Page Range | 2329-2524 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 2464 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
83 FR 2442 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
83 FR 2470 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
83 FR 2471 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
83 FR 2466 - Slings; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
83 FR 2465 - Coke Oven Emissions Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
83 FR 2468 - Electrical Standards for Construction and General Industry; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of the Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
83 FR 2438 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2371 - Simplifying Deposit Requirements for Certain Literary Works and Musical Compositions | |
83 FR 2483 - Biennial Review Under the United States-Singapore Memorandum of Intent on Environmental Cooperation | |
83 FR 2424 - Foreign-Trade Zone 98-Birmingham, Alabama; Application for Expansion of Subzone 98D; Hyster-Yale Group, Inc. Sulligent, Alabama | |
83 FR 2440 - Proposed Information Collection-2018 Election Administration and Voting Survey; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2422 - Addition of the Philippines to the List of Regions Affected by Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza | |
83 FR 2455 - Delcor Asset Corp. et al.; Withdrawal of Approval of 22 Abbreviated New Drug Applications | |
83 FR 2423 - Notice of Request for Revision to and Extension of Approval of an Information Collection; Specimen Submission | |
83 FR 2428 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2427 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2429 - Tennessee Broadband Summit Conference | |
83 FR 2329 - Civil Monetary Penalties Inflation Adjustments for Ethics in Government Act Violations | |
83 FR 2451 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Use of Public Human Genetic Variant Databases To Support Clinical Validity for Genetic and Genomic-Based In Vitro Diagnostics | |
83 FR 2459 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; AXUMIN | |
83 FR 2393 - Food Labeling: Health Claims; Soy Protein and Coronary Heart Disease; Extension of Comment Period | |
83 FR 2429 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Application Package for the AmeriCorps Alumni Outcome Survey | |
83 FR 2436 - Arms Sales Notification | |
83 FR 2424 - Foreign-Trade Zone 18-San Jose, California; Application for Subzone Expansion, Lam Research Corporation, Fremont and Livermore, California | |
83 FR 2452 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; SYNERGY EVEROLIMUS-ELUTING PLATINUM CHROMIUM CORONARY STENT SYSTEM | |
83 FR 2449 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; AVYCAZ | |
83 FR 2427 - Whaling Provisions; Aboriginal Subsistence Whaling Quotas | |
83 FR 2456 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Veterinary Feed Directive | |
83 FR 2454 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; DAKLINZA | |
83 FR 2492 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2483 - Agency Request for Renewal of a Previously Approved Information Collection: Office of Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization (OSDBU) Mentor Protégé Program | |
83 FR 2461 - Marine Mammal Protection Act; Stock Assessment Report for the Northern Sea Otter in Washington | |
83 FR 2433 - Arms Sales Notification | |
83 FR 2463 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Documenting, Managing and Preserving Department of the Interior Museum Collections Housed in Non-Federal Repositories | |
83 FR 2430 - Surplus Properties; Notice | |
83 FR 2430 - Arms Sales Notification | |
83 FR 2425 - Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Gulf of Mexico State Management Program Amendment for Recreational Red Snapper | |
83 FR 2373 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc., Airplanes | |
83 FR 2375 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
83 FR 2469 - Notice of Intent To Grant Partially Exclusive Term License | |
83 FR 2358 - Airworthiness Directives; Bell Helicopter Textron Helicopters | |
83 FR 2366 - Airworthiness Directives; The Enstrom Helicopter Corporation Helicopters | |
83 FR 2361 - Airworthiness Directives; Various Restricted Category Helicopters | |
83 FR 2364 - Airworthiness Directives; Fokker Services B.V. Airplanes | |
83 FR 2440 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Impact Study of Federally-Funded Magnet Schools | |
83 FR 2464 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; New Collection; Form CSO-005, Preliminary Background Check Form | |
83 FR 2412 - Commerce Trusted Trader Program | |
83 FR 2394 - Safety Zone; Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA | |
83 FR 2494 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Survey of Healthcare Experiences of Patients (SHEP) | |
83 FR 2493 - Health Services Research and Development Service, Scientific Merit Review Board; Notice of Meetings | |
83 FR 2445 - Law Enforcement Officer Motor Vehicle Crash and Struck-By Fatality Investigations; Notice of Public Meeting; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 2482 - Notice of Change of Ownership of Permit Holder of Presidential Permit for Express Pipeline Facilities on the Border of the United States and Canada | |
83 FR 2448 - Draft-National Occupational Research Agenda for Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing | |
83 FR 2388 - Internal Agency Review of Decisions; Requests for Supervisory Review of Certain Decisions Made by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health | |
83 FR 2480 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Withdrawal of a Proposed Rule Change To Permit the Listing and Trading of Managed Portfolio Shares and To List and Trade Shares of the Following Under Proposed Rule 14.11(k): ClearBridge Appreciation ETF, ClearBridge Large Cap ETF, ClearBridge MidCap Growth ETF, ClearBridge Select ETF, and ClearBridge All Cap Value ETF | |
83 FR 2482 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Adrian Piper: A Synthesis of Intuitions 1965-2016” Exhibition | |
83 FR 2424 - Environmental Technologies Trade Advisory Committee (ETTAC) Public Meeting | |
83 FR 2470 - Order Approving Public Company Accounting Oversight Board Budget and Annual Accounting Support Fee for Calendar Year 2018 | |
83 FR 2444 - Notice to All Interested Parties of Intent To Terminate the Receivership of 10080, Bank of Wyoming, Thermopolis, Wyoming | |
83 FR 2444 - Notice to All Interested Parties of Intent To Terminate the Receivership of 10344, Citizens Bank of Effingham, Springfield, Georgia | |
83 FR 2444 - Notice to All Interested Parties of Intent To Terminate the Receivership of 10172, Evergreen Bank, Seattle, Washington | |
83 FR 2439 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Fast Response Survey System (FRSS) 109: Teachers' Use of Technology for School and Homework Assignments-Preliminary Activities | |
83 FR 2462 - Indian Gaming; Approval of an Amendment to a Tribal-State Class III Gaming Compact in the State of Washington | |
83 FR 2474 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Eliminate Transitional Rules That Have Expired Related to Compensation Committee Listing Standards | |
83 FR 2480 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Expiration Date of FINRA Rule 0180 (Application of Rules to Security-Based Swaps) | |
83 FR 2471 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Add a New Rule 6200 To Codify Participant Risk Settings in the Exchange's Trading System (as Set Forth in a Proposed IM-6200-1) and To Authorize the Exchange To Share Those Settings With the Clearing Member That Clears Transactions on Behalf of the Participant | |
83 FR 2464 - National Park System Advisory Board; Charter Renewal | |
83 FR 2448 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2422 - United States Standards for Grades of Pork Carcasses | |
83 FR 2476 - The Guardian Insurance & Annuity Company, Inc., et al. | |
83 FR 2369 - Adoption of Updated EDGAR Filer Manual | |
83 FR 2445 - Petition of the Coalition for Fair Port Practices for Rulemaking; Final Notice of Public Hearing Schedule | |
83 FR 2382 - Clothing Storage Unit Tip Overs; Extension of Comment Period | |
83 FR 2354 - Airworthiness Directives; Aerospace Welding Minneapolis, Inc., Mufflers | |
83 FR 2412 - Promoting Telehealth in Rural America; Correction | |
83 FR 2396 - Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs | |
83 FR 2382 - Floating Cabin Regulation | |
83 FR 2331 - Approval of American Society of Mechanical Engineers' Code Cases | |
83 FR 2378 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
83 FR 2498 - National Organic Program; Amendments to the National List of Allowed and Prohibited Substances (Crops, Livestock and Handling) | |
83 FR 2373 - Meeting of the National Organic Standards Board |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Army Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
Coast Guard
Fish and Wildlife Service
Indian Affairs Bureau
National Park Service
Foreign Claims Settlement Commission
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Copyright Office, Library of Congress
Federal Aviation Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Office of Government Ethics.
Final rule.
In accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, the U.S. Office of Government Ethics (OGE) is issuing this final rule to make the 2018 annual adjustments to the Ethics in Government Act civil monetary penalties.
Kimberly L. Sikora Panza, Associate Counsel, General Counsel and Legal Policy Division, Office of Government Ethics, Telephone: 202-482-9300; TTY: 800-877-8339; FAX: 202-482-9237.
In November 2015, Congress passed the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Sec. 701 of Pub. L. 114-74) (the 2015 Act), which further amended the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-410). The 2015 Act required Federal agencies to make inflationary adjustments to the civil monetary penalties (CMPs) within their jurisdiction with an initial “catch-up” adjustment through an interim final rule effective no later than August 1, 2016, and further mandates that Federal agencies make subsequent annual inflationary adjustments of their CMPs, to be effective no later than January 15 of each year.
The Ethics in Government Act of 1978 as amended, 5 U.S.C. appendix (the Ethics Act) provides for five CMPs.
(1) Knowing and willful failure to file, report required information on, or falsification of a public financial disclosure report, 5 U.S.C. appendix 104(a), 5 CFR 2634.701(b);
(2) knowing and willful breach of a qualified trust by trustees and interested parties, 5 U.S.C. appendix 102(f)(6)(C)(i), 5 CFR 2634.702(a);
(3) negligent breach of a qualified trust by trustees and interested parties, 5 U.S.C. appendix 102(f)(6)(C)(ii), 5 CFR 2634.702(b);
(4) misuse of a public report, 5 U.S.C. appendix 105(c)(2), 5 CFR 2634.703; and
(5) violation of outside employment/activities provisions, 5 U.S.C. appendix 504(a), 5 CFR 2636.104(a).
In compliance with the 2015 Act and guidance issued by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), on June 28, 2016, the U.S. Office of Government Ethics (OGE) published in the
This rulemaking effectuates the 2018 annual inflationary adjustments to the Ethics Act CMPs. In accordance with the 2015 Act, these adjustments are based on the percent change between the Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for the month of October preceding the date of the adjustment, and the prior year's October CPI-U. Pursuant to OMB guidance, the cost-of-living adjustment multiplier for 2018, based on the CPI-U for October 2017, not seasonally adjusted, is 1.02041. To calculate the 2018 annual adjustment, agencies must multiply the most recent penalty by the 1.02041 multiplier, and round to the nearest dollar.
Applying the formula established by the 2015 Act and OMB guidance, OGE is amending the Ethics Act CMPs through this rulemaking to:
(1) Increase the three penalties reflected in 5 CFR 2634.702(a), 5 CFR 2634.703, and 5 CFR 2636.104(a)—which were previously adjusted to a maximum of $19,246—to a maximum of $19,639;
(2) Increase the penalty reflected in 5 CFR 2634.702(b)—which was previously adjusted to a maximum of $9,623—to a maximum of $9,819; and
(3) Increase the penalty reflected in 5 CFR 2634.701(b)—which was previously adjusted to a maximum of $57,847—to a maximum of $59,028.
These adjusted penalty amounts will apply to penalties assessed after January 15, 2018 (the applicability date of this final rule) whose associated violations occurred after November 2, 2015.
OGE will continue to make future annual inflationary adjustments to the Ethics Act CMPs in accordance with the statutory formula set forth in the 2015 Act and OMB guidance.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b), as Acting Director of the Office of Government Ethics, I find that good cause exists for waiving the general notice of proposed rulemaking and public comment procedures as to these technical amendments. The notice and comment procedures are being waived because these amendments, which concern matters of agency organization, procedure and practice, are being adopted in accordance with statutorily mandated inflation adjustment procedures of the 2015 Act, which specifies that agencies shall adjust civil monetary penalties notwithstanding Section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act. It is also in the public interest that the adjusted rates for civil monetary penalties under the Ethics in Government Act become effective as
As the Acting Director of the Office of Government Ethics, I certify under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) that this final rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it primarily affects current Federal executive branch employees.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35) does not apply because this regulation does not contain information collection requirements that require approval of the Office of Management and Budget.
For purposes of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. chapter 5, subchapter II), this rule would not significantly or uniquely affect small governments and will not result in increased expenditures by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (as adjusted for inflation) in any one year.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select the regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. The Office of Management and Budget has determined that rulemakings such as this implementing annual inflationary adjustments under the 2015 Act are not significant regulatory actions under Executive Order 12866.
As Acting Director of the Office of Government Ethics, I have reviewed this rule in light of section 3 of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, and certify that it meets the applicable standards provided therein.
Certificates of divestiture, Conflict of interests, Government employees, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Trusts and trustees.
Conflict of interests, Government employees, Penalties.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the U.S. Office of Government Ethics is amending 5 CFR parts 2634 and 2636 as follows:
5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978); 26 U.S.C. 1043; Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990), as amended by Sec. 31001, Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321 (Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996) and Sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74 (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015); E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.
(b)
(a) The Attorney General may bring a civil action in any appropriate United States district court against any individual who knowingly and willfully violates the provisions of § 2634.408(d)(1) or (e)(1). The court in which the action is brought may assess against the individual a civil monetary penalty in any amount, not to exceed the amounts set forth below, as provided by section 102(f)(6)(C)(i) of the Act and as adjusted in accordance with the inflation adjustment procedures prescribed in the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended:
(b) The Attorney General may bring a civil action in any appropriate United States district court against any individual who negligently violates the provisions of § 2634.408(d)(1) or (e)(1). The court in which the action is brought may assess against the individual a civil monetary penalty in any amount, not to exceed the amounts set forth below, as provided by section 102(f)(6)(C)(ii) of the Act and as adjusted in accordance with the inflation adjustment procedures of the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended:
(a) The Attorney General may bring a civil action against any person who obtains or uses a report filed under this part for any purpose prohibited by section 105(c)(1) of the Act, as incorporated in § 2634.603(f). The court in which the action is brought may assess against the person a civil monetary penalty in any amount, not to exceed the amounts set forth below, as provided by section 105(c)(2) of the Act and as adjusted in accordance with the
(b) This remedy shall be in addition to any other remedy available under statutory or common law.
5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978); Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990), as amended by Sec. 31001, Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321 (Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996) and Sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74 (Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015); E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.
(a)
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Final rule.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is amending its regulations to incorporate by reference (IBR) the latest revisions of three regulatory guides (RGs) approving new, revised, and reaffirmed Code Cases published by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME). This action allows nuclear power plant licensees and applicants for construction permits, operating licenses, combined licenses, standard design certifications, standard design approvals and manufacturing licenses to voluntarily use the Code Cases listed in these RGs as alternatives to engineering standards for the construction, inservice inspection (ISI), and inservice testing (IST) of nuclear power plant components. These engineering standards are set forth in the ASME's Boiler and Pressure Vessel (BPV) Codes and ASME Operation and Maintenance (OM) Codes, which are currently incorporated by reference into the NRC's regulations. This final rule announces the availability of the final versions of the three RGs that are being incorporated by reference. Further, the final rule announces the availability of a related RG, not incorporated by reference into the NRC's regulations that lists Code Cases that the NRC has not approved for use.
This final rule is effective on February 16, 2018. The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulation is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of February 16, 2018.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2012-0059 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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•
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Jennifer Tobin, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, telephone: 301-415-2328, email:
The purpose of this regulatory action is to incorporate by reference into the NRC's regulations the latest revisions of three RGs. The three RGs identify new, revised, and reaffirmed Code Cases published by the ASME, which the NRC has determined are acceptable for use as alternatives to certain provisions of the ASME BPV Codes and ASME OM Codes, currently incorporated by reference into the NRC's regulations. The three RGs that the NRC is incorporating by reference are RG 1.84, “Design, Fabrication, and Materials Code Case Acceptability, ASME Section III,” Revision 37; RG 1.147, “Inservice Inspection Code Case Acceptability, ASME Section XI, Division 1,” Revision 18; and RG 1.192, “Operation and Maintenance Code Case Acceptability, ASME OM Code,” Revision 2. This regulatory action allows nuclear power plant licensees and applicants for construction permits, operating licenses, combined licenses, standard design certifications, standard design approvals, and manufacturing licenses to voluntarily use the Code Cases, newly listed in these revised RGs, as
The NRC prepared a regulatory analysis (ADAMS Accession No. ML16285A013) to identify the benefits and costs associated with this final rule. The regulatory analysis prepared for this rulemaking was used to determine if the rule is cost-effective, overall, and to help the NRC evaluate potentially costly conditions placed on specific provisions of the ASME Code Cases, which are the subject of this rulemaking.
Table 1 summarizes the benefits and costs for the alternative of proceeding with the final rule (Alternative 2) and shows that the final rule is quantitatively cost-beneficial with a net benefit of $4.94 million to both the industry and the NRC when compared to the regulatory baseline (Alternative 1). The regulatory analysis shows that implementing the final rule is quantitatively cost-effective and an efficient use of the NRC's and Industry's resources. Uncertainty analysis shows that the net benefit ranges from $2.86 million to $6.90 million with a mean of $4.94 million. Because the rulemaking alternative is cost-effective, the rulemaking approach is recommended.
There are several benefits associated with this final rule. Under this final rule, a licensee of a nuclear power plant would no longer be required to submit a Code Case alternative request under the new § 50.55a(z) of Title 10 of the
The ASME develops and publishes the ASME BPV Code, which contains requirements for the design, construction, and ISI and examination of nuclear power plant components, and ASME's Nuclear Power Plants (OM) Code,
The NRC approves and can mandate the use of the ASME BPV Codes and OM Codes in § 50.55a, “Codes and standards,” through the process of incorporation by reference. As such, each provision of the ASME Codes incorporated by reference into and mandated by § 50.55a constitutes a legally-binding NRC requirement imposed by the regulations. As noted previously, ASME Code Cases, for the most part, represent alternative approaches for complying with provisions of the ASME BPV Codes and OM Codes. Accordingly, the NRC periodically amends § 50.55a to incorporate by reference the NRC's RGs listing approved ASME Code Cases that may be used as alternatives to the BPV Codes and OM Codes.
This rulemaking is the latest in a series of rulemakings that incorporates by reference new versions of several RGs identifying new, revised, and reaffirmed,
This rule incorporates by reference the latest revisions of the NRC RGs that list ASME BPV and OM Code Cases that the NRC finds to be acceptable, or acceptable with NRC-specified conditions (“conditionally acceptable”). Regulatory Guide 1.84, Revision 37, supersedes Revision 36; RG 1.147, Revision 18, supersedes Revision 17; and RG 1.192, Revision 2, supersedes Revision 1. The NRC also publishes a document (RG 1.193, “ASME Code Cases Not Approved for Use”) that lists Code Cases that the NRC has not approved for generic use. The RG 1.193 is not incorporated by reference into the NRC's regulations; however, in this final rule, the NRC notes the availability of RG 1.193, Revision 5.
The ASME Code Cases that are the subject of this rulemaking are the new, revised, and reaffirmed Section III and Section XI Code Cases listed in
The latest editions and addenda of the ASME BPV and OM Codes that the NRC has approved for use are referenced in § 50.55a. The ASME also publishes Code Cases that provide alternatives to existing Code requirements that the ASME developed and approved. This rule incorporates by reference the latest revisions of RGs 1.84, 1.147, and 1.192. This rule allows nuclear power plant licensees and applicants for construction permits, operating licenses, combined licenses, standard design certifications, standard design approvals, and manufacturing licenses, under the regulations that govern license certifications, to voluntarily use the Code Cases listed in these RGs as suitable alternatives to certain provisions of the ASME BPV and OM Codes for the construction, ISI, and IST of nuclear power plant components. This action is consistent with the provisions of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (NTTAA), Public Law 104-113, which encourages Federal regulatory agencies to consider adopting industry consensus standards as an alternative to
The NRC follows a three-step process to determine acceptability of new, revised, and reaffirmed Code Cases, and the need for regulatory positions on the use of these Code Cases. This process was employed in the review of the Code Cases in Supplement 11 to the 2007 Edition through Supplement 10 to the 2010 Edition of the BPV Code and the 2009 Edition through the 2012 Edition of the OM Code. The Code Cases in these supplements and OM Editions and Addenda are the subject of this rule. First, the ASME develops Code Cases through a consensus development process, as administered by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), which ensures that the various technical interests (
Second, the standards committee transmits a first consideration letter ballot to every member of the standards committee, requesting comment or approval of new and revised Code Cases. Code Cases are approved by the standards committee from the first consideration letter ballot when: (1) At least two thirds of the eligible consensus committee membership vote approved; (2) there are no disapprovals from the standards committee; and (3) no substantive comments are received from the ASME oversight committees such as the Technical Oversight Management Committee (TOMC). The TOMC's duties, in part, are to oversee various standards committees to ensure technical adequacy and to provide recommendations in the development of codes and standards, as required. Code Cases that were disapproved or received substantive comments from the first consideration ballot are reviewed by the working level group(s) responsible for their development to consider the comments received. These Code Cases are approved by the standards committee on second consideration when at least two thirds of the eligible consensus committee membership vote approved, and there are no more than three disapprovals from the consensus committee.
Third, the NRC reviews new, revised, and reaffirmed Code Cases to determine their acceptability for incorporation by reference in § 50.55a through the subject RGs. This rulemaking process, when considered together with the ANSI process for developing and approving the ASME codes and standards, and Code Cases, constitutes the NRC's basis that the Code Cases (with conditions as necessary) provide reasonable assurance of adequate protection to public health and safety.
The staff concludes, in accordance with the process described, that the Code Cases are technically adequate (with conditions as necessary) and consistent with current NRC regulations, and the staff is referencing these Code Cases in the applicable RGs, thereby approving them for voluntary use, without conditions as addressed in Section A of this document; subject to the specified conditions, or as identified in Section B of this document. The staff reviewed the new, revised, and reaffirmed Code Cases identified in the three RGs being incorporated by reference into § 50.55a in this rulemaking. Therefore, the NRC approves revising the § 50.55a regulations to incorporate by reference the latest revisions of RGs 1.84, 1.147, and 1.192. Additionally, the NRC announces the availability of the latest revision of RG 1.193.
The Code Cases that are discussed in Table I are new, revised, or reaffirmed Code Cases that the NRC is approving for use without conditions. The NRC concludes, in accordance with the process described for review of ASME Code Cases, that each of the ASME Code Cases listed in Table I are acceptable for use without conditions. Therefore, the NRC is approving for unconditional use the Code Cases listed in Table I. This table identifies the regulatory guide the applicable Code Case that the NRC is approving for use.
The NRC revised RG 1.147, Revision 18 to approve Code Case N-786-1 in Table 1 to address inconsistencies that were identified between the NRC's position in the proposed rule regarding the acceptability of Code Case N-786 and several licensee requests for alternatives to ASME Code requirements, in accordance with Title 10 of the
The
The NRC's evaluation of the Code Cases and the reasons for the NRC's conditions are discussed in the following paragraphs. Notations have been made to indicate the conditions duplicated from previous versions of the RG.
There are no new or revised Section III Code Cases in Supplement 11 to the 2007 Edition through Supplement 10 to the 2010 Edition that the NRC is conditionally approving in Revision 37 of RG 1.84.
The conditions on Code Case N-552-1 are identical to the conditions on N-552 that were approved by the NRC in Revision 16 of RG 1.147 in October 2010. The reasons for imposing these conditions in Code Case N-576 continue to apply to N-576-2. Therefore, these conditions have been retained for this Code Case in Revision 18 of RG 1.147.
The conditions on Code Case N-576-2 are identical to the conditions on N-576-1 that were approved by the NRC in Revision 17 of RG 1.147 in October 2014. The reasons for imposing these conditions are not resolved by Code Case N-576-2 and, therefore, these conditions have been retained in Revision 18 of RG 1.147.
Public comments on N-576-2 requested that the NRC revise the proposed condition to follow IWA-4200 in their code of record. In response, the NRC revised the “note” in the condition in Revision 18 of RG 1.147 to eliminate the portion regarding reconciliation. The revised “note” will read: “Note: Steam generator tube repair methods require prior NRC approval through the Technical Specifications. This Code Case does not address certain aspects of this repair,
The first condition on Code Case N-593-2 is identical to the condition on Code Case N-593 that was first approved by the NRC in Revision 13 of RG 1.147 in June 2003. The condition stated that, “Essentially 100 percent (not less than 90 percent) of the examination volume A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H [in Figure 1 of the Code Case] must be examined.” The reasons for imposing this condition in Code Case N-593 continue to apply to Code Case N-593-2. Therefore, this condition has been retained for this Code Case in Revision 18 of RG 1.147.
The second condition on Code Case N-593-2 is new. Revision 2 of the Code Case reduces the weld examination volume by reducing the width examined on either side of the weld from t
The NRC identified an issue with respect to Code Case N-593-2 regarding its inconsistency with Code Case N-613-1. Code Case N-593-2 and Code Case N-613-1 address certain types of nozzle-to-vessel welds. Code Case N-613-1 states that “. . . Category B-D nozzle-to-vessel welds previously ultrasonically examined using the examination volumes of Figs. IWB-2500-7(a), (b), and (c) may be examined using the reduced examination volume (A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H) of Figs. 1, 2, and 3.” The keywords are “previously examined.” Code Case N-613-1 requires the larger volume to have been previously examined before examinations using the reduced volume can be performed. This ensures that there are no detrimental flaws in the component adjacent to the weld that would be missed if the inspection was performed only on the reduced volume. However, Code Case N-593-2 allows a licensee to immediately implement the reduced volume. Accordingly, the NRC is approving Code Case N-593-2 with a condition to require that the examination volume specified in Section XI, Table IWB-2500-1, Examination Category B-D, be used for the examination of steam generator nozzle-to-vessel welds at least once prior to use of the reduced volume, as allowed by the Code Case.
Code Case N-638-6 allows the use of the automatic or machine gas-tungsten arc welding (GTAW) temper bead technique. The GTAW is a proven method that can produce high-quality welds because it affords greater control over the weld area than many other welding processes.
The NRC first approved Code Case N-638 (Revision 0) in 2003 (Revision 13 of RG 1.147). Code Case N-638-4 was approved by the NRC in Revision 16 of RG 1.147 with two conditions. Code Case N-638-5 was not approved in RG 1.147 for generic use but has been approved through requests for an alternative to § 50.55a. Code Case N-638-6 resolves one of the NRC's concerns that were raised when Code Case N-638-4 was considered for approval and, therefore, the NRC is deleting that condition from RG 1.147.
Many of the provisions for developing and qualifying welding procedure specifications for the temper bead technique that were contained in earlier versions of the Code Case have been incorporated into ASME Section IX, “Welding and Brazing Qualifications,” QW-290, “Temper Bead Welding.” Code Case N-638-6 retains the provisions not addressed by QW-290 and references QW-290 in lieu of specifying them directly in the Code Case.
In addition to retaining one of the two conditions on Code Case N-638-4, the NRC considered adding a new condition to address technical issues raised by certain provisions of Code Case N-638-6.
The retained condition on Code Case N-638-6 pertains to the qualification of nondestructive evaluation (NDE) and is identical to the condition on N-638-4 that was approved by the NRC in Revision 17 of RG 1.147 in October 2014. The reasons for imposing this condition in Code Case N-638 continue to apply to N-638-6. Therefore, this condition has been retained in Revision 18 of RG 1.147.
The new proposed condition (2) states that section 1(b)(1) of the Code Case shall not be used. Section 1(b)(1) would allow through-wall circumferential repair welds to be made using the temper bead technique without heat treatment. Revisions 1 through 5 of N-638 limited the depth of the weld to one-half of the ferritic base metal thickness and the previously stated condition will limit repairs to this previously approved value. Repairs exceeding one-half of the ferritic base metal thickness may represent significant repairs (
The condition on Code Case N-662-1 is identical to the condition on N-662 that was approved by the NRC in Revision 16 of RG 1.147 in October 2010. The reasons for imposing this condition were not resolved by Code Case N-662-1. Therefore, this condition has been retained for this Code Case in Revision 18 of RG 1.147.
Code Case N-666 was unconditionally approved in Revision 17 of RG 1.147. The NRC approves Code Case N-666-1 with one condition.
The condition is that a surface examination must be performed on the completed weld overlay for Class 1 and Class 2 piping socket welds. Code Case N-666-1 contains provisions for the design, installation, evaluation, pressure testing, and examination of the weld overlays on Class 1, 2, and 3 socket welds. Section 5(a)(1) of the Code Case requires NDE of the completed weld overlay in accordance with the Construction Code. However, various Construction Codes have been used in the design and fabrication of the nuclear power plant fleet. The requirements for NDE have changed over the years, as more effective and reliable methods and techniques have been developed. In addition, Construction Code practices have evolved based on design and construction experience. The NRC is concerned that some of the Construction
Public commenters requested that the words “and seal weld” be removed from the condition because the phrase implies that the seal weld requires surface examination in addition to surface examination of the final overlay. The Code Case requires a visual examination of the seal weld, remaining socket weld, and adjacent base material before the weld overlay can be applied, which the NRC has determined is the appropriate examination prior to the application of the weld overlay. Therefore, proposed Condition (1) has been revised to remove “and seal weld.”
In the proposed rule, the NRC included a second condition, which required that if a surface or volumetric examination of the completed weld overlay was not required by the plant-specific Construction Code, that a VT-1 visual examination be performed of the weld overlay. Paragraph 5(a) of the Code Case requires “visual and nondestructive examination of the final structural overlay weld.” Paragraph 5(a)(1) of the Code Case specifically requires a VT-1 visual examination of the completed weld overlay. Public commenters requested that the NRC remove the second condition because it was redundant and unnecessary. The NRC staff agrees and thus Condition (2) has been removed from the final rule.
The NRC has determined that instead of the upper shelf transition temperature, T
T
Between T
Code Case N-749 provides acceptance criteria for flaws in ferritic components for conditions when the material fracture resistance will be controlled by upper-shelf toughness behavior. These procedures may be used to accept a flaw in lieu of the requirements in Section XI, paragraphs IWB-3610 and IWB-3620, which use LEFM to evaluate flaws that exceed limits of Section XI, paragraph IWB-3500. Code Case N-749 employs EPFM methods (J-integral) and is patterned after the fracture methodology and acceptance criteria that currently exist in Section XI, paragraph IWB-3730(b), and Section XI, Nonmandatory Appendix K, “Assessment of Reactor Vessels with Upper Shelf Charpy Impact Energy Levels.” The Code Case states that the proposed methodology is applicable if the metal temperature of the component exceeds the upper shelf transition temperature, T
Defining an upper shelf transition temperature purely based on LEFM data is not convincing because it ignores EPFM data and Charpy data and their relationship to the LEFM data. The NRC staff performed calculations on several randomly selected reactor pressure vessel surveillance materials with high upper-shelf energy values and low RT
While the T
Alternatively, the licensee may use a different T
The NRC approves Code Case N-754 with three conditions. Code Case N-754 provides requirements for installing optimized structural weld overlays (OWOL) on the outside surface of ASME Class 1 heavy-wall, large-diameter piping composed of ferritic, austenitic stainless steel, and nickel based alloy materials in pressurized water reactors
The first condition requires that the conditions imposed on the use of OWOLs contained in the NRC final safety evaluation for MRP-169, Revision 1-A, must be satisfied. Eighteen limitations and conditions are described in the final safety evaluation that address issues such as fatigue crack growth rates, piping loads, design life of the weld overlay, and reexamination frequencies. The imposition of the conditions in the safety evaluation provide reasonable assurance that the structural integrity of the pipes repaired through the use of weld overlays will be maintained.
Code Case N-754 references Code Case N-770-2, “Alternative Examination Requirements and Acceptance Standards for Class 1 Pressure Water Reactor (PWR) Piping and Vessel Nozzle Butt Welds Fabricated With UNS N06082 or UNS W86182 Weld Filler Material With or Without Application of Listed Mitigation Activities, Section XI, Division 1.” The reference to Code Case N-770-2 provides the ASME requirements for the performance of the preservice and ISI examinations of OWOLs, with additional requirements if the ultrasonic examination is qualified for axial flaws. The NRC approved Code Case N-770-2 with conditions in § 50.55a(g)(6)(ii)(F) on July 18, 2017 (82 FR 32934). Accordingly, the second condition on the use of Code Case N-754 is that the preservice and inservice inspections of OWOLs must satisfy § 50.55a(g)(6)(ii)(F),
The third condition addresses a potential implementation issue in Code Case N-754 with respect to the deposition of the first layer of weld metal. The second sentence in paragraph 1.2(f)(2) states that “The first layer of weld metal deposited may not be credited toward the required thickness, but the presence of this layer shall be considered in the design analysis requirements in 2(b).” The NRC found that, among licensees, there can be various interpretations of the words used in the ASME BPV Code and Code Cases. In this instance, the NRC determined that the word “may” needed to be changed to “shall” in the second sentence in paragraph 1.2(f)(2), as a condition for use of this Code Case. Accordingly, the NRC is adding a third condition to clarify that the first layer shall not be credited toward the required OWOL thickness unless the chromium content of the first layer is at least 24 percent.
The NRC is approving Code Case N-778 with two conditions. Section XI, paragraph IWA-1400(d), in the editions and addenda currently used by the operating fleet, requires licensees to submit plans, schedules, and preservice and ISI summary reports to the enforcement and regulatory authorities having jurisdiction at the plant site. In the licensees' pursuit to decrease burden, they have alluded to the resources associated with the requirement to submit the items previously listed. Code Case N-778 was developed to provide an alternative to the requirements in the ASME BPV Code, in that the items previously listed would only have to be submitted if specifically required by the regulatory and enforcement authorities.
The NRC reviewed its needs with respect to the submittal of the subject plans, schedules, and reports, and determined that it is not necessary to require the submittal of plans and schedules. The NRC made this determination because the latest up-to-date plans and schedules are available at the plant site and can be requested by the NRC at any time. However, the NRC determined that summary reports still need to be submitted. Summary reports provide valuable information regarding examinations that have been performed, conditions noted during the examinations, the corrective actions performed, and the status of the implementation of the ISI program. Accordingly, the NRC is approving Code Case N-778 with conditions to require that licensees continue to submit summary reports in accordance with paragraph IWA-6240 of the 2009 Addenda of ASME Section XI, as addressed below.
The two conditions are modeled on the requirements currently in paragraph IWA-6240 of the 2009 Addenda, Section XI. The requirements in Section XI do not specify when the reports are to be submitted to the regulatory authority; rather, the requirements only state that the reports shall be completed. The first condition requires that the preservice inspection summary report be submitted before the date of placement of the unit into commercial service. The second condition requires that the ISI summary report be submitted within 90 calendar days of the completion of each refueling outage. The conditions rely on the date of commercial service and the completion of a refueling outage to determine when the reports are needed to be submitted to the regulatory authority.
The NRC is approving Code Case N-789 with one condition. For certain types of degradation, the Code Case provides requirements for the temporary repair of degraded moderate energy Class 2 and Class 3 piping systems by external application of welded reinforcement pads. The Code Case does not require inservice monitoring for the pressure pad. However, the NRC determined that it is unacceptable to not monitor the pressure pad because there may be instances where an unexpected corrosion rate may cause the degraded area in the pipe to expand beyond the area that is covered by the pressure pad. This could lead to the pipe leaking and may challenge the structural integrity of the repaired pipe. Therefore, the NRC is approving Code Case N-789 with a condition to require a monthly visual examination of the installed pressure pad for evidence of leakage.
In the proposed rule, the NRC expressed concern that the corrosion rate specified in paragraph 3.1(1) of the Code Case may not address certain scenarios. That paragraph would allow
The NRC is approving Code Case N-795 with two conditions. The first condition addresses a prohibition against the production of heat through the use of a critical reactor core to raise the temperature of the reactor coolant and pressurize the reactor coolant pressure boundary (RCPB) (sometimes referred to as nuclear heat). The second condition addresses the duration of the hold time when testing non-insulated components to allow potential leakage to manifest itself during the performance of system leakage tests.
Code Case N-795 was intended to address concerns that performing the ASME-required pressure test for boiling water reactors (BWRs) under shutdown conditions, (1) places the unit in a position of significantly reduced margin, approaching the fracture toughness limits defined in the Technical Specification Pressure-Temperature (P-T) curves, and (2) requires abnormal plant conditions/alignments, incurring additional risks and delays, while providing little added benefit beyond tests, which could be performed at slightly reduced pressures under normal plant conditions. However, due to restrictions imposed by the pressure control systems, most BWRs cannot obtain reactor pressure corresponding to 100 percent rated power during normal startup operations at low power levels that would be conducive to performing examinations for leakage. The alternative test, provided by Code Case N-795, would be performed at slightly reduced pressures and normal plant conditions, which the NRC finds will constitute an adequate leak examination and would reduce the risk associated with abnormal plant conditions and alignments.
However, the NRC has had a long-standing prohibition against the production of heat through the use of a critical reactor core to raise the temperature of the reactor coolant and pressurize the RCPB. A letter dated February 2, 1990, from James M. Taylor, Executive Director for Operations, NRC, to Messrs. Nicholas S. Reynolds and Daniel F. Stenger, Nuclear Utility Backfitting and Reform Group (ADAMS Accession No. ML14273A002), established the NRC position with respect to use of a critical reactor core to raise the temperature of the reactor coolant and pressurize the RCPB. In summary, the NRC's position is that testing under these conditions involves serious impediments to careful and complete inspections, and therefore, inherent uncertainty with regard to assuring the integrity of the RCPB. Further, the practice is not consistent with basic defense-in-depth safety principles.
The NRC's position established in 1990, was reaffirmed in Information Notice No. 98-13, “Post-Refueling Outage Reactor Pressure Vessel Leakage Testing Before Core Criticality,” dated April 20, 1998. The Information Notice was issued in response to a licensee that had conducted an ASME BPV Code, Section XI, leakage test of the reactor pressure vessel and subsequently discovered that it had violated 10 CFR part 50, appendix G, IV.A.2.d. This regulation states that pressure tests and leak tests of the reactor vessel that are required by Section XI of the ASME Code must be completed before the core is critical. The Information Notice references NRC Inspection Report 50-254/97-27 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15216A276), which documents that licensee personnel performing VT-2 examinations of the drywell at one BWR plant covered 50 examination areas in 12 minutes, calling into question the adequacy of the VT-2 examinations.
The bases for the NRC's historical prohibition of pressure testing with the core critical can be summarized as follows:
1. Nuclear operation of a plant should not commence before completion of system hydrostatic and leakage testing to verify the basic integrity of the RCPB, a principal defense-in-depth barrier to the accidental release of fission products. In accordance with the defense-in-depth safety precept, the nuclear power plant design provides for multiple barriers to the accidental release of fission products from the reactor.
2. Hydrotesting must be done essentially water solid (
3. The elevated reactor coolant temperatures, associated with critical operation, result in a severely uncomfortable and difficult working environment in plant spaces where the system leakage inspections must be conducted. The greatly increased stored energy in the reactor coolant, when the reactor is critical, increases the hazard to personnel and equipment in the event of a leak. As a result, the ability for plant workers to perform a comprehensive and careful inspection becomes greatly diminished.
However, the NRC staff has determined that pressure testing with the core critical is acceptable, if performed after repairs of a limited scope, where only a few locations or a limited area needs to be examined, and when ASME Code Section XI, Table IWB-2500-1, Category B-P (the pressure test required once per cycle of the entire RCPB), has been recently performed, thus verifying the integrity of the overall RCPB. The NRC also notes that Code Case N-795 does not allow for the use of the alternative test pressure following repairs/replacements on the RPV, therefore it does not violate 10 CFR part 50, Appendix G. The NRC determined that the risk associated with nuclear heat at low power is comparable with the risk to the plant, when the test is performed without nuclear heat (with the core subcritical) during mid-cycle outages, when decay heat must be managed. Performing the pressure test under shutdown conditions at full operating pressure without nuclear heat requires securing certain key pressure control, heat removal, and safety systems. Under such conditions, it is more difficult to control temperature and pressure, when there is significant decay heat production, such as after a mid-cycle outage, which may reduce the margin available to prevent exceeding the plant pressure-temperature limits.
The scope of repairs should be relatively small, when the pressure test is conducted using nuclear heat, in order to minimize the personnel safety risk and to avoid rushed examinations. Code Case N-795 does not place any restrictions on the size or scope of the repairs for which the alternative may be used, other than the alternative test pressure may not be used to satisfy
With respect to the second condition and adequate pressure test hold time, the technical analysis supporting Code Case N-795 indicates that the lower test pressure provides more than 90 percent of the flow, which would result from the pressure corresponding to 100 percent power. However, a reduced pressure means a lower leakage rate, so additional time is required in order for there to be sufficient leakage to be observed by inspection personnel. Section XI, paragraph IWA-5213, “Test Condition Holding Time,” does not require a holding time for Class 1 components, once test pressure is obtained. To account for the reduced pressure, Code Case N-795 would require a 15-minute hold time for non-insulated components. The NRC has determined that 15 minutes does not allow for an adequate examination, because it is not possible to predict the entire range of scenarios or types of defects that could result in leakage. While some types of defects could result in immediate leakage, such as an improperly torqued bolted connection; other types of defects, such as weld defects or tight cracks could represent a more torturous path for leakage and may result in delayed leakage. The staff determined that, due to the uncertainty in the time required for leakage to occur to an extent, it would be readily detectable by visual examination, hence, it is appropriate to conservatively specify a longer hold time of 1 hour for non-insulated components. Therefore, the final rule retains the one hour hold time for non-insulated components.
The NRC approves Code Case N-799 with four conditions. Code Case N-799 is a new Code Case developed to provide examination requirements for the steam generator primary nozzle to pump casing attachment weld for AP-1000 plants and dissimilar metal welds joining vessel nozzles to pumps used in recent reactor designs (
The CASS is an anisotropic and inhomogeneous material. The manufacturing process can result in varied and mixed structures. The large size of the anisotropic grains affects the propagation of ultrasound by causing severe attenuation, changes in velocity, and scattering of ultrasonic energy. Refraction and reflection of the sound beam occurs at the grain boundaries, which can result in specific volumes of material not being examined, or defects being missed or mischaracterized. The grain structure of the associated weldments also impacts the effectiveness and reliability of the examinations. Accordingly, it is paramount that robust examination techniques be used.
Research has been conducted by several domestic and international organizations attempting to address the shortcomings associated with the use of conventional methods for the inspection of CASS materials. The results of a study at Pacific Northwest National Laboratory (PNNL) were published in NUREG/CR-6933, “Assessment of Crack Detection in Heavy-Walled Cast Stainless Steel Piping Welds Using Advanced Low-Frequency Ultrasonic Methods” (ADAMS Accession No. ML071020409). The study demonstrated that additional measures were required to reliably detect and characterize flaws in CASS materials and their associated weldments.
Performance demonstration requirements for CASS components and associated weldments have not yet been developed by the industry. To ensure that effective and reliable examinations are performed, the NRC is adopting the following four conditions on the Code Case.
The first condition addresses the gap between the probe and component surface. Industry experience shows that effective ultrasonic examinations depend, to a great extent, on limiting the gap between the probe and component surface to less than 0.032-inch. The BPV Code does not have any requirements with respect to surface smoothness and waviness. It has been demonstrated that reduced coupling and probe lift-off on “rough” surfaces have the potential to present a scattering effect at an interface where an acoustic beam impinges, to redirect and mode convert some energy, which when returned to the probe can be the source of spurious signals, or cause flaws to be mis-characterized or missed altogether. Accordingly, the first condition requires that the scanning surfaces have a gap less than 0.032-inch beneath the ultrasonic testing probe. Gaps greater than 0.032-inch must be considered to be unexamined, unless it can be demonstrated, on representative mockups, that a Section XI, Appendix VIII, Supplement 10, demonstration can be passed.
The second condition (No. 2a in DG-1296) is that the examination requirements of Section XI, Mandatory Appendix I, paragraph I-3200(c) must be applied. Code Case N-799 does not contain specific requirements regarding examination techniques. Paragraph I-3200(c) contains specific requirements that can be applied.
The third condition (No. 2c in DG-1296) is that ultrasonic depth and sizing qualifications for CASS components must use the ASME BPV Code requirements in Section XI, Appendix VIII, Supplement 10. Supplement 10 contains qualification requirements for dissimilar metal welds, and the use of these requirements will ensure that robust techniques are applied.
The fourth condition (No. 2e in DG-1296) is that cracks that are detected but cannot be depth-sized with performance-based procedures, equipment, and personnel qualifications consistent with ASME Code Section XI, Appendix VIII, shall be repaired or removed.
The conditions on Code Case OMN-1, Revision 1 [2012 Edition] are identical to the conditions on OMN-1 [2006 Addenda] that were approved by the NRC in Revision 1 of RG 1.192 in October 2014. The reasons for imposing these conditions are not resolved by Code Case OMN-1, Revision 1 [2012 Edition] and, therefore, these conditions have been retained in Revision 2 of RG 1.192.
The conditions on Code Case OMN-3 [2012 Edition] are identical to the conditions on OMN-3 [2004 Edition] that were approved by the NRC in Revision 1 of RG 1.192 in October 2014. The reasons for imposing these conditions are not resolved by Code Case OMN-3 [2012 Edition] and, therefore, these conditions have been retained in Revision 2 of RG 1.192.
The conditions on Code Case OMN-4 [2012 Edition] are identical to the conditions on OMN-4 [2004 Edition] that were approved by the NRC in Revision 1 of RG 1.192 in October 2014. The reasons for imposing these conditions are not resolved by Code Case OMN-4 [2012 Edition] and, therefore, these conditions have been retained in Revision 2 of RG 1.192.
The conditions on Code Case OMN-9 [2012 Edition] are identical to the conditions on OMN-9 [2004 Edition] that were approved by the NRC in Revision 1 of RG 1.192 in October 2014. The reasons for imposing these conditions are not resolved by Code Case OMN-9 [2012 Edition] and, therefore, these conditions have been retained in Revision 2 of RG 1.192.
The conditions on Code Case OMN-12 [2012 Edition] are identical to the conditions on OMN-12 [2004 Edition] that were approved by the NRC in Revision 1 of RG 1.192 in October 2014. The reasons for imposing these conditions are not resolved by Code Case OMN-12 [2012 Edition] and, therefore, these conditions have been retained in Revision 2 of RG 1.192.
Code Case OMN-16, 2006 Addenda, was approved by the NRC in Regulatory Guide 1.192, Revision 1. With respect to Code Case OMN-16, Revision 1, 2012 Edition, there was an editorial error in the publishing of this Code Case in that Figure 1 from the original Code Case (
The ASME OM Code defines Group A pumps as those pumps that are operated continuously or routinely during normal operation, cold shutdown, or refueling operations. The OM Code specifies that each Group A pump undergoes a Group A test quarterly and a comprehensive test biennially. The OM Code requires that the reference value for a comprehensive test to be within 20 percent of pump design flow, while the reference value for a Group A test needs to be within 20 percent of the pump design flow, if practicable. The biennial comprehensive test was developed (first appeared in the 1995 Edition of the OM Code) because pump performance concerns demonstrated that more stringent periodic testing was needed at a flow rate within a more reasonable range of the pump design flow rate, than typically performed during the pump IST in the past.
Currently, when performing either the quarterly Group A test or the biennial comprehensive pump test, licensees must comply with certain limits for the flow Acceptable Range, the flow Required Action Range, the differential pressure (or discharge pressure) Acceptable Range, and the differential pressure (or discharge pressure) Required Action Range. The limits for the quarterly Group A test are obtained by using a factor of 1.10 times the flow reference value (Q
Code Case OMN-18, 2012 Edition, would remove the Code requirement to perform a biennial comprehensive pump test, where the quarterly Group A pump test is performed within ±20 percent of the pump design flow rate, with instruments having the ability to obtain the accuracies required for the comprehensive pump test. The NRC finds the performance of a quarterly Group A pump test, at flow within ±20 percent of the pump design flow rate, will be sufficient to detect mechanical and hydraulic degradation of the tested pump. The NRC finds that this will satisfy the intent of the biennial comprehensive pump test, with the exception that the test acceptable ranges and required action ranges are less precise than required for the comprehensive test. Therefore, the NRC approves Code Case OMN-18, 2012 Edition, with a condition to specify the use of a factor of 1.06 for the Group A test parameters, to be consistent with the test ranges for the comprehensive test. The NRC concludes that the factor of 1.06 will provide a reasonable test range, when applying Code Case OMN-18 to Group A pumps tested quarterly, within ±20 percent of the pump design flow rate. The NRC finds that the quarterly Group A test for pumps within ±20 percent of the pump design flow rate, combined with the provisions in the Code Case OMN-18 for the pump instrumentation and the conditions in RG 1.192 for the test ranges, will provide reasonable assurance of the operational readiness of these pumps, as an acceptable alternative to the comprehensive pump test provisions in the ASME OM Code.
A requirement for a periodic pump verification test was added in Mandatory Appendix V, “Pump Periodic Verification Test Program,” to the 2012 Edition of the OM Code. The mandatory appendix is based on the determination by the ASME that a pump periodic verification test is needed to confirm that a pump can meet the required (differential or discharge) pressure as applicable, at its highest
Surveillance Requirement (SR) 3.0.3 from Technical Specification (TS) 5.5.6, “Inservice Testing Program,” allows licensees to apply a delay period before declaring the SR for TS equipment “not met,” if a licensee inadvertently exceeds or misses the time limit for performing the TS surveillance. Licensees have been applying SR 3.0.3 to inservice tests performed in accordance with the ASME Codes. The NRC has determined that licensees cannot use TS 5.5.6 to apply SR 3.0.3 to inservice tests under § 50.55a(f) that are not associated with a TS surveillance. To invoke SR 3.0.3, the licensee must first discover that a TS surveillance was not performed at its specified frequency. Therefore, the delay period that SR 3.0.3 provides does not apply to non-TS support components tested under § 50.55a(f). The OM Code does not provide for inservice test frequency reductions or extensions. In order to provide inservice test frequency reductions or extensions that cannot be provided by SR 3.0.3 from TS 5.5.6, ASME developed OM Code Case OMN-20. The NRC has reviewed OM Code Case OMN-20 and has found it acceptable for use. The NRC determined that OM Code Case OMN-20 may be applied to editions and addenda of the OM Code that are listed in § 50.55a(a)(1)(iv). Therefore, the NRC has included a condition in RG 1.192, specifying that Code Case OMN-20 is applicable to editions and addenda of the OM Code listed in § 50.55a(a)(1)(iv).
The ASME Code Cases that are currently issued by the ASME, but not approved for generic use by the NRC are listed in RG 1.193, “ASME Code Cases not Approved for Use.” In addition to the ASME Code Cases that the NRC has found to be technically or programmatically unacceptable, RG 1.193 includes Code Cases on reactor designs for high-temperature gas-cooled reactors and liquid metal reactors, reactor designs not currently licensed by the NRC, and certain requirements in Section III, Division 2, for submerged spent fuel waste casks, that are not endorsed by the NRC. Regulatory Guide 1.193 complements RGs 1.84, 1.147, and 1.192; RG 1.193 confirms the Code Cases that are not approved for use. The NRC is not adopting any of the Code Cases listed in RG 1.193.
The proposed rule and draft RGs were published in the
After the close of the public comment period, the NRC held a public meeting on August 22, 2016, to discuss the status of this proposed rule. The public meeting summary is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML16265A001.
The NRC received a total of seven comment submissions on the proposed rule and draft RGs. Table III lists the commenters, their affiliation, and the ADAMS Accession Number for each submission.
The NRC reviewed every comment submission and identified 32 unique comments requiring the NRC's consideration and response. Comment summaries and the NRC's responses are presented in this section. At the end of each summary, the individual comments represented by the summary are identified in the form [XX-YY] where XX represents the Submission ID in Table III and YY represents the sequential comment within the submission.
No public comments were submitted regarding Regulatory Guide 1.84, Revision 37 (Draft Guide (DG)-1295), therefore no NRC response is needed.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
“Note: Steam generator tube repair methods require prior NRC approval through the Technical Specifications. This Code Case does not address certain aspects of this repair,
Regarding proposed Condition (2), Paragraph 1(b)(1) of Code Case N-638-6 contains changes from the previous version of the Code Case, which allows through-wall circumferential welds and includes additional requirements when performing repairs that utilize through-wall circumferential welds. At the time that this revision of the Code Case was approved by the ASME, the staff had concerns related to through-wall repairs. Subsequently, the NRC resolved its concerns. Therefore, the NRC determined that proposed Condition (2) is unnecessary.
The NRC has removed proposed Condition (2) on Code Case N-638-6 from the final RG 1.147, Revision 18.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
As stated in our comment on N-666-1, the phrase “seal weld and” should be removed from the first sentence. Also, the addition of a new condition to a Code Case that was previously unconditionally approved in the Reg. Guide, and is now superseded, seems inappropriate. Several plants would likely have this version of the Code Case in their Section XI “tool box” until the end of their current Inspection Interval, and would be apparently (but not obviously) bound by the new condition, upon issuance of the new revision to Regulatory Guide. The third paragraph under Section B. DISCUSSION, in the draft RG, includes the statement “If a Code Case is implemented by a licensee and a later version of the Code Case is incorporated by reference into 10 CFR 50.55a and listed in Tables 1 and 2 during the licensee's present 120-month ISI program interval, that licensee may use either the later version or the previous version. An exception to this provision would be the inclusion of a limitation or condition on the use of the Code Case that is necessary, for example, to enhance safety.” Perhaps this could be supplemented with another sentence such as, “In this case, the condition will be entered for the superseded Code Case under Table 5.” [EPRI 2-4, Exelon 7-4]
The condition on Code Case N-666 in Table 5 from the final RG 1.147, Revision 18 has been removed.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC currently finds ASME Code Case N-722-2 unacceptable as written due to the following main issues. First, the basis for the removal of the Parts Examined from N-722-1 was found to be in error. According to an ASME Code interpretation, XI-1-13-27, not all items removed in N-722-2 were covered by the inspection requirements of ASME Code Case N-770-1. The ASME Code Case N-722 will need to be revised with a new basis for the removal of Parts Examined to be considered for approval by the NRC. Second, Note 11 is not acceptable. The bases for this concern is the same basis as § 50.55a(g)(6)(ii)(F)(2), which restricts the application of this material condition to exempt volumetric and visual examination requirements in N-770-1. The NRC is concerned that the wording of this exemption may allow insufficiently mitigated items to be exempt from currently required visual inspection requirements for components containing alloy 600/82/182 to maintain structural and leak-tight integrity. Once again though, it is not the intent of the NRC to include these items as conditions or limitations in the regulatory guide. The current wording to redirect the user to the applicable section of § 50.55a(g)(6)(ii)(E) will remain, because versions of this ASME Code Case, as well as N-729 and N-770, are not alternatives to the Code requirements, but are mandated by § 50.55a as augmented ISI requirements. For these reasons the NRC disagrees with the comment.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
1. The comment takes issue with the temperature, T
2. The comment takes issue with the part of the staff's condition stating that
Concerning point 1, the technical bases for the staff's proposed equation for T
Concerning point 2, in order for a permissive condition to be acceptable (
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
The second sentence in the above quote limits the chromium content of at least 24 percent; however, the second sentence began with the word “Alternatively.” The word “Alternatively” implies that the requirement in the second sentence is optional,
For example, a licensee deposits a first weld layer that contains less than 24 percent chromium. The licensee could consider the first layer, as part of the required weld overlay thickness, based on the first sentence above because the first sentence does not identify a specific chromium content. Therefore, it does not restrict the consideration of the first layer for the required weld overlay thickness. The second sentence in the above quote does require the chromium content to be at least 24 percent. However, the licensee could interpret that the second sentence does not apply to this case because the second sentence is an alternate, optional requirement based on the word “Alternatively.”
The staff finds that Condition (3) does not omit the essential technical requirements such as the chrome content in the dilution zone. Condition (3) requires that if the first weld layer cannot achieve a chromium content of at least 24 percent, it cannot be considered as part of the weld overlay thickness. The staff recognizes that Condition (3) provides the same requirements as in Paragraph 1.2(f)(2). However, the purpose of Condition (3) is to clarify the requirements in Paragraph 1.2(f)(2).
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC has removed proposed Condition (2) on Code Case N-789 from the final RG 1.147, Revision 18.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
However, upon review of the public comments, the staff has determined that the risk associated with performing the pressure test with nuclear heat at low power is comparable with the risk to the plant, when the test is performed without nuclear heat (with the core subcritical) during mid-cycle outages when decay heat must be managed. Performing the pressure test under shutdown conditions at full operating pressure without nuclear heat requires securing certain key pressure control, heat removal, and safety systems. Under such conditions, it is more difficult to control temperature and pressure, when there is significant decay heat production, such as after a mid-cycle outage, which may reduce the margin available to prevent exceeding the plant pressure-temperature limits.
The NRC considers it desirable that the scope of repairs be relatively small when the pressure test is conducted using nuclear heat, in order to minimize the personnel safety risk and to avoid rushed examinations. The staff considers it impractical to specify a particular number of welded or mechanical repairs that would constitute a “limited scope.” However, if the plant is still in a refueling outage and has already performed the ASME Section XI Category B-P pressure test of the entire RCPB, it is likely that subsequent repairs would be performed only on an emergent basis and would generally be of a limited scope. Additionally, the overall integrity of the RCPB will have been recently confirmed via the Category B-P test. For mid-cycle maintenance outages, the staff proposes to modify the condition to incorporate a limit on the outage duration of fourteen (14) days. This would tend to limit the scope of repairs, and also limit use of the Code Case to outages when decay heat was a significant problem. Therefore, the first condition on Code Case N-795 in Table 2 of DG-1296, which currently reads:
1. The use of nuclear heat to conduct the BWR Class 1 system leakage test is prohibited (
a. This condition also applies to pressure testing of reactor coolant pressure boundary components repaired or replaced in accordance with Section XI, IWA-4000.
1. The use of nuclear heat to conduct the BWR Class 1 system leakage test is prohibited (
With respect to the comment on the second condition, the NRC disagrees with this comment. A one hour hold time is not unreasonable for non-insulated components. Inspectors do not need to be in containment during the hold time. Comment 5-9 (ASME) discussed the technical basis for Code Case N-795, which stated that pressure testing at 87 percent of full operating pressure would only result in a 7 percent reduction in flow, while the hold time is being increased by 50 percent from 10 minutes to 15 minutes. However, it is not possible to predict the entire range of scenarios or types of defects that could result in leakage. While some types of defects could result in immediate leakage, such as an improperly torqued bolted connection, other types of defects, such as weld defects or tight cracks could represent a more torturous path for leakage and may result in delayed leakage. Because the visual examination may be conducted with the core critical, stay times for examiners in containment may be limited; therefore, it is desirable that any leakage be readily detectable. The staff determined that, due to the uncertainty in the time required for leakage to occur, to an extent that it would be readily detectable by visual examination, it is appropriate to conservatively specify a longer hold time of 1 hour for non-insulated components. Therefore, no changes are made to Condition (2) requiring a 1-hour hold time for non-insulated components.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
Regarding the removal of proposed Condition (3) from N-799, the NRC disagrees with the comment. The NRC doesn't find that the examination of the inner
The AP1000 design is unique in that a reactor coolant pump is welded directly to each of the two outlet nozzles on the steam generator channel head. This SG-to-RCP weld is a dissimilar metal (low alloy steel to cast austenitic stainless steel with Alloy 52/152 weld metal) circumferential butt weld with a double sided weld joint configuration, similar to that of a reactor vessel shell weld. Also, this unique component-to-component weld is part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary and is, therefore, subject to the examination requirements of ASME Section XI, Subsection IWB.
ASME Section XI, IWB-2500 requires a full volume examination of all component welds, except those welds found in piping and those found in nozzles welded to piping. However, for the component-to-component welds in question, Code Case N-799 only requires a licensee to perform a volumetric examination of the inner
The NRC agrees that performing the examination in accordance with Section XI, Appendix VIII, Supplement 10, for detection and sizing would eliminate the need for the requirement to perform a flaw evaluation, based on the largest hypothetical flaw in the unqualified examination volume. However, the NRC determined a full volume examination of the entire weld and heat affected zone is required to provide reasonable assurance of structural integrity of the component-to component welds addressed by Code Case N-799. The NRC also determined that requiring the examination procedures to be qualified in accordance with Section XI, Appendix VIII, Supplement 10, would eliminate the need for several of the other conditions that were proposed for N-799. Therefore, the final regulatory guide was modified to specify only four conditions for Code Case N-799, as follows:
(i) Ultrasonic examination procedures, equipment, and personnel shall be qualified by performance demonstration in accordance with Section XI, Appendix VIII, Supplement 10. When applying the examination requirements of Figure IWB-2500-8, the examination volume shall be extended to include 100 percent of the weld.
(ii) Examination requirements of Section XI, Mandatory Appendix I, paragraph I-3200(c) must be applied.
(iii) Ultrasonic depth and sizing qualifications for cast austenitic stainless steel components must follow Appendix VIII, Supplement 10, using representative cast austenitic stainless steel mockups containing representative cracks and be independent of other Supplement 10 qualifications.
(iv) Cracks detected and not depth sized to Appendix VIII type performance-based procedures, equipment, and personnel qualifications shall be repaired or removed.
The NRC agrees with the examination requirement regarding the consistency between the Code Case and the codes, where the Code Case that has been incorporated should be consistent. The NRC disagrees with the statement that the proposed conditions are not appropriate for a volume of interest Code Case. The NRC is planning to include this topic in a future rulemaking.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
1. The requirements of Code Case N-813 are identical to changes made in the 2013 Edition of Section XI, which are being considered under a separate draft 10 CFR 50.55a rule. The NRC has not proposed any conditions on these requirements in the 2013 Edition. It is inappropriate for the NRC to impose conditions on the same requirements in Case N-813 as the requirements in the 2013 Edition.
2. This Case permits acceptance of subsurface flaws detected during preservice examination using the same criteria applicable to flaws detected during inservice examination. There is no greater likelihood of subsurface flaws detected during preservice examination to grow unacceptably than there is for the same flaws to grow during inservice examination. Operating experience has
3. The technical basis for this Code Case and accompanying Code revision states that the action is being sought to prevent the unnecessary excavation and weld repair of subsurface indications, which can be analytically shown to be benign over the expected service lifetime of a component. Based on operating experience, it is known that weld repairs and their associated stress fields often serve as points of initiation for inservice degradation mechanisms (
4. It is important to note that any preservice flaw that has been evaluated as acceptable is required to receive successive examinations under IWB-2420(b) or IWC-2420(c) so if the flaw does grow, it will be detected during these examinations. [ASME 5-14]
The NRC recognizes that operating experience has shown that repairing a weld that contains fabrication defects may cause the defect to grow in the future. On the other hand, permitting a weld that contains a known unacceptable fabrication defect prior to deployment is not appropriate and is contrary to the fundamental engineering principle of a good design. The fundamental engineering design is that a component should not contain defects before placing it into service. The staff has accepted the provision of ASME BPV Code, Section III that permits acceptable flaws (
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
The NRC has been conducting research at Pacific Northwest National Laboratory on the examination of austenitic and ferritic welds. The work has shown that performing a full volume ultrasonic examination for fabrication flaws is significantly different from an inservice examination. For example, examination from two directions is necessary to detect certain circumferentially oriented fabrication flaws such as lack of fusion. The work has also shown that the second leg of a V-path can be applied to examine ferritic materials on a limited basis but to date the technical basis has not been established to show that these techniques will be effective on austenitic materials and dissimilar metal welds. Another finding is that surface conditions are critical with respect to detecting and characterizing fabrication flaws. In summary, the NRC finds that an analytical approach for the acceptance of certain fabrication flaws could be acceptable if appropriately justified and the scope limited to ferritic materials. The NRC finds that significant research will be required to demonstrate that full-volume ultrasonic examination for fabrication flaws is acceptable for austenitic and dissimilar metal welds.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
ASME recommends revising the second sentence of this paragraph to clarify that “The older or superseded version of the Code Case, if listed in Table 5, cannot be applied by the licensee or applicant for the first time.” [ASME 5-1]
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
ASME recommends that this case be removed from RG 1.193, Table 2 and added to Table 2 of RG 1.147 with appropriate conditions to address NRC technical concerns with the use of this case. [ASME 5-10]
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
ASME provides the following recommendations:
i. ASME recommends that the NRC clarify the above concern in the final rule.
ii. ASME recommends that the NRC review requirements for superseded ASME Section III and OM Code Cases in RG 1.84 and RG 1.192 for similar clarification.
No change was made to the final rule as a result of this comment.
The following paragraphs in § 50.55a, which list the three RGs that are being incorporated by reference, are revised as follows:
This rulemaking amends § 50.55a to incorporate by reference RG 1.84, Revision 37, which supersedes Revision 36; RG 1.147, Revision 18, which supersedes Revision 17; and RG 1.192, Revision 2, which supersedes Revision 1. The following general guidance applies to the use of the ASME Code Cases approved in the latest versions of the RGs that are incorporated by reference into § 50.55a as part of this rulemaking.
The approval of a Code Case in the NRC RGs constitutes acceptance of its technical position for applications that are not precluded by regulatory or other requirements or by the recommendations in these or other RGs. The applicant and/or licensee are responsible for ensuring that use of the Code Case does not conflict with regulatory requirements or licensee
The ASME Code Cases may be revised for many reasons (
Section III of the ASME BPV Code applies only to new construction (
A licensee's ISI and IST programs must be updated every 10 years to the latest edition and addenda of Section XI and the OM Code, respectively, that were incorporated by reference into § 50.55a and in effect 12 months prior to the start of the next inspection and testing interval. Licensees who were using a Code Case prior to the effective date of its revision may continue to use the previous version for the remainder of the 120-month ISI or IST interval. This relieves licensees of the burden of having to update their ISI or IST program each time a Code Case is revised by the ASME and approved for use by the NRC. Code Cases apply to specific editions and addenda, and Code Cases may be revised if they are no longer accurate or adequate, so licensees choosing to continue using a Code Case during the subsequent ISI or IST interval must implement the latest version incorporated by reference into § 50.55a and listed in the RGs.
The ASME may annul Code Cases that are no longer required, are determined to be inaccurate or inadequate, or have been incorporated into the BPV or OM Codes. If an applicant or a licensee applied a Code Case before it was listed as annulled, the applicant or the licensee may continue to use the Code Case until the applicant or the licensee updates its construction Code of Record (in the case of an applicant, updates its application) or until the licensee's 120-month ISI or IST update interval expires, after which the continued use of the Code Case is prohibited, unless NRC authorization is given under § 50.55a(z). If a Code Case is incorporated by reference into § 50.55a and later annulled by the ASME because experience has shown that the design analysis, construction method, examination method, or testing method is inadequate, the NRC will amend § 50.55a and the relevant RG to remove the approval of the annulled Code Case. Applicants and licensees should not begin to implement such annulled Code Cases in advance of the rulemaking.
A Code Case may be revised, for example, to incorporate user experience. The older or superseded version of the Code Case cannot be applied by the licensee or applicant for the first time.
If an applicant or a licensee applied a Code Case before it was listed as superseded, the applicant or the licensee may continue to use the Code Case until the applicant or the licensee updates its Construction Code of Record (in the case of an applicant, updates its application) or until the licensee's 120-month ISI or IST update interval expires, after which the continued use of the Code Case is prohibited, unless NRC authorization is given under § 50.55a(z). If a Code Case is incorporated by reference into § 50.55a and later a revised version is issued by the ASME because experience has shown that the design analysis, construction method, examination method, or testing method is inadequate; the NRC will amend § 50.55a and the relevant RG to remove the approval of the superseded Code Case. Applicants and licensees should not begin to implement such superseded Code Cases in advance of the rulemaking.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the NRC certifies that this rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This final rule affects only the licensing and operation of nuclear power plants. The companies that own these plants do not fall within the scope of the definition of “small entities” set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act or the size standards established by the NRC (§ 2.810).
The NRC has prepared a final regulatory analysis on this regulation. The analysis examines the costs and benefits of the alternatives considered by the NRC. The total estimated net benefit of this rule is $4.94 million (7% discount rate) and $5.68 million (3% discount rate). The regulatory analysis is available as indicated in the “Availability of Documents” section of this document.
The provisions in this rule allow licensees and applicants to voluntarily apply NRC-approved Code Cases, sometimes with NRC-specified conditions. The approved Code Cases are listed in the three RGs that are incorporated by reference into § 50.55a.
An applicant's or a licensee's voluntary application of an approved Code Case does not constitute backfitting, inasmuch as there is no imposition of a new requirement or new position. Similarly, voluntary application of an approved Code Case by a 10 CFR part 52 applicant or licensee does not represent NRC imposition of a requirement or action that is inconsistent with any issue finality provision in 10 CFR part 52. The NRC finds that this rule does not involve any provisions requiring the preparation of a backfit analysis or documentation demonstrating that one or more of the issue finality criteria in 10 CFR part 52 are met.
The Plain Writing Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-274) requires Federal agencies to write documents in a clear, concise, and well-organized manner. The NRC has written this document to be consistent with the Plain Writing Act as well as the Presidential Memorandum, “Plain Language in Government Writing,” published June 10, 1998 (63 FR 31883).
The Commission has determined under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in subpart A of 10 CFR part 51, that this rule, if adopted, would not be a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment; therefore, an
The determination of this environmental assessment is that there will be no significant effect on the quality of the human environment from this action. As alternatives to the ASME Code, NRC-approved Code Cases provide an equivalent level of safety. Therefore, the probability or consequences of accidents is not changed. There are also no significant, non-radiological impacts associated with this action because no changes would be made affecting non-radiological plant effluents and because no changes would be made in activities that would adversely affect the environment. The determination of this environmental assessment is that there will be no significant offsite impact to the public from this action.
This final rule contains new or amended collections of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The burden to the public for these information collections is estimated to average a reduction of 380 hours per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the information collection.
The information collection is being conducted to document the plans for and the results of inservice inspection and inservice testing programs. The records are generally historical in nature and provide data on which future activities can be based. The practical utility of the information collection for the NRC is that appropriate records are available for auditing by NRC personnel to determine if ASME BPV and OM Code provisions for construction, inservice inspection, repairs, and inservice testing are being properly implemented in accordance with § 50.55a of the NRC regulations, or whether specific enforcement actions are necessary. Responses to this collection of information are generally mandatory under § 50.55a.
You may submit comments on any aspect of the information collection(s), including suggestions for reducing the burden, by the following methods:
•
•
The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a request for information or an information collection requirement, unless the requesting document displays a currently valid OMB control number.
This final rule is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule, as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995, Public Law 104-113, requires that Federal agencies use technical standards that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies, unless using such a standard is inconsistent with applicable law or is otherwise impractical. In this rule, the NRC is continuing to use ASME BPV and OM Code Cases, which are ASME-approved alternatives to compliance with various provisions of the ASME BPV and OM Codes. The NRC's approval of the ASME Code Cases is accomplished by amending the NRC's regulations to incorporate by reference the latest revisions of the following, which are the subject of this rulemaking, into § 50.55a: RG 1.84, Revision 37; RG 1.147, Revision 18; and RG 1.192, Revision 2. These RGs list the ASME Code Cases that the NRC has approved for use. The ASME Code Cases are national consensus standards, as defined in the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 and OMB Circular A-119. The ASME Code Cases constitute voluntary consensus standards, in which all interested parties (including the NRC and licensees of nuclear power plants) participate.
The NRC is incorporating by reference three NRC Regulatory Guides that list new and revised ASME Code Cases, which the NRC has approved as alternatives to certain provisions of NRC-required Editions and Addenda of the ASME BPV Code and the ASME OM Code.
The NRC is required by law to obtain approval for incorporation by reference from the Office of the Federal Register (OFR). The OFR's requirements for incorporation by reference are set forth in 1 CFR part 51. On November 7, 2014, the OFR adopted changes to its regulations governing incorporation by reference (79 FR 66267). The OFR regulations require an agency to include, in a proposed rule, a discussion of the ways that the materials the agency proposes to incorporate by reference are reasonably available to interested parties or how it worked to make those materials reasonably available to interested parties. The discussion in this section complies with the requirement for final rules, as set forth in 1 CFR 51.5(b).
The NRC considers “interested parties” to include all potential NRC stakeholders, not only the individuals and entities regulated or otherwise subject to the NRC's regulatory oversight. These NRC stakeholders are not a homogenous group, so the considerations for determining “reasonable availability” vary by class of interested parties. The NRC identifies six classes of interested parties with regard to the material to be incorporated by reference in an NRC rule:
• Individuals and small entities regulated or otherwise subject to the NRC's regulatory oversight. This class includes applicants and potential applicants for licenses and other NRC regulatory approvals, and who are subject to the material to be incorporated by reference. In this context, “small entities” has the same meaning as set out in § 2.810.
• Large entities otherwise subject to the NRC's regulatory oversight. This class includes applicants and potential applicants for licenses and other NRC regulatory approvals, and who are subject to the material to be incorporated by reference. In this context, a “large entity” is one which does not qualify as a “small entity” under § 2.810.
• Non-governmental organizations with institutional interests in the matters regulated by the NRC.
• Other Federal agencies, states, local governmental bodies (within the meaning of § 2.315(c)).
• Federally-recognized and State-recognized
• Members of the general public (
The three regulatory guides being incorporated by reference in this rule are available without cost and can be read online, downloaded, or viewed, by appointment, at the NRC Technical Library, which is located at Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852; telephone: 301-415-7000; e-mail:
Because access to the three regulatory guides are available in various forms and at no cost, the NRC determines that the three regulatory guides, RG 1.84, Revision 37; RG 1.147, Revision 18; and RG 1.192, Revision 2, once approved by the OFR for incorporation by reference, are reasonably available to all interested parties.
The documents identified in the following table are available to interested persons through one or more of the following methods, as indicated.
Administrative practice and procedure, Antitrust, Classified information, Criminal penalties, Education, Fire prevention, Fire protection, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nuclear power plants and reactors, Penalties, Radiation protection, Reactor siting criteria, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Whistleblowing.
For the reasons set out in the preamble and under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and 5 U.S.C. 552 and 553, the NRC is adopting the following amendments to 10 CFR part 50:
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 101, 102, 103, 104, 105, 108, 122, 147, 149, 161, 181, 182, 183, 184, 185, 186, 187, 189, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2131, 2132, 2133, 2134, 2135, 2138, 2152, 2167, 2169, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2235, 2236, 2237, 2239, 2273, 2282); Energy
(a) * * *
(3) * * *
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
This document was received for publication by the Office of the Federal Register on January 3, 2018.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Aerospace Welding Minneapolis, Inc. mufflers, part numbers A1754001-23 and A1754001-25, installed on airplanes. This AD was prompted by occurrences of cracks or broken welds in the connecting weld of the muffler body to muffler cuff that may allow carbon monoxide exhaust fumes into the cockpit heating system. This AD requires an inspection of the muffler for leaking to identify cracks and replacement of the muffler. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective February 21, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of February 21, 2018.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Aerospace Welding Minneapolis, Inc. (AWI) 1045 Gemini Road, Eagan, Minnesota 55121; telephone: 651-379-9888; fax: 651-379-9889; internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Mark Grace, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Chicago ACO Branch, 2300 East Devon Avenue, Des Plaines, IL 60018-4696; telephone: (847) 294-7377; fax: (847) 294-7834; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Aerospace Welding Minneapolis, Inc. (AWI) mufflers, part numbers A1754001-23 and A1754001-25, installed on airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this final rule. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
An anonymous commenter requested we expand the applicability of the AD to include additional part number mufflers produced by the same manufacturer as the mufflers affected by this AD. The commenter thinks the additional part number mufflers may share some of the same materials, processes, and methods of assembly as the mufflers affected by this AD.
We do not agree with this comment. We addressed this concern during the investigation of the unsafe condition. We found that the unsafe condition is related to a design change and was applicable to one manufacturing lot. The unsafe condition applies to only the part numbers and serial numbers affected by this AD.
We have not changed this AD based on this comment.
An anonymous commenter pointed out that that all 10 SDRs address the Models 172R and 172S airplanes. This commenter also asks how many of the 56 parts were installed on Cessna Models C172R and C172S airplanes. The commenter explains that (AWI) mufflers, part numbers A1754001-23 and A1754001-25, lack the reinforced ends and high temperature corrosion resistant material specified in FAR Part 23.1125(a)(1). The material substitution
We do not agree with the implication that the installation prohibition should apply to all produced parts or only apply to the Cessna Model 172R and 172S airplanes. The unsafe condition resulted from a design change with a limited serial number effectivity and that is approved for installation on other models. We don't know how many parts are installed or could be installed in the future on the Cessna Models C172R and C172S airplanes. The current applicability captures all the potentially unsafe parts in the field. Concerns about material substitutions complying with 14 CFR 23.1125(a)(1) goes beyond the scope of this AD.
We have not changed this AD based on this comment.
An anonymous commenter requested we issue an AD similar to a Transport Canada AD which requires an ongoing periodic pressure testing of the exhaust systems to help identify and reduce the risk of CO entering the cabin area.
We do not agree with this comment. This AD addresses the identified unsafe condition on the affected mufflers by requiring removal of the affected mufflers from airplanes. A more general pressure testing of exhaust systems is beyond the scope of this AD.
We have not changed this AD based on this comment.
An anonymous commenter requested we require parts manufacturer approval (PMA) spot weld procedures to be more rigid. The commenter stated that manually operated spot welding machines do not consistently control pressure, time, or frequency as required by weld schedules because the human operator controls those factors. It is almost impossible to meet the weld code without a computer aided machine.
We do not agree with this comment. Regulating how spot welds are done goes beyond the scope of this AD. This AD addresses the identified unsafe condition on the affected mufflers by requiring removal of the affected mufflers from airplanes.
We have not changed this AD based on this comment.
An anonymous commenter requested we not allow the substitution of less heat resistant material for higher heat resistant material. There are a number of FAA-approved PMA articles in existence certified by Identicality or Test and Computation where less heat resistant materials have been substituted. In many cases these PMA articles are used as terminating action to ADs and undermine the basis of the AD.
We do not agree with this comment. An applicant for a PMA must demonstrate compliance with the applicable regulations before the PMA is granted. This AD addresses the unsafe condition on the affected mufflers by requiring removal of the affected mufflers from airplanes. Changing the PMA process goes beyond the scope of this AD.
We have not changed this AD based on this comment.
David McGhee requested we ensure documents related to the AD are readily available. Although requested several times by telephone and email, the commenter was unable to obtain a copy of related service information. This made review and comment on the proposed AD difficult.
We agree with this comment. Related documents should be available for a timely review of the AD. The NPRM incorrectly cited the related AWI service bulletin as AWI Mandatory Service Bulletin No. 16063001, dated June 30, 2015. The correct citation should read AWI Mandatory Service Bulletin No. 15063001, dated June 30, 2015. We confirmed the availability of the related service bulletin with the document provider and confirmed the commenter received a copy prior to the close of the comment period.
We changed this AD to use the correct citation based on this comment.
David McGhee requested we add the cost to determine if the affected muffler is installed on the airplane to the estimated cost of the AD. The related service information estimated it would take 1 hour of labor to inspect the airplane to determine if the affected muffler is installed.
We do not agree with this comment. The estimated cost of the AD applies specifically to addressing and correcting the unsafe condition. The FAA process for determining the cost of compliance does not include the initial determination of applicability. Also, for many airplanes, a review of the maintenance records will identify if the affected muffler is installed.
We have not changed this AD based on this comment.
David McGhee requested we revise the AD to allow the use of other service information for installing a replacement muffler. Operators may choose to install an FAA-approved muffler from a source other than AWI. The service information proposed in the NPRM may not be appropriate for mufflers produced by a different manufacturer.
We agree with this comment. If an operator installs an FAA-approved muffler other than the AWI muffler, the installation instructions from that manufacturer should be used.
We have revised the language in this AD to allow the use of the manufacturer's installation instructions for the specific muffler that is being installed.
Thomas Nelson requested we revise the subject heading of the AD because it is not part of the company's name and implies the AD applies to all mufflers made by this company.
We partially agree with this comment. We agree the subject header could more clearly define the specific mufflers this AD applies to; however, we disagree with revising the subject header. The subject header is intended as a general header and is not intended to include details that address the specifics of applicability. The Office of the Federal Register develops the guidelines for the format and structure of rulemaking documents for all federal agencies to follow.
We have not changed this AD based on this comment.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this final rule with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this final rule.
We reviewed AWI Cessna 172 (Lycoming) Muffler Removal and Installation, Revision 01, January 17, 2017. The service information describes procedures for removing and replacing the affected mufflers. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We reviewed AWI Mandatory Service Bulletin No. 15063001, dated June 30, 2015. The service bulletin describes how to identify the installation of an affected muffler.
We estimate that this AD affects 171 mufflers installed on airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
This AD affects 171 mufflers with PMA; however, only 9 mufflers remain in service.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to small airplanes, gliders, balloons, airships, domestic business jet transport airplanes, and associated appliances to the Director of the Policy and Innovation Division.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective February 21, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to Aerospace Welding Minneapolis, Inc. (AWI) mufflers listed in figure 1 of paragraph (c) of this AD that are installed on but not limited to the airplanes listed in figure 2 of paragraph (c) of this AD.
You may use AWI Mandatory Service Bulletin No. 15063001, dated June 30, 2015, to identify if an affected muffler is installed on the airplane.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC)/Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 7820, Exhaust Noise Suppressor.
This AD was prompted by occurrences of cracks or broken welds in the connecting weld of the muffler body to muffler cuff that may allow carbon monoxide (CO) exhaust fumes into the cockpit heating system. We are issuing this AD to prevent cracks in the connecting weld of the muffler body to muffler cuff that may allow CO fumes to enter the cockpit heating system and possibly inhibit the pilot's ability to maintain control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Within 5 hours time-in-service after February 21, 2018 (the effective date of this AD), inspect the affected muffler following the instructions listed in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (iii).
(i) Using a vacuum cleaner with the hose attached to the blowing side of the vacuum (with the filter installed), attach the vacuum to the airplane tailpipe and seal securely.
(ii) The vacuum will pressurize the system sufficiently for a soap solution to be brushed or applied from a spray bottle to the surface of the exhaust system.
(iii) Inspect for evidence of breaches (leakage) in the system from cracks.
(2) In lieu of doing the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, within 5 hours after February 21, 2018 (the effective date of this AD), you may remove the affected muffler following AWI Cessna 172 (Lycoming) Muffler Removal and Installation, Revision 01, January 17, 2017, and replace the affected muffler with an FAA-approved part that is not a muffler listed in figure 1 of paragraph (c) of this AD following the manufacturer's instructions.
(3) If replacement specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD is done instead of the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, then paragraph (h)(3) of this AD is the only additional requirement of this AD.
(1) If evidence of breaches (leakage) is found during the inspection required in paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, remove the affected muffler following AWI Cessna 172 (Lycoming) Muffler Removal and Installation, Revision 01, January 17, 2017, and replace the affected muffler with an FAA-approved part that is not a muffler listed in figure 1 of paragraph (c) of this AD following the manufacturer's instructions.
(2) If no evidence of breaches (leakage) is found during the inspection required in paragraph (g) of this AD, within the next 100 hours TIS after February 21, 2018 (the effective date of this AD) or at the next annual inspection after February 21, 2018 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs later, remove and replace the affected muffler with an FAA-approved part that is not a muffler listed in figure 1 of paragraph (c) of this AD as described in (h)(1).
(3) After February 21, 2018 (the effective date of this AD), do not install on any airplane an affected muffler listed in figure 1 of paragraph (c) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Chicago ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
For more information about this AD, contact Mark Grace, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Chicago ACO Branch, 2300 East Devon Avenue, Des Plaines, IL 60018-4696; telephone: (847) 294-7377; fax: (847) 294-7834; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) AWI Cessna 172 (Lycoming) Muffler Removal and Installation, Revision 01, January 17, 2017.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Aerospace Welding Minneapolis, Inc. (AWI) 1045 Gemini Road, Eagan, Minnesota 55121; telephone: 651-379-9888; fax: 651-379-9889; internet:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Policy and Innovation Division, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Bell Helicopter Textron (Bell) Model 204B, 205A, and 205A-1 helicopters with a Helicopter Technology Company (HTC) main rotor (M/R) blade installed. This AD requires cleaning and visually inspecting the M/R blades, and depending on the outcome of the inspection, repairing or replacing the M/R blades. This AD is prompted by a report of an M/R blade with a fatigue crack in the grip plate and doublers at the blade retention bolt hole. The actions of this AD are intended to correct an unsafe condition on these products.
This AD becomes effective February 1, 2018.
We must receive comments on this AD by March 19, 2018.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bell Helicopter Textron, Inc., P.O. Box 482, Fort Worth, TX 76101; telephone (817) 280-3391; fax (817) 280-6466; or at
Galib Abumeri, Aerospace Engineer (Structures), Airframe Section, Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; telephone 562-627-5324; email
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments prior to it becoming effective. However, we invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that resulted from adopting this AD. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the AD, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit them only one time. We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this rulemaking during the comment period. We will consider all the comments we receive and may conduct additional rulemaking based on those comments.
We are adopting a new AD for Bell 204B, 205A and 205A-1 helicopters with an HTC M/R blade part number (P/N) 204P2100-101 installed. This AD requires repetitive inspections of the exposed areas of the lower grip pad and upper and lower grip plates of each M/R blade for a crack, corrosion, an edge void, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, and an edge delamination.
The actions of this AD are the same as those required by AD 2016-22-07 (81 FR 74285, October 26, 2016), which applies to Bell Model 204B, 205A and 205A-1 helicopters with an M/R blade P/N 204-011-200-001 or P/N 204-011-250-(all dash numbers) installed. AD 2016-22-07 was prompted by a report of an M/R blade with multiple fatigue cracks around the retention bolt hole.
This AD is prompted by a report that during a ground inspection, a crack was discovered in the grip plate and doublers at the blade retention bolt hole of a UH-1B helicopter model. The blade, which HTC produced for restricted category and commercial model helicopters, had 926 hours TIS and is of the same design as the M/R blades in AD 2016-22-07. We are issuing this AD to detect or prevent a crack, which could lead to failure of an M/R blade and subsequent loss of helicopter control.
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of these same type designs.
HTC has issued Service Notice No. 204-2100-1 on July 5, 2017, for affected helicopters with M/R blade P/N 204P2100-101, serial numbers A099 through A119 installed. This service notice specifies cleaning and visually inspecting the M/R blades and depending on the outcome, repairing or replacing the blades in accordance with AD 2016-23-09.
We also reviewed Bell Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. UH-1H-13-09, dated January 14, 2013, for the Model UH-1H helicopter. ASB No. UH-1H-13-09 specifies a one-time visual inspection, within 10 hours time-in-service (TIS), of the lower grip pad and upper and lower grip plates for cracks, edge voids, and loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out. ASB No. UH-1H-13-09 also specifies a repetitive and more detailed visual inspection, daily and at every 150 hours TIS, of the lower grip pad, upper and lower grip plates, and all upper and the lower doublers for cracks, corrosion, edge voids, and loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out.
Lastly, we reviewed Bell Helicopter ASB No. 204-75-1 for Model 204B helicopters and ASB No. 205-75-5 for Model 205A-1 helicopters, both Revision C and both dated April 25, 1979. ASB No. 204-75-1 and ASB No. 205-75-5 specify visually inspecting
This AD requires within 25 hours time-in-service (TIS) or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 25 hours TIS or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, cleaning the upper and lower exposed surfaces of each M/R blade from an area starting at the butt end of the blade to three inches outboard of the doublers. Using a 3X or higher power magnifying glass and a light, this AD also requires visually inspecting various M/R blade parts for a crack or corrosion. If there is a crack, corrosion, an edge void, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, or an edge delamination, before further flight, this AD requires repairing the M/R blade or replacing it with an airworthy M/R blade, depending on whether the condition is within maximum repair damage limits.
This AD also requires reporting information about any cracks found during the inspection to the FAA within 10 days.
This AD requires all inspections every 25 hours TIS or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first. ASB 204-75-1 and ASB 205-75-5 call for daily visual inspections, and inspections, rework, and refinishing every 1,000 hours TIS or 12 months, whichever occurs first. The service information applies to Bell M/R blade P/N 204-011-250. This AD applies to HTC M/R blade P/N 204P2100-101.
We consider this AD to be an interim action. The notification of a crack in the M/R blade that is required by this AD may enable us to obtain better insight into the cause of the M/R blade cracking. This information may help us develop additional action to address this unsafe condition. Once this action is developed, approved, and available, we might consider additional rulemaking.
We estimate that this AD affects 10 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect the following costs:
• Cleaning and performing all inspections of a set of M/R blades (2 per helicopter) requires 0.5 work-hour for a cost of $43 per helicopter and $430 for the U.S. fleet per inspection cycle.
• Replacing an M/R blade requires 12 work-hours and parts cost $86,000 for a total cost of $87,020 per blade.
• Reporting the inspection results required by this AD will require about 0.5 work-hour for a cost of $43 per helicopter and $430 for the U.S. fleet per report.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting required by this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591. ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adopting these AD requirements would delay implementing the safety actions needed to correct this known unsafe condition. Therefore, we find that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to the adoption of this rule because the required corrective actions must be accomplished within two weeks.
Since an unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD, we determined that notice and opportunity for prior public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and that good cause exists to make this AD effective in less than 30 days.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Bell Helicopter Textron (Bell) Model 204B, 205A, and 205A-1 helicopters with a Helicopter Technology Company (HTC) main rotor (M/R) blade part number 204P2100-101 installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a crack in an M/R blade, which could result in failure of an M/R blade and subsequent loss of helicopter control.
This AD becomes effective February 1, 2018.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Within 25 hours time-in-service (TIS) or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 25 hours TIS or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, clean the upper and lower exposed surfaces of each M/R blade from an area starting at the butt end of the blade to three inches outboard of the doublers. Using a 3X or higher power magnifying glass and a light, inspect as follows:
(i) Visually inspect the exposed areas of the lower grip pad and upper and lower grip plates of each M/R blade for a crack and any corrosion.
(ii) On the upper and lower exposed surfaces of each M/R blade from blade stations 24.5 to 35 for the chord width, visually inspect each layered doubler and blade skin for a crack and any corrosion. Pay particular attention for any cracking in a doubler or skin near or at the same blade station as the blade retention bolt hole (blade station 28).
(iii) Visually inspect the exposed areas of each bond line at the edges of the lower grip pad, upper and lower grip plates, and each layered doubler (bond lines) on the upper and lower surfaces of each M/R blade for the entire length and chord width for an edge void, any corrosion, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, and an edge delamination. Pay particular attention to any crack in the paint finish that follows the outline of a grip pad, grip plate, or doubler, and to any loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, as these may be the indication of an edge void.
(2) If there is a crack, any corrosion, an edge void, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, or an edge delamination during any inspection in paragraph (e)(1) of this AD, before further flight, do the following:
(i) If there is a crack in a grip pad or any grip plate or doubler, replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(ii) If there is a crack in the M/R blade skin that is within maximum repair damage limits, repair the M/R blade. If the crack exceeds maximum repair damage limits, replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(iii) If there is any corrosion within maximum repair damage limits, repair the M/R blade. If the corrosion exceeds maximum repair damage limits, replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(iv) If there is an edge void in the grip pad or in a grip plate or doubler, determine the length and depth using a feeler gauge. Repair the M/R blade if the edge void is within maximum repair damage limits or replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(v) If there is an edge void in a grip plate or doubler near the outboard tip, tap inspect the affected area to determine the size and shape of the void. Repair the M/R blade if the edge void is within maximum repair damage limits or replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(vi) If there is any loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out along any of the bond lines, trim or scrape away the adhesive without damaging the adjacent surfaces or parent material of the M/R blade. Determine if there is an edge void or any corrosion by lightly sanding the trimmed area smooth using 280 or finer grit paper. If there is no edge void or corrosion, refinish the sanded area.
(vii) If there is an edge delamination along any of the bond lines or a crack in the paint finish, determine if there is an edge void or a crack in the grip pad, grip plate, doubler, or skin by removing paint from the affected area by lightly sanding in a span-wise direction using 180-220 grit paper. If there are no edge voids and no cracks, refinish the sanded area.
(viii) If any parent material is removed during any sanding or trimming in paragraphs (e)(2)(vi) or (e)(2)(vii) of this AD, repair the M/R blade if the damage is within maximum repair damage limits or replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(3) If there is a crack during any inspection in paragraph (e)(1) of this AD, within 10 days after completing the inspection, report the information requested in Appendix 1 to this AD by mail to the Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; attn. Galib Abumeri; or by email to
Special flight permits are prohibited.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 30 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Galib Abumeri, Aerospace Engineer (Structures), Airframe Section, Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; telephone 562-627-5324; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
HTC Service Notice No. 204-2100-1, dated July 5, 2017; Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. UH-1H-13-09, dated January 14, 2013; Bell ASB No. 204-75-1 and Bell ASB No. 205-75-5, both Revision C and both dated April 25, 1979, which are not incorporated by reference, contain additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Bell Helicopter Textron, Inc., P.O. Box 482, Fort Worth, TX 76101; telephone (817) 280-3391; fax (817) 280-6466; or at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6210, Main Rotor Blades.
Please report the following information by mail to the Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; attn. Galib Abumeri; or by email to
(1) Date of inspection:
(2) Aircraft N-number:
(3) M/R blade serial number:
(4) M/R blade hours of time-in-service:
(5) Location of each crack:
(6) Dimension of each crack:
(7) Primary operating location of the M/R blade:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Model TH-1F, UH-1B, UH-1F, UH-1H, and UH-1P helicopters with a Helicopter Technology Company (HTC) main rotor (M/R) blade installed. This AD requires cleaning and visually inspecting the M/R blades and, depending on the outcome of the inspection, repairing or replacing the M/R blades. This AD is prompted by a report of an M/R blade with a fatigue crack in the grip plate and doublers at the blade retention bolt hole. The actions of this AD are intended to correct an unsafe condition on these products.
This AD becomes effective February 1, 2018.
We must receive comments on this AD by March 19, 2018.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bell Helicopter Textron, Inc., P.O. Box 482, Fort Worth, TX 76101; telephone (817) 280-3391; fax (817) 280-6466; or at
Galib Abumeri, Aerospace Engineer (Structures), Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; telephone 562-627-5324; email
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not provide you with notice and an opportunity to provide your comments prior to it becoming effective. However, we invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that resulted from adopting this AD. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the AD, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit them only one time. We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this rulemaking during the comment period. We will consider all the comments we receive and may conduct additional rulemaking based on those comments.
We are adopting a new AD for restricted category Model TH-1F, UH-1B, UH-1F, UH-1H, and UH-1P helicopters with an HTC M/R blade part number (P/N) 204P2100-101 installed. This AD requires repetitive inspections of the exposed areas of the lower grip pad and upper and lower grip plates of each M/R blade for a crack, corrosion, an edge void, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, and an edge delamination. The type certificate holders for these model helicopters are: Arrow Falcon Exporters Inc.; AST, Inc.; California Department of Forestry; Global Helicopter Technology, Inc.; Hagglund Helicopters, LLC; International Helicopters, Inc.; JJASPP Engineering Services, LLC; Northwest Rotorcraft, LLC; OAS Parts LLC; Red Tail Flying Services, LLC; Richards Heavylift Helo, Inc.; Robinson Air Crane, Inc.; Rotorcraft Development Corporation; San Joaquin Helicopters; Southwest Florida Aviation International, Inc.; and Tamarack Helicopters, Inc.
The actions of this AD are the same as those required by AD 2016-23-09 (81 FR 83660, November 22, 2016), which applies to various restricted category helicopters with an M/R blade P/N 204-011-250-005 or P/N 204-011-250-113 installed. AD 2016-23-09 was prompted by a report of an M/R blade with multiple fatigue cracks around the retention bolt hole.
This AD is prompted by a report that during a ground inspection, a crack was discovered in the grip plate and doublers at the blade retention bolt hole of a UH-1B helicopter model. The blade, which HTC produced for restricted category and commercial model helicopters, had 926 hours TIS and is of the same design as the M/R blades in AD 2016-23-09. We are issuing this AD to detect or prevent a crack, which could lead to failure of an M/R blade and subsequent loss of helicopter control.
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of these same type designs.
We reviewed Bell Helicopter Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. UH-1H-13-09, dated January 14, 2013, for the Model UH-1H helicopter. ASB No. UH-1H-13-09 specifies a one-time visual inspection, within 10 hours time-in-service (TIS), of the lower grip pad and upper and lower grip plates for cracks, edge voids, and loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out. ASB No. UH-1H-13-09 also specifies a repetitive and more detailed visual inspection, daily and at every 150 hours TIS, of the lower grip pad, upper and lower grip plates, and all upper and the lower doublers for cracks, corrosion, edge voids, and loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out.
We also reviewed HTC Service Notice No. 204-2100-1, dated July 5, 2017, for
This AD requires within 25 hours time-in-service (TIS) or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 25 hours TIS or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, cleaning the upper and lower exposed surfaces of each M/R blade from an area starting at the butt end of the blade to three inches outboard of the doublers. Using a 3X or higher power magnifying glass and a light, this AD also requires inspecting the M/R blade parts for a crack or corrosion. If there is a crack, corrosion, an edge void, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, or an edge delamination, before further flight, this AD requires repairing the M/R blade or replacing it with an airworthy M/R blade, depending on whether the condition is within maximum repair damage limits.
This AD also requires reporting information about any cracks found during the inspection to the FAA within 10 days.
ASB No. UH-1H-13-09 specifies a one-time inspection and then a second repetitive inspection daily and at every 150 hours TIS. This AD requires all inspections at intervals not to exceed 25 hours TIS or two weeks, whichever occurs first. This AD contains more detailed inspection requirements and a more specific inspection area than the instructions in ASB No. UH-1H-13-09. Lastly, ASB No. UH-1H-13-09 applies to Model UH-1H helicopters with M/R blade P/N 204-011-250-113, while this AD applies to Model UH-1H, TH-1F, UH-1B, UH-1F, and UH-1P helicopters with HTC M/R blade part number (P/N) 204P2100-101.
We consider this AD to be an interim action. The notification of a crack in the M/R blade that is required by this AD may enable us to obtain better insight into the cause of the M/R blade cracking. This information may help us develop additional action to address this unsafe condition. Once this action is developed, approved, and available, we might consider additional rulemaking.
We estimate that this AD affects 10 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 per work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect the following costs:
• Cleaning and performing all inspections of a set of M/R blades (2 per helicopter) requires 0.5 work-hour for a cost of $43 per helicopter and $430 for the U.S. fleet per inspection cycle.
• Replacing an M/R blade requires 12 work-hours and parts cost $86,000 for a total cost of $87,020 per blade.
• Reporting the inspection results required by this AD will require about 0.5 work-hour for a cost of $43 per helicopter and $430 for the U.S. fleet.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting required by this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591. ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adopting these AD requirements would delay implementing the safety actions needed to correct this known unsafe condition. Therefore, we find that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to the adoption of this rule because the required corrective actions must be accomplished within two weeks.
Since an unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD, we determined that notice and opportunity for prior public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and that good cause exists to make this AD effective in less than 30 days.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to the following helicopters, certificated in the restricted category, with a Helicopter Technology Company (HTC) main rotor (M/R) blade part number 204P2100-101 installed:
(1) Arrow Falcon Exporters Inc.; Global Helicopter Technology, Inc.; Hagglund Helicopters, LLC; JJASPP Engineering Services, LLC; Northwest Rotorcraft, LLC; OAS Parts, LLC; Richards Heavylift Helo, Inc.; Rotorcraft Development Corporation; Southwest Florida Aviation International, Inc.; and Tamarack Helicopters, Inc., Model UH-1H helicopters;
(2) International Helicopters, Inc.; OAS Parts, LLC; Red Tail Flying Services, LLC; Richards Heavylift Helo, Inc.; Rotorcraft Development Corporation; San Joaquin Helicopters; and Southwest Florida Aviation International, Inc., Model UH-1B helicopters;
(3) Robinson Air Crane, Inc.; Rotorcraft Development Corporation; and Tamarack Helicopters, Inc., Model TH-1F helicopters;
(4) AST, Inc.; California Department of Forestry, Robinson Air Crane, Inc.; Rotorcraft Development Corporation; and Tamarack Helicopters, Inc., Model UH-1F helicopters; and
(5) Robinson Air Crane, Inc., and Rotorcraft Development Corporation, Model UH-1P helicopters.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a crack in an M/R blade, which could result in failure of the M/R blade and subsequent loss of helicopter control.
This AD becomes effective February 1, 2018.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Within 25 hours time-in-service (TIS) or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 25 hours TIS or 2 weeks, whichever occurs first, clean the upper and lower exposed surfaces of each M/R blade from an area starting at the butt end of the blade to three inches outboard of the doublers. Using a 3X or higher power magnifying glass and a light, inspect as follows:
(i) Visually inspect the exposed areas of the lower grip pad and upper and lower grip plates of each M/R blade for a crack and any corrosion.
(ii) On the upper and lower exposed surfaces of each M/R blade from blade stations 24.5 to 35 for the chord width, visually inspect each layered doubler and blade skin for a crack and any corrosion. Pay particular attention for any cracking in a doubler or skin near or at the same blade station as the blade retention bolt hole (blade station 28).
(iii) Visually inspect the exposed areas of each bond line at the edges of the lower grip pad, upper and lower grip plates, and each layered doubler (bond lines) on the upper and lower surfaces of each M/R blade for the entire length and chord width for an edge void, any corrosion, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, and an edge delamination. Pay particular attention to any crack in the paint finish that follows the outline of a grip pad, grip plate, or doubler, and to any loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, as these may be the indication of an edge void.
(2) If there is a crack, any corrosion, an edge void, loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out, or an edge delamination during any inspection in paragraph (e)(1) of this AD, before further flight, do the following:
(i) If there is a crack in a grip pad or any grip plate or doubler, replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(ii) If there is a crack in the M/R blade skin that is within maximum repair damage limits, repair the M/R blade. If the crack exceeds maximum repair damage limits, replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(iii) If there is any corrosion within maximum repair damage limits, repair the M/R blade. If the corrosion exceeds maximum repair damage limits, replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(iv) If there is an edge void in the grip pad or in a grip plate or doubler, determine the length and depth using a feeler gauge. Repair the M/R blade if the edge void is within maximum repair damage limits or replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(v) If there is an edge void in a grip plate or doubler near the outboard tip, tap inspect the affected area to determine the size and shape of the void. Repair the M/R blade if the edge void is within maximum repair damage limits or replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(vi) If there is any loose or damaged adhesive squeeze-out along any of the bond lines, trim or scrape away the adhesive without damaging the adjacent surfaces or parent material of the M/R blade. Determine if there is an edge void or any corrosion by lightly sanding the trimmed area smooth using 280 or finer grit paper. If there is no edge void or corrosion, refinish the sanded area.
(vii) If there is an edge delamination along any of the bond lines or a crack in the paint finish, determine if there is an edge void or a crack in the grip pad, grip plate, doubler, or skin by removing paint from the affected area by lightly sanding in a span-wise direction using 180-220 grit paper. If there are no edge voids and no cracks, refinish the sanded area.
(viii) If any parent material is removed during any sanding or trimming in paragraphs (e)(2)(vi) or (e)(2)(vii) of this AD, repair the M/R blade if the damage is within maximum repair damage limits or replace the M/R blade with an airworthy M/R blade.
(3) If there is a crack during any inspection in paragraph (e)(1) of this AD, within 10 days after completing the inspection, report the information requested in Appendix 1 to this AD by mail to the Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; attn. Galib Abumeri; or by email to
Special flight permits are prohibited.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 30 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Galib Abumeri, Aerospace Engineer (Structures), Airframe Section, Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; telephone 562-627-5324; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
HTC Service Notice No. 204-2100-1, dated July 5, 2017, and Bell Alert Service Bulletin No. UH-1H-13-09, dated January 14, 2013, which are not incorporated by reference, contain additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Bell Helicopter Textron, Inc., P.O. Box 482, Fort Worth, TX 76101; telephone (817) 280-3391; fax (817) 280-6466; or at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6210, Main Rotor Blades.
Please report the following by mail to the Los Angeles ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 3960 Paramount Blvd., Lakewood, California 90712; attn. Galib Abumeri; or by email to
(1) Date of inspection:
(2) Aircraft N-number:
(3) M/R blade serial number:
(4) M/R blade hours of time-in-service:
(5) Location of each crack:
(6) Dimension of each crack:
(7) Primary operating location of the M/R blade:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 series airplanes. This AD requires contacting the FAA to obtain instructions for addressing the unsafe condition on these products, and doing the actions specified in those instructions. This AD was prompted by an erroneous radio altimeter reading, which caused certain systems to respond in a way that led to loss of speed. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD becomes effective February 15, 2018.
We must receive comments on this AD by March 5, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1137; fax: 425-227-1149.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2013-0112, dated May 28, 2013 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
Following an accident * * * [of an] aeroplane on final approach, the investigating body determined that an important contributing factor to the accident was an erroneous reading of -7 to -8 feet from the left Radio Altimeter (RA). The responses of the autothrottle and autopilot systems to this erroneous RA system reading led to speed loss and, in combination with operational factors, caused the aeroplane to hit the ground before reaching the runway.
Fokker Services conducted an evaluation of the effects of un-flagged erroneous low RA system indications in response to the recommendations in the investigator's report. The result of the evaluation was a new “ERRONEOUS RADIO ALTIMETER INDICATION” abnormal procedure in the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM). This new procedure includes pulling the circuit breaker of a failed RA system, and in support of this, new yellow identification collars to the RA circuit breakers are to be introduced to improve instantaneous recognition, both visual and tactile, in low illumination and under increased workload conditions.
In order to prevent an unsafe condition, similar to the one that contributed to the accident described above, this [EASA] AD requires incorporation of the new abnormal procedure in the AFM and installation of the new yellow RA circuit breaker identification collars.
You may examine the MCAI on the internet at
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
Since there are currently no domestic operators of this product, we find good cause that notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary. In addition, for the reason(s) stated above, we find that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not precede it by notice and opportunity for public comment. We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Currently, there are no affected U.S.-registered airplanes. This AD requires contacting the FAA to obtain instructions for addressing the unsafe condition, and doing the actions specified in those instructions. Based on the actions specified in the MCAI AD, we are providing the following cost estimates for an affected airplane that is placed on the U.S. Register in the future:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective February 1, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 series airplanes, certificated in any category, all serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 34, Navigation.
This AD was prompted by an erroneous radio altimeter (RA) reading, which caused certain systems to respond in a way that led to loss of speed. We are issuing this AD to ensure the flight crew has procedures for detecting erroneous RA readings. Erroneous RA readings could cause the autothrottle and autopilot systems to respond by causing a loss of speed, which, in combination with operational factors, could cause an airplane to hit the ground before reaching the runway.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, request instructions from the Manager, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, to address the unsafe condition specified in paragraph (e) of this AD; and accomplish the action(s) at the times specified in, and in accordance with, those instructions. Guidance can be found in Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2013-0112, dated May 28, 2013.
The Manager, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the International Section, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (i)(2) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(1) Refer to MCAI EASA AD 2013-0112, dated May 28, 2013, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1137; fax: 425-227-1149.
None.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2015-08-51 for the Enstrom Helicopter Corporation (Enstrom) Model F-28A, 280, F-28C, F-28C-2, F-28C-2R, 280C, F-28F, F-28F-R, 280F, 280FX, and 480 helicopters. AD 2015-08-51 required an inspection of the main rotor spindle (spindle) and reporting the inspection results to the FAA. This new AD was prompted by additional reports of cracked spindles and requires establishing a life limit and a recurring inspection. The actions of this AD are intended to prevent the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective February 21, 2018.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Enstrom Helicopter Corporation, 2209 22nd Street, Menominee, MI; telephone (906) 863-1200; fax (906) 863-6821; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Manzoor Javed, Senior Aerospace Engineer, Chicago ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 2300 East Devon Ave., Des Plaines, IL 60018; telephone (847) 294-8112; email
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to remove AD 2015-08-51, Amendment 39-18160 (80 FR 28172, May 18, 2015) (AD 2015-08-51) and add a new AD. AD 2015-08-51 applied to Enstrom Model F-28A, 280, F-28C, F-28C-2, F-28C-2R, 280C, F-28F, F-28F-R, 280F, 280FX, and 480 helicopters with a spindle part number (P/N) 28-14282-11 or 28-14282-13 installed. AD 2015-08-51 required conducting a one-time magnetic particle inspection (MPI) of the spindle for cracks and reporting the inspection results to the FAA. AD 2015-08-51 was prompted by a fatal accident and reports of spindles with cracks. AD 2015-08-51 was issued as an interim action and was intended to detect a crack in a spindle and prevent loss of a main rotor blade and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
The NPRM published in the
Since the NPRM was issued, the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service has changed its organizational structure. The new structure replaces product directorates with functional divisions. We have revised some of the office titles and nomenclature throughout this Final rule to reflect the new organizational changes. Additional information about the new structure can be found in the Notice published on July 25, 2017 (82 FR 34564).
After our NPRM was published, we received comments from 50 commenters.
One commenter supported the 500-hour repetitive inspection proposed by the NPRM.
Many commenters, including Enstrom, disagreed with the FAA's determination that an unsafe condition exists and requested the FAA provide more information about the additional cracks that prompted this AD.
Other commenters requested the FAA provide information about the number of additional reported cracks and whether there is any correlation between cracks and manufacturing dates or suppliers. Enstrom stated the cracked spindles discovered after the accident were manufactured between 1975 to 1980 by two specific suppliers.
We agree with Enstrom's comment that the cracked spindles discovered after the accident were manufactured between 1975 to 1980 by two specific suppliers. However, the accident helicopter had two cracked and one failed spindle that were manufactured in 1984 by a third manufacturer. The identities of the manufacturers are unknown. The parts were marked differently with a letter designation at the end depending on the manufacturer, but no manufacturing records exist to indicate which letter corresponds to which manufacturer. Therefore, no investigation could be conducted as to what manufacturing processes or specifications used by these suppliers may have resulted in the cracking. Accordingly, we cannot draw a conclusion as to whether the manufacturer and date range are causal factors in the accident.
The parts costs for this AD were provided by the manufacturer. We do not control any price differences or retail pricing.
The labor rate of $85 per hour is provided by the FAA Office of Aviation Policy and Plans for the FAA to use when estimating the labor costs of complying with AD requirements.
We have reviewed the relevant information and determined that an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed.
We reviewed Enstrom Service Directive Bulletin No. 0119, Revision 3, dated June 24, 2016, for Model F-28A, F-28C, F-28F, 280, 280C, 280F, and 280FX helicopters with a spindle P/N 28-14282-11 or 28-14282-13. We also reviewed Enstrom Service Directive Bulletin No. T-050, Revision 3, dated June 24, 2016, for Model 480 helicopters, serial numbers 5001 through 5004 and 5006, and with a spindle P/N 28-14282-13, except those aircraft modified with tension-torsion straps. Both service directive bulletins specify sending the spindle to Enstrom for an MPI before the spindle reaches 1,500 hours TIS, or within 5 hours TIS for those spindles with 1,500 or more hours TIS. Thereafter, the service directive bulletins specify returning the spindle to Enstrom for an MPI every 500 hours.
This AD requires establishing a spindle life limit of 1,500 hours TIS. The service information does not specify a life limit.
This AD requires that the MPI be conducted by a Level II or Level III inspector or equivalent. The service information specifies sending the spindle to Enstrom for an MPI.
This AD requires an initial MPI before further flight for a spindle with 500 or more hours TIS, unless an MPI has been done within the last 500 hours TIS. The service information specifies an initial MPI compliance time of within 5 hours TIS for a spindle with 1,500 or more hours TIS.
We estimate that this AD affects 323 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. Labor costs are estimated at $85 per work-hour. Inspecting the spindles takes about 15 work-hours for an estimated cost of $1,275 per helicopter and $411,825 for the U.S. fleet per inspection cycle. Replacing a cracked spindle costs $8,164 for parts and no additional work-hours. Replacing a set of three spindles that have reached their life limit takes about 14 work-hours and parts will cost $17,500 for a total cost of $18,690 per helicopter.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that a regulatory distinction is required; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Enstrom Model F-28A, 280, F-28C, F-28C-2, F-28C-2R, 280C, F-28F, F-28F-R, 280F, and 280FX helicopters, all serial numbers; and Enstrom Model 480 helicopters, serial numbers 5001 through 5006; with a main rotor spindle (spindle) part number (P/N) 28-14282-11 or 28-14282-13, installed, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a crack in a spindle, which, if not detected, could result in loss of a main rotor blade and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
This AD supersedes AD 2015-08-51, Amendment 39-18160 (80 FR 28172, May 18, 2015).
This AD becomes effective February 21, 2018.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Before further flight, remove from service any spindle P/N 28-14282-11 or 28-14282-13 that has 1,500 or more hours time-in-service (TIS). If the hours TIS of a spindle is unknown, use the TIS of the helicopter. Thereafter, remove from service any spindle P/N 28-14282-11 or 28-14282-13 before accumulating 1,500 hours TIS.
(2) For each spindle with 500 or more hours TIS, using the hours TIS of the helicopter if the hours TIS of the spindle is unknown:
(i) Before further flight, unless already done within the last 500 hours TIS, conduct a magnetic particle inspection (MPI) of the spindle for a crack, paying particular attention to the threaded portion of the spindle. The MPI of the spindle must be conducted by a Level II or Level III inspector qualified in the MPI in the Aeronautics Sector according to the EN4179 or NAS410 standard or equivalent. If there is a crack in the spindle, replace it with an airworthy spindle before further flight.
(ii) Thereafter at intervals not to exceed 500 hours TIS, repeat the MPI specified in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Chicago ACO Branch, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Manzoor Javed, Senior Aerospace Engineer, Chicago ACO Branch, Compliance and Airworthiness Division, FAA, 2300 East Devon Ave., Des Plaines, IL 60018; telephone (847) 294-8112; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
Enstrom Service Directive Bulletin Nos. 0119 and T-050, both Revision 3 and both dated June 24, 2016, which are not incorporated by reference, contain additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Enstrom Helicopter Corporation, 2209 22nd Street, Menominee, MI; telephone (906) 863-1200; fax (906) 863-6821; or at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6220, Main Rotor Head.
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Final rule.
The Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) is adopting revisions to the Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval System (“EDGAR”) Filer Manual and related rules to reflect updates to the EDGAR system. The EDGAR system is scheduled to be upgraded on December 11, 2017.
Effective January 17, 2018. The incorporation by reference of the EDGAR Filer Manual is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of January 17, 2018.
In the Division of Investment Management, for questions concerning Form N-LIQUID and additional data submission protocols for Form N-CEN, contact Heather Fernandez at (202) 551-6708; and in the Division of Corporation Finance, for questions concerning the combined Form 10-D/ABS-EE submission protocols or the new CERT submission form type, contact Heather Macintosh at (202) 551-8111.
We are adopting an updated EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume II. The Filer Manual describes the technical formatting requirements for the preparation and submission of electronic filings through the EDGAR system.
The revisions to the Filer Manual reflect changes within Volume II, entitled EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume II: “EDGAR Filing,” Version 44 (December 2017). The updated manual will be incorporated by reference into the Code of Federal Regulations.
The Filer Manual contains all the technical specifications for filers to submit filings using the EDGAR system. Filers must comply with the applicable provisions of the Filer Manual in order to assure the timely acceptance and processing of filings made in electronic format.
The EDGAR system will be upgraded to Release 17.4 on December 11, 2017 and will introduce the changes referenced below.
EDGAR Release 17.4 will update EDGAR to allow, but not require, asset-backed securities filers to submit a combined Form 10-D and Form ABS-EE. The combined submission would allow filers to concurrently submit and create hyperlinks in Form 10-D to the Form ABS-EE exhibits incorporated by reference into the Form 10-D.
EDGAR Release 17.4 will update EDGAR to allow, but not require, national securities exchanges to submit a new certification form type on EDGAR to evidence the approval of securities for listing on an exchange. EDGAR Release 17.4 will introduce submission
In Release No. 33-10233 (October 13, 2016) [81 FR 82142], the Commission adopted changes to the reporting requirements for open-end management investment companies. Among the changes was the adoption of new Form N-LIQUID, which requires all registered open-end funds (except money market funds) to confidentially notify the Commission when certain events related to their liquidity occur. EDGAR Release 17.4 will update EDGAR to provide a means of submitting information regarding liquidity events using the following form types:
• Current Report Open-End Management Investment Company Liquidity on Form N-LIQUID (N-LIQUID); and
• Amended Current Report Open-End Management Investment Company Liquidity Form N-LIQUID (N-LIQUID/A).
Changes will be made to Chapter 3 (Index to Forms) and Chapter 7 (Preparing and Transmitting Online Submissions) of the EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume II.
In Release No. 33-10231 the Commission also adopted Form N-CEN, which will require investment companies, other than face amount certificate companies, to provide an annual report of census-type information in a structured format. EDGAR Release 17.3 added Form N-CEN and its related submission form types to EDGAR.
Finally, clarifying changes to the instructions for preparing documents that contain interactive data will be made to Chapter 5 (Constructing Attached Documents and Document Types) and Chapter 6 (Interactive Data) of the EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume II.
Along with the adoption of the Filer Manual, we are amending Rule 301 of Regulation S-T to provide for the incorporation by reference into the Code of Federal Regulations of today's revisions. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
The updated EDGAR Filer Manual will be available for website viewing and printing; the address for the Filer Manual is
Since the Filer Manual and the corresponding rule changes relate solely to agency procedures or practice, publication for notice and comment is not required under the Administrative Procedure Act (“APA”).
The effective date for the updated Filer Manual and the rule amendments is January 17, 2018. In accordance with the APA,
We are adopting the amendments to Regulation S-T under Sections 6, 7, 8, 10, and 19(a) of the Securities Act of 1933,
Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
In accordance with the foregoing, Title 17, Chapter II of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s(a), 77z-3, 77sss(a), 78c(b), 78
Filers must prepare electronic filings in the manner prescribed by the EDGAR Filer Manual, promulgated by the Commission, which sets forth the technical formatting requirements for electronic submissions. The requirements for becoming an EDGAR Filer and updating company data are set forth in the updated EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume I: “General Information,” Version 29 (September 2017). The requirements for filing on EDGAR are set forth in the updated EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume II: “EDGAR Filing,” Version 44 (December 2017). Additional provisions applicable to Form N-SAR filers are set forth in the EDGAR Filer Manual, Volume III: “N-SAR Supplement,” Version 6 (January 2017). All of these provisions have been incorporated by reference into the Code of Federal Regulations, which action was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You must comply with these requirements in order for documents to be timely received and accepted. The EDGAR Filer Manual is available for website viewing and printing; the address for the Filer Manual is
By the Commission.
U.S. Copyright Office, Library of Congress.
Final rule.
The United States Copyright Office is issuing a final rule, amending regulations that govern the deposit requirements for certain types of literary works and musical compositions. The final rule is adopted as proposed in the notice of proposed rulemaking, though the Office provides some clarification regarding the rule's application.
Effective February 16, 2018.
Sarang V. Damle, General Counsel and Associate Register of Copyrights, by email at
On August 16, 2017, the Copyright Office published a notice of proposed rulemaking (“NPRM”) to amend the regulations governing the deposit requirements for certain types of literary works (specifically, literary monographs) and musical compositions that are published in print formats.
Under the previous regulations, two copies of the best edition were generally needed to register these types of works and to comply with the mandatory deposit requirement. Under the new rule, copyright owners will be able to satisfy both registration deposit and mandatory deposit requirements by submitting one copy of the best edition of the work. In the case of literary monographs, the Office will retain the right to demand a second copy under the mandatory deposit provision should the Library need it.
As part of these changes, the rule also clarifies the deposit requirements for musical compositions published
All of these changes will improve the efficiency of registration and mandatory deposit for both the Office and copyright owners alike, ensuring that the Office has an adequate registration record and continuing to make these works available to the Library of Congress when needed for use in its collections or other disposition.
The NPRM explained in detail the rationale for the rule changes.
The Association of American Publishers (“AAP”) filed a comment regarding the proposed rule as it relates to the deposit of literary monographs. While the comment appreciates that the rule “could reduce the financial burdens of publishers with respect to deposit regulations,” it nevertheless does not support the rule because it takes issue with the Library's disposition of surplus works. AAP Comments at 2.
AAP appears to believe that there is no authority in the Copyright Act for the Library's disposition of surplus works and that the only authority comes from the Library's own regulations. AAP Comments at 6-7. But as discussed in the NPRM, section 704 of the Copyright Act explicitly states that “[i]n the case of published works, all copies, phonorecords, and identifying material deposited are available to the Library of Congress for its collections,
The National Music Publishers' Association (“NMPA”) filed a comment in support of the rule, subject to certain clarifications pertaining to the deposit of musical compositions. Specifically, NMPA wanted to clarify that “where musical works are originally published solely as phonorecords, and such musical works are properly deposited and registered in accordance with the statutory and regulatory directives . . . that the later publication of the same musical work in the form of a `copy' does not create an additional burden to subsequently deposit and register the work in `copy' form.” NMPA Comments at 2. The Office confirms that a later publication in the form of a “copy” does not create an additional deposit requirement.
As NMPA correctly points out, the Copyright Act defines “best edition” as “the edition, published in the United States
NMPA proposes language to the rule to clarify any confusion regarding subsequent publication of “copies.” The Office believes that the rule in its current form along with the current definition of “best edition” is sufficient and no changes need to be made to the rule.
Copyright, Preregistration and registration of claims to copyright.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Copyright Office amends 37 CFR part 202 as follows:
17 U.S.C. 408(f), 702.
The additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(5) The term
(d) * * *
(2) * * *
(ix) In the case of published literary monographs, the deposit of one complete copy of the best edition of the work will suffice in lieu of the two copies required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless the Copyright Office issues a demand for a second copy pursuant to 17 U.S.C. 407(d).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(3) The terms
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(E) Musical compositions published solely in copies or in both copies and phonorecords, provided that one complete copy (rather than a phonorecord) is deposited.
(L) Published literary monographs.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), is announcing a meeting of the National Organic Standards Board (NOSB) to assist the USDA in the development of standards for substances to be used in organic production and to advise the Secretary of Agriculture on any other aspects of the implementation of the Organic Foods Production Act.
The Board will receive public comments via webinars on April 17 and 19, 2018, from 1:00 p.m. to approximately 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time (ET). An in-person meeting will be held April 25-27, 2018, from 8:30 a.m. to approximately 6:00 p.m. Mountain Time. In-person oral comments will be heard on Wednesday, April 25, and Thursday, April 26, 2018. The deadline to submit written comments and/or sign up for oral comment at either the webinar or face-to-face meeting is 11:59 p.m. ET, April 4, 2018.
The webinars are virtual and will be accessed via the internet and/or phone. Access information will be available on the AMS website prior to the webinars. The in-person meeting will take place at the Tucson University Park Hotel, 880 East Second Street, Tucson, Arizona 85719, United States. Detailed information pertaining to the webinars and in-person meeting can be found at
Ms. Michelle Arsenault, Advisory Committee Specialist, National Organic Standards Board, USDA-AMS-NOP, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Room 2642-S, Mail Stop 0268, Washington, DC 20250-0268; Phone: (202) 720-3252; Email:
The NOSB makes recommendations to the Department of Agriculture about whether substances should be allowed or prohibited in organic production and/or handling, assists in the development of standards for organic production, and advises the Secretary on other aspects of the implementation of the Organic Foods Production Act. The NOSB is holding a public meeting to discuss and vote on proposed recommendations to the USDA, receive updates from the USDA National Organic Program (NOP) on issues pertaining to organic agriculture, and receive comments from the organic community. The meeting and webinars are open to the public. All meeting documents, including the meeting agenda, NOSB proposals and discussion documents, instructions for submitting and viewing public comments, and instructions for requesting time for oral comments, will be available on the AMS website at
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc., Model BD-100-1A10 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report indicating that certain lanyards for the passenger oxygen masks located in the airplane's entry area are too long. This proposed AD would require replacement of certain oxygen mask lanyards with shorter lanyards. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by March 5, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone: 514-855-5000; fax: 514-855-7401; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Cesar Gomez, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone: 516-228-7318; fax: 516-794-5531.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian AD CF-2017-22, dated June 23, 2017 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc., Model BD-100-1A10 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Bombardier, Inc., has discovered that the entry area passenger oxygen mask lanyards are too long. Upon deployment during an emergency, this may result in difficulties to start the oxygen flow for tall individuals. This [Canadian] AD mandates the replacement of the existing entry area passenger oxygen mask lanyards with shorter ones for proper operation.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the internet at
Bombardier, Inc., has issued Service Bulletin 100-35-08, dated April 11, 2017. This service information describes procedures for replacing the lanyards in the passenger oxygen masks located in the passenger entry area. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 187 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by March 5, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc., Model BD-100-1A10 airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers 20003 through 20424 inclusive and 20426 through 20500 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 35, Oxygen.
This AD was prompted by a report indicating that certain lanyards for the passenger oxygen masks located in the airplane's entry area are too long. The length of the oxygen mask lanyard might cause the safety pin tethered to the opposite end of the lanyard to remain engaged in the oxygen flow mechanism when the mask is pulled to the passenger's face. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct lanyards that are too long, which might result in difficulties starting the flow of oxygen in an emergency.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD: For any entry area passenger oxygen mask dispensing unit (POMDU) having part number (P/N) 833-830-01, replace the lanyards in the POMDU with new lanyards having P/N 289-65-10, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 100-35-08, dated April 11, 2017.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian AD CF-2017-22, dated June 23, 2017, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Cesar Gomez, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone: 516-228-7318; fax: 516-794-5531.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone: 514-855-5000; fax: 514-855-7401; email:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of cracks found in the main landing gear (MLG) beam forward support fitting. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections for cracking of the MLG beam forward support fitting, and applicable on-condition actions. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by March 5, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; internet
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Payman Soltani, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Section, FAA, Los Angeles ACO Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5313; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received reports indicating that a crack was found in the MLG beam forward support fitting around the fastener locations common to the rear spar web, below the upper chord on the inboard side of the wing buttock line (WBL) 157 rib. Cracks were found on airplanes having 62,706 to 65,827 total flight hours and 50,152 to 53,039 total flight cycles. Because cracks in the MLG beam forward support fitting at this location are entirely hidden—the forward side of the fitting (inside fuel tanks) by sealant, and the aft side by the rear spar web and MLG beam—they cannot be detected reliably during normal maintenance and therefore require additional inspections. This cracking of the MLG beam forward support fitting, if not corrected, could lead to a fuel leak, the inability of a principal structural element to carry limit load, or an MLG collapse that could prevent continued safe flight and landing.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017. The service information describes procedures for repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections for cracking of the MLG beam forward support fitting around the fastener locations common to the rear spar web, below the upper chord on the inboard side of the WBL 157 rib, and applicable on-condition actions (
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishment of the actions identified as “RC” (required for compliance) in the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017, described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD.
For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
Model 737 airplanes having line numbers 1 through 291 have a limit of validity (LOV) of 34,000 total flight cycles, and the actions proposed in this NPRM, as specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017, would be required at a compliance time occurring after that LOV. Although operation of an airplane beyond its LOV is prohibited by 14 CFR 121.1115 and 129.115, this NPRM would include those airplanes in the applicability so that these airplanes are tracked in the event the LOV is extended in the future.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 160 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD. Because the number of work-hours can vary widely, depending on the inspection findings, these figures were not included in the service information.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by March 5, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model -100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by the report of a crack indication in the main landing gear (MLG) beam forward support fitting on the inboard side of the wing buttock line (WBL) 157 rib, and multiple reports of similar crack findings on other airplanes. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the MLG beam forward support fitting on the inboard side of the WBL 157 rib. Undetected cracks could lead to a fuel leak, the inability of a principal structural element to carry limit load, or an MLG collapse that could prevent continued safe flight and landing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) For Group 1 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017: Within 120 days after the effective date of this AD, inspect the airplane and do all applicable corrective actions using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
(2) For Group 2 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017: Except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD, at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017, do all applicable actions identified as “RC” (required for compliance) in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017.
(1) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017, uses the phrase “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” for purposes of determining compliance with the requirements of this AD, the phrase “after the effective date of this AD” must be used.
(2) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1334, dated September 26, 2017, specifies contacting Boeing, and specifies that action as RC: This AD requires using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector,
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Payman Soltani, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Section, FAA, Los Angeles ACO Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5313; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM); reopening of comment period.
We are revising an earlier proposal to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2014-12-13, which applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. The first SNPRM proposed to revise the proposal by expanding the inspection area, and terminating, rather than superseding, the requirements of AD 2014-12-13, after accomplishment of the initial inspections. This action proposes to again revise the proposal by requiring the installation of standard-size fasteners for a certain configuration. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Since these actions impose an additional burden over that proposed in the first SNPRM, we are reopening the comment period to allow the public the chance to comment on these proposed changes.
The comment period for the SNPRM published in the
We must receive comments on this SNPRM by March 5, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this SNPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; internet
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Payman Soltani, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Section, FAA, Los Angeles ACO Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5313; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We issued AD 2014-12-13, Amendment 39-17874 (79 FR 39300, July 10, 2014) (“AD 2014-12-13”). AD 2014-12-13 requires actions to address an unsafe condition on all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C,
We issued an NPRM to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD to supersede AD 2014-12-13 that would apply to all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We subsequently issued an SNPRM, which was published in the
Since we issued the first SNPRM, we have determined that standard-size fasteners are required for installation for a certain configuration, as explained below under “Request to Install Standard-Size Fasteners.”
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016. The service information describes procedures for repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) open hole inspections for any cracking in the forward support fitting, the aft support fitting, the rear spar upper chord, and the rear spar web at the 12 fastener holes (locations 1-12). The service information also describes procedures for optional HFEC open hole inspections for any cracking in the forward support fitting, the aft support fitting, the rear spar upper chord, and the rear spar web, and HFEC surface inspections for any cracking in the rear spar upper chord and rear spar upper web, as applicable. The service information also describes procedures for related investigative and corrective actions.
We also reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016. The service information describes procedures for repetitive eddy current inspections of the left and right wing for any cracking in the inspar upper skin and at the repair parts if applicable, and related investigative and corrective actions.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We gave the public the opportunity to comment on the first SNPRM. The following presents the comments received on the first SNPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Boeing requested that standard-size fasteners be used for installation on the airplane instead of same-type and same-size fasteners. Boeing stated that for Group 7, Configuration 1 airplanes specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016, the service information specifies to install standard-size fasteners (not oversize) and specifies a loose-fit design feature common to the aft fitting at fastener #5. Boeing commented that the loose-fit design feature is consistent with the type design and decreases the potential for future cracking. Boeing also stated that if the actions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-57-1318, dated May 15, 2013, have been done, it is possible that the fasteners have already been oversized and the loose-fit design feature has already been eliminated. Boeing commented that this recommendation will allow the opportunity to restore the fastener #5 location to the intended fastener fit (
We agree with the commenter for the reasons provided above. We have revised paragraph (h)(2) of this proposed AD to require the installation of standard-size fasteners, and if the existing fastener holes exceed the permitted hole diameter, operators must do a repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this proposed AD.
All Nippon Airlines (ANA) requested credit for previous actions specified in paragraph (h) of the proposed AD (in the first SNPRM). ANA stated that credit should be provided if those actions were performed before the effective date of the AD using option 1 or 2 of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-57-1318, dated May 15, 2013, and the HFEC open hole inspection for the forward support fitting should be done at the same time as the existing inspection within a shortened inspection interval.
ANA commented that based on the current descriptions of the proposed AD (in the first SNPRM), all operators must do the initial inspection even if they have chosen option 1 or 2 of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-57-1318, dated May 15, 2013. Since AD 2014-12-13 has been effective since July 25, 2014, ANA believes many operators have already completed the initial inspection and started the repetitive inspection in accordance with Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-57-1318, dated May 15, 2013. ANA questioned the reasonableness of the requirement for operators who have chosen option 1 or 2 of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-57-1318, dated May 15, 2013, to do the initial inspection again within the compliance time specified in table 2 through table 9 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016.
We disagree with the commenter's request. Paragraph (h) of the proposed AD (in the first SNPRM) includes a requirement to do the HFEC open hole inspection of the forward fitting in addition to the inspections that were previously required by AD 2014-12-13 with updated service information, Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016. Since AD 2014-12-13 was issued, there have been reports of cracks found in the forward fitting. Therefore, Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016, has added an inspection of the forward fitting. Paragraph (l) of this proposed AD would allow operators to request approval of an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) if they previously performed the HFEC open hole inspection of this stack up, including the forward fitting, and they have documentation that the inspection of
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design. Certain changes described above expand the scope of the first SNPRM. As a result, we have determined that it is necessary to reopen the comment period to provide additional opportunity for the public to comment on this second SNPRM.
This SNPRM would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
The phrase “related investigative actions” is used in this SNPRM. Related investigative actions are follow-on actions that (1) are related to the primary action, and (2) further investigate the nature of any condition found. Related investigative actions in an AD could include, for example, inspections.
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this SNPRM. Corrective actions correct or address any condition found. Corrective actions in an AD could include, for example, repairs.
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016; specify to contact the manufacturer for certain instructions, but this proposed AD would require accomplishment of repair methods, modification deviations, and alteration deviations in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 471 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that will enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this SNPRM.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator,
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this AD action by March 5, 2018.
This AD affects AD 2014-12-13, Amendment 39-17874 (79 FR 39300, July 10, 2014) (“AD 2014-12-13”), and AD 2015-21-08, Amendment 39-18301 (80 FR 65921, October 28, 2015) (“AD 2015-21-08”).
(1) This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes, certificated in any category.
(2) Installation of Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST01219SE does not affect the ability to accomplish the actions required by this AD. Therefore, for airplanes on which STC ST01219SE is installed, a “change in product” alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval request is not necessary to comply with the requirements of 14 CFR 39.17.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by reports of additional cracking in the inspar upper skin at Wing Buttock Line (WBL) 157 and in the skin at two holes common to the rear spar in the same area, and rear spar web cracks were also noted on both wings. Subsequent inspections revealed that the right rear spar upper chord was almost completely severed and the left rear spar upper chord was completely severed. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the forward and aft support fittings for the main landing gear (MLG) beam, and the rear spar upper chord and rear spar web in the area of rear spar station (RSS) 224.14, which could grow and result in a fuel leak and possible fire.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For airplanes identified as Group 1 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016: At the applicable time specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016, do applicable inspections and corrective actions using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD.
For airplanes identified as Groups 2-7 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016: At the applicable time specified in table 2 through table 9 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016, except as required by paragraph (j)(3) of this AD, do high frequency eddy current (HFEC) open hole inspections for any cracking in the forward support fitting, the aft support fitting, the rear spar upper chord, and the rear spar web at the 12 fastener holes (locations 1-12); or HFEC open hole inspections for any cracking in the forward support fitting, the aft support fitting, the rear spar upper chord, and the rear spar web, and an HFEC surface inspection for any cracking in the rear spar upper chord and rear spar upper web; as applicable; and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016, except as provided by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, and except as required by paragraphs (h)(2) and (j)(1) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight. Thereafter, repeat the HFEC inspection at the applicable time specified in table 2 through table 9 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016.
(1) Options provided in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016, for accomplishing the inspection are acceptable for the corresponding requirements in the introductory text of paragraph (h) of this AD, provided that the inspections are done at the applicable times in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016.
(2) For Group 7, Configuration 1, airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016: Install standard-size fasteners in accordance with figures 29 and 30 of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016. If the existing fastener holes exceed the permitted hole diameter, repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD.
For airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016: At the applicable time specified in table 1 and table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016, except as required by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD, do an eddy current inspection of the left and right wings for any cracking in the inspar upper skin, and at the repair parts if installed, and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016, except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Do all related investigative and corrective actions before further flight. Thereafter, repeat the eddy current inspection at the applicable time specified in table 1 and table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016.
(1) If any cracking is found during any inspection required by this AD, and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016; or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016; specifies to contact Boeing for appropriate action: Before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD.
(2) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1328, dated July 22, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the Original Issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(3) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-57A1318, Revision 1, dated July 22, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the Revision 1 date of this service bulletin, whichever occurs later,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) Accomplishing the initial inspections and applicable related investigative and corrective actions required by paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this AD, as applicable, terminates all requirements of AD 2015-21-08.
(2) Accomplishing the initial inspections and applicable related investigative and corrective actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, as applicable, terminates all requirements of AD 2014-12-13.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved previously for AD 2014-12-13 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD.
(5) Except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (l)(5)(i) and (l)(5)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or sub-step is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or sub-step. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Payman Soltani, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Section, FAA, Los Angeles ACO Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5313; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; internet
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking; extension of comment period.
The Consumer Product Safety Commission (Commission or CPSC) published an advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPR) regarding clothing storage unit (CSU) tip overs in the
Submit comments by April 14, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC-2017-0044, electronically or in writing:
On November 30, 2017, the Commission published an ANPR in the
The Commission grants this request, extending the comment period for an additional 75 days, until April 14, 2018.
Tennessee Valley Authority.
Proposed rule.
The Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) is proposing to amend its regulations that govern floating cabins located on the Tennessee River and its tributaries. The mooring of floating cabins on the TVA reservoir system has increased, and TVA has determined that this poses an unacceptable risk to navigation, safety, and the environment. Left unaddressed, floating cabins convert the public waters under TVA's management to private use. The proposed amendments would re-define nonnavigable houseboats and floating cabins using one term—“floating cabins”—and prohibit new floating cabins on TVA-managed reservoirs after December 16, 2016. The proposed amendments also include limited mooring standards, limitations on expansions of floating cabins, and requirements for owners to register their
In addition, and separate from the updated rule amendments for floating cabins, these proposed amendments contain a minor changes to clarify when TVA will allow some water-use facilities (
Written comments must be received on or before March 19, 2018.
Send comments by mail or hand delivery to David B. Harrell, Program Manager, Floating Cabins, Tennessee Valley Authority, 260 Interchange Park Drive, Lenoir City, TN 37772 or by email to
David B. Harrell, 865-632-1327.
These proposed amendments are promulgated under the authority of the TVA Act, as amended, 16 U.S.C. 831-831ee, Title V of the Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1955, 31 U.S.C. 9701, and OMB Circular No. A-25. Under Section 26a of the TVA Act, no obstructions affecting navigation, flood control, or public lands or reservations shall be constructed, operated, or maintained across, along, or in the Tennessee River System without TVA's approval. TVA has long considered nonnavigable structures such as floating cabins to be obstructions that require its approval. In addition, Section 9b of the TVA Act provides that TVA “may establish regulations to prevent the construction of new floating cabins.” 16 U.S.C. 831h-3(e).
TVA is a multi-purpose federal agency that has been charged by Congress with promoting the wise use and conservation of the resources of the Tennessee Valley region, including the Tennessee River System. In carrying out this mission, TVA operates a system of dams and reservoirs on the Tennessee River and its tributaries for the purpose of navigation, flood control, and power production. Consistent with those purposes, TVA uses the system to improve water quality and water supply and to provide a wide range of public benefits including recreation.
To promote the unified development and regulation of the Tennessee River System, Congress directed TVA to approve obstructions across, along, or in the river system under Section 26a of the TVA Act, as amended. “Obstruction” is a broad term that includes, by way of example, boat docks, piers, boathouses, buoys, floats, boat launching ramps, fills, water intakes, devices for discharging effluents, bridges, aerial cables, culverts, pipelines, fish attractors, shoreline stabilization projects, channel excavations, and nonnavigable houseboats. TVA also owns, as agent for the United States, much of the shoreline and inundated land along and under its Reservoir System.
Since 1971, TVA has used its authority under Section 26a to prohibit the mooring on the Tennessee River System of new nonnavigable houseboats that are used primarily for habitation or occupation and not for navigation or water transportation. In particular, TVA amended its regulations in 1971 to prohibit the mooring or anchoring of new nonnavigable houseboats except for those in existence before November 21, 1971. Criteria were established then to identify when a houseboat was considered “navigable” and the conditions under which existing nonnavigable houseboats would be allowed to remain. These criteria were characteristics that TVA determined were indicative of real watercraft;
A “nonnavigable houseboat” under TVA's current regulations is identified as any houseboat not in compliance with the following criteria:
Built on a boat hull or on two or more pontoons;
Equipped with a motor and rudder controls located at a point on the houseboat from which there is forward visibility over a 180-degree range;
Compliant with all applicable state and federal requirements relating to vessels;
Registered as a vessel in the state of principal use; and
State registration numbers clearly displayed on the vessel.
Despite the nonnavigable houseboat prohibition, new nonnavigable houseboats in the form of floating cabins have been moored on TVA reservoirs. TVA estimates that approximately 2000 floating cabins and older nonnavigable houseboats are now moored on TVA reservoirs. Some developers and owners of these floating cabins have asserted that they are not nonnavigable houseboats because they have been designed to meet the criteria for navigability in TVA's regulations. Whether or not this is true, these floating cabins are designed and used primarily for human habitation at a fixed location rather than for transportation or navigation. These floating cabins are a modern version of the pre-1978 nonnavigable houseboats that TVA addressed in its 1971 and 1978 regulatory actions. They are not in any real sense watercraft, and absent action by TVA, the mooring of floating cabins on TVA reservoirs will continue to increase. Until now, TVA has discouraged the increased mooring of floating cabins without using the full scope of its regulatory authority under the TVA Act.
In determining what action to take, TVA prepared an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act. This EIS assesses the environmental and socioeconomic impacts of different policies to address the proliferation of floating cabins and nonnavigable houseboats on TVA's reservoirs. TVA released a draft of this EIS for public comment in June 2015 and held four public meetings and a webinar to provide information about its analyses and to facilitate public involvement. Public reaction to this situation widely varied.
Many members of the general public urged TVA to require the removal of all floating cabins because TVA's reservoirs are public resources and owners of floating cabins are occupying public areas. Floating cabin owners generally supported additional reasonable regulation of their structures but argued against policies requiring their removal because of the investments they have made in the structures. Other commenters had concerns about discharges of black (sewage) and gray (showers, sinks, etc.) water from floating cabins and shock and electrocution risks associated with the electrical connections to floating cabins. Commenting agencies consistently supported better regulation of floating cabins. The final EIS and associated documents can be found at
After considering the comments it received during the EIS process and its analyses of impacts, TVA identified as its preferred policy one that establishes standards for floating cabins to enhance compliance with applicable water
On December 16, 2016, the Water Infrastructure Improvements for the Nation Act (WIIN Act) was enacted by the United States Congress. Title IV Section 5003 related to floating cabins and amended the TVA Act to include Section 9b. This new section of the TVA Act specifically addresses floating cabins and provides that TVA may allow the use of floating cabins where the structure was located on waters under TVA's jurisdiction as of December 16, 2016; and where the owner maintains the structure in accordance with reasonable health, safety, and environmental standards set by the TVA Board of Directors. Section 9b also states that TVA may establish regulations to prevent the construction of new floating cabins and may levy fees to ensure compliance.
Section 9b provides the circumstances under which TVA may require the removal of existing floating cabins;
Section 9b of the TVA Act defines “floating cabin” as a watercraft or other floating structure (1) primarily designed and used for human habitation or occupation; and (2) not primarily designed or used for navigation or transportation on the water. This proposed rule clarifies the type of structure that TVA will regulate as a floating cabin and updates TVA's regulations to clarify that floating cabins placed on TVA waters after December 16, 2016, are prohibited. The proposed rule also establishes limited mooring requirements; clarifies limitations on expansions; and requires all owners of floating cabins to register their structures with TVA by January 1, 2019, regardless of whether they already have a Section 26a permit. Although this deadline allows plenty of time for owners to register their floating cabins, TVA would encourage owners to begin the registration process without delay. A subsequent rulemaking will address: (1) The permitting process for existing floating cabins; (2) health, safety, and environmental standards; and (3) fees.
To more clearly describe the type of floating structure that TVA regulates, the term “nonnavigable houseboat” would be replaced in TVA's Section 26a regulations with the term “floating cabin,” the term adopted by Congress in the WIIN Act. Floating cabins are structures determined by TVA, in its sole judgment, to be designed and used primarily for human habitation or occupation and not designed or used primarily for navigation or transportation on the water. TVA's judgment will be guided by, but not limited to, the following factors:
1. Whether the structure is usually kept at a fixed mooring point;
2. Whether the structure is actually used on a regular basis for transportation or navigation;
3. Whether the structure has a permanent or continuous connection to the shore for electrical, plumbing, water, or other utility service;
4. Whether the structure has the performance characteristics of a vessel typically used for navigation or transportation on the water;
5. Whether the structure can be readily removed from the water;
6. Whether the structure is used for intermittent or extended human-habitation or occupancy;
7. Whether the structure clearly has a means of propulsion and appropriate power/size ratio;
8. Whether the structure is safe to navigate or use for transportation purposes.
Existing floating cabins,
Separate from the proposed amendments to regulations concerning floating cabins, the proposal would result in a minor change to clarify TVA's intent concerning the size of some water-use facilities (
This proposal contains no federal mandates for state, local, or tribal government or for the private sector. TVA has determined it will not have a significant annual effect of $100 million or more or result in expenditures of $100 million in any one year by state, local, or tribal governments or by the private sector. The proposal will not have a substantial direct effect on the States or Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and the States or Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the federal Government and States or Indian tribes. Nor will the proposal have concerns for environmental health or safety risks that may disproportionately affect children, have significant effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, or disproportionally impact low-income or minority populations. Unified development and regulation of the Tennessee River System through an approval process for obstructions across, along, or in the river system, and management of United States-owned land entrusted to TVA are federal functions for which TVA is responsible under the TVA Act. In general, the proposal updates or clarifies TVA's regulations to align them with the status quo. First, the proposal clarifies that no new structures are allowed and codifies (1) an updated definition for floating, habitable structures that are allowable on TVA reservoirs; (2) where such structures may be located; and (3) the types of modifications that are allowed. The proposal also amends TVA's regulations to align better with its policy for allowing some obstructions, usually docks, to be larger than 1,000 square feet. Accordingly, the proposal has no implications for any of the referenced authorities, including the Presidential Executive Order on Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs dated January 30, 2017, which affects only “significant regulatory actions” as defined by Executive Order 12866.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605, TVA is required to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis unless the head of the agency certifies that the proposal will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The statute defines “small entity” as a “small business,” “small organization” (further defined as a “not-for-profit enterprise”), or a “small governmental jurisdiction.” Most applications for water-use facilities are submitted by residential landowners for personal use. Since residential landowners are not businesses, not-for-profit enterprises, or small governmental jurisdictions, there are relatively few “small entities” affected by TVA's proposal. Moreover, nothing in this proposal significantly adds to the cost of applying for and constructing any regulated facility. Accordingly, this rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities; no regulatory flexibility analysis is required; and TVA's Chief Executive Officer has made the requisite certification.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), this notice announces TVA's intent to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for amendment of a currently approved information collection. The information collection requirements proposed under this rule for registration of floating cabins will be included within the Section 26a Permit Application information collection. For this information collection, we estimate an increase in the number of responses and the burden hours in the first year of the floating cabin registration process. The number of responses is estimated to increase from 1,500 to 3,700 in the first year, then return to close to the previous number in following years. The estimated burden per response remains at 2 hours. Therefore in the first year, the estimated burden will increase from 3,000 hours to 7,400 hours. The estimated overall burden for the information collection will return to about 3,000 hours in following years.
The information collection requirements in this proposed rule have been submitted for review by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
An Information Collection Request (ICR) document has been prepared by TVA, and a copy may be obtained from the Senior Privacy Program Manager: Christopher A. Marsalis, Tennessee Valley Authority, 400 W. Summit Hill Dr. (WT 5D), Knoxville, Tennessee 37902-1401; telephone (865) 632-2467 or by email at
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act, TVA is soliciting public comment before the ICR is submitted to OMB for final review and approval. We are soliciting comment to:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments on the ICR must be submitted to TVA by the date indicated above. Comments must be submitted by mail or hand delivery to David B. Harrell, Program Manager, Floating Cabins, Tennessee Valley Authority, 260 Interchange Park Drive, Lenoir City, TN 37772 or by email to
Comments may also be sent to OMB at: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503, marked “Attention: Desk Officer for Tennessee Valley Authority, OMB #3316-0060.” Comments on the ICR will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval.
Administrative practice and procedure, Natural resources, Navigation (water), Rivers, Water pollution control.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Tennessee Valley proposes to amend 18 CFR part 1304 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
16 U.S.C 831-831ee.
* * * By way of example only, such obstructions may include boat docks, piers, boathouses, buoys, floats, boat launching ramps, fills, water intakes, devices for discharging effluent, bridges, aerial cables, culverts, pipelines, fish attractors, shoreline stabilization projects, channel excavations, and floating cabins as described in § 1304.101.
This subpart prescribes requirements for floating cabins on the Tennessee River System. Floating cabins as applied to this subpart include existing nonnavigable houseboats approved by TVA on or before December 16, 2016, and other existing structures whose design and use is primarily for human habitation or occupation, not for navigation or transportation on the water. Floating cabins that were not located or moored on the Tennessee River System on or before December 16, 2016, shall be deemed new floating cabins. New floating cabins are prohibited and subject to the removal provisions of this part and Section 9b of the TVA Act. No new floating cabins shall be moored, anchored, or installed on the Tennessee River System. Floating cabins that were located or moored in the Tennessee River System on or before December 16, 2016 shall be deemed existing floating cabins. Existing floating cabins may remain moored on the Tennessee River System provided they remain in compliance with the rules in this part.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a)(1)Floating cabins include nonnavigable houseboats approved by TVA on or before December 16, 2016, and other floating structures determined by TVA in its sole discretion to be designed and used primarily for human habitation or occupation and not designed and used primarily for navigation or transportation on the water. TVA's judgment will be guided by, but not limited to, the following factors:
(i) Whether the structure is usually kept at a fixed mooring point;
(ii) Whether the structure is actually used on a regular basis for transportation or navigation;
(iii) Whether the structure has a permanent or continuous connection to the shore for electrical, plumbing, water, or other utility service;
(iv) Whether the structure has the performance characteristics of a vessel typically used for navigation or transportation on water;
(v) Whether the structure can be readily removed from the water;
(vi) Whether the structure is used for intermittent or extended human-habitation or occupancy;
(vii) Whether the structure clearly has a means of propulsion, and appropriate power/size ratio;
(viii) Whether the structure is safe to navigate or use for transportation purposes.
(2) That a structure could occasionally move from place to place, or that it qualifies under another federal or state regulatory program as a vessel or boat, are factors that TVA also will consider but would not be determinative. Floating cabins are not recreational vessels to which § 1304.409 applies.
(b)(1) Owners of floating cabins are required to register the floating cabin with TVA before January 1, 2019. Floating cabin owners must submit certain required information with their registration. Registration shall include the following information: Clear and current photographs of the structure; a drawing or drawings showing in reasonable detail the size and shape of the floating cabin (length, width, and height) and attached structures, such as decks or slips (length, width, and height); and a completed and signed TVA registration form. The completed TVA registration form shall include the mailing and contact information of the owner(s); the TVA permit or TVA-issued numbers (when applicable); the mooring location of the floating cabin; how the floating cabin is moored; how electrical service is provided; how waste water and sewage is managed; and an owner's signature.
(2) Existing floating cabins may remain on TVA reservoirs provided they stay in compliance with the rules contained in this part and pay any necessary and reasonable fees levied by TVA to ensure compliance with TVA's
(3) All floating cabins must be moored in such a manner as to:
(i) Avoid obstruction of or interference with navigation, flood control, public lands or reservations;
(ii) Avoid adverse effects on public lands or reservations;
(iii) Prevent the preemption of public waters when moored in permanent locations outside of the approved harbor limits of commercial marinas;
(iv) Protect land and landrights owned by the United States alongside and subjacent to TVA reservoirs from trespass and other unlawful and unreasonable uses; and
(v) Maintain, protect, and enhance the quality of the human environment.
(d) Existing floating cabins shall be maintained in a good state of repair and may be maintained without additional approval from TVA. Existing floating cabins may be rebuilt without TVA approval; but owners are required to notify TVA and submit their proposed plans for rebuilding the floating cabin and submit a photo of the rebuilt floating cabin for TVA's records. Plans for any structural modification that alters the length, width or height of the floating cabin or any attached structures (such as decks or walkways) shall be submitted to TVA for review and approval pursuant to the requirements of subpart A of this part authorizing such construction. TVA will determine if modifying or rebuilding a floating cabin requires a new Section 26a permit and any new fees.
(g) All floating cabins not in compliance with this part are subject to the applicable removal provisions of § 1304.406 and Section 9b of the TVA Act.
The addition and revision read as follows:
(a) * * * If TVA provided a placard or tag, the tag must be displayed on a readily visible part of the outside of the floating cabin.
(c) A floating cabin moored at a location approved pursuant to the regulations in this subpart shall not be relocated and moored at a different location without prior approval by TVA, except for movement to a new location within the designated harbor limits of the same commercial dock or marina.
(a) Docks, piers, boathouses, and all other residential water-use facilities shall not exceed a total footprint area of greater than 1,000 square feet, unless the proposed water-use facility will be located in an area of preexisting development. For the purpose of this regulation, “preexisting development” means either (1) the water-use facility will be located in a subdivision recorded before November 1, 1999, and TVA permitted at least one water-use facility in the subdivision prior to November 1, 1999; or (2) if there is no subdivision, where the water-use facility will be located within a quarter-mile radius of another water-use facility that TVA permitted prior to November 1, 1999. TVA may allow even larger facilities where an applicant requests and justifies a waiver or variance, set forth in 1304.212 and 1304.408 respectively, but such waivers or variances shall be made in TVA's discretion and on a case-by-case basis.
(b) Docks, boatslips, piers, and fixed or floating boathouses are allowable. These and other water-use facilities associated with a lot must be sited within a 1,000- or 1,800-square-foot rectangular or square area as required by § 1304.204(a) at the lakeward end of the access walkway that extends from the shore to the structure. Access walkways to the water-use structure are not included in calculating the 1,000- or 1,800-square foot area.
(n) Except for floating cabins approved in accordance with subpart B of this part, toilets and sinks are not permitted on water-use facilities.
The additions read as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Proposed rule.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is proposing to implement regulations regarding internal agency supervisory review of certain decisions related to devices regulated by the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) to conform to the applicable provisions in the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) and the 21st Century Cures Act (Cures Act). FDA is taking this action to codify the procedures and timeframes for supervisory review of significant decisions pertaining to devices within CDRH. FDA is also proposing regulations to provide new procedural requirements for requesting internal agency supervisory review within CDRH of other types of decisions made by CDRH not addressed in FDASIA and the Cures Act. This action is also part of FDA's implementation of Executive Orders (EOs) 13771 and 13777. Under these EOs, FDA is comprehensively reviewing existing regulations to identify opportunities for repeal, replacement, or modification that will result in meaningful burden reduction, while allowing the Agency to achieve its public health mission and fulfill statutory obligations.
Submit either electronic or written comments by April 17, 2018. See section V of this document for the proposed effective date of a final rule that may issue based on this proposal.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 17, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions.”)
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Adaeze Teme, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5574, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-0768; or the Ombudsman for the Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 4282, Silver Springs, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-5669, or
The purpose of this proposed rule is to implement regulations on the procedures regarding internal agency supervisory review of certain decisions made by CDRH under the FD&C Act. Section 603 of FDASIA added new section 517A to the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360g-1), which was amended by
The proposed regulations will provide transparency and clarity for internal and external stakeholders on CDRH's process for supervisory review of decisions and will give requesters new predictability through binding deadlines for FDA action on a request for supervisory review within CDRH and the Center's internal agency review of “significant decisions.” Furthermore, this proposal, when finalized, will codify the types of decisions that are considered “significant decisions,” for which the timeframes apply. The proposed regulations will also codify the timeframe for submission of requests for the review of other decisions within CDRH.
FDA proposes to amend part 10 (21 CFR part 10) by adding § 10.75(e). Section 10.75 currently provides that an interested person outside the Agency may request internal agency review of a decision of an FDA employee. FDA proposes to amend § 10.75 to add paragraph (e), which would require that requests for internal agency supervisory review within CDRH of a decision also comply with proposed § 800.75 (21 CFR 800.75). This proposed change to the regulations would encompass both significant decisions under section 517A of the FD&C Act and other decisions by CDRH employees.
The proposed rule would also add new § 800.75 to part 800 (21 CFR part 800). Proposed § 800.75 would incorporate in the regulations the provisions of section 517A of the FD&C Act for review of “significant decisions” related to devices regulated under the FD&C Act by CDRH. Proposed § 800.75 would define “significant decisions.” Section 800.75 would also include the timeframes for submission of requests for internal agency review of significant decisions within CDRH and for responses to such requests.
Proposed § 800.75 would further address requests for supervisory review within CDRH of decisions other than section 517A decisions and would indicate the timeframe for submission of these requests for internal agency review.
FDA's legal authority to implement requirements pertaining to the process and timelines for § 10.75 appeals of decisions within CDRH derives from sections 510(k), 515, 515C, 517A, and 520(g) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k), 360e, 360e-3, 360g-1, and 360j) and other provisions under which a decision might be appealed, and 701(a) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 371(a)). Section 701(a) of the FD&C Act gives FDA general rulemaking authority to issue regulations for the efficient enforcement of the FD&C Act.
We expect the costs and benefits of the proposed rule to be negligible.
FDA has long provided a path for outside parties to request internal agency review of decisions. A procedure for this type of review was first published as a proposed regulation in 1975 (40 FR 40682, September 3, 1975) (Ref. 2). In the preamble for the proposed rule, the Agency recognized that a process for administrative review of Agency decisions would advise outside parties how they should pursue matters that interest and concern them (40 FR 40682 at 40693). A final rule published in 1977 incorporated these provisions into the Code of Federal Regulations at 21 CFR 2.17 (42 FR 4680, January 25, 1977) (Ref. 3).
These regulations provided that any decision of an FDA employee, other than the Commissioner, on any matter was subject to review by the employee's supervisor under any of the following circumstances: (1) At the request of the employee, (2) on the initiative of the supervisor, (3) at the request of any interested person outside of the Agency, or (4) as required by duly promulgated delegations of authority. The review shall be accomplished by consultation between the employee and the supervisor, by review of the administrative file, or both. The review shall ordinarily follow established Agency channels of supervision. Internal agency review shall be based on the data and information available in the administrative file. If an interested person presents new data or information not contained in the administrative file, then the matter shall be returned to the appropriate lower level within the Agency for a reevaluation based upon the new information (§ 2.17 (1977)).
The following year, in 1978, a proposed rule was published to reorganize and revise the Agency's administrative practices and procedures regulations (43 FR 51966, November 7, 1978) (Ref. 4). When the final rule for this action was published, the regulations for internal agency review were moved from § 2.17 and redesignated as § 10.75 (44 FR 22318, April 13, 1979) (Ref. 5), where these regulations remain today.
In 1998, § 10.75 was amended to add provisions allowing a sponsor, applicant, or manufacturer of a drug or device to request review of a scientific controversy by an appropriate scientific advisory panel or advisory committee (63 FR 63978, November 18, 1998). Aside from the specific situation addressed by the amendment, the elements of internal agency review under § 10.75 relating to who may request the review and the information on which the review must be based remained unchanged.
Section 10.75 contains regulations that establish an orderly process for internal agency review of decisions, based on information in the FDA administrative file. Section 10.75 applies to requests for review of decisions made by any FDA employee, other than decisions by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs. Section 10.75 does not establish timelines for requests for Agency review or for the Agency to act upon these requests. The FDA guidance document entitled “Center for Devices and Radiological Health Appeals Processes—Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff” describes the § 10.75 appeal processes available to outside stakeholders to request review of decisions or actions by CDRH employees (Ref. 6).
On July 9, 2012, the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 301
On December 13, 2016, the FD&C Act (21. U.S.C. 301
In addition, section 3058, “Least Burdensome Device Review,” of the Cures Act amended section 517A(a) by adding subsection (3), which requires that the substantive summary include a brief statement of how the least burdensome requirements were considered and applied consistent with sections 513(i)(1)(D), 513(a)(3)(D), and 515(c)(5) of the FD&C Act, as applicable.
Section 517A of the FD&C Act provides that any person may request a supervisory review of any significant decision of CDRH regarding the submission or review of a report under section 510(k), an application under section 515, a request for designation under section 515C, or an application for an exemption under section 520(g) of the FD&C Act. Any person may request such review, which may be conducted at the next supervisory level or higher above the individual who made the significant decision. Where the request for supervisory review was made at the organizational level, any person may request a supervisory review to the next organizational level or higher above the level at which the decision was made. In addition, the Office or Center Director may designate a Deputy Director to be their representative as the authority for a request made to that level. In this situation, a request for review heard by a Deputy is rendered on behalf of the Director and constitutes a review by that level of the organization (Ref. 6).
Section 517A of the FD&C Act includes specific timeframes both for the person requesting review and for FDA to respond to such a request. A request for review of a significant decision is required to be submitted to FDA not later than 30 days after such decision. In responding to this request, if the requester seeks an in-person meeting or a teleconference review, FDA is required to schedule the requested interaction not later than 30 days after the request is made. FDA is required to issue a decision not later than 30 days after the interaction, or, in the case of a person who does not seek an in-person meeting or teleconference review, FDA is required to issue a decision no later than 45 days after the request for supervisory review is received by FDA. An exception to the timeframes related to scheduling an in-person meeting or teleconference review, and to FDA's decision on a request for supervisory review of the significant decision, is provided in cases that are referred to experts outside of FDA. Although the procedures and timeframes in section 517A of the FD&C Act apply to an initial request for supervisory review of a significant decision by CDRH, CDRH has chosen to enhance transparency and predictability and apply those procedures and timeframes as well to sequential requests for supervisory review of significant decisions that are submitted to CDRH.
We are proposing to codify the procedures and timeframes in section 517A of the FD&C Act, added by section 603 of FDASIA and amended by the Cures Act, for § 10.75 appeals of “significant decisions” regarding the submission or review of a report under section 510(k), an application under section 515, a request for designation under section 515C, or an application for an exemption under section 520(g) of the FD&C Act.
We are also proposing additional procedural requirements for § 10.75 appeals submitted to CDRH of other types of CDRH decisions not addressed in the FDASIA and the Cures Act.
FDA's legal authority to implement requirements pertaining to the process and timelines for § 10.75 appeals submitted to CDRH derives from sections 510(k), 515, 515C, 517A, and 520(g) of the FD&C Act and other provisions under which a decision might be appealed, and 701(a) of the FD&C Act. Section 701(a) of the FD&C Act gives FDA general rulemaking authority to issue regulations for the efficient enforcement of the FD&C Act.
The proposed rule would, if finalized, incorporate the procedures and timeframes in section 517A to an initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH of “significant decisions” by CDRH into FDA's regulations. The proposed regulations would also introduce new procedural requirements for requests for supervisory review within CDRH under § 10.75 of decisions that do not fall under “significant decisions” under section 517A of the FD&C Act.
FDA proposes to amend part 10 by adding § 10.75(e). Section 10.75 currently provides that an interested person outside the Agency may request internal agency review of a decision of an FDA employee. FDA proposes to amend § 10.75 to add paragraph (e), which would require that requests for internal agency supervisory review within CDRH also comply with proposed § 800.75. This proposed change to the regulations would encompass both significant decisions under section 517A of the FD&C Act and other types of decisions.
The proposed rule would add new § 800.75 to part 800. Proposed § 800.75 would incorporate, into the regulations, the provisions of section 517A of the FD&C Act for review of significant decisions related to devices regulated under the FD&C Act by CDRH. Proposed § 800.75 would define “significant decisions.” Section 800.75 would also include the timeframes for submission of requests for internal agency review of significant decisions within CDRH and for responses to such requests.
Proposed § 800.75 would further address the review of decisions other than 517A decisions and would indicate the timeframe for submission of these requests for internal agency review within CDRH.
Part 10 would be amended to add § 10.75(e). FDA proposes to add language to clarify that requests by interested persons outside the Agency for internal agency review of a decision within CDRH must also comply with proposed § 800.75. Proposed § 10.75(e) would not be limited to significant decisions under section 517A of the FD&C Act. Rather, proposed § 10.75(e) would also encompass review of decisions other than 517A decisions made by CDRH.
Section 517A of the FD&C Act establishes procedural requirements, including timeframes for a request for internal agency review of a “significant decision” by CDRH. “Significant decision” is not defined in the statutory provision. FDA is proposing to define “significant decision,” to provide greater clarity regarding which decisions fall within this statutory term.
A “517A decision” would be defined as a significant decision regarding a device as set forth in section 517A of the
The review procedures under section 517A of the FD&C Act apply only to a request for review of a significant decision by CDRH regarding submission or review of a report under section 510(k) (Premarket Notification), an application under section 515 (Premarket Approval or “PMA”/Humanitarian Device Exemption or “HDE”), a request for designation under section 515C (Breakthrough Devices), or an application for an exemption under section 520(g) of the FD&C Act (Investigational Device Exemption or “IDE”). CDRH is proposing that only the following decisions be considered significant decisions under section 517A of the FD&C Act and, thus, defined for purposes of this proposed rule as “517A decisions”:
• 510(k): Not substantially equivalent; Substantially equivalent.
• PMA/HDE: Not approvable; Approvable; Approval; Denial.
• Breakthrough Devices: Expedited access pathway (Ref. 7) program request for breakthrough designation for devices subject to premarket notification, premarket approval, or de novo requests. Grant; Denial of request for breakthrough designation.
• IDE: Disapproval; Approval.
• Failure to reach agreement on protocol under section 520(g)(7) of the FD&C Act.
• “Clinical Hold” determinations under section 520(g)(8) of the FD&C Act.
In proposing § 800.75, we are mindful that outside parties may use § 10.75 to request review of decisions other than 517A decisions. For this reason, we are also proposing new procedural requirements for internal agency supervisory review within CDRH under § 10.75 of non-517A decisions made by CDRH employees. A request for supervisory review of a CDRH decision other than a 517A decision is to be received no later than 60 days after the date of the decision that is subject to review. Any request received after 60 days in these cases will be denied as untimely, unless CDRH, for good cause related to circumstances beyond the control of the submitter, such as snow emergency, Federal Government shutdown, or other unforeseen emergency event, permits the request to be filed after 60 days.
Section 800.75 proposes that requests for CDRH review of 517A decisions and non-517A decisions must be addressed to the next organizational level or higher above the individual who made the decision. Requests to elevate the review of such decisions should include a rationale. The decision to collapse two or more levels of review or to elevate a review would solely be at CDRH's discretion. In addition, requesters should have exhausted review through the supervisory chain below the Center Director level prior to request for review at the Center Director level.
As provided in the FDA guidance, entitled “eCopy Program for Medical Device Submissions—Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff” (eCopy guidance), appeals to submission types identified under section 745A(b) of the FD&C Act are subject to the electronic format requirements. (Ref. 8). Therefore, 10.75 requests for supervisory review of 517A decisions within CDRH, and certain decisions other than 517A decisions, must be submitted in accordance with section 745A(b) and the standards established by the eCopy guidance, when applicable. In addition, requests for breakthrough designation under section 515C of the FD&C Act for devices under sections 510(k), 513(f)(2), and 515(c) of the FD&C Act would be considered “presubmissions” to those submission types as identified under section 745A, and, therefore, requests for breakthrough designation would be subject to section 745A(b), and likewise, § 10.75 requests for review within CDRH.
Further, § 800.75 proposes that requests for supervisory review of CDRH decisions other than 517A decisions must be sent to the CDRH Ombudsman, and those decisions, other than 517A decisions not subject to section 745A, are to be submitted in electronic format. Further instructions will be provided regarding submission of such requests in electronic format.
FDA is proposing that any final rule based on this proposal become effective 90 days after the date of publication of a final rule in the
We have examined the impacts of the proposed rule under E.O. 12866, E.O. 13563, E.O. 13771, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). E.O. 12866 and 13563 direct us to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). E.O. 13771 requires that the costs associated with significant new regulations “shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least two prior regulations.” We believe that this proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined by E.O. 12866. It has been determined that this proposed rule is an action that does not impost more than de minimis costs.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires us to analyze regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule on small entities. Because we anticipate that the costs of the rule would be de minimis, we propose to certify that the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (section 202(a)) requires us to prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits, before proposing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $148 million, using the most current (2016) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This proposed rule would not result in an expenditure in any year that meets or exceeds this amount. We have developed a comprehensive Economic Analysis of Impacts that assesses the impacts of the proposed rule.
The proposed rule would (1) define “517A decision,” (2) apply to requests submitted to CDRH for review of 517A
We received 42 requests for review in 2013, 28 requests for review in 2014, 20 requests for review in 2015, and 20 requests for review in 2016. We estimate that each request for review required 70 hours of CDRH staff time. One possible benefit of the proposed rule, if finalized, is that it may reduce the number of hours required per request for review. If firms have more clarity about the request for review process, they may not have to spend as much time navigating the process, and we may not need to spend as much time guiding them through the process.
We have determined under 21 CFR 25.30(h) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This proposed rule refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information regarding the appeals process for devices in the guidance document entitled “Center for Devices and Radiological Health Appeals Processes” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0738; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E (premarket notification) have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information for De Novo classification requests have been approved under the OMB control number 0910-0844; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 812 (investigational device exemption) have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0078; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814 (premarket approval) have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; and the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subpart H (humanitarian use devices) have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0332.
We have analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13132. We have determined that the proposed rule does not contain policies that would have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, we conclude that the proposed rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications as defined in the Executive Order and, consequently, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.
The following references are on display in the Dockets Management Staff (see
Administrative practice and procedure, News media.
Administrative practice and procedure, Medical devices, Ophthalmic goods and services, Packaging and containers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, it is proposed that 21 CFR parts 10 and 800 be amended as follows:
5 U.S.C. 551-558, 701-706; 15 U.S.C. 1451-1461; 21 U.S.C. 141-149, 321-397, 467f, 679, 821, 1034; 28 U.S.C. 2112; 42 U.S.C. 201, 262, 263b, 264.
(e) Each request by an interested person for review of a decision within the Center for Devices and Radiological Health shall also comply with § 800.75 of this chapter.
5 U.S.C. 551-559; 21 U.S.C. 301-399f.
(a) The following definitions shall apply to this section:
(1)
(2)
(i) A substantially equivalent order under § 807.100(a)(1) of this chapter, or a not substantially equivalent order under § 807.100(a)(2) of this chapter;
(ii) An approval order under § 814.44(d) of this chapter, an approvable letter under § 814.44(e) of this chapter, a not approvable letter under § 814.44(f) of this chapter, or an order denying approval under § 814.45 of this chapter;
(iii) An approval order under § 814.116(b) of this chapter, an approvable letter under § 814.116(c) of this chapter, a not approvable letter under § 814.116(d) of this chapter, or an order denying approval under § 814.118 of this chapter;
(iv) A grant or denial of a request for breakthrough device designation under section 515C of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;
(v) An approval order under § 812.30(a) of this chapter or a disapproval order under § 812.30(c) of this chapter;
(vi) A failure to reach agreement letter under section 520(g)(7) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
(vii) A clinical hold determination under section 520(g)(8) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
(3)
(b) Submission of request.
(1) Review of 517A decisions.
(i) An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH of a 517A decision under § 10.75 of this chapter must be addressed to the next organizational level or higher above the individual who made the decision; submitted in electronic format in accordance with section 745A(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; marked “Appeal: Request for Supervisory Review;” and received by CDRH no later than 30 days after the date of the decision involved. Any such request for supervisory review not received by CDRH within 30 days after the date of the decision involved is not eligible for review. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section, FDA will render a decision within 45 days of the request for supervisory review.
(ii) A person requesting supervisory review under paragraph (b)(1)(i) may request an in-person meeting or teleconference with the supervisor reviewing the request for supervisory review. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, if a request for in-person meeting or teleconference is included in the request for supervisory review to CDRH, CDRH will schedule the meeting or teleconference to occur within 30 days of receipt of the request. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a decision will be rendered within 30 days of such meeting or teleconference.
(iii) The timeframes for CDRH to render a decision provided in (b)(1)(i) and (ii), and the timeframe to schedule an in-person meeting or teleconference review in (b)(1)(ii) of this section do not apply, if a matter related to the 517A decision under review is referred by CDRH to external experts, such as an advisory committee, as provided in § 10.75(b) of this chapter.
(2) An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH under § 10.75 of this chapter of a decision other than a 517A decision that is not received by CDRH within 60 days after the date of the decision involved will be denied as untimely, unless CDRH, for good cause, permits the request to be filed after 60 days. An initial or sequential request for supervisory review within CDRH of a decision other than a 517A decision must be addressed to the next organizational level or higher above the individual who made the decision; submitted in electronic format in accordance with section 745A(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, when applicable; marked, “Appeal: Request for Supervisory Review” in the subject line of the electronic request; and sent to the CDRH Ombudsman at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Proposed rule; extension of comment period.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is extending the comment period for the proposed rule that appeared in the
FDA is extending the comment period on the proposed rule published on October 31, 2017 (82 FR 50324). Submit either electronic or written comments by March 19, 2018.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 19, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” We will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in our consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Crystal Rivers, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-830), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1444.
In the
We have received requests for a 60-day extension of the comment period for the proposed rule. Each request conveyed concern that the current comment period does not allow sufficient time to develop a meaningful or thoughtful response to the proposed rule.
FDA has considered the requests and is extending the comment period for the proposed rule until March 19, 2018. We believe that this extension allows adequate time for interested persons to submit comments without significantly delaying rulemaking on these important issues.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish two temporary safety zones for multiple locations and dates within the Captain of the Port Sector New Orleans Zone. These safety zones are necessary to protect persons and vessels from potential safety hazards associated with fireworks displays on or over navigable waterways. Entry into these zones is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector New Orleans (COTP) or a designated representative. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before March 19, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-1058 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Lieutenant Commander (LCDR) Howard Vacco, Sector New Orleans, US Coast Guard; telephone 504-365-2281, email
The Coast Guard proposes to establish temporary safety zones for the following fireworks displays:
(1) On November 7, 2017, the New Orleans Tourism & Marketing Corporation notified the Coast Guard that it would be conducting a fireworks display from 7:45 p.m. through 8:45 p.m. on May 25, 2018. The fireworks are to be launched from a barge on the Lower Mississippi River at approximate mile marker (MM) 95.9, above Head of Passes, New Orleans, LA.
(2) On March 14, 2017, the NOLA 2018 Foundation notified the Coast Guard that it would be conducting a fireworks display from 8 p.m. through 8:20 p.m. on May 6, 2018. The fireworks are to be launched from a barge on the Lower Mississippi River at approximate MM 95.4, above Head of Passes, New Orleans, LA.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of vessels on the navigable waters within a one-mile range of the fireworks barge before, during, and after the scheduled event. The Coast Guard proposes this rulemaking under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231.
The COTP proposes to establish two temporary safety zones within the Captain of the Port Sector New Orleans (COTP) Zone on two different dates and locations. Both safety zones will encompass a one-mile stretch of river with a duration lasting no more than one hour. The duration of the zones is intended to ensure the safety of vessels on these navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled fireworks displays. No vessel or person would be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. The proposed zones are as follows:
(1) Bayou Country Music Fest: a safety zone from 7:45 p.m. through 8:45 p.m. on May 25, 2018. The safety zone would cover all navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River between MM 95.4 and MM 96.4, above Head of Passes.
(2) NOLA Tricentennial 2018 Jazz and Heritage Fest: A safety zone from 8 p.m. through 9 p.m. on May 6, 2018. This safety zone would cover all navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River between MM 95 and MM 96, above Head of Passes.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size and short duration of the waterway closure, which would remain in effect for one hour on a one-mile section of the waterway. In addition, vessel traffic seeking to transit the areas would be able to seek permission from the COTP or his designated representative to do so.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above, this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves two safety zones lasting one hour that would prohibit entry within a one-mile section of the Lower Mississippi River. They are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A preliminary Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(1) Bayou Country Music Fest, New Orleans, LA.
(i)
(ii)
(2) NOLA Tricentennial 2018 Jazz and Heritage Fest.
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(2) Vessels requiring entry into this safety zone must request permission from the COTP or a designated representative. They may be contacted on VHF-FM Channel 16 or 67.
(3) Persons and vessels permitted to enter these safety zones must transit at their slowest safe speed and comply with all lawful directions issued by the COTP or the designated representative.
(c)
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Proposed rule.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) proposes to amend its regulations governing the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs (CHAMPVA). The proposed revisions would clarify and update these regulations to conform to changes in law and policy that control the administration of CHAMPVA and would include details concerning the administration of CHAMPVA that are not reflected in current regulations. The proposed revisions would also expand covered services and supplies to include certain preventive services and eliminate cost-share amounts and deductibles for certain covered services.
Written comments must be received on or before March 19, 2018.
Written comments may be submitted through
Joseph Duran, Director, Policy and Planning, Office of Community Care (OCC), 3773 Cherry Creek North Drive, Denver, Colorado 80209,
The Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs (CHAMPVA) is a health benefits program in which the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) shares the cost of covered medical care services and supplies with spouses, children, survivors, and certain caregivers of veterans who meet eligibility criteria under 38 U.S.C. 1781. CHAMPVA beneficiaries must not be eligible for TRICARE, a health care program administered by the Department of Defense (DoD) that is also authorized to provide health care to certain family members of veterans. Certain Primary Family Caregivers designated under 38 U.S.C. 1720G(a)(7)(A) are eligible under section 1781 as long as they are not entitled to services under a health-plan contract as that term is defined in 38 U.S.C. 1725(f).
Under section 1781, VA “shall provide for medical care in the same or similar manner and subject to the same or similar limitations as medical care is furnished to certain dependents and survivors of active duty and retired members of the Armed Forces under chapter 55 of title 10 [United States Code] (CHAMPUS).” 38 U.S.C. 1781(b). CHAMPUS was the original program administered by DoD to provide civilian health benefits for active duty military personnel, military retirees, and their dependents. 32 CFR 199.1. Although the CHAMPUS program is still referenced in DoD regulations, DoD effectively replaced the CHAMPUS program with what is commonly known as the “TRICARE Standard” plan (“TRICARE”). See 32 CFR 199.1(r), 199.17(a)(6)(ii)(C) (identifying “TRICARE Standard” as the basic CHAMPUS program). TRICARE's current benefit structure offers varying degrees of medical benefits under multiple plan options beyond its Standard plan, but we administer CHAMPVA in the same or similar manner as TRICARE Standard only, because that basic program is the one that is referenced by the CHAMPUS authority. Thus, all references in this rulemaking to “TRICARE” are to the TRICARE Standard plan, which we refer to simply as “TRICARE” throughout most of this rulemaking for ease of reference.
VA interprets the mandate in 38 U.S.C. 1781(b) to administer CHAMPVA in the “same or similar manner . . . as medical care is furnished . . . under title 10 chapter 55 (CHAMPUS)” to mean that we must generally administer CHAMPVA in a “same or similar manner” as the TRICARE Standard plan. The phrase “same or similar manner” does not require the programs to be administered in an identical manner. Rather, we broadly interpret this language as affording us needed flexibility to administer the program for CHAMPVA beneficiaries. For this reason, not every aspect of CHAMPVA will find a corollary in the TRICARE Standard Plan.
TRICARE has undergone changes in legal authority and policy that have prompted these proposed revisions to our CHAMPVA regulations. This rulemaking is intended to ensure that our regulations continue to be, again broadly speaking, the same or similar to the regulations and policies governing TRICARE. As noted throughout this proposed rule, there are necessary variations from TRICARE, particularly due to TRICARE's current benefit structure with varying degrees of medical benefits under multiple plan options, but we believe these variations satisfy the same or similar requirement in 38 U.S.C. 1781(b).
This rulemaking also proposes clarifications and revisions that will improve our ability to effectively administer CHAMPVA, as well as technical revisions to make our regulations more understandable.
Current § 17.270(a) broadly discusses general administrative provisions of CHAMPVA, and current § 17.270(b) establishes certain definitions for the CHAMPVA regulations. We would revise the title of § 17.270 to clearly indicate that it contains both general provisions as well as definitions and would revise and reorganize the current definitions as well as add new definitions. Finally, we would add a new paragraph (c) to permit VA to waive, under certain circumstances, any requirements in the CHAMPVA regulations that are not otherwise required by statute, as is allowed under TRICARE. See 32 CFR 199.1(n). Waiver would be limited to very unusual and limited circumstances when waiver was determined to be in the best interests of VA; would not set a precedent for future decisions; and would not be used to deny any individual any right, benefit, or privilege provided to him or her by statute or these regulations.
Proposed § 17.270(a) would continue to provide an overview of CHAMPVA, including a general summary of the manner in which CHAMPVA is administered. We would refer to CHAMPUS, as we do in the current regulation, but would also reference TRICARE because the reference to CHAMPUS is outdated, as explained above, and may be misunderstood by CHAMPVA beneficiaries. Current § 17.270(a) states that CHAMPVA is administered by the “Health Administration Center” (HAC) (referred to now as the Office of Community Care (OCC)), which is located in Denver, Colorado. We propose to delete this statement because that fact is not substantively relevant to the regulations. These revisions are not substantively different from current § 17.270(a).
Proposed § 17.270(a)(1) would state that an authorized non-VA provider may provide medical services and supplies that are covered by CHAMPVA. This is current practice and would reflect in regulation VA's authority to provide CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies under 38 U.S.C. 1781(b)(2). As explained in greater detail below in connection with proposed § 17.272(b)(3), CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies are those provided by authorized non-VA providers who agree to provide covered services and supplies to CHAMPVA beneficiaries in exchange for payment of the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount. Proposed § 17.270(a)(2) would also reference VA's alternate authority under section 1781(b) to provide medical care to CHAMPVA beneficiaries through VA medical facilities equipped to provide the care and services if such resources are not being used for the care of eligible veterans. This initiative is called the CHAMPVA In-house Treatment Initiative (CITI) and would be referenced as such in proposed § 17.270(a)(2). CITI affords beneficiaries the same medical services available to veterans. CITI claims submitted to OCC are processed in the same manner as all other CHAMPVA claims. However, a monthly transfer of funds, or Transfer
With regards to CHAMPVA beneficiaries receiving care in VA medical facilities through CITI, we have historically interpreted section 1781(b) to mean that such care may be provided only if the CHAMPVA beneficiary is not also eligible for Medicare benefits. We base this interpretation on the fact that CHAMPVA has always been the last payer for CHAMPVA-covered medical services and supplies when a CHAMPVA beneficiary has Medicare (included in this rulemaking's definition of “other health insurance” (OHI), see 38 U.S.C. 1781(d)(2)). The mandated coordination of benefits found in section 1781(d)(2) is essentially the same as the requirement in TRICARE codified at 32 CFR 199.8, which provides that if a TRICARE beneficiary is eligible for both Medicare and TRICARE, Medicare is the primary payer and TRICARE is the secondary payer. In addition, this policy limitation for CITI is reasonable because VA is a publicly funded health care system that cannot bill Medicare (see section 1814(c) and section 1835(d) of the Social Security Act, codified at 42 U.S.C. 1395f(c) and 1395n(d)). Moreover, Medicare is an entitlement program, whereas the provision of CHAMPVA medical benefits is subject to the availability of appropriations which, for any given time period, might or might not be sufficient to cover all CHAMPVA-covered medical services and supplies in a VA medical facility. Requiring beneficiaries to use their Medicare benefits first accomplishes our goal of protecting all patients' access to care. Therefore, we would further clarify in proposed § 17.270(a)(2) that any CHAMPVA beneficiary who is also eligible for Medicare benefits may not receive medical services and supplies through CITI.
Proposed § 17.270(a)(3) would newly indicate in regulation that outpatient prescription medications may be provided to certain CHAMPVA beneficiaries through Medications by Mail (MbM), administered by VA. Proposed paragraph (a)(3)(i) would further provide that VA's MbM provides prescription medications through the mail to CHAMPVA beneficiaries who do not have any OHI that pays for prescriptions, including Medicare Part D. This restriction largely is consistent with TRICARE policy on the provision of medications by mail, except that TRICARE covers prescribed medications for beneficiaries with OHI in two instances: When the prescribed medication is not covered by the OHI or when the beneficiary's OHI prescription benefit has been exhausted. See TRICARE Pharmacy Program Handbook (October 2015), pages 18-19. CHAMPVA is unable to duplicate these two exceptions due to system limitations, meaning that CHAMPVA will only provide prescription medications through the mail to beneficiaries who do not have any OHI prescription coverage. Despite this, CHAMPVA's inclusion of prescription medications is, broadly speaking, sufficiently similar to TRICARE that VA remains in substantial compliance with the requirements of section 1781(b).
Proposed paragraph (a)(3)(ii) would provide that smoking cessation pharmaceutical supplies are available only through MbM. Section 713 of the Duncan Hunter National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2009, Public Law 110-417 (October 14, 2008) (“2009 NDAA”) required DoD to establish a smoking cessation program under TRICARE under which specified smoking cessation benefits are to be made available to beneficiaries who are not also eligible for Medicare. This TRICARE benefit is codified at 32 CFR 199.4(e)(30). As to the pharmaceutical component of this TRICARE benefit, smoking cessation pharmaceutical agents (which VA refers to as pharmaceutical supplies) are available only through Military Treatment Facility (MTF) pharmacies or the TRICARE Mail Order Program. See 32 CFR 199.4(e)(30)(ii)(A) and 199.21(h)(2)(iii). Similar to 32 CFR 199.4(e)(30)(i), proposed § 17.270(a)(3)(ii) would provide that the same smoking cessation supplies will be made available to CHAMPVA beneficiaries who are not eligible for Medicare. Additionally, smoking cessation pharmaceutical supplies would be available only through MbM. For purposes of CITI, we would not provide smoking cessation pharmaceutical supplies through VA facility pharmacies because it is administratively more efficient for CHAMPVA to provide these through MbM, and because, in complying with the requirements of section 1781(b), as discussed above, VA facility pharmacies would be required to administer any needed smoking cessation pharmaceutical supplies first to veterans before providing them to CHAMPVA beneficiaries. We would also remove the restriction on smoking cessation services and supplies in current § 17.272(a)(57), as discussed later in this proposed rule.
For clarity, we would establish abbreviations for the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs as “CHAMPVA” and the Department of Veterans Affairs as “VA.” The current regulations refer to the part of VA that administratively handles CHAMPVA claims as the “Center” in several places (see current §§ 17.275-17.277), and to the “Health Administration Center” in other places (see current §§ 17.270, 17.275-17.276), and we believe that referring to “VA” is more appropriately descriptive and would eliminate ambiguity.
Proposed § 17.270(b) would establish definitions for the CHAMPVA regulations. We would define “accepted assignment” as the action of an authorized non-VA provider who accepts responsibility for the care of a CHAMPVA beneficiary and thereby agrees to accept the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount as full payment for services and supplies rendered to the beneficiary. This extinguishes the beneficiary's payment liability to the provider with the exception of applicable cost shares and deductibles. This definition is consistent with our explanation for proposed § 17.272(b)(3), which further outlines the necessity for defining “accepted assignment.” Our current regulations do not define the term “authorized provider,” but the term “authorized provider” (and variations thereof) is used throughout current § 17.272 to refer to an institutional or individual provider of CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies. The term is used to describe persons or institutions that are considered appropriately licensed or credentialed to competently provide medical services and supplies to CHAMPVA beneficiaries and that VA will pay to provide such services and supplies. In addition, an “authorized provider” has historically been interpreted in CHAMPVA to be a non-VA medical provider. To capture this historical interpretation in full, we would define an “authorized non-VA provider” to mean an individual or institutional non-VA provider of CHAMPVA-covered medical services and supplies who is licensed or certified by a State to provide the covered medical services and supplies, or is otherwise certified by an appropriate national or professional association that sets standards for the specific medical provider. This requirement for State licensure or other certification would be similar to TRICARE, which requires that its providers be either licensed or
We would define “calendar year” as the period of time between and including January 1 through December 31. This is plain language and is consistent with the generally understood meaning of the phrase “calendar year.”
The term “CHAMPVA beneficiary” would be defined as a person enrolled for CHAMPVA under § 17.271. This would be a program-specific definition, but it is in plain language and is consistent with the generally understood meaning of the word “beneficiary.” To clarify, an individual is enrolled in CHAMPVA only after the individual has successfully completed the application process (
We would define “CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies” to mean those medical services and supplies that are medically necessary and appropriate for the treatment of a condition and that are not specifically excluded from coverage under proposed § 17.272(a)(1) through (84) (current § 17.272(a)(1) through (86)).
We would define “CHAMPVA determined allowable amount” by referencing the proposed paragraph that would relate to this term, proposed § 17.272(b)(1).
We would define “CHAMPVA In-house Treatment Initiative (CITI)” to mean the initiative under section 1781(b) under which participating VA medical facilities provide medical services and supplies to CHAMPVA beneficiaries who are not also eligible for Medicare, subject to availability of space and resources.
We would define the term “child” consistent with 38 U.S.C. 101, as we do in the current regulation at § 17.270(b).
We would define the term “claim” consistent with the current use and understanding of the term in the context of CHAMPVA, as a request by an authorized non-VA provider or CHAMPVA beneficiary for payment or reimbursement for medical services and supplies provided to a CHAMPVA beneficiary.
We would define “fiscal year” as the period of time starting on October 1 and ending on September 30. This is plain language and is consistent with the generally understood meaning of the phrase “fiscal year” as used within the Federal Government.
We would define “Medications by Mail (MbM)” to mean the initiative under which VA provides outpatient prescription medications through the mail to CHAMPVA beneficiaries.
We would define “other health insurance” (OHI) as a health insurance plan or program (to include Medicare) or third-party coverage that provides coverage to a CHAMPVA beneficiary for expenses incurred for medical services and supplies. The inclusion of Medicare is consistent with the TRICARE regulation related to double coverage. See 32 CFR 199.8(d)(1).
We would define the term “payer” to mean OHI, as defined in this rulemaking, that is obligated to pay for CHAMPVA-covered medical services and supplies. In a situation in which more than one insurer is responsible to pay for such services and supplies (
Defining a “payer” and designating different payer types would not affect the administration of CHAMPVA because these concepts of relative payment responsibility are all accepted and understood by the insurance industry and current CHAMPVA beneficiaries and are an essential part of current CHAMPVA billing practices. For instance, Medicare would be the primary payer in situations governed by current § 17.271(b) (which remains unchanged by this proposed rulemaking). See 38 U.S.C. 1781(d)(2).
The definition of “service-connected” in current § 17.270(b) would be unchanged and given the same meaning as that term in 38 U.S.C. 101. However, the terms “spouse” and “surviving spouse” would no longer have the definitions of these same terms in 38 U.S.C. 101(31) and (3), respectively, as those definitions are outdated; instead, these terms would both be determined by operation of 38 U.S.C. 103(c).
Consistent with the waiver provisions of TRICARE, see 32 CFR 199.1(n), new proposed paragraph (c) would establish the discretionary authority of VA to waive, when it is deemed to be in the best interest of VA, any regulatory requirement of this part that is not required by 38 U.S.C. 1781 or otherwise imposed by statute. This discretionary waiver authority would be limited to very unusual and limited circumstances and would not set a precedent for future decisions. In addition, it would not be used to deny any individual any right, benefit, or privilege provided by statute or these regulations. This new provision would enable VA to allow payment under CHAMPVA in cases, for example, where, by operation of CHAMPVA rules, the claim is subject to complex administrative or accounting procedures that ultimately result in determination of the claim's technical noncompliance when the underlying claim is otherwise appropriate. Where a claimant's non-compliance with a purely policy or administrative-based technical requirement is both unintentional and harmless, we believe it would be in VA's best interest to have the authority to waive the regulatory requirement and allow payment.
Current § 17.271 identifies persons who may be eligible for CHAMPVA benefits. We would revise § 17.271(a) to recognize as CHAMPVA beneficiaries those individuals designated as Primary Family Caregivers under 38 CFR 71.25(f). This substantive addition to the eligibility criterion would be made pursuant to the Caregivers and Veterans Omnibus Health Services Act of 2010, Public Law 111-163, section 102, which amended 38 U.S.C. 1781(a) by adding a new subsection (a)(4) authorizing VA to provide CHAMPVA benefits to “an individual designated as a primary provider of personal care services under [38 U.S.C. 1720G(a)(7)(A)] who is not entitled to care or services under a health-plan contract (as defined in [38 U.S.C. 1725(f)]).” We amend CHAMPVA eligibility criteria to recognize these Primary Family Caregivers as CHAMPVA beneficiaries but not to establish substantive eligibility rules in the CHAMPVA regulations to determine whether an individual is a Primary Family Caregiver. (VA's regulations governing the Caregivers Benefits Program established by 38 U.S.C. 1720G are codified at 38 CFR part 71, and the specific rules governing the identification of such individuals are found at 38 CFR 71.15 through 71.25.) We would redesignate current § 17.271(a)(4) as § 17.271(a)(5) and add a new proposed § 17.271(a)(4) to state that a Primary Family Caregiver is eligible for CHAMPVA benefits if they are not entitled to care or services under a health-plan contract (as defined in 38 U.S.C. 1725(f)(2)). We note that VA is already providing CHAMPVA services
Current § 17.272 provides general information about what medical services and supplies are covered by CHAMPVA and lists coverage limitations along with the exclusions. The general information concerning coverage in current § 17.272(a) continues to be accurate, and we do not propose any changes to paragraph (a). Some of the coverage limitations and exclusions listed in the numbered paragraphs under § 17.272(a) require revision due to either changed standards in clinical practice or changes in TRICARE coverage.
Current § 17.272(a)(2) excludes the provision of services and supplies required as a result of an occupational disease or injury for which benefits are payable under workers' compensation or a similar protection plan. We propose to update the verbiage to clarify the exclusion for the reader.
Current § 17.272(a)(3) excludes the provision of services and supplies that are paid directly or indirectly by local, State, or Federal government agencies, with certain exceptions listed in § 17.272(a)(3)(i) and (ii) where CHAMPVA assumes primary payer status. We propose to add Indian Health Service and CHAMPVA supplemental policies as exceptions where CHAMPVA assumes primary payer status. This would be consistent with current CHAMPVA practice as well as the TRICARE regulation related to double coverage. See 32 CFR 199.8(b)(4)(ii) and (iv). We also propose to remove the “(Medicaid excluded)” parenthetical language in current § 17.272(a)(3), because § 17.272(a)(3)(i) already expressly excepts “Medicaid” from the general exclusion in § 17.272(a)(3).
Current § 17.272(a)(21) excludes dental care generally, with exceptions to such exclusion listed in paragraphs (a)(21)(i) through (xii). We would amend paragraph (a)(21)(ix) to clarify that the provision of initial imaging services for the treatment of temporomandibular joint disorder (TMD) could specifically include Computed Tomography (CT) and Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) services. We believe the sole reference to “initial radiographs” in current § 17.272(a)(21)(ix) is outdated and that modern industry standards include the use of CT scans as well as MRIs for diagnosing TMD. A CT scan provides a more detailed image of the bones in the joint, and an MRI provides a more detailed image of the soft tissue to determine proper positioning as the jaw moves. We would also update § 17.272(a)(21)(ix) to refer to the more updated and clinically appropriate terminology “temporomandibular joint disorder (TMD).” These revisions would update CHAMPVA regulations with current standards of clinical practice for the benefit of CHAMPVA beneficiaries.
A majority of the remaining proposed changes to CHAMPVA coverage exclusions in proposed § 17.272(a)(1) through (82) are based on changes to TRICARE coverage and policy. Virtually all coverage limitations and exclusions in current § 17.272(a)(1)-(86), as shown in the chart below, are substantially identical to services and supplies excluded from, or limited under, TRICARE coverage under 32 CFR 199.4(g), or as otherwise noted in the chart.
We note that even where our current provisions are not identical to a TRICARE provision, our intent has consistently been to apply CHAMPVA comparable exclusions or limitations in the same or similar manner to their TRICARE counterpart in accordance with 38 U.S.C. 1781(b). The same is true for our proposed revisions below, which are consistent with changes in DoD's administration of TRICARE.
The first change we would make to our limitations and exclusions based on TRICARE regulatory and policy changes concerns current § 17.272(a)(26), which is not addressed in the chart above because it correlates with a provision that has been removed from TRICARE regulations. See 60 FR 12419 (March 7, 1995). Therefore, we propose to remove this exclusion from our regulations as well. Paragraph (a)(26) in current § 17.272 excludes coverage for services and supplies, including psychological testing, provided in connection with a specific developmental disorder. By removing this exclusion, CHAMPVA would now cover this service, and we would redesignate current
Under section 711 of the 2009 NDAA, TRICARE must waive all beneficiary costs associated with certain preventive services, unless the beneficiary is also Medicare-eligible. TRICARE regulations were revised to delete from 32 CFR 199.4(g)(37) the list of preventive services not excluded from coverage, and these services were moved to new § 199.4(e)(28) so that they instead would be reflected as preventive services under TRICARE for which out-of-pocket costs are eliminated. See 76 FR 81368 (December 28, 2011). We would revise our current exclusion of preventive care in § 17.272(a)(31) (proposed to be redesignated as § 17.272(a)(30)) to except the same preventive services identified in paragraphs (d)(1)(A) through (F) of section 711 of the 2009 NDAA and, further, do so in a manner that, on the whole, reflects the manner in which these services are provided under TRICARE. Section 711 of the 2009 NDAA sets forth the following preventive services for which beneficiaries shall pay no associated costs: Colorectal cancer screening; breast cancer screening; cervical cancer screening; prostate cancer screening; annual physical exam; vaccinations. Current § 17.272(a)(31)(i) through (x) set forth exceptions to the general exclusion of certain specific preventive care. Respectively, the terms of current paragraphs (a)(31)(v) and (vi) already except “[p]ap smears” and “[m]ammography tests” and so effectively capture “cervical cancer screening” and “breast cancer screening” as referred to in the 2009 NDAA. However, because the singular terms “mammography test” and “pap smear” are outdated, we are updating to “breast cancer screening” and “cervical cancer screening.” Therefore, proposed § 17.272(a)(30) would revise the exceptions to the general exclusion of preventive care to include the four remaining preventive services specified in the 2009 NDAA, namely colorectal cancer screening; prostate cancer screening; annual physical examination; and vaccinations/immunizations.
We note that the TRICARE final rule that implemented the amendments made by section 711 of the 2009 NDAA does not include an annual physical exam benefit for all TRICARE beneficiaries; instead, such benefit is limited to certain dependents of Active Duty military personnel who are traveling outside the United States and for beneficiaries ages 5 through 11 who require such exams for school enrollment. This benefit is also not exempt from cost sharing requirements. See 76 FR 81368, and 32 CFR 199.4(e)(29). Broadly interpreting our mandate in section 1781(b), VA proposes to modify the current exclusion of preventive care in current § 17.272(a)(31) insofar as it defines that term to include annual physical examinations and create an exception permitting such exams. Despite the limited availability of such examinations under TRICARE, it is noteworthy that TRICARE nonetheless covers some preventive services that are typically provided as part of an annual physical examination such as blood pressure screening, cholesterol testing, and body measurements. See TRICARE Policy Manual 6010.60-M (“Medicine”), Chapter 7, section 2.1 (“Clinical Preventive Services-TRICARE Standard”) (April 1, 2015). To be paid for by TRICARE, however, these types of health promotion and disease prevention services must be billed in connection with another preventive service delineated in TRICARE's policy manual. Id. We do not believe limiting the provision of annual physical examinations to only a few select groups is appropriate from a clinical perspective. Further, in the exercise of our discretion, when broadly interpreting the mandate of section 1781(b), we conclude it lies within our discretion to determine that this benefit should be made available to all CHAMPVA beneficiaries. This is particularly the case given that some individual health promotion and disease prevention services that are typically provided as part of an annual physical examination would eventually be approved by TRICARE as long as they are coupled or associated with billing submitted for a covered service. (The nature and delivery of those services remains the same whether delivered as part of an annual examination or under the umbrella of another service for which TRICARE billing is permitted.) Furthermore, VA finds that annual physical examinations are beneficial for both CHAMPVA beneficiaries and VA, by serving to identify serious medical issues before they progress and their clinical management becomes more difficult and resource-intensive. Even though our proposed approach would include elements of an annual physical examination not otherwise included as an adjunct service provided under a covered benefit as described above, we believe our approach is sufficiently “similar” to TRICARE. Therefore, we propose to create an exception to the exclusion of preventive care, permitting an annual physical examination to be among the benefits available to all CHAMPVA beneficiaries.
We also note that we would except “[v]accinations/immunizations” from the general exclusion of preventive services. Although subsection (d)(1)(F) of section 711 of the 2009 NDAA exempts “vaccination” only, TRICARE's guidance on this issue additionally exempts immunizations. See TRICARE Reimbursement Manual 6010.61-M Chapter 2 (“Beneficiary Liability”), section 1 (“Cost-Shares And Deductibles”) (April 1, 2015). We believe these terms have identical meanings and would use both terms just to be clear that this preventive service is covered regardless of whether it is called an “immunization” or a “vaccination.”
Current § 17.272(a)(39) excludes coverage for audiological services or speech therapy, except when prescribed by a physician and rendered as part of a treatment addressing a physical defect, which correlates with a provision not addressed in the chart above because it has been removed from TRICARE regulations. See 75 FR 50880 (August 18, 2010). Therefore, we propose to remove this exclusion from our regulations as well. By removing this exclusion, CHAMPVA would now cover this service, and we would redesignate current § 17.272(a)(40) through (56) as § 17.272(a)(38) through (54), respectively.
As stated earlier in this rulemaking, pursuant to section 713 of the 2009 NDAA, TRICARE must make available smoking cessation benefits, as specified in the law, to beneficiaries who are not also eligible for Medicare. The four categories of smoking cessation benefits available to these beneficiaries are set forth in TRICARE's regulations under 32 CFR 199.4(e)(30)(ii)(A)-(D). Hence, we would revise our regulations by removing our correlate restriction on smoking cessation services and supplies in current § 17.272(a)(57). In removing current § 17.272(a)(57), current paragraphs (a)(58) through (71) would be redesignated as paragraphs (a)(55) through (68), respectively.
Redesignated paragraphs (a)(57) through (59) would be revised to reference coverage of mental health benefits in a “calendar year” versus the current reference to “fiscal year.” We propose to change the yearly basis of this coverage because our beneficiaries and providers are more familiar with calendar year events, and the impact of the change from fiscal to calendar on the functioning of CHAMPVA would be minimal.
With the proposed removal of § 17.272(a)(57) and subsequent redesignations of paragraphs noted above, current paragraph (a)(67) would be redesignated as paragraph (a)(64). CHAMPVA would continue to exclude the performance of abortions, except when a physician certifies that the life of the mother would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term. This is the same restriction in current TRICARE regulations (see 32 CFR 199.4(e)(2)), although statute and TRICARE policy statements recently established an additional exception to the general ban on abortions. Specifically, section 704 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013, Public Law 112-239 (2013 NDAA), amended 10 U.S.C. 1093(a) and (b) to expand the circumstances under which funds available to DoD and MTFs may be used to provide and perform abortions in cases of pregnancy resulting from an act of rape or incest. Despite the recent amendments to section 1093 of title 10 and TRICARE policy, we do not propose same or similar changes to CHAMPVA's current exclusion at this time because TRICARE regulations do not provide for it. Additionally, such changes would create an even greater disparity between the women's health care benefits afforded veterans and CHAMPVA beneficiaries.
Current § 17.272(a)(72) excludes from coverage drug maintenance programs where one addictive drug is substituted for another such as methadone substituted for heroin. A TRICARE final rule published on October 22, 2013, and effective November 21, 2013, removes a correlate restriction from TRICARE regulations, and so we propose to similarly remove § 17.272(a)(72). See 78 FR 62427 (October 22, 2013); 32 CFR 199.4(e)(4)(ii). We agree with the stated rationale in the related TRICARE proposed rule that the current restriction fails to recognize the accumulated medical evidence supporting certain maintenance programs as one component of the continuum of care necessary for the effective treatment of substance use disorders. See 76 FR 81899 (December 29, 2011). In removing current § 17.272(a)(72), current paragraphs (a)(73) through (86) would be redesignated as paragraphs (a)(69) through (82), respectively.
Current § 17.272(a)(80), as proposed to be redesignated as paragraph (a)(76), excludes from CHAMPVA benefits medications not requiring a prescription, except for insulin and related diabetic testing supplies and syringes. We would revise redesignated paragraph (a)(76) to instead exclude “over-the-counter products” and would additionally expand the exception to this exclusion to cover over-the-counter smoking cessation pharmaceutical supplies that are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), prescribed, and provided through MbM. These changes would be consistent with TRICARE regulations, which require a prescription from an authorized provider for smoking cessation pharmaceutical agents (even for FDA-approved over-the-counter smoking cessation agents). See 32 CFR 199.4(e)(30)(ii)(A).
Section 702 of the 2013 NDAA grants the Secretary of Defense the authority to add certain over-the-counter medications to the TRICARE formulary so that such medications may be administered as if they were prescription medications. CHAMPVA does not have a same or similar uniform formulary as DoD that could be altered to include certain over-the-counter medications, and we do not interpret section 702 as granting authority to alter VA's uniform formulary. Therefore, we would not amend our regulations in response to section 702 of the 2013 NDAA. Our regulation as revised and redesignated § 17.272(a)(76) would permit CHAMPVA to provide the same over-the-counter smoking cessation supplies as permitted in TRICARE policy.
Lastly, we would add two new exclusions to § 17.272. Proposed paragraph (a)(83) would exclude medications that are not approved by the FDA, excluding FDA exceptions to the approval requirement. Current CHAMPVA regulations are silent regarding the need for medications to meet FDA approval requirements; however, this has not been a problem as a matter of practice because applicable standards of care generally require prescribed medications to be FDA-approved or excluded as an exception from the approval requirement. Still, we wish to formally and expressly exclude medications that do not meet these requirements. In addition, to provide benefits in the same or similar manner and subject to the same or similar limitations as TRICARE, paragraph (a)(84) would establish exclusions for services and supplies related to the treatment of dyslexia. See 38 CFR 199.4(g)(32). This change merely reflects in regulation current CHAMPVA practice and policy.
Due to the multiple proposed deletions and additions in § 17.272(a)(1)-(86), we reiterate that we would redesignate most of the current paragraphs under § 17.272(a). With the proposed removal of current paragraph (a)(26), current paragraphs (a)(27) through (38) would be redesignated as (a)(26) through (37), respectively, with the substantive changes to redesignated (a)(30) as noted above. With the proposed removal of current paragraph (a)(39), current paragraphs (a)(40) through (56) would be redesignated as (a)(38) through (54), respectively, with no substantive changes. With the deletion of the current paragraphs (a)(57) and (72), current paragraphs (a)(58) through (86) would be redesignated as (a)(55) through (82), respectively, with the minor substantive changes as noted above to redesignated paragraphs (a)(57) through (59) and (a)(76). Lastly, we would add new paragraphs (a)(83) and (84).
Current § 17.272(b) establishes the “CHAMPVA determined allowable amount,” and paragraph (b)(1) states that the term “allowable amount” is the maximum amount that CHAMPVA will pay an authorized provider for a covered benefit, which is determined prior to cost sharing and the application of deductibles or OHI. (This means, for instance, that the cost-share would be a percentage of the entire CHAMPVA determined allowable amount.) However, this is merely a definition and not a statement of coverage limitation or exclusions. We would revise paragraph (b) to clearly indicate that amounts above the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount are excluded from CHAMPVA coverage. The actual payment methodology—the amount to which cost sharing and deductibles will be applied—is addressed in proposed § 17.274(e) and is discussed below.
Proposed § 17.272(b)(1) would explain that the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount is the maximum level of payment to an authorized non-VA provider for CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies and that this allowable amount is determined before cost sharing and the application of deductibles or OHI is considered. This is a restatement of current § 17.272(b)(1), except that we would use the term “authorized non-VA provider” to encompass all those providers listed in current § 17.272(b)(1) and include the term “supplies” after “covered services” to underscore they too can be covered. See current 38 CFR 17.272(b)(1) (referencing “a hospital or other authorized institutional provider, a physician or other authorized individual professional provider, or other authorized provider for covered services”). We believe use of the one term “authorized non-VA provider” as defined in proposed § 17.270(b) properly captures all provider types now listed in § 17.272(b)(1) and
Current § 17.272(b)(2) states that a Medicare-participating hospital must accept the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount for inpatient services as payment in full and references 42 CFR parts 489 and 1003. While this is a true statement of law under 42 CFR 489.25, the references to 42 CFR parts 489 and 1003 are vague, and part 1003 is not relevant to the issue of what amounts Medicare-participating hospitals must accept as payment in full from CHAMPVA. See 42 CFR part 1003 (describing civil money penalties, assessments, and exclusions generally for individuals who violate provisions of or agreements with Federal health care programs). Proposed § 17.272(b)(2) would state that inpatient services are “provided to a CHAMPVA beneficiary” and use a single, clarifying reference to 42 CFR 489.25.
Section 503 of The Caregivers and Veterans Omnibus Health Services Act of 2010, Public Law 111-163, revised 38 U.S.C. 1781 by adding new subsection (e), which states: “Payment by the Secretary under this section on behalf of a covered beneficiary for medical care shall constitute payment in full and extinguish any liability on the part of the beneficiary for that care.” Current § 17.272(b)(3) states that: “An authorized provider of covered medical services or supplies must accept the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount as payment in full.” Proposed § 17.272(b)(3) would state more clearly that “accepted assignment” refers to the action of an authorized non-VA provider who accepts responsibility for the care of a CHAMPVA beneficiary and thereby agrees to accept the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount as full payment for services and supplies rendered to the beneficiary. The provider's acceptance of the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount extinguishes the beneficiary's payment liability to the provider with the exception of applicable cost shares and deductibles. Proposed § 17.272(b)(3) would not be substantively different than current paragraph (b)(3) but would clarify that the action of accepting payment is the equivalent of accepting assignment. The term “accepted assignment” is used currently in the administration of CHAMPVA payments, and we believe using it in this regulation as described would increase clarity in payment practices for both CHAMPVA beneficiaries and authorized non-VA providers.
Current § 17.272(b)(4) provides that a provider who has collected and not made an appropriate refund, or attempts to collect from the beneficiary any amount in excess of the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount may be subject to exclusion from Federal benefit programs. The underlying authority for this rule is 42 CFR 1003.105, which establishes the terms for a health care provider's permissive or mandatory exclusion from participation in the Medicare program and other Federal health care programs. Exclusion may result, for instance, if a provider files false claims under these programs. We would move this information to proposed § 17.272(b)(3) for increased clarity and would remove mention of providers not making an appropriate refund of amounts collected from beneficiaries, as the purpose of 38 U.S.C. 1781(e) and proposed § 17.272(b)(3) is for these amounts to never be collected by the provider. By moving this information to proposed paragraph (b)(3), we would also remove current paragraph (b)(4).
CHAMPVA preauthorization requirements for certain medical care and services are based on CHAMPVA needs and are substantially the same or similar as those required by TRICARE. See 32 CFR 199.4
Finally, we would add new proposed § 17.273(f) to detail the reviews of medical necessity. Since CHAMPVA is a secondary payer, VA would be required to perform reviews of medical necessity on a retrospective basis. If during the coordination of benefits process it is determined that CHAMPVA would be the responsible payer for the services and supplies but CHAMPVA preauthorization was not obtained prior to delivery of the services or supplies, we would obtain the necessary information and perform a retrospective medical necessity review. We would also propose that any claims, where a retrospective review occurs, are filed within the appropriate one-year period.
Current § 17.274(a) provides in general that CHAMPVA is a cost sharing program in which the cost of CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies is shared with the beneficiary, with the exception of services obtained through VA medical facilities. This provision would remain substantively the same, but we would add new paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) to explicate, respectively, that the former language “services obtained through VA facilities” refers to services and supplies provided both through MbM and through CITI. That is, the exception to this cost-share requirement would extend specifically to each of these initiatives (as these initiatives would be defined by this proposed rulemaking).
Subsections (d)(1)(A) through (d)(1)(F) of section 711 of the 2009 NDAA, as discussed earlier, set forth certain preventive services for which TRICARE waives all out-of-pocket costs, even if the beneficiary has not paid the amount necessary to cover the beneficiary's deductible requirement for the year. We propose to revise § 17.274(a) to make clear that there will be no associated cost share for CHAMPVA beneficiaries for such services. (We address waiving the associated deductible requirement later in the discussion of proposed § 17.274(b)). We would add new paragraphs (a)(1)(iii)(A)-(G) to § 17.274 to waive CHAMPVA beneficiary cost-share requirements for the same preventive services identified in paragraphs (d)(1)(A) through (F) of
For TRICARE, the waiver of beneficiary costs associated with preventive services in proposed § 17.274(a)(1)(iii)(A) through (G) do not apply to any TRICARE beneficiary who is also Medicare-eligible. See Public Law 110-417, section 711(b). We would not exclude Medicare-eligible beneficiaries from cost sharing waivers for preventive services as this would unfairly disadvantage them as compared to other CHAMPVA beneficiaries with OHI. By not including this waiver, CHAMPVA will treat all beneficiaries with OHI the same. Additionally, we believe most preventive services provided to Medicare-eligible beneficiaries will be paid in full by Medicare, and, therefore, CHAMPVA will not assume any payment responsibility. In the event a cost share or deductible is applied for preventive services, CHAMPVA will treat those claims as it would the claims for any other beneficiary with OHI.
The general provisions in current § 17.274(b) related to establishing an annual deductible requirement (in addition to beneficiary cost share) would remain substantively the same. We would move the exception to this general requirement in current § 17.274(b) (last sentence) for services obtained through VA facilities to a new § 17.274(b)(1) and also explain that it refers to services and supplies provided through MbM or CITI under the same rationale as expressed above for proposed new § 17.274(a)(1)(i) and (ii), respectively. We would also move the exception to the deductible requirement in current § 17.274(b) (last sentence) for any inpatient services to a new § 17.274(b)(2). Proposed § 17.274(b)(3) would except the listed preventive services in proposed § 17.274(a)(1)(iii)(A)-(G) from the general deductible requirement in current and proposed § 17.274(b), in accordance with the mandate in section 711 of the 2009 NDAA. See Public Law 110-417, section 711(a)(2) (mandating that a beneficiary not be charged for preventive services during a year even if the beneficiary has not paid the amount necessary to cover the beneficiary's deductible for the year. See 32 CFR 199.4(f)(12)). Proposed § 17.274(b)(4) would waive the CHAMPVA beneficiary deductible requirement for hospice services, as is done similarly under TRICARE regulations. See 32 CFR 199.14(g)(9). Lastly, to remain similar to TRICARE, in § 17.274(b)(5), we would add a waiver for other services as determined by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
Current § 17.274(c) establishes a calendar year limit on the “cost-share amount” incurred by a CHAMPVA beneficiary through the payment of both cost-shares and deductible amounts (See current 38 CFR 17.274(c), indicating that the cap is “limited to the applied annual deductible(s) and the beneficiary cost-share amount.”). Proposed § 17.274(c) would retain this basic information but would refer instead to a cap on “out-of-pocket costs” instead of “cost-share amounts” so that it is clear that both cost share and deductible amounts apply to this cap. Current § 17.274(c)(i) establishes an annual cap of cost sharing of $7,500 per CHAMPVA eligible family “through December 31, 2001”, which is an outdated provision. Current § 17.274(c)(ii) further establishes a current cap of $3000 per CHAMPVA eligible family, which was “[e]ffective January 1, 2002.” Under proposed § 17.274(c), we would establish an annual (calendar year) cap on out-of-pocket costs of $3,000 per CHAMPVA eligible family. The annual cap amount would be unchanged from what currently exists but would use the new terminology proposed above for the sake of clarity. We would also remove current § 17.274(c)(i) and (ii).
We do not propose any substantive changes to current § 17.274(d) as this provision is legally adequate, and we are not proposing to revise policies related to it. However, we are adding a subject heading in an effort to mirror the cost share calculation in proposed paragraph (e) to § 17.274.
We propose to add a new paragraph (e) to § 17.274 which would set forth the principles found in current policy manuals that VA uses to establish CHAMPVA beneficiary cost-share amounts. The calculation methodologies that would be described in proposed § 17.274(e) represent current CHAMPVA practice and therefore would not increase or decrease the out-of-pocket costs for CHAMPVA beneficiaries. The methodologies described in proposed § 17.274(e) are also consistent with TRICARE cost-share calculation methodologies for the same or similar types of care, except as indicated below.
In accordance with current practice, and as proposed in § 17.274(e), the CHAMPVA beneficiary's cost-share amount, if applicable, is 25 percent of the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount in excess of the annual calendar year deductible for most CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies. This calculation is similar to that used in TRICARE to determine cost-share amounts for a majority of TRICARE covered services. See 32 CFR 199.4(f)(3)(ii)(C) and (f)(3)(iii). Proposed § 17.274(e)(1) and (2) would establish the services for which the general rule of a 25 percent cost share does not always apply. Proposed paragraph (e)(1) would establish in regulation the current calculation VA uses to determine CHAMPVA beneficiary cost share for inpatient facility services and supplies that are subject to the CHAMPVA Diagnosis Related Group (DRG) payment system. The CHAMPVA DRG system, like that used by TRICARE under 32 CFR 199.14, is based on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) prospective payment system for hospital services, as set forth in 42 CFR part 412. For services based on the CHAMPVA DRG system, the CHAMPVA beneficiary cost share would be the lesser of the per diem rate multiplied by the number of inpatient days; or, 25 percent of the hospital's billed amount; or, the base CHAMPVA DRG rate. This calculation is similar to that used in TRICARE regulation. See 32 CFR 199.4(f)(3)(ii)(A) and (f)(8)(ii).
Proposed § 17.274(e)(2) would establish the CHAMPVA beneficiary cost share for covered inpatient facility services and supplies that are subject to the CHAMPVA mental health low volume per diem reimbursement methodology. This methodology covers mental health inpatient services for lower volume hospitals and units (less than 25 mental health discharges per federal fiscal year). For these services, the CHAMPVA beneficiary cost share
Although, as noted above, a majority of the CHAMPVA cost-share methodologies are the same or similar as TRICARE's, we would not adopt a recent TRICARE exception to its general 25 percent cost-share rule for prescription medications. Section 712 of the 2013 NDAA requires the Secretary of DoD, through regulations, to establish specified fixed dollar amounts for cost shares for pharmacy benefits (
We propose to add a new § 17.275 to describe the various payment methodologies used by CHAMPVA to calculate the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount for covered services and supplies. CHAMPVA uses the same or similar payment methodologies to establish allowable reimbursement amounts for providers as TRICARE. See 32 CFR 199.14. As with the cost-share methodologies that would be described in § 17.274(e), proposed § 17.275 represents current practice except as noted below and would not cause changes for CHAMPVA beneficiaries. The reason that § 17.274(e) (regarding cost share) and § 17.275 (regarding CHAMPVA determined allowable amount) would be separated is to clarify for CHAMPVA beneficiaries how much of the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount they are responsible for as a cost share (
Proposed § 17.275(a) would establish in regulation the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount for reimbursement of inpatient hospital services based on the CHAMPVA DRG-based payment system. Proposed paragraph (a) would explain that, unless exempt or subject to a methodology in proposed paragraph (b) or (c), hospital services provided in the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico are subject to the CHAMPVA DRG-based payment system. The CHAMPVA DRG system, similar to that used by TRICARE under 32 CFR 199.14, is also based on the CMS prospective payment system as set forth in 42 CFR part 412. Certain services provided in a DRG reimbursed facility will be reimbursed under the CHAMPVA Cost-to-Charge (CTC) payment method. See,
Proposed § 17.275(b) would establish in regulation the current CHAMPVA inpatient mental health per diem payment system used to calculate reimbursement for inpatient mental health hospital care in specialty psychiatric hospitals and psychiatric units of general acute hospitals that are exempt from the CHAMPVA DRG-based payment system. The per diem rate would be calculated based on the daily rate times the number of days (length of stay). CHAMPVA's mental health per diem rates are updated each fiscal year for both high volume hospitals (25 or more discharges per fiscal year) and low volume hospitals (less than 25 discharges per fiscal year). The per diem rates used by CHAMPVA are determined by TRICARE per diem rates. See 32 CFR 199.14(a).
Proposed § 17.275(c) would establish in regulation the CHAMPVA CTC payment system that is used to calculate the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount for inpatient services furnished by hospitals or facilities that are exempt from the CHAMPVA DRG-based payment system or the CHAMPVA inpatient mental health per diem payment system. TRICARE establishes an alternate methodology to calculate payments for inpatient services that are exempt from its DRG and inpatient mental health per diem payment systems. See 32 CFR 199.14(a)(4). Proposed § 17.275(c)(1) would establish the CHAMPVA CTC methodology used to calculate costs for hospitals or facilities by multiplying a CTC ratio by billed charges. We would further propose that the billed charges from the applicable hospitals and facilities must be customary and not in excess of rates or fees the hospital or facility charges the general public for similar services in a community. This requirement that the applicable billed charges not be in excess of what is charged of the general public is similar to TRICARE's requirements. See 32 CFR 199.14(a)(4)(i). Proposed § 17.275(c)(2)(i) through (x) would establish the types of hospitals and services subject to the CHAMPVA CTC methodology, similar to TRICARE at 32 CFR 199.14(a)(1)(ii)(D)(1) through (10) and (a)(1)(ii)(E). We would also add in proposed § 17.275(c)(2)(xi) that hospitals and services as determined by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs may be subject to the CHAMPVA CTC methodology.
Proposed § 17.275(d) would establish in regulation the CHAMPVA outpatient prospective payment system (OPPS) used to calculate the allowable amount for outpatient services provided in a hospital subject to Medicare OPPS. This will include the utilization of TRICARE's reimbursement methodology to include specific coding requirements, ambulatory payment classifications (APCs), nationally established APC amounts, and associated adjustments (
Proposed § 17.275(e) would establish in regulation the reimbursement methodology for services and supplies provided by authorized non-VA providers on an outpatient or inpatient basis where the services are distinct from facility-type charges in proposed § 17.275(a) through (d). Proposed § 17.275(e) would explain that the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount paid to authorized non-VA providers (not hospitals) for services and supplies provided on an outpatient or inpatient basis is the lesser of: The CHAMPVA maximum allowable charge (equivalent to the maximum allowable charge for similar services provided by other than hospitals and skilled nursing facilities under TRICARE, see 32 CFR 199.14(c)); the prevailing amount, which is the amount equal to the maximum reasonable amount allowed providers for a specific procedure in a specific locality; or the billed amount. Certain services that typically may be provided within a hospital setting, but not billed as a facility-type charge under proposed paragraphs (a) through (d), would be included as examples in proposed paragraph (e), namely anesthesia services; laboratory services; and other professional services associated with individual authorized non-VA providers. These examples are not all-inclusive.
Proposed § 17.275(f) would establish in regulation the current payment methodology for outpatient CHAMPVA pharmacy points of service. CHAMPVA negotiates rates with retail pharmacies through its contract with the pharmacy benefit manager. For services and supplies obtained from a retail “in-network” pharmacy, proposed § 17.275(f)(1) would establish that VA pays the lesser of the billed amount or the contracted rate. For supplies from a retail “out-of-network” pharmacy, proposed § 17.275(f)(2) would establish that VA pays the lesser of the billed amount plus a dispensing fee or the average wholesale price plus a dispensing fee.
Proposed § 17.275(g) would set forth in regulation the current CHAMPVA reimbursement methodology for the provision of services in a Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF). This methodology is based on the CMS prospective payment system for SNFs under 42 CFR part 413, subpart J (Medicare Resource Utilization Group (RUG) rates), which is the same methodology used in TRICARE regulations to calculate SNF payments. See 32 CFR 199.14(b).
Proposed § 17.275(h) would set forth in regulation the current reimbursement methodology for durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS). Reimbursement of DMEPOS would be based on the same amounts established under the CMS DMEPOS fee schedule under 42 CFR part 414, subpart D, which is the same methodology used in TRICARE regulations to calculate DMEPOS payments. See 32 CFR 199.14(k). The allowed amount would be that which is in effect in the specific geographic location at the time CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies are provided to a CHAMPVA beneficiary.
Proposed § 17.275(i) would establish in regulation the current payment methodology for all ambulance services. CHAMPVA adopts Medicare's Ambulance Fee Schedule (AFS) for ambulance services, which is based on the same methodology used by TRICARE. See TRICARE Reimbursement Manual 6010.61-M, Chapter 1 (“General”), section 14 (“Ambulance Services”) (April 1, 2015). Ambulance services are paid based on the lesser of the Medicare AFS or the billed amount. Payments for ambulance services furnished by a Critical Access Hospital (CAH) are paid on the same basis as the CTC method under paragraph (c) of this section.
Proposed § 17.275(j) would establish in regulation the current reimbursement methodology for hospice care. This methodology uses rates in the CMS hospice per diem rate payment system, which is the same methodology used in TRICARE regulations to calculate hospice payments. See 32 CFR 199.14(g)(9).
Proposed § 17.275(k) would establish in regulation a reimbursement methodology for intermittent or part-time home health services similar to the methodology used in TRICARE, which is based on Medicare's payment methods and rates. See 32 CFR 199.14(h). Under this methodology, a fixed case-mix and wage-adjusted national 60-day episode payment amount will act as payment in full for costs associated with furnishing home health services with exceptions allowing for additional payment to be established. This would be a new limitation in payments for services but is in line with the 60-day episode amount specified in the TRICARE regulation. See 32 CFR 199.14(h).
Proposed § 17.275(l) would establish in regulation the current reimbursement methodology for facility charges associated with procedures performed in a freestanding surgery center, which is the basis of a prospectively determined amount, similar to that used by TRICARE. See 32 CFR 199.14(d). These facility charges would not include physician fees, anesthesiologist fees, or fees of other authorized non-VA providers; such independent professional fees would be submitted separately from facility fees and calculated under the methodology in proposed § 17.275(e). Ambulatory surgery procedures performed in CAHs or in hospital outpatient departments are to be reimbursed in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) or (d) respectively of this section.
Proposed § 17.275(m) states that VA shall determine the appropriate reimbursement method or methods to be used in the extension of CHAMPVA benefits for otherwise covered medical services and supplies provided by hospitals or other institutional providers, physicians or other individual professional providers, or other providers outside the United States. The authority to establish these reimbursement methods is similar to that in TRICARE regulation. See 32 CFR 199.14(n).
Proposed § 17.275(n) would establish in regulation the reimbursement methodology for inpatient services provided in a Sole Community Hospital (SCH). TRICARE reimbursement approximates Medicare reimbursement for SCHs. TRICARE reimburses on a two-step process. TRICARE makes an initial payment based upon multiplying the billed amount by the applicable TRICARE percentage, which is the greater of the SCH's most recently available cost-to-charge ratio from the CMS inpatient Provider Specific File or the TRICARE allowed-to-billed ratio. The second step is a year-end adjustment to compare the aggregate allowable cost under the first method to the aggregate amount that would have been allowed for the same care using the DRG method. In the event that the DRG method amount is the greater, the year-end adjustment will be the amount by which it exceeds the aggregate allowable costs. See 32 CFR 199.14(a)(7). Due to certain limitations, CHAMPVA cannot be the same as TRICARE but can be
Proposed § 17.276 is a revision and renumbering of current § 17.275. First, we propose to remove the reference to “the Center” and “[t]he Director, Health Administration Center, or his or her designee” in § 17.276(a) and (b), as renumbered by this rulemaking. Our intent is to indicate that VA is responsible for administering CHAMPVA and has discretion to assign claims processing responsibility within the Department.
Proposed § 17.276(c) would clarify that claims for services and supplies provided to an individual before the date of the event that qualifies the individual as eligible under § 17.271 are not reimbursable.
We further propose to add new paragraph (d) to proposed § 17.276 to clarify CHAMPVA policy concerning double coverage situations. We would clearly state that CHAMPVA is the last payer to all OHI, with the exceptions noted previously, which would mean that in cases of double coverage, any CHAMPVA benefits would generally not be paid until the claim has first been filed with the OHI and a final payment determination or explanation of benefits has been issued by the other insurer or payer. This is consistent with the purpose of TRICARE's double coverage provisions in 32 CFR 199.8, which address double coverage situations with OHI. Once CHAMPVA, as the last payer, makes its payment to the authorized non-VA provider, the CHAMPVA beneficiary's personal liability for the cost of care is then fully extinguished, as discussed earlier. However, TRICARE has special rules for double coverage situations involving TRICARE beneficiaries who also have Medicare benefits. See 32 CFR 199.8(e)(1). In the case of double coverage based on the availability of both CHAMPVA and Medicare benefits, the provisions of current § 17.271(b) would still apply and be unchanged by this proposed rulemaking. Under current § 17.271(b), VA is the secondary payer to Medicare, as required under 38 U.S.C. 1781(d)(2).
Proposed § 17.277 is a revision and renumbering of current § 17.276. We would make two minor revisions to current § 17.276. First, we would remove references to “Director, Health Administration Center, or his or her designee” (an outdated reference within the current Office of Community Care) and replace it with a reference to “VA.” This is necessary to ensure that VA is effectively put forth as the general administrator of CHAMPVA. In addition, we would clarify when a beneficiary has OHI, an appeal must first be filed with the OHI, and a determination made, before submitting an appeal to CHAMPVA. We would also like to note that there may be instances where we would not require a beneficiary to appeal with their OHI first, such as when the OHI deems the issue non-appealable. Neither of these revisions are substantive changes. We will also keep the note located in current § 17.276, relocating it to the body of new § 17.277.
We propose to renumber current §§ 17.277-17.278 to §§ 17.278-17.279. Additionally, as with proposed § 17.277, we would remove reference to “the Center” in current § 17.277 and in its place insert “VA.” This revision would clarify that it is VA, and not HAC independently, that has the authority to pursue medical care cost recovery in accordance with applicable law. We would also remove the reference to third-party liability in proposed § 17.278 because it is unnecessary. VA's specific authority to recover for medical care costs applies to responsible third parties. We would not make any substantive changes to proposed § 17.279.
The Code of Federal Regulations, as proposed to be revised by this proposed rulemaking, would represent the exclusive legal authority on this subject. No contrary rules or procedures would be authorized. All VA guidance would be read to conform with this proposed rulemaking if possible or, if not possible, such guidance would be superseded by this rulemaking.
This proposed rule contains no provisions constituting a collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).
The Secretary hereby certifies that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612. The new proposed payment methods in this rulemaking will include new reimbursement rates for the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS), and Sole Community Hospitals (SCHs) reimbursement methodologies. These revised methodologies would not significantly affect small businesses due to the following reasons: (1) The health care industry, to include Medicare and TRICARE, is currently using these payment methods and most providers are used to these reimbursement rates, if not expecting to receive them; (2) CHAMPVA's beneficiary population is relatively small compared to these other health care payers. Further support and data can also be found in VA's impact analysis as a supporting document at
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) defines a “significant regulatory action,” which requires review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), as “any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy
The economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this regulatory action have been examined and OMB has determined the regulatory action to be economically significant, because it will have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. As noted above, VA's impact analysis is available as a supporting document at
This proposed rule is not expected to be subject to the requirements of EO13771 because this proposed rule is expected to result in no more than de minimis costs.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. This proposed rule would have no such effect on State, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance numbers and titles for the programs affected by this document are 64.009, Veterans Medical Care Benefits; 64.010, Veterans Nursing Home Care; and 64.011, Veterans Dental Care; 64.012, Veterans Prescription Service; 64.013, Veterans Prosthetic Appliances; and 64.019, Veterans Rehabilitation Alcohol and Drug Dependence.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Gina S. Farrisee, Deputy Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on October 2, 2017, for publication.
Administrative practice and procedure, Archives and records, Claims, Dental health, Drug abuse, Health care, Health facilities, Health professions, Health records, Medical devices, Mental health programs, Nursing homes, Veterans.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) proposes to amend 38 CFR part 17 as follows:
38 U.S.C. 501, and as noted in specific sections.
(a)
(1) By an authorized non-VA provider.
(2) By a VA provider at a VA facility, on a resource-available basis through the CHAMPVA In-house Treatment Initiative (CITI) only to CHAMPVA beneficiaries who are not also eligible for Medicare.
(3) Through VA Medications by Mail (MbM).
(i) Only CHAMPVA beneficiaries who do not have any other type of health insurance that pays for prescriptions, including Medicare Part D, may use MbM.
(ii) Smoking cessation pharmaceutical supplies will only be provided through MbM and only to CHAMPVA beneficiaries that are not also eligible for Medicare.
(b)
(i) Is licensed or certified by a State to provide the medical services and supplies; or
(ii) Where a State does not offer licensure or certification, is otherwise certified by an appropriate national or professional association that sets standards for the specific medical provider.
(c)
The addition and revision read as follows:
(a) * * *
(4) An individual designated as a Primary Family Caregiver, under 38 CFR 71.25(f), who is not entitled to care or services under a health-plan contract (as defined in 38 U.S.C. 1725(f)(2)); and
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) Services and supplies required as a result of an occupational disease or injury for which benefits are payable under workers' compensation or similar protection plan (whether or not such benefits have been applied for or paid) except when such benefits are exhausted and the services and supplies are otherwise not excluded from CHAMPVA coverage.
(3) * * *
(iii) Indian Health Service.
(iv) CHAMPVA supplemental policies.
(21) * * *
(ix) Treatment for stabilization of myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome, also referred to as temporomandibular joint disorder (TMD). Authorization is limited to initial imaging such as radiographs, Computed Tomography, or Magnetic Resonance Imaging; up to four office visits; and the construction of an occlusal splint.
(30) Preventive care (such as employment-requested physical examinations and routine screening procedures). The following exceptions apply, including but not limited to:
(v) Cervical cancer screening.
(vi) Breast cancer screening.
(xi) Colorectal cancer screening.
(xii) Prostate cancer screening.
(xiii) Annual physical examination.
(xiv) Vaccinations/immunizations.
(57) Unless a waiver for extended coverage is granted in advance: Inpatient mental health services in excess of 30 days in any calendar year (or in an admission), in the case of a patient 19 years of age or older; 45 days in any calendar year (or in an admission), in the case of a patient under 19 years of age; or 150 days of residential treatment care in any calendar year (or in an admission).
(58) Outpatient mental health services in excess of 23 visits in a calendar year unless a waiver for extended coverage is granted in advance.
(59) Institutional services for partial hospitalization in excess of 60 treatment days in any calendar year (or in an admission) unless a waiver for extended coverage is granted in advance.
(76) Over-the-counter products except for pharmaceutical smoking cessation supplies that are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, prescribed, and provided through MbM, and insulin and related diabetic testing supplies and syringes.
(83) Medications not approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), excluding FDA exceptions to the approval requirement.
(84) Services and supplies related to the treatment of dyslexia.
(b) Costs of services and supplies to the extent such amounts are billed over the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount are specifically excluded from coverage.
(1) The CHAMPVA determined allowable amount is the maximum level of payment by CHAMPVA to an authorized non-VA provider for the provision of CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies to a CHAMPVA
(2) A Medicare-participating hospital must accept the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount for inpatient services provided to a CHAMPVA beneficiary as payment in full. See 42 CFR 489.25.
(3) An authorized non-VA provider who accepts responsibility for the care of a CHAMPVA beneficiary thereby agrees to accept the CHAMPVA determined allowable amount as full payment for services and supplies rendered to the beneficiary (
The revisions and addition read as follows:
Preauthorization or advance approval is required for any of the following, except when the benefit is covered by the CHAMPVA beneficiary's other health insurance (OHI):
(d) Dental care. For limitations on dental care, see § 17.272(a)(21)(i) through (xii).
(f) CHAMPVA will perform a retrospective medical necessity review during the coordination of benefits process if:
(1) It is determined that CHAMPVA is the responsible payer for services and supplies but CHAMPVA preauthorization was not obtained prior to delivery of the services or supplies; and,
(2) The claim for payment is filed within the appropriate one-year period.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a)
(1) CHAMPVA beneficiary cost-share requirements do not apply to the following:
(i) Supplies provided through VA MbM.
(ii) Any medical services and supplies provided to a CHAMPVA beneficiary through CITI.
(iii) The following services, even if not provided through CITI:
(A) Colorectal cancer screening.
(B) Breast cancer screening.
(C) Cervical cancer screening.
(D) Prostate cancer screening.
(E) Annual physical exams.
(F) Vaccinations/immunizations.
(G) Well child care from birth to age six, as described in § 17.272(a)(30)(i).
(iv) Hospice services.
(v) Or other services as determined by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
(2) [Reserved]
(b)
(1) CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies provided through VA MbM or through CITI.
(2) Inpatient services.
(3) Preventive services listed in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section.
(4) Hospice services.
(5) Or other services as determined by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) For inpatient services subject to the CHAMPVA Diagnosis Related Group (DRG) payment system, the cost share is the lesser of:
(i) The per diem rate multiplied by the number of inpatient days;
(ii) 25 percent of the hospital's billed amount; or
(iii) The base CHAMPVA DRG rate.
(2) For inpatient mental health low volume hospitals and units (less than 25 mental health discharges per federal fiscal year), the cost share is the lesser of:
(i) The fixed per diem rate multiplied by the number of inpatient days; or
(ii) 25 percent of the hospital's billed charges.
CHAMPVA calculates the allowable amount in the following ways, for the following covered services and supplies:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) The following hospitals and services are subject to the CHAMPVA CTC payment methodology:
(i) Any hospital that qualifies as a cancer hospital under Medicare standards and has elected to be exempt from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) prospective payment system.
(ii) Christian Science sanatoriums.
(iii) Critical Access Hospitals.
(iv) Any hospital outside the 50 States, the District of Columbia, or Puerto Rico.
(v) Hospitals within hospitals.
(vi) Long-term care hospitals.
(vii) Non-Medicare participating hospitals.
(viii) Non-VA Federal Health Care Facilities (
(ix) Rehabilitation hospitals.
(x) Hospital or hospital-based services subject to State waiver in any State that has implemented a separate DRG-based payment system or similar payment system in order to control costs.
(xi) Hospitals and services as determined by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
(d)
(e)
(1) The CHAMPVA Maximum Allowable Charge;
(2) The prevailing amount, which is the amount equal to the maximum reasonable amount allowed providers for a specific procedure in a specific locality; or,
(3) The billed amount.
(f)
(1) For services and supplies obtained from a retail in-network pharmacy, the lesser of the billed amount or the contracted rate; or
(2) For supplies obtained from a retail out-of-network pharmacy, the lesser of the billed amount plus a dispensing fee or the average wholesale price plus a dispensing fee.
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) Unless an exception is granted under paragraph (b) of this section, claims for medical services and supplies must be filed no later than:
(b) Requests for an exception to the claim filing deadline must be submitted in writing and include a complete explanation of the circumstances resulting in late filing along with all available supporting documentation. Each request for an exception to the
(c) Claims for CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies provided before the date of the event that qualifies an individual under § 17.271 are not reimbursable.
(d) CHAMPVA is the last payer to OHI, as that term is defined in § 17.270(b). CHAMPVA benefits will generally not be paid until the claim has been filed with the OHI and the OHI has issued a final payment determination or explanation of benefits. CHAMPVA is secondary payer to Medicare per the terms of § 17.271(b).
Notice of the initial determination regarding payment of CHAMPVA benefits will be provided to the CHAMPVA beneficiary on a CHAMPVA Explanation of Benefits (EOB) form. The EOB form is generated by the CHAMPVA automated payment processing system. If a CHAMPVA beneficiary or provider disagrees with the determination concerning CHAMPVA-covered services and supplies or calculation of benefits, he or she may request reconsideration. Such requests must be submitted to VA in writing within one year of the date of the initial determination. The request must state why the CHAMPVA claimant believes the decision is in error and must include any new and relevant information not previously considered. Any request for reconsideration that does not identify the reason for dispute will be returned to the claimant without further consideration. After reviewing the claim and any relevant supporting documentation, VA will issue a written determination to the claimant that affirms, reverses, or modifies the previous decision. If the claimant is still dissatisfied, within 90 days of the date of the decision he or she may make a written request for review by VA. After reviewing the claim and any relevant supporting documentation, VA will issue a written determination to the claimant that affirms, reverses, or modifies the previous decision. The decision of VA with respect to benefit coverage and computation of benefits is final. When a CHAMPVA beneficiary has other health insurance (OHI), an appeal must first be filed with the OHI, and a determination made, before submitting the appeal to CHAMPVA with limited exceptions such as if the OHI deems the issue non-appealable. Denial of CHAMPVA benefits based on legal eligibility requirements may be appealed to the Board of Veterans' Appeals in accordance with 38 CFR part 20. Medical determinations are not appealable to the Board. 38 CFR 20.101.
VA will actively pursue medical care cost recovery in accordance with applicable law.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice; correction.
The Federal Communications Commission (Commission) published a document in the
Radhika Karmarkar, Wireline Competition Bureau, (202) 418-7400 or TTY: (202) 418-0484.
In the
Comments are due on or before February 2, 2018, and reply comments are due on or before March 5, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this document, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
The National Marine Fisheries Service is proposing this Commerce Trusted Trader Program (CTTP) as part of an effective seafood traceability process to combat Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing and seafood fraud. The voluntary CTTP supplements the Seafood Import Monitoring Program (SIMP), recently implemented under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Qualified importers who choose to participate in the CTTP would benefit from reduced reporting and recordkeeping requirements, and streamlined entry into U.S. commerce for seafood imports subject to the SIMP.
Written comments must be received by March 19, 2018.
Written comments on this action, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0165, may be submitted by either of the following methods:
•
Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection-of-information requirements contained in this proposed rule may be submitted to the NOAA Fisheries Office of International Affairs and Seafood Inspection (IASI) and by email to:
Melissa Beaudry, Office of International Affairs and Seafood Inspection, NOAA Fisheries (phone (301) 427-8308, or email
On March 15, 2015, a multi-agency Presidential task force published an Action Plan for combatting IUU fishing and seafood fraud. This Action Plan called for the identification of the seafood species most “at-risk” for IUU fishing or subject to significant seafood fraud, and the development of a traceability program to track these “priority” species from point of harvest to entry into U.S. commerce, with eventual expansion of the program to all seafood species imported into the United States. A final rule containing measures to address imported fish and fish products as part of this traceability program—called the SIMP)—became effective on January 9, 2017, with a compliance date of January 1, 2018 for most priority species (81 FR 88975; December 9, 2016).
The Action Plan also called for the development of a voluntary Commerce Trusted Trader Program (CTTP) for importers of species that are subject to the SIMP. The CTTP is intended to provide the benefits of reduced reporting and recordkeeping requirements and streamlined entry of applicable species into the United States for importers who are approved as Commerce Trusted Traders (CTTs).
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) and the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) are both developing their own voluntary Trusted Trader programs designed to reduce costs to both the government and industry, and streamline processing of imports. While the CTTP shares many features with these programs, it is designed and intended to apply only to the SIMP.
A critical element of the CTTP is the assurance that the entire supply chain for species covered by SIMP, from point of harvest to entry into U.S. commerce, is legal and documented, and that the entry of illegally harvested and misrepresented fishery products into the U.S. market is prevented. The program is intended to increase the security of the supply chain while reducing the burden of compliance for those importers who qualify for CTT status. This proposed rule, if adopted, would establish the qualifying criteria and application procedures for approval as a CTT. It would also establish requirements for a Trusted Trader Compliance Plan, recordkeeping, and third-party audits for CTTP participants. Under the proposed rule, a CTT would be required to establish a secure supply chain (free of IUU fish or fish product and falsely labeled seafood product) and maintain, either directly or through a third party, the records necessary to verify the legality of all seafood products subject to SIMP that he or she enters into U.S. commerce. Compliance with these requirements would replace the SIMP requirement to enter harvest event data into the International Trade Data System (ITDS) at the time of filing an entry, and would provide increased flexibility for complying with SIMP recordkeeping requirements.
The CTT would be expected to produce all traceability documentation associated with an entry filing subject to the SIMP within 14 days upon request by NMFS to support an audit and to make such documentation available for inspection, but would have significantly reduced reporting requirements for imports of SIMP species. With the exception of any records or documents required by other state or Federal programs, such as the Tuna Tracking and Verification Program (TTVP) or FDA's Prior Notice of Imported Food the CTT would only be required to enter their International Fisheries Trade Permit (IFTP) number and species codes into the ITDS at the time of entry filing.
The CTTP, as proposed, is a voluntary program for U.S. importers of record who import, or intend to import, species subject to the SIMP (50 CFR 300.324(a)(2)). This proposed rule provides that certain criteria must be met in order for an importer to be approved as a CTT. In addition to other requirements specified below, an applicant must be a holder of a valid IFTP, which can be obtained via online registration through the NMFS National Permitting System at
In addition to being an IFTP holder, the applicant must submit an online application for the CTTP at a website designated by NMFS. Incomplete applications will not be reviewed by NMFS. A complete application must contain the following:
(1) The applicant's IFTP number;
(2) An affirmation that the applicant has no history, during the previous five years, of noncompliance (
(3) An affirmation that the applicant is in compliance with other state and federal programs, such as the Highly Migratory Species (HMS) International Trade Program, Antarctic Marine Living Resources (AMLR) Import Export Certification, and the TTVP, as applicable, including license and/or registration number(s) applicable to the importation of fish or fish products;
(4) Electronic submission of the applicant's Trusted Trader Compliance Plan (see details below); and
(5) Application fee.
The amount of the fee is calculated, on at least an annual basis, in accordance with the procedures of the NOAA Finance Handbook, available from NMFS, for determining the administrative costs of each special product or service. The fee may not
The NMFS Office of International Affairs and Seafood Inspection (IASI) will review a CTTP application, as well as the applicant's history of compliance with state and federal regulations related to the importation of fish or fish products, in determining whether to approve the application. If the application is complete and the applicant does not have a history of non-compliance with applicable regulations, NMFS will approve the application and will issue a letter to the applicant that will serve as official documentation of CTT status. If the application is incomplete or complete but not approved, NMFS will issue a letter to the applicant explaining the reasons why. If NMFS issues such a letter, the applicant may respond in writing with additional information to address the issues NMFS identified in its letter. After reviewing such information, NMFS will issue a letter to the applicant indicating if CTT status is approved or explaining the reasons why such status continues to not be approved. NMFS' decision is final upon issuance of this letter and is not appealable. NMFS looks forward to receiving comments on the nature and extent of the application and Compliance Plan review.
While the IFTP must be renewed annually (see 50 CFR 300.322(d)), approval under the CTTP remains in effect unless it is revoked (see Section IV below).
For each entry containing species or species groups subject to the SIMP, the CTT or designated entry filer must file electronically, at the time of entry, the CTT's IFTP number and species to be entered, as required under 50 CFR 300.323(a). No further SIMP data needs to be provided. NMFS IASI will notify CBP of the decision to grant CTT status so that CBP will know that the complete SIMP data set is not required. See proposed 50 CFR 300.324(f) for CTT exemptions from SIMP requirements.
Under this proposed rule, CTTP applicants must have a written Trusted Trader Compliance Plan (Compliance Plan) showing that they have a secure and controlled supply chain, including, but not limited to, harvest, purchase, landing, shipping, processing, storage, and import entry. Importers, regardless of IFTP status, that do not meet these requirements will not be approved as CTTs.
The Compliance Plan must be designed to meet the objective of the SIMP in preventing the importation of illegally harvested or misrepresented fish and fish products into United States commerce. The Compliance Plan may delegate entry filing, recordkeeping and other responsibilities to other persons, but such roles must be clearly defined in the Compliance Plan, as detailed below. Ultimately, the CTT is responsible for adherence to the Compliance Plan and compliance with all NOAA import requirements, including all applicable requirements of the SIMP and the CTTP, if finalized, and for ensuring the prevention of illegally harvested or misrepresented seafood entering U.S. commerce through the CTT's import activities.
The Compliance Plan must, at a minimum, include the following components:
(1) An Internal Control System (see below for requirements);
(2) Procedures for ensuring that the Compliance Plan and the CTT's adherence to it is audited by a certified third party at least annually (see below for audit requirements);
(3) The applicant's written policy and related supporting materials on preventing the import of illegally harvested and misrepresented seafood, including a description of how the policy is communicated to any affected employees, entry filers, representatives, and suppliers or other parties in the supply chain, and corrective actions to be taken as needed;
(4) An organizational chart that identifies the persons with responsibility for: entry filing; custodianship of recordkeeping documents; developing, administering, and implementing the Compliance Plan and its component measures; and conducting training to ensure effective implementation of the Compliance Plan;
(5) A signature page completed by the applicant and the individual at the highest level of authority in the applicant's organization assuming responsibility for implementing the Compliance Plan; and
(6) Any changes to the Compliance Plan, along with an updated signature page and organizational chart must be included in the mandatory annual audit report required (see below).
The Internal Control System, which must be documented in the Compliance Plan described above, must include traceability monitoring procedures for seafood products subject to the SIMP (50 CFR 300.324(a)(2)). The CTT is responsible for ensuring implementation of the Internal Control System, which must include:
(1) Procedures to verify the legal harvest and landing of fish or fish products subject to the SIMP that the CTT enters into U.S. commerce. Verification may rely on flag-state or port-state harvest and landing records. Certification of legal harvest by the flag-state may also be used. In any case, the procedures must be capable of verifying the legal harvest and landing of any fish or fish products imported by the CTT of species that fall under the SIMP by providing the harvest and landing information required by the SIMP regulations at 50 CFR 300.324(b)(1)-(3). A CTT may establish separate procedures for verifying legal harvest and landing from known and trusted fishery sources and for verifying legal harvest and landing from new fishery sources, and may establish separate measures for each fishery source, as appropriate;
(2) Procedures to enable verification of the full chain of custody from point of first landing (or point of aggregation for small-scale fisheries) to entry into U.S. commerce (See 50 CFR 300.324(e)). These procedures should describe the process(es) that will be followed, and documentation that will be used, to verify chain of custody, and measures in place to periodically verify the accuracy of that documentation;
(3) Procedures to ensure that chain of custody documentation will be provided to NMFS, upon request, within 14 days to support an agency audit. Under 50 CFR 300.325(f) of the proposed rule, the Compliance Plan must identify who is responsible for maintaining chain of custody documentation, the point along the supply chain at which the chain of custody documents are stored and how the CTT will ensure access to them when necessary. The documentation must be maintained and made available for inspection as required under § 300.325(i) of the proposed rule. The CTT must be able to access records for no less than two years from the date of entry of the product into U.S. commerce, and records must be made available for inspection, upon request by NOAA to support an agency audit and as necessary for purposes of the annual audit required under § 300.325(j);
(4) Procedures for the CTT (or designee) to perform at least one trace-back annually for each species covered by the SIMP imported by the CTT. A trace-back is a document review of all industry records that follow the product from the point of entry into U.S. commerce backwards through all steps of processing, shipping, and storage to
(5) Procedures to be taken in response to information that illegally harvested or misrepresented fish or fish products have entered the supply chain (
(6) Procedures to be taken in response to any supplier in the CTT's supply chain for SIMP species being placed on an FDA Import Alert.. Import Alerts inform FDA field staff and the public that the Agency has enough evidence to allow for Detention Without Physical Examination (DWPE) of firms and products that appear to be in violation of FDA laws and regulations. These violations could be related to the product, manufacturer, shipper and/or other information. More information is available online at
(7) Procedures to regularly review internal controls and update procedures in response to changes in the fish or fish products that the CTT wants to enter into U.S. commerce, suppliers, or operating conditions or non-conformities identified in an audit.
The CTT must ensure that all information and documentation used for internal controls related to the Compliance Plan and Internal Control System must remain available for U.S. government audit for no less than two years from the date of import entry.
NMFS seeks comment generally on the required elements of the Trusted Trader Compliance Plan, including the Internal Control System. NMFS also invites comment on establishing a species-specific CTTP. As currently drafted, this proposed rule would allow a CTT to import all species subject to SIMP and benefit from reduced reporting requirements at the time of import. As an alternative, an applicant for CTT status could specify in the CTTP Application and Compliance Plan that it has a secure and controlled supply chain for some, but not all, SIMP species and request that CTT status be limited to that subset of SMP species. Under this species-specific alternative, a CTT would be required to comply with all SIMP reporting and recordkeeping requirements for imports of SIMP species not specifically included in its Compliance Plan. NMFS' analysis of the species-specific CTTP, set out in Section 1.3.5 of the regulatory impact review (available from NMFS; see
Additionally, NMFS estimates that its costs for both ITDS/ACE programming and effective long-term compliance auditing would be higher with a species-specific CTTP. NMFS seeks comment on its assumptions and conclusions related to a species-specific CTTP.
As noted in Section II, this proposed rule provides that the CTT's Compliance Plan must include procedures for a third-party audit. The CTT is responsible for ensuring that this third-party audit is conducted annually. Paragraphs 300.325(j) and (k) of the proposed rule set forth requirements for the audit and auditor certification.
At least once annually, the CTT must ensure that an audit is conducted by a certified third-party auditor, consistent with the requirements of the rule. The purpose of the audit is to evaluate the adequacy of the CTT's Compliance Plan in meeting the requirements of 50 CFR 300.325(f) and the CTT's adherence to that plan. A third-party audit should include an opening meeting, during which the auditor will discuss audit objectives with the CTT and any personnel supporting the audit.
During each audit, the third party auditor must review the Compliance Plan and relevant documents. The CTT must make all records, written and electronic, that are pertinent to the Compliance Plan and Internal Control System described therein available to the auditor at the time of the audit. The auditor will select a minimum of three import entries containing SIMP species to serve as the subject of the audit. He or she must verify that all processes in the CTT's Compliance Plan are being followed and that the Internal Control Plan effectively meets the requirements of the CTTP. The auditor must also verify that the audited entries can be traced back to legal harvest (or production) and landing and that the species contained in the shipment are truthfully represented. The auditor must conduct interviews as necessary with CTT staff, suppliers, and individuals delegated responsibilities under the Compliance Plan and may conduct other activities as necessary.
A CTT must notify NMFS at least 30 days in advance of each third-party audit. NMFS, at its discretion, may attend a third-party audit as an observer or conduct a side-by-side audit. In a side-by-side audit, NMFS will review the same documentation as the third party auditor at the same time as the third party auditor to evaluate both the shipment(s) and performance of the third party auditor. NMFS may also conduct an independent audit of a CTT at any time.
The auditor must have a closing meeting with the CTT or designee to review observed weaknesses and any non-conformities with the Compliance Plan, and issue a written audit report within 30 calendar days of the audit. In the audit report, the auditor must assess the reliability of the CTT's Compliance Plan and the CTT's adherence to it, provide results of the audit, and identify any non-conformities with the Compliance Plan or its implementation. The audit report must include the auditor's certifying credentials (see below) and attestations that the auditor (
The CTT is responsible for ensuring that the auditor provides a signed and locked electronic copy of the audit report (in .pdf format) to the CTT and NMFS IASI no later than 30 days following completion of the audit. If the auditor determines that no corrective action is needed, the report is considered the final audit report. If the auditor determines that corrective action is required to address non-conformities with the written Compliance Plan or its implementation, the report is considered an initial audit report. In that case, within 60 days following the audit, the CTT must ensure that a signed and locked electronic copy of the final audit report (in .pdf format) is provided to NMFS
If the CTT fails to provide the audit report to NMFS as required above or take acceptable corrective actions as identified in the report, NMFS may conduct additional audits at its discretion. NMFS may also take additional measures up to and including revocation of CTT status, as deemed appropriate by NMFS. CTT third-party audits may be combined with other Global Food Safety Initiative (GFSI) or chain of custody audits, provided the combined audit is in full compliance with the requirements of the CTTP.
Beyond conducting the audit and any related follow up for a CTT, a third-party auditor (
(1) Current accreditation or certification by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA);
(2) Current accreditation or certification by the Institute of Internal Auditors;
(3) Current accreditation or certification by the American Evaluation Association;
(4) Current accreditation or certification by a chain of custody certifying body;
(5) Current accreditation or certification by Accreditation Services International; or other nationally recognized certifying organizations;
(6) Evidence of current peer-review certification such as Certified Quality Auditor (CQA), Certified Internal Auditor (CIA), Certified Public Accountant (CPA), and Certified HACCP Auditor (CHA);
(7) Successful completion of auditor training recognized by the International Register of Certified Auditors (IRCA) or Registrar Accreditation Board and Quality Society of Australasia (RABQSA), in environmental management standards (EMS); quality management standards (QMS); or Global Food Safety Initiative (GFSI), and registration with IRCA or RABQSA as an EMS or QMS auditor; or
(8) Other training or certification approved in writing by NMFS.
While the IFTP must be renewed annually (see 50 CFR 300.322(d)), approval under the CTTP remains in effect unless revoked under this section. If a CTT fails to comply with requirements of the Program as detailed above, NMFS may issue a Notification Letter to the CTT that:
(1) Identifies the alleged failure to comply with Commerce Trusted Trader Program regulations and requirements;
(2) Describes the indications and evidence of the alleged failure;
(3) Sets a Response Date by which the CTT must submit to NMFS a written response to the Notification Letter, including, if applicable, a proposed solution; and
(4) Explains the CTT's options if the CTT believes the Notification Letter is in error.
NMFS will establish a Response Date between 14 and 30 calendar days from the date of the Notification Letter. The CTT's response must be received in writing by NMFS on or before the Response Date. If the CTT fails to respond by the Response Date, CTT status will be revoked. A CTT who has submitted a timely response may meet with NMFS within 21 calendar days of the date of that response to discuss a detailed and agreed-upon procedure for resolving the alleged failure to comply with the Commerce Trusted Trader Program regulations and requirements.
If the CTT disagrees with the Notification Letter and believes that there is no failure to comply with CTTP regulations and requirements, NMFS has incorrectly defined or described the failure, or NMFS is otherwise in error, the CTT may submit a written Objection Letter to NMFS on or before the Response Date. Within 21 calendar days of the date of the Objection Letter, the CTT may meet with NMFS to discuss a resolution or redefinition of the issue. If modifications to any part of the Notification Letter are required, then NMFS will issue a revised Notification Letter to the CTT; however, the Response Date or any other timeline in this process would not restart or be modified unless NMFS decides to do so.
The total process from the date of the Notification Letter to the date of final resolution should not exceed 90 calendar days, and may require a shorter time frame, to be determined by NMFS, depending on the seriousness of the alleged failure. In rare circumstances, NMFS, at its discretion, may extend the time for resolution of the alleged failure. In such a case, NMFS will provide a written notice to the CTT informing him or her of the extension and the basis for the extension. If the failure to comply with CTTP requirements cannot be resolved through this process, NMFS will issue a Revocation Letter to the CTT that:
(1) States that CTT status has been revoked;
(2) Summarizes the failure to comply with CTTP requirements;
(3) Summarizes any proposed procedures, or attempts to produce such procedures pursuant to sub-paragraph (3) of this section, to resolve the failure;
(4) Explains why resolution was not achieved; and
(5) Advises the importer that (1) the importer is no longer exempt from the requirements of the SIMP, and (2) the importer may not reapply for CTT status for a period of one year. NMFS' decision is final upon issuance of the Revocation Letter and is not appealable.
The proposed rule would amend the existing prohibitions section in subpart Q to add five new prohibitions. Specifically, the proposed rule would prohibit: (1) Making a false statement on an application for the CTTP; (2) the falsification of records required to be maintained under 50 CFR 300.324(d) or (e) or 300.325; (3) failure to make records available for inspection, as required under 50 CFR 300.324(d) or (e) or 300.325(i); (4) a CTT from failing to maintain records containing information on the chain of custody and custodian of fish or fish products, provide access to such records to support an agency audit, and make such records available for inspection as required (see 50 CFR 300.325(g)(3) and (i)); and (5) a CTT from failing to implement or follow the Trusted Trade Compliance Plan they are required to have in place as a condition of being granted, and retaining, that status (see 50 CFR 300.325 (f) and (g)).
More information and any updates on the proposed CTTP can be found on our website at
This proposed rule is published under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, 16 U.S.C. 1801
This proposed rule has been determined to be significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866. NMFS has prepared a regulatory impact review of this action, which is available from NMFS (see
The regulatory action being considered is described in the preamble of this proposed rule. For importers subject to the SIMP, this proposed rule would create a voluntary program that includes exemptions from SIMP reporting and recordkeeping requirements. NMFS anticipates that U.S. persons would not have any significant adverse economic effects as a result of this action, because it does not pose any new burdens with regard to existing reporting and recordkeeping requirements. On the contrary, this rule, if adopted, would reduce reporting and recordkeeping requirements under the SIMP for importers who are approved as CTTs, and result in positive economic benefits for them. NMFS seeks comment on whether there could be economic impacts that have not been addressed in this proposed rule, or that could be difficult to anticipate.
This proposed rule is expected to be an E.O. 13771 deregulatory action. As discussed below, this proposed rule would create cost savings of approximately $806,810 industry-wide on an annual basis. Further details on the estimated cost savings of this proposed rule can be found in the regulatory impact review analysis.
An Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) was prepared, as required by section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) and is available from NMFS (see
For this proposed rule, NMFS looked at two alternatives: No action and a CTTP, as called for in the March 15, 2015, Presidential task force Action Plan (see Background). By not joining the CTTP, importers will need to fully comply with the SIMP rule and report information pertaining to the harvest of species covered under SIMP via the ITDS prior to entry, and maintain those records as well as records documenting the supply chain from point of harvest to entry into U.S. commerce for a period of no less than two years. For importers who do not apply to become a CTT, there would be no change from current SIMP requirements and thus no economic impacts. In the SIMP final rule, NMFS estimated annual compliance costs of $6,075,000 including permit fees, reporting, recordkeeping, and data storage for 2,000 importers who, combined, filed 215,000 entries through the International Trade Data System (ITDS). There were 216 importers who filed more than 250 entries in 2014 (comprising roughly 72% of all entries). NMFS expects these high volume importers would benefit financially from the CTTP. NMFS seeks public comment on the accuracy of these baseline conditions used in the development of this proposed rule.
In the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis for the SIMP rule, NMFS concluded that all persons subject to the program requirements could be classified as small businesses. Likewise, all importers who choose to apply and be approved as CTTs would also be classified as small businesses. CTTs would realize the benefits of reduced reporting and recordkeeping and streamlined entry into U.S. commerce of their fish and fishery products. The increased cost of annual third-party auditing required under the CTTP would be offset by the reduction in reporting costs at time of entry. Consequently, importers with a higher annual volume of entries would accrue greater benefits. In comparing entry reporting cost savings to estimates of the costs to contract with a third-party auditor, NMFS estimates that importers making more than 250 entries per year would benefit from becoming a CTT. Considering the same baseline as that used for the SIMP analysis (entries of priority species seafood products made in 2014), approximately 2000 importers would be required to report harvest event data upon entry. NMFS estimates that 216 of these importers, who each filed more than 250 entries in 2014, would benefit from the reduced reporting burden of becoming a CTT. Assuming all of these importers would elect to become CTTs, cost savings of approximately $806,810 would be realized industry-wide on an annual basis.
Under NOAA Administrative Order (NAO 216-6A), the promulgation of regulations that are administrative, financial, legal, technical or procedural in nature are categorically excluded from the requirement to prepare an Environmental Assessment. These proposed regulations to implement a Commerce Trusted Trader Program are procedural and administrative in nature in that they would modify recordkeeping and auditing requirements for ongoing authorized catch and trade activities. Fishing activity and trade in seafood products are not further restricted relative to any existing laws or regulations, either foreign or domestic. Given the procedural and administrative nature of this rulemaking, an Environmental Assessment was not prepared.
This proposed rule contains a collection-of-information requirement subject to review and approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). This requirement has been submitted to OMB for approval. The information collection burden for the requirements proposed under this rule (CTTP application; Compliance Plan development or modification; third-party audit; and traceability documents recordkeeping) are estimated to result in a significant reduction in both time and costs for CTTs relative to the burden associated with compliance with the reporting and recordkeeping requirements of the SIMP.
NMFS estimates that approximately 216 International Fisheries Trade Permit holders would apply for the CTTP, and that they would need approximately 10 minutes to fill out the online application, at an hourly rate of $25, for a total of 36 hours and labor costs of $900. NMFS considers that most of the 216 entities estimated to apply for CTT status will already have some form of internal control plan in place, so the development of a Compliance Plan specific to the CTTP will take no more than 8 hours. If a Compliance Plan needs to be developed from square one, NMFS estimates no more than 24 hours will be required, at an hourly rate of $50. Assuming that this rule would
Because the CTTP removes the requirement of reporting harvest data prior to entry into U.S. commerce, a CTT is expected to realize the cost savings of not entering such data. NMFS has calculated the time and cost of a CTTP entry filing (header record only) to be 12 minutes at $25 per hour, for a cost per entry of $5, versus 36 minutes per SIMP filing (header and all harvest vessel and landing records) and a cost of $15 per filing. Using available data from 2014, the average number of entries for the 216 importers filing 250 or more entries, which is the point at which NMFS believes an entity would likely choose to become a CTT, is 750. This equates to 162,000 entries. The annual burden of contracting with a third-party auditor is estimated to be one hour at the hourly rate of $50, for a total of 216 hours and $10,800 annually. The cost of the actual audit is estimated to be between $1,120 and $3,600, with an average cost of $2,190, for a total of $473,040. These burdens would be offset by the reduced cost benefit of the program, which cuts out 64,800 hours of data entry filing at a cost savings of $1,620,000.
Public comment is sought regarding: whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the assumptions used in calculating the burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Send comments on these or any other aspects of the collection of information to the NOAA Fisheries Office of International Affairs and Seafood Inspection at the
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, and no person shall be subject to penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Exports, Fisheries, Fishing, Fishing vessels, Illegal, unreported or unregulated fishing, Foreign relations, Imports, International trade permits, Treaties.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 300, subpart Q, is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 951
(f) An importer of record who is approved as a Commerce Trusted Trader (CTT) under § 300.325 shall be exempt from the reporting requirements of § 300.324(b)(1)-(3) and (c) and may delegate the recordkeeping responsibilities under § 300.324(e) to one or more third parties as provided in § 300.325(i). However, a CTT is not exempt from IFTP requirements under § 300.322 or any other applicable requirements and is responsible for compliance with the obligations of § 300.324(e). CTTP application procedures and requirements are set forth at § 300.325.
(a)
(c)
(1) The applicant's IFTP number;
(2) Affirmation that the applicant has no history, during the previous five years, of noncompliance (
(3) Affirmation that the applicant is in compliance with other state and federal programs, as applicable, including license and/or registration number(s) applicable to the importation of fish and fish products;
(4) Electronic submission of the applicant's Trusted Trader Compliance Plan (see paragraph (f) of this section); and
(5) Application fee.
(d)
(e)
(1) The NMFS Office of International Affairs and Seafood Inspection (IASI) will review a CTTP application, as well as the applicant's history of compliance with federal regulations related to the importation of fish and fish products, in determining whether to approve the application.
(2) If NMFS IASI approves the application, it will issue a letter to the applicant that will serve as official documentation of CTT status.
(3) If the application is incomplete or complete but not approved, NMFS will issue a letter to the applicant explaining the reasons why.
(4) If NMFS issues a letter under paragraph (e)(3), the applicant may respond in writing with additional information to address the issues NMFS identified in its letter. After reviewing such information, NMFS will issue a letter to the applicant indicating if CTT status is approved or explaining the reasons why such status continues to not be approved. NMFS' decision is final upon issuance of this letter and is not appealable. The applicant may reapply no earlier than one year from the date of NMFS' final decision.
(5) While the IFTP must be renewed annually (see § 300.322(d)), approval under the CTTP remains in effect unless it is revoked under paragraph (l).
(f)
(1) An Internal Control System (see paragraph (g) of this section for requirements);
(2) Procedures for ensuring that the Compliance Plan and the CTT's adherence to it is audited by a certified third party at least annually (see paragraph (j) of this section for audit requirements);
(3) The applicant's written policy and related supporting materials on preventing the import of illegally harvested and misrepresented seafood, including a description of how the policy is communicated to any affected employees, entry filers, representatives, and suppliers or other parties in the supply chain, and corrective actions to be taken as needed;
(4) An organizational chart that identifies the persons with responsibility for: Entry filing; custodianship of recordkeeping documents; developing, administering, and implementing the Compliance Plan and its component measures; and conducting training to ensure effective implementation of the Compliance Plan;
(5) A signature page completed by the applicant and the individual at the highest level of authority in the applicant's organization assuming responsibility for implementing the Compliance Plan. This signature page and the organizational chart must be updated each year at the time of the annual audit in order for a CTT's status to remain current; and
(6) Any changes to the Compliance Plan, along with an updated signature page and organizational chart must be included in the annual audit report required under paragraph (j) of this section.
(1) Procedures to verify the legal harvest and landing of fish or fish products subject to the SIMP that the CTT enters into U.S. commerce. Such procedures may rely on flag-state and/or port-state harvest and landing records or flag-state certification of legal harvest. A CTT may establish separate verification procedures for each fishery source, as appropriate (
(2) Procedures to enable verification of the full chain of custody from point of first landing (or point of aggregation for small-scale fisheries) to entry into U.S. commerce (See paragraph (i) of this section). These procedures should describe the process(es) that will be followed, and documentation that will be used, to verify chain of custody, and measures in place to periodically verify the accuracy of that documentation;
(3) Procedures to ensure that chain of custody documentation will be provided to NMFS, upon request, within 14 days to support an agency audit. The Compliance Plan under paragraph (f) of this section must identify who is responsible for maintaining chain of custody documentation, the point along the supply chain at which the chain of custody documents are stored and how the CTT will ensure access to them when necessary. The documentation must be maintained and made available for inspection as required under paragraph (i) of this section;
(4) Procedures for the CTT (or designee) to perform at least one trace-back annually for each species covered by the SIMP that is imported by the CTT. A trace-back is a document review of all records that follow the product from the point of entry into U.S. commerce backwards through the supply chain (
(5) Procedures to be taken in response to information that illegally harvested or misrepresented fish or fish products have entered the supply chain (
(6) Procedures to be taken in response to a supplier being placed on an FDA Import Alert List. FDA Import Alerts inform FDA field staff and the public that the Agency has enough evidence to allow for Detention Without Physical Examination (DWPE) of products that appear to be in violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) or FDA regulations. These violations could be related to the product, manufacturer, shipper and/or other information. More information is available online at
(7) Procedures to regularly review and update internal control procedures in response to changes in the fish or fish products that the CTT wants to enter into U.S. commerce, suppliers, or operating conditions, or non-conformities identified in an audit.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(1) Review of the Compliance Plan and relevant documents; full trace back to point(s) of harvest of at least three shipments of products falling under the SIMP, selected by the third-party auditor; interviews as necessary with CTT staff, suppliers, and individuals delegated responsibilities under the Compliance Plan; and other activities as necessary;
(2) A closing meeting between the auditor and the CTT or designee to review observed weaknesses and any non-conformities with the Compliance Plan; and
(3) Issuance of audit reports.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) If the CTT fails to provide the audit report as required above or take acceptable corrective actions, NMFS may conduct additional audits at its discretion. NMFS may also take additional measures up to and including revocation of CTT status as deemed appropriate by NMFS.
(k)
(1) Beyond conducting the audit and any related follow up for a CTT, a third-party auditor (
(2) A third-party auditor must be certified by a competent certifying body, as evidenced by one or more of the following:
(i) Current accreditation or certification by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA);
(ii) Current accreditation or certification by the Institute of Internal Auditors;
(iii) Current accreditation or certification by the American Evaluation Association;
(iv) Current accreditation or certification by a chain of custody certifying body;
(v) Current accreditation or certification by Accreditation Services International, or other nationally recognized certifying organizations;
(vi) Evidence of current peer-review certification such as Certified Quality Auditor (CQA), Certified Internal Auditor (CIA), Certified Public Accountant (CPA), and Certified HACCP Auditor (CHA);
(vii) Successful completion of auditor training recognized by the International Register of Certified Auditors (IRCA) or Registrar Accreditation Board and Quality Society of Australasia (RABQSA), in environmental management standards (EMS); quality management standards (QMS); or Global Food Safety Initiative (GFSI), and registration with IRCA or RABQSA as an EMS or QMS auditor; and
(viii) Other training or certification as approved in writing by NMFS.
(l)
(1) If a CTT fails to comply with requirements under this section, NMFS may issue a Notification Letter to the CTT that:
(i) Identifies the alleged failure to comply with CTTP regulations and requirements;
(ii) Describes the indications and evidence of the alleged failure;
(iii) Sets a Response Date by which the CTT must submit to NMFS a written response to the Notification Letter, including, if applicable, a proposed solution; and
(iv) Explains the CTT's options if the CTT believes the Notification Letter is in error.
(2) NMFS will establish a Response Date between 14 and 30 calendar days from the date of the Notification Letter. The CTT's response must be received in writing by NMFS on or before the
(3) A CTT who has submitted a timely response may meet with NMFS within 21 calendar days of the date of that response to discuss a detailed and agreed-upon procedure for resolving the alleged failure to comply with the CTTP regulations and requirements. The meeting may be in person or via conference call or webcast.
(4) If the CTT disagrees with the Notification Letter and believes that there is no failure to comply with CTTP regulations and requirements, NMFS has incorrectly defined or described the failure, or NMFS is otherwise in error, the CTT may submit a written Objection Letter to NMFS on or before the Response Date. Within 21 calendar days of the date of the Objection Letter, the CTT may meet with NMFS to discuss a resolution or redefinition of the issue. The meeting may be in person, or via conference call or webcast. If modifications to any part of the Notification Letter are required, then NMFS will issue a revised Notification Letter to the CTT; however, the Response Date or any other timeline in this process would not restart or be modified unless NMFS decides to do so, at its discretion.
(5) The total process from the date of the Notification Letter to the date of final resolution should not exceed 90 calendar days, and may require a shorter time frame, to be determined by NMFS, depending on the seriousness of the alleged failure. In rare circumstances, NMFS, at its discretion, may extend the time for resolution of the alleged failure. In such a case, NMFS will provide a written notice to the CTT informing him or her of the extension and the basis for the extension.
(6) If the failure to comply with CTTP requirements cannot be resolved through this process, NMFS will issue a Revocation Letter to the CTT that:
(i) States that CTT status has been revoked;
(ii) Summarizes the failure to comply with CTTP requirements;
(iii) Summarizes any proposed procedures, or attempts to produce such procedures pursuant to sub-paragraph (3) of this paragraph to resolve the failure;
(iv) Explains why resolution was not achieved; and
(v) Advises the importer that:
(A) The importer is no longer exempt from the requirements of the SIMP; and
(B) The importer may not reapply for CTT status for a period of one year.
(7) NMFS' decision is final upon issuance of the Revocation Letter and is not appealable.
(d) Make a false statement on an application for the CTTP.
(e) Falsify records required to be maintained under § 300.324(d) or (e) or § 300.325(i).
(f) Fail to make records available for inspection as required under § 300.324(d) or (e) or § 300.325(i).
(g) As a CTT, fail to maintain and provide access to records as required under § 300.325(i) or to produce records as required under § 300.325(g)(3).
(h) As a CTT, fail to implement or follow the procedures in the Trusted Trader Compliance Plan submitted to NMFS in a CTT application or as part of an annual audit report.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA .
Notice; reopening of comment period.
The U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) is reopening the comment period on the notice requesting comments on revisions to the United States Standards for Grades of Pork Carcasses (pork standards) published in the
Comments on the notice published in the
Interested persons are invited to submit comments electronically at
Bucky Gwartney, International Marketing Specialist, Standardization Branch, Quality Assessment Division, Livestock, Poultry, and Seed Program, AMS, USDA; 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Room 3932-S, STOP 0258, Washington, DC 20250-0258; phone (202) 720-1424; or via email at
A notice was published in the
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice.
We are advising the public that we are adding the Philippines to the list of regions that the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service considers to be affected by highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI). This action follows our imposition of HPAI-related restrictions on avian commodities originating from or transiting the Philippines as a result of the confirmation of HPAI in the Philippines.
The Philippines was added to the list of regions under temporary restrictions on August 16, 2017. The Philippines is added to the list of regions considered to be affected by HPAI as of January 17, 2018.
Dr. Ingrid Kotowski, Regionalization Evaluation Services, National Import Export Services, VS, APHIS, 920 Main Campus Drive Suite 200, Raleigh, NC, 27606; (919) 855-7732;
The regulations in 9 CFR part 94 (referred to below as the regulations) govern the importation of certain animals and animal products into the United States to prevent the introduction of various animal diseases, including Newcastle disease and highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI). The regulations prohibit or restrict the importation of live poultry, poultry meat, and other poultry products from regions where these diseases are considered to exist.
Section 94.6 of part 94 of the regulations contains requirements governing the importation into the United States of carcasses, meat, parts or products of carcasses, and eggs (other than hatching eggs) of poultry, game birds, or other birds from regions of the world where HPAI exists or is reasonably believed to exist. HPAI is an extremely infectious and potentially fatal form of avian influenza in birds and poultry that, once established, can spread rapidly from flock to flock. A list of regions that the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) considers affected with HPAI of any subtype is maintained on the APHIS website at
APHIS receives notice of HPAI outbreaks from veterinary officials of the exporting country, from the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE), or from other sources the Administrator determines to be reliable. On August 11, 2017, the veterinary authorities of the Philippines reported to the OIE that
7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, 7781-7786, and 8301-8317; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Revision to and extension of approval of an information collection; comment request.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's intention to request a revision to and extension of approval of an information collection associated with livestock disease surveillance programs.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before March 19, 2018.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
For information regarding livestock disease surveillance programs, contact Ms. Lori Anderson, Chief of Staff, STAS, VS, APHIS, 1920 Dayton Ave., Ames, IA 50010; (515) 337-7405. For copies of more detailed information on the information collection, contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2483.
Disease prevention is the most effective method for maintaining a healthy animal population and for enhancing the United States' ability to globally compete in the trade of animals and animal products. However, animal disease prevention cannot be accomplished without the existence of an effective disease surveillance program, which is conducted by the USDA's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS), Veterinary Services (VS).
The animal disease surveillance program is based on information submitted on the Specimen Submission form and the continuation sheets, as well as equivalent sources. VS forms are critical to VS' mission. They are routinely used whenever specimens (such as blood, milk, tissue, or urine) from any animal (such as cattle, swine, sheep, goats, horses, and poultry) are submitted to the National Veterinary Services Laboratories for disease testing. If the information was not collected or collected less frequently, APHIS would not have the critical information necessary to effectively operate a disease surveillance program and identify the animals and herds from which the specimens were taken, allowing effective disease prevention and eradication.
An additional form that APHIS uses is the Parasite Submission form. This form is used by the Cattle Fever Tick Eradication Program and the National Tick Surveillance Program to identify the individuals submitting tick samples and the animal sources of those samples.
We are asking the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve our use of these information collection activities, as described, for an additional 3 years.
The purpose of this notice is to solicit comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our information collection. APHIS needs this outside input to help accomplish the following:
(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, (such as through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques,
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones Board (the Board) by the City of Birmingham, grantee of FTZ 98, requesting an expansion of Subzone 98D on behalf of Hyster-Yale Group, Inc., in Sulligent, Alabama. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on January 10, 2018.
The subzone currently consists of one site located at 7711 Highway 278 East in Sulligent, Alabama. The applicant is now requesting authority to include an additional site:
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Qahira El-Amin of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is February 26, 2018. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to March 13, 2018.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the Board's website, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Qahira El-Amin at
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the City of San Jose, grantee of FTZ 18, requesting expanded subzone status for the facility of Lam Research Corporation (Lam), located in Tracy, California. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on January 3, 2018.
Subzone 18F consists of the following sites in Fremont and Livermore:
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Christopher Kemp of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is February 26, 2018. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to March 13, 2018.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Christopher Kemp at
International Trade Administration, DOC.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda of a meeting of the Environmental Technologies Trade Advisory Committee (ETTAC).
The meeting is scheduled for Tuesday, February 6, 2018 from 8:30 a.m.-3:30 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT). The deadline for members of the public to register or to submit written comments for dissemination prior to the meeting is 5:00 p.m. EDT on Friday, January 26, 2018. The deadline for members of the public to request auxiliary aids is 5:00 p.m. EDT on Tuesday, January 30, 2018.
The meeting will be held in Room 6057-59 at the U.S. Department of Commerce, Herbert Clark Hoover
Mr. Jeffrey Phillips, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries (OEEI), International Trade Administration, Room 28018, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (Phone: 202-482-8342; Fax: 202-482-5665; email:
The meeting will take place on February 6 from 8:30 a.m. to 3:30 p.m. EDT. The general meeting is open to the public and time will be permitted for public comment from 3:00-3:30 p.m. EDT. Members of the public seeking to attend the meeting are required to register in advance. Those interested in attending must provide notification by Friday, January 26, 2018 at 5:00 p.m. EDT, via the contact information provided above. This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to OEEI at (202) 482-8342 no less than one week prior to the meeting. Requests received after this date will be accepted, but it may not be possible to accommodate them.
Written comments concerning ETTAC affairs are welcome any time before or after the meeting. To be considered during the meeting, written comments must be received by Friday, January 26, 2018 at 5:00 p.m. EDT to ensure transmission to the members before the meeting. Minutes will be available within 30 days of this meeting.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of intent (NOI) to prepare a draft environmental impact statement (DEIS); request for comments.
NMFS, Southeast Region, in collaboration with the Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council (Council), intends to prepare a DEIS to describe and analyze management alternatives to be included in the State Management Program for Recreational Red Snapper Amendment to the Fishery Management Plan (FMP) for the Reef Fish Resources of the Gulf of Mexico (State Management Program Amendment). The State Management Program Amendment will consider alternatives that would allocate the total recreational red snapper annual catch limit (ACL) for the Gulf of Mexico (Gulf) among the individual Gulf states of Alabama, Florida, Louisiana, Mississippi, and Texas, and designate the components of the recreational sector that would be included under a state's management program (private angling and/or charter vessel/headboat (for-hire) components). These decisions would form the basis for individual state amendments to the FMP to allow each of the Gulf states to establish management measures for the recreational harvest of red snapper in adjacent Gulf Federal waters. State management would enable each state to specify the management measures that best meet the needs of its constituents, thereby addressing regional socio-economic concerns. The purpose of this NOI is to inform the public of upcoming opportunities to provide additional comments on the scope of issues to be addressed in the DEIS, as specified in this notice.
Written comments on the scope of issues to be addressed in the DEIS must be received by NMFS by February 16, 2018.
You may submit comments on the Amendment identified by “NOAA-NMFS-2017-0122” by any of the following methods:
•
•
Lauren Waters, Southeast Regional Office, telephone: (727) 824-5305; or email:
For Gulf red snapper the recreational sector is separated into Federal for-hire (charter vessels and headboats) and private angling components, each managed under their respective recreational quotas and annual catch targets (ACTs). This separation will end after the 2022 fishing year if the Council takes no further action. NMFS annually projects the recreational season length for each component based on the ACTs and the projected average weights of fish and catch rates derived from historical
Fishermen from different Gulf states have requested more flexibility in recreational red snapper management so that regulations provide greater socio-economic benefits to their particular area. In June 2012, Louisiana requested that the Council develop a recreational red snapper regional management pilot program. As a result of the Louisiana request, the Council initiated development of Amendment 39 to the FMP. Amendment 39 considered several actions that are also currently being considered by the Council, such as the mechanism for implementing regional management, apportioning the recreational annual catch limit (ACL) among the Gulf states, and modifying post-season accountability measures (AMs) consistent with the regional management approach.
In May 2013, NMFS published an NOI to prepare a draft environmental impact statement for Amendment 39 and solicited public comment (78 FR 27956, May 13, 2013). As explained in that NOI, the intent of Amendment 39 was to allow participating states or regions to design management options to better fit their needs. However, red snapper would remain a federally managed species. The Council and NMFS would continue to oversee management of the stock. This includes continuing to comply with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) and the mandate to ensure the red snapper annual recreational quota is not exceeded and that conservation objectives are achieved. The Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) would continue to determine the acceptable biological catch (ABC) for red snapper, and the Council and NMFS would determine the total recreational red snapper quota that could be allocated among regions.
During the development of Amendment 39, the Council received public input on actions and alternatives regarding regional management of recreational red snapper at numerous public hearing meetings and Council meetings held throughout the Gulf states from October 2012 through January 2016, as well as via webinar. Additionally the Council's Reef Fish Advisory Panel reviewed regional management actions and alternatives in September 2015. The Environmental Protection Agency published a Notice of Availability for the DEIS for Amendment 39 in December 2015 (80 FR 79041, December 18, 2015). However, in January 2016, the Council voted to postpone further work on Amendment 39. In April 2017, the Council began discussing regional management concepts again and decided to develop new amendments to provide the management flexibility desired by the Gulf states and their constituents. Similar to Amendment 39, the intent is to allow each participating state to implement management measures to better fit its needs, while achieving the same conservations goals as the Federal management measures in existence at any given time.
The Council is currently considering several FMP amendments that would allow each Gulf state to manage the recreational harvest of red snapper in Federal waters adjacent to their state. The State Management Program Amendment will consider alternatives to apportion the total recreational red snapper ACL for the Gulf among the individual Gulf states and determine which components of the recreational sector would be included under a state's management program (private angling and/or charter vessel/headboat (for-hire) components). Five separate FMP amendments, one for each Gulf state, will consider alternatives to establish the state-specific authority structure, such as delegation or the use of conservation equivalency plans, and state-specific post-season accountability measures for each state that participates in the State Management Program for recreational red snapper (State Amendments).
NMFS, in collaboration with the Council, will develop a DEIS to describe and analyze alternatives to address the management needs described above including the “no action” alternative. The State Management Program Amendment DEIS will describe and analyze the apportionment and recreational sector component alternatives as well as describe and analyze the authority structure and accountability measure alternatives included in the five individual State Amendments. Thus, NMFS anticipates that the State Management Program Amendment EIS will include the relevant National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) analyses for all six FMP amendments. However, NMFS will continue to evaluate this determination as the State Amendments are developed and will provide additional NEPA analysis as appropriate.
In accordance with NOAA's Administrative Order 216-6A, accompanying NEPA Procedures (companion manual), and the Scoping Process, NMFS, in collaboration with the Council, has identified preliminary environmental issues as a means to initiate discussion for scoping purposes only. The public is invited to provide written comments on the preliminary issues, which are identified as actions and alternatives in the State Management Program Amendment draft options paper and action guide. These preliminary issues may not represent the full range of issues that eventually will be evaluated in the DEIS. A copy of the State Management Program Amendment draft options paper and action guide are available at
After the DEIS associated with the State Management Program Amendment is completed, it will be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). After filing, the EPA will publish a notice of availability (NOA) of the DEIS for public comment in the
The Council and NMFS will consider public comments received on the DEIS in developing the final environmental impact statement (FEIS), and before the Council votes to submit the State Management Program Amendment to NMFS for Secretarial review, approval, and implementation under the Magnuson-Stevens Act. NMFS will announce in the
NMFS will announce, through a notice published in the
16 U.S.C. 1801
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
With respect to the fisheries off Alaska, the AFA Program is a suite of management measures that fall into four general regulatory categories:
• Limit access into the fishing and processing sectors of the BSAI pollock fishery and that allocate pollock to such sectors (50 CFR 679.64).
• Govern the formation and operation of fishery cooperatives in the BSAI pollock fishery, including filing of cooperative contracts (50 CFR 679.61 and 679.62).
• Protection of other fisheries from spillover effects from the AFA (50 CFR 679.64).
• Govern catch measurement and monitoring in the BSAI pollock fishery, including filing of annual reports and completing and submitting inshore catcher vessel pollock cooperative catch reports (50 CFR 679.63).
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; notification of quota for bowhead whales.
NMFS notifies the public of the aboriginal subsistence whaling quota for bowhead whales that it has assigned to the Alaska Eskimo Whaling Commission (AEWC), and of limitations on the use of the quota deriving from regulations of the International Whaling Commission (IWC). For 2018, the quota is 75 bowhead whales struck. This quota and other applicable limitations govern the harvest of bowhead whales by members of the AEWC.
Applicable January 17, 2018.
Office for International Affairs and Seafood Inspection, National Marine Fisheries Service, 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910.
Carolyn Doherty, (301) 427-8385.
Aboriginal subsistence whaling in the United States is governed by the Whaling Convention Act (WCA) (16 U.S.C. 916
At the 64th Annual Meeting of the IWC, the Commission set catch limits for aboriginal subsistence use of bowhead whales from the Bering-Chukchi-Beaufort Seas stock. The bowhead catch limits were based on a joint request by the United States and the Russian Federation, accompanied by documentation concerning the needs of two Native groups: Alaska Eskimos and Chukotka Natives in the Russian Far East.
The IWC set a 6-year block catch limit of 336 bowhead whales landed. For each of the years 2013 through 2018, the number of bowhead whales struck may not exceed 67, except that any unused portion of a strike quota from any prior year may be carried forward. No more than 15 strikes may be added to the strike quota for any one year. At the end of the 2017 harvest, there were 15 unused strikes available for carry-forward, so the combined strike quota set by the IWC for 2018 is 82 (67 + 15).
An arrangement between the United States and the Russian Federation ensures that the total quota of bowhead whales landed and struck in 2018 will not exceed the limits set by the IWC. Under this arrangement, the Russian natives may use no more than seven strikes, and the Alaska Eskimos may use no more than 75 strikes.
Through its cooperative agreement with the AEWC, NOAA has assigned 75 strikes to the Alaska Eskimos. The AEWC will in turn allocate these strikes among the 11 villages whose cultural and subsistence needs have been documented, and will ensure that its hunters use no more than 75 strikes.
The IWC regulations, as well as the NOAA regulation at 50 CFR 230.4(c), forbid the taking of calves or any whale accompanied by a calf.
NOAA regulations (at 50 CFR 230.4) contain a number of other prohibitions relating to aboriginal subsistence whaling, some of which are summarized here:
• Only licensed whaling captains or crew under the control of those captains may engage in whaling.
• Captains and crew must follow the provisions of the relevant cooperative agreement between NOAA and a Native American whaling organization.
• The aboriginal hunters must have adequate crew, supplies, and equipment to engage in an efficient operation.
• Crew may not receive money for participating in the hunt.
• No person may sell or offer for sale whale products from whales taken in the hunt, except for authentic articles of Native American handicrafts.
• Captains may not continue to whale after the relevant quota is taken, after the season has been closed, or if their licenses have been suspended. They may not engage in whaling in a wasteful manner.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Federally permitted dealers, and any individual acting in the capacity of a dealer, must submit to the Regional Administrator or to the official designee a detailed report of all fish purchased or received for a commercial purpose, other than solely for transport on land, by one of the available electronic reporting mechanisms approved by National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS). The information obtained is used by economists, biologists, and managers in the management of the fisheries. The data collection parameters are consistent with the current requirements for Federal dealers under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
The NMFS Southeast Regional Office manages three commercial IFQ and individual transferable quota (ITQ) programs in the Southeast Region under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), 16 U.S.C. 1801
This collection of information tracks the transfer and use of IFQ and ITQ shares, and IFQ allocation and landings necessary to operate, administer, and review management of the IFQ and ITQ programs. Regulations for the IFQ and ITQ programs are located at 50 CFR part 622.
The NMFS Southeast Regional Office also proposes to revise parts of the information collection approved under OMB Control Number 0648-0551 to account for updates to burden time and cost estimates, as well as administrative updates to online and paper forms. NMFS intends the revisions would make instructions and data collection requirements clearer and easier to understand, resulting in more accurate and efficient information available for use by fishery managers.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce and Tennessee Department of Economic and Community Development.
Notice of open meeting.
The National Telecommunications and Information Administration's BroadbandUSA Program, in partnership with the Tennessee Department of Economic and Community Development, will host a Broadband Summit about “Creating Partnerships to Ensure Access for All” on March 20, 2018. Speakers and attendees from Tennessee, federal agencies, and across the country will come together to explore ways to increase broadband deployment and improve broadband adoption to advance their overarching business, social, economic, and community goals. This Summit will highlight the initiatives and outreach driven through the newly enacted Tennessee Broadband Accessibility Act, which promotes broadband deployment thorough grants to providers, tax credits, deregulation, and education.
The Broadband Summit will be held on March 20, 2018, from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Central Time.
The meeting will be held in Nashville, Tennessee at the William Snodgrass Tennessee Tower, 312 Rosa L Parks Avenue, Tennessee Room, 3rd Floor, Nashville, TN 37243.
Janice Wilkins, National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA), U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 4678, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5791; email:
The NTIA's BroadbandUSA program promotes innovation and economic growth by supporting efforts to expand broadband access and meaningful use across America. The Tennessee Department of Economic and Community Development (TNECD) is responsible for implementing the Tennessee Broadband Accessibility Act (TBAA), which facilitates broadband access to all Tennesseans while promoting practices that increase deployment and encourage adoption. The “Creating Partnerships to Ensure Access for All” Broadband Summit will facilitate the sharing of best practices for public-private partnerships to improve broadband deployment, enhance digital skills, and stimulate innovation and economic development.
The Summit is open to the public. Pre-registration is requested, and space is limited. NTIA asks registrants to provide their first and last names and email addresses for both registration purposes and to receive any updates on the workshop. Registration information, meeting updates, changes in the agenda, if any, and relevant documents will be available on NTIA's website at
The public meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Individuals requiring accommodations, such as language interpretation or other ancillary aids, should notify Janice Wilkins at the contact information listed above at least five (5) business days before the meeting so that accommodations can be made.
Corporation for National and Community Service (CNCS).
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, CNCS is proposing to renew an information collection.
Written comments must be submitted to the individual and office listed in the
You may submit comments, identified by the title of the information collection activity, by any of the following methods:
(1)
(2) By hand delivery or by courier to the CNCS mailroom at the mail address given in paragraph (1) above, between 9:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday, except federal holidays.
(3) Electronically through
Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TTY-TDD) may call 1-800-833-3722 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
Comments submitted in response to this notice may be made available to the public through
Adrienne DiTommaso, 202-606-3611, or by email at
CNCS seeks to renew the current information request with revisions to the survey administered in 2015 (OMB
Information will be collected from AmeriCorps Alumni through an online survey that will be administered by a contractor on behalf of CNCS. The purpose of the survey is to better understand the long-term civic participation and career pathways of AmeriCorps alumni, the acquisition of hard and soft career skills obtained through national service, and the utilization of the Education Award and its effect on future post-secondary outcomes and career choices. These data may also be matched to administrative data collected by the US Census for the Longitudinal Employment and Household Data Set and by the National Student Clearinghouse in order to assess both employment and education outcomes within the national population. In addition, the agency is interested in exploring how member outcomes vary by life stage and by different types of service experiences. This survey is also an opportunity to determine the value of data collected from alumni who are at different stages following their service year for informing policy and program decisions. CNCS also seeks to continue using the current clearance until the revised survey is approved by OMB. The current clearance is due to expire on 4/30/18.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. All written comments will be available for public inspection on
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice.
This amended notice provides information regarding the properties that have been determined surplus to the requirements of the United States in accordance with the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990, Public Law 101-510, as amended, and following screening with Federal agencies and Department of Defense components. This Notice amends the Notice published in the
Applicable January 17, 2018.
Headquarters, Department of the Army, Assistant Chief of Staff for Installation Management, Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) Division, Attn: DAIM-ODB, 600 Army Pentagon, Washington DC 20310-0600, (703) 545-2487,
Under the provisions of Codifying Title 40, United States Code—Public Buildings, Property, and Works Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-217, 40 U.S.C. 101,
The Army's Point of Contact for this surplus property is Mr. George Triggs, Realty Specialist, Louisville District, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, telephone (502) 315-7014, email:
This action is authorized by the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-510; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note).
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-50 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Non-MDE includes:
Non-MDE items and services consist of twenty-nine (29) KIV-78 cryptographic/timing modules (twenty-three (23) installed and six (6) spares); twenty-nine (29) KY-100M cryptographic radio encryptors (twenty-three (23) installed and six (6) spares); twenty-nine (29) AN/APX-126 Combined Interrogator Transponders (twenty-three (23) installed and six (6) spares); Classified and Unclassified Computer Program Identification Numbers (CPINS) upgrades; OFP upgrades for IFF Mode 5 capable systems; Joint Mission Planning (JMPS) upgrade; Sniper Advanced Targeting Pod software, service support, support equipment, spares, and training; systems support and test equipment; spare and repair parts; publications and technical documentation; training and training equipment; U.S. Government and contractor engineering; logistics and technical support services; and other related elements of logistics and program support.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
*As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Oman has requested a possible sale of items and services to support an incremental Operational Flight Profile (OFP) software upgrade for F-16 subsystems, as well as Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) and secure communications equipment for Mode 5 operations on twenty-three (23) F-16 aircraft. Non-MDE items and services consist of twenty-nine (29) KIV-78 cryptographic/timing modules (twenty-three (23) installed and six (6) spares); twenty-nine (29) KY-100M cryptographic radio encryptors (twenty-three (23) installed and six (6) spares); twenty-nine (29) AN/APX-126 Combined Interrogator Transponders (twenty-three (23) installed and six (6) spares); Classified and Unclassified Computer Program Identification Numbers (CPINS) upgrades; OFP upgrades for IFF Mode 5 capable systems, Joint Mission Planning (JMPS) upgrade; Sniper Advanced Targeting Pod software, service support, support equipment, spares, and training; systems support and test equipment; spare and repair parts; publications and technical documentation; training and training equipment; U.S. Government and contractor engineering; logistics and technical support services; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $62 million.
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States by helping to improve the security of a friendly country which has been, and continues to be, an important force for political stability and economic progress in the Middle East.
The proposed sale allows the U.S. military to support the Royal Air Force of Oman, further strengthen the U.S.-Omani military-to-military relationship, and ensure continued interoperability of forces and opportunities for bilateral training and exercises with Oman's military forces.
This proposed sale of items and services will enable Oman's twenty-three (23) F-16s currently using Mode 4 IFF to become interoperable on Mode 4/5. Mode 5 IFF allows U.S. and partner airborne and surface armed forces to conduct complimentary air operations. Incremental OFP software upgrades required to support Mode 5 will provide additional incremental improvement for other associated F-16 subsystems. Oman will have no difficulty in absorbing these upgrades into its F-16 fleet.
This proposed sale of equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractor will be Lockheed Martin of Fort Worth, Texas. There are no known offset agreements proposed in conjunction with this potential sale.
The proposed sale will not require the long-term assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Oman.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. This proposed sale of items and services to upgrade Oman's F-16 aircraft will involve the release of sensitive technology related to the Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) and secure communications equipment.
2. The AN/APX-126 Combined Interrogator Transponder is an IFF dual Mode 4 and 5 capable system. It is UNCLASSIFIED unless/until Mode 4 and/or Mode 5 operational evaluator parameters are loaded into the equipment, which are classified up to SECRET. Classified elements of the IFF system include software object code, operating characteristics, parameters, and technical data. Mode 4 and Mode 5 anti-jam performance specifications/data, software source code, algorithms, and tempest plans or reports will not be offered, released, discussed, or demonstrated.
3. KIV-78 is a crypto appliqué for Mode 5 IFF. The hardware is UNCLASSIFIED unless loaded with Mode 4 and/or Mode 5 classified elements, which are classified up to SECRET.
4. KY-100M is a cryptographic encryptor for voice radios to provide secure communication capabilities. The hardware is UNCLASSIFIED unless loaded with cryptograph keys, which are classified up to SECRET.
5. Joint Mission Planning System (JMPS) is a multi-platform, PC-based mission planning system. JMPS hardware is UNCLASSIFIED, but the software is classified up to SECRET.
6. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used
7. A determination has been made that Oman can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the policy justification.
8. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of Oman.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-63 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Also included are eight (8) MK 825 Mod 0 RAM Guided Missile Round Packs (GMRP) tri-pack shipping and storage containers; RAM Block 2 MK 44 Mod 4 Guided Missile Round Pack (GMRP); two (2) MK 32 Surface Vessel Torpedo Tubes (SVTT) triple tube launchers; two hundred and fifty (250) rounds of AA98 25 mm high explosive and semi-armor piercing ammunition; seven hundred and fifty (750) rounds A976 25mm target practice and tracer ammunition; four hundred and eighty (480) rounds of BA22 57mm high explosive programmable fuze ammunition; nine hundred and sixty (960) rounds of BA23 57mm practice ammunition; containers; spare and repair parts; support and test equipment; publications and technical documentation; personnel training and training equipment; U.S. Government and contractor representatives' technical assistance; engineering and logistics support services; installation services; associated electronics and hardware to control the launch of torpedoes; and other related elements of logistics and program support.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
*As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Mexico has requested to buy six (6) RGM-84L Harpoon Block II surface launched missiles, twenty-three (23) Block II Rolling Airframe Missile (RAM) tactical missiles and six (6) MK 54 Mod 0 lightweight torpedoes. Also included are eight (8) MK 825 Mod 0 RAM Guided Missile Round Packs (GMRP) tri-pack shipping and storage containers; RAM Block 2 MK 44 Mod 4 Guided Missile Round Pack (GMRP); two (2) MK 32 Surface Vessel Torpedo Tubes (SVTT) triple tube launchers; two hundred and fifty (250) rounds of AA98 25 mm high explosive and semi-armor piercing ammunition; seven hundred and fifty (750) rounds A976 25mm target practice and tracer ammunition; four hundred and eighty (480) rounds of BA22 57mm high explosive programmable fuze ammunition; nine hundred and sixty (960) rounds of BA23 57mm practice ammunition; containers; spare and repair parts; support and test equipment; publications and technical documentation; personnel training and training equipment; U.S. Government and contractor representatives' technical assistance; engineering and logistics support services; installation services; associated electronics and hardware to control the launch of torpedoes; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $98.4 million.
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security of the United States by helping to improve the security of a strategic partner. Mexico has been a strong partner in combating organized crime and drug trafficking organizations. The sale of these ship-based systems to Mexico will significantly increase and strengthen its maritime capabilities. Mexico intends to use these defense articles and services to modernize its armed forces and expand its existing naval and maritime support of national security requirements and in its efforts to combat criminal organizations.
Mexico intends to use the weapon systems on its Mexican Navy Sigma 10514 Class ship. The systems will provide enhanced capabilities in effective defense of critical sea lanes. The proposed sale of these systems and support will increase the Mexican Navy's maritime partnership potential and align its capabilities with existing regional navies. Mexico has not purchased these systems previously. Mexico will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The equipment will be provided from U.S. stocks. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require annual trips to Mexico involving U.S. Government personnel and contractor representatives for technical reviews, support, and oversight for approximately two years.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The MK 32 SVTT system is UNCLASSIFIED, but the system has one classified firmware card that controls launches. The system is currently in service in the U.S. Navy and in various other foreign nations that utilize shipboard launched torpedoes. The firmware card is essential to the ability of the system to successfully launch torpedoes when directed by the shipboard command and control system.
2. The RGM-84L Harpoon Surface Launched Block II missile system, to include publications, documentation, operations, supply, maintenance, and training to be conveyed with this proposed sale have the highest classification level of CONFIDENTIAL. The Harpoon Block II missile is a non-nuclear tactical weapon system currently in service in the U.S. Navy and in 29 other foreign nations. It provides a day, night, and adverse weather, standoff surface-to-surface capability and is an effective Anti-Surface Warfare missile. The RGM-84L incorporates components, software, and technical design information that are considered SENSITIVE.
3. The following components being conveyed by the proposed sale are considered sensitive and are classified CONFIDENTIAL:
These elements are essential for the Harpoon Block II missile to selectively engage hostile targets under a wide range of operational, tactical and environmental conditions. The version being sold to Mexico is not the Coastal Target Suppression land attack missile version.
4. MK 54 All-Up-Round Lightweight (Warshot) torpedoes and associated support equipment, training, test equipment, and technical support; Recoverable Exercise Torpedoes (REXTORPs); and Exercise Torpedoes (EXTORPs) are associated with this sale. The MK 54 Lightweight Torpedo (LWT) can be launched from surface ships, helicopters, and fixed wing aircraft. The MK 54 LWT is an upgrade to the MK 46 Torpedo. The MK 54 LWT contains new sonar, guidance and control systems with modern technology. The new guidance and control system uses a mixture of commercial-off-the-shelf and custom-built electronics. The warhead, fuel tank, and propulsion system from the MK 46 torpedo are re-used in the MK 54 configuration with minor modifications. The MK 54 is highly
5. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures or equivalent systems which might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
6. A determination has been made that the Government of Mexico can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This proposed sale is necessary to the furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
7. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of Mexico.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(5)(C) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-0C with attached Policy Justification.
(i)
(ii)
Date: 18 August 2016
Military Department: Air Force
(iii)
The original notification listed “kit” components to build one thousand (1,000) GBU-48 (1,000-lb) Enhanced Paveway IIs (EPII) (MDE items), three hundred (300) GBU-49 (500-lb) EPIIs (MDE items), and one thousand and twenty-five (1,025) GBU-12 (500-lb) Paveway II (PWII) (MDE items). Each “kit” includes a Computer Control Group (CCG) and Air Foil Group (AFG) to convert a general purpose bomb into EPII or PWII.
This transmittal reports the replacement of one thousand (1,000) MAU-210 E/B (MDE items) with one thousand (1,000) MAU-210 F/B (MDE items) for the GBU-48 1,000-lb EPII and three hundred (300) MAU-210 E/B (MDE items) with three hundred (300) MAU-210 F/B (MDE items) for the GBU-49 500-lb EPII, to reflect the change from Lot 3A to Lot 5 for the moving target variant CCGs being procured to build EPIIs.
This transmittal also supplements the description of the AFGs kit components to include one thousand (1,000) MXU-667 H/B AFGs for the GBU-48 and three hundred (300) MXU-650 K/B AFGs for the GBU-49.
This transmittal also increases the number of FMU-152 A/B fuzes (MDE items) from one thousand three hundred and fifty (1,350) to four thousand three hundred and sixty five (4,365) to match the total number of JDAM and Paveway Kits. The numbers reflect their substitution for FMU-139 C/B fuzes (non-MDE) previously notified.
The upgrade of the MAUs from Lot 3A to Lot 5, enumerating the MDE status of the tail groups, and increasing the number of fuzes will result in a net increase in the MDE cost of $49 million. The total case value will increase to $280 million.
(iv)
(v)
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to NATO. There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vi)
Office of the Secretary of Defense, DoD.
60-Day information collection notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by March 19, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
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Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to: Defense Security Service, ATTN: Mr. Troy Littles, Chief of Staff, 27130 Telegraph Road, Quantico, VA 22134.
National Center for Education Statistics (NCES), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a reinstatement of a previously approved information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 16, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Kashka Kubzdela, 202-245-7377.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Institute of Education Sciences (IES), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a new information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 19, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Lauren Angelo, 202-245-7474.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
U.S. Election Assistance Commission (EAC).
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the EAC announces an information collection and seeks public comment on the provisions thereof. The EAC intends to submit this proposed information collection (2018 Election Administration and Voting Survey) to the Director of the Office of Management and Budget for approval. The 2018 Election Administration and Voting Survey (Survey) asks election officials questions concerning voting and election administration. These questions request information concerning ballots cast; voter registration; overseas and military
Written comments must be submitted on or before 5:00 p.m. EST on February 16, 2018.
Comments on the proposed information collection should be submitted electronically to
Mr. Sean Greene at 301-563-3919, or email
The EAC issues the survey to meet its obligations under the Help America Vote Act (HAVA) to serve as national clearinghouse and resource for the compilation of information with respect to the administration of Federal elections; to fulfill both the EAC and FVAP's data collection requirements under the UOCAVA; and meet its NVRA mandate to collect information from states concerning the impact of that statute on the administration of Federal Elections. HAVA requires the EAC to serve as a national clearinghouse and resource for the compilation of information and review of procedures with respect to the administration of Federal Elections. This includes the obligation to study and report on election activities, practices, policies, and procedures, such as methods of voter registration, methods of conducting provisional voting, poll worker recruitment and training, and such other matters as the Commission determines are appropriate. In addition, under the NVRA, the EAC is responsible for collecting information and reporting, biennially, to the United States Congress on the impact of that statute. The information the States are required to submit to the EAC for purposes of the NVRA report are found under Title 11 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
States that respond to questions in this survey concerning voter registration related matters will meet their NVRA reporting requirements under 52 U.S.C. 20508 and EAC regulations. Finally, the UOCAVA mandates that the FVAP work with the EAC and State Chief Election officials to develop standards for reporting UOCAVA voting information (52 U.S.C. 20302) and that the FVAP will store the reported data and present the findings within the congressionally-mandated report to the President and Congress. Additionally, UOCAVA requires that “not later than 90 days after the date of each regularly scheduled general election for Federal office, each State and unit of local government which administered the election shall (through the State, in the case of a unit of local government) submit a report to the EAC on the combined number of absentee ballots transmitted to absent uniformed services voters and overseas voters for the election and the combined number of such ballots which were returned by such voters and cast in the election, and shall make such a report available to the general public.” States that complete and timely submit the UOCAVA section of the survey to the EAC will fulfill their UOCAVA reporting requirement under 52 U.S.C. 20302. In order to fulfill the above requirements, the EAC is seeking information relating to the period from the Federal general election day 2016 +1 through the November 2018 Federal general election. The EAC will provide the data regarding UOCAVA voting to FVAP after data collection is completed. This data sharing reduces burden on local election offices because FVAP does not have to conduct its own data collection to meet its reporting requirements.
(a) Total number of registered voters;
(b) Number of active and inactive registered voters;
(c) Number of persons who registered to vote on Election Day—only applicable to States with Election Day registration;
(d) Number of voter registration applications received from all sources;
(e) Number of voter registration applications that were duplicates, invalid or rejected, new, changes of name, address, party, and not categorized;
(f) Total number of removal/confirmation notices mailed to voters and the reason for removal;
(g) total number of voters removed from the registration list or moved to the inactive registration list.
(a) Total number and type of registered and eligible UOCAVA voters;
(b) Total number of Federal Post Card Applications (FPCAs) received by type of voter;
(c) Total number of FPCAs rejected by type of voter;
(d) Total number of FPCAs rejected after the absentee ballot request deadline;
(e) Total number of UOCAVA absentee ballots transmitted by type of UOCAVA voter and mode of transmission;
(f) Total number of transmitted UOCAVA ballots returned by type of UOCAVA voter and mode of transmission;
(g) Total number of transmitted UOCAVA ballots counted by type of UOCAVA voter and mode of return;
(h) Total number of transmitted UOCAVA ballots rejected by type of UOCAVA voter and reason for rejection;
(i) Total number of FWABs received by type of voter;
(j) Total number of FWABs rejected by type of voter; and
(k) Total number of FWABs rejected by reason for rejection.
(a) Total number of by-mail ballots transmitted to voters;
(b) Total number of ballots returned by voters;
(c) Total number of ballots counted; and
(d) Total number of ballots rejected, by reason for rejection.
(a) Total number of precincts in the state/jurisdiction;
(b) Number of polling places available for early and Election Day voting in the November 2018 Federal general election;
(c) Number of poll workers used during early voting and during Election Day voting;
(d) The age of poll workers who worked in the election; and
(e) Extent to which jurisdictions had enough poll workers available for the general election.
(a) Number of provisional ballots cast, counted, and rejected; and
(b) Reasons for provisional ballot rejection.
(a) Total number of votes cast in the election;
(b) Use of electronic and printed poll books during the 2018 Federal general election; and
(c) Type and number of voting equipment used for the 2018 Federal general election for precinct, absentee, early vote site, accessible to disabled voters, provisional voting.
(a) Who answers the questions in each section of the EAVS;
(b) Description of the state's voter registration database system;
(c) Description of the types of electronic data connections the state has with various other government entities;
(d) Information on whether the state has online voter registration, automatic voter registration, and same day voter registration;
(e) Type of absentee voting and early voting regime the state has;
(f) Information on whether the state has vote centers;
(g) If the state accepts provisional ballots from voters registered in a different precinct;
(h) The type of election audit regime the state has;
(i) The type of voter identification regime the state has; and
(j) The voting eligibility requirements for individuals who have been convicted of a felony.
The following notice of meeting is published pursuant to section 3(a) of the government in the Sunshine Act (Pub. L. 94-409), 5 U.S.C. 552b:
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
January 18, 2018, 10:00 a.m.
Room 2C, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
Open.
Agenda, * NOTE—Items listed on the agenda may be deleted without further notice.
Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Telephone (202) 502-8400. For a recorded message listing items struck from or added to the meeting, call (202) 502-8627.
This is a list of matters to be considered by the Commission. It does not include a listing of all documents relevant to the items on the agenda. All public documents, however, may be viewed on line at the Commission's website at
A free webcast of this event is available through
Immediately following the conclusion of the Commission Meeting, a press briefing will be held in the Commission Meeting Room. Members of the public may view this briefing in the designated overflow room. This statement is intended to notify the public that the press briefings that follow Commission meetings may now be viewed remotely at Commission headquarters, but will not be telecast through the Capitol Connection service.
Notice is hereby given that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC or Receiver) as Receiver for Evergreen Bank, Seattle, Washington, intends to terminate its receivership for said institution. The FDIC was appointed Receiver of Evergreen Bank on January 22, 2010. The liquidation of the receivership assets has been completed. To the extent permitted by available funds and in accordance with law, the Receiver will be making a final dividend payment to proven creditors.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
Based upon the foregoing, the receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The Commission will hold public hearings on January 16 and 17, 2018, to receive oral testimony concerning the Petition of the Coalition for Fair Port Practices for Rulemaking. Below is the final order of presentation. Each panelist may make a five minute presentation, which will be followed by questions from the Commissioners.
The hearings will be held in the Commission's Main Hearing Room, 800 North Capitol Street NW, Washington, DC 20573 and are open to the public. Please arrive with sufficient time to clear through the building security process. The hearing will be live streamed and the URL will be posted to the Commission's website prior to the hearing:
Written comments and statements for the record relative to the issues being addressed at the hearing from persons who are unable to testify in person should be submitted to
By the Commission.
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of public meeting and solicitation for public comment.
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is seeking stakeholder input on
A public meeting will be held on Tuesday, February 27, 2018, from 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time, or until the last public presenter has spoken, whichever occurs first. Please note that public comments may end before the time. Members of the public who wish to provide oral comments should plan to attend the meeting at the start time listed. As an alternative, electronic or written comments must be received by April 17, 2018.
The public meeting will be held at the Office of Justice Programs (OJP), 810 7th Street NW, Washington, DC 20531. Attendees will be escorted to the room from the security checkpoint.
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All comments received in response to this notice must be identified by CDC-2017-0118 and Docket Number NIOSH-303. All relevant comments received, including any personal information, will be posted without change to
Paul Moore, NIOSH, Division of Safety Research, 1095 Willowdale Road, Morgantown, West Virginia 26505, telephone (304) 285-6016, facsimile (304) 285-5774 (not toll free numbers), email
To attend in person, a non-U.S. citizen must sign up with either of the contact persons identified in this notice by February 5, 2018. They will also need to provide passport information and photo identification to security personnel upon entering the building and go through an airport-type security check. No weapons will be allowed inside of the building.
To allow sufficient time for mandatory facility security clearance procedures to be completed, non-U.S. Citizens must provide the following information by email to Paul Moore, email
In the United States, there are approximately 765,000 state and local law enforcement officers (LEOs) working in stressful and dangerous conditions. LEOs are at increased risk for both fatal and non-fatal injuries, especially those occurring from motor-vehicle incidents. According to data from the National Law Enforcement Officer Memorial Fund (NLEOMF, 2016), 135 officers were killed in the line of duty in 2016; 47% were from intentional acts of violence (n = 64), 39% were motor-vehicle related (n = 53), and 13% were due to other causes.
Motor-vehicle related fatalities have been the leading cause of LEO line-of-duty-deaths in 15 of the last 20 years. As of November 14, 2017, the number of LEO line-of-duty-motor vehicle-related fatalities was 41. Between 2010 and 2014, 58% of fatal motor vehicle crashes were single vehicle crashes. [NLEOMF, 2016]
While the number of LEO motor vehicle-related fatalities remain high, efforts towards the collection of data on the circumstances and characteristics surrounding motor-vehicle related events for prevention purposes are limited. Detailed information on the causes and risk factors for LEO motor-vehicle related fatalities can provide stakeholders, researchers, and the law enforcement community with information to develop evidence-based prevention programs and policies to reduce crashes and injures.
Under the Law Enforcement Officer Motor Vehicle Crash and Struck-by Fatality Investigations project, NIOSH staff have conducted field investigations of LEO line-of-duty-deaths due to motor vehicle crashes and being struck-by moving vehicles. This pilot project, implemented in partnership with the National Institute of Justice through an Interagency Agreement, sought to identify motor vehicle related fatality risks for LEOs and develop industry-wide recommendations. The project aimed to:
1. Learn about the motor vehicle-related risks LEOs are exposed to by studying the circumstances surrounding motor vehicle crash and struck-by fatalities,
2. Explore the feasibility of using NIOSH Fatality Assessment and Control Evaluation investigation techniques to identify contributing factors for these fatal incidents, and;
3. Disseminate NIOSH developed injury prevention recommendations to stakeholders, researchers, and the law enforcement community.
The project evaluated whether the NIOSH Fatality Assessment and Control Evaluation (FACE) methodology could appropriately collect information on the circumstances and contributing factors related to motor-vehicle fatalities among
Investigation results are publicly reported through a narrative report that describes the incident, identifies contributing factors, and provides recommendations aimed at preventing similar incidents. The NIOSH reports do not determine fault or assign blame. The reports also do not identify the victim or other agency members. Reports are publicly available on the NIOSH website: NIOSH Law Enforcement Officer Motor Vehicle Safety.
In this pilot project, a limited number of law enforcement motor-vehicle deaths were investigated using the FACE Model. For the purpose of this pilot study, the following definitions were used to identify law enforcement motor-vehicle fatalities:
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Several sources were used to identify LEO fatalities that met the case selection criteria including internet searches, newspaper clippings, the National Law Enforcement Officers Memorial Fund (NLEOMF), and the Officer Down Memorial Page (ODMP). Assistance from NIJ was also obtained to identify potential cases.
From September 2013 through December 2017, through this pilot project, NIOSH identified 18 LEO line-of-duty motor-vehicle crash fatalities to pursue as potential fatality investigations. Contact information for each deceased LEO's agency was obtained from the NLEOMF. NIOSH attempted to contact the agencies through phone calls and or emails. Of the 18 agencies, 5 agreed to participate in the program. Investigations for 3 of these cases have been completed and the reports have been published on the NIOSH Law Enforcement Officer Motor Vehicle Safety website: NIOSH Law Enforcement Officer Motor Vehicle Safety. Two investigations are still ongoing, but should be completed and published on the NIOSH web page in early 2018.
Completed investigations include:
The NIOSH pilot program has identified unique opportunities and challenges for investigating LEO motor vehicle deaths. Unique opportunities include: The availability of vehicle dash camera recordings to help determine how the event occurred; police crash reconstruction reports outlining the vehicle dynamics, and the availability of in-vehicle telematics to better understand the speed at impact at the time of the event. Challenges identified included the delay in initiating investigations because of ongoing litigation surrounding the officer's death, and in certain events, the lack of witnesses involving single vehicle LEO crashes. We have also observed some reluctance on the part of law enforcement agencies to participate in a NIOSH investigation stating concerns for exposing the fallen officer's family members and department colleagues to emotional distress.
Specific areas where NIOSH desires input include:
1. Is the approach NIOSH used to investigate these deaths appropriate for the law enforcement community?
2. Does the approach have the potential to prevent LEO injury and death from motor-vehicle incidents?
3. How can the approach be improved to better focus on the law enforcement community's need for prevention of motor-vehicle related fatalities?
4. How can NIOSH better gain law enforcement agency cooperation and participation for conducting these investigations?
5. What is the best way to disseminate NIOSH fatality reports to law enforcement agencies, officers, and leaders?
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Request for comment.
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention announces the availability of a draft NORA Agenda entitled
Electronic or written comments must be received by March 19, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by CDC-2018-0007 and docket number NIOSH-307, by any of the following methods:
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Emily Novicki (
The National Occupational Research Agenda (NORA) is a partnership program created to stimulate innovative research and improved workplace practices. The national agenda is developed and implemented through the NORA sector and cross-sector councils. Each council develops and maintains an agenda for its sector or cross-sector.
The first National Occupational Research Agenda for Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing was published in 2008 for the second decade of NORA (2006-2016). This draft is an updated agenda for the third decade of NORA (2016-2026). The revised agenda was developed considering new information about injuries and illnesses, the state of the science, and the probability that new information and approaches will make a difference. As the steward of the NORA process, NIOSH invites comments on the draft
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by March 19, 2018.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
1.
2.
CMS, Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs, Division of Regulations Development, Attention: Document Identifier/OMB Control Number __, Room C4-26-05, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244-1850.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' website address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
1.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for AVYCAZ and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 19, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product AVYCAZ (ceftazidime pentahydrate and avibactam sodium). AVYCAZ is indicated for treatment of patients 18 years or older with the following infections caused by designated susceptible microorganisms:
• Complicated intra-abdominal infections used in combination with metronidazole and
• Complicated urinary tract infections, including pyelonephritis.
Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for AVYCAZ (U.S. Patent No. 7,112,592) from Forest Laboratories Holdings Ltd., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated July 12, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of AVYCAZ represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for AVYCAZ is 2,579 days. Of this time, 2,333 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 246 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 1,411 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by February 16, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Amber Sanford, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-8867,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
This information collection supports the above captioned Agency guidance document. In the
The draft guidance described FDA's considerations in determining whether a genetic variant database is a source of valid scientific evidence that could support the clinical validity of an NGS-based test. This draft guidance further outlines the process by which administrators
Based on our experience and the nature of the information, we estimate that it will take an average of 80 hours to complete and submit an application for recognition. We estimate that maintenance of recognition activities will take approximately one-fourth of that time (20 hours) annually. We estimate that it will take approximately 1 hour to post the information on the website.
Respondents are administrators of genetic databases. Our estimate of five respondents per year is based on the current number of databases that may meet FDA recommendations for recognition and seek such recognition.
FDA received 36 comments on the draft guidance, none of which pertained to the information collection burden estimate.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
The draft guidance also refers to previously approved collections of information. These collections of information are subject to review by the OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in the guidance document “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions: The Pre-Submission Program and Meetings with Food and Drug Administration Staff” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0756. The collections of information regarding premarket submissions have been approved as follows: The collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120 and the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subparts A through E, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for SYNERGY EVEROLIMUS-ELUTING PLATINUM CHROMIUM CORONARY STENT SYSTEM and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that medical device.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 19, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For medical devices, the testing phase begins with a clinical investigation of the device and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the device and continues until permission to market the device is granted. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a medical device will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(3)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the medical device SYNERGY EVEROLIMUS-ELUTING PLATINUM CHROMIUM CORONARY STENT SYSTEM (SYNERGY). SYNERGY is indicated for improving luminal diameter in patients with symptomatic heart disease, stable angina, unstable angina, non-ST elevation myocardial infarction or documented silent ischemia due to atherosclerotic lesions in native coronary arteries ≥2.25 millimeters (mm) to ≤4.0 mm in length. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for SYNERGY (U.S. Patent No. 8,348,992) from Boston Scientific Scimed, Inc., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated October 14, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this medical device had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of SYNERGY represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for SYNERGY is 1,206 days. Of this time, 950 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 256 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
FDA has verified the applicant's claim that the date the investigational device exemption (IDE) required under section 520(g) of the FD&C Act for human tests to begin became effective was June 15, 2012.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 629 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for DAKLINZA and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 19, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product DAKLINZA (daclatasvir dihydrochloride). DAKLINZA is indicated for use with sofosbuvir for the treatment of chronic HCV genotype 3 infection. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for DAKLINZA (U.S. Patent No. 8,329,159) from Bristol-Myers Squibb Company, and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated July 12, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of DAKLINZA represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for DAKLINZA is 2,808 days. Of this time, 2,327 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 481 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 467 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is withdrawing approval of 22 abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs) from multiple applicants. The holders of the applications notified the Agency in writing that the drug products were no longer marketed and requested that the approval of the applications be withdrawn.
Approval is withdrawn as of February 16, 2018.
Trang Tran, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. 1671, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7945,
The holders of the applications listed in table 1 have informed FDA that these drug products are no longer marketed and have requested that FDA withdraw approval of the applications under the process in § 314.150(c) (21 CFR 314.150(c)). The applicants have also, by their requests, waived their opportunity for a hearing. Withdrawal of approval of an application or abbreviated application under § 314.150(c) is without prejudice to refiling.
Therefore, approval of the applications listed in table 1, and all amendments and supplements thereto, is hereby withdrawn as of February 16, 2018. Introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of products without approved new drug applications violates section 301(a) and (d) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 331(a) and (d)). Drug products that are listed in table 1 that are in inventory on the date that this notice becomes effective (see the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA, Agency or we) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by March 19, 2018.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 19, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Ila S. Mizrachi, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-7726,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
Section 504 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 354) establishes a regulatory category for certain new animal drugs called VFD drugs. Our VFD regulation is set forth at § 558.6 (21 CFR 558.6). VFD drugs are new animal drugs intended for use in or on animal feed which are limited to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice (§ 558.3 (21 CFR 558.3(b)(6))). An animal feed containing a VFD drug or a combination VFD drug may be fed to animals only by or upon a lawful VFD issued by a licensed veterinarian (§ 558.6(a)(1)).
Veterinarians issue three copies of the VFD: one for their own records, one for their client, and one to the client's VFD feed distributor (§§ 558.6(a)(4) and 558.6(b)(8)-(9)). The VFD includes information about the number and species of animals to receive feed containing one or more of the VFD drugs (§ 558.6(b)(3)), along with other information required under § 558.6. All distributors of medicated feed containing VFD drugs must notify us of their intent to distribute such feed and must maintain records of the receipt and distribution of all medicated feeds containing VFD drugs.
The VFD regulation ensures the protection of public health while enabling animal producers to obtain and use needed drugs as efficiently and cost-effectively as possible. The VFD regulation is tailored to the unique circumstances relating to the distribution and use of animal feeds containing a VFD drug.
We will use the information collected to assess compliance with the VFD regulation. The required recordkeeping and third party disclosures provide assurance that the medicated feeds will be safe and effective for their labeled conditions of use and that edible
We estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows. We base our estimates on our analysis of the information collection provisions of the final rule entitled “Veterinary Feed Directive,” published in the
A distributor of animal feed containing a VFD drug must notify us prior to the first time it distributes the VFD feed (§ 558.6(c)(5)). This notification is required one time per distributor and must include the information set forth in § 558.6(c)(5). In addition, a distributor must notify us within 30 days of any change in ownership, business name, or business address (§ 558.6(c)(6)). Additional reporting burdens for current VFD drug sponsors are approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0032 (New Animal Drug Applications) and 0910-0669 (Abbreviated New Animal Drug Applications).
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
As stated previously, veterinarians issue three copies of the VFD: One for their own records, one for their client, and one to the client's VFD feed distributor. All involved parties (the veterinarian, the distributor, and the client) must retain a copy of the VFD for 2 years (§ 558.6(a)(4)). In addition, VFD feed distributors must also keep receipt and distribution records of VFD feeds they manufacture and make them available for inspection by us for 2 years (§ 558.6(c)(3)).
If a distributor manufactures the VFD feed, the distributor must also keep VFD manufacturing records for 1 year in accordance with 21 CFR part 225 and such records must be made available for inspection and copying by FDA upon request (§ 558.6(c)(4)). These record requirements are currently approved under OMB control number 0910-0152, “Current Good Manufacturing Practice Regulations for Medicated Feed.” Distributors may distribute VFD to another distributor only if the originating distributor first obtains a written acknowledgement letter. Such letters, like VFDs, are also subject to a 2-year record retention requirement (§ 558.6(c)(8)).
Our regulation requires that veterinarians include the information specified at § 558.6(b)(3) through (5) on the VFD. Additional requirements relating to the VFD are specified at § 558.6(b)(7) through (9). A distributor may only distribute a VFD feed to another distributor for further distribution if the originating distributor (consignor) first obtains a written acknowledgement letter from the receiving distributor (consignee) before the feed is shipped (§ 558.6(c)(8)).
The VFD regulation also contains several labeling provisions that are exempt from OMB review and approval under the PRA because they are a “public disclosure of information originally supplied by the Federal government to the recipient for the purpose of disclosure to the public” (5 CFR 1320.3(c)(2)) and therefore do not constitute a “collection of information” under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501,
The veterinarian may restrict VFD authorization to only include the VFD drug(s) cited on the VFD or such authorization may be expanded to allow the use of the cited VFD drug(s) along with one or more over-the-counter animal drugs in an approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination VFD drug (§ 558.6(b)(6)). The veterinarian must affirm his or her intent regarding combination VFD drugs by including one of the following statements on the VFD:
1. “This VFD only authorizes the use of the VFD drug(s) cited in this order and is not intended to authorize the use of such drug(s) in combination with any other animal drugs” (§ 558.6(b)(6)(i)).
2. “This VFD authorizes the use of the VFD drug(s) cited in this order in the following FDA-approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination(s) in medicated feed that contains the VFD drug(s) as a component.” (List specific approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination medicated feeds following this statement. § 558.6(b)(6)(ii).)
3. “This VFD authorizes the use of the VFD drug(s) cited in this order in any FDA-approved, conditionally approved, or indexed combination(s) in medicated feed that contains the VFD drug(s) as a component” (§ 558.6(b)(6)(iii)).
These labeling statements are not subject to review by OMB because, as stated previously, they are a “public disclosure of information originally supplied by the Federal government to the recipient for the purpose of disclosure to the public” (5 CFR 1320.3(c)(2)) and therefore do not constitute a “collection of information” under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501,
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for AXUMIN and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 19, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product AXUMIN (fluciclovine F-18). AXUMIN is indicated for positron emission tomography imaging in men with suspected prostate cancer recurrence based on elevated blood prostate specific antigen levels following prior treatment. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for AXUMIN (U.S. Patent No. 5,808,146) from Emory University, and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated December 1, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of AXUMIN represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for AXUMIN is 4,006 days. Of this time, 3,763 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 243 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 5 years of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
In accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended, and its implementing regulations, we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, have developed a draft revised marine mammal stock assessment report for the northern sea otter stock in the State of Washington. We now make the draft stock assessment report available for public review and comment.
We will consider comments that are received or postmarked on or before April 17, 2018.
If you wish to review the draft revised stock assessment report for the northern sea otter stock in Washington, you may obtain a copy from our website at
•
•
•
•
Deanna Lynch, at the above street address, by telephone (360-753-9545), or by email (
We announce the availability for review and comment of a draft revised marine mammal stock assessment report (SAR) for the northern sea otter (
Under the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
To help accomplish the goal of maintaining marine mammal stocks at their OSPs, section 117 of the MMPA requires the Service and the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) to prepare a SAR for each marine mammal stock that occurs in waters under U.S. jurisdiction. A SAR must be based on the best scientific information available; therefore, we prepare it in consultation with established regional scientific review groups established under 117(d) of the MMPA. Each SAR must include:
1. A description of the stock and its geographic range;
2. A minimum population estimate, current and maximum net productivity rate, and current population trend;
3. An estimate of the annual human-caused mortality and serious injury by source and, for a strategic stock, other factors that may be causing a decline or impeding recovery of the stock;
4. A description of commercial fishery interactions;
5. A categorization of the status of the stock; and
6. An estimate of the
The MMPA defines the PBR as “the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its [OSP]” (16 U.S.C. 1362(20)). The PBR is the product of the minimum population estimate of the stock (N
Section 117 of the MMPA also requires the Service and NMFS to review the SARs (a) at least annually for stocks that are specified as strategic stocks, (b) at least annually for stocks for which significant new information is available, and (c) at least once every 3 years for all other stocks. If our review of the status of a stock indicates that it has changed or may be more accurately determined, then the SAR must be revised accordingly.
A
The Washington sea otter SAR was last revised in August 2008. The Washington sea otter is not a strategic stock, thus the Service is required to review the stock assessment at least once every 3 years. The Service reviewed the Washington sea otter SAR in 2011 and concluded that a revision was not warranted because the status of the stock had not changed, nor could it be more accurately determined. However, upon review in 2016, the Service determined that revision was warranted because of changes in population estimates and distribution.
The following table summarizes some of the information contained in the draft revised SAR for northern sea otters in Washington State, which includes the stock's N
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
In accordance with the MMPA, we include in this notice a list of the information sources and public reports upon which we based the SAR:
The authority for this action is the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1361
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
The Puyallup Tribe of the Puyallup Reservation negotiated the Fifth Amendment to the Tribal-State Compact for Class III Gaming between the Puyallup Indian Tribe and the State of Washington governing Class III
This compact takes effect on January 17, 2018.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 219-4066.
Section 11 of the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (IGRA) requires the Secretary of the Interior to publish in the
Office of Acquisition and Property Management, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for public comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Office of Acquisition and Property Management, Office of the Secretary, Department of the Interior are proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 19, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to Elizabeth Varner, Office of Acquisition and Property Management, U.S. Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street NW, MS 4262-MIB, Washington, DC 20240; fax (202) 513-7634; or by email to
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Elizabeth Varner by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the Office of Acquisition and Property Management; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Office of Acquisition and Property Management enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Office of Acquisition and Property Management minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
DOI museum collections, regardless of where they are housed, must be managed according to preservation, documentation, educational, and other requirements in the public interest. These requirements are mandated by a number of Federal laws, notably: Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979, as amended (16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm); Paleontological Resources Preservation Act of 2009 (16 U.S.C. 470aaa-4); Migratory Bird Treaty Act of 1918 (16 U.S.C. 703-712); Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972 (16 U.S.C. 1361-1407); Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531-1543); Lacy Act of 1900 (16 U.S.C. 3371-3378; 18 U.S.C. 43-44); Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act of 1990 (25 U.S.C. 3001-3013); Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949, as amended (40 U.S.C. 524); National Park Service Organic Act of 1916 (54 U.S.C. 100101); Management of Museum Properties Act of 1955, as amended (54 U.S.C. 102501-102504); National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended (54 U.S.C. 300101
The Departmental Manual chapter, 411 DM, which implements the Federal laws and regulations noted above, requires the following information be collected, used, and retained by all bureaus that hold ownership of museum collections: Facility Checklist for Spaces Housing DOI Museum Property; catalog records; accession records; and inventories of museum collections. These requirements apply to all DOI museum collections regardless of each collection's location (DOI facility or non-DOI facility) or the personnel that accomplished the work (DOI staff, contractors, partners, cooperators, agencies, institutions, or similar organizations associated with DOI).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
National Park Service, Interior.
Charter renewal.
The Secretary of the Interior intends to renew the National Park System Advisory Board, in accordance with section 14(b) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. This action is necessary and in the public interest in connection with the performance of statutory duties imposed upon the Department of the Interior and the National Park Service.
Shirley Sears, Office of Policy, National Park Service, 202-354-3955.
The Board is authorized by 54 U.S.C. 102303 (part of the 1935 Historic Sites, Buildings and Antiquities Act) and has been in existence almost continuously since 1935. Pursuant to 54 U.S.C. 102303, the legislative authorization for the Board expired January 1, 2010. However, due to the importance of the issues on which the Board advises, the Secretary of the Interior exercised the authority contained in 54 U.S.C. 100906 to re-establish and continue the Board as a discretionary committee from January 1, 2010, until such time as it may be legislatively reauthorized. If the Board is reauthorized legislatively within 2 years of the date of the renewal charter, the Board will revert to a legislative Board.
The advice and recommendations provided by the Board and its subcommittees fulfill an important need within the Department of the Interior and the National Park Service, and it is necessary to re-establish the Board to ensure its work is not disrupted. The Board's 12 members will be balanced to represent a cross-section of disciplines and expertise relevant to the National Park Service mission. The renewal of the Board comports with the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended.
The Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, pursuant to its regulations (45 CFR part 503.25) and the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), hereby gives notice in regard to the scheduling of open meetings as follows:
All meetings are held at the Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW, Washington, DC. Requests for information, or advance notices of intention to observe an open meeting, may be directed to: Patricia M. Hall, Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW, Suite 6002, Washington, DC 20579. Telephone: (202) 616-6975.
U.S. Marshals Service, Department of Justice.
Notice.
The Department of Justice, U.S. Marshals Service (USMS), is submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The Department of Justice encourages public comment and will accept input until March 19, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Nicole Timmons either by mail at CG-3, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20530-0001, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3. The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection: CSO-005. The applicable component within the Department of Justice is the USMS.
4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract: Primary respondents—Court Security Officers/Special Security Officer (CSO/SSO) Applicants. The CSO-005 Preliminary Background Check Form is used to collect applicant information for CSO/SSO positions. The applicant information provided to USMS from the Vendor gives information about which District and Facility the applicant will be working, the applicant's personal information, prior employment verification, employment performance and current financial status. The information allows the selecting official to hire applicants with a strong history of employment performance and financial responsibility. The questions on this form have been developed from the OPM, MSPB and DOJ “Best Practice” guidelines for reference checking.
5. An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: An estimated 750 respondents will utilize the form, and it will take each respondent approximately 60 minutes to complete the form.
6. An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: The estimated annual public burden associated with this collection is 750 hours, which is equal to 750 (total # of annual responses) * 60 minutes.
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend OMB approval of the information collection requirements specified by the Coke Oven Emissions Standard.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by March 19, 2018.
Charles McCormick or Theda Kenney, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, telephone (202) 693-2222 or email:
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork
The information collection requirements in the Coke Oven Emissions Standard provide protection for workers from the adverse health effects associated with exposure to coke oven emissions. In this regard, the Coke Oven Emissions Standard requires employers to monitor workers' exposure to coke oven emissions, monitor worker health, and provide workers with information about their exposures and the health effects of exposure to coke oven emissions.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
The Agency is requesting a slight adjustment decrease of 148 burden hours (from 51,792 hours to 51,644). The adjustment decrease is due to an increase in the total number of workers identified in (NAICS 331111). The Agency will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend OMB approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Slings Standard. The collection of information (paperwork) provisions of the Standard specify affixing identification tags or markings to slings, developing and maintaining inspection records, and retaining proof-testing certificates.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by March 19, 2018.
Charles McCormick or Theda Kenney, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The Slings Standard (29 CFR 1910.184) specifies several paperwork requirements, depending on the type of sling (paragraph (e) of the Standard covers alloy steel chain slings; paragraph (f) covers wire rope slings; paragraph (g) covers metal mesh slings; paragraph (h) covers natural and synthetic fiber-rope slings; and paragraph (i) covers synthetic web slings).
The purpose of each of these requirements is to prevent workers from using defective or deteriorated slings, thereby reducing their risk of death or serious injury caused by sling failure during material handling. The information on the identification tags, markings, and coding's assist the employer in determining whether the sling can be used for lifting. The sling inspections enable early detection of faulty slings. The inspection and repair records provide employers with the date of the last inspection and the type of repairs made. This information provides assurance about the condition of the slings. These records also provide the most efficient means for an OSHA compliance officer to determine that an employer is complying with the Standard. Proof-testing certificates give employers, workers, and OSHA compliance officers assurance that the slings are safe to use.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Slings Standard. The Agency is requesting an increase in its current burden hours from 23,614 to 26,673, a total increase of 3,059 hours. This adjustment increase results from increasing the number of slings (from 1,350,000 to 1,525,000).
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its request for an extension of the information collection requirements contained in the Electrical Standards for Construction and for General Industry. The Standards address safety procedures for installation and maintenance of electric utilization equipment that prevent death and serious injuries among construction and general industry workers in the workplace caused by electrical hazards.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by March 19, 2018.
Theda Kenney or Charles McCormick, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Washington, DC; telephone (202) 693-2222 or email:
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
This program ensures that information is in the desired format, reporting burden (time and costs) is minimal, collection instruments are clearly understood, and OSHA's estimate of the information collection burden is accurate. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651
The information collection requirements specified by the Electrical Standards for Construction and for General Industry alert workers to the presence and types of electrical hazards in the workplace, thereby preventing serious injury and death by electrocution. The information collection requirements in these Standards involve the following: the employer using electrical equipment that is marked with the manufacturer's name, trademark, or other descriptive markings that identify the producer of the equipment, and marking the equipment with the voltage, current, wattage, or other ratings necessary; requiring each disconnecting means for motors and appliances to be marked legibly to indicate its purpose, unless located and arranged so the purpose is evident; requiring the entrances to rooms and other guarded locations containing exposed live parts to be marked with conspicuous warning signs forbidding unqualified persons from
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and cost) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology, and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply. For example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is proposing a decrease adjustment to the existing burden hours from 220,789 hours to 194,976 hours for the Electrical Standards for Construction and for General Industry, a total decrease of 25,813. The cost of the labels is $4.25, which increased from $3.75, a difference of 50 cents. The cost of caution and warning signs remains $10.95. The total cost over a five-year period to the employer is $25,476,949 (or $5,095,390 per year). The Agency will summarize any comments submitted in response to this notice, and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in these Standards.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of Intent to Grant Partially Exclusive Term License—CORRECTION.
This is an amended version of NASA's earlier
NASA hereby gives notice of its intent to grant a partially-exclusive term license in the United States to practice the invention described and claimed in U.S. Patent 6,760,487 entitled, “Estimated Spectrum Adaptive Postfilter And The Iterative Prepost Filtering Algorithms”, and in U.S. Patent 9,414,072 entitled “Improved Performance of the JPEG Estimated Spectrum Adaptive Postfilter (JPEG-ESAP) for Low Bit Rates” to Human Health Organization (“H2O”), having its principal place of business in Studio City, CA.
The prospective partially-exclusive term license may be granted unless NASA receives written objections, including evidence and argument no later than February 1, 2018, that establish that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements regarding the licensing of federally owned inventions as set forth in the Bayh-Dole Act and implementing regulations. Competing applications completed and received by NASA no later than February 1, 2018 will also be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated partially exclusive license. Objections submitted in response to this notice will not be made available to the public for inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will
Objections relating to the prospective license may be submitted to Patent Counsel, Bryan A. Geurts, Goddard Space Flight Center, 8800 Greenbelt Road M/S 140.1, Greenbelt MD 20771. Phone (301) 286-7351. Facsimile (301) 286-9502.
Enidia Santiago-Arce, Innovative Partnerships Program Office, Goddard Space Flight Center, 8800 Greenbelt Road M/S 504, Greenbelt, MD 20771. Phone (301) 286-5810.
This notice of intent to grant a partially-exclusive term patent license is issued in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(e) and 37 CFR 404.7(a)(1)(i). The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned to the United States of America as represented by the Administrator of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration. The prospective partially exclusive license will comply with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7.
Information about other NASA inventions available for licensing can be found online at
2:00 p.m. on Thursday, January 18, 2018.
Closed Commission Hearing Room 10800.
This meeting will be closed to the public.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (6), (7), (8), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matters at the closed meeting.
Commissioner Stein, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matters of the closed meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, as amended (the “Sarbanes-Oxley Act”),
Section 109 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act provides that the PCAOB shall establish a reasonable annual accounting support fee, as may be necessary or appropriate to establish and maintain the PCAOB. Under Section 109(f) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the aggregate annual accounting support fee shall not exceed the PCAOB's aggregate “recoverable budget expenses,” which may include operating, capital and accrued items. The PCAOB's annual budget and accounting support fee are subject to approval by the Commission. In addition, the PCAOB must allocate the annual accounting support fee among issuers and among brokers and dealers.
Section 109(b) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act directs the PCAOB to establish a budget for each fiscal year in accordance with the PCAOB's internal procedures, subject to approval by the Commission. Rule 190 of Regulation P governs the Commission's review and approval of PCAOB budgets and annual accounting support fees.
In accordance with the budget rule, in March 2017 the PCAOB provided the Commission with a narrative description of its program issues and outlook for the 2018 budget year. In response, the Commission provided the PCAOB with economic assumptions and general budgetary guidance for the 2018 budget year. The PCAOB subsequently delivered a preliminary budget and budget justification to the Commission. Staff from the Commission's Office of the Chief Accountant and Office of Financial Management dedicated a substantial amount of time to the review and analysis of the PCAOB's programs, projects, and budget estimates; reviewed the PCAOB's estimates of 2017 actual spending; and attended several meetings with management and staff of the PCAOB to further develop their understanding of the PCAOB's budget and operations. During the course of this review, Commission staff relied upon representations and supporting documentation from the PCAOB. Based
After considering the above, the Commission did not identify any proposed disbursements in the 2018 budget adopted by the PCAOB that are not properly recoverable through the annual accounting support fee, and the Commission believes that the aggregate proposed 2018 annual accounting support fee does not exceed the PCAOB's aggregate recoverable budget expenses for 2018.
The Commission also acknowledges the PCAOB's updated strategic plan and encourages the PCAOB to continue keeping the Commission and its staff apprised of significant new developments. The Commission looks forward to providing its views to the PCAOB as future updates are made to the plan. In addition, the PCAOB should submit its 2017 annual report to the Commission by April 2, 2018.
The Commission directs the Board during 2018 to continue to provide periodic updates to the Commission relating to the monitoring of estimated cost savings and efficiencies gained through certain initiatives implemented in recent years. The Board shall continue its review of its compensation and travel policies and report to the Commission the results of this review.
In May 2017, the PCAOB formed the Office of Economic and Risk Analysis (“ERA”) by integrating the staff of the Center for Economic Analysis (“CEA”) that conducted economic analysis and research with staff from the Office of Research and Analysis (“ORA”) that conducted risk assessment and data analysis. The Commission directs the PCAOB during 2018 to provide quarterly updates to the Commission on ERA's activities and progress towards its stated goals, including the work to integrate staff from the former CEA and ORA.
The Commission directs the Board during 2018 to continue to provide in its quarterly reports to the Commission detailed information about the state of the PCAOB's information technology (“IT”) program, including planned, estimated, and actual costs for IT projects, and the level of involvement of consultants. These reports also should continue to include: (a) A discussion of the Board's assessment of the IT program; and (b) the quarterly IT report that is prepared by PCAOB staff and submitted to the Board.
The Commission also directs the Board during 2018 to continue to include in its quarterly reports to the Commission information about the PCAOB's inspections program. Such information is to include: (a) Statistics relative to the numbers and types of firms budgeted and expected to be inspected in 2018, including by location and by year the inspections are required to be conducted in accordance with the Sarbanes-Oxley Act and PCAOB rules; (b) information about the timing of the issuance of inspections reports for domestic and non-U.S. inspections; and (c) updates on the PCAOB's efforts to establish cooperative arrangements with respective non-U.S. authorities for inspections required in those countries.
The Commission understands that the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) has determined the 2018 budget of the PCAOB to be sequestrable under the Budget Control Act of 2011.
The Commission has determined that the PCAOB's 2018 budget and annual accounting support fee are consistent with Section 109 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Accordingly,
It is ordered, pursuant to Section 109 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, that the PCAOB budget and annual accounting support fee for calendar year 2018 are approved.
By the Commission.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Commission will co-host the SEC-NYU Dialogue on Securities Markets—Shareholder Engagement on Friday, January 19, 2018, beginning at 9:10 a.m. (ET).
The meeting will be held at the New York University's Salomon Center for the Study of Financial Institutions, 44 W. 4th Street, New York, NY 10112.
This meeting will begin at 9:10 a.m. (ET) and will be open to the public. Attendees can pre-register for in-person attendance or webcast. The meeting will be webcast live by NYU and later archived on the Commission's website at
The event is scheduled to include welcome remarks by SEC Chairman Jay Clayton, concluding remarks by SEC Commissioner Kara Stein, and panel discussions that Commissioners may attend. The panel discussions will address, among other matters, the increasing ownership of public companies by large institutional investors, the influence of activist investors, the role of proxy advisory services, and other changes in the way investors and public companies engage with each other.
This Sunshine Act notice is being issued because a majority of the Commission may attend the meeting.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
The Exchange proposes to add a new Rule 6200 to codify Participant risk settings in the Exchange's trading system (as set forth in a proposed IM-6200-1) and to authorize the Exchange to share such risk settings with the clearing member that clears transactions on behalf of the Participant.
The text of the proposed rule change is set forth below. Proposed new language is
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to adopt proposed IM-6200-1, which codifies a comprehensive list of Participant risk settings in the Exchange's trading system. The Exchange also proposes to adopt new Rule 6200 to authorize the Exchange to share these risk settings with the clearing member that clears transactions on behalf of the Participant. For purposes of Rule 6200, the term “Participant” has the meaning set forth in Rule 4701(c).
Participants are required to be members of the Exchange. Rule 4618 states that “all transactions through the facilities of the Nasdaq Market Center shall be cleared and settled through a registered clearing agency using a continuous net settlement system.” It further provides that this requirement may be satisfied by “direct participation, use of direct clearing services, by entry into a correspondent clearing arrangement with another member that clears trades through such a clearing agency. . . .” Further, pursuant to Rule 4627, every clearing member acting on a Participant's behalf that constitutes a side of a system trade is responsible for honoring such trades of that Participant.
All Participants that are not clearing members require a clearing member's consent to clear transactions on their behalf in order to conduct business on the Exchange. Each Participant that transacts through a clearing member on the Exchange must have an arrangement between the Participant and the clearing member. The Exchange is provided notice of which clearing members have relationships with which Participants. The clearing member that guarantees the Participant's transactions on the Exchange has a financial interest in understanding the risk tolerance of the Participant. The proposal would provide the Exchange with authority to directly provide clearing members with information that may otherwise be available to such clearing members by virtue of their relationship with the respective Participants.
Proposed IM-6200-1 would codify a list of risk settings that are currently offered by the Exchange and would be covered by proposed Rule 6200. This list is comprehensive with respect to the risk settings that the Exchange presently offers. Certain of these risk settings are mandatory for Participants, meaning that the Exchange either imposes specific risk tolerances that are uniform for all Participants or it sets default risk tolerances, but it affords flexibility to Participants to select their own risk tolerance levels. In certain instances, the Exchange does not require Participants to utilize risk settings, but instead makes them available for use at the option of Participants. The risk settings set forth in proposed IM-6200-1 comprise the following:
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
As set forth above, the proposal to authorize the Exchange to share any of the Participant's risk settings with the clearing member that clears transactions on behalf of the Participant would be limited to the risk settings specified in proposed IM-6200-1. The Exchange notes that use by a Participant of the risk settings offered by the Exchange is optional for share size, ISO, kill switch, and cancel-on disconnect controls, and is required in other instances.
To the extent that a clearing member might reasonably require a Participant to provide access to its risk settings as a prerequisite to continuing to clear trades on the Participant's behalf, the Exchange's proposal to share those risk settings directly reduces the administrative burden on Participants and ensures that clearing members are receiving information that is up-to-date and conforms to the settings active in the Exchange's trading system. Further, the Exchange believes that the proposal will help such clearing members to better monitor and manage the potential risks that they assume when clearing for Participants of the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The proposed rule change will allow the Exchange to directly provide a Participant's risk settings to the clearing member that clears trades on behalf of the Participant. A clearing member guarantees transactions executed on Nasdaq for members with whom it has entered into a clearing arrangement, and therefore bears the risk associated with those transactions. The Exchange therefore believes that it is appropriate for the clearing member to have knowledge of what risk settings the Participant may utilize within the Exchange's trading system. The proposal will permit clearing members who have a financial interest in the risk settings of Participants with whom the Participants have entered into clearing arrangements to better monitor and manage the potential risks assumed by clearing members, thereby providing clearing members with greater control and flexibility over setting their own risk tolerance and exposure and aiding clearing members in complying with the Act. To the extent a clearing member might reasonably require a Participant to provide access to its risk settings as a prerequisite to continuing to clear trades on the Participant's behalf, the Exchange's proposal to share those risk settings directly reduces the administrative burden on Participants and ensures that clearing members are receiving information that is up-to-date and conforms to the settings active in the Exchange's trading system. Moreover, the proposal will foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating transactions in securities and more generally, will protect investors and the public interest, by reducing administrative burdens on both clearing members and other Participants and by allowing clearing members to better monitor their risk exposure.
The Exchange further believes that codifying the risk settings described above in proposed IM-6200-1 is consistent with the Act. These settings
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues and does not pose an undue burden on non-clearing members because, unlike clearing members, non-clearing members do not guarantee the execution of a Participant's transactions on the Exchange. Moreover, the proposal to share risk settings with clearing members will not burden competition among clearing members because it will apply to all clearing members equally and regardless of size. The Exchange notes that this proposal will not affect competition among Participants because the proposal provides for sharing of all of Participants' risk settings set forth in IM-6200-1. Any Participant that does not wish to share its risk settings with its clearing member could avoid sharing such settings by becoming a clearing member. Lastly, the proposal to codify the Exchange's risk settings will not burden competition among Participants because the risk settings are already available to or required of Participants and will continue to be available or required of all Participants going forward.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to eliminate transitional rules that have expired related to compensation committee listing standards.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Nasdaq proposes to delete the introductory language to Rule 5605(d), Rule 5605(d)(6), Rule 5605A and IM-5605A-6, and part of Rule 5615 to remove transitional rules that are no longer applicable to any companies and references to those transitional rules. These transitional rules were adopted in 2013 in connection with changes to the compensation committee requirements.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Nasdaq does not believe the proposed rule change, which merely eliminates obsolete provisions and does not make any substantive change to Nasdaq's rules, will impose any burden, nor have any impact, on competition.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice.
Notice of application for an order approving the substitution of certain securities pursuant to section 26(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (the “Act”).
The Guardian Insurance & Annuity Company, Inc., (“Guardian”), The Guardian Separate Account Q, and The Guardian Separate Account R (each, a “Separate Account” and together, the “Separate Accounts”). Guardian and the Separate Accounts are referred to as the “Applicants.”
Applicants seek an order pursuant to section 26(c) of the Act, approving the substitution of shares issued by certain investment portfolios of registered investment companies (the “Existing Portfolios”) for shares of certain investment portfolios of Guardian Variable Products Trust (the “Replacement Portfolios”), held by the Separate Accounts to support certain variable annuity contracts (the “Contracts”). Guardian Variable Products Trust is referred to as the “Trust.”
The application was filed on November 3, 2016 and was amended on April 10, 2017 and September 18, 2017. Applicants have agreed to file an amendment during the notice period, the substance of which is reflected in this notice.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Secretary of the Commission and serving the Applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on February 6, 2018 and should be accompanied by proof of service on the Applicants in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Richard T. Potter, Senior Vice President, Counsel and Assistant Corporate Secretary, The Guardian Insurance & Annuity Company, Inc., 7 Hanover Square, New York, New York 10004.
Laura J. Riegel, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6873, or Robert H. Shapiro, Branch Chief at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number, or for an Applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Guardian is a Delaware stock life insurance company licensed to conduct insurance business in the District of Columbia and all fifty states of the United States. Guardian is wholly-owned by The Guardian Life Insurance Company of America (“Guardian Life”), a mutual life insurance company.
2. Each Separate Account meets the definition of “separate account,” as defined in section 2(a)(37) of the Act and rule 0-1(e) thereunder. The Separate Accounts are registered under the Act as unit investment trusts. The assets of the Separate Accounts support the Contracts and interests in the Separate Accounts offered through such Contracts. Guardian is the legal owner of the assets in the Separate Accounts. The Separate Accounts are segmented into subaccounts, and each subaccount invests in an underlying registered open-end management investment company or series thereof.
3. The Contracts are each registered under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended (the “1933 Act”) on Form N-4. Each Contract has particular fees, charges, and investment options, as described in the Contracts' respective prospectuses.
4. The Contracts are individual flexible or single premium deferred variable annuity contracts. As set forth in the prospectuses for the Contracts, each Contract provides that Guardian reserves the right to substitute shares of the funds in which the Separate Accounts invest for shares of any funds already held or to be held in the future by the Separate Accounts.
5. Guardian, on behalf of itself and the Separate Accounts, proposes to exercise its contractual right to substitute shares of the Existing Portfolios for shares of the Replacement Portfolios (“Substitutions”), as shown in the table below:
6. The Replacement Portfolios are series of the Trust, a Delaware statutory trust registered as an open-end management investment company under the Act (File No. 811-23148) and whose shares are registered under the 1933 Act (File No. 333-210205). The Replacement Portfolios are currently available only as investment allocation options under variable insurance contracts issued by Guardian.
7. Park Avenue Institutional Advisers LLC (“Park Avenue”), an indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of Guardian Life, serves as the investment adviser of each Replacement Portfolio. Park Avenue is a Delaware limited liability company that is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940. Each Replacement Portfolio is sub-advised by a registered investment adviser that is unaffiliated with Applicants, the Trust, or Park Avenue.
8. Applicants state that the proposed Substitutions are part of a strategic business goal of Guardian to improve the administrative efficiency and cost-effectiveness of the Contracts, as well as to make the Contracts more attractive to Contract owners. Applicants note that the proposed Substitutions are intended to improve portfolio manager selection
9. Applicants state that for all the proposed Substitutions, the net annual operating expenses of the Replacement Portfolio will not exceed, on an annualized basis, the annual net operating expenses of any corresponding Existing Portfolio for the last fiscal year preceding the date of the application (the “Expense Cap”). Applicants will cause Park Avenue, as the investment adviser of each Replacement Portfolio, to enter into a written contract with the Replacement Portfolio under which the net annual operating expenses of the Replacement Portfolio will not exceed the Expense Cap. The Expense Cap for each proposed Substitution will remain in place for a period of two years following the implementation of the proposed Substitution (the “Substitution Date”), except that for those proposed Substitutions for which the sum of the current management fee and rule 12b-1 fees of the Replacement Portfolio is greater than that of the corresponding Existing Portfolio, the Expense Cap for that proposed Substitution will extend for the life of the affected Contracts following the Substitution Date. The Expense Cap applicable to Substitution No. 10 will also extend for the life of the affected Contracts following the Substitution Date. Any amounts waived or reimbursed by Park Avenue pursuant to any Expense Cap will not be subject to Park Avenue's recoupment rights.
10. Applicants represent that as of the Substitution Date, the Separate Accounts will redeem shares of the Existing Portfolios for cash. Redemption requests and purchase orders will be placed simultaneously so that Contract values will remain fully invested at all times.
11. Each Substitution will be effected at the relative net asset values of the respective shares of the Replacement Portfolios in conformity with section 22(c) of the Act and rule 22c-1 thereunder without the imposition of any transfer or similar charges by Applicants. The Substitutions will be effected without change in the amount
12. Contract owners will not incur any fees or charges as a result of the proposed Substitutions. The obligations of Applicants and the rights of the affected Contract owners, under the Contracts of affected Contract owners will not be altered in any way. Guardian and/or its affiliates (other than the Trust) will pay all expenses and transaction costs of the Substitutions, including legal and accounting expenses, any applicable brokerage expenses and other fees and expenses. No fees or charges will be assessed to the affected Contract owners to effect the Substitutions. The proposed Substitutions will not cause the Contract fees and charges currently being paid by Contract owners to be greater after the proposed Substitution than before the proposed Substitution. In addition, the Substitutions will in no way alter the tax treatment of affected Contract owners in connection with their Contracts, and no tax liability will arise for Contract owners as a result of the Substitutions.
13. From the date of the Pre-Substitution Notice (defined below) through 30 days following the Substitution Date, subject to the terms of certain Living Benefit Riders, Contract owners may make at least one transfer of Contract value from the subaccount investing in an Existing Portfolio (before the Substitution) or the Replacement Portfolio (after the Substitution) to any other available subaccount under the Contract without charge and without imposing any transfer limitations. Further, on the Substitution Date, Contract values attributable to investments in each Existing Portfolio will be transferred to the corresponding Replacement Portfolio without charge and without being subject to any transfer limitations. Moreover, except with respect to market timing policies and procedures and the terms of the Living Benefit Riders, Guardian will not exercise any rights reserved under the Contracts to impose restrictions on transfers between the subaccounts under the Contracts for a period beginning at least 30 days, including limitations on the future number of transfers, before the Substitution Date through at least 30 days following the Substitution Date.
14. At least 30 days prior to the Substitution Date, Contract owners will be notified via prospectus supplements that Applicants received or expect to receive Commission approval of the applicable proposed Substitutions and of the anticipated Substitution Date (the “Pre-Substitution Notice”). Pre-Substitution Notices sent to Contract owners will be filed with the Commission pursuant to rule 497 under the 1933 Act. The Pre-Substitution Notice will advise Contract owners that from the date of the Pre-Substitution Notice through the date 30 days after the Substitutions, subject to the terms of certain Living Benefit Riders, Contract owners may make at least one transfer of Contract value from the subaccounts investing in the Existing Portfolios (before the Substitutions) or the Replacement Portfolios (after the Substitutions) to any other available subaccount without charge and without imposing any transfer limitations. Among other information, the Pre-Substitution Notice will inform affected Contract owners that, except with respect to market timing policies and procedures and limitations imposed by Living Benefit Riders, Guardian will not exercise any rights reserved under the Contracts to impose additional restrictions on transfers out of a Replacement Portfolio subaccount from the date of the Pre-Substitution Notice, including limitations on the future number of transfers, until at least 30 days after the Substitution Date. Additionally, all affected Contract owners will be sent prospectuses of the applicable Replacement Portfolios at least 30 days before the Substitution Date.
15. In addition to the Supplements distributed to the Contract owners, within five business days after the Substitution Date, Contract owners whose assets are allocated to a Replacement Portfolio as part of the proposed Substitutions will be sent a written notice (each, a “Confirmation”) informing them that the Substitutions were carried out as previously notified. The Confirmation also will restate the information set forth in the Pre-Substitution Notice. The Confirmation will also reflect the values of the Contract owner's positions in the Existing Portfolio before the Substitution and the Replacement Portfolio after the Substitution.
1. Applicants request that the Commission issue an order pursuant to section 26(c) of the Act approving the proposed Substitutions. Section 26(c) prohibits any depositor or trustee of a unit investment trust that invests exclusively in the securities of a single issuer from substituting the securities of another issuer without the approval of the Commission. Section 26(c) provides that such approval shall be granted by order from the Commission if the evidence establishes that the substitution is consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes of the Act.
2. Applicants submit that the Substitutions meet the standards set forth in section 26(c) and that, if implemented, the Substitutions would not raise any of the concerns that Congress intended to address when the Act was amended to include this provision. Applicants state that each Substitution protects the Contract owners who have Contract value allocated to an Existing Portfolio by providing Replacement Portfolios with substantially similar investment objectives, strategies, and risks, and providing Contract owners with investment options that have net annual operating expenses that will not exceed the Expense Cap.
3. Guardian has reserved the right under the Contracts to substitute shares of another underlying fund for one of the current funds offered as an investment option under the Contracts. The Contracts and the Contracts' prospectuses disclose this right.
4. Applicants submit that the ultimate effect of the proposed Substitutions will be to streamline and simplify the investment line-ups that are available to Contract owners while reducing expenses and continuing to provide Contract owners with a wide array of investment options. Applicants state that the proposed Substitutions will not reduce in any manner the nature or quality of the available investment options and the proposed Substitutions also will permit Guardian to present information to its Contract owners in a simpler and more concise manner. Applicants also state it is anticipated that after the proposed Substitutions, Contract owners will be provided with disclosure documents that contain a simpler presentation of the available investment options under the Contracts. Applicants also assert that the proposed Substitutions are not of the type that section 26 was designed to prevent because they will not result in costly forced redemption, nor will they affect
5. The proposed transactions will take place at relative net asset value in conformity with the requirements of section 22(c) of the Act and rule 22c-1 thereunder without the imposition of any transfer or similar charges by the Applicants. The Substitutions will be effected without change in the amount or value of any Contract held by the affected Contract owners. The Substitutions will in no way alter the tax treatment of affected Contract owners in connection with their Contracts, and no tax liability will arise for Contract owners as a result of the Substitutions. The fees and charges under the Contracts will not increase because of the Substitutions.
Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the following conditions:
1. The Substitutions will not be effected unless Guardian determines that: (i) The Contracts allow the substitution of shares of registered open-end investment companies in the manner contemplated by the application; (ii) the Substitutions can be consummated as described in the application under applicable insurance laws; and (iii) any regulatory requirements in each jurisdiction where the Contracts are qualified for sale have been complied with to the extent necessary to complete the Substitutions.
2. After the Substitution Date, Park Avenue will not change a Replacement Portfolio's sub-adviser, add a new sub-adviser, or otherwise rely on the Manager of Managers Order or any replacement order from the Commission with respect to any Replacement Portfolio without first obtaining shareholder approval of the change in sub-adviser, the new sub-adviser, or the Replacement Portfolio's ability to rely on the Manager of Managers Order, or any replacement order from the Commission, at a shareholder meeting, the record date for which shall be after the proposed Substitution has been effected.
3. Guardian or an affiliate thereof (other than the Trust) will pay all expenses and transaction costs of the Substitutions, including legal and accounting expenses, any applicable brokerage expenses and other fees and expenses. No fees or charges will be assessed to the affected Contract owners to effect the Substitutions. The proposed Substitutions will not cause the Contract fees and charges currently being paid by Contract owners to be greater after the proposed Substitution than before the proposed Substitution.
4. The Substitutions will be effected at the relative net asset values of the respective shares of the Replacement Portfolios in conformity with section 22(c) of the Act and rule 22c-1 thereunder without the imposition of any transfer or similar charges by the Applicants. The Substitutions will be effected without change in the amount or value of any Contracts held by affected Contract owners.
5. The Substitutions will in no way alter the tax treatment of affected Contract owners in connection with their Contracts, and no tax liability will arise for Contract owners as a result of the Substitutions.
6. The obligations of the Applicants and the rights of the affected Contract owners, under the Contracts of affected Contract owners will not be altered in any way.
7. Affected Contract owners will be permitted to transfer Contract value from the subaccount investing in the Existing Portfolio (before the Substitution Date) or the Replacement Portfolio (after the Substitution Date) to any other available investment option under the Contract without charge for a period beginning at least 30 days before the Substitution Date through at least 30 days following the Substitution Date. Contract owners with Living Benefit Riders, as applicable, may transfer Contract value from the subaccounts investing in the Existing Portfolios (before the Substitutions) or the Replacement Portfolios (after the Substitutions) to any other available investment option available under their respective riders without charge and without imposing any transfer limitations. Except as described in any market timing/short-term trading provisions of the relevant prospectus, the Applicants will not exercise any rights reserved under the Contracts to impose restrictions on transfers between the subaccounts under the Contracts, transfers, including limitations on the future number of transfers, for a period beginning at least 30 days before the Substitution Date through at least 30 days following the Substitution Date.
8. All affected Contract owners will be notified via the Pre-Substitution Notice, at least 30 days before the Substitution Date, about: (i) The intended Substitution of Existing Portfolios with the Replacement Portfolios; (ii) the intended Substitution Date; and (iii) information with respect to transfers as set forth in Condition 7 above. In addition, the Applicants will also deliver to affected Contract owners, at least 30 days before the Substitution Date, a prospectus for each applicable Replacement Portfolio.
9. The Applicants will deliver to each affected Contract owner within five business days of the Substitution Date a written confirmation which will include: (i) A confirmation that the Substitutions were carried out as previously notified; (ii) a restatement of the information set forth in the Pre-Substitution Notice; and (iii) values of the Contract owner's positions in the Existing Portfolio before the Substitution and the Replacement Portfolio after the Substitution.
10. Guardian will cause Park Avenue, as the investment adviser of each Replacement Portfolio, to enter into a written contract with the Replacement Portfolio whereby the net annual operating expenses of the Replacement Portfolio will not exceed the Expense Cap. The Expense Cap for each proposed Substitution will remain in place for a period of two years following the Substitution Date. For those proposed Substitutions for which the sum of the current management fee and rule 12b-1 fees of the Replacement Portfolio is greater than that of the corresponding Existing Portfolio, the Expense Cap for that proposed Substitution will extend for the life of the affected Contracts following the Substitution Date. The Expense Cap applicable to Substitution No. 10 will also extend for the life of the affected Contracts following the Substitution Date.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
On June 1, 2017, Bats BZX Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
On January 10, 2018, the Exchange withdrew the proposed rule change (SR-BatsBZX-2017-30).
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA is proposing to extend the expiration date of FINRA Rule 0180 (Application of Rules to Security-Based Swaps) to February 12, 2019. FINRA Rule 0180 temporarily limits, with certain exceptions, the application of FINRA rules with respect to security-based swaps.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's website at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
On July 1, 2011, the SEC issued an Order granting temporary exemptive relief (the “Temporary Exemptions”) from compliance with certain provisions of the Exchange Act in connection with the revision, pursuant to Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the “Dodd-Frank Act”),
The Commission, noting the need to avoid a potential unnecessary disruption to the security-based swap market in the absence of an extension of the Temporary Exemptions, and the need for additional time to consider the potential impact of the revision of the Exchange Act definition of “security” in light of ongoing Commission rulemaking efforts under Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Act, issued an Order which extended and refined the applicable expiration dates for the previously granted Temporary Exemptions.
The Commission's rulemaking and development of guidance in relation to security-based swap activities is ongoing. As such, FINRA believes it is appropriate and in the public interest, in light of the Commission's goals as set forth in the Exemptive Release, the 2014 Extension Release and the 2017 Extension Release, to extend FINRA Rule 0180 for a limited period, to February 12, 2019, so as to avoid undue market disruptions resulting from the change to the definition of “security” under the Act.
FINRA has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. FINRA is proposing that the implementation date of the proposed rule change will be February 12, 2018.
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act,
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. FINRA believes that the proposed rule change would prevent undue market disruption that would otherwise result if security-based swaps were, by virtue of the expansion of the Act's definition of “security” to encompass security-based swaps, subject to the application of all FINRA rules before the implementation of any SEC rules and guidance that would provide greater regulatory clarity in relation to security-based swap activities. FINRA believes that, by extending the expiration of FINRA Rule 0180, the proposed rule change will serve to promote regulatory clarity and consistency, thereby reducing burdens on the marketplace and facilitating investor protection.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Department of State.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given of a change in ownership of Express Pipeline LLC (“Express US”), which owns, operates, and maintains pipeline facilities (“Express Pipeline”) authorized under a Presidential permit issued on July 9, 2015 (80 FR 45695).
On May 25, 2017, the Department published a
Marcus Lee, Presidential Permit Coordinator, Energy Resources Bureau, Office of Policy Analysis and Public Diplomacy, United States Department of State, 2201 C St. NW, Suite 4422, Washington, DC 20520. Tel: 202-485-1522.
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Adrian Piper: A Synthesis of Intuitions 1965-2016,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at The Museum of Modern Art, New York, New York, from on or about March 31, 2018, until on or about July 22, 2018, at the Hammer Museum, Los Angeles, California, from on or about September 30, 2018, until on or about January 6, 2019, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice of a biennial review under the United States-Singapore Memorandum of Intent on Environmental Cooperation, and request for comments.
The U.S. Department of State is providing notice that the United States and Singapore intend to hold a biennial review under the Memorandum of Intent between the United States of America and the Republic of Singapore on Cooperation in Environmental Matters (MOI) on January 19, 2018. The purpose of the meeting is to review the results of environmental cooperation under the MOI guided by the 2016-2017 Plan of Action (POA). The United States and Singapore also expect to approve a new 2018-2019 POA.
The meeting's public session will be held on January 19, 2018, at 5:00 p.m., at the Ministry of the Environment and Water Resources, 40 Scotts Road, #24-00, Level 23, Environment Building, Singapore 228231, Tel: (65) 6731 9000. The U.S. Department of State invites interested organizations and members of the public to attend the public session, and to submit in advance written comments or suggestions regarding implementation of the POA, and any issues that should be discussed at the meeting. If you would like to attend the public session, please notify Tiffany Prather at the email address listed below under the heading
• 2016-2017 POA,
Other useful documents are available at:
The public session for the Biennial Review under the MOI will be held on January 19, 2018, at 5:00 p.m., at the Ministry of the Environment and Water Resources, 40 Scotts Road, #24-00, Level 23, Environment Building, Singapore 228231, Tel: (65) 6731 9000. Written comments and suggestions should be submitted no later than noon on January 18, 2018 to facilitate consideration.
Written comments and suggestions should be submitted to: Tiffany Prather, Office of Environmental Quality and Transboundary Issues, U.S. Department of State, by electronic mail at
Tiffany Prather, Telephone (202) 647-4548 or email
The MOI was signed on June 13, 2003. Section 3 of the MOI calls for biennial meetings to review the status of environmental cooperation and update the POA, as appropriate.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of Transportation (DOT) invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an information collection. The collection involves two reports in which DOT will use the data to measure program achievement to determine whether the intention of the program to assist small businesses getting the developmental tools required to compete and perform in DOT and federal procurement programs is achieved. In addition, DOT is seeking comments on form OST F 5020.1 (2-12), which we have updated with two additional questions about number of employees and amount of federal contracts.
Written comments should be submitted by on or before March 19, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. DOT-OST-2017-0179, through one of the following methods:
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Leonardo San Román, Mentor Protégé Program, U.S. Department of Transportation, Office of Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, (202) 366-1930.
The U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) administers a Mentor-Protégé program that encourages agreements between large and small business prime contractors and eligible small business protégés.
A small business concern includes small disadvantaged businesses, 8(a) firms, women owned businesses, HUBZone small businesses, veteran-owned-businesses and service disabled veteran-owned small businesses. The program is also designed to improve the performance of DOT contractors and subcontractors, foster the establishment of long-term business relationships between small businesses and prime contractors, and increase the overall number of small businesses that receive DOT contract and subcontract awards.
Mentor Protégé program participants must submit an annual report to
In accordance with Public Law 95-507, an amendment to the Small Business Act and the Small Business Investment Act of 1953, OSDBU is responsible for the implementation and execution of the U. S. Department of Transportation (DOT) activities on behalf of small businesses, in accordance with Section 8, 15 and 31 of the Small Business Act (SBA), as amended. The Office of Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization also administers the provisions of Title 49, of the United States Code, Section 332, the Minority Resource Center (MRC) which includes the design and carry out programs to encourage, promote, and assist minority entrepreneurs and businesses in getting contracts, subcontracts, and projects related to those business opportunities.
The Department of Transportation (DOT) administers a Mentor Protégé Program to assist small business concerns enhance their capacity to compete for federal contracts. This program designed to motivate and encourage large business and prime contractor firms to provide mutually beneficial developmental assistance to small businesses.
DOT's Mentor-Protégé Program enhances the capability of minority and small business owners to compete more successfully for federal procurement opportunities. The program encourages private-sector relationships and expands DOT's efforts to identify and respond to the developmental needs of small and minority owned businesses.
The term small business includes small disadvantaged businesses, women owned businesses, HUBZone small businesses, veteran-owned-businesses and service disabled veteran-owned small businesses. The program is also designed to improve the performance of DOT contractors and subcontractors, foster the establishment of long-term business relationships between small businesses and prime contractors, and increase the overall number of small businesses that receive DOT contract and subcontract awards.
1. Eligible business prime contractors (not under a suspension or debarment action and not in the Excluded Parties List System (ELPS) database) approved as mentor firms may enter into agreements with eligible protégés. Mentors provide appropriate developmental assistance to enhance the capabilities of protégés to perform as contractors and/or subcontractors.
2. Eligible small business prime contractors (not under a suspension or debarment action and not in the ELPS database) capable of providing developmental assistance may act as mentors.
3. Protégés may participate in the program in pursuit of a prime contract or as subcontractors under the mentor's prime contract with the Department of Transportation.
4. Mentors and Protégés are solely responsible for finding their counterpart. Therefore, we strongly encourage firms to explore existing business relationships to establish a Mentor-Protégé relationship.
5. Mentor-Protégé agreements should be for up to 36 months.
6. NON-AFFILIATION—a protégé will not be considered an affiliate of a mentor solely on the basis that the protégé has or will receive developmental assistance from the mentor under this program. For more information concerning size standards and affiliation, refer to FAR 19.101.
There are no costs involved for a firm to participate in DOT's Mentor-Protégé Program. DOT does not provide direct reimbursement to the mentors.
The overall success of the Mentor-Protégé Program will be measured by the extent to which it results in:
a. An increase in the quality of the technical capabilities of the protégé firms.
b. An increase in the number, dollar value and percentage of contracts or subcontracts awarded to protégés since the date of entry into the program.
c. An increase in the number of full time employees since the date of entry into the program.
Annual reports should be submitted by the mentor and protégé firms to the OSDBU on program progress. Only one report per agreement will be submitted for review. The OSDBU will evaluate these reports by considering the following:
1. Detailed actions taken by the mentor, to increase the participation of protégé as seller to the Federal Government;
2. Detailed actions taken by the mentor, to develop the technical capabilities of a protégé as defined in the agreement;
3. The degree to which the protégé has met the developmental objectives in the agreement;
4. The degree to which the mentor firm's participation in the Mentor-Protégé Program resulted in the protégé receiving contract(s) and subcontract(s) from private firms, DOT or any other federal agency.
5. In addition to the annual report, mentor and protégé firms should submit an evaluation to the OSDBU after the mutually agreed upon program period, or the voluntary withdrawal by either party from the program, whichever comes first.
Eligibility. The mentor can be a business that has graduated from the 8(a) Business Development program, a firm in the transitional stage of the program, or a small or large business. In addition, the mentor must be able to show that it is currently eligible for Federal contracting opportunities, is not under a suspension or debarment action, and is not in the ELPS database. Mentors may have multiple protégés. Mentors participating in Mentor-Protégé programs from other Federal agencies should keep a record system to prepare separate reports of mentoring activities for each agency's program.
(1) Eligibility. A protégé should be:
(a) A Small Business (SB), HUBZone, Small Disadvantaged Business (SDB), Women Owned Small Business, Veteran Owned Small Business, or Service Disabled Veteran Owned Small Business
(b) Able to show that it is currently eligible for Federal contracting opportunities, is not under a suspension or debarment action, and is not in the Excluded Parties List System (ELPS) database.
(2) Protégés may have multiple mentors. Protégés participating in mentor-protégé programs in addition to the DOT program should maintain a system for preparing separate reports of mentoring activity for each agency's program.
Mentor and protégé firms are responsible for selecting their counterpart. The mentor is encouraged
Firms interested in becoming a mentor firm should submit copy of a signed mentor-protégé application for each mentor-protégé relationship DOT OSDBU for approval. This will provide OSDBU the opportunity to evaluate the nature and extent of technical and managerial support, and traditional subcontracting support involved in the mentor-protégé relationship, enabling OSDBU to provide advice and assistance to the parties.
The Mentor Protégé agreement should contain:
(1) Name, address, phone, and email of mentor and protégé firm(s) and a point of contact within both firms who will oversee the agreement;
(2) A description of the type of developmental program that will be provided by the mentor firm to the protégé firm, including a schedule for providing assistance, and criteria for evaluation of the protégé's developmental success;
(3) Program participation term not to exceed 36 months;
(4) A clause or statement of the protégé's intent and agreement to report its progress to the OSDBU annually for two (2) years after exiting the program;
(5) Other terms and conditions, as appropriate;
(6) Procedures for the mentor's voluntary withdrawal from the program including notification of the protégé firm and the OSDBU. The Mentor should provide at least 30 days' written notice to OSDBU before withdrawing from the program.
(7) OSDBU will review a Mentor Protégé agreement no later than 30 days after receipt.
(8) Following OSDBU review, the mentor may implement the developmental assistance program.
(1) The agreement defines the relationship between the mentor and protégé firms only. The agreement itself does not create any privity of contract between the mentor or protégé and DOT.
(2) OSDBU will review the information to ensure the mentor and protégé are both eligible for the program and provide appropriate advice and assistance to the firms concerning the agreement and its implementation.
(3) OSDBU will notify the parties if changes in the agreement are advisable in order to make the agreement meet the objectives of the mentor-protégé program. The mentor and protégé should incorporate OSDBU recommendations before implementing the agreement.
(4) Upon completion of the review, the mentor may implement the developmental assistance program.
The forms of developmental assistance a mentor can provide to a protégé include:
• Management, financial and/or technical assistance
• Overall business management/planning
• Cooperation on joint venture projects
• Rent-free use of facilities and/or equipment
• Temporary assignment of personnel to protégé for the purpose of training
• Any other types of mutually beneficial assistance
1. The OSDBU will oversee the program to achieve program objectives.
2. OSDBU will review and evaluate mentor-protégé agreements for practicality, and accuracy of provided information.
3. OSDBU can perform site visits where Mentor-Protégé activity is performed.
4. OSDBU will review annual reports to measure protégé progress against the established developmental assistance included in the approved agreement.
5. If OSDBU determines that the objectives of the agreement are not met, OSDBU may conclude the existing Mentor-Protégé agreements if it determines that such actions are in the best interest of the agency. The OSDBU will communicate this decision in writing, and will be sent to the mentor and protégé after approval by the Director, OSDBU or representative.
For additional information related to the Mentor Protégé program, visit OSDBU's website at
Departmental Offices; Department of the Treasury.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the revision of an information collection that is to be proposed for approval by the Office of Management and Budget. The Office of International Affairs of the Department of the Treasury is soliciting comments concerning Treasury International Capital Form SLT, Aggregate Holdings of Long-Term Securities by U.S. and Foreign Residents.
Written comments should be received on or before March 19, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Dwight Wolkow, International Portfolio Investment Data Systems, Department of the Treasury, Room 5422, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20220. In view of possible delays in mail delivery, please also notify Mr. Wolkow by email (
Copies of the proposed forms and instructions are available on the Treasury's TIC Forms web page,
(1) The section II.A “Who Must Report,” the section II.F “What Must Be Reported,” and the section II.G.1 “How to Report” of the instructions are updated to list out separately “certain private funds”, which are a subgroup of the class of financial entities defined by the Securities and Exchange Commission as private funds on Form PF: “any issuer that would be an investment company as defined in
(2) The section II.A “Who Must Report” of the instructions is updated to list out separately “principal trading firms” and ”fund administrators.”
(3) The section II.A “Who Must Report” and section II.B “Consolidation Rules” of the instructions are updated to list out separately Intermediate Holding Companies (IHCs), as defined by Regulation YY, 12 CFR 252, and to clarify that IHCs should follow the same consolidation rules that are applicable to Bank Holding Companies (BHCs), Financial Holding Companies (FHCs), and Savings and Loan Holding Companies. Regulation YY was effective by January 1, 2015, and IHCs are filing TIC reports; this update will formalize their reporting requirements.
(4) The section II.F.2 “What Must Be Reported” of the instructions is updated to clarify that, regarding securities involved in security lending agreements and repurchase/resale (reverse repurchase) agreements, sales of the underlying security collateral to other parties and the purchases of such securities from other parties, undertaken in order to return the security collateral to the lenders, must be reported.
(5) The section IV.C.1 columns 1 & 2 “Column by Column Instructions” of the instructions is updated to clarify that the stripped securities “teddy bears” (TBRs), “tigers” (TIGRs), “cats” (CATS) and “cougars” (COUGRs) should also be classified as U.S. Treasury securities.
(6) The section II.F.2 “What Must Be Reported” clarifies that long-term Treasury securities are
Bonds, Notes, TIPS, FRNs and Savings Bonds.
(7) Some other clarifications and format changes may be made to improve the instructions.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act the Health Services Research and Development Service Scientific Merit Review Board will conduct in-person and teleconference meetings of its eleven Health Services Research (HSR) subcommittees on the dates below from 8:00 a.m. to approximately 4:30 p.m. (unless otherwise listed) at the FHI 360, 1825 Connecticut Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20009 (unless otherwise listed):
• HSR 0—Community Care on March 13, 2018;
• HSR 1—Health Care and Clinical Management on March 13-14, 2018;
• HSR 2—Behavioral, Social, and Cultural Determinants of Health and Care on March 13-14, 2018;
• HSR 3—Healthcare Informatics on March 16, 2018;
• HSR 4—Mental and Behavioral Health on March 15-16, 2018;
• HSR 5—Health Care System Organization and Delivery on March 15-16, 2018;
• HSR 6—Post-acute and Long-term Care on March 14, 2018;
• MRA 0—Mentored Research on March 16, 2018;
• HSR 8—Implementation Research Project on March 13, 2018;
• HS8 A—Randomized Program Evaluations on March 13, 2018; and
• HSR 9—Learning Health Initiative on March 15, 2018.
The purpose of the Board is to review health services research and development applications involving: The measurement and evaluation of health care services; the testing of new methods of health care delivery and management; and mentored research. Applications are reviewed for scientific and technical merit, mission relevance, and the protection of human and animal subjects. Recommendations regarding funding are submitted to the Chief Research and Development Officer.
Each subcommittee meeting of the Board will be open to the public the first day for approximately one half-hour from 8:00 a.m. to 8:30 a.m. at the start of the meeting on March 13 (HSR 0, 1, 2, 8, and HS8A), March 14 (HSR 1, 2, 6), March 15 (HSR 4, 5, 9), and March 16 (HSR 3, 4, 5, and MRA 0) to cover administrative matters and to discuss the general status of the program. Members of the public who wish to attend the open portion of the subcommittee meetings may dial 1 (800) 767-1750, participant code 10443#.
The remaining portion of each subcommittee meeting will be closed for the discussion, examination, reference to, and oral review of the intramural research proposals and critiques. During the closed portion of each subcommittee meeting, discussion and recommendations will include qualifications of the personnel conducting the studies (the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy), as well as research information (the premature disclosure of which would likely compromise significantly the implementation of proposed agency action regarding such research projects). As provided by subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463, as amended by Public Law 94-409, closing the meeting is in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) and (9)(B).
No oral or written comments will be accepted from the public for either portion of the meetings. Those who plan to participate during the open portion of a subcommittee meeting should contact Ms. Liza Catucci, Administrative Officer, Department of Veterans Affairs, Health Services Research and Development Service (10P9H), 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, or by email at
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before February 16, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Office of Quality, Privacy and Risk (OQPR), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule would amend the National List of Allowed and Prohibited Substances (National List) provisions of the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA's) organic regulations to implement recommendations submitted to the Secretary of Agriculture (Secretary) by the National Organic Standards Board (NOSB). This rule proposes to change the use restrictions for seventeen substances allowed for organic production or handling on the National List: Micronutrients; chlorhexidine; parasiticides; fenbendazole; moxidectin; xylazine; lidocaine; procaine; methionine; excipients; alginic acid; flavors; carnauba wax; chlorine; cellulose; colors; and, glycerin. This rule also proposes to add sixteen new substances on the National List to be allowed in organic production or handling: Hypochlorous acid; magnesium oxide; squid byproducts; activated charcoal; calcium borogluconate; calcium propionate; injectable vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes; kaolin pectin; mineral oil; propylene glycol; acidified sodium chlorite; zinc sulfate; potassium lactate; and, sodium lactate. In addition, this proposed rule would list the botanical pesticide, rotenone, as a prohibited substance in organic crop production. Finally, this proposed rule would remove ivermectin as an allowed parasiticide for use in organic livestock production.
Comments must be received by March 19, 2018.
Interested persons may comment on the proposed rule using the following procedures:
•
•
Robert Pooler, Standards Division, National Organic Program. Telephone: (202) 720-3252.
On December 21, 2000, the Secretary published the National List of Allowed and Prohibited Substances in §§ 205.600 through 205.607 of the USDA organic regulations (7 CFR 205.1-205.690). This National List identifies the synthetic substances that may be used and the nonsynthetic (natural) substances that may not be used in organic production. The National List also identifies synthetic, nonsynthetic nonagricultural, and nonorganic agricultural substances that may be used in organic handling. The Organic Foods Production Act of 1990, as amended (7 U.S.C. 6501-522) (OFPA), and § 205.105 of the USDA organic regulations specifically prohibit the use of any synthetic substance in organic production and handling unless the synthetic substance is on the National List. Section 205.105 also requires that any nonorganic agricultural and any nonsynthetic nonagricultural substance used in organic handling be on the National List. Under the authority of OFPA, the National List can be amended by the Secretary based on recommendations presented by the NOSB. Since the final rule establishing the National Organic Program (NOP) became effective on October 21, 2002, AMS has published multiple rules amending the National List.
This proposed rule would amend the National List to implement 29 NOSB recommendations on 35 amendments to the National List that were submitted to the Secretary on November 17, 2000, September 19, 2002, May 6, 2009, November 5, 2009, October 28, 2010, December 2, 2011, March 20, 2012, October 16, 2012, May 2, 2014, April 30, 2015, October 29, 2015, April 26, 2016, and November 18, 2016.
Table 1 summarizes the NOSB recommendations on adding substances to the National List or amending currently listed substances that are included in this proposed rule.
Each substance included in Table 1 is addressed in the Overview of Proposed Amendments. Substances recommended by the NOSB between November 2000 and April 2015 are described in more detail because less petition and technical information is available in NOP's petitioned substance database.
The following provides an overview of the proposed amendments to designated sections of the National List regulations:
This proposed rule would add three new substances, and amend one substance currently on the National List in § 205.601, Synthetic substances allowed for use in organic crop production.
The proposed rule would amend the National List to add hypochlorous acid as a chlorine material for use as a disinfectant and sanitizer in §§ 205.601, 205.603, and 205.605. Table 2 illustrates the proposed listing.
On May 29, 2015, AMS received a petition to add hypochlorous acid to the National List in §§ 205.601 and 205.605, for use as an antimicrobial/sanitizer on equipment and raw agricultural products in organic crop production and handling.
On September 11, 2015, AMS published NOP Policy Memorandum PM 15-4, Electrolyzed Water.
At its April 25-27, 2016, public meeting, the NOSB considered the petition to add hypochlorous acid to the National List for uses in organic production and organic handling and received public comment on these allowances. During its review, the NOSB also considered a technical evaluation report on hypochlorous acid
In consideration of the petition, technical report, and public comments, the NOSB determined that the use of hypochlorous acid generated from electrolyzed water as a disinfectant and sanitizer satisfies OFPA evaluation criteria for National List substances and recommended adding hypochlorous acid to the existing listings for chlorine materials in § 205.601(a) as an algicide, disinfectant, and sanitizer, including irrigation cleaning systems in organic crop production; § 205.603(a) for use as a disinfectant, sanitizer, and medical treatment in organic livestock production; and § 205.605(b) as a disinfectant and sanitizer in organic handling. The NOSB included the annotation “generated from electrolyzed water” to clarify that the source of hypochlorous acid allowed for use in organic production or handling must be production from electrolyzed water.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend the listings for Chlorine materials in § 205.601(a)(2), § 205.603(a), and § 205.605(b) to add hypochlorous acid—generated from electrolyzed water.
This proposed rule would add magnesium oxide to § 205.601(j) as an allowed substance to control the viscosity of a clay suspension agent for humates. In consideration of the petition, technical report, and public comments, the NOSB determined that this use of magnesium oxide satisfies the OFPA evaluation criteria for National List substances. Table 3 illustrates the proposed listing.
Magnesium oxide (CAS Number 1309-48-4) is a white, free flowing, odorless powder. The technical report for magnesium hydroxide
On January 3, 2013, AMS received a petition to add magnesium oxide to the National List in § 205.601. The petition states that the substance is “intended to be used in combination with other organic inputs applied as a liquid foliar on a wide variety of different agricultural, vegetable, fruit and horticultural crops.” According to the petition, small quantities of magnesium oxide would be used during the processing of attapulgite clay to control its viscosity when the clay is used as a suspension agent for finely ground humates. As stated in the petition, the rate of magnesium oxide use per the manufacturer's recommended rate would be 0.074 percent of the diluted humate product applied, or approximately 0.0007-0.0014 pounds of magnesium oxide per acre, which is a very low application rate.
At its May 2, 2014, public meeting, the NOSB considered the petition to add magnesium oxide to the National List in § 205.601. At this meeting, the NOSB considered magnesium oxide against the evaluation criteria stipulated in OFPA § 2119(m). After review of the petition, technical report, and public comments, the NOSB determined that magnesium oxide satisfies the evaluation criteria and recommended magnesium oxide as a soil amendment for use in organic crop production.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend § 205.601(j) by adding: Magnesium oxide—for use only to control the viscosity of a clay suspension agent for humates.
This proposed rule would amend the current listing on micronutrients in § 205.601(j) as an allowed plant or soil amendment material for use in organic crop production. This proposed rule would change the listing for micronutrients to remove soil testing as the required method for demonstrating a soil micronutrient deficiency. Table 4 illustrates the proposed listing.
In April 2015, the NOSB initiated a change to the existing listing for micronutrients in § 205.601(j) based on public comments
During a public meeting on October 26-29, 2015, the NOSB considered an amendment to the micronutrients listing to remove the requirement for testing as the only method for documenting a soil micronutrient deficiency. In consideration of public comments, the NOSB determined that requiring soil testing for micronutrients was outdated and that other means of assessing micronutrient deficiencies in soil are acceptable.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend § 205.601(j) Micronutrients, by removing soil testing as the only way to document a deficiency and stating that a deficiency must be documented.
This proposed rule would add squid byproducts to § 205.601(j) as an allowed substance for use in organic crop production. Table 5 illustrates the proposed listing.
In April 2015, AMS received a petition to add “squid and squid byproducts” to the National List under the listing for liquid fish products allowed as plant or soil amendments in organic crop production, § 205.601(j)(7). Squid byproducts are used as starting ingredients in the production of enzymatically produced hydrolysates which are used as foliar sprays and soil amendments for propagating crops such as cranberries, cherries and apples. Squid byproduct hydrolysates are similar in composition to fish emulsions and can be used as a fertilizer that provides organic matter to the soil.
At the April 25-27, 2016 NOSB meeting, the Board reviewed the petition, public comments, and information in a technical report on squid and squid byproducts. The NOSB explained that squid byproducts are stabilized with acid to lower the pH, and that this practice is consistent with the existing listing for liquid fish products that are stabilized with synthetic sulfuric, citric, or phosphoric acid. The NOSB also stated that only squid byproducts from the food waste processing stream are acceptable; fertilizer from whole squid would not be acceptable.
Based on the petition, technical report, and public comments, the NOSB determined that squid byproducts meet the OFPA evaluation criteria for National List substances. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would add amend § 205.601(j)(7) of the National List to list squid byproducts as an allowed plant or soil amendment that can be pH adjusted with sulfuric, citric, or phosphoric acid. The amount of acid used shall not exceed the minimum needed to lower the pH to 3.5. AMS also accepts the source parameters specified by the NOSB,
This proposed rule would add rotenone to paragraph (j) of § 205.602 and prohibit its use in organic crop production. Nonsynthetic substances are allowed in organic crop production except for those specifically listed as prohibited in § 205.602.
This proposed rule would add rotenone to § 205.602 and prohibit its use in organic crop production, as recommended by the NOSB in 2012. Table 6 illustrates the proposed changes to this section.
Rotenone (CAS Number 83-79-4) is a substance that is extracted from various plant species such as Hoary pea (
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) cancelled the registration of rotenone for use on food commodities within the U.S. on March 23, 2011. Aligning with EPA's regulation of rotenone, AMS is adding rotenone to the list of prohibited nonsynthetic materials in § 205.602, and organic producers both within and outside of the U.S.
The NOSB considered rotenone and other botanical pesticides at its meeting on October 14, 1994, and determined that rotenone should not be prohibited. The USDA agreed and did not prohibit rotenone or other botanical pesticides to control plant diseases, but did require producers to use management practices to prevent crop pests, weeds, and diseases before using botanical pesticides, as specified in the USDA organic regulations at § 205.206.
In August 2012, the NOSB revisited the allowance for rotenone in organic production. After reviewing technical documents and considering public comment, the NOSB recommended to prohibit rotenone, citing adverse environmental and health impacts, lack of essentiality, and incompatibility with organic principles. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, this proposed rule would amend § 205.602 of the National List by adding rotenone as a prohibited nonsynthetic substance in organic crop production.
The proposed rule would add the following substances to the National List in paragraph § 205.603(a) for use in organic livestock production: Activated charcoal, calcium borogluconate, calcium propionate, hypochlorous acid, kaolin pectin, mineral oil, nutritive supplements—injectable vitamins, trace minerals and electrolytes, propylene glycol, acidified sodium chlorite, and zinc sulfate. The proposed rule would also add acidified sodium chlorite to § 205.603(b). This proposed rule would also amend the allowances for the following substances currently allowed in organic livestock production: Chlorhexidine, parasiticides, fenbendazole, moxidectin, and xylazine, § 205.603(a); lidocaine and procaine, § 205.603(b); methionine, § 205.603(d); and excipients, § 205.603(f). In addition, this proposed rule would remove ivermectin, § 205.603(a).
This proposed rule would add activated charcoal to § 205.603(a) for use in organic livestock production. In consideration of the petition and public comments from livestock producers and animal health experts, the NOSB determined that activated charcoal should be allowed for use in organic livestock production. Synthetic forms of activated charcoal would continue to be prohibited. Table 7 illustrates the proposed listing.
Activated charcoal is manufactured from a physical activation process using high temperature and hot gases on raw materials such as coconut shells, various hardwoods, or bone. It can also be derived from coal or petroleum. The resulting product is a carbon based substance with small pore size and large surface area for adsorption or chemical reaction.
While this basic process provides sufficient activation capability, the use of a strong acid or strong base, such as phosphoric acid or potassium hydroxide, enhances the activation process and adsorption properties. Chemical activation with a strong chemical acid or base is the preferred activated charcoal manufacturing process since lower temperatures and less time are needed to create the final product. Activated charcoal is distinguished from elemental carbon by the removal of non-carbon impurities and oxidation of the carbon surface.
Activated charcoal is considered to be an adsorbent. Administered orally, activated charcoal chemically interacts with toxins in the intestines and prevents systemic absorption of the toxin into the blood. These bound toxins pass through the intestine to be excreted in the animal's manure. Under 21 CFR 310.545(a)(8), activated charcoal is approved as an ingredient in digestive aid drug products for humans.
This proposed rule would implement a 2002 NOSB recommendation to add activated charcoal (CAS # 7440-44-0) with the annotation “must be from vegetative sources” to § 205.603(a) of the National List.
The petition to add activated charcoal to the National List states that this material is a high-priority livestock medication and is commonly used as a therapeutic treatment on an as-needed basis with mammalian livestock, particularly in cases of suspected ingestion of toxic plants and control of diarrhea caused by moldy silage. This information was also supported in public comments to the NOSB from organic livestock producers and veterinarians. The petition also states that there are no comparable nonsynthetic substances that provide a comparable therapeutic benefit nor practices to prevent the occasional ingestion of toxins that warrant treatment.
The NOSB recommendation to add activated charcoal specifies that only vegetative sources of this material would be permitted. The NOSB determined that activated charcoal derived from bone charcoal or lampblack (a by-product from incomplete burning of oil, tar, natural gas, or fat) is not consistent with organic farming and handing, as described in the OFPA substance evaluation criteria. The NOSB also noted that activated charcoal, when used as a toxin binder, is safe, effective, and difficult to overdose.
AMS has reviewed and proposed to address the NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to add activated charcoal to the National List at § 205.603(a) with the following annotation: must be from vegetative sources. Only activated charcoal from vegetative sources would be permitted.
This proposed rule would add calcium borogluconate to § 205.603(a) of the National List for use in organic livestock production. Specifically, calcium borogluconate would be allowed only for the treatment of milk fever. Table 8 illustrates the proposed listing.
Calcium borogluconate, a D-gluconic acid, cyclic 4,5-ester with boric acid, is a stable, nonhazardous white powder derived from the reaction of five parts calcium gluconate to one part boric acid in an aqueous solution. Calcium borogluconate has been used for treatment of hypocalcemia (milk fever or parturient paresis) in cattle, sheep, and goats. Hypocalcemia, or milk fever, is a disease—observed mostly in high producing dairy cows—that can be induced by low blood calcium levels occurring just before birth or in early lactation just after birth, when demand for calcium for milk production exceeds the animal's ability to mobilize calcium reserves. Low blood calcium levels can inhibit muscle function causing general weakness, loss of appetite, and eventually heart failure. The condition is more frequent in high producing dairy cows that are five or more years old in age. Mature animals may have reduced ability to mobilize calcium from bone. Certain breeds, such as Jersey cattle, may be more susceptible to milk fever.
When used to treat milk fever, calcium borogluconate is administered intravenously, intramuscularly, or subcutaneously, and has no established required withdrawal time. The calcium borogluconate technical report
This proposed rule would implement a November 2000 NOSB recommendation to add calcium borogluconate (CAS # 5743-34-0) to § 205.603 of the National List. At its public meeting the NOSB determined that calcium borogluconate should be added to § 205.603(a) as a medical treatment in organic livestock production for treatment of milk fever. Comments indicated that organic livestock producers use calcium borogluconate as directed by veterinarians. During the meeting, the NOSB discussed that calcium borogluconate would be used rarely, and only in emergency situations.
In formulating its recommendation, the NOSB determined that calcium borogluconate should be allowed for use in organic ruminants when production practices fail to prevent milk fever. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendations through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to add calcium borogluconate to § 205.603(a) with the following annotation: for treatment of milk fever only.
This proposed rule would add calcium propionate to the National List at § 205.603(a) for use in organic livestock production. Specifically, this substance would be allowed only as a treatment for milk fever. Table 9 provides the proposed listing.
Calcium propionate, also known as calcium propanoate, is a white crystalline water soluble powder manufactured from combining calcium hydroxide and propionic acid. Calcium propionate is a direct food additive affirmed as generally recognized as safe (GRAS) (21 CFR 184.1221) for human food and is primarily used as a preservative in bakery products. It is also allowed as a preservative for hay and silage in nonorganic livestock production agriculture (21 CFR 582.3221).
In 2002, AMS received a petition
This proposed rule would implement a September 2002 NOSB recommendation to add calcium propionate (CAS # 4075-81-4) to § 205.603 of the National List. At this meeting, the NOSB recommended that calcium propionate be allowed only for the treatment of milk fever. The NOSB recognized that calcium propionate would not be used routinely, but only as an emergency treatment for milk fever. Public comments informed that organic livestock producers use this substance as directed by veterinarians.
During its 2003 public meeting, the NOSB also considered allowing calcium propionate to also be used as a mold inhibitor for aloe pellets, but the NOSB did not include this use in its final recommendation. The technical report on calcium propionate indicates the substance has been used as a feed preservative in nonorganic hay crops. During deliberation, the NOSB crops subcommittee did not propose to allow the use of calcium propionate as a feed preservative, or propose allowing the general use of calcium propionate as a feed additive. As a result, the final NOSB recommendation included the use of calcium propionate for use in organic livestock for the treatment of milk fever only.
The NOSB also determined that the limited use of calcium propionate in organic livestock production in this manner meets the OFPA substance evaluation criteria for organic production. In formulating its recommendation, the NOSB determined that calcium propionate can be used in organic livestock production when
This proposed rule would amend the allowance for chlorhexidine in § 205.603(a). The amendment—as recommended by the NOSB and public comment—will improve organic livestock producers' ability to establish and maintain preventive livestock health care practices. Table 10 illustrates the changes between the current rule and the proposed rule.
Chlorhexidine is a white to pale yellow, odorless powder. It is only slightly soluble in water and in most organic solvents. Chlorhexidine is manufactured by a two-step process beginning with sodium dicyanamide reacting with hexamethylene diamine to form hexamethylene-biscyanoguanidine (HMBCG). Subsequently, HMBCG is reacted with p-chloroaniline to yield the chlorhexidine base used in applications. In animals, chlorhexidine is used as a topical disinfectant, for wound healing, and for managing skin infection in dogs. Chlorhexidine is also used as a germicidal compound in teat dips for dairy production and as an umbilical cord treatment, udder and eye wash, and surgical scrub and sterilization material. Chlorhexidine's bactericidal effect is due to its binding with the bacterial cell wall or, when chlorhexidine concentrations are higher, inducing bacterial cell membrane disruption.
This proposed rule would implement a 2009 NOSB recommendation to amend the allowance for chlorhexidine as listed in § 205.603(a) of the National List. Chlorhexidine is allowed for use in two applications: (1) For surgical procedures in organic livestock as performed by a licensed veterinarian, and (2) as a teat dip when alternative germicidal agents and/or physical barriers have lost their effectiveness.
In October 1999, the NOSB originally recommended chlorhexidine for addition to the National List for medical procedures conducted under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Chlorhexidine was added to the National List that was published in the final rule establishing the NOP (The allowance for chlorhexidine has been renewed via the sunset process in 2007 (October 21, 2007 (72 FR 58469)) and 2012 (June 21, 2012 (77 FR 33290)).
The 2009 NOSB chlorhexidine recommendation
See discussion above under § 205.601 Synthetic substances allowed for use in organic crop production.
This proposed rule would add kaolin pectin to § 205.603(a) of the National List for use as an adsorbent, antidiarrheal, and gut protectant in organic livestock production. Table 11 provides the proposed listing.
Kaolin pectin is a combination of kaolin clay and pectin. Kaolin clay is geologically formed and can be either a white, light yellow, light gray, or light brown powder composed of silica, alumina, and water. Kaolin is listed under 21 CFR 186.1256 as an indirect food substance affirmed as GRAS for human food and is used mostly as a gelling or thickening agent or stabilizer. Pectin is present in plant cell walls and consists of a polymer of galacturonic acid often disrupted by short branches of neutral sugars. Pectin is produced commercially as a white to light brown powder, produced mostly from hot dilute acid extraction of fruit juice production byproducts. Pectin is used in foods as an emulsifier or as a stabilizer and is listed as GRAS under 21 CFR 184.1588 for human food. Pectin molecules vary in the degree of methoxylation, either high (above 50 percent) or low (less than 50 percent) where the degree of methoxylation determines the gelling properties of the pectin.
This proposed rule would implement a September 2002 NOSB recommendation to add kaolin pectin to § 205.603 of the National List for use as an adsorbent, antidiarrheal, and gut protectant in organic livestock production. The NOSB indicated that kaolin pectin should not be used routinely as a preventive practice but only when organic practices fail to treat gastrointestinal irritants or diarrhea. The NOSB determined that synthetic forms of pectin were compatible with organic livestock production and could be used in formulations to produce kaolin pectin.
The NOSB has determined that the use of kaolin pectin in organic livestock production in this manner meets the requirements of the OFPA material evaluation criteria for organic production. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to add kaolin pectin to section § 205.603(a) with the following annotation: For use as an adsorbent, antidiarrheal, and gut protectant.
This proposed rule would add mineral oil to the National List for use in organic livestock production for relief of intestinal impaction. The NOSB recommended that this substance be included in paragraph (a) of § 205.603 as a medical treatment in livestock production. Table 12 provides the proposed listing.
Mineral oil, also known as white oil, liquid paraffin, pariffinum liquidum, and liquid petroleum, is colorless, insoluble in water, and odorless. It is a complex mixture of straight and branched chain aromatic hydrocarbons, such as paraffinic, and naphthenic oils, and is derived mostly from petroleum distillate.
Applications for mineral oil include use as a lubricant (both mechanical and biological), in veterinary treatments, cosmetic products, pharmaceutical preparation (processing aids, intestinal lubricants), food preparation (release agents, binders, defoamers, protective coatings), and as an ingredient in animal feed products.
Mineral oil is permitted as described at 21 CFR 172.878 for direct addition to food for human consumption. When administered orally, mineral oil absorption from the intestine is limited.
This proposed rule would implement a September 2002 NOSB recommendation to add mineral oil to section § 205.603 of the National List for use in organic livestock production. During the September 2002 meeting, the NOSB considered allowing mineral oil to be used as a medical treatment for bloat (rumen-reticulum overdistention) and as a medical treatment of omasal impaction.
The NOSB has determined that the use of mineral oil in organic livestock production for the proposed use meets the requirements of the OFPA material evaluation criteria for organic production. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to add mineral oil to § 205.603(a) with the following annotation: For treatment of intestinal impaction, prohibited for use as a dust suppressant.
This proposed rule would also add injectable vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes to § 205.603(a) of the National List for use in organic livestock production. Currently, these substances are allowed to be provided only orally as feed additives (vitamins and minerals per § 205.603(d)) or medical treatments (electrolytes without antibiotics per § 205.603(a)). Table 13 illustrates the proposed listings.
Vitamins and trace minerals were added to the National List as feed additives, and electrolytes were added to the National List as a medical treatment when the NOP final rule became effective on October 21, 2002.
This proposed rule would implement a 2009 NOSB recommendation to add formulated (
Both vitamins and trace minerals were included in § 205.603(d) in the USDA organic regulations (65 FR 13512, December 21, 2000), which became effective on October 21, 2002. Since this original listing, both vitamins and trace minerals were renewed under the 2007 and 2012 sunset review processes as recommended by the NOSB. These recommendations were accepted by the Secretary and processed through final rulemaking effective October 21, 2007 (72 FR 58469) and June 21, 2012 (77 FR 33290).
Electrolytes were included in § 205.603(a) in the original National List in the final rule (65 FR 13512, December 21, 2000), which became effective on October 21, 2002. Since this original listing, electrolytes have been renewed under the 2007 and 2012 sunset review process as recommended by the NOSB. These recommendations were accepted by the Secretary and processed through final rulemaking effective October 21, 2007 (72 FR 58469) and June 21, 2012 (77 FR 33290).
At its May 6, 2009, meeting, the NOSB issued a recommendation to the Secretary to add injectable vitamins, trace minerals and electrolytes to the National. In formulating this recommendation, the NOSB determined that allowing injectable forms of these substances would provide organic livestock producers with the use of injectable vitamins, trace minerals, and electrolytes as nutritive supplements, on an as-needed basis.
This proposed rule would require that injectable vitamins, minerals or electrolytes only be administered or ordered by a licensed veterinarian. Livestock producers would need to keep records that document the need for any use of these materials. Further, producers and certifying agents would need to review the specific formulations intended for use on organic livestock to ensure they comply with the USDA organic regulations.
The NOSB stated in its recommendation that this allowance would provide organic producers with more opportunity to enhance the overall welfare of certified organic livestock. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. AMS is proposing to add injectable vitamins, minerals and electrolytes to § 205.603(a) of the National List with the following annotation: formulated injectable supplements of trace minerals per 205.603(d)(2), vitamins per 205.603(d)(3), and electrolytes per 205.603(a)(8), with excipients per 205.603(f), in accordance with FDA and restricted to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
This proposed rule would amend the National List to revise the listing for parasiticides (§ 205.603(a)(17)) and the listings for fenbandazole (§ 205.603(a)(17)(i)) and moxidectin (§ 205.603(a)(17)(iii)). This rule also proposes to amend the livestock health care practice standard in § 205.238(b) to allow the use of parasiticides in organic fiber-bearing animals. Table 14 illustrates the proposed listings.
The USDA organic regulations specify conditions under which parasiticides may be used in organic livestock production (§ 205.238(b)) and identify which parasiticides are allowed (§ 205.603(a)(17)). These conditions include: (1) Emergency treatment for dairy and breeder stock only when preventive measures have failed; (2) a 90-day withdrawal period before milk or milk products from treated animals can be sold as organic; and (3) a prohibition on use in breeder stock during the last third of gestation or during lactation if progeny will be sold as organic. Organic livestock producers are required to use preventive practices as described in § 205.238 before using any parasiticide included on the National List. However, animals in need of medical attention cannot be left untreated in order to retain organic status (§ 205.238(c)(7)).
In April 2016, the NOSB considered amendments to the use restrictions for parasiticides allowed in organic production based on updated information. The NOSB recommended: (1) Removing the 90-day withholding time for milk and milk products and specifying withholding times in the listings for specific parasiticides; and (2) permitting fiber-bearing organic animals to be treated with allowed parasiticides, provided there is a 90-day interval from treatment to harvest of fleece or wool to be sold as organic.
The NOSB determined that these modifications would benefit sick animals in emergency situations without impacting the organic integrity of the products. Public comment received by the NOSB requested that the USDA organic regulations allow for animal skin and fleece treated with parasiticides to be sold as organic. The NOSB determined that parasiticide use in fiber-bearing animals should be allowed in organic production if necessary.
In April 2016, the NOSB also considered modifications to the use restrictions for two allowed parasiticides, fenbendazole, and moxidectin. The USDA organic regulations permit the use of fenbendazole only when there is a written order of a licensed veterinarian. The NOSB recommended removing the requirement for the written order of a licensed veterinarian and reducing the 90-day withdrawal period for milk or milk products that will be sold as organic to 2 days for cattle and 36 days for goats, sheep and other dairy species.
The USDA organic regulations permit the use of moxidectin only to control internal parasites and require a 90-day withdrawal period for milk and milk products after use. The NOSB recommended removing that restriction and reducing the 90-day withdrawal time for milk or milk products that will be sold as organic to 2 days for cattle and 36 days for goats, sheep and other dairy species.
In addition, the NOSB recommended allowing the use of parasiticides in organic fiber-bearing animals.
At its April 25-27, 2016 meeting, the NOSB received public comment on the proposals to amend the allowances for parasiticides generally in addition to the allowances for fenbendazole and moxidectin. Based on updated technical reports on parasiticides and public comments, the NOSB recommended the above amendments to the use parameters for parasiticides in organic livestock production.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address these NOSB recommendations on parasiticides as a category, fenbendazole, and moxidectin through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendations, this proposed rule would amend § 205.238(b) and § 205.603(a)(17) as follows:
• § 205.238(b)(2) will be amended by replacing the 90-day withholding time for milk and milk products with a cross-reference to withholding times specified in § 205.603. In addition, the term “stock” will be replaced with “animal.”
• § 205.238(b) will be amended to add an allowance for parasiticide use in fiber-bearing animals.
• The 90-day withholding time described in § 205.603(a)(17) for milk and milk products following treatment with allowed parasiticides will be deleted.
• The listing for parasiticides in § 205.603(a)(17) will be amended to allow for use in fiber bearing animals with a 90-day withdrawal time from treatment to harvest of wool or fleece.
• The annotation for fenbendazole in § 205.603(a)(17)(i) will be amended to delete the requirement for use by or on the lawful written order of a licensed veterinarian, and modified withholding times for milk and milk products will be added.
• The annotation for moxidectin in § 205.603(a)(17)(iii) will be amended to delete the requirement for use by or on the lawful written order of a licensed veterinarian, and modified withholding times for milk and milk products will be added.
This proposed rule would remove ivermectin from § 205.603(a) as an allowed parasiticide for use in organic livestock production. Table 15 illustrates the proposed listing.
Ivermectin has been on the National List since October 21, 2002. On June 26, 2016, AMS received a petition to remove ivermectin
At its November 16-18, 2016, meeting in St. Louis, Missouri, the NOSB reviewed the petition information, parasiticide technical report, and public comments. The NOSB recommended removing ivermectin from § 205.603(a) of the National List.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. The removal of ivermectin would leave organic livestock producers with two parasiticides for emergency treatment, fenbendazole and moxidectin. Based on public comments during the NOSB deliberations on parasiticides, AMS understands that there is support among organic livestock producers to remove ivermectin if AMS concurrently removes the requirement for a veterinarian's order to administer fenbendazole. As discussed above, this action proposes to remove that requirement and to reduce the withdrawal times following the use of fenbendazole or moxidectin. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend § 205.603(a)(17) by removing Ivermectin (CAS #70288-86-7).
This proposed rule would add propylene glycol to § 205.603(a) of the National List for use in organic livestock production. The NOSB originally recommended that this substance be included in paragraph (a) of § 205.603 as a medical treatment in livestock production. Table 16 provides the proposed listing.
Propylene glycol is a viscous, colorless, nearly odorless, substance with a slightly sweet taste, and when mixed with water, it lowers the freezing point of water. Propylene glycol is chemically categorized as a diol (a compound containing two hydroxyl groups) and is miscible with many solvents, including water. It is stable substance under most conditions of use and storage, and it decomposes in water and soil within seven days.
Propylene glycol is noncorrosive, and has a low volatility and low toxicity level, although toxicity varies with animal species as cats show more toxic susceptibility to propylene glycol compared to other animals.
Propylene glycol can be manufactured from a variety of sources and procedures. Food-grade propylene glycol is produced from propylene oxide using either a non-catalytic high temperature process or a lower temperature catalytic process. Propylene glycol can also be manufactured from heating glycerol (biodiesel byproduct) with sodium hydroxide and distillation.
Propylene glycol is considered to be GRAS and is a direct food substance for human food listed at 21 CFR 184.1666. As a food additive, it is used as a humectant (moisture retention), solvent, and preservative. Propylene glycol is also used as a solvent in many pharmaceuticals in oral, topical, or injectable formulations, including those where the active ingredient is insoluble in water.
When present in surface water, propylene glycol can exert a high level of biochemical oxygen demand during degradation. This high demand could adversely affect aquatic species by consuming oxygen needed by aquatic organisms. Similarly, when microbial organisms decompose propylene glycol in surface water, significant amounts of dissolved oxygen are consumed. Low dissolved oxygen levels in surface water may reduce the amount of suitable aquatic habitat.
This proposed rule would implement a September 2002 NOSB recommendation to add propylene glycol (CAS # 57-55-6) to section 205.603(a) of the National List. At this public meeting the NOSB determined that propylene glycol should be added to § 205.603(a) as a medical treatment in organic livestock production. Propylene glycol was petitioned to the NOSB for addition onto the National List as a medical treatment for ketosis (elevated blood ketones) in ruminants. Primary ketosis (or acetonaemia) of dairy cows is a metabolic disorder. Ketosis or pregnancy toxaemia has been observed in beef cows near parturition. The NOSB recommended restricting the use of propylene glycol to treatment of acute ketosis in ruminants.
During early lactation, the energy intake from feed may be insufficient to meet the energy output in milk, causing the animal to go into negative energy balance. To satisfy the nutrient requirements of milk production, dairy cows may draw on two sources of nutrients, food intake and body reserves. When in negative energy balance, the cow will metabolize fat reserves for energy, producing ketones. When ketone production exceeds ketone use by muscle and other animal tissue, ketosis can occur. Ketosis is an important clinical and sub-clinical disease, as several metabolic disorders
The NOSB has determined that the proposed use of propylene glycol in organic livestock production fulfills the OFPA material evaluation criteria. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to add propylene glycol to § 205.603(a).
This proposed rule would add two listings for acidified sodium chlorite for use as a teat dip in organic livestock (dairy) production (§ 205.603(a) and § 205.603(b)). In 2015, the NOSB recommended an allowance for this substance as a pre- and post-milking teat dip treatment and cited supportive public comments from livestock producers and a lower environmental impact than other substances allowed for this use. Table 17 illustrates the proposed changes to this section.
Acidified sodium chlorite is produced from mixing an aqueous solution of sodium chlorite with a food grade acid, such as citric acid. Acidified sodium chlorite can also be produced by mixing any FDA GRAS acid with an aqueous solution of sodium chlorite. The FDA has approved acidified sodium chlorite solutions as antimicrobial agents with proscribed sodium chlorite concentrations and pH values for several food product applications.
Acidified sodium chloride is commonly used during livestock production as a standard practice for teat dips in order to prevent mastitis in dairy livestock. Mastitis is the inflammation of udder tissue resulting from bacterial infection. Teat dips are substances used in dairy livestock to control mastitis and reduce contamination of mastitis causing bacteria.
Mastitis can be controlled by practices such as ensuring adequate nutrition, practicing good hygiene pre- and post-milking, and culling chronically mastitis-infected cows. Livestock producers can also use mastitis prevention practices to decrease the incidence of transmission, such as ensuring that cows have clean, dry bedding and carrying out routine sanitation of milking machines between milkings. A mastitis prevention program usually includes applying a pre-milking and a post-milking teat dip. After milking, the teat canal may remain open for several minutes. A post-milking dip is used as a disinfectant and a barrier between the open teat and the bacteria in the air.
This proposed rule would implement an April 2015 NOSB recommendation to add acidified sodium chlorite to sections 205.603(a) and (b) of the National List
During the April 2015 public meeting, the NOSB reviewed the 2013 technical report
In summary, based on alignment with OFPA evaluation criteria for National List substances, supportive comments from livestock producers on the need for acidified sodium chlorite, and information regarding low environmental impacts, the NOSB recommended allowing acidified sodium chlorite for use as a teat dip. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to add acidified sodium chlorite to sections 205.603(a) and (b) of the National List with the following annotation: Allowed for use on organic livestock as a pre and post teat dip treatment.
This proposed rule would amend the current listing for xylazine in § 205.603(a) by removing the limitation on use of this substances to
Xylazine is synthesized by reacting 2,6-dimethylphenylisothiocyanate with 3-amino-1-propanol in a polar solvent (ether) to form a thiourea. Concentrated hydrochloric acid is added after the solvent is removed. Water is added to the cooled mixture which is then filtered, and the filtrate is made basic to form a precipitate that is recrystallized as xylazine.
Xylazine is used as a sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxant in veterinary medicine. As a medical treatment, it can be administered intravenously, intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or orally, usually as a water based injectable solution. Xylazine can also be found as a white crystalline powder. Xylazine sedative properties are due to its depressiant mode of action on nervous system synaptic receptors. Sedation of animals is necessary for both planned medical procedures and emergency procedures to prevent the pain and suffering of animals as well as injury to the veterinarians performing the procedures.
This proposed rule would implement a November 2009 NOSB recommendation to amend the allowance for xylazine as listed in § 205.603(a) of the National List.
The NOSB recommended adding xylazine to the National List in September 2002. Xylazine was petitioned for use as a sedative and analgesic during short surgical procedures. Xylazine was added to the National List in 2007, with the use conditions stated in Table 6.
During its initial xylazine deliberation, the NOSB considered limiting xylazine use to “once in a lifetime” applications. The NOSB's decision to recommend an allowance upon “the existence of an emergency” was the result of a compromise between two objectives, avoiding significant interference with a veterinarian's judgment and preventing routine use of xylazine. The NOSB described an emergency as an unplanned event requiring immediate medical attention. During its 2009 deliberation, the NOSB received information indicating that xylazine is used more frequently as a sedative for non-emergencies and less often for actual emergencies.
The NOSB has determined that the use of xylazine in organic livestock production for non-emergency medical procedures meets the requirements of the OFPA evaluation criteria for National List substances. AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to amend the current listing of xylazine in § 205.603 with the following annotation: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the lawful written or oral order of a licensed veterinarian, in full compliance with the AMDUCA and 21 CFR part 530 of the Food and Drug Administration regulations. Also, for use under 7 CFR part 205, the NOP requires: (i) Use by or on the lawful written order of a licensed veterinarian; and (ii) A meat withdrawal period of at least 8 days after administering to livestock intended for slaughter; and a milk discard period of at least four days after administering to dairy animals.
This proposed rule would add zinc sulfate to the National List for use in organic livestock production. Table 19 illustrates the changes between the current rule and the proposed rule.
Zinc sulfate is manufactured from mined zinc ore that is crushed and ground. The ground ore is heated to produce a zinc ash that is subsequently mixed with sulfuric acid. The zinc dissolves in the sulfuric acid to yield a zinc sulfate solution that is further processed to yield a zinc sulfate powder.
The 2015 zinc sulfate technical report
Zinc sulfate is allowed as a GRAS food additive for human food under FDA regulation 21 CFR 182.8997. Under the USDA organic regulations, zinc sulfate is on the National List as a synthetic trace mineral in organic livestock feed under § 205.603(d)(2).
As proposed, zinc sulfate would be used in a footbath for control of foot rot in livestock, primarily dairy cattle, sheep and goats. Foot rot, as the name indicates, is a disease that rots away the foot of the animal, specifically the area between the two toes of the affected animal. Foot rot is an infection of anaerobic bacteria that are common in the environments where cattle, sheep, and goats live. Temperature and moisture are factors in the transmission and invasion of these bacteria. More foot rot infections are likely with above average rainfall, elevated temperatures, and lush pasture growth. Infection may occur directly from the soil to the animals, usually though a lesion in the skin. If left untreated, foot rot can cause lameness in sheep, goats, and cattle and an infected animal can infect a whole herd.
Once foot rot is detected, the animal is usually isolated from the herd and treated with antibiotics, or antibacterial treatments such as iodine or zinc sulfate. Foot-bathing solutions with ethanol, copper sulfate, formalin, or zinc sulfate are used when a large number of animals requires treatment. Ethanol, copper sulfate, and iodine are on the National List in § 205.603, each with varying degrees of efficacy (therapeutic effect).
This proposed rule would implement an April 2015 NOSB recommendation to add zinc sulfate (CAS # 7733-02-0) to § 205.603 of the National List. At its public meeting, the NOSB determined that zinc sulfate should be allowed as a medical treatment (§ 205.603(a)) and as a topical treatment, local parasiticide, or local anesthetic (§ 205.603(b)) in organic livestock production, specifically for use in hoof and foot treatments only. As proposed, zinc sulfate would be used in a footbath for control of foot rot in livestock, primarily dairy cattle, sheep and goats.
In its recommendation, the NOSB indicated that copper sulfate and zinc sulfate are the two most accepted foot rot treatments, with similar efficacy. The NOSB considered that there are alternatives to zinc sulfate for foot rot treatment, but noted concerns about the efficacy of other materials and that some are not permitted for use in organic livestock. The NOSB determined that zinc sulfate provides organic livestock producers with an additional tool to treat foot disease, aids the welfare of the animals, and is preferable to the use of copper sulfate because of the buildup of potentially toxic persistent copper in the soil. The NOSB also noted that zinc has the potential to accumulate in soils, but persistence depends on several factors, and excess zinc can be reduced in soil by planting crops such as sunflower or canola.
At its April 2015 public meeting, the NOSB voted to expand the allowed use of zinc sulfate as a treatment for foot disease in livestock for the purpose of ensuring the welfare of animals. The NOSB determined that the availability of zinc sulfate as a foot treatment would reduce the use of copper sulfate for treatment of foot disease, which may contribute to lower copper build up in soils. The NOSB considers zinc sulfate to be a more benign substance when compared to copper sulfate. The NOSB has determined that the use of zinc sulfate in organic livestock production as a foot treatment meets the requirements of the OFPA material evaluation criteria for organic production. In formulating its recommendation, the NOSB determined that use of zinc sulfate in organic livestock production promotes animal welfare and is preferable to the use of copper sulfate.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Therefore, AMS is proposing to add zinc sulfate to § 205.603(a) with the following annotation: for use in hoof and foot treatments only.
This proposed rule would amend the current listing of lidocaine in § 205.603(b), Synthetic substances allowed for use in organic livestock production. Table 20 illustrates the proposed listing.
Lidocaine
Based on new information and public comments received during the 2015 sunset review, the NOSB determined that the withholding times should be reduced. The NOSB explained that lengthy withholding times could result in animals not being timely treated, or not treated at all. The NOSB also noted that in 2007 it agreed that withholding times should be double the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) withholding times.
During a public meeting on October 26-29, 2015, the NOSB reviewed public comments on the proposal to amend lidocaine and procaine on the National List.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address the NOSB recommendation on lidocaine and procaine through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, AMS proposes to amend section 205.603(b) of the National List to reduce the withholding periods for lidocaine and procaine from 90 days to 8 days for slaughter stock and from 7 days to 6 days for milk.
This proposed rule would amend the allowance for methionine in § 205.603(d) by requiring that maximum methionine levels in feed be calculated as averages over the lifespan of the birds rather than a constant percentage of the feed. The NOSB considered reports of methionine deficiency in some organic poultry flocks. Alternatives to synthetic methionine have yet to be developed for commercial use. In consideration of public comments, NOSB input, and technical reports, AMS proposes to continue to allow methionine in restricted amounts. The proposed amendment to the methionine annotation includes limits on the amount that may be used over the life of the flock, as well as breed-specific limits. Table 21 illustrates the changes proposed change for this substance.
Methionine is a sulfur containing amino acid that is a white solid or white crystalline powder, or may be in liquid form when produced as a hydroxyl analog. The 2011 methionine technical report developed for the NOSB states that methionine is soluble in water, methanol, alkali solutions, and mineral acids. Methionine is stable under normal temperature and pressure but is susceptible to strong oxidizing agents. Methionine can be produced or extracted from nonsynthetic sources or manufactured through a synthetic process. Nonsynthetic methionine is produced from microbial fermentation and extraction or by hydrolyzing protein. Amino acids can also be produced by bacterial fermentation. However, the technical report prepared for the NOSB in 2011 states that methionine yields from bacterial fermentation are low and not cost effective. According to a 2011 petition submitted to AMS, the most economical chemical method involves combining reagents acrolein, methyl mercaptan, hydrogen cyanide, and ammonia carbonate to yield an intermediary substance that is saponified with potassium carbonate, which results in high yields of methionine.
Methionine can be provided either as part of an intact protein or as an amino acid that is added to a poultry diet. As a single ingredient animal feed supplement, it is regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (21 CFR 582.5475). In the 2011 technical report, methionine is described as the first limiting amino acid for the synthesis of protein in poultry. It is considered to be an essential amino acid for poultry production because it is required for cell tissue growth and metabolism, but it cannot be synthesized by poultry and must be supplied in the diet.
To meet requirements for cell growth and function, poultry must obtain adequate methionine from agricultural feed ingredients or receive methionine to the ration through supplementation (addition). In the 2011 NOSB methionine technical report, poultry rations composed of corn and soybean meal may not provide adequate non-synthetic methionine to prevent deficiency symptoms.
To compensate for low methionine content in corn-soybean meal diets, poultry producers may use various production practices to meet methionine requirements. Such production practices include increasing intake of the existing diet (ration); increasing the protein content of a ration by either increasing soybean meal content or by adding other protein feed ingredients that contain higher
Young birds, especially those less than three weeks in age, may be physically unable to ingest the additional ration needed to meet minimum methionine levels required at that production stage. These few weeks can represent a significant portion of the production cycle where bird growth may be restricted, resulting in lower production or even increased bird death. When implemented, this practice may not provide adequate methionine to the birds during the early phase of the production cycle. For example, young broilers physically that are unable to increase feed intake for the initial three weeks out of seven weeks of production may not obtain adequate methionine during their production cycle and will have less growth. This practice may also result in reduced feed efficiency and an increase in feed costs. Conversely, increasing feed intake to meet methionine needs could also result in overfeeding of other nutrients and lead to subsequent livestock health problems.
An alternative to increasing feed intake is to increase the protein content of the diet by adding more soybean meal to the corn-soybean meal ration. Since animals consume feed to meet their energy requirements, adding additional protein may be more effective in meeting poultry methionine requirements when compared to only increasing feed intake. However, increasing protein content in a feed may result in excessive amino acids—the amino acids remaining after methionine is no longer available for protein synthesis—to be used in energy metabolism. When used as an energy source, amino acids are deaminated and the resulting nitrogen is excreted as uric acid. Continued feeding of a higher protein, low methionine ration may result in excessive nitrogen being excreted as uric acid and, subsequently, higher ammonia levels within the bird house.
Increasing methionine content in the diet can be achieved through the use of alternative protein feed sources that can be added to the standard soybean-corn poultry diet. Protein feed sources known to have a high methionine content include blood meal, meat meal, fish meal, crab meal, and corn gluten meal. Organic producers, however, have limited options to use these because of: (1) A lack of commercially available nonsynthetic or organic sources of methionine, such as organic corn gluten meal, and (2) the prohibition on feeding slaughter by-products derived from mammalian or avian sources (§ 205.237(b)(5)), which prohibits feeding blood meal or meat meal to organic poultry. Further, the use of fish meal and crab meal in poultry diets may be limited by the potential for off flavors in the poultry products, especially eggs. For this and other reasons, organic producers have petitioned the NOSB to allow the use synthetic sources of methionine for supplementation.
The NOSB has acknowledged that certain production practices support the need for synthetic methionine supplementation, but stated that methionine obtained from outdoor access or pasturing alone may not be adequate to offset the need for methionine supplementation. The NOSB also considered that the breed of bird can affect methionine needs.
This proposed rule would implement an April 2015 NOSB recommendation to amend the allowance for methionine as listed in § 205.603(d)(1) of the National List.
The NOSB also received comments from poultry producers indicating that the use of synthetic methionine is necessary because alternatives to synthetic methionine are not commercially available or are prohibited by § 205.237(b)(5), which states that the producer of an organic operation must not feed mammalian or poultry slaughter by-products to organic mammalian livestock or poultry.
In 2001, the NOSB recommended adding methionine to the National List as a feed supplement for use in organic poultry production. Methionine was added to § 205.603 of the National List on October 31, 2003, with the annotation “for use in organic poultry production until October 21, 2005 (68 FR 61987).” When the NOSB approved its 2001 recommendation to allow methionine, an expiration date was inserted into the annotation to indicate that synthetic methionine would be phased out when non-synthetic alternatives to synthetic methionine were developed and were commercially available. Based on multiple NOSB recommendations, AMS has amended section 205.603 of the National List to allow methionine as a synthetic substance for use in organic poultry production several times. A full description of the NOSB recommendations and rulemaking related to synthetic methionine for organic poultry through 2012 is available in a Final Rule, September 19, 2012 (77 FR 57985).
Between 2010 and 2012, AMS completed two rules that revised the allowance for synthetic methionine by specifying maximum levels as recommended by the NOSB.
• Allow synthetic methionine in organic poultry production until October 1, 2012, at the following maximum levels per ton of feed: Laying chickens—4 pounds; broiler chickens—5 pounds; and turkey and all other poultry—6 pounds. This recommendation was implemented through a final rule published on March 14, 2011 (76 FR 13501).
• After October 1, 2012, reduce the maximum levels of synthetic methionine allowed in organic poultry feed to: laying and broiler chickens—2 pounds; turkeys and all other poultry—3 pounds. This recommendation was implemented through a final rule
In 2011, a group of organic poultry producers resubmitted a petition to revise the maximum rates of synthetic methionine as averages per ton of feed over the life of the bird, rather than as a maximum quantity (pounds) per ton of feed.
At the April 2015 meeting, the NOSB considered how the current restriction on methionine, a constant maximum per ton of feed, was impacting organic poultry and described this in its recommendation. The recommendation explained that organic poultry producers have been feeding additional levels of protein to provide sufficient methionine because the maximum allowance is inadequate for certain growth stages. The excess amino acids from the protein are excreted in urine, which causes ammonia levels to rise indoors during winter. The elevated ammonia levels may cause blisters on birds' feet. The recommendation noted reports from producers of increased feather pecking, which is a symptom of a methionine deficiency. Feather pecking may lead to cannibalism, agitation, nervousness, and other harmful behaviors.
The NOSB reasoned that providing flexibility for producers to adjust methionine supplementation based on the nutritional needs of the birds at specific stages of production could have positive impacts on animal welfare. In effect, the NOSB predicted that overall methionine rates could be lower as supplementation levels would be matched with an average rate and not added at a maximum rate. Further, the NOSB explained that maintaining limitations on the use of synthetic methionine would preserve the incentive to develop viable nonsynthetic alternatives.
Therefore, AMS is proposing to amend the current listing of methionine in § 205.603 with the following annotation: DL- Methionine, DL- Methionine—hydroxy analog, and DL- Methionine—hydroxy analog calcium (CAS Numbers 59-51-8, 583-91-5, 4857-44-7, and 922-50-9)—for use only in organic poultry production at the following pounds of synthetic 100 percent methionine per ton of feed in the diet, averaged over the life of the flock: Laying chickens—2 pounds; Broiler chickens—2.5 pounds; Turkeys and all other poultry—3 pounds.
This proposed rule would further clarify the allowance for excipients in animal drugs to treat organic livestock by adding a provision that the excipient must be approved by the USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) for use in veterinary biologics. The proposed amendment, based on a 2009 NOSB recommendation, would minimize the variation in certifying agents' interpretation of excipients and ensure consistent enforcement. Table 22 illustrates the changes between the current and proposed rule.
Under the USDA organic regulations, excipients are defined at § 205.2 as “any ingredients that are intentionally added to livestock medications but do not exert therapeutic or diagnostic effects at the intended dosage, although they may act to improve product delivery (
Most animal medications are regulated under the Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act, as implemented by FDA. Biologics (
This proposed rule would implement a recommendation approved by the NOSB at its November 5, 2009 meeting to amend the allowance for excipients as listed in § 205.603(f) of the National List.
The allowance for excipients was added to the National List on December 12, 2007 (72 FR 70479). The NOSB renewed excipients under the 2012 Sunset review process (77 FR 33290, June 6, 2012). This listing specified criteria for excipients for use in organic livestock production. These criteria pertained to the regulatory status of the substances under FDA authority, but the existing listing for excipients does not include an allowance for excipients approved by APHIS for use in veterinary biologics.
Based on the consideration of National List petitions to allow the use of certain active ingredients in animal drugs, the NOSB observed that verifying the compliance status of excipients in therapeutic and diagnostic products and other formulated livestock products is burdensome and unclear for organic farmers and certifying agents. For example, federal regulations do not require excipients used in therapeutic and diagnostic products to appear on product ingredient labels. In addition, the identity of excipients may not be disclosed when product formulations are held as confidential business information.
Therefore, AMS is proposing to amend the current listing of excipients in § 205.603 with the following annotation: Only for use in the manufacture of drugs and biologics used to treat organic livestock when the excipient is: (1) Identified by the FDA as Generally Recognized As Safe; (2) Approved by the FDA as a food additive; (3) Included in the FDA review and approval of a New Animal Drug
The proposed rule would add the following substances to the National List in paragraph § 205.605 for use in organic handling: Hypochlorous acid, potassium lactate, and sodium lactate. This proposed rule would also amend the allowances for the following substances currently allowed in organic handling: Alginic acid, flavors, carnauba wax (§ 205.605(a)), and cellulose and chlorine (§ 205.605(b)). In addition, this proposed rule removes glycerin from § 205.605(b) and adds it to § 205.606 as an agricultural product.
The proposed rule would amend the National List to reclassify alginic acid from a non-synthetic substance included in § 205.605(a) to a synthetic substance listed included in § 205.605(b), for use in organic handling. Table 23 illustrates the proposed listing.
Alginic acid is allowed as a nonorganic ingredient in or on processed products labeled as “organic” or “made with organic (specified ingredients or food group(s)).” During the 2017 sunset review, the NOSB considered new information in an updated technical report
Based upon guidance document NOP 5033, Classification of Materials,
At its October 26-29, 2015, public meeting, the NOSB received public comment and reviewed information in an updated technical report. In order to be consistent with NOP 5033, the NOSB recommended reclassifying alginic acid from a non-synthetic substance under § 205.605(a) to a synthetic substance under § 205.605(b). AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend § 205.605 by removing alginic acid from § 205.605(a) and inserting alginic acid in § 205.605(b).
The proposed rule would amend the National List to revise the annotation of flavors in § 205.605(a), nonsynthetic, nonagricultural substances allowed in organic handling. Table 24 illustrates the proposed listing.
On November 6, 2014, AMS received a petition to change the allowance for nonorganic flavors to require the use of organic flavors when they are commercially available.
At its October 26-29, 2015, public meeting, the NOSB received public comment on the proposal to require organic flavors when commercially available. During its petition review the NOSB determined that organic flavors have become more available, but acknowledged the continued need for nonorganic forms in organic handling because of limited organic availability across the category. Due to the number of distinctly different natural flavors and the pace of new product development in flavors, the NOSB determined it would be impractical to list individual flavors on the National List to indicate which are commercially available in organic form. Based on the petition and public comments, the NOSB recommended revising the allowance for flavors to require the use
The NOSB recommended retaining the existing requirements that all flavors must be derived from organic or nonsynthetic sources only, and must not be produced using synthetic solvents and carrier systems, or any artificial preservative. In addition, the NOSB recommended a revision to convey that the listing for flavors applies to products in the “organic” and “made with organic (specified ingredients or food group(s))” categories.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend § 205.605(a) by revising the listing of flavors to read: Flavors, non-synthetic flavors may be used when organic flavors are not commercially available. All flavors must be derived from organic or non-synthetic sources only, and must not be produced using synthetic solvents and carrier systems, or any artificial preservative.
This proposed rule would reclassify carnauba wax from a nonagricultural substance on § 205.605(a), to an agricultural substance on § 205.606, that may be used in organic handling when organic carnauba wax is not commercially available. Table 25 illustrates the proposed listing.
Carnauba wax is allowed as a nonsynthetic substance for use in organic handling. Carnauba wax has been on the National List since October 2002. During the 2017 sunset review, the NOSB reviewed an updated technical report
At its October 26-29, 2015, public meeting, the NOSB reviewed public comment and reviewed information in an updated technical report. To be consistent with NOP 5033, the NOSB recommended reclassifying carnauba wax as an agricultural substance under § 205.606.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend § 205.605 by removing carnauba wax from § 205.605(a) and inserting carnauba wax in § 205.606.
This proposed rule would amend the current allowance for the use of cellulose in organic processing in section 205.605 of the National List. The revision specifies the type of cellulose allowed for certain uses. Table 26 illustrates the changes between the current rule and the proposed rule.
Cellulose is a major component of plant cell walls and is one of the most abundant compounds in nature. It can be derived from several sources and is available in many forms that provide different functional properties in food products. In addition to the petitioned uses as a processing aid for juice filtration, anti-caking agent, or peelable meat casings, cellulose is also used as a fat substitute, bulking agent, texturizer, emulsifier, and an extender. In 2001, the NOSB considered a petition for the use of three forms of cellulose, powdered cellulose, regenerative casing cellulose, and microcrystalline cellulose.
Powdered cellulose is a purified white, odorless polysaccharide consisting of a linear polymer of D-glucose units joined together by glycosidic linkages. When forming, cellulose molecules develop as long chain fibrous bundles with crystalline and amorphous regions. Cellulose is isolated from several biological sources, but most commercial cellulose is derived from cotton linters and wood pulp. Mechanical and chemical extraction procedures are used to isolate the cellulose. Varying these manufacturing procedures can result in a range of cellulose products differing in molecular weight and fiber length, which yields a range of food or drug processing properties.
The NOSB considered two cellulose derivatives in 2001, microcrystalline cellulose and regenerative casing cellulose. Microcrystalline cellulose, also known as nanocrystalline cellulose, is manufactured from the acid hydrolysis of powdered cellulose. This process reduces the degree of molecular polymerization (number of glucose units that make up the polymer molecule) where the amorphous region of the cellulose molecule is extracted, leaving the shorted fiber crystalline region. Altering cellulose to its microcrystalline form provides different ingredient and processing aid uses in addition to the uses provided by powdered cellulose. Comments submitted by organic food processors during the 2013 sunset review stated that they do not use microcrystalline cellulose and they were
Powdered cellulose is also used to manufacture regenerative casing cellulose where the cellulose fibers are dissolved into smaller polymers, regenerated into tubular forms, and used as a casing to pack skinless meat products such as hot dogs and sausage. The regenerative casing cellulose is then removed from the packed meat product since this form of cellulose is considered to be inedible.
Cellulose was added to § 205.605(b) of the National List in November 2003 (68 FR 62215) for limited uses: In regenerative casings, as an anti-caking agent (non-chlorine bleached) and filtering aid. For the 2013 sunset review, the NOSB provided two recommendations in May 2012.
During the 2013 sunset review, the NOSB reviewed its 2001 cellulose recommendation, Technical Advisory Panel reports on this substance from 2001 and 2016, NOSB records from the 2008 cellulose sunset review, other technical documents, and received public comments prior to and during the May 2012 NOSB meeting. Some of the public comments requested that the NOSB specifically prohibit microcrystalline cellulose for use in organic handling, asserting that this was the intent of the NOSB's 2001 cellulose recommendation. However, other comments stated that the 2001 cellulose recommendation did not clearly convey the intent to prohibit microcrystalline cellulose as an ingredient or processing aid in organic handling. During the 2013 sunset review, the NOSB determined that the intent of the current annotation was to allow only powdered cellulose and regenerative casing cellulose. In formulating its recommendation, the NOSB received information indicating that certifying agents were already implementing a prohibition of microcrystalline cellulose, so that a specific prohibition in the annotation was not needed. In preparation of this proposed rule, AMS learned that microcrystalline cellulose is also marketed in powdered form. Consequently, AMS revised the NOSB's recommended annotation for cellulose to specifically prohibit microcrystalline cellulose. The revised annotation is consistent with the NOSB recommendation to allow powdered cellulose as defined by the NOSB. Therefore, we have proposed adding language to prohibit the use of microcrystalline cellulose to avoid ambiguity about its status. AMS specifically seeks comments on the need for this additional language concerning microcrystalline cellulose.
Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this action would clarify the allowed forms of cellulose and corresponding uses. In effect, it would prohibit other forms of cellulose, such as microcrystalline cellulose, that might be used for the same functions as powdered cellulose. Therefore, AMS is proposing to amend the current listing of cellulose in § 205.605 with the following annotation: For use in regenerative casings, powdered cellulose as an anti-caking agent (non-chlorine bleached) and filtering aid. Microcrystalline cellulose is prohibited.
This proposed rule would implement a December 2011 NOSB recommendation
Chlorine is a highly reactive element that rarely exists in free form in the environment. It readily combines with many other elements, including metals, from which metal salts, or chlorides are formed. The most common chloride is sodium chloride (table salt). This substance and other chloride ions are essential for cellular metabolism of all known species of life. Chlorine can be extracted from chlorides through oxidation induced by electrolysis. In free form, chlorine's high oxidizing property is utilized in bleaching and disinfectant chlorine compound products. These products are the most utilized equipment and food contact sanitizers in food processing and handling.
Chlorine materials were added to the National List that was published in the final rule establishing the National Organic Program (65 FR 13512, December 21, 2000). The chlorine materials listings were renewed through the 2007 (72 FR 58469) and 2012 sunset reviews (77 FR 33290).
When the NOSB initially considered chlorine materials in November 1995, the annotation included in the resulting recommendation acknowledged that levels of chlorine permitted in municipal drinking water were acceptable for organic production and handling. The 1995 recommendation stated that chlorine materials should be
At its December 2011 public meeting, the NOSB recommended modifying the chlorine materials annotation listed in § 205.605(b) to improve consistency between the USDA organic regulations and the NOP guidance, “The Use of Chlorine Materials in Organic Production and Handling,” NOP 5026. The proposed amendment would clarify what levels of chlorine are permitted for use in water in direct contact with food versus in water used as an ingredient in food. This aligns with the NOP guidance on this subject, provides clarity on the allowed uses of chlorine, and reflects current industry practice. Therefore, AMS is proposing to amend the current listing of chlorine materials in § 205.605(b) with the following annotation:
For disinfecting and sanitizing food contact surfaces, equipment and facilities may be used up to maximum labeled rates. Chlorine materials in water used in direct crop or food contact are permitted at levels approved by the FDA or EPA for such purpose, provided the use is followed by a rinse with potable water at or below the maximum residual disinfectant limit for the chlorine material under the Safe Drinking Water Act. Chlorine in water used as an ingredient in organic food handling must not exceed the maximum residual disinfectant limit for the chlorine material under the Safe Drinking Water Act.” (Calcium hypochlorite; Chlorine dioxide; and Sodium hypochlorite).
See discussion above under § 205.601, Synthetic substances allowed for use in organic crop production.
This proposed rule would add potassium lactate and sodium lactate to § 205.605(b) as an allowed synthetic substance for use in organic handling. Table 28 illustrates the proposed listing.
Potassium lactate and sodium lactate were originally petitioned
To resolve this confusion, the NOP issued a memorandum to the NOSB on June 25, 2014, requesting that the NOSB review the petition to add potassium lactate and sodium lactate to the National List in § 205.605(b).
At its April 25—27, 2016, public meeting, the NOSB received public comment and reviewed the petition and technical report.
AMS has reviewed and proposes to address this NOSB recommendation through this proposed rule. Consistent with the NOSB recommendation, this proposed rule would amend § 205.605(b) by adding potassium lactate and sodium lactate with the same restrictive annotation: for use as an antimicrobial agent and pH regulator only.
This proposed rule would remove glycerin from section 205.605(b) and amend section 205.606 to include this substance with annotation. In effect, for organic processing activities, this proposed action would change the classification of glycerin under the USDA organic regulations from an allowed synthetic to an agricultural product which must be in organic form unless an organic version is not commercially available. Table 29 illustrates the changes between the current rule and the proposed rule.
Glycerin, whether made by fermentation of carbohydrate substrates or by hydrolysis of fats and oils, is listed as GRAS by the FDA and has a long history of safe use in a wide variety of food, cosmetic, and medical applications, including but not limited to use as a solvent, emollient, bodying agent, plasticizer, pharmaceutical agent, and sweetening agent in a wide range of processed food and cosmetic products. Glycerin is metabolized as a carbohydrate in the body.
Commercial glycerin can be produced in several ways: Common methods include hydrogenolysis of carbohydrates or by synthesis from propylene; as a waste byproduct of biodiesel production; and by saponification of natural fats and oils. Glycerin produced from saponification was recommended by the NOSB in 1995 for inclusion on the National List with the annotation “produced by hydrolysis of fats and oils.” It is currently included on the National List as a synthetic nonagricultural substance at § 205.605(b) and also for livestock use as a teat dip at § 205.603(a)(12).
Saponification of natural fats and oils is a process of hydrolyzing agricultural product fat or oil with water (steam) under pressure (or chemically with sodium carbonate, sodium hydroxide, or potassium hydroxide) to produce synthetic glycerin and fatty acids. The steam process is described in the 1995 Technical Advisory Panel Report on glycerin. The alkali process is the traditional process used to saponify fats and oils. The three sources of alkali used in this process, identified above, are included in the National List.
According to a 2013 Technical Report,
The NOSB determined that glycerin produced by hydrolysis of fats and oils using a chemical process is considered to yield synthetic glycerin, which may be used only when certified organic glycerin is not commercially available. In summary, glycerin produced through saponification of fats and oils using steam, and glycerin produced by microbial fermentation of carbohydrate substances, would be agricultural products that may be certified organic. The technical report for glycerin indicates that there are currently 21 USDA certified organic operations supplying glycerin.
This proposed rule would amend paragraph (b) of § 205.605 of the National List regulations by removing the exemption for the following substance: Glycerin—produced by the hydrolysis of fats and oils. This proposed rule would also amend § 205.606 of the National List regulations by adding Glycerin—produced from agricultural source materials and processed using biological or mechanical/physical methods as described under § 205.270(a), and would require organic glycerin to be used unless not commercially available. Glycerin was included in § 205.605(b) of the National List as originally published on December 21, 2000 (FR 65 80548), as an allowed synthetic ingredient in or on processed products labeled as “organic” or “made with organic (specified ingredients or food group(s)).”
In December 2012, a petition was submitted to the NOSB for the removal of glycerin from § 205.605(b). The petition stated that certified organic glycerin had become available and could replace nonorganic glycerin. Specifically, the petition cited that certified organic glycerin is currently available, but there is no “commercial availability” requirement to incentivize processors to use it or certifiers to require it. The petition described how the process of microbial fermentation used to produce organic glycerin is consistent with USDA organic regulation requirements because it relies on mechanical and biological processes as required in § 205.270(a) without the use of allowed synthetics, and stated that the removal of glycerin from § 205.605(b) will encourage organic agricultural production.
Based upon NOP guidance, “Classification of Materials Draft Guidance,” NOP 5033
The petition to remove glycerin from § 205.605(b) was first considered at the 2014 Spring NOSB meeting. At its spring 2015 meeting, the NOSB evaluated glycerin against the evaluation criteria of 7 U.S.C. 6517 and 6518 of the OFPA and NOP criteria on commercial availability, received public comment, and concluded that agricultural forms of glycerin are consistent with the OFPA evaluation criteria. The NOSB determined that the manufacturing processes used to produce glycerin differentiate how the types of glycerin are classified,
This proposed rule would prohibit the use of nonorganic synthetic glycerin and allow the use of nonorganic agricultural glycerin—produced from agricultural source materials and processed using biological or mechanical/physical methods as described under § 205.270(a)—when an organic version is not commercially available.
Consistent with this NOSB recommendation, AMS proposes to: (1) Remove the exemption for synthetic Glycerin—produced by the hydrolysis of fats and oils in paragraph (b) of § 206.605 and (2) amend § 205.606 of the USDA organic regulations to allow the use of agricultural forms of glycerin as a nonorganically produced agricultural substance allowed as an ingredient in or on processed products labeled as “organic” as follows: Glycerin—produced from agricultural source materials and processed using biological or mechanical/physical
This proposed rule would amend the allowance for colors currently allowed in organic handling by replacing color Chemical Abstract Services (CAS) numbers with the binomial name of the agricultural source of the color.
This proposed rule would amend USDA organic regulations to replace Chemical Abstract Services (CAS) numbers included in the annotation of each color listed under National List § 205.606(c) with the binomial name of the agricultural source of the color. The NOSB requested that AMS conduct a review on the accuracy of these CAS numbers and propose any necessary changes.
Colors—nonsynthetic sources only, was included in § 205.605(a), in the original National List incorporated into the USDA organic final rule (65 FR 80548) published on December 21, 2000, and became effective on October 21, 2002. Based upon comments received during the 2007 sunset review process, the NOSB recommended not to renew this category of substances in National List § 205.605(a). Comments on listing of colors in § 205.605(a) that were provided during the 2007 sunset review informed the NOSB that the listing of colors in § 205.605(a) never received a formal NOSB recommendation to be added to the National List. Since OFPA states that the National List shall be based upon recommendations developed by the NOSB, it was determined that colors, as listed in § 205.605(a), were erroneously included in the final rule. Several comments also requested the NOSB to recommend the removal of colors from the National List in § 205.605(a), and to have nonsynthetic colors be evaluated by the NOSB through the National List petition process. Additional comments indicated that the broad category of “nonsynthetic colors” as listed in § 205.605(a) hindered certifying agents in determining and verifying nonsynthetic colors and that this ambiguity could give rise to the use of inappropriate substances in organically handled products.
During the 2007 sunset review, the NOSB deliberated on the fact that colors, as listed under § 205.605(a), had been allowed for use by organic handlers for more than five years. Some commenters expressed concern that removing colors from § 205.605(a) would cause disruption in the manufacture of organic products in the organic handling sector. While considering these comments the NOSB determined that, since there was no formal recommendation from the NOSB to allow nonsynthetic colors as a broad category for use in organic handling, the listing of colors in § 205.605(a) could not continue.
At the completion of the 2007 sunset review, the NOSB voted not to renew the listing of colors on § 205.605(a). Prior to this decision, the NOSB decided that there is a need to provide the organic industry with the opportunity to petition to add nonsynthetic colors to the National List before finalizing its vote. In April 2006 the NOSB announced it would defer its vote not to renew the colors from nonsynthetic sources listing in § 205.605(a) and proposed that organic handling operations using nonsynthetic colors in organic handling submit petitions to add specific nonsynthetic colors to the National List. Prior to its March 2007 NOSB meeting, the NOSB received several National List petitions to add individual nonsynthetic colors to the National List. At the March 2007 meeting, the NOSB voted to add 19 nonsynthetic colors to National List § 205.606. These nonsynthetic colors, with CAS numbers listed in their annotations, were added to the National List in June 2007 (72 FR 35137).
In May 2013 (78 FR 31815), the listing of annatto extract color in § 205.606 was removed from the National List as recommended by NOSB after considering a petition to remove this color from the National List. The petition to remove annatto extract color was submitted by the same petitioner that submitted the 2007 petition to add annatto extract color to the National List. This petitioner indicated that annatto extract color is no longer needed on the National List in § 205.606 since certified organic annatto extract is available in adequate quantities and in the forms needed to meet demand for organic annatto extract color.
Each color listed under § 205.606(c) includes CAS numbers cited in the annotation. Some listed colors have several CAS numbers within the annotation. The listed CAS numbers actually apply to the pigments contained in the color extract. CAS numbers are unique numerical identifiers assigned by CAS to every known chemical substance. Such numbers are not assigned to chemical compounds or formulations. As requested by the NOSB, AMS reviewed the CAS numbers contained in the color annotations in § 205.606(c). The AMS review determined that CAS numbers are not assigned to the fruit and vegetable raw materials used to make colors. Consequently, CAS numbers may not be appropriate for use when classifying agricultural colors as the use of CAS numbers would not indicate an agricultural source. The AMS review also determined that the petitions to add nonsynthetic colors to the National List may have cited incorrect CAS numbers or applied multiple CAS numbers to the same material. Some of the written comments received during the 2012 sunset review provided more than one CAS number for the same substance. Other comments stated that CAS numbers are not appropriate for nonorganic agricultural substances listed in § 205.606 and some operations may consider a substance represented by a certain CAS number obtained from any source to be compliant with the USDA organic regulations. Some comments received during the 2012 sunset review suggested that binomial nomenclature (genus and species classifications) is more appropriate for identifying nonorganic agricultural products listed in § 205.606. For colors that are derived from agricultural product, use of binomial name may better define these color extracts. Since CAS numbers may not be appropriate for use with agricultural products, and there is variation in what CAS numbers should be applied to some of the color extracts, AMS agrees with the comments that use of binomial nomenclature may provide better clarification on source of colors that are listed in § 205.606.
This rule proposes to make a amendments to the color listings in § 205.606(c) by removing the CAS numbers assigned to the color extracts and substituting in the binomial name
The use of binomial nomenclature in § 205.606 will clarify which agricultural sources may be used to derive the color extract. Varieties or subspecies of the same agricultural product may be used as sources for a particular color extract. Agricultural sources with the same genus but not the same species will not be eligible for use as a source for a color listed in § 205.606(c). For agricultural products, the application of binomial nomenclature for colors derived from agricultural product is appropriate when classifying colors since it better indicates the agricultural source of the color. Therefore, AMS is proposing to amend the current listing of colors in § 205.606 by inserting the binomial nomenclature of the color described in Table 30 into each respective annotation.
Thirteen notices were published regarding the meetings of the NOSB and deliberations on recommendations and substances petitioned for amending the National List. Substances and recommendations included in this proposed rule were announced for NOSB deliberation in the following
The OFPA, as amended (7 U.S.C. 6501
This proposed rule is not expected to be an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this proposed rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612) requires agencies to consider the economic impact of each rule on small entities and evaluate alternatives that would accomplish the objectives of the rule without unduly burdening small entities or erecting barriers that would restrict their ability to compete in the market. The purpose is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to the action. Section 605 of the RFA allows an agency to
Pursuant to the requirements set forth in the RFA, AMS performed an economic impact analysis on small entities in the final rule published in the
Small agricultural service firms, which include producers, handlers, and accredited certifying agents, have been defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) (13 CFR 121.201) as those having annual receipts of less than $7,000,000 and small agricultural producers are defined as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000.
According to USDA, National Agricultural Statistics Service, certified organic acreage exceeded 5.0 million acres in 2016.
Executive Order 12988 instructs each executive agency to adhere to certain requirements in the development of new and revised regulations in order to avoid unduly burdening the court system. This proposed rule is not intended to have a retroactive effect.
States and local jurisdictions are preempted under the OFPA from creating programs of accreditation for private persons or State officials who want to become certifying agents of organic farms or handling operations. A governing State official would have to apply to USDA to be accredited as a certifying agent, as described in section 6514(b) of the OFPA. States are also preempted under sections 6503 through 6507 of the OFPA from creating certification programs to certify organic farms or handling operations unless the State programs have been submitted to, and approved by, the Secretary as meeting the requirements of the OFPA.
Pursuant to section 6507(b)(2) of the OFPA, a State organic certification program may contain additional requirements for the production and handling of organically produced agricultural products that are produced in the State and for the certification of organic farm and handling operations located within the State under certain circumstances. Such additional requirements must (a) further the purposes of the OFPA, (b) not be inconsistent with the OFPA, (c) not be discriminatory toward agricultural commodities organically produced in other States, and (d) not be effective until approved by the Secretary.
Pursuant to section 6519(c)(6) of the OFPA, this proposed rule would not alter the authority of the Secretary under the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 601-624), the Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 451-471), or the Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. 1031-1056), concerning meat, poultry, and egg products, nor any of the authorities of the Secretary of Health and Human Services under the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301
No additional collection or recordkeeping requirements are imposed on the public by this proposed rule. Accordingly, OMB clearance is not required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501, Chapter 35.
This proposed rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. The review reveals that this regulation will not have substantial and direct effects on Tribal governments and will not have significant Tribal implications.
This proposed rule reflects 29 recommendations submitted by the NOSB to the Secretary to amend the annotation for 17 substances currently on the National List, add 17 substances to the National List, and remove one substance from the National List. A 60-day period for interested persons to comment on this rule is provided and is deemed appropriate.
Administrative practice and procedure, Agriculture, Animals, Archives and records, Imports, Labeling, Organically produced products, Plants, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Seals and insignia, Soil conservation.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 205, subpart G is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 6501—6522.
(b) * * *
(2) Dairy animals, as allowed under § 205.603.
(3) Fiber bearing animals, as allowed under § 205.603.
The additions and revisions to read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2)(iii) Hypochlorous acid—generated from electrolyzed water.
(j) * * *
(5) Magnesium oxide (CAS #1309-48-4)—for use only to control the viscosity of a clay suspension agent for humates.
(7) Micronutrients—not to be used as a defoliant, herbicide, or desiccant. Those made from nitrates or chlorides are not allowed. Micronutrient deficiency must be documented by soil or tissue testing, advice from certified crop advisors or professional agronomists, agricultural extension information, or other methods approved by the certifying agent.
(10) Squid byproducts—from food waste processing only. Can be pH adjusted with sulfuric, citric, or phosphoric acid. The amount of acid used shall not exceed the minimum needed to lower the pH to 3.5.
(f) Rotenone (CAS #83-79-4).
(a) * * *
(6) Activated charcoal (CAS #7440-44-0)—must be from vegetative sources.
(7) Calcium borogluconate (CAS #5743-34-0)—for treatment of milk fever only.
(8) Calcium propionate (CAS #4075-81-4)—for treatment of milk fever only.
(9) Chlorhexidine (CAS #55-56-1)—for medical procedures conducted under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Allowed for use as a teat dip when alternative germicidal agents and/or physical barriers have lost their effectiveness.
(10) Chlorine materials—disinfecting and sanitizing facilities and equipment. Residual chlorine levels in the water shall not exceed the maximum residual disinfectant limit under the Safe Drinking Water Act.
(i) Calcium hypochlorite.
(ii) Chlorine dioxide.
(iii) Hypochlorous acid—generated from electrolyzed water.
(iv) Sodium hypochlorite
(11) Electrolytes—without antibiotics.
(12) Flunixin (CAS #38677-85-9)—in accordance with approved labeling; except that for use under 7 CFR part 205, the NOP requires a withdrawal period of at least two-times that required by the FDA.
(13) Glucose.
(14) Glycerin—Allowed as a livestock teat dip, must be produced through the hydrolysis of fats or oils.
(15) Hydrogen peroxide.
(16) Iodine.
(17) Kaolin pectin—for use as an adsorbent, antidiarrheal, and gut protectant.
(18) Magnesium hydroxide (CAS #1309-42-8)—federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the lawful written or oral order of a licensed veterinarian, in full compliance with the AMDUCA and 21 CFR part 530 of the Food and Drug Administration regulations. Also, for use under 7 CFR part 205, the NOP requires use by or on the lawful written order of a licensed veterinarian.
(19) Magnesium sulfate.
(20) Mineral oil—for treatment of intestinal compaction, prohibited for use as a dust suppressant.
(21) Nutritive supplements—injectable supplements of trace minerals per § 205.603(d)(2), vitamins per § 205.603(d)(3), and electrolytes per § 205.603(a)(11), with excipients per § 205.603(f), in accordance with FDA and restricted to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.
(22) Oxytocin—use in postparturition therapeutic applications.
(23) Parasiticides— Prohibited in slaughter stock, allowed in emergency treatment for dairy and breeder stock when organic system plan-approved preventive management does not prevent infestation. In breeder stock, treatment cannot occur during the last third of gestation if the progeny will be sold as organic and must not be used during the lactation period for breeding stock. Allowed for fiber bearing animals when used a minimum of 90 days prior to harvesting of fleece or wool that is to be sold, labeled, or represented as organic.
(i) Fenbendazole (CAS #43210-67-9)—milk or milk products from a treated animal cannot be labeled as provided for in subpart D of this part for: 2 days following treatment of cattle; 36 days following treatment of goats, sheep, and other dairy species.
(ii) Moxidectin (CAS #113507-06-5)—milk or milk products from a treated animal cannot be labeled as provided for in subpart D of this part for: 2 days following treatment of cattle; 36 days following treatment of goats, sheep, and other dairy species.
(24) Peroxyacetic/peracetic acid (CAS #79-21-0)—for sanitizing facility and processing equipment.
(25) Phosphoric acid—allowed as an equipment cleaner,
(26) Poloxalene (CAS #9003-11-6)—for use under 7 CFR part 205, the NOP requires that poloxalene only be used for the emergency treatment of bloat.
(27) Propylene glycol (CAS #57-55-6)—for treatment of ketosis in ruminants only.
(28) Sodium chlorite, acidified, allowed for use on organic livestock as a teat dip treatment only.
(29) Tolazoline (CAS #59-98-3)—federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the lawful written or oral order of a licensed veterinarian, in full compliance with the AMDUCA and 21 CFR part 530 of the Food and Drug Administration regulations. Also, for use under 7 CFR part 205, the NOP requires:
(i) Use by or on the lawful written order of a licensed veterinarian;
(ii) Use only to reverse the effects of sedation and analgesia caused by Xylazine; and,
(iii) A meat withdrawal period of at least 8 days after administering to livestock intended for slaughter; and a milk discard period of at least 4 days after administering to dairy animals.
(30) Xylazine (CAS #7361-61-7)—federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the lawful written or oral order of a licensed veterinarian, in full compliance with the AMDUCA and 21 CFR part 530 of the Food and Drug Administration regulations. Also, for use under 7 CFR part 205, the NOP requires:
(i) Use by or on the lawful written order of a licensed veterinarian; and,
(ii) A meat withdrawal period of at least 8 days after administering to livestock intended for slaughter; and a milk discard period of at least 4 days after administering to dairy animals.
(31) Zinc sulfate—for use in hoof and foot treatments only.
(b) * * *
(4) Lidocaine—as a local anesthetic. Use requires a withdrawal period of 8 days after administering to livestock intended for slaughter and 6 days after administering to dairy animals.
(7) Procaine—as a local anesthetic. Use requires a withdrawal period of 8 days after administering to livestock intended for slaughter and 6 days after administering to dairy animals.
(8) Sodium chlorite, acidified—allowed for use on organic livestock as teat dip treatment only.
(d) * * *
(1) DL-Methionine, DL-Methionine—hydroxy analog, and DL-Methionine—hydroxy analog calcium (CAS #'s 59-51-8, 583-91-5, 4857-44-7, and 922-50-9)—for use only in organic poultry production at the following pounds of synthetic 100 percent methionine per ton of feed in the diet, averaged over the life of the flock: laying chickens—2 pounds; broiler chickens—2.5 pounds; turkeys and all other poultry—3 pounds.
(f) Excipients, only for use in the manufacture of drugs and biologics used to treat organic livestock when the excipient is:
(1) Identified by the FDA as Generally Recognized As Safe;
(2) Approved by the FDA as a food additive;
(3) Included in the FDA review and approval of a New Animal Drug Application or New Drug Application; or
(4) Approved by APHIS for use in veterinary biologics.
The revisions and addition to read as follows:
(a) * * *
Acids (Citric—produced by microbial fermentation of carbohydrate substances; Lactic).
Flavors, non-synthetic flavors may be used when organic flavors are not commercially available. All flavors must be derived from organic or nonsynthetic sources only, and must not be produced using synthetic solvents and carrier systems or any artificial preservative.
Waxes—nonsynthetic (Wood resin).
(b) * * *
Alginic acid (CAS #9005-32-7)
Cellulose (CAS #9004-34-6)
Chlorine materials—disinfecting and sanitizing food contact surfaces, equipment and facilities may be used up to maximum labeled rates. Chlorine materials in water used in direct crop or food contact are permitted at levels approved by the FDA or EPA for such purpose, provided the use is followed by a rinse with potable water at or below the maximum residual disinfectant limit for the chlorine material under the Safe Drinking Water Act. Chlorine in water used as an ingredient in organic food handling must not exceed the maximum residual disinfectant limit for the chlorine material under the Safe Drinking Water Act.
(1) Calcium hypochlorite.
(2) Chlorine dioxide.
(3) Hypochlorous acid—generated from electrolyzed water.
(4) Sodium hypochlorite.
The additions and revisions to read as follows:
(a) Carnauba wax
(d) * * *
(1) Beet juice extract color, derived from sugarbeet (
(2) Beta-carotene extract color derived from carrots (
(3) Black currant juice color, derived from
(4) Black/purple carrot juice color, derived from
(5) Blueberry juice color, derived from
(6) Carrot juice color, derived from
(7) Cherry juice color, derived from
(8) Chokeberry—Aronia juice color, derived from
(9) Elderberry juice color, derived from
(10) Grape juice color, derived from
(11) Grape skin extract color, derived from
(12) Paprika color—dried powder and vegetable oil extract, derived from
(13) Pumpkin juice color, derived from
(14) Purple potato juice color, derived from
(15) Red cabbage extract color, derived from
(16) Red radish extract color, derived from Raphanus sativus.
(17) Saffron extract color, derived from
(18) Turmeric extract color, derived from Curcuma longa.
(h) Glycerin (CAS #56-81-5)—produced from agricultural source materials and processed using biological or mechanical/physical methods as described under § 205.270(a).
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |