Page Range | 2733-2884 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 2883 - Martin Luther King, Jr., Federal Holiday, 2018 | |
83 FR 2767 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
83 FR 2747 - Proposed Amendment of Class B Airspace; San Francisco, CA | |
83 FR 2823 - Sunshine Act: OPIC Annual Public Hearing | |
83 FR 2875 - Notice of OFAC Sanctions Actions | |
83 FR 2774 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Cross-Media Electronic Reporting Rule (Renewal) | |
83 FR 2775 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Recordkeeping and Reporting of the Production, Import, Export, Destruction, Transhipment, and Exempted Uses of Ozone-Depleting Substances (Renewal) | |
83 FR 2738 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, Ormond Beach, FL | |
83 FR 2738 - Minimum Technical Standards for Class II Gaming Systems and Equipment; Correction | |
83 FR 2772 - Procurement List; Deletions | |
83 FR 2780 - Submission for OMB Review; Certification of Independent Price Determination, Contractor Code of Business Ethics and Compliance, and Preventing Personal Conflicts of Interest | |
83 FR 2822 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 2781 - Submission for OMB Review; Organization and Direction of Work | |
83 FR 2777 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
83 FR 2865 - Soo Line Railroad Company-Trackage Rights Exemption-BNSF Railway Company | |
83 FR 2782 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
83 FR 2770 - Certain Circular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes From Taiwan: Amended Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
83 FR 2768 - Cast Iron Soil Pipe Fittings From China: Amended Preliminary Determination of Countervailing Duty Investigation | |
83 FR 2769 - Certain Pasta From Italy: Notice of Partial Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review | |
83 FR 2768 - Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet From the People's Republic of China: Postponement of Preliminary Determination in the Countervailing Duty Investigation | |
83 FR 2773 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Teacher Education Assistance for College and Higher Education Grant Eligibility Regulations | |
83 FR 2758 - Public Warning and Notification of Recalls Under 21 CFR Part 7, Subpart C; Draft Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
83 FR 2792 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Guidance for Industry on Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of a Commercially Available Drug Product Under Section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act | |
83 FR 2787 - Mixing, Diluting, or Repackaging Biological Products Outside the Scope of an Approved Biologics License Application; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 2790 - Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of a Commercially Available Drug Product Under Section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 2786 - Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of Approved Drug Products Under Section 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 2862 - Data Collection Available for Public Comments | |
83 FR 2863 - Notice of Determinations; Additional Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Eyewitness Views: Making History in 18th-Century Europe” Exhibition | |
83 FR 2864 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “The Paston Treasure: Microcosm of the Known World” Exhibition | |
83 FR 2863 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Klimt and Schiele: Drawn” Exhibition | |
83 FR 2864 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Being: New Photography 2018” Exhibition | |
83 FR 2864 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Degas: A Passion for Perfection” Exhibition | |
83 FR 2864 - Notice of Determinations: Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Like Life: Sculpture, Color, and the Body” Exhibition | |
83 FR 2819 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension With Change, of a Previously Approved Collection Customer Satisfaction Assessment Survey | |
83 FR 2771 - Procurement List; Proposed Addition and Deletions | |
83 FR 2794 - Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 2797 - Material Threat Medical Countermeasure Priority Review Vouchers; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 2796 - Product Title and Initial U.S. Approval in Highlights for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products-Content and Format; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 2789 - Laser Products-Conformance With IEC 60825-1 Ed. 3 and IEC 60601-2-22 Ed. 3.1 (Laser Notice No. 56); Draft Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
83 FR 2743 - Secretarial Determination To Lower Head Start Center-Based Service Duration Requirement | |
83 FR 2813 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Drawback Process Regulations | |
83 FR 2747 - Withdrawal of Certain Proposed Rules and Other Proposed Actions; Correction | |
83 FR 2779 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
83 FR 2778 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
83 FR 2777 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
83 FR 2813 - Random Drug Testing Rate for Covered Crewmembers for 2018 | |
83 FR 2818 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Investigator Integrity Questionnaire-ATF F 8620.7 | |
83 FR 2738 - Department of State 2018 Civil Monetary Penalties Inflationary Adjustment; Correction | |
83 FR 2767 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2873 - Hours of Service of Drivers of Commercial Motor Vehicles: Proposed Regulatory Guidance Concerning the Use of a Commercial Motor Vehicle for Personal Conveyance; Extension of Comment Period | |
83 FR 2809 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2876 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Pulmonary Health and Deployment to Southwest Asia and Afghanistan | |
83 FR 2811 - National Institute on Deafness and Other Communication Disorders; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2808 - National Institute on Deafness and Other Communication Disorders; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2806 - National Cancer Institute Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 2810 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2805 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2810 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 2811 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 2807 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 2810 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2812 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2805 - National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 2811 - National Human Genome Research Institute; Notice of Meetings | |
83 FR 2807 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 2808 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2804 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2807 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 2825 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Concerning The Options Clearing Corporation's Adoption of a New Minimum Cash Requirement for the Clearing Fund | |
83 FR 2843 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of No Objection to Advance Notice, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Concerning the Adoption of a New Minimum Cash Requirement for the Clearing Fund | |
83 FR 2834 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Pricing for NDXP | |
83 FR 2823 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE American LLC; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 971.1NY To Amend the Duration of a Customer Best Execution Auction | |
83 FR 2847 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Europe Limited; Notice of Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice Relating to the ICE Clear Europe Wind Down Framework and Plan (the “Wind-Down Plan” or the “Plan”), as Most Recently Amended | |
83 FR 2855 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Europe Limited; Notice of Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice Relating to the ICE Clear Europe Recovery Plan | |
83 FR 2839 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Exchange's Fee Schedule at Chapter IX | |
83 FR 2828 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Securities Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Enhance the Calculation of the Volatility Component of the Clearing Fund Formula That Utilizes a Parametric Value-at-Risk Model and Eliminate the Market Maker Domination Charge | |
83 FR 2859 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Transaction Credits at Rule 7018(a) | |
83 FR 2850 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 6, To List and Trade Shares of the JPMorgan Long/Short ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E | |
83 FR 2765 - Hours of Service of Drivers of Commercial Motor Vehicles; Proposed Regulatory Guidance Concerning the Transportation of Agricultural Commodities; Extension of Comment Period | |
83 FR 2869 - Hours of Service of Drivers: Application for Exemption; Motion Picture Association of America | |
83 FR 2872 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Renewal of a Currently Approved Information Collection Request: Generic Clearance of Customer Satisfaction Surveys | |
83 FR 2821 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery | |
83 FR 2868 - Hours of Service; Electronic Logging Devices; Limited 90-Day Waiver; Truck Renting and Leasing Association, Inc. | |
83 FR 2744 - Hours of Service of Drivers; Electronic Logging Devices; Limited 90-Day Waiver for Old Dominion and Other Motor Carriers Experiencing Problems Integrating PeopleNet ELD System Updates Into Their Fleet Management Systems | |
83 FR 2877 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Servicer's Staff Appraisal Reviewer (SAR) Application | |
83 FR 2878 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Eligibility Verification Reports (EVRs) | |
83 FR 2878 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation, Death Pension and Accrued Benefits by a Surviving Spouse or Child; Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation by a Surviving Spouse or Child-In-Service Death; Application for DIC, Death Pension, and/or Accrued Benefits | |
83 FR 2816 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Arson and Explosives Training Registration Request for Non-ATF Employees-ATF F 6310.1 | |
83 FR 2817 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Police Check Inquiry-ATF F 8620.42 | |
83 FR 2817 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Application and Permit for Permanent Exportation of Firearms (National Firearms Act)-ATF F 9 (5320.9) | |
83 FR 2784 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2820 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Air Act | |
83 FR 2785 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 2815 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Revision of a Currently Approved Collection: Application for Civil Surgeon Designation | |
83 FR 2814 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection; Request for Fee Waiver; Request for Fee Exemption | |
83 FR 2874 - Multiemployer Pension Plan Application To Reduce Benefits | |
83 FR 2866 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of Renewed Approval of Information Collection: Renewal, Rotorcraft External Load Operator Certificate Application | |
83 FR 2865 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of a Renewed Approval of Information Collection: Helicopter Air Ambulance Operator Reports | |
83 FR 2799 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request; Information Collection Request Title: National Practitioner Data Bank for Adverse Information on Physicians and Other Health Care Practitioners-OMB No. 0915-0126-Revision | |
83 FR 2802 - CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment | |
83 FR 2782 - Senior Executive Service Performance Review Board Membership | |
83 FR 2820 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act; and Federal Debt Collection Procedures Act | |
83 FR 2802 - Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority | |
83 FR 2804 - Office for Civil Rights; Statement of Delegation | |
83 FR 2759 - Changes To Eliminate Unnecessary Regulations | |
83 FR 2762 - Consent for Release of VA Medical Records | |
83 FR 2739 - Determination of Rates and Terms for Public Broadcasting (PB III) | |
83 FR 2737 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; Lebanon, MO | |
83 FR 2867 - Notice of Final Federal Agency Actions on Proposed Highway Project in Rhode Island | |
83 FR 2733 - Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation Airplanes | |
83 FR 2774 - Environmental Financial Advisory Board Meeting |
International Trade Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
National Indian Gaming Commission
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Copyright Royalty Board
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X, FALCON 2000EX, and FALCON 900EX airplanes. This AD requires revising the airplane flight manual (AFM) and minimum equipment list (MEL) to incorporate new limitations. This AD also provides an optional terminating action that removes the AFM and MEL limitations. This AD was prompted by a report indicating that, during approach, an airplane had an unexpected change of barometric settings on both the pilot and co-pilot sides, which also impacted certain display and navigational systems. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD becomes effective February 5, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of February 5, 2018.
We must receive comments on this AD by March 5, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; internet
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2017-0240, dated December 5, 2017 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X, FALCON 2000EX, and FALCON 900EX airplanes. The MCAI states:
An occurrence was reported where, during approach, a Dassault 7X aeroplane experienced an unexpected change of barometric setting values, on both pilot and co-pilot sides, also having some other effects on display and navigation systems. Investigation showed that a temporary defect of a Cursor Control Device (CCD) can release erroneous but apparently valid data to the avionics. Depending on the resulting flight deck effects, crew members may be unaware of any incorrect barometric setting values.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to a wrong flight altitude, possibly affecting continued safe flight and landing.
To address this potential unsafe condition [Dassault Aviation] DA is developing corrective actions through an upgrade of “EASy” Avionics software. Pending the availability in service of these upgrades, DA issued an Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) amendment and a Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) amendment, related to dispatch with a Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) or Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS).
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires amendment of the applicable AFM and MMEL [and includes an optional terminating action].
This [EASA] AD is considered an interim measure and further AD action may follow.
Although the MCAI requires updating the MMEL, this AD requires revising the MEL. The MMEL is a master list of the minimum equipment with which the airplane can operate under given circumstances. A MEL is derived from the MMEL and is tailored for individual operators. The optional terminating action is updating the aircraft avionics software to the latest EASy II version. You may examine the MCAI on the internet at
Dassault Aviation has issued the following service information.
The following service information describes procedures for updating the aircraft avionics software to the latest EASy II version. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models in different configurations.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F7X-322, dated October 24, 2017.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-422, dated September 22, 2017.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-423, dated December 9, 2016.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-322, Revision 1, dated June 21, 2017.
• Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-323, dated July 13, 2017.
The following service information describes MMEL dispatch restrictions for TCAS and EGPWS. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models.
• Dassault Falcon 7X/8X, MMEL-CP0205-PUB-F7X, “TCAS & EGPWS limitations without CCD correction,” Revision 1, dated September 1, 2016, to the Dispatch Assistance CD-ROM Pub. 781.
• Dassault Falcon 900EX EASy, MMEL-CP0205-PUB-F900EX EASy, “TCAS & EGPWS limitations without CCD correction,” Revision 1, dated September 1, 2016, to the Dispatch Assistance CD-ROM Pub. 617.
• Dassault Falcon 2000EX EASy, MMEL-CP0205-PUB-F2000EX EASy, “TCAS & EGWPS limitation without CCD correction,” Revision 1, dated September 1, 2016, to the Dispatch Assistance CD-ROM Pub. 682.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because unexpected changes to barometric settings could lead to an incorrect flight altitude and ultimately adversely affect the airplane's continued safe flight and landing. Therefore, we determined that notice and opportunity for public comment before issuing this AD are impracticable and that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in fewer than 30 days.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not precede it by notice and opportunity for public comment. We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We estimate that this AD affects 320 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective February 5, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to the Dassault Aviation airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD, certificated in any category.
(1) Model FALCON 7X airplanes, all serial numbers, except those that have embodied Dassault modification M1254 or M1705 in production, or Dassault Service Bulletin F7X-322 in service.
(2) Model FALCON 2000EX airplanes, all serial numbers that have embodied Dassault modification M1691 in production, except those that have embodied Dassault modification M3849 in production, or Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-322 or Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-323 in service.
(3) Model FALCON 900EX airplanes, all serial numbers that have embodied Dassault modification M3083 in production, except those that have embodied Dassault modification M6002 in production, or Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-422 or Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-423 in service.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 34, Navigation.
This AD was prompted by a report indicating that, during approach, an airplane had an unexpected change of barometric settings on both the pilot and co-pilot sides, which also impacted certain display and navigational systems. We are issuing this AD to address unexpected changes to barometric settings, which could lead to an incorrect flight altitude and could ultimately adversely affect the airplane's continued safe flight and landing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 10 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD, revise the Limitations Section of the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) to include the statement specified in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD. When a statement identical to that in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD has been included in the limitations section of the general revisions of the AFM, the general revisions may be inserted into the AFM.
Within 10 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD, revise the operator's MEL by incorporating the applicable information specified in figure 2 to paragraph (h) of this AD as a temporary restriction when dispatching the airplane with an inoperative traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) or enhanced ground proximity warning system (EGPWS). The MEL can be revised by inserting a copy of the applicable MMEL-CP page specified in figure 2 to paragraph (h) of this AD into the MEL. After revising the applicable MEL, dispatch of that airplane with an inoperative TCAS or EGWPS is allowed, provided that the applicable MEL for that airplane has been revised, as specified in the applicable dispatch restrictions specified in figure 2 to paragraph (h) of this AD.
Modification of an airplane by updating the aircraft avionics software to the latest EASy II version in accordance with the applicable service information specified in figure 3 to paragraph (i) of this AD terminates the requirements of paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD for the modified airplane only.
This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (i) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-322, dated October 17, 2016, for the airplanes identified therein.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2017-0240, dated December 5, 2017, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
(3) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (m)(3) and (m)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Dassault Falcon 7X/8X, MMEL-CP0205-PUB-F7X, “TCAS & EGPWS limitations without CCD correction,” Revision 1, dated September 1, 2016, to the Dispatch Assistance CD-ROM Pub. 781.
(ii) Dassault Falcon 2000EX EASy, MMEL-CP0205-PUB-F2000EX EASy, “TCAS & EGWPS limitation without CCD correction,” Revision 1, dated September 1, 2016, to the Dispatch Assistance CD-ROM Pub. 682.
(iii) Dassault Falcon 900EX EASy, MMEL-CP0205-PUB-F900EX EASy, “TCAS & EGPWS limitations without CCD correction,” Revision 1, dated September 1, 2016, to the Dispatch Assistance CD-ROM Pub. 617.
(iv) Dassault Service Bulletin F7X-322, dated October 24, 2017.
(v) Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-322, Revision 1, dated June 21, 2017.
(vi) Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-323, dated July 13, 2017.
(vii) Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-422, dated September 22, 2017.
(viii) Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-423, dated December 9, 2016.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Standards Branch, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action modifies Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Floyd W. Jones Airport, Lebanon, MO. This action is necessary due to the decommissioning of the Lebanon non-directional radio beacon (NDB), and cancellation of the NDB approach. This action enhances the safety and management of standard instrument approach procedures for instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, March 29, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Rebecca Shelby, Federal Aviation Administration, Support Specialist, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5857.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Floyd W. Jones Airport, Lebanon, MO, to support standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at the airport.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 modifies Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of Floyd W. Jones Airport, Lebanon, MO.
Airspace reconfiguration is necessary due to the decommissioning and cancellation of the Lebanon NDB, and NDB approaches. This action enhances the safety and management of the standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at the airport.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of Floyd W. Jones Airport.
Department of State.
Final rule; correcting amendment.
The Department of State published a final rule in the
This rule is effective on January 19, 2018.
Alice Kottmyer, Office of the Legal Adviser, 202-647-2318.
In FR Doc 2017-28395, in the
Accordingly, this document corrects the civil monetary penalty listed in 22 CFR 127.10(a)(1)(ii).
Arms and munitions, Exports.
For the reasons set forth above, 22 CFR part 127 is corrected by making the following correcting amendment:
Sections 2, 38, and 42, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2791); 22 U.S.C. 401; 22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 2779a; 22 U.S.C. 2780; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129; Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584.
National Indian Gaming Commission.
Final rule; correction.
On December 27, 2017, the National Indian Gaming Commission published a rule amending its minimum technical standards for Class II gaming systems and equipment. This document corrects the preamble regarding the OMB Control Number and OMB Control Number expiration date.
Effective January 19, 2018.
Austin Badger, National Indian Gaming Commission; 1849 C Street NW, MS 1621, Washington, DC 20240. Telephone: 202-632-7003.
In the final rule FR Doc. 2017-27945, published on December 27, 2017, the following correction is made:
On page 61175, in the second column, the paragraph “The information collection requirements contained in this rule were previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) as required by 44 U.S.C. 3501
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Highbridge Road (Knox) Bridge across the Atlantic
The deviation is necessary to accommodate the replacement of trunnion bearings for the west bascule leaf. This deviation allows the bridge single-leaf operations, reducing the horizontal clearance to 45 feet.
This deviation is effective without actual notice from January 19, 2018 through 7 p.m. on February 20, 2018. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from 7 a.m. on January 16, 2018, until January 19, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2018-0019, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email MST3 Rory Boyle, Coast Guard Sector Jacksonville, Waterways Management Division, telephone 904-714-7648, email
The owner of the bridge, Volusia County, Florida, requested a temporary deviation. The trunnion bearings on the west bascule leaf are damaged. Replacement requires jacking the bascule leaf to remove and install new bearings.
The Highbridge Road (Knox) Bridge across the Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway (Halifax River), mile 816.0, at Ormond Beach, Florida is a double-leaf bascule bridge with a vertical clearance of 11 feet at mean high water in the closed position and a horizontal clearance of 91 feet between fenders. The existing bridge operating schedule is published in 33 CFR 117.5.
This temporary deviation allows the bridge single-leaf operations from 7 a.m. on January 16, 2018 through 7 p.m. on February 20, 2018. This temporary deviation will reduce the horizontal clearance to 45 feet through the east bascule span. The waterway is used by a variety of vessels including U.S. government vessels, small commercial vessels, recreational vessels and tugs and barge traffic. Due to the mechanical issues, the bridge has operated on single-leaf operations with a double-leaf opening upon request. Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to provide a double-leaf opening for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Copyright Royalty Board (CRB), Library of Congress.
Final rule.
The Copyright Royalty Judges publish this final rule regarding rates and terms for use of certain works in connection with noncommercial broadcasting for the period commencing January 1, 2018, and ending on December 31, 2022.
Anita Blaine, CRB Program Specialist, by telephone at (202) 707-7658 or email at
Section 118 of the Copyright Act, title 17 of the United States Code, establishes a statutory license for the use of certain copyrighted works in connection with noncommercial television and radio broadcasting. Chapter 8 of the Copyright Act requires the Copyright Royalty Judges (“Judges”) to conduct proceedings every five years to determine the rates and terms for the section 118 license. 17 U.S.C. 801(b)(1), 804(b)(6). In accordance with section 804(b)(6), on January 5, 2016, the Judges commenced the proceeding to set rates and terms for the period 2018 through 2022. 77 FR 71104.
Copyright owners and public broadcasting entities
The Judges received two comments, a joint comment from participants ASCAP, BMI, NPR, PBS, and SESAC, and a comment from non-participant Global Music Rights, LLC (“GMR”).
The joint comment from participants proposed a revision to § 381.4(b) to conform it to §§ 381.5 and 381.6 by making explicit that the rates only apply to compositions not in the repertories of ASCAP, BMI, and SESAC.
1. The proposed language was not sought by any party before the proposed regulations were published for public comment.
2. The proposed language is not in the current regulations.
3. The proposed regulation includes a rate for licenses that are not subject to a voluntary, negotiated agreement.
4. Extension, renewal, or renegotiation of any negotiated agreement to avoid the statutory rate is within the control of ASCAP, BMI, and SESAC.
Notwithstanding the agreement of all parties who allegedly might be affected by this late-proposed change, making this change would alter the proposed regulation without affording interested parties an opportunity for review and comment or objection.
The comment from GMR raised two concerns. GMR objects to a decrease in the § 381.4 rate for non-participants and requests the Judges keep the current rates and add a one-time cost of living adjustment. It also objects to leaving the §§ 381.5 and 381.6 rates for non-participants at the current level and requests the Judges revise it to match the increase in the SESAC rate.
GMR did not file a Petition to Participate in the proceeding. It is allowed to comment, but the Judges need not accept its comments as an “objection” to be weighed. The Judges respectfully acknowledge GMR's concerns, but those concerns cannot be a basis for the Judges to find that there is a reasonable objection to adoption of the rules. The Judges' ability to reject an agreement on the reasonableness of the rates and terms proposed therein is constrained by statute. Specifically, section 801(b)(7)(A)(ii) directs the Judges to adopt proposed agreed rates and terms unless a participant to the proceeding objects.
Copyright, Music, Radio, Television, Rates.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Copyright Royalty Judges amend part 381 to chapter III of title 37 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
17 U.S.C. 118, 801(b)(1) and 803.
The revision reads as follows:
(a)
(c)
(1) For all such compositions in the repertory of ASCAP, the royalty rates shall be as follows:
(i)
(ii) Level 1 rates as set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, shall also apply to College Radio Stations with an authorized effective radiated power (ERP), as that term is defined in 47 CFR 73.310(a), of 100 Watts or less, as specified on its current FCC license, regardless of the size of the student population.
(2) For all such compositions in the repertory of BMI, the royalty rates shall be as follows:
(i)
(ii) Level 1 rates, as set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, shall also apply to College Radio Stations with an authorized effective radiated power (ERP), as that term is defined in 47 CFR 73.310(a), of 100 Watts or less, as specified on its current FCC license, regardless of the size of the student population.
(3) For all such compositions in the repertory of SESAC, the royalty rates shall be as follows:
(i) 2018: The 2017 rate, subject to an annual cost of living adjustment in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.
(ii) 2019: The 2018 rate, subject to an annual cost of living adjustment in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.
(iii) 2020: The 2019 rate, subject to an annual cost of living adjustment in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.
(iv) 2021: The 2020 rate, subject to an annual cost of living adjustment in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.
(v) 2022: The 2021 rate, subject to an annual cost of living adjustment in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.
(vi) Such cost of living adjustment to be made in accordance with the greater of:
(A) The change, if any, in the Consumer Price Index (all consumers, all items) published by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics during the twelve (12) month period from the most recent Index, published before December 1 of the year immediately prior to the applicable year; or
(B) One and one-half percent (1.5%).
(4) For the performance of any other such compositions: $1.
The revision reads as follows:
(d)
(1) For all such compositions in the repertory of ASCAP, the royalty rates shall be as follows:
(i) Music Fees (Stations with 20% or more programming containing Feature Music):
(ii) Talk Format Station Fees (Stations with <20% Feature Music programming):
(2) For all such compositions in the repertory of BMI, the royalty rates shall be as follows:
(i) Music Fees (Stations with 20% or more programming containing Feature Music):
(ii) Talk Format Station Fees (Stations with <20% Feature Music programming):
(3) For all such compositions in the repertory of SESAC, the royalty rates shall be as follows:
(i) Music fees for stations with > = 20% Feature Music programming:
(ii) Talk fees for stations with <20% Feature Music programming:
(4) For the performance of any other such compositions, in 2018 through 2022, $1.
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1)(i) * * *
(ii) * * *
(2) * * *
(4) * * *
The revision reads as follows:
(b) On the same date of the notices published pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the Copyright Royalty Judges shall publish in the
(1) The change in the cost of living determined as provided in paragraph (a) of this section; or
(2) One-and-a-half percent (1.5%).
(3) Such royalty rates shall be fixed at the nearest dollar.
Office of Head Start (OHS), Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Secretarial determination on Head Start center-based service duration requirements; waiver.
With this document, the Secretary exercises his authority to waive the August 1, 2019 Head Start center-based service duration requirements, effectively lowering this requirement from 50 percent to 0 percent. However, the requirement that Early Head Start programs provide 1,380 annual hours of planned class operations for all center-based enrollment by August 1, 2018 remains in effect.
This waiver is effective January 19, 2018.
Office of Head Start, Mary Switzer Bldg., 330 C Street SW, Washington, DC.
Colleen Rathgeb, Division Director for Planning, Oversight and Policy, Office Head Start,
In the Improving Head Start for School Readiness Act of 2007, Congress instructed the Office of Head Start to update its Head Start Program Performance Standards (HSPPS) by regulation and ensure that any such revisions in the standards do not result in the elimination of or any reduction in the quality, scope, or types of health, educational, parental involvement, nutritional, social, or other social services. We published a final rule to complete this revision at 45 CFR chapter XIII, subchapter B, on September 6, 2016. This final rule included a provision at § 1302.21(c)(2)(iii) that would require each Head Start center-based program, by August 1, 2019, to provide 1,020 annual hours of planned class operations over the course of at least eight months per year for at least 50 percent of its Head Start center-based funded enrollment. This requirement represents an increase from the existing minimum requirement of 3.5 hours per day, 4 days per week, for 128 days per year, which is equivalent to 448 annual hours. The longer 1,020 annual hour service duration requirement was based on a body of research that suggests individual disadvantaged children benefit from longer exposure to enriching early learning programs than what is provided by the part-day, part-year programs. Research on full-day programs, instructional time, summer learning loss, and attendance all indicate longer service duration is linked with improved child outcomes. Moreover, increased service duration allows teachers more time to provide individualized and content-rich learning that is important for positive child outcomes. However, the research does not provide clarity on an exact threshold or combination of hours and days needed to achieve positive child outcomes.
We also recognize extended services come at a significant cost for Head Start programs. Without additional funding from Congress to support longer hours of program operations, a requirement to increase service duration so that 50 percent of Head Start center-based slots in each program operate for 1,020 annual hours would result in the Head Start program serving significantly fewer children. Although research points to the benefits of increased service duration for an individual child, research has not answered whether the population as a whole benefits more when fewer children are served for a longer time as compared to more children being served for a shorter time.
Because future appropriations levels were not known when the HSPPS final rule was published in September 2016, the final rule provided authority for the Secretary to lower the increased Head Start center-based service duration requirements based on an assessment of available funding closer to the requirement's effective date in order to prevent thousands of disadvantaged children not having access to Head Start.
Section 1302.21(c)(3)(i) of the HSPPS final rule allows the Secretary to lower the required percentage of funded enrollment slots for which programs must provide 1,020 annual hours of planned class operations from the 50 percent required in § 1302.21(c)(2)(iii), on or before February 1, 2018, based on an assessment of the availability of sufficient funding to mitigate a substantial reduction in funded enrollment.
The Secretary has made an assessment that Head Start appropriations are not sufficient to allow the requirement at § 1302.21(c)(2)(iii), for 50 percent of each program's Head Start center-based slots to operate for 1,020 annual hours, to go into effect without resulting in a substantial reduction in funded enrollment.
Prior to publication of the HSPPS final rule, Congress appropriated $294 million in fiscal year (FY) 2016 to support an increase in hours of program operations across Head Start and Early Head Start. At the time of the FY 2016 funding to support and increased duration, the regulatory requirements were not in effect. Programs that wished to voluntarily increase hours of program operations to 1,020 annual hours for up to 40 percent of their Head Start center-based slots or to 1,380 annual hours for their Early Head Start center-based slots were eligible to submit an application by June 2016 to receive additional funds. Some eligible programs chose not to apply for additional funding. There are programs that currently operate none of their Head Start center-based funded enrollment for 1,020 annual hours. There are also programs that currently operate all of their Head Start center-based funded enrollment for 1,020 hours or longer. These requirements are minimums, and programs could choose to operate some slots longer each day and/or for more days per year.
In the HSPPS final rule, we estimated the cost for programs to implement the 50 percent service duration requirement to be $535 million. Since the publication of the final rule in September 2016, when Head Start programs were notified of the future requirements to increase center-based service duration to 1,020 annual hours, no additional funds have been appropriated to support increases in service duration. While we requested funds to support additional increases in service duration in FY 2017, Congress did not further increase Head Start appropriations for this purpose.
HHS has conducted an assessment of available funding and the current percentages of slots individual programs currently operate at 1,020 annual hours. Based on this assessment, we estimate that without additional funding, implementation of the requirement at § 1302.21(c)(2)(iii) for each program to operate 50 percent of its Head Start center-based slots for 1,020 annual hours would result in a loss of approximately 41,000 Head Start slots, which represents roughly five percent of existing Head Start slots. The FY 2018 President's Budget did not request an increase in appropriations to support increases in service duration. We do not expect sufficient funding to become available in time for grantees to meet the current HSPPS standard.
Under § 1302.21(c)(3)(i), the Secretary has made a determination that there is not sufficient funding available to mitigate a substantial reduction in funded enrollment resulting from the requirement described in § 1302.21(c)(2)(iii), and hereby waives the requirement that 50 percent of a program's Head Start center-based program's funded enrollment that must operate for 1,020 annual hours of planned class operations by August 1, 2019, effectively lowering the percentage to 0. This determination is effective immediately. Because the HSPPS final rule governs the Secretary's discretion in this matter, the public comment process is not required.
The service duration requirements for Head Start center-based programs described in § 1302.21(c)(2)(i) and (ii) remain in effect. Under these requirements, a Head Start center-based program must provide, at a minimum, at least 160 days per year of planned class operations if it operates for five days per week, or at least 128 days per year if it operates four days per week. Classes must operate for a minimum of 3.5 hours per day. These requirements are minimums, and programs could choose to operate some slots longer each day and/or for more days per year. The Head Start Act allows programs to request to convert part-day slots to full-day or full-working-day slots. This determination by the Secretary provides local Head Start programs maximum flexibility to determine program schedules that best meet the demonstrated needs in their communities, and ensures low-income children will not lose access to Head Start's comprehensive services and a preschool experience before entering Kindergarten because of a federal requirement. Additionally, the requirement under § 1302.21(c)(1)(i) that Early Head Start programs provide 1,380 annual hours of planned class operations for all center-based enrollment by August 1, 2018 also remains in effect.
The Secretary's determination under § 1302.21(c)(3)(i) does not affect the Secretary's authority to make a separate determination under § 1302.21(c)(3)(ii) on or before February 1, 2020, to maintain or lower the service duration requirement described in § 1302.21(c)(2)(iv) based on an assessment of the availability of sufficient funding to mitigate a substantial reduction in funded enrollment resulting from that requirement.
In addition, the Secretary's determination under § 1302.21(c)(3)(i) does not change or affect current processes that allow grantees to request to serve children for longer service duration within existing funding levels as part of the grantee's annual service and enrollment negotiations with the Office of Head Start.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Grant of waiver.
FMCSA grants a limited 90-day waiver from the Federal hours-of-service (HOS) regulations pertaining to electronic logging devices (ELDs) for Old Dominion Freight Lines, Inc. (Old Dominion) and other motor carriers in similar situations due to issues concerning the integration of PeopleNet's ELD software into fleet management systems. The Agency has initiated this action in response to a waiver request from Old Dominion.
This waiver is effective December 18, 2017, and expires on March 18, 2018.
Thomas L. Yager, Chief, Driver and Carrier Operations Division, Office of Bus and Truck Standards and Operations, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE, Washington, DC 20590. Email:
Old Dominion has asked for relief from the grandfather provision of the ELD regulations, allowing them to add vehicles to their fleet using software that is not fully compliant with the ELD rule, provided the conditions specified in the waiver are met. FMCSA has determined that granting this waiver to Old Dominion, as well as other similarly situated carriers, is in the public interest and will likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to the level that would be achieved absent the waiver, based on the terms and conditions imposed in this document.
The Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century (TEA-21) (Pub. L. 105-178, 112 Stat. 107, June 9, 1998) provides the Secretary of Transportation (the Secretary) the authority to grant waivers from any of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations issued under Chapter 313 of Title 49 of the United States Code or 49 U.S.C. 31136, to a person(s) seeking regulatory relief. (49 U.S.C. 31136(e), 31315(a)). The Secretary must make a determination that the waiver is in the public interest and that it is likely to achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be obtained in the absence of the waiver. Individual waivers may be granted only for a specific unique, non-emergency event, for a period up to three months. TEA-21 authorizes the Secretary to grant waivers without requesting public comment, and without providing public notice.
The Administrator of FMCSA has been delegated authority under 49 CFR 1.87(e) to carry out the functions vested in the Secretary by 49 U.S.C. chapter 311, subchapter I and III, relating to commercial motor vehicle programs and safety regulations.
Old Dominion began equipping its commercial motor vehicles with PeopleNet AOBRDs in 2010, and by 2011 its entire fleet was equipped with devices which meet the requirements of 49 CFR 395.15. Data from the AOBRDs is transferred directly into the company's fleet management and safety systems, enabling its dispatchers to know precisely where every driver is at any given time and how many hours he/she has available under the Federal hours-of-service rules. This functionality is not required by the AOBRD rules under 49 CFR 395.15 or the ELD requirements under Subpart B of 49 CFR part 395.
Old Dominion explained that PeopleNet's AOBRD and ELD hardware currently installed in its vehicles, and the systems that will be installed in the near future, will satisfy the ELD mandate after the company implements the transition to PeopleNet's December 15, 2017, software release. However, the new PeopleNet release does not include the necessary means to integrate into Old Dominion's fleet management and safety software.
Currently, the PeopleNet AOBRD software allows carriers to configure certain sessions. If the settings were not adjustable, the PeopleNet AOBRD would be similar to, but not identical to the FMCSA's ELD technical specifications. Although Old Dominion has configured its settings in the PeopleNet AOBRDs it uses, certain AOBRD software changes must be made by PeopleNet, including:
• Eliminating the “skip” feature;
• Limiting the auto-duty driving status change threshold to 5 miles; and
• Limiting geo-fencing of yards to a 0.5-mile radius.
When these changes are fully implemented, and the operational controls are in place, the PeopleNet system used by Old Dominion will provide an equivalent level of safety while the integration of the ELD software is completed.
Old Dominion requested a 90-day waiver to permit the company to install and use ELD hours-of-service recording devices (
Based on the information presented in Old Dominion's request, FMCSA believes it is appropriate to grant a limited 90-day waiver from 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(i) and subpart B of 49 CFR part 395, Electronic Logging Devices. The Agency has determined, as required by 49 U.S.C. 31315(a) and the implementing regulations under 49 CFR part 381, that the waiver is in the public interest and that the waiver is likely to achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be obtained in the absence of the waiver.
FMCSA believes the granting of the waiver is in the public interest, given the scope of Old Dominion's and other companies' operations and their role in delivering cargo that ultimately benefit consumers. In the case of Old Dominion, the company has 228 service centers located throughout the Nation and operates a fleet of more than 8,500 power units. The company employs more than 10,000 company drivers. It is in the public interest to avoid disruptions to Old Dominion and other carriers' operations and, subsequently, a disruption to the movement of a significant amount of freight.
FMCSA has determined that the electronic system that Old Dominion will use to monitor its drivers' hours of service during the period of the waiver will achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be obtained in the absence of the waiver. The company will not only electronically capture the duty status information for all its drivers, it will also monitor the real-time status of its drivers' compliance with the hours-of-service regulations so that supervisors and dispatchers may intervene immediately if a driver is about to run out of driving or on-duty time.
Also, with the AOBRD settings outlined in the waiver request, which exceed the minimum required by 49 CFR 395.15, and the commitment by PeopleNet to make associated software
Consistent with the statutory requirements for waivers, this relief is for a period not in excess of 3 months and is limited in scope and circumstances. FMCSA finds that the challenges Old Dominion described in achieving compliance with the ELD requirements while integrating the PeopleNet ELD software into existing fleet management systems is a unique situation for Old Dominion and other carriers facing similar challenges integrating PeopleNet software into their fleet management systems.
For the reasons cited above, FMCSA grants Old Dominion, and other motor carriers facing similar challenges integrating PeopleNet ELD software into fleet management systems, a limited three-month waiver from the ELD requirements, subject to the terms and conditions provided below.
This waiver covers Old Dominion Inc. and other motor carriers experiencing similar challenges resulting from PeopleNet's software for the period beginning at 12:01 a.m. (ET) on December 18, 2017, continuing through 11:59 p.m. on March 18, 2018.
This waiver is limited strictly to 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(i) and subpart B of 49 CFR part 395, Electronic Logging Devices. Old Dominion and other motor carriers with similar situations related to PeopleNet's recent software release, must comply with all other applicable provisions of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) (49 CFR 350-399).
Each motor carrier operating under this waiver must ensure that drivers required to maintain a record of duty status (ROD) must do so with a device that meets the requirements of 49 CFR 395.15 concerning automatic on-board recording devices (AOBRDs):
1. During the waiver period, vehicles may be added to the fleet
2. The AOBRD must transfer data directly into the motor carrier's fleet management and safety systems, allowing its dispatchers to know precisely where the drivers are at any given time and how many hours he/she has available under the Federal hours-of-service rules.
3. The motor carrier will use the AOBRD settings similar to those outlined in Old Dominion's waiver request.
4. PeopleNet system must be modified to disable or adjust the settings as outlined below.
a. Eliminate the “skip feature”;
b. Limit the auto-duty driving status change threshold to 5 miles or less; and
c. Limit the geo-fencing yard time limit to a 0.5-mile radius or less.
If it is determined that this software has not been changed, this waiver does not apply.
Each motor carrier must notify FMCSA within 5 business days of an accident (as defined in 49 CFR 390.5), involving any commercial motor vehicles operating under the terms of this waiver. The notification must include the following information:
• Date of the accident,
• City or town, and State, in which the accident occurred, or closest to the accident scene,
• Driver's name and license number,
• Vehicle number and State license number,
• Number of individuals suffering physical injury,
• Number of fatalities,
• The police-reported cause of the accident, and
• Whether the driver was cited for violation of any traffic laws, or motor carrier safety regulations.
Notification shall be by email to
Consistent with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), this waiver preempts inconsistent State or local requirements applicable to interstate commerce.
Office of the Secretary, USDA.
Withdrawal of proposed rules; Correction.
This document contains a correction to the withdrawal published on January 4, 2018, titled, Withdrawal of Certain Proposed Rules and Other Proposed Actions. The document incorrectly stated that the proposed rule published on July 15, 2016, under the title Soybean Promotion, Research, and Consumer Information; Beef Promotion and Research; Amendments To Allow Redirection of State Assessments to the National Program; Technical Amendments (Soybean Promotion) is not considered a candidate for final action at this time. This document corrects that statement and makes it known that this rulemaking remains under review.
The proposed rule published on January 4, 2018 is corrected as of January 19, 2018.
Michael Poe, Telephone Number: (202) 720-3323. Email
The Soybean Promotion proposed rule published on July 15, 2016, is among a class of research and promotion orders for which the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has waived review under Executive Order 12866. As a matter of practice, the Department of Agriculture (USDA) does not create or assign Regulatory Identification Numbers (RIN) for documents that are not reviewed by OMB. In the present case, the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) incorrectly created RIN 0581-AD49 for the Soybean Promotion rule on May 26, 2016 and corrected the mistake by withdrawing the RIN on June 23, 2017. RIN 0581-AD49 was listed in the July 15, 2016 publication of the Soybean Promotion rule. Additionally, AMS incorrectly created a second RIN for the same Soybean Promotion rule on March 17, 2017 and corrected this subsequent mistake by withdrawing that RIN on August 31, 2017. The second RIN 0581-AD63 was listed in the January 4, 2018 document. The withdrawals of RIN 0581-AD49 and RIN 0581-AD63 removed the incorrectly created numbers from the Regulatory Information Service Center and Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs Consolidated Information System, but did not affect the underlying rulemaking.
As stated above, the January 4, 2017 document incorrectly stated that the Soybean Promotion rule is not considered a candidate for final action at this time. This document corrects that statement and makes it known that AMS continues to review the proposed rule and the comments.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to modify the San Francisco, CA, Class B airspace area to contain aircraft conducting instrument flight rules (IFR) instrument approach procedures to San Francisco International Airport (SFO), San Francisco, CA. The FAA is taking this action to improve the flow of air traffic, enhance safety, and reduce the potential for midair collision in the SFO Class B airspace area while accommodating the concerns of airspace users. Further, this effort supports the FAA's national airspace redesign goal of optimizing terminal and enroute airspace to reduce aircraft delays and improve system capacity.
This notice does not constitute either a final decision of the FAA or a re-opening of the FAA's August 6, 2014, final decision for the Northern California (NorCal) Optimization of Airspace and Procedures in the Metroplex (OAPM) project.
Comments must be received on or before March 20, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001; telephone: 1 (800) 647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-0653 and Airspace Docket No. 17-AWA-2 at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is
Kenneth Ready, Airspace Policy Group, Office of Airspace Services, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would modify the San Francisco, CA, Class B airspace area to improve the flow of air traffic and enhance safety within the National Airspace System (NAS).
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-0653 and Airspace Docket No. 17-AWA-2) and be submitted in triplicate to the Docket Management Facility (see
Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket Nos. FAA-2017-0653 and Airspace Docket No. 17-AWA-2.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this action may be changed in light of comments received. All comments submitted will be available for examination in the public docket both before and after the closing date for comments. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA issued a final rule establishing the San Francisco, CA, Terminal Control Area (37 FR 21928, October, 17, 1972), Airspace Docket No. 72-WA-10, FR. Doc. 72-17641. As a result of the Airspace Reclassification final rule (56 FR 65638, December 17, 1991) Docket No. 24456, FR Doc. 91-29869, which became effective in 1993, the terms “terminal control area” and “airport radar service area” were replaced by “Class B airspace area” and “Class C airspace area,” respectively. The primary purpose of a Class B airspace area is to reduce the potential for midair collisions in the airspace surrounding airports with high-density air traffic operations by providing an area in which all aircraft are subject to certain operating rules and equipment requirements.
The SFO Class B airspace area was last modified in 2000 (65 FR 36060, June 7, 2000), Airspace Docket No. 97-AWA-1, FR Doc. 00-14046, using air traffic activity levels from the 1990s, and has not been modified since. The following activities have occurred since then making it appropriate to redesign the current San Francisco Class B airspace.
• Updates to instrument approach procedure charting criteria.
• Advances in flight deck technology that allows aircraft automation to manage both the lateral and vertical flight path.
• Advances in airframe technology, specifically efficiencies in wing design.
• Industry adoption of “optimized profile descent” procedures that provide a constant angle descent into the terminal area.
• Industry-wide migration to satellite-based global positioning system (GPS) area navigation procedures from procedures utilizing ground-based navigational facilities.
In 2014, as part of the Next Generation Air Transportation System (NextGen),
Consistent with the recent NorCal OAPM project, the proposed modifications to the SFO Class B airspace area moves the identification methods of the Class B airspace away from reliance on ground-based navigational aids to utilizing GPS technology and leveraging the increased use of graphical flight system displays. The proposed airspace modifications are based on current lateral flight paths and take into account the NorCal OAPM-implemented satellite-based area navigation procedures at San Francisco International Airport. These NorCal OAPM-based RNAV arrival procedures, known as “Optimized Profile Descents”, utilize a shallow descent angle consistent with today's aircraft design to allow for a more fuel-efficient descent profile. Today's SFO fleet consists of new-generation aircraft such as the B737-NG, B747-400, B777, B787, and the A321, A340, A380. The newer generation of aircraft utilize a more efficient wing design that requires a shallower descent at reduced power levels.
Moreover, due to limitations of the current SFO Class B airspace configuration, air traffic had to interrupt the optimal profile descent on instrument approach procedures to keep aircraft within Class B airspace while flying published instrument approach procedures, which is contrary to FAA Orders guidance. Modeling of existing traffic flows has shown that the proposed expanded Class B airspace would enhance safety by containing all instrument approach procedures, and associated traffic patterns, within the confines of Class B airspace and better segregate IFR aircraft arriving/departing SFO and visual flight rules (VFR) aircraft operating in the vicinity of the SFO Class B airspace area. The proposed Class B airspace modifications described in this NPRM are intended to address these issues.
In areas where current Class B airspace is no longer required to contain San Francisco International Airport arrivals or departures, the FAA is proposing to remove that airspace from the proposed Class B airspace modifications and re-designate it as Class E or Class G airspace, as appropriate.
In 2015, the FAA initiated action to form an Ad Hoc Committee to seek input and recommendations from representatives of effected aviation segments for the FAA to consider in designing proposed modifications to the SFO Class B airspace area. Participants in the committee included representatives from the National Business Aviation Association (NBAA), Aircraft Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA), Airlines Pilot Association (ALPA), California Pilots Association, San Carlos Airport Association, Palo Alto Pilots Association, California Department of Transportation, California Highway Patrol, United and Southwest Airlines, City of Palo Alto, United Sates Coast Guard, San Mateo County Airports, San Francisco Airport Commission, and Hewlett Packard Enterprise. The Ad Hoc Committee report included general group consensus recommendations and individual recommendations. A copy of the report has been placed in the docket for this rulemaking action.
As announced in the
All substantive airspace recommendations made by the Ad Hoc Committee and public comments received as a result of the informal airspace meetings, regarding proposed modifications to the SFO Class B airspace area, were considered in developing this proposal.
The Ad Hoc Committee recommended the FAA modify the design of the current Class B surface area (Area A) by moving the southern boundary slightly north to follow Interstate 280 and defining the northern and eastern boundaries using a DME arc off of the SFO VOR/DME.
The FAA partially adopted this recommendation by moving the Area A southern boundary northward, to the extent practicable, but is proposing to describe the northern and eastern boundaries recommended arc using geographic coordinates to move the identification of the SFO Class B airspace area away from a reliance on using ground-based navigational aids in favor of using GPS technology and leveraging the increased use of graphical flight system displays.
The Ad Hoc Committee suggested the FAA review the design of the proposed Area N further for opportunities of greater stratification or subdivision. They noted the underlying area included high terrain and that it would benefit general aviation to have higher altitudes to operate beneath the Class B airspace and offered that a new fix on the SERFR Two STAR, with an altitude crossing restriction of at or above 8,000 feet, should be considered as a method to provide a higher floor altitude within this area.
The FAA reviewed the proposed Area N as suggested and adopted this recommendation; adjusting the proposed Area N floor of Class B airspace to be 8,000 feet MSL, accordingly. Additionally, to ensure the SFO SERFR STAR is contained within the existing Class B airspace area, the FAA plans to add an altitude crossing restriction of “at or above 8,000 feet MSL” approximately 8 miles southeast of the EDDYY waypoint.
The Ad Hoc Committee also suggested the FAA evaluate the design of proposed Area Q further for consolidation [presumably with other proposed Class B sub-areas] and to align the eastern boundary with a VOR/DME arc and/or prominent geographical landmarks (preferably both). The Ad Hoc Committee recommended adjusting the eastern boundary by relocating it to the southern edge of Lake Del Valle and proceed southbound to Mount Hamilton or using the SFO 33-mile DME arc.
The FAA does not agree with this recommendation. The eastern boundary of Area Q is located where IFR arriving aircraft are descending via the DYMND and YOSEM STARs passing through 10,000 feet MSL. Moving the boundary westward to Lake Del Valle is not considered operationally feasible by air traffic control. Additionally, relying on an arc off the SFO DME would result in an unnecessary increase in the size of Class B airspace. However, the FAA plans to establish VFR waypoints at Cedar Mountain and Lick Observatory (atop Mount Hamilton) to aid VFR pilots with visually identifying the lateral confines of the proposed Class B airspace.
In addition to the three specific recommendation above, the Ad Hoc Committee went on to offer a number of general recommendations that included amending the Oakland Class C airspace area concurrently with this action, disclosing whether any proposed airspace changes are the result of a trend of Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) resolution advisories (RAs), publishing SFO Class B airspace amendments to coincide with VFR Class B Enhancement Graphic initiatives, defining new VFR transition routes to circumnavigate Class B airspace areas
The FAA has considered the general recommendations provided by the Ad Hoc Committee and offers the following. Modifying the Oakland Class C airspace concurrently with this action is outside the scope of this action. With respect to the use of TCAS RA reports or trends, they are generally a consideration in many Class B amendment actions; however, they were not used to justify this proposed action. To the recommendations associated with the VFR Class B Enhancement Graphic initiatives, defining new VFR transition routes, depicting commonly used overflight routes on Flyway Planning Charts, defining Class B airspace sub-areas using radials, arcs, or geographic landmarks, depicting STAR/SID fixes closest to the outer boundary of Class B airspace areas, and conducting extensive outreach prior to informal airspace meetings, they all have merit and the FAA plans to consider the recommendations as provided. Lastly, for the recommendation addressing containment of Class B airspace areas within associated Mode C veils, further consideration is required since Class B airspace areas and the Mode C veil around Class B primary airports are not dependent on each other.
Several recommendations from individual Ad Hoc Committee members raised concerns/issues regarding the development of air traffic management tools, perceived concerns over existing instrument procedures and/or air traffic control services at SFO, concurrent modifications to Oakland Class C airspace, regulatory airspeed restrictions, and general complaints about the philosophy, policy, and processing actions underpinning the rulemaking requirements for modifying Class B airspace areas. These concerns/issues are not addressed as part of this proposal.
As a result of the informal airspace meetings, the FAA received comments from 51 commenters, including 3 organizations that represented one or more groups of individuals.
Thirty-four comments were received from 28 individuals and one organization representing multiple citizen groups raising concerns with respect to potential noise impacts as a result of the proposed airspace changes. Most of the comments cited a recent increase in noise due to changes in air traffic flight patterns within the last year.
The Class B airspace redesign development process is intended to identify and address safety concerns associated with the proposed airspace configuration. The designation or modification of this proposed airspace does not create an adverse environmental impact. The FAA complies with the requirements of applicable federal statutes, regulations and its internal Orders, including evaluating noise impacts associated with all new air traffic procedures and potential modifications to currently published procedures. Therefore, environmental evaluations and considerations are followed and undertaken before implementing instrument flight procedures, including when appropriate Diverse Vector Areas, not the designation of controlled airspace areas to contain those procedures. The FAA is continuing its work on an initiative requested by three congressional representatives to address existing noise concerns in Santa Cruz, Santa Clara, San Mateo, and San Francisco Counties. Additionally, concerned citizens can contact the FAA's Aviation Noise Ombudsman to submit existing noise complaints at email
Eight commenters cited an expected negative impact on glider and general aviation practice operations near Mount Diablo due to the eastward expansion of Class B airspace.
The FAA adjusted the proposed Class B airspace boundaries in the vicinity of the glider and general aviation practice operations near Mount Diablo by moving the boundaries westward to mitigate these concerns, as much as possible, while still ensuring containment of IFR arrival aircraft within Class B airspace. Additionally, the floor of the proposed Class B airspace near Mount Diablo was retained at 6,000 feet MSL in one sub-area and raised from 6,000 feet MSL to 7,000 feet MSL in another to accommodate the glider and general aviation aircraft operations near the proposed Class B airspace area.
Eight commenters expressed a general dissatisfaction with the informal public meeting schedule, location, and/or briefing materials.
The FAA held three informal airspace meetings on separate days and in different locations to seek public input from different communities underlying the proposed Class B airspace to aid in developing this proposed modification of the SFO Class B airspace area. The FAA recognizes the benefits associated with hosting informal airspace meetings and seeking input on airspace actions from the public; requiring notices of informal airspace meetings be sent 60 to 90 days prior to the first meeting to all known licensed pilots, state aviation agencies, airport manager/operators, and operators of parachute, sailplane, ultra-light, and balloon clubs within a 100-mile radius of the primary airport for Class B airspace actions. As a result, these comments will be retained and considered in the planning of future informal public meetings to help the public better understand proposed airspace changes and to enhance substantive public input for future airspace actions.
Five commenters expressed support for the continuation and development of more VFR corridors to allow VFR pilots to transition the San Francisco Bay area without entering the Class B airspace. However, one of the five commenters also recommended that the FAA develop a VFR corridor with lateral and vertical paths through the Class B airspace area. With the exception of the commenter that actually recommended the FAA include a VFR Flight Corridor through SFO Class B airspace, the FAA read the other four commenters' inputs to actually be addressing support for the continuation of VFR flyways and not VFR corridors.
The FAA appreciates the support for retaining the VFR flyways that circumnavigate the SFO Class B airspace area, but does not agree with developing a VFR corridor through the Class B airspace. The current Class B airspace area has five VFR flyways that surround the Class B surface area and reside under the Class B shelves. Three of the five VFR flyways also have alternate transitions to further support circumnavigating around and under Class B airspace. With the proposed modifications to the SFO Class B airspace area, four flyways will remain unchanged, but one VFR flyway, located southeast of SFO, will require a 400-foot reduction of the suggested altitude, from
Four commenters cited safety concerns for VFR aircraft operations beneath the floor of the proposed Class B airspace due to congestion, proximity to terrain, and airspace for a safe glide distance over San Francisco Bay.
The FAA is taking action to modify the current class B airspace to contain all instrument procedures at SFO and the aircraft flying those procedures within Class B airspace, once they have entered it, to overcome the IFR aircraft entering, exiting, and re-entering Class B airspace while flying published instrument approaches and associated traffic patterns. The FAA acknowledges that some compression will occur and that non-participating VFR aircraft will have to fly above, below, or circumnavigate the proposed SFO Class B airspace in order to remain clear of it should they decide not to seek Class B airspace services. The floors of the proposed Class B airspace sub-areas were adjusted in most of the areas to the extent possible to raise the floor of the Class B airspace and mitigate the concerns. All aircraft operating beneath or in the vicinity of the SFO Class B airspace area are expected to continue to comply with the regulatory requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) § 91.111, titled Operating Near Other Aircraft, to avoid creating a collision hazard with other aircraft operating in the same airspace. Additionally, all aircraft operating in the same areas noted above are expected to continue complying 14 CFR § 91.113, titled Right-of-Way Rules: Except Water operations, to “see and avoid” other aircraft as well. The FAA believes that continued general aviation pilot compliance with established flight rules regulatory requirement, and these two regulations specifically, will overcome the safety concerns raised by the commenters.
Two commenters stated the use of geographic coordinates—instead of distances from navigation aids (NAVAIDs) or other reference points to define the individual airspace areas—would make navigation around, and the avoidance of, Class B airspace more difficult.
The FAA acknowledges the concerns of the commenters, but has determined the use of geographic coordinates to define the Class B airspace area enables a much smaller area of Class B airspace to be designated or established to contain all IFR instrument procedures and arrival/departure operations. Further, the FAA believes the current trend toward increased use of GPS navigation and position tracking will mitigate the concern.
Two commenters suggested the use of waypoints to facilitate the identification of the boundaries of Class B airspace areas.
The FAA plans to adopt the commenters' suggestion. The development, designation, and charting of waypoints will follow established Aeronautical Information Services (AIS) processing requirements while the rulemaking requirements for proposing and designating Class B airspace modifications are accomplished. Collectively, that will result in the FAA using waypoints to identify Class B airspace boundaries.
One comment was received from a user group associated with the United States Hang Gliding and Paragliding Association, including 39 individual names, outlining the negative impact on hang glider operations within the Golden Gate National Recreation Area, and requesting specific adjustments.
The FAA was able to partially adopt the Association's requested adjustments by amending the western boundary of the proposed Class B surface area airspace along the shore to minimize the impact to hang glider operations at the Fort Funston and Pacifica hang gliding and paragliding sites in the greater bay area, to the extent possible.
One commenter expressed a safety concern that the expansion of Class B airspace into the Sunnyvale, CA area will result in aircraft arriving at San Francisco and San Jose using the same airspace simultaneously and may present a hazard to residents below.
The FAA does not agree. The proposed modifications to the SFO Class B airspace area and the FAA's August 7, 2014 issuance of NorCal OAPM procedures for operations within the San Francisco terminal area were designed to keep aircraft arriving and departing at the San Francisco and San Jose International Airports segregated; ensuring safe and efficient arrival and departure operations at both locations.
One commenter questioned whether the FAA can regulate airspace more than 12 miles off the coast of the United States.
As part of this proposal relates to the navigable airspace outside the United States, this notice is submitted in consonance with the ICAO International Standards and Recommended Practices. Article 12 of the Chicago Convention provides that over the high seas the rules in force shall be those established under the Convention. Applicability of International Standards and Recommended Practices by the Air Traffic Service, FAA, in areas outside domestic airspace of the United States is governed by Annexes 2 and 11 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, which pertain to the rules of the air and the establishment of air navigation facilities and services necessary to promoting the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of civil air traffic. Their purpose is to insure that civil flying on international air routes is carried out under uniform conditions designed to improve the safety and efficiency of air operations.
The International Standards and Recommended Practices in Annex 11 apply in those parts of the airspace under the jurisdiction of a contracting state, derived from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), wherein air traffic services are provided and also whenever a contracting state accepts the responsibility of providing air traffic services over high seas or in airspace of undetermined sovereignty. A contracting state accepting such responsibility may apply the International Standards and Recommended Practices to civil aircraft in a manner consistent with that adopted for airspace under its domestic jurisdiction.
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to modify the SFO Class B airspace area. This action (depicted on the attached graphic) moves away from the three concentric circle (upside down wedding cake) design configuration and is redrawn based on arrival and departure routes into and out of SFO. Using this design approach allows the FAA to minimize the Class B airspace necessary to contain instrument procedures within Class B airspace for aircraft arriving and departing SFO and to re-designate current Class B airspace as Class E or Class G to make it available for nonparticipant aircraft circumnavigating the Class B airspace area. Additionally, the proposed modifications would better segregate IFR aircraft arriving/departing SFO and VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity of the SFO Class B airspace area. The proposed modifications to the SFO Class B airspace area are discussed below.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. We have determined that there is no new information collection requirement associated with this proposed rule.
Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several economic analyses. First, Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563 direct that each Federal agency shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) requires agencies to analyze the economic impact of regulatory changes on small entities. Third, the Trade Agreements Act (Pub. L. 96-39) prohibits agencies from setting standards that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. In developing U.S. standards, the Trade Act requires agencies to consider international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis of U.S. standards. Fourth, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more annually (adjusted for inflation with base year of 1995). This portion of the preamble
Department of Transportation Order DOT 2100.5 prescribes policies and procedures for simplification, analysis, and review of regulations. If the expected cost impact is so minimal that a proposed or final rule does not warrant a full evaluation, this order permits that a statement to that effect and the basis for it to be included in the preamble if a full regulatory evaluation of the cost and benefits is not prepared. Such a determination has been made for this proposed rule. The reasoning for this determination follows:
It is appropriate to redesign SFO Class B airspace for reasons described earlier including the availability of new procedures such as the use of “Optimized Profile Descents,” advances in technology; migration to GPS from ground based navigation facilities and updated charting criteria.
This regulation proposes to modify the San Francisco, CA, (SFO) Class B airspace area to improve the flow of air traffic, enhance safety and reduce the potential for midair collision in the SFO Class B airspace area while accommodating the concerns of airspace users. This effort supports the FAA's national airspace redesign goal of optimizing terminal and enroute airspace to reduce aircraft delays and improve system capacity.
The Class B airspace redesign may enhance opportunities for more fuel-efficient descent profiles.
Further, the SFO Class B airspace redesign would enhance safety by containing IFR traffic arriving and departing SFO within the confines of Class B airspace and would better segregate IFR and VFR aircraft.
Finally, the regulation proposes returning current Class B airspace that is not being used for SFO airport arrivals or departures to the NAS.
Because it proposes to modify SFO Class B airspace to take advantage of more fuel efficient approaches and optimize terminal and enroute airspace to reduce delays and improve system capacity, the rule is expected to be a minimal cost rule with the potential to be minimal cost saving.
FAA has, therefore, determined that this proposed rule is not a “significant regulatory action” as defined in section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, and is not “significant” as defined in DOT's Regulatory Policies and Procedures.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) (RFA) establishes “as a principle of regulatory issuance that agencies shall endeavor, consistent with the objectives of the rule and of applicable statutes, to fit regulatory and informational requirements to the scale of the businesses, organizations, and governmental jurisdictions subject to regulation.” To achieve this principle, agencies are required to solicit and consider flexible regulatory proposals and to explain the rationale for their actions to assure that such proposals are given serious consideration. The RFA covers a wide-range of small entities, including small businesses, not-for-profit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions.
Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis as described in the RFA.
However, if an agency determines that a rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, section 605(b) of the RFA provides that the head of the agency may so certify and a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required. The certification must include a statement providing the factual basis for this determination, and the reasoning should be clear.
The redesign of the SFO Class B airspace will not affect a substantial number of small entities because the redesign does not alter or amend any existing flight path at SFO. Any change to an existing flight path would be achieved through a separate action. Therefore, the expected outcome, if any, would be a minimal economic impact on small entities affected by this rulemaking action. The FAA requests comments.
If an agency determines that a rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, the head of the agency may so certify under section 605(b) of the RFA. Therefore, as provided in section 605(b), the head of the FAA certifies that this rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective, such as the protection of safety, and does not operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards. The FAA has assessed the potential effect of this proposed rule and determined that it would improve safety and is consistent with the Trade Agreements Act.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed or final agency rule that may result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (in 1995 dollars) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector; such a mandate is deemed to be a “significant regulatory action.” The FAA currently uses an inflation-adjusted value of $155 million in lieu of $100 million. This proposed rule does not contain such a mandate; therefore, the requirements of Title II of the Act do not apply.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Boundaries.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notification of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance entitled “Public Warning and Notification of Recalls Under 21 CFR Part 7, Subpart C; Draft Guidance for Industry and FDA Staff.” The draft guidance, when finalized, establishes official guidance for industry and FDA staff regarding the use, content, and circumstances for issuance of public warnings and public notification of voluntary recalls under Federal regulations. The intent of the draft guidance is to increase and expedite the appropriate and accurate use of public warnings and public notification, to increase public health protection by better informing the public about violative products being recalled. The draft guidance clarifies and supplements existing policy for industry and FDA staff regarding the use of public warnings and public notification.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by March 20, 2018 to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
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• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
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• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
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You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of the draft guidance to the Office of Strategic Planning and Operational Policy, Office of Regulatory Affairs, Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Building, Rockville, MD 20857. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Chris Henderson, Office of Regulatory Affairs, Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Rockville, MD 20857, 240-402-8186,
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry and FDA staff entitled “Public Warning and Notification of Recalls Under 21 CFR Part 7, Subpart C.” The draft guidance, when finalized, will establish official guidance for industry and FDA staff regarding the use, content, and timing of public warnings and public notification of recalls under part 7 (21 CFR part 7). The draft guidance is part of a larger effort FDA is undertaking to give additional guidance to industry and FDA staff regarding the execution and oversight of voluntary recalls under part 7.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on public warnings and notification of recalls. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). Any collection of information, including a firm's public warning (§ 7.42(b)(2)), has been approved under OMB control number 0910-0249.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the draft guidance at either
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Commerce.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO or Office) proposes to remove its regulations governing reservation clauses, petitions from the refusal of a primary examiner to admit an amendment, the publication of amendments to the regulations, and limits that the Director can impose on the number of inter partes reviews and post-grant reviews heard by the Patent Trial and Appeal Board. These regulations are unnecessary or superfluous and in some cases have expired, and their removal will help streamline USPTO's body of regulations without reducing the availability of services for the public. This proposed rule arises out of the USPTO's work during FY 2017 to identify and propose regulations for removal, modification, and streamlining because they are outdated, unnecessary, ineffective, costly, or unduly burdensome on the agency or the private sector. The revisions proposed herein would put into effect the work the USPTO has done, in part through its participation in the Regulatory Reform Task Force established by the Department of Commerce pursuant to Executive Order 13777, to review and identify regulations that are candidates for removal.
Written comments must be received on or before February 20, 2018.
Comments on the changes set forth in this proposed rulemaking should be sent by electronic mail message to:
Comments may also be submitted via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
The comments will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Commissioner for Patents, currently located in Madison East, 600 Dulany Street, Alexandria, Virginia. Comments also will be available for viewing via the Office's internet website (
Raul Tamayo, Senior Legal Advisor, Office of Patent Legal Administration, at (571) 272-7728, for questions regarding the changes to 37 CFR 1.79 and/or 1.127; Susan L. C. Mitchell, Lead Administrative Patent Judge, Patent Trial and Appeal Board, at (571) 272-8715, for questions regarding the changes to 37 CFR part 42; and Nicolas Oettinger, Senior Counsel for Regulatory and Legislative Affairs, Office of the General Counsel, at (571) 272-7832, for questions regarding the change to 37 CFR 1.351 and general questions regarding regulatory reform.
In accordance with Executive Order 13777, “Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda,” the Department of Commerce established a Regulatory Reform Task Force (Task Force), comprising, among others, agency officials from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, the Bureau of Industry and Security, and the USPTO, and charged the Task Force with evaluating existing regulations and identifying those that should be repealed, replaced, or modified because they are potentially outdated, unnecessary, ineffective, costly, or unduly burdensome to both government and private sector operations.
To support its regulatory reform efforts on the Task Force, the USPTO assembled a Working Group on Regulatory Reform (Working Group), consisting of subject matter experts from each of the business units that implement the USPTO's regulations, to consider, review, and recommend ways that the regulations could be improved, revised, and streamlined. In considering the revisions, the USPTO, through its Working Group, incorporated into its analyses all presidential directives relating to regulatory reform. The Working Group reviewed existing regulations, both discretionary and required by statute or judicial order. The USPTO also solicited comments from stakeholders through a web page established to provide information on the USPTO's regulatory reform efforts, and through the Department's
This proposed rulemaking would remove regulations concerning reservation clauses, petitions from the refusal of a primary examiner to admit an amendment, and publication of amendments to the regulations in 37 CFR part 1. This proposed rulemaking would also remove regulations concerning limits that the Director can impose on the number of inter partes reviews and post-grant reviews in 37 CFR part 42.
In particular, this proposed rulemaking would remove 37 CFR 1.79. Section 1.79 prohibits reservation clauses,
Section 1.79 also permits a patent application disclosing unclaimed subject matter to contain a reference to a later filed application of the same applicant or owned by a common assignee disclosing and claiming that subject matter. This provision of § 1.79 is duplicative and therefore unnecessary. 37 CFR 1.78 provides for cross-references to other applications, including cross-references to applications for which a benefit is not claimed, which encompasses the later filed applications identified in § 1.79. Thus, once the proposed rulemaking is made final, applicants will continue to be able to include in a pending application a reference to a later filed application as currently provided for in § 1.79.
This proposed rulemaking would remove § 1.127, which also is duplicative. Section 1.127 indicates that a petition to the Director under 37 CFR 1.181 may be filed upon a refusal by a primary examiner to admit an amendment, in whole or in part. Section 1.127 is unnecessary. The language of § 1.181 makes clear that a refusal by a primary examiner to admit an amendment is petitionable under § 1.181. The
This proposed rulemaking additionally would remove 37 CFR 1.351. Section 1.351 states that all amendments to the regulations in 37 CFR part 1 will be published in the
Finally, this proposed rulemaking would remove 37 CFR 42.102(b) and 42.202(b), both of which are now out of date. Section 42.102(b) provides that the Director may impose a limit on the number of inter partes reviews that may be instituted during each of the first four one-year periods that the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (AIA) is in effect. Section 42.202(b) has a similar provision for post-grant reviews. Neither rule remains necessary because the fourth anniversary of the effective date of the AIA has passed.
The regulations proposed in this rule for removal achieve the objective of making the USPTO's regulations more streamlined and less burdensome, while enabling the USPTO to fulfill its mission goals. The USPTO's analysis shows that removal of these regulations is not expected to substantially reduce the burden on the impacted community; however, the regulations are nonetheless being eliminated because they are “outdated, unnecessary, or ineffective” regulations encompassed by the directives in Executive Order 13777.
Section 1.79: Section 1.79 is removed and reserved.
Section 1.127: Section 1.127 is removed and reserved.
Section 1.351: Section 1.351 is removed and reserved.
Section 42.102(b): Section 42.102(b) is removed and reserved.
Section 42.202(b): Section 42.202(b) is removed and reserved.
Accordingly, prior notice and opportunity for public comment for the changes in this proposed rulemaking are not required pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b) or (c), or any other law.
This proposed rule would remove the provisions at 37 CFR 1.79, concerning the prohibition of reservation clauses, § 1.127, concerning petitions from refusal to admit amendment, and § 1.351, concerning the publication of amendments to rules. These regulations are removed because they are not necessary. This rule would also remove 37 CFR 42.102(b) and 42.202(b), which provide that the Director may impose a limit on the number of inter partes reviews and post-grant reviews that may be instituted during each of the first four one-year periods that the AIA is in effect. These regulations are no longer necessary because the fourth anniversary of the effective date of the AIA has passed.
Removing these regulations achieves the objective of making the USPTO's regulations more effective and more streamlined, while enabling the USPTO to fulfill its mission goals. The removal of these regulations is not expected to substantively impact parties as parties would either continue to be able to take the same action under a different regulatory provision, or the rights or obligations of the parties would not be changed in any way. For these reasons, this rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Administrative practice and procedure, Courts, Freedom of Information, Inventions and patents, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Small businesses.
Administrative practice and procedure, Inventions and patents.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Office proposes to amend parts 1 and 42 of title 37 as follows:
35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2).
35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2), 6, 21, 23, 41, 135, 311, 312, 316, 321-326 and Public Law 112-29, 125 Stat. 284; and Pub. L. 112-274, 126 Stat. 2456.
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Proposed rule.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) proposes to amend its regulations to clarify that a valid consent authorizing the Department to release the patient's confidential VA medical records to a health information exchange (HIE) community partner may be established not only by VA's physical possession of the written consent form, but also by the HIE community partner's written (electronic) attestation that the patient has, in fact, provided such consent. This proposed rule would be a reinterpretation of an existing, long-standing regulation and is necessary to facilitate modern requirements for the sharing of patient records with community health care providers, health plans, governmental agencies, and other entities participating in electronic HIEs. This revision would ensure that more community health care providers and other HIE community partners can deliver informed medical care to patients by having access to the patient's VA medical records at the point of care.
Written comments may be submitted through
Stephania Griffin, Director, Veterans Health Administration Information Access and Privacy Office, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420;
Under 38 U.S.C. 7332, VA must keep confidential all records of identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of a patient in connection with any program or activity carried out by VA related to drug abuse, alcoholism or alcohol abuse, infection with human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia, and must obtain patients' written consent before VA may disclose the protected information unless authorized by the statute. This requirement applies to communications between VA and community health care providers for the purposes of treatment, except in certain situations, for instance in medical emergencies and when the records are sent to a non-Department entity that provides hospital care to patients as authorized by the Secretary. 38 U.S.C. 7332(b)(2)(A) and (H); Public Law 115-26 (April 19, 2017). Although section 7332 does not explicitly require that the written consent physically be in VA's possession at the time of the disclosure, VA had interpreted the statute to require such possession, and therefore applied 38 CFR 1.475 consistent with that interpretation. VA has reexamined that statutory interpretation in light of contemporary
The ability to quickly release section 7332-protected information has become increasingly important as VA strives to support veterans' choice to seek care in the community and create innovative ways to provide effective and timely care to veterans. In this regard, VA has entered into an agreement to participate in an HIE to help facilitate the transfer of information between different organizations. An HIE is the electronic transfer of health information among organizations according to nationally recognized standards. The organizations that participate (HIE community partners) range from community health care providers and health plans to governmental agencies providing benefits, such as the Social Security Administration (SSA).
The interpretation that valid consent may be established only by VA's physical possession of the written consent has left many HIE community partners unable to access veterans' VA medical records at the point of care. While an estimated three out of four veterans enrolled in VA's health care system also seek medical care in the community, HIE community partners' requests for their VA health records must frequently be denied because VA does not have a consent on file, and many HIE community partners therefore either must delay care to veterans or provide treatment to veterans without having the benefit of reviewing the veteran's full medical history.
The reason for the low rate of consent is not because veterans object to providing consent; veteran participation is almost always favorable when asked to provide consent. The primary obstacle is that veterans will often seek care in the community prior to having the opportunity to provide the consent form to VA and are then left without any means of getting the consent into VA's physical possession promptly once they are at the community health care facility.
By allowing HIE community partners to attest that they have, in fact, obtained a valid consent, VA would be able to collect consent in a broader array of circumstances. Most importantly, this would allow VA to release a veteran's medical records to an HIE community partner, such as a community health care provider or SSA, once the partner attests that they have collected valid consent, without VA having to wait for the document to be furnished. This would allow for HIE community partners to provide veterans with the most informed care, would allow VA to more expediently provide veterans' records for the adjudication of their SSA disability claims, and would also allow for VA to continue innovating and creating new ways for veterans to receive timely and high quality health care.
VA believes that this new interpretation of section 7332—to permit disclosure to an HIE community partner pursuant to the partner's attestation regarding written consent, would uphold veterans' right to privacy. As explained in greater detail below, such disclosure would still require a legally sufficient written consent. We clarify that the only change would be that a valid consent authorizing disclosure may be established not only by VA's physical possession of the written consent form but also by the HIE community partner's attestation that the veteran has submitted legally sufficient consent. Moreover, in the private sector under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule, health care providers are able to release a patient's confidential medical records to another one of the patient's treating providers without written consent. Therefore, VA's privacy protections would remain more robust than those of the private sector generally and greater than those required by the HIPAA Privacy Rule.
This proposed rule would revise 38 CFR 1.460 to include definitions for “health information exchange” and “health information exchange community partner” as described above. Further, the rule would revise 1.475 as follows. Current paragraph (d) would be redesignated as paragraph (e) and would be revised as explained below. New paragraph (d) would provide the criteria to establish written consent that would authorize the disclosure of confidential VA medical records. Specifically, it would establish that, in addition to physical possession of a patient's written consent, VA may release the patient's protected medical information to an HIE community partner pursuant to that partner's attestation that valid consent has been obtained. To clarify, this paragraph would not require VA to provide the records to HIE community partners just because the partner submitted an attestation; instead, VA would have the discretion to send the records.
Proposed paragraph (d)(1) states that written consent may be established by VA's physical possession of the patient's written consent that meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section. This is how VA traditionally collected consent forms.
Paragraph (d)(2) would provide an alternative for disclosure of section 7332-protected information. VA would also be able to disclose the protected information to an HIE community partner as long as two criteria are met. Initially, we note that this alternative for disclosure would be limited to VA's partners in the HIE because the partners have all signed an agreement to comply with certain standards of practice. Additionally, all partners would be required to have the technological capabilities to provide the requisite attestation.
The first proposed criterion is that the HIE community partner must provide written attestation that the patient has submitted legally sufficient consent to them. This requirement is necessary because 38 U.S.C. 7332 and 38 CFR 1.475 still require the veteran provide legally sufficient written consent to release section 7332-protected information. Therefore, in order for VA to release the records to the HIE community partner, VA must have an attestation or some documentation that the patient provided legally sufficient written consent.
To clarify, “written attestation” would not require a physical document and a wet signature; electronic attestations satisfy this requirement and are the expected form of attestation from the HIE community partner. VA would not specifically require the attestation to be electronic in order to provide for flexibility if there are changes in technology and best practices. However, VA envisions the vast majority, if not all, of the attestations would be electronic through approved messaging with the HIE community partners. This proposed rule would allow for VA's community partners to electronically attest, through the computer software, that the veteran submitted legally sufficient written consent. At that time, VA would be able to release the veteran's medical records electronically to the HIE community partner.
In addition to the written attestation, paragraph (d)(2) would require that VA have the ability to retrieve or obtain the written consent. There are two ways in which VA can obtain the records. First, proposed paragraph (d)(2)(i) provides that a .HIE community partner can make the consent form available to VA within 10 business days of its attestation. This can be accomplished either by storing
Second, paragraph (d)(2)(ii) would provide that the HIE community partner can maintain the patient's written consent form in accordance with a memorandum of understanding (MOU) that is drafted and signed by VA and the HIE community partner. The MOU would ensure that the patient's records are retained in accordance with VA record retention requirements set forth in VHA Records Control Schedule (RCS) 10-1. Even though VA would not require the written consent to be physically in VA's possession since it is a VA record, the HIE would have to retain the consent form according to VA's record retention requirements. Paragraph (d)(2)(ii) would also require that the MOU outline how VA can request the consent form from the HIE community partner and how the HIE community partner can make the consent form available to VA. In this regard, VA and the partner would determine a mutually agreeable timeframe to comply with a request by VA for a copy of the consent form.
As explained above current paragraph (d) would be redesignated as new paragraph (e). This paragraph would be revised to update the name of VA Form 10-5345. Specifically, current paragraph (d) provides that it was not necessary to use any particular form to establish a consent referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, however, VA Form 10-5345, titled Request for and Consent to Release of Medical Records Protected by 38 U.S.C. 7332, may be used for such purpose. VA Form 10-5345 has been updated and renamed Request for and Authorization to Release Medical Records or Health Information. Accordingly, VA would revise the paragraph to reflect the new name of VA Form 10-5345.
The Code of Federal Regulations, as proposed to be revised by this proposed rulemaking, would represent the exclusive legal authority on this subject. No contrary rules or procedures would be authorized. All VA guidance would be read to conform with this proposed rulemaking if possible or, if not possible, such guidance would be superseded by this rulemaking.
This proposed rule contains no provisions constituting a collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).
The Secretary hereby certifies that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612). The overall impact of the proposed rule on small entities would be minimal as the proposed rule would only require that entities attest that they received the veteran's consent and make the written consent available to VA. These administrative burdens are similar to current burdens related to medical privacy and will not have a significant economic impact on these entities. On this basis, the Secretary certifies that the adoption of this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612. Therefore, under 5 U.S.C. 605(b), this rulemaking is exempt from the initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, defines “significant regulatory action” to mean any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: “(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this Executive order.”
VA has examined the economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this regulatory action, and it has been determined not to be a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866. This proposed rule is not expected to be an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this proposed rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. This proposed rule would have no such effect on State, local, and tribal governments, or on the private sector.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance numbers and titles for the programs affected by this document are 64.008—Veterans Domiciliary Care; 64.011—Veterans Dental Care; 64.012—Veterans Prescription Service; 64.013—Veterans Prosthetic Appliances; 64.014—Veterans State Domiciliary Care; 64.015—Veterans State Nursing Home Care; 64.024—VA Homeless Providers Grant and Per Diem Program; 64.026—Veterans State Adult Day Health Care; 64.029—Purchase Care Program; 64.033—VA Supportive Services for Veteran Families Program; 64.039—CHAMPVA; 64.040—VHA Inpatient Medicine; 64.041—VHA Outpatient Specialty Care; 64.042—VHA Inpatient Surgery; 64.043—VHA Mental Health Residential; 64.044—VHA Home Care; 64.045—VHA Outpatient Ancillary Services; 64.046—VHA Inpatient Psychiatry; 64.047—VHA Primary Care; 64.048—VHA Mental Health clinics; 64.049—VHA Community Living Center; 64.050—VHA Diagnostic Care; 64.054—Research and Development.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Gina S. Farrisee, Deputy Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on December 8, 2017, for publication.
Administrative practice and procedure, Archives and records,
For the reasons set out in the preamble, Department of Veterans Affairs proposes to amend 38 CFR part 1 as follows:
38 U.S.C. 501, and as noted in specific sections.
(d)
(1) A written consent meeting the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section that is presented to VA in physical form; or
(2) A written attestation by a health information exchange community partner that the patient submitted legally sufficient consent meeting the criteria set forth in paragraph (a), provided that:
(i) Within 10 business days of the health information exchange community partner's attestation, the partner either makes the written consent form available for electronic retrieval by VA or produces the written consent form to VA; or
(ii) The health information exchange community partner complies with a memorandum of understanding signed by the partner and VA that outlines:
(A) How the written consent will be retained in accordance with VHA Records Control Schedule (RCS) 10-1;
(B) How VA can request the consent form from the partner; and
(C) How the partner can send the consent form to VA.
(e)
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT
Proposed regulatory guidance; extension of comment period.
FMCSA extends the public comment period for the Agency's December 20, 2017, notice announcing the proposed regulatory guidance concerning the transportation of agricultural commodities. On December 22, 2017, the American Trucking Associations, Inc. (ATA) requested a 30-day extension of the comment period. Additional requests for extension of the comment period have been received. The Agency extends the January 19, 2018, deadline for the submission of public comments to February 20, 2018.
FMCSA extends the comment period for the notice of proposed regulatory guidance published on December 20, 2017 at 82 FR 60360. You must submit comments on or before February 20, 2018.
You may insert comments identified by Federal Docket Management System Number FMCSA-2017-0360 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the
Mr. Thomas Yager, Chief, Driver and Carrier Operations Division, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, phone (614) 942-6477, email
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number listed above, indicate the specific section of this document to which your comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period and may change this guidance based on your comments.
To view comments, go to
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its regulatory process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
On December 20, 2017 (82 FR 60360), FMCSA published a notice of proposed regulatory guidance concerning the transportation of agricultural commodities. That proposed guidance provides clarity to the agricultural exception in 49 CFR 395.1(k)(1) and specifically addresses two scenarios: (1) Driving an unladen commercial motor vehicle to either pick up an agricultural community or on a return trip following the delivery of an agricultural commodity; and (2) application of the agricultural commodity exemption to trips involving transportation of the commodity more than 150 air-miles from its source. In addition, the Agency requested comment on scenarios where a trip involves the loading of agricultural commodities at multiple sources and the meaning of the term “source” in connection with the loading of certain commodities. Finally, the Agency requested comment on what segments of the industry that would take advantage of the proposed change, how would the flexibility provided impact the need for electronic logging devices, and what is the population of carriers and drivers transporting various categories of agricultural commodities.
In the December 20, 2017, notice the Agency proposed new regulatory guidance question and answer numbers 34 and 35 to 49 CFR 395.1. A copy of the proposed regulatory guidance is available for review in the docket referenced at the beginning of this notice.
On December 22, 2017, the American Trucking Associations, Inc. (ATA), asked that the Agency provide a 30-day extension of the comment period. ATA expressed concern that end-of-year tasks and holiday periods might make it difficult for many interested parties to prepare comments by the original January 19 deadline. A copy of the ATA request is in the docket identified at the beginning of this notice. Similar requests were subsequently submitted by other organizations.
FMCSA acknowledges the concerns of ATA and others. After reviewing the requests, FMCSA hereby grants a 30-day extension of the comment period to February 20, 2018, to provide all interested parties additional time to respond to the notice of proposed regulatory guidance.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by February 20, 2018 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
January 31, 2018, 1:00 p.m. EST.
U.S. Chemical Safety Board, 1750 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Suite 910, Washington, DC 20006.
Open to the public.
The Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board (CSB) will convene a public meeting on Wednesday, January 31, 2018 at 1:00 p.m. EST in Washington, DC, at the CSB offices located at 1750 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 910. The Board will discuss open investigations, the status of audits from the Office of the Inspector General, financial and organizational updates, and a review of the agency's action plan. New business will include an overview of the new “Safety Spotlight” program and the CSB's 20th Anniversary.
The meeting is free and open to the public. If you require a translator or interpreter, please notify the individual listed below as the “Contact Person for Further Information,” at least three business days prior to the meeting.
A conference call line will be provided for those who cannot attend in person. Please use the following dial-in number to join the conference:
The CSB is an independent federal agency charged with investigating incidents and hazards that result, or may result, in the catastrophic release of extremely hazardous substances. The agency's Board Members are appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate. CSB investigations look into all aspects of chemical accidents and hazards, including physical causes such as equipment failure as well as inadequacies in regulations, industry
The time provided for public statements will depend upon the number of people who wish to speak. Speakers should assume that their presentations will be limited to three minutes or less, but commenters may submit written statements for the record.
Hillary Cohen, Communications Manager, at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable January 19, 2018.
Yasmin Bordas at (202) 482-3813, Lana Nigro at (202) 482-1779, and John Anwesen at (202) 482-0131, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230.
On November 28, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Commerce) self-initiated a countervailing duty (CVD) investigation of common alloy aluminum sheet (common alloy sheet) from the People's Republic of China.
Section 703(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires Commerce to issue the preliminary determination in a countervailing duty investigation within 65 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation. However, section 703(c)(1) of the Act permits Commerce to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 130 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation if: (A) The petitioner makes a timely request for a postponement; or (B) Commerce concludes that the parties concerned are cooperating, and determines that the investigation is extraordinarily complicated, and that additional time is necessary to make a preliminary determination.
As described in the
Therefore, in accordance with section 703(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce is postponing the deadline for the preliminary determination to no later than 130 days after the date on which the investigation was initiated,
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On December 19, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Commerce) published in the
Applicable December 19, 2017.
Dennis McClure or Jinny Ahn, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5973 or (202) 482-0339, respectively.
On December 19, 2017, Commerce published in the
A ministerial error, as defined in section 705(e) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), includes “errors in addition, subtraction, or other arithmetic function, clerical errors resulting from inaccurate copying, duplication, or the like, and any other type of unintentional error which the administering authority considers ministerial.”
Wor-Biz alleges that, in the
We are amending the preliminary subsidy rate for Wor-Biz pursuant to 19 CFR 351.224(e). In addition, because the preliminary “All-Others” Rate was based on the weighted average of the subsidy rates calculated for Wor-Biz and Shanxi Xuanshi Industrial Group Co., Ltd,
This amended preliminary determination is published in accordance with sections 705(e) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.224(e) and (g).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable January 19, 2018.
Joy Zhang or George McMahon, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1168 or (202) 482-1167, respectively.
On July 3, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Commerce) published a notice of opportunity to request an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain pasta from Italy.
On September 18, 2017, La Molisana timely withdrew its request for a review.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Secretary will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the parties that requested a review withdraw the request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. All of the aforementioned withdrawal requests were timely submitted and no other interested party requested an administrative review of these particular companies. Therefore, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), and consistent with our practice,
Commerce will instruct Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. For the companies for which this review is rescinded, Andalini, DeLuca, GR.A.M.M., La Molisana, Tamma, and Zaffiri, antidumping duties shall be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, during the period July 1, 2016, through June 30, 2017, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). Commerce intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions directly to CBP 15 days after publication of this notice.
This notice serves as a reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice serves as a final reminder to parties subject to administrative protective orders (APOs) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under an APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) is amending the final results of the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain circular welded carbon steel pipes and tubes from Taiwan. The period of review (POR) is May 1, 2015, through April 30, 2016. The amended final weighted-average dumping margin is listed below in the section entitled “Amended Final Results.”
Applicable January 19, 2018.
Scott Hoefke, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4947.
On November 20, 2017, Commerce published the
The merchandise subject to the order is certain circular welded carbon steel pipes and tubes from Taiwan. The product is currently classified under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) item numbers 7306.30.5025, 7306.30.5032, 7306.30.5040, and 7306.30.5055. Although the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written product description remains dispositive.
Section 351.224(e) of Commerce's regulations provides that Commerce will analyze any comments received and, if appropriate, correct any ministerial error by amending the final determination or the final results of the review. Section 751(h) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.224(f) define a “ministerial error” as an error “in addition, subtraction, or other arithmetic function, clerical error resulting from inaccurate copying, duplication, or the like, and any other similar type of unintentional error which the Secretary considers ministerial.”
We analyzed Shin Yang's ministerial error allegation and determined, in accordance with section 751(h) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.224(e) and (f), that we made a ministerial error in our calculation of Shin Yang's dumping margin. Specifically, we used an incorrect window period to identify home market sales available for matching to U.S. sales (
As a result of correcting the ministerial error for this review, we determine that the following weighted-average dumping margin exists:
We intend to disclose the calculations performed for these amended final results of review within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Commerce shall determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b). For Shin Yang, because its weighted-average dumping margin is not zero or
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rates will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margins established in the final results of this review; (2) for previously reviewed or investigated companies not participating in this review, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding in which the company was reviewed; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a previous review, or the original less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation, but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding for the manufacturer of subject merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 9.70 percent, the all-others rate established in the LTFV investigation.
This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed addition to and deletions from the Procurement List.
The Committee is proposing to add a product to the Procurement List that will be furnished by a nonprofit agency employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities,
Comments must be received on or before: February 18, 2018.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
For further information or to submit comments contact: Amy B. Jensen, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
If the Committee approves the proposed addition, the entities of the Federal Government identified in this notice will be required to procure the product listed below from the nonprofit agency employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
The following product is proposed for addition to the Procurement List for production by the nonprofit agency listed:
The following products are proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Deletions from the Procurement List.
This action deletes products from the Procurement List previously furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
Amy B. Jensen, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
On 12/15/2017 (82 FR 240), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed deletions from the Procurement List.
After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the products listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.
2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the products to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the products deleted from the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following products are deleted from the Procurement List:
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing an extension of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 20, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of open meeting of the Environmental Financial Advisory Board.
The Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) Environmental Financial Advisory Board (EFAB) will hold a public meeting on February 20-21, 2018. EFAB is an EPA advisory committee chartered under the Federal Advisory Committee Act to provide advice and recommendations to EPA on creative approaches to funding environmental programs, projects, and activities.
The full board meeting will be held Tuesday, February 20, 2018 from 1:30 p.m.-5:00 p.m., and Wednesday, February 22, 2018 from 9:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m.
Willard Intercontinental Washington Hotel, 1401 Pennsylvania Avenue, Washington, DC 20004.
For information on access or services for individuals with disabilities, or to request accommodations for a disability, please contact Sandra Williams at (202) 564-4999 or
The purpose of this meeting is to hear from informed speakers on environmental finance issues, proposed legislation, and EPA priorities; to discuss activities, progress, and preliminary recommendations with regard to current EFAB work projects; and to consider request for assistance from EPA program offices. Environmental finance discussions and presentations are expected on, but not limited to, the following topics: Predevelopment practices and funding tools that can assist local governments in evaluating public-private partnership as alternatives to current infrastructure delivery methods; developing metrics for measuring success of funding programs for water quality restoration in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed; financing and funding strategies that complement water system regionalization/consolidation; resilience investment and disaster recovery financing mechanisms; scoping and evaluation of a market-based Rural Alaska Waste Backhaul Service Program; and drinking water and clean water SRF funding to address lead fixture replacement projects. The meeting is open to the public; however, seating is limited. All members of the public who wish to attend the meeting must register, in advance, no later than Monday, January 26, 2018.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Cross-Media Electronic Reporting Rule” (EPA ICR No. 2002.07, OMB Control No. 2025-0003) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. Before doing so, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through July 31, 2018. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 20, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OEI-2011-0096, online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Karen Seeh, Office of Environmental Information, (2823T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-566-1175; fax number: 202-566-1684; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Recordkeeping and Reporting of the Production, Import, Export, Destruction, Transhipment, and Exempted Uses of Ozone-Depleting Substances (Renewal)” (EPA ICR No. 1432.32, OMB Control No. 2060-0170) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. Before doing so, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through August, 2018, combined with two other ICRs for ozone-depleting substances (ODS). An Agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 20, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2017-0639 online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Katherine Sleasman, Stratospheric Protection Division, (6205T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-7716; fax number: (202) 564-4775; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
This ICR covers the requirements under the
Additionally, the CAA limits production and consumption of controlled substances which the EPA must adhere to and enforce. To implement the CAA provisions and satisfy commitments under the Montreal Protocol, the ODS phaseout regulations establish control measures for individual companies. EPA monitors company compliance through the recordkeeping and reporting requirements established in the regulations at 40 CFR part 82, subpart A.
EPA is also removing reporting elements that are no longer needed, revising others to address changes to a new electronic ODS Tracking System, and consolidating forms.
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA, Pub. L. 105-277) requires that, when practicable, federal organizations use electronic forms, electronic filings, and electronic signatures to conduct official business with the public. EPA's Cross-Media Electronic Reporting Regulation (CROMERR) (October 13, 2005; 70 FR 59848; FRL-7977-1) provides that any requirement in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations to submit a report directly to EPA can be satisfied with an electronic submission that meets certain conditions once the Agency publishes a notice that electronic document submission is available for that requirement.
In light of GPEA and CROMERR, this action will allow all manufacturers, importers, and processors of class I and class II ODS to use the internet, through EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX), to submit ODS reports to the Agency. Companies will be able to register with EPA to submit their data electronically to the Agency via CDX and the Agency in turn will be able to communicate back electronically with submitters through a secure system. This promotes efficiency in communications and cost savings in submissions and correspondence. The adoption of electronic communications will reduce the reporting burden on industry by reducing both the cost and the time required to review, edit and transmit data to the Agency. All information sent via CDX will be transmitted securely to protect CBI. The Agency will also benefit from receiving electronic submissions. The electronic submission process through CDX will allow for the import of data into the ODS Tracking System, which will reduce the potential for human error that exists when data are entered by hand. Agency personnel will also be able to communicate more efficiently with submitters electronically, compared to using U.S. mail.
Upon receipt of the reports, the data is currently either entered or electronically imported into the ODS Tracking System. The ODS Tracking System is a secure database that maintains the data submitted to EPA and helps the Agency: (1) Maintain oversight over total production and consumption of controlled substances; (2) monitor compliance with limits and restrictions on production, imports, and trades and specific exemptions from the phaseout for individual U.S. companies; (3) enforce against illegal imports; and (4) assess and report on the U.S. phasedown caps established under the CAA and consistent with the Montreal Protocol.
EPA has implemented an electronic reporting system through CDX that allows regulated entities to prepare and submit data electronically. Coupled with the widespread use of the standardized forms, electronic reporting has improved data quality and made the reporting process efficient for both reporting companies and EPA.
EPA informs the respondents that they may assert claims of business confidentiality for any of the information they submit. Information claimed as confidential will be treated in accordance with the procedures for handling information claimed as confidential under 40 CFR part 2, subpart B, and will be disclosed to the extent, and by means of procedures, set forth in Subpart B. If no claim of confidentiality is asserted when the information is received by EPA, it may be made available to the public without further notice to the respondents (40 CFR 2.203). All information sent by the submitter via CDX is transmitted securely to protect CBI. The reporting tool guides the user through the process of submitting CBI. Documents containing information claimed as CBI must be submitted in an electronic format, in accordance with the recordkeeping requirements.
Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at:
Export-Import Bank of the United States
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States, pursuant to the Export-Import Bank Act of 1945, facilitates the finance of the export of U.S. goods and services. The “Report of Premiums Payable for Exporters Only” form will be used by exporters to report and pay premiums on insured shipments to various foreign buyers.
Comments must be received on or before February 20, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Pursuant to the Export-Import Bank Act of 1945, the Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), facilitates the finance of the export of U.S. goods and services by providing insurance or guarantees to U.S. exporters or lenders financing U.S. exports. By neutralizing the effect of export credit insurance or guarantees offered by foreign governments and by absorbing credit risks that the private sector will not accept, EXIM enables U.S. exporters to compete fairly in foreign markets on the basis of price and product. In the event that a borrower defaults on a transaction insured or guaranteed by EXIM, the insured or guaranteed exporter or lender may seek payment from EXIM by the submission of a claim. This collection of information is necessary to determine if such claim complies with the terms and conditions of the relevant insurance policy or guarantee, as the case may be.
Comments must be received on or before February 20, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Export-Import Bank of the United States
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This collection of information is necessary, to determine eligibility of the export sales for insurance coverage. The Report of Premiums Payable for Financial Institutions Only is used to determine the eligibility of the shipment(s) and to calculate the premium due to EXIM for its support of the shipment(s) under its insurance program. EXIM customers will be able to submit this form on paper or electronically.
By neutralizing the effect of export credit support offered by foreign governments and by absorbing credit risks that the private sector will not accept, EXIM enables U.S. exporters to compete fairly in foreign markets on the basis of price and product. Under the Working Capital Guarantee Program, EXIM provides repayment guarantees to lenders on secured, short-term working capital loans made to qualified exporters. The guarantee may be approved for a single loan or a revolving line of credit.
In the event that a buyer defaults on a transaction insured by EXIM the insured exporter or lender may seek payment by the submission of a claim.
Comments must be received on or before February 20, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
The information collection tool can be reviewed at:
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as a part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The collection provides EXIM staff with the information necessary to monitor the borrower's payments for exported goods covered under its short and medium-term export credit insurance policies. It also alerts EXIM staff of defaults, so they can manage the portfolio in an informed manner.
Comments must be received on or before February 20, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as a part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Our customers will be able to submit this form on paper or electronically.
This form is used by insurance brokers to register with Export-Import Bank. It provides EXIM staff with the information necessary to make a determination of the eligibility of the broker to receive commission payments under Export-Import Bank's credit insurance programs.
Comments must be received on or before February 20, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
By neutralizing the effect of export credit insurance and guarantees offered by foreign governments and by absorbing credit risks that the private section will not accept, EXIM enables U.S. exporters to compete fairly in foreign markets on the basis of price and product. This collection of information is necessary, to determine eligibility of the applicant for EXIM support. This form is used by a financial institution (or broker acting on its behalf) in order to obtain approval for non-honoring coverage of short-term letters of credit. The information received provides EXIM staff with the information necessary to make a determination of the eligibility of the applicant and transaction for EXIM assistance under its programs.
The application can be viewed at
Comments should be received on or before February 20, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB) will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for revision and an extension of existing OMB clearances concerning certification of independent price determination and parent company and identifying data.
Submit comments on or before February 20, 2018.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Cecelia L. Davis, Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, GSA 202-219-0202 or
This information collection requirement, OMB Control No. 9000-0018, currently titled “Certification of Independent Price Determination and Parent Company and Identifying Data,” is proposed to be retitled “Certification of Independent Price Determination, Contractor Code of Business Ethics and Compliance, and Preventing Personal Conflicts of Interest,” due to consolidation with two additional currently approved information collection requirements: OMB Control No. 9000-0164, Contractor Business Ethics Compliance Program and Disclosure Requirements; and OMB Control No. 9000-0183, Preventing Personal Conflicts of Interest for Contractor Employees Performing Acquisition Functions.
DoD, GSA and NASA analyzed the FY 2016 data from the Federal Procurement Data System (FPDS) to develop the estimated burden hours for this information collection.
This information collection requirement pertains to information that an offeror contractor must submit in response to the requirements of the following provisions and clauses in FAR 52.203:
1. Certification of Independent Price Determination (FAR 52.203-2). This clause requires the offeror to certify that the prices in the offer have been arrived at independently. Agencies are required to report under 41 U.S.C. 3101 (formerly 41 U.S.C. 252(b)(i)) and 10 U.S.C. 2305(d) suspected violations of the antitrust laws (
As a first step in assuring that Government contracts are not awarded to firms violating such antitrust laws, offerors on Government contracts must complete the certificate of independent price determination. An offer will not be considered for award where the certificate has been deleted or modified. Deletions or modifications of the certificate and suspected false certificates are reported to the Attorney General (see FAR 3.103-2 Evaluating the Certification).
The information collection is required each time an offeror responds to a solicitation for firm-fixed price contract or fixed-price economic price adjustment contract unless the acquisition is: (1) Made under the simplified acquisition threshold; (2) at the request for technical proposals under two-step sealed bidding procedures; or (3) for utility services for which rates are set by law or regulation. The FAR rule requires a Certificate of Independent Price Determination so that contractors certify that the prices in their offer have been arrived at independently, have not been or will
2. Contractor Code of Business Ethics and Conduct (FAR 52.203-13). This clause implements Government policy and Public Law 110-252, Title VI (Close the Contractor Fraud Loophole Act). It requires contractors to notify the respective agency Office of Inspector General when the contractor has credible evidence that the contractor's principal, employee, agent, or subcontractor committed a violation of certain Federal criminal laws, or a violation of the Civil False Claims Act.
The objective of the notification requirement is to emphasize the critical importance of integrity in contracting and reduce the occurrence of improper or criminal conduct in connection with the award and performance of Federal contracts and subcontracts. Information obtained from the notification requirements will be provided to the agency Inspector General by the contractor.
3. Preventing Personal Conflicts of Interest (FAR 52.203-16). In accordance with 41 U.S.C. 2303, this clause requires contractors and subcontractors to: (a) Identify and prevent personal conflicts of interest of their covered employees; and (b) prohibit covered employees who have access to non-public information by reason of performance on a Government contract from using such information for personal gain. Contractors are required to notify contracting officers whenever they become aware of any personal conflict of interest violations by a covered employee. The objective of the notification requirement is to emphasize the critical importance of integrity in contracting and reduce the occurrence of improper or criminal conduct in connection with the award and performance of Federal contracts and subcontracts. Information obtained from the notification requirements will be provided to the agency Inspector General by the contractor. In addition, contractors have the opportunity, in exceptional circumstances, to request mitigation or waiver of the personal conflict-of-interest standards. The information is used by the Government to evaluate the requested mitigation/waiver.
The information provided to and by contractors in accordance with the clause at FAR 52.203-16 is used by the contractor and the contracting officer to identify and mitigate personal conflicts of interest in compliance with Government policy to (a) identify and prevent personal conflicts of interest of covered employees; and (b) prohibit covered employees who have access to non-public information by reason of performance on a Government contract from using such information for personal gain (FAR 3.1102). A notice was published in the
1. Certification of Independent Price Determination (FAR 52.203-2).
2. Contractor Code of Business Ethics and Conduct (FAR 52.203-13).
3. Preventing Personal Conflicts of Interest (FAR 52.203-16).
Recordkeeping burden:
4. Total (counting recordkeepers with respondents)
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0018, Certification of Independent Price Determination, Contractor Code of Business Ethics and Compliance, and Preventing Personal Conflicts of Interest, in all correspondence.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning organization and direction of work.
Submit comments on or before February 20, 2018.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
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Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB Control number 9000-0064. Select the link “Comment Now” that corresponds with “Information
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Mr. Curtis E. Glover, Sr. Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, GSA, telephone 202-501-1448, or via email at
When the Government awards a cost-reimbursement construction contract, the contractor must submit to the contracting officer—and keep current a chart showing the general executive and administrative organization—the personnel to be employed in connection with the work under the contract, and their respective duties. The chart is used in the administration of the contract and as an aid in determining cost. The chart is used by contract administration personnel to assure the work is being properly accomplished at reasonable prices.
The burden hours under FAR 52.236-19 were reduced based on FY 2017 FPDS data that showed the actual number of respondents for this type of requirement. A notice published in the
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0064, Organization and Direction of Work, in all correspondence.
Gulf Coast Ecosystem Restoration Council (GCERC).
Notice of Performance Review Board (PRB) appointments.
This notice announces the members of the Senior Executive Service (SES) Performance Review Board. The PRB is comprised of a Chairperson and a mix of state representatives and career senior executives that meet annually to review and evaluate performance appraisal documents and provides a written recommendation to the Chairperson of the Council for final approval of each executive's performance rating, performance-based pay adjustment, and performance award.
The board membership is applicable beginning on January 8, 2018 and ending on March 8, 2019.
Mary C. Pleffner, Chief Financial Officer and Director of Administration, Gulf Coast Ecosystem Restoration Council, telephone 813-394-2185.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 4314(c)(4), the persons named below have been selected to serve on the PRB:
Gulf Coast Ecosystem Restoration Council, Scaggs, Benjamin, Acting Executive Director.
Environmental Protection Agency, Walker, Mary, Director Water Protection Division, EPA Region 4.
United States Coast Guard, Dana S. Tulis, Director of Incident Management & Preparedness Policy.
State of Mississippi, Rikard, Gary, Executive Director of the Mississippi Department of Environmental Quality.
State of Louisiana, Barnes, Chris, Legal Advisor, Coastal Activities.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a proposed and/or continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled “DELTA Impact Recipient Monitoring and Assessment Tools.” Information collected will be used for implementation and performance monitoring of cooperative agreement
CDC must receive written comments on or before March 20, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2018-0012 by any of the following methods:
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To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Leroy A. Richardson, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
DELTA Impact Recipient Monitoring and Assessment Tools—New—National Center for Injury Prevention and Control (NCIPC), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) seeks a three-year OMB approval for a new information collection project that involves 10 recipients (State Domestic Violence Coalitions) funded through CDC's
Monitoring allows CDC to determine whether a recipient is meeting performance and budget goals and to make adjustments in the type and level of technical assistance provided to them, as needed, to support attainment of their performance measures. Program monitoring and program evaluation activities also allow CDC to identify and disseminate information about successful prevention strategies implemented by recipients.
These functions are central to the NCIPC's broad mission of protecting Americans from violence and injury threats. This information collection will enable the accurate, reliable, uniform, and timely submission to CDC of each recipient's work plan and progress reports, including strategy implementation, program evaluation and performance measures. It will also enable CDC to evaluate the program across all funded recipients.
CDC will use the information collected to look at the aggregate impact of program activities on program outcomes across all 10 recipients. The information collection will allow CDC to monitor the increased emphasis on strategies that affect health outcomes and impact, and is expected to reduce duplication of effort, enhance program impact and maximize the use of federal funds. CDC will be able to generate reports that summarize their activities and progress towards meeting work plan strategies and performance measure targets. In addition to CDC's tracking of program goals and outcomes, the data collected will provide a way for recipients to track their own activities and funding to local organizations as required by legislation. CDC will also have the capacity to generate reports that describe activities across multiple recipients and will be able to provide this information back to recipients or to respond to inquiries from HHS, the White House, Congress and other stakeholders about the national DELTA Impact Program activities and their impact.
The total estimated annualized time burden for this collection is 123 hours. The only cost to respondents will be time spent responding to the surveys.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by February 20, 2018.
When commenting on the proposed information collections, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be received by the OMB desk officer via one of the following transmissions: OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: CMS Desk Officer, Fax Number: (202) 395-5806
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' website address at website address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the
1.
2.
Form CMS-10455 is being revised in order to obtain the necessary information for the ROs to make a determination whether or not to authorize an on-site investigation related to the details surrounding the death of individuals associated with restraint and/or seclusion.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by March 20, 2018.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
1.
2.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' website address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of Approved Drug Products Under Section 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.” For a drug product compounded by an outsourcing facility to qualify for the exemptions under section 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act), it must not be essentially a copy of one or more approved drug products and must meet other conditions in section 503B. This guidance sets forth FDA's policies concerning the “essentially a copy” provision of section 503B of the FD&C Act.
The announcement of the guidance is published in the
You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of the guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Sara Rothman, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 5197, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3110.
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of Approved Drug Products Under Section 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.” In 2013, the Drug Quality and Security Act, created new section 503B of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 353b), which describes a new category of compounders called
• Section 502(f)(1) (21 U.S.C. 352(f)(1)) (concerning labeling of drugs with adequate directions for use);
• Section 505 (21 U.S.C. 355) (concerning the approval of drugs under new drug applications or abbreviated new drug applications); and
• Section 582 (21 U.S.C. 360eee-1) (concerning drug supply chain security requirements).
One of the conditions that must be met for a compounded drug product to qualify for the exemptions under section 503B of the FD&C Act is that the drug is not essentially a copy of one or more approved drugs (section 503B(a)(5)).
Section 503B(d)(2) defines essentially a copy of an approved drug as:
• A drug that is identical or nearly identical to an approved drug, or a marketed drug not subject to section 503(b) and not subject to approval in an application submitted under section 505, unless, in the case of an approved drug, the drug appears on the drug shortage list in effect under section 506E at the time of compounding, distribution, and dispensing (section 503B(d)(2)(A)) or
• a drug, a component of which is a bulk drug substance that is a component of an approved drug or a marketed drug that is not subject to section 503(b) and not subject to approval in an application submitted under section 505, unless there is a change that produces for an individual patient a clinical difference, as determined by the prescribing practitioner, between the compounded drug and the comparable approved drug (section 503B(d)(2)(B)).
This guidance sets forth FDA's policies concerning the “essentially a copy” provision of section 503B of the FD&C Act.
In the
FDA received comments from hospital organizations regarding the potential implications of proposed policies for the preparation of compounded drugs used in in-patient settings. The final guidance notes that FDA is considering the applicability of the policies described in this guidance to hospitals and health systems. We recognize that this issue is of interest to many stakeholders and will publicly convey our further thinking on the applicability of these policies to hospitals and health systems with an opportunity for comment.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). This guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of Approved Drug Products Under Section 503B of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
This guidance contains collections of information that are subject to review by OMB under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). Under the PRA, Federal Agencies must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3 and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The information collection provisions in this guidance have been submitted to OMB for review as required by section 3507(d) of the PRA. These provisions are not in effect until they display a currently valid OMB control number. FDA will publish a notice in the
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) is announcing the availability of a final guidance for industry entitled “Mixing, Diluting, or Repackaging Biological Products Outside the Scope of an Approved Biologics License Application.” This final guidance describes the conditions under which FDA does not intend to take action against a State-licensed pharmacy, a Federal facility, or an outsourcing facility that mixes, dilutes, or repackages certain biological products outside the scope of an approved biologics license application (BLA). It also describes the conditions under which FDA does not intend to take action when a State-licensed pharmacy, a Federal facility, an outsourcing facility, or a physician prepares prescription sets of allergenic extracts for subcutaneous immunotherapy.
The announcement of the guidance is published in the
You may submit electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 2201, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; or the Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Avenue, Bldg. 71, Rm. 3128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Sara Rothman, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 5197, Silver Spring, MD 20903, 301-796-3110; or Stephen Ripley, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
FDA is announcing the availability of a final guidance for industry entitled “Mixing, Diluting, or Repackaging Biological Products Outside the Scope of an Approved Biologics License Application.” Certain licensed biological products may sometimes be mixed, diluted, or repackaged in a way not described in the approved labeling for the product to meet the needs of a specific patient. For example, for some biological products there is no licensed pediatric strength and/or dosage form. In addition, there may be certain circumstances when a person would remove a licensed biological product from its original container and place it into a different container(s) (repackage it), in a manner that is not within the scope of the approved labeling for the product. As described in the guidance, mixed, diluted, or repackaged biological products are not eligible for the statutory exemptions available to certain compounded drugs under sections 503A and 503B of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 353a and 353b). In addition, a biological product that is mixed, diluted, or repackaged outside the scope of an approved BLA is considered an unlicensed biological product under section 351 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (42 U.S.C. 262).
This guidance describes the conditions under which FDA does not intend to take action for violations of section 351 of the PHS Act, and section 502(f)(1) (21 U.S.C. 352(f)(1)), section 582 (21 U.S.C. 360eee-1), and where specified, section 501(a)(2)(B) (21 U.S.C. 351(a)(2)(B)) of the FD&C Act, when a state-licensed pharmacy, a Federal facility, or an outsourcing facility dilutes, mixes, or repackages certain biological products outside the scope of an approved BLA.
In the
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on mixing, diluting, or repackaging biological products outside
This guidance contains collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). Under the PRA, Federal Agencies must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3 and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The information collection provisions in this guidance will be submitted to OMB for review as required by section 3507(d) of the PRA. These provisions are not in effect until they display a currently valid OMB control number. FDA will publish a notice in the
The guidance also references registration and adverse event reporting for outsourcing facilities. The collections of information for outsourcing facility registration have been approved by OMB under OMB control number 0910-0777. The collections of information for adverse event reporting by outsourcing facilities have been approved by OMB under OMB control number 0910-0800.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the draft guidance entitled “Conformance with IEC 60825-1 Ed. 3 and IEC 60601-2-22 Ed. 3.1 (Laser Notice No. 56).” This draft guidance describes the Agency's proposed approach regarding compliance with FDA's performance standards for laser products. FDA believes that under the circumstances described in this guidance, conformance with certain International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) standards would provide adequate protection of the public health and safety for laser products similar to performance standards in FDA's regulations. Accordingly, FDA does not intend to consider whether firms that comply with the comparable IEC standards discussed in this guidance document also comply with performance standards in FDA's regulations. This draft guidance is not final nor is it in effect at this time.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by March 20, 2018 to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10115(g)(5)).
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the internet. See the
Patrick Hintz, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4228, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6927.
FDA recognizes that the IEC is a global organization that prepares and publishes international standards for electrical, electronic, and related technologies, including laser products. This means that manufacturers distributing products in the United States and other countries might have to ensure conformance of their products with IEC standards as well as comply with FDA regulatory requirements. Complying with FDA regulations and conforming to the identified IEC standards may cause manufacturers to duplicate their efforts.
FDA acknowledges the advantages of a universal set of device-specific criteria and requirements. Moreover, FDA believes that under the circumstances described in this guidance, conformance with certain IEC standards would provide adequate protection of the public health and safety for laser products similar to FDA's performance standards in §§ 1040.10 and 1040.11 (21 CFR 1040.10 and 1040.11). FDA eventually intends to amend its standards for laser products at §§ 1040.10 and 1040.11 to harmonize many of its requirements with those of the IEC because FDA acknowledges the advantages of one set of criteria and requirements worldwide.
On June 24, 2007, FDA's Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) published a guidance entitled “Laser Products—Conformance with IEC 60825-1 and IEC 60601-2-22; Guidance for Industry and FDA Staff (Laser Notice No. 50)” (
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on “Laser Products—Conformance with IEC 60825-1 Ed. 3 and IEC 60601-2-22 Ed.3.1 (Laser Notice No. 56)”. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the internet. A search capability for all CDRH guidance documents is available at
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR 1002.10, 1010.2, 1010.3, 1040.10, and 1040.11 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0025.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of a Commercially Available Drug Product Under Section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.” One of the conditions to qualify for exemptions under section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), is that a drug product must be compounded by a licensed pharmacist or physician who does not compound regularly or in inordinate amounts any drug products that are essentially copies of a commercially available drug product. This guidance sets forth FDA policies regarding this provision of section 503A, including the terms “commercially available,” “essentially a copy of a commercially available drug
The announcement of the guidance is published in the
You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION”. The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Sara Rothman, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 5197, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3110.
FDA is announcing the availability of a final guidance for industry entitled “Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of a Commercially Available Drug Product Under Section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.” Section 503A (21 U.S.C. 353a), added to the FD&C Act by the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997, describes the conditions that must be satisfied for human drug products compounded by a licensed pharmacist in a State-licensed pharmacy or Federal facility, or by a licensed physician, to be exempt from the following three sections of the FD&C Act:
• Section 501(a)(2)(B) (21 U.S.C. 351 (a)(2)(B)) (concerning current good manufacturing practice requirements);
• Section 502(f)(1) (21 U.S.C. 352(f)(1)) (concerning the labeling of drugs with adequate directions for use); and
• Section 505 (21 U.S.C. 355) (concerning the approval of drugs under new drug applications (NDAs) or abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs)).
One of the conditions that must be met for a compounded drug product to qualify for the exemptions under section 503A of the FD&C Act is that it must be compounded by a licensed pharmacist or a licensed physician that does not compound regularly or in inordinate amounts (as defined by the Secretary of Health and Human Services) any drug products that are essentially copies of a commercially available drug product (section 503A(b)(1)(D)).
The statute further states that the term “essentially a copy of a commercially available drug product” does not include a drug product in which there is a change, made for an identified individual patient, which produces for that patient a significant difference, as determined by the prescribing practitioner, between the compounded drug and the comparable commercially available drug product (section 503A(b)(2) of the FD&C Act).
This guidance sets forth FDA's policies concerning the “essentially a copy” provision under section 503A of the FD&C Act, including the terms “commercially available,” “essentially a copy of a commercially available drug product,” and “regularly or in inordinate amounts.”
In the
FDA received comments on the draft guidance from hospital organizations regarding the potential implications of the proposed policies in the draft guidance for the preparation of compounded drugs used in in-patient settings. The final guidance notes that FDA is considering the applicability of the policies described in this guidance to hospitals and health systems. We recognize that this issue is of interest to many stakeholders and will convey our further thinking on the applicability of these policies to hospitals and health systems publicly with an opportunity for comment.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). This guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Compounded Drug Products That Are Essentially Copies of a Commercially Available Drug Product Under Section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
This guidance contains collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). Under the PRA, Federal Agencies must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3 and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The information collection provisions in this guidance have been submitted to OMB for review as required by section 3507(d) of the PRA. These provisions are not in effect until they display a currently valid OMB control number. FDA will publish a notice in the
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by February 20, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
This information collection supports the above captioned Agency guidance document. In the
Section 503A of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 353a) describes conditions that must be met in order for compounded drugs to receive exemptions from certain sections of the FD&C Act, including section 501(a)(2)(B) (21 U.S.C. 351(a)(2)(B)) (concerning current good manufacturing practice for drugs); section 502(f)(1) (21 U.S.C. 352(f)(1)) (concerning the labeling of drugs with
One condition of section 503A is that a compounder “does not compound regularly or in inordinate amounts (as defined by the Secretary) any drug products that are essentially copies of a commercially available drug product” (section 503A(b)(1)(D)). However, for the purposes of this section, “essentially a copy of a commercially available drug product” does not include a drug product “in which there is a change, made for an identified individual patient, which produces for that patient a significant difference, as determined by the prescribing practitioner, between the compounded drug and the comparable commercially available drug product” (section 503A(b)(2)).
The draft guidance states that if a compounder intends to rely on such a determination to establish that a compounded drug is not essentially a copy of a commercially available drug product, the compounder should ensure that the determination is documented on a prescription. If a prescription does not make clear that the prescriber made the determination required by section 503A(b)(2), or a compounded drug is substituted for the commercially available product at the pharmacy, the compounder may contact the prescriber and if the prescriber confirms it, make a notation on the prescription that the compounded product contains a change that makes a significant difference for the patient. The notations should be as specific as those described in this document, and the date of the conversation with the prescriber should be included on the prescription.
In addition, if the drug was compounded because the approved product was not commercially available because it was on the FDA drug shortage list, the prescription or a notation on the prescription should note that it was on the drug shortage list and the date the list was checked.
Finally, compounders under section 503A should maintain records of the frequency in which they have compounded drug products that are essentially copies of commercially available drug products and the number of prescriptions that they have filled for compounded drug products that are essentially copies of commercially available drug products to document that such compounding has not been done “regularly” or in “inordinate amounts.”
FDA received 88 comments on the draft guidance, several of which raised issues pertaining to the information collection provisions in the draft guidance. The issues raised are addressed below.
• One commenter requested that the medical record maintained by the prescriber should include additional scientific rationale for prescribing the compounded product.
• Another commenter requested documentation to justify the use of a bulk drug substance to compound a product that could have been made starting with FDA-approved products.
• Some commenters noted the prescriber determination is not necessary in the hospital setting because pharmacists often determine when a compounded drug is needed for a patient and not the prescriber. For example, one commenter noted that hospitals may have standing policies that specify use of compounded drugs in certain scenarios.
• Other commenters suggested use of a template or “blanket” prescriber determination statement when certain drugs are needed for a patient population on a consistent basis.
• Another commenter noted that State scope of practice acts or hospital policy may prohibit pharmacists from writing in the patient chart or altering the electronic health record.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
We estimate that annually a total of approximately 6,888 compounders (“number of respondents” in table 1, line 1) will consult a prescriber to determine whether he or she has made a determination that the compounded drug has a change that produces a significant difference for a patient as compared to the comparable commercially available drug, and that the compounders will document this determination on approximately 172,200 prescription orders for compounded drugs (“total annual disclosures” in table 1, line 1). We estimate that the consultation between the compounder and the prescriber and adding a notation to each prescription that does not already document this determination will take approximately 3 minutes per prescription order.
In addition, we estimate that a total of approximately 6,888 compounders (“number of respondents” in table 1, line 2) will document this information on approximately 344,400 prescription orders for compounded drugs (“total annual disclosures” in table 1, line 2). We estimate that checking FDA's drug shortage list and documenting this information will take approximately 2 minutes per prescription order.
We estimate that a total of approximately 3,444 compounders (“number of recordkeepers” in table 2) will keep approximately 165,312 records (“total annual records”). We estimate that maintaining the records will take approximately 2 minutes per record.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to FDA on regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing
The meeting will be held on March 8, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2018-N-0055. The docket will close on March 7, 2018. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by March 7, 2018. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 7, 2018. The
Comments received on or before February 22, 2018, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by FDA.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Jay R. Fajiculay, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that FDA is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
For press inquiries, please contact the Office of Media Affairs at
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Jay R. Fajiculay (See,
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Product Title and Initial U.S. Approval in the Highlights of Prescribing Information for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products—Content and Format.” The labeling regulations for human drug and biological products require that the Highlights of Prescribing Information (Highlights) contain a product title and the year of initial U.S. approval. This draft guidance provides recommendations on the content and format of the product title and initial U.S. approval to bring greater consistency to the presentation of these required elements and to help ensure these elements provide clear and useful information to the health care provider.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by March 20, 2018 to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of the draft guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building., 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, or the Office of Communication, Outreach, and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Debra Beitzell, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm 6460, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-0700; or Stephen Ripley, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Product Title and Initial U.S. Approval in the Highlights of Prescribing Information for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products—Content and Format.”
On January 24, 2006, FDA published a final rule amending the requirements for the content and format of labeling for human prescription drug and biological products (71 FR 3922, January 24, 2006). This rule is known as the physician labeling rule because it addresses prescription drug labeling that is used by physicians and other health care providers. Under this rule, the prescribing information of new and more recently approved prescription drug and biological products contains the following three sections: Highlights, Full Prescribing Information: Contents, and Full Prescribing Information (§ 201.56(d)(1) (21 CFR 201.56(d)(1))).
Highlights is required to contain the drug names (proprietary name and nonproprietary name (established name of the drug or, for biological products, the proper name)), dosage form, route of administration, and, if applicable, controlled substance symbol of the drug or biological product (§ 201.57(a)(2) (21 CFR 201.57(a)(2))). This set of information is referred to as the “product title” and follows the Highlights Limitation Statement. Highlights also must include the year of initial U.S. approval of the drug or biological product (§ 201.57(a)(3)). The initial U.S. approval must be placed immediately beneath the product title and is the four-digit year in which FDA initially approved the new molecular entity, new biological product, or new combination of active ingredients.
This draft guidance provides recommendations on the content and format of the product title in Highlights. Recommended sources for product title terminology also are provided. Appendix A, “Dosage Form Terms for Use in Human Drug Product Labeling” and Appendix B, “Route of Administration Terms for Use in Human Drug Product Labeling” contain lists of recommended dosage form and route of administration terms, respectively, for use in the product title. This draft guidance contains recommendations for products with special nomenclature considerations, recommendations for what not to include in the product title, and implications for container and carton labeling.
The draft guidance also provides recommendations on the content and format of the initial U.S. approval in Highlights. Items to consider when determining the year of initial U.S. approval are included and drug products requiring special consideration are described.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on the content and format of the product title and initial U.S. approval in Highlights for human prescription drug and biological products. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in §§ 201.56 and 201.57 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0572.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the draft guidance at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Material Threat Medical Countermeasure Priority Review Vouchers.” There is stakeholder interest in FDA's implementation of the provision of the 21st Century Cures Act (Cures Act) that adds a new section to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) on priority review vouchers for material threat medical countermeasure applications. This new section of the FD&C Act makes provisions for awarding priority review vouchers for use with applications to sponsors of material threat medical countermeasure applications that meet the criteria specified by the FD&C Act.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by March 20, 2018 to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of the guidance to Office of Counterterrorism and Emerging Threats, Office of the Commissioner, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 1, Rm. 4343, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-8510. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Carol Drew, Office of Counterterrorism and Emerging Threats, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 1, Rm. 4320, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-8510 (this is not a toll free number).
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled, “Material Threat Medical Countermeasure Priority Review Vouchers.” Section 3086 of the Cures Act adds new section 565A to the FD&C Act. Section 565A of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360bbb-4a) was designed to encourage development of medical countermeasures by offering additional incentives for obtaining approval of new drug or biological medical products for the prevention and treatment of harm from a biological, chemical, radiological, or nuclear agent identified as a material threat. Under section 565A of the FD&C Act, a sponsor of a human drug application for a material threat medical countermeasure application may be eligible for a voucher that can be used to obtain a priority review for any application submitted under section 505(b)(1) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 355(b)(1)) or section 351 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (42 U.S.C. 262). The draft guidance also provides information on using the priority review vouchers and on transferring priority review vouchers to other sponsors.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on obtaining a material threat medical countermeasure priority review voucher. It does not create or confer any rights for or on any person and does not operate to bind FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information that they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), requires Federal
With respect to the collection of information associated with this draft guidance, FDA invites comment on the following topics: (1) Whether the proposed information collected is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimated burden of the proposed information collected, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of information collected on the respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
Under the draft guidance, sponsors of certain medical countermeasure product applications submitted under section 505(b)(1) of the FD&C Act and section 351 of the PHS Act may request a priority review voucher. Based on inquiries FDA has received on section 565A and related discussions with sponsors, we estimate that we will receive annually approximately 2 requests from 2 sponsors, and that each request will take approximately 8 hours to prepare and submit to FDA.
The draft guidance also states that sponsors should notify FDA of their intent to use a priority review voucher, including the date on which the sponsor intends to submit the application, at least 90 days before use. We estimate that we will receive annually approximately 2 notifications of intent to use a voucher from 2 sponsors, and that each notification will take approximately 8 hours to prepare and submit to FDA. The draft guidance also permits the transfer of a priority review voucher from one sponsor to another, and states that each transfer should be documented with a letter of transfer. We estimate that we will receive approximately 1 letter indicating the transfer of a voucher from 1.5 application holders, and 1 letter acknowledging the receipt of a transferred voucher from 1.5 new voucher owners acknowledging the transfer, and that it will take approximately 8 hours to prepare and submit each letter to FDA.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the draft guidance at
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than February 20, 2018.
Submit your comments, including the ICR Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email Lisa Wright-Solomon, the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer, at
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference, in compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The intent of the NPDB is to improve the quality of health care by encouraging hospitals, State licensing boards, professional societies, and other entities providing health care services to identify and discipline those who engage in unprofessional behavior, and to restrict the ability of incompetent health care practitioners, providers, or suppliers to move from State to State without disclosure of previous damaging or incompetent performance. It also serves as a fraud and abuse clearinghouse for the reporting and disclosing of certain final adverse actions (excluding settlements in which no findings of liability have been made) taken against health care practitioners, providers, or suppliers by health plans, Federal agencies, and State agencies.
The reporting forms, request for information forms (query forms), and administrative forms (used to monitor compliance) are accessed, completed, and submitted to the NPDB electronically through the NPDB website at
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Health Resources and Service Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice announces that the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)/Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment will hold a public meeting.
February 22, 2018, 2:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. ET.
This teleconference meeting will accommodate up to 100 attendees. Parties may access the teleconference by dialing 888-989-6421 and using participant code 9874492. Participants should call and connect 15-minutes prior to the start of the meeting.
Anyone requesting information regarding the CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment should contact CDR Holly Berilla, Senior Public Health Analyst, Division of Policy and Data (DPD), HIV/AIDS Bureau (HAB), HRSA, in one of three ways: (1) Mail a request to CDR Holly Berilla, Senior Public Health Analyst, HRSA/HAB/DPD, 5600 Fishers Lane, 09N156, Rockville, Maryland 20857; (2) call 301-443-9965; or (3) send an email to
The CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment was established under Section 222 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, [42 U.S.C. Section 217a], as amended.
The purpose of the CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment is to advise the Secretary, HHS; the Director, CDC; and the Administrator, HRSA regarding objectives, strategies, policies, and priorities for HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STDs; prevention and treatment efforts including surveillance of HIV infection, AIDS, viral hepatitis, and other STDs, and related behaviors; epidemiologic, behavioral, health services, and laboratory research on HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STDs; identification of policy issues related to HIV/viral hepatitis/STD professional eduction, patient healthcare delivery, and prevention services; Agency policies about prevention of HIV, viral hepatitis and other STDs; treatment, healthcare delivery, and research and training; strategic issues influencing the ability of CDC and HRSA to fulfill their missions of providing prevention and treatment services; programmatic efforts to prevent and treat HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STDs; and support to the Agencies in their developoment of responses to emerging health needs related to HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STDs. Information about the Committee and the meeting agenda is available by contacting CDR Holly Berilla at the contact information above.
During the meeting, the CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment will discuss workgroup reports and updates, information regarding the National Ryan White HIV/AIDS Program Conference, and Committee business-related items. Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
Due to the nature and time limitations of the meeting, members of the public will not have an opportunity to provide oral comments, although written comments may be submitted to CDR Holly Berilla at the contact information listed above at least 10 days prior to the meeting. Individuals who need special assistance should notify CDR Holly Berilla at the contact information listed above at least 10 days prior to the meeting.
Office for Civil Rights, Office of the Secretary, HHS.
This notice establishes the Conscience and Religious Freedom Division in the Office for Civil Rights of the Department of Health and Human Services.
In accordance with Executive Order 13798 Promoting Free Speech and Religious Liberty (May 4, 2017), 82 FR 21675, and the Attorney General's Guidance on Federal Law Protections for Religious Liberty (October 6, 2017), Part A, Office of the Secretary, Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority for the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), as last amended at 81 FR 95622 (December 28, 2016), is being amended at Chapter AT, Office for Civil Rights (OCR) to reflect the restructuring of OCR as follows:
OCR, a Staff Division of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), ensures that individuals receiving services from HHS-funded programs are not subject to unlawful discrimination; that individuals and entities are free from coercion and can exercise their conscience and religious freedom rights; and that people can trust the privacy, security, and availability of their health information. By rooting out invidious discrimination and removing unlawful barriers to HHS-funded services, OCR carries out the HHS mission of improving the health and well-being of all Americans and providing essential human services. By ensuring individuals and institutions can exercise their conscience and religious freedom rights, OCR furthers justice and tolerance in a pluralistic society. By promoting the right to access health information and protecting the privacy and security of this information, OCR helps empower people's health care decision-making and helps ensure the integrity of the health care system and thereby promotes better health outcomes for the nation.
OCR accomplishes this by:
• Enforcing laws, investigating complaints, conducting compliance reviews, promulgating regulations, developing policy, providing technical assistance, and engaging in public education and outreach to ensure understanding of and compliance with all the laws OCR has authority over;
• Ensuring that recipients of HHS federal financial assistance comply with federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination on the bases of race, color, national origin, disability, age, sex, and religion;
• Ensuring that federal agencies, state and local governments, health care providers, health plans, and others comply with federal laws guaranteeing the free exercise of religious beliefs and moral convictions and the right to be free from coercion in HHS-conducted or funded programs; and
• Ensuring the practices of health care providers, health plans, health care clearinghouses, and their business associates adhere to federal privacy, security, and breach notification regulations under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) through the investigation of complaints, self-reports of breaches, compliance reviews, and audits.”
In accordance with Executive Order 13798 Promoting Free Speech and Religious Liberty (May 4, 2017), 82 FR 21675, and the Attorney General's Guidance on Federal Law Protections for Religious Liberty (October 6, 2017), notice is hereby given that I have delegated to the Director of the Office for Civil Rights (OCR), or his or her successor, authority over implementation of and compliance with the Religious Freedom Restoration Act (RFRA), 42 U.S.C. 2000bb
Pursuant to this delegation, the OCR Director shall have the authority to:
(1) Accept and investigate complaints filed by individuals or entities alleging a failure by any departmental component to comply with RFRA;
(2) conduct RFRA compliance reviews of departmental programs or activities;
(3) provide technical assistance to departmental components regarding RFRA compliance;
(4) evaluate the effectiveness of RFRA complaint processing by OCR and provide reports to appropriate oversight organizations; and
(5) initiate such other actions as may be necessary to facilitate and ensure compliance with RFRA.
This authority may be redelegated. If the OCR Director chooses to redelegate this authority, the OCR Director will maintain primary responsibility and accountability for implementation of this section. This delegation is effective upon date of signature. I hereby affirm and ratify any actions taken by the Director of OCR or subordinates which involved the exercise of the authorities delegated herein prior to the effective day of this delegation.
Pursuant to this delegation, the OCR Director shall have the authority to:
(1) Accept and investigate complaints filed by individuals or entities alleging a failure to comply with Section 1303(b)(4);
(2) conduct Section 1303(b)(4) compliance reviews;
(3) provide technical assistance to departmental components and qualified health plans regarding Section 1303(b)(4) compliance;
(4) evaluate the effectiveness of subsection 1303(b)(4) complaint processing by OCR and provide reports to appropriate oversight organizations; and
(5) initiate such other actions as may be necessary to facilitate and ensure compliance with Section 1303(b)(4).
This authority may be redelegated. If the OCR Director chooses to redelegate this authority, the OCR Director will maintain primary responsibility and accountability for implementation of this section. This delegation is effective upon date of signature. I hereby affirm and ratify any actions taken by the Director of OCR or subordinates which involved the exercise of the authorities delegated herein prior to the effective day of this delegation.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Advisory Council on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, February 08, 2018, 09:00 a.m. to February 08, 2018, 03:15 p.m., National Institutes of Health, National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, 5635 Fishers Lane, Terrace Conference Rooms, Bethesda, MD 20892 which was published in the
The meeting notice is amended to change the ending time of the closed session to 10:15 a.m. and the start time of the open session to 10:15 a.m. on February 08, 2018. The meeting is partially closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Cancer Institute Special Emphasis Panel, February 08, 2018, 09:00 a.m. to February 08, 2018, 04:00 p.m., National Cancer Institute Shady Grove, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Rockville, MD 20850 which was published in the
This meeting notice is amended to change the meeting title from “Cancer Cachexia Therapy and Local Delivery of Chemopreventive Agents” to “TEP-9A: Local Delivery of Chemopreventive
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Cancer Institute Clinical Trials and Translational Research Advisory Committee.
The meeting will be open to the public. The open session will be videocast and can be accessed from the NIH Videocasting and Podcasting website (
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Microbiology, Infectious Diseases and AIDS Initial Review Group Microbiology and Infectious Diseases B Subcommittee.
The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investors, the disclosure of which would constitue a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Population Sciences Subcommittee, February 9, 2017, 08:00 a.m. to February 9, 2017, 05:00 p.m., Residence Inn Bethesda, 7335 Wisconsin Avenue, Bethesda, MD, 20814 which was published in the
The meeting date has changed from February 9, 2017, 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. to February 9, 2018, 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of meetings of the National Advisory Council for Human Genome Research.
The meetings will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of minimum random drug testing rate.
The Coast Guard has set the calendar year 2018 minimum random drug testing rate at 25 percent of covered crewmembers.
The minimum random drug testing rate is effective January 1, 2018 through December 31, 2018.
Marine employers must submit their 2017 Management Information System (MIS) reports no later than March 15, 2018.
Annual MIS reports may be submitted by electronic submission to the following email address:
For questions about this notice, please contact Mr. Patrick Mannion, Drug and Alcohol Prevention and Investigation Program Manager, Office of Investigations and Casualty Analysis (CG-INV), U.S. Coast Guard Headquarters, telephone 202-372-1033.
The Coast Guard requires marine employers to establish random drug testing programs for covered crewmembers on inspected and uninspected vessels in accordance with 46 CFR 16.230. Every marine employer is required by 46 CFR 16.500 to collect and maintain a record of drug testing program data for each calendar year, and submit this data by 15 March of the following year to the Coast Guard in an annual MIS report.
Each year, the Coast Guard will publish a notice reporting the results of random drug testing for the previous calendar year's MIS data and the minimum annual percentage rate for random drug testing for the next calendar year. The purpose of setting a minimum random drug testing rate is to assist the Coast Guard in analyzing its current approach for deterring and detecting illegal drug abuse in the maritime industry.
The Coast Guard announces that the minimum random drug testing rate for calendar year 2018 is 25 percent. The Coast Guard may increase this rate if MIS data indicates a qualitative deficiency of reported data or the positive random testing rate is greater than 1.0 percent in accordance with 46 CFR part 16.230(f)(2). MIS data for the most recent reporting year indicates that the positive rate is less than one percent.
For 2018, the minimum random drug testing rate will continue at 25 percent of covered employees for the period of January 1, 2018 through December 31, 2018 in accordance with 46 CFR 16.230(e).
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The information collection is published in the
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0075 in the subject line and the agency name. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to Seth Renkema, Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, 90 K Street NE, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, Telephone number (202) 325-0056 or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments.
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until February 20, 2018. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number; comments are not accepted via telephone message.). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS website at
The information collection notice was previously published in the
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other
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Certain applications and petitions may allow for filing of fee exemptions; the specific forms have information regarding the option and the requirements to request an exemption.
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U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed revision of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until March 20, 2018.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0114 in the body of the letter, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2013-0002. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20529-2140, telephone number 202-272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS website at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
Notice.
The Department of Justice, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, is submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
The Department of Justice encourages public comment and will accept input until February 20, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Roderic Spencer, National Center for Explosives Training and Research (NCETR) either by mail at 3750 Corporal Road, Redstone Arsenal, AL 35898, or by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
Notice.
The Department of Justice, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, is submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
The Department of Justice encourages public comment and will accept input until February 20, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact John Dugan, Physical Security Programs Branch, either by mail at 99 New York Avenue NE, Washington, DC 20226 or by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
Notice.
The Department of Justice, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, is submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
The Department of Justice encourages public comment and will accept input until February 20, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Kenneth Mason, Firearms and Explosives Services Specialist, either by mail at National Firearms Act Branch, 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405, by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until February 20, 2018.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any other additional information, please contact Niki Wiltshire, Personnel Security Division either by mail at Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), Washington, DC 20226, or by telephone at 202-648-9260, or by email at
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
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Federal Bureau of Investigation Laboratory, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal Bureau of Investigation, Laboratory Division (LD), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until March 20, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Robin Ruth, Quality Manager, Federal Bureau of Investigation Laboratory, 2501 Investigation Parkway, Quantico, Virginia 22135.).
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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On January 10, 2018, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Central District of California in the lawsuit entitled
The United States and the California Department of Toxic Substances Control filed this lawsuit asserting a claim under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) against the Jervis B. Webb Company of California (Webb-Cal) to recover costs incurred and to be incurred by the United States and the State of California in response to releases of hazardous substances at the Jervis Webb Superfund Site in South Gate, California (the “Site”). The United States also asserted a claim against the Jervis B. Webb Company (JBW), parent company of Webb-Cal, under the Federal Debt Collections Procedures Act (“FDCPA”) to recover assets transferred by Webb-Cal to JBW at a time when Webb-Cal was insolvent and indebted to the United States under CERCLA. Under the proposed Consent Decree, JBW will pay $3.45 million to the United States to resolve the claims of the United States. In exchange for this payment, both JBW and Webb-Cal will receive site-wide covenants not to sue and contribution protection under CERCLA, and JBW will receive a covenant not to sue for fraudulent conveyance under the FDCPA. Under this Consent Decree, California DTSC will receive $50,000 from JBW to resolve its claim under CERCLA against Webb-Cal.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department website:
Please enclose a check or money order for $8.00 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
On January 10, 2018, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree (“Consent Decree”) with the United States District Court for the District of Connecticut in the lawsuit entitled
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the proposed Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the proposed Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department website:
Please enclose a check or money order for $9.50 (25 cents per page
Merit Systems Protection Board.
Notice and request for comments.
The Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, is planning to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), entitled: “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery” and identified by OMB Control No. 3124-0015, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). This collection was developed as part of a Federal Government-wide effort to streamline the process for seeking feedback from the public on service delivery. MSPB is soliciting comments on this extension, without change, of a previously approved collection set to expire on April 30, 2018. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to the OMB.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by March 20, 2018.
Submit comments by using only one of the following methods:
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All comments must reference OMB Control No. 3124-0015. Regardless of the method used for submitting comments or material, all submissions will be posted, without change, to MSPB's website (
Jennifer Everling, Acting Clerk of the Board, Merit Systems Protection Board, 1615 M Street NW, Washington, DC 20419; phone: (202) 653-7200; fax: (202) 653-7130; or email:
The proposed information collection activity provides a means to obtain qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with MSPB's commitment to improving service delivery. Qualitative feedback is information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but are not statistical surveys that can be generalized to the population of study. This feedback will provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences and expectations, provide an early warning of issues with service, or focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services. These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between MSPB and its customers and stakeholders. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management.
The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on MSPB's services will be unavailable.
The MSPB will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:
• The collections are voluntary;
• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• The collections are non-controversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• Information gathered will be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of MSPB;
• Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
In accordance with the purposes of Sections 29 and 182b of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2232b), the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) will hold a meeting February 8-10, 2018, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Procedures for the conduct of and participation in ACRS meetings were published in the
Thirty-five hard copies of each presentation or handout should be provided 30 minutes before the meeting. In addition, one electronic copy of each presentation should be emailed to the Cognizant ACRS Staff one day before meeting. If an electronic copy cannot be provided within this timeframe,
In accordance with Subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463 and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), certain portions of this meeting may be closed, as specifically noted above. Use of still, motion picture, and television cameras during the meeting may be limited to selected portions of the meeting as determined by the Chairman. Electronic recordings will be permitted only during the open portions of the meeting.
ACRS meeting agendas, meeting transcripts, and letter reports are available through the NRC Public Document Room at
Video teleconferencing service is available for observing open sessions of ACRS meetings. Those wishing to use this service should contact Mr. Theron Brown, ACRS Audio Visual Technician (301-415-6702), between 7:30 a.m. and 3:45 p.m. (ET), at least 10 days before the meeting to ensure the availability of this service. Individuals or organizations requesting this service will be responsible for telephone line charges and for providing the equipment and facilities that they use to establish the video teleconferencing link. The availability of video teleconferencing services is not guaranteed.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
10:00 a.m., Thursday, March 8, 2018.
Offices of the Corporation, Twelfth Floor Board Room, 1100 New York Avenue NW, Washington, DC.
Hearing OPEN to the Public at 10 a.m.
Annual Public Hearing to afford an opportunity for any person to present views regarding the activities of the Corporation.
Individuals wishing to address the hearing orally must provide advance notice to OPIC's Corporate Secretary no later than 5 p.m. Thursday, February 22, 2018. The notice must include the individual's name, title, organization, address, email, telephone number, and a concise summary of the subject matter to be presented.
Oral presentations may not exceed ten (10) minutes. The time for individual presentations may be reduced proportionately, if necessary, to afford all participants who have submitted a timely request an opportunity to be heard.
Participants wishing to submit a written statement for the record must submit a copy of such statement to OPIC's Corporate Secretary no later than 5 p.m. Thursday, February 22, 2018. Such statement must be typewritten, double-spaced, and may not exceed twenty-five (25) pages.
Upon receipt of the required notice, OPIC will prepare an agenda for the hearing identifying speakers, setting forth the subject on which each participant will speak, and the time allotted for each presentation. The agenda will be available at the hearing.
A written summary of the hearing will be compiled, and such summary will be made available, upon written request to OPIC's Corporate Secretary, at the cost of reproduction.
Information on the hearing may be obtained from Catherine F.I. Andrade at (202) 336-8768, or via email at
OPIC is a U.S. Government agency that provides, on a commercial basis, political risk insurance and financing in friendly developing countries and emerging democracies for environmentally sound projects that confer positive developmental benefits upon the project country while creating employment in the U.S. OPIC is required by section 231A(c) of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961, as amended (the “Act”) to hold at least one public hearing each year.
On November 17, 2017, NYSE American LLC (“Exchange” or “NYSE American”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
CUBE is a process by which an ATP Holder may electronically submit for execution an order it represents as agent (“CUBE Order”) against principal interest or against any other order it represents as agent.
The Exchange states that the proposed rule change, among other things, would provide investors with more timely execution of their option orders while ensuring that there is an adequate exposure of orders in the CUBE mechanism; could provide more CUBE Orders an opportunity for price improvement by reducing market risk for ATP Holders that participate in CUBE Auctions; would give the Exchange flexibility in establishing the optimal duration of CUBE Auctions; and would encourage competition and thereby enhance the potential for price improvement.
To substantiate that its members can receive, process, and communicate a response back to the Exchange within 100 milliseconds (the shortest possible duration of the Response Time Interval), the Exchange states that it surveyed all ATP Holders that responded to a CUBE Auction broadcast in the three months prior to the filing of this proposed rule change.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
The Commission believes that, as NYSE American maintains, permitting the Exchange to designate an exposure time period of as short as100 milliseconds in the CUBE Auction is consistent with the Commission's past approval of rules of options exchanges that govern the duration of their electronic auctions. These rules provide for a period of as short as 100 milliseconds for market participants to submit responses to an auction announcement before the auction ends.
The Commission notes that the fact that, in CUBE, a Response Time Interval is separately and randomly set by the auction mechanism for each individual auction (provided that no auction can be longer or shorter than specified limits) is not unique with respect to the instant proposal.
The Exchange's proposal revises how the minimum and maximum time lengths for the randomly-set Response Time Interval for each CUBE Auction would be established. Currently, Exchange Rule 971.1NY sets the minimum and maximum: no less than 500 milliseconds and no more than 750 milliseconds. Under the proposal, the Exchange is granted the discretion to establish the minimum and maximum possible durations of an auction and change them from time to time (with adequate notice to market participants). However, that discretion itself is restricted under the proposal. The Exchange would not be permitted to establish the limits in a way that would allow even a randomly-set Response Time Interval to be shorter than 100 milliseconds or longer than one second. The Commission thus notes that, under the proposed parameters, the exposure period for an order submitted to a CUBE Auction could never be shorter than the exposure period of any other options exchange's electronic auction.
Accordingly, for the reasons discussed above, the Commission believes that the Exchange's proposal is consistent with the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”), on November 14, 2017, filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”)
OCC maintains a Clearing Fund, composed of contributions required to be made by all Clearing Members, to satisfy losses suffered by OCC under a number of circumstances, including the default or failure of a Clearing Member to meet any obligation for which OCC may be responsible in the exercise of its duties as a central counterparty. Presently, Article VIII, Section 3(a) of OCC's By-Laws provides that Clearing Fund contributions shall be in the form of cash and Government securities, but neither OCC's By-Laws nor Rules provides a minimum cash requirement for contributions to the Clearing Fund. Article VIII, Section 4(a) of OCC's By-Laws allows for OCC to invest cash contributions to the Clearing Fund, partially or wholly, in OCC's account in Government securities, and to the extent that such contributions are not so invested, they shall be deposited by OCC in a separate account or accounts for Clearing Fund contributions in approved custodians. Article VIII, Section 4(a) of OCC's By-Laws, however, presently does not account for the treatment of interest earned on cash deposits held in OCC's bank account at the Federal Reserve.
OCC proposed to establish a Cash Clearing Fund Requirement for its Clearing Fund to increase the amount of qualifying liquid resources available to OCC to account for the event there is an extreme scenario in the financial markets and OCC has to address any resultant liquidity demands. Further, the proposal sought to ensure that OCC holds, and maintains access to, a more consistent level of cash clearing fund resources in its available prefunded financial resources. Specifically, the proposed rule change would require that Clearing Members collectively contribute $3 billion in cash to the Clearing Fund. Each Clearing Member's proportionate share of the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement shall be determined by the current Clearing Fund allocation methodology in OCC Rule 1001.
OCC's current liquidity resources are sized to cover historically observed liquidity demands and potential demands based on forecasts with a 12 month time horizon. The sizing calculations, in turn, are based on the potential exposure resulting from the default of a single clearing member. Further, the current clearing fund is sized, at a minimum, to ensure that OCC maintains sufficient collateral to access its committed liquidity facilities. OCC represented that it maintains committed liquidity facilities of $3 billion to cover its calculated historical and forecasted demands.
After analyzing its liquidity demands in extreme stress scenarios,
The proposed change would also provide authority for OCC to temporarily increase the amount of the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement. OCC's Executive Chairman, Chief Administrative Officer (“CAO”), or Chief Operating Officer (“COO”), would have the authority, upon providing notice to the Risk Committee, to temporarily raise the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement up to an amount that includes the size of the Clearing Fund
In such circumstances, the Risk Committee, by rule, would be obligated to review any such temporary increase as soon as practicable, but in any event within 20 calendar days of the increase. In its review, the Risk Committee shall determine whether (1) the increase in the minimum Cash Clearing Fund Requirement is no longer required, or (2) OCC's Clearing Fund contribution requirements and other related rules should be modified to ensure that OCC continues to maintain sufficient liquid resources to cover its largest aggregate payment obligations in extreme but plausible market conditions. In the event that the Risk Committee would determine to permanently increase the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement, OCC would initiate any regulatory approval process required to effect such a change.
OCC acknowledged that increasing the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement could impose a liquidity constraint on its clearing members. Accordingly, OCC has proposed to limit the circumstances in which it could make such an increase. By rule, OCC would only be able to exercise this authority to protect OCC, its clearing members, or the general public. Further, any Cash Clearing Fund Requirement increase would have to: (i) Be based upon then-existing facts and circumstances, (ii) be in furtherance of the integrity of OCC and the stability of the financial system, and (iii) take into consideration the legitimate interests of Clearing Members and market participants.
These changes would be reflected in new paragraph (a)(i) of Section 3 of Article VIII of OCC's By-Laws, as well as in new Interpretation and Policy .04 to Section 3 of Article VIII.
Under the proposal, OCC stated that substantially all the cash deposits in the Clearing Fund would be held in an account established by OCC at a Federal Reserve Bank. OCC proposes that it would pass the interest income earned in such account through to its Clearing Members. Specifically, OCC proposes to revise Article VIII, Section 4(a) of OCC's By-Laws to provide that any interest earned on cash deposits held at an account at the Federal Reserve shall accrue to the benefit of Clearing Members (calculated daily based on each Clearing Member's pro rata share of Clearing Fund cash deposits), provided that such Clearing Members have provided OCC with all tax documentation as OCC may from time to time require in order to effectuate such payment.
To accommodate the pass through of interest income, OCC would also amend its Fee Policy to add definitions for “Pass-Through Interest Revenue” and “Operating Expenses” to exclude from the calculation of the Business Risk Buffer projected interest revenue and expense, respectively, related to the pass-through of earned interest from OCC to Clearing Members.
In conjunction with the aforementioned changes, OCC is also proposing to make four related conforming changes. First, OCC proposes to revise Interpretation and Policy .01 of Rule 1001 to reflect that the new minimum Clearing Fund size is $3 billion (instead of $1 billion) plus 110% of the size of OCC's committed liquidity facilities, which conforms to the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement. Second, OCC proposes to amend the definition of “Approved Custodian” in Article I, Section 1 of the By-Laws to clarify that the Federal Reserve Bank may also be an Approved Custodian, to the extent it is available to OCC. Third, OCC is proposing to delete existing Article VIII, Section 4(b), regarding the establishment of a segregated funds account for cash contributions to the Clearing Fund. The segregated funds account allows a Clearing Member to contribute cash to a bank or trust company account maintained in the name of OCC, subject to OCC's exclusive control, but the account also includes the name of the Clearing Member and any interest accrues to the Clearing Member rather than OCC. OCC proposes to eliminate this account type because Clearing Members have not expressed interest in using such an account, no such accounts are in use today, and moving forward, substantially all cash Clearing Fund contributions will held in OCC's account at the Federal Reserve Bank. Fourth, OCC proposes to introduce new language to Article VIII, Section 4(a) to clarify that cash contributions to the Clearing Fund that are deposited at approved custodians may be commingled with the Clearing Fund contributions of different Clearing Members.
Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Exchange Act directs the Commission to approve a proposed rule change of a self-regulatory organization if it finds that such proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to such organization.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act requires that the rules of a registered clearing agency be designed to do, among other things, promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and, in general, protect investors and the public interest.
OCC determined to address this risk by proposing to establish the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement. Establishing the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement would provide OCC with more qualifying liquid resources, which, in turn, enhances OCC's ability to cover payment obligations that could arise in stressed conditions. Therefore, the Commission believes that this outcome would enhance OCC's ability to manage its liquidity risk exposure, thereby promoting prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions.
Further, the proposal to give OCC the authority to temporarily increase the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement gives OCC additional means to address liquidity shortfalls in extreme scenarios. Therefore, the Commission believes that increasing the amount of cash, and thus the overall amount of qualifying liquid resources, available to cover OCC's liquidity demands arising in stressed scenarios is consistent with the promotion of prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions.
OCC is the sole registered clearing agency for the U.S. listed options markets. As such, it is important for OCC to implement measures that enhance its ability to manage risks that could cause a financial loss or settlement disruption and threaten the stability of the U.S. listed options markets and the broader financial system. The Commission believes that the proposed change is designed to enhance OCC's ability to continue to make timely settlement of payment obligations and otherwise service the U.S. options markets while in the midst of experiencing an extreme market event in the form of the default of up to two of its largest clearing members. As such, the Commission believes the proposed change is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest.
Accordingly, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act.
The Commission further believes that the proposed change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(7) under the Exchange Act, which requires that a covered clearing agency establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to effectively measure, monitor, and manage its liquidity risk.
• Maintaining sufficient liquid resources at the minimum in all relevant currencies to effect same-day and, where appropriate, intraday and multiday settlement of payment obligations with a high degree of confidence under a wide range of foreseeable stress scenarios that includes, but is not limited to, the default of the participant family that would generate the largest aggregate payment obligation for the covered clearing agency in extreme but plausible market conditions;
• using the access to accounts and services at a Federal Reserve Bank or other relevant central bank, when available and where the board of directors of the covered clearing agency has determined that it would be practical to enhance its management of liquidity risk;
• addressing foreseeable liquidity shortfalls that would not be covered by a covered clearing agency's liquid resources and seeking to avoid unwinding, revoking, or delaying the same-day settlement of payment obligations.
By proposing the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement and increasing the amount of qualifying liquid resources available to cover OCC's liquidity demands arising in stressed scenarios, OCC has taken measures consistent with the requirement in Rule 17Ad-22(e)(7)(i) that it maintain sufficient liquid resources to effect settlement of its payment obligations with a high degree of confidence under a wide range of foreseeable stress scenarios. OCC also represented that substantially all of OCC's Clearing Fund deposits consisting of cash would be held in an account established by OCC at a Federal Reserve Bank and further clarified that interest earned in such an account would be paid to its members on a specified basis. By proposing to use its access to accounts at a Federal Reserve Bank to support the maintenance of the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement, OCC has taken measures consistent with the requirement in Rule 17Ad-22(e)(7)(iii) which provides for using access to a central bank account, where available and determined to be practical. Further, the proposed authority to temporarily increase the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement is intended to allow OCC to address a foreseeable liquidity shortfall and is therefore consistent with the requirement in Rule 17Ad-22(e)(7)(viii) addressing such shortfalls.
On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the proposed change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act, and in particular, with the requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act
For the Commission by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (“Act”)
The proposed rule change of NSCC consists of modifications to NSCC's Rules & Procedures (“Rules”)
NSCC is also proposing to eliminate the existing Market Maker Domination component (“MMD Charge”) from the Clearing Fund formula, as described in greater detail below.
In its filing with the Commission, the clearing agency included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The clearing agency has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
NSCC is proposing to enhance the calculation of the VaR Charge by introducing an additional estimation of volatility that would be incorporated into the VaR model, and introducing two additional calculations, the Gap Risk Measure and the Portfolio Margin Floor, that NSCC believes would collectively enhance its ability to mitigate market price risk. NSCC currently calculates the VaR Charge by applying a parametric VaR model that incorporates an EWMA volatility estimation. NSCC is proposing to introduce an additional calculation that also applies the parametric VaR model but replaces the EWMA volatility estimation with an evenly-weighted volatility estimation.
NSCC is also proposing to introduce two additional calculations to arrive at a final VaR Charge, the Gap Risk Measure and the Portfolio Margin Floor. NSCC would use the highest result between the Core Parametric Estimation, the Gap Risk Measure, when applicable, and the Portfolio Margin Floor calculations as a Member's final VaR Charge.
Each of the separate calculations would provide NSCC with a measure of the market price risk presented by the Net Unsettled Positions and Net Balance Order Unsettled Positions (for purposes of this filing, referred to collectively herein as “Net Unsettled Positions”)
NSCC is also proposing to eliminate the existing MMD Charge from the Clearing Fund formula. When the MMD Charge was first introduced, it was developed to only address concentration risks presented by Net Unsettled Positions in certain securities that are traded by firms that are designated Market Makers, as described in greater detail below. Given this limited scope of application of this charge, and because NSCC believes it more effectively addresses the risks this charge was designed to address through other risk management measures, including the proposed Gap Risk Measure calculation of the VaR Charge, NSCC is proposing to eliminate the MMD Charge.
Each of these proposed changes is described in more detail below.
As part of its market risk management strategy, NSCC manages its credit exposure to Members by determining the appropriate Required Deposits to the Clearing Fund and monitoring its sufficiency, as provided for in the Rules.
Pursuant to NSCC's Rules, each Member's Required Deposit amount consists of a number of applicable components, each of which is calculated to address specific risks faced by NSCC, as identified within Procedure XV of the Rules.
Currently, Members' Required Deposits may also include an MMD Charge, applicable only to Members that are Market Makers and Members that clear for Market Makers.
NSCC employs daily backtesting to determine the adequacy of each Member's Required Deposit. NSCC compares the Required Deposit
Further, as a part of its model performance review, and consistent with its regulatory requirements, NSCC regularly assesses its risks as they relate to its model assumptions, parameters, and sensitivities, including those of its parametric VaR model, to evaluate whether margin levels are commensurate with the particular risk attributes of each relevant product, portfolio, and market.
The proposed changes to the calculation of the VaR Charge, described below, are a result of NSCC's regular review of the effectiveness of its margining methodology.
However, NSCC believes this calculation may not adequately cover a rapid change in market price volatility levels, including, for example, a drop in portfolio volatility in a stabilizing market. Additionally, NSCC has observed poorer backtesting coverage for those Members with less diversified portfolios in atypical market conditions.
In estimating volatility, the EWMA volatility estimation gives greater weight to more recent market observations, and effectively diminishes the value of older market observations. However, volatility in equity markets often rapidly revert to pre-volatile levels, and then are followed by a subsequent spike in volatility. So, while a calculation that relies exclusively on the EWMA volatility estimation can capture changes in volatility that emerge from a progressively calm or non-volatile market, it may cause a reactive decrease in margin that does not adequately capture the risks related to a rapid shift in market price volatility levels. Alternatively, an evenly-weighted volatility estimation would continue to give even weight to all historical volatility observations in the look-back period (described below), and would prevent margin from decreasing too quickly.
Therefore, in order to more adequately cover a rapid change in market price volatility levels and the risks presented by less diversified portfolios in its calculation of the VaR Charge, NSCC is proposing to add another calculation of the VaR Charge utilizing its parametric VaR model that would incorporate an evenly-weighted volatility estimation. NSCC believes an
The proposed calculation incorporating an evenly-weighted volatility estimation would give equal weight to price observations over a look-back period of at least 253 days. NSCC analyzed the impact of using a look-back period of various lengths and determined that a look-back period of at least 253 days would provide NSCC with an adequate view of recent, past market observations in estimating volatility to meet its backtesting performance targets, and wouldn't result in unnecessarily high margin calculations. NSCC would weigh these considerations periodically to determine an appropriate look-back period that is at least 253 days.
NSCC would perform both calculations using the parametric VaR model—one using the existing EWMA volatility estimation and an additional calculation using the proposed evenly-weighted volatility estimation—and would use the highest result of these calculations as the Core Parametric Estimation in connection with calculating a Member's VaR Charge. NSCC believes that, while the existing EWMA calculation provides adequate responsiveness to increasing market volatility, as described above, the proposed evenly-weighted calculation would be better at covering the risk of a rapid change in market volatility levels by retaining market observations from the entire historical data set. Therefore, by using both calculations and selecting the higher result, NSCC would be able to more effectively cover its credit exposures and mitigate the risk presented by different market conditions in arriving at a final Core Parametric Estimation.
In order to implement the proposed change, NSCC would amend Procedure XV of the Rules by creating a new subjection (I) to Sections I(A)(1)(a)(i) and I(A)(2)(a)(i) of the Rules, which would define the Core Parametric Estimate as the higher result of two calculations—and EWMA calculation and the proposed evenly-weighted calculation—both utilizing the parametric VaR model.
The proposed Gap Risk Measure would be calculated to address the risks presented by a portfolio that is more susceptible to the effects of gap risk events due to the idiosyncratic nature of the Net Unsettled Positions in that portfolio. For example, the proposed calculation would address the risk that a gap risk event affects the price of a security in which a portfolio holds a Net Unsettled Position that represents more than a certain percent of the entire portfolio's value, such that the event could impact the entire portfolio's value. The proposed Gap Risk Measure would supplement the calculation of the Core Parametric Estimation because a parametric VaR model calculation is not designed to fully capture this specific risk presented by a concentrated position in a Member's portfolio.
The proposed Gap Risk Measure would only be applied for a Member if the Net Unsettled Position with the largest absolute market value in the portfolio represents more than a certain percent of the entire portfolio's value (“concentration threshold”). NSCC is proposing a concentration threshold to the application of the Gap Risk Measure because its backtesting results have shown that portfolios with a Net Unsettled Position that represents a proportional value of the entire portfolio over 30 percent tend to have backtesting coverage below the target 99 percent confidence level. These results also show that these portfolios are more susceptible to the effects of gap risk events that the proposed calculation is designed to measure. Therefore, NSCC would only apply the Gap Risk Measure charge if the Net Unsettled Position with the largest absolute market value in a Member's portfolio represents more than 30 percent of that Member's entire portfolio value. NSCC would set 30 percent as the ceiling for the concentration threshold, and would evaluate the threshold periodically based on the Member's backtesting results during a time period of not less than the previous twelve months to determine if it may be appropriate to the threshold at a lower percent.
Additionally, NSCC believes the risk of large, unexpected price movements, particularly those caused by a gap risk event, may have a greater impact on portfolios with large Net Unsettled Positions in securities that are susceptible to those events. Generally, index-based exchange-traded funds track closely to similar equity indices and are less prone to the effects of gap risk events. As such, if the concentration threshold is met, NSCC would calculate the Gap Risk Measure for Net Unsettled Positions in the portfolio, other than positions in index-based exchange traded funds (referred to herein for ease of reference as “non-index Net Unsettled Positions”).
When applicable, NSCC would calculate the Gap Risk Measure by multiplying the gross market value of the largest non-index Net Unsettled Position in the portfolio by a percent of not less than 10 percent.
By calculating this charge as a percent of the gross market value of the largest non-index Net Unsettled Position that exceeds the set threshold, NSCC believes the proposed Gap Risk Measure would allow it to capture the risk that a gap risk event affects the price of a security in which the Member holds a concentrated position and, due to the disproportionate value of this position in the Member's portfolio, the impact of
In order to implement this proposed change, NSCC would amend Procedure XV of the Rules by creating a new subjection (II) to Sections I(A)(1)(a)(i) and I(A)(2)(a)(i) of the Rules, which would describe the calculation of the Gap Risk Measure.
The proposed Portfolio Margin Floor would be calculated to address risks that may not be adequately accounted for in the other calculations of the VaR Charge by operating as a floor to, or minimum amount of, the final VaR Charge. A parametric VaR model may result in a low VaR Charge for balanced portfolios. For example, in circumstances where the gross market value of a Member's Net Unsettled Positions is high and the cost of liquidation in the event that Member defaults could also be high, the parametric VaR model may not adequately measure the potential costs of liquidation. The proposed charge would be based on the balance and direction of Net Unsettled Positions in the Members' portfolio and is designed to be proportional to the market value of the portfolio. In this way, the Portfolio Margin Floor would allow NSCC to more effectively cover its credit exposures.
The Portfolio Margin Floor would be the sum of two separate calculations, both of which would measure the market value of the portfolio based on the direction of Net Unsettled Positions in that portfolio. In this way, the calculation would effectively set a floor on the VaR Charge based on the composition of the portfolio and would mitigate the risk that low price volatility in portfolios with either large gross market values or large net directional market values could hinder NSCC's ability to effectively liquidate or hedge the Member's portfolio in three business days.
First, NSCC would calculate the net directional market value of the portfolio by calculating the absolute difference between the market value of the long Net Unsettled Positions and the market value of the short Net Unsettled Positions in the portfolio,
NSCC would add the results of these two calculations to arrive at the final Portfolio Margin Floor amount. The sum of these two calculations would provide a minimum VaR Charge by effectively establishing a margin floor for certain portfolios that may not be effectively assessed in the other calculations of the VaR Charge. NSCC would compare the Portfolio Margin Floor result with the Gap Risk Measure, when applicable, and the Core Parametric Estimation and would use the highest of the three calculations as the final VaR Charge for each Member, as applicable.
In order to implement this proposed change, NSCC would amend Procedure XV of the Rules by creating a new subjection (III) to Sections I(A)(1)(a)(i) and I(A)(2)(a)(i) of the Rules, which would describe the calculation of the Portfolio Margin Floor.
Finally, NSCC is proposing to eliminate the MMD Charge from its Clearing Fund calculation. The MMD Charge is an existing component of the Clearing Fund formula and is calculated for Members that are Market Makers and Members that clear for Market Makers.
Since the MMD Charge was implemented, the U.S. equities market has evolved with improved price transparency, access across exchange venues, and participation by market liquidity providers to reduce the risks that the charge was designed to address. Further, NSCC believes the MMD Charge may not effectively address concentration risk because (1) it only applies to Net Unsettled Positions in certain dominated securities, as described above and currently in Procedure XV of the Rules; (2) it does not address concentration risk presented by Net Unsettled Positions in securities that are not listed on NASDAQ or in securities traded by firms that are not Market Makers; and (3) it does not account for concentration in market capitalization categories.
NSCC also believes that the proposed enhancements to the VaR Charge, specifically the introduction of an evenly-weighted volatility measure and the calculation of the Gap Risk Measure, would provide it with more effective measures of risks related to concentrated positions in its Members' portfolios. Subject to applicable thresholds, these proposed risk measures would be applicable to all Members as part of the calculation VaR Charge, and would not, like the MMD
In order to implement this proposed change, NSCC would amend Procedure XV of the Rules by removing subsection (d) of Section I(A)(1) and subsection (c) of Section I(A)(2) of the Rules, and renumbering the subsequent subsections accordingly.
For the reasons described above, NSCC believes that the proposed enhancements to its VaR Charge would allow it to better measure and mitigate the risks presented by certain Net Unsettled Positions, including the risk presented to NSCC when those positions are concentrated in a particular security. One of the risks presented by a Net Unsettled Position concentrated in an asset class is that NSCC may not be able to liquidate or hedge the Net Unsettled Positions of a defaulted Member in the assumed timeframe at the market price in the event of a Member default. Because NSCC relies on external market data in connection with monitoring exposures to its Members, the market data may not reflect the market impact transaction costs associated with the potential liquidation as the concentration risk of a Net Unsettled Position increases. However, NSCC believes that, through the proposed changes and through existing risk management measures,
NSCC will continue to evaluate its exposures to these risks. Any future, proposed changes to the margining methodology to address such risks would be subject to a separate proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Act,
NSCC believes that the proposed changes described above are consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a registered clearing agency. In particular, NSCC believes that the proposed changes are consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act,
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
First, NSCC's proposal to introduce an additional calculation using its parametric VaR model that uses an evenly-weighted volatility estimation would better enable NSCC to limit its exposures to Members by enhancing the calculation of the VaR Charge to better cover the risk of a rapid change in market price volatility levels, including, for example, a drop in portfolio volatility in a stabilizing market. Second, the proposal to introduce the Gap Risk Measure calculation as an additional measure of volatility in connection with the calculation of the VaR Charge would better enable NSCC to limit its exposures to Members by more effectively capturing the risk that gap risk events impact the entire portfolio's value due to the idiosyncratic nature of the Net Unsettled Positions in that portfolio. Third, the proposal to introduce the Portfolio Margin Floor in its calculation of a Member's VaR Charge would enable NSCC to better limit its exposures to Members by better capturing the risks that may not be adequately accounted for in the other calculations of the VaR Charge. Finally, NSCC's proposal to eliminate the MMD Charge would enable NSCC to remove a component of the Required Deposit that provides NSCC with only a limited measure of risks presented by Net Unsettled Positions that are concentrated in certain securities, which NSCC believes it can more adequately measure through other proposed and existing risk management measures, as described above.
By enabling NSCC to better limit its exposure to Members, the proposed changes are designed to ensure that, in the event of Member default, NSCC's operations would not be disrupted and non-defaulting Members would not be exposed to losses they cannot anticipate or control. In this way, the proposed rules are designed to assure the safeguarding of securities and funds which are in the custody or control of NSCC or for which it is responsible and therefore consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(i) under the Act
As described above, the proposed changes would enable NSCC to better identify, measure, monitor, and, through the collection of Members' Required Deposits, manage its credit exposures to Members by maintaining sufficient resources to cover those credit exposures fully with a high degree of confidence. Each of the additional calculations that NSCC is proposing to introduce to enhance its methodology for calculating a Member's VaR Charge would provide NSCC with a more effective measure of the risks these calculations were designed to assess, as described above. As such, the proposed
Furthermore, removing the MMD Charge would enable NSCC to remove from the Clearing Fund calculations a component that is limited in scope and would allow it to address the risks presented by Net Unsettled Positions that are concentrated in certain securities more effectively by other Clearing Fund components and risk management measures.
Therefore, the proposal would enhance NSCC's ability to effectively identify, measure and monitor its credit exposures and would enhance its ability to maintain sufficient financial resources to cover its credit exposure to each participant fully with a high degree of confidence. As such, NSCC believes the proposed changes are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(4)(i) under the Act.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)(i) under the Act
The Required Deposits are made up of risk-based components (as margin) that, that are calculated and assessed daily to limit NSCC's credit exposures to Members. NSCC's proposal to enhance the calculation of its VaR Charge in order to more effectively address market price volatility would permit it to produce margin levels that are commensurate with the particular risk attributes, including risks related to rapid changes in market price volatility levels due to gap risk events, or risks related to a unique composition of securities within a portfolio, as described above. For example, the use of an evenly-weighted volatility estimation utilizing the VaR model, as an additional calculation of the VaR Charge, which gives equal weight to a long historical data set, rather than more weight to recent observations, would permit NSCC to more effectively measure the risk of a rapid change in market price volatility. The addition of the Gap Risk Measure and the Portfolio Margin Floor would also provide NSCC with additional measurements of the market price volatility of a Member's Net Unsettled Position, enabling NSCC to assess a VaR Charge that accounts for the risks those charges are designed to address, as described above.
Finally, NSCC is proposing to eliminate the MMD Charge because this component of the Clearing Fund has only a limited application and, as such, does not provide as effective a measurement of the risk presented by Net Unsettled Positions that are concentrated in certain securities as other proposed and existing risk management measures. Therefore, the proposal to eliminate this charge would enable NSCC to remove an unnecessary component from the Clearing Fund calculation, and would help NSCC to rely on an appropriate method of measuring its exposures to this risk.
The proposed changes are designed to assist NSCC in maintaining a risk-based margin system that considers, and produces margin levels commensurate with, the risks and particular attributes of portfolios that exhibit idiosyncratic risk attributes, are more susceptible to price volatility caused by to gap risk events, and contain concentrated Net Unsettled Positions. Therefore, NSCC believes the proposed change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)(i) and (v) under the Act.
NSCC believes that the proposed changes that would enhance the calculation of its VaR Charge could have an impact on competition. Specifically, NSCC believes that the proposed changes could burden competition because they would result in larger Required Deposit amounts for Members when the enhancements result in a VaR Charge that is greater than the amount calculated pursuant to the current methodology. When the proposal results in a larger VaR Charge, and, thus, a larger Required Deposit, for Members that have lower operating margins or higher costs of capital compared to other Members, the proposed changes could burden competition. However, the increase in Required Deposit would be in direct relation to the market price risk presented by each Members' Net Unsettled Positions, and each Member's Required Deposit would continue to be calculated with the same parameters and at the same confidence level for each Member. Therefore, Members that present similar Net Unsettled Positions would have similar impacts on their Required Deposit amounts. As such NSCC believe that any burden on competition imposed by the proposed changes would not be significant and, further, would be both necessary and appropriate in furtherance of NSCC's efforts to mitigate risks and meet the requirements of the Act, as described in this filing and further below.
NSCC believes that the above described burden on competition that may be created by the proposed changes associated with the enhancements to the VaR Charge would be necessary in furtherance of the Act, specifically Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act,
NSCC believes that the above described burden on competition that could be created by the proposed changes would be appropriate in furtherance of the Act because such changes have been appropriately designed to assure the safeguarding of securities and funds which are in the custody or control of NSCC or for which it is responsible, as described in detail above. By introducing additional calculations for arriving at a Member's final VaR Charge, each of which are designed to address the unique risks presented by Members' Net Unsettled Positions, as described above, the proposal would allow NSCC to produce margin levels commensurate with the risks and particular attributes of each Member's portfolio. Therefore, because the proposed changes were designed to provide NSCC with an appropriate measure of the risks presented by Members' Net Unsettled Positions, NSCC believes the proposals are appropriately designed to meet its risk management goals and its regulatory obligations.
NSCC believes that it has designed the proposed changes in a reasonable and appropriate way in order to meet compliance with its obligations under the Act. Specifically, implementing the proposed enhancements to the calculation of its VaR Charge would improve the risk-based margining methodology that NSCC employs to set margin requirements and better limit NSCC's credit exposures to its Members. Therefore, NSCC believes the proposed changes are necessary and appropriate in furtherance of NSCC's obligations under the Act, specifically Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
Because the proposal to eliminate the MMD Charge would remove this charge from the margining methodology as applied to all Members, when applicable, NSCC does not believe the proposed change to eliminate the MMD Charge would have any impact on competition.
While NSCC has not solicited or received any written comments relating to this proposal, NSCC has conducted outreach to Members in order to provide them with notice of the proposal. NSCC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by NSCC.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
The proposal shall not take effect until all regulatory actions required with respect to the proposal are completed.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NSCC-2017-020 and should be submitted on or before February 9, 2018.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Pricing Schedule to add pricing for P.M.-settled options on broad-based indexes with nonstandard expiration dates for a period of twelve months, which the Commission recently approved.
While changes to the Pricing Schedule pursuant to this proposal are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated these changes to be operative on January 4, 2018.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange recently received approval to list P.M.-settled options on broad-based indexes with nonstandard expiration dates on a twelve month pilot basis, beginning on December 15, 2017.
Specifically, the Exchange proposes to adopt the current index pricing applicable to NDX
Today, Customer Rebates in Section B of the Pricing Schedule are not paid on NDX in any Category. However, NDX will count toward the volume requirement to qualify for a Customer
Today, electronic and floor Options Transaction Charges for NDX are $0.75 per contract for all Non-Customers. No transaction charge for NDX applies to Customers. A $0.25 per contract
Today, Specialists and Market Makers are subject to a “Monthly Market Maker Cap” of $500,000 for: (i) Electronic Option Transaction Charges, excluding surcharges and excluding options overlying NDX; and (ii) QCC Transaction Fees (as defined in Exchange Rule 1080(o) and Floor QCC Orders, as defined in 1064(e)). NDXP would likewise be excluded.
Firms are subject to a maximum fee of $75,000 (“Monthly Firm Fee Cap”). Firm Floor Option Transaction Charges and QCC Transaction Fees, in the aggregate, for one billing month will not exceed the Monthly Firm Fee Cap per member organization when such members are trading in their own proprietary accounts. All dividend, merger, and short stock interest strategy executions (as defined in this Section II) are excluded from the Monthly Firm Fee Cap. NDX Options Transactions are excluded from the Monthly Firm Fee Cap. NDXP will likewise be excluded.
The Firm Floor Options Transaction Charges will be waived for members executing facilitation orders pursuant to Exchange Rule 1064 when such members are trading in their own proprietary accounts (including Cabinet Options Transaction Charges). The Firm Floor Options Transaction Charges will be waived for the buy side of a transaction if the same member or its affiliates under Common Ownership represent both sides of a Firm transaction when such members are trading in their own proprietary accounts. In addition, the Broker-Dealer Floor Options Transaction Charge (including Cabinet Options Transaction Charges) will be waived for members executing facilitation orders pursuant to Exchange Rule 1064 when such members would otherwise incur this charge for trading in their own proprietary accounts contra to a Customer (“BD-Customer Facilitation”), if the member's BD-Customer Facilitation average daily volume (including both FLEX and non-FLEX transactions) exceeds 10,000 contracts per day in a given month. NDX Options Transactions are excluded from each of the waivers set forth in the above paragraph. NDXP will likewise be excluded from the waivers.
No Marketing Fees are assessed on transactions in NDX. NDXP will likewise be excluded.
Options overlying NDX are not subject to Section IV.A.—PIXL Pricing. NDX transactions in PIXL will be subject to Section II pricing. NDXP will not be subject to PIXL Pricing, similar to NDX, NDXP will be subject to the Section II pricing noted herein.
The Monthly Firm Fee Cap, Monthly Market Maker Cap, Strategy Caps and the Options Surcharge described in Section II of the Pricing Schedule apply to FLEX Transaction Fees for NDX and will likewise apply to NDXP in the same manner.
MARS Payment [sic] are made to Phlx members that have System Eligibility and have routed the requisite number of Eligible Contracts daily in a month,
The Exchange believes that the above-referenced pricing for NDX continues to be competitive and attract volume to Phlx. The Exchange believes that the proposed pricing is suitable because NDXP represent similar options on the same underlying, the Nasdaq 100® Index.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce'. . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
The Exchange's proposal to not pay the Customer Rebates in Section I of the Pricing Schedule on NDXP and count NDXP volume toward qualifying for a Customer Rebate Tier, similar to NDX, is reasonable because the Exchange desires to calculate and pay rebates on NDXP in a similar manner to NDX. NDX and NDXP represent similar options on the same underlying, the Nasdaq 100® Index. Further, it is reasonable to not pay Customer Rebates on NDXP in any Category (A, B or C) because this index will be exclusively listed on Nasdaq exchanges only.
The Exchange's proposal to not pay the Customer Rebates in Section I of the Pricing Schedule on NDXP and count NDXP volume toward qualifying for a Customer Rebate Tier, similar to NDX, is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange would apply its calculation to determine the eligibility and payment of Customer rebates in a uniform manner. Further, the Exchange would not pay Customer Rebates on any NDXP transaction to any market participant. Also, any market participant is eligible to earn a Customer Rebate.
The Exchange's proposal to assess the same electronic and floor Options Transaction Charges for NDXP as it assesses for NDX
The Exchange notes that the proposed transaction charges are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory as NDXP will be an exclusively listed product. Similar to NDX, the Exchange seeks to recoup the operational costs
The Exchange's proposal to add the words “per contract” to note 5 in Section II of the Pricing Schedule to make clear the surcharge is per contract is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it will conform the language to the remainder of the transaction charges in Section II of the Pricing Schedule.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Monthly Market Maker Cap and the Monthly Firm Fee Cap is reasonable because NDX, another proprietary product is likewise excluded today. Market Makers will continue to be able to utilize the cap to reduce electronic Option Transaction Charges, excluding surcharges, QCC transaction fees and Floor QCC Orders, NDX and now NDXP despite the exclusions.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Monthly Market Maker Cap and the Monthly Firm Fee Cap is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because no market participant would be eligible to count NDXP toward either the Monthly Market Maker Cap or the Monthly Firm Fee Cap.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Firm Floor Options Transaction waivers for members executing facilitation orders pursuant to Exchange Rule 1064,
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Firm Floor Options Transaction waivers for members executing facilitation orders pursuant to Exchange Rule 1064,
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Marketing Fee is reasonable because NDXP is an exclusively listed product, similar to NDX, which is also excluded from the Marketing Fee. The Exchange notes that Specialists and Market Makers transaction fees will remain in line with other market participants for NDXP.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Marketing Fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will assess uniform transaction fees for all Non-Customers because the transaction charges, as proposed above, would otherwise be uniform for all market participants. The Exchange believes that assessing Customers no transaction fee for NDXP is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because Customer orders bring valuable liquidity to the market, which liquidity benefits other market participants. Customer liquidity benefits all market participants by providing more trading opportunities, which attracts Specialists and Market Makers. An increase in the activity of these market participants in turn facilitates tighter spreads, which may cause an additional corresponding increase in order flow from other market participants.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from Section IV.A.—PIXL Pricing and instead assess NDXP transactions in PIXL the Section II pricing, similar to NDX, is reasonable because the Exchange believes that the PIXL pricing continues to be competitive despite the exclusion of NDXP. The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the PIXL Pricing in Section IV, Part A and instead assess NDXP transactions in PIXL the Section II pricing is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will uniformly exclude NDXP from PIXL pricing.
The Exchange's proposal to assess NDXP the same FLEX Transaction Fees as are assessed for NDX today is reasonable because the Exchange desires to assess the same fees for index products. The Exchange's proposal to assess NDXP the same FLEX Transaction Fees as are assessed for NDX today is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will uniformly assess FLEX fees for NDXP in a uniform manner for all market participants.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from Eligible Contracts for purposes of qualifying for a MARS Payment is reasonable because the Exchange believes that despite the exclusion of NDXP, MARS remains a competitive offering. The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from Eligible Contracts for purposes of qualifying for a MARS Payment is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will uniformly exclude NDXP from MARS.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. The Exchange notes that with its products, market participants are offered an opportunity to either transact NDXP or separately execute options overlying PowerShares QQQ Trust (“QQQ”). Offering products such as QQQ provides
The Exchange's proposal to not pay the Customer Rebates in Section I of the Pricing Schedule on NDXP and count NDXP volume toward qualifying for a Customer Rebate Tier, similar to NDX, does not impose an undue burden on competition because the Exchange would apply its calculation to determine the eligibility and payment of Customer rebates in a uniform manner. The Exchange's proposal to not pay Customer Rebates on NDXP in any Category is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange would not pay Customer Rebates on any transaction with NDXP to any market participant. Also, any market participant is eligible to earn a Customer Rebate.
The Exchange's proposal to assess for the same electronic and floor Options Transaction Charges for NDXP and NDX does not impose an undue burden on competition because the Exchange would assess the same options transaction charges to all Non-Customer market participants. The Exchange believes that assessing Customers no transaction fee for NDXP does not impose an undue burden on competition because Customer orders bring valuable liquidity to the market, which liquidity benefits other market participants. Customer liquidity benefits all market participants by providing more trading opportunities, which attracts Specialists and Market Makers. An increase in the activity of these market participants in turn facilitates tighter spreads, which may cause an additional corresponding increase in order flow from other market participants.
The Exchange's proposal to add the words “per contract” to note 5 in Section II of the Pricing Schedule to make clear the surcharge is per contract does not impose an undue burden on competition because it will conform the language to the remainder of the transaction charges in Section II of the Pricing Schedule.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Monthly Market Maker Cap and the Monthly Firm Fee Cap does not impose an undue burden on competition because no market participant would be eligible to count NDXP toward either the Monthly Market Maker Cap or the Monthly Firm Fee Cap.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Firm Floor Options Transaction waivers for members executing facilitation orders pursuant to Exchange Rule 1064, from the buy side of a transaction, if the same member or its affiliates under Common Ownership represents both sides of a Firm transaction when such members are trading in their own proprietary account, and from the waiver for the Broker-Dealer Floor Options Transaction Charge for members executing facilitation orders pursuant to Exchange Rule 1064, does not impose an undue burden on competition because no market participant would be eligible to count NDXP toward these waivers.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the Marketing Fee does not impose an undue burden on competition because the Exchange will assess uniform transaction fees for all Non-Customers because the transaction charges, as proposed above, would otherwise be uniform for all market participants. The Exchange believes that assessing Customers no transaction fee for NDXP does not impose an undue burden on competition because Customer orders bring valuable liquidity to the market, which liquidity benefits other market participants. Customer liquidity benefits all market participants by providing more trading opportunities, which attracts Specialists and Market Makers. An increase in the activity of these market participants in turn facilitates tighter spreads, which may cause an additional corresponding increase in order flow from other market participants.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from the PIXL Pricing in Section IV, Part A and instead assess NDXP transactions in PIXL the Section II pricing does not impose an undue burden on competition because the Exchange will uniformly exclude NDXP from PIXL pricing.
The Exchange's proposal to assess NDXP the same FLEX Transaction Fees as are assessed for NDX today does not impose an undue burden on competition because the Exchange will uniformly assess FLEX fees for NDXP in a uniform manner for all market participants.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude NDXP from Eligible Contracts for purposes of qualifying for a MARS Payment does not impose an undue burden on competition because the Exchange will uniformly exclude NDXP from MARS.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's fee schedule at Chapter IX (Proprietary Data Feed Fees) to change the Internal Distributor fee for Top of PHLX Options Plus Orders to reflect substantial enhancements to the product since the current Distributor fees were set in 2010, as described further below.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's fee schedule at Chapter IX (Proprietary Data Feed Fees) to change the Internal Distributor fee for TOPO Plus Orders (“TOPO Plus”) to reflect substantial enhancements to the product since the current Distributor fees were set in 2010.
TOPO Plus is a direct, low-latency market data product that allows subscribers to connect to both the Top of PHLX Options (“TOPO”) data feed and the PHLX Orders data feed. TOPO provides subscribers a direct data feed that includes the Exchange's best bid and offer position, with aggregate size, based on displayable order and quoting interest on the Exchange. TOPO also provides last sale information from PHLX.
PHLX Orders includes the full limit order book and contains a real-time status of simple and complex orders on the PHLX order book for all PHLX-listed options. This includes new orders and changes to orders resting on the PHLX book. The PHLX Orders feed includes opening imbalance data, Price Improvement XL (PIXL) data and Complex Order Live Auction (COLA) information, in addition to the full limit order book data for both simple and complex orders.
The fee for TOPO Plus varies, depending on whether the subscriber is an Internal Distributor, an External Distributor, a Non-Professional Subscriber, or a Professional Subscriber.
Chapter IX of the Pricing Schedule defines a Non-Professional Subscriber as “a natural person who is neither: (i) Registered or qualified in any capacity with the Commission, the Commodities Futures Trading Commission, any state securities agency, any securities exchange or association, or any commodities or futures contract market or association; (ii) engaged as an `investment adviser' as that term is defined in Section 201(11) of the Investment Advisors Act of 1940 (whether or not registered or qualified under that Act); nor (iii) employed by a bank or other organization exempt from registration under federal or state securities laws to perform functions that would require registration or qualification if such functions were performed for an organization not so exempt. A Non-Professional Subscriber may only use the data provided for personal purposes and not for any commercial purpose.”
Chapter IX of the Pricing Schedule defines a Professional Subscriber as “any Subscriber that is not a Non-Professional Subscriber. If the Nasdaq Subscriber agreement is signed in the name of a business or commercial entity, such entity would be considered a Professional Subscriber.”
Currently, the monthly fee for an Internal Distributor is $4,000, the monthly fee for an External Distributor is $5,000, the monthly fee for a Non-Professional Subscriber is $1, and the monthly fee for a Professional Subscriber is $40. The Exchange is now proposing to increase the monthly fee for an Internal Distributor to $4,500. Since its inception in 2010, the Exchange has not raised the Internal or External Distributor fee and yet has made substantial improvements to the product as illustrated below.
While the Exchange has not raised the fees for TOPO Plus since its inception, the Exchange has added a number of functional enhancements to both TOPO and PHLX Orders in particular, and to Exchange systems in general, that enhance the value of the TOPO Plus data product. Specifically:
• In July 2011, the Exchange began disseminating timestamp messages for
• In December 2012, the Exchange enhanced TOPO Plus to include an updated Auction Notification Message with an Order Exposure Auction Type, which notifies participants when there is an aggressively priced order available for execution that may be routed away.
The Order Exposure auction message is sent when there is an exposed buy (or sell) order available for execution at the National Best Offer (or National Best Bid). The exposed order volume may be routed away.
• In September 2013, the Exchange updated the Complex Auction Notification Message in PHLX Orders to unmask the Price, Side and Debit or Credit fields, which had been previously marked with an asterisk, leading to more transparency on the complex auction message.
• In November 2014, the Exchange added Implied Orders to the Simple Order Message of PHLX Orders.
Implied Orders are limit orders generated by the Exchange on behalf of Complex Orders which represent one leg of a two-legged Complex Order. Implied Orders are automatically generated on behalf of Complex Orders resting on the top of the Complex Order Book so that they are represented at the best bid and/or offer on the Exchange for the individual legs.
• In September 2015, the Exchange automated the expiration process relating to World Currency Options (“WCO”), and updated the TOPO and PHLX Orders market data specifications to accommodate a new value of “W” to represent the 12:00 p.m. ET closure of expiring WCO options in the Options Directory message and System Event messages.
• In February 2016, the Exchange expanded the period pursuant to which the TOPO Plus product, among other products, will be made available at the beginning of the trading day. The Exchange moved up the dissemination times of the Start of Message process by two hours, to 4:00 a.m., ET., to provide members with additional time for connectivity testing and to better align with the opening times of the equity markets.
• In August 2015, the Exchange launched its new Disaster Recovery (“DR”) facility in Chicago, Illinois. In addition to offering expanded geographic diversity, this new location enables firms to easily connect to numerous multi-asset engines, both to receive market data and to send orders, currently housed in or near this facility, potentially reducing overall networking costs. With this DR facility upgrade, new equipment was installed that improved performance and resilience as well.
• In January 2017, the Exchange introduced additional multicast IP addresses for proprietary equity and options feeds, known as “B” feeds, for the feeds from its DR facility in Chicago. The purpose of this change was to promote resiliency and provide additional recovery options to market participants within the same facility.
Given these specific enhancements to TOPO and PHLX Orders, and to the Exchange's system generally, and given the fact that the Exchange has not increased the Distributor fees for TOPO Plus since its inception, the Exchange believes that the proposed fee increase is appropriate.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and self-regulatory organization (“SRO”) revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
The Exchange believes that the proposed fee increase for Internal Distributors is reasonable. While the Exchange has not increased the Distributor fees for TOPO Plus since its inception, the Exchange has added a number of functional enhancements since that time to TOPO and PHLX Orders in particular, and to Exchange systems in general. These enhancements, which are described in greater detail above, correspondingly
The Exchange also believes that the proposed fee increase is equitably allocated, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The Exchange makes all services and products subject to this fee available on a non-discriminatory basis to similarly-situated recipients, and the proposed fee increase here will apply equally to all entities that meet the definition of an Internal Distributor.
The Exchange notes that it is only proposing to increase the fee for Internal Distributors, not for External Distributors, Non-Professional Subscribers, or Professional Subscribers. As noted above, the Exchange has made a number of product and system enhancements since the inception of TOPO Plus that have increased the value of that data product. While External Distributors have also received the benefit of these enhancements, the Exchange is not increasing the External Distributor fee at this time. The Exchange believes that this is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for several reasons. First, a fee differential for external, as opposed to internal, distribution is well-recognized in the financial services industry as a reasonable distinction, and has been repeatedly accepted by the Commission as an equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges.
Second, the Exchange believes that External Distributors of TOPO Plus, in comparison to Internal Distributors, may confer an additional benefit on market participants generally and the Exchange in particular. As the Exchange noted when it filed a proposed rule change to establish the fees for TOPO Plus, the higher fee for External Distributors in comparison to Internal Distributors reflected the fact that External Distributors had fewer limitations on their scope of distribution of TOPO Plus than Internal Distributors, and the reasonable expectation that External Distributors would distribute TOPO Plus to a higher number of subscribers than Internal Distributors; specifically, to Professional Subscribers who would use the data for commercial purposes.
The Exchange also believes that it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to not assess a fee increase on Professional and Non-Professional Subscribers. By definition, Subscribers (either Professional or Non-Professional) are categorically different than Distributors (either Internal or External). The Exchange believes that it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to implement a fee increase for one category of market participants (Distributors) and not for another category of market participants (Subscribers), because these two categories are not similarly situated, both in terms of the fees that they pay, and the permissible ways in which they may use the data. Additionally, there is already a significant difference between the current amount paid by Non-Professional and Professional Subscribers ($1 and $40 monthly, respectively), and Internal and External distributors ($4,000 and $5,000, respectively).
Finally, the Exchange notes that the Act does not prohibit all distinctions among customers, but rather discrimination that is unfair. As the Commission has recognized, “[i]f competitive forces are operative, the self-interest of the exchanges themselves will work powerfully to constrain unreasonable or unfair behavior.”
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed fee structure is designed to ensure a fair and reasonable use of Exchange resources by allowing the Exchange to recoup costs while continuing to offer its data products at competitive rates to firms.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed fee increase will impose any burden on intra-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate. As discussed above, the proposed increase to the Internal Distributor fee will apply equally to all market participants that qualify as Internal Distributors. While the Exchange is only proposing to increase the fee for Internal Distributors, the Exchange does not believe that this will impose a burden on intra-market competition, including on External Distributors that is not necessary or appropriate. The Exchange's rules set forth different standards for the use of Internal Distributor data versus External Distributor data, and this proposal does not alter those terms of use. As such, the
For the same reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposed fee increase does not impose a burden on Professional and Non-Professional Subscribers that is not necessary or appropriate. As discussed above, Professional and Non-Professional Subscribers are categorically different than Distributors, and have significantly different terms of usage for TOPO Plus than Distributors. As with Distributors, those terms of use remain unchanged by this proposal. Therefore, the Exchange does not believe that the proposal will impact that any competitive dynamic that may exist between Distributors and Subscribers.
With respect to inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that the market for data products is extremely competitive and firms may freely choose alternative venues and data vendors based on the aggregate fees assessed, the data offered, and the value provided. This rule proposal does not burden competition, since other SROs and data vendors continue to offer alternative data products and, like the Exchange, set fees, but rather reflects the competition between data feed vendors and will further enhance such competition. TOPO Plus competes directly with existing similar products. The product is part of the existing market for proprietary last sale data products that is currently competitive and inherently contestable because there is fierce competition for the inputs necessary to the creation of proprietary data and strict pricing discipline for the proprietary products themselves. Numerous exchanges compete with each other for listings, trades, and market data itself, providing virtually limitless opportunities for entrepreneurs who wish to produce and distribute their own market data. This proprietary data is produced by each individual exchange, as well as other entities, in a vigorously competitive market.
Transaction execution and proprietary data products are complementary in that market data is both an input and a byproduct of the execution service. In fact, market data and trade execution are a paradigmatic example of joint products with joint costs. The decision whether and on which platform to post an order will depend on the attributes of the platform where the order can be posted, including the execution fees, data quality and price, and distribution of its data products. Without trade executions, exchange data products cannot exist. Moreover, data products are valuable to many end users only insofar as they provide information that end users expect will assist them or their customers in making trading decisions.
The costs of producing market data include not only the costs of the data distribution infrastructure, but also the costs of designing, maintaining, and operating the exchange's transaction execution platform and the cost of regulating the exchange to ensure its fair operation and maintain investor confidence. The total return that a trading platform earns reflects the revenues it receives from both products and the joint costs it incurs. Moreover, the operation of the exchange is characterized by high fixed costs and low marginal costs. This cost structure is common in content and content distribution industries such as software, where developing new software typically requires a large initial investment (and continuing large investments to upgrade the software), but once the software is developed, the incremental cost of providing that software to an additional user is typically small, or even zero (
In the Exchange's case, it is costly to build and maintain a trading platform, but the incremental cost of trading each additional share on an existing platform, or distributing an additional instance of data, is very low. Market information and executions are each produced jointly (in the sense that the activities of trading and placing orders are the source of the information that is distributed) and are each subject to significant scale economies. In such cases, marginal cost pricing is not feasible because if all sales were priced at the margin, the Exchange would be unable to defray its platform costs of providing the joint products.
An exchange's broker-dealer customers view the costs of transaction executions and of data as a unified cost of doing business with the exchange. A broker-dealer will disfavor a particular exchange if the expected revenues from executing trades on the exchange do not exceed net transaction execution costs and the cost of data that the broker-dealer chooses to buy to support its trading decisions (or those of its customers). The choice of data products is, in turn, a product of the value of the products in making profitable trading decisions. If the cost of the product exceeds its expected value, the broker-dealer will choose not to buy it. Moreover, as a broker-dealer chooses to direct fewer orders to a particular exchange, the value of the product to that broker-dealer decreases, for two reasons. First, the product will contain less information, because executions of the broker-dealer's trading activity will not be reflected in it. Second, and perhaps more important, the product will be less valuable to that broker-dealer because it does not provide information about the venue to which it is directing its orders. Data from the competing venue to which the broker-dealer is directing more orders will become correspondingly more valuable.
Similarly, in the case of products such as TOPO Plus that may be distributed through market data vendors, the vendors provide price discipline for proprietary data products because they control the primary means of access to end users. Vendors impose price restraints based upon their business models. For example, vendors such as Bloomberg and Reuters that assess a surcharge on data they sell may refuse to offer proprietary products that end users will not purchase in sufficient numbers. Internet portals, such as Google, impose a discipline by providing only data that will enable them to attract “eyeballs” that contribute to their advertising revenue. Retail broker-dealers, such as Schwab and Fidelity, offer their retail customers proprietary data only if it promotes trading and generates sufficient commission revenue. Although the business models may differ, these vendors' pricing discipline is the same: They can simply refuse to purchase any proprietary data product that fails to provide sufficient value. Exchanges and other producers of proprietary data products must understand and respond to these varying business models and pricing disciplines in order to market proprietary data products successfully. Moreover, the Exchange believes that products such as TOPO Plus can enhance order flow to the Exchange by providing more widespread distribution of information about transactions in real time, thereby encouraging wider participation in the market by investors
Competition among trading platforms can be expected to constrain the aggregate return each platform earns from the sale of its joint products, but different platforms may choose from a range of possible, and equally reasonable, pricing strategies as the means of recovering total costs. The Exchange pays rebates to attract orders, charges relatively low prices for market information and charges relatively high prices for accessing posted liquidity. Other platforms may choose a strategy of paying lower liquidity rebates to attract orders, setting relatively low prices for accessing posted liquidity, and setting relatively high prices for market information. Still others may provide most data free of charge and rely exclusively on transaction fees to recover their costs. Finally, some platforms may incentivize use by providing opportunities for equity ownership, which may allow them to charge lower direct fees for executions and data.
In this environment, there is no economic basis for regulating maximum prices for one of the joint products in an industry in which suppliers face competitive constraints with regard to the joint offering. Such regulation is unnecessary because an “excessive” price for one of the joint products will ultimately have to be reflected in lower prices for other products sold by the firm, or otherwise the firm will experience a loss in the volume of its sales that will be adverse to its overall profitability. In other words, an increase in the price of data will ultimately have to be accompanied by a decrease in the cost of executions, or the volume of both data and executions will fall.
Indeed, in approving the fees for TOPO Plus in 2010, the Commission noted that the Exchange was subject to competitive pressures in setting its fees for TOPO Plus. First, the Commission noted that the Exchange had a “compelling need” to attract order flow, which imposed “significant pressure” on the Exchange to act reasonably in setting its fees for PHLX market data, particularly given that “the market participants that will pay such fees often will be the same market participants from whom Phlx must attract order flow.”
In sum, the proposed fee structure is designed to ensure a fair and reasonable use of Exchange resources by allowing the Exchange to recoup costs while continuing to offer its data products at competitive rates to firms
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed on November 14, 2017
OCC maintains a Clearing Fund, composed of contributions required to be made by all Clearing Members, to make good losses suffered by OCC under a number of circumstances, including the default or failure of a Clearing Member to make good on any obligation for which OCC may be responsible in the exercise of its duties as a central counterparty. Presently, Article VIII, Section 3(a) of OCC's By-Laws provides that Clearing Fund contributions shall be in the form of cash and Government securities, but neither OCC's By-Laws nor Rules provides a minimum cash requirement for contributions to the Clearing Fund. Article VIII, Section 4(a) of OCC's By-Laws allows for OCC to invest cash contributions to the Clearing Fund, partially or wholly, in OCC's account in Government securities, and to the extent that such contributions are not so invested, they shall be deposited by OCC in a separate account or accounts for Clearing Fund contributions in approved custodians. Article VIII, Section 4(a) of OCC's By-Laws, however, presently does not account for the treatment of interest earned on cash deposits held in OCC's bank account at the Federal Reserve.
OCC proposes to establish a Cash Clearing Fund Requirement for its Clearing Fund to increase the amount of qualifying liquid resources available to OCC to account in the event there is an extreme scenario in the financial markets and OCC has to address any resultant liquidity demands. Further, the proposal seeks to ensure that OCC holds, and maintains access to, a more consistent level of cash clearing fund resources in its available prefunded financial resources. Specifically, the proposed rule change would require that Clearing Members collectively contribute $3 billion in cash to the Clearing Fund. Each Clearing Member's proportionate share of the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement shall be determined by the current Clearing Fund allocation methodology in OCC Rule 1001.
OCC's current liquidity resources are sized to cover historically observed liquidity demands and potential demands based on forecasts with a 12 month time horizon. The sizing calculations, in turn, are based on the potential exposure resulting from the default of a single clearing member. Further, the current clearing fund is sized, at a minimum, to ensure that OCC maintains sufficient collateral to access its committed liquidity facilities. OCC represented that it maintains committed liquidity facilities of $3 billion to cover its calculated historical and forecasted demands.
After analyzing its liquidity demands in extreme stress scenarios,
The proposed change would also provide authority for OCC to temporarily increase the amount of the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement. OCC's Executive Chairman, Chief Administrative Officer (“CAO”), or Chief Operating Officer (“COO”), would have the authority, upon providing notice to the Risk Committee, to temporarily raise the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement up to an amount that includes the size of the Clearing Fund as determined in accordance with Rule 1001 for the month in question. A Clearing Member will be required to satisfy any increase in its required cash contribution pursuant to an increase in the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement no later than one hour before the close of the Fedwire on the business day following OCC's issuance of an instruction to increase cash contributions.
In such circumstances, the Risk Committee, by rule, would be obligated to review any such temporary increase as soon as practicable, but in any event within 20 calendar days of the increase. In its review, the Risk Committee shall determine whether (1) the increase in the minimum Cash Clearing Fund Requirement is no longer required, or (2) OCC's Clearing Fund contribution
OCC acknowledged that increasing the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement could impose a liquidity constraint on its clearing members. Accordingly, OCC has proposed to limit the circumstances in which it could make such an increase. By rule, OCC would only be able to exercise this authority to protect OCC, its clearing members, or the general public. Further, any Cash Clearing Fund Requirement increase would have to: (i) Be based upon then-existing facts and circumstances, (ii) be in furtherance of the integrity of OCC and the stability of the financial system, and (iii) take into consideration the legitimate interests of Clearing Members and market participants.
These changes would be reflected in new paragraph (a)(i) of Section 3 of Article VIII of OCC's By-Laws, as well as in new Interpretation and Policy .04 to Section 3 of Article VIII.
Under the proposal, OCC stated that substantially all the cash deposits in the Clearing Fund would be held in an account established by OCC at a Federal Reserve Bank. OCC proposes that it would pass the interest income earned in such account through to its Clearing Members. Specifically, OCC proposes to revise Article VIII, Section 4(a) of OCC's By-Laws to provide that any interest earned on cash deposits held at an account at the Federal Reserve shall accrue to the benefit of Clearing Members (calculated daily based on each Clearing Member's pro rata share of Clearing Fund cash deposits), provided that such Clearing Members have provided OCC with all tax documentation as OCC may from time to time require in order to effectuate such payment.
To accommodate the pass through of interest income, OCC would also amend its Fee Policy to add definitions for “Pass-Through Interest Revenue” and “Operating Expenses” to exclude from the calculation of the Business Risk Buffer projected interest revenue and expense, respectively, related to the pass-through of earned interest from OCC to Clearing Members.
In conjunction with the aforementioned changes, OCC is also proposing to make four related conforming changes. First, OCC proposes to revise Interpretation and Policy .01 of Rule 1001 to reflect that the new minimum Clearing Fund size is $3 billion (instead of $1 billion) plus 110% of the size of OCC's committed liquidity facilities, which conforms to the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement. Second, OCC proposes to amend the definition of “Approved Custodian” in Article I, Section 1 of the By-Laws to clarify that the Federal Reserve Bank may also be an Approved Custodian, to the extent it is available to OCC. Third, OCC is proposing to delete existing Article VIII, Section 4(b), regarding the establishment of a segregated funds account for cash contributions to the Clearing Fund. The segregated funds account allows a Clearing Member to contribute cash to a bank or trust company account maintained in the name of OCC, subject to OCC's exclusive control, but the account also includes the name of the Clearing Member and any interest accrues to the Clearing Member rather than OCC. OCC proposes to eliminate the account type because Clearing Members have not expressed interest in using such an account, no such accounts are in use today, and moving forward, substantially all cash Clearing Fund contributions will held in OCC's account at the Federal Reserve Bank. Fourth, OCC proposes to introduce new language to Article VIII, Section 4(a) to clarify that cash contributions to the Clearing Fund that are deposited at approved custodians may be commingled with the Clearing Fund contributions of different Clearing Members.
Although the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act does not specify a standard of review for an advance notice, the stated purpose is instructive.
Section 805(a)(2) of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act
• To promote robust risk management;
• To promote safety and soundness;
• To reduce systemic risks; and
• To support the stability of the broader financial system.
The Commission has adopted risk-management standards under Section 805(a)(2) of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act and the Exchange Act (the “Clearing Agency Rules”).
The Commission believes the Advance Notice is consistent with the stated objectives and principles of Section 805(b) of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act of promoting robust risk management, promoting safety and soundness, reducing systemic risks, and supporting the stability of the broader financial system.
The Commission believes that the Cash Clearing Fund Requirement would enhance OCC's ability to manage its liquidity risk exposure, thereby promoting robust risk management. Similarly, the Commission believes that increasing the amount of cash, and therefore the overall amount of qualifying liquid resources, available to cover OCC's liquidity demands arising in stressed scenarios is consistent with promoting safety and soundness. Based on the analysis provided by OCC, the Commission believes that OCC's conclusion is reasonable,
The Commission also believes that the proposed changes are consistent with reducing systemic risks and supporting the stability of the broader financial system. OCC is the sole registered clearing agency for the U.S. listed options markets and a SIFMU. As such, it is important for OCC to implement measures that enhance its ability to manage risks that could cause a financial loss or settlement disruption and threaten the stability of the U.S. listed options markets and the broader financial system. The Commission believes that the proposed change is designed to enhance OCC's ability to continue to make timely settlement of payment obligations and otherwise service the U.S. options markets while in the midst of experiencing an extreme market event in the form of the default of up to two of its largest clearing members. As such, the Commission believes the proposed change is consistent with reducing systemic risks and supporting the stability of the broader financial system.
The Commission further believes that the proposed change is consistent with the Covered Clearing Agency Standards, specifically Rule 17Ad-22(e)(7), which requires that a covered clearing agency establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to effectively measure, monitor, and manage its liquidity risk. This includes measuring, monitoring, and managing the covered clearing agency's settlement and funding flows on an ongoing and timely basis, as well as its use of intraday liquidity.
• Maintaining sufficient liquid resources at the minimum in all relevant currencies to effect same-day and, where appropriate, intraday and multiday settlement of payment obligations with a high degree of confidence under a wide range of foreseeable stress scenarios that includes, but is not limited to, the default of the participant family that would generate the largest aggregate payment obligation for the covered clearing agency in extreme but plausible market conditions;
• using the access to accounts and services at a Federal Reserve Bank or other relevant central bank, when available and where the board of directors of the covered clearing agency has determined that it would be practical to enhance its management of liquidity risk;
• addressing foreseeable liquidity shortfalls that would not be covered by a covered clearing agency's liquid resources and seeking to avoid unwinding, revoking, or delaying the same-day settlement of payment obligations.
By the Commission.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Consistent with its obligations under applicable laws and regulations,
The Plan is also designed to be consistent with the Committee on Payments and Market Infrastructures (“CPMI”)—International Organization of Securities Commissions (“IOSCO”) Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures (“PFMIs”), including supplemental guidance from CPMI-IOSCO which includes its report on “Recovery of financial market infrastructures” published in October 2014 and revised July 2017 (the “Recovery Guidance”).
In its filing with the Commission, ICE Clear Europe included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICE Clear Europe has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Consistent with its obligations under applicable laws and regulations, ICE Clear Europe has adopted a Wind-Down Plan. A wind-down may result from situations where neither ICEU's Recovery Plan
The Plan addresses three particular categories of scenarios in which wind-down may occur:
1. Non-insolvency scenario: In this scenario, the ICE Clear Europe Board voluntarily decides to wind down the clearing business (for example, if it were to determine that clearing house's business model had become unviable) (a “voluntary unwind”).
2. Insolvency scenario not linked to a member default: In this scenario, the clearing house would be wound down as a result of a severe loss unrelated to a clearing member default (a “non-default loss”) that could not be addressed through the Recovery Plan or other means that permit continued operation. Such a non-default loss could result from fraud or similar circumstances.
3. Insolvency scenario linked to a member default: In this scenario, the clearing house would be wound down as a result of losses from the default of one or more clearing members that could not be addressed through the Recovery Plan or other means that permit continued operation, in accordance with the relevant default rules.
In relation to each of these scenarios, the Plan provides for consideration of (i) winding down the clearing service in an orderly manner to close out contracts while minimizing the impact on clearing members and markets cleared, (ii) ensuring risk continues to be effectively managed during any wind-down period, and (iii) exiting all contractual obligations (both within the ICE group and with third parties, including exchanges, payment banks, custodians, investment counterparties and service providers). It is contemplated that the clearing house would take into account input from clearing members and exchanges on their preferences in connection with any decision to wind down or as to the means of wind down. The Plan also addresses a timeline of decision-making processes and notice periods, among other matters, proposed treatment of positions of different maturities, and the interaction of cleared positions with the unwinding of treasury investments and ongoing cash management. The Plan presumes that initial and variation margin will continue to be collected and paid (by non-defaulting clearing member) normally until contracts are terminated.
The Wind-Down Plan is prepared on the basis that no resolution or similar proceeding occurs with respect to the clearing house in any jurisdiction.
The Wind-Down Plan sets out a variety of options for wind-down, depending on the scenario involved. In the case of an insolvency of ICE Clear Europe as a result of non-default losses, the Plan contemplates that all open contracts will be terminated and net sums calculated to be payable to or from each clearing member for each account category, in accordance with Rules 912-918 (for the F&O product category) or Rule 209 (for the CDS product category).
For a voluntary unwind or an unwind following a clearing member default, the Wind-Down Plan contemplates that for each product category, ICE Clear Europe will either transfer clearing to another clearing house or terminate clearing. ICE Clear Europe can take different actions with respect to the two product categories, and in the event of a transfer F&O clearing need not be transferred to the same clearing house as CDS clearing. The ability to transfer clearing will depend on whether the relevant market and market participants desire, and are able, to continue trading and
The Plan also addresses the timing of wind-down. Pursuant to the Rules, ICE Clear Europe must give advance notice of a proposed “Withdrawal Date” should it cease acting as a clearing house either generally or in relation to a particular exchange or class of contracts. In those circumstances such notice must be given at least four months in advance, unless any action by a regulator, delivery facility or market causes cessation to take effect within a shorter period. In other wind-down circumstances, one month's notice is required.
Any decision to wind down is expected to be considered over a period of months, will involve consultation with members, potential alternative clearing houses, exchange and regulators, and will need approval by the ICE Clear Europe Board. The Plan contemplates that a specific execution plan will be developed for any wind-down, based on the relevant situation.
Under this approach, an existing alternative clearing house with similar platform and capabilities (risk, operations and treasury) to that of ICE Clear Europe will agree to have ICE Clear Europe's F&O markets clearing transferred to it. The alternative clearing house will add any needed additional members and contracts to its platform, and having tested these additions, will have open positions and margin funds transferred to it on a specified date.
The Plan takes into account that for ICE Clear Europe F&O contracts that are not currently cleared on the recipient clearing house's platform, the necessary clearing capability will be built and tested prior to transfer. Positions for which transfer cannot be arranged in this way could be terminated. The Plan outlines certain conditions that will be necessary for any transfer to occur. The Plan also outlines key steps would need to be taken, including communication with stakeholders (including members, regulators and exchanges), negotiation with the alternative clearing house, making strategic determinations as to what systems are to be transferred as between the exchange and clearing house, notices and required approvals, novation arrangements for positions being moved, building and testing of new systems, listing of new contracts at the recipient clearing house, transfer of position data, novating contracts, and transfer of available margin funds, among other steps, as applicable. This process is anticipated to take no more than six months based on experience with other clearing transfers.
Under this approach, ICE Clear Europe will terminate the clearing of contracts on a specified date, expected to be five months after notice is provided. Prior to that date, clearing members may unwind their contracts through market transactions, and trading and clearing would be expected to continue during the period. ICE Clear Europe will monitor positions regularly to ensure credit risk is not increasing. Any remaining trades at the five month point will be terminated at the end of day price. The Plan outlines certain key steps in the process, including with respect to communication with stakeholders and position monitoring.
Under this approach, clearing of CDS contracts would be transferred to an alternative clearing house with a similar platform and capabilities. As with the transfer of F&O clearing, the alternative clearing house will add any needed additional members and contracts to its platform, and having tested these additions, will have open positions and margin funds transferred to it on a specified date. If that is not possible within the desired timeframe, an additional option, for CDS contracts that are not subject to a mandatory clearing obligation, would be to convert open positions into uncleared contracts, and then parties could resubmit those contracts for clearing to the new clearing house when ready.
The Plan outlines certain conditions that will be necessary for any transfer to occur. The Plan also outlines key steps would need to be taken, including communication with stakeholders (including members, regulators and exchanges), negotiation with the alternative clearing house(s), notices and required regulatory approvals, development and execution of novation arrangements for positions to be transferred, building and testing of new systems, migrating open position data, novating contracts, and transfer of available margin funds, among other steps, as applicable. This process is anticipated to take no more than six months based on experience with other clearing transfers. ICE Clear Europe would continue to provide clearing and maintain risk, treasury and operations teams up to that point.
This option winds down ICE Clear Europe CDS clearing. ICE Clear Europe has more limited authority under the Rules to cause a tear-up of contracts in the CDS product category, and as a result the Plan contemplates that CDS clearing members would need to agree amongst themselves in advance as to the manner of and procedures for termination. If they cannot agree, the Board may decide to enforce termination in accordance with Rule 105.
Following ICE Clear Europe's determination to terminate CDS clearing, it would establish a five month period for CDS clearing members to unwind their open positions. This could be done through trading by such clearing members in the market that offsets their positions, or if this is not possible, by negotiating the conversion of open matched positions into uncleared contracts (where mandatory clearing does not apply).
This Plan specifies certain conditions, including obtains the necessary agreement of members. The Plan also outlines certain key steps, including notification of stakeholders of the decision to terminate, communication of matched open positions to members, and monitoring the reduction of positions of CDS clearing members during the five month termination period.
Once the decision to wind down ICE Clear Europe is made, six months' notice will be provided to terminate all service agreements and employee contracts. Consideration will be given to incentives to key staff to stay on through the wind down process.
The Plan outlines the termination provisions and notice periods that apply under key agreements, including those with other ICE entities and with banks and custodians. The Plan also addresses liquidity considerations during the wind-down period, such that ICE Clear Europe will be able to obtain and maintain sufficient liquidity from its investment arrangements to support clearing during the wind-down period. In this regard, ICE maintains significant liquidity in cash and short-term instruments such that it expects to be able to meet liquidity needs during the period. ICE Clear Europe also runs liquidity stress scenarios that closely match the closing of trading positions in a wind down situation.
Once there is a possibility of wind down, or the ICE Clear Europe Board has agreed in principle to a wind-down, a Wind Down Planning Committee, including senior management, would be established. The Committee will have the following membership: Chair—Non-Executive Director or Board Chairperson; President; Chief Operating Officer; Chief Risk Officer; Chief Compliance Officer; and other advisors as appropriate,
The maintenance of the Plan is the responsibility of ICE Clear Europe's Chief Operating Officer and each time the scope of clearing services change or a planning assumption changes, the Plan will be updated. The Plan is reviewed annually by the Board Audit Committee and the full Board.
ICE Clear Europe believes that the proposed amendments are consistent with the requirements of Section 17A of the Act
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
The Wind-Down Plan is designed to meet the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii), and is further consistent with the requirements of the Act. The Wind-Down Plan considers scenarios in which the wind-down of the clearing services of ICE Clear Europe may be necessary or desirable, both voluntarily and as a result of default or non-default losses that cannot be resolved through the Recovery Plan. It sets out procedures for transferring or terminating clearing of both the CDS and F&O product categories in a wind-down scenario, as well as terminating related agreements and arrangements. The Wind-Down Plan also provides greater transparency to market participants, including clearing members, about the expected sequence and scope of actions that ICE Clear Europe may take in a wind-down scenario, and addresses procedures for consultations with clearing members and other relevant stakeholders. In ICE Clear Europe's view, the Plan thus meets the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii). Furthermore, ICE Clear Europe views the Plan as a key aspect of its general risk management framework for severe loss scenarios, as it provides an orderly procedure for termination or transfer of clearing, and thereby promotes the protection of investors and the public interest, within the meaning of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
ICE Clear Europe further notes the requirement in Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)
ICE Clear Europe does not believe the proposed Wind-Down Plan would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Wind-Down Plan does not itself change the rights or obligations of the clearing house or clearing members, and is based on the termination provisions set forth in the existing Rules. The Wind-Down Plan has been designed to meet specific regulatory requirements concerning wind-down planning, principally to address the circumstance where default or non-default losses are sufficiently severe that they cannot be addressed through the Recovery Plan and necessitate termination or transfer of clearing. ICE Clear Europe does not believe the amendments will impact competition among clearing members or other market participants, or affect the ability of market participants to access clearing generally. While implementation of the Wind-Down Plan, and in particular use of the plan in a severe loss scenario, would likely impose costs on clearing members or other market participants, such costs are consistent with the existing Rules, and in ICE Clear Europe's view, would be appropriate in light of a loss situation requiring wind-down of clearing in accordance with applicable regulations.
Written comments relating to the proposed amendments have not been solicited or received by ICE Clear Europe. ICE Clear Europe will notify the Commission of any comments received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
The proposal shall not take effect until all regulatory actions required with respect to the proposal are completed.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICEEU-2017-017 and should be submitted on or before February 9, 2018.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On September 26, 2017, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange” or “NYSE Arca”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade Shares of the Fund under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares on the Exchange. The Fund is a series of J.P. Morgan Exchange-Traded Fund Trust (“Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust.
According to the Exchange, the Fund will seek to provide long-term total return. Under normal market conditions,
According to the Exchange, under normal market conditions, at least 80% of the Fund's assets will be invested in the securities and financial instruments described below.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign exchange-listed common stocks of U.S. and foreign corporations, U.S. and foreign exchange-listed preferred stocks of U.S. and foreign corporations, U.S. and foreign exchange-listed warrants of U.S. and foreign corporations, U.S. and foreign exchange-listed rights of U.S. and foreign corporations, and U.S. and foreign exchange-listed master limited partnerships (“MLPs”).
The Fund may purchase and sell U.S. exchange-traded futures on U.S. and foreign equities, U.S. exchange-traded options on U.S. and foreign equity futures, and U.S. exchange-traded futures on U.S. and foreign stock indexes, foreign exchange-traded futures on foreign equities and foreign stock indexes, and foreign exchange-traded options on foreign equity futures.
The Fund may invest in over-the-counter (“OTC”) and U.S. exchange-traded call and put options on equity securities and equity securities indexes.
The Fund may invest in OTC total return swaps on U.S. and foreign equities and U.S. and foreign equity indices.
The Fund may invest in forward currency transactions. Such investments consist of non-deliverable forwards, foreign forward currency contracts, caps, and floors.
The Fund may invest in exchange-listed real estate investment trusts (“REITs”) that will be traded on U.S. national securities exchanges and on non-U.S. exchanges.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign exchange-listed and OTC Depositary Receipts.
The Fund may invest in OTC-traded convertible securities (bonds or preferred stock that can convert to common stock).
The Fund may invest in cash and cash equivalents, which are investments in money market funds (including funds for which the Adviser and/or its affiliates may serve as investment adviser or administrator), bank obligations,
While the Fund, under normal market conditions, will invest at least 80% of its assets in the securities and financial instruments described above, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in other assets and financial instruments, as described below.
The Fund may invest in U.S. Government obligations, which may include direct obligations of the U.S. Treasury, including Treasury bills, notes, and bonds, all of which are backed as to principal and interest payments by the full faith and credit of the United States, and separately traded principal and interest component parts of such obligations that are transferable through the Federal book-entry system known as Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities and Coupons Under Book Entry Safekeeping.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign corporate debt.
The Fund may invest in sovereign obligations, which are investments in debt obligations issued or guaranteed by a foreign sovereign government or its agencies, authorities, or political subdivisions. The Fund may also invest in obligations of supranational entities, including securities designated or supported by governmental entities to promote economic reconstruction or development of international banking institutions and related government agencies.
The Fund may invest in spot currency transactions.
The Fund may hold non-exchange-traded contingent value rights (“CVRs”).
The Fund may invest in Rule 144A securities and Regulation S securities.
The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives and other investments may result in leverage). That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
According to the Exchange, the Fund's portfolio will not meet all of the generic listing requirements of Commentary .01 to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. Specifically, the Fund will meet all the requirements of NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E except for those set forth in Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(E) relating to non-exchange-traded CVRs, Commentary .01(e), and Commentary .01(b)(3).
Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E requires that, on both an initial and continuing basis, the component stocks of the equity portion of a portfolio that are U.S. Component Stocks (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(3)) be listed on a national securities exchange and be NMS Stocks as defined in Rule 600 of Regulation NMS under the Act.
Commentary .01(e) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E requires that, on both an initial and continuing basis, no more than 20% of the assets in the Fund's portfolio may be invested in OTC derivatives (calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of the OTC derivatives). The Exchange states that the aggregate gross notional value of the Fund's investments in OTC derivatives may exceed this limit. The Exchange states that the Adviser intends to engage in strategies that utilize OTC foreign currency forward transactions, OTC total return swaps, and OTC options. According to the Exchange, because foreign currency forward transactions and total return swaps will be traded OTC, it would not be possible to implement these strategies efficiently using listed derivatives. In addition, use of OTC options on equity securities and equity securities indexes may be an important means to reduce risk in the Fund's equity investments, or, depending on market conditions, to enhance returns of such investments. The Exchange states that if the Fund were limited to investing up to 20% of assets in OTC derivatives, the Fund would have to exclude or underweight these strategies and would be less diversified, concentrating risk in the other strategies it will utilize. In addition, the Exchange states that the Adviser represents that the Fund will follow an investment strategy utilized within the JP Morgan Diversified Alternative ETF, shares of which have previously been approved by the Commission for Exchange listing and trading.
Commentary .01(b)(3) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E provides that a portfolio (excluding exempted securities) that includes fixed income securities shall include a minimum of 13 non-affiliated issuers, provided, however, that there shall be no minimum number of non-affiliated issuers required for fixed income securities if at least 70% of the weight of the portfolio consists of equity securities as described in Commentary .01(a) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange states that the Fund's investment in fixed income securities will not meet this requirement. However, the Exchange represents that the Fund's investment in corporate debt will not exceed 5% of the Fund's assets, the Fund's investment in OTC-traded convertible securities also will not exceed 5% of the Fund's assets, and the Fund's investment in sovereign obligations and obligations of supranational entities each is not expected to exceed 5% of the Fund's assets. The Exchange also states the Adviser's belief that it is appropriate to permit a small investment in corporate debt, OTC-traded convertible securities, sovereign obligations, and obligations of supranational entities in order to permit the Fund to diversify its investments to enhance investor returns. According to the Exchange, because such investments would be limited and are not expected to exceed 20% of the Fund's assets in the aggregate, it would be difficult for the Fund to diversify such investments in order to comply with the requirement that fixed income securities include at least 13 non-affiliated issuers.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 6, is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
As noted above, the Fund's investment in non-exchange-traded CVRs would not comply with either Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, which requires the U.S. Component Stocks in the portfolio to be listed on a national securities exchange and to be NMS Stocks, or Commentary .01(a)(2)(E) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, which requires the Non-U.S. Component Stocks in the portfolio to be listed and traded on an exchange with last sale reporting. As proposed, the Fund may at times hold a de minimis amount of the Fund's assets (less than 0.5% by market value) in non-exchange-traded CVRs. Also, the Fund will not actively invest in non-exchange-traded CVRs but may, at times, receive a distribution of such securities in connection with the Fund's holdings in other securities.
In addition, as noted above, the aggregate gross notional value of the Fund's investments in OTC derivatives may exceed the 20% limit in Commentary .01(e) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
Finally, as noted above, the Fund's investment in fixed income securities will not meet the requirement for 13 non-affiliated issuers in Commentary .01(b)(3) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. As proposed, the Fund's investment in corporate debt will not exceed 5% of the Fund's assets, the Fund's investment in OTC-traded convertible securities will not exceed 5% of the Fund's assets, and the Fund's investment in sovereign obligations and obligations of supranational entities each is not expected to exceed 5% of the Fund's assets. According to the Exchange, because these investments would be limited and are not expected to exceed 20% of the Fund's assets in the aggregate, it would be difficult for the Fund to diversify such investments in order to comply this requirement. The Exchange also states the Adviser's belief that it is appropriate to permit a small investment in corporate debt, OTC-traded convertible securities, sovereign obligations, and obligations of supranational entities in order to permit the Fund to diversify its investments to enhance investor returns.
The Commission notes that, other than Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(E) relating to non-exchange-traded CVRs, Commentary .01(e), and Commentary .01(b)(3), the Fund will meet all the requirements of NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
The Commission also finds that the proposal is consistent with Section 11A(a)(1)(C)(iii) of the Act,
Quotation and last sale information for portfolio holdings of the Fund that are U.S. exchange-listed, including common stocks, warrants, rights, MLPs, preferred stocks, REITs, and Depositary Receipts will be available via the CTA high speed line. Quotation and last sale information for such U.S. exchange-listed securities, as well as U.S. and foreign exchange-traded futures and options on futures, will be available from the exchanges on which they are listed. Quotation and last sale information for exchange-listed options cleared via the Options Clearing Corporation will be available via the Options Price Reporting Authority.
The Commission also believes that the proposal is reasonably designed to promote fair disclosure of information that may be necessary to price the Shares appropriately and to prevent trading when a reasonable degree of transparency cannot be assured. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. Trading in the Shares will be halted if the circuit-breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E have been reached. Trading also may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. Moreover, trading in the Shares will be subject to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares may be halted.
The Exchange states that it has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees. The Exchange states that the Adviser is not registered as a broker-dealer but is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to that broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition of and/or changes to the Fund's portfolio.
The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. In support of this proposal, the Exchange represents that:
(1) Other than Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(E) with respect to investments in non-exchange-traded CVRs, Commentary .01(e), and Commentary .01(b)(3), the Fund will meet all other requirements of NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
(2) A minimum of 100,000 Shares of the Fund will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange.
(3) Trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by the Exchange, as well as cross-market surveillances administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, and these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
(4) The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-listed equity securities, certain futures, and certain exchange-traded options with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”), and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to FINRA's Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine.
(5) Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Bulletin will discuss: (a) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in creation units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (b) NYSE Arca Rule 9.2-E(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its Equity Trading Permit Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (c) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Early and Late Trading Sessions when an updated PIV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (d) how information regarding the PIV and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (e) the requirement that Equity Trading Permit Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (f) trading information.
(6) The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions.
(7) For initial and continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act.
(8) The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage. That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
The Exchange represents that all statements and representations made in the filing regarding: (1) The description of the portfolio holdings or reference assets; (2) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets; or (3) the applicability of Exchange listing rules specified in the rule filing constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange. In addition, the issuer has represented to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor
This approval order is based on all of the Exchange's statements and representations, including those set forth above and in Amendment No. 6.
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 6, is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Consistent with its obligations under applicable laws and regulations,
The Plan is also designed to be consistent with the Committee on Payments and Market Infrastructures (“CPMI”)—International Organization of Securities Commissions (“IOSCO”) Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures (“PFMIs”), including supplemental guidance from CPMI-IOSCO which includes its report on “Recovery of financial market infrastructures” published in October 2014 and revised July 2017 (the “Recovery Guidance”).
In its filing with the Commission, ICE Clear Europe included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICE Clear Europe has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Consistent with its obligations under applicable laws and regulations, ICE Clear Europe has adopted a Recovery Plan. The Recovery Plan is based on, and is intended to be consistent with, ICEU's Clearing Rules (the “Rules”)
The Recovery Plan identifies the critical services that ICEU provides, and the business functions that support those services. In ICEU's view, its clearing services (for both the F&O and CDS product categories), and its related treasury and banking services, represent its critical services. The Recovery Plan outlines a number of firm-specific and market-wide stress scenarios that, in ICEU's determination, may result in significant losses or liquidity shortfall, suspension or failure of its critical services and related functions and systems, and damage to other market infrastructure, with resulting uncertainty in the markets for which ICEU clears. These include both losses from Clearing Member default and non-default loss scenarios. The Recovery Plan further evaluates different impact categories and severity levels of these stress scenarios. The Recovery Plan then addresses the tools, mechanisms and options (“Recovery Options”) upon which ICEU may draw (based on its existing Rules, Procedures and policies and frameworks) in order to address a stress scenario and continue to provide its critical services, and the actions to implement those options (including appropriate escalation and early warning procedures). The Recovery Plan also addresses communication with regulators and other relevant stakeholders and related governance issues. The Recovery Plan further considers the implications of certain situations that may be beyond its control, such as interdependencies with other institutions.
The Recovery Plan also addresses the roles and responsibility of ICEU Board, management and other personnel, including with respect to development, review and approval, testing and maintenance and liaison with relevant regulatory authorities. The Recovery Plan also includes a description of ICEU, its organizational structure, its applicable regulatory regime and the standards and guidelines that have informed the Recovery Plan. The Recovery Plan is based on the Rules and Procedures of the clearing house as they are in effect, and does not itself change the rights and obligations of the clearing house or its Clearing Members thereunder.
As noted above, ICEU has determined that both its F&O and CDS product category clearing services, as well as its related treasury and banking services, are critical services. The Recovery Plan sets out the methodology used by the clearing house in assessing the criticality of services for this purpose. ICEU has also identified the front-end business functions and support areas
The Recovery Plan analyzes different stress scenarios that may affect ICEU's ability to continue to provide its critical services. The two relevant categories of stress scenarios are default losses and non-default losses. Default losses for this purpose are losses suffered by ICEU as a result of the default of one or more Clearing Member(s). Non-default losses are those suffered by ICEU from identified general business and operational risk events, investment losses, system outages or world-wide or regional political or macroeconomic events. In both categories, ICEU also considers losses resulting from liquidity risks and from the risk of contagion. ICEU uses a risk-based approach to scenario analysis, consisting of different impact categories and severity levels. Specifically, ICEU looks at impacts in five areas: Financial and operational impacts (affecting ICEU's own finances), Clearing Members and their customers (affecting their financial viability), other group infrastructure (affecting the efficiency or effectiveness of other related ICE entities (including exchanges cleared by ICEU), legal and regulatory considerations and macroeconomic (affecting market operations and market stability).
In terms of impact severity, ICEU assesses scenarios in categories of low, moderate, high, very high and severe. In the context of a default loss, a low severity impact would include a loss contained to the financial resources of the defaulting Clearing Member. By contrast, an event with a severe impact level would be expected to exhaust the funded resources of the clearing house (including ICEU's contribution and the Guaranty Fund contributions of non-defaulting Clearing Members). Other intermediate severity levels will involve corresponding levels of resource consumption and impact on the clearing house. For non-default losses, a low severity is generally defined as a loss of less than 25% of capital resources or a loss having no direct impact on Clearing Members. By contrast, a severe non-default loss would be one in excess of 75% of capital resources are used, or one that otherwise involves a severe degradation of operations. The Recovery Plan contemplates that the range of responses to a loss scenario, including the potential Recovery Options used, will depend on the severity level (with low severity loss events involving limited or no use of Recovery Options, and severe loss scenarios requiring use of all of the available Recovery Options). The Recovery Plan also contemplates different levels of coordination with other CCPs, market participants, regulators and others depending on the severity of the event.
The Recovery Plan sets out the likely Recovery Options that ICEU may implement depending upon the severity of the impact of the scenario, as discussed above. The Recovery Options are based on the rights and obligations of the clearing house under the Rules, Procedures, Risk Management Framework, Default Management Framework, Liquidity Risk Management Framework and other relevant policies and procedures.
The Recovery Plan considers a non-exhaustive list of available Recovery Options in terms of a number of factors, including the speed with which each option can be implemented, the impact on the clearing house, the impact on Clearing Members and their customers, and the effect on other market infrastructure. The Recovery Plan analyzes loss impact and the use of Recovery Tools separately for F&O defaults, CDS defaults and non-default losses. In general, in the case of default losses, relevant Recovery Options include, consistent with the Rules, powers of assessment, use of a default auction in accordance with auction procedures to fully unwind the defaulter's portfolio (for F&O contracts), forced allocation, to the extent the defaulter's positions cannot otherwise be unwound (for CDS contracts), variation margin gains haircutting (for F&O contracts), porting of client positions and clearing service termination (for F&O contracts).
The Recovery Plan outlines the situations (and sequence) in which each of the Recovery Options is likely to be used, recognizing that the clearing house has discretion as to the particular actions to take in a default or non-default loss scenario. In general, use of Recovery Options is expected in extreme circumstances where losses exceed pre-funded resources of the clearing house. The Recovery Plan specifies the expected bases for using Recovery Options, such as powers of assessment and variation margin gains haircutting. It further specifies the decision-making process for the use of such options, separately for default and non-default loss scenarios. These arrangements generally specify a particular scenario in which a Recovery Option may be used, along with the key decision-makers involved. In most cases, under the Rules and the default management frameworks, the decision will be made by the ICEU president and managing director pursuant to the authority delegated by the Board, for both default and non-default loss events. In the case of default events, such actions would be taken having regard to the advice of the default management committee. In practice, the president, where appropriate and time permitting, would be expected to consult with the Board or with individual Board members before taking significant actions. The president may also call an emergency Board meeting or make Board members aware of the current position. The president will
The Recovery Plan recognizes the importance of clear communications and contemplates that use of Recovery Options would be expected to be implemented through close discussions with the ICEU Board, ICEU Board Risk Committee, Clearing Members, regulators, shareholders and other stakeholders. The Recovery Plan recognizes the risk that ICEU's actions could cause contagion and envisages communication with regulators and other financial market infrastructures to mitigate such effects.
The Recovery Plan also sets out a series of early warning indicators and tools intended to notify ICEU management that use of Recovery Options may be required, and where possible, avoid the need for such actions. These include liquidity forecasting and monitoring, use of a conservative approach to counterparty credit analyses and establishment of margin and Guaranty Fund requirements, use of comprehensives risk metrics to monitor Clearing Member financial performance, back-testing and stress testing, and other assessments. The clearing house also retains the mechanisms and resources to take prompt decisions, and allow an immediate response to an emerging situation. The Recovery Plan sets out detailed lists of potential early warning indications of a potential loss scenario, such as repeated non-compliance by a Clearing Member with membership or other requirements, actions taken by regulators or other governmental authorities with respect to a Clearing Member, certain quantitative factors, restructuring and similar events. The Recovery Plan outlines particular means of monitoring for potential loss scenarios following such indications.
The Recovery Plan has set out arrangements for identifying and responding to structural weaknesses in governance and risk management that may be identified in a default event or non-default event. ICEU's tools to address such potential weaknesses include: Default tests, operational risk measures (including for business continuity and disaster recovery purposes), an operational oversight committee, internal audit and consultation with external legal counsel.
The Recovery Plan also notes certain potential limitations of the Recovery Plan, including the risk of potential legal uncertainty (such as a challenge by Clearing Members or other market participants to the use of Recovery Options, notwithstanding the protections available to ICEU under applicable law and the legal diligence conducted by the clearing house with respect to its Rules and policies and procedures). The Recovery Plan also identifies risks of reliance on third party market infrastructures, and notes that the risk of such infrastructure being unavailable is contemplated in stress scenarios. The Recovery Plan also notes ICEU's reliance on the continued support of Intercontinental Exchange, Inc., including as to technology, replenishment of capital resources and business continuity and disaster recovery.
The overall accountability for the Recovery Plan lies with the ICEU President. The Recovery Plan was prepared with the active involvement of the management of ICEU. The Recovery Plan is reviewed and approved by the ICEU Board. The Head of Regulation is responsible for facilitating the overall production and implementation of the Recovery Plan as well as its maintenance. The ICEU Board Audit Committee, Chief Risk Officer, Chief Operating Officer and Executive Risk Committee also have roles in the implementation of the Recovery Plan.
Second line functions are responsible for ensuring that the Recovery Plan remains up-to-date and reviewed in accordance with internal review and governance control arrangements. On an annual basis, the owner will revise the Recovery Plan and present the revised version to the ICEU Board. Material changes to the Recovery Plan must be reviewed by ICEU management and be subject to governance control. Minor changes can be incorporated as part of the routine review process.
As part of governance control, the Recovery Plan is subject to annual review by the ICEU Board Audit Committee. Recommendations and discussions by the ICEU Board Audit Committee are recorded and submitted to the Board in a timely manner. The scenarios and actions that support the Recovery Plan are subject to ICEU Board approval annually. Ad hoc reviews may be commissioned if the business materially changes, for example upon the introduction of a new service. Material changes to the Recovery Plan or the scenarios, including those brought about by market events, are subject to ICEU Board approval, following their review and discussion by the ICEU Board Audit Committee. Deviations from the Recovery Plan must be reported to the ICEU Board. Elements of the Recovery Plan are tested as part of normal operations and risk management procedures.
ICEU believes that the proposed amendments are consistent with the requirements of Section 17A of the Act
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
The Recovery Plan is designed to meet the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii), and is further consistent with the requirements of the Act. The Recovery Plan sets out ICEU's plan for recovering from severe loss events, including from credit losses resulting from Clearing Member default, liquidity shortfalls, losses from general business risk, and other types of losses. The Recovery Plan outlines different loss scenarios of these types that ICEU considers as part of its planning process. The Recovery Plan further builds on the provisions of the Rules, and other risk management frameworks, to set out the different Recovery Options that the clearing house has available to it to address loss scenarios, and restore or maintain normal clearing operations. The Recovery Plan outlines triggers for
ICEU further notes the requirement in Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)
ICEU has determined that it holds equity capital at least sufficient to cover the costs of a recovery of its critical clearing services under the Recovery Plan, consistent with the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15).
ICEU does not believe the proposed Recovery Plan would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Recovery Plan does not itself change the rights or obligations of the clearing house or Clearing Members, and reflects the Recovery Options set out in existing Rules and risk management policies. The Recovery Plan has been designed to meet specific regulatory requirements concerning recovery planning, and is applicable to all clearing activities. ICEU does not believe the amendments will impact competition among Clearing Members or other market participants, or affect the ability of market participants to access clearing generally. While implementation of the Recovery Plan, and in particular use of the Recovery Plan in a severe loss scenario, would likely impose costs on Clearing Members or other market participants, such costs are consistent with the existing Rules, and are, in ICEU's view, appropriate in light of the goals of recovery and maintenance of critical clearing service in accordance with applicable regulations.
Written comments relating to the proposed amendments have not been solicited or received by ICE Clear Europe. ICE Clear Europe will notify the Commission of any comments received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
The proposal shall not take effect until all regulatory actions required with respect to the proposal are completed.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICEEU-2017-016 and should be submitted on or before February 9, 2018].
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to a proposal to amend transaction credits at Rule 7018(a) to: (i) Decrease a $0.00295 per share executed credit provided under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity to $0.0029; (ii) include Limit-on-Close Orders entered between 3:50 p.m. ET and immediately prior to 3:55 p.m. ET for purposes of calculating shares of liquidity to qualify for a credit tier provided under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity; (iii) increase the level of Consolidated Volume required to receive a $0.0029 per share executed credit provided under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity; and (iv) delete a $0.0029 per share executed credit provided under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend Rule 7018(a) (the “Rule”): (i) Decrease a $0.00295 per share executed credit provided under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity to $0.0029; (ii) include Limit-on-Close Orders entered between 3:50 p.m. ET and immediately prior to 3:55 p.m. ET for purposes of calculating shares of liquidity to qualify for a credit tier provided under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity; (iii) increase the level of Consolidated Volume
The purpose of the first change is to reduce the credit provided for a credit tier under Rules 7018(a)(1), (2) and (3). Specifically, under Rules 7018(a)(1), (2) and (3) the Exchange provides a $0.00295 per share executed credit to a member for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) in Tape C, A and B securities, respectively, that provide liquidity. To be eligible to receive the credit under each of the rules, a member must add Customer, Professional, Firm, Non-NOM Market Maker and/or Broker-Dealer liquidity in Penny Pilot Options and/or Non-Penny Pilot Options of 1.15% or more of total industry ADV in the customer clearing range for Equity and ETF option contracts per day in a month on The Nasdaq Options Market. The Exchange is proposing to reduce the credit provided by the credit tier under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) to $0.0029 per share executed.
The purpose of the second change is to include Limit-on-Close Orders entered between 3:50 p.m. ET and immediately prior to 3:55 p.m. ET for purposes of calculating shares of liquidity to qualify for a $0.0028 per share executed credit for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule. The credit is provided to a member that has shares of liquidity provided in the Opening and Closing Crosses, excluding Market-on-Close, Limit-on-Close, Market-on-Open, Limit-on-Open, Good-til-Cancelled, and Immediate-or-Cancel orders, through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs that represent more than 0.01% of Consolidated Volume during the month. The Exchange is proposing to include Limit-on-Close orders entered
The purpose of the third change is to increase the level of Consolidated Volume required to receive a $0.0029 per share executed credit under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity. Currently, under Rules 7018(a)(1), (2) and (3), the Exchange provides a $0.0029 per share executed credit to a member for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) in Tape C, A and B securities, respectively, that provide liquidity. To qualify for the credit, a member must have shares of liquidity provided in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs that represent more than 0.30% of Consolidated Volume during the month, including shares of liquidity provided with respect to securities that are listed on exchanges other than Nasdaq or NYSE that represent more than 0.10% of Consolidated Volume. The Exchange is proposing to increase the level of total Consolidated Volume required to qualify for the to $0.0029 per share executed credit tier under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) from 0.30% to 0.40% per month.
The purpose of the fourth change is to delete a $0.0029 per share executed credit provided for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity. Currently under Rules 7018(a)(1), (2) and (3), the Exchange provides a $0.0029 per share executed credit to a member for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) in Tape C, A and B securities, respectively, that provide liquidity. To qualify for the credit, a member must have shares of liquidity accessed in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs representing more than 0.80% of Consolidated Volume during the month; provided that the member also provides a daily average of at least 2 million shares of liquidity in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs during the month. The Exchange has observed that the credit tier has not been successful in significantly improving market quality as very few members qualify for the credit tier. Accordingly, the Exchange is eliminating the credit tier under Rules 7018(a)(1), (2) and (3).
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that decreasing the $0.00295 per share executed credit under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule provided for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity is reasonable because the amount of the credit is either comparable or identical to other credits that the Exchange offers pursuant to Rule 7018(a), and it believes that the requirements are comparable to other requirements needed to qualify for other credits. For example, under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule the Exchange currently provides a $0.0029 per share executed credit to members for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity if the member has shares of liquidity provided in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs that represent more than 0.60% of Consolidated Volume during the month. Consequently, the Exchange believes that proposed credit is consistent with other credits offered by the Exchange and therefore reasonable.
The Exchange believes that the amended credit will continue to be equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory. The proposed reduction in the credit provided is reflective of the Exchange's need to balance the incentives that it provides in return for the market improving behavior it seeks to incentivize. The Exchange notes that the proposed change applies to securities of all Tapes and it will apply to all members of Nasdaq. A member is free to determine whether the amended credit is adequate for it to continue NOM Market Maker and/or Broker-Dealer liquidity in Penny Pilot Options and/or Non- Penny Pilot Options required by the credit tier. As discussed above, a member has other opportunities to qualify for the same or similar credits based on different criteria.
The Exchange believes that the proposed change to include Limit-on-Close Orders entered between 3:50 p.m. ET and immediately prior to 3:55 p.m. ET for purposes of calculating shares of liquidity in a credit tier under paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of the Rule provided for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity is reasonable because the Exchange is not changing the amount of the credit, which has been addressed in previous filings,
The Exchange believes that proposed change to include Limit-on-Close orders entered between 3:50 p.m. ET and
The Exchange believes that the proposed change to increase the level of Consolidated Volume to qualify for a $0.0029 per share executed credit provided for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity is reasonable because the Exchange is not changing the amount of the credit, which has been addressed in previous filings,
The Exchange believes that proposed change to increase the level of Consolidated Volume to qualify for a $0.0029 per share executed credit provided for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity is an equitable allocation and is not unfairly discriminatory because the amended criteria will apply to all members. Specifically, increasing the qualification criteria of the credit will apply all members uniformly, with each member free to determine whether providing the increased level of Consolidated Volume to qualify for the credit is appropriate for its business. Although some members may no longer qualify for the credit tier based on the amended qualification criteria, the Exchange notes that there are other $0.0029 per share executed credits available for securities of all the Tapes for which a member may qualify if it cannot qualify under the amended credit tier qualification requirement. Moreover, the proposed increase in Consolidated Volume will bring the credit's qualification requirements closer to the next higher credit tier of $0.0030 per share executed, which is provided to members that have shares of liquidity provided in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs that represent 0.575% or more of Consolidated Volume during the month, including shares of liquidity provided with respect to securities that are listed on exchanges other than Nasdaq or NYSE that represent 0.10% or more of Consolidated Volume. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the proposed change is an equitable allocation and is not unfairly discriminatory.
Elimination of the $0.0029 per share executed credit provided to a member for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity in securities of each of the Tapes is reasonable because the credit has been unsuccessful at providing an incentive to members and in turn it has not provided a significant improvement to market quality on Nasdaq. Consequently, the Exchange believes that it should eliminate the credit to focus its limited funds on other incentives to improve market quality. The Exchange notes that members will continue to have the opportunity to qualify for credits of $0.0029 per share executed in securities of each of the Tapes. Accordingly, the Exchange believes eliminating this credit is reasonable.
The Exchange believes that elimination of the $0.0029 per share executed credit provided to a member for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity in securities of each of the Tapes is an equitable allocation and is not unfairly discriminatory because it has been ineffective at significantly improving market quality as very few members qualify for the credit. Consequently, the credit is no longer needed. As noted above, the Exchange has limited funds to apply toward incentives, and although an incentive may not significantly achieve its goal of improving market quality, it may nonetheless result in a cost to the Exchange. Eliminating the credit will allow the Exchange deploy its limited funds to incentives in securities or other areas designed to improve market quality. Members will continue to have the opportunity to receive the same or similar rebates based on similar criteria as required by the tier that is being eliminated. For example, the Exchange provides a credit of $0.0025 per share executed to a member for displayed quotes/orders (other than Supplemental Orders or Designated Retail Orders) that provide liquidity if the member has shares of liquidity accessed in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs representing more than 0.45% of Consolidated Volume during the month; provided that the member also provides a daily average of at least 2 million shares of liquidity in all securities through one or more of its Nasdaq Market Center MPIDs during the month. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that eliminating the credit is an equitable allocation and is not unfairly discriminatory.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees and credits in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee and credit changes in this
In this instance, the proposed changes to the credits available to members for execution of securities in securities of all three Tapes do not impose a burden on competition because the Exchange's execution services are completely voluntary and subject to extensive competition both from other exchanges and from off-exchange venues. The Exchange is proposing to decrease the amount of credit provided, increase the qualification requirement to receive a credit, eliminate a credit that has been unsuccessful at improving market quality significantly, and ease the criteria of a credit in an effort to improve market quality in the Nasdaq Closing Cross. These changes are reflective of the Exchange's need to balance the incentives that it provides in return for the market improving behavior it seeks to incentivize. As discussed above, the Exchange has limited funds to apply toward incentives, and therefore must adjust the amount of credit provided, change credit tier qualification criteria, and in some cases discontinue credits altogether, to ensure that it has applied those limited funds most efficiently.
In sum, if the changes proposed herein are unattractive to market participants, it is likely that the Exchange will lose market share as a result. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
60-Day notice and request for comments.
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) the Small Business Administration (SBA) announces its intention to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) of the reporting requirements described below. Under the PRA federal agencies are required to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before March 15, 2018.
Send all comments to Michael Donadieu, Director, Office of SBIC Examinations, Office of Investment and Innovation, Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street, 6th Floor, Washington, DC 20416. Email:
Curtis B. Rich, Management Analyst, 202-205-7030,
The
At the time SBA notifies the SBIC of the pending examination, the agency also identifies certain information the SBIC will be required to submit at the commencement of the examination process to assist examiners in planning the examination. Additionally, the information will provide a basis for: (a)
The information to be collected consists of documentation falling into three broad categories: Portfolio information, Licensee documents, and accountant workpapers. Portfolio information covers investments made by the SBIC during the period covered by the examination, including, but not limited to, organizational and financial information, schedules of balances and repayments, and financing legal documents. Licensee documents deal with the SBIC's organization and operations, including, but not limited to, banking and financial information, corporate governance, and capital documentation. Finally, accountant workpapers relate to the engagement of an independent public accountant, including, but not limited to engagement letters and management representation letters.
Comments are invited on (a) whether this reporting requirement is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the requested information.
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Klimt and Schiele: Drawn,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to a loan agreement with the foreign owner or custodian. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Museum of Fine Arts, Boston, in Boston, Massachusetts, from on or about February 25, 2018, until on or about May 28, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain additional objects to be included in the exhibition “Eyewitness Views: Making History in 18th-Century Europe,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The additional objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the additional exhibit objects at The Cleveland Museum of Art, Cleveland, Ohio, from on or about February 25, 2018, until on or about May 20, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Degas: A Passion for Perfection,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Denver Art Museum, Denver, Colorado, from on or about February 11, 2018, until on or about May 20, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Being: New Photography 2018,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at The Museum of Modern Art, New York, New York, from on or about March 18, 2018, until on or about August 19, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Like Life: Sculpture, Color, and the Body,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at The Metropolitan Museum of Art, New York, New York, from on or about March 20, 2018, until on or about July 22, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “The Paston Treasure: Microcosm of the Known World,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Yale Center for British Art, New Haven, Connecticut, from on or about February 15, 2018, until on or about May 27, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Soo Line Railroad Company (Soo Line), a Class I rail carrier, has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR 1180.2(d)(7) to renew overhead trackage rights over approximately 137 miles of rail line owned and operated by BNSF Railway Company (BNSF) between Minneapolis, Minn., and Superior, Wis. (the Line).
Soo Line states that the purpose of the transaction is to renew the overhead trackage rights agreement governing Soo Line's continued freight service between Minneapolis, Minn., and Superior, Wis. The agreement provides trackage rights to Soo Line over two separate routes from Minneapolis that converge on BNSF's Staples Subdivision. The first route is from milepost 11.4+/− on BNSF's Staples Subdivision at or near University Avenue in Minneapolis, Minn. to the connection at milepost 21.0+/− with BNSF's Hinckley Subdivision near Coon Creek, Minn. (Hinckley Subdivision milepost 136.9+/−). The second route is over the North Runner Lead from BNSF's Northtown Yard to Soo Line's Shoreham Yard at milepost 11.66+/− on BNSF's St. Paul Subdivision to the connection at milepost 16.25+/− on BNSF's Staples Subdivision and thence to the connection with BNSF's Hinckley Subdivision near Coon Creek, Minn. From there, Soo Line's trackage rights continue to the connection at Hinckley Subdivision milepost 11.8+/− with BNSF's Lakes Subdivision in Boylston, Wis. (Lakes Subdivision milepost 12.6+/−), and thence to Lakes Subdivision milepost 9.4+/− at M&J Junction in Superior, Wis., including the BNSF-owned turnout at milepost 10.44+/− to the Saunders Connecting Track. Soo Line acquired the trackage rights in its 1985 acquisition of the Chicago, Milwaukee, St. Paul and Pacific Railroad Company's assets.
According to Soo Line, the parties intend to enter into a written agreement renewing the overhead trackage rights, and a redacted copy of the draft agreement has been submitted as an exhibit with its verified notice.
As a condition to this exemption, any employees affected by the trackage rights will be protected by the conditions imposed in
The transaction may be consummated on or after February 4, 2018, the effective date of the exemption (30 days after the verified notice was filed).
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio. Petitions to revoke the exemption under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) may be filed at any time. The filing of a petition to revoke will not automatically stay the effectiveness of the exemption. Petitions for stay must be filed no later than January 26, 2018 (at least seven days before the exemption before effective).
An original and 10 copies of all pleadings, referring to Docket No. 36162, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, one copy of each pleading must be served on W. Karl Hansen, Stinson Leonard Street LLP, 50 South Sixth St., Suite 2600, Minneapolis, MN 55402.
According to Soo Line, this action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c) and from historic reporting under 49 CFR 1105.8(b).
Board decisions and notices are available on our website at
By the Board, Scott M. Zimmerman, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection. The
The FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012 mandates that all helicopter air ambulance operators must begin reporting the number of flights and hours flown, along with other specified information, during which helicopters operated by the certificate holder are providing helicopter air ambulance services. The helicopter air ambulance operational data provided to the FAA is used by the agency as background information useful in the development of risk mitigation strategies to reduce the helicopter air ambulance accident rate, and to meet the mandates set by Congress.
In response to the November 3, 2017 notice and request for comments, the FAA received two comments. One comment from an individual and one comment from the Air Medical Operators Association (AMOA). The individual commented that the hourly burden per average response estimate has increased since the last notice was published on July 29, 2014 (79 FR 44083) and asked for the reason for the change in estimated burden. In response, the FAA clarifies that none of
The AMOA commented that they strongly supported the intent of the data collection requirement, but also noted that the original collection requirement should have been the subject of notice and comment rulemaking. The FAA notes, as indicated in the August 12, 2013 Requests for Comments; Clearance of a New Approval of Information Collection: Helicopter Air Ambulance Operator Reports (78 FR 48925), that prior to issuance of the first information collection notice, representatives from the Flight Standards Service, Office of Accident Investigation and Prevention, and the Office of the Chief Counsel met with representatives from AMOA to discuss the FAA's approach to this data collection. Meetings were held on October 15, 2012 and May 17, 2013. On June 28, 2013 AMOA submitted a response to the FAA discussing its view of the method to collect the data being pursued by the FAA. A copy of that letter was placed in the docket (FAA-2013-0684) and was considered by the agency.
AMOA also commented that the FAA has underestimated the hourly burden for both large and small operators. Although AMOA did not provide any specific data to support its comment, in response the FAA has increased the estimates of hourly burden for both large and small operators in this notice and request for comments.
AMOA also requested information from the FAA's Office of Accident Investigation and Prevention and commented on the FAA's implementation of certain provisions of the FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012, which are both beyond the scope of this clearance of a renewed approval of information collection.
Written comments should be submitted by February 20, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the attention of the Desk Officer, Department of Transportation/FAA, and sent via electronic mail to
Barbara Hall at (940) 594-5913, or by email at:
The helicopter air ambulance operational data provided to the FAA will be used by the agency as background information useful in the development of risk mitigation strategies to reduce the helicopter air ambulance accident rate, and to meet the mandates set by Congress. The information requested is limited to the minimum necessary to fulfill these reporting requirements mandated by the Act and as developed by FAA. The amount of data required to be submitted is proportional to the size of the operation.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection. The collection involves the submission of application FAA Form 8710-4 for the certification process. The information to be collected will be used to and/or is necessary to evaluate the operators request to become certified as a Rotorcraft External-Load Operator.
Written comments should be submitted by March 20, 2018.
Send comments to the FAA at the following address: Barbara Hall, Federal Aviation Administration, ASP-110, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177.
Barbara Hall by email at:
The information collected includes: Type of application, Operators name/DBAs, telephone number, mailing address, physical address of the principal base of operations, Chief pilot/designee name, airman certificate grade and number, rotorcraft make/model registration numbers to be used and load combinations requested.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Limitation on Claims for Judicial Review of Actions by FHWA.
This notice announces actions taken by the FHWA that are final pursuant to the statute. The actions relate to a proposed highway project, Toll Locations 1 and 2 in the Towns of Hopkinton, Richmond, and Exeter in the State of Rhode Island, FHWA Project Number T0LL002, Rhode Island Department of Transportation (RIDOT) Contract Number 2017-OT-002.
By this notice, the FHWA is advising the public of final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(
For FHWA: Mr. Carlos E. Padilla-Fresse, MSCE, Program Delivery Supervisor, Federal Highway Administration Rhode Island Division, 380 Westminster Mall, Suite 601, Providence, Rhode Island 02903: telephone: (401) 528-4577; email:
Effective December 20, 2017, the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) assumed environmental responsibilities for this project pursuant to 23 U.S.C 327. Notice is hereby given that the FHWA has taken final agency actions subject to 23 U.S.C. 139(l)(1) by issuing a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) for the following highway project in the State of Rhode Island: Toll Locations 1 and 2 in the Towns of Hopkinton, Richmond, and Exeter. RIDOT proposes to construct and operate electronic toll systems at two locations (Toll Location 1—between Exits 2 and 3, and Location 2—between Exits 4 and 5) along Interstate 95 in the southwestern part of Rhode Island (Proposed Action). Revenue from Toll Locations 1 and 2 would be generated and used in accordance with
The actions by the FHWA, and the laws under which such actions were taken, are described in the Environmental Assessment (EA) for the project approved on December 15, 2017, and a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) issued on December 20, 2017. The EA, FONSI, and other project records are available by contacting the FHWA or the Rhode Island Department of Transportation at the addresses provided above. The EA and FONSI can be viewed and downloaded from the project website at
This notice applies to all Federal agency decisions as of the issuance date of this notice and all laws under which such actions were taken, including but not limited to:
23 U.S.C. 139(
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT
Notice; grant of waiver.
FMCSA grants a limited 3-month waiver from the Federal hours-of-service (HOS) requirements for electronic logging devices (ELDs) to motor carriers and drivers operating property-carrying commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) that are rented for a period not exceeding 30 days. The Agency takes this action in response to a waiver request from the Truck Renting and Leasing Association, Inc. (TRALA). The Agency has determined that granting this waiver is in the public interest and will likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to the level that would be achieved absent the waiver, based on the terms and conditions imposed.
This waiver is effective January 19, 2018, through April 19, 2018.
Thomas L. Yager, Chief, Driver and Carrier Operations Division, Office of Bus and Truck Standards and Operations, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE, Washington, DC 20590. Email:
The Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century (TEA-21) (Pub. L. 105-178, 112 Stat. 107, sec. 4007(a) June 9, 1998) provides the Secretary of Transportation (the Secretary) the authority to grant waivers from any of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations issued under Chapter 313 of Title 49 of the United States Code or 49 U.S.C. 31136, to a person(s) seeking regulatory relief (49 U.S.C. 31136(e), 31315(a)). The Secretary must make a determination that the waiver is in the public interest and that it is likely to achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be obtained in the absence of the waiver. Individual waivers may be granted only for a specific unique, non-emergency event, for a period up to three months. TEA-21 authorizes the Secretary to grant waivers without prior notice or request for public comment.
The Administrator of FMCSA has been delegated authority under 49 CFR 1.87(e) to carry out the functions vested in the Secretary by 49 U.S.C. chapter 311, subchapters I and III, relating to commercial motor vehicle programs and safety regulations.
TRALA is a national trade association representing companies that engage in commercial truck renting and leasing as well as consumer truck rentals. Its membership encompasses major independent firms such as Ryder System, Penske Truck Leasing, U-Haul, Budget, and Enterprise Truck Rental, as well as small and medium-size businesses that generally participate as members of four leasing group systems: Idealease, NationaLease, PACCAR Leasing company, and Mack Leasing System-Volvo Truck Leasing. In total, its nearly 500 member companies operate more than 5,000 commercial leasing and rental locations, and more than 20,000 consumer rental locations throughout the United States, Mexico, and Canada. “Renting” is a term of art in the vehicle leasing industry, generally meaning a transaction granting the exclusive use of a vehicle for 30 days or less, whereas a lease generally means a transaction granting the exclusive use of a vehicle for more than 30 days.
In November 2016, TRALA submitted a petition requesting a 5-year exemption on behalf of operators of property-carrying commercial motor vehicles rented for 30 days or fewer from the requirement that motor carriers whose drivers are required to keep records of duty status (RODS) under the HOS rules generally must employ ELDs beginning December 18, 2017, in lieu of paper logs, pursuant to an FMCSA rule published December 16, 2015 (80 FR 78292). While TRALA stated that it supported the ELD mandate, it was concerned about unintended technical and operational consequences that would unfairly and adversely affect short-term rental vehicles, namely, lack of interoperability between the motor carrier's ELD technology and the rental company's platform, potentially precluding data transfer between the two systems. TRALA also raised concerns about data liability, particularly if the rental companies needed to bear the burden of safeguarding data on behalf of the motor carrier.
In accordance with 49 CFR 381.315, FMCSA sought public comment on TRALA's exemption request (82 FR 14789 (Mar. 22, 2017)). FMCSA evaluated TRALA's application and the public comments and granted a limited exception, subject to specified terms and conditions, but only for rentals not exceeding 8 days (82 FR 47306 (Oct. 11, 2017)).
After FMCSA granted TRALA's exemption in part, TRALA filed a request for a 90-day waiver from the ELD requirement for truck rentals not exceeding 30 days. TRALA indicated that a 90-day waiver would allow rental companies and their customers “critical additional time to develop compliance strategies” to address “unique issues relating to the use of ELDs in short-term rental vehicles” and allow time for
TRALA described unique challenges faced by operators of short-term rentals, namely the lack of interoperability between ELD device platforms, a situation that requires rental companies to address how their customers' drivers might record their HOS using ELDs as efficiently as possible. TRALA described several steps its members have taken since FMCSA's October 11, 2017, decision granting a partial exemption for rental trucks, including building cloud-based portal systems between ELD providers and purchasers of ELDs. Nevertheless, TRALA states that additional time is required and that a 90-day waiver would allow its members to continue working through the issues presented by the required technology and the need for individual customer-based compliance strategies.
TRALA stated that the waiver would not result in any adverse impact on safety as drivers of rental vehicles would remain subject to HOS regulations and the requirement to keep paper records of duty status under 49 CFR 395.3 and 395.8. Furthermore, TRALA stated that planned enforcement activities would not be compromised, given the decision that CMVs will not be placed out-of-service and carriers' Safety Measurement System scores will not be impacted for failure to employ ELDs through April 1, 2018.
Finally, TRALA explained why the waiver would not serve as a safe harbor for carriers seeking to avoid compliance with the HOS regulations, given the increased cost of operating under short-term rental arrangements.
Given the obstacles to ELD implementation unique to short-term CMV rentals and the impact on carriers renting trucks for a period not exceeding 30 days, FMCSA finds it is in the public interest to grant a limited 3-month waiver from the requirement that carriers and drivers operating rental CMVs in interstate commerce employ ELDs effective December 18, 2017. This waiver will avoid business disruptions for carriers required to employ short-term rentals, regardless of the reason, and allow businesses renting CMVs to continue their work to reconcile the ELD requirement with the needs of their individual customers. Given the brief time frame during which the waiver will be in effect and the terms and conditions applicable to drivers operating under its provisions, FMCSA finds that a level of safety is likely to be achieved that is equivalent to the level that would be obtained absent the waiver. Because this waiver applies to all short-term truck rentals not exceeding 30 days, during a time period both the previous exemption and this waiver are in effect, this waiver supersedes the exemption granted to TRALA on October 11, 2017 (82 FR 47306) to the extent there is any inconsistency.
(1) This waiver from the requirements of 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(i) is effective from January 19, 2018, through April 19, 2018.
(2) This exemption covers rental of any property-carrying CMV for a period of 30 days or less, regardless of the reason for the rental. Evidence that a carrier has replaced one rental CMV with another on 30-day cycles or attempted to renew a rental agreement for the same CMV for a period beyond 30 days will be regarded as a violation of the waiver.
(3) Carriers and drivers operating under this waiver must comply with all other applicable requirements of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations, including the preparation of paper records of duty status (RODS) for operations which are currently considered to be subject to the HOS rules and the record retention requirements associated with those RODs and supporting documents.
(4) Motor carriers operating under this waiver must have a “satisfactory” safety rating from FMCSA or be unrated; motor carriers with “conditional” or “unsatisfactory” safety ratings are prohibited from taking advantage of the waiver.
(5) Carriers operating under this waiver must ensure that their drivers carry a copy of this
(6)
Carriers operating under this waiver must notify FMCSA within 5 business days of any accident (as defined in 49 CFR 390.5), involving any of the motor carrier's drivers operating under the terms of this waiver. The notification must include the following information:
(a) Identity of Waiver: “TRALA,”
(b) Date of the accident,
(c) City or town, and State, in which the accident occurred, or closest to the accident scene,
(d) Driver's name and license number,
(e) Co-driver's name and license number (if applicable),
(f) Vehicle number and State license number,
(g) Number of individuals suffering physical injury,
(h) Number of fatalities,
(i) The police-reported cause of the accident,
(j) Whether the driver was cited for violation of any traffic laws or motor carrier safety regulations, and
(k) The total driving time and total on-duty time period prior to the accident.
Accident notifications must be emailed to
(7) FMCSA expects that any drivers and their employing motor carrier operating under the terms and conditions of this waiver will maintain their safety record. Should any safety problems be discovered, however, FMCSA will take all steps necessary to protect the public interest. Use of this waiver is voluntary, and FMCSA will immediately revoke the waiver for any interstate driver or motor carrier for failure to comply with the terms and conditions of the waiver.
Consistent with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), this waiver preempts inconsistent State or local requirements applicable to interstate commerce.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; grant of application for exemption.
FMCSA grants the Motion Picture Association of America (MPAA) a five-year exemption from the electronic logging device (ELD) requirements for all commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers providing transportation to or from a theatrical or television motion picture production site. MPAA requested this exemption to allow these drivers to complete paper records of duty status (RODS) instead of using an ELD device. FMCSA has determined that the unique aspects of these drivers' operations, combined with additional oversight of their paper RODS, is equivalent to that which
This exemption is effective January 19, 2018 and expires January 19, 2023.
For information concerning this notice, contact Mr. Tom Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 614-942-6477. Email:
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
MPAA requested an exemption from the final rule on ELD requirements published in the
MPAA reported that approximately 6,500 CMV drivers operate CMVs on a full- or part-time basis for the motion picture industry. According to HOS data developed by third party compliance services, these drivers spend on average less than four hours each day driving and drive about 40 miles per day. Their resulting RODs are often very complex, as are the driver HOS records that employing motor carriers must keep. Through close cooperation, the industry has been able to manage the extensive interchange of paper RODs that this work pattern requires. MPAA asserted that industry's success in HOS management is based on a system that is driver-based rather than vehicle-based.
According to MPAA, few production drivers qualify for the short-haul driver exception in 49 CFR 395.1(e)(1)(ii)(A) because they often exceed the 12-hour limit and therefore may be subject to the ELD requirements. Each time a production driver operates a CMV for a different studio or production company, the motor carrier and the driver must reconcile the driver's HOS record for the past week. At present, cooperation between production companies, various Teamsters locals, and drivers can reduce the burden of this detailed reconciliation. And under the current rules, drivers themselves can manage the necessary paper RODS, carry them to each new CMV, and transfer paper copies to each new motor carrier as needed. When a roadside inspection occurs, a driver can produce paper RODS for review by the enforcement official.
MPAA contends that the lack of interoperability among ELD platforms developed by various manufacturers means that motion picture company drivers will not be able to transfer HOS data from one carrier to other carriers.
MPAA states
“Current regulatory requirements designate that drivers submit logs within 13 days of the 24-hour period to which the record pertains. 49 CFR 395.8(a)(2)(ii). MPAA Member companies go above and beyond by requiring drivers to submit RODS within 24 hours of the duty period to which the record pertains, which is a 12-day reduction in the timeframe otherwise required.”
“The RODS are then reviewed by third-party auditing companies, resulting in accelerated reporting of HOS compliance and an independent assessment of accuracy. This allows any concerns that may be discovered in the review to be expeditiously addressed by the employing motor carrier that is ultimately responsible for enforcement of the regulations. Member companies' current practices include reviewing driver payroll records and other supporting documentation such as fuel receipts, inspection reports, vehicle records and receipts, expense receipts, schedules, bill of lading, etc. to verify the accuracy of the paper logs” [emphasis in original].
A copy of MPAA's application for exemption is available for review in the docket for this notice.
On October 27, 2017, FMCSA published notice of this application and requested public comments (82 FR 49771). The Agency received 29 comments. Eight respondents, including Teamsters Local 399 and the International Brotherhood of Teamsters (IBT), provided support for the exemption. Eleven respondents, including the Advocates for Highway and Auto Safety (Advocates) and the Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA), opposed the exemption. Ten respondents commented about the ELD rule but did not comment on MPAA's application.
Among supporters of the application, Teamsters Local 399, which has 4,500 members in the motion picture and television industry, stated that “[t]he AMPTP [Alliance of Motion Picture and
Among opponents of the application, Advocates concluded that MPAA “does not meet the statutory and regulatory requirements for the exemption. The Application fails to justify the need for the exemption, provide an analysis of the safety impacts the requested exemption may cause, or provide information on the specific countermeasures to be undertaken to ensure that the exemption will achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved absent the exemption.”
CVSA registered its opposition by noting that “exemptions from federal safety regulations have the potential to undermine safety, while also complicating the enforcement process. The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations and the Hazardous Materials Regulations exist to ensure that those operating in the transportation industry are equipped to do it safely.”
FMCSA has evaluated MPAA's application and the public comments. The Agency disagrees with commenters' remarks that MPAA has not justified the need for the exemption or provided specific countermeasures. MPAA has outlined their unique operational issues that justify not using ELDs and clearly explained the special handling of their RODs that ensures a high level of accuracy to provide the equivalent level of safety.
We note at the outset that Congress has recognized the unique aspects of the motion picture industry's operations and has provided statutory exceptions from some HOS regulations.
Because of the nature of their operations, motion picture industry drivers often will continue to use the same paper RODS from one carrier to another. In these unique circumstances, using an ELD system would provide little additional accuracy to the HOS data because most duty status information would be manually entered by the drivers and interoperability between the systems is not required. As MPAA states, the paper log provides continuity for the carrier and enforcement to evaluate compliance, regardless of the number of carriers for which the driver is operating in a given 7-day or even 24-hour period. FMCSA acknowledges that, given the unique arrangements under which drivers in the motion picture industry routinely operate for multiple carriers over brief periods of time, paper RODS may prove more efficient than ELDs.
In addition, MPAA members are required to submit their RODS within 24 hours, rather than waiting for the 13-day period allowed by 49 CFR 395.8. According to MPAA, these “RODS are reviewed by a third-party auditing company, resulting in accelerated reporting of HOS compliance and an independent assessment of accuracy.” In view of the heightened scrutiny of HOS records to which drivers in the motion picture industry are subject to (as described in the MPAA statement in Section III, above), FMCSA believes that drivers operating under this exemption will achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level of safety that would be achieved through the use of ELDs [49 CFR 381.305(a)].
For the reasons addressed above, and subject to the terms and conditions set forth in Section VIII, FMCSA grants MPAA's request for an exemption from the ELD requirement under 49 CFR 395.8(a).
1. Drivers operating under the exemption are exempt from the ELD requirement under 49 CFR 395.8(a).
2. The exemption is effective January 19, 2018 and, unless revoked at an earlier date, expires January 19, 2023.
3. Drivers must have a copy of this notice or equivalent signed FMCSA exemption document in their possession while operating under the terms of the exemption. The exemption document must be presented to law enforcement officials upon request.
4. Carriers operating under this exemption may not have an “Unsatisfactory” rating with FMCSA or be subject to any imminent hazard or out of service orders.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), during the period this exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a firm or person operating in interstate commerce.
Exempt motor carriers must notify FMCSA within 5 business days of any accident (as defined in 49 CFR 390.5), involving any of their CMVs operating under the terms of the exemption. The notification must include the following information:
(a) Name of the exemption: “MPAA,”
(b) Name of the operating motor carrier,
(c) Date of the accident,
(d) City or town, and State, in which the accident occurred, or closest to the accident scene,
(e) Driver's name and license number,
(f) Vehicle number and State license number,
(g) Number of individuals suffering physical injury,
(h) Number of fatalities,
(i) The police-reported cause of the accident,
(j) Whether the driver was cited for violation of any traffic laws or motor carrier safety regulations, and
(k) The driver's total driving time and total on-duty time period prior to the accident.
Reports filed under this provision shall be emailed to
FMCSA does not anticipate the drivers covered by this exemption to experience any deterioration of their safety record. Nevertheless, interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any or all of these motor carriers are not achieving the requisite statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any information submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if the continuation of the exemption is inconsistent with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(4) and 31136(e), FMCSA will immediately take steps to revoke the exemption of the company or companies and drivers in question.
FMCSA, DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
Executive Order 12862 directs Federal agencies to provide service to the public that matches or exceeds the best service available in the private sector. These principles were reaffirmed in Executive Order 13571. In order to work continuously to ensure that our programs are effective and meet our customers' needs, the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) seeks to obtain OMB approval of a currently approved generic clearance to continue collecting feedback on our service delivery. By feedback we mean information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but are not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population of study.
We must receive your comments on or before March 20, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Number FMCSA-2017-0321 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Ms. Roxane Oliver, FMCSA, Office of Analysis, Research and Technology, Analysis Division/MC-RRA. Telephone (202) 385-2324; or email
The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on the Agency's services will be unavailable.
The Agency will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions: That such collections are:
• Voluntary;
• low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• noncontroversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;
• targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• only collecting personally identifiable information (PII) to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• only collecting information intended to be used internally for general service improvement and program management, and any release outside the agency must indicate the qualitative nature of the information;
• not to be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and
• intended to yield only qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalized to the population of study.
This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made; the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size; and the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential nonresponse bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results. As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.
Public Comments Invited: You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including: (1) Whether the proposed collection is necessary for the performance of FMCSA's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways for FMCSA to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the collected information; and (4) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information. The agency will summarize or include your comments in the request for OMB's clearance of this information collection.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of proposed regulatory guidance; extension of comment period.
FMCSA extends the public comment period for the Agency's December 19, 2017, notice announcing the proposed regulatory guidance concerning the use of a commercial motor vehicle for personal conveyance. On December 22, 2017, the American Trucking Associations, Inc. (ATA) requested a 30-day extension of the comment period. The Agency extends the January 18, 2018, deadline for the submission of public comments to February 20, 2018.
FMCSA extends the comment period for the notice of proposed regulatory guidance published on December 19, 2017. You must submit comments by February 20, 2018.
You may insert comments identified by Federal Docket Management System Number FMCSA-2017-0108 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the
Mr. Thomas Yager, Chief, Driver and Carrier Operations Division, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, phone (614) 942-6477, email
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number listed above, indicate the specific section of this document to which your comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period and may change this guidance based on your comments.
To view comments, go to
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its regulatory process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
On December 19, 2017 (82 FR 60269), FMCSA published a notice of proposed regulatory guidance concerning the use of a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) for personal conveyance. This provision is available to all CMV drivers required to record their hours of service (HOS) who are permitted by their employer to use the vehicle for personal use. The proposed regulatory guidance would revise Question 26 to 49 CFR 395.8.
The existing guidance on personal conveyance (49 CFR 395.8, Question 26) was issued by the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), FMCSA's predecessor agency, in a memorandum dated November 18, 1996, and later published in a compilation of guidance (62 FR 16370, 16426, April 4, 1997). The guidance reiterated the basic principle that a driver in off-duty status must be relieved from work and all responsibility for performing work. It highlighted the use of the CMV as a personal conveyance in traveling to and from the place of employment (
In the December 19, 2017, proposed revision to the guidance, the Agency focused on the reason the driver is operating a CMV while off duty, without regard to whether the CMV is or is not laden. The previous guidance, which required the CMV to be unladen, was written for combination vehicles, where the driver could readily detach the trailer and use the unladen tractor for personal conveyance. This interpretation had the inadvertent effect of not allowing drivers of single-unit work trucks that carry loads, as well as tools of trade and related materials, on the power unit to document this off-duty time on the RODS. In the absence of a trailer, these loads, tools, and other equipment cannot reasonably be offloaded, left unattended, and reloaded after the power unit has been used for personal conveyance. This proposed revision to the guidance eliminates the requirement that the CMV be unladen and thus the disparate impact created by the previous guidance.
On December 22, 2017, the American Trucking Associations, Inc. (ATA), asked that the Agency provide a 30-day extension of the comment period. ATA expressed concern that end-of-year tasks and holiday periods might make it difficult for many interested parties to prepare comments by the original January 19, deadline. A copy of the ATA request is in the docket identified at the beginning of this notice.
FMCSA acknowledges ATA's concerns. After reviewing the request, FMCSA hereby grants a 30-day extension of the comment period to February 20, 2018, to provide all interested parties additional time to respond to the notice of proposed regulatory guidance.
Department of the Treasury.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Board of Trustees of the Alaska Ironworkers Pension Plan, a multiemployer pension plan, has submitted an application to reduce benefits under the plan in accordance with the Multiemployer Pension Reform Act of 2014. The purpose of this notice is to announce that the application submitted by the Board of Trustees of the Alaska Ironworkers Pension Plan has been published on the Treasury website, and to request public comments on the application from interested parties, including participants and beneficiaries, employee organizations, and contributing employers of the Alaska Ironworkers Pension Plan.
Comments must be received by March 5, 2018.
You may submit comments electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Comments may also be mailed to the Department of the Treasury, MPRA Office, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Room 1224, Washington, DC 20220. Attn: Eric Berger. Comments sent via facsimile and email will not be accepted.
For information regarding the application from the Alaska Ironworkers Pension Plan, please contact Treasury at [(202) 622-1534] (not a toll-free number).
The Multiemployer Pension Reform Act of 2014 (MPRA) amended the Internal
On December 19, 2017, the Board of Trustees of the Alaska Ironwokers Pension Plan submitted an application for approval to reduce benefits under the plan. As required by MPRA, that application has been published on Treasury's website at
Comments are requested from interested parties, including participants and beneficiaries, employee organizations, and contributing employers of the Alaska Ironworkers Pension Plan. Consideration will be given to any comments that are timely received by Treasury.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one or more persons that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
See Supplementary Information section.
OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202-622-2490; Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480; or the Department of the Treasury's Office of the General Counsel: Office of the Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202-622-2410.
The Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website (
On January 12, 2018, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authorities listed below.
1. LARIJANI, Sadegh Amoli (a.k.a. LARIJANI, Sadegh; a.k.a. LARIJANI, Sadeq; a.k.a. LARIJANI, Sadeq Ardeshir; a.k.a. LARIJANI-AMOLI, Sadegh Ardeshir), Iran; DOB 1960; POB Najaf, Iraq; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Gender Male; Ayatollah; Head of the Judiciary (individual) [IRAN-HR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(A) of Executive Order 13553 of September 28, 2010, “Blocking Property of Certain Persons With Respect to Serious Human Rights Abuses by the Government of Iran and Taking Certain Other Actions” (“E.O. 13553”), for being an official of the Government of Iran or a person acting on behalf of the Government of Iran (including members of paramilitary organizations) who is responsible for or complicit in, or responsible for ordering, controlling, or otherwise directing, the commission of serious human rights abuses against persons in Iran or Iranian citizens or residents, or the family members of the foregoing, on or after June 12, 2009, regardless of whether such abuses occurred in Iran.
2. RAZAVI, Morteza (a.k.a. RAZAVI, Seyed Morteza; a.k.a. REZAVI, Mortaza); DOB 09 Apr 1973; POB Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Gender Male (individual) [NPWMD] [IFSR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iv) of Executive Order 13382 of June 28, 2005, “Blocking Property of Weapons of Mass Destruction Proliferators and Their Supporters” (“E.O. 13382”), for acting for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, FANAMOJ, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382, and GREEN WAVE TELECOMMUNICATION.
3. YUHUA, Shi (a.k.a. HUA, Shi Yu; a.k.a. SHI, Yuhua; a.k.a. “SHI, Arlex”), China; DOB 05 Aug 1976; nationality China; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Gender Male; Passport PE0475719 (China) expires 14 Nov 2019 (individual) [NPWMD] [IFSR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii) of E.O. 13382 for having provided, or attempted to provide, financial, material, technological or other support for, or goods or services in support of, SHIRAZ ELECTRONICS INDUSTRIES, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382, and section 1(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for acting or purporting to act for or on behalf, directly or indirectly, WUHAN SANJIANG IMPORT AND EXPORT CO. LTD, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
4. ZIAEI, Gholamreza, Karaj, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Gender Male (individual) [IRAN-HR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(C) of E.O. 13553 for having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, RAJAEE SHAHR PRISON.
5. ZHU, Yuequn; DOB 01 Nov 1979; POB Jiangsu, China; nationality China; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Gender Male; Passport G40986974 (China) expires 01 Mar 2020 (individual) [NPWMD] [IFSR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for acting or purporting to act for or on behalf, directly or indirectly, BOCHUANG CERAMIC, INC.
1. BOCHUANG CERAMIC, INC., A101 Songgang Industry Park, No. 368 West Yindu Road, Shanghai 201612, China; website
Designated pursuant to sections 1(a)(iii) of E.O. 13382 for having provided, or attempted to provide, financial, material, technological or other support for, or goods or services in support of, PARDAZAN SYSTEM NAMAD ARMAN.
2. GREEN WAVE TELECOMMUNICATION (a.k.a. GREEN WAVE TECHNOLOGIES; a.k.a. GREEN WAVE TELECOMMUNICATION SDN BHD; a.k.a. GREENWAVE TELECOM; a.k.a. “GREEN WAVE”; a.k.a. “GREEN WAVE COMPANY”; a.k.a. “GWT”), 8, 12, 9, Menara Mutiara, Bangsar, Jalan Liku, Off Jalan Bangsar, Kuala Lumpur 59100, Malaysia; website
Designated pursuant to sections 1(a)(iii) and 1(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for having provided, or attempted to provide, financial, material, technological or other support for, or goods or services in support of, and for being owned or controlled by, FANAMOJ, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
3. IRAN AIRCRAFT INDUSTRIES (a.k.a. IRAN AIRCRAFT INDUSTRIES CO.; a.k.a. “IACI”; a.k.a. “SAHA”), Km 3 Karaj Special Road, Ekbatan City, Azadi Square, Tehran, Iran; P.O. Box 14155-1449, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iv) of Executive Order 13382 for being owned or controlled by Iran's AVIATION INDUSTRIES ORGANIZATION, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
4. IRAN HELICOPTER SUPPORT AND RENEWAL COMPANY (a.k.a. IHSRC; a.k.a. IRANIAN HELICOPTERS' MAINTENANCE AND REPAIRS COMPANY; a.k.a. IRAN'S HELICOPTER RENOVATION AND LOGISTICS COMPANY; a.k.a. PANHA), Meherabad Airport Road, Azadi Square, Foroudgah Street, Meradj Avenue, Tehran, Iran; P.O. Box 13185-1688, Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iv) of Executive Order 13382 for being owned or controlled by Iran's Aviation Industries Organization, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
5. ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARD CORPS ELECTRONIC WARFARE AND CYBER DEFENSE ORGANIZATION (a.k.a. IRGC JANGAL ORGANIZATION), Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [SDGT] [IRGC] [IFSR] [HRIT-IR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(D) of Executive Order 13606 of April 22, 2012, “Blocking the Property and Suspending the Entry Into the United States of Certain Persons With Respect to Grave Human Rights Abuses by the Governments of Iran and Syria via Information Technology” (“E.O. 13606”), for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, Iran's ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARD CORPS, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13606.
6. NATIONAL CYBERSPACE CENTER, Saadat Abad Avenue, North Allameh Street, West 18th Alley—No 17, Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [IRAN-TRA].
Designated pursuant to section 3(a)(iii) of Executive Order 13628 of October 9, 2012, “Authorizing the Implementation of Certain Sanctions Set Forth in the Iran Threat Reduction and Syria Human Rights Act of 2012 and Additional Sanctions With Respect to Iran” (“E.O. 13628”), for being owned or controlled by Iran's SUPREME COUNCIL OF CYBERSPACE.
7. PARDAZAN SYSTEM NAMAD ARMAN (a.k.a. PARDAZAN SYSTEM HOUSES ARMAN; a.k.a. PASNA; a.k.a. PASNA INDUSTRY CO.; a.k.a. PASNA INTERNATION TRADING CO.), Number 8, Unit 14, Tavana Building, Khan Babaei Alley, Nik Zare Street, Akbari Street, Ashrafti Esfahani Avenue, Tehran, Iran; Ghodarzi Alley, Building No. 11, Alborz, Third Floor, No. 9, Monacoheri St., Saadi St., Tehran, Iran; Sa'di St., Manoucohehri St., Goodarzi Alley, Building No. 11, Alborz, Third Floor, No. 9, Tehran, Iran; website
Designated pursuant to sections 1(a)(iii) of E.O. 13382 for having provided, or attempted to provide, financial, material, technological or other support for, or goods or services in support of, Iran's ELECTRONIC COMPONENTS INDUSTRIES, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
8. RAJAEE SHAHR PRISON (a.k.a. GOHARDASHT PRISON; a.k.a. RAJAEI SHAHR PRISON; a.k.a. RAJAI-SHAHR PRISON), Karaj, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [IRAN-HR].
Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(A) of E.O. 13553 for being an official of the Government of Iran or a person acting on behalf of the Government of Iran (including members of paramilitary organizations) who is responsible for or complicit in, or responsible for ordering, controlling, or otherwise directing, the commission of serious human rights abuses against persons in Iran or Iranian citizens or residents, or the family members of the foregoing, on or after June 12, 2009, regardless of whether such abuses occurred in Iran.
9. SUPREME COUNCIL OF CYBERSPACE, Saadat Abad, Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [IRAN-TRA].
Designated pursuant to section 3(a)(i) of E.O. 13628 for having engaged in censorship or other activities with respect to Iran on or after June 12, 2009, that prohibit, limit, or penalize the exercise of freedom of expression or assembly by citizens of Iran, or that limit access to print or broadcast media, including the facilitation or support of intentional frequency manipulation by the Government of Iran or an entity owned or controlled by the Government of Iran that would jam or restrict an international signal.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before March 20, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Brian McCarthy at (202) 461-6345.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
38 CFR part 16.
Recruitment Screening Module—517 hours.
Spirometry Screening Module—1,033 hours.
Military Overview Module—517 hours.
OEF/OIF/OND Location Module—1,550 hours.
Non-OEF/OIF/OND Location Module—1,550 hours.
OEF/OIF/OND Exposure Module—1,033 hours.
Non-OEF/OIF/OND Exposure Module—1,033 hours.
Civilian Occupation and Hobby Exposure Module—517 hours.
Health, Smoking, and Demographics Module—1,550 hours.
Medication and Dietary Supplement Module—1,033 hours.
Participant Status Check-In Module—517 hours.
Spirometry—3,617 hours.
Medical History Module—517 hours.
Functional Health Module—413 hours.
Health Symptoms Module—310 hours.
Current Mood Module—517 hours.
Participant Feedback Module—310 hours.
Post-Visit Feedback Module—52 hours.
Recruitment Screening Module—5 minutes.
Spirometry Screening Module—10 minutes.
Military Overview Module—5 minutes.
OEF/OIF/OND Location Module—15 minutes.
Non-OEF/OIF/OND Location Module—15 minutes.
OEF/OIF/OND Exposure Module—10 minutes.
Non-OEF/OIF/OND Exposure Module—10 minutes.
Civilian Occupation and Hobby Exposure Module—5 minutes.
Health, Smoking, and Demographics Module—15 minutes.
Medication and Dietary Supplement Module—10 minutes.
Participant Status Check-In Module—5 minutes.
Spirometry—35 minutes.
Medical History Module—5 minutes.
Functional Health Module—4 minutes.
Health Symptoms Module—3 minutes.
Current Mood Module—5 minutes.
Participant Feedback Module—3 minutes.
Post-Visit Feedback Module—10 minutes.
Recruitment Screening Module—6200.
Spirometry Screening Module—6200.
Military Overview Module—6200.
OEF/OIF/OND Location Module—6200.
Non-OEF/OIF/OND Location Module—6200.
OEF/OIF/OND Exposure Module- 6200.
Non-OEF/OIF/OND Exposure Module—6200.
Civilian Occupation and Hobby Exposure Module—6200.
Health, Smoking, and Demographics Module—6200.
Medication and Dietary Supplement Module—6200.
Participant Status Check-In Module- 6200.
Spirometry—6200.
Medical History Module—6200.
Functional Health Module—6200.
Health Symptoms Module—6200.
Current Mood Module—6200.
Participant Feedback Module—6200.
Post-Visit Feedback Module—310.
By direction of the Secretary.
Loan Guaranty Service, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Loan Guaranty Service, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before February 20, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
Public Law 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary:
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veteran's Benefits Administration (VBA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before March 20, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor at (202) 461-5870.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
38 U.S.C. 1506.
VBA uses Eligibility Verification Reports to receive income and net worth information from Pension and Parents DIC claimants and beneficiaries to evaluate eligibility to benefits. The reported information can result in increased or decreased benefits. Typically, claimants and beneficiaries utilize the form to inform VA of changes in their income or net worth, though the forms could also be used to reopen a claim for benefits in limited circumstances.
By direction of the Secretary:
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veteran's Benefits Administration (VBA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or March 20, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor at (202) 461-5870.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct
With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
38 U.S.C. 1310 through 1314 and 1532 through 1543.
By direction of the Secretary.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |