Page Range | 4831-5028 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 4831 - Protecting America Through Lawful Detention of Terrorists | |
83 FR 4930 - Sunshine Act Meeting of the National Museum and Library Services Board | |
83 FR 4849 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Atlantic Deep-Sea Red Crab Fishery; 2018 Atlantic Deep-Sea Red Crab Specifications | |
83 FR 4913 - Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization; Texas Eastern Transmission, LP | |
83 FR 4912 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Campus Safety and Security Survey | |
83 FR 4920 - Exxon Valdez Oil Spill Public Advisory Committee; Call for Nominations | |
83 FR 4905 - North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA), Article 1904 Binational Panel Review: Notice of Request for Panel Review in the Matter of Softwood Lumber From Canada: Determinations (Secretariat File Number: USA-CDA-2018-1904-03) | |
83 FR 4917 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
83 FR 4953 - Notice of Modification to Previously Published Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment | |
83 FR 4914 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
83 FR 4941 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade the Shares of the ProShares Bitcoin ETF and the ProShares Short Bitcoin ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.200-E, Commentary .02 | |
83 FR 4949 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance Rules | |
83 FR 4934 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq MRX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance Rules | |
83 FR 4947 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance Rules | |
83 FR 4936 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq GEMX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance Rules | |
83 FR 4942 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance Rules | |
83 FR 4944 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Revise The Options Clearing Corporation's Schedule of Fees | |
83 FR 4916 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
83 FR 4916 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
83 FR 4850 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; Fisheries Off West Coast States; Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery; 2017-18 Biennial Specifications and Management Measures; Inseason Adjustments | |
83 FR 4890 - Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Spiny Lobster Fishery of the Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic; Regulatory Amendment 4 | |
83 FR 4938 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 4943 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 4936 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 4946 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 4882 - Anchorage Grounds; Saint Lawrence Seaway, Cape Vincent, New York | |
83 FR 4919 - Announcement of Public Meeting via Teleconference; North American Wetlands Conservation Council | |
83 FR 4964 - Migratory Bird Hunting; Proposed Frameworks for Migratory Bird Hunting Regulations | |
83 FR 4932 - North Anna Power Station Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation | |
83 FR 4930 - NASA Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel; Meeting | |
83 FR 4911 - Procurement List; Proposed Addition and Deletions | |
83 FR 4910 - Procurement List; Additions | |
83 FR 4918 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 4896 - Foreign-Trade Zone 81-Portsmouth, New Hampshire; Application for Reorganization Under Alternative Site Framework | |
83 FR 4901 - Certain Tapered Roller Bearings From the Republic of Korea: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less-Than-Fair-Value, Postponement of Final Determination, and Extension of Provisional Measures | |
83 FR 4899 - Forged Steel Fittings From the People's Republic of China, Italy, and Taiwan: Postponement of Preliminary Determinations in the Less-Than-Fair-Value Investigations | |
83 FR 4910 - Meeting of the Columbia Basin Partnership Task Force of the Marine Fisheries Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 4931 - Large Scale Networking (LSN)-Joint Engineering Team (JET) | |
83 FR 4931 - Large Scale Networking (LSN)-Middleware and Grid Interagency Coordination (MAGIC) Team | |
83 FR 4921 - Notice of Intent To Amend the California Desert Conservation Area, Bakersfield, and Bishop Resource Management Plans and Prepare Associated Environmental Impact Statements or Environmental Assessments | |
83 FR 4843 - 2017 Quarterly Listings; Safety Zones, Security Zones, Special Local Regulations, Drawbridge Operation Regulations and Regulated Navigation Areas | |
83 FR 4838 - 2017 Quarterly Listings; Safety Zones, Security Zones, Special Local Regulations, Drawbridge Operation Regulations and Regulated Navigation Areas | |
83 FR 4840 - 2017 Quarterly Listings; Safety Zones, Security Zones, Special Local Regulations, Drawbridge Operation Regulations and Regulated Navigation Areas | |
83 FR 4913 - Methane Hydrate Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 4894 - Notice of Request for Renewal of an Approved Information Collection (Mechanically Tenderized Beef Products) | |
83 FR 4915 - Consumer Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 4911 - Notice of Availability of the Record of Decision (ROD) for the Environmental Impact Statement for Multiple Projects in Support of Marine Barracks Washington, DC | |
83 FR 4884 - Exemptions To Permit Circumvention of Access Controls on Copyrighted Works: Notice of Public Hearings | |
83 FR 4954 - Notice of Establishment of Emergency Relief Docket for Calendar Year 2018 | |
83 FR 4845 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Anacostia River, Washington, DC | |
83 FR 4924 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of a Currently Approved Collection | |
83 FR 4916 - Notice to All Interested Parties of Intent To Terminate the Receivership of 10073, The Elizabeth State Bank, Elizabeth, Illinois | |
83 FR 4900 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Application for Export Trade Certificate of Review | |
83 FR 4961 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Application for Assumption Approval and/or Release From Personal Liability to the Government on a Home Loan | |
83 FR 4961 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Matured Endowment Notification | |
83 FR 4960 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Application for Individualized Tutorial Assistance | |
83 FR 4922 - Citric Acid and Certain Citrate Salts From Belgium, Colombia, and Thailand; Scheduling of the Final Phase of Countervailing Duty and Antidumping Duty Investigations | |
83 FR 4931 - Advisory Committee on the Medical Uses of Isotopes; Call for Nominations | |
83 FR 4927 - Petitions for Modification of Application of Existing Mandatory Safety Standards | |
83 FR 4950 - Global Magntisky Human Rights Accountability Act Annual Report | |
83 FR 4914 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comments Request | |
83 FR 4934 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards; Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittee on Planning and Procedures; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 4897 - Order Temporarily Denying Export Privileges | |
83 FR 4834 - International Services Surveys: BE-120 Benchmark Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property With Foreign Persons | |
83 FR 4896 - Notice of Request for Revision of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
83 FR 4895 - Notice of Request for Revision of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
83 FR 4886 - Air Plan Approval; Georgia; Regional Haze Plan and Prong 4 (Visibility) for the 2012 PM2.5 | |
83 FR 4957 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Revision of an Approved Information Collection; Submission for OMB Review; Company-Run Annual Stress Test Reporting Template and Documentation for Covered Institutions With Total Consolidated Assets of $50 Billion or More Under the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act | |
83 FR 4955 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Renewal; Submission for OMB Review; Bank Activities and Operations; Investment in Bank Premises | |
83 FR 4956 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Renewal; Comment Request; International Regulation | |
83 FR 4959 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Renewal; Comment Request; Customer Complaint Form | |
83 FR 4847 - Air Plan Approval; Indiana; Regional Haze Five-Year Progress Report State Implementation Plan | |
83 FR 4926 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Trade Adjustment Assistance Community College and Career Training Grant Program Reporting Requirements | |
83 FR 4845 - Air Plan Approval; Ohio; Infrastructure SIP Requirements for the 2012 PM2.5 | |
83 FR 4909 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Marine Recreational Information Program Social Network Survey | |
83 FR 4903 - Low Melt Polyester Staple Fiber From Taiwan: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, Postponement of Final Determination, and Extension of Provisional Measures | |
83 FR 4906 - Low Melt Polyester Staple Fiber From the Republic of Korea: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances, in Part, Postponement of Final Determination, and Extension of Provisional Measures | |
83 FR 4925 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Air Act, CERCLA and EPCRA | |
83 FR 4908 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Fisheries Finance Program Requirements | |
83 FR 4863 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace, Amendment of Class D Airspace, and Revocation of Class E Airspace; Tacoma, WA | |
83 FR 4833 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; for the Following Ohio Towns; Millersburg, OH and Coshocton, OH | |
83 FR 4865 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and E Airspace; Casper, WY | |
83 FR 4866 - Proposed Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Atwater, CA | |
83 FR 4868 - Centralized Partnership Audit Regime: Adjusting Tax Attributes | |
83 FR 4998 - Authorizing Permissive Use of the “Next Generation” Broadcast Television Standard |
Food Safety and Inspection Service
Rural Housing Service
Economic Analysis Bureau
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Navy Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Coast Guard
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
Employment and Training Administration
Mine Safety and Health Administration
Copyright Office, Library of Congress
Institute of Museum and Library Services
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Transit Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action amends Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Holmes County Airport, Millersburg, OH; and at Richard Downing Airport, Coshocton, OH due to the decommissioning of Tiverton VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Distance Measuring Equipment (DME), cancellation of the VOR approaches, and implementation of area navigation (RNAV) procedures have made this action necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at these airports. Additionally, the geographic coordinates at Richard Downing Airport and Holmes County Airport would be adjusted to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Effective 0901 UTC, May 24, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Walter Tweedy, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5900.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Holmes County Airport, Millersburg, OH and Richard Downing Airport, Coshocton, OH to support IFR operations at these airports.
The FAA published in the
Subsequent to publication, an edit was made removing the city in the airspace designation for Holmes County Airport to comply with a recent change to FAA Order 7400.2L, Procedures for Handling Airspace Matters.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 modifies Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius (reduced from a 6.7-mile radius) at Holmes County Airport, Millersburg, OH. The segments within 2.7 miles either side of the 085° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.7-mile radius to 10.5 miles east of the airport and within 1.8 miles either side of the 236° bearing from the airport, extending from the 6.7-mile radius to 8 miles southwest of the airport, would be removed. This action also updates the geographic coordinates of Holmes County Airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Additionally, the city is removed from the airport name in the airspace description to comply with a recent change to FAA Order 7400.2L, Procedures for Handling Airspace Matters, dated October 12, 2017.
This action also modifies Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius (increased from a 6.3-mile radius) at Richard Downing Airport, Coshocton, OH, with a segment within 2.0 miles (reduced from 4- miles) either side of the 037° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.5-mile radius to 8.6 miles (reduced from 10- miles) northeast of the airport. This action also updates the geographic coordinates of
This action enhances the safety and management of standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at these airports.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of the Holmes County Airport.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of Richard Downing Airport and within 2.0 miles either side of the 037° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.5-mile radius to 8.6 miles northeast of the airport.
Bureau of Economic Analysis, Commerce.
Final rule.
This final rule amends regulations of the Department of Commerce's Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA) to set forth the reporting requirements for the mandatory BE-120 Benchmark Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property with Foreign Persons. This survey applies to the 2017 fiscal reporting year. The benchmark survey covers the universe of transactions in selected services and intellectual property and is BEA's most comprehensive survey of such transactions. For the 2017 benchmark survey, BEA is making changes to the reporting requirements of the survey, the data items collected, and the design of the survey form to satisfy changing data needs and to improve data quality and the effectiveness and efficiency of data collections.
This final rule is effective March 5, 2018.
Christopher Stein, Chief, Services Surveys Branch (BE-50), Balance of Payments Division, Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce, 4600 Silver Hill Rd., Washington, DC 20233; phone (301) 278-9189; or via email at
On November 15, 2017, BEA published a notice of proposed rulemaking that set forth the revised reporting criteria for the BE-120 Benchmark Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property with Foreign Persons (82 FR 52863). No comments on the proposed rule were received.
This final rule amends 15 CFR part 801 to set forth the reporting requirements for the BE-120 Benchmark Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property with Foreign Persons.
BEA typically conducts the BE-120 survey once every five years under the authority of the International Investment and Trade in Services Surveys Act (22 U.S.C. 3101-3108).
In 2012, BEA established regulatory guidelines for collecting data on international trade in services and direct investment (77 FR 24373; April 24, 2012). This final rule, unlike most annual or quarterly BEA surveys conducted pursuant to the Act, amends those regulations to require a response from persons subject to the reporting requirements of the BE-120, whether or not they are contacted by BEA.
The benchmark survey covers the universe of selected services and intellectual property transactions with foreign persons and is BEA's most detailed survey of such transactions. In nonbenchmark years, the universe estimates covering these transactions are derived from the sample data reported on BEA's BE-125 Quarterly Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property with Foreign Persons. The purpose of the benchmark
This final rule amends the regulations (15 CFR part 801) and the survey form for the BE-120 benchmark survey. These amendments include changes to the reporting requirements for those not subject to reporting on the mandatory schedule(s) of the survey, changes in data items collected, and changes to the design of the survey form.
BEA changes the reporting requirements for reporters with transactions in covered services below the threshold for mandatory reporting on the schedule(s) of the survey ($2 million in combined sales or $1 million in combined purchases for fiscal year 2017).
BEA adds and modifies some items on the benchmark survey form. The following items are added to the benchmark survey:
(1) Mandatory questions are added to collect information on contract manufacturing services. Reporters are required to provide a description of the primary manufactured (finished) good and the materials received or provided for further processing. Reporters are required to identify, on mandatory Schedule(s) A and B, as applicable, the foreign country(ies) involved in the transaction(s) and to distribute the amounts reported for each country according to whether the foreign person is the U.S. person's foreign affiliate, part of the U.S. person's foreign parent group, or an unaffiliated foreign person. As a result of respondent feedback obtained through various agency outreach efforts, BEA has decided not to collect the additional proposed aggregate and country-level detail on sales and purchases to foreign persons for: (1) The cost of materials received or provided for use in the manufacturing process, (2) the primary country of origin of the inputs used, (3) the final value of the product returned after the manufacturing service was completed, and (4) the primary country of destination of the finished product.
(2) Mandatory questions are added to collect new information on services transactions that were conducted remotely,
In addition, this final rule makes the following modifications to the survey form:
(1) Mandatory Schedules A and B are expanded to collect additional detail on intellectual property (IP) transactions. A U.S. person who engages in IP transactions with foreign persons is required to distribute their sales (receipts) and/or purchases (payments) according to the type of transaction and the type of IP. The covered transaction types are: (1) Transactions for the rights to use IP, (2) transactions for the rights to reproduce and/or distribute IP, and (3) transactions for the outright sales or purchases of IP. Reporters are required to identify the foreign country(ies) involved in the transaction(s) and to distribute the amounts reported for each country according to whether the foreign person is the U.S. person's foreign affiliate, part of the U.S. person's foreign parent group, or an unaffiliated foreign person.
(2) Research and development services are broken out into two categories: (1) Provision of customized and non-customized R&D services, and (2) other R&D services, including testing.
(3) Engineering, architectural, and surveying services are broken out into three categories: (1) Architectural services; (2) engineering services; (3) surveying, cartography, certification, testing, and technical inspection services. The current category of industrial engineering services has been dropped and captured within engineering services.
(4) Management, consulting, and public relation services are broken out into three categories: (1) Market research services; (2) public opinion polling services; and (3) other management, consulting, and public relations services. Trade exhibition and sales convention services are collected separately.
(5) Database and other information services are broken out into two components: (1) News agency services, and (2) other information services.
(6) Computer services are expanded into three categories: (1) Computer software, including end-user licenses and customization services; (2) cloud computing and data storage services; and (3) other computer services.
(7) Several service categories previously collected under “Other selected services” are collected separately. These services include audiovisual services, artistic-related services, health services, heritage and recreational services, other personal services, disbursements for sales promotion and representation, photographic services (including satellite photography), and space transport services.
(8) Mandatory Schedule C only collects related goods details for construction services. Mining services as well as the three new categories that replace engineering, architectural, and surveying services (see (3) above) are collected on Schedule A.
(9) The identification of transaction types and voluntary reporting of additional country and affiliation detail has been streamlined. All reporters, regardless of the amount of their transactions in covered services are required to provide a total dollar amount for their sales and purchases, as applicable, by transaction type. Reporters with transactions below the threshold have the option to voluntarily report information on transactions by country and by affiliation on the standard reporting schedules.
In addition, BEA has redesigned the format and wording of the survey. The new design incorporates improvements made to other BEA surveys as well as enhancements from a recent cognitive review conducted with selected survey respondents. Survey instructions and data item descriptions have been changed to improve clarity and ensure the benchmark survey form is more consistent with other BEA surveys.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of E.O. 12866.
This rule is not an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866. Additionally, this rule is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order 13771 because this rule results in no more than
This final rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications sufficient to warrant preparation of a Federalism assessment under E.O. 13132.
The collection-of-information in this final rule was submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) pursuant to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520 (PRA). OMB approved the reinstatement of the information collection under OMB control number 0608-0058.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA unless that collection displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The BE-120 survey is expected to result in the filing of reports from approximately 15,500 respondents. Approximately 11,500 respondents will report mandatory data on the survey, and approximately 4,000 will file exemption claims. The respondent burden for this collection-of-information will vary from one respondent to another but is estimated to average (1) 23 hours for the 5,000 respondents that file mandatory or voluntary data by country and affiliation for relevant transaction types on the mandatory schedules; (2) 4 hours for the 6,500 respondents that file mandatory data by transaction type but not by country or affiliation—including time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information; and (3) 1 hour for other responses. Thus, the total respondent burden for this survey is estimated at 145,000 hours, or about 9.5 hours (145,000 hours/15,500 respondents) per response, compared to 105,000 hours, or about 7 hours (105,000/15,000) for the previous BE-120 benchmark survey in 2011. The increase in burden hours is due to an increase in the size of the respondent universe as well as changes to the reporting requirements and content of the survey.
Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection-of-information requirements contained in the final rule should be sent to both BEA via email at
The Chief Counsel for Regulation, Department of Commerce, certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy, Small Business Administration, under the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 605(b), that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for the certification was published in the proposed rule and is not repeated here. No final regulatory flexibility analysis was prepared, as no comments were received regarding the determination that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Economic statistics, Foreign trade, International transactions, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For reasons set forth in the preamble, BEA amends 15 CFR part 801 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 15 U.S.C. 4908; 22 U.S.C. 3101-3108; E.O. 11961 (3 CFR, 1977 Comp., p. 86), as amended by E.O. 12318 (3 CFR, 1981 Comp. p. 173); and E.O. 12518 (3 CFR, 1985 Comp. p. 348).
Except for surveys subject to rulemaking in §§ 801.7, 801.8, 801.9, 801.10, and 801.11, reporting requirements for all other surveys conducted by the Bureau of Economic Analysis shall be as follows:
(a) Notice of specific reporting requirements, including who is required to report, the information to be reported, the manner of reporting, and the time and place of filing reports, will be published by the Director of the Bureau of Economic Analysis in the
(b) In accordance with section 3104(b)(2) of title 22 of the United States Code, persons notified of these surveys and subject to the jurisdiction of the United States shall furnish, under oath, any report containing information which is determined to be necessary to carry out the surveys and studies provided for by the Act; and
(c) Persons not notified in writing of their filing obligation by the Bureau of Economic Analysis are not required to complete the survey.
The BE-120 Benchmark Survey of Transactions in Selected Services and Intellectual Property with Foreign Persons will be conducted covering fiscal year 2017. All legal authorities, provisions, definitions, and requirements contained in §§ 801.1 and 801.2 and §§ 801.4 through 801.6 are applicable to this survey. Specific additional rules and regulations for the BE-120 survey are given in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. More detailed instructions are given on the report form and in instructions accompanying the report form.
(a)
(1) Completing and returning the BE-120 by the due date of the survey; or
(2) If exempt, by completing the determination of reporting status section of the BE-120 survey and returning it to BEA by the due date of the survey.
(b)
(c)
(2) A U.S. person that had combined sales to foreign persons that were $2 million or less or combined purchases from foreign persons that were $1 million or less in the intellectual property or services categories covered by the survey during its 2017 fiscal year, on an accrual basis, is required to provide the total sales and/or purchases for each type of transaction in which they engaged. The $2 million threshold for sales and the $1 million threshold for purchases should be applied to services and intellectual property transactions with foreign persons by all parts of the consolidated domestic U.S. Reporter. Because the $2 million threshold for sales and $1 million threshold for purchases apply separately to sales and purchases, the mandatory reporting requirement may apply only to sales, only to purchases, or to both.
(i) Voluntary reporting: If, during fiscal year 2017, combined sales were $2 million or less, on an accrual basis, the U.S. person may, in addition to providing the required total for each type of transaction, report sales at a country and affiliation level of detail on the applicable mandatory schedule(s). Provision of this additional detail is voluntary. The estimates may be judgmental, that is, based on recall, without conducting a detailed records search.
(ii) If, during fiscal year 2017, combined purchases were $1 million or less, on an accrual basis, the U.S. person may, in addition to providing the required total for each type of transaction, report purchases at a country and affiliation level of detail on the applicable mandatory schedule(s). Provision of this additional detail is voluntary. The estimates may be judgmental, that is, based on recall, without conducting a detailed records search.
(3) Exemption claims: Any U.S. person that receives the BE-120 survey form from BEA, but is not subject to the reporting requirements, must file an exemption claim by completing the determination of reporting status section of the BE-120 survey and returning it to BEA by the due date of the survey. This requirement is necessary to ensure compliance with reporting requirements and efficient administration of the Act by eliminating unnecessary follow-up contact.
(d)
(1) Rights related to the use of a patent, process, or trade secret to produce and/or distribute a product or service;
(2) Outright sales of proprietary rights related to patents, processes, and trade secrets;
(3) Rights to use books, music, etc., including end-user rights related to digital content;
(4) Rights to reproduce and/or distribute books, music, etc.;
(5) Outright sales of proprietary rights related to books, music, etc.;
(6) Rights to use trademarks;
(7) Outright sales of proprietary rights related to trademarks;
(8) Rights to use recorded performances and events, including end-user rights related to digital content;
(9) Rights to reproduce and/or distribute recorded performances and events;
(10) Outright sales of proprietary rights related to recorded performances and events;
(11) Rights to broadcast and record live performances and events;
(12) Rights to reproduce and/or distribute general use computer software;
(13) Outright sales of proprietary rights related to general use computer software;
(14) Fees associated with business format franchising;
(15) Outright sales of proprietary rights related to business format franchising;
(16) Rights to use other intellectual property;
(17) Rights to reproduce and/or distribute other intellectual property;
(18) Outright sales of proprietary rights related to other intellectual property;
(19) Accounting, auditing, and bookkeeping services;
(20) Advertising services;
(21) Auxiliary insurance services;
(22) Computer software, including end-user licenses and customization services;
(23) Cloud computing and data storage services;
(24) Other computer services;
(25) Construction services;
(26) News agency services (excludes production costs related to news broadcasters);
(27) Other information services;
(28) Education services;
(29) Architectural services;
(30) Engineering services;
(31) Surveying, cartography, certification, testing and technical inspection services;
(32) Financial services;
(33) Maintenance services;
(34) Installation, alteration, and training services;
(35) Legal services;
(36) Market research services;
(37) Public opinion polling services;
(38) Other management, consulting, and public relations services;
(39) Merchanting services (net receipts);
(40) Mining services;
(41) Operational leasing;
(42) Trade-related services, other than merchanting services;
(43) Artistic-related services;
(44) Premiums paid on primary insurance;
(45) Losses recovered on primary insurance;
(46) Provision of customized and non-customized research and development services;
(47) Other research and development services;
(48) Telecommunications services;
(49) Health services;
(50) Heritage and recreational services;
(51) Audiovisual and production services;
(52) Contract manufacturing services;
(53) Disbursements for sales promotion and representation;
(54) Photographic services (including satellite photography services);
(55) Space transport services;
(56) Trade exhibition and sales convention services;
(57) Agricultural services;
(58) Waste treatment and depollution services; and
(59) Other selected services n.i.e. (not included elsewhere).
(e)
(2) Sales and purchases of financial instruments, including stocks, bonds, financial derivatives, loans, mutual fund shares, and negotiable CDs. (However, securities brokerage is a service).
(3) Income on financial instruments (interest, dividends, capital gain distributions, etc).
(4) Compensation paid to, or received by, employees.
(5) Penalties and fines and gifts or grants in the form of goods and cash (sometimes called “transfers”).
(f)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notification of expired temporary rules issued.
This document provides notification of substantive rules issued by the Coast Guard that were made temporarily effective but expired before they could be published in the
This document lists temporary Coast Guard rules that became effective, primarily between April 2017 to June 2017, unless otherwise indicated, and were terminated before they could be published in the
Temporary rules listed in this document may be viewed online, under their respective docket numbers, using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For questions on this document contact Yeoman First Class David Hager, Office of Regulations and Administrative Law, telephone (202) 372-3862.
Coast Guard District Commanders and Captains of the Port (COTP) must be immediately responsive to the safety and security needs within their jurisdiction; therefore, District Commanders and COTPs have been delegated the authority to issue certain local regulations.
Timely publication of these rules in the
The following unpublished rules were placed in effect temporarily during the period between April 2017 to June 2017 unless otherwise indicated. To view copies of these rules, visit
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notification of expired temporary rules issued.
This document provides notification of substantive rules issued by the Coast Guard that were made temporarily effective but expired before they could be published in the
This document lists temporary Coast Guard rules that became effective, primarily between January 2017 to March 2017, unless otherwise indicated, and were terminated before they could be published in the
Temporary rules listed in this document may be viewed online, under their respective docket numbers, using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For questions on this document contact Yeoman First Class David Hager, Office of Regulations and Administrative Law, telephone (202) 372-3862.
Coast Guard District Commanders and Captains of the Port (COTP) must be immediately responsive to the safety and security needs within their jurisdiction; therefore, District Commanders and COTPs have been delegated the authority to issue certain local regulations.
Timely publication of these rules in the
The following unpublished rules were placed in effect temporarily during the period between January 2017 to March 2017unless otherwise indicated. To view copies of these rules, visit
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notification of expired temporary rules issued.
This document provides notification of substantive rules issued by the Coast Guard that were made temporarily effective but expired before they could be published in the
This document lists temporary Coast Guard rules that became effective, primarily between July 2017 to September 2017, unless otherwise indicated, and were terminated before they could be published in the
Temporary rules listed in this document may be viewed online, under their respective docket numbers, using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For questions on this document contact Yeoman First Class David Hager, Office of Regulations and Administrative Law, telephone (202) 372-3862.
Coast Guard District Commanders and Captains of the Port (COTP) must be immediately responsive to the safety and security needs within their jurisdiction; therefore, District Commanders and COTPs have been delegated the authority to issue certain local regulations.
Timely publication of these rules in the
The following unpublished rules were placed in effect temporarily during the period between July 2017 to September 2017 unless otherwise indicated. To view copies of these rules, visit
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Frederick Douglass Memorial Bridge across the Anacostia River, mile 1.2, at Washington, DC. The deviation is necessary to accommodate the construction and replacement of the existing Frederick Douglass Memorial Bridge with a fixed bridge on an alignment 18 feet south of the existing bridge. The current Frederick Douglass Memorial Bridge will be removed in its entirety. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position during construction.
This deviation is effective from 6 a.m. on February 2, 2018, through 6 a.m. on August 1, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2018-0085], is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Marty Bridges, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard; telephone (757) 398-6422, email
The District of Columbia Department of Transportation, who owns and operates the Frederick Douglass Memorial Bridge, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulation. This temporary deviation is necessary to facilitate the construction and replacement of the existing Frederick Douglass Memorial Bridge with a fixed bridge on an alignment 18 feet south of the existing bridge. The existing bridge is a swing span bridge, and has a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 42 feet above mean high water.
The current operating schedule is set out in 33 CFR 117.253. Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will be maintained in the closed-to-navigation position from 6 a.m. on February 2, 2018, through 6 a.m. on August 1, 2018. The Anacostia River is used by a variety of vessels including small commercial vessels and recreational vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully coordinated the restrictions with waterway users in publishing this temporary deviation.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at anytime. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels unable to pass through the bridge in the closed position. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notice to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessels can arrange their transits to minimize any impacts caused by this temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving elements of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission from Ohio regarding the infrastructure requirements of section 110 of the Clean Air Act for the 2012 annual fine particulate matter (PM
This final rule is effective on March 5, 2018.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2015-0824. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Anthony Maietta, Environmental Protection Specialist, Control Strategies Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 353-8777,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
On December 4, 2015, the Ohio Environmental Protection Agency (OEPA) submitted a request for EPA to approve its infrastructure SIP for the 2012 annual PM
The December 4, 2015 OEPA submittal included a demonstration that Ohio's SIP contains sufficient major programs related to the interstate transport of pollution, and demonstrates
Our December 7, 2017 proposed rule provided a 30-day review and comment period. The comment period closed on January 8, 2018. EPA received 17 anonymous comments that were not relevant and/or not adverse, and one supportive comment from a student at Cornell University.
EPA approved the majority of Ohio's 2012 PM
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by April 3, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the state of Indiana on March 30, 2016. Indiana's SIP revision addresses requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA) and EPA's rules that require states to submit periodic reports describing progress toward reasonable progress goals (RPGs) established for regional haze and a determination of the adequacy of the state's existing regional haze SIP. Indiana's progress report notes that Indiana has implemented the measures in the regional haze SIP due to be in place by the date of the progress report and that Federal Class I areas affected by emissions from Indiana are meeting or exceeding the RPGs for 2018. Indiana also determined that the state's regional haze SIP is adequate to meet these reasonable progress goals for the first implementation period and requires no substantive revision at this time.
This final rule is effective on March 5, 2018.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2016-0211. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Michelle Becker, Life Scientist, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-3901,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
States are required to submit a progress report in the form of a SIP revision every five years that evaluates progress towards the RPGs for each mandatory Class I Federal area within the state and in each mandatory Class I Federal area outside the state which may be affected by emissions from within the state. See 40 CFR 51.308(g). In addition, the provisions under 40 CFR 51.308(h) require states to submit, at the same time as the 40 CFR 51.308(g) progress report, a determination of the adequacy of the state's existing regional haze SIP. The first progress report SIP is due five years after submittal of the initial regional haze SIP.
On December 7, 2017 (82 FR 57694), EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPR) proposing approval of Indiana's March 30, 2016 Regional Haze Five-Year Progress Report SIP revision on the basis that it satisfies the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g) and (h).
The specific details of Indiana's March 30, 2016 SIP revision and the rationale for EPA's approval are discussed in the NPR and will not be restated here. EPA received four comments on the proposed action, three were not relevant to the rulemaking and one was in support of the proposed approval of the Regional Haze Progress Report SIP.
EPA is approving Indiana's March 30, 2016 Regional Haze Five-Year Progress Report SIP submittal as meeting the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g) and (h).
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by April 3, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
We are implementing specifications for the 2018 Atlantic deep-sea red crab fishery, including an annual catch limit and total allowable landings limit. This action is necessary to implement allowable red crab harvest levels that will prevent overfishing and allow harvesting of optimum yield. This action is intended to establish the allowable 2018 harvest levels, consistent with the Atlantic Deep-Sea Red Crab Fishery Management Plan.
The final specifications for the 2018 Atlantic deep-sea red crab fishery are effective March 5, 2018, through February 28, 2019.
Allison Murphy, Fishery Policy Analyst, (978) 281-9122.
The Atlantic deep-sea red crab fishery is managed by the New England Fishery Management Council. The Atlantic Deep-Sea Red Crab Fishery Management Plan includes a specification process that requires the New England Fishery Management Council to recommend, on a triennial basis, an acceptable biological catch, an annual catch limit, and total allowable landings. Collectively, these are the red crab specifications. Prior to the start of fishing year 2017, the Council recommended status quo specifications for the 2017-2019 fishing years (Table 1).
On February 22, 2017, we approved status quo specifications for the 2017 fishing year, effective through February 28, 2018, and we projected status quo quotas for 2018-2019 (82 FR 11322). At the end of each fishing year, we evaluate catch information and determine if the quota has been exceeded. If a quota is exceeded, the regulations at 50 CFR 648.262(b) require a pound-for-pound reduction in a subsequent fishing year. We have reviewed available 2017 fishery information against the projected 2018 specifications. There have been no annual catch limit or total allowable landings overages, nor is there any new biological information that would require altering the projected 2018 specifications. Because no overages occurred in 2017, we are announcing the final specifications for fishing year 2018, as projected in the 2017 specifications rule (82 FR 11322), and outlined above in Table 1. These specifications are not expected to result in overfishing and adequately account for scientific uncertainty.
The 2018 fishing year starts on March 1, 2018. The fishery management plan allows for the previous year's specifications to remain in place until replaced by a subsequent specifications action (rollover provision). As a result, the 2017 specifications, also 1,775 mt, remain in effect until replaced by the 2018 specifications included in this rule.
We will publish notice in the
The NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this final rule is consistent with the Atlantic Deep-Sea Red Crab Fishery Management Plan, the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, and other applicable law.
This rule is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), we find good cause to waive prior public notice and opportunity for public comment on the catch limit and allocation adjustments because allowing time for notice and comment is unnecessary. The proposed rule provided the public with the opportunity to comment on the 2017-2019 specifications, including the projected 2018 and 2019 specifications (81 FR 86687, December 1, 2016). No comments were received on the proposed rule, and this final rule contains no changes from the projected 2018 specifications that were included in both the December 1, 2016, proposed rule and the February 22, 2017, final rule. The public and industry participants expect this action, because previously, in both the proposed rule and the final rule, we alerted the public that we would conduct a review of the latest available catch information in each of the interim years of the multi-year specifications, and announce the final quota prior to the March 1 start of the fishing year. Thus, the proposed and final rules that contained the projected 2017-2019 specifications provided a full opportunity for the public to comment on the substance and process of this action.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation, Department of Commerce, previously certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) that the 2017-2019 red crab specifications would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Implementing status quo specifications for 2018 will not change the conclusions drawn in that previous certification to the SBA. Because advance notice and the opportunity for public comment are not required for this action under the Administrative Procedure Act, or any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C.
This action does not contain a collection of information requirement for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule; inseason adjustments to biennial groundfish management measures.
This final rule announces inseason changes to management measures in the Pacific Coast groundfish fisheries. This action, which is authorized by the Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery Management Plan (PCGFMP), is intended to allow fisheries to access more abundant groundfish stocks while protecting overfished and depleted stocks.
This final rule is effective February 2, 2018.
Karen Palmigiano, phone: 206-526-4491, fax: 206-526-6736, or email:
This rule is accessible via the internet at the Office of the Federal Register website at
The PCGFMP and its implementing regulations at title 50 in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), part 660, subparts C through G, regulate fishing for over 90 species of groundfish off the coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California. Groundfish specifications and management measures are developed by the Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council), and are implemented by NMFS.
The final rule to implement the 2017-18 harvest specifications and management measures for most species of the Pacific coast groundfish fishery was published on February 7, 2017 (82 FR 9634).
The Council, in coordination with Pacific Coast Treaty Indian Tribes and the States of Washington, Oregon, and California, recommended the following changes to current groundfish management measures at its November 13-20, 2017, meeting: (1) Increasing the big skate trip limits for the shorebased individual fishing quota (IFQ) program, (2) decreasing the sablefish trip limits for limited entry fixed gear (LEFG) and open access (OA) daily trip limit (DTL) fisheries north of 36° North Latitude (N lat.), and (3) increasing the lingcod trip limits for the LEFG and OA fisheries north of 40°10′ N lat.
At the November 2017 Council meeting, the Council's Groundfish Advisory Subpanel (GAP) recommended higher trip limits for big skate for the shorebased IFQ program in 2018. For 2017-18, the annual catch limit (ACL) was set at 494 metric tons (mt), the fishery harvest guideline (HG) was 437 mt, and the trawl allocation was 414.8 mt, which includes big skate caught by the at-sea fleet. Bi-monthly trip limits for 2017-18 were set at 5,000 pounds (lbs) (January-February), 25,000 lbs (March-April), 30,000 lbs (May-June), 35,000 lbs (July-August), 10,000 lbs (September-October), and 5,000 lbs (November-December).
In November 2017, based on the partial catch data for 2017, the Groundfish Management Team (GMT) estimated that attainment of big skate in the IFQ fishery would be 88 percent for 2018, approximately 365 mt. Given that the projected attainment of big skate was approaching full attainment with status quo trip limits, the GMT modeled modest increases in trip limits for 2018 using the 2016 Groundfish Mortality Report data and 2017 catch data. The GMT's use of the additional 2017 catch data changed the projected 2018 annual targets relative to the original annual targets that were used to set the 2017-18 big skate trip limits. The two trip limit alternatives modeled by the GMT would result in higher estimated attainments (94 and 98 percent) of big skate than the estimated 88 percent attainment under the status quo trip limits. In order to maximize opportunity for vessels and increase attainment, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing, by modifying Tables 1 (North and South) to part 660, subpart D, the following trip limits for big skate in the IFQ program: Period 1, 5,000 lbs, Period 2, 30,000 lbs, Period 3, 35,000 lbs, Period 4, 40,000 lbs, Period 5, 15,000 lbs, and Period 6, 5,000 lbs. These increased trip limits are expected to increase projected attainment of the big skate IFQ allocation to 98 percent in 2018.
Sablefish are distributed coastwide with harvest specifications split north and south of 36° N lat. Trip limits in the LEFG and OA DTL fisheries, for species such as sablefish, are intended to keep attainment of the non-trawl HG within the ACL. The trip limits for sablefish for 2017-18 were established through the final rule for the 2017-18 harvest specifications (82 FR 9634) based on catch data through 2015.
Inseason catch data from 2017 suggested possible under-attainment of the sablefish non-trawl HG. During the September 2017 Council meeting, the GMT made model-based landings projections for the LEFG and OA sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N lat. for the remainder of 2017 to assist the Council in evaluating potential increases to sablefish trip limits. These projections used the most recent information available, including inseason catch data from 2017, and showed under-attainment of the 2017 sablefish non-trawl HG. Based on these projections, the LEFG and OA sablefish trip limits were raised through an inseason action on October 19, 2017 (82 FR 48656). The 2017 trip limits established through the September inseason action for LEFG and OA sablefish remain in place for 2018 until changed.
At the November 2017 Council meeting, the GMT updated the projections for the attainment of the sablefish HG for 2018 with data through October 31, 2017. These projections showed possible attainment of the sablefish allocation between 95.2 and 125.2 percent for the LEFG fishery, and
To ensure harvest remains below the sablefish ACL, the Council elected to follow a precautionary approach at the outset of 2018, by recommending decreases to sablefish trip limits in LEFG and OA sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N lat. for all periods in 2018. This approach of decreasing trip limits initially minimizes the likelihood of dramatic decreases in trip limits or closures for these fisheries later in the season, if the attainment occurs at a rate that is likely to exceed the sector's HG. With a precautionary approach in earlier periods in the year, trip limits may be increased throughout the year if attainment is projected to remain under the ACL. Trip limits for the LEFG sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N lat. are designated at Tables 2 (North and South) to part 660, subpart E. Trip limits for the OA sablefish DTL fishery north of 36° N are designated at Tables 3 (North and South) to part 660, subpart F.
The Council initially recommended a change to sablefish trip limits for all periods for the LEFG fishery. However, because NMFS cannot decrease trip limits in the middle of a trip limit period, NMFS is implementing, by modifying Tables 2 (North and South) to part 660, subpart E, trip limit changes for the LEFG sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N lat. for periods 2 through 6 only. The trip limit for these periods (2-6) would be: 1,100 lbs per week, not to exceed 3,300 lbs/2 months. Trip limits for LEFG sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N lat. for period 1 will remain as status quo.
The Council also recommended a change to sablefish trip limits for all periods for the OA fishery. However, because NMFS cannot decrease trip limits in the middle of a trip limit period, NMFS is implementing, by modifying Tables 3 (North and South) to part 660, subpart F, trip limits for sablefish in the OA sablefish DTL fishery north of 36° N lat. for periods 2 through 6 only. The trip limit for these periods (2-6) would be: 300 lbs/day, or 1 landing per week up to 1,000 lbs, not to exceed 2,000 lbs/2 months. Trip limits for OA sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N lat. for period 1 will remain as status quo.
Under these revised, lower limits, the GMT projects attainment in the LEFG between 75.1 and 102 percent, down from the status quo trip limit attainment between 95.2 and 125.2 percent. OA is predicted to be within 74.2 to 92.7 percent under revised trip limits, down from 78.8 to 98.5 percent under status quo. NMFS and the GMT will continue to monitor attainment of sablefish throughout 2018 and can revise these trip limits through future inseason actions as needed to ensure optimized opportunity is available to harvesters, while maintaining a precautionary approach to remain within the HG.
Lingcod north of 40°10′ N lat. has had low attainment in recent years (approximately 30 percent in the LEFG and OA, or non-trawl, sectors in 2016). Based on 2015 West Coast Groundfish Observer Program (WCGOP) data, current trip limits are resulting in discards of incidentally caught lingcod that would likely be landed under increased trip limits, as only approximately half of sampled regulatory discards (
No lingcod increases in trip limits were proposed during the 2017-18 biennial harvest specifications and management measures because there were on-going concerns about the incidental catch of yelloweye rockfish. However, updates to the nearshore model, including use of newly available 2016 data in the recalculation of discard ratios by the WCGOP and revised discard mortality rates, indicate there is now sufficient yelloweye rockfish for the Council to consider higher lingcod trip limit increases for 2018. The GMT determined that the projected non-trawl yelloweye rockfish impacts associated with the higher lingcod trip limits would be below what was analyzed in the 2017-18 harvest specifications and management measures, predominantly due to the updated discard mortality rates applied in the nearshore model. The GMT projected ranges of potential lingcod and yelloweye impacts from the revised trip limits to account for some inter-annual variability. The projected alternative trip limits would result in 84 to 108 mt of lingcod and 1.9 to 2.2 mt of yelloweye taken. These projected yelloweye impacts are within the nearshore HG shares for Oregon (1.4 mt) and California (0.6 mt), as well as below the non-nearshore HG (0.7 mt). These impacts will keep the 2018 removals well within the upper range analyzed in the 2015-2016 Biennial Harvest Specifications and Management Measures Final Environmental Impact Statement.
Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing, by modifying Table 2 (North) to part 660, subpart E, the following trip limits for lingcod for the LEFG fishery north of 40°10′ N latitude: January-April, 600 lbs/2 months; May-October, 1,400 lbs/2 months; November, 700 lbs; and for December, 400 lbs. The Council also recommended and NMFS is implementing, by modifying Table 3 (North) to part 660, subpart F, the following trip limits for lingcod for the OA fishery north of 40°10′ N latitude: January-April, 300 lbs per month; May-November, 700 lbs per month; and for December, 300 lbs per month.
These increased trip limits will provide increased fishing opportunity specifically for winter time access, and also will provide a steady flow of fish to markets, while still being conservative regarding yelloweye rockfish impacts.
This final rule makes routine inseason adjustments to groundfish fishery management measures, based on the best available information, consistent with the PCGFMP and its implementing regulations.
This action is taken under the authority of 50 CFR 660.60(c) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
The aggregate data upon which these actions are based are available for public inspection at the Office of the Administrator, West Coast Region, NMFS, during business hours.
NMFS finds good cause to waive prior public notice and comment on the revisions to groundfish management measures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) because notice and comment would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest. Also, for the same reasons, NMFS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), so that this final rule may become effective February 2, 2018. The adjustments to management measures in this document affect commercial fisheries off the coasts of Washington, Oregon and California. No aspect of this action is controversial, and changes of this nature were anticipated in the biennial harvest specifications and management measures established through a notice and comment rulemaking for 2017-18 (82 FR 9634).
Accordingly, for the reasons stated below, NMFS finds good cause to waive prior notice and comment and to waive the delay in effectiveness.
At its November 2017 meeting, the Council recommended an increase to shorebased IFQ program big skate trip limits be implemented as quickly as possible to allow harvest of big skate to better attain, but not exceed, the 2018 ACL. There was not sufficient time after that meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking before this action needs to be in effect. Affording the time necessary for prior notice and opportunity for public comment would prevent NMFS from managing the IFQ program using the best available science to increase harvesting opportunities without exceeding the ACLs for federally managed species in accordance with the PCGFMP and applicable law. These increases to trip limits must be implemented as quickly as possible in 2018, to allow IFQ program fishermen an opportunity to harvest higher limits for big skate coastwide throughout 2018.
It is in the public interest for fishermen to have an opportunity to harvest big skate, which contributes revenue to the coastal communities of Washington, Oregon, and California. This action, if implemented quickly, is anticipated to allow catch of big skate through the end of the 2018 to approach but not exceed the ACL, and allows harvest as intended by the Council, consistent with the best scientific information available, while providing for a responsible level of increased economic opportunity for participants.
At its November 2017 Council meeting, the Council recommended that a decrease to LEFG and OA sablefish north of 36° N lat. trip limits be implemented as quickly as possible to keep the predicted harvest of sablefish from exceeding the non-trawl HG (and correspondingly the 2018 ACL). NMFS determined that there was not sufficient time after that meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking before this action needs to be in effect. Affording the time necessary for prior notice and opportunity for public comment would prevent NMFS from managing the LEFG and OA fixed gear sablefish DTL fishery using the best available science to approach, without exceeding, the ACLs for federally managed species in accordance with the PCGFMP and applicable law. This action, if implemented quickly, is anticipated to allow harvesters to maintain a steady catch of sablefish through the end of the 2018 that will approach but not exceed the ACL, prevent sharp decreases in later season trip limits to maintain catch below the ACL, and allow harvest as intended by the Council, consistent with the best scientific information available.
At its November 2017 meeting, the Council recommended an increase to LE and OA fixed gear lingcod trip limits north of 40°10′N. lat. be implemented as quickly as possible to allow harvest of lingcod to better attain, but not exceed, the 2018 ACL. There was not sufficient time after that meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking before this action needs to be in effect before the start of or as early as possible in the 2018 fishing season. Affording the time necessary for prior notice and opportunity for public comment would prevent NMFS from managing the LE and OA fixed gear fishery using the best available science to increase harvesting opportunities without exceeding the ACLs for federally managed species in accordance with the PCGFMP and applicable law. These increases to trip limits must be implemented as quickly as possible to allow LE and OA fixed gear fishermen an opportunity to harvest higher limits for lingcod, particularly early in 2018, during the winter months.
It is in the public interest for fishermen to have an opportunity to harvest lingcod, which contributes revenue to the coastal communities of Washington, Oregon, and California. This action, if implemented quickly, is anticipated to allow catch of lingcod through the end of the 2018 to approach but not exceed the ACL, and allows harvest as intended by the Council, consistent with the best scientific information available, while providing for a responsible level of increased economic opportunity for participants.
Fisheries, Fishing, and Indian Fisheries.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 660 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E surface area airspace, and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Tacoma Narrows Airport, Tacoma, WA. This proposal also would remove Class E airspace designated as an extension at Tacoma Narrows Airport. Additionally, this action would update the geographic coordinates of the airport in Class D airspace, and make an editorial change to the Class D description replacing Airport/Facility Directory with the term Chart Supplement. These changes are necessary to accommodate airspace redesign for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations within the National Airspace System.
Comments must be received on or before March 19, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-1032; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-4, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace, amend Class D airspace, and remove E airspace at Tacoma Narrows Airport, Tacoma, WA to support IFR operations at the airport.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2017-1032; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-4”. The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by modifying Class D airspace, establishing Class E surface area airspace, removing Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E surface area, and establishing Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Tacoma Narrows Airport, Tacoma, WA.
Class D airspace would be modified to add a small extension south of the airport within 1.7 miles each side of a 189° bearing from the airport extending from the 4-mile radius to 5.3 miles south of the airport.
Class E surface area airspace would be established coincident with the dimensions of the Class D airspace and effective during the hours when the Class D is not in effect to protect IFR operations continuously.
Class E airspace designated as an extension would be removed as the extension north of the airport (within 1.8 miles each side of the 009° bearing from the Graye NDB extending from the 4-mile radius to .9 miles north of the NDB) protects no arrival aircraft within 1,000 feet of the surface. Also, the extension to the south (within 1.8 miles each side of the 187° bearing from Scenn OM extending from the 4-mile radius to 1 mile south of the OM; excluding that airspace within the Tacoma, McChord AFB, WA, Class D airspace area) protects no arrival aircraft within 1,000 feet of the surface beyond 5.3 miles south of the airport. By eliminating the unnecessary airspace, the remaining extension to the south would be less than 2 nautical miles in length, and must be Class D.
Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet would be established at Tacoma Narrows Airport within 4 miles each side of the 007° and 187° bearings from the airport extending to 8 miles north and 7 miles south of the airport. This new airspace would duplicate the larger Seattle Class E airspace area, but would ensure sufficient airspace is designated for Tacoma Narrows Airport in case of any future modification.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,800 feet MSL within a 4-mile radius of Tacoma Narrows Airport, and within 1.7 miles each side of the 189° bearing from the airport extending from the 4-mile radius to 5.3 miles south of the airport, excluding that airspace within the Tacoma, McChord AFB, WA, Class D airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 4-mile radius of the Tacoma Narrows Airport, and within 1.7 miles each side of the 189° bearing from the airport extending from the 4-mile radius to 5.3 miles south of the airport, excluding that airspace within the Tacoma, McChord AFB, WA, Class D airspace area. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within 4 miles each side of the 007° bearing from the Tacoma Narrows Airport extending to 8 miles north of the airport, and within 4 miles each side of a 187° bearing from the airport extending to 7 miles south of the airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend controlled airspace at Casper/Natrona County International Airport, Casper WY. After a biennial review, the FAA proposes to enlarge Class D airspace; remove Class E airspace designated as an extension, reduce Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface, and remove Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface. Also, this action would update the airport's name and geographic coordinates for the associated Class D and E airspace areas to reflect the FAA's current aeronautical database. These proposed changes would enhance safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport.
Comments must be received on or before March 19, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1(800) 647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-0223; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-9, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would modify Class D and E airspace at Casper/Natrona County International Airport, Casper, WY, in support of IFR operations at the airport.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (Docket No. FAA-2017-0223; Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-9) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2017-0223/Airspace Docket No. 17-ANM-9.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class D airspace and Class E surface area airspace at Casper/Natrona County International Airport (formerly Natrona County International Airport) to within a 4.9-mile radius (from a 4.3-mile radius) of the airport from the airport 294° bearing clockwise to the airport 193° bearing, and within a 7-mile radius (from a 4.3-mile radius) of the airport from the 193° bearing clockwise to the airport 294° bearing.
This proposal also would remove Class E airspace designated as an extension to Class D or E surface area.
Additionally, Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface would be reduced to within a 9.5-mile radius of the airport (from a 24-mile radius) from the airport 248° bearing clockwise to the airport 294° bearing, and within a 7-mile radius from the airport 294° bearing clockwise to the airport 004° bearing, with segments extending to 13.5 miles northeast, 10.4 miles east, 16.9 miles southwest. Also, Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface would be removed since it is wholly contained within the larger Casper Class E en route airspace, and duplication is not needed.
This proposal would also update the airport's geographic coordinates in the associated Class D and E airspace to reflect the FAA's current aeronautical database. Lastly, this action would replace the outdated term “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement” in the Class D and associated Class E airspace legal descriptions. These modifications are necessary for the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017 and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 7,800 feet MSL within a 4.9-mile radius of Casper/Natrona County International Airport clockwise from the airport 294° bearing to the airport 193° bearing and within a 7-mile radius of the airport clockwise from the airport 193° bearing to the airport 294° bearing. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 4.9-mile radius of Casper/Natrona County International Airport clockwise from the airport 294° bearing to the airport 193° bearing and within a 7-mile radius of the airport clockwise from the airport 193° bearing to the airport 294° bearing. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 9.5-mile radius of Casper/Natrona County International Airport from the airport 248° bearing clockwise to the airport 294° bearing and within a 7-mile radius of the airport from the airport 294° bearing clockwise to the airport 004° bearing and within 3.9 miles northwest and 4.8 miles southeast of the airport 036° bearing extending from the airport to 13.5 miles northeast of the airport and within 3.6 miles each side of the airport 088° bearing extending from the airport to 10.4 miles east of the airport and within 4.1 miles each side of the airport 223° bearing extending from the airport to 17 miles southwest of the airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class D airspace, and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Castle Airport, Atwater, CA, to accommodate airspace redesign due to the decommissioning of the El Nido VHF Omnidirectional Range/Distance Measuring Equipment (VOR/DME) as the FAA transitions from
Comments must be received on or before March 19, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1(800) 647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-1091; Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-26, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D and Class E airspace at Castle Airport, Atwater, CA, to accommodate airspace redesign in support of IFR operations at the airport.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (Docket No. FAA-2017-1091; Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-26) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see “
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2017-1091/Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-26.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the “
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 for airspace redesign by modifying Class D airspace to a 4.6-mile radius (from a 4.5-mile radius) of the airport from the airport 297° bearing clockwise to the airport 164° bearing, thence direct to the point of beginning. This modification would provide additional Class D airspace south of the airport and would remove Class D airspace southwest and northwest of the airport, thereby containing instrument IFR departure aircraft until reaching 700 feet above the surface, and removing airspace not required by IFR operations. Also, this action would remove the reference to the El Nido VOR/DME in the legal description due to its planned decommissioning as the FAA transitions from ground-based to satellite-based navigation.
Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface would be modified to a 7.2-mile (from a 7-mile) radius of the airport, and would remove the 23-mile extension northwest of the airport.
Additionally, the airport's geographic coordinates would be updated to match the FAA's aeronautical database for the Class D and Class E airspace areas. An editorial change also would be made to the Class E surface area airspace legal description replacing “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement”.
These actions are necessary for the safety and management of IFR operations at this airport.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6002, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017 and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface up to but not including 2,000 feet MSL within a 4.6-mile radius of Castle Airport beginning at the 297° bearing from the airport clockwise to the 164° bearing, thence to the point of beginning. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.2-mile radius of Castle Airport.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document contains proposed regulations implementing section 1101 of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015, which was enacted into law on November 2, 2015. The Bipartisan Budge Act repeals the current rules governing partnership audits and replaces them with a new centralized partnership audit regime that, in general, determines, assesses and collects tax at the partnership level. These proposed regulations provide rules addressing how partnerships and their partners adjust tax attributes to take into account partnership adjustments under the centralized partnership audit regime.
Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing must be received by May 3, 2018.
Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-118067-17), Room 5207, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-118067-17), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224. Alternatively, taxpayers may submit comments electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Concerning the proposed regulations, Allison R. Carmody or Meghan M. Howard of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries), (202) 317-5279; concerning the submission of comments, Regina L. Johnson, (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
This document contains proposed regulations that supplement the regulations proposed in the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-136118-15) published in the
For information relating to (1) the new centralized partnership audit regime enacted by the Bipartisan Budget Act (BBA), Public Law 114-74 (129 Stat. 58 (2015)) (as amended by the Protecting Americans from Tax Hikes Act of 2015, Pub. L. 114-113 (129 Stat. 2242 (2015))); (2) Notice 2016-23 (2016-13 I.R.B. 490 (March 28, 2016)), which requested comments on the new partnership audit regime enacted by the BBA; and (3) the temporary regulations (TD 9780, 81 FR 51795 (August 5, 2016)) and a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-105005-16, 81 FR 51835 (August 5, 2016)), which provided the time, form, and manner for
The June 14 NPRM addressed various issues concerning the scope and process of the new centralized partnership audit regime. Unless otherwise noted, all references to proposed regulations in this preamble refer to the regulations proposed by the June 14 NPRM.
Proposed §§ 301.6225-1, 301.6225-2, and 301.6225-3 provide rules relating to partnership adjustments, including the computation of the imputed underpayment, modification of the imputed underpayment, and the treatment of adjustments that do not result in an imputed underpayment.
Proposed § 301.6225-1 sets forth rules for computing the imputed underpayment, and proposed § 301.6225-2 sets forth the rules under which the partnership may request a modification to adjust the imputed underpayment calculated under proposed § 301.6225-1. The modification rules contained in proposed § 301.6225-2 generally allow: (1) Modifications that result in the exclusion of certain adjustments, or portions thereof, from the calculation of the imputed underpayment (such as a modification under proposed § 301.6225-2(d)(2) (amended returns by partners), (d)(3) (tax-exempt partners), (d)(5) (certain passive losses of publicly traded partnerships), (d)(7) (partnerships with partners that are qualified investment entities described in section 860 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code)), (d)(8) (partner closing agreements), and, if applicable, (d)(9) (other modifications)); (2) rate modifications, which affect only the taxable rate applied to the total netted partnership adjustment (described in proposed § 301.6225-2(d)(4)); and (3) modifications to the number and composition of imputed underpayments (described in proposed § 301.6225-2(d)(6)).
Proposed § 301.6225-3 sets forth rules for the treatment of adjustments that do not result in an imputed underpayment. In general, pursuant to proposed § 301.6225-3(b)(1) the partnership takes the adjustment into account in the adjustment year as a reduction in non-separately stated income or as an increase in non-separately stated loss depending on whether the adjustment is to an item of income or loss. Proposed § 301.6225-3(b)(2) provides that if an adjustment is to an item that is required to be separately stated under section 702 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) the adjustment shall be taken into account by the partnership on its adjustment year return as an adjustment to such separately stated item. Proposed § 301.6225-3(b)(3) provides that an adjustment to a credit is taken into account as a separately stated item.
Proposed §§ 301.6226-1, 301.6226-2, and 301.6226-3 provide rules relating to the election under section 6226 by a partnership to have its reviewed year partners take into account the partnership adjustments in lieu of paying the imputed underpayment determined under section 6225, the statements the partnership must send to its partners, and the rules for how the partners take into account the adjustments, including the computation and payment of the partners' liability. If a partnership makes the election under section 6226 to “push out” adjustments to its reviewed year partners, the partnership is not liable for the imputed underpayment. Instead, under proposed § 301.6226-3, reviewed year partners must pay any additional chapter 1 tax that results from taking the adjustments reflected on the statements into account in the reviewed year and from changes to the tax attributes in the intervening years. In addition to being liable for the additional tax, the partner must also calculate and pay any penalties, additions to tax, or additional amounts determined to be applicable during the partnership-level proceeding, and any interest determined in accordance with proposed § 301.6226-3(d).
Finally, proposed § 301.6241-1 provides definitions for purposes of the centralized partnership audit regime.
On December 19, 2017, proposed rules (REG-120232-17 and REG-120233-17) were published in the
These proposed regulations provide rules that were reserved in the June 14 NPRM under proposed §§ 301.6225-4 and 301.6226-4. It also provides related proposed amendments to §§ 1.704-1, 1.705-1, and 1.706-4. Specifically, these rules address how and when partnerships and their partners adjust tax attributes to take into account partnership adjustments under both sections 6225 and 6226. The public provided comments in response to the June 14 NPRM, and some comments discussed issues relevant to the reserved sections under proposed §§ 301.6225-4 and 301.6226-4, which were taken into consideration in drafting these proposed regulations.
Because these regulations are supplementing the regulations published in the June 14 NPRM, the numbering and ordering of some of the provisions do not follow typical conventions. The Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS anticipate that these provisions will be appropriately integrated when both these regulations and the proposed regulations in the June 14 NPRM are finalized.
These proposed rules are consistent with the policy described in “The General Explanation of Tax Legislation Enacted for 2015” (Bluebook), which explained that “[u]nder the centralized partnership audit regime, the flowthrough nature of the partnership under subchapter K of the Code is unchanged, but the partnership is treated as a point of collection of underpayments that would otherwise be the responsibility of partners.” Joint Comm. on Taxation, JCS-1-16, “General Explanations of Tax Legislation Enacted in 2015”, 57 (2016).
The preamble to the June 14 NPRM announced that the Treasury Department and the IRS intended to provide additional rules providing for adjustments to the basis of partnership property and book value of any partnership property if the partnership adjustment is a change to an item of gain, loss, amortization or depreciation (
The June 14 NPRM defines a partnership adjustment as any adjustment to any item of income, gain, loss, deduction, or credit of a partnership (as defined in proposed § 301.6221(a)-1(b)(1)), or any partner's distributive share thereof (as described in proposed § 301.6221(a)-1(b)(2)). See proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(6). Under the rules in proposed § 301.6225-1, each partnership adjustment is either (i) taken into account in the determination
Prior to the enactment of the centralized partnership audit regime, in the case of an adjustment to an item of income, gain, loss, deduction or credit in the context of an examination by the IRS for or related to a partnership, partnership adjustments were generally taken into account by the partners of the partnership for the year under examination by a new or corrected allocation of the relevant item, and partners took those items into account with respect to the partnership year under examination. In contrast, under the centralized partnership audit regime, for a partnership adjustment that is taken into account in the determination of an imputed underpayment, the partnership adjustment is generally taken into account by the partnership in the year in which the related payment obligation (the imputed underpayment) arises. Further, in light of the fact that these partnership adjustments are with respect to a partnership year that is earlier than the year in which the imputed underpayment arises, the partners of the partnership may have changed in the later year.
Under subchapter K, a partnership generally computes items of income, gain, loss, deduction or credit under section 703, which are then allocated to the partners under section 704. Under section 705, a partner increases its basis in its partnership interest (outside basis) by its distributive share of taxable income of the partnership as determined under section 703(a). However, in the case of a positive partnership adjustment that is taken into account in the determination of an imputed underpayment, section 6225 does not itself provide for an item of taxable income under section 703(a) to be allocated to partners. Instead, calculations are made at the partnership level and the partnership pays the liability in the form of an imputed underpayment. Failure to provide adjustments to outside basis that reflect the partnership adjustments that resulted in the imputed underpayment could lead to a partner being effectively taxed twice on the same item of income, once indirectly on payment of the imputed underpayment and again on a disposition of the partnership interest or on a distribution of cash by the partnership. Taxing the same item of income twice is not consistent with the flowthrough nature of partnerships under subchapter K. Thus, these proposed regulations provide for adjustment to a partner's basis in its interest—and certain other tax attributes that are interdependent with basis under subchapter K—in order to prevent effective double taxation or other distortions.
Specifically, under proposed § 301.6225-4(a)(1), when there is a partnership adjustment (as defined in proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(6)), the partnership and its adjustment year partners (as defined in proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(2)) generally must adjust their specified tax attributes (as defined in proposed § 301.6225-4(a)(2)). Specified tax attributes are the tax basis and book value of a partnership's property, amounts determined under section 704(c), adjustment year partners' bases in their partnership interests, and adjustment year partners' capital accounts determined and maintained in accordance with § 1.704-1(b)(2). See proposed § 301.6225-4(a)(2).
In the case of a partnership adjustment that results in an imputed underpayment, the adjustments to specified tax attributes must be made on a partnership-adjustment-by-partnership-adjustment basis, and thus are created separately for each partnership adjustment (whether a negative adjustment or a positive adjustment) without regard to their summation as part of the determination of the total netted partnership adjustment in proposed § 301.6225-1(c)(3). See proposed § 301.6225-4(b)(1).
The partnership must first make appropriate adjustments to the book value and basis of property to take into account any partnership adjustment. See proposed § 301.6225-4(b)(2). This rule also requires amounts determined under section 704(c) to be adjusted to take into account the partnership adjustment. The partnership does not make any adjustments to the book value or basis of partnership property with respect to property that was held by the partnership in the reviewed year but is no longer held by the partnership in the adjustment year. Comments are requested as to whether, in these situations, a partnership should be allowed to adjust the basis (or book value) of other partnership property (such as in a manner similar to the rules that apply in allocating section 734(b) adjustments under section 755 (
Proposed § 301.6225-4(b)(3) provides that notional items are then created with respect to the partnership adjustment, and these notional items are then allocated according to the rules described in section (2)(B)(iii) of this preamble. The items are considered notional items because their sole purpose is to affect partner-level specified tax attributes, and thus they are not considered to be items for purposes of adjusting other tax attributes.
In the case of a partnership adjustment that is an increase to income or gain, a notional item of income or gain is created in an amount equal to the partnership adjustment. Similarly, in the case of a partnership adjustment that is an increase to an expense or a loss, a notional item of expense or loss is created in an amount equal to the partnership adjustment. See proposed § 301.6225-4(b)(3)(ii) and (iii).
However, in the case of a partnership adjustment that is a decrease to income or gain, a notional item of expense or loss is created in an amount equal to the partnership adjustment. Similarly, in the case of a partnership adjustment that is a decrease to an expense or a loss, a notional item of income or gain is created in an amount equal to the partnership adjustment. See proposed § 301.6225-4(b)(3)(iv) and (v). These rules have the effect of reversing out the reviewed year allocation to the extent necessary to reflect the partnership adjustment.
Thus, under these proposed regulations, an adjustment year partner
Under these proposed regulations, only specified tax attributes are adjusted. Treasury Department and the IRS considered proposing broader rules for adjusting other tax attributes than those included in these proposed regulations. Tax attributes are defined in the June 14 NPRM as anything that can affect, with respect to a partnership or a partner, the amount or timing of an item of income, gain, loss, deduction, or credit (as defined in proposed § 301.6221(a)-1(b)(1)) or that can affect the amount of tax due in any taxable year. Examples of tax attributes include, but are not limited to, basis and holding period, as well as the character of items of income, gain, loss, deduction, or credit and carryovers and carrybacks of such items. See proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(10).
Comments are requested as to whether tax attributes other than specified tax attributes should be adjusted, at either the partner or the partnership level, when the partnership pays an imputed underpayment. Specifically, commenters are requested to address whether guidance should provide a general rule that partnership adjustments and notional items are taken into account as items for all purposes of Subtitle A, except to the extent of the partner's actual tax due. For example, guidance could provide that the partner level tax calculation includes notional items for purposes of calculating the tentative tax due, but that for purposes of determining the ultimate tax due, the partner's share of the imputed underpayment would be subtracted. Alternatively, guidance could provide a list of tax attributes that are generally adjusted, and a list of those that are not.
Specific tax attributes for which comments are requested include gross income rules for publicly traded partnerships under section 7704(b) and qualified investment entities described in section 860. Other tax attributes for which comments are requested include net operating loss carryforwards, other tax accounting under subchapter K, and those that contain limitations based on adjusted gross income (for example, the earned income credit allowed under section 32, the child tax credit allowed under section 24). Comments are also requested as to whether any special rules should be provided for adjustments to tax attributes in the cross-border context, and how those adjustments should differ, if at all, from adjustments to tax attributes made in the domestic context.
These regulations also contain rules to coordinate the changes to specified tax attributes made under these rules with other rules of the Code, including the rest of the centralized partnership audit regime. See proposed § 301.6225-4(a)(4). To the extent a partner or partnership appropriately adjusted tax attributes prior to a final determination under subchapter C of chapter 63 with respect to a partnership adjustment (for example, in the context of an amended return modification described in proposed § 301.6225-2(d)(2) or a closing agreement described in proposed § 301.6225-2(d)(8)), those tax attributes are not adjusted under this section. For example, when a partnership requests a modification of the imputed underpayment with respect to a partner-specific tax attribute (for example, a net operating loss) by the filing of an amended return by a partner or by entering into a closing agreement, the partner-specific tax attribute must be reduced to the extent it is used to modify the imputed underpayment.
The IRS is considering providing in forms, instructions, or other guidance that partnerships will be required to provide information to their partners about the amount and nature of changes to tax attributes and any other information needed by the partners.
Under section 704(b), a partner's distributive share of income, gain, loss, deduction, or credit (or item thereof) is determined under the partnership agreement if the allocation under the agreement has substantial economic effect. Section 1.704-1(b)(2)(i) provides that the determination of whether an allocation of income, gain, loss, or deduction (or item thereof) to a partner has substantial economic effect involves a two-part analysis that is made at the end of the partnership year to which the allocation relates. In order for an allocation to have substantial economic effect, the allocation must have both economic effect (within the meaning of § 1.704-1(b)(2)(ii)) and be substantial (within the meaning of § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iii)). If the allocation does not have substantial economic effect, or the partnership agreement does not provide for the allocation, then the allocation must be made in accordance with the partners' interest in the partnership under § 1.704-1(b)(3).
Commenters recommended applying the existing rules in subchapter K, including section 704(b), in the context of section 6225. While the basic principles of section 704(b) remain sound in the context of notional items, the unique nature of partnership adjustments under section 6225 requires the application of these principles to be modified. See proposed § 1.704-1(b)(1)(viii)(
While the determination of partnership adjustments under section 6225 is made with respect to reviewed year partners, it is the adjustment year partners that bear the economic burden (or benefit) of a partnership adjustment. As noted in section (2)(B)(i) of this preamble, outside basis adjustments must be made to avoid effectively taxing the same item of income twice. While this concern is clearest when a reviewed year partner remains a partner in the adjustment year, the same concern generally exists when the interest is
A reviewed year partner's successor is generally defined as either a transferee that succeeds to the transferor partner's capital account under proposed § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iv)(
The June 14 NPRM provides that if any reviewed year partner with respect to whom an amount was reallocated is not also an adjustment year partner, the portion of the adjustment that would otherwise be allocated to such reviewed year partner is allocated instead to the adjustment year partner or partners who are the successor or successors to the reviewed year partner. See proposed § 301.6225-3(b)(4). Further, this rule provides that if the partnership cannot identify an adjustment year partner that is a successor to the reviewed year partner described in the previous sentence or if a successor does not exist, the portion of the adjustment that would otherwise be allocated to that reviewed year partner is allocated among the adjustment year partners according to the adjustment year partners' distributive shares.
A commenter stated that this rule in the June 14 NPRM allocating a reallocation adjustment that does not result in an imputed underpayment could result in situations in which partners in a publicly traded partnership described in section 7704(b) own units that are not fungible. In response to this comment and due to administrability concerns, the Treasury Department and the IRS reconsidered this rule and have concluded that it is appropriate to provide rules in these proposed regulations relating to any situation in which a partnership is unable, after exercising reasonable diligence, to determine a successor for a partnership adjustment under section 6225 (not only reallocation adjustments). These rules require that the proposed standard in the June 14 NPRM be replaced with a new proposed regulation. Therefore, these regulations amend proposed § 301.6225-3(b)(4) by removing the final two sentences and provide a rule in proposed § 1.704-1(b)(1)(viii)(
Comments are requested as to whether these new proposed rules would similarly result in issues with respect to the fungibility of these partnership interests and, if so, specific recommendations for the final regulations to address fungibility concerns consistent with the centralized partnership audit regime, the rules of subchapter K, and the general framework of these proposed regulations. Specifically, commenters are requested to consider how the successor rules should operate when, due to the redemption of all reviewed year partners, there are no identifiable successors to reviewed year partners in the adjustment year.
Treasury and the IRS considered other alternatives to the successor rules in these proposed regulations, including allocating notional items only to adjustment year partners that were reviewed year partners, either solely in the amount for which they would have been allocated the notional item, or allocating to them (and no other partners) the full amount of the notional items. These proposed rules contain successor rules because that approach preserves the economics of the partners that were partners in both the reviewed and the adjustment year, and also facilitates any necessary private contracts between buyers and sellers of partnership interests. Comments are requested as to whether an approach other than successor rules are better suited to preserving the single-layer of tax in subchapter K while avoiding potential for abuse or other inappropriate tax results.
Comments are also requested as to how these successor rules should apply in the case of partnership mergers and divisions.
Finally, comments are requested on issues similar to those noted in the June 14 NPRM in section (5)(D)(ii) of the preamble, namely whether the allocation of adjustments to a successor of a reviewed year partner that was a tax-exempt partner may raise issues concerning private benefit to a person other than a tax-exempt partner, including issues that might affect the tax-exempt partner's status under section 501(c); excise taxes under chapter 42 of subtitle D of the Code or under sections 4975, 4976, or 4980; or requirements under title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, Public Law 93-406 (88 Stat. 829 (1974)) as amended (ERISA), such as the fiduciary responsibility rules under part 4 thereof. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments from the public on whether these potential issues may be adequately addressed in partnership agreements or whether guidance is needed to address these potential issues. Any comments related to title I of ERISA will be shared with the Department of Labor.
For certain types of partnership adjustments, notional items are not created. Specifically, notional items are not created for a partnership adjustment that does not derive from items that would have been allocated in the reviewed year under section 704(b), such as a partnership adjustment based upon a partner's failure to report gain under section 731, a partnership adjustment that is a change of an item of deduction to a section 705(a)(2)(B) expenditure, or a partnership adjustment to an item of tax-exempt income. See proposed § 301.6225-4(b)(4). Nevertheless, in these situations specified tax attributes are adjusted for the partnership and its reviewed year partners (or their successors) in a manner that is consistent with how the partnership adjustment would have been taken into account under the partnership agreement in effect for the reviewed year taking into account all facts and circumstances. See proposed § 301.6225-4(e),
As noted in section (2)(B)(i) of this preamble, partners normally adjust their outside bases for notional items that are allocated to them. However, in certain cases, the proposed rules do not provide for adjustments to outside basis. Specifically, when a tax-exempt partner transfers its interest to a partner that is not tax-exempt (taxable partner) between the reviewed year and the adjustment year and the partnership requests a modification because of the reviewed year partner's status as a tax-exempt entity, the successor taxable partner is disallowed a basis adjustment. See proposed § 301.6225-4(b)(6)(iii)(B). Without this rule, a taxable successor partner would have a basis increase when no imputed underpayment was paid with respect to the partner's share of the partnership
Proposed § 301.6225-4(c) describes how the partnership's expenditure arising from an imputed underpayment and any other amount under subchapter C of chapter 63 is taken into account by the partnership and its partners. No deduction is allowed under subtitle A of the Code for any payment required to be made by a partnership under subchapter C of chapter 63 and the amount is treated as an expenditure described in section 705(a)(2)(B). See proposed § 301.6241-4(a).
For an allocation to have economic effect, it must be consistent with the underlying economic arrangement of the partners. This means that, in the event that there is an economic benefit or burden that corresponds to the allocation, the partner to whom the allocation is made must receive such economic benefit or bear such economic burden. See § 1.704-1(b)(2)(ii). Generally, an allocation of income, gain, loss, or deduction (or item thereof) to a partner will have economic effect if, and only if, throughout the full term of the partnership, the partnership agreement provides: (1) For the determination and maintenance of the partners' capital accounts in accordance with § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iv); (2) for liquidating distributions to the partners to be made in accordance with the positive capital account balances of the partners; and (3) for each partner to be unconditionally obligated to restore the deficit balance in the partner's capital account following the liquidation of the partner's partnership interest. In lieu of satisfying the third criterion, the partnership may satisfy the qualified income offset rules set forth in § 1.704-1(b)(2)(ii)(
Section 1.704-1(b)(2)(iv)(
Several commenters addressed how the partnership's payment of an imputed underpayment should be allocated among its partners and how the payment should be given effect. With respect to the payment's allocation, commenters recommended that the expenditure be allocated among the partners in accordance with their partnership agreement, subject to the rules of section 704(b) (including the regulatory requirements for substantial economic effect). The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the commenters that the expenditure should be allocated under section 704. These proposed regulations contain special rules for allocating the expenditure under section 704(b).
With respect to book capital account adjustments for the imputed underpayment, commenters recommended that partners' capital accounts be adjusted to reflect the partnership's payment of the imputed underpayment. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with this comment but conclude that because the expenditure is treated as an expenditure under section 705(a)(2)(B) pursuant to the June 14 NPRM (proposed § 301.6241-4(a)), existing rules provide this result.
The Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded, however, that the existing rules that determine whether the economic effect of an allocation is substantial should be modified to take into account the unique nature of these expenditures. When a partnership pays an imputed underpayment under section 6225, it has the effect of converting what would have been a non-deductible partner-level expenditure into a non-deductible partnership-level expenditure. The proposed regulations provide that an allocation of the nondeductible expenditure will be considered to be substantial only if the partnership allocates the expenditure in proportion to the notional item to which it relates, taking into account appropriate modifications. See proposed §§ 1.704-1(b)(2)(iii)(
Similarly, for partnerships that do not maintain capital accounts, the allocation of the expenditure cannot be in accordance with the partners' interests in the partnership to the extent it shifts the economic burden of the payment of the imputed underpayment away from a partner (or its successor) that would have been allocated the corresponding notional income item. However, the regulations provide that an allocation of an expense that satisfies the new substantiality rule and in which the partner's distribution rights are reduced by the partner's share of the imputed underpayment is deemed to be in accordance with the partners' interests in the partnership. See proposed § 1.704-1(b)(4)(xii). These proposed regulations do not address the extent to which the partnership may later reverse this allocation with a special chargeback or similar provision. Comments are requested on this issue.
One commenter recommended rules specifying that a partner's contribution of funds to the partnership for payment of an imputed underpayment will result in an increase in that partner's capital account. This comment is not adopted because the existing rules in subchapter K provide sufficient guidance for this circumstance. A commenter also recommended rules addressing the availability of a corporation's deduction under temporary § 1.163-9T(b)(2) for a payment of interest in respect of an underpayment of tax. This comment is not adopted because it is beyond the scope of these proposed regulations.
The proposed regulations also provide that in order for an allocation of an expenditure for interest, penalties, additions to tax, or additional amounts as determined under section 6233 to be substantial, it must be allocated to the reviewed year partner in proportion to the allocation of the related imputed underpayment, the related payment made by a pass-through partner under proposed § 301.6226-3(e)(4), or the
In situations in which the reviewed year partner is not an adjustment year partner, the successor rules in proposed § 1.704-1(b)(1)(viii)(
The June 14 NPRM provides that the rules under subchapter K apply in the case of a partnership adjustment that does not result in an imputed underpayment. See proposed § 301.6225-3(c). Further, proposed § 1.704-1(b)(4)(xiii) of these regulations provides that an allocation of an item arising from a partnership adjustment that does not result in an imputed underpayment (as defined in proposed § 301.6225-1(c)(2)) does not have substantial economic effect but will be deemed to be in accordance with the partners' interests in the partnership if it is allocated in the manner in which the item would have been allocated in the reviewed year under the regulations under section 704, taking into account the successor rules described in section (2)(B)(iv) of this preamble.
Section 6226(b) describes how partnership adjustments are taken into account by the reviewed year partners if a partnership makes an election under section 6226(a). Under section 6226(b)(1), each partner's tax imposed by chapter 1 of subtitle A of the Code (chapter 1 tax) is increased by the aggregate of the adjustment amounts as determined under section 6226(b)(2). This increase in chapter 1 tax is reported on the return for the partner's taxable year that includes the date the statement described under section 6226(a) is furnished to the partner by the partnership (reporting year). The aggregate of the adjustment amounts is the aggregate of the correction amounts. See proposed § 301.6226-3(b).
The adjustment amounts determined under section 6226(b)(2) fall into two categories. Under section 6226(b)(2)(A), in the case of the taxable year of the partner that includes the end of the partnership's reviewed year (first affected year), the adjustment amount is the amount by which the partner's chapter 1 tax would increase for the partner's first affected year if the partner's share of the adjustments were taken into account in that year. Under section 6226(b)(2)(B), in the case of any taxable year after the first affected year, and before the reporting year (that is, the intervening years), the adjustment amount is the amount by which the partner's chapter 1 tax would increase by reason of the adjustment to tax attributes determined under section 6226(b)(3) in each of the intervening years. The adjustment amounts determined under section 6226(b)(2)(A) and (B) are added together to determine the aggregate of the adjustment amounts for purposes of determining additional reporting year tax, which is the increase to the partner's chapter 1 tax in accordance with section 6226(b)(1).
Section 6226(b)(3) provides two rules regarding adjustments to tax attributes that would have been affected if the partner's share of adjustments were taken into account in the first affected year. First, under section 6226(b)(3)(A), in the case of an intervening year, any tax attribute must be appropriately adjusted for purposes of determining the adjustment amount for that intervening year in accordance with section 6226(b)(2)(B). Second, under section 6226(b)(3)(B), in the case of any subsequent taxable year (that is, a year, including the reporting year, that is subsequent to the intervening years referenced in 6226(b)(3)(A)), any tax attribute must be appropriately adjusted.
Under the June 14 NPRM, a reviewed year partner's share of the adjustments that must be taken into account by the reviewed year partner must be reported to the reviewed year partner in the same manner as originally reported on the return filed by the partnership for the reviewed year. See proposed § 301.6226-2(f). If the adjusted item was not reflected in the partnership's reviewed year return, the adjustment must be reported in accordance with the rules that apply with respect to partnership allocations, including under the partnership agreement. However, under proposed § 301.6226-2(f)(1), if the adjustments, as finally determined, are allocated to a specific partner or in a specific manner, the partner's share of the adjustment must follow how the adjustment is allocated in that final determination.
Section 301.6226-4(b) of these proposed regulations provides that the reviewed year partners or affected partners (as described in § 301.6226-3(e)(3)(i)) must take into account items of income, gain, loss, deduction or credit with respect to their share of the partnership adjustments as contained on the statements described in proposed § 301.6226-2 (pushed-out items) in the reporting year (as defined in proposed § 301.6226-3(a)). Similarly, partnerships adjust tax attributes affected by reason of a pushed-out item in the reviewed year. In the case of a reviewed year partner that disposed of its partnership interest prior to the reporting year, that partner may take into account any outside basis adjustment under these rules in an amended return to the extent otherwise allowable under the Code.
Unlike the proposed rules under section 6225 and subchapter K described in section 2 of this preamble, under section 6226, all tax attributes (as defined in proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(10)) are adjusted for pushed out items of income, gain, deduction, loss or credit.
Section (2)(B)(iii) of this preamble discusses the general mechanics of section 704(b). In accordance with the principles set forth in section 704(b), an allocation of a pushed-out item does not have substantial economic effect within the meaning of section 704(b)(2). However, the allocation of such an item will be deemed to be in accordance with the partners' interests in the partnership if it is allocated in the adjustment year in the manner in which the item would have been allocated under the rules of section 704(b), including § 1.704-1(b)(1)(i) (or otherwise taken into account under subtitle A) in the reviewed year (as defined in proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(8)), followed by any subsequent taxable years, concluding with the adjustment year (as defined in proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(1)). See proposed § 1.704-1(b)(4)(xiv).
Under the June 14 NPRM, a reviewed year partner that is furnished a statement under proposed § 301.6226-2 is required to pay any additional chapter 1 tax (additional reporting year tax) for the partner's taxable year which
A commenter recommended that adjustments to capital accounts and basis should be made to the reviewed year partners in the reviewed year to prevent distortions. This comment is not adopted because, in this context, section 6226 clearly applies to the adjustment year. These proposed regulations provide that adjustments to partnership-level tax attributes are calculated with respect to each year beginning with the reviewed year, followed by subsequent taxable years, concluding with the adjustment year. See proposed § 301.6226-4(b).
These proposed regulations provide that to the extent a pass-through partner (as defined in proposed § 301.6241-1(a)(5)) makes a payment in lieu of issuing statements to its owners described in proposed § 301.6226-3(e)(4), that payment will be treated similarly to the payment of an amount under subchapter C of chapter 63 for purposes of any adjustments to bases and capital accounts, and accordingly, the rules contained in proposed § 301.6225-4 will apply to determine any appropriate adjustments to bases and capital accounts. See proposed § 301.6226-3(e). To the extent that the pass-through partner continues to push out the partnership adjustments to its partners in accordance with proposed § 301.6226-3(e)(3), the partners receiving those adjustments will adjust their bases and capital accounts in accordance with the guidance provided in proposed § 301.6226-4.
Comments are requested as to how S corporations, trusts, and estates that are pass-through partners that pay an amount under proposed § 301.6226-3(e), and their shareholders and beneficiaries, respectively, should take these payments into account and adjust tax attributes.
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required. Because the proposed regulations would not impose a collection of information on small entities, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) does not apply.
Pursuant to section 7805(f), this notice of proposed rulemaking has been submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.
IRS Revenue Procedures, Revenue Rulings, Notices and other guidance cited in this preamble are published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (or Cumulative Bulletin) and are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at
Before these proposed regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any electronic and written comments that are submitted timely to the IRS as prescribed in this preamble under the
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Employment taxes, Estate taxes, Excise taxes, Gift taxes, Income taxes, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR parts 1 and 301 are proposed to be amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
The additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(viii)
(
(
(
(
(2) * * *
(iii) * * *
(
(
(
(
(
(iv) * * *
(
(
(4) * * *
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)
(xiv)
(xv)
(a) * * *
(10) For rules relating to determining the adjusted basis of a partner's interest in a partnership following a final determination under subchapter C of chapter 63 of the Internal Revenue Code (relating to the centralized partnership audit regime), see §§ 301.6225-4 and 301.6226-4 of this chapter.
(e) * * *
(2) * * *
(viii) Any item arising from a final determination under subchapter C of chapter 63 of the Internal Revenue Code (relating to the centralized partnership audit regime) with respect to a partnership adjustment resulting in an imputed underpayment for which no election is made under § 301.6226-1 of this chapter.
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
(b) * * *
(4)
(a)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(ii)
(6)
(b)
(2)
(3)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(5)
(6)
(ii)
(iii)
(B)
(
(
(c)
(d)
(e)
(i) In 2019, A, B, and C are individuals that form Partnership. A contributes Whiteacre, which is unimproved land with an adjusted basis of $400 and a fair market value of $1000, and B and C each contribute $1000 in cash. The partnership agreement provides that all income, gain, loss, and deduction will be allocated in equal
(ii) Upon formation, Partnership has the following assets and capital accounts:
(iii) In 2019, Partnership makes a $120 payment for Asset that it treats as a deductible expense on its partnership return.
(iv) Partnership does not file an AAR for 2020. The IRS determines in 2021 (the adjustment year) that Partnership's $120 expenditure was not allowed as a deduction in 2019 (the reviewed year), but rather was the acquisition of an asset for which cost recovery deductions are unavailable. Accordingly, the IRS makes a partnership adjustment that disallows the entire $120 deduction, which results in an imputed underpayment of $48 ($120 × 40 percent). Partnership does not request modification under § 301.6225-2. Partnership pays the $48 imputed underpayment.
(v) Partnership first determines its tax attribute adjustments resulting from the partnership adjustment by applying paragraph (b) of this section. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, Partnership must re-state the basis and book value of Asset to $120. Further, pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a $120 notional item of income is created. The $120 item of notional income is allocated in equal shares ($40) to A, B, and C in 2021 under § 1.704-1(b)(4)(xi) of this chapter. Accordingly, in 2021 Partnership increases the capital accounts of A, B, and C by $40 each, and increases A, B, and C's outside bases by $40 each under paragraph (b)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section, respectively.
(vi) As described in paragraph (c) of this section, Partnership's payment of the $48 imputed underpayment is treated as an expenditure described in section 705(a)(2)(B) under § 301.6241-4. Under § 1.704-1(b)(4)(xii) of this chapter, Partnership determines each partner's properly allocable share of this expenditure in 2021 by allocating the expenditure in proportion to the allocations of the notional item to which the expenditure relates. Accordingly, each of A, B, and C have a properly allocable share of $16 each, which is the same proportion (
(vii) The payment is also reflected by a $48 decrease in partnership cash for book purposes under § 1.704-1(b)(4)(ii) of this
(i) The facts are the same as in
(ii) As in
(iii) However, the modifications affect how Partnership must allocate the imputed underpayment expenditure among A, B, and C in 2021 (the adjustment year) pursuant to § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iii)(
(iv) The payment is also reflected by a $30 decrease in partnership cash for book purposes. Therefore, in 2021, A's basis in Partnership is $400 and his capital account is $1000, B's basis and capital account are both $984, and C's basis and capital account are both $986.
The facts are the same as in
The facts are the same as in
(i) In 2019, Partnership has two partners, A and B. Both A and B have a $0 basis in their interests in Partnership. Further, Partnership has a $200 liability as defined in § 1.752-1(a)(4) of this chapter. The liability is treated as a nonrecourse liability as defined in § 1.752-1(a)(2) of this chapter so that A and B both are treated as having a $100 share of the liability under § 1.752-3 of this chapter. In 2021 (the adjustment year), the IRS determines that the liability was inappropriately classified as a nonrecourse liability, should have been classified as a recourse liability as defined in § 1.752-1(a)(1) of this chapter, and that A should have no share of the recourse liability under § 1.752-2 of this chapter. As a result of the liability misclassification, the IRS assesses an imputed underpayment of $40 ($100 × 40%) resulting from the $100 decrease in A's share of partnership liabilities under §§ 1.752-1(c) and 1.731-1(a)(1)(i) of this chapter. Partnership does not request modification under § 301.6225-2. Partnership pays the $40 imputed underpayment.
(ii) Pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this of this section, notional items are not created with respect to this partnership adjustment. Instead, under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, specified tax attributes are adjusted in a manner that is consistent with how the partnership adjustment would have been taken into account under the partnership agreement in effect for the reviewed year taking into account all facts and circumstances. In this case, no specified tax attributes are adjusted.
(iii) However, because A would have borne the economic burden of the partnership adjustment if the partnership and its partners had originally reported in a manner consistent with the partnership adjustment, the $40 imputed underpayment section 705(a)(2)(B) expenditure is allocated to A under § 1.704-1(b)(2)(iii)(
(f)
(2)
(a)
(2)
(3)
(b)
(c)
(i) In 2021, J, K and L form Partnership by each contributing $500 in exchange for partnership interests that share all items of income, gain, loss and deduction in identical shares. Partnership immediately purchases Asset on January 1, 2021 for $1500, which it depreciates using the straight-line method with a 10-year recovery period beginning in 2021 ($150) so that each partner has a $50 distributive share of the depreciation, resulting in an outside basis of $450 for each partner. Accordingly, at the end of 2022, J, K and L have an outside basis and capital account of $400 each ($500 less $50 of their respective allocable shares of depreciation in 2021 and $50 in 2022).
(ii) The IRS initiates an administrative proceeding with respect to Partnership's 2021 taxable year (reviewed year) in 2023 (adjustment year) and determines that Asset should have been depreciated with a 20-year recovery period beginning in 2021, resulting in a $75 partnership adjustment that results in an imputed underpayment. The IRS does not initiate an administrative proceeding with respect to Partnership's 2022 taxable year, and Partnership does not file an administrative adjustment request for that taxable year. Partnership makes an election under § 301.6226-1 with respect to the imputed underpayment. Therefore, J, K and L each are furnished a statement described in § 301.6226-2 by Partnership reflecting the $25 income adjustment for 2021. Pursuant to § 301.6226-2(e)(6), the statement furnished by Partnership to J, K, and L also reflects a $25 income adjustment to the 2022 intervening year.
(iii) Tax attributes must be adjusted to reflect the $75 pushed-out item of income that is taken into account in equal shares ($25) by J, K, and L with respect to 2021. Specifically, J, K and L's outside bases and capital accounts must be increased $25 each with respect to the 2021 tax year. Additionally, tax attributes must be adjusted with respect to 2022, as an intervening year. Specifically, J, K and L must increase their outside bases and capital accounts by $25 each with respect to the 2022 tax year. As a result, J, K and L each have an outside basis and capital account of $425 ($400 minus $25 of depreciation for 2023 plus $25 of income realized with respect to 2021 plus $25 of income realized with respect to 2022). Asset's basis and book value must also be changed in 2023. Thus, after adjusting tax attributes to take into account the election under § 301.6225-1 and taking into account other activities of Partnership in 2023, accounts are stated as follows:
(d)
(2)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish at the request of the Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation, two separate anchorage grounds, Carleton Island Anchorage and Tibbetts Point Anchorage, near Cape Vincent, New York. The Federal Anchorage Ground designations will enable a pilot to disembark a safely anchored vessel which will help reduce pilot fatigue, increase pilot availability, and reduce costs incurred by vessels transiting the Seaway. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before May 3, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-1125 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Lieutenant Jason Radcliffe, Ninth District, Waterways Operations, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 216-902-6060, email
The Coast Guard proposes to establish two anchorage grounds one in the vicinity of Carleton Island, New York and the second near Tibbetts Point, New York. Each area has historically been used as an anchorage and the Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation, at the request of its waterway users, has requested each area to be officially designated as Federal Anchorage Grounds.
Without this designation, pilots who anchor a ship in the respective areas are unable to disembark during sustained delay periods which hinder compliance with rest requirements and complicate pilot availability and logistics for other vessels. The Coast Guard proposes this rulemaking under authority in 33 U.S.C. 471, 1221 through 1236, 2071; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
The Coast Guard is proposing to establish two new anchorage areas to be known as Carleton Island Anchorage and Tibbetts Point Anchorage.
The Carleton Island Anchorage would be located just northeast and adjacent to Carleton Island and Millen Bay. The boundaries of Carleton Island Anchorage are presented in the proposed regulatory text at the end of this document. The anchorage would be approximately .75 square miles. Proposed Carleton Island Anchorage is primarily intended for use by up-bound inland or ocean going bulk freight and tank ships, towing vessels and barges that need to anchor and wait for the availability of a Lake Ontario Pilot. Under this proposed rule no anchors would be allowed to be placed in the channel and no portion of the hull or rigging would be allowed to extend outside the limits of the anchorage area.
The Tibbetts Point Anchorage would be located just west and adjacent to Tibbetts Point and Fuller Bay. The boundaries of Tibbett's Point Anchorage are presented in the proposed regulatory text at the end of this document. The anchorage would be approximately 1.5 square miles. Proposed Tibbett's Point Anchorage is primarily intended for use by down-bound inland or ocean going bulk freight and tank ships, towing vessels and barges that need to anchor and wait for the availability of a River Pilot. Under this proposed rule no anchors would be allowed to be placed in the channel and no portion of the hull or rigging would be allowed to extend outside the limits of the anchorage area.
Whenever the maritime or commercial interests of the United States so require, the Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation or their designated representative may direct the movement of any vessel anchored or moored within the anchorage area. The Coast Guard has ascertained the view of the Buffalo, New York District and Division Engineer, Corps of Engineers, U.S. Army, about the specific provisions of this proposed rule.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility.
Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget, and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
We conclude that this proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action based on the location and size of the proposed anchorage grounds, as well as the historical automatic identification system (AIS) data. The impacts on routine navigation are expected to be minimal because the proposed anchorage grounds are located outside the navigational channel. When not occupied, vessels would be able to maneuver in, around and through the anchorage.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small
The number of small entities impacted and the extent of the impact, if any, is expected to be minimal. The anchorage area is not routinely transited by vessels heading to, or returning from, known fishing grounds. It is also not used by small entities, including small vessels, for anchoring due to the depth of water naturally present in the area.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves the establishment of a permanent anchorage near Carleton Island, New York. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L59(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A preliminary Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
We do not plan to hold a public meeting. You may submit a request for a public meeting by contacting Lieutenant Radcliffe under the
Anchorage grounds.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 110 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 471, 1221 through 1236, 2071; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(b)
(2) No vessel may occupy any general anchorage described in paragraph (a) of this section for a period longer than 10 days unless approval is obtained from the Captain of the Port for that purpose.
(3) The COTP, or authorized representative, may require vessels to depart from the Anchorages described above before the expiration of the authorized or maximum stay. The COTP, or authorized representative, will provide at least 12-hour notice to a vessel required to depart the anchorages.
U.S. Copyright Office, Library of Congress.
Announcement of public hearings.
The United States Copyright Office will be holding public hearings as part of the seventh triennial rulemaking proceeding under the Digital Millennium Copyright Act (“DMCA”) concerning possible exemptions to the DMCA's prohibition against circumvention of technological measures that control access to copyrighted works. The public hearings will be held in April 2018 in Washington, DC and Los Angeles. Parties interested in testifying at the public hearings are invited to submit requests to testify pursuant to the instructions set forth below.
The public hearings in Washington, DC are scheduled for April 10, 11, 12, and 13, 2018, on each day from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. The public hearings in Los Angeles are scheduled for April 23, 24, and 25, 2018, on each day from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. Requests to testify must be received no later than 11:59 p.m. Eastern time on February 21, 2018. Although the Office currently anticipates up to four days of hearings in Washington, DC and three days of hearings in Los Angeles, the Office may adjust this schedule depending upon the number and nature of requests to testify. Once the schedule of hearing witnesses is finalized, the Office will notify all participants and post the times and dates of the hearings at
The Washington, DC hearings will be held in the Mumford Room of the James Madison Building of the Library of Congress, 101 Independence Ave. SE, Washington, DC 20540. The Los Angeles hearings will be held in Room 1314 of the UCLA School of Law, 385 Charles E. Young Drive East, Los Angeles, CA 90095. Requests to testify should be submitted through the request form available at
Sarang Vijay Damle, General Counsel and Associate Register of Copyrights, by email at
On June 30, 2017, the Copyright Office published a notice of inquiry in the
At this time, the Office is announcing public hearings to be held in Washington, DC and Los Angeles to further consider the proposed exemptions. The Office plans to convene panels of witnesses for the proposals to be considered, and may combine certain panels if the witnesses and/or key issues substantially overlap. The Office will schedule panels for particular exemptions in either Washington, DC or Los Angeles unless compelling circumstances require that a proposed class be considered in both cities. Limiting the discussion of each proposed class to one city or another will better ensure that witnesses can respond to the points made by others and avoid duplicative discussion. All of the hearings will be live streamed online. If no request to testify is received for a proposed exemption, the Office will consider the class based on the written submissions and any
A request to testify should be submitted to the Copyright Office using the form on the Office's website indicated in the
Depending upon the number and nature of the requests to testify, and in light of the limited time and space available for the public hearings, the Office may not be able to accommodate all requests to testify. The Office will give preference to those who have submitted substantive evidentiary submissions in support of or in opposition to a proposal. To the extent feasible, the Office encourages parties with similar interests to select a common representative to testify on their behalf.
All requests to testify must clearly identify:
• The name of the person desiring to serve as a witness.
• The organization or organizations represented, if any.
• Contact information (address, telephone, and email).
• The proposed class about which the person wishes to testify.
• A two- to three-sentence explanation of the testimony the witness expects to present.
• If the party is requesting the ability to demonstrate a use or a technology at the hearing, a description of the demonstration, including whether it will be prepared in advance or presented live, the approximate time required for such demonstration, and any presentation equipment that the person desires to use and/or bring to the hearing.
• The city in which the person prefers to testify (Washington, DC or Los Angeles).
The Office will try to take this preference into account in scheduling the hearings, but cannot guarantee that the relevant panel will be convened in the preferred city. Participants who are unable to testify in a particular city or on a particular date should so indicate in the comment field of the request form.
To facilitate the process of scheduling panels, it is essential that all of the required information listed above be included in a request to testify.
Following receipt of the requests to testify, the Office will prepare agendas for the hearings listing the panels and witnesses, which will be circulated to hearing participants and posted at
There will be time limits for each panel, which will be established after receiving all requests to testify. Generally, the Copyright Office plans to allot approximately one to two hours for each proposed class, although it may allot additional time for more complex classes.
Witnesses should expect the Office to have carefully studied all written comments, and the Office will expect witnesses to have done the same with respect to the classes for which they will be presenting. The hearings will focus on legal or factual issues that are unclear or underdeveloped in the written record, as identified by the Office, as well as demonstrative evidence.
The Office stresses that factual information is critical to the rulemaking process, and witnesses should be prepared to discuss, among other things, where the copies of the works sought to be accessed are stored, how the works would be accessed, and what would be done with the works after being accessed. The Office also encourages witnesses to provide real-world examples to support their arguments. In some cases, the best way to do this may be to provide a demonstration of a claimed noninfringing use or the technologies pertinent to a proposal. As noted above, a person wishing to provide a demonstration should include a request to do so with his or her request to testify, using the appropriate space on the form described above. To ensure proper documentation of the hearings, the Office will require that a copy of any audio, visual, or audiovisual materials that have been prepared in advance (
In addition to videography equipment, the Office expects to have a PC, projector, and screen in the hearing room to accommodate demonstrations. Beyond this equipment, witnesses are responsible for supplying and operating any other equipment needed for their demonstrations. Persons planning to bring additional electronic or audiovisual equipment must notify the Office at least five business days in advance of their scheduled hearing date by emailing John Riley, Attorney-Advisor, at
All hearings will be open to the public, but seating will be limited and will be provided on a first-come, first-served basis. Witnesses and persons accompanying witnesses will be given priority in seating. As noted above, all of the hearings will be live streamed online.
Typically, the Office's communications with participants about an ongoing rulemaking do not include discussions about the substance of the proceeding apart from written comments and public hearings. As with prior section 1201 rulemakings, the written record may also include post-hearing questions issued by the Office to individual parties involved with a particular class, and the Office will continue to post any questions and responses on the Office's website as part of the public record. For this rulemaking, the Office has determined that informal communication with interested parties might also be beneficial, such as to discuss nuances of proposed regulatory language. Any such communication may occur after the public hearings, but before the Office has issued a recommendation to the Librarian of Congress regarding the exemptions. Parties wishing to participate in informal discussions with the Office should submit a written request to one or more of the persons listed in the contact information above.
The primary means to communicate views in the course of the rulemaking will, however, continue to be through the submission of written comments and testimony at the public hearings. In other words, informal communication will supplement, not substitute for, the written record and testimony at the public hearings. Should a party meet with the Office regarding this rulemaking, the participating party will be responsible for submitting a list of attendees and written summary of any oral communication to the Office, which will be made publicly available on the Office's website or
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to take the following four actions regarding the Georgia State Implementation Plan (SIP): Approve the portion of Georgia's July 26, 2017, SIP submittal seeking to change reliance from the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR) to Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) for certain regional haze requirements; convert EPA's limited approval/limited disapproval of Georgia's regional haze SIP to a full approval; remove EPA's Federal Implementation Plan (FIP) for Georgia which replaced reliance on CAIR with reliance on CSAPR to address the deficiencies identified in the limited disapproval of Georgia's regional haze SIP; and approve the visibility prong of Georgia's infrastructure SIP submittals for the 2012 Fine Particulate Matter (PM
Comments must be received on or before March 5, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0315 at
Michele Notarianni, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Notarianni can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9031 or via electronic mail at
Section 169A(b)(2)(A) of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) requires states to submit regional haze plans that contain such measures as may be necessary to make reasonable progress towards the natural visibility goal, including a requirement that certain categories of existing major stationary sources built between 1962 and 1977 procure, install, and operate Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART) as determined by the state. Under the Regional Haze Rule (RHR), states are directed to conduct BART determinations for such “BART-eligible” sources that may be anticipated to cause or contribute to any visibility impairment in a Class I area. Rather than requiring source-specific BART controls, states also have the flexibility to adopt an emissions trading program or other alternative program as long as the alternative provides greater reasonable progress towards improving visibility than BART.
EPA demonstrated that CAIR would achieve greater reasonable progress than BART in revisions to the regional haze program made in 2005.
Due to the D.C. Circuit's 2008 ruling that CAIR was “fatally flawed” and its resulting status as a temporary measure following that ruling, EPA could not fully approve regional haze SIPs to the extent that they relied on CAIR to satisfy the BART requirement and the requirement for a LTS sufficient to achieve the state-adopted RPGs. On these grounds, EPA finalized a limited disapproval of Georgia's regional haze
In the June 7, 2012, limited disapproval action, EPA also amended the RHR to provide that participation by a state's EGUs in a CSAPR trading program for a given pollutant—either a CSAPR federal trading program implemented through a CSAPR FIP or an integrated CSAPR state trading program implemented through an approved CSAPR SIP revision—qualifies as a BART alternative for those EGUs for that pollutant.
Numerous parties filed petitions for review of CSAPR in the D.C. Circuit, and on August 21, 2012, the court issued its ruling, vacating and remanding CSAPR to EPA and ordering continued implementation of CAIR.
On September 29, 2017 (82 FR 45481), EPA issued a final rule affirming the continued validity of the Agency's 2012 determination that participation in CSAPR meets the RHR's criteria for an alternative to the application of source-specific BART. EPA has determined that changes to CSAPR's geographic scope resulting from the actions EPA has taken or expects to take in response to the D.C. Circuit's budget remand do not affect the continued validity of participation in CSAPR as a BART alternative, because the changes in geographic scope would not have adversely affected the results of the air quality modeling analysis upon which the EPA based the 2012 determination. EPA's September 29, 2017, determination was based, in part, on EPA's final action approving a SIP revision from Alabama (81 FR 59869 (August 31, 2016)) adopting Phase 2 annual NO
A portion of Georgia's July 26, 2017, SIP submittal seeks to correct the deficiencies identified in the June 7, 2012, limited disapproval of its regional haze plan submitted on February 11, 2010, and supplemented on November 19, 2010, by replacing reliance on CAIR with reliance on CSAPR.
By statute, plans meeting the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA are to be submitted by states within three years (or less, if the Administrator so prescribes) after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS to provide for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the new or revised NAAQS. EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) require states to address basic SIP elements such as for monitoring, basic program requirements, and legal authority that are designed to assure attainment and maintenance of the newly established or revised NAAQS. More specifically, section 110(a)(1) provides the procedural and timing requirements for infrastructure SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) lists specific elements that states must meet for the infrastructure SIP requirements related to a newly established or revised NAAQS. The contents of an infrastructure SIP submission may vary depending upon the data and analytical tools available to the state, as well as the provisions already contained in the state's implementation plan at the time in which the state develops and submits the submission for a new or revised NAAQS.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) has two components: 110(a)(2)(D)(i) and 110(a)(2)(D)(ii). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) includes four distinct components, commonly referred to as “prongs,” that must be addressed in infrastructure SIP submissions. The first two prongs, which are codified in section
Through this action, EPA is proposing to convert the conditional approvals of the prong 4 portions of Georgia's infrastructure SIP submissions for the 2008 8-hour Ozone, 2010 1-hour NO
On June 2, 2010, EPA revised the 1-hour primary SO
On January 22, 2010, EPA promulgated a new 1-hour primary NAAQS for NO
On December 14, 2012, EPA revised the annual primary PM
On March 12, 2008, EPA revised the 8-hour Ozone NAAQS to 0.075 parts per million.
CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires a state's implementation plan to contain provisions prohibiting sources in that state from emitting pollutants in amounts that interfere with any other state's efforts to protect visibility under part C of the CAA (which includes sections 169A and 169B). EPA most recently issued guidance for infrastructure SIPs on September 13, 2013 (2013 Guidance).
The 2013 Guidance lays out how a state's infrastructure SIP submission may satisfy prong 4. One way that a state can meet the requirements is via confirmation in its infrastructure SIP submission that the state has an approved regional haze plan that fully meets the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308 or 51.309. 40 CFR 51.308 and 51.309 specifically require that a state participating in a regional planning process include all measures needed to achieve its apportionment of emission reduction obligations agreed upon through that process. A fully approved regional haze plan will ensure that emissions from sources under an air agency's jurisdiction are not interfering with measures required to be included in other air agencies' plans to protect visibility.
Alternatively, in the absence of a fully approved regional haze plan, a state may meet the requirements of prong 4 through a demonstration in its infrastructure SIP submission that emissions within its jurisdiction do not interfere with other air agencies' plans to protect visibility. Such an infrastructure SIP submission would need to include measures to limit visibility-impairing pollutants and ensure that the reductions conform with any mutually agreed regional haze RPGs for mandatory Class I areas in other states.
Georgia's May 14, 2012, 2008 8-hour Ozone infrastructure SIP submission; March 25, 2013, 2010 1-hour NO
On May 26, 2016, Georgia submitted a commitment letter to EPA to submit a SIP revision that adopts provisions for participation in the CSAPR annual NO
EPA is proposing to approve the regional haze portion of the State's July 26, 2017, SIP revision replacing reliance on CAIR with CSAPR, and to convert EPA's previous action on Georgia's regional haze plan from a limited approval/limited disapproval to a full approval because final approval of this portion of the SIP revision would correct the deficiencies that led to EPA's limited approval/limited disapproval of the State's regional haze plan. Specifically, EPA's approval of the regional haze portion of Georgia's July 26, 2017, SIP revision would satisfy the SO
As described above, EPA is proposing to take the following actions: (1) Approve the regional haze portion of Georgia's July 26, 2017, SIP submission to change reliance from CAIR to CSAPR; (2) convert EPA's limited approval/limited disapproval of Georgia's February 11, 2010, regional haze plan as supplemented on November 19, 2010, to a full approval; (3) remove EPA's FIP for Georgia which replaced reliance on CAIR with reliance on CSAPR to address the deficiencies identified in the limited disapproval of Georgia's regional haze SIP; and (4) convert EPA's September 26, 2016, conditional approvals to full approvals of the prong 4 portion of Georgia's May 14, 2012, 2008 8-hour Ozone submission; March 25, 2013, 2010 1-hour NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Are not Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory actions because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Are not economically significant regulatory actions based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Are not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Do not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate Matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
42 U.S.C. 7401
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes to implement management measures described in Regulatory Amendment 4 to the Fishery Management Plan for Spiny Lobster in the Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic (FMP), as prepared and submitted by the Gulf of Mexico and South Atlantic Fishery Management Councils (Councils). If implemented, this proposed rule would increase the annual catch limit (ACL) for spiny lobster based on updated landings information and revised scientific recommendations. This proposed rule would also prohibit the use of traps for recreational harvest of spiny lobster in the South Atlantic exclusive economic zone (EEZ) off Georgia, South Carolina, and North Carolina. The purposes of this proposed rule and Regulatory Amendment 4 are to ensure catch levels for spiny lobster are based on the best scientific information available, to prevent overfishing, and to minimize potential negative effects of traps on habitat and protected species interactions in the South Atlantic EEZ.
Written comments must be received on or before March 4, 2018.
You may submit comments on the proposed rule identified by “NOAA-NMFS-2017-0125” by any of the following methods:
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Electronic copies of Regulatory Amendment 4, which includes an environmental assessment and a regulatory flexibility analysis, and a regulatory impact review, may be obtained from the Southeast Regional Office website at
Nikhil Mehta, telephone: 727-824-5305, or email:
The spiny lobster fishery of the Gulf of Mexico (Gulf) and the South Atlantic is managed under the FMP. The FMP was prepared by the Councils and implemented through regulations at 50 CFR part 622 under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) (16 U.S.C 1801
In 2012, NMFS implemented Amendment 10 to the FMP, which included an overfishing limit (OFL), acceptable biological catch (ABC), ACL, annual catch target (ACT), accountability measure (AM), and status determination criteria for spiny lobster (76 FR 75488; December 2, 2011). The OFL and ABC were specified using Tier 3a of the Gulf Council's ABC Control Rule (control rule), as recommended by the Scientific and Statistical Committees (SSCs) of the South Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Councils (Councils). Applying the control rule, the SSCs recommended an OFL equal to the mean of the most recent 10 years of landings (fishing years 2000/2001 through 2009/2010) plus 2 standard deviations, and an ABC equal to the mean of the most recent 10 years of landings plus 1.5 standard deviations. This resulted in an OFL of 7.9 million lb (3.58 million kg) and an ABC of 7.32 million lb (3.32 million kg). The maximum sustainable yield (MSY) proxy and overfishing threshold (maximum fishing mortality threshold (MFMT)) were set equal to the OFL. The ACL was set equal to the ABC. The ACT, which equals the optimum yield (OY), was set at 90 percent of the ACL.
Since that time, the spiny lobster ACT has been exceeded three times, the ACL has been exceeded twice, and the OFL has been exceeded once. The AM established in Amendment 10 requires that the Councils convene a review panel if the spiny lobster ACT is exceeded, and the National Standard 1 guidelines state that if the ACL is exceeded more than once in a 4-year period, then the system of ACLs and AMs should be re-evaluated and modified, as necessary, to improve its performance and effectiveness (50 CFR 600.310(g)(7)). Therefore, The Councils convened a Spiny Lobster Review Panel (Review Panel) in February 2015, and again in March 2016, to assess whether action was needed to prevent the ACL from being exceeded. The Review Panel recommended that the catch levels for spiny lobster be based on the mean of landings during the fishing years 1991/1992 through 2015/2016, which is a longer time period than the 10-year period that was used to determine the current catch levels (fishing years 2000/2001 through 2009/2010). This is because the landings were historically low during the 2000/2001 through 2009/2010 time period used for the calculation of the current catch levels. The Review Panel determined that using the longer time period to calculate catch levels would better capture the dynamics of the fishery. Both SSCs agreed with the Review Panel and recommended using the longer time series of landings under Tier 3a of the control rule for setting the OFL and ABC. Using the longer time series of landings results in a revised OFL of 10.46 million lb (4.74 million kg) and a revised ABC of 9.60 million lb (4.35 million kg). Although the revised OFL and ABC are higher than the current OFL and ABC, using the longer time series is a more precautionary approach for calculating OFL and ABC than using the most recent 10 years of landings (2006/2007 through 2015/2016) because these landings have been historically high. The longer time series
This proposed rule would modify the stock ACL and ACT for spiny lobster and prohibit the use of traps for the recreational harvest of spiny lobster in the South Atlantic EEZ.
This proposed rule would revise the stock ACL and ACT based on the new ABC recommendation provided by the Councils' SSCs. As stated above, the current spiny lobster stock ACL is equal to the ABC, and the stock ACT is set at 90 percent of the ACL. This proposed rule would set the ACL equal to the ABC of 9.60 million lb (4.35 million kg), which is based on the mean landings from the years 1991/1992-2015/2016 plus 1.5 standard deviations. The ACT would be set at 8.64 million lb (3.92 million kg), which is 90 percent of the proposed ACL. As established in Amendment 10, the OY equals the ACT. NMFS does not expect the increase in the ACT and ACL to result in negative biological effects on the stock because current fishing effort is limited by the number of trap tags issued by the state of Florida, by commercial and recreational bag and possession limits in the EEZ in the South Atlantic and the Gulf EEZ, and by the duration of the fishing season, which varies depending on the area where spiny lobsters are harvested.
Currently, the use of traps is not allowed for recreational harvest of spiny lobster in the EEZ off Florida, but traps may be used for recreational harvest of spiny lobster in the South Atlantic EEZ off the states of Georgia, South Carolina, and North Carolina. This proposed rule would prohibit the use of traps for recreational harvest of spiny lobster in all of the South Atlantic EEZ.
The public has expressed little interest in using traps for the recreational harvest of spiny lobster, which may be a result of the two lobsters per person per trip limit applicable to harvest from Federal waters of the South Atlantic. However, the Councils are concerned that using this gear may become more popular and result in potential negative impacts on essential fish habitat and an increase in the use of vertical lines that may interact with protected species, for example, by creating entanglement issues. Trap gear also has the potential to “ghost fish,” which occurs when a trap continues to fish after it is lost. Because spiny lobsters are larger in size in the EEZ off Georgia, South Carolina, and North Carolina than in the EEZ off Florida, current trap configuration may not be efficient in capturing spiny lobster in these areas, and recreational traps used in these areas may require larger mouths (entrances), which could result in greater bycatch of fish, crabs, and other invertebrates, including undersized spiny lobsters.
As established in Amendment 10, the MSY proxy and MFMT are equal to the OFL, which was set at 7.9 million lb (3.58 million kg). Consistent with Amendment 10, Regulatory Amendment 4 would modify the MSY proxy and MFMT values, so that they are equal to the revised OFL of 10.46 million lb (4.74 million kg).
In addition to the measures associated with Regulatory Amendment 4, this proposed rule would also correct regulatory language that was mistakenly included in the final rule implementing Amendment 10. Amendment 10 modified the restrictions on the possession of undersized spiny lobsters for use as attractants in the commercial sector. Prior to Amendment 10, no more than fifty undersized spiny lobsters, or one per trap aboard the vessel, whichever was greater, could be retained on board for use as attractants. Amendment 10 changed this restriction to allow for no more than fifty per vessel plus one per trap aboard the vessel. This change was correctly included in the proposed rule to implement Amendment 10 (76 FR 59102; September 23, 2011), but was inadvertently changed in the final rule to include the additional phrase (from the prior language), “whichever is greater” (76 FR 75488; December 2, 2011). The final rule also inadvertently included this restriction twice in the applicable paragraph. To correct these mistakes, this proposed rule would change 50 CFR 622.407(c) to remove the phase “whichever is greater” and remove the first occurrence of the duplicative sentence. This proposed rule would also change the wording of the restriction slightly to more directly state that the total number of undersized spiny lobster allowed onboard a vessel is fifty plus one per trap. The restriction currently states: “No more than fifty undersized spiny lobsters, and one per trap aboard the vessel, may be retained aboard for use as attractants.” The proposed rule would change the “and” to “plus” so that the sentence reads: “No more than fifty undersized spiny lobsters plus one per trap aboard the vessel may be retained aboard for use as attractants.”
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with Regulatory Amendment 4, the FMP, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
The Magnuson-Stevens Act provides the statutory basis for this proposed rule. No duplicative, overlapping, or conflicting Federal rules have been identified. A description of this proposed rule and its purpose and need are contained in the
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for this certification is described below.
This proposed rule would directly affect commercial and recreational fishing for spiny lobster in the Gulf EEZ and the South Atlantic EEZ. Anglers (recreational fishers) are not considered small entities as that term is defined in 5 U.S.C. 601(6). Consequently, estimates of the number of anglers directly affected by the rule and the impacts on them are not provided here.
Any commercial fishing business that operates a fishing vessel that lands whole spiny lobster in the Gulf EEZ and/or the South Atlantic EEZ, except off Florida, must have a valid Federal spiny lobster permit that is specifically assigned to that vessel. In the EEZ off Florida, a commercial vessel must have either a valid Federal spiny lobster permit or all required Florida licenses and certificates to harvest the species. Any vessel that lands only the tail from a spiny lobster caught in the EEZ must have a Federal tailing permit on board in addition to either a valid Federal spiny lobster permit or all required Florida licenses and certificates. Both Federal permits are open access permits.
As of March 1, 2017, there were 185 Federal spiny lobster and 210 spiny lobster tailing permits issued to a total of 272 vessels. Approximately 45
The individual businesses have from 1 to 11 vessels in the federally permitted spiny lobster fleet. Approximately 84 percent of the 198 businesses have only one vessel in the fleet, and collectively these businesses account for 61 percent of the 272 federally permitted vessels. Approximately 95 percent of the businesses have no more than 2 vessels, while 3 percent have 6 or more vessels and collectively make up approximately 18 percent of the 272 vessels.
Approximately 99 percent of commercial landings of spiny lobster occur in Florida. Hence, NMFS expects that almost all of the impacts of the rule will be on commercial fishing businesses located in Florida, and within Florida, approximately 91 percent of the state's landings are in Monroe County.
For purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily involved in commercial fishing (NAICS 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and its combined annual receipts are not in excess of $11 million for all of its affiliated operations worldwide. NMFS expects that most to all of the businesses that harvest spiny lobster in the EEZ (with or without a Federal permit) are small businesses, based on historical average annual revenues per vessel that are less than $50,000.
Regulatory Amendment 4 would revise the MSY proxy and MFMT. Those revisions would have no direct impact on any small businesses, and any indirect impact is dependent on subsequent action.
This proposed rule would increase the ACL to 9.60 million lb (4.35 million kg), and ACT to 8.64 million lb (3.92 million kg), whole weight. There would be no impact on small businesses, however, because there is no Federal closure if landings reach or are projected to reach the ACL or ACT.
In conclusion, NMFS expects this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required, and none has been prepared.
No new reporting, record-keeping, or other compliance requirements are introduced by this proposed rule. Accordingly, this proposed rule does not implicate the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Fisheries, Fishing, Gulf, South Atlantic, Spiny lobster, Trap.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR parts 600 and 622 are proposed to be amended as follows:
5 U.S.C. 561 and 16 U.S.C. 1801
(v) * * *
16 U.S.C. 1801
(d) Except for black sea bass pots and golden crab traps as allowed in § 622.188 and § 622.248, respectively, the possession of all other traps is prohibited onboard a vessel in the South Atlantic EEZ when spiny lobster subject to the recreational bag and possession limits specified in § 622.408 is also onboard the vessel. The recreational harvest of spiny lobster using a trap is prohibited in the South Atlantic EEZ.
(c)
For recreational and commercial spiny lobster landings combined, the ACL is 9.60 million lb (4.35 million kg), whole weight. The ACT is 8.64 million lb, (3.92 million kg) whole weight.
Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations, the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) is announcing its intention to renew an approved information collection regarding the regulatory requirements for mechanically tenderized beef products. There are no changes to the existing information collection. The approval for this information collection will expire on June 30, 2018.
Submit comments on or before April 3, 2018.
FSIS invites interested persons to submit comments on this information collection. Comments may be submitted by one of the following methods:
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Gina Kouba, Office of Policy and Program Development, Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Room 6065, South Building, Washington, DC 20250-3700; (202) 720-5627.
FSIS is requesting renewal of an approved information collection addressing paperwork requirements related to labeling requirements for mechanically tenderized beef products. There are no changes to the existing information collection. The approval for this information collection will expire on June 30, 2018.
FSIS requires the use of the descriptive designation “mechanically tenderized” on the labels of raw or partially cooked needle- or blade-tenderized beef products, including beef products injected with marinade or solution, unless these products are to be fully cooked at an official establishment. The Agency also requires that the product name for the beef products include the descriptive designation “mechanically tenderized” and an accurate description of the beef component. Establishments and retail facilitites that use these labels on product do not have to submit them to FSIS for approval prior to use.
FSIS has made the following estimates based upon an information collection assessment:
Copies of this information collection assessment can be obtained from Gina Kouba, Office of Policy and Program Development, Food Safety and Inspection Service, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Room 6065, South Building, Washington, DC 20250-3700; (202) 720-5627.
Responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS also will make copies of this publication available through the FSIS Constituent Update, which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations,
No agency, officer, or employee of the USDA shall, on the grounds of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, or political beliefs, exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or subject to discrimination any person in the United States under any program or activity conducted by the USDA.
To file a complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which may be accessed online at
Send your completed complaint form or letter to USDA by mail, fax, or email: Mail: U.S. Department of Agriculture, Director, Office of Adjudication, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250-9410, Fax: (202) 690-7442, Email:
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.), should contact USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
Rural Housing Service (RHS).
Proposed collection; comments requested.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Rural Housing Service's intention to request a revision of a currently approved information collection in support of the Rural Community Development Initiative (RCDI) grant program.
Comments on this notice must be received by April 3, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Shirley Stevenson, Community Programs Specialist, Community Programs Division, RHS, USDA, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Mail stop 0787, Washington, DC 20250-0787, Telephone (202) 205-9685, Email
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, at (202) 692-0040.
Comments may be sent to Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Rural Development, STOP 0742, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250. All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Rural Housing Service (RHS), USDA.
Proposed collection; Comments requested.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the intention of the above-named Agency to request a revision of a currently approved information collection in support of the Community Facilities Grant Program.
Comments on this notice must be received by April 3, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Karla Peiffer, Asset Risk Management Specialist, Community Programs, RHS, USDA, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Mail Stop 0787, Washington, DC 20250-0787. Telephone: ((515) 284-4729. Email:
Information will be collected by the field offices from applicants, consultants, lenders, and public entities. The collection of information is considered the minimum necessary to effectively evaluate the overall scope of the project.
Failure to collect information could have an adverse impact on effectively carrying out the mission, administration, processing, and program requirements.
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, at (202) 692-0040.
Comments may be sent to Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Rural Development, STOP 0742, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250-0742. All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Pease Development Authority, grantee of FTZ 81, requesting authority to reorganize the zone under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR Sec. 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new subzones or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone. The application was submitted pursuant to the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on January 30, 2018.
FTZ 81 was approved by the FTZ Board on January 20, 1983 (Board Order 207, 48 FR 4308, January 31, 1983) and expanded on April 12, 1985 (Board Order 302, 50 FR 15948, April 23, 1985) and on June 25, 1997 (Board Order 906, 52 FR 36259, July 7, 1997).
The current zone includes the following sites:
The grantee's proposed service area under the ASF would be the Counties of Rockingham, Strafford, Carroll (partial), Belknap (partial), Cheshire, Hillsborough, Merrimack, Sullivan and Grafton (partial), New Hampshire, as described in the application. If approved, the grantee would be able to serve sites throughout the service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The application indicates that the proposed service area is within and adjacent to the Portsmouth and Manchester Customs and Border Protection ports of entry.
The applicant is requesting authority to reorganize its existing zone to include
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Kathleen Boyce of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is April 3, 2018. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to April 18, 2018.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via
Pursuant to Section 766.24 of the Export Administration Regulations (the “Regulations” or “EAR”),
Pursuant to Section 766.24, BIS may issue an order temporarily denying a respondent's export privileges upon a showing that the order is necessary in the public interest to prevent an “imminent violation” of the Regulations. 15 CFR 766.24(b)(1) and 766.24(d). “A violation may be `imminent' either in time or degree of likelihood.” 15 CFR 766.24(b)(3). BIS may show “either that a violation is about to occur, or that the general circumstances of the matter under investigation or case under criminal or administrative charges demonstrate a likelihood of future violations.”
As referenced in OEE's request, Gulnihal Yegane was placed on BIS's Entity List, Supplement No. 4 to Part 744 of the Regulations, on December 12, 2013 (
As discussed in the temporary denial renewal orders issued by BIS against Mahan Airways in July 2013, and February 2014, OEE obtained evidence during 2013 indicating that Mahan Airways had been involved in efforts to unlawfully obtain a U.S.-origin GE CF6-50C2 aircraft engine via transshipment through Turkey. The evidence indicated that Mahan sought to obtain this U.S.-origin engine through Pioneer Logistics Havacilik Turizm Yonetim Danismanlik (“Pioneer Logistics”), a Turkish company involved in procuring and supplying aircraft parts, and its director/operator, Gulnihal Yegane.
Ms. Yegane remains on the Entity List, and as a result of that listing, no item subject to the Regulations may be exported, reexported, or transferred (in-country) to her without prior license authorization from BIS.
In its request, OEE has presented evidence indicating that Ms. Yegane and the other respondents are engaged in procurement activities relating to U.S.-origin aircraft engines and parts for or on behalf of one or more Iranian airlines, operating as transaction parties and/or facilitating transactions that are structured to evade the Regulations (as well as the Iranian Transactions and Sanctions Regulations (“ITSR”), 31 CFR part 560, administered by OFAC)
The evidence presented relates to transactions that occurred between at least September 2016, through at least December 2017. Specifically, in September 2016, Ufuk Avia Lojistik, with Ms. Yegane listed as its contact person, was identified in the consignee field on an air waybill for an unlicensed shipment of a CFM56-3C1 jet aircraft engine, engine serial number (“ESN”) 857203, from the United States to Turkey.
Documentation and correspondence relating to the transaction indicate that the engine was destined for sale or lease to an Iranian airline, contrary to what appeared on export paperwork. The U.S. Government was able to prevent this engine from being transshipped from Turkey on to Iran by returning the engine to the United States pursuant to a redelivery order issued by OEE under Section 758.8 of the Regulations on September 23, 2016.
OEE's investigation also shows that, having been prevented from obtaining ESN 857203 for transshipment to Iran, Ms. Yegane was involved in efforts to obtain other CFM56-3C1 engines (ESNs 856772 and 857999) from the United States for that purpose between September 2016 and November 2016, with the transactions being re-structured and re-routed so that neither Ufuk Avia Lojistik nor Ms. Yegane would be listed in the transaction documents and another company listed as the consignee. The U.S. Government was able to thwart one of these intended transshipments to Iran, with BIS issuing a redelivery order on November 4, 2016, as to ESN 857999. Moreover, in January 2017, Ms. Yegane, Trigron Lojistik Kargo, and RA Havacilik were involved in the transshipment of a CFM56-3C1 jet aircraft engine of unknown serial number, but believed to be subject to the EAR, to Iran.
BIS's investigation has also showed that Trigron Lojistik Kargo is owned and operated by Ms. Yegane and has more recently been used, in conjunction with RA Havacilik, in the routing and attempted routing of shipments from the United States destined for transshipment to Iran via Turkey. The evidence presented by OEE indicates that RA Havacilik was formed on September 26, 2016, three days after BIS ordered the redelivery of ESN 857023. The evidence also suggests that Yegane and/or Trigron may own or control RA Havacilik; at the very least, the evidence indicates that they have been acting in concert to procure aircraft parts from the United States, items subject to the EAR (and the ITSR), for transshipment to Iran. BIS has uncovered several intended exports of such aircraft parts from the United States to RA Havacilik in December 2017, including, for example, gaskets and isolators used on Boeing aircraft. The evidence presented by OEE indicated that at least one of these December 2017 shipments from the United States was, in fact, transshipped on to Iran, contrary to the consignee and buyer information listed on the transaction paperwork. BIS detained other shipments.
In sum, the facts and circumstances here and related evidence indicate a high likelihood of future violations of the Regulations and U.S. export control laws, including Ms. Yegane's previously-identified involvement in an aviation procurement network facilitating trade to Iran for or on behalf of Mahan Airways, a denied person (and SDGT); the repeated attempts to evade the long-standing and well-known U.S. embargo against Iran by obtaining and facilitating the acquisition of controlled jet aircraft engines and other aircraft parts from the United States for transshipment to Iran from at least September 2016, through at least December 2017; and the deliberate, covert, and determined nature of the misconduct and clear disregard for complying with U.S. export control laws.
Accordingly, I find that the evidence presented by BIS demonstrates that a violation of the Regulations is imminent. As such, a temporary denial order (“TDO”) is needed to give notice to persons and companies in the United States and abroad that they should cease dealing with Gulnihal Yegane, Trigron Lojistik Kargo Limited Sirketi, Ufuk Avia Lojistik Limited Sirketi, and RA Havacilik Lojistik Ve Tasimacilik Ticaret Limited Sirketi in export or reexport transactions involving items subject to the EAR. Such a TDO is consistent with the public interest to preclude future violations of the Regulations.
Accordingly, I find that an Order denying the export privileges of Gulnihal Yegane, Trigron Lojistik Kargo Limited Sirketi, Ufuk Avia Lojistik Limited Sirketi, and RA Havacilik Lojistik Ve Tasimacilik Ticaret Limited Sirketi is necessary, in the public interest, to prevent imminent violation of the Regulations.
This Order is being issued on an ex parte basis without a hearing based upon BIS's showing of an imminent violation in accordance with Section 766.24 of the Regulations.
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, License Exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the EAR, or in any other activity subject to the EAR; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the EAR, or in any other activity subject to the EAR.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of a Denied Person any item subject to the EAR;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by a Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the EAR that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby a Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from a Denied Person of any item subject to the EAR that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from a Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the EAR with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the EAR that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by a Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by a Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the EAR that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
In accordance with the provisions of Section 766.24(e) of the EAR, Respondents Gulnihal Yegane, Trigron Lojistik Kargo Limited Sirketi, Ufuk Avia Lojistik Limited Sirketi, or RA Havacilik Lojistik Ve Tasimacilik Ticaret Limited Sirketi may, at any time, appeal this Order by filing a full written statement in support of the appeal with the Office of the Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Coast Guard ALJ Docketing Center, 40 South Gay Street, Baltimore, Maryland 21202-4022.
In accordance with the provisions of Section 766.24(d) of the EAR, BIS may seek renewal of this Order by filing a written request not later than 20 days before the expiration date. Respondents Gulnihal Yegane, Trigron Lojistik Kargo Limited Sirketi, Ufuk Avia Lojistik Limited Sirketi, and RA Havacilik Lojistik Ve Tasimacilik Ticaret Limited Sirketi may oppose a request to renew this Order by filing a written submission with the Assistant Secretary for Export Enforcement, which must be received not later than seven days before the expiration date of the Order.
A copy of this Order shall be served on Respondents and shall be published in the
This Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect for 180 days.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable February 2, 2018.
Katherine Johnson at (202) 482-4929 or Renato Barreda at (202) 482-0317 (the People's Republic of China (China)), and Denisa Ursu at (202) 482-2285 or Michael Bowen at (202) 482-0768 (Italy), Robert Palmer at (202) 482-9068 (Taiwan), AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230.
On October 25, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Commerce) initiated less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigations of imports of forged steel fittings from China, Italy and Taiwan.
Section 733(b)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires Commerce to issue the preliminary determination in an LTFV investigation within 140 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation. However, section 733(c)(1) of the Act permits Commerce to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 190 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation if: (A) The petitioner makes a timely request for a postponement; or (B) Commerce concludes that the parties concerned are cooperating, that the investigation is extraordinarily complicated, and that additional time is necessary to make a preliminary determination. Under 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioner must submit a request for postponement 25 days or more before the scheduled date of the preliminary determination and must state the reasons for the request. Commerce will grant the request unless it finds compelling reasons to deny the request.
On January 10, 2018, the petitioners
For the reasons stated above and because there are no compelling reasons to deny the request, Commerce, in accordance with section 733(c)(1)(A) of the Act, is postponing the deadline for the preliminary determinations by 50 days (
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 733(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
International Trade Administration, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before April 3, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Export Trading Company Affairs, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 21028, Washington, DC 20230. Phone: 202-482-5131. Email:
Title III of the Export Trading Company Act (hereinafter “the Act”) of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-290, 15 U.S.C. 4001
The Department of Commerce conducts its economic and legal analysis of the information supplied by applicants through the Office of Trade and Economic Analysis and the Office of the General Counsel. In the Department of Justice, analysis is conducted by the Antitrust Division.
Title III was enacted to reduce uncertainty regarding the application of U.S. antitrust laws to export activities. An Export Trade Certificate of Review provides its holder and members named in the Certificate with (a) protection from government actions under state and federal antitrust laws for the export conduct specified in the Certificate, and (b) certain protection from private suits, by limiting liability in private actions to actual damages when the challenged activities are covered by an Export Trade Certificate of Review.
The form is sent by request to U.S. firms.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that certain tapered roller bearings (TRBs) from the Republic of Korea (Korea) are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is April 1, 2016, through March 31, 2017.
Applicable February 2, 2018.
Blaine Wiltse or Manuel Rey, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6345 or (202) 482-5518, respectively.
Commerce has exercised its discretion to toll deadlines for the duration of the closure of the Federal Government from January 20 through 22, 2018. If the new deadline falls on a non-business day, in accordance with Commerce's practice, the deadline will become the next business day. Accordingly, the revised deadline for the preliminary determination of this investigation is now January 29, 2018.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on July 25, 2017.
The products covered by this investigation are certain TRBs from Korea. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to Commerce's regulations,
On October 24, 2017, the petitioner alleged that a particular market situation (PMS) existed during the POI with respect to the production of TRBs in Korea.
Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Commerce has calculated export price in accordance with section 772(a) of the Act. Alternatively, as appropriate, constructed export price has been calculated in accordance with section 772(b) of the Act. Normal value (NV) is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary determination,
Sections 733(d)(1)(ii) and 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that in the preliminary determination Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually examined. This rate shall be an amount equal to the average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters or producers individually investigated, excluding any zero or
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making this preliminary determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the petitioner. Section 351.210(e)(2) of Commerce's regulations requires that a request by exporters for postponement of the final determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.
On January 2, 2018, and January 10, 2018, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), Schaeffler and Bearing Art, respectively, requested that Commerce postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of its preliminary determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The scope of this investigation is certain tapered roller bearings. The scope covers all tapered roller bearings with a nominal outside cup diameter of eight inches and under, regardless of type of steel used to produce the bearing, whether of inch or metric size, and whether the tapered roller bearing is a thrust bearing or not. Certain tapered roller bearings include: Finished cup and cone assemblies entering as a set, finished cone assemblies entering separately, and finished parts (cups, cones, and tapered rollers). Certain tapered roller bearings are sold individually as a set (cup and cone assembly), as a cone assembly, as a finished cup, or packaged as a kit with one or several tapered roller bearings, a seal, and grease. The scope of the investigation includes finished rollers and finished cones that have not been assembled with rollers and a cage. Certain tapered roller bearings can be a single row or multiple rows (
Finished cups, cones, and rollers differ from unfinished cups, cones, and rollers in that they have undergone further processing after heat treatment, including, but not limited to, final machining, grinding, and/or polishing. Mere heat treatment of a cup, cone, or roller (without any further processing after heat treatment) does not render the cup, cone, or roller a finished part for the purpose of this investigation. Finished tapered roller bearing parts are understood to mean parts which, at the time of importation, are ready for assembly (if further assembly is required) and require no further finishing or fabrication, such as grinding, lathing, machining, polishing, heat treatment,
Tapered roller bearings that have a nominal outer cup diameter of eight inches and under that may be used in wheel hub units, rail bearings, or other housed bearings, but entered separately, are included in the scope to the same extent as described above. All tapered roller bearings meeting the written description above, and not otherwise excluded, are included, regardless of coating.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are:
(1) Unfinished parts of tapered roller bearings (cups, cones, and tapered rollers);
(2) cages, whether finished or unfinished;
(3) the non-tapered roller bearing components of subject kits (
(4) tapered roller bearing wheel hub units, rail bearings, and other housed tapered roller bearings (flange, take up cartridges, and hanger units incorporating tapered rollers).
Tapered roller bearings subject to this investigation are primarily classifiable under subheadings 8482.20.0040, 8482.20.0061, 8482.20.0070, 8482.20.0081, 8482.91.0050, 8482.99.1550, and 8482.99.1580 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that low melt polyester staple fiber (low melt PSF) from Taiwan is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is April 1, 2016, through March 31, 2017.
Applicable February 2, 2018.
Rebecca Janz or Ajay Menon, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2972 or (202) 482-1993, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on July 24, 2017.
The product covered by this investigation is low melt PSF from Taiwan. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to Commerce's regulations,
Commerce is preliminarily modifying the scope language as it appeared in the
Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Commerce has calculated an export price in accordance with section 772(a) of the Act. Normal value (NV) is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary determination,
Section 733(d)(1)(A)(ii) of the Act provides that in the preliminary determination Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually examined. Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that this rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
Commerce calculated an individual estimated weighted-average dumping margin for Far Eastern New Century Corporation (FENC), the only individually examined exporter/producer in this investigation.
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making its final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the petitioner. Section 351.210(e)(2) of Commerce's regulations requires that a request by exporters for postponement of the final determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.
On January 2, 2018, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), FENC requested that Commerce postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of its preliminary determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise subject to this investigation is synthetic staple fibers, not carded or combed, specifically bi-component polyester fibers having a polyester fiber component that melts at a lower temperature than the other polyester fiber component (low melt PSF). The scope includes bi-component polyester staple fibers of any denier or cut length. The subject merchandise may be coated, usually with a finish or dye, or not coated.
Excluded from the scope of the investigation on low melt PSF from Taiwan are any products covered by the existing antidumping duty orders on certain polyester staple fiber from Taiwan.
Low melt PSF is classifiable under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading 5503.20.0015. Although the HTSUS subheading is provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of the merchandise under the investigation is dispositive.
United States Section, NAFTA Secretariat, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice.
A Request for Panel Review was filed on behalf of the Government of Canada; Government of Alberta; Government of British Columbia; Government of Ontario; Government of Québec; Alberta Softwood Lumber Trade Council; British Columbia Lumber Trade Council; Conseil de l'Industrie forestier du Québec and Ontario Forest Industries Association; Canfor Corporation; J.D. Irving, Limited; Resolute FP Canada Inc. and Rene Bernard Inc.; Tembec Inc. and Eacom Timber Corporation; and West Fraser Mills Ltd. with the United States Section of the NAFTA Secretariat on January 19, 2018 and on behalf of Western Forest Products, Inc. on January 26, 2018, pursuant to NAFTA Article 1904. Panel Review was requested of the U.S. International Trade Commission's final injury
Paul E. Morris, United States Secretary, NAFTA Secretariat, Room 2061, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, (202) 482-5438.
Chapter 19 of Article 1904 of NAFTA provides a dispute settlement mechanism involving trade remedy determinations issued by the Government of the United States, the Government of Canada, and the Government of Mexico. Following a Request for Panel Review, a Binational Panel is composed to review the trade remedy determination being challenged and issue a binding Panel Decision. There are established NAFTA Rules of Procedure for Article 1904 Binational Panel Reviews, which were adopted by the three governments for panels requested pursuant to Article 1904(2) of NAFTA which requires Requests for Panel Review to be published in accordance with Rule 35. For the complete Rules, please see
The Rules provide that:
(a) A Party or interested person may challenge the final determination in whole or in part by filing a Complaint in accordance with Rule 39 within 30 days after the filing of the first Request for Panel Review (the deadline for filing a Complaint is February 20, 2018);
(b) A Party, investigating authority or interested person that does not file a Complaint but that intends to appear in support of any reviewable portion of the final determination may participate in the panel review by filing a Notice of Appearance in accordance with Rule 40 within 45 days after the filing of the first Request for Panel Review (the deadline for filing a Notice of Appearance is March 5, 2018); and
(c) The panel review shall be limited to the allegations of error of fact or law, including challenges to the jurisdiction of the investigating authority, that are set out in the Complaints filed in the panel review and to the procedural and substantive defenses raised in the panel review.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that Low Melt Polyester Staple Fiber (low melt PSF) from the Republic of Korea (Korea) is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is April 1, 2016, through March 31, 2017.
Applicable February 2, 2018.
Alice Maldonado or Brittany Bauer, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4682 or (202) 482-3860, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on July 24, 2017.
The product covered by this investigation is low melt PSF from Korea. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the preamble to Commerce's regulations,
Nonetheless, Commerce is preliminarily modifying the scope language as it appeared in the
Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Commerce has calculated export prices in accordance with section 772(a) of the Act. Normal value (NV) is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary determination,
In accordance with section 733(e) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, Commerce preliminarily finds that critical circumstances do not exist for Huvis Corporation (Huvis), and do exist for Toray Chemical Korea Inc. (TCK) and all other producers/exporters. For a full description of the methodology and results of Commerce's critical circumstances analysis,
Sections 733(d)(1)(ii) and 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that in the preliminary determination Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually examined. This rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
In this investigation, Commerce preliminarily found a zero rate for Huvis. Therefore, the only rate that is not zero,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
Because the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for Huvis is zero, entries of shipments of subject merchandise produced and exported by this company will not be subject to suspension of liquidation or cash deposit requirements. In such situations, Commerce applies the exclusion to the provisional measures to the producer/exporter combination that was examined in the investigation. Accordingly, Commerce is directing CBP not to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise produced and exported by Huvis. Entries of shipments of subject merchandise from this company in any other producer/exporter combination, or by third parties that sourced subject merchandise from the excluded producer/exporter combination, are subject to the provisional measures at the all others rate.
Should the final estimated weighted-average dumping margin be zero or
Section 733(e)(2) of the Act provides that, given an affirmative determination of critical circumstances, any suspension of liquidation shall apply to unliquidated entries of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the later of (a) the date which is 90 days before the date on which the suspension of liquidation was first ordered, or (b) the date on which notice of initiation of the investigation was published. Commerce preliminarily finds that critical circumstances exist for imports of subject merchandise produced or exported by TCK and all producers/exporters of low melt PSF from Korea, except for Huvis. In accordance with section 733(e)(2)(A) of the Act, the suspension of liquidation shall apply to unliquidated entries of shipments of subject merchandise from the producer(s) or exporter(s) identified in this paragraph that were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date which is 90 days before the publication of this notice.
These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making its final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation. Rebuttal briefs, limited to
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the petitioner. Section 351.210(e)(2) of Commerce's regulations requires that a request by exporters for postponement of the final determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.
On December 1 and December 5, 2017, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), TCK and Huvis, respectively, requested that Commerce postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of its preliminary determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise subject to this investigation is synthetic staple fibers, not carded or combed, specifically bi-component polyester fibers having a polyester fiber component that melts at a lower temperature than the other polyester fiber component (low melt PSF). The scope includes bi-component polyester staple fibers of any denier or cut length. The subject merchandise may be coated, usually with a finish or dye, or not coated.
Excluded from the scope of the investigation on low melt PSF from Korea are any products covered by the existing antidumping duty order on certain polyester staple fiber from Korea.
Low melt PSF is classifiable under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading 5503.20.0015. Although the HTSUS subheading is provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of the merchandise under the investigation is dispositive.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before April 3, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Brian Summers at (301) 427-8783 or
This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection.
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) operates a direct loan program to assist in financing certain actions relating to commercial fishing vessels, shoreside fishery facilities, aquaculture operations, and individual fishing quotas. Application information is required to determine eligibility pursuant to 50 CFR part 253 and to determine the type and amount of assistance requested by the applicant. An annual financial statement is required from the recipients to monitor the financial status of the loan.
Paper applications.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before April 3, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to Dave Bard, (301) 427-8197 or
This request is for new information collection. The title will be “Marine Recreational Information Program Social Network Survey.”
In its 2017 review of NOAA Fisheries' Marine Recreational Information Program (MRIP), the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine, also known as the National Academies, recommended the program enhance its communications and outreach activities, particularly among the recreational fishing community. MRIP is taking an objective, research-based approach to doing so. In 2016, MRIP conducted a partner and stakeholder needs assessment. In 2018, MRIP will undertake a social network survey. This effort will help identify relationships, networks, channels, and information flow among a target population, in this case the numerous audiences that comprise the recreational fishing community. Completing this survey and the subsequent analysis will help MRIP more effectively engage with its audiences by identifying key influencers and information pathways, and identifying the areas of greatest need and greatest opportunity for relationship-building.
A mail survey sample will be drawn from the National Saltwater Angler Registry, a database of licensed recreational anglers living in the U.S. The information comes mostly from state-based saltwater fishing license and registration programs. Questions will explore such issues as broad information channels and pathways among recreational anglers; understanding of and confidence in recreational data collection, estimation, and reporting; confidence in their information sources; awareness of the distinctions and connections between recreational data collection and recreational fisheries management, etc., including regional differences. Data gathered will include angler use of and trust in different sources (
Information will be collected through mail surveys.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce.
Notice of open public meeting.
This notice sets forth the proposed schedule and agenda of a forthcoming meeting of the Marine Fisheries Advisory Committee's (MAFAC's) Columbia Basin Partnership Task Force (CBP Task Force). The CBP Task Force will discuss the issues outlined in the
The meeting will be held February 20, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. and on February 21, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 4 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Residence Inn Boise Downtown City Center, 400 S Capitol Blvd., Boise, ID 83702; 208-424-9999.
Katherine Cheney; NFMS West Coast Region; 503-231-6730; email:
Notice is hereby given of a meeting of MAFAC's CBP Task Force. The MAFAC was established by the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) and, since 1971, advises the Secretary on all living marine resource matters that are the responsibility of the Department of Commerce. The MAFAC charter and summaries of prior MAFAC meetings are located online at
The meeting time and agenda are subject to change. Updated information will be available on the CBP Task Force web page above. Meeting topics include discussion of hatchery, hydrosystem, and other ecological considerations, and progress reports on quantitative and qualitative goal setting and basin-wide integration. The meeting is open to the public as observers, and public input will be accepted on February 21, 2018, from 1:15 to 1:45 p.m., limited to the time available.
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Katherine Cheney; 503-231-6730, by February 12, 2018.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Additions to the Procurement List.
This action adds products to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
Amy B. Jensen, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
On 5/26/2017 (82 FR 101) and 12/22/2017 (82 FR 245), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notices of proposed additions to the Procurement List.
After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agencies to provide the products and impact of the additions on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the products listed below are suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in any additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities other than the small organizations that will furnish the products to the Government.
2. The action will result in authorizing small entities to furnish the products to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the products proposed for addition to the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following products are added to the Procurement List:
Comments were received from one (1) potentially affected subcontractor in response to the Commission's notice published in the
In accordance with 41 CFR 51-2.4(4),
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed addition to and deletions from the Procurement List.
The Committee is proposing to add a service to the Procurement List that will be provided by a nonprofit agency employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities, and deletes products previously furnished by such agencies.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
For further information or to submit comments contact: Amy B. Jensen, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
If the Committee approves the proposed addition, the entities of the Federal Government identified in this notice will be required to provide the service listed below from a nonprofit agency employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
The following service is proposed for addition to the Procurement List for production by the nonprofit agency listed:
The following products are proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Department of the Navy (DoN), U.S. Marine Corps, DOD.
Notice of availability.
The Department of the Navy (DoN) announces the availability of the Record of Decision (ROD) for the Environmental Impact Statement for Multiple Projects in Support of Marine Barracks Washington, DC. The Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Energy, Installations and Environment) signed the ROD on January 24, 2018.
Copies of the ROD along with the Final EIS and other supporting documents are available for public viewing on the DoN's project website at
MBW EIS Project Manager: Ms. Julie Darsie, 1314 Harwood Street SE, Building 212, Washington Navy Yard, DC 20374-5018, 202-685-1754.
Pursuant to Section 102(2)(c) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 United States Code (U.S.C.) 4321-4370h, as implemented by the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) Regulations at 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) parts 1500-1508; DoN NEPA regulations (32 CFR part 775); and Marine Corps Order P5090.2A, Change 3, Marine Corps Environmental Compliance and Protection Manual (Marine Corps Order P5090.2A, Change 3), the DON, after carefully considering the environmental consequences of the proposed action and alternatives analyzed in a November 2017 Final EIS, announces its decision to implement repair, renovation, and construction projects at Marine Barracks Washington (MBW), District of Columbia (DC). The DON has selected the Preferred Alternative (Alternative 5—Site E) from the Final EIS, which provides for the construction of a replacement BEQ Complex at the MBW Annex site totaling approximately 191,405 square feet (SF) and ranging in height from 7-10 stories depending on the massing option chosen during the design phase. Alternative 5 also includes renovation and improvement projects to Building 7 at the Main Post; improvements to the MBW Annex gate at 7th and K Streets; and improvements to building facades, fencing, infrastructure, pedestrian amenities, and landscaping throughout the installation.
The DoN ROD documents why the DoN has chosen to implement the Preferred Alternative as described in the 2017 Final EIS. This decision adopts all of the measures identified in the Final EIS and the Programmatic Agreement (PA) to avoid or minimize potential adverse cultural resources impacts from the Preferred Alternative. The ROD also includes descriptions and discussions of the anticipated environmental impacts of the Proposed Action.
35 U.S.C. 207; 37 CFR part 404.
Office of Postsecondary Education (OPE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing an extension of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before April 3, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Ashley Higgins, 202-453-6097.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of Fossil Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces a meeting of the Methane Hydrate Advisory Committee. The Federal Advisory Committee Act requires that notice of these meetings be announced in the
Hotel Galvez, Navigation Room, 2024 Seawall Blvd., Galveston, TX 77550.
Lou Capitanio, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Oil and Natural Gas, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
Take notice that on January 19, 2018, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern), P.O. Box 1642, Houston, Texas 77251, filed a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.208 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), as amended, and the blanket certificate issued by the Commission in Docket No. CP82-535-000 requesting authorization to relocate certain segments of two adjacent pipelines in Montgomery County, Pennsylvania as part of its Skippack Pike Relocation Project. The Skippack Pike Relocation Project will accommodate a planned expansion of Pennsylvania State Route 202 in Montgomery County by the Pennsylvania Department of Transportation. Specifically, Texas Eastern proposes to relocate certain segments of its Line 1-B and Line 1-F pipelines, and to cut, cap and fill with grout certain portions of these pipelines. The total cost of the Skippack Pike Relocation Project is estimated to be approximately $12,600,000, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection.
The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Leanne Sidorkewicz, Manager, Rates and Certificates, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP, P.O. Box 1642, Houston, Texas 77251-1642, by telephone at (713) 627-4515, by fax at (713) 627-5947, or by email at
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to section 157.205 of the regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205), a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for filing a protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenter's will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents,
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at:
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
Notice of information collection—extension without change: State and Local Government Information Report (EEO-4).
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) announces that it intends to submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for a three-year extension without change of the State and Local Government Information Report (EEO-4 Report, Form 164).
Written comments on this notice must be submitted on or before April 3, 2018.
Comments should be sent to Bernadette Wilson, Executive Officer, Executive Secretariat, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street NE, Washington, DC 20507. As a convenience to commenters, the Executive Secretariat will accept comments totaling six or fewer pages by facsimile (“FAX”) machine. This limitation is necessary to assure access to the equipment. The telephone number of the fax receiver is (202) 663-4114. (This is not a toll-free number). Receipt of FAX transmittals will not be acknowledged, except that the sender may request confirmation of receipt by calling the Executive Secretariat staff at (202) 663-4070 (voice) or (202) 663-4074 (TTD). (These are not toll-free telephone numbers.) Instead of sending written comments to EEOC, you may submit comments and attachments electronically at
Benita Marsh, Director of Surveys, Office of Research, Information and Planning, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, 131 M Street NE, Washington, DC 20507; (202) 663-7197 (voice) or by email at
Pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, and OMB Regulations 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), the Commission solicits public comment to enable it to:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the Commission's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
EEO-4 data are used by the EEOC to investigate charges of discrimination against state and local governments and to provide information on the employment status of minorities and women. The data are shared with several other Federal agencies. Pursuant to section 709(d) of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, U.S.C. 2000e-8(d), as amended, EEO-4 data are shared with State and Local Fair Employment Practices Agencies (FEPAs). Aggregated data are also used by researchers and the general public.
The cost estimates are based on the assumption that filers use online reporting. For the 2015 EEO-4 report, 85% of EEO-4 filers submitted their report via online reporting and 5% of EEO-4 reports were submitted using the data upload method. The remaining 10% of filers submitted reports via the paper method. The EEOC has made electronic filing much easier for employers required to file the EEO-4 Report. As a result, more jurisdictions are using this filing method. This development, along with the greater availability of human resource information software, is expected to have significantly
For the Commission.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
The Commission announces the next meeting date, time, and agenda of its Consumer Advisory Committee (hereinafter the “Committee”). The mission of the Committee is to make recommendations to the Commission regarding consumer issues within the jurisdiction of the Commission and to facilitate the participation of consumers (including underserved populations, such as Native Americans, persons living in rural areas, older persons, people with disabilities, and persons for whom English is not their primary language) in proceedings before the Commission.
February 26, 2018, 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW, Commission Meeting Room TW-C305, Washington, DC 20554.
Scott Marshall, Designated Federal Officer of the Committee, (202) 418-2809 (voice or Relay); email
This is a summary of the Commission's document DA 18-65, released January 25, 2018, announcing the Agenda, Date, and Time of the Committee's Next Meeting.
At its February 26, 2018 meeting, the Committee is expected to consider a recommendation from its Robocalls Working Group regarding call authentication. The Committee will also receive briefings from Commission staff on issues of interest to the Committee.
A limited amount of time will be available for comments from the public. If time permits, the public may ask questions of presenters via the email address
The meeting is open to the public and the site is fully accessible to people using wheelchairs or other mobility aids. Sign language interpreters, open captioning, assistive listening devices, and Braille copies of the agenda and committee roster will be provided on site. Meetings of the Committee are also broadcast live with open captioning over the internet from the FCC Live web page at
Based upon the foregoing, the receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201. No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than March 1, 2018.
1.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments
1.
In addition,
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a proposed and/or continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled
CDC must receive written comments on or before April 3, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2018-00011 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Leroy A. Richardson, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Evaluation of the Chronic Disease Self-Management Program in the US Affiliated Pacific Islands—New—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
NCCDPHP plans to evaluate the first ever implementation of Stanford University's Chronic Disease Self-Management Program (CDSMP) in the US Affiliated Pacific Islands (USAPIs). These jurisdictions include American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the Republic of Palau, the Republic of the Marshall Islands, and the Federated States of Micronesia.
The purpose of the evaluation is to understand how CDSMP is being implemented in the region, to identify barriers and facilitators to implementation, to monitor fidelity to Stanford University's model and document adaptations to the curriculum, and to understand the self-reported effects of the program on program participants.
Evaluating the implementation of CDSMP in the Pacific is important because there is a lack of evidence-based chronic disease prevention and management programs in the USAPIs. CDSMP has proven to improve health outcomes in many ethnic groups within the United States, however, we are unsure whether the same health outcomes will be achieved within the USAPIs. The data collected for this evaluation will help the CDC assess the effect of CDSMP on health outcomes in
In this evaluation, program participants (people who are enrolled in six-week CDSMP workshops) will be asked to fill out the following voluntary surveys:
•
•
Program participants will voluntarily complete three surveys over the course of the six-week CDSMP workshop. We anticipate collecting surveys over a three-year period, or 36 months.
The CDC will provide CDSMP leaders in the USAPIs with surveys. CDSMP leaders will administer the voluntary paper-based surveys to participants during the workshops, collect the surveys, and submit the surveys to the CDC.
CDSMP leaders will store surveys in a locked cabinet only accessible to them. They will scan the survey in a secure location on a dedicated server only accessible to the CDSMP leader. The server will have a firewall. CDSMP leaders will encrypt and submit electronic copies of the survey to the CDC.
CDC will maintain the surveys and abstracted data in secure location on a dedicated server only accessible by the evaluation staff, the program coordinator, and the program assistant. The server will have a firewall. Data will be aggregated and the aggregated data will be used and shared with stakeholders.
Data will not be collected from participants electronically because computers and other electronic data collection methods will not be available at the six-week workshops.
The information collection will involve approximately 190 respondents for a total cost of $19,501. The estimated cost to participants is $570. There are a total of three responses, or three surveys, per respondent. Each response will take 10 minutes to complete. The estimated time burden is 95 hours. We do not anticipate capital and start-up costs to respondents and record keepers. We expect an operation and maintenance cost for record keepers, who will print surveys and provide pens for program participants to fill out the survey, which will cost $11.40 for paper and $25 for pens.
In compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 concerning opportunity for public comment on proposed collections of information, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) will publish periodic summaries of proposed projects. To request more information on the proposed projects or to obtain a copy of the information collection plans, call the SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer on (240) 276-1243.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration's (SAMHSA), Center for Mental Health Services (CMHS) funds a National Suicide Prevention Lifeline Network (“Lifeline”), consisting of a toll-free telephone number that routes calls from anywhere in the United States to a network of local crisis centers. In turn, the local centers link callers to local emergency, mental health, and social service resources. This project is a revision of the Evaluation of Imminent Risk and builds on previously approved data collection activities [Evaluation of Networking Suicide Prevention Hotlines Follow-Up Assessment (OMB No. 0930-0274) and Call Monitoring of National Suicide Prevention Lifeline Form (OMB No. 0930-0275)]. The extension data collection is an effort to advance the understanding of crisis hotline utilization and its impact.
The overarching purpose of the proposed Evaluation of Imminent Risk data collection is to evaluate hotline counselors' management of imminent risk callers and third party callers concerned about persons at imminent risk, assess counselor adherence to the
Clearance is being requested for
Crisis counselors at seven participating centers will record information discussed with imminent risk callers on the Imminent Risk Form-Revised, which does not require direct data collection from callers. As with previously approved evaluations, callers will maintain anonymity. Participating counselors will be asked to complete the form for 100% of their imminent risk calls. At centers with high call volumes, data collection may be limited to designated shifts. This form requests information in 15 content areas, each with multiple sub-items and response options. Response options include open-ended, yes/no, Likert-type ratings, and multiple choice/check all that apply. The form also requests demographic information on the caller, the identification of the center and counselor submitting the form, and the date of the call. Specifically, the form is divided into the following sections: (1) Counselor information, (2) center information, (3) call characteristics (
The estimated response burden to collect this information is annualized over the requested two-year clearance period and is presented below:
Send comments to Summer King, SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer, SAMHSA, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 15E57B, Rockville, MD 20857
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of meeting/teleconference.
The North American Wetlands Conservation Council will meet via teleconference to select U.S. small grant proposals for reporting to the Migratory Bird Conservation Commission under the North American Wetlands Conservation Act. This teleconference is open to the public, and interested persons may present oral or written statements.
Sarah Mott, Council Coordinator, by phone at 703-358-1784; by email at
In accordance with the North American Wetlands Conservation Act (Pub. L. 101-233, 103 Stat. 1968, December 13, 1989, as amended; NAWCA), the State-private-Federal North American Wetlands Conservation Council (Council) meets to consider wetland acquisition, restoration, enhancement, and management projects for recommendation to, and final funding approval by, the Migratory Bird Conservation Commission (Commission).
NAWCA provides matching grants to organizations and individuals who have developed partnerships to carry out wetlands conservation projects in the United States, Canada, and Mexico. These projects must involve long-term protection, restoration, and/or enhancement of wetlands and associated uplands habitats for the benefit of all wetlands-associated migratory birds. Project proposal due dates, application instructions, and eligibility requirements are available on the NAWCA website at
Interested members of the public may submit relevant information or questions to be considered during the teleconference. If you wish to submit a written statement so information may be made available to the Council for their consideration prior to the teleconference, you must contact the Council Coordinator by the date in
Individuals or groups requesting to make an oral presentation during the teleconference will be limited to 2 minutes per speaker, with no more than a total of 10 minutes for all speakers. Interested parties should contact the Council Coordinator by the date in
Summary minutes of the Council teleconference will be maintained by the Council Coordinator at the address under
Office of the Secretary, Interior.
Notice.
The
All nominations must be received by March 5, 2018.
A complete nomination package should be submitted by hard copy to Elise Hsieh, Executive Director,
Questions should be directed to Cherri Womac,
The
The Trustee Council consists of representatives of the U.S. Department of the Interior, U.S. Department of Agriculture, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Alaska Department of Fish and Game, Alaska Department of Environmental Conservation, and Alaska Department of Law. Appointment to the Public Advisory Council will be made by the Secretary of the Interior.
The Public Advisory Committee consists of 10 members to reflect balanced representation from each of the following principal interests: Aquaculture/mariculture, commercial tourism, conservation/environmental, recreation, subsistence use, commercial fishing, public-at-large, native landownership, sport hunting/fishing, and science/technology. As stated above, the only vacancy at this time is for the conservationist/environmentalist.
Nominations for membership may be submitted by any source. Nominations should include a resume providing an adequate description of the nominee's qualifications, including information that would enable the Department of the Interior to make an informed decision regarding meeting the membership requirements of the Public Advisory Committee and permit the Department of the Interior to contact a potential member.
Individuals who are federally registered lobbyists are ineligible to serve on all FACA and non-FACA boards, committees, or councils in an individual capacity. The term “individual capacity” refers to individuals who are appointed to exercise their own individual best judgment on behalf of the government, such as when they are designated Special Government Employees, rather than being appointed to represent a particular interest.
Public availability of comments. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your nomination/comment, you should be aware that your entire nomination/comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your nomination/comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
5 U.S.C. Appendix 2
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of intent.
On September 14, 2016, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) issued the Record of Decision (ROD) for the Desert Renewable Energy Conservation Plan Land Use Plan Amendment (DRECP), which amended the California Desert Conservation Area (CDCA) Plan, Bishop Resource Management Plan (RMP), and the Bakersfield RMP in the Mojave and Colorado/Sonoran Desert regions of southern California. On March 28, 2017, the President issued Executive Order 13783, “Promoting Energy Independence and Economic Growth,” which directs all Federal agencies to review all actions that could “potentially burden the development or use of domestically produced energy resources.” To facilitate the BLM's review of the DRECP, including potential burdens on domestic renewable energy production in California, the BLM, by this notice, is announcing the beginning of the scoping process to solicit public comments and identify issues.
This notice initiates the public scoping process for the potential plan amendments and associated National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) documents. Comments on issues may be submitted in writing until March 19, 2018. The dates and locations of any scoping meetings will be announced at least 15 days in advance through local news media, newspapers and the BLM website at
You may submit comments on issues and planning criteria to the BLM-California State Director, 2800 Cottage Way, Rm W-1623, Sacramento, CA 95825 or electronically to
Jeremiah Karuzas, Renewable Energy Lead, 916-978-4644, 2800 Cottage Way, Rm W-1623, Sacramento, CA 95825; email:
On July 29, 2011, the BLM and the Fish and Wildlife Service initiated a process to jointly prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) under the NEPA for the DRECP. After the BLM prepared an EIS, on September 14, 2016, it issued a DRECP ROD that amended the CDCA Plan, Bishop RMP, and Bakersfield RMP in the Mojave and Colorado/Sonoran Desert regions of southern California. The DRECP Planning Area covered approximately 22,587,000 acres of both Federal and non-Federal land—including portions of seven counties (Imperial, Inyo, Kern, Los Angeles, Riverside, San Bernardino, and San Diego). The BLM manages approximately 10.8 million acres of the DRECP planning area.
The BLM's DRECP makes available just over 800,000 acres (7%) of the 10.8 million acres of land potentially available for renewable energy development, of which 388,000 acres (4%) were designated as Development Focus Areas, considered to be areas with substantial renewable energy potential and low resource conflict. The ROD allocated a total of 6.5 million acres (60%) as conservation areas, to include California Desert National Conservation Lands, Areas of Critical Environmental Concern, wildlife allocations, and National Scenic and Historic Trail corridors—which limit or are closed to renewable energy. The ROD also designated a little over 3.5 million acres (33%) as Special Recreation Management Areas and Extensive Recreation Management Areas—which the ROD states are also generally closed to renewable energy.
As a result of concerns voiced by multiple parties throughout the public comment periods of the DRECP planning process, the BLM seeks additional comment on the DRECP ROD, including the renewable energy and conservation designations made through that decision. In 2008, Governor Schwarzenegger signed an executive order that required that 33 percent of California's energy production be via renewable energy in 2020. In October 2015, Governor Edmund G. Brown, Jr. signed into law a measure which requires retail sellers and publicly owned utilities to procure 50 percent of their electricity from renewable energy resources by 2030. And, on March 28, 2017, the President issued Executive Order 13783, “Promoting Energy Independence and Economic Growth,” which directs all Federal agencies to review all actions that could “potentially burden the development or use of domestically produced energy resources.” In recognition of these goals and direction, BLM seeks comment on the potential impacts that land use
Finally, on January 8, 2018, the President signed an Executive Order on Streamlining and Expediting Requests to Locate Broadband Facilities in Rural America, which directs Federal agencies: “. . . to reduce barriers to capital investment, remove obstacles to broadband services, and more efficiently employ Government resources” in order to foster rural broadband infrastructure projects. Therefore, the BLM also seeks comment on the impact that land use designations, land disturbance limits (or “caps”), and visual management classifications contained in the amended RMPs may have on the deployment of future communications infrastructure.
You may submit comments in writing to the BLM at any public scoping meeting, or you may submit them to the BLM using the method listed in the
The BLM will utilize and coordinate the NEPA scoping process to help fulfill the public involvement process under the National Historic Preservation Act (54 U.S.C. 306108) as provided in 36 CFR 800.2(d)(3). The information about historic and cultural resources within the area potentially affected by the proposed action will assist the BLM in identifying and evaluating impacts to such resources.
The BLM will consult with Indian tribes on a government-to-government basis in accordance with Executive Order 13175 and other policies. Tribal concerns, including impacts on Indian trust assets and potential impacts to cultural resources, will be given due consideration. Federal, State, and local agencies, along with tribes and other stakeholders that may be interested in or affected by the proposed action that the BLM is evaluating, are invited to participate in the scoping process and, if eligible, may request or be requested by the BLM to participate in the development of the environmental analysis as a cooperating agency.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
The minutes and list of attendees for each scoping meeting will be available to the public and open for 30 days after the meeting to any participant who wishes to clarify the views he or she expressed. The BLM will evaluate identified issues to be addressed in the plan, and will place them into one of three categories:
1. Issues to be resolved in the plan amendment;
2. Issues to be resolved through policy or administrative action; or
3. Issues beyond the scope of this plan amendment.
The BLM will provide an explanation in the Draft Plan Amendment and NEPA document as to why an issue was placed in category two or three. The public is also encouraged to help identify any management questions and concerns that should be addressed in the plan. The BLM will work collaboratively with interested parties to identify the management decisions that are best suited to local, regional, and national needs and concerns. The BLM will use an interdisciplinary approach to develop the plan amendment in order to consider the variety of resource issues and concerns identified.
40 CFR 1501.7 and 43 CFR 1610.2.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of the final phase of antidumping and countervailing duty investigation Nos. 701-TA-581 and 731-TA-1374-1376 (Final) pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury, or the establishment of an industry in the United States is materially retarded, by reason of imports of citric acid and certain citrate salts from Belgium, Colombia, and Thailand, provided for in subheadings 2918.14.00, 2918.15.10, 2918.15.50, 3824.99.92, and 3824.99.92 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, preliminarily determined by the Department of Commerce to be subsidized and sold at less-than-fair-value.
January 8, 2018.
Amelia Shister (202-205-2047), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
The scope also includes all forms of crude calcium citrate, including dicalcium citrate monohydrate, and tricalcium citrate tetrahydrate, which are intermediate products in the production of citric acid, sodium citrate, and potassium citrate.
The scope includes the hydrous and anhydrous forms of citric acid, the dehydrate and anhydrous forms of sodium citrate, otherwise known as citric acid sodium salt, and the monohydrate and monopotassium forms of potassium citrate. Sodium citrate also includes both trisodium citrate and monosodium citrate which are also known as citric acid trisodium salt and citric acid monosodium salt, respectively.”
For further information concerning the conduct of this phase of the investigations, hearing procedures, and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and C (19 CFR part 207).
Although the Department of Commerce has preliminarily determined that imports of citric acid and certain citrate salts from Thailand are not being and are not likely to be subsidized by the government not Thailand, for purposes of efficiency the Commission hereby waives rule 207.21(b)
Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to section 201.12 of the
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all other parties to the investigations (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
These investigations are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.21 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women (OVW) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 3, 2018.
Written comments and/or suggestion regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Cathy Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Deputy Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 3E, 405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women (OVW) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 3, 2018.
Written comments and/or suggestion regarding the items contained in this
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
On January 29, 2018, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Eastern District of California in the lawsuit entitled
This case involves claims for alleged violations of Sections 112(r)(1) and 112(r)(7) of the Clean Air Act (“CAA”), 42 U.S.C. 7412(r)(1), (7), Section 103 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act, 42 U.S.C. 9603 (“CERCLA”), and Section 304 of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act, 42 U.S.C. 11004 (“EPCRA”), with respect to Gibson's winemaking facility (“Facility”) located in Sanger, California. The complaint sought injunctive relief and civil penalties stemming from the 2012 accidental release of anhydrous ammonia from the Facility's refrigeration system that resulted in the death of a worker. The settlement involves a civil penalty payment of $330,000, a reconfiguration of portions of the refrigeration process to reduce the risk of worker exposure in the event of an ammonia release, an upgrade to the refrigeration system from manual controls to a centralized computer control system programmed with automated warnings and shut-downs in the event of a release, and other injunctive relief geared towards reducing the risk of further releases at the Facility.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice
Please enclose a check or money order for $11.50 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL), Employment and Training Administration is soliciting comments concerning a proposed extension for the authority to conduct the Information Collection Request (ICR) titled, “Trade Adjustment Assistance Community College and Career Training Grant Program Reporting Requirements.” This comment request is part of continuing Departmental efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
Consideration will be given to all written comments received by April 3, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free by contacting Kristen Milstead by telephone at 202-693-3949, TTY 1-877-889-5627, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
Submit written comments about, or requests for a copy of, this ICR by mail or courier to the U.S. Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration, Division of Strategic Investments, Trade Adjustment Assistance Community College and Career Training Grant Program, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room, C-4518, Washington, DC 20210; by email:
Kristen Milstead by telephone at 202-693-3949 (this is not a toll-free number) or by email at
The DOL, as part of continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information before submitting them to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for final approval. This program helps to ensure requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements can be properly assessed.
ETA requires grantees to submit Quarterly Narrative Progress Reports with a narrative summary of the capacity building progress as identified by the grantee in their project work plan. Every fourth quarter, grantees submit an Annual Performance Report with standardized outcome measures that will include aggregate data for program participants for the following ten outcome measures: Unique participants served/enrolled; total number of participants who have completed a grant-funded program of study; total number still retained in their programs of study; total number retained in other education programs; total number of credit hours completed; total number of earned credentials; total number pursuing further education after program of study completion; total number employed after program of study completion; total number retained in employment after program of study completion; and the total number of those employed at enrollment who receive a wage increase post-enrollment.
These reports help ETA gauge the effects of the TAACCCT grants, respond to inquiries about the progress and successes of the TAACCCT grants from Congress and other stakeholders, identify grantees that could serve as useful models, target technical assistance appropriately, and provide data for the national evaluation of the TAACCCT grants. ETA is seeking an extension for the collection of the final Annual Performance Report and the final Quarterly Narrative Progress Report from the fourth and final round of grants. Section 1872 of the Trade and Globalization Adjustment Assistance Act of 2009 (Division B, Title I, Subtitle I of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, Pub. L. 111-5) (19 U.S.C 2372a), as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010, Public Law 111-152, authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to provide comments to the contact shown in the
Submitted comments will also be a matter of public record for this ICR and posted on the internet, without redaction. The DOL encourages commenters not to include personally identifiable information, confidential business data, or other sensitive statements/information in any comments.
The DOL is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A).
Mine Safety and Health Administration, Labor.
Notice.
This notice is a summary of petitions for modification submitted to the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) by the parties listed below.
All comments on the petitions must be received by MSHA's Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances on or before March 5, 2018.
You may submit your comments, identified by “docket number” on the subject line, by any of the following methods:
1.
2.
3.
MSHA will consider only comments postmarked by the U.S. Postal Service or proof of delivery from another delivery service such as UPS or Federal Express on or before the deadline for comments.
Barbara Barron, Office of Standards, Regulations, and Variances at 202-693-9447 (Voice),
Section 101(c) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 and Title 30 of the Code of Federal Regulations Part 44 govern the application, processing, and disposition of petitions for modification.
Section 101(c) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act) allows the mine operator or representative of miners to file a petition to modify the application of any mandatory safety standard to a coal or other mine if the Secretary of Labor (Secretary) determines that:
1. An alternative method of achieving the result of such standard exists which will at all times guarantee no less than the same measure of protection afforded the miners of such mine by such standard; or
2. That the application of such standard to such mine will result in a diminution of safety to the miners in such mine.
In addition, the regulations at 30 CFR 44.10 and 44.11 establish the requirements and procedures for filing petitions for modification.
The petitioner states that:
(1) The laptops are required to troubleshoot and perform diagnostic tests on the proximity detection systems utilized by the continuous mining machines.
(2) Problems with the proximity detection system on continuous mining machines requiring repair with a nonpermissible diagnostic laptop computer will occur in the last open crosscut.
(3) The proposed petition will apply to nonpermissible Dell Laptop computers with 11.4v Li-ion rechargeable batteries and/or similar low-voltage or battery powered nonpermissible computers (diagnostic computer).
(4) The diagnostic computer will be utilized as long as equivalent permissible equipment is not available.
(5) Prior to use of the diagnostic computer, it will be inspected by a qualified person as specified in 30 CFR 75.153. The qualified person will examine the diagnostic computer to ensure that it is being maintained in safe operating condition. The examination result will be recorded in the weekly examination of electrical equipment book and will be made available to authorized representatives of the Secretary and the miners at the mine.
(6) A qualified person as defined in existing 30 CFR 75.151 will continuously monitor for methane immediately before and during the use of diagnostic computers in or inby the last open crosscut.
(7) The diagnostic computer will not be used if methane is detected in
(8) Except for the time necessary to troubleshoot under actual mining conditions, coal production in the section will cease. However, coal may remain in the equipment in order to test and diagnose the equipment under “load”.
(9) The diagnostic computer will not be used to test equipment until a visual inspection of the area is completed to determine that the area is in compliance with 30 CFR 75.403.
(10) Personnel engaged in the use of the diagnostic computer will be properly trained to recognize the hazards and limitations associated with such diagnostic computer.
(11) Within 60 days after the proposed decision and order become final, the petitioner will submit proposed revisions for its approved 30 CFR part 48 training plan to the District Manager to ensure that the miners are aware of the stipulations contained in this petition. The procedure as required in 30 CFR 48.3 for approval of proposed revisions to already approved training plans will apply.
The petitioner asserts that the proposed alternative will provide a level of safety equal to or greater than the same measure of protection afforded the miners under the existing standard.
The petitioner states that:
(1) This petition will apply only to trailing cables that supply 995-volt, three-phase, alternating current to continuous mining machine(s) and trailing cables that supply 575 volt, three phase, alternating current to loading machines, roof bolting machines, shuttle cars, and section ventilation fans. The trailing cables will have 90 °C insulation rating.
(2) Extended length trailing cable used on shuttle cars will be three conductor round cable either Type G-GC, Type G, or Type G+GC. When a Type G-GC or Type G+GC round cable is used with wireless ground wire monitoring, the ground-check conductor will be connected as a ground conductor.
(3) The maximum length of continuous mining machines, loaders, shuttle cars, roof bolters, and ventilation fan trailing cables will not exceed 1,000 feet.
(4) The trailing cable for the 995-volt continuous mining machines will not be smaller than a No. 2 American Wire Gauge (AWG).
(5) The trailing cables for the 575-volt loading machines will not be smaller than No. 2 AWG.
(6) The trailing cables for the 575-volt roof bolters, shuttle cars, and ventilation fans will not be smaller than No. 4 AWG.
(7) All circuit breakers used to protect No. 4 AWG trailing cables exceeding 600 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 500 amperes. The trip setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed and will have permanent, legible labels. The label will identify the circuit breaker as being suitable for protecting No. 4 AWG cables and will be maintained.
(8) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units used to protect No. 4 AWG trailing cables will be calibrated to trip at 500 amperes and this setting will be sealed.
(9) All circuit breakers used to protect No. 3 AWG trailing cables exceeding 700 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 600 amperes. The trip setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed and will have permanent, legible labels. The label will identify the circuit breaker as being suitable for protecting No. 3 AWG cables and will be maintained.
(10) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units, used to protect No. 3 AWG trailing cables will be calibrated to trip at 600 amperes and this setting will be sealed.
(11) All circuit breakers used to protect No. 1 AWG trailing cables exceeding 750 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 1,000 amperes. The trip setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed and will have permanent, legible labels. The label will identify the circuit breaker as being suitable for protecting No. 1 AWG cables and will be maintained.
(12) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units used to protect No. 1 AWG trailing cables will be calibrated to trip at 1,000 amperes and this setting will be sealed.
(13) All circuit breakers used to protect No. 1/0 AWG trailing cables exceeding 800 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 1,250 amperes. The trip setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed and will have permanent, legible labels. The label will identify the circuit breakers as being suitable for protecting No. 1/0 AWG cables and will be maintained.
(14) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units, used to protect No. 1/0 AWG trailing cables will be calibrated to trip at 1,250 amperes and this setting will be sealed.
(15) All circuit breakers used to protect No. 3 AWG trailing cables exceeding 900 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 2,000 amperes. The trip setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed and will have permanent, legible labels. The label will identify the circuit breakers as being suitable for protecting No. 3 AWG cables and will be maintained.
(16) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units, used to protect No. 3 AWG trailing cables will be calibrated to trip at 2,000 amperes and this setting will be sealed.
(17) All circuit breakers used to protect No. 2 AWG trailing cables exceeding 700 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 800 amperes. The setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed and will have permanent, legible labels. The label will identify the circuit breaker as being suitable for protecting No. 2 AWG cables and will be maintained.
(18) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units, used to protect No. 2 AWG trailing cables will be calibrated to trip at 800 amperes and this setting will be sealed.
(19) All circuit breakers used to protect No. 2/0 AWG trailing cables exceeding 850 feet in length will have instantaneous trip units calibrated to trip at 1,500 amperes. The setting of these circuit breakers will be sealed and will have permanent, legible labels. The label will identify the circuit breaker as being suitable for protecting No. 2/0 AWG cables and will be maintained.
(20) Replacement circuit breakers and/or instantaneous trip units used to protect No. 2/0 AWG trailing cables will be calibrated to trip at 1,500 amperes and this setting will be sealed.
(21) All components that provide short-circuit protection will have a sufficient interruption rating in accordance with the maximum calculated fault currents available.
(22) During each production day, persons designated by the operator will visually examine the trailing cables to ensure that the cables are in safe
(23) Any trailing cable that is not in safe operating condition will be removed from service immediately and repaired or replaced.
(24) Each splice or repair in the trailing cables to the continuous mining machines, loaders, shuttle cars, roof bolters, and ventilation fans will be made in a workmanlike manner and in accordance with the instructions of the manufacturer of splice and repair materials. The splice or repair will comply with 30 CFR 75.603 and 75.604 requirements. The outer jacket of each splice or repair will be vulcanized with flame-resistant material or made with material that has been accepted by MSHA as flame-resistant.
(25) Permanent warning labels will be installed and maintained on the cover(s) of the power center identifying the location of each sealed short-circuit protective device. These labels will warn miners not to change or alter these sealed short-circuit settings.
(26) In the event mining methods or operating procedures cause or contribute to the damage of any trailing cable, the cable will be removed from service immediately and repaired or replaced. Also, additional precautions will be taken to ensure that haulage roads and trailing cable storage areas are situated to minimize contact of the trailing cable with continuous mining machines, loading machines, shuttle cars, roof bolters, and ventilation fans. Moreover, trailing cable anchors on the cable reel equipment will be of the permanent type that minimizes the tensile forces on the trailing cables.
(27) Where the method of mining would require that trailing cables cross roadways or haulageways, the cables will be securely supported from the mine roof or a substantial bridge for equipment to pass over the cables will be used.
(28) Excessive cable will be stored behind the anchor(s) on equipment that use cable reels to prevent cable overheating.
(29) The petitioner's alternative method will not be implemented until all miners who have been designated to examine the integrity of seals, verify the short-circuit settings, and examine trailing cables for defects have received training.
(30) The equipment listed in this petition will comply with all other applicable requirements of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 and the applicable requirements of 30 CFR part 75.
(31) Within 60 days after the proposed decision and order becomes final, the petitioner will submit proposed revisions for its approved 30 CFR part 48 training plan to the District Manager for the area in which the mine is located. These proposed revisions will specify task training for miners designated to examine the trailing cables for safe operating condition and verify that the short-circuit settings of the circuit interrupting devices that protect the affected trailing cables do not exceed the settings specified in this petition. The training will include the following:
(a) The hazards of setting the circuit interrupting devices too high to adequately protect the trailing cables.
(b) How to verify that the circuit interrupting devices protecting the trailing cables are properly set and maintained.
(c) Mining and operating procedures that will protect the trailing cables against damage.
(d) How to protect the trailing cables against damage caused by overheating cables due to excessive cable stored on cable reel(s) and adjusting stored cable behind the cable anchor(s) as tramming distances change.
(e) Proper procedures for examining the trailing cables to ensure that cables are in safe operating condition by a visual inspection of the entire cable, observing the insulation, the integrity of splices, and nicks and abrasions.
The petitioner asserts that a decision in favor of this petition will in no way provide less than the same measure of protection afforded the miners under the existing standard.
The petitioner states that:
(1) The Randolph Deep Mine is an underground limestone mine with active workings accessed from the surface via twin declines, located adjacent to one another and each 6750 feet long. It is a room and pillar mine with multiple openings to active mining areas.
(2) The Stamper Underground Mine is an underground limestone mine with active workings accessed from the surface via two separate adits or entries; a decline for foot and vehicular traffic that is 1800 feet long and a single escape shaft, which is 350 feet in depth and equipped with a hoist for emergency evacuation. It is a room and pillar mine with multiple openings to active mining areas.
(3) The Parkville Quarry is an underground limestone mine with active workings accessed from the surface via three separate adits or entries; a 900 feet long decline for foot and vehicular traffic and two shafts equipped with ladders for emergency evacuation. Shaft No. 1 is 145 feet deep and Shaft No. 2 is 190 feet deep. It is a room and pillar mine with multiple openings to active mining areas.
(4) The petitioner has established a single mine rescue team to serve as the primary mine rescue team for all three of the mine sites. The mine rescue team consists of seven qualified and trained members.
(5) The petitioner has entered into an agreement with Central Plains Cement Company (“Central Plains”) whereby Central Plains agrees to provide mine rescue services by the Sugar Creek Mine Rescue Team as needed to petitioner. Central Plains is controlled by Eagle Materials, Inc. Similarly, petitioner has agreed to provide mine rescue services as needed to Central Plains.
(6) The petitioner has a mine rescue station located at the Randolph Deep Mine which previously contained equipment sufficient only to supply one mine rescue team. Both the Stamper Underground Mine and the Parkville Quarry are within thirty minutes or less of ground travel time from the Randolph Deep mine. Sugar Creek had its own mine rescue station located within fifteen minutes of ground travel time from the Randolph mine. The Sugar Creek mine rescue station initially contained equipment sufficient to equip one mine rescue team. As of December 20, 2017, petitioner has relocated certain mine rescue team equipment,
(7) Pursuant to the mine rescue services arrangement between petitioner and Central Plains, there will always be two mine rescue teams available whenever miners are underground and a minimum of twelve approved self-contained breathing apparatus available for a mine emergency. When maintained in the individual mine rescue stations, the apparatus could be used immediately or transported to another mine within a maximum forty-five minutes ground travel time.
(8) The Petitioner proposes the following for its mine rescue station:
(a) Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus: The mine rescue station will be equipped with a minimum of six self-contained breathing apparatus, each with a minimum of four hours capacity (approved by MSHA and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health under 42 CFR part 84, subpart H), and any necessary equipment for testing such apparatus.
(b) The mine operator will maintain a mine rescue station provided with all equipment identified in 30 CFR 49.6(a)(2) through (a)(9).
The petitioner asserts that the proposed alternative method will at all times guarantee no less than the same measure of protection afforded the miners under the existing standard.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration announces a forthcoming meeting of the Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel.
Thursday, March 1, 2018, 9:30 a.m. to 10:45 a.m., Central Time.
NASA Marshall Space Flight Center, Building 4220, Room 1103, Huntsville, Alabama 35812.
Ms. Evette Whatley, Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel Administrative Officer, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-4733, or email at
The Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel (ASAP) will hold its First Quarterly Meeting for 2018. This discussion is pursuant to carrying out its statutory duties for which the Panel reviews, identifies, evaluates, and advises on those program activities, systems, procedures, and management activities that can contribute to program risk. Priority is given to those programs that involve the safety of human flight. The agenda will include:
The meeting will be open to the public up to the seating capacity of the room. Seating will be on a first-come, first-served basis. This meeting is also available telephonically. Any interested person may dial call the USA toll free conference call number (800) 857-7040; pass code 4167450 and then the # sign. Attendees will be required to sign a visitor's register and to comply with NASA Marshall Space Flight Center security requirements, including the presentation of a valid picture ID and a secondary form of ID, before receiving an access badge. All U.S. citizens desiring to attend the ASAP meeting at the Marshall Space Flight Center must provide their full name, company affiliation (if applicable), driver's license number and state, citizenship, social security number; place of birth, and date of birth to the Marshall Space Flight Center Protective Services and Export Control Office no later than close of business on February 26, 2018. All non-U.S. citizens must submit their name; current address; driver's license number and state (if applicable); citizenship; company affiliation (if applicable) to include address, telephone number, and title; place of birth; date of birth; U.S. visa information to include type, number, and expiration date; U.S. social security number (if applicable); Permanent Resident (green card holder) number and expiration date (if applicable); place and date of entry into the U.S.; and passport information to include country of issue, number, and expiration date to the Marshall Space Flight Center Protective Services and Export Control Office no later than close of business on February 8, 2018. If the above information is not received by the noted dates, attendees should expect a minimum delay of four (4) hours. All visitors to this meeting will be required to process in through the Redstone/Marshall Space Flight Center Joint Visitor Control Center located on Rideout Road, north of Gate 9, prior to entering Marshall Space Flight Center. Please provide the appropriate data, via fax at (256) 544-2101, noting at the top of the page “Public Admission to the ASAP Meeting at MSFC.” For security questions, please call Ms. Becky Hopson at (256) 544-4541. At the beginning of the meeting, members of the public may make a verbal presentation to the Panel on the subject of safety in NASA, not to exceed 5 minutes in length. To do so, members of the public must contact Ms. Evette Whatley at
Institute of Museum and Library Services (IMLS), NFAH.
Notice of meeting.
The National Museum and Library Services Board, which advises the Director of the Institute of Museum and Library Services in awarding national awards and medals, will meet by teleconference on February 15, 2018, to review nominations for the 2017 National Medals for Museum and Library Service.
Wednesday, February 15, at 1:30 p.m. EST.
The meeting will be held by teleconference originating at the IMLS Offices, 955 L'Enfant Plaza North, SW, Suite 4000, Washington, DC 20024.
Closed. This meeting will be closed pursuant to subsections (c)(4) and (c)(9) of subsection 552b of Title 5, United States Code because the Board will consider information that may disclose: Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential; and information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action.
Katherine Maas, Program Specialist, Institute of Museum and Library Services, Suite 4000, 955 L'Enfant Plaza North, SW, Washington, DC 20024. Telephone: (202) 653-4798. Please provide advance notice of any special needs or accommodations.
The Networking and Information Technology Research and Development (NITRD) National Coordination Office (NCO), National Science Foundation.
Notice of meetings.
The MAGIC Team, established in 2002, provides a forum for information sharing among Federal agencies and non-Federal participants with interests and responsibility for middleware, Grid, and cloud projects. The MAGIC Team reports to the Large Scale Networking (LSN) Interagency Working Group (IWG). The agendas, minutes, and other meeting materials and information can be found on the MAGIC website at:
The MAGIC Team meetings are held on the first Wednesday of each month (February 2018-December 2018), noon-2:00 p.m. Eastern time, at the NITRD National Coordination Office, 490 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Suite 8001, Washington, DC 20024. Please note that public seating for these meetings is limited and is available on a first-come, first served basis. WebEx and/or Teleconference participation is available for each meeting. Please reference the MAGIC Team website for updates. Further information about the NITRD may be found at:
Ms. Joyce Lee at
Submitted by the National Science Foundation in support of the Networking and Information Technology Research and Development (NITRD) National Coordination Office (NCO) on January 30, 2018.
The Networking and Information Technology Research and Development (NITRD) National Coordination Office (NCO), National Science Foundation.
Notice of meetings.
The JET, established in 1997, provides for information sharing among Federal agencies and non-Federal participants with interest in high performance research networking and networking to support science applications. The JET reports to the Large Scale Networking (LSN) Interagency Working Group (IWG).
The JET meetings are held on the third Tuesday of each month (February 2018-December 2018), noon-2:00 p.m. Eastern time, at the NITRD National Coordination Office, 490 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Suite 8001, Washington, DC 20024. Please note that public seating for these meetings is limited and is available on a first-come, first served basis. WebEx and/or Teleconference participation is available for each meeting. Please reference the JET website for updates. Further information about the NITRD may be found at:
Ms. Joyce Lee at
Submitted by the National Science Foundation in support of the Networking and Information Technology Research and Development (NITRD) National Coordination Office (NCO) on January 30, 2018.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Call for nominations.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is advertising for nominations for the position of Radiation Oncologist (Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery) on the Advisory Committee on the Medical Uses of Isotopes (ACMUI). Nominees should currently be practicing radiation oncology to include clinical use of the Gamma Knife® unit.
Nominations are due on or before April 3, 2018.
Submit an electronic copy of resume or curriculum vitae, along with a cover letter, to Ms. Sophie Holiday,
Ms. Sophie Holiday, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguard; (301) 415-7865;
The ACMUI Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery (GSR) radiation oncologist provides advice on issues associated with radiation oncology and the clinical use of GSR. This advice includes providing input on NRC proposed rules and guidance documents, providing recommendations on the training and experience requirements for physicians specializing in this use, identifying medical events associated with this use, evaluating new models of GSR units, bringing key issues in the radiation oncology community to the attention of the NRC staff, and other radiation oncology issues as they relate to radiation safety and the NRC medical-use policy.
ACMUI members are selected based on their educational background, certification(s), work experience, involvement and/or leadership in professional society activities, and other information obtained in letters or during the selection process.
ACMUI members possess the medical and technical skills needed to address evolving issues. The current membership is composed of the following professionals: (a) Nuclear medicine physician; (b) nuclear cardiologist; (c) two radiation oncologists; (d) diagnostic radiologist; (e) therapy medical physicist; (f) nuclear medicine physicist; (g) nuclear pharmacist; (h) health care administrator; (i) radiation safety officer; (j) patients' rights advocate; (k) Food and Drug Administration representative; and (l) Agreement State representative.
The NRC is inviting nominations for the GSR radiation oncologist to the ACMUI. The term of the individual currently occupying this position will end October 17, 2018. ACMUI members currently serve a four-year term and may be considered for reappointment to an additional term.
Nominees must be U.S. citizens and be able to devote approximately 160 hours per year to ACMUI business. Members who are not Federal employees are compensated for their service. In addition, members are reimbursed for travel (including per-diem in lieu of subsistence) and are reimbursed secretarial and correspondence expenses. Full-time Federal employees are reimbursed travel expenses only.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Environmental assessment and finding of no significant impact; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is considering the renewal of NRC special nuclear materials (SNM) license SNM-2507 for the continued operation of the North Anna Power Station's (NAPS) specifically licensed independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) in Louisa County, Virginia. The NRC has prepared an environmental assessment (EA) for this proposed license renewal in accordance with its regulations in title 10 of the
The EA and FONSI referenced in this document are available on February 2, 2018.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0177 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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•
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Jean Trefethen, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-0867, email:
The NRC is considering the renewal of license SNM-2507 for Virginia Electric and Power Company and the Old Dominion Electric Cooperative's (collectively referred to as Dominion) NAPS specifically licensed ISFSI located in Louisa County, Virginia (ADAMS Accession No. ML16153A140) for an additional 40 years. License SNM-2507 allows Dominion to store spent nuclear fuel from NAPS Units 1 and 2 in the specifically licensed ISFSI. The current license will expire on June 30, 2018. If approved, Dominion would be able to continue to possess, store and continue to load and place casks with spent nuclear fuel at the NAPS specifically-licensed ISFSI in accordance with the requirements in 10 CFR part 72, “Licensing Requirements for the Independent Storage of Spent Nuclear Fuel, High-Level Radioactive Waste, and Reactor-Related Greater than Class C Waste.”
The NRC staff has prepared a final EA as part of its review of this proposed license renewal in accordance with the requirements in 10 CFR part 51,
In 1998, the NRC issued a 20-year license to Dominion to receive, possess, store, and transfer spent nuclear fuel generated at the NAPS Units 1 and 2 to a specifically licensed ISFSI located on the NAPS site. License SNM-2507 allows Dominion to store 84 Transnuclear-32 (TN-32) sealed surface storage casks (TN-32 casks) on three pads (
In addition, the NRC recently approved a license amendment request (ADAMS Accession No. ML17234A539) from Dominion to place one cask (the 28th and final cask to be placed on Pad 1 of the specifically licensed ISFSI) with high burnup spent nuclear fuel (
The Dominion ISFSI is located in rural Louisa County, Virginia, approximately 64 kilometers (km) [40 miles (mi)] northwest of Richmond, Virginia and approximately 35 km (22 mi) southwest of Fredericksburg, Virginia. The NAPS site is located approximately 10 km (6 mi) northeast of the town of Mineral, Virginia.
On May 25, 2016, the licensee submitted their application for a 40-year license renewal of the NAPS specifically licensed ISFSI (ADAMS Accession No. ML16153A140).
Dominion is requesting to renew its specifically licensed ISFSI for an additional 40 year-period. The current license will expire on June 30, 2018. Specifically, if approved Dominion would be able to continue to possess, store and to load and place casks with spent nuclear fuel from NAPS Units 1 and 2 at the NAPS specifically licensed ISFSI in accordance with the requirements in 10 CFR part 72. In accordance with license SNM-2507, Dominion uses the TN-32 casks and a TN-32B HBU cask.
The NRC has assessed the potential environmental impacts of the proposed action; and alternatives to the proposed action including renewing the license for a 20 year-period, and the no-action alternative. The results of the NRC's environmental review can be found in the final EA (ADAMS Accession No. ML17311A450). The NRC staff performed its environmental review in accordance with the requirements in 10 CFR part 51. In conducting the environmental review, the NRC considered information in the license renewal application (ADAMS Accession No. ML16153A140); information in the responses to the NRC's requests for additional information (ADAMS Accession No. ML17025A128); communications and consultation with the Pamunkey Indian Tribe, Virginia State Historic Preservation Office, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS), and the Virginia Department of Health.
Approval of Dominion's proposed license renewal would allow the continued storage of spent nuclear fuel for an additional 40 years. In addition, the casks would be subject to NRC's review and oversight to ensure the casks are designed and maintained in accordance with the regulatory limits in 10 CFR parts 20 and 72. Furthermore, Dominion maintains a radiation protection program for NAPS Units 1 and 2 and the specifically licensed ISFSI in accordance with 10 CFR part 20 to ensure that radiation doses are as low as is reasonably achievable. Accordingly, no significant radiological or non-radiological impacts are expected to result from approval of the license renewal request, and the proposed action would not significantly contribute to cumulative impacts at the NAPS site. Additionally, there would be no disproportionately high and adverse impacts on minority and low-income populations.
In its license renewal request, Dominion is proposing no changes in how it handles or stores spent fuel at the NAPS specifically licensed ISFSI. Approval of the proposed action would not result in any new construction or expansion of the existing ISFSI footprint beyond that previously approved. The ISFSI is a passive facility that produces no liquid or gaseous effluents. No significant radiological or nonradiological impacts are expected from continued normal operations. Occupational dose estimates associated with the proposed action and continued normal operation and maintenance of the ISFSI are expected to be at as low as reasonably achievable levels and within the limits of 10 CFR 20.1201. Therefore, the NRC staff has determined that pursuant to 10 CFR 51.31, preparation of an EIS is not required for the proposed action, and pursuant to 10 CFR 51.32, a FONSI is appropriate.
Furthermore, the NRC staff determined that this license renewal request does not have the potential to cause effects on historic properties, assuming those were present; therefore, in accordance with 36 CFR 800.3(a)(1), no consultation is required under Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act. The NRC staff, however, reached out to and informed the Virginia State Historic Preservation Officer and the Pamunkey Tribe of Virginia of its determination via letters dated October 18, 2016, and October 26, 2016, respectively (ADAMS Accession Nos: ML16279A432 and ML16279A419, respectively). The Virginia Department of Historic Resources responded via letter dated December 30, 2016, that based on information provided they concurred that the undertaking will not impact historic properties (ADAMS Accession No. ML16365A205). The Pamunkey Tribe responded via email dated November 11, 2016, that they were not aware of any historic or cultural resources that would be affected and requested NRC to contact them if potential cultural sites are identified (ADAMS Accession No. ML16313A325).
Finally, the NRC staff also consulted with the FWS in accordance with Section 7 of the Endangered Species Act. The NRC staff used FWS Virginia Field Office's Ecological Services online project review process. The NRC completed the certification process by submitting the online review package to the FWS Virginia Field Office via letter
On the basis of the EA, the NRC has concluded that the proposed license renewal for the Dominion's SNM License Number SNM-2507 for the operation of NAPS specifically licensed ISFSI located in Louisa County, Virginia, will not significantly affect the quality of the human environment. Therefore, the NRC has determined, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.31, that preparation of an EIS is not required for the proposed action and a FONSI is appropriate.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
The ACRS Subcommittee on Planning and Procedures will hold a meeting on February 7, 2018, 11545 Rockville Pike, Room T-2B3, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
The meeting will be open to public attendance.
The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will discuss proposed ACRS activities and related matters. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Quynh Nguyen (Telephone 301-415-5844 or Email:
Information regarding changes to the agenda, whether the meeting has been canceled or rescheduled, and the time allotted to present oral statements can be obtained by contacting the identified DFO. Moreover, in view of the possibility that the schedule for ACRS meetings may be adjusted by the Chairman as necessary to facilitate the conduct of the meeting, persons planning to attend should check with the DFO if such rescheduling would result in a major inconvenience.
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. After registering with Security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown at 301-415-6207 to be escorted to the meeting room.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to a proposal to [sic] relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance rules (“CAT Rules”), currently under Chapter 9, Rules 900 through 912, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 in the Exchange's rulebook's (“Rulebook”) shell structure.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to relocate the CAT Rules, currently under Chapter 9, Rules 900 through 912, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 of the Rulebook's shell structure.
The Exchange adopted the CAT Rules to implement a consolidated audit trail in order to capture customer and order event information to comply with the provisions of the National Market System Plan Governing the Consolidated Audit Trail.
The Exchange notes that, at the time of the approval of the CAT Rules, the Exchange was known as “ISE Mercury, LLC.” To reflect the Exchange's placement within its parent company's corporate structure, Nasdaq, Inc., the Exchange name was changed to “Nasdaq MRX, LLC.”
The relocation of the CAT Rules is part of the Exchange's continued effort to promote efficiency and conformity of its processes with those of its Affiliated Exchanges.
Moreover, the Exchange will update the description provided under General 7, Section 12(a), “General,” to exactly match the contents of similar sections in the Nasdaq, BX, and Phlx rulebooks. This change will not alter Section 12(a) since (i) the description under this subsection is essentially the same to that of the aforementioned Affiliated Exchanges and (ii) the removal of the phrase “upon approval by the Commission” is unnecessary at this point since the CAT Rules are already effective.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed changes do not impose a burden on competition because, as previously stated, they (i) are of a non-substantive nature, (ii) are intended to harmonize the Exchange's rules with those of its Affiliated Exchanges, and (iii) are intended to organize the Rulebook in a way that it will ease the Members' navigation and reading of the rules across the Affiliated Exchanges.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Commission is required under Section 342 of the Dodd Frank Wall Street and Reform Act to develop standards and processes for ensuring the fair inclusion of women-owned and minority-owned businesses in all of the Commission's business activities. To help implement this requirement, the Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI) developed and maintains an electronic Supplier Diversity Business Management System (the System) to collect up-to-date business information and capabilities statements from diverse suppliers interested in doing business with the Commission. This information allows the Commission to update and more effectively manage its current internal repository. It also allows the Commission to measure the effectiveness of its technical assistance and outreach efforts, and target areas where additional program efforts are necessary.
The Commission invites comment on the System. Information is collected in the System via web-based, e-filed, dynamic form-based technology. The company point of contact completes a profile consisting of basic contact data and information on the capabilities of the business. The profile includes a series of questions, some of which are based on the data that the individual enters. Drop-down lists are included where appropriate to increase ease of use.
The information collection is voluntary. There are no costs associated with this collection. The public interface to the System is available via a web-link provided by the agency.
Estimated number of annual responses = 300.
Estimated annual reporting burden = 150 hours (30 minutes per submission).
Since the last approval of this information collection, we have adjusted the estimated number of respondents from 500 to 300 respondents per year, based on the actual response rate for the past two years and anticipated increase in that response rate with the posting of a link to the System on our web page to allow self-registration. This reduction in the number of respondents has resulted in a 100-hour reduction in the total burden estimate.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication. Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 or send an email to:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance rules (“CAT Rules”), currently under Chapter 9, Rules 900 through 912, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 in the Exchange's rulebook's (“Rulebook”) shell structure.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to relocate the CAT Rules, currently under Chapter 9, Rules 900 through 912, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 of the Rulebook's shell structure.
The Exchange adopted the CAT Rules to implement a consolidated audit trail in order to capture customer and order event information to comply with the provisions of the National Market System Plan Governing the Consolidated Audit Trail.
The Exchange also notes that, at the time of the approval of the CAT Rules, the Exchange was known as “ISE Gemini, LLC.” To reflect the Exchange's placement within its parent company's corporate structure, Nasdaq, Inc., the Exchange name was changed to “Nasdaq GEMX, LLC.”
The relocation of the CAT Rules is part of the Exchange's continued effort to promote efficiency and conformity of its processes with those of its Affiliated Exchanges.
Moreover, the Exchange will update the description provided under General 7, Section 12(a), “General,” to exactly match the contents of similar sections in the Nasdaq, BX, and Phlx rulebooks. This change will not alter Section 12(a) since (i) the description under this subsection is essentially the same to that of the aforementioned Affiliated Exchanges and (ii) the removal of the phrase “upon approval by the Commission” is unnecessary at this point since the CAT Rules are already effective.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed changes do not impose a burden on competition because, as previously stated, they (i) are of a non-substantive nature, (ii) are intended to harmonize the Exchange's rules with those of its Affiliated Exchanges, and (iii) are intended to organize the Rulebook in a way that it will ease the Members' navigation and reading of the rules across the Affiliated Exchanges.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
An investment company (“fund”) is generally limited in the amount of securities the fund (“acquiring fund”) can acquire from another fund (“acquired fund”). Section 12(d) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Investment Company Act” or “Act”)
• Acquire more than three percent of another fund's securities;
• invest more than five percent of its own assets in another fund; or
• invest more than ten percent of its own assets in other funds in the aggregate.
In addition, a registered open-end fund, its principal underwriter, and any registered broker or dealer cannot sell that fund's shares to another fund if, as a result:
• The acquiring fund (and any companies it controls) owns more than three percent of the acquired fund's stock; or
• all acquiring funds (and companies they control) in the aggregate own more than ten percent of the acquired fund's stock.
Rule 12d1-1 under the Act provides an exemption from these limitations for “cash sweep” arrangements in which a fund invests all or a portion of its available cash in a money market fund rather than directly in short-term instruments.
The rule also permits a registered fund to rely on the exemption to invest in an unregistered money market fund that limits its investments to those in which a registered money market fund may invest under rule 2a-7 under the Act, and undertakes to comply with all the other provisions of rule 2a-7.
Rule 2a-7 contains certain collection of information requirements. An unregistered money market fund that complies with rule 2a-7 would be subject to these collection of information requirements. In addition, the recordkeeping requirements under rule 31a-1 with which the acquiring fund reasonably believes the unregistered money market fund complies are collections of information for the unregistered money market fund. The adoption of procedures by unregistered money market funds to ensure that they comply with sections 17(a), (d), (e), 18, and 22(e) of the Act also constitute collections of information. By allowing funds to invest in registered and unregistered money market funds, rule 12d1-1 is intended to provide funds greater options for cash management. In order for a registered fund to rely on the exemption to invest in an unregistered money market fund, the unregistered money market fund must comply with certain collection of information requirements for registered money market funds. These requirements are intended to ensure that the unregistered money market fund has established procedures for collecting the information necessary to make adequate credit reviews of securities in its portfolio, as well as other recordkeeping requirements that will assist the acquiring fund in overseeing the unregistered money market fund (and Commission staff in its examination of the unregistered money market fund's adviser).
The number of unregistered money market funds that are affected by rule 12d1-1 is an estimate based on the number of private liquidity funds reported on Form PF as of the fourth calendar quarter 2016.
In the rule 2a-7 submission, Commission staff made the following estimates with respect to aggregate annual hour and cost burdens for collections of information for each existing registered money market fund:
Record of credit risk analyses, and determinations regarding adjustable rate securities, asset backed securities, securities subject to a demand feature or guarantee, and counterparties to repurchase agreements:
Public website posting of monthly portfolio information:
Review of procedures and guidelines of any investment adviser to whom the fund's board has delegated responsibility under rule 2a-7 and amendment of such procedures:
Based on census data available on Form PF, the staff believes that the number of private liquidity funds reported on Form PF (69) is the most current and accurate estimate the number of unregistered money market funds affected by rule 12d1-1.
In the rule 2a-7 submission, Commission staff further estimated the aggregate annual hour and cost burdens for collections of information for fund complexes with registered money market funds as follows:
Review, revise, and approve procedures concerning stress testing:
Report to fund boards on the results of stress testing:
Reporting of rule 17a-9 transactions:
Based on the number of liquidity fund advisers reported on Form PF, the staff estimates that there are 39 fund complexes with unregistered money market funds invested in by mutual funds in excess of the statutory limits under rule 12d1-1.
In the rule 2a-7 submission, Commission staff further estimated the aggregate annual burdens for registered money market funds that experience an event of default or insolvency as follows:
Written record of board determinations and actions related to failure of a security to meet certain eligibility standards or an event of default of default or insolvency:
Notice to Commission of an event of default or insolvency:
Consistent with the estimate in the rule 2a-7 submissions, Commission staff estimates that approximately 2 percent, or 1, unregistered money market fund experiences an event of default or insolvency each year. Accordingly, the staff estimates that one unregistered money market fund will comply with these collections of information requirements and engage in 3 annual responses under rule 12d1-1,
In the rule 2a-7 submission, Commission staff further estimated the aggregate annual burdens for newly registered money market funds as follows:
Establish written procedures and guidelines designed to stabilize the fund's net asset value and establish procedures for board delegation of authority:
Adopt procedures concerning stress testing:
Commission staff estimates that the proportion of unregistered money market funds that intend to newly undertake the collection of information burdens of rule 2a-7 will be similar to the proportion of money market funds that are newly registered. Based on a projection of 10 new money market funds per year (in the most recent rule 2a-7 submission), the staff estimates that, similarly, there will be 10 new unregistered money market funds that undertake the above burden to establish written procedures and guidelines designed to stabilize the fund's net asset value and establish procedures for board delegation of authority.
Accordingly, the estimated total number of annual responses under rule 12d1-1 for the collections of information described in the rule 2a-7 submissions is 7,048, the aggregate annual burden hours associated with these responses is 48,801.5, and the aggregate cost to funds is $14,892,874.
Rules 31a-1(b)(1), 31a-1(b)(2)(ii), 31a-1(b)(2)(iv), and 31a-1(b)(9) require registered funds to keep certain records, which include journals and general and auxiliary ledgers, including ledgers for each portfolio security and each shareholder of record of the fund. Most of the records required to be maintained by the rule are the type that generally would be maintained as a matter of good business practice and to prepare the unregistered money market fund's financial statements. Accordingly, Commission staff estimates that the requirements under rules 31a-1(b)(1), 31a-1(b)(2)(ii), 31a-1(b)(2)(iv), and 31a-1(b)(9) would not impose any additional burden because the costs of maintaining these records would be incurred by unregistered money market funds in any case to keep books and records that are necessary to prepare financial statements for shareholders, to prepare
Rule 12d1-1 also requires unregistered money market funds in which registered funds invest to adopt procedures designed to ensure that the unregistered money market funds comply with sections 17(a), (d), (e), and 22(e) of the Act. This is a one-time collection of information requirement that applies to unregistered money market funds that intend to comply with the requirements of rule 12d1-1. As discussed above, based on a projection of 10 new money market funds per year, the staff estimates that, similarly, there will be 10 new unregistered money market funds that undertake the above burden to establish written procedures and guidelines designed to ensure that the unregistered money market funds comply with sections 17(a), (d), (e), and 22(e) of the Act. The staff estimates the burden as follows:
Establish written procedures and guidelines designed to ensure that the unregistered money market funds comply with sections 17(a), (d), (e), and 22(e) of the Act:
Accordingly, the staff estimates that 10 unregistered money market funds will comply with this collection of information requirement and engage in 10 annual responses under rule 12d1-1,
Commission staff also estimates that unregistered money market funds will incur costs to preserve records, as required under rule 2a-7. These costs will vary significantly for individual funds, depending on the amount of assets under fund management and whether the fund preserves its records in a storage facility in hard copy or has developed and maintains a computer system to create and preserve compliance records. In the rule 2a-7 submission, Commission staff estimated that the amount an individual money market fund may spend ranges from $100 per year to $300,000. We have no reason to believe the range is different for unregistered money market funds. Based on Form PF data as of the fourth calendar quarter 2016, private liquidity funds have $293 billion in gross asset value.
Consistent with estimates made in the rule 2a-7 submission, Commission staff estimates that unregistered money market funds also incur capital costs to create computer programs for maintaining and preserving compliance records for rule 2a-7 of $0.0000132 per dollar of assets under management. Based on the assets under management figures described above, staff estimates annual capital costs for all unregistered money market funds of $3.87 million.
Commission staff further estimates that, even absent the requirements of rule 2a-7, money market funds would spend at least half of the amounts described above for record preservation ($131,850) and for capital costs ($1.94 million). Commission staff concludes that the aggregate annual costs of compliance with the rule are $131,850 for record preservation and $1.94 million for capital costs.
The collections of information required for unregistered money market funds by rule 12d1-1 are necessary in order for acquiring funds to be able to obtain the benefits described above. Notices to the Commission will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
On December 4, 2017, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance rules (“CAT Rules”), currently under the 6800 Series (Rules 6810 through 6896), to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 in the Exchange's rulebook's (“Rulebook”) shell structure.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to relocate the CAT Rules, currently under the 6800 Series, Rules 6810 through 6896, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 of the Rulebook's shell structure.
The Exchange adopted the CAT Rules to implement a consolidated audit trail in order to capture customer and order event information to comply with the provisions of the National Market System Plan Governing the Consolidated Audit Trail.
The relocation of the CAT Rules is part of the Exchange's continued effort to promote efficiency and conformity of its processes with those of its Affiliated Exchanges.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 11a-2 (17 CFR 270.11a-2) under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1
There are currently 673 registrants governed by Rule 11a-2. The Commission includes the estimated burden of complying with the information collection required by Rule 11a-2 in the total number of burden hours estimated for completing the relevant registration statements and reports the burden of Rule 11a-2 in the separate Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”) submissions for those
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the PRA, and is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules or forms. With regard to Rule 11a-2, the Commission includes the estimate of burden hours in the total number of burden hours estimated for completing the relevant registration statements and reported on the separate PRA submissions for those statements (see the separate PRA submissions for Form N-3, Form N-4 and Form N-6). The information collection requirements imposed by Rule 11a-2 are mandatory. Responses to the collection of information will not be kept confidential.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The proposed rule change by OCC would revise OCC's Schedule of Fees effective March 1, 2018, to implement an increase in clearing fees in accordance with OCC's Fee Policy.
In its filing with the Commission, OCC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. OCC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
The purpose of this proposed rule change is to revise OCC's Schedule of Fees in accordance with its Fee Policy to set OCC's fees at a level designed to cover OCC's operating expenses and maintain a Business Risk Buffer of 25%.
By way of background, OCC implemented its Capital Plan in 2015,
OCC recently reviewed its current Schedule of Fees
As a result of the aforementioned analysis, OCC proposes to revise its Schedule of Fees as set forth below.
OCC proposes to modify its fee schedule to: (i) Increase its per contract clearing fee from $0.050 to $0.054 per contract and (ii) adjust the quantity of contracts at which the fixed, per trade clearing fee begins from greater than 1100 contracts per trade to greater than 1018 contracts per trade. The proposed changes are designed to target a level of revenues sufficient to cover OCC's operating expenses plus a Business Risk Buffer of 25% while continuing to maintain OCC's existing fixed, per trade fee at a level of $55 per trade.
In accordance with its Fee Policy, OCC will continue to monitor cleared contract volume and operating expenses in order to determine if further revisions to OCC's Schedule of Fees are required so that monies received from clearing fees cover OCC's operating expenses plus a Business Risk Buffer of 25%.
Section 17A(b)(3)(D) of the Act, requires that the rules of a clearing agency provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its participants.
Section 17A(b)(3)(I) of the Act
Written comments on the proposed rule change were not and are not intended to be solicited with respect to the proposed rule change and none have been received.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-OCC-2018-004 and should be submitted on or
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
On February 12, 1935, the Commission adopted Rule 12d2-2,
The Form 25 is useful because it informs the Commission that a security previously traded on an exchange is no longer traded. In addition, the Form 25 enables the Commission to verify that the delisting and/or deregistration has occurred in accordance with the rules of the exchange. Further, the Form 25 helps to focus the attention of delisting issuers to make sure that they abide by the proper procedural and notice requirements associated with a delisting and/or deregistration. Without Rule 12d2-2 and the Form 25, as applicable, the Commission would be unable to fulfill its statutory responsibilities.
There are 21 national securities exchanges that could possibly be respondents complying with the requirements of the Rule and Form 25.
The collection of information obligations imposed by Rule 12d2-2 and Form 25 are mandatory. The response will be available to the public and will not be kept confidential.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following website:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance rules (“CAT Rules”), currently under Chapter 9, Rules 900 through 912, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 in the Exchange's rulebook's (“Rulebook”) shell structure.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to relocate the CAT Rules, currently under Chapter 9, Rules 900 through 912, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 of the Rulebook's shell structure.
The Exchange adopted the CAT Rules to implement a consolidated audit trail in order to capture customer and order event information to comply with the provisions of the National Market System Plan Governing the Consolidated Audit Trail.
The Exchange also notes that, at the time of the approval of the CAT Rules, the Exchange was known as “International Securities Exchange, LLC.” To reflect the Exchange's placement within its parent company's corporate structure, Nasdaq, Inc., the Exchange name was changed to “Nasdaq ISE, LLC.”
The relocation of the CAT Rules is part of the Exchange's continued effort to promote efficiency and conformity of its processes with those of its Affiliated Exchanges.
Moreover, the Exchange will update the description provided under General 7, Section 12(a), “General,” to exactly match the contents of similar sections in the Nasdaq, BX, and Phlx rulebooks. This change will not alter Section 12(a) since (i) the description under this subsection is essentially the same to that of the aforementioned Affiliated Exchanges and (ii) the removal of the phrase “upon approval by the Commission” is unnecessary at this point since the CAT Rules are already effective.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed changes do not impose a burden on competition because, as previously stated, they (i) are of a non-substantive nature, (ii) are intended to harmonize the Exchange's rules with those of its Affiliated Exchanges, and (iii) are intended to organize the Rulebook in a way that it will ease the Members' navigation and reading of the rules across the Affiliated Exchanges.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to relocate the Consolidated Audit Trail Compliance rules (“CAT Rules”), Rules 900A through 996A, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 in the Exchange's rulebook's (“Rulebook”) shell structure.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to relocate the CAT Rules, currently identified as Rules 900A through 996A, to General 7, Sections 1 through 13 of the Rulebook's shell structure.
The Exchange adopted the CAT Rules to implement a consolidated audit trail in order to capture customer and order event information to comply with the provisions of the National Market System Plan Governing the Consolidated Audit Trail.
The relocation of the CAT Rules is part of the Exchange's continued effort to promote efficiency and conformity of its processes with those of its Affiliated Exchanges.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed changes do not impose a burden on competition because, as previously stated, they (i) are of a non-substantive nature, (ii) are intended to harmonize the Exchange's rules with those of its Affiliated Exchanges, and (iii) are intended to organize the Rulebook in a way that it will ease the Members' navigation and reading of the rules across the Affiliated Exchanges.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Department of State.
Notice.
This notice contains the text of the report, submitted by the President required by the Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Act, as submitted by the Secretary of State.
Benjamin A. Kraut, Email:
On December 21, 2017, The Secretary of State approved the following report pursuant to a delegation of authority from the President under Executive Order 13818. Executive Order 13818, which implements the Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Act (Pub. L. 114-328, Subtitle F), was issued by the President on December 20, 2017 with an effective date of December 21, 2017. The text of the report follows:
As required by Section 1264 of the Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Act of 2016 (Pub. L. 114-328, Subtitle F) (the “Act”), and in accordance with the executive order (E.O.) issued to implement the Act, the Secretary of State, in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury, submits this report to detail the Administration's implementation of the Act in 2017.
Enacted on December 23, 2016, the Act authorizes the President to impose financial sanctions and visa restrictions on foreign persons responsible for acts of corruption or certain human rights violations. On December 20, 2017, the President issued an executive order to implement the Act. This executive order authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary of State and the Attorney General, to impose financial sanctions on persons determined to be directly or indirectly responsible for serious human rights abuse or acts of significant corruption. The executive order also authorizes the Secretary of State to impose visa restrictions on persons designated pursuant to the executive order.
The United States is committed to protecting and promoting human rights and combatting corruption around the world. These efforts advance a world order that reflects U.S. values and increases the security of the United States, its allies, and its partners. The United States has led, and is uniquely positioned to continue leading, the international community in efforts to combat human rights abuse and corruption on the international stage. Sanctions issued pursuant to the Act, as implemented by the executive order, are consistent with these longstanding efforts.
The United States will, under the executive order, pursue tangible and significant consequences for those who commit serious human rights abuse and engage in corruption. This tool will be used without hesitation to advance U.S. interests in cases involving human rights abusers or corrupt actors who are beyond the reach of other U.S. sanctions authorities, but whose designation could have an impact on these and other malign actors.
Over the last year, various departments and agencies of the United States Government have actively collected information from multiple sources—including the Intelligence Community, U.S. missions around the world, non-governmental organizations,
In the executive order, the President issued sanctions and visa restrictions on several persons around the world for human rights abuse or corruption. Simultaneously, the Department of the Treasury issued a number of designations targeting individuals and entities engaged in human rights abuse or corruption or supporting those sanctioned by the President. The Annex and designations issued this year pursuant to the executive order are detailed below:
During his tenure, Jammeh used a number of corrupt schemes to plunder The Gambia's state coffers or otherwise siphon off state funds for his personal gain. Ongoing investigations continue to reveal Jammeh's large-scale theft from state coffers prior to his departure. According to The Gambia's Justice Ministry, Jammeh personally, or through others acting under his instructions, directed the unlawful withdrawal of at least $50 million of state funds. The Gambian Government has since taken action to freeze Jammeh's assets within The Gambia.
Related to Jammeh's designation, the Department of the Treasury also designated
Related to Gertler's designation, the Department of the Treasury designated
Related to Tesic's designation, the Department of the Treasury designated
Bol Mel oversees ABMC, which has been awarded contracts worth tens of millions of dollars by the Government of South Sudan. ABMC allegedly received preferential treatment from high-level officials, and the Government of South Sudan did not hold a competitive process for selecting ABMC to do roadwork on several roads in Juba and throughout South Sudan. Although this roadwork had been completed only a few years before, the government budgeted tens of millions of dollars more for maintenance of the same roads.
Related to Bol Mel's designation, the Department of the Treasury designated
Although no visa restrictions were imposed under the Act during the first year of its enactment, persons designated pursuant to the executive order may be subject to the visa restrictions articulated in Sec. 2. Sec. 2 contains restrictions pursuant to Presidential Proclamation 8693, which establishes a mechanism for imposing visa restrictions on Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDNs) designated under the executive order and certain other executive orders, as well as individuals designated otherwise for travel bans in UN Security Council resolutions. In addition, the Department of State continues to take action, as appropriate, to implement authorities pursuant to which it can impose visa restrictions on those responsible for human rights violations and corruption, including Presidential Proclamations 7750 and 8697, and Section 7031(c) of the FY2017 Consolidated Appropriations Act. The Department of State continues to make visa ineligibility determinations pursuant to the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), including Section 212(a)(3)(E) which makes individuals who have participated in acts of genocide or committed acts of torture, extrajudicial killings, and other human rights violations ineligible for visas.
No sanctions imposed under the Act were terminated.
The United States is committed to encouraging other countries to impose sanctions on a similar basis to those provided for by the Act. The Departments of State and Treasury have consulted closely with United Kingdom and Canadian government counterparts over the last year to encourage development and implementation of statutes similar to the Act by those governments. Both countries have enacted similar laws. The Departments of State and Treasury shared information with various foreign partners regarding sanctions and other actions that might be taken against persons pursuant to the Act, as implemented by the E.O., in parallel with other governments' relevant authorities.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
The FAA is publishing this notice to advise the public of a modification to the Notice of Intent to Prepare an Environmental Assessment (EA) and notice of opportunity for public comment published in the
Parks Preston, Assistant Manager, Atlanta Airports District Office, 1701 Columbia Avenue, Room 220, College Park, Georgia 30337-2747, (404) 305-6799.
Paulding Northwest Atlanta Airport (PUJ) is located outside Atlanta, Georgia, in the town of Dallas, Georgia. Paulding County and the Paulding County Airport Authority (PCAA) own the airport. PUJ opened in 2008 and is designated as a general aviation airport. An EA for the construction of PUJ was completed in 2005.
In September 2013, the PCAA submitted an application to the FAA requesting an Airport Operating Certificate under title 14 Code of Regulations, Part 139. A Part 139 Airport Operating Certificate allows the airport to accommodate scheduled passenger-carrying operations, commonly referred to as “commercial service.” In November 2013, several Paulding County residents filed a Petition for Review in the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia of two categorical exclusions (CATEXs) issued by the Georgia Department of Transportation (GDOT), as authorized by the FAA's State Block Grant Program, for airfield improvement projects. The petitioners argued that the two projects were connected to the proposed introduction of commercial service at PUJ. On December 23, 2013, the petitioners and the FAA entered into a settlement agreement under which the FAA agreed to prepare, at a minimum, an EA for the proposed Part 139 Airport Operating Certificate and all connected actions. The FAA is currently in the process of preparing that EA (current EA). While the settlement agreement contemplated that the current EA would include all actions connected with the proposed issuance of the Part 139 Airport Operating Certificate, the FAA opted to include in the current EA all reasonably foreseeable airport improvement projects, whether or not connected with the proposed introduction of commercial service.
On April 21, 2014, the FAA published a “Notice of Intent to Prepare an Environmental Assessment and Notice of Opportunity for Public Comment” in the
The Wildlife Fence has independent utility, is not connected to the Part 139 Airport Operating Certificate, and is therefore not required by the National Environmental Policy Act or the terms
To satisfy the requirements of FAA Order 1050.1F, GDOT has prepared a Categorical Exclusion (CATEX) for the project. The CATEX is available for review at PUJ and online at
Federal Transit Administration (FTA), DOT.
Notice.
By this notice, the Federal Transit Administration (FTA) is establishing an Emergency Relief Docket for calendar year 2018 so grantees and subgrantees affected by national or regional emergencies may request temporary relief from FTA administrative and statutory requirements.
Bonnie L. Graves, Attorney-Advisor, Office of Chief Counsel, Federal Transit Administration, 90 Seventh Street, Ste. 15-300, San Francisco, CA 94103; phone: (202) 366-0944, fax: (415) 734-9489, or email,
Pursuant to title 49 CFR part 601, subpart D, FTA is establishing the Emergency Relief Docket for calendar year 2018. Subsequent to an emergency or major disaster, when FTA requirements impede a grantee or subgrantee's ability to respond to the emergency or major disaster, a grantee or subgrantee may submit a request for relief from specific FTA requirements.
A grantee or subgrantee may submit a petition for waiver of FTA requirements to
All petitions for relief from a provision of chapter 53 of title 49, U.S.C. or FTA administrative requirements must be posted in the docket in order to receive consideration by FTA. The docket is publicly available and can be accessed 24 hours a day, seven days a week, via the internet at
In the event a grantee or subgrantee needs to request immediate relief and does not have access to electronic means to request that relief, the grantee or subgrantee may contact any FTA regional office or FTA headquarters and request that FTA staff submit the petition on its behalf.
Federal public transportation law at 49 U.S.C. 5324(d) provides that a grant awarded under Section 5324 or under 49 U.S.C. 5307 or 49 U.S.C. 5311 that is made to address an emergency shall be subject to the terms and conditions the Secretary determines are necessary. This language allows FTA to waive statutory, as well as administrative, requirements. Therefore, grantees and subgrantees affected by an emergency or major disaster may request waivers of provisions of chapter 53 of title 49, U.S.C. when a grantee or subgrantee demonstrates the requirement(s) will limit a grantee's or subgrantee's ability to respond to an emergency. Grantees must follow the procedures set forth below when requesting a waiver of statutory or administrative requirements.
(a) Identify the grantee or subgrantee and its geographic location;
(b) Identify the section of chapter 53 of title 49, U.S.C., or the FTA policy statement, circular, guidance document and/or rule from which the grantee or subgrantee seeks relief;
(c) Specifically address how a requirement in chapter 53 of title 49 U.S.C., or an FTA requirement in a policy statement, circular, agency guidance or rule will limit a grantee's or subgrantee's ability to respond to an emergency or disaster; and
(d) Specify if the petition for relief is one-time or ongoing, and if ongoing identify the time period for which the relief is requested. The time period may not exceed three months; however, additional time may be requested through a second petition for relief.
A petition for relief from administrative requirements will be conditionally granted for a period of three (3) business days from the date it is submitted to the Emergency Relief Docket. FTA will review the petition after the expiration of the three business days and review any comments submitted thereto. FTA may contact the grantee or subgrantee that submitted the request for relief, or any party that submits comments to the docket, to obtain more information prior to making a decision. FTA shall then post a decision to the Emergency Relief Docket. FTA's decision will be based on whether the petition meets the criteria for use of these emergency procedures, the substance of the request, and the comments submitted regarding the petition. If FTA does not respond to the request for relief to the docket within three business days, the grantee or subgrantee may assume its petition is granted for a period not to exceed three months until and unless FTA states otherwise.
A petition for relief from statutory requirements will not be conditionally granted and requires a written decision from the FTA Administrator.
Pursuant to 49 CFR 604.2(f) of FTA's Charter Rule, grantees and subgrantees may assist with evacuations or other movement of people that might otherwise be considered charter transportation when that transportation is in response to an emergency declared by the President, governor, or mayor, or in an emergency requiring immediate action prior to a formal declaration, even if a formal declaration of an emergency is not eventually made by the President, governor or mayor. Therefore, a request for relief is not necessary in order to provide this service. However, if the emergency lasts more than 45 calendar days, the grantee or subgrantee shall follow the procedures set out in this notice.
FTA reserves the right to reconsider any decision made pursuant to these emergency procedures based upon its own initiative, based upon information or comments received subsequent to the
Issued in Washington, DC.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.
Notice and request for comment.
The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
The OCC is soliciting comment concerning the renewal of its information collection titled, “Bank Activities and Operations; Investment in Bank Premises.” The OCC also is giving notice that it has sent the collection to OMB review.
You should submit written comments by March 5, 2018.
Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. Comments may be sent to: Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Attention: 1557-0204, 400 7th Street SW, suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, comments may be sent by fax to (571) 465-4326 or by email to
All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
Additionally, please send a copy of your comments by mail to: OCC Desk Officer, 1557-0204, U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW, #10235, Washington, DC 20503 or by email to
Shaquita Merritt, OCC Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490, for persons who are deaf or hearing impaired, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219.
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the OMB for each collection of information that they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) to include agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. The OCC requests that OMB extend its approval of this collection.
The information collection requirements are as follows:
• 12 CFR 5.37 (Investment in national bank or federal savings association premises). A national bank or federal savings association may invest in banking premises and other premises-related investments, loans, or indebtedness by filing an application for prior approval whenever its investment in bank premises will cause it to exceed its capital stock. The application must describe the present and proposed investment and the business reason for exceeding the limit. A bank with a composite 1 or 2 CAMELS rating entering a transaction that increases its aggregate bank premises investment to not more than 150 percent of its capital and surplus may proceed without prior OCC approval, but must provide an after-the-fact notice.
• 12 CFR 7.1014 (Sale of money orders at nonbanking outlets). A national bank may designate bonded agents to sell the bank's money orders at nonbanking outlets. The responsibility of both the bank and its agent should be defined in a written agreement setting forth the duties of both parties and providing for remuneration of the agent.
• 12 CFR 7.2000(b) (Corporate governance procedures—Other sources of guidance). A national bank shall designate in its bylaws the body of law selected for its corporate governance procedures.
• 12 CFR 7.2004 (Honorary directors or advisory boards). Any listing of a national bank's honorary or advisory directors must distinguish between those directors and the bank's board of directors or indicate their advisory status.
• 12 CFR 7.2014(b) (Indemnification of institution-affiliated parties—Administrative proceeding or civil actions not initiated by a federal agency). A national bank shall designate in its bylaws the body of law selected for making indemnification payments.
• 12 CFR 7.2024(a) (Staggered terms for national bank directors). Any national bank may adopt bylaws that provide for staggering the terms of its directors. National banks shall provide the OCC with copies of any bylaws so amended.
• 12 CFR 7.2024(c) (Size of bank board). A national bank seeking to increase the number of its directors must notify the OCC any time the proposed size would exceed 25 directors.
The OCC issued a notice for 60 days comment regarding this collection on November 21, 2017, 82 FR 55486. No comments were received. Comments continue to be invited on:
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information has practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.
Notice and request for comment.
The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
The OCC is soliciting comment concerning the renewal of its information collection titled “International Regulation.”
Comments must be received by April 3, 2018.
Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. Comments may be sent to: Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Attention: 1557-0102, 400 7th Street SW, suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, comments may be sent by fax to (571) 465-4326 or by electronic mail to
All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
Shaquita Merritt, OCC Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490 or, for persons who are deaf or hearing impaired, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219.
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the OMB for each collection of information that they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) to include agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of title 44 requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
A national bank shall notify the OCC when it files an application, notice, or report with the FRB
In practice, the OCC also has required an application pursuant to § 28.3(c) from a national bank seeking to join a foreign exchange, clearinghouse, or similar type of organization. In lieu of a notice, the OCC may accept a copy of an application, notice, or report submitted to another federal agency that covers the proposed action and contains substantially the same information required by the OCC. A national bank shall furnish the OCC with any additional information the OCC may require in connection with the national bank's foreign operations.
A foreign bank shall aggregate business transacted by all federal branches and agencies with the business transacted by all state branches and agencies controlled by the foreign bank in determining its compliance with limitations based upon the capital of the foreign bank. A foreign bank shall designate one federal branch or agency office in the United States to maintain consolidated information so that the OCC can monitor compliance.
A foreign bank should require its depository bank to segregate its capital equivalency deposits on the depository bank's books and records. The instruments making up the capital equivalency deposit that are placed in safekeeping at a depository bank to satisfy a foreign bank's capital equivalency deposit requirement must be maintained pursuant to an agreement prescribed by the OCC that shall be a
A foreign bank may apply to the OCC for an exemption to permit an uninsured federal branch to accept or maintain deposit accounts that are not listed in § 28.16(b). The request should describe the types, sources, and estimated amount of such deposits and explain why the OCC should grant an exemption, and how the exemption maintains and furthers the policies described in § 28.16(a).
A foreign bank that has more than one federal branch in the same state may aggregate deposits in all of its federal branches in that state, but exclude deposits of other branches, agencies, or wholly owned subsidiaries of the bank. The federal branch shall compute the average amount by using the sum of deposits as of the close of business of the last 30 calendar days ending with, and including, the last day of the calendar quarter, divided by 30. The federal branch shall maintain records of the calculation until its next examination by the OCC.
Each federal branch or agency shall maintain a set of accounts and records reflecting its transactions that are separate from those of the foreign bank and any other branch or agency. The federal branch or agency shall keep a set of accounts and records in English sufficient to permit the OCC to examine the condition of the federal branch or agency and its compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
The OCC may require a foreign bank to hold certain assets in the state in which its federal branch or agency is located.
The federal branch or agency shall send the OCC certification that all of its Reports of Examination have been destroyed or return its Reports of Examination to the OCC.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized, included in the request for OMB approval, and become a matter of public record. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information has practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Treasury (OCC).
Notice and request for comment.
The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Currently, the OCC is finalizing a revision to a regulatory reporting requirement for national banks and federal savings associations titled, “Company-Run Annual Stress Test Reporting Template and Documentation for Covered Institutions with Total Consolidated Assets of $50 Billion or More under the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.” The OCC also is giving notice that it has sent the collection to OMB for review.
Comments must be received by March 5, 2018.
Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. Comments may be sent to: Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Attention: 1557-0319, 400 7th Street SW, Suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, comments may be sent by fax to (571) 465-4326 or by electronic mail to
All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
Additionally, please send a copy of your comments by mail to: OCC Desk Officer, 1557-0319, U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW, #10235, Washington, DC 20503, or by email to:
Shaquita Merritt, OCC Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490 or, for persons who are deaf or hearing impaired, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, copies of the templates referenced in this notice can be found on the OCC's website under News and Issuances (
The OCC is requesting comment on the following revision to an approved information collection:
In 2012, the OCC first implemented the reporting templates referenced in the final rule.
The OCC intends to use the data collected to assess the reasonableness of the stress test results of covered institutions and to provide forward-looking information to the OCC regarding a covered institution's capital adequacy. The OCC also may use the results of the stress tests to determine whether additional analytical techniques and exercises could be appropriate to identify, measure, and monitor risks at the covered institution. The stress test results are expected to support ongoing improvement in a covered institution's stress testing practices with respect to its internal assessments of capital adequacy and overall capital planning.
The OCC recognizes that many covered institutions with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more are required to submit reports using Comprehensive Capital Analysis and Review (CCAR) reporting form FR Y-14A.
The revisions to the DFAST-14A reporting templates consist of the following:
• Eliminating two schedules, the Regulatory Capital Transitions Schedule and Retail Repurchase Exposures Schedule;
• Adding one item to the counterparty worksheet of the summary schedule to collect information of Funding Valuation Adjustments (FVAs) for firms subject to the Global Market Shock;
• Modifying instructions to clarify reporting of “Credit Loss Portion” and “Non-Credit Loss Portion” information for AFS/HTM worksheets in the summary schedule.
In 2017 the OCC introduced a Supplemental Schedule that collects additional information not included in the FR Y-14A. The revisions include modifications to the OCC Supplemental Schedule. These modifications to the Supplemental Schedule consist of clarifying instructions as well as adding, deleting, and modifying existing data items. The total number of items in the Supplemental Schedule will be reduced by approximately half, reflecting the OCC's commitment to reducing the reporting burden associated with this schedule. In particular, the revisions delete existing data items on Allowance for Loan and Lease Loss data and Provisions data. The OCC periodically reviews its data collection to identify fields whose collection are no longer necessary to support the OCC's supervisory objectives, and the allowance and provision fields were identified for elimination as part of this review. The revisions also eliminate the materiality thresholds for the reporting of certain items. Only national banks that are subsidiaries of large, complex firms, as defined by the Board, are required to complete the Supplemental Schedule, and the OCC believes that it is appropriate and manageable for these larger national banks to report these items.
Beginning in 2017, the Board and the OCC allowed institutions that were subsidiaries of large, non-complex holding companies, as defined by the Board, to comply with simplified reporting requirements and not complete certain subschedules of the FR Y-14A and DFAST-14A reporting forms. The revisions allow federal savings associations that qualify as over $50 billion covered institutions to comply with these simplified reporting requirements.
Savings and loan holding companies are not currently required to submit the Board's FR Y-14A reporting forms. Similarly, the Board's capital plan rule includes a definition for “large and noncomplex bank holding compan[ies]” but does not include a parallel definition for savings and loan holding companies. Accordingly, savings and loan holding companies and federal
The OCC received one comment from a trade association. The commenter suggested that the effective date for changes to the OCC reporting templates align with changes to the Board's reporting forms. The commenter also suggested that there should be a minimum of six months between the publication of final changes to the reporting templates and the effective date of the changes. According to the commenter, it is important to factor in the amount of time necessary to resolve clarifying questions.
The OCC recognizes the challenges with implementing changes in a timely and controlled manner. The OCC continues to balance the need to collect additional information with the objective of providing as much time as is feasible in advance of implementation. With respect to the changes in this notice, the OCC has sought to align effective dates for reporting requirements to the extent practical with synonymous changes to the Board's Y-14A. For example, the OCC is eliminating the Regulatory Capital Transitions Schedule and the Retail Repurchase Schedule to parallel the Board's changes to the Y-14A. The addition of one item to the counterparty worksheet to collect information on FVAs is consistent with changes made by the Board. The OCC believes that many of the reporting template changes are either burden-neutral or burden-reducing. In addition to eliminating the two schedules referenced above, the OCC is also reducing the number of data items in the Supplemental Schedule by approximately half. The OCC continually seeks to clarify and improve the DFAST-14A reporting instructions; nevertheless, as is the case with all reporting templates, there will always be clarifying questions from the industry, and the OCC seeks to respond to questions in a timely manner.
The commenter also suggested that the technical instructions accompanying any changes in the reporting templates be subject to public notice and comment. The OCC will continue to publish technical instructions as early as feasible. The technical changes do not alter the burden associated with the reporting forms and do not impose additional requirements. The technical instructions provide procedures for the submission of DFAST-14A data, covering matters such as file format and other technical specifications. While the OCC publishes the technical instructions as early as possible, the OCC and the Board have historically not published the technical instructions for notice and comment.
The commenter also questioned the need for the OCC Supplemental Schedule. The commenter suggested that the Supplemental Schedule did not serve a supervisory purpose. The commenter also opposed the elimination of the materiality thresholds for certain items, which the commenter believed would increase the reporting burden.
The OCC considers those items included in the OCC Supplemental Schedule as material risks that are necessary for monitoring and assessing a covered institution's capital adequacy and capital planning process. By requiring only subsidiaries of large, complex firms, as defined by the Board, to complete this schedule, these requirements now align with reporting exceptions for a number of summary and operational risk subschedules. To minimize reporting burden the OCC has reduced the number of Supplemental Schedule reporting items in half as part of its process to continually ensure that only key risk elements are included within this schedule. As these items represent key risks, relatively smaller amounts of exposures within individual firms could represent material aggregate risks to the banking system. Therefore, the OCC has substituted materiality thresholds for reporting exemptions based on the size and complexity of the parent holding company, thereby aligning the reporting exceptions with a number of summary and operational risk subschedules.
Regarding data collection challenges posed by the Supplemental Schedule for covered institutions, as noted in the instructions, covered institutions that cannot use existing models and methodologies to furnish requested information on the OCC Supplemental Schedule may use allocations, expert judgment, or other methods for projections of balances, losses, and allowances if data is not available at the requested level of granularity. Covered institutions should supply appropriate documentation explaining their approach.
The OCC proposed to eliminate references to the term “extraordinary items” to align with Federal Accounting Standards Board (FASB) Subtopic 255-30. The Board has decided to delay this change with respect to its FR Y-14A; therefore, in order to promote consistency between the OCC DFAST-14A and the FR Y-14A, the OCC will delay this change until further notice.
The OCC believes that the systems covered institutions use to prepare the FR Y-14 reporting templates to submit to the Board will also be used to prepare the reporting templates described in this notice. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record. Comments continue to be invited on:
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information has practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.
Notice and request for comment.
The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Currently, the OCC is soliciting comment concerning the renewal of an existing collection titled “Customer Complaint Form.”
You should submit written comments by April 3, 2018.
Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. Comments may be sent to: Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Attention: 1557-0232, 400 7th Street SW, suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, comments may be sent by fax to (571) 465-4326 or by electronic mail to
All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
Shaquita Merritt, OCC Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490, for persons who are deaf or hearing impaired, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219.
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the OMB for each collection of information that they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) to include agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of title 44 requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
CAG uses the information included in a completed form to create a record of the consumer's contact, capture information that can be used to resolve the consumer's issues, and provide a database of information that is incorporated into the OCC's supervisory process.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Comments are invited on:
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information shall have practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden; it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 5, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
38 U.S.C. 3019.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 5, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
38 U.S.C. 1917 and 1952, and 38 CFR 6.69.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 5, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
38 U.S.C. 3713(a) and 3714 and 3702(b)(2).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
(b) Following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, the 2001 Authorization for Use of Military Force (AUMF) and other authorities authorized the United States to detain certain persons who were a part of or substantially supported al-Qa'ida, the Taliban, or associated forces engaged in hostilities against the United States or its coalition partners. Today, the United States remains engaged in an armed conflict with al-Qa'ida, the Taliban, and associated forces, including with the Islamic State of Iraq and Syria.
(c) The detention operations at the U.S. Naval Station Guantánamo Bay are legal, safe, humane, and conducted consistent with United States and international law.
(d) Those operations are continuing given that a number of the remaining individuals at the detention facility are being prosecuted in military commissions, while others must be detained to protect against continuing, significant threats to the security of the United States, as determined by periodic reviews.
(e) Given that some of the current detainee population represent the most difficult and dangerous cases from among those historically detained at the facility, there is significant reason for concern regarding their reengagement in hostilities should they have the opportunity.
(b) Detention operations at U.S. Naval Station Guantánamo Bay shall continue to be conducted consistent with all applicable United States and international law, including the Detainee Treatment Act of 2005.
(c) In addition, the United States may transport additional detainees to U.S. Naval Station Guantánamo Bay when lawful and necessary to protect the Nation.
(d) Within 90 days of the date of this order, the Secretary of Defense shall, in consultation with the Secretary of State, the Attorney General, the Secretary of Homeland Security, the Director of National Intelligence, and the heads of any other appropriate executive departments and agencies as determined by the Secretary of Defense, recommend policies to the President regarding the disposition of individuals captured in connection with an armed conflict, including policies governing transfer of individuals to U.S. Naval Station Guantánamo Bay.
(e) Unless charged in or subject to a judgment of conviction by a military commission, any detainees transferred to U.S. Naval Station Guantánamo Bay after the date of this order shall be subject to the procedures for periodic review established in Executive Order 13567 of March 7, 2011 (Periodic Review of Individuals Detained at Guantánamo Bay Naval Station
(b) Nothing in this order shall be construed to affect existing law or authorities relating to the detention of United States citizens, lawful permanent residents of the United States, or any persons who are captured or arrested in the United States.
(c) Nothing in this order shall prevent the Attorney General from, as appropriate, investigating, detaining, and prosecuting a terrorist subject to the criminal laws and jurisdiction of the United States.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule; supplemental.
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (hereinafter Service or we) is proposing to establish the 2018-19 hunting regulations for certain migratory game birds. We annually prescribe frameworks, or outer limits, for dates and times when hunting may occur and the number of birds that may be taken and possessed in hunting seasons. These frameworks are necessary to allow State selections of seasons and limits and to allow recreational harvest at levels compatible with population and habitat conditions.
You must submit comments on the proposed migratory bird hunting frameworks by March 5, 2018.
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We will post all comments on
Ron W. Kokel, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of the Interior, MS: MB, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803; (703) 358-1967.
As part of DOI's retrospective regulatory review, 2 years ago we developed a schedule for migratory game bird hunting regulations that is more efficient and provides hunting season dates much earlier than was possible under the old process. The new process makes planning easier for the States and all parties interested in migratory bird hunting. Beginning in the summer of 2015, with the development of the 2016-17 hunting seasons, we started promulgating our annual migratory game bird hunting regulations using a new schedule that combines the previously used early- and late-season regulatory processes into a single process. We make decisions for harvest management based on predictions derived from long-term biological information and established harvest strategies and, therefore, can establish migratory bird hunting seasons much earlier than the system we used for many years. Under the new process, we develop proposed hunting season frameworks for a given year in the fall of the prior year. We then finalize those frameworks a few months later, thereby enabling the State agencies to select and publish their season dates in early summer. We provided a detailed overview of the new process in the August 3, 2017,
On August 3, 2017, we published a proposal to amend title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at part 20 (82 FR 36308). The proposal provided a background and overview of the migratory bird hunting regulations process, and addressed the establishment of seasons, limits, and other regulations for hunting migratory game birds under §§ 20.101 through 20.107, 20.109, and 20.110 of subpart K. Major steps in the 2018-19 regulatory cycle relating to open public meetings and
Subsequent documents will refer only to numbered items requiring attention. Therefore, it is important to note that we will omit those items requiring no attention, and remaining numbered items will be discontinuous and appear incomplete.
The August 3 proposed rule also provided detailed information on the proposed 2018-19 regulatory schedule and announced the Service Regulations Committee (SRC) and Flyway Council meetings.
On October 3, 2017, we published in the
On October 17-18, 2017, we held open meetings with the Flyway Council Consultants, at which the participants reviewed information on the current status of migratory game birds and developed recommendations for the 2018-19 regulations for these species.
This document deals specifically with proposed frameworks for the migratory bird hunting regulations. It will lead to final frameworks from which States may select season dates, shooting hours, areas, and limits. We have considered all pertinent comments received through November 1, 2017, on the August 3 and October 3, 2017, proposed rulemaking documents in developing this document. In addition, new proposals for certain regulations are provided for public comment. The
Each year we publish various species status reports that provide detailed information on the status and harvest of migratory game birds, including information on the methodologies and results. These reports are available at the address indicated under
We used the following reports: Adaptive Harvest Management, 2018 Hunting Season (September, 2017); American Woodcock Population Status, 2017 (August, 2017); Band-tailed Pigeon Population Status, 2017 (August, 2017); Migratory Bird Hunting Activity and Harvest During the 2015-16 and 2016-17 Hunting Seasons (August, 2017); Mourning Dove Population Status, 2017 (August, 2017); Status and Harvests of Sandhill Cranes, Mid-continent, Rocky Mountain, Lower Colorado River Valley and Eastern Populations, 2017 (August, 2017); and Waterfowl Population Status, 2017 (August, 2017).
The preliminary proposed rulemaking, which appeared in the August 3, 2017,
We received recommendations from all four Flyway Councils. Some recommendations supported continuation of last year's frameworks. Due to the comprehensive nature of the annual review of the frameworks performed by the Councils, support for continuation of last year's frameworks is assumed for items for which no recommendations were received. Council recommendations for changes in the frameworks are summarized below. We have included only the numbered items pertaining to issues for which we received recommendations. Consequently, the issues do not follow in successive numerical order.
We seek additional information and comments on the recommendations in this supplemental proposed rule. New proposals and modifications to previously described proposals are discussed below. Wherever possible, they are discussed under headings corresponding to the numbered items in the August 3, 2017, proposed rule.
The prescribed regulatory alternative for the Atlantic, Mississippi, Central, and Pacific Flyways is based on the status of mallard populations that contribute primarily to each Flyway. In the Atlantic Flyway, we set hunting regulations based on the population status of mallards breeding in eastern North America (Federal survey strata 51-54 and 56, and State surveys in New England and the mid-Atlantic region). In the Central and Mississippi Flyways, we set hunting regulations based on the status and dynamics of mid-continent mallards. Mid-continent mallards are those breeding in central North America (Federal survey strata 13-18, 20-50, and 75-77, and State surveys in Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Michigan). In the Pacific Flyway, we set hunting regulations based on the status and dynamics of western mallards. Western mallards are those breeding in Alaska and the northern Yukon Territory (as based on Federal surveys in strata 1-12), and in British Columbia, Washington, Oregon, and California (as based on Canadian Wildlife Service and State-conducted surveys).
For the 2018-19 season, we recommend continuing to use independent optimization to determine the optimal regulatory choice for each mallard stock. This means that we would develop regulations for eastern mallards, mid-continent mallards, and western mallards independently, based upon the breeding stock that contributes primarily to each Flyway. We detailed implementation of this AHM decision framework for western and mid-continent mallards in the July 24, 2008,
As we stated in the October 3, 2017, proposed rule, for the 2018-19 hunting season, we are continuing to consider the same regulatory alternatives as those used last year. The nature of the “restrictive,” “moderate,” and “liberal” alternatives has remained essentially unchanged since 1997, except that extended framework dates have been offered in the “moderate” and “liberal” regulatory alternatives since 2002 (67 FR 47224; July 17, 2002).
The optimal AHM strategies for mid-continent, eastern, and western mallards for the 2018-19 hunting season were calculated using: (1) Harvest-management objectives specific to each mallard stock; (2) the 2018-19 regulatory alternatives; and (3) current
The Mississippi Flyway Council recommended that teal seasons in Iowa, Michigan, Wisconsin, and Kentucky be made operational beginning in 2018-19. They further recommended that Tennessee be granted an additional year of experimental status for their teal season to collect an additional year of data to support evaluations and that Iowa be allowed to retain the option to select a September 5-day duck season or an operational early teal season for the 2018-19 hunting seasons. Iowa's decision would remain in effect under current duck season frameworks.
The Central Flyway Council recommended that Nebraska's experimental September teal season be made operational for the 2018-19 hunting season.
We agree with the Atlantic Flyway's request to extend Florida's experimental teal-only season through 2018, to allow the State sufficient time to prepare a full report on the results of its study on impacts to non-target species.
We also agree with the Mississippi Flyway's request that September teal seasons in Iowa, Michigan, Wisconsin, and Kentucky be made operational beginning in 2018-19. Iowa, Michigan, and Wisconsin submitted a report that summarized results from their 3-year experimental September teal season conducted during 2014-16. Results from those studies demonstrated that nontarget species attempt rates were below the acceptable rate of 25 percent (range 4.6 to 6.6 percent). Although Michigan and Wisconsin each had one year in which the nontarget harvest rate exceeded the acceptable rate of 10 percent, the harvest rate in the other 2 years of the studies in each State were well below 10 percent (range 4.0 to 6.7 for Michigan and 0.0 for both years in Wisconsin), and thus we believe that production (“northern”) States in the Mississippi Flyway have satisfied the experimental criteria for nontarget species harvest rates. None of the three States opened an experimental season prior to sunrise; therefore, a comparison of nontarget species attempt and harvest rates during pre- and post-sunrise periods was not made. Furthermore, we concur that Iowa shall be allowed to retain the option to select either a September 5-day duck season or an operational September teal season for the 2018-19 hunting season. The Service previously agreed to allow Iowa to retain these options when the State suspended its special September 5-day duck season in order to conduct a 3-year experimental September teal season along with other production States in the Flyway. When Iowa chooses either of these options for the 2018-19 season, that decision will remain in effect for future years under current duck season frameworks. With regard to the results from the 3-year experimental September teal-only season that follows the operational September teal-wood duck season in Kentucky, the nontarget species attempt rate for both the pre-sunrise (7.7 percent) and post-sunrise (13.4 percent) periods were below the acceptable rate of 25 percent. Similarly, the nontarget species harvest rate for both the pre-sunrise (5.0 percent) and post-sunrise (6.0 percent) periods were below the acceptable rate of 10 percent. Therefore, we agree with the Mississippi Flyway Council's request to make the September teal-only season in Kentucky operational. Finally, we agree with the Mississippi Flyway's request to extend Tennessee's experimental teal-only season through 2018, to allow the Service sufficient time to review a report recently submitted by Tennessee that contains results from a fourth experimental year conducted in September 2017. The Service will examine results from all 4 years of the study to determine whether Tennessee has met experimental criteria with regard to nontarget species attempt and harvest rates.
We also agree with the Central Flyway Council's recommendation regarding Nebraska's experimental September teal season. In 2014, we allowed States in northern (“production”) areas of the Central and Mississippi Flyways to open, on an experimental basis, September teal seasons similar to those offered since 1969 to southern (“non-production”) States. For these experimental seasons, each State entered into a memorandum of agreement with the Service that specified sample sizes (
For the 2018-19 season, the optimal country-specific regulatory strategies were calculated using: (1) The black duck harvest objective (98 percent of long-term cumulative harvest); (2) 2018-19 country-specific regulatory alternatives; (3) current parameter estimates for mallard competition and additive mortality; and (4) 2017 survey results of 0.54 million breeding black ducks and 0.44 million breeding mallards in the core survey area. The optimal regulatory choices for the 2018-19 season are the “liberal” package in Canada and the “moderate” package in the United States.
For scaup, optimal regulatory strategies for the 2018-19 season were calculated using: (1) An objective to achieve 95 percent of long-term cumulative harvest, (2) current scaup regulatory alternatives, and (3) updated model parameters and weights. Based on a “moderate” regulatory alternative selected in 2017, and the 2017 survey results of 4.37 million scaup, the optimal regulatory choice for the 2018-19 season for all four Flyways is the “moderate” regulatory alternative.
The Central Flyway Council recommended the implementation of modified Canada goose hunting zones in North Dakota and Wyoming. Wyoming would conduct an evaluation of the 3-way splits in two zones in accordance with established criteria.
The Pacific Flyway Council recommended increasing the daily bag limit for Canada geese from 4 to 6 in the Northwest Permit Zone of Oregon. They further recommended reducing the size of Oregon's Tillamook County Management Area (
We support the Central Flyway Council's recommendations. The change in North Dakota was previously addressed above in 4.A. Special Early Seasons. The changes will allow the States to better satisfy hunters' desires to hunt at certain times of the season without negatively impacting Canada goose populations. Wyoming will work together with the Service to conduct an evaluation of their change to conform to Service requirements.
We also agree with the Pacific Flyway Council's recommendation to increase the daily bag limit from 4 to 6 Canada geese in Oregon's Northwest Permit Zone. Seven subspecies of Canada geese occur in this area, but cackling Canada geese are the most abundant. The current 3-year average predicted fall population estimate (2015-17) for cackling geese is 321,475, which is substantially above the Flyway population objective of 250,000. The increase in bag limit is specifically intended to decrease abundance of cackling geese and address associated depredation complaints, and is consistent with the Council's harvest strategy for these birds. However, the bag limit increase could result in increased harvest of the 6 other subspecies of Canada geese in the area, but is not expected to be significant. Canada goose harvest in the area is expected to increase by less than 10 percent with the bag limit change, and State harvest data indicate cackling geese represent about 70 percent of the Canada goose harvest in this area. Other subspecies of Canada geese are over the Council's population objectives, have no open hunting season, occur mostly outside of the Northwest Zone, or have stable trends in abundance during the last 10 years. More specific to these other Canada goose subspecies, the current 3-year average breeding population estimate (2015-17) for Aleutian Canada geese is 167,451, which is substantially above the Flyway population objective of 60,000 geese. The current 3-year average breeding population estimate (2015-17) for the Pacific Population of western Canada geese is 313,200 and exceeds area-specific Flyway objectives. The hunting season on dusky Canada geese, a subspecies of management concern, is currently closed in this area. The potential for increased incidental take of dusky geese is expected to be small, and monitoring programs are in place to evaluate population status. Vancouver Canada geese are relatively nonmigratory, occur primarily in remote estuarine areas of southeast Alaska and northern British Columbia (
We also agree with the Pacific Flyway Council's recommendation to reduce the size of the Tillamook County Management Area (
Under the new regulatory schedule, neither the expected 2018 brant production information (available summer 2018) nor the 2018 MWS count (conducted in January 2018) is yet available. However, the 2018 MWS will be completed and winter brant data will be available by the expected publication of the final frameworks (late February 2018). Therefore, in the September 24, 2015,
• If the mid-winter waterfowl survey (MWS) count is <100,000 Atlantic brant, the season would be closed.
• If the MWS count is between 100,000 and 115,000 brant, States could select a 30-day season with a 1-bird daily bag limit.
• If the MWS count is between 115,000 and 130,000 brant, States could select a 30-day season with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
• If the MWS count is between 130,000 and 150,000 brant, States could select a 50-day season with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
• If the MWS count is between 150,000 and 200,000 brant, States could select a 60-day season with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
• If the MWS count is >200,000 brant, States could select a 60-day season with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
Under all the above open-season alternatives, seasons would be between the Saturday nearest September 24 and January 31. Further, States could split their seasons into 2 segments.
When we acquire the 2018 MWS brant count in January 2018, we will select the appropriate Atlantic brant hunting season for 2018-19 from the above Atlantic brant hunt strategies and publish the result in the final frameworks rule.
We also agree with the Pacific Flyway Council's recommendation to create a new hunting area for RMP cranes in Idaho to include a portion of Oneida County. The new hunting area is consistent with the hunting area requirements in the Pacific and Central Flyway Council's RMP crane management plan. Because this is a shared population between the Pacific and Central Flyways, the same recommendation should have come from the Central Flyway Council. Although we did not receive a formal recommendation from them, the Central Flyway Council has indicated to the Service that it supports the recommendation.
Regarding the RMP crane harvest, as we discussed in the March 28, 2016, final rule (81 FR 17302), the current harvest strategy used to calculate the allowable harvest of RMP cranes does not fit well within the new regulatory process, similar to the Atlantic brant issue discussed above under 6. Brant. Results of the fall abundance and recruitment surveys of RMP cranes, which are used in the calculation of the annual allowable harvest, will continue to be released between December 1 and January 31 each year, which is after the date proposed frameworks will be formulated in the new regulatory process. If we were to propose regulations at this point in time, data 2 to 4 years old would be used to determine the annual allowable harvest and State harvest allocations for RMP cranes. We agree that relying on data that is 2 to 4 years old is not ideal due to the variability in fall abundance and recruitment for this population, and the significance of these data in the annual harvest allocations. Thus, we agree that the formula to determine the annual allowable harvest for RMP cranes published in the March 28, 2016, final rule should be used under the new regulatory schedule. We will produce a final estimate for the allowable harvest of RMP cranes and publish it in the final frameworks rule, allowing us to use data that is 1 to 3 years old, as is currently practiced.
In 2011, we implemented a harvest strategy for woodcock (76 FR 19876, April 8, 2011). The harvest strategy provides a transparent framework for making regulatory decisions for woodcock season length and bag limits while we work to improve monitoring and assessment protocols for this species. Utilizing the criteria developed for the strategy, the 3-year average for the Singing Ground Survey indices and associated confidence intervals fall within the “moderate package” for both the Eastern and Central Management Regions. As such, a “moderate season” for both management regions for the 2018-19 season is appropriate.
Specifics of the harvest strategy can be found at
The Mississippi and Central Flyway Councils recommended the use of the “standard” season package of a 15-bird daily bag limit and a 90-day season for the 2018-19 mourning dove season in the States within the Central Management Unit.
The Pacific Flyway Council recommended use of the “standard” season framework for States in the Western Management Unit (WMU) population of mourning doves.
The Department of the Interior's policy is, whenever possible, to afford the public an opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process. Accordingly, we invite interested persons to submit written comments, suggestions, or recommendations regarding the proposed regulations. Before promulgating final migratory game bird hunting regulations, we will consider all comments we receive. These comments, and any additional information we receive, may lead to final regulations that differ from these proposals.
You may submit your comments and materials concerning this proposed rule by one of the methods listed in
We will post all comments in their entirety—including your personal identifying information—on
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on
We will consider, but possibly may not respond in detail to, each comment. As in the past, we will summarize all comments we receive during the comment period and respond to them after the closing date in the preambles of any final rules.
Based on our most current data, we are affirming our required determinations made in the August 3 and October 3 proposed rules; for descriptions of our actions to ensure compliance with the following statutes and Executive Orders, see our August 3, 2017, proposed rule (82 FR 36308):
• National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) Consideration;
• Endangered Species Act Consideration;
• Regulatory Flexibility Act;
• Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act;
• Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995;
• Unfunded Mandates Reform Act;
• Executive Orders 12630, 12866, 12988, 13132, 13175, 13211, 13563, and 13771.
Exports, Hunting, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation, Wildlife.
The rules that eventually will be promulgated for the 2018-19 hunting season are authorized under 16 U.S.C. 703-712 and 16 U.S.C. 742 a-j.
Pursuant to the Migratory Bird Treaty Act and delegated authorities, the Department of the Interior approved the following proposed frameworks for season lengths, shooting hours, bag and possession limits, and outside dates within which States may select seasons for hunting migratory game birds between the dates of September 1, 2018, and March 10, 2019. These frameworks are summarized below.
These Federally authorized, State-issued permits are issued to individuals, and only the individual whose name and address appears on the permit at the time of issuance is authorized to take migratory birds at levels specified in the permit, in accordance with provisions of both Federal and State regulations governing the hunting season. The permit must be carried by the permittee when exercising its provisions and must be presented to any law enforcement officer upon request. The permit is not transferrable or assignable to another individual, and may not be sold, bartered, traded, or otherwise provided to another person. If the permit is altered or defaced in any way, the permit becomes invalid.
Other geographic descriptions are contained in a later portion of this document.
For the purpose of the hunting regulations listed below, the collective terms “dark” and “light” geese include the following species:
In the Atlantic Flyway States of Connecticut, Delaware, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Jersey, North Carolina, and Pennsylvania, where Sunday hunting is prohibited Statewide by State law, all Sundays are closed to the take of all migratory game birds.
Connecticut, Delaware, Georgia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York,
A Canada goose season of up to 15 days during September 1-15 may be selected for the Eastern Unit of Maryland. Seasons not to exceed 30 days during September 1-30 may be selected for Connecticut, Florida, Georgia, New Jersey, New York (Long Island Zone only), North Carolina, Rhode Island, and South Carolina. Seasons may not exceed 25 days during September 1-25 in the remainder of the Flyway. Areas open to the hunting of Canada geese must be described, delineated, and designated as such in each State's hunting regulations.
A 50-day season may be held between November 15 and February 5, with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
An 80-day season may be held between October 1 and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
An 80-day season may be held between October 1 and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
A 60-day season may be held Statewide between October 1 and January 31, with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
A 60-day season may be held Statewide between October 1 and January 31 with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
A 60-day season may be held between October 1 and January 31, with a 2-bird daily bag limit. A special late season may be held in designated areas from January 15 to February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit.
In designated areas, an 80-day season may be held between October 1 and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
An 80-day season may be held between October 1 and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments in each zone.
In Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Louisiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio, Tennessee, and Wisconsin, the season may be split into two segments in each zone.
In Alabama, Arkansas, and Mississippi, the season may be split into three segments.
In Colorado, Kansas, Montana, New Mexico, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming, the regular season may be split into two segments.
In Colorado, Montana, New Mexico, and Wyoming, States may select seasons not to exceed 107 days. The daily bag limit for dark geese is 5 in the aggregate.
In the Western Goose Zone of Texas, the season may not exceed 95 days. The daily bag limit for Canada geese (or any other dark goose species except white-fronted geese) is 5. The daily bag limit for white-fronted geese is 2.
Montana and New Mexico may split their seasons into three segments.
A Canada goose season of up to 15 days during September 1-20 may be selected. The daily bag limit may not exceed 5 Canada geese, except in Pacific County, Washington, where the daily bag limit may not exceed 15 Canada geese. Areas open to hunting of Canada geese in each State must be described, delineated, and designated as such in each State's hunting regulations.
In Oregon and Washington permit zones, the hunting season is closed on dusky Canada geese. A dusky Canada goose is any dark-breasted Canada goose (Munsell 10 YR color value five or less) with a bill length between 40 and 50 millimeters. Hunting of geese will only be by hunters possessing a State-issued permit authorizing them to do so. Shooting hours for geese may begin no earlier than sunrise. Regular Canada goose seasons in the permit zones of Oregon and Washington remain subject to the Memorandum of Understanding entered into with the Service regarding monitoring the impacts of take during the regular Canada goose season on the dusky Canada goose population.
In portions of the Pacific Flyway (Montana, Nevada, and Utah), an open season for taking a limited number of swans may be selected. Permits will be issued by the State and will authorize each permittee to take no more than 1 swan per season with each permit. Nevada may issue up to 2 permits per hunter. Montana and Utah may issue only 1 permit per hunter. Each State's season may open no earlier than the Saturday nearest October 1 (September 29). These seasons are also subject to the following conditions:
In addition, the States of Utah and Nevada must implement a harvest-monitoring program to measure the species composition of the swan harvest. The harvest-monitoring program must require that all harvested swans or their species-determinant parts be examined by either State or Federal biologists for the purpose of species classification. The States should use appropriate measures to maximize hunter compliance in providing bagged swans for examination. Further, the States of Montana, Nevada, and Utah must achieve at least an 80-percent hunter compliance rate, or subsequent permits will be reduced by 10 percent. All three States must provide to the Service by June 30, 2019, a report detailing harvest, hunter participation, reporting compliance, and monitoring of swan populations in the designated hunt areas.
In portions of the Atlantic Flyway (North Carolina and Virginia) and the Central Flyway (North Dakota, South Dakota [east of the Missouri River], and that portion of Montana in the Central Flyway), an open season for taking a limited number of tundra swans may be selected. Permits will be issued by the States that authorize the take of no more than 1 tundra swan per permit. A second permit may be issued to hunters from unused permits remaining after the first drawing. The States must obtain harvest and hunter participation data. These seasons are also subject to the following conditions:
Arizona, Colorado, Idaho, Montana, New Mexico, Utah, and Wyoming may select seasons for hunting sandhill cranes within the range of the Rocky Mountain Population (RMP) subject to the following conditions:
A. In Utah, 100 percent of the harvest will be assigned to the RMP quota;
B. In Arizona, monitoring the racial composition of the harvest must be conducted at 3-year intervals;
C. In Idaho, 100 percent of the harvest will be assigned to the RMP quota; and
D. In New Mexico, the season in the Estancia Valley is experimental, with a requirement to monitor the level and racial composition of the harvest; greater sandhill cranes in the harvest will be assigned to the RMP quota.
A. The hunting season may be split into not more than two periods, except in that portion of Texas in which the special white-winged dove season is allowed, where a limited take of mourning and white-tipped doves may also occur during that special season (see Special White-winged Dove Area in Texas).
B. A season may be selected for the North and Central Zones between September 1 and January 25; and for the South Zone between September 14 and January 25.
C. Except as noted above, regulations for bag and possession limits, season length, and shooting hours must be uniform within each hunting zone.
In addition, Texas may select a hunting season of not more than 4 days for the Special White-winged Dove Area of the South Zone between September 1 and September 19. The daily bag limit may not exceed 15 white-winged, mourning, and white-tipped doves in the aggregate, of which no more than 2 may be mourning doves and no more than 2 may be white-tipped doves.
In addition to the basic duck limits, Alaska may select sea duck limits of 10 daily, singly or in the aggregate, including no more than 6 each of either harlequin or long-tailed ducks. Sea ducks include scoters, common and king eiders, harlequin ducks, long-tailed ducks, and common and red-breasted mergansers.
A. In Units 5 and 6, the taking of Canada geese is permitted from September 28 through December 16.
B. On Middleton Island in Unit 6, a special, permit-only Canada goose season may be offered. A mandatory goose identification class is required. Hunters must check in and check out. The bag limit is 1 daily and 1 in possession. The season will close if incidental harvest includes 5 dusky Canada geese. A dusky Canada goose is any dark-breasted Canada goose (Munsell 10 YR color value five or less) with a bill length between 40 and 50 millimeters.
C. In Units 9, 10, 17, and 18, the daily bag limit is 6 Canada geese.
A. In Units 9, 10, and 17, the daily bag limit is 6 white-fronted geese.
B. In Unit 18, the daily bag limit is 10 white-fronted geese.
A. All seasons are by permit only.
B. No more than 1 emperor goose may be authorized per permit.
C. Total harvest may not exceed 1,000 emperor geese.
D. In State Game Management Unit 18, the Kodiak Island Road Area is closed to hunting. The Kodiak Island Road Area consists of all lands and water (including exposed tidelands) east of a line extending from Crag Point in the north to the west end of Saltery Cove in the south and all lands and water south of a line extending from Termination Point along the north side of Cascade Lake extending to Anton Larsen Bay. Marine waters adjacent to the closed area are closed to harvest within 500 feet from the water's edge. The offshore islands are open to harvest, for example: Woody, Long, Gull, and Puffin islands.
A. All seasons are by permit only.
B. All season framework dates are September 1-October 31.
C. In Unit 17, no more than 200 permits may be issued during this operational season. No more than 3
D. In Unit 18, no more than 500 permits may be issued during the operational season. No more than 3 tundra swans may be authorized per permit. No more than 1 permit may be issued per hunter per season.
E. In Unit 22, no more than 300 permits may be issued during the operational season. No more than 3 tundra swans may be authorized per permit. No more than 1 permit may be issued per hunter per season.
F. In Unit 23, no more than 300 permits may be issued during the operational season. No more than 3 tundra swans may be authorized per permit. No more than 1 permit may be issued per hunter per season.
Mourning doves may be taken in Hawaii in accordance with shooting hours and other regulations set by the State of Hawaii, and subject to the applicable provisions of 50 CFR part 20.
Falconry is a permitted means of taking migratory game birds in any State meeting Federal falconry standards in 50 CFR 21.29. These States may select an extended season for taking migratory game birds in accordance with the following:
Same zones as for ducks.
Early Canada Goose Seasons
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks but in addition:
Zone G4: Fremont County excluding those portions south or west of the Continental Divide.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
A. That portion of the State lying east and north of a line beginning at the junction of U.S. Highway 81 and the Texas-Oklahoma State line, then southeast along U.S. Highway 81 to its junction with U.S. Highway 287 in Montague County, then southeast along U.S. Highway 287 to its junction with I-35W in Fort Worth, then southwest along I-35 to its junction with U.S. Highway 290 East in Austin, then east along U.S. Highway 290 to its junction with Interstate Loop 610 in Harris County, then south and east along Interstate Loop 610 to its junction with Interstate Highway 45 in Houston, then south on Interstate Highway 45 to State Highway 342, then to the shore of the Gulf of Mexico, and then north and east along the shore of the Gulf of Mexico to the Texas-Louisiana State line.
B. That portion of the State lying within the boundaries of a line beginning at the Kleberg-Nueces County line and the shore of the Gulf of Mexico, then west along the County line to Park Road 22 in Nueces County, then north and west along Park Road 22 to its junction with State Highway 358 in Corpus Christi, then west and north along State Highway 358 to its junction with State Highway 286, then north along State Highway 286 to its junction with Interstate Highway 37, then east along Interstate Highway 37 to its junction with U.S. Highway 181, then north and west along U.S. Highway 181 to its junction with U.S. Highway 77 in Sinton, then north and east along U.S. Highway 77 to its junction with U.S.
Special Season Open Areas
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) authorizes television broadcasters to use the “Next Generation” broadcast television (Next Gen TV) transmission standard, also called “ATSC 3.0” or “3.0,” on a voluntary, market-driven basis. This authorization is subject to broadcasters continuing to deliver current-generation digital television (DTV) service, using the ATSC 1.0 transmission standard, also called “ATSC 1.0” or “1.0,” to their viewers.
Effective March 5, 2018, except for §§ 73.3801, 73.6029, and 74.782 which contain information collection requirements that are not effective until approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The Commission will publish a document in the
For additional information, contact Evan Baranoff,
This is a summary of the Commission's
1. In this
2. The Commission in this R&O adopts the proposal in the Next Gen TV
3. We conclude that stations transmitting ATSC 3.0 signals will be engaged in “broadcasting” within the meaning of the Communications Act (the “Act”). The Act defines “broadcasting” as “the dissemination of radio communications intended to be received by the public, directly or by the intermediary of relay stations,” and a “broadcast station” as “a radio station equipped to engage in broadcasting.” We proposed to interpret the Act in this manner in the
4. The Act includes, for example, restrictions on foreign ownership of broadcast licenses and licensees and
5. The Commission has determined that the definition of “broadcasting” in the Act applies to services intended to be received by an indiscriminate public and has identified three indicia of a lack of such intent: (1) The service is not receivable on conventional television sets and requires a licensee or programmer-provided special antennae and/or signal converter so the signal can be received in the home; (2) the programming is encrypted in a way that “makes it unusable by the public” and that is not “enjoyable without the aid of decoders”; and (3) the provider and the viewer are engaged in a private contractual relationship.
6. ATVA notes that at some point ATSC 3.0 service may include two-way, interactive service offerings to individual viewers (such as targeted advertising and localized content) and asserts that at some point these service offerings may become so individualized that they no longer constitute “broadcasting” within the meaning of the Act. ATVA suggests that the Commission “consider where that point lies sooner rather than later to avoid uncertainty for broadcasters, MVPDs, and others.” Given that the ATSC 3.0 standard is new and will be deployed on a voluntary basis, it is not yet known precisely what interactive services Next Gen TV broadcasters may offer or the extent to which differentiated content may be provided to individual viewers. Moreover, even if Next Gen TV broadcasters offer some two-way interactive services with individualized content, not all viewers may be interested in such individualized services, so we expect that Next Gen TV broadcasters will continue to provide an undifferentiated broadcast service to the general public. We therefore find that it is unnecessary to speculate at this time as to whether certain ATSC 3.0 service offerings may become so individualized that they would no longer meet the definition of “broadcasting.”
7. As originally proposed by Petitioners, and as we proposed in the
8. Our local simulcasting requirement will be effectuated through partnerships that broadcasters that wish to provide Next Gen TV service must enter into with other broadcasters in their local markets. Specifically, Next Gen TV broadcasters must partner with another television station (
9. We apply our local simulcasting requirement only to the primary video programming stream aired by Next Gen TV broadcasters on their ATSC 3.0 channels.
10. The Commission intends that the local simulcasting requirement be temporary.
11. We find that local simulcasting is essential to the deployment of Next Gen TV service on a voluntary, market-driven basis for all stakeholders, and we agree with the many commenters who support a requirement that broadcasters implementing Next Gen TV must continue to air at least one ATSC 1.0 programming stream.
12. To avoid either forcing viewers to acquire new equipment or depriving them of television service, it is critical that broadcasters continue to provide service using the current ATSC 1.0 standard to deliver DTV service while the marketplace adopts devices compatible with the new 3.0 transmission standard. Television sets capable of receiving ATSC 3.0 signals are currently being developed in South Korea,
13. A simulcast mandate applicable to a Next Gen TV station's primary 3.0 video programming stream will also help ensure that MVPDs can continue to provide the 1.0 signals of Next Gen TV broadcasters to their subscribers. According to ATVA and NCTA, the equipment used by MVPDs today to receive, transmit, and provide broadcast signals to viewers via set-top boxes is incapable of providing an ATSC 3.0 signal in its native format to subscribers.
14. We disagree with those commenters who advocate that the Commission refrain from adopting a simulcast mandate on the ground that broadcasters already have incentives to ensure continuity of service to viewers and that they need flexibility to implement 3.0 service. While we recognize that broadcasters have a strong economic incentive to continue to reach their viewers absent a mandate to do so, we conclude that codifying and clarifying this obligation is necessary to provide certainty to consumers, broadcasters, MVPDs, and others who will be affected by the voluntary rollout of 3.0 service. Accordingly, we decline to make the simulcasting obligation a “best efforts” requirement, as advocated by ATBA, or a “reasonable efforts” requirement as proposed by ONE Media. We recognize, however, that some degree of flexibility is necessary to ensure that all stations are able to deploy 3.0 technology, including those that cannot find a simulcasting partner. As discussed below, we will permit LPTV and TV translator stations the option of deploying ATSC 3.0 service without simulcasting (
15. We permit all television station classes to participate together in simulcast arrangements. Thus, a full power station could partner with one or more other full power stations or with one or more Class A, LPTV, or TV translator stations. We also permit NCE stations to participate in simulcast arrangements with commercial stations. Any Next Gen TV broadcaster that airs an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal from a partner host station necessarily must operate that signal using the technical facilities of the host. For example, a Class A, LPTV, or TV translator station airing a 1.0 or 3.0 signal on a full power host station will necessarily operate its 1.0 or 3.0 “guest” signal using the technical facilities of the full power station, including the higher power limit specified in 47 CFR part 73.
16. Simulcast agreements must include provisions outlining each station's rights and responsibilities in the following areas: (i) Access to facilities, including whether each licensee will have unrestricted access to the shared transmission facilities; (ii) allocation of capacity within the shared channel; (iii) operation, maintenance, repair, and modification of facilities, including a list of all relevant equipment, a description of each party's financial obligations, and any relevant notice provisions; (iv) the conditions under which the simulcast agreement may be terminated, assigned or transferred; and (v) how a guest's signal may be transitioned off the host station. License applicants must certify that the agreement contains such provisions. By requiring stations to address these issues in their simulcast agreements, we seek to avoid disputes that could lead to a disruption in service to the public and to ensure that each licensee is able to fulfill its independent obligation to comply with all pertinent statutory requirements and our rules.
17. The provisions that we require in simulcast agreements are similar to those we have required in channel sharing agreements (CSAs).
18. We require that, for the time being, the programming aired on the ATSC 1.0 simulcast channel be “substantially similar” to that of the primary video programming stream on the ATSC 3.0 channel. We define this requirement to mean that the programming on the 1.0 simulcast channel and the 3.0 primary stream must be the same, except for programming features that are based on the enhanced capabilities of ATSC 3.0, advertisements, and promotions for upcoming programs.
19.
20.
21. The goal of our local simulcasting requirement is to preserve a station's existing service to viewers. To ensure that viewers are protected, it is important not only to require that television broadcasters continue to broadcast in the current ATSC 1.0 standard while ATSC 3.0 is being deployed, but also that they continue to air in ATSC 1.0 format the programming that viewers most want and expect to receive. We seek to ensure that broadcasters air their most popular, widely-viewed programming on their 1.0 simulcast channels so that viewers are not forced to purchase 3.0 capable equipment simply to continue to receive this programming rather than because they find the ATSC 3.0 technology particularly attractive.
22. We find that our approach provides both flexibility and clear guidance to broadcasters regarding their simulcasting obligation. We also note that it is consistent with the expectation expressed by broadcasters that Next Gen TV signals will contain programming that is “substantially the same” as the programming carried on the ATSC 1.0 signal, taking into account the ability to enhance the 3.0 programming using the capabilities made possible by the new television standard.
23. We decline to adopt requirements regarding the format of the 1.0 simulcast signal.
24. We recognize that if broadcasters that currently transmit in HD switch to standard definition (SD) in order to deploy ATSC 3.0 service, consumers may not receive HD signals.
25. We next address the required coverage area for Next Gen TV stations that relocate their 1.0 simulcast signal to a temporary host station (and convert their existing facilities to ATSC 3.0). In particular, we address the extent to which the coverage area of the new 1.0 simulcast signal must overlap with the station's existing ATSC 1.0 coverage area. For full power broadcasters implementing Next Gen TV service in this manner, we require that the station's 1.0 simulcast channel retain and continue to cover the station's community of license and that it be assigned to the same DMA as the originating station.
26. This coverage requirement is consistent with our goal to minimize disruption to viewers as a result of the voluntary deployment of ATSC 3.0. If a station moves its ATSC 1.0 signal to a simulcast host station with a different transmitter location, existing OTA viewers may no longer be able to receive the signal. In addition, MVPDs that lose OTA reception of the signal at their local headend may no longer be able to carry the station. By requiring stations to continue to provide an ATSC 1.0 signal that covers their current community of license and encouraging them to keep coverage loss to five percent or less of the population currently receiving a 1.0 signal over the air, we will limit the number of current viewers and MVPD headends that will lose access to the OTA 1.0 signal as a result of local simulcasting. Although we agree that broadcasters have a market incentive to continue to reach their viewers during the implementation of ATSC 3.0 service, we do not believe it is appropriate to rely solely on market incentives when it comes to the selection of 1.0 simulcast partners given the potential impact of service loss on OTA viewers as well as MVPDs. We also decline to permit Next Gen TV stations to arrange for the simulcast of their ATSC 1.0 signal on another broadcast facility “serving a substantially similar community of license,” as proposed by Petitioners, as that standard would appear to permit a station to temporarily cease providing 1.0 service to its own community of license and could result in a significant reduction or change in the station's coverage area.
27.
28. Class A, LPTV, and TV translator stations do not have a community of license signal requirement. For Class A stations that propose to broadcast their ATSC 1.0 signal from a temporary host facility, we will apply the existing 30-mile and contour overlap restrictions that apply to low power station moves. Thus, a Class A station that proposes to move its 1.0 signal in order to implement 3.0 service: (1) Must maintain overlap between the protected contour of its existing and proposed 1.0 signal; and (2) may not relocate its 1.0 simulcast signal more than 30 miles from the reference coordinates of the relocating station's antenna location.
29. As discussed below, we exempt LPTV and TV translator stations from our local simulcasting requirement and permit them to transition directly from ATSC 1.0 to ATSC 3.0 service. If an LPTV or TV translator station elects voluntarily to simulcast, however, and to move its 1.0 signal to a temporary simulcast host in order to implement 3.0 service on its existing facilities, we require that the station comply with the restrictions we adopt above with respect to such moves by a Class A station.
30.
31. Our approach appropriately balances the need to ensure continued provision of service to viewers while broadcasters voluntarily deploy ATSC 3.0 and permitting broadcasters sufficient flexibility to locate and select a simulcast partner. We believe that the vast majority of broadcasters in today's market should be able to find a simulcast partner that would enable them to qualify for expedited processing under this approach.
For purposes of the community of license analysis, the staff did a pairwise study of the contours for all full-power and Class A stations, based on data from TVStudy, to count, for each station, the number of other stations' contours that contained a potential guest's community of license. For the expedited processing analysis, the staff looked at the service of all full-power and Class A stations, based on data from TVStudy, and did a pairwise study to count, for each station, the population of cells that are served by both the potential host station and the potential guest and compared that to the total population served by the potential guest.
32. For stations electing to move their 1.0 simulcast channel to a temporary host station, we decline to limit service loss to only 0.5 percent of the station's predicted population served, absent a waiver, as advocated by some commenters. In the context of the incentive auction, the Commission determined that no individual station reassignment made by the Commission pursuant to the repacking process would be permitted to reduce another station's population by more than 0.5 percent. This standard was chosen to implement a statutory requirement to “make all reasonable efforts” to preserve a station's population served during the repacking process. We find that a somewhat less strict standard, that restricts population loss to five percent absent a showing that a greater loss is warranted, is appropriate to permit broadcasters sufficient flexibility to locate a simulcast partner while also protecting viewers from undue service disruption.
33. We also decline to require a station to demonstrate that it has made “reasonable efforts” to continue to air its ATSC 1.0 signal from its existing facility before permitting the station to simulcast that signal from a temporary host facility. Next Gen TV broadcasters have a market-based incentive to continue to serve their existing viewers, and the requirements we adopt herein provide additional incentives and protections to ensure continuity of service when possible. Our approach appropriately balances our goal of protecting existing viewers with the need to provide Next Gen TV broadcasters with flexibility to manage their deployment of ATSC 3.0 based on their station's and market's unique circumstances.
34. In addition, we decline to require that stations that transmit their ATSC simulcast 1.0 signal from a new host facility reach the headends of all MVPDs that rely on OTA delivery or to reimburse MVPDs for the costs associated with reception and processing of an ATSC 1.0 signal delivered from a new location.
35. We provide more location and coverage flexibility to Next Gen TV broadcasters that elect to continue broadcasting in ATSC 1.0 from their existing transmitter location
36. We exempt LPTV and TV translator stations from our local simulcasting requirement and allow these stations to elect to transition directly to 3.0 service. LPTV and TV translator stations electing to transition directly must first file an application to convert their facilities to 3.0 operation. In addition, they must comply with the MVPD notification and consumer education requirements adopted herein.
37. We adopt this simulcast exception for LPTV and TV translator stations in recognition of the fact that they face unique challenges in locating a simulcast partner. As a practical matter, many are not located near another LPTV or TV translator station and they may not be attractive simulcast partners for full power stations because of their lower power and coverage area. In addition, because LPTV and TV translator stations are secondary, they are subject to displacement by primary full power and Class A stations, further reducing their desirability as partner host stations. Absent an exemption from our local simulcasting requirement, LPTV and TV translator stations could be denied the opportunity to implement ATSC 3.0 service until the Commission eliminates the simulcast requirement.
38. We recognize that permitting LPTV and TV translator stations to transition directly to ATSC 3.0 could deprive those OTA viewers without ATSC 3.0 TV sets or converter equipment of the important programming these stations provide. MVPD subscribers could also be affected if MVPDs are not prepared to carry ATSC 3.0 signals on the date of a direct transition. Although we recognize that permitting LPTV and TV translator stations to transition directly may cause some consumer disruption, in light of the unique circumstances faced by LPTV and TV translator stations we conclude that providing these stations with the option to transition directly will best ensure that they are able to deploy ATSC 3.0 technology.
39. Exempting LPTV and TV translator stations from the local simulcasting requirement will have the added benefit of allowing these stations to serve as “lighthouse” stations, thereby providing an ATSC 3.0 host option for other full power, Class A, LPTV, and TV translator stations that wish to partner with them.
40. Finally, our decision to exempt LPTV and TV translator stations from our local simulcasting requirement will ensure that analog LPTV and TV translator stations and stations that have been displaced due to the post-incentive auction repacking process are not forced to build both an ATSC 1.0 and an ATSC 3.0 facility. The Commission has determined that LPTV and TV translator stations must complete their transition to digital service by July 13, 2021.
41. We decline to restrict the ability of LPTV and TV translator stations affiliated with a broadcast network to directly transition, as advocated by ATVA.
42. We will consider requests for waiver of our local simulcasting and coverage requirements on a case-by-case basis. This includes requests from full power and Class A television stations to transition directly from ATSC 1.0 to ATSC 3.0 service on the station's existing facility without providing a 1.0 simulcast as well as requests to air a 1.0 simulcast channel from a host location that does not cover all or a portion of the station's community of license or from which the station can provide only a lower signal threshold over the community than that required by the rules.
43. Commenters, including both broadcasters and MVPDs, support waivers of the simulcasting requirement for broadcasters that are unable to enter into simulcasting arrangements. We are aware that some full power and Class A stations may face a unique challenge in meeting our local simulcasting requirement. For example, PTV notes that public television stations are often not sited based on DMA boundaries because many statewide networks licensed to state agencies or commissions are required to serve their entire state regardless of cross-state DMA boundaries. As a result, certain public stations may find it difficult to find a simulcast partner. Other stations in small markets and/or rural areas may face similar challenges in meeting our simulcasting requirement.
44. We require that 1.0 and 3.0 channels aired on a partner host station be licensed as temporary second channels of the originating broadcaster. That is, the ATSC 1.0 and ATSC 3.0 signals of a Next Gen TV broadcaster will be two separately authorized companion channels under the broadcaster's single, unified license.
45. The partner host and guest station(s) in a simulcast arrangement will continue to be licensed separately and each station will have its own call sign. Each licensee will be independently subject to all of the Commission's obligations, rules, and policies. The Commission retains the
46. We sought comment in the
47. Second, the licensed simulcast approach clarifies the carriage rights of simulcast signals. Because multicast signals are not entitled to carriage rights, treating simulcast signals as multicast channels under a host's license raises the question as to whether such signals have mandatory carriage rights. As discussed below, a Next Gen TV broadcaster's licensed ATSC 1.0 signal will be entitled to carriage whether aired on the Next Gen TV broadcaster's own facility or that of a simulcast host.
48. Third, the licensed simulcast approach makes it clear that the originating station (and not the host) is responsible for regulatory compliance regarding its 1.0 simulcast or 3.0 signal being aired on a host station and gives the Commission clear enforcement authority over the originating station in the event of a violation of our rules.
49. We require that a Next Gen TV broadcaster file an application with the Commission, and receive approval, before: (1) Moving its 1.0 signal to a temporary simulcast host station or moving its 1.0 simulcast to a different host station, or discontinuing a 1.0 guest signal; (2) commencing the airing of a 3.0 channel on a 3.0 host station (that has already converted to 3.0 operation), moving its 3.0 channel to a different host station, or discontinuing a 3.0 guest signal; or (3) converting its existing station to 3.0 operation or from 3.0 back to 1.0. For all of these applications, we adopt a streamlined one-step process that will require the filing of only an application for modification of license (
50. While a full power station seeking to change its channel normally must first submit a petition to amend the DTV Table of Allotments, as we proposed in
51. A broadcaster seeking to convert its existing station to 3.0 transmissions is required to file the appropriate license schedule to FCC Form 2100 and, absent a waiver of the local simulcasting requirement, simultaneously file on the appropriate license schedule to FCC Form 2100 an application to move its 1.0 signal to a simulcast host station. Absent a waiver, these broadcasters may not commence 3.0 operation on their existing facility before their 1.0 simulcast begins airing on the simulcast host station. If a broadcaster seeks to move its 3.0 or 1.0 simulcast signal to a different host station, it is required to file the appropriate license schedule to FCC Form 2100 and wait until it receives Commission approval of the application before airing the signal on the new host facility.
52. The Commission will act on all applications as quickly as possible.
53. We will treat applications filed to implement simulcasting and the conversion of a station to ATSC 3.0 operation as applications for modification of license. While a change in channel is normally a major change under our rules, we conclude that it is appropriate to treat channel changes made to comply with the local simulcasting requirement as minor changes to a license because the guest will be assuming the authorized technical facilities of the host station, meaning that compliance with our interference and other technical rules would have been addressed in licensing the host station.
54. This one-step process is only slightly more burdensome for broadcasters than the simple notification procedure, with no Commission approval required, supported by several broadcast commenters. These commenters advocate that broadcasters simply notify the Commission of the station's simulcasting plans, either via a letter or on a form provided by the Commission. We believe that submission of an application followed by Commission review and approval is necessary to ensure compliance with Section 308 of the Communications Act and the local simulcasting and other requirements we adopt herein. Our streamlined one-step process provides sufficient flexibility to broadcasters that may need to modify their simulcasting arrangements as the deployment of ATSC 3.0 progresses. Finally, as noted above, while we require that broadcasters provide their simulcast agreements to the Commission upon request, we do not require them to be filed with their simulcast applications, thus further simplifying the application process. We delegate authority to the Media Bureau for the narrow purpose of amending FCC Form 2100 as necessary to implement the licensing process adopted herein.
55. In the event a station must make changes that require prior Commission approval as part of the deployment of ATSC 3.0 (
56. We sought comment in the
57. We discuss in this section the MVPD carriage rights of broadcasters that choose to deploy ATSC 3.0 service. We conclude that a Next Gen TV broadcaster's 1.0 simulcast channel will retain mandatory carriage rights and its 3.0 channel will not have mandatory carriage rights while the Commission requires local simulcasting. ATSC 1.0 channels relocating to a temporary host facility can retain mandatory carriage rights which they were exercising at their original location, provided they continue to qualify for such rights at the host facility location; we do not permit those channels to gain new mandatory carriage rights as a result of their new location. In addition, we require must-carry Next Gen TV broadcasters and retransmission consent Next Gen TV broadcasters relocating their 1.0 simulcast channel to provide notice to affected MVPDs at least 90 days in advance of the move, and 120 days in advance if the move occurs during the incentive auction repacking period. We decline to adopt any additional rules regarding the carriage of ATSC 3.0 pursuant to retransmission consent. Such carriage will be voluntary, and we find that voluntary carriage issues are best left to marketplace negotiations between broadcasters and MVPDs. Finally, in the
58. The Communications Act establishes slightly different thresholds for mandatory carriage depending on whether the television station is full power or low-power, or commercial or noncommercial, and also depending on whether carriage is sought from a cable operator or satellite carrier. The carriage rights of commercial stations on cable systems are set forth in Section 614 of the Act.
59. We adopt the proposal in the
60. We interpret the Communications Act to accord mandatory carriage rights to the signals of ATSC 1.0 simulcast channels, including those that are hosting another 1.0 channel and those that are guest licensees at a temporary host location. Thus, stations broadcasting in the mandatory ATSC 1.0 transmission standard will retain carriage rights. Nothing in the Act requires a station to occupy an entire 6 MHz channel in order to be eligible for must-carry rights; rather, the station must simply be a licensee eligible for carriage under the applicable provision of the Act. Under our local simulcasting rules, guest and host 1.0 simulcast stations will be separately licensed and authorized to operate on the same 6 MHz channel (
61. We also conclude that Next Gen TV broadcasters will have mandatory carriage rights for their 1.0 signals and not their 3.0 signals while the Commission requires local simulcasting. Most commenters agree with this result, even though they may differ on how to achieve it. Thus, a Next Gen TV broadcaster will choose between must carry or retransmission consent for its ATSC 1.0 signal, but may only pursue carriage via retransmission consent for its ATSC 3.0 signal. This approach is consistent with the framework used during the DTV transition. In that context, the Commission found that, with regard to licensees that were simultaneously broadcasting analog and digital signals, analog signals would have mandatory carriage rights during the DTV transition and digital signals would not. That is, a broadcaster would choose between must carry or retransmission consent for its analog signal but could only pursue carriage via retransmission consent for its digital signal. The Commission concluded that the Communications Act did not require cable operators to carry both the digital and analog signals (also referred to as “dual carriage”) of a DTV broadcaster during the DTV transition when television stations were still broadcasting analog signals.
62. We make the analogous finding here that the Act does not require carriage of both an ATSC 1.0 and an ATSC 3.0 signal of the same broadcaster.
63. In addition, a Next Gen TV broadcaster will not be able to exercise mandatory carriage rights with respect to its 3.0 signal
64. Although the Commission did recognize mandatory carriage rights for digital-only stations during the DTV transition, that transition was mandated by statute. By contrast, the decision to broadcast a 3.0 signal is strictly voluntary, and it remains uncertain if all broadcasters will ultimately choose to provide 3.0 service. We disagree with ONE Media that we should accord mandatory carriage rights to a 3.0-only station if that station could not find a viable simulcast partner. Even in circumstances where a station is unable to find a 1.0 simulcast partner, deployment of 3.0 service is a voluntary choice on the part of the broadcaster and 3.0 carriage would require MVPDs to incur the significant costs and burdens described above. Given that 3.0 deployment is intended to be voluntary for all stakeholders, we find that a broadcaster's decision to operate only in ATSC 3.0 must not require MVPDs to incur costs associated with receiving and processing the 3.0 signals before the MVPD is ready and willing to do so.
65. In support of its argument that 3.0-only stations should be entitled to mandatory carriage rights, ONE Media also contends that “ATSC 3.0 decoders will be readily available by the time stations initiate 3.0 broadcasts.”
66. Having established that mandatory carriage rights will attach only to an ATSC 1.0 signal, we now turn to the issue of whether, and, if so, to what extent, 1.0 mandatory carriage rights move to the temporary host location, if the broadcaster opts to relocate its 1.0 simulcast channel to a host's facility.
67. A Next Gen TV broadcaster's 1.0 mandatory carriage rights will be determined based on the location from which the 1.0 signal is being transmitted.
68. We disagree with Petitioners and other broadcasters that, in 1.0 channel relocation situations, 1.0 mandatory carriage rights could and should remain unchanged and be determined based on the original facility. Petitioners argue that, under a licensed simulcast approach, which we adopt above, because both the 1.0 and 3.0 signal will be under the same license, the broadcaster can designate its 1.0 channel as its “primary video stream” entitled to mandatory carriage rights, even if that signal is relocated to a new location. This argument does not recognize that the 1.0 and 3.0 signals are each a distinct signal transmitted on separate channels and are not two programming streams transmitted together on the same channel.
69. To minimize carriage burdens on MVPDs that could result from a 1.0 station's temporary move, we also interpret the statute to not allow a station's temporary move to a 1.0 host facility to provide the station with new or expanded mandatory carriage rights. Allowing a 1.0 simulcast channel to gain new or expanded mandatory carriage rights due to the temporary and voluntary relocation of the 1.0 signal to a host station's facility could pose significant burdens on MVPDs that would not advance the interests of the must-carry regime nor the purpose of local simulcasting. In the channel sharing context, the Commission determined that carriage rights would be based on the shared location and observed that certain stations may gain carriage on some cable systems, but lose carriage on others, as a result of the movements of their facilities or the changes in their communities of license. Unlike the channel sharing context, Next Gen TV broadcasters are not relinquishing the station at their original channel, but rather will continue to operate on it and will ultimately return to it when the local simulcasting requirement ends. Moreover, broadcasters may need to relocate 1.0 simulcast channels multiple times while local simulcasting is required, thus further burdening MVPDs if carriage rights could expand at every move. Finally, any expansion of 1.0 service due to such relocations will be temporary and will not serve to maintain existing 1.0 service or to preserve over-the-air broadcast viewership. Therefore, we find that a guest licensee's 1.0 simulcast channel moved to a temporary host facility may assert mandatory carriage rights only if it (1) qualified for, and has been exercising, mandatory carriage rights at its original location and (2) continues to qualify for mandatory carriage at the host facility, including (but not limited to) delivering a good quality 1.0 signal to the cable system principal headend or satellite carrier local receive facility, or agreeing to be responsible for the costs of delivering such 1.0 signal to the MVPD.
70.
71. We require all Next Gen TV broadcasters relocating their 1.0 simulcast channel (
72. Consistent with the channel sharing context and AT&T's proposal, the notice must contain the following information: (1) Date and time of the 1.0 channel change; (2) the 1.0 channel occupied by the station before and after commencement of local simulcasting; (3) modification, if any, to antenna position, location, or power levels; (4) stream identification information, including program numbers for each programming stream; and (5) engineering staff contact information. If any of this information changes, an amended notification must be sent. Stations may choose whether to provide notice via a letter notification
73. Beyond the notice requirement mentioned above, we do not adopt any rules related to voluntary carriage of 3.0 signals through retransmission consent at this time. The
74. We conclude that it is premature to address any issues that may arise with respect to the voluntary carriage of ATSC 3.0 signals before broadcasters begin transmitting in this new voluntary standard.
75. In this section, we address several additional topics related to the voluntary deployment of Next Gen TV. First, we explain that Next Gen TV broadcasters are subject to our broadcast rules. Second, we decline to adopt a requirement that television broadcast receivers include ATSC 3.0-compatible receivers. Third, we require broadcasters to notify the public about their deployment of Next Gen TV service. Fourth, we decline to change the fees that we charge broadcasters that offer ancillary services at this time.
76. We require Next Gen TV broadcasters to comply with all of our broadcast rules, including, but not limited to, our rules regarding foreign ownership, political broadcasting, children's programming, equal employment opportunities, public inspection file, indecency, sponsorship identification, contests, the CALM Act, the Emergency Alert System (EAS), and accessibility for people with disabilities. As television stations engaged in “broadcasting” under the Act, Next Gen TV stations will be public trustees with a responsibility to serve the “public interest, convenience, and necessity.” In the Petition, Petitioners suggest that broadcasters implementing ATSC 3.0 should remain subject to all relevant Commission rules, and commenters overwhelmingly support applying the same public interest obligations that apply to broadcasters transmitting under the current ATSC 1.0 standard to those transmitting using the ATSC 3.0 standard. We agree and conclude that all of our broadcast rules that currently apply when a broadcaster is providing a free, over-the-air video stream broadcast in ATSC 1.0 will apply equally when it is providing a free, over-the-air video stream broadcast in ATSC 3.0.
77. With respect to accessibility of Next Gen TV programming, we emphasize that broadcasters that choose to deploy ATSC 3.0 are expected to comply fully with all relevant Part 79 requirements. Among other requirements, these rules require television broadcasters to ensure that all new, nonexempt English language and Spanish language programming distributed on their channels is closed captioned; that closed captioning contained in all programming received from video programming providers is passed through; and that local emergency information is accessible to persons who are deaf or hard of hearing and to persons who are blind or have visual disabilities. These rules also require local TV station affiliates of ABC, CBS, Fox and NBC located in the top 60 TV markets to provide a specified number of hours per calendar quarter of video-described prime time and/or children's programming.
78. As the Consumer Groups recommend, we clarify that MVPDs that agree to carry ATSC 3.0 signals must comply with 47 CFR 79.1(c), which spells out the requirements for video programming distributors to pass through and maintain the quality of closed captions. We also clarify that the use of image overlays or rasterized textual content will not relieve Next Gen TV broadcasters of their obligation to provide textual closed captions in accordance with Part 79 of the Commission's rules.
79. We revise our rules to make clear that there is no Next Gen TV tuner mandate. TV receivers capable of receiving ATSC 3.0 signals are not yet available in the U.S. Without revising our existing rules, television receivers would be required to include ATSC 3.0 tuners when broadcasters begin transmitting ATSC 3.0 signals. Specifically, 47 CFR 15.117(b), the rule implementing the Commission's authority under the 1962 All Channel Receiver Act (ACRA), provides that “TV broadcast receivers shall be capable of adequately receiving all channels allocated by the Commission to the television broadcast service.” Section 303(s) of the Act, as codified by ACRA, grants the Commission “from time to time, as public convenience, interest, or necessity requires” the “authority to require that apparatus designed to receive television pictures broadcast simultaneously with sound be capable of adequately receiving all frequencies allocated by the Commission to television broadcasting.” This provision leaves it to the Commission's discretion when to require that television receivers be capable of receiving all television broadcast frequencies. We conclude that a tuner mandate is unnecessary at this time given that the deployment of ATSC 3.0 will be voluntary and market-driven and that broadcasters will continue to transmit ATSC 1.0 signals indefinitely. We agree with commenters that consumer demand will drive the inclusion of ATSC 3.0 tuners in television receivers. Accordingly, we are revising 47 CFR 15.117(b) to make clear that this rule does not apply to ATSC 3.0.
80. We are not persuaded by ATBA's argument that a Next Gen TV tuner mandate for all television receivers, as well as smartphones and other mobile devices designed to receive and display television signals, is critical to the preservation of LPTV service. ATBA asserts that repacking following the incentive auction will displace thousands of LPTV stations and the
81. We agree with commenters that it is unnecessary to require that all TV receivers sold after a specified date have an HDMI port to permit attachment of a converter device, such as an external tuner dongle, set-top box, or gateway device, that would enable the receivers to be easily upgradeable to receive ATSC 3.0 transmissions. The Public Interest Groups observe that in the past three years in which
82. As discussed below, we are adopting consumer education requirements modeled on the consumer education requirements adopted in connection with the incentive auction for broadcasters that will transition to new channels post-auction. Consumer education will be crucial to the successful deployment of Next Gen TV service and simulcasting of ATSC 1.0 service. Consumers will need to be informed if stations they view will be changing channels and encouraged to rescan their receivers for new channel assignments. Although we agree that broadcasters will be motivated to inform viewers of the availability and features of Next Gen TV and how to continue to receive their ATSC 1.0 signals during simulcasting, we conclude that consumer education requirements are needed to ensure that broadcasters provide adequate notice to viewers and to minimize any potential disruption to viewers.
83. All stations that relocate their ATSC 1.0 signals (
84. We conclude that this will ensure that viewers are apprised of the potential impact of the voluntary deployment of ATSC 3.0 service on them. PSAs must also be provided in the same language as a majority of the programming carried by the station, provide all pertinent information to consumers, and be closed captioned.
85. We will also require LPTV stations and any other stations that transition directly to ATSC 3.0 to provide on-air notifications to ensure that viewers are aware that they will no longer be able to receive the signals of these stations in ATSC 1.0 and that they may need to obtain new equipment to receive the ATSC 3.0 transmissions of these stations. Stations that transition directly to ATSC 3.0 must provide on-air notifications beginning 30 days prior to the date that they terminate their ATSC 1.0 operations. Such crawls or PSAs must provide all pertinent information to consumers. To the extent that such equipment is available, we encourage stations to include in their on-air notices and on their websites information about the availability of external tuner dongles and gateway devices that can be used to upgrade viewers' TV receivers to receive ATSC 3.0 transmissions. These stations must otherwise comply with the same on-air notification requirements set forth above for stations that relocate their ATSC 1.0 signals.
86. The Commission will support broadcasters' consumer education efforts by, among other things, responding to consumer questions regarding the deployment of Next Gen TV and ATSC 1.0 simulcasting and providing consumer assistance on rescanning TVs. In addition, the Commission will update its website (
87. We decline to reexamine the fee that broadcasters must pay to offer ancillary and supplemental services at this time, as requested by several commenters. Broadcasters currently must remit an annual fee equal to five percent of the gross revenues derived from any ancillary or supplementary services for which viewers must pay a subscription fee, or for which the broadcaster directly or indirectly receives compensation from a third party in exchange for the transmission of material provided by the third party (other than commercial advertisements used to support broadcasting for which a fee is not required). Under Section 336 of the Act, the Commission is required to set the ancillary services fee so as to (1) recover for the public a portion of the value of the public spectrum made available for ancillary or supplemental use by broadcasters, (2) avoid unjust enrichment of broadcasters, and (3) recover for the public an amount that equals the amount that would have been recovered at auction. In addition, the Commission must adjust the ancillary services fee periodically to ensure that these requirements continue to be met. Some commenters suggest that a higher fee may be warranted to ensure compliance with the statutory directive, while others assert that the fee should be reduced to ensure that it does not thwart innovation by Next Gen TV broadcasters.
88. We conclude that it would be premature at this time to adjust the fee associated with ancillary services. It is
89. Authorizing the deployment of Next Gen TV on a voluntary basis concurrently with the post-incentive auction transition is likely to create efficiencies for repacked stations that want to upgrade to ATSC 3.0. In particular, commenters point out that the incremental cost of adding Next Gen TV capability as part of a station's equipment reconfiguration or upgrade during the repack process will be significantly less than the cost of upgrading equipment twice, once for the repack and once for the deployment of ATSC 3.0 service. We reiterate that all requests for reimbursement from the TV Broadcaster Relocation Fund (Reimbursement Fund), including those for ATSC 3.0 capable equipment, will be evaluated consistent with the standards set forth in the
90. In this section, we resolve technical issues that the authorization of ATSC 3.0 raises. First, we incorporate certain parts of the ATSC 3.0 standard by reference into our rules. Next, we adopt our proposal to calculate Next Gen TV interference to DTV signals using the methodology and planning factors specified OET-69. Finally, we conclude that broadcast television stations may operate ATSC 3.0 Single Frequency Networks pursuant to our current rules that authorize Distributed Transmission Systems.
91. We incorporate two parts of the ATSC 3.0 “physical layer” standard into our rules: (1) ATSC A/321:2016 “System Discovery & Signaling” (A/321), which is the standard used to communicate the RF signal type that the ATSC 3.0 signal will use, and (2) A/322:2017 “Physical Layer Protocol” (A/322), which is the standard that defines the waveforms that ATSC 3.0 signals may take. With respect to A/322, we apply the standard only to a Next Gen TV station's primary free over-the-air video programming stream and incorporate it by reference into our rules for a period of five years from the date of publication in the
92. The ATSC 3.0 suite of standards is split into multiple parts under a unifying parent standard. The ATSC 3.0 standards are structured into three layers: (1) The physical layer, (2) the management and protocols layer, and (3) the applications and presentation layer. Each of the standards fits into only one layer, making it possible to develop and update each part independently. The physical layer includes the definition of the radio frequency (RF) waveform used in ATSC 3.0, as well as the coding and error correction that determine the robustness of the signal to noise and interference. The management and protocols layer organizes data bits into streams and files and establishes the protocol for the receiver to direct those streams to the proper destinations. The applications and presentation layer includes audio and video compression technologies, captions and descriptive audio, emergency alerts, parental controls, and interactive applications. It also specifies how the station is displayed to viewers.
93.
94.
95. Requiring Next Gen TV broadcasters to broadcast their primary video programming stream in accordance with A/322 for a limited period will benefit consumers and other stakeholders. As LG explains, device manufacturers and MVPDs may not be able to reliably predict what signal modulation a broadcaster is using unless broadcasters are required to follow A/322. This uncertainty could cause manufacturers to inadvertently build equipment that cannot receive Next Gen TV broadcasts or could render MVPDs unable to receive and retransmit the signals of Next Gen TV stations. These outcomes would harm consumers. We note that although NAB was originally opposed to the Commission adopting A/322, more recently it has acknowledged that “adopting the full physical layer of the Next Gen standard, including A/322” may “ensure that consumer electronics manufacturers can build television receivers with confidence.” One of the primary reasons we adopted the ATSC 1.0 standard for DTV was “to ensure that all affected parties have sufficient confidence and certainty in order to promote the smooth introduction of a free and universally available digital broadcast television service.”
96. We are persuaded, however, that it is not appropriate at this time to require broadcasters to adhere to A/322 indefinitely. As the record indicates, the ATSC 3.0 standard could evolve, and stagnant Commission rules could prevent broadcasters from taking advantage of that evolution. NAB proposes, with respect to the one free over-the-air video programming stream that Next Gen TV broadcasters will be required to provide, “that broadcasters rely on both components of the physical layer, that is, A/321 and A/322,” and that the “requirement to incorporate A/322 sunset automatically after a period of three years unless extended by the Commission following a rulemaking proceeding.” We agree with the basic principle of NAB's proposal. In particular, we agree that the Commission “. . . can provide the certainty the consumer electronics industry desires with the flexibility broadcasters seek while minimizing regulatory burdens” by incorporating A/322 into our rules for a transitional period. After that transitional period, the requirement will sunset if it is not reinstated by the Commission via rulemaking before the end of the transitional period.
97. We conclude that five years, rather than three years, is the appropriate amount of time to require broadcasters to use the A/322 standard for their primary video programming stream. Three years, as proposed by NAB, would sunset the requirement within (or only shortly after) the incentive auction repacking period and likely before many stations have had a reasonable opportunity to implement Next Gen TV broadcasting. We find that a time and scope-limited adoption of A/322 strikes an appropriate balance of all interests reflected in the record. Our approach will let broadcasters develop new ancillary services outside the boundaries of A/322. It will also establish a period of certainty for manufacturers, MVPDs, and consumers that will prevent broadcasting standards from splintering and will speed the overall adoption of ATSC 3.0. Requiring Next Gen TV broadcasters to use A/322 only with respect to the primary video programming stream leaves significant ability for broadcasters to innovate with regard to ancillary services. Thus, we conclude that the requirement that broadcasters adhere to the A/322 standard requirement will sunset five years from its effective date (
98. We find that the benefits of requiring broadcasters' primary video programming stream to adhere to A/322 outweigh the burdens, particularly because A/322 gives broadcasters many choices. As commenters explain, the A/322 standard enables a significant amount of broadcaster flexibility, allowing broadcasters to choose from tens of thousands of different robustness operating points. The parameters that determine these operating points allow broadcasters to customize the payload, interference susceptibility, and mobile performance of their primary video signal, and allow broadcasters to design their signals to support a range that extends all the way from very robust mobile video to very high quality Ultra-High Definition and High Dynamic Range video. In addition, we are not adopting at this time any of the other ATSC 3.0 standards, so broadcasters that choose to deploy Next Gen TV service will have considerable flexibility to innovate.
99. We disagree with suggestions, however, that incorporating A/322 into our rules is necessary to make interference calculations more certain and predictable. LG and others assert that A/321 defines only a small portion of the ATSC 3.0 RF waveform, but an engineering study performed by MSW showed that the A/322 waveform is sufficiently noise-like to be considered in the interference environment in the same the way the DTV waveform is. So we expect that any coded orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing signal likely to be used by broadcasters,
100. Although ONE Media argues that requiring broadcasters to adhere to A/322 will limit the mobile reception performance of the ATSC 3.0 standard, the record suggests that this concern is overstated. LG performed mobile reception tests pursuant to an ATSC 3.0 experimental license, and the report resulting from those tests indicates that the ATSC 3.0 standard, including A/322, allows for “[h]ighly reliable in-vehicle mobile reception.” Although the Commission has limited data to rely on at this time, it appears that the performance of the ATSC 3.0 standard will allow broadcasters to confidently implement mobile services, even while they adhere to A/322. Moreover, because we require broadcasters to adhere to A/322 only with respect to the primary video programming stream that the Next Gen TV broadcaster transmits, broadcasters will be able to innovate outside the bounds of A/322 with the rest of the spectrum they are licensed to use.
101. In this section, we adopt the service and interference protection rules that we proposed in the
102. As we proposed in the
103. We also adopt our proposals regarding service and interference protection of ATSC 3.0 signals; we will use the same methodology and planning factors defined for DTV when defining the service area of an ATSC 3.0 signal and define the ATSC 3.0 interference criteria for co- and adjacent channel interfering signals at the same levels as specified in OET Bulletin No. 69 for DTV signals. The DTV transmission standard has fixed transmission and error correction parameters and a single associated minimum signal strength threshold (or signal-to-noise-ratio/SNR threshold) for service. The minimum SNR threshold is used as a basis for determining where a DTV broadcast television station's signal can be received. Whether a DTV broadcast television station is considered to have service and receive protection from interference is determined in part by this threshold. The minimum expected signal level for an ATSC 3.0 signal is much more dynamic. The ATSC 3.0 standard enables broadcasters to choose from multiple modulation and error correction parameters, which have the effect of allowing them to adjust data rates and corresponding minimum SNR thresholds. Further, ATSC 3.0 enables broadcasters to transmit multiple program streams with different parameters simultaneously. This means that, as a practical matter, the actual area where the signal of a television station broadcasting an ATSC 3.0 signal can be received may not necessarily match up to the same area defined by the single minimum SNR threshold of DTV. The SNR threshold for the ATSC 3.0 transmission standard will be variable and station-specific, enabling tradeoffs depending on each station's programming offerings and quality of service goals. In consideration of the dynamic nature of ATSC 3.0 transmission standard, our rules will maintain the status quo for interference protection and allow us to calculate the coverage areas of ATSC 3.0 stations with certainty. We discuss each aspect of Service and Protection of ATSC 3.0 signals below.
104. We require Next Gen TV broadcasters to offer at least one free ATSC 3.0 video programming stream comparable to a DTV signal and to provide a signal with a chosen modulation/coding scheme that requires a SNR of no more than would be required of a DTV signal.
105. We adopt our proposal to mandate Next Gen TV broadcasters to offer at least one free ATSC 3.0 video programming stream that requires a SNR of no more than 15 dB (streams requiring a lower SNR would also
106. We will use the methodology and planning factors defined in OET Bulletin No. 69 to define an ATSC 3.0 “DTV-equivalent” service area in which the ATSC 3.0 signal is protected from interference, as we proposed in the
107. We will use a protection threshold for Next Gen TV signals that would provide an equivalent level of protection as provided to a DTV signal, as we proposed in the
108. We have not been given sufficient information to conclude, nor do we have any reason to believe, that ATSC 3.0 receivers will perform any differently than DTV receivers perform today. In addition, as discussed above, the measurement tests provided by the Petitioners, while performed on DTV receivers, demonstrate that the adjacent channel emissions of ATSC 3.0 signals are equivalent, and therefore are not expected to reduce the sensitivity of ATSC 3.0 receivers. Adopting the same interference protection requirements as we have today will provide regulatory certainty while broadcasters voluntarily deploy ATSC 3.0. Nevertheless, if we receive additional information or conduct our own receiver tests, we may revisit whether either the co-channel or adjacent channel interference protection criteria for ATSC 3.0 should be any different from the interference protections provided for DTV in OET Bulletin No. 69.
109. We do not revise our current interference-related rules with respect to the other services in the TV band or adjacent bands.
110. We adopt the rule change we proposed in the
111. As proposed in the
112. As explained in the
113. Commenters claim that broadcasters that deploy ATSC 3.0 will have the ability to efficiently form SFNs, which for the purposes of broadcast television is a term that is synonymous with DTS. No commenters oppose the idea that broadcasters that opt to deploy ATSC 3.0 should be able to use SFNs. MWG points out that ATSC 3.0 “uses a form of modulation that is designed to support SFNs in DTS-style operations,” and that “. . . with ATSC 3.0, signals from several transmitters can be allowed to overlap, and the overlap can be compensated. Indeed, the overlap can help to improve reception.” The record thus suggests that providing broadcasters with the ability to use SFNs has the potential to make Next Gen TV services more robust.
114. We adopt our tentative conclusion in the
115. We also adopt our tentative conclusion that there is no need to implement a specific synchronization standard for ATSC 3.0 SFNs. In the
116. Finally, we adopt our proposed rule to require all DTS transmitters under the same license to follow the same digital television broadcasting transmission standard. No one commented on this proposal. This simple measure is meant to ensure that stations do not attempt to mix ATSC 1.0 and ATSC 3.0 transmissions within a DTS network. Doing so would introduce significant self-interference within the station's service area and would be harmful to consumers.
117. This document contains new information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
118. The Commission will send a copy of this Report and Order in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office, pursuant to the Congressional Review Act.
119. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) was incorporated in the
120.
121.
122. The R&O responds to these arguments proffered by NTCA and other small MVPDs. First, the R&O makes clear that MVPDs are under no statutory or regulatory obligation to carry any 3.0 signals.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127. The R&O declines to adopt a Next Gen TV (ATSC 3.0) tuner mandate. In deciding to rely on market forces in lieu of the alternative of a tuner mandate, the Order lessens potential burdens that equipment manufacturers, including small entities, otherwise might face. When making this determination, the Commission considered arguments raised by parties like ATBA who supported the alternative of a tuner mandate for all television receivers, including smartphones and other mobile devices, but ultimately agreed with those commenters who argued consumer demand will drive the inclusion of ATSC 3.0 tuners in television receivers.
128. Report to Congress: The Commission will send a copy of this R&O in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act,
129.
130.
131.
132.
Communications equipment, Computer technology.
Communications equipment, Incorporation by reference, Television.
Communications equipment, Television.
Cable television.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR parts 15, 73, 74, and 76 as set forth below:
47 U.S.C. 154, 302a, 303, 304, 307, 336, 544a, and 549.
(b) TV broadcast receivers shall be capable of adequately receiving all channels allocated by the Commission to the television broadcast service that broadcast digital signals using the DTV transmission standard in § 73.682(d) of this chapter, but need not be capable of receiving analog signals or signals using the Next Gen TV transmission standard in § 73.682(f) of this chapter.
47 U.S.C. 154, 303, 309, 310, 334, 336, and 339.
(e) * * *
(1) For evaluating compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, interference to populations served is to be predicted based on the most recent official decennial U.S. Census population data as identified by the Media Bureau in a Public Notice issued not less than 60 days prior to use of the data for a specific year in application processing, and otherwise according to the procedure set forth in OET Bulletin No. 69: “Longley-Rice Methodology for Evaluating TV Coverage and
(g) The interference protection requirements contained in this section apply to television station operations under both the DTV transmission standard in § 73.682(d) and the Next Gen TV transmission standard in § 73.682(f).
(b) * * *
(3) DTV licensees or permittees that choose to broadcast an ATSC 3.0 signal (using the Next Gen TV transmission standard in § 73.682(f)) shall transmit at least one free over the air video programming stream on that signal that requires at most the signal threshold of a comparable received DTV signal. DTV licensees or permittees that choose to broadcast an ATSC 3.0 signal (using the Next Gen TV transmission standard in § 73.682(f)) shall also simulcast the primary video programming stream on its ATSC 3.0 signal by broadcasting an ATSC 1.0 signal (using the DTV transmission standard in § 73.682(d)) from another broadcast television facility within its local market in accordance with the local simulcasting requirement in §§ 73.3801, 73.6029 and 74.782 of this chapter.
(g) All transmitters operating under a single DTS license must follow the same digital broadcast television transmission standard.
(f)
(2) Effective March 5, 2018, transmission of Next Gen TV broadcast television (ATSC 3.0) signals shall comply with the standards for such transmissions set forth in ATSC A/321:2016, “System Discovery and Signaling” (March 23, 2016) (incorporated by reference, see § 73.8000). To the extent that virtual channels (specified in the DTV transmission standard referenced in ATSC A/65C:2006 in paragraph (d) of this section) are used in the transmission of Next Gen TV broadcasting, major channel numbers shall be assigned as required by ATSC A/65C:2006 Annex B (incorporated by reference, see § 73.8000). In addition, until February 2, 2023, such signals shall also comply with the standards set forth in ATSC A/322:2017 “Physical Layer Protocol” (June 6, 2017) (incorporated by reference, see § 73.8000) with respect to the transmission of at least one free over the air primary video programming stream.
(a)
(1) A full power television station airing an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a Class A host station must comply with the rules governing power levels and interference applicable to Class A stations, and must comply in all other respects with the rules and policies applicable to full power television stations set forth in this part.
(2) A full power television station airing an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a low power television or TV translator host station must comply with the rules of part 74 of this chapter governing power levels and interference applicable to low power television or TV translator stations, and must comply in all other respects with the rules and policies applicable to full power television stations set forth in this part.
(3) A full power noncommercial educational television (NCE) station airing an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a commercial television host station must comply with the rules applicable to NCE licensees.
(b)
(1) The programming aired on the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal must be “substantially similar” to that aired on the ATSC 3.0 primary video programming stream. For purposes of this section, “substantially similar” means that the programming must be the same except for advertisements, promotions for upcoming programs, and programming features that are based on the enhanced capabilities of ATSC 3.0. These enhanced capabilities include:
(i) Hyper-localized content (
(ii) Programming features or improvements created for the ATSC 3.0 service (
(iii) Enhanced formats made possible by ATSC 3.0 technology (
(iv) Personalization of programming performed by the viewer and at the viewer's discretion. (2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, programming that airs at a different time on the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal than on the primary video programming stream of the ATSC 3.0 signal is not considered “substantially similar.”
(c)
(d)
(e)
(i) Access to facilities, including whether each licensee will have unrestrained access to the host station's transmission facilities;
(ii) Allocation of bandwidth within the host station's channel;
(iii) Operation, maintenance, repair, and modification of facilities, including a list of all relevant equipment, a description of each party's financial obligations, and any relevant notice provisions;
(iv) Conditions under which the simulcast agreement may be terminated, assigned or transferred; and
(v) How a guest station's (
(2) Broadcasters must maintain a written copy of any simulcasting agreement and provide it to the Commission upon request.
(f)
(2)
(i) Moving its ATSC 1.0 signal to the facilities of a host station, moving that signal from the facilities of an existing host station to the facilities of a different host station, or discontinuing an ATSC 1.0 guest signal;
(ii) Commencing the airing of an ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a host station (that has already converted to ATSC 3.0 operation), moving its ATSC 3.0 signal to the facilities of a different host station, or discontinuing an ATSC 3.0 guest signal; or
(iii) Converting its existing station to transmit an ATSC 3.0 signal or converting the station from ATSC 3.0 back to ATSC 1.0 transmissions.
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(A) The station serving as the host, if applicable;
(B) The technical facilities of the host station, if applicable;
(C) The DMA of the originating broadcaster's facility and the DMA of the host station, if applicable; and
(D) Any other information deemed necessary by the Commission to process the application.
(ii) If an application in paragraph (f)(2) of this section includes a request to air an ATSC 1.0 signal on the facilities of a host station, the broadcaster must, in addition to the information in paragraph (f)(6)(i), also indicate on the application:
(A) The predicted population within the noise limited service contour served by the station's original ATSC 1.0 signal;
(B) The predicted population within the noise limited service contour served by the station's original ATSC 1.0 signal that will lose the station's ATSC 1.0 service as a result of the simulcasting arrangement, including identifying areas of service loss by providing a contour overlap map; and
(C) Whether the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal aired on the host station will serve at least 95 percent of the population in paragraph (f)(6)(ii)(A) of this section.
(iii)(A) If an application in paragraph (f)(2) of this section includes a request to air an ATSC 1.0 signal on the facilities of a host station and does not meet the 95 percent standard in paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section, the application must contain, in addition to the information in paragraphs (f)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the following information:
(
(
(
(B) These applications will be considered on a case-by-case basis.
(g)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(h)
(i) No longer will be required to carry the station's ATSC 1.0 signal due to the relocation; or
(ii) Carry and will continue to be obligated to carry the station's ATSC 1.0 signal from the new location.
(2) The notice required by this section must contain the following information:
(i) Date and time of any ATSC 1.0 channel changes;
(ii) The ATSC 1.0 channel occupied by the station before and after commencement of local simulcasting;
(iii) Modification, if any, to antenna position, location, or power levels;
(iv) Stream identification information; and
(v) Engineering staff contact information.
(3) If any of the information in paragraph (h)(2) of this section changes, an amended notification must be sent.
(4)(i) Next Gen TV stations must provide notice as required by this section:
(A) At least 120 days in advance of relocating their ATSC 1.0 signals if the relocation occurs during the post-incentive auction transition period; or
(B) At least 90 days in advance of relocating their ATSC 1.0 signals if the relocation occurs after the post-incentive auction transition period (
(ii) If the anticipated date of the ATSC 1.0 signal relocation changes, the station must send a further notice to affected MVPDs informing them of the new anticipated date.
(5) Next Gen TV stations may choose whether to provide notice as required by this section either by a letter notification or electronically via email if the relevant MVPD agrees to receive such notices by email. Letter notifications to MVPDs must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested to the MVPD's address in the FCC's Online Public Inspection File (OPIF), if the MVPD has an online file. For cable systems that do not have an online file, notices must be sent to the cable system's official address of record provided in the system's most recent filing in the FCC's Cable Operations and Licensing System (COALS). For MVPDs with no official address in OPIF or COALS, the letter must be sent to the MVPD's official corporate address registered with their State of incorporation.
(a)
(1) A Class A television station airing an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a full power host station must comply with the rules of Part 73 of this chapter governing power levels and interference, and must comply in all other respects with the rules and policies applicable to Class A television stations, as set forth in this subpart.
(2) A Class A television station airing an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a low power television or TV translator host station must comply with the rules of part 74 of this chapter governing power levels and interference that are applicable to low power television or TV translator stations, and must comply in all other respects with the rules and policies applicable to Class A television stations, as set forth in this subpart.
(b)
(1) The programming aired on the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal must be “substantially similar” to that aired on the ATSC 3.0 primary video programming stream. For purposes of this section, “substantially similar” means that the programming must be the same except for advertisements, promotions for upcoming programs, and programming features that are based on the enhanced capabilities of ATSC 3.0. These enhanced capabilities include:
(i) Hyper-localized content (
(ii) Programming features or improvements created for the ATSC 3.0 service (
(iii) Enhanced formats made possible by ATSC 3.0 technology (
(iv) Personalization of programming performed by the viewer and at the viewer's discretion.
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, programming that airs at a different time on the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal than on the primary video programming stream of the ATSC 3.0 signal is not considered “substantially similar.”
(c)
(1) Must maintain overlap between the protected contour (§ 73.6010(c)) of its existing signal and its ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal;
(2) May not relocate its ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal more than 30 miles from the reference coordinates of the relocating station's existing antenna location; and
(3) Must select a host station assigned to the same DMA as the originating station (
(d)
(e)
(i) Access to facilities, including whether each licensee will have unrestrained access to the host station's transmission facilities;
(ii) Allocation of bandwidth within the host station's channel;
(iii) Operation, maintenance, repair, and modification of facilities, including a list of all relevant equipment, a description of each party's financial
(iv) Conditions under which the simulcast agreement may be terminated, assigned or transferred; and
(v) How a guest station's (
(2) Broadcasters must maintain a written copy of any simulcasting agreement and provide it to the Commission upon request.
(f)
(2)
(i) Moving its ATSC 1.0 signal to the facilities of a host station, moving that signal from the facilities of an existing host station to the facilities of a different host station, or discontinuing an ATSC 1.0 guest signal;
(ii) Commencing the airing of an ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a host station (that has already converted to ATSC 3.0 operation), moving its ATSC 3.0 signal to the facilities of a different host station, or discontinuing an ATSC 3.0 guest signal; or
(iii) Converting its existing station to transmit an ATSC 3.0 signal or converting the station from ATSC 3.0 back to ATSC 1.0 transmissions.
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(A) The station serving as the host, if applicable;
(B) The technical facilities of the host station, if applicable;
(C) The DMA of the originating broadcaster's facility and the DMA of the host station, if applicable; and
(D) Any other information deemed necessary by the Commission to process the application.
(ii) If an application in paragraph (f)(2) of this section includes a request to air an ATSC 1.0 signal on the facilities of a host station, the broadcaster must, in addition to the information in paragraph (f)(6)(i), also indicate on the application:
(A) The predicted population within the protected contour served by the station's original ATSC 1.0 signal;
(B) The predicted population within the protected contour served by the station's original ATSC 1.0 signal that will lose the station's ATSC 1.0 service as a result of the simulcasting arrangement, including identifying areas of service loss by providing a contour overlap map; and
(C) Whether the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal aired on the host station will serve at least 95 percent of the population in paragraph (f)(6)(ii)(A) of this section.
(iii)(A) If an application in paragraph (f)(2) of this section includes a request to air an ATSC 1.0 signal on the facilities of a host station and does not meet the 95 percent standard in paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section, the application must contain, in addition to the information in paragraphs (f)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the following information:
(
(
(
(B) These applications will be considered on a case-by-case basis.
(g)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(h)
(i) No longer will be required to carry the station's ATSC 1.0 signal due to the relocation; or
(ii) Carry and will continue to be obligated to carry the station's ATSC 1.0 signal from the new location.
(2) The notice required by this section must contain the following information:
(i) Date and time of any ATSC 1.0 channel changes;
(ii) The ATSC 1.0 channel occupied by the station before and after commencement of local simulcasting;
(iii) Modification, if any, to antenna position, location, or power levels;
(iv) Stream identification information; and
(v) Engineering staff contact information.
(3) If any of the information in paragraph (h)(2) of this section changes, an amended notification must be sent.
(4)(i) Next Gen TV stations must provide notice as required by this section:
(A) At least 120 days in advance of relocating their ATSC 1.0 signals if the relocation occurs during the post-incentive auction transition period; or
(B) At least 90 days in advance of relocating their ATSC 1.0 signals if the relocation occurs after the post-incentive auction transition period.
(ii) If the anticipated date of the ATSC 1.0 signal relocation changes, the station must send a further notice to affected MVPDs informing them of the new anticipated date.
(5) Next Gen TV stations may choose whether to provide notice as required by this section either by a letter notification or electronically via email if the relevant MVPD agrees to receive such notices by email. Letter notifications to MVPDs must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested to the MVPD's address in the FCC's Online Public Inspection File (OPIF), if the MVPD has an online file. For cable systems that do not have an online file, notices may be sent to the cable system's official address of record provided in the system's most recent filing in the FCC's Cable Operations and Licensing System (COALS). For MVPDs with no official address in OPIF or COALS, the letter must be sent to the MVPD's official corporate address registered with their State of incorporation.
(b) * * *
(6) ATSC A/321:2016, “System Discovery and Signaling” (March 23, 2016), IBR approved for § 73.682.
(7) ATSC A/322:2017 “Physical Layer Protocol” (June 6, 2017), IBR approved for § 73.682.
47 U.S.C. 154, 302a, 303, 307, 309, 310, 336 and 554.
(a)
(1) An LPTV or TV translator station airing an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a full power host station must comply with the rules of part 73 of this chapter governing power levels and interference, and must comply in all other respects with the rules and policies applicable to low power television or TV translator stations set forth in this part.
(2) An LPTV or TV translator station airing an ATSC 1.0 or ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a Class A host station must comply with the rules governing power levels and interference applicable to Class A television stations, and must comply in all other respects with the rules and policies applicable to LPTV or TV translator stations as set forth in Part 74 of this chapter.
(b)
(1) The programming aired on the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal must be “substantially similar” to that aired on the ATSC 3.0 primary video programming stream. For purposes of this section, “substantially similar” means that the programming must be the same except for advertisements, promotions for upcoming programs, and programming features that are based on the enhanced capabilities of ATSC 3.0. These enhanced capabilities include:
(i) Hyper-localized content (
(ii) Programming features or improvements created for the ATSC 3.0 service (
(iii) Enhanced formats made possible by ATSC 3.0 technology (
(iv) Personalization of programming performed by the viewer and at the viewer's discretion.
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, programming that airs at a different time on the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal than on the primary video programming stream of the ATSC 3.0 signal is not considered “substantially similar.”
(c)
(d)
(1) Must maintain overlap between the protected contour of its existing facilities and its ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal;
(2) May not relocate its ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal more than 30 miles from the reference coordinates of the relocating station's existing antenna location; and
(3) Must select a host station assigned to the same Designated Market Area as the originating station (
(e)
(f)
(i) Access to facilities, including whether each licensee will have unrestrained access to the host station's transmission facilities;
(ii) Allocation of bandwidth within the host station's channel;
(iii) Operation, maintenance, repair, and modification of facilities, including a list of all relevant equipment, a description of each party's financial obligations, and any relevant notice provisions;
(iv) Conditions under which the simulcast agreement may be terminated, assigned or transferred; and
(v) How a guest's station's (
(2) LPTV and TV translators must maintain a written copy of any simulcasting agreement and provide it to the Commission upon request.
(g)
(2)
(i) Moving its ATSC 1.0 signal to the facilities of a host station, moving that signal from the facilities of an existing host station to the facilities of a different host station, or discontinuing an ATSC 1.0 guest signal;
(ii) Commencing the airing of an ATSC 3.0 signal on the facilities of a host station (that has already converted to ATSC 3.0 operation), moving its ATSC 3.0 signal to the facilities of a different host station, or discontinuing an ATSC 3.0 guest signal; or
(iii) Converting its existing station to transmit an ATSC 3.0 signal or converting the station from ATSC 3.0 back to ATSC 1.0 transmissions.
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(A) The station serving as the host, if applicable;
(B) The technical facilities of the host station, if applicable;
(C) The DMA of the originating broadcaster's facility and the DMA of the host station, if applicable; and
(D) Any other information deemed necessary by the Commission to process the application.
(ii) If an application in paragraph (g)(2) of this section includes a request to air an ATSC 1.0 signal on the facilities of a host station, the LPTV or TV translator broadcaster must also indicate on the application:
(A) The predicted population within the protected contour served by the station's original ATSC 1.0 signal;
(B) The predicted population within the protected contour served by the station's original ATSC 1.0 signal that will lose the station's ATSC 1.0 service as a result of the simulcasting arrangement, including identifying areas of service loss by providing a contour overlap map; and
(C) Whether the ATSC 1.0 simulcast signal aired on the host station will serve at least 95 percent of the population in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(A) of this section.
(iii) If an application in paragraph (g)(2) of this section includes a request to air an ATSC 1.0 signal on the facilities of a host station and does not meet the 95 percent standard in paragraph (g)(6)(ii) of this section, the application must contain, in addition to the information in paragraphs (g)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the following information:
(A) Whether there is another possible host station(s) in the market that would result in less service loss to existing viewers and, if so, why the Next Gen TV broadcaster chose to partner with a host station creating a larger service loss;
(B) What steps, if any, the station plans to take to minimize the impact of the service loss (
(C) The public interest benefits of the simulcasting arrangement and a showing of why the benefit(s) of granting the application would outweigh the harm(s). These applications will be considered on a case-by-case basis.
(h)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(i)
(i) No longer will be required to carry the station's ATSC 1.0 signal due to the relocation; or
(ii) Carry and will continue to be obligated to carry the station's ATSC 1.0 signal from the new location.
(2) The notice required by this section must contain the following information:
(i) Date and time of any ATSC 1.0 channel changes;
(ii) The ATSC 1.0 channel occupied by the station before and after commencement of local simulcasting;
(iii) Modification, if any, to antenna position, location, or power levels;
(iv) Stream identification information; and
(v) Engineering staff contact information.
(3) If any of the information in paragraph (f)(2) of this section changes, an amended notification must be sent.
(4)(i) Next Gen TV stations must provide notice as required by this section:
(A) At least 120 days in advance of relocating their ATSC 1.0 simulcast signals if the relocation occurs during the post-incentive auction transition period; or
(B) At least 90 days in advance of relocating their 1.0 simulcast signals if the relocation occurs after the post-incentive auction transition period.
(ii) If the anticipated date of the ATSC 1.0 service relocation changes, the station must send a further notice to affected MVPDs informing them of the new anticipated date.
(5) Next Gen TV stations may choose whether to provide notice as required by this section either by a letter notification or electronically via email if the relevant MVPD agrees to receive such notices by email. Letter notifications to MVPDs must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested to the MVPD's address in the FCC's Online Public Inspection File (OPIF), if the MVPD has an online file. For cable systems that do not have an online file, notices must be sent to the cable system's official address of record provided in the system's most recent filing in the FCC's Cable Operations and Licensing System (COALS). For MVPDs with no official address in OPIF or COALS, the letter must be sent to the MVPD's official corporate address registered with their State of incorporation.
47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 153, 154, 301, 302, 302a, 303, 303a, 307, 308, 309, 312, 315, 317, 325, 338, 339, 340, 341, 503, 521, 522, 531, 532, 534, 535, 536, 537, 543, 544, 544a, 545, 548, 549, 552, 554, 556, 558, 560, 561, 571, 572, 573.
(h)
(2) With respect to a Next Gen TV station that moves its 1.0 simulcast signal to a host station's (
(i) Qualified for, and has been exercising, mandatory carriage rights at its original location; and
(ii) Continues to qualify for mandatory carriage at the host station's facilities, including (but not limited to) delivering a good quality 1.0 signal to the cable system principal headend, or agreeing to be responsible for the costs of delivering such 1.0 signal to the cable system.
(o)
(2) With respect to a Next Gen TV station that moves its 1.0 simulcast signal to a host station's (
(i) Qualified for, and has been exercising, mandatory carriage rights at its original location; and
(ii) Continues to qualify for mandatory carriage at the host station's facilities, including (but not limited to) delivering a good quality 1.0 signal to the satellite carrier local receive facility, or agreeing to be responsible for the costs of delivering such 1.0 signal to the satellite carrier.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |