and our December 4, 2017, conditional approval action for Rule 2-4 (82 FR 57133).
The evaluation criteria for the submitted rules includes compliance with the CAA's requirements for SIPs in CAA sections 110(a)(2), 110(l), and 193. In addition, the EPA evaluated the submitted rules for consistency with the regulatory provisions of 40 CFR part 51, subpart I (Review of New Sources and Modifications) (
In our previous August 1, 2016, and December 4, 2017, actions we evaluated prior submissions of the submitted rules in accordance with the CAA and regulatory requirements listed in Section II.A of this document. In those actions, we determined that for the most part the submitted rules satisfied the applicable requirements for NSR permit programs. However, in each action we identified certain deficiencies that prevented full approval. For both of the previous actions, we list the identified deficiencies and evaluate whether the submitted rule revisions correct the deficiency. We also evaluate any additional rule revisions and whether the submittal complies with the requirements of sections 110(a)(2), 110(l) and 193 of the CAA.
Our August 1, 2016 action identified the following eleven deficiencies in Rules 2-1 and 2-2.
First, the definitions of “agricultural source” in Section 2-1-239 and “large confined animal facility” used in Section 2-1-424 rely on other definitions and provisions in District rules that are not SIP approved.
Second, Section 2-1-234, subparagraph 2.2, is deficient because it
Third, the same deficiency discussed above for the PSD provisions applies to the nonattainment NSR provisions. Section 2-1-234, subparagraph 2.1, does not satisfy the requirements of 40 CFR 51.165(a)(2) and 51.165(a)(6) & (7), which require nonattainment NSR programs to contain specific applicability procedures and recordkeeping provisions.
Fourth, the definition of the term “PSD pollutant” as defined in Section 2-2-223, which is used in place of the federal definition for the term “regulated NSR pollutant,” is deficient because it explicitly excludes nonattainment pollutants.
Fifth, Section 2-2-305 does not require written approval of the Administrator prior to using any modified or substituted air quality model as provided in subsection 3.2.2 of 40 CFR part 51, appendix W.
Sixth, Section 2-2-611 does not include the requirement regarding “any other stationary source category which as of August 7, 1980, is being regulated under section 111 or 112 of the Act” in the list of source categories that must include fugitive emissions to determine whether a source is a major facility.
Seventh, Section 2-2-401.4 only requires a visibility analysis for sources that are located within 100 km of a Class I area, rather than for any source that “may have an impact on visibility” in any mandatory Class I Federal Area, as required by 40 CFR 51.307(b)(2).
Eighth, Section 2-2-411 pertaining to Offset Refunds does not contain any timeframe for obtaining an offset refund.
Ninth, the Offset Program Equivalence demonstration required by Section 2-2-412 does not provide a remedy if the District fails to make the required demonstration.
Tenth, Subsection 2-2-605.2 allows existing “fully-offset” sources to generate ERCs based on the difference between the post-modification PTE and the pre-modification PTE. Emission reductions intended to be used as offsets for new major sources or major modifications are only creditable if they are reductions of actual emissions, not reductions in the PTE of a source.
Eleventh, Subsection 2-2-606.2, as it applies to major modifications, does not require “fully-offset” sources to calculate the emission increases from a proposed major modification based on the difference between the post-modification PTE and the pre-modification actual emissions as required by 40 CFR 51.165(a)(3)(ii)(J).
To address the first deficiency, the definition of “agricultural source” in Section 2-1-239 and the reference to “large confined animal facility” used in Section 2-1-424 have been revised to remove references to “Regulation 2, Rule 10,” which is not SIP approved. The District made additional edits to both of these provisions, as well as Subsection 2-1-113.1.2, to provide additional information due to the removal of the references to Regulation 2, Rule 10. These revisions cure this deficiency because the rules no longer reference rules which are not SIP approved.
To address the second deficiency, Section 2-1-234 has been revised by adding two new subparagraphs (2.3 and 2.4) to include the specific applicability procedures and recordkeeping provisions required by 40 CFR 51.166(a)(7) and 51.166(r)(6) & (7). These two new subparagraphs are acceptable to cure this deficiency.
To address the third deficiency, Section 2-1-234 has been revised by adding two new subparagraphs (2.3 and 2.4) to include the specific applicability procedures and recordkeeping provisions required by 40 CFR 51.165(a)(2) and 51.165(a)(6) & (7). These two new subparagraphs are acceptable to cure this deficiency.
To address the fourth deficiency, Section 2-2-224 has been revised to reference the term “Regulated NSR Pollutant” rather than “PSD pollutant.” This revision cures the deficiency by ensuring that a Major PSD Facility determination (as specified in Subsection 224.1) is based on emissions of all regulated NSR pollutants, including any nonattainment pollutant.
To address the fifth deficiency, Section 2-2-305.3—Air Quality Models, has been revised to require written EPA approval prior to using any modified or substituted air quality model. This revision cures this deficiency.
To address the sixth deficiency, Section 2-2-611 has been revised to add the following language: “or is in any other stationary source category that was being regulated under section 111 or 112 of the Clean Air Act as of August 7, 1980.” This revision cures this deficiency by adding the missing required language.
To address the seventh deficiency, Section 2-2-401.4 has been revised to indicate an analysis of potential impacts to air quality related values is required for a project which “may have an impact on air quality related values (including visibility) within any Class I area(s),” rather than only projects located within 100 km of a Class I area. In addition, language has been added to this section to clarify how such a determination is to be made by referencing the guidelines adopted by the Federal Land Managers Air Quality Related Values Work Group. These revisions cure this deficiency.
To address the eighth deficiency, Section 2-2-411.1 has been revised to specify that if excess offsets are provided, an offset refund request must be made within 2 years of the issuance of the authority to construct or within 6 months of issuance of the permit to operate. Section 2-2-411.2 has been revised to specify that if a source is never constructed or operated, and the authority to construct for the source has expired or been surrendered, an offset refund request must be made within 2 years of the issuance or renewal of the authority to construct. These revisions cure this deficiency.
To address the ninth identified deficiency, Section 2-2-415—Additional Offset Requirements Where District Has Not Demonstrated NO
These new provisions cure this deficiency because they ensure an applicant will provide the full amount of federal offsets required for a new project if the District fails to make the required annual demonstration. The EPA recognizes that any shortfall for a year in which the District does not provide an adequate demonstration will not be immediately corrected, but it will be corrected prior to continued usage of the offset equivalence demonstration. The EPA finds this acceptable.
To address the tenth identified deficiency, Subsection 2-2-605.1 has been revised to clarify the requirements of an eligible emission reduction credit and Subsection 2-2-605.2 has been revised to eliminate a separate calculation methodology for “fully-offset” sources. The provision has also been revised to specify that the amount
To address the eleventh identified deficiency, the calculation methodology specified in Subsection 2-2-606.2 was not revised. Instead, Section 2-2-412—Demonstration of NO
In addition, new definitions for the terms Federal Major NSR Source, Federal Offsets Baseline Shortfall, Federal Surplus-at-Time of Use Shortfall and Equivalence Credit were added to define these terms as used in Section 2-2-412. We find these new definitions acceptable.
In the current SIP, the annual Offset Program Equivalence Demonstration is only required to account for the difference between the quantity of offsets obtained by the District using ERCs surplus adjusted solely at the time of generation and the subset of those offsets that continue to be surplus at the time of use. The new provisions require the District to also calculate the difference between the amount of offsets provided pursuant to the provisions of Subsection 2-2-606.2, and the amount required pursuant to the provisions of 40 CFR 51.165, when applied to new and modified major sources. We have reviewed the language added to Section 2-2-412 and new Section 2-2-415, and have determined that the provisions of Rule 2-2 will ensure that in the aggregate an equivalent number of ERCs will be provided as would otherwise be required by a NSR program without an equivalence mechanism that met the offset quantification provisions specified in 40 CFR 51.165. We find that these revised and new provisions are acceptable to cure this deficiency.
In addition to the revisions made to address the identified deficiencies discussed above, the District made several additional minor rule revisions. In Rule 2-1, the definitions for the terms “Facility” and “New Source” were revised to provide additional clarification regarding portable equipment. The provisions of Subsection 2-1-234.2 were revised to clarify which specific provisions of 40 CFR 51.165 (for nonattainment pollutants) and 40 CFR 52.21 (for other Federal NSR pollutants) must be used to determine if an emissions increase from a project will result in a major modification as defined in 40 CFR 51.165 or 52.21, as applicable. These revisions provide important clarifications to ensure the provisions are enforceable, as required by CAA section 110(a)(2)(C), and do not revise any of the requirements for determining if a project will result in a major modification. Therefore we find the revisions to Subsection 2-1-234.2 acceptable. Section 2-1-413—Permits for Operation of Equipment at Multiple Locations Within the District, was revised by adding new Subsection 413.7. This new provision ensures that equipment permitted under this provision do not effectively become “stationary source equipment” by residing at a single stationary source for more than 12 months. We find these revisions acceptable. Revisions were also made to Section 2-1-424—Loss of Exemption or Exclusion to remove the reference to non-SIP approved Rule 2-10, and provide additional clarification regarding the applicability of this provision. These revisions do not change the requirements of this section, therefore we find the revisions acceptable.
In Rule 2-2, the definitions for the terms “Adjustment to Emission Reductions for Federal Purposes” and “Fully Offset Source” were deleted because the rule no longer uses these terms. In Section 2-2-214, the definition of “Greenhouse Gases” was revised to remove the requirement that such gases be measured on a mass basis consistent with the Supreme Court's decision in
Our December 4, 2017 action identified the following three deficiencies in Rule 2-4.
First, Rule 2-4 is deficient because it defines the term ERCs as emission reductions “that are in excess of the reductions required by applicable regulatory requirements, and that are real, permanent, quantifiable, and enforceable,” but does not contain any enforceable provisions requiring the APCO to determine that the emission reductions under review meet the offset integrity criteria prior to issuing an ERC Certificate.
Second, Rule 2-4 is deficient because it incorporates the deficient emission reduction calculation procedures found in Rule 2-2 subsection 605.2. This deficiency in Rule 2-2-605.2 is discussed in Section II.B.1 of the present document, and is identified as deficiency number ten.
Third, Rule 2-4 is deficient because Section 2-4-302.3 allows ERC Certificates to be issued that do not adequately ensure the permanency of an emission reduction due to a facility closure.
To address the first deficiency, Section 2-4-301 has been revised by adding language clarifying that emission reductions may be banked only if the APCO determines (i) that the reductions satisfy all of the criteria necessary to constitute Emission Reduction Credits as defined in Section 2-2-211, including but not limited to the requirements that the reductions are real, permanent, quantifiable, and enforceable, and are calculated in accordance with Section 2-2-605; and (ii) that banking the reductions is not prohibited by Section 2-4-303. These revisions cure this deficiency because they ensure that emission reductions may only be banked after the APCO determines the offset integrity criteria have been met.
To address the second deficiency, Section 2-2-605.2 has been revised to eliminate a separate calculation methodology for “fully-offset” sources. This revision is discussed in more detail in section II.B.1 of the present document in the discussion of deficiency number ten. Because the second identified deficiency in Rule 2-4 stems from the incorporation of a deficiency in Section 2-2-605.2, and we found in Section
To address the third identified deficiency, Section 2-4-302.3 has been removed from Rule 2-4. This revision cures this deficiency by removing the deficient provision.
In addition to the revisions to Rule 2-4 discussed above, the District deleted Section 301.7, which provided an example of a bankable emission reduction. Because this was only an example, this deletion has no effect on the approvability of Rule 2-4.
Our December 4, 2017, conditional approval action (82 FR 57133) was predicated on the state's commitment to submit SIP revisions to cure the three identified deficiencies. Because we are proposing to find that the present submission cures these deficiencies, we also propose to find that the state has fulfilled its commitment. If finalized as proposed, the EPA would fully approve the submitted version of Rule 2-4 into the SIP, curing the previously identified deficiencies, and remove the conditional approval contained in 40 CFR 52.248(c).
For any area designated nonattainment for PM
The analysis used the Community Multiscale Air Quality (CMAQ) Model and California Puff Model (CALPUFF) to model the impacts of 7 new greenfield sources emitting 370 tpy of SO
Based on the information provided in the District's submitted analysis, EPA is proposing to approve the District's demonstration that SO
Based on our approval of the District's non-significance demonstration for SO
We are proposing to find that Regulation 2, Rules 1, 2 and 4 satisfy the requirements of sections 110(a)(2) and 110(l) of the CAA. These sections state that each SIP revision submitted by a State shall be adopted by such State after reasonable notice and public hearing. Section 110(l) also states that the Administrator shall not approve a SIP revision if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress, or any other CAA applicable requirement.
With respect to the procedural requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(2) and 110(l), based on our review of the public process documentation included in the December 14, 2017 SIP submittal package, we find that BAAQMD has provided sufficient evidence of public notice and opportunity for comment and public hearings prior to adoption and submittal of these rules to the EPA.
With respect to the substantive requirements of section 110(l), we have determined that our approval of the BAAQMD NSR SIP submittal represents a strengthening of BAAQMD's NSR program as compared to the District's current SIP-approved NSR program that was last approved on August 1, 2016, and that the revision would not interfere with any applicable CAA requirement. Therefore we are proposing full approval of the BAAQMD NSR SIP submittal under section 110(l) of the Act.
Section 193 of the Act includes a savings clause which provides, in pertinent part: “No control requirement in effect, or required to be adopted by an order, settlement agreement, or plan in effect before November 15, 1990, in any area which is a nonattainment area for any air pollutant may be modified after November 15, 1990, in any manner unless the modification insures equivalent or greater emission reductions of such air pollutant.”
We have reviewed the provisions included in BAAQMD's NSR SIP submittal and find that they would ensure equivalent or greater emission reductions compared to the current SIP-approved NSR program. The BACT and offset requirements of the submitted rules, which are the primary control requirements of a NSR program, are equivalent to or more stringent than those contained in the existing SIP-approved NSR rules. Therefore, we can
As authorized in section 110(k)(3) of the Act, the EPA is proposing to fully approve the submitted rules because we believe they fulfill all relevant requirements. In support of this proposed action, we have concluded that our approval of the submitted rules would comply with sections 110(a)(2), 110(l) and 193 of the Act because the amended rules would not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment of the NAAQS in the Bay Area, and do not relax control technology and offset requirements. If we finalize this action as proposed, our action would be codified through revisions to 40 CFR 52.220 (Identification of plan—in part), and removal of the conditional approval contained in 40 CFR 52.248(c).
We will accept comments from the public on the proposed approval of Rules 2-1, 2-2, and 2-4 for the next 30 days.
In this rule the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the BAAQMD rules listed in Table 1 of this preamble. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials available electronically through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this proposed action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address disproportionate human health or environmental effects with practical, appropriate, and legally permissible methods under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of filing of petition and request for comment.
This document announces the Agency's receipt of an initial filing of a pesticide petition requesting the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various commodities.
Comments must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2018-0040, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Robert McNally, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (7511P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
1.
2.
3.
EPA is announcing receipt of a pesticide petition filed under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 346a, requesting the establishment or modification of regulations in 40 CFR part 174 for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various food commodities. The Agency is taking public comment on the request before responding to the petitioner. EPA is not proposing any particular action at this time. EPA has determined that the pesticide petition described in this document contains data or information prescribed in FFDCA section 408(d)(2), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(2); however, EPA has not fully evaluated the sufficiency of the submitted data at this time or whether the data supports granting of the pesticide petition. After considering the public comments, EPA intends to evaluate whether and what action may be warranted. Additional data may be needed before EPA can make a final determination on this pesticide petition.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 180.7(f), a summary of the petition that is the subject of this document, prepared by the petitioner, is included in a docket EPA has created for this rulemaking. The docket for this petition is available at
As specified in FFDCA section 408(d)(3), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), EPA is publishing notice of the petition so that the public has an opportunity to comment on this request for the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticides in or on food commodities. Further information on the petition may be obtained through the petition summary referenced in this unit.
21 U.S.C. 346a.
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
This document requests comments on a petition for rulemaking filed by L. Topaz Enterprises, Inc. (Petitioner), proposing to amend the FM Table of Allotments by allotting Channel 292A at Desert Hills, Arizona, as a second local service. Petitioner states that the proposed allotment will provide additional diversity and an outlet for local residents. A staff engineering analysis indicates that Channel 292A can be allotted to Desert Hills consistent with the minimum distance separation requirements of the Commission's rules. The reference coordinates are 34-32-58 NL and 114-22-2 WL with no site restriction.
Comments must be filed on or before March 26, 2018, and reply comments on or before April 10, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by MB Docket No. 18-72, by any of the following methods:
•
•
In addition to filing comments with the FCC, interested parties should serve the petitioner as follows: Dale A. Ganske, L. Topaz Enterprise, Inc., 3325 Conservancy Lane, Middleton, WI 53562.
Adrienne Y. Denysyk, Media Bureau, (202) 418-2651.
This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, MB Docket No. 18-27, adopted February 2, 2018, and released February 2, 2018. The full text of this document is available for inspection and copying during normal business hours in the FCC's Reference Information Center at Portals II, CY-A257, 445 Twelfth Street SW, Washington, DC 20554. The full text of
Provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 do not apply to this proceeding.
Members of the public should note that from the time a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking is issued until the matter is no longer subject to Commission consideration or court review, all
For information regarding proper filing procedures for comments, see 47 CFR 1.415 and 1.420.
Radio, Radio broadcasting.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 CFR part 73 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 154, 303, 334, 336 and 339.
(b)
Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board.
Notice of meetings.
The Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board (Access Board) plans to hold its regular committee and Board meetings in Washington, DC, Monday and Wednesday, March 12 and 14, 2018 at the times and location listed below.
The schedule of events is as follows:
Meetings will be held at the Access Board Conference Room, 1331 F Street NW, Suite 800, Washington, DC 20004.
For further information regarding the meetings, please contact David Capozzi, Executive Director, (202) 272-0010 (voice); (202) 272-0054 (TTY).
At the Board meeting scheduled on the afternoon of Wednesday, March 14, the Access Board will consider the following agenda items:
Members of the public can provide comments either in-person or over the telephone during the final 15 minutes of the Board meeting on Wednesday, March 14, 2018. Any individual interested in providing comment is asked to pre-register by sending an email to
All meetings are accessible to persons with disabilities. An assistive listening system, Communication Access Realtime Translation (CART), and sign language interpreters will be available at the Board meeting and committee meetings.
Persons attending Board meetings are requested to refrain from using perfume, cologne, and other fragrances for the comfort of other participants (see
You may view the Wednesday, March 14, 2018 meeting through a live webcast from 1:30 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. at:
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Texas Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. (Central Time) Tuesday, March 13, 2018. The purpose of the briefing is for the Committee to receive testimony regarding potential barriers to voting such as voter registration, access to and administration of polling locations, and language access that may have a disparate impact on voters on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, age, disability, or national origin.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, March 13, 2018, at 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. CT.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open comment periods. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
Please click on the “Meeting Details” and “Documents” links. Records
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Montana Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 11:00 a.m. (Mountain Time) Thursday, March 15, 2018. The purpose of the meeting is for the Committee to discuss preparations to hear testimony on border town discrimination.
The meeting will be held on Thursday, March 15, 2018 at 11:00 a.m. MT.
Angelica Trevino at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 888-516-2447, conference ID number: 8154017. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Angelica Trevino at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Alaska Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 1:00 p.m. (Alaska Time) Tuesday, March 27, 2018. The purpose of the meeting is for the Committee to vote on the final advisory memorandum on Alaska Native voting rights that will be issued to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, March 27, 2018, at 1:00 p.m. AKT.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 800-756-4697, conference ID number: 1620223. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed to Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that meetings of the Texas Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 12:00 p.m. (Central Time), Wednesday, March 21, 2018; 1:00 p.m. (Central Time), Wednesday, April 18, 2018; 1:00 p.m. (Central Time), Wednesday, May 9, 2018; and 1:00 p.m. (Central Time), Wednesday, May 30, 2018. The purpose of these meetings is for the Committee to discuss findings and recommendations for an advisory memorandum on voting rights in the state.
These meetings will be held on Wednesday, March 21, 2018 at 12:00 p.m.; Wednesday, April 18, 2018 at 1:00 p.m.; Wednesday, May 9, 2018 at 1:00 p.m.; and Wednesday, May 30, 2018 at 1:00 p.m. Central Time.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
These meetings are available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 888-211-9963, conference ID number: 2677329. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meetings. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of each meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meetings. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during meetings will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meetings at
U.S. Census Bureau, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
To ensure consideration, written comments must be submitted on or before April 30, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to James Whitehorne, U.S. Census Bureau, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233,
The Redistricting Data Program (RDP) is one of many voluntary geographic data exchange programs that collects boundaries to update the U.S. Census Bureau's geographic database of addresses, streets, and boundaries. The Census Bureau uses its geographic database to link demographic data from surveys and the decennial Census to locations and areas, such as cities, congressional and legislative districts, and counties. To tabulate statistics by localities, the Census Bureau must have accurate addresses and boundaries.
The boundaries collected in the RDP and other geographic programs will create census blocks, which are the building blocks for all Census Bureau geographic boundaries. While the geographic programs differ in requirements, timeframe, and participants, the RDP and the other geographic programs all follow the same basic process:
1. The Census Bureau invites eligible participants to the program. For the RDP, we invite nonpartisan state liaisons appointed by the legislative leadership of each state.
2. If they elect to participate in the program, participants receive a digital copy of the boundaries the Census Bureau has on file. Participants review the boundaries and update them if needed. RDP participants can choose to review and provide their boundary updates using a free customized mapping software, or using their own mapping software.
3. Participants return their updates to the Census Bureau.
4. The Census Bureau updates its geographic database with boundary updates from participants.
5. The Census Bureau uses the newly updated boundaries and addresses to tabulate statistics.
The Census Bureau is requesting a three-year clearance for the Fiscal Year (FY) 2019 through 2021 to continue the phases of the 2020 Census RDP Operation. The current three-year RDP clearance and the project specific Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number 0607-0988 will expire in November 2018. The new clearance allows the Census Bureau to provide RDP-specific materials, procedures, and burden hours to the liaisons from the 50 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico to complete two rounds of verification of the Voting District Project (VTDP), Phase 2, in 2019 and 2020. The RDP has added a second round of VTDP verification in 2020, resulting in an increase of 4,836 hours in total burden from the burden described in the previously-approved OMB package. Leading up to the decennial census, many geographies are changing simultaneously and consequently may affect the Voting District (VTD) geography. This second verification is necessary to make sure that VTD geographies are up-to-date and align with decennial geography. The Census Bureau will deliver the 2020 Census Redistricting Data (Phase 3) by April 1, 2021. RDP is executed under the provisions of Title 13, Section 141(c) of the United States Code (U.S.C.).
Under the provisions of Public Law 94-171, as amended (Title 13, United States Code (U.S.C.), Section 141(c)), the Director of the Census Bureau is required to provide the “officers or public bodies having initial responsibility for the legislative apportionment or districting of each state . . .” with the opportunity to specify geographic areas (
The Census Bureau develops and uses different methods to collect data from program participants. The Census Bureau issued invitation letters by mail (U.S. Postal Service) and follow-up emails to the officers or public bodies having initial responsibility for legislative reapportionment and redistricting. The 50 states, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico have identified non-partisan liaisons that are already working directly with the Census Bureau on the 2020 Census RDP.
In addition, to begin work on Phase 1 and Phase 2, the Census Bureau provides to states:
1. Data from the Master Address File/Topologically Integrated Geographic Encoding and Referencing system.
2. The Geographic Update Program Software (GUPS), an optional software tool.
3. The procedures necessary for each state to participate.
States are not required to use GUPS, but they have to submit their submission to the Census Bureau electronically in Census Bureau-specified formats. During the submission period, the Census Bureau provides training in the use of GUPS and assists the states in understanding the procedures necessary for processing files for their submission.
State liaisons have participated and/or will continue to provide inputs in the following phases of the program:
Between 2015 and 2017, the Census Bureau collaborated with each state liaison to collect and verify suggestions for 2020 Census tabulation blocks through the BBSP. The purpose of the BBSP was to afford states the opportunity to identify non-standard features often used as electoral boundaries (such as a power line or stream, rather than a street centerline, which might divide voters on the same street into two districts) for use as 2020 Census tabulation block boundaries. For the first time, states also had the opportunity to review legal limits, such as county and incorporated place boundaries, as reported through the Boundary and Annexation Survey (BAS). The Census Bureau conducts the BAS annually to update information about the legal boundaries and names of all governmental units. The alignment of the BAS with the BBSP facilitated the cooperation between state and local governments. States that chose to participate in Phase 1 received guidelines and training for providing their suggestions.
The VTDP is the second phase of the RDP operation. During this phase, states are able to submit their VTD boundaries and to suggest legal boundary updates to the Census Bureau. In addition, state liaisons who participated in the delineation have two opportunities to verify the submitted VTDs prior to release of the 2020 Census redistricting data tabulations, which occurs in Phase 3. VTDP delineation occurs between
States that choose to participate in VTDP receive geographic products that allow them the opportunity to update the VTDs for inclusion in the 2020 Census tabulation geography. State liaisons also have the option to continue to align their effort with updates from state and local government officials participating in the BAS. The VTD/BAS updates continue through May 2018.
The Census Bureau will conduct two rounds of verification of the VTDs. The Census Bureau will perform an initial VTD verification between December 2018 and May 2019. Leading up to the decennial census, many geographies are changing simultaneously and subsequently may affect the VTD geography. In order to provide current VTDs to the states that align better with decennial geography, a second round of verification will occur between December 2019 and March 2020 for states that participated in the initial delineation and first verification.
Participation in the 2020 Census RDP Phases 1 (BBSP) and 2 (VTDP), under Title 13, U.S.C., is voluntary. However, the Census Bureau cannot ensure that the 2020 Census tabulation geography will support the redistricting needs of a state that has chosen not to participate in Phase 1 and Phase 2.
By April 1, 2021, the Director of the Census Bureau will, in accordance with Title 13, U.S.C., furnish the Governor and state legislative leaders, both the majority and minority, and any public bodies responsible for legislative redistricting, with 2020 Census population counts for standard census tabulation areas (
Beginning in 2011 and every two years thereafter, the Census Bureau solicits from each state the newly drawn legislative and Congressional district plans and prepares appropriate data tabulations based on the new districts. From November 2015 through May 2016, the Census Bureau completed the data collection and verification of the 115th Congressional Districts (CDs) and 2016 State Legislative Districts (SLDs). The 116th CDs and SLDs collection and verification will occur between November 2017 and May 2018. The Census Bureau is not planning to collect the 117th CDs and SLDs in 2020.
Between November 2021 and May 2022, the Census Bureau will solicit from each state the boundaries of the newly drawn 118th CDs and 2022 SLDs. This effort will occur every two years in advance of the 2030 Census in order to update these boundaries with new or changed plans. A verification phase will occur with each update.
As the final phase of the 2020 Census RDP, the Census Bureau will work with the states to conduct a thorough review of the RDP. The intent of this review, and the final report that results, is to provide guidance to the Secretary and the Census Bureau Director in planning the 2030 Census RDP.
Legal Authority:
Title 13, U.S.C., Sections 16, 141, and 193.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection;
Notice is hereby given of the withdrawal of the application of the Port of Stockton, California, grantee of FTZ 231, requesting an additional site within Subzone 231A on behalf of Medline Industries, Inc., located in Lathrop, California. The application was docketed on December 15, 2014 (79 FR 75787, December 19, 2014).
The case has been closed without prejudice.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that imports of biodiesel from Indonesia are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016. The final weighted-average dumping margins are listed below in the section entitled “Final Determination Margins.”
Applicable March 1, 2018.
Myrna Lobo or Alex Cipolla, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2371 or (202) 482-4956, respectively.
On October 31, 2017, Commerce published in the
The product covered by this investigation is biodiesel from Indonesia. Commerce did not receive any scope comments subsequent to the
The POI is January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016.
As provided in section 782(i) of the Act, we conducted the cost and sales verifications of Wilmar in Medan, Indonesia, Singapore, and Pearland, Texas, in October and November, 2017. We used standard verification procedures, including an examination of relevant accounting and production records, and original source documents provided by the respondents.
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, which is hereby adopted by this notice. A list of the issues raised is attached to this notice as Appendix II.
Based on our analysis of the comments received and our findings at verification, we made certain changes to the margin calculations. For a discussion of these changes,
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated “all-others” rate for exporters and producers not individually investigated shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for individually investigated exporters and producers, excluding any margins that are zero or
The weighted-average dumping margins are as follows:
We will disclose the calculations performed within five days of any public announcement of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of biodiesel from Indonesia, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after October 31, 2017, the date of publication of the
Furthermore, pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit for such entries of merchandise equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin or the estimated all-others rate, as follows: (1) The cash deposit rate for the respondents listed above will be equal to the respondent-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent identified above, but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the respondent-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin.
These instructions will stay in effect until further notice.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of the final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because the final determination in this proceeding is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2)(B) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of biodiesel from Indonesia no later than 45 days after our final determination. If the ITC determines that material injury or threat of material injury does not exist, the proceeding will be terminated and all cash deposits will be refunded. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue an AD order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section.
This notice will serve as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return/destruction or APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this determination and notice in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The product covered by this investigation is biodiesel, which is a fuel comprised of mono-alkyl esters of long chain fatty acids derived from vegetable oils or animal fats, including biologically-based waste oils or greases, and other biologically-based oil or fat sources. The investigation covers biodiesel in pure form (B100) as well as fuel mixtures containing at least 99 percent biodiesel by volume (B99). For fuel mixtures containing less than 99 percent biodiesel by volume, only the biodiesel component of the mixture is covered by the scope of the investigation.
Biodiesel is generally produced to American Society for Testing and Materials International (ASTM) D6751 specifications, but it can also be made to other specifications. Biodiesel commonly has one of the following Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) numbers, generally depending upon the feedstock used: 67784-80-9 (soybean oil methyl esters); 91051-34-2 (palm oil methyl esters); 91051-32-0 (palm kernel oil methyl esters); 73891-99-3 (rapeseed oil methyl esters); 61788-61-2 (tallow methyl esters); 68990-52-3 (vegetable oil methyl esters); 129828-16-6 (canola oil methyl esters); 67762-26-9 (unsaturated alkylcarboxylic acid methyl ester); or 68937-84-8 (fatty acids, C12-C18, methyl ester).
The B100 product subject to the investigation is currently classifiable under subheading 3826.00.1000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), while the B99 product is currently classifiable under HTSUS subheading 3826.00.3000. Although the HTSUS subheadings, ASTM specifications, and CAS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that imports of biodiesel from Argentina are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016. The final weighted-average dumping margins are listed below in the section entitled “Final Determination Margins.”
Applicable March 1, 2018.
David Lindgren, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3870.
On October 31, 2017, Commerce published in the
The product covered by this investigation is biodiesel from Argentina. Commerce did not receive any scope comments subsequent to the
The POI is January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016.
As provided in section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), we conducted the cost and sales verifications in Buenos Aires, Argentina, and Kansas City, Missouri, between October 30, 2017, and November 17, 2017. We used standard verification procedures, including an examination of relevant accounting and production records, and original source documents provided by the respondents.
In the
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, which is hereby adopted by this notice. A list of the issues raised is attached to this notice as Appendix II.
For purposes of this final determination, Commerce relied, in part, on facts available with adverse inferences when calculating the margins for LDC and the Vicentin Group, pursuant to sections 776(a)(2)(A)-(C) and 776(b) of the Act. For further information,
Based on our analysis of the comments received and our findings at verification, we made certain changes to the margin calculations. For a discussion of these changes,
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated “all-others” rate for exporters and producers not individually investigated shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for individually investigated exporters and producers, excluding any margins that are zero or
The weighted-average dumping margins are as follows:
We will disclose the calculations performed within five days of any public announcement of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
In accordance with section 733(e)(2) of the Act, for this final determination, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of all entries of biodiesel, as described in the Appendix I to this notice, produced or exported by LDC and “all other” exporters and producers not individually examined, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after August 2, 2017 (90 days prior to the date of publication of the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. CBP to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of biodiesel from Argentina, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after October 31, 2017, the date of publication of the
Furthermore, pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit for such entries of merchandise equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin or the estimated all-others rate, as follows: (1) The cash deposit rate for the respondents listed above will be equal to the respondent-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent identified above but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the respondent-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin. Commerce normally adjusts cash deposits for estimated antidumping duties by the amount of export subsidies countervailed in a companion countervailing duty (CVD) proceeding, when CVD provisional measures are in effect. Accordingly, where Commerce made an affirmative determination for countervailable export subsidies, Commerce has offset the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the appropriate CVD rate.
These instructions will stay in effect until further notice.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of the final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because the final determination in this proceeding is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2)(B) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of biodiesel from Argentina no later than 45 days after our final determination. If the ITC determines that material injury or threat of material injury does not exist, the proceeding will be terminated and all cash deposits will be refunded. If the
This notice will serve as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return/destruction or APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this determination and notice in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The product covered by this investigation is biodiesel, which is a fuel comprised of mono-alkyl esters of long chain fatty acids derived from vegetable oils or animal fats, including biologically-based waste oils or greases, and other biologically-based oil or fat sources. The investigation covers biodiesel in pure form (B100) as well as fuel mixtures containing at least 99 percent biodiesel by volume (B99). For fuel mixtures containing less than 99 percent biodiesel by volume, only the biodiesel component of the mixture is covered by the scope of the investigation.
Biodiesel is generally produced to American Society for Testing and Materials International (ASTM) D6751 specifications, but it can also be made to other specifications. Biodiesel commonly has one of the following Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) numbers, generally depending upon the feedstock used: 67784-80-9 (soybean oil methyl esters); 91051-34-2 (palm oil methyl esters); 91051-32-0 (palm kernel oil methyl esters); 73891-99-3 (rapeseed oil methyl esters); 61788-61-2 (tallow methyl esters); 68990-52-3 (vegetable oil methyl esters); 129828-16-6 (canola oil methyl esters); 67762-26-9 (unsaturated alkylcarboxylic acid methyl ester); or 68937-84-8 (fatty acids, C12-C18, methyl ester).
The B100 product subject to the investigation is currently classifiable under subheading 3826.00.1000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), while the B99 product is currently classifiable under HTSUS subheading 3826.00.3000. Although the HTSUS subheadings, ASTM specifications, and CAS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily finds that the sole exporter subject to this administrative review has not made sales of subject merchandise at less than normal value. We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable March 1, 2018.
Dmitry Vladimirov, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0665.
Commerce is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on stainless steel bar (SSB) from Brazil. The period of review (POR) is February 1, 2016, through January 31, 2017. The review covers one producer/exporter of the subject merchandise, Villares Metals S.A. (Villares).
The merchandise subject to the order is SSB. The SSB subject to the order is currently classifiable under subheadings 7222.10.00, 7222.11.00, 7222.19.00, 7222.20.00, 7222.30.00 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description is dispositive. A full description of the scope of the order is contained in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
Commerce conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Constructed export price and export
As a result of this review, we preliminarily determine that a weighted-average dumping margin of 0.00 percent exists for Villares for the period February 1, 2016, through January 31, 2017.
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to parties in this proceeding within five days after public announcement of the preliminary results in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c), interested parties may submit case briefs not later than 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, must submit a written request to the Acting Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically
If Villares' weighted-average dumping margin is above
For entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by Villares for which it did not know its merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate unreviewed entries at the all-others rate if there is no rate for the intermediate company or companies involved in the transaction. We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this review.
The following deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the notice of final results of administrative review for all shipments of SSB from Brazil entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication as provided by section 751(a)(1) and (2) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for Villares will be the rate established in the final results of this administrative review; (2) for merchandise exported by manufacturers or exporters not covered in this review but covered in a prior segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recent period; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the original investigation but the producer is covered, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recent period for the producer of the merchandise; (4) the cash deposit rate for all other producers or exporters will continue to be 19.43 percent, the all-others rate established in the
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.221.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; proposed incidental harassment authorization; request for comments.
NMFS has received a request from the St. George Reef Lighthouse Preservation Society (Society) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to conducting aircraft operations, lighthouse renovation, light maintenance activities, and tour operations on the St. George Reef Lighthouse Station on Northwest Seal Rock (NWSR) in the northeast Pacific Ocean. Pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is requesting comments on its proposal to issue an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to incidentally take marine mammals during the specified activities. NMFS will consider public comments prior to making any final decision on the issuance of the requested MMPA authorizations and agency responses will be summarized in the final notice of our decision.
Comments and information must be received no later than April 2, 2018.
Comments should be addressed to Jolie Harrison, Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service. Physical comments should be sent to 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910 and electronic comments should be sent to
Amy Fowler, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401. Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at:
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “. . . an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.”
The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
We will review all comments submitted in response to this notice prior to concluding our NEPA process or making a final decision on the IHA request.
On October 18, 2017, NMFS received a request from the Society for an IHA to take marine mammals incidental to restoration, maintenance, and tour operations at St. George Reef Lighthouse (Station) located on Northwest Seal Rock (NWSR) offshore of Crescent City, California in the northeast Pacific Ocean. NMFS determined the application adequate and complete on January 17, 2018. The Society's request is for take of California sea lions (
NMFS has previously issued seven IHA's to the Society for similar work between 2010 and 2017 (75 FR 4774, January 29, 2010; 76 FR 10564, February 25, 2011; 77 FR 8811, February 15, 2012; 78 FR 71576, November 29, 2013; 79 FR 6179, February 3, 2014; 81 FR 9440, February 23, 2016; and 82 FR 11005, February 17, 2017). The Society complied with all the requirements (
The Station, listed in the National Park Service's National Register of Historic Places, is located on NWSR offshore of Crescent City, California in the northeast Pacific Ocean. The Station, built in 1892, rises 45.7 meters (m) (150 feet (ft)) above sea level. The structure consists of hundreds of granite blocks topped with a cast iron lantern room and covers much of the surface of the islet. The purpose of the project is to restore the lighthouse, to conduct tours, and to conduct annual and emergency maintenance on the Station's optical light system.
The Society proposes to conduct aircraft operations, lighthouse renovation, and periodic maintenance on the Station's optical light system on a monthly basis. The proposed activity would occur on a monthly basis over one weekend, November through April. The Society currently has an IHA that is valid through February 18, 2018. This IHA would start on February 19, 2018, to avoid a lapse in authorization, and would be valid for one year. The following specific aspects of the proposed activities would likely result in the take of marine mammals: Acoustic and visual stimuli from (1) helicopter landings/takeoffs; (2) noise generated during restoration activities (
The Society proposes to conduct the activities (aircraft operations, lighthouse restoration and maintenance activities, and public tours) at a maximum frequency of one session per month. The proposed duration for each session would last no more than three days (
The Station is located on a small, rocky islet (41°50′24″ N, 124°22′06″ W) approximately nine kilometers (km) (6.0 miles (mi)) in the northeast Pacific Ocean, offshore of Crescent City, California (41°46′48″ N; 124°14′11″ W). NWSR is approximately 91.4 meters (m) (300 feet (ft)) in diameter that peaks at 5.18 m (17 ft) above mean sea level.
The Society proposes to transport no more than 12 work crew members and equipment to NWSR for each session and estimates that each session would require no more than 30 helicopter landings/takeoffs per month (see below for number per day). During landing, the helicopter would land on the caisson to allow the work crew members to disembark and retrieve their equipment located in a basket attached to the underside of the helicopter. The helicopter would then return to the mainland to pick up additional personnel and equipment.
For the second day, the Society would conduct a maximum of four flights (two arrivals and two departures) to transport additional materials on and off the islet, if needed. The first flight would depart from Crescent City Airport at 9 a.m. for a 6-min flight to NWSR. The total duration of the second day's aerial operations could last up to three hrs. Second-day operations are only conducted if needed; flights on the second day do not normally occur.
For the final day of operations, on dates when no public tours are planned, the Society could conduct a maximum of eight helicopter flights (four arrivals and four departures) to transport the remaining crew members and equipment/material back to the Crescent City Airport. The total duration of the third day's helicopter operations in support of restoration could last up to two hrs.
In the case of an emergency repair between May 1, 2018, and October 31, 2018, the Society would consult with the NMFS' West Coast Regional Office (WRO) biologists to best determine the timing of the trips to the lighthouse, on a case-by-case basis, based upon the existing environmental conditions and the abundance and distribution of any marine mammals present on NWSR. The regional biologists would have real-time knowledge regarding the animal use and abundance of the NWSR at the time of the repair request and would make a decision regarding when the Society could conduct trips to the lighthouse during the emergency repair time window that would have the least practicable adverse impact to marine mammals. The WRO biologists would also ensure that the Society's request for incidental take during emergency repairs would not exceed the number of incidental take authorized in the proposed IHA.
Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see “Proposed Mitigation” and “Proposed Monitoring and Reporting”).
Sections 3 and 4 of the application summarize available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history, of the potentially affected species. Additional information regarding population trends and threats may be found in NMFS's Stock Assessment Reports (SAR;
Table 1 lists all species with expected potential for occurrence in the vicinity of NWSR and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and Endangered Species Act (ESA) and potential biological removal (PBR), where known. For taxonomy, we follow Committee on Taxonomy (2016). PBR is defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (as described in NMFS's SARs). While no mortality is anticipated or authorized here, PBR and annual serious injury and mortality from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species and other threats.
Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS's stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. All managed stocks in this region are assessed in NMFS's U.S. 2016 SARs (
All species that could potentially occur in the proposed activity area are included in Table 1. As described below, all four species temporally and spatially co-occur with the activity to the degree that take is reasonably likely to occur, and we have proposed authorizing it.
Steller sea lions consist of two distinct population segments: The western and eastern distinct population segments (eDPS and wDPS, respectively) divided at 144° West longitude (Cape Suckling, Alaska). The western segment of Steller sea lions inhabit central and western Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands, as well as coastal waters and breed in Asia (
Steller sea lions range along the North Pacific Rim from northern Japan to California (Loughlin
The eDPS of Steller sea lions breeds on rookeries located in southeast Alaska, British Columbia, Oregon, and California. Steller sea lions give birth in May through July and breeding commences a couple of weeks after birth. Pups are weaned during the winter and spring of the following year.
Despite the wide-ranging movements of juveniles and adult males in particular, exchange between rookeries by breeding adult females and males (other than between adjoining rookeries) appears low, although males have a higher tendency to disperse than females (Trujillo
Steller sea lion numbers at NWSR ranged from 20 to 355 animals (CCR 2001). Counts of Steller sea lions during the spring (April-May), summer (June-August), and fall (September-October), averaged 68, 110, and 56, respectively (CCR 2001). A multi-year survey at NWSR between 2000 and 2004 showed Steller sea lion numbers ranging from 175 to 354 in July (M. Lowry, NMFS/SWFSC, unpubl. data). The Society presumes that winter use of NWSR by Steller sea lion to be minimal, due to inundation of the natural portion of the island by large swells.
The current maximum population growth rate for California sea lions is 12 percent (Carretta
Adult and juvenile males will migrate as far north as British Columbia, Canada while females and pups remain in southern California waters in the non-breeding season. In warm water (El Niño) years, some females range as far north as Washington and Oregon, presumably following prey.
Crescent Coastal Research (CCR) conducted a three-year (1998-2000) survey of the wildlife species on NWSR for the Society. They reported that counts of California sea lions on NWSR varied greatly (from 6 to 541) during the observation period from April 1997 through July 2000. CCR reported that counts for California sea lions during the spring (April-May), summer (June-August), and fall (September-October), averaged 60, 154, and 235, respectively (CCR 2001).
Northern fur seals occur from southern California north to the Bering Sea and west to the Sea of Okhotsk and Honshu Island of Japan. NMFS recognizes two separate stocks of northern fur seals within U.S. waters: An Eastern Pacific stock distributed among sites in Alaska, British Columbia; and a California stock (including San Miguel Island and the Farallon Islands).
Northern fur seals breed in Alaska and migrate along the west coast during fall and winter. Due to their pelagic habitat, they are rarely seen from shore in the continental United States, but individuals occasionally come ashore on islands well offshore (
CCR observed one male northern fur seal on Northwest Seal Rock in October, 1998 (CCR 2001). It is possible that a few animals may use the island more often than indicated by the CCR surveys, if they were mistaken for other otariid species (
Harbor seals are widely distributed in the North Atlantic and North Pacific. Two subspecies exist in the Pacific:
In California, over 500 harbor seal haul out sites are widely distributed along the mainland and offshore islands, and include rocky shores, beaches and intertidal sandbars (Lowry
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The
Acoustic and visual stimuli generated by: (1) Helicopter landings/takeoffs; (2) restoration activities (
SPL is an instantaneous measurement expressed as the peak, the peak-peak, or the root mean square (rms). Root mean square is the square root of the arithmetic average of the squared instantaneous pressure values. All references to SPL in this document refer to the rms unless otherwise noted. SPL does not take into account the duration of a sound.
Noise testing on the Robinson R66 Helicopter, as required for Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) approval, required an overflight at 150 m (492 ft) above ground level, 109 knots and a maximum gross weight of 1,225 kg (2,700 lbs). The noise level measured on the ground at this distance and speed was 84.5 dB re: 20 µPa (A-weighted). FAA testing also measured the sound levels on the ground for a typical helicopter takeoff and approach as 87.8 dB re: 20 µPa (A-weighted) (Robinson 2017). Based on this information, we expect that the received sound levels at the landing area on the Station's caisson would be between 84.5 and 87.8 dB re: 20 µPa (A-weighted). These sound levels are below the NMFS behavioral threshold for airborne pinniped disturbance (90 dB for harbor seals and 100dB for all other pinnipeds) (NMFS 2016).
Any noise associated with restoration and maintenance activities is likely to be from light construction (
Pinnipeds have the potential to be disturbed by airborne and underwater noise generated by the engine of the aircraft (Born
There is a dearth of information on acoustic effects of helicopter overflights on pinniped hearing and communication (Richardson,
In 2008, NMFS issued an IHA to the USFWS for the take of small numbers of Steller sea lions and Pacific harbor seals, incidental to rodent eradication activities on an islet offshore of Rat Island, AK conducted by helicopter. The 15-minute aerial treatment consisted of the helicopter slowly approaching the islet at an elevation of over 1,000 ft (304.8 m); gradually decreasing altitude in slow circles; and applying the rodenticide in a single pass and returning to Rat Island. The gradual and deliberate approach to the islet resulted in the sea lions present initially becoming aware of the helicopter and calmly moving into the water. Further, the USFWS reported that all responses fell well within the range of Level B harassment (
As a general statement from the available information, pinnipeds exposed to intense (approximately 110 to 120 dB re: 20 μPa) non-pulse sounds often leave haul out areas and seek refuge temporarily (minutes to a few hours) in the water (Southall
It is likely that the initial helicopter approach to NWSR would cause a subset, or all of the marine mammals hauled out to depart the rock and flush into the water. The physical presence of aircraft could also lead to non-auditory effects on marine mammals involving visual or other cues. Airborne sound from a low-flying helicopter or airplane may be heard by marine mammals while at the surface or underwater. In general, helicopters tend to be noisier than fixed wing aircraft of similar size and underwater sounds from aircraft are strongest just below the surface and directly under the aircraft. Noise from aircraft would not be expected to cause direct physical effects, but have the potential to affect behavior. The primary factor that may influence abrupt movements of animals is engine noise, specifically changes in engine noise. Responses by mammals could include hasty dives or turns, change in course, or flushing and stampeding from a haul out site. There are few well documented studies of the impacts of aircraft overflight over pinniped haul out sites or rookeries, and many of those that exist, are specific to military activities (Efroymson
Several factors complicate the analysis of long- and short-term effects
If pinnipeds are present on NWSR, it is likely that a helicopter landing at the Station would cause some number of the pinnipeds on NWSR to flush; however, when present, they appear to show rapid habituation to helicopter landing and departure (CCR, 2001; Guy Towers, SGRLPS, pers. com.). According to the CCR Report (2001), while up to 40 percent of the California and Steller sea lions present on NWSR have been observed to enter the water on the first of a series of helicopter landings, as few as zero percent have flushed on subsequent landings on the same date. In fact, the Society reported that during the November 2011 work session, Steller sea lions and California sea lions exhibited minimal ingress and egress from NWSR during helicopter approaches and departures (SGRLPS, 2011).
Reactions to human presence, if any, depend on species type, state of maturity, experience, current activity, reproductive state, time of day, and many other factors (Richardson
Disturbances resulting from human activity can impact short- and long-term pinniped haul out behavior (Renouf
In cases where vessels actively approached marine mammals (
In 1997, Henry and Hammil (2001) conducted a study to measure the impacts of small boats (
In 2004, Acevedo-Gutierrez and Johnson (2007) evaluated the efficacy of buffer zones for watercraft around harbor seal haul out sites on Yellow Island, Washington. The authors estimated the minimum distance between the vessels and the haul out sites; categorized the vessel types; and evaluated seal responses to the disturbances. During the course of the seven-weekend study, the authors recorded 14 human-related disturbances which were associated with stopped powerboats and kayaks. During these events, hauled out seals became noticeably active and moved into the water. The flushing occurred when stopped kayaks and powerboats were at distances as far as 453 and 1,217 ft (138 and 371 m) respectively. The authors note that the seals were unaffected by passing powerboats, even those approaching as close as 128 ft (39 m), possibly indicating that the animals had become tolerant of the brief presence of the vessels and ignored them. The authors reported that on average, the seals quickly recovered from the disturbances and returned to the haul out site in less than or equal to 60 minutes. Seal numbers did not return to pre-disturbance levels within 180 minutes of the disturbance less than one quarter of the time observed. The study concluded that the return of seal numbers to pre-disturbance levels and the relatively regular seasonal cycle in abundance throughout the area counter the idea that disturbances from powerboats may result in site abandonment (Johnson and Acevedo-Gutierrez, 2007). As a general statement from the available information, pinnipeds exposed to intense (approximately 110 to 120 decibels re: 20 μPa) non-pulsed sounds often leave haul out areas and seek refuge temporarily (minutes to a few hours) in the water (Southall
The only habitat modification associated with the proposed activity is the restoration of a light station. However, all restoration would occur on the upper levels of Northwest Seal Rock, which are not used by marine mammals. Thus, NMFS does not expect that the proposed activity would have any effects on marine mammal habitat and NMFS expects that there will be no long- or short-term physical impacts to pinniped habitat on NWSR.
The Society would remove all waste, discarded materials and equipment from the island after each visit. The proposed activities will not result in any permanent impact on habitats used by marine mammals, including prey species and foraging habitat. The main impact associated with the proposed activity will be temporarily elevated noise levels and the associated direct effects on marine mammals (
NMFS does not anticipate that the proposed restoration activities would result in any permanent effects on the habitats used by the marine mammals in the proposed area, including the food sources they use (
This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes proposed for authorization through this IHA, which will inform both NMFS' consideration of “small numbers” and the negligible impact determination.
Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
Authorized takes would be by Level B harassment only, in the form of disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals resulting from exposure to aircraft operations and lighthouse maintenance activities. Based on the nature of the activity, Level A harassment is neither anticipated nor proposed to be authorized.
As discussed earlier, NMFS assumes that pinnipeds that move greater than two body lengths to longer retreats over the beach, or if already moving, a change of direction of greater than 90 degrees in response to the presence of surveyors, or pinnipeds that flush into the water, are behaviorally harassed, and thus subject to Level B taking (Table 2).
In this section we provide the information about the presence, density, or group dynamics of marine mammals that will inform the take calculations.
For the 2010 season, the Society reported that no Steller sea lions were present in the vicinity of NWSR during restoration activities (SGRLPS 2010). Based on the monitoring report for the 2011 season, the maximum numbers of Steller sea lions present during the April and November 2011, work sessions were 2 and 150 animals, respectively (SGRLPS 2012). During the 2012 season, the Society did not observe any Steller sea lions present on NWSR during restoration activities. The Society did not conduct any operations for the 2013-2014, 2014-2015, and 2015-2016 seasons. The Society reported no Steller sea lions observed in the 2016-2017 and 2017-2018 work seasons (T. McNamara, pers. comm., 2018).
Based on the monitoring report for the 2011 season, the maximum numbers of California sea lions present during the April and November, 2011 work sessions were 2 and 160 animals, respectively (SGRLPS 2012). There were no California sea lions present during the March, 2012 work session (SGRLPS 2012). The Society reported 16 California sea lions observed in March 2017 and no California sea lions present in April 2017. 16 California sea lions were observed in November 2017. (Terry McNamara, pers. comm., 2018).
For the 2010, 2011, and 2012 work seasons, the Society did not observe any Northern fur seals present on NWSR during restoration activities (SGRLPS 2010; 2011; 2012). No Northern fur seals were observed during the 2016-2017 and 2017-2018 work seasons (Terry McNamara, pers. comm., 2018).
For the 2010 and 2011 seasons, the Society did not observe any Pacific harbor seals present on NWSR during restoration activities (SGRLPS 2010; 2011). During the 2012 season, the Society reported sighting a total of two harbor seals present on NWSR (SGRLPS 2012). No harbor seals were observed during the 2016-2017 and 2017-2018 work seasons (Terry McNamara, pers. comm., 2018).
Here we describe how the information provided above is brought together to produce a quantitative take estimate.
Based on the Society's previous monitoring reports, NMFS estimates that approximately 2,880 California sea lions (calculated by multiplying the maximum single-day count of California sea lions present on NWSR (160) by 18 days of the restoration, maintenance, and touring activities), 2,790 Steller sea lions (calculated by multiplying the maximum single-day count of Steller sea lions that could be present (155) by 18 days of the restoration, maintenance, and touring activities), 36 Pacific harbor seals (calculated by multiplying the maximum single-day count of harbor seals present on NWSR (2) by 18 days), and 18 Northern fur seals (calculated by multiplying the maximum number of northern fur seals present on NWSR (1) by 18 days) could be potentially affected by Level B behavioral harassment over the course of the IHA. NMFS bases these estimates of the numbers of marine mammals that might be affected on consideration of the number of marine mammals that could be disturbed appreciably by approximately 75 hours of aircraft operations over the course of the activity. These incidental harassment take numbers represent less than one percent of the affected stocks for California sea lions, Pacific harbor seals, and Northern fur seals, and less than seven percent of the stock of Steller sea lions (Table 3). However, actual take may be slightly less if animals decide to haul out at a different location for the day or if animals are foraging at the time of the survey activities.
In order to issue an IHA under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, “and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking” for certain subsistence uses (latter not applicable for this action). NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).
In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, we carefully consider two primary factors:
(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned) the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned); and
(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
Based on our evaluation of the applicant's proposed measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the proposed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
In order to issue an IHA for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth, “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104 (a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.
Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors.
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks.
• Effects on marine mammal habitat (
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
As part of its IHA application, the Society proposes to sponsor marine mammal monitoring, in order to implement the mitigation measures that require real-time monitoring, and to satisfy the monitoring requirements of the proposed IHA. These requirements include:
• A NMFS approved, experienced biologist that will be present on the first flight of each day of the activity. This observer will be able to identify all species of pinnipeds expected to use the island, and qualified to determine age and sex classes when viewing conditions allow. The observer would record data including species counts, numbers of observed disturbances, and descriptions of the disturbance behaviors during the activities, including location, date, and time of the event. In addition, the Society would record observations regarding the number and species of any marine mammals either observed in the water or hauled out.
• Aerial photographic surveys to provide an accurate means of documenting species composition, age and sex class of pinnipeds using the project site during human activity periods. The Society should complete aerial photo coverage from the same helicopter used to transport the Society's personnel to the island during restoration trips. The Society would take photographs of all marine mammals hauled out on the island from an altitude greater than 300 m (984 ft) by a skilled photographer, on the first flight of each day of activities. These photographs will be forwarded to a biologists capable of discerning marine mammal species. Data shall be provided to us in the form of a report with a data table, any other significant observations related to marine mammals, and a report of restoration activities (see
As detailed above, the proposed monitoring requirements in relation to the Society's proposed activities would include species counts, numbers of observed disturbances, and descriptions of the disturbance behaviors during the restoration activities, including location, date, and time of the event. In addition, the Society would record observations regarding the number and species of any marine mammals either observed in the water or hauled out.
By completing the proposed requirements mentioned above, the Society can add to the knowledge of pinnipeds in the proposed action area by noting observations of: (1) Unusual behaviors, numbers, or distributions of pinnipeds, enabling appropriate personnel to conduct future follow-up research; (2) tag-bearing carcasses of pinnipeds, allowing transmittal of the information to appropriate agencies and personnel; and (3) rare or unusual
If at any time injury, serious injury, or mortality of the species for which take is authorized should occur, or if take of any other kind of marine mammal occurs, and such action may be a result of the Society's activities, the Society would suspend restoration and tour activities and contact NMFS immediately. NMFS will then determine how best to proceed to ensure another injury or death does not occur and to guarantee the applicant remains in compliance with the MMPA.
The Society would submit a draft report to NMFS' Office of Protected Resources no later than 90 days after the conclusion of restoration activities in April. The report will include a summary of the information gathered pursuant to the monitoring requirements set forth in the proposed IHA. The Society will submit a final report to NMFS within 30 days after receiving comments from NMFS on the draft report. If the Society receives no comments from NMFS on the report, NMFS will consider the draft report to be the final report.
The report will describe the operations conducted and sightings of marine mammals near the proposed project. The report will provide full documentation of methods, results, and interpretation pertaining to all monitoring. The report will provide:
1. A summary and table of the dates, times, and weather during all activities.
2. Species, number, location, and behavior of any marine mammals observed throughout all monitoring activities.
3. An estimate of the number (by species) of marine mammals exposed to human presence associated with the Society's activities.
4. A description of the implementation and effectiveness of the monitoring and mitigation measures of the IHA and full documentation of methods, results, and interpretation pertaining to all monitoring.
In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by the authorization, such as an injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or mortality (
• Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the incident;
• Description and location of the incident (including water depth, if applicable);
• Environmental conditions (
• Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
• Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
• Fate of the animal(s); and
• Photographs or video footage of the animal(s) (if equipment is available)
The Society shall not resume its activities until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. We will work with the Society to determine what is necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. The Society may not resume their activities until notified by us via letter, email, or telephone.
In the event that the Society discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the marine mammal observer determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
In the event that the Society discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead visual observer determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the authorized activities (
NMFS has defined negligible impact as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival” (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
Although the Society's survey activities may disturb a small number of marine mammals hauled out on NWSR, NMFS expects those impacts to occur to a small, localized group of animals for a limited duration (
The Society's activities would occur during the least sensitive time (
Moreover, the Society's mitigation measures regarding helicopter approaches and restoration site ingress and egress would minimize the potential for stampedes and large-scale movements. Thus, the potential for large-scale movements and stampede leading to injury, serious, injury, or mortality is low.
Any noise attributed to the Society's proposed helicopter operations on NWSR would be short-term (approximately six minutes per trip). We would expect the ambient noise levels to return to a baseline state when helicopter operations have ceased for the day. As the helicopter lands and takes off from the station, NMFS presumes that the received sound levels would be between 84.5-87.8 Db RE: 20 µPa (A-weighted) at the landing pad. However, we do not expect that the increased received levels of sound from the helicopter would cause TTS or PTS because the sound levels are below the thresholds for airborne pinniped disturbance at the landing pad which is 15 m (48 ft) above the rocks. Additionally, the pinnipeds would likely flush before the helicopter approached NWSR, further increasing the distance between the pinnipeds and the received sound levels on NWSR during the proposed action.
If pinnipeds are present on NWSR, Level B behavioral harassment of pinnipeds may occur during helicopter landing and takeoff from NWSR due to the pinnipeds temporarily moving from the rocks and lower structure of the Station into the sea due to the noise and appearance of a helicopter during approaches and departures. It is expected that all or a portion of the marine mammals hauled out on NWSR will depart the rock and slowly move into the water upon initial helicopter approaches. The movement to the water would be gradual due to the required controlled helicopter approaches (see
Sea lions have shown habituation to helicopter flights within a day at the project site and most animals are expected to return soon after helicopter activities cease for that day. By clustering helicopter arrivals/departures within a short time period, we expect animals present to show less response to subsequent landings. NMFS anticipates no impact on the population size or breeding stock of Steller sea lions, California sea lions, Pacific harbor seals, or Northern fur seals.
In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our preliminary determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:
• The impacts to animals present would be of limited duration (
• The impacts would be of limited intensity (
• No injury or mortality is anticipated or authorized.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS preliminarily finds that the total marine mammal take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.
As noted above, only small numbers of incidental take may be authorized under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, where estimated numbers are available, NMFS compares the number of individuals taken to the most appropriate estimation of abundance of the relevant species or stock in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals. Additionally, other qualitative factors may be considered in the analysis, such as the temporal or spatial scale of the activities.
As mentioned previously, NMFS estimates that the Society's proposed activities could potentially affect, by Level B harassment only, four species of marine mammals under our jurisdiction. For each species, these estimates are small numbers (less than one percent of the affected stocks of California sea lions, Pacific harbor seals, and Northern fur seals, and less than seven percent of the stock of Steller sea lions) relative to the population size (Table 3).
Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS preliminarily finds that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
Section 7(a)(2) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA: 16 U.S.C. 1531
No incidental take of ESA-listed species is proposed for authorization or expected to result from this activity. Therefore, NMFS has determined that formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA is not required for this action.
The St. George Reef Lighthouse Preservation Society (Society) is hereby authorized under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(D)) to harass marine mammals incidental to conducting helicopter operations and maintenance and restoration activities on the St. George Reef Lighthouse Station (Station), when adhering to the following terms and conditions.
1. This Incidental Harassment Authorization (IHA) is valid from February 19, 2018 through February 18, 2019.
2. This IHA is valid only for activities associated with helicopter operations, lighthouse restoration and maintenance
(a) The use of a small, compact, 4-person helicopter with two-bladed main and tail rotors fitted with noise-attenuating blade tip caps to transport work crews and tourists to and from NWSR;
(b) Restoration activities (
(c) Maintenance activities (
(d) Emergency repair events (
(e) Human presence.
3.
(a) A copy of this IHA must be in the possession of the Society, its designees, and work crew personnel operating under the authority of this IHA.
(b) The species authorized for taking are the California sea lion (
(c) The taking, by Level B harassment only, is limited to the species listed in condition 3(b). See Table 1 (attached) for numbers of take authorized.
(d) The taking by injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or death of any of the species listed in condition 3(b) of the Authorization or any taking of any other species of marine mammal is prohibited and may result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of this IHA.
(e) The Society shall conduct briefings between construction supervisors and crews, marine mammal monitoring team, and Society staff prior to the start of all helicopter flights, restoration and maintenance work, and public tours, and when new personnel join the work, in order to explain responsibilities, communication procedures, marine mammal monitoring protocol, and operational procedures.
(f) Except in the event of an emergency repair event, the Society may not conduct activities between the dates of May 1, 2018 and October 31, 2018.
4.
The holder of this Authorization is required to implement the following mitigation measures:
(a) Conduct restoration and maintenance activities at the Station at a maximum of one session per month between February 19, 2018 and February 18, 2019, except between May 1, 2018 and October 31, 2018. Each restoration session shall be no more than three days in duration. Maintenance of the light beacon shall occur only in conjunction with the monthly restoration activities.
(b) Ensure that helicopter approach patterns to the NWSR shall be such that the timing techniques are least disturbing to marine mammals. To the extent possible, the helicopter should approach NWSR when the tide is too high for marine mammals to haul out on NWSR.
(c) Avoid rapid and direct approaches by the helicopter to the station by approaching NWSR at a relatively high altitude (
(d) Provide instructions to the Society's members, the restoration crew, and if applicable, to tourists, on appropriate conduct when in the vicinity of hauled-out marine mammals. The Society's members, the restoration crew, and if applicable, tourists, shall avoid making unnecessary noise while on NWSR and must not view pinnipeds around the base of the Station.
(e) Ensure that the door to the Station's lower platform shall remain closed and barricaded at all times.
(f) The Society shall establish monitoring protocols as described below.
5.
The holder of this Authorization is required to conduct marine mammal monitoring during helicopter operations. Monitoring and reporting shall be conducted in accordance with the Monitoring Plan. The Society is required to:
(a) Have a NMFS-approved biologist present on the first flight of each day of activities.
(b) Record the date, time, and location (or closest point of ingress) of each visit to the NWSR.
(c) Collect the following information for each visit:
(i) Information on the numbers (by species) of marine mammals observed during the activities;
(ii) The estimated number of marine mammals (by species) that may have been harassed during the activities;
(iii) Any behavioral responses or modifications of behaviors that may be attributed to the specific activities (
(iv) Information on the weather, including the tidal state and horizontal visibility.
(d) Employ a skilled, aerial photographer to document marine mammals hauled out on NWSR.
(i) The photographer will complete a photographic survey of NWSR using the same helicopter that will transport Society personnel to the island during restoration trips.
(ii) Photographs of all marine mammals hauled out on the island shall be taken at an altitude greater than 300 m (984 ft) during the first arrival flight to NWSR.
(iii) The Society and/or its designees will forward the photographs to a biologist capable of discerning marine mammal species. The Society shall provide the data to us in the form of a report with a data table, any other significant observations related to marine mammals, and a report of restoration activities (see Reporting). The Society shall make available the original photographs to NMFS or to other marine mammal experts for inspection and further analysis.
6.
The holder of this Authorization is required to:
(a) Submit a draft report on all monitoring conducted under the IHA within ninety calendar days of the completion of lighthouse maintenance and preservation work in April. This report must contain the following information:
(i) A summary of the dates, times, and weather during all helicopter operations, restoration, and maintenance activities.
(ii) Species, number, location, and behavior of any marine mammals, observed throughout all monitoring activities.
(iii) An estimate of the number (by species) of marine mammals that are known to have been exposed to visual and acoustic stimuli associated with the helicopter operations, restoration, and maintenance activities.
(iv) A description of the implementation and effectiveness of the monitoring and mitigation measures of the IHA and full documentation of methods, results, and interpretation pertaining to all monitoring.
(b) Reporting injured or dead marine mammals:
(i) In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by this IHA, such as an injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or mortality, the Society shall immediately cease the specified activities and report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources (301-427-8401) and/or by email to
1. Time and date of the incident;
2. Description of the incident;
3. Environmental conditions (
4. Description of all marine mammal observations and active sound source use in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
5. Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
6. Fate of the animal(s); and
7. Photographs or video footage of the animal(s).
Activities shall not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS will work with the Society to determine what measures are necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. The Society may not resume their activities until notified by NMFS.
(ii) In the event that the Society discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
The report must include the same information identified in 6(b)(i) of this IHA. Activities may continue while NMFS reviews the circumstances of the incident. NMFS will work with the Society to determine whether additional mitigation measures or modifications to the activities are appropriate.
(iii) In the event that the Society discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the activities authorized in the IHA (
7. This Authorization may be modified, suspended or withdrawn if the holder fails to abide by the conditions prescribed herein, or if NMFS determines the authorized taking is having more than a negligible impact on the species or stock of affected marine mammals.
We request comment on our analyses, the proposed authorization, and any other aspect of this Notice of Proposed IHA for the proposed lighthouse restoration and maintenance project. We also request comment on the potential for renewal of this proposed IHA as described in the paragraph below. Please include with your comments any supporting data or literature citations to help inform our final decision on the request for MMPA authorization.
On a case-by-case basis, NMFS may issue a second one-year IHA without additional notice when (1) another year of identical or nearly identical activities as described in the Specified Activities section is planned or (2) the activities would not be completed by the time the IHA expires and a second IHA would allow for completion of the activities beyond that described in the Dates and Duration section, provided all of the following conditions are met:
• A request for renewal is received no later than 60 days prior to expiration of the current IHA.
• The request for renewal must include the following:
(1) An explanation that the activities to be conducted beyond the initial dates either are identical to the previously analyzed activities or include changes so minor (
(2) A preliminary monitoring report showing the results of the required monitoring to date and an explanation showing that the monitoring results do not indicate impacts of a scale or nature not previously analyzed or authorized.
• Upon review of the request for renewal, the status of the affected species or stocks, and any other pertinent information, NMFS determines that there are no more than minor changes in the activities, the mitigation and monitoring measures remain the same and appropriate, and the original findings remain valid.
U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Notice of public hearing.
The U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission (Commission) will conduct a public hearing to receive views from all interested parties about the Commission's agenda and priorities for fiscal year 2019, which begins on October 1, 2018, and for fiscal year 2020, which begins on October 1, 2019. We invite members of the public to participate. Written comments and oral presentations concerning the Commission's agenda and priorities for fiscal years 2019 and 2020 will become part of the public record.
The hearing will begin at 10 a.m. on April 11, 2018, and will conclude the same day. Requests to make oral presentations and the written text of any oral presentations must be received by the Office of the Secretary not later than 5 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT) on March 28, 2018. The Commission will accept written comments as well. These also must be received by the Office of the Secretary not later than 5 p.m. EDT on March 28, 2018.
The hearing will be in the Hearing Room, 4th Floor of the Bethesda Towers Building, 4330 East-West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814. Requests to make oral presentations,
For information about the hearing, or to request an opportunity to make an oral presentation, please send an email, call, or write Alberta E. Mills, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East-West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814; email:
Section 4(j) of the Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA) (15 U.S.C. 2053(j)) requires the Commission to establish an agenda for action under the laws the Commission administers, and to the extent feasible, select priorities for action at least 30 days before the beginning of each fiscal year. Section 4(j) of the CPSA provides further that before establishing its agenda and priorities, the Commission conduct a public hearing and provide an opportunity for the submission of comments.
The Commission is preparing the agency's fiscal year 2019 Operating Plan and fiscal year 2020 Congressional Budget Request. Fiscal year 2019 begins on October 1, 2018, and fiscal year 2020 begins on October 1, 2019. Through this notice, the Commission invites the public to comment on the following questions:
1. What are the priorities the Commission should consider emphasizing and dedicating resources toward in the fiscal year 2019 Operating Plan and/or the fiscal year 2020 Congressional Budget Request?
2. What activities should the Commission consider deemphasizing in the fiscal year 2019 Operating Plan and/or the fiscal year 2020 Congressional Budget Request?
3. What retrospective review of rules should the Commission consider in the fiscal year 2019 Operating Plan and/or the fiscal year 2020 Congressional Budget Request?
4. The CPSC's programs will align with the strategic goals outlined in the CPSC's 2018-2022 Strategic Plan. The CPSC's fiscal year 2019 Budget Request, submitted to Congress on February 12, 2018, is based on four agency priorities: (1) Focusing the agency's resources on the highest-priority consumer product safety risks; (2) continuing to support import surveillance by incrementally developing the Risk Assessment Methodology (RAM) system to identify and stop noncompliant imported products from entering the U.S. marketplace; (3) emphasizing outreach and education by engaging all stakeholders through forums and workshops; and (4) expanding the sources and types of data analysis used to identify and assess product safety risks and inform compliance decisions. The Commission requests comments on the priorities as presented in the FY 2019 Budget Request. The CPSC's Budget Request for fiscal year 2019 can be found at:
Persons who desire to make oral presentations at the hearing on April 11, 2018 should send an email, call, or write Alberta E. Mills, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East-West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814; email:
If you do not want to make an oral presentation, but would like to provide written comments, you may do so. Please submit written comments in the manner described in the previous paragraph. Written comments must be received no later than 5 p.m. EDT on March 28, 2018.
Air University Board of Visitors, Department of Air Force, DOD.
Notice of meeting.
Under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and the Government in the Sunshine Act, the Department of Defense announces the Air University Board of Visitors' fall meeting. The purpose of this meeting is to provide independent advice and recommendations on matters pertaining to the educational, doctrinal, and research policies and activities of Air University.
The meeting will take place on Monday, 16 April 2018, from 8:00 a.m. to approximately 5 p.m. and Tuesday, 17 April 2018, from 7:30 a.m. to approximately 3:00 p.m. Central Standard Time.
The meeting will be held in the Air University Commander's Conference Room located in Building 800 at Maxwell Air force Base, AL.
Dr. Shawn O'Mailia, Designated Federal Officer, Air University Headquarters, 55 LeMay Plaza South, Maxwell Air Force Base, Alabama 36112-6335, telephone (334) 953-4547.
The agenda will include topics relating to the policies, programs, and initiatives of Air University educational programs and will include an out brief from the Air Force Institute of Technology and Community College of the Air Force Subcommittees.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended, and 41 CFR 102-3.155 all sessions of the Air University Board of Visitors' meetings' will be open to the public. Any member of the public wishing to provide input to the Air University Board of Visitors' should submit a written statement in accordance with 41 CFR 102-3.140(c) and section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and the procedures described in this paragraph.
1:00 p.m.-2:30 p.m., March 8, 2018.
Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue NW, Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004.
Closed. During the closed meeting, the Board Members will discuss issues dealing with potential Recommendations to the Secretary of Energy. The Board is invoking the exemptions to close a meeting described in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3) and (9)(B) and 10 CFR 1704.4(c) and (h). The Board has determined that it is necessary to close the meeting since conducting an open meeting is likely to disclose matters that are specifically exempted from disclosure by statute, and/or be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action. In this case, the deliberations will pertain to potential Board Recommendations which, under 42 U.S.C. 2286d(b) and (h)(3), may not be made publicly available until after they have been received by the Secretary of Energy or the President, respectively.
The meeting will proceed in accordance with the closed meeting agenda which is posted on the Board's public website at
Glenn Sklar, General Manager, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue NW, Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004-2901, (800) 788-4016. This is a toll-free number.
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education.
Notice of a modified system of records.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act), the U.S. Department of Education (Department) modifies the system of records entitled “Student Aid internet Gateway (SAIG), Participation Management System” (18-11-10).
The SAIG, Participation Management System, is a system of records containing contact information that individuals affiliated with an authorized entity provide to create an account to request electronic access to the Department's Federal Student Aid (FSA) systems or to the system of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) for purposes of administering or assisting in administering programs authorized under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA).
Submit your comments on this modified system of records notice on or before April 2, 2018.
This modified system of records will become applicable upon publication in the
Submit your comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. We will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email or those submitted after the comment period. To ensure that we do not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
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•
Director, Systems Integration Division, Systems Operations and Aid Delivery Management Services, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE, Room 41F1, Union Center Plaza, Washington, DC 20202-5144. Telephone: (202) 377-3547.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or text telephone (TTY), you may call the
The Department is updating the section of the notice entitled “SYSTEM LOCATION” by adding an alternate location, and replacing the locations no longer utilized. The Department is changing the section of the notice entitled “SYSTEM MANAGER” to reflect the current organization of Business Operations in the Federal Student Aid office. The Department is modifying the section of the notice entitled “PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM” to remove the references about authenticating users to the Debt Management and Collections System (DMCS) and Title IV Additional Servicers (TIVAS). These systems do not require authorization through the SAIG, Participation Management System. However, the Department is adding that the SAIG, Participation Management System, will be used to provide users with access to the Enterprise Complaint System (ECS) and the system of the DHS that also administers or assists in administering programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. In this section and throughout the notice, the Department is removing all references regarding “authenticating” users and replacing it with the term “authorizing.” This is a more accurate representation of the Department's practices in the SAIG, Participation Management System.
The Department is modifying the section of the notice entitled “CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM” to replace as covered individuals those who are eligible to participate in the Department's programs with those who are authorized to access the Department's Federal Student Aid systems and the DHS system for the purposes of administering or assisting in administering programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. This modification is a clarification to the public and does not change the scope of the system. The Department is also modifying this section to update the entities whose employees may be authorized to access the SAIG, Participation Management System, such as by deleting the reference to authorized employees or representatives of State scholarship programs and inserting in its place, research and scholarship organizations. The Department is also clarifying in this section that the authorized employees or representatives of lenders and guaranty agencies covered by the system are limited to lenders and guaranty agencies participating in the Federal Family Education Loan Program (FFELP).
The Department is updating the section of the notice entitled “CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM” to specify that records are those of authorized individuals with access to not just the Department's student financial aid systems but also the DHS system that administer or assist in administering programs authorized under title IV of the HEA.
The Department is modifying the section of the notice entitled “RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES” to update authorized entities as follows: Postsecondary educational institutions, institutional third-party servicers, FFELP lenders, FFELP guaranty agencies, Federal loan servicers, DHS, State grant agencies, research and scholarship organizations, and from other individuals or entities from which data is obtained under the routine uses set forth below.
The Department is updating routine use (1) entitled “Program Disclosures” to remove the listed Department systems DMCS and TIVAS, which were previously listed in paragraphs (f) and (g), and to add, in paragraph (f), ECS as a Department system to which authorized users will have access. The Department is adding to this routine use in paragraph (h) that authorized users also will have access to the DHS system that administers or assists in the administration of programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. These modifications to routine use (1) will permit the Department to share authorized users' information with DHS to allow these authorized users access to systems belonging to the Department's Federal Student Aid office and DHS for the purposes of administering or assisting in administering programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. The Department will only disclose these records to DHS after the Department has approved in writing a request from DHS to access these records.
The Department is modifying routine use (4) entitled “Contract Disclosure” and routine use (6) entitled “Research Disclosure” to remove language that respectively referenced safeguard requirements under subsection (m) of the Privacy Act and Privacy Act safeguards. The Department revised the language in routine use (4) to permit the Department to disclose records from this system of records to employees of Departmental contractors, whether or not they are covered by subsection (m) of the Privacy Act, so long as they are performing a Departmental function that requires disclosing records to them and they agree to safeguards that will protect the security and confidentiality of the records in the system. The Department also revised the language in routine uses (4) and (6) because the prior language referring to required safeguards under the Privacy Act and Privacy Act safeguards was unclear about what safeguards were required and therefore to clarify that contractors and researchers to whom disclosures are made under these routine uses will be required to agree to safeguards to protect the security and confidentiality of the records in the system.
The Department is modifying routine use (10) entitled “Employee Grievance, Complaint, or Conduct Disclosure” to clarify and promote the standardization of the language used in this routine use with that used in the Department's other systems of records notices.
Pursuant to the requirements in Office of Management and Budget (OMB) M-17-12, the Department is modifying routine use (12) entitled “Disclosure in the Course of Responding to a Breach of Data.”
The Department is also adding routine use (13) entitled “Disclosure in Assisting another Agency in Responding to a Breach of Data” in order to comply with the requirements in OMB M-17-12. The Department may disclose records from this system to another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the Department determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (a) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (b) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.
The Department is updating the sections of the notice entitled “POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS” and “ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS” to reflect the current location of the records at General Dynamics One Source (GDOS). The Department is also updating the section entitled “POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS” to reflect the updated General Records Schedule, issued by the National Archives and Records Administration, which governs the retention and disposition of the records. Finally, the Department is modifying the sections entitled “RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES” and “NOTIFICATION
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Acting Chief Operating Officer, Federal Student Aid of the U.S. Department of Education (Department) publishes a notice of a modified system of records to read as follows:
Student Aid internet Gateway (SAIG), Participation Management System (18-11-10).
Unclassified.
General Dynamics One Source (GDOS), LLC 2450 Oakdale Boulevard, Coralville, IA 52241-9728. (This facility is the location of Technical Support and also stores hard copy records for the first 12 months after they are received by the Department.
SAIG/Participation Management System Technical Support 3833 Greenway Drive, Lawrence, KS 66046. (This is another location of the Technical Support).
Dell Perot Systems, 2300 West Plano Parkway, Plano, TX 75075-8247. (This is the computer center for SAIG, Participation Management System Application Virtual Data Center (VDC).)
Iron Mountain Headquarters, 1000 Campus Dr., Collegeville, PA 19426. (This facility stores hard copy records after 12 months from when they are received by the Department, and prior to the Department transferring them to National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)—operated Federal Records Centers.)
Director, Systems Integration Division, Systems Operations and Aid Delivery Management Services, Business Operations, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE, Union Center Plaza, Washington, DC 20202-5454.
Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA), 20 U.S.C. 1070
The information in this system is maintained for the purposes of: (1) Processing stored data from the SAIG, Participation Management System Enrollment Forms (web and paper versions); (2) maintaining the SAIG, Participation Management System Enrollment website (titled
This system contains records on those individuals who are authorized to access the Department's Federal Student Aid systems and the DHS system for purposes of administering or assisting in administering programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. Those individuals include authorized employees or representatives of authorized entities as follows: Postsecondary educational institutions, institutional third-party servicers, lenders participating in the Federal Family Education Loan Program (FFELP), FFELP guaranty agencies, Federal loan servicers, State grant agencies, and research and scholarship organizations.
This system maintains identifying information that authorized individuals affiliated with an authorized entity provide to create an account to request electronic access to the Department's Federal Student Aid systems or access to the DHS system for the purposes of administering or assisting in administering programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. This information includes the individual's name, address, and other identifying information (
Information in this system is obtained from the authorized employees or representatives of authorized entities as follows: Postsecondary educational institutions, institutional third-party servicers, FFELP lenders, FFELP guaranty agencies, Federal loan servicers, DHS, State grant agencies, research and scholarship organizations, and from other individuals or entities from which data is obtained under routine uses set forth below.
The Department may disclose information contained in a record in this system of records under the routine uses listed in this system of records without the consent of the individual if the disclosure is compatible with the purposes for which the record was collected. These disclosures may be made on a case-by-case basis or, if the Department has complied with the computer matching requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act), under a computer matching agreement.
(1)
(a) COD System;
(b) CPS;
(c) eCB System;
(d) NSLDS;
(e) FMS;
(f) ECS;
(g) AIMS; and,
(h) the DHS system.
The Department will only disclose records from this system to DHS for purposes of administering or assisting in administering programs authorized under title IV of the HEA and only after the Department has approved in writing a request from DHS to access these records.
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(a)
(i) The Department, or any of its components;
(ii) Any Department employee in his or her official capacity;
(iii) Any Department employee in his or her individual capacity where the DOJ agrees to or has been requested to provide or arrange for representation of the employee;
(iv) Any Department employee in his or her individual capacity where the Department has agreed to represent the employee;
(v) The United States where the Department determines that the litigation is likely to affect the Department or any of its components.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(a)
(b)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
Records are maintained in both electronic and hard copy form. Records maintained in electronic form, including hard copy records loaded into an imaging system accessible through internal systems only, are stored in IBM Content Manager. For the first 12 months after receiving a hard copy record, the record is stored in a locked file cabinet at the GDOS storage facility in Coralville, Iowa. After the initial 12-month period, the hard copy record is stored at the Iron Mountain storage facility. After three years from the termination or closure of an enrollment account of a user of the SAIG, Participation Management System, all records (electronic and hard copy) are transferred to NARA-operated Federal Records Centers for further storage in accordance with the applicable retention and disposition schedule.
All users of the SAIG, Participation Management System, have a unique user identification (ID) with a password. Records are retrieved by the names of the individual user and/or their unique system User ID.
These records are covered by General Records Schedule 3.2: Information Systems Security Records, Item 031 (DAA-GRS-2013-0006-0004). Records are destroyed six years after the user account is terminated or the password is altered.
All users of the SAIG, Participation Management System, will have a unique user ID with a password. All physical access to the data housed at the GDOS location and within the VDC, and the locations of Department contractors where this system of records is maintained, is controlled and monitored by security personnel who check each individual entering the building for his or her employee or visitor badge. The computer system employed by the Department offers a high degree of resistance to tampering and circumvention with firewalls, encryption, and password protection. This security system limits data access to Department and contract staff on a “need-to-know” basis, and controls individual users' ability to access and alter records within the system. All interactions by users of the SAIG, Participation Management System, are recorded.
If you wish to gain access to a record in this system, you must contact the system manager at the address listed above. You must provide necessary particulars such as your name, user ID, date of birth, and any other identifying information requested by the Department while processing the request to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Your request must meet the requirements of the Department's Privacy Act regulations at 34 CFR 5b.5, including proof of identity.
If you wish to contest or change the content of a record about you in the system of records, you must contact the system manager with the information described in the record access procedures. Requests to amend a record must meet the requirements of the Department's Privacy Act regulations at 34 CFR 5b.7.
If you wish to determine whether a record exists about you in the system of records, you must contact the system manager at the address listed above. You must provide necessary particulars such as your name, user ID, date of birth, and any other identifying information requested by the Department while processing the request to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Your request must meet the requirements of the regulations in 34 CFR 5b.5, including proof of identity.
None.
The system of records was published in the
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before April 30, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of Fossil Energy, DOE.
Notice of application.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy (DOE) gives notice of receipt of an application (Application), filed on February 1, 2018, by Southern LNG Company, L.L.C. (Southern LNG). The Application requests blanket authorization to export domestically produced and previously imported liquefied natural gas (LNG) in an amount up to the equivalent of 255 billion cubic feet (Bcf) of natural gas on a cumulative basis over a two-year period, commencing on the date of the initial short-term export. The LNG would be exported from the Elba Liquefaction Project (Liquefaction Project), which is currently under construction at the Elba Island Terminal on Elba Island, Chatham County, Georgia. Southern LNG requests authorization to export the LNG to any country with the capacity to import LNG via ocean-going carrier and with which trade is not prohibited by U.S. law or policy, including both countries with which the United States has entered into a free trade agreement (FTA) requiring national treatment for trade in natural gas (FTA countries) and all other countries (non-FTA countries). Southern LNG seeks to export this LNG before commercial operations at the Liquefaction Project begin. Southern LNG requests this authorization on its own behalf and as agent for other entities who hold title to the natural gas at the time of export. Additional details can be found in Southern LNG's Application, posted on the DOE/FE website at:
Protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, and written comments are invited.
Protests, motions to intervene or notices of intervention, as applicable, requests for additional procedures, and written comments are to be filed using procedures detailed in the Public Comment Procedures section no later than 4:30 p.m., Eastern time, April 2, 2018.
Southern LNG requests a short-term blanket authorization to export domestically produced and previously imported LNG prior to the start of commercial operations at its Liquefaction Project. Southern LNG commits that the short-term volumes to be exported under the requested authorization, when added to
The portion of the Application seeking authority to export LNG on a short-term basis to non-FTA countries will be reviewed pursuant to section 3(a) of the NGA, 15 U.S.C. 717b(a), and DOE will consider any issues required by law or policy. In reviewing this Application, DOE will consider domestic need for the natural gas, as well as any other issues determined to be appropriate, including whether the arrangement is consistent with DOE's policy of promoting competition in the marketplace by allowing commercial parties to freely negotiate their own trade arrangements. As part of this analysis, DOE will consider the following two studies examining the cumulative impacts of exporting domestically produced LNG:
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Additionally, DOE will consider the following environmental documents:
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•
Parties that may oppose this Application should address these issues and documents in their comments and/or protests, as well as other issues deemed relevant to the Application.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321
Interested persons will be provided 30 days from the date of publication of this Notice in which to submit comments, protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, or motions for additional procedures.
In response to this Notice, any person may file a protest, comments, or a motion to intervene or notice of intervention, as applicable. Interested parties will be provided 30 days from the date of publication of this Notice in which to submit comments, protests, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention.
Any person wishing to become a party to the proceeding must file a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. The filing of comments or a protest with respect to the Application will not serve to make the commenter or protestant a party to the proceeding, although protests and comments received from persons who are not parties will be considered in determining the appropriate action to be taken on the Application. All protests, comments, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention must meet the requirements specified by the regulations in 10 CFR part 590.
Filings may be submitted using one of the following methods: (1) Emailing the filing to
A decisional record on the Application will be developed through responses to this notice by parties, including the parties' written comments and replies thereto. Additional procedures will be used as necessary to achieve a complete understanding of the facts and issues. If an additional procedure is scheduled, notice will be provided to all parties. If no party requests additional procedures, a final Opinion and Order may be issued based on the official record, including the Application and responses filed by parties pursuant to this notice, in accordance with 10 CFR 590.316.
The Application is available for inspection and copying in the Office of Regulation and International Engagement docket room, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The docket room is open between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The Application and any filed protests, motions to intervene or notice of interventions, and comments will also be available electronically by going to the following DOE/FE Web address:
Office of Fossil Energy, DOE.
Notice of change in control.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy (DOE) gives notice of receipt of two related Notices of Change in Control (Notice or, collectively, Notices) filed by Pieridae Energy (USA), Ltd. (Pieridae US) in the above-referenced docket. The first Notice, filed on May 21, 2017, described a planned change in control of Pieridae Energy Limited, the parent company of Pieridae US. In the second Notice, filed on November 1, 2017, Pieridae US confirmed that the planned change in
Protests, motions to intervene or notices of intervention, as applicable, and written comments are to be filed using procedures detailed in the Public Comment Procedures section no later than 4:30 p.m., Eastern time, March 16, 2018.
Larine Moore or Amy Sweeney, U.S. Department of Energy (FE-34), Office of Regulation and International Engagement, Office of Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9478; (202) 586-2627.
Cassandra Bernstein, U.S. Department of Energy (GC-76), Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Electricity and Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9793.
As noted, Pieridae US filed two related Notices of Change in Control in the above-referenced docket under section 3 of the NGA, 15 U.S.C. 717b. In the first Notice filed on May 21, 2017,
In the second Notice, filed on November 1, 2017,
Additional details can be found in the Notices, posted on the DOE/FE website at:
DOE/FE will review the two Notices in accordance with its Procedures for Changes in Control Affecting Applications and Authorizations to Import or Export Natural Gas (CIC Revised Procedures).
Interested persons will be provided 15 days from the date of publication of this notice in the
Filings may be submitted using one of the following methods: (1) Preferred method: Emailing the filing to
The Notices and any filed protests, motions to intervene or notice of interventions, and comments are available for inspection and copying in the Office of Regulation and International Engagement docket room, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The docket room is open between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m.,
The Notices and any filed protests, motions to intervene or notice of interventions, and comments will also be available electronically by going to the following DOE/FE web address:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following foreign utility company status filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Office of Environmental Information, Environmental Protection Agency.
Notice of a new system of records.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) Office of General Counsel is giving notice that it proposes to create a new system of records pursuant to the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974. The Employment Law Practice Group Case Management System (ELPG-CMS) is being created to meet the needs of the Office of General Counsel, Employment Law Practice Group Attorney Advisors and Agency Leadership. This system will provide automated information support to the Employment Law Practice Group in tracing and managing the flow of labor and employment advice and litigation through the litigation process. The information collected in the case management program will be used to: Assign incoming cases and more efficiently track significant events in the litigation such as filing deadlines; electronically collect and store in one location all documents relevant to a case, including discovery materials, filings, submissions, case correspondence and case research information. The system is accessed from an internet browser using the Agency's secured portal.
Persons wishing to comment on this system or records notice must do so by April 2, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OEI-2017-0307, by one of the following methods:
Tia Y. Miller,
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) plans to create a Privacy Act system of records for the Employment Law Practice Group Case Management System (ELPG-CMS). ELPG-CMS will be used by Employment Law attorneys in the Office General Counsel to: (1) Track, manage, and report on employment matters, including litigation, counseling, disciplinary actions, performance actions, and investigations into allegations of workplace harassment. (2) assign incoming cases and more efficiently track significant events in the litigation such as filing deadlines; (3) electronically collect and store in one location all documents relevant to a case, including discovery materials,
The implementation of the ELPG-CMS will have no effect on the privacy of individuals. The system is password-protected and access is restricted to Office of General Counsel Employment Law Practice Group Attorneys and legal staff who have a work-related need to utilize the information in the system. Permission-level assignments allow users access only to those functions for which they are authorized. All records are maintained in secure, access-controlled areas of buildings. The system is accessed from an internet browser using the Agency's secured portal and requires a user to have an established log-in name and password. The system is maintained at a contractor's secured and FedRAMP-certified data center, discretely located in Ashburn, VA. ELPG-CMS is maintained by the Office of General Counsel, Employment Law Practice Group.
ELPG Case Management System (ELPG-CMS), EPA-76.
Unclassified.
The paper records will be located at the EPA, Office of General Counsel, Employment Law Practice Group,1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001. The electronic records will be located on servers housed in Ashburn, VA.
Associate General Counsel,
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e
The ELPG-CMS will allow ELPG to track case activity, generate mandated and ad hoc reports, and provide access to a centralized case management system to ELPG personnel.
These records are maintained in ELPG-CMS to support the Agency's Employment Law Practice Group in its efforts to track, manage, and report on employment matters, including litigation, counseling, disciplinary actions, performance actions, and investigations into allegations of workplace harassment.
Current and former EPA employees; Individuals who have filed, or had filed on their behalf, discrimination complaints against the EPA.
This system will contain general human resources elements, including First/Middle/Last Name, Appointment Type, Appointment Not-to-Exceed Date (if applicable), Service Computation Date for Leave Accrual Purposes, Service Computation Date for Retirement Eligibility Purposes, Position Title, Pay Plan, Occupational Series, Grade, Step, Supervisory Code, Bargaining Unit Status Code, Organizational Breakdown of Position's Location and Duty Station. The system will also contain Adverse Action case file information regarding employee counseling for misconduct or poor performance, disciplinary actions, adverse actions, performance-based actions, performance assistance plans, performance improvement plans, reasonable accommodation requests, including medical information. The system will also contain Office of Inspector General investigatory information regarding allegations of employee misconduct, including Reports of Investigation, Final Summary Reports, Memorandums of Interviews, Memorandum of Activity, and supporting exhibits.
The system will also contain documents created and/or submitted in anticipation of litigation, as well as during the course of litigation, including, but not limited to, Merit System Protection Board (MSPB) appeals, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) appeals, Department of Labor (DOL) appeals, Unemployment proceedings, Office of Special Counsel complaints, and Federal District Court proceedings.
Documents provided as part of litigation or employment law matters may include various types of information including, but not limited to, names, addresses, social security numbers, medical and/or financial information contained in pleadings, motions, exhibits, and any other documents provided to the Office of General Counsel.
Sources include Agency databases, employee personnel files, files maintained by the Office of Administration and Resources Management (OARM) Complainants, Complainant's attorneys or representatives, witnesses, EPA investigators, EPA Office of the Inspector General, other EPA personnel, Department of Justice, EEOC Administrative Judges, MSPB Judges, DOL Administrative Law Judges, and other persons with information relevant to an employment law matter before the Agency for consideration.
EPA General routine uses A, B, C, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L apply to this system. (73 FR 2245)
The records in the system are stored in paper files and computer databases. The computer storage devices are located at the contractor's FedRAMP approved facility in Ashburn, VA.
The system will retrieve records employee name.
Records stored in the system are subject to records schedule 1025.
Paper records are maintained in lockable file cabinets in secure, access-controlled rooms, areas, of buildings. Computer records are maintained in a secure password-protected environment. Access to computer records is limited to those who have a need to know the information contained in the records. Permission-level assignments allow users access only to those functions for which they are authorized. All records are maintained in secure, access controlled areas of buildings. The system is accessed from an internet browser using the Agency's secured portal and requires a user to have an established log-in name and password.
Individuals seeking access to information in this system of records about themselves should make a written request to the Freedom of Information Act Office. Requesters are required to provide adequate identification (
Requests for correction or amendment must identify the record to be changed and the corrective action sought. Complete EPA Privacy Act procedures are set out in EPA's Privacy Act regulations at 40 CFR part 16.
Any individual who wants to know whether this system of records contains a record about him or her, who wants access to his or her record, or who wants to contest the contents of a record, should make a written request to the EPA National Privacy Program, Attn: Privacy Act Officer, WJC West, MC 2831T, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460.
None.
None.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of proposed agreement; request for public comment.
In accordance with the requirements of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (“CERCLA”), notice is hereby given of the proposed settlement under CERCLA, between the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”), the State of South Dakota (“State”), and Agnico Eagle Mines Limited (“Lessee”). The proposed Settlement Agreement provides for the performance of work by Lessee and the payment of certain response costs incurred by the United States. The Lessee consents to and will not contest the authority of the United States to enter into the Agreement or to implement or enforce its terms. The State and Lessee recognize that the Agreement has been negotiated in good faith and that the Agreement is entered into without the admission or adjudication of any issue of fact or law.
Comments must be submitted on or before April 2, 2018. For thirty (30) days following the date of publication of this notice, the Agency will receive written comments relating to the agreement. The Agency will consider all comments received and may modify or withdraw its consent to the agreement if comments received disclose facts or considerations that indicate that the agreement is inappropriate, improper, or inadequate.
The proposed agreement and additional background information relating to the agreement, as well as the Agency's response to any comments are or will be available for public inspection at the EPA Superfund Record Center, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado, by appointment. Comments and requests for a copy of the proposed agreement should be addressed to Shawn McCaffrey, Enforcement Specialist, Environmental Protection Agency—Region 8, Mail Code 8ENF-RC, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202-1129, and should reference the Gilt Edge Mine Superfund Site, EPA Docket No. CERCLA-08-2018-0004.
Amelia Piggott, Enforcement Attorney, Legal Enforcement Program, Environmental Protection Agency—Region 8, Mail Code 8ENF-L, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202, (303) 312-6410.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice; correction.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a document in the
Questions or correspondence concerning the public teleconference meeting should be directed to Karen L. Martin, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, by mail at 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW (MC2201A), Washington, DC 20460; by telephone at 202-564-0203; via email at
In the
Registration for the March 8, 2018, pubic meeting teleconference option will be processed at
Farm Credit Administration.
Notice, regular meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the Government in the Sunshine Act, of the regular meeting of the Farm Credit Administration Board (Board).
The regular meeting of the Board will be held at the offices of the Farm Credit Administration in McLean, Virginia, on March 8, 2018, from 9:00 a.m. until such time as the Board concludes its business.
Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090. Submit attendance requests via email to
Dale L. Aultman, Secretary to the Farm Credit Administration Board, (703) 883-4009, TTY (703) 883-4056,
This meeting of the Board will be open to the public (limited space available). Please send an email to
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the three-year extension, with revisions, of existing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on extension and revisions of the information collections described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before April 30, 2018.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, attention FDIC Desk Officer, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of any proposed information collection instrument and instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Manny Cabeza, Counsel, FDIC Legal Division, either by mail at Room MB-3007, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429; by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. All comments received will become a matter of public record. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
The FDIC is proposing to revise and request a three-year extension of the following currently-approved collections of information:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Tuesday, March 6, 2018 at 10:00 a.m.
999 E Street NW, Washington, DC.
This meeting will be closed to the public.
Compliance matters pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 30109.
Matters concerning participation in civil actions or proceedings or arbitration.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than March 23, 2018.
1.
The companies listed in this notice have given notice under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843) (BHC Act) and Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225) to engage
Each notice is available for inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notice also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the question whether the proposal complies with the standards of section 4 of the BHC Act.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding the applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than March 23, 2018.
1.
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the information collection project titled “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery.”
ATSDR must receive written comments on or before April 30, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. ATSDR-2018-0001 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Leroy A. Richardson, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery (OMB Control No. 0923-0047; Expiration Date 12/31/2018)—Extension—Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
The information collection activity provides a means to garner qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with the Federal government's commitment to improving service delivery. By qualitative feedback we mean information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but are not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population of study.
This feedback will provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences and expectations, provide an early warning of issues with service, or focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services. These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between the Agency and its customers and stakeholders. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management.
The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on the Agency's services will be unavailable.
ATSDR will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:
• The collections are voluntary;
• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• The collections are noncontroversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• Information gathered is intended to be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of the agency (if released, the agency must indicate the qualitative nature of the information);
• Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential nonresponse bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
This is an extension of the previously approved collection of 7,075 annualized burden hours. There is no cost to
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the information collection request titled Effective Communication in Public Health Emergencies—Developing Community-Centered Tools for People with Special Health Care Needs to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. CDC previously published a “Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations” notice on September 20, 2017 to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies. CDC received two comments related to the previous notice. This notice serves to allow an additional 30 days for public and affected agency comments.
CDC will accept all comments for this proposed information collection project. The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments that:
(a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including, through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(e) Assess information collection costs.
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Effective Communication in Public Health Emergencies—Developing Community-Centered Tools for People with Special Health Care Needs—New—Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response (OPHPR), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Individuals with access and mobility challenges, chronic illness, intellectual and developmental disabilities, and other communication difficulties require targeted messages before, during, and after disasters to ensure that they fully appreciate the risks to their health and safety and can take measures to avoid harm. Significant research has highlighted the unique information needs for at-risk populations in general, as well as more specific populations such as minority communities, limited-English proficiency communities, and persons with physical or communication disabilities. However, there has been minimal translation of this research into practical tools for sharing information, nor has the research been extended to the families of children and youth with special heath care needs.
Research has also shown that families and individuals are more likely to prepare for emergencies or follow health-related emergency directives when the information comes from a health care professional, particularly someone engaged in their care. There is very little information about the capacity of these trusted sources to reach at-risk individuals during disasters, or their coordination into government risk communication efforts.
Finally, although social media is used by at-risk populations on a daily basis, relatively little is known about how these populations use social media during disasters, as the majority of the studies analyzing channels used by at-risk populations were completed before the widespread use of social media in disasters.
This study will utilize a multi-tiered, mixed methods approach to data collection to study the communication needs of two target populations during disasters: Families with children and youth with special health care needs (CYHCN); and individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorders (ASD), as well as families with children who have Autism Spectrum Disorders.
Data collection will consist of surveys, as well as focus groups and interviews. For each population, we will collect data from (1) families (
There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The estimated annualized burden is 419 hours.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Office for State, Tribal, Local and Territorial Support (OSTLTS), Tribal Advisory Committee (TAC) Meeting and 18th Biannual Tribal Consultation Session); March 13, 2018, 8:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m., EDT. CDC, Global Communications Center Auditorium B3, 1600 Clifton Road NE, Atlanta, Georgia 30329, which was published in the
This meeting is being canceled in its entirety.
Carmen Clelland, PharmD, MPA, MPH, Associate Director for Tribal Support, OSTLTS, CDC, 4770 Buford Highway, Mailstop E-70, Atlanta, Georgia 30341-3717, (404) 404-498-2205;
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, Office of Public Health and Preparedness and Response, (BSC, OPHPR); February 13, 2018, 2:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., EST which was published in the
The dial in number and Participant code should read as follows: Dial in number: 800-857-5746; Participant code: 4391556.
Dometa Ouisley, Office of Science and Public Health Practice, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, Mailstop D-44, Atlanta, Georgia 30329, Telephone: (404) 639-7450; Facsimile: (404) 471- 8772; Email:
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the information collection request titled Assessment of Cancer Prevention Services at Community Mental Health Centers to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. CDC previously published a “Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations” notice on November 8, 2017 to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies. CDC received four comments related to the previous notice. This notice serves to allow an additional 30 days for public and affected agency comments.
CDC will accept all comments for this proposed information collection project. The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments that:
(a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including, through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(e) Assess information collection costs.
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Assessment of Cancer Prevention Services at Community Mental Health Centers (0920-17AZG)—New—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
People with mental illness (MI) have higher rates of cancer risk factors such as smoking and obesity than people without MI.
Many people with MI receive outpatient mental health care at community mental health centers (CMHC), and some of these facilities also provide screening for cardiovascular disease and other chronic conditions. The extent to which CMHCs provide cancer prevention services is not understood.
This project will use online instruments and telephone interviews with psychiatric clinicians (
Our goal is to achieve a final analytic sample of at least 250 psychiatric clinicians and 250 administrators at CMHCs. A subset of 5%-10% of each group will be interviewed by telephone.
The objectives of this study are to: (1) Describe the capacity of CMHCs to provide cancer prevention services; (2) describe any written policies and procedures at CMHCS for providing these services; (3) describe any collaboration of CMHCs with health care providers or community health workers/organizations to provide these services; and (4) describe any barriers to providing these services. Researchers will ask respondents for CMHCs that provide cancer prevention services about best practices and lessons learned.
To calculate the total burden, we estimated 500 respondents for the surveys and 50 for the interviews. The average burden varied from 15-20 minutes for the surveys, and an hour for the interviews. The total estimated annual burden hours are 392. There will be no costs to the respondents other than their time.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended, and the Determination of the Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, CDC, pursuant to Public
Gregory Anderson, MS, MPH, Scientific Review Officer, CDC, 1600 Clifton Road NE, Mailstop E60, Atlanta, Georgia 30333, (404) 718-8833,
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a proposed and/or continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled the Collaborating Center for Questionnaire Design and Evaluation Research (CCQDER), formerly the Questionnaire Design Research Laboratory (QDRL), generic clearance request, which encompasses general questionnaire development, pre-testing, and measurement-error reduction activities to be carried out in 2018-2020.
CDC must receive written comments on or before April 30, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2018-0014 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Leroy A. Richardson, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
The Collaborating Center for Questionnaire Design and Evaluation Research (CCQDER) (OMB Control Number 0920-0222, Expiration 07/31/2018)—Revision—National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Section 306 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (42 U.S.C. 242k), as amended, authorizes that the Secretary of Health and Human Services (DHHS), acting through NCHS, shall undertake and support (by grant or contract) research, demonstrations, and evaluations respecting new or improved methods for obtaining current data to support statistical and epidemiological activities for the purpose of improving the effectiveness, efficiency, and quality of health services in the United States.
The Collaborating Center for Questionnaire Design and Evaluation Research (CCQDER) is the focal point within NCHS for questionnaire and survey development, pre-testing, and evaluation activities for CDC surveys (such as the NCHS National Health Interview Survey, OMB No. 0920-0214) and other federally sponsored surveys. NCHS is requesting 3 years of OMB Clearance for this generic submission.
The CCQDER and other NCHS programs conduct cognitive interviews, focus groups, in-depth or ethnographic interviews, usability tests, field tests/pilot interviews, and experimental research in laboratory and field settings, both for applied questionnaire development and evaluation as well as more basic research on measurement errors and survey response.
Various techniques to evaluate interviewer administered, self-administered, telephone, Computer Assisted Personal Interviewing (CAPI), Computer Assisted Self-Interviewing (CASI), Audio Computer-Assisted Self-Interviewing (ACASI), and web-based questionnaires are used.
The most common questionnaire evaluation method is the cognitive interview. These evaluations are conducted by the CCQDER. The interview structure consists of respondents first answering a draft survey question and then providing textual information to reveal the processes involved in answering the test question. Specifically, cognitive interview respondents are asked to describe how and why they answered the question as they did. Through the interviewing process, various types of question-response problems that would not normally be identified in a traditional survey interview, such as interpretive errors and recall accuracy, are uncovered. By conducting a comparative analysis of cognitive interviews, it is also possible to determine whether particular interpretive patterns occur within particular sub-groups of the population. Interviews are generally conducted in small rounds totaling 40-100 interviews; ideally, the questionnaire is re-worked between rounds, and revisions are tested iteratively until interviews yield relatively few new insights.
Cognitive interviewing is inexpensive and provides useful data on questionnaire performance while minimizing respondent burden. Cognitive interviewing offers a detailed depiction of meanings and processes used by respondents to answer questions—processes that ultimately produce the survey data. As such, the method offers an insight that can transform understanding of question validity and response error. Documented findings from these studies represent tangible evidence of how the question performs. Such documentation also serves CDC data users, allowing them to be critical users in their approach and application of the data.
In addition to cognitive interviewing, a number of other qualitative and quantitative methods are used to investigate and research measurement errors and the survey response process. These methods include conducting focus groups, usability tests, in-depth or ethnographic interviews, and the administration and analysis of questions in both representative and non-representative field tests. Focus groups are conducted by the CCQDER. They are group interviews whose primary purpose is to elicit the basic sociocultural understandings and terminology that form the basis of questionnaire design. Each group typically consists of one moderator and 4 to 10 participants, depending on the research question. In-depth or ethnographic interviews are one-on-one interviews designed to elicit the understandings or terminology that are necessary for question design, as well as to gather detailed information that can contribute to the analysis of both qualitative and quantitative data. Usability tests are typically one-on-one interviews that are used to determine how a given survey or information collection tool functions in the field, and how the mode and layout of the instrument itself may contribute to survey response error and the survey response process.
In addition to these qualitative methods, NCHS also uses various tools to obtain quantitative data, which can be analyzed alone or analyzed alongside qualitative data to give a much fuller accounting of the survey response process. For instance, phone, internet, mail, and in-person follow-up interviews of previous NCHS survey respondents may be used to test the validity of survey questions and questionnaires and to obtain more detailed information that cannot be gathered on the original survey. Additionally, field or pilot tests may be conducted on both representative and non-representative samples, including those obtained from commercial survey and web panel vendors. Beyond looking at traditional measures of survey errors (such as item missing rates and non-response, and don't know rates), these pilot tests can be used to run experimental designs in order to capture how different questions function in a field setting.
Similar methodology has been adopted by other federal agencies, as well as by academic and commercial survey organizations. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annual burden hours are 23,350.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of charter renewal.
This gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act of October 6, 1972, that the Advisory Committee to the Director (ACD), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services, has been renewed for a 2-year period through February 1, 2020.
Ashley Knotts, MPH, Designated Federal Officer, ACD, CDC, 1600 Clifton Road NE, M/S D-14, Atlanta, Georgia 30329. Telephone (404) 639/7037, Email:
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of charter renewal.
This gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act of October 6, 1972, that the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee (CLIAC), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services, has been renewed for a 2-year period through February 19, 2020.
Nancy Anderson, MMSc, MT(ASCP), Executive Secretary, Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee (CLIAC), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, Mailstop F-11, Atlanta, Georgia 30329-4018, telephone (404) 498-2741;
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) is denying a request for a hearing submitted by Meunerie Sawyerville, Inc. (Meunerie Sawyerville) and is issuing an order under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) debarring Meunerie Sawyerville for 5 years from importing articles of food or offering such articles for import into the United States. FDA bases this order on a finding that Meunerie Sawyerville was convicted of felony offenses for conduct relating to the importation of food into the United States. In determining the appropriateness and period of Meunerie Sawyerville's debarment, FDA has considered the relevant factors listed in the FD&C Act. Meunerie Sawyerville has failed to file with the Agency information and analyses sufficient to create a basis for a hearing concerning this action.
The order is applicable March 1, 2018.
Any application by Meunerie Sawyerville for special termination of debarment under section 306(d) of the FD&C Act (application) may be submitted as follows:
•
• If you want to submit an application with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the application as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For a written/paper application submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your application, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit an application with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your application only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS
Nathan R. Sabel, Office of Scientific Integrity, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 1, Rm. 4206, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-8588.
On November 9, 2015, in the U.S. District Court for the District of Vermont, Meunerie Sawyerville pled guilty to two felony counts related to the importation of food into the United States. Both offenses occurred from on or about September 12, 2012, to on or about January 15, 2013. With respect to Count One, Meunerie Sawyerville admitted to knowingly and intentionally making and using a false writing that contained a materially fictitious statement in a matter within the jurisdiction of the executive branch of the United States government in violation of 18 U.S.C. 1001(a)(3) “by submitting a false Automated Commercial Environment Manifest listing a fictitious importer, namely, Ted Taft, and presenting such documents to Customs and Border Protection [Customs] officials . . . knowing and believing that Ted Taft was not the true importer of the goods” described in the manifest. With respect to Count Two, Meunerie Sawyerville admitted to causing the introduction of an adulterated drug (
Under section 306(b)(1)(C) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 335a(b)(1)(C)), FDA is authorized to debar Meunerie Sawyerville from importing articles of food or offering food for import into the United States based on a finding, under section 306(b)(3)(A) of the FD&C Act, that Meunerie Sawyerville was convicted of a felony for conduct relating to the importation of food into the United States. By letter dated July 21, 2017, the Office of Regulatory Affairs (ORA) notified Meunerie Sawyerville of a proposal to debar it for 5 years from importing articles of food or offering such articles for import into the United States and provided an opportunity for Meunerie Sawyerville to request a hearing. In proposing a debarment period, ORA weighed the considerations in section 306(c)(3) it considered applicable to Meunerie Sawyerville's offenses, concluded that each of these felony offenses independently warranted a 5-year period of debarment, and proposed that these debarment periods be served concurrently under section 306(c)(2)(A). By letter dated August 14, 2017, Meunerie Sawyerville requested a hearing on the proposal.
The Director of the Office of Scientific Integrity (OSI) has reviewed Meunerie Sawyerville's request for a hearing, as well as the materials offered in support, and finds that Meunerie Sawyerville has not established a basis for a hearing because hearings will be granted only if there is a genuine and substantial issue of fact for resolution at a hearing. Hearings will not be granted on issues of policy or law, on mere allegations, denials, or general descriptions of positions and contentions, or on data and information insufficient to justify the factual determination urged (see 21 CFR 12.24(b)). OSI has considered Meunerie Sawyerville's arguments and concludes that they are unpersuasive and fail to raise a genuine and substantial issue of fact requiring a hearing.
Meunerie Sawyerville does not dispute that it is subject to debarment under section 306(b)(1)(C) of the FD&C Act because it committed two felony offenses related to the importation of food. Nor does Meunerie Sawyerville dispute any of ORA's factual findings contained in the proposal to debar. Further, Meunerie Sawyerville does not dispute ORA's conclusion based on these findings that both the nature and seriousness of the offenses and the nature and extent of Meunerie Sawyerville management's participation in the offenses are both considerations favoring debarment.
Against this backdrop, Meunerie Sawyerville argues only: (1) That ORA failed to consider as an applicable factor, under section 306(c)(3)(D) of the FD&C Act, the operational changes Meunerie Sawyerville contends it has made that would prevent it from shipping adulterated animal feed again in the future, specifically, discontinuing the use of monensin in its animal feed, (2) that voluntary mitigation of the offenses should not count as an unfavorable consideration under section 306(c)(3)(C) because Meunerie Sawyerville pled guilty and no specific harm occurred that Meunerie Sawyerville could mitigate, and (3) that debarment is not an appropriate remedy when customers are not defrauded and when debarment would hurt Meunerie Sawyerville's business.
Section 306(c)(3) requires FDA to consider, “where applicable,” certain factors “[i]n determining the appropriateness and the period of debarment” for debarment under section 306(b)(3) of the FD&C Act. The proposal to debar Meunerie Sawyerville set forth five potentially applicable considerations for debarment actions related to food importation imposed under section 306(b)(1)(C): (1) The nature and seriousness of the offense under section 306(c)(3)(A); (2) the nature and extent of management participation in the offense under section 306(c)(3)(B); (3) the nature and extent of voluntary steps taken to mitigate the impact on the public under section 306(c)(3)(C); (4) the extent that ownership, management, or operations changes have corrected the causes of the offense and provide reasonable assurances that the offense will not recur under 306(c)(3)(D); and (5) prior convictions involving matters within the jurisdiction of FDA under section 306(c)(3)(F). In its proposal, ORA found that the first three considerations weigh in favor of debarring Meunerie Sawyerville and noted that the fifth consideration weighs against debarment because the Agency was unaware of any prior convictions involving matters within the jurisdiction of FDA. ORA
Meunerie Sawyerville's now represents that it no longer ships animal feed containing monensin and argues that changes in its operations should be counted as a consideration weighing against debarment under section 306(c)(3)(D). Beyond removing monensin from its production process, Meunerie Sawyerville points to no other changes in ownership, management, or operations that would address the causes of the offenses and provides no other reasonable assurance that the criminal conduct underlying the offenses will not recur. As ORA's proposal finds and Meunerie Sawyerville concedes, the same management remains in charge at Meunerie Sawyerville, including president and owner Yves Bolduc, who Meunerie Sawyerville admits devised and executed the fraudulent scheme forming the basis for the offenses:
[A]fter the medicated feed at issue was sampled at the border, found to contain monensin at a concentration above that allowed by FDA, and the driver was ordered to warehouse the feed pending further testing from FDA, Mr. Bolduc instructed the driver to deliver the feed to a Vermont farmer as planned, without informing the farmer that the feed had been sampled and ordered held by FDA. Mr. Bolduc then engineered a plan that a sham shipment of similar-looking cattle feed cross the border under false Customs documentation to be stored on an unrelated piece of land in Vermont until requested for redelivery by Customs and Border Protection. Upon request by Customs and Border Protection, Mr. Bolduc ordered that the sham shipment be presented for redelivery, accompanied by the fictitious documentation, offering up the sham shipment feed to the U.S. government as the held tainted feed.
Meunerie Sawyerville has admitted to knowingly and intentionally orchestrating this presentation of false documents to Customs as part of a larger scheme to defraud government regulators about the nature of a shipment offered for import and to introducing adulterated product into interstate commerce with the intent to defraud and mislead. Meunerie Sawyerville does not dispute this conduct.
Meunerie Sawyerville also argues in its hearing request that the majority of its business going forward, if Meunerie Sawyerville is not debarred, would involve offering animal feed for import into the United States from Canada, necessarily requiring Meunerie Sawyerville to provide Customs with an ongoing stream of information about its products in the future. As an FDA-regulated product, animal feed can become adulterated in numerous ways, not merely through the addition of too much monensin (see, generally, section 402 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 342)). In addition to adulteration, there are also many other reasons an unscrupulous importer might attempt to deceive Customs. Any regular importer of food will be required to submit import documents to Customs repeatedly that detail the nature, value, quantity, and condition of product offered for import. As a result, simply removing monensin from Meunerie Sawyerville's process does not sufficiently address the causes of the offenses and provides little assurance that Meunerie Sawyerville would handle future food import matters without resorting to the knowing and intentional deception of government regulators and the introduction of adulterated product that forms the basis of these offenses. Therefore, even assuming as true that Meunerie Sawyerville has stopped adding monensin to its animal feed, Meunerie Sawyerville has not sufficiently corrected the causes that resulted in the offenses and has not provided reasonable assurances that these offenses will not recur. As a result, the Director of OSI finds that the consideration in section 306(C)(3)(D) should not be considered as weighing against debarment for these offenses.
Next, Meunerie Sawyerville argues that the nature and extent of steps taken to mitigate the impact of its offenses on the public under section 306(c)(3)(C) of the FD&C Act should be a consideration weighing against debarment. Meunerie Sawyerville argues that there was no evidence that specific members of the public were harmed such that mitigation of that harm was possible and that it pled guilty as the only possible mitigation step. OSI disagrees that Meunerie Sawyerville's actions suggest significant voluntary mitigation of the harm related to the offenses at issue. Although the government exposed Meunerie Sawyerville's offenses in progress and thereby prevented harm to any specific victims for the offenses at issue, other voluntary mitigation efforts were available to Meunerie Sawyerville beyond simply pleading guilty when apprehended. Indeed, with respect to voluntary mitigation for the offense in Count Two, Meunerie Sawyerville devised the fraudulent scheme underlying the offense in Count One to compound, rather than mitigate, its earlier criminal conduct of shipping an adulterated product to its customer in Vermont. Rather than admitting the earlier misconduct to Customs and FDA to mitigate any harm from its earlier tainted shipment and avoid continuing to undermine the government's ability to regulate imports, Meunerie Sawyerville engaged in additional criminal conduct and devised the sham shipment and fictitious documents that formed the basis for the offense in Count One. Further, with respect to Count One itself, because this offense was devised to conceal other criminal conduct, the primary opportunity to mitigate the associated harm to the government's regulatory authority occurred throughout Meunerie Sawyerville's efforts to devise and execute the scheme described in Count One. Rather than take steps to mitigate the harm from the earlier criminal offense, Meunerie Sawyerville chose to take affirmative steps to compound that harm. In this context, Meunerie Sawyerville deserves no credit for a guilty plea when its scheme was uncovered. Therefore, considering the facts and the context of these offenses, the Director of OSI finds that the extent of voluntary efforts to mitigate the impact of these offenses should not be considered in favor of Meunerie Sawyerville under section 306(c)(3)(C).
Lastly, Meunerie Sawyerville argues that debarment is inappropriate as a matter of policy because it would harm Meunerie Sawyerville's business and force its customers to consider other suppliers for their animal feed. As already noted, a hearing will not be granted on issues of policy such as these (see 21 CFR 12.24(b)). Also, the considerations Meunerie Sawyerville raises, such as the impact of debarment on Meunerie Sawyerville's business, are not appropriate considerations under section 306(c)(3) for determining the length of a period of debarment. Finally, the remedial purpose of the debarment statute is designed to accomplish exactly the result to which Meunerie Sawyerville objects by protecting the public from food from importers whose criminal conduct demonstrates, based on the applicable considerations, that they warrant debarment. As such, these arguments do not support Meunerie Sawyerville's request for a hearing on this matter.
Because OSI has assumed as true that Meunerie Sawyerville has discontinued using monensin in its process and Meunerie Sawyerville raises no other arguments that would present genuine and substantial issues of fact that would require resolution at an evidentiary hearing, Meunerie Sawyerville's request for an evidentiary hearing is denied.
Considering all applicable factors under 306(c)(3) of the FD&C Act, OSI concurs with ORA's proposal that a 5-year period of debarment for each offense is warranted. On this record, OSI finds that the nature and seriousness of the offenses and the nature and extent of Meunerie Sawyerville management's participation in the offenses are factors weighing heavily in favor of debarment. For the reasons already discussed, even assuming Meunerie Sawyerville has discontinued using monensin in its operations, OSI finds that operational change insufficient under section 306(c)(3)(D) to demonstrate correction of the causes of these offenses and to provide reasonable assurances that the offenses will not recur. Further, even after taking into account Meunerie Sawyerville's guilty plea under section 306(c)(3)(C), OSI finds that Meunerie Sawyerville's conduct related to this consideration weighs in favor of debarment. Although Meunerie Sawyerville's lack of a prior conviction under 306(c)(3)(F) is a factor weighing against debarment, this consideration is substantially outweighed by the nature and seriousness of the offenses, the nature and extent of management's participation in the offenses, and the nature and extent of voluntary steps to mitigate the impact of the offenses on the public. Therefore, considering all of these factors together and the record as a whole, OSI finds that a 5-year period of debarment is warranted for each offense.
Therefore, the Director of OSI, under section 306(b)(3)(A) of the FD&C Act and under authority delegated to him by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, finds that Meunerie Sawyerville has been convicted of a felony for conduct relating to the importation of food into the United States. FDA has considered the relevant factors listed in section 306(c)(3) of the FD&C Act and determined that a debarment of 5 years is appropriate for each of these felony offenses. These periods will run concurrently under section 306(c)(2)(A). As a result of the foregoing findings, Meunerie Sawyerville is debarred for a period of 5 years from importing articles of food or offering such articles for import into the United States, applicable (see
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by April 2, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Amber Sanford, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-8867,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
This information collection supports Agency guidance regarding staff meetings with the Office of Orphan Products Development (OOPD). Each year, the OOPD staff participates in meetings with stakeholders who seek guidance or clarification relating to orphan drug or humanitarian use device (HUD) designation requests, OOPD grant programs, or other rare disease issues. These meetings can be “informal” or “formal” and help build a common understanding on FDA's thoughts on orphan products, which may include drugs, biological products, devices, or medical foods for a rare disease or condition. These meetings may represent critical points in the orphan product development process and may even have an impact on the eventual availability of products for patients with rare diseases and conditions. It is important that these meetings be scheduled within a reasonable time, conducted effectively, and documented where appropriate.
Topics addressed in this guidance include: (1) Clarification of what constitutes an “informal” or “formal” meeting, (2) program areas within OOPD that may be affected by this draft guidance, (3) procedures for requesting and scheduling meetings with OOPD, (4) description of what constitutes a meeting package, and (5) procedures for the conduct and documentation of meetings with OOPD. This guidance provides consistent procedures to promote well-managed meetings between OOPD and stakeholders.
In the
FDA therefore estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Since the last OMB approval, we have increased our estimate by 832 hours and 229 respondents in parallel to an increase in overall orphan drug designation submissions and the corresponding meeting requests to the OOPD.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance entitled “E6(R2) Good Clinical Practice: Integrated Addendum to E6(R1).” The guidance was prepared under the auspices of the International Council for Harmonisation (ICH), formerly the International Conference on Harmonisation. The guidance amends the guidance entitled “E6 Good Clinical Practice: Consolidated Guidance (E6(R1))” to encourage implementation of improved and more efficient approaches to clinical trial design, conduct, oversight, recording, and reporting, and also updates standards regarding electronic records and essential documents. The guidance is intended to improve clinical trial quality and efficiency, while maintaining human subject protection and reliability of trial results.
The announcement of the guidance is published in the
You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER), Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, or the Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. The guidance may also be obtained by mail by calling CBER at 1-800-835-4709 or 240-402-8010. See the
In recent years, regulatory authorities and industry associations from around the world have participated in many important initiatives to promote international harmonization of regulatory requirements under the ICH. FDA has participated in several ICH
ICH was established to provide an opportunity for harmonization initiatives to be developed with input from both regulatory and industry representatives. FDA also seeks input from consumer representatives and others. ICH is concerned with harmonization of technical requirements for the registration of pharmaceutical products for human use among regulators around the world. The six founding members of the ICH are the European Commission; the European Federation of Pharmaceutical Industries Associations; FDA; the Japanese Ministry of Health, Labour, and Welfare; the Japanese Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association; and the Pharmaceutical Research and Manufacturers of America. The Standing Members of the ICH Association include Health Canada and Swissmedic. Any party eligible as a Member in accordance with the ICH Articles of Association can apply for membership in writing to the ICH Secretariat. The ICH Secretariat, which coordinates the preparation of documentation, operates as an international nonprofit organization and is funded by the Members of the ICH Association.
The ICH Assembly is the overarching body of the Association and includes representatives from each of the ICH members and observers. The Assembly is responsible for the endorsement of draft guidelines and adoption of final guidelines. FDA publishes ICH guidelines as FDA guidance.
In the
After consideration of the comments received and revisions to the guidance, a final draft of the guidance was submitted to the ICH Assembly and endorsed by the regulatory agencies in November 2016.
The guidance discusses approaches to clinical trial design, conduct, oversight, recording, and reporting as well as updated standards regarding electronic records and essential documents. This guidance includes additions to ICH E6(R1) that are identified as “ADDENDUM” and are marked with vertical lines on both sides of the text. The additions to ICH E6(R1) are intended to encourage implementation of the described approaches and processes to improve clinical trial quality and efficiency while maintaining human subject protection and reliability of trial results. Evolutions in technology and risk management processes offer new opportunities to increase clinical trial efficiency, in part by focusing on trial activities essential to ensuring human subject protection and the reliability of trial results. For example, the guidance recommends sponsors implement a system to manage quality throughout clinical trials and recommends sponsors develop a systematic, prioritized, risk-based approach to monitoring clinical trials. The guidance provides additional detail regarding recommendations for use of electronic records and essential documents. The final guidance includes clarifications and additional detail on topics including, for example, validation of computerized systems and centralized monitoring.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “E6(R2) Good Clinical Practice: Integrated Addendum to E6(R1).” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
This guidance contains information collection provisions that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (21 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in this guidance were approved under 0910-0843. This guidance also refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. The collections of information found in 21 CFR part 11 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0303; the collections of information found in 21 CFR part 56 have been approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0755; the collections of information found in 21 CFR part 312 have been approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0014 and 0910-0733; the collections of information found in 21 CFR part 314 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0001; and the collections of information found in 21 CFR part 601 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0338.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the document at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; reopening of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) is reopening a docket for public comment on the susceptibility test interpretive criteria for antibacterial and antifungal drugs provided by FDA on its Susceptibility Test Interpretive Criteria web page (Interpretive Criteria web page) established on December 13, 2017. On the Interpretive Criteria web page, FDA recognizes, in whole or in part, susceptibility test interpretive criteria standards established by Standard Development Organizations (SDOs) and lists other susceptibility test interpretive criteria identified by FDA outside of the SDO process.
This notice is published in the
You may submit either electronic or written comments and information as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments to the docket at any time.
Katherine Schumann, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm. 6242, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-1182,
On December 13, 2017, FDA established the Interpretive Criteria web page (
At least every 6 months after the establishment of the Interpretive Criteria web page, FDA will publish on the Interpretive Criteria web page a notice recognizing new or updated susceptibility test interpretive criteria standards, or parts of standards; withdrawing recognition of susceptibility test interpretive criteria standards, or parts of standards; and making any other necessary updates to the lists published on the Interpretive Criteria web page. Once a year FDA will compile the notices from that year and publish them in the
This
Interested third parties or drug sponsors may provide information that FDA could use as a basis for listing new or for updating susceptibility interpretive criteria. This information should be submitted to Docket No. FDA-2017-N-5925. If comments are received, FDA will review those comments and will make, as necessary, updates to the recognized standards or susceptibility test interpretive criteria.
If preferred, application holders may submit data supporting changes to FDA's susceptibility test interpretive criteria recognition or listing determinations through the application holder's annual report under the new drug application. If submitting this data, application holders are encouraged to identify in the cover letter of the annual report that the enclosed submission includes data supporting changes to FDA's susceptibility test interpretive criteria recognition or listing determinations. FDA will review these annual report submissions and
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Clinical Chemistry and Clinical Toxicology Devices Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to the Agency on FDA's regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public.
The meeting will be held on March 29 and 30, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 6 p.m.
Hilton Washington DC North/Gaithersburg; Salons A, B, C, and D; 620 Perry Pkwy., Gaithersburg, MD 20877. The hotel's telephone number is 301-977-8900. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
Patricio Garcia, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. G610, Silver Spring, MD 20993,
The Eversense CGM System measures patients' glucose concentrations from subcutaneous interstitial fluid similar to approved CGM systems. All CGM devices currently or previously marketed used electrochemistry to measure glucose in interstitial fluids, last for 3 to 11 days and are inserted via a small-gauge needle by the end user. The proposed CGM system uses a fluorescence-based measurement technique, requires minor surgery for subcutaneous implantation, and will have a 90-day sensor wear period. The proposed CGM sensor also includes a drug component (dexamethasone acetate) intended to mitigate negative effects on sensor accuracy and sensor life from the foreign body response at the sensor insertion site. The proposed intended use, as stated by the sponsor, is as follows:
The Eversense CGM System continually measures glucose levels in adults (age 18 and older) with diabetes for the operating life of the sensor.
The system is intended to:
• Aid in the management of diabetes.
• Provide real-time glucose readings.
• Provide glucose trend information.
• Provide alerts for the detection and prediction of episodes of low blood glucose (hypoglycemia) and high blood glucose (hyperglycemia).
The system is a prescription device. Historical data from the system can be interpreted to aid in providing therapy adjustments. These adjustments should be based on patterns seen over time.
On March 30, 2018, the committee will discuss and make recommendations regarding measuring blood glucose using capillary blood with blood glucose meters in all hospital patients, including those receiving intensive medical intervention/therapy and patients with decreased peripheral blood flow, such as with severe hypotension, shock, hyperosmolar-hyperglycemia and severe dehydration (
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact AnnMarie Williams, at
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”), as amended, to determine whether revocation of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on drawn stainless steel sinks from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.
Instituted March 1, 2018. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is April 2, 2018. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by May 14, 2018.
Mary Messer (202-205-3193), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
(1)
(2) The
(3) The
(4) The
(5) The
(6) An
Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Heather Gottry, Senior Counsel for Ethics, at 202-205-3440.
No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 18-5-406, expiration date June 30, 2020. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436.
(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.
(2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the
(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.
(4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on the
(5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the
(6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the
(7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the
(8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the
(9) If you are a U.S. producer of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the
(d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the
(e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the
(10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the
(a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping or countervailing duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of
(b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of
(c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of
(11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of
(12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the
(13) (OPTIONAL) A statement of whether you agree with the above definitions of the
By order of the Commission.
Civil Division, Department of Justice.
Notice; correction.
The Department of Justice, Civil Division, published a document in the
Talitha Guinn-Shaver, 950 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20005, Attn: Civil Communications Office (Attn: Elder Justice Initiative) (Phone: 202-598-0292).
In the
Submit comments on the two specifications on or before April 24, 2018.
In accordance with the Section 223 (19 U.S.C. 2273) of the Trade Act of 1974 (19 U.S.C. 2271,
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for workers of a primary firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for TAA, the group eligibility requirements under Section 222(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2272(a)) must be met, as follows:
(1) The first criterion (set forth in Section 222(a)(1) of the Act, 19 U.S.C. 2272(a)(1)) is that a significant number or proportion of the workers in such workers' firm (or “such firm”) have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated; AND (2)(A) or (2)(B) below.
(2) The second criterion (set forth in Section 222(a)(2) of the Act, 19 U.S.C. 2272(a)(2)) may be satisfied by either (A) the Increased Imports Path, or (B) the Shift in Production or Services to a Foreign Country Path/Acquisition of Articles or Services from a Foreign Country Path, as follows:
(i) the sales or production, or both, of such firm, have decreased absolutely; AND (ii and iii below).
(ii)(I) imports of articles or services like or directly competitive with articles produced or services supplied by such firm have increased; OR
(II)(aa) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles into which one or more component parts produced by such firm are directly incorporated, have increased; OR
(II)(bb) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles which are produced directly using the services supplied by such firm, have increased; OR
(III) imports of articles directly incorporating one or more component parts produced outside the United States that are like or directly competitive with imports of articles incorporating one or more component parts produced by such firm have increased; AND
(iii) the increase in imports described in clause (ii) contributed importantly to such workers' separation or threat of separation and to the decline in the sales or production of such firm; OR
(i)(I) there has been a shift by such workers' firm to a foreign country in the production of articles or the supply of services like or directly competitive with articles which are produced or services which are supplied by such firm; OR
(II) such workers' firm has acquired from a foreign country articles or services that are like or directly competitive with articles which are produced or services which are supplied by such firm; AND
(ii) the shift described in clause (i)(I) or the acquisition of articles or services
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected secondary workers of a firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for TAA, the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2272(b)) must be met, as follows:
(1) A significant number or proportion of the workers in the workers' firm or an appropriate subdivision of the firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated; AND
(2) the workers' firm is a supplier or downstream producer to a firm that employed a group of workers who received a certification of eligibility under Section 222(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2272(a)), and such supply or production is related to the article or service that was the basis for such certification (as defined in subsection 222(c)(3) and (4) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2272(c)(3) and (4)); AND
(3) either—
(A) the workers' firm is a supplier and the component parts it supplied to the firm described in paragraph (2) accounted for at least 20 percent of the production or sales of the workers' firm; OR
(B) a loss of business by the workers' firm with the firm described in paragraph (2) contributed importantly to the workers' separation or threat of separation determined under paragraph (1).
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected workers in firms identified by the International Trade Commission and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for TAA, the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(e) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2272(e))must be met, by following criteria (1), (2), and (3) as follows:
(1) The workers' firm is publicly identified by name by the International Trade Commission as a member of a domestic industry in an investigation resulting in—
(A) an affirmative determination of serious injury or threat thereof under section 202(b)(1) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2252(b)(1)); OR
(B) an affirmative determination of market disruption or threat thereof under section 421(b)(1)of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2436(b)(1)); OR
(C) an affirmative final determination of material injury or threat thereof under section 705(b)(1)(A) or 735(b)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b)(1)(A) and 1673d(b)(1)(A)); AND
(2) the petition is filed during the 1-year period beginning on the date on which—
(A) a summary of the report submitted to the President by the International Trade Commission under section 202(f)(1) of the Trade Act (19 U.S.C. 2252(f)(1)) with respect to the affirmative determination described in paragraph (1)(A) is published in the
(B) notice of an affirmative determination described in subparagraph (B) or (C) of paragraph (1) is published in the
(3) the workers have become totally or partially separated from the workers' firm within—
(A) the 1-year period described in paragraph (2); OR
(B) notwithstanding section 223(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 2273(b)), the 1-year period preceding the 1-year period described in paragraph (2).
The following certifications have been issued. The date following the company name and location of each determination references the impact date for all workers of such determination.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(A) (Increased Imports Path) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(B) (Shift in Production or Services to a Foreign Country Path or Acquisition of Articles or Services from a Foreign Country Path) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(b) (supplier to a firm whose workers are certified eligible to apply for TAA) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(e) (firms identified by the International Trade Commission) of the Trade Act have been met.
In the following cases, the investigation revealed that the eligibility criteria for TAA have not been met for the reasons specified.
The investigation revealed that the requirements of Trade Act section 222(a)(1) and (b)(1) (significant worker total/partial separation or threat of total/partial separation), or (e) (firms identified by the International Trade Commission), have not been met.
The investigation revealed that the criteria under paragraphs(a)(2)(A) (increased imports), (a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services to a foreign country or acquisition of articles or services from a foreign country), (b)(2) (supplier to a firm whose workers are certified eligible to apply for TAA or downstream producer to a firm whose workers are certified eligible to apply for TAA), and (e) (International Trade Commission) of section 222 have not been met.
After notice of the petitions was published in the
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitioner has requested that the petition be withdrawn.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued in cases where the petition regarding the investigation has been deemed invalid.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the worker group on whose behalf the petition was filed is covered under an existing certification.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitioning group of workers is covered by an earlier petition that is the subject of an ongoing investigation for which a determination has not yet been issued.
I hereby certify that the aforementioned determinations were issued during the period of
Petitions have been filed with the Secretary of Labor under Section 221(a) of the Trade Act of 1974 (“the Act”) and are identified in the Appendix to this notice. Upon receipt of these petitions, the Director of the Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Employment and Training Administration, has instituted investigations pursuant to Section 221(a) of the Act.
The purpose of each of the investigations is to determine whether the workers are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Title II, Chapter 2, of the Act. The investigations will further relate, as appropriate, to the determination of the date on which total or partial separations began or threatened to begin and the subdivision of the firm involved.
The petitioners or any other persons showing a substantial interest in the subject matter of the investigations may request a public hearing provided such request is filed in writing with the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, no later than March 12, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments regarding the subject matter of the investigations to the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, not later than March 12, 2018.
The petitions filed in this case are available for inspection at the Office of the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Employment and Training Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-5428, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
Office of the Secretary, DOL.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Wage and Hour Division (WHD) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Requirements of a Bona Fide Thrift or Savings Plan and Requirements of a Bona Fide Profit-Sharing Plan or Trust,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before April 2, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-WHD, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Requirements of a Bona Fide Thrift or Savings Plan and Requirements of a Bona Fide Profit-Sharing Plan or Trust information collection. The information collection requirements apply to employers claiming the overtime exemption available under Fair Labor Standards Act section 7(e)(3)(b), 29 U.S.C. 207(e)(3)(b). Specifically, in calculating an employee's regular rate of pay, an employer need not include contributions made to a bona fide thrift or savings plan or a bona fide profit-sharing plan or trust—as defined in regulations 29 CFR parts 547 and 549. An employer is required to communicate, or to make available to its employees, the terms of the bona fide thrift, savings, or profit-sharing plan or trust and to retain certain records. Fair Labor Standards Act section 11(c) authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Powered Industrial Trucks Standard,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before April 2, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation;
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Powered Industrial Trucks Standard information collection. The Standard contains several information collection requirements addressing truck design, construction, and modification, as well as certification of training and evaluation for truck operators. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 sections 2(b)(9), 6(b)(7), and 8(c) authorize this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Office of Disability Employment Policy (ODEP) sponsored information collection request (ICR) proposal titled, “Survey of Employer Policies on the Employment of People with Disabilities,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995. Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before April 2, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ODEP, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129 (this is not a toll-free number) or by email at
This ICR seeks PRA authority for the Survey of Employer Policies on the Employment
This proposed information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information if the collection of information does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (OWCP) sponsored information collection request (ICR) revision titled, “Representative Payee Report, Representative Payee Report Short Form, and Physician's/Medical Officer's Statement,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995. Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before April 2, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL—OWCP, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or sending an email to
This ICR seeks approval under the PRA for revisions to the Representative Payee Report, Representative Payee Report Short Form, and Physician's/Medical Officer's Statement. Benefits due to a DOL black lung beneficiary are paid to a representative payee on behalf of the beneficiary when he or she is unable to manage the benefits due to incapability or incompetence or because the beneficiary is a minor. The Representative Payee Report (Form CM-623) and Representative Payee Report Short Form (Form CM-623S) are used to ensure that benefits paid to a representative payee are used for the beneficiary's well-being. The Physician's/Medical Officer's Statement (Form CM-787) is used to determine the beneficiary's capability to manage monthly black lung benefits. This
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Telephone Point of Purchase Survey,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995. Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before April 2, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL—BLS, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or sending an email to
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Telephone Point of Purchase Survey (TPOPS) information collection. The BLS administers the survey quarterly via a computer-assisted-telephone-interview. This survey is flexible and creates the possibility of introducing new products into the CPI in a timely manner. The data collected in this survey are necessary for the continuing construction of a current outlet universe from which locations are selected for the price collection needed for calculating the CPI. Furthermore, the TPOPS provides the weights used in selecting the items that are priced at these establishments. This sample design produces an overall CPI market basket that is more reflective of the prices faced and the establishments visited by urban consumers. The BLS Authorizing Statute authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Institute of Museum and Library Services, National Foundation for the Arts and the Humanities.
Notice, request for comments on this collection of information.
The Institute of Museum and Library Services (IMLS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This pre-clearance consultation program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. By this notice, IMLS is soliciting comments concerning a plan to continue the IMLS Grants to States Program “Five Year State Plan Guidelines” instructions. Each SLAA must submit a plan that details library services goals for a five-year period to receive funding.
A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the addressee section below on or before April 27, 2018.
IMLS is particularly interested in comments that help the agency to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques, or other forms of information technology,
Send comments to: Dr. Sandra Webb, Director, Office of Grant Policy and Management, Institute of Museum and Library Services, 955 L'Enfant Plaza North SW, Suite 4000, Washington, DC 20024-2135. Dr. Webb can be reached by Telephone: 202-653-4718, Fax: 202-653-4608, or by email at
The Institute of Museum and Library Services is the primary source of federal support for the nation's approximately 120,000 libraries and 35,000 museums and related organizations. Our mission is to inspire libraries and museums to advance innovation, lifelong learning, and cultural and civic engagement. Our grant making, policy development, and research help libraries and museums deliver valuable services that make it possible for communities and individuals to thrive. To learn more, visit
This action is to renew the forms and instructions for the IMLS Grants to States Program “Five Year State Plan Guidelines” for the next three years.
The Grants to States program is the largest source of Federal funding support for library services in the U.S. Using a population based formula, more than $150 million is distributed among the State Library Administrative Agencies (SLAAs) every year. SLAAs are official agencies charged by law with the extension and development of library services, and they are located in:
• Each of the 50 States of the United States, and the District of Columbia;
• The Territories (the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands); and
• The Freely Associated States (the Republic of the Marshall Islands, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Republic of Palau).
Each year, over 1,500 Grants to States projects support the purposes and priorities outlined in the Library Services and Technology Act (LSTA). (See 20 U.S.C. 9121
Dr. Sandra Webb, Director, Grant Policy and Management, Institute of Museum and Library Services, 955 L'Enfant Plaza North SW, Suite 4000, Washington, DC 20024-2135. Dr. Webb can be reached by Telephone: 202-653-4718, Fax: 202-653-4608, or by email at
National Endowment for the Arts, National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities.
Notice of proposed collection; comment request.
The National Endowment for the Arts (NEA), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This program helps to ensure that requested data is provided in the desired format; reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized; collection instruments are clearly understood; and the impact of collection requirements on respondents is properly assessed. Currently, the NEA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection of NEA panelist profile data. A copy of the current information collection request can be obtained by contacting the office listed below in the address section of this notice.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the address section below within 60 days from the date of this publication in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Can help the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the electronic submission of responses.
Email comments to Jillian Miller, Director, Office of Guidelines and Panel Operations, National Endowment for the Arts, at:
Jillian Miller, Director of Guidelines and Panel Operations, National Endowment for the Arts, at
Office of the Inspector General, National Science Foundation.
Notice of a modified system of records; correction.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) published a document in the
In the
Delete in entirety the following: 11. Disclosure may be made to a congressional office from the record of an individual in response to an inquiry from the congressional office made at the request of that individual.
Renumber the previously numbered paragraphs 12, 13, and 14 to 11, 12, and 13 respectively.
On page 6882, in the third column please correct the following:
Insert the words “the outcomes of” into routine use 14 so that it reads “This use not only advances overall transparency, but, by keeping complainants and victims informed about the outcomes of cases in which they are involved, it will encourage individuals to come forward and to cooperate in future investigations.”
Dorothy Aronson, Acting Senior Agency Official for Privacy, Office of the Director, 2415 Eisenhower Ave., Alexandria, VA 22314, or
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is considering issuance of amendments to Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. DPR-70 and DPR-75, issued to PSEG Nuclear, LLC, for operation of the Salem Nuclear Generating Station, Unit Nos. 1 and 2, respectively. The proposed amendments would revise Technical Specification (TS) actions for rod position indicators.
Submit comments by April 2, 2018. Requests for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene must be filed by April 30, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Carleen J. Parker, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1603; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0039 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2018-0039 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
The NRC is considering issuance of amendments to Renewed Facility Operating License Nos. DPR-70 and DPR-75, issued to PSEG Nuclear LLC, for operation of the Salem Nuclear Generating Station, Unit Nos. 1 and 2, located in Salem County, New Jersey.
The proposed amendments would revise TS actions for rod position indicators. The proposed amendments would modify the TS-allowed outage time for more than one inoperable analog rod position indicator from 1 hour to 24 hours and change the basis for entry into the TS actions for inoperable rod position indicators from “per bank” to “per group.” The proposed amendments would also separate existing TS 3.1.3.2.1 Action a.1 into two separate actions and would remove the duplicative Action b (Unit No. 1 only).
Before any issuance of the proposed license amendments, the NRC will need to make the findings required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and NRC's regulations.
The NRC has made a proposed determination that the license amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration. Under the NRC's regulations in title 10 of the
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Rod position indication instrumentation is not an accident initiator, providing indication only of the control and shutdown rods positions. Normal operation, abnormal occurrences and accident analyses assume the rods are at certain positions within the reactor core. The proposed changes modify the time that rod position indication may be inoperable and provide appropriate actions to compensate for that inoperability. Thus, these changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability of an accident.
Extending the allowed outage time to restore inoperable rod position indicators does not affect the operability of the shutdown or control rods. With rod position indicators inoperable, the position of non-indicating rods is required to be verified using the movable incore detectors or the power distribution monitoring system. Thus, inoperable rod position indication instrumentation does not involve an increase in the consequences of an accident.
Therefore, these proposed changes do not represent a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of
The proposed change does not alter the design, function, or operation of any plant component and does not install any new or different equipment. The proposed changes will not impose any new or different requirement or introduce a new accident initiator, accident precursor, or malfunction mechanism.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed changes involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Loss of rod position indication does not cause a rod to be misaligned. With rod position indicators inoperable, the position of non-indicating rods is required to be verified using the movable incore detectors or the power distribution monitoring system. The proposed changes will not affect the ability of the shutdown or control rods to perform their required function.
The proposed amendment will not result in a design basis or safety limit being exceeded or altered. Therefore, since the proposed changes do not impact the response of the plant to a design basis accident, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the license amendment request involves a no significant hazards consideration.
The NRC is seeking public comments on this proposed determination that the license amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendments until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendments before expiration of the 60-day notice period if the Commission concludes the amendments involve no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendments prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period if circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example, in derating or shutdown of the facility. If the Commission takes action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's website at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309(d) the petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements for standing: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner, (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding, (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding, and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.309(f), the petition must also set forth the specific contentions that the petitioner seeks to have litigated in the proceeding. Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner must provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion that supports the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petition must also provide references to the specific sources and documents on which the petitioner intends to rely to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant or licensee on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions must be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy the requirements of 10 CFR 2.309(f) with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene. Parties have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that party's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Petitions and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the deadline will not be entertained, absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii). The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document.
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to establish when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendments and make them immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing would take place after issuance of the amendments. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of the amendments unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the
If a hearing is granted, any person who is not a party to the proceeding and is not affiliated with or represented by a party may, at the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of his or her position on the issues but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition), any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities that request to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions may be found in the Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC and on the NRC website at
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public website at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public website at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing adjudicatory documents in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For further details with respect to this action, see the application for license amendment dated February 8, 2018.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning negotiated service agreements. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
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2.
This Notice will be published in the
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on February 23, 2018, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
On August 15, 2017, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange” or “Cboe”) filed with
On November 22, 2017, the Exchange submitted Amendment No. 1 to the proposed rule change.
Currently, position limits for options on ETFs such as those subject to the proposal, as amended,
In the proposal, as amended, the Exchange proposes to revise Interpretation and Policy .07 to Exchange Rule 4.11 to increase the position limits for options on certain ETFs, as described more fully below. The Exchange states its belief that increasing the position limits for these options will lead to a more liquid and competitive market environment for these options that will benefit customers interested in these products.
First, the Exchange proposes to increase the position limits for options on FXI, EFA, EWZ, TLT, and EWJ, each of which fall into the highest standard tier set forth in Rule 4.11. The Exchange proposes to increase the current position limit of 250,000 contracts for options on these securities to 500,000 contracts.
In addition, the Exchange proposes to increase the position limits for options on EEM and IWM from 500,000 contracts to 1,000,000 contracts.
Finally, the Exchange proposes to increase the position limits for options on QQQQ from 900,000 contracts to 1,800,000 contracts.
The Commission notes that the lack of position limits for SPY is currently subject to a pilot program.
The Exchange states that the current position limits for the options subject to the proposal have inhibited the ability of Market Makers to make markets on the Exchange.
With regard to the concerns that position limits generally are meant to address, the Exchange represents that “the structure of the [ETFs] subject to this proposal and the considerable liquidity of the market for options on those [ETFs] diminishes the opportunity to manipulate [these] product[s] and disrupt the underlying market[s] that a lower position limit may protect against.”
In addition, in Amendment No. 1 the Exchange states that (i) some of the subject ETFs (and the ETN that was originally subject to the proposal) are based on broad-based indices that underlie cash-settled options that are economically equivalent to the relevant ETF and have no position limits; and (ii) others are based on broad-based indices that underlie cash-settled options with position limits reflecting a notional value that is larger than the current position limit for their ETF analogue.
As noted, in Amendment No. 2, the Exchange withdrew options on VXX from the subject of the proposal, stating that, “doing so will allow the Exchange to provide the Commission with additional support for increasing the options on the VXX's position limits, which it expects to do through a separate proposed rule change to be submitted at a later date.”
The Exchange also refers to other provisions in its rules, noting, for example, that the options reporting requirements of Exchange Rule 4.13 would continue to be applicable to the options subject to the proposal.
The Exchange also represents that the existing surveillance procedures and reporting requirements at the Exchange, other options exchanges, and at the several clearing firms are capable of properly identifying unusual and/or illegal trading activity.
The Exchange also argues that the current financial requirements imposed by the Exchange and by the Commission adequately address concerns that a TPH or its customer may try to maintain an inordinately large unhedged position in the options subject to this proposal.
As noted above, the Commission published an Order Instituting Proceedings to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1.
The Commission received one comment letter in response to the Order Instituting Proceedings.
The Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
Position and exercise limits serve as a regulatory tool designed to address manipulative schemes and adverse market impact surrounding the use of options. Since the inception of standardized options trading, the options exchanges have had rules limiting the aggregate number of options contracts that a member or customer may hold or exercise.
Over the years, the Commission has taken a gradual, evolutionary approach toward expansion of position and exercise limits for option products
After careful consideration of the proposal, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, and the comment received, the Commission believes that it is reasonable for the Exchange to increase the position and exercise limits for options on FXI, EFA, EWZ, TLT, and EWJ to 500,000 contracts, for options on EEM and IWM to 1,000,000 contracts, and for options on QQQQ to 1,800,000 contracts. As noted above, the markets for standardized options on these securities and for the underlying products themselves have substantial trading volume and liquidity. The Commission believes that this liquidity would reduce the possibility of manipulating these products and the disruption in the underlying markets that lower position limits may protect against.
The Commission also has considered the creation and redemption process for the ETFs subject to the modified proposal; the existence of an issuer arbitrage mechanism that helps keep the ETF's price in line with the value of its underlying portfolio when overpriced or trading at a discount to the securities on which it is based; and how these processes serve to mitigate the potential price impact of the ETF shares that might otherwise result from increased position limits.
In addition, as discussed above, the Exchange believes that current margin and net capital requirements serve to limit the size of positions maintained by any one account.
The Commission further agrees with the Exchange that the reporting requirements imposed by Exchange Rule 4.13,
In sum, given the measure of liquidity for the options subject to this proposal and the underlying products, the creation and redemption process and issuer arbitrage mechanisms that exist relating to the underlying instruments, the margin and capital requirements cited above, the Exchange's options reporting requirements, and the Exchange's surveillance procedures and agreements with other markets, the Commission believes that increasing the position and exercise limits for FXI, EFA, EWZ, TLT, and EWJ options to 500,000 contracts, EEM and IWM options to 1,000,000 contracts, and QQQQ options to 1,800,000 contracts is consistent with the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning whether Amendment No. 2 is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, prior to the thirtieth day after the date of publication of notice of the filing of Amendment No. 2 in the
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend Exchange Rule 21.1(c) to further align the Exchange's rules with the Rule 21.1(c) of Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX Options”), an options platform affiliated with the Exchange.
The following definitions apply to Chapter XXI for the trading of options listed on EDGX Options.
(a)-(b) (No change).
(c) The term “Order” shall mean a single order submitted to the System by a User and shall include both Attributable and Non-Attributable Orders, as defined below. The System shall treat all Orders as
(1)-(2) (No change).
(d)-(i) (No change).
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Exchange Rule 21.1(c) to further align the Exchange's rules with the Rule 21.1(c) of Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX Options”), an options platform affiliated with the Exchange.
Pursuant to EDGX Options Rule 21.1(c) the default treatment on EDGX Options is that an order is an Attributable Order unless a User directs otherwise. This is the opposite of BZX Options, which provides that the default treatment is that an order is a Non-Attributable Order unless a User directs otherwise. In order to align the Exchange's rules with BZX Options rules the Exchange seeks to amend EDGX Options Rule 21.1(c) to provide that an order is a Non-Attributable Order unless a User directs otherwise.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The proposed rule change does not propose to implement new or unique functionality that has not been previously filed with the Commission. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule text is based on BZX Options Rule 21.1(c). The proposed rule change is intended to further align BZX Options Rule 21.1(c) with the rules of BZX Options in order to provide consistent functionality across the Exchange and its affiliate. More consistent functionality between the Exchange and BZX Options will reduce complexity and may help to avoid potential confusion by Users of the Exchange that are also participants on BZX Options. As such, the proposed rule change will foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities and will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and national market system.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposal will provide consistent functionality between EDGX Options and BZX Options, thereby potentially reducing complexity and providing improvements to rules to avoid potential confusion by Users of the Exchange that are also participants on BZX Options. As noted elsewhere in the proposal, the Exchange is not proposing any new or unique functionality that has not been previously filed with the Commission. Thus, the Exchange does not believe the proposal creates any significant impact on competition.
No comments were solicited or received on the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission may designate it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 1082, as described below.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposal is to update Rule 1082. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to delete Rule 1082(a)(ii)(B)(2), which is obsolete, because the Phlx XL system no longer operates. It was replaced by Phlx XL II.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposal will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposal to delete an obsolete provision of Rule 1082 will not impact competition because the proposal is not designed to address competitive issues, but rather to render the Exchange's Rulebook accurate and current.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-Phlx-2018-16 and should be submitted on or before March 22, 2018.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to adopt new order type protections, Butterfly and Box Spread protections, for Complex Order
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to adopt Complex Order protections for butterfly and box spreads, which are Complex Order strategies. Today, Phlx members may submit butterfly and box spreads into the Phlx System. Phlx proposes to define a butterfly spread as a three legged Complex Order with certain characteristics.
As noted above, the Exchange proposes to adopt a Butterfly Spread Protection. A butterfly spread is a three legged Complex Order with the following: (1) Two legs to buy (sell) the same number of calls (puts); (2) one leg to sell (buy) twice the number of calls (puts) with a strike price at mid-point of the two legs to buy (sell); (3) all legs have the same expiration; and (4) each leg strike price is equidistant from the next sequential strike price. With this protection, a Complex Order, including auction and auction responses, that is priced higher than the Maximum Value (defined below) or lower than the Minimum Value (defined below) will be cancelled. A Complex Market Order will be accepted, but will be restricted from trading at a price higher than the Maximum Value or lower than the Minimum Value.
The Initial Maximum Value shall be the distance between the leg with the mid-point strike price and either of the outer leg strike prices. The Maximum Value Buffer is the lesser of a configurable absolute dollar value or percentage of the Initial Maximum Value set by the Exchange and announced via a notice to members. The Exchange intends to set the Maximum Value Buffer at zero initially. The Maximum Value is calculated by adding the Initial Maximum Value and Maximum Value Buffer.
The Initial Minimum Value shall be zero. The Minimum Value Buffer is a configurable absolute dollar value set by the Exchange and announced via a notice to members. The Exchange intends to set the Minimum Value Buffer at zero initially. The Exchange would monitor the zero value, including feedback from market participants, in determining whether the value is set at the appropriate level. The concern would set [sic] from market participants who are unable to close out positions. The Minimum Value is calculated by subtracting the Minimum Value Buffer from the Initial Minimum Value of zero. There are circumstances were [sic] the Minimum Value Buffer [sic] may be less than zero. For example, market participants who desire to trade out of positions at intrinsic value may not find a contra-side willing to trade without a premium. A small incremental allowance outside of the minimum/maximum value allows for a small premium to offset commissions associated with trading and may incentivize participants to take the other side of spreads trading at intrinsic value. For the participant looking to close out their position, it may be financially beneficial to pay a small premium and close out the position rather than carry such position to expiration and take delivery. The Butterfly Spread Protection would apply throughout the trading day, including pre-market, during the Opening Process and during Halts. Below is an example of the application of this protection.
Assume the following Complex Order legs for a butterfly spread:
An incoming order to buy the spread defined above for 10.10 will be cancelled because the purchase price of 10.10 is greater than the Maximum Value of 10.00.
Assume the following Complex Order legs for a butterfly spread:
An incoming order to buy the spread defined above for 10.05 will be accepted and executed against the simple market because the purchase price of 10.05 is equal to the Maximum Value 10.05.
As noted above, the Exchange proposes to adopt a Box Spread Protection. A box spread is a four legged Complex Order with the following: (1) One pair of legs with the same strike price with one leg to buy a call (put) and one leg to sell a put (call); (2) a second pair of legs with a different strike price from the pair described in (1) with one leg to sell a call (put) and one leg to buy a put (call); (3) all legs have the same expiration; and (4) all legs have equal volume. With this protection, Complex Orders, including auction and auction responses that are priced higher than the Maximum Value or lower than the Minimum Value, will be cancelled. A Complex Market Order will be accepted but will be restricted from trading at a price higher than the Maximum Value or lower than the Minimum Value.
The Initial Maximum Value shall be the distance between the strike prices of each pair of leg strike prices. The Maximum Value Buffer is the lesser of a configurable absolute dollar value or percentage of the Initial Maximum Value set by the Exchange and announced via a notice to members. The Exchange intends to set the Maximum Value Buffer at zero initially. The Maximum Value is calculated by adding the Initial Maximum Value and Maximum Value Buffer.
The Initial Minimum Value shall be zero. The Initial Minimum Value Buffer is a configurable absolute dollar value set by the Exchange and announced via a notice to members. The Exchange intends to set the Minimum Value Buffer at zero initially. The Minimum Value is calculated by subtracting the Minimum Value Buffer from the Initial Minimum Value of zero.
The Box Spread Protection would apply throughout the trading day, including pre-market, during the Opening Process and during Halts. Below is an example of the application of this protection.
Assume the following Complex Order pairs for a box spread:
An incoming order to buy the spread defined above for 10.10 will be cancelled because the purchase price of 10.10 is greater than the Maximum Value of 10.00.
Assume the following Complex Order pairs for a box spread:
An incoming order to sell the spread defined above for −0.05 will be accepted and executed against the simple market because the purchase price of −0.05 is equal than the Minimum Value of −0.05.
The Exchange would implement these new protections no later than August 30, 2018. The Exchange would notify members of the exact implementation date by issuing a notice to members.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the parameters described herein, including parameters which will be configured by the Exchange, will protect members from executing orders too far outside the Minimum Value and Maximum Value which considers the intrinsic value of the strategy, thereby promoting fair and orderly markets and the protection of investors. The Exchange intends to offer
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, the proposal does not impose an intra-market burden on competition, because it will apply to all Complex Orders which are either butterfly or box spreads entered by any Phlx member. Further, the proposal will not impose an undue burden on inter-market competition, rather the proposal will assist the Exchange in remaining competitive in light of protections offered by other options exchanges.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice; correction.
On February 23, 2018, notice was published on page 8146 of the
Applicable February 23, 2018.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the person known as Jund al-Khilafah in Tunisia, also known as ISIS-Tunisia, also known as ISIS-Tunisia Province, also known as Soldiers of the Caliphate, also known as Jund al-Khilafa, also known as Jund al Khilafah, also known as Jund al-Khilafah fi Tunis, also known as Soldiers of the Caliphate in Tunisia, also known as Tala I Jund al-Khilafah, also known as Vanguards of the Soldiers of the Caliphate, also known as Daesh Tunisia, also known as Ajnad, committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice and request for applications.
The Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) is establishing a new four-year charter term and accepting applications from qualified individuals interested in serving as a member of the Intergovernmental Policy Advisory Committee on Trade (IGPAC). The IGPAC is a trade advisory committee that provides general policy advice and guidance to the United States Trade Representative on issues involving trade and development that have a significant relationship to the affairs of U.S. state and local governments.
USTR will accept nominations on a rolling basis for membership on the IGPAC for the four-year charter term beginning in April 2018. To ensure consideration before the new charter term, you should submit you application by March 28, 2018.
Cameron Seward, Director for Intergovernmental Affairs and Public Engagement,
Section 135(c)(1) of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2155(c)(1)), authorizes the President to establish individual general trade policy advisory committees for industry, labor, agriculture, services, investment, defense, small business, and other interests, as appropriate, to provide general policy advice. The President delegated that authority to the United States Trade Representative in Executive Order 11846, section 4(d), issued on March 27, 1975. Advisory committees established by the Trade Representative are subject to the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act.
Pursuant to these authorities, the United States Trade Representative intends to establish a new four-year charter term for the IGPAC, which will begin on April 4, 2018 and end on April 3, 2022.
The IGPAC is a discretionary trade advisory committee established to provide general policy advice to the United States Trade Representative on issues involving trade and development that have a significant relationship to the affairs of U.S. state and local governments. More specifically, the IGPAC provides general policy advice on issues that may affect U.S. state and local governments including: (1) Negotiating objectives and bargaining positions before entering into trade agreements; (2) the impact of the implementation of trade agreements; (3) matters concerning the operation of any trade agreement once entered into; and (4) other matters arising in connection with the development, implementation, and administration of the trade policy of the United States.
The IGPAC meets as needed, at the call of the United States Trade Representative or his/her designee, or two-thirds of the IGPAC members, depending on various factors such as the level of activity of trade negotiations and the needs of the United States Trade Representative.
The IGPAC is composed of not more than 35 members who have expertise in general trade, investment and development issues and are appointed from U.S. states and localities, and other non-Federal governmental entities. Members represent the executive and legislative branches of state, county, and municipal governments and may hold elective or appointive office.
The United States Trade Representative appoints all IGPAC members for a term of four-years or until the IGPAC charter expires, and they serve at his/her discretion. Individuals can be reappointed for any number of terms. The United States Trade Representative makes appointments without regard to political affiliation and with an interest in fostering geographical diversity.
IGPAC members serve without either compensation or reimbursement of expenses. Members are responsible for all expenses they incur to attend meetings or otherwise participate in IGPAC activities.
The United States Trade Representative appoints IGPAC members to represent the executive and legislative branches of state, county, and municipal governments. USTR anticipates that virtually all members will serve in a representative capacity
USTR is soliciting nominations for membership on the IGPAC. To apply for membership, an applicant must meet the following eligibility criteria:
1. The applicant must be a U.S. citizen.
2. The applicant cannot be a full-time employee of a U.S. governmental entity.
3. The applicant cannot be registered with the U.S. Department of Justice under the Foreign Agents Registration Act.
4. The applicant must be able to obtain and maintain a security clearance.
5. For representative members, who will comprise the overwhelming majority of the IGPAC, the applicant must represent the executive and legislative branches of state, county, and municipal governments.
6. For members who will serve in an individual capacity, the applicant must possess subject matter expertise on issues involving trade and development that have a significant relationship to the affairs of U.S. state and local governments. If serving in an individual capacity, the applicant cannot be a federally registered lobbyist.
In order to be considered for IGPAC membership, interested persons should submit the following to Cameron Seward at
• Name, title, affiliation, and contact information of the individual requesting consideration.
• If applicable, a letter on the organization's letterhead from the sponsoring executive or legislative branch of a state, county, or municipal government, containing a brief description of the manner in which international trade affects the state, county, or municipality and why USTR should consider the applicant for membership.
• The applicant's personal resume or comprehensive biography.
• An affirmative statement that the applicant and the organization he or she represents meet all eligibility requirements.
USTR will consider applicants who meet the eligibility criteria based on the following factors: Ability to represent the sponsoring executive or legislative branch of a state, county, or municipal government; knowledge of and experience in trade matters relevant to the work of the IGPAC and USTR; and fostering balanced in terms of points of view and geography.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of public meeting.
NHTSA is announcing a public meeting where the agency's Vehicle Safety Research and Behavioral Safety Research offices will present information on activities related to priority research programs in vehicle and behavioral safety, including a focused overview session on NHTSA's research in Automated Driving Systems (ADSs). Representatives from multiple research offices will present the research program area activities, near-term expected deliverables, and accept questions from the audience at the end.
NHTSA will hold the public meeting on March 16, 2018 from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Eastern Standard Time. Check-in (through security) will begin at 7:30 a.m. Attendees should arrive early enough to enable them to go through security by 8:30 a.m. The public docket will remain open until April 2, 2018.
The public meeting will be held at the DOT headquarters building located at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590 (Green Line Metro Station at Navy Yard) in the [West Building Atrium]. This facility is accessible to individuals with disabilities. The meeting will also be webcast live, and a link to the webcast will be made available to registrants prior to the event.
If you have questions about the public meeting, please contact Lisa Floyd at 202-366-4697, by email at
NHTSA DOT is committed to providing equal access to this meeting for all participants. If you need an accommodation because of a disability, please contact Lisa Floyd at 202-366-4697, or via email at
NHTSA will conduct the public meeting informally, and technical rules of evidence will not apply. We will arrange for a written transcript of the meeting and keep the official record open for 30 days after the meeting to allow submission of supplemental information. You may make arrangements to obtain copies of the transcript directly with the court reporter, and the transcript will also be posted in the docket when it becomes available.
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The public meeting is intended to provide public outreach regarding the priority research activities at NHTSA for both vehicle and behavioral safety, including expected near-term deliverables. One of the key priority program areas for NHTSA's Vehicle Safety Research is Automated Driving Systems; thus, the public meeting will allocate dedicated time to discuss research in this program area.
For each of the areas of discussion at this public meeting, NHTSA will briefly discuss the work underway and allow time to answer questions from participants.
The agency invites comments on the information presented regarding research priorities, research goals, and additional research gaps/needs the public may believe NHTSA should be addressing. Slides presented at the public meeting will be posted to the docket subsequently. The webcast will also be made available for off-line viewing after the public meeting.
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated by 49 CFR 1.95.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of public meeting.
NHTSA is announcing a public meeting as part of the Agency's initiative to combat drug-impaired driving on U.S. roads. NHTSA is holding this public meeting to facilitate a national dialogue on best practices, lessons learned, and to develop a call-to-action with short-, mid-, and long-term plans to address drug-impaired driving in the U.S. NHTSA is bringing together key stakeholders—including safety partners; state and local officials; data and policy experts; law enforcement and criminal justice professionals; toxicologists; drug recognition experts; and others—to join the DOT in setting a course of action and taking measurable steps to address drug-impaired driving. Registration information for this event will be available at
The meeting will be held on March 15, 2018, in Washington, DC. The meeting will start at 9:00 a.m. and continue until 4:00 p.m., EST. Check-in (through security) will begin at 8:30 a.m. Attendees should arrive early enough to enable them to go through security by no later than 8:50 a.m. to allow sufficient time to enter the building.
The meeting will be held in the Atrium of the West Building of the U.S. Department of Transportation, located at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590 (Green Line Metro Station at Navy Yard). This facility is accessible to individuals with disabilities. The meeting will also be webcast live, and a link to the actual webcast will be available on
Caroline Cash at
Driving under the influence of drugs (DUID) is against the law in all 50 States. Early data and anecdotal reports indicate that drug-impaired driving is on the rise, potentially responsible for thousands of driving-related fatalities. As a result, NHTSA and its partners are prioritizing the elimination of drug-impaired driving to ensure U.S. roads, communities, and families are safe. The event is open to the public. The invited speakers include representatives with backgrounds in traffic and highway safety, public health, and representatives from diverse organizations including state government, and other Federal Agencies. Written statements may be submitted to the public docket.
NHTSA will use this meeting to launch a call to action to develop plans to combat the growing problem of drug impaired driving. Saving lives by preventing traffic deaths is NHTSA's top priority. Please go to the NHTSA
Should it be necessary to cancel the meeting due to inclement weather or other emergency, NHTSA will take all available measures to notify registered participants.
NHTSA will conduct the meeting informally. Thus, technical rules of evidence will not apply. The meeting will consist of presentations and panels. Each panel will have two or three short presentations, a discussion among the panel members, and questions from the other participants to be discussed by the meeting participants.
49 U.S.C. 30182.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning IRS Customer Satisfaction Surveys.
Written comments should be received on or before April 30, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to L. Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224. Please send separate comments for each specific information collection listed below. You must reference the information collection's title, form number, reporting or record-keeping requirement number, and OMB number (if any) in your comment.
Requests for additional information or copies of the collection tools should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, at (202) 317-5753 or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
Currently, the IRS is seeking comments concerning the following information collection tools, reporting, and record-keeping requirements:
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |