Page Range | 8165-8320 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 8297 - Government in the Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
83 FR 8317 - Art Advisory Panel of the Commissioner of Internal Revenue | |
83 FR 8173 - Health Insurance Providers Fee | |
83 FR 8243 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Report of Whaling Operations. | |
83 FR 8264 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
83 FR 8267 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
83 FR 8181 - Petition for Partial Reconsideration of Action in Rulemaking Proceeding | |
83 FR 8266 - Federal Advisory Committee Act; Communications Security, Reliability, and Interoperability Council | |
83 FR 8267 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
83 FR 8268 - Information Collection Being Submitted to the Office of Management and Budget | |
83 FR 8269 - Information Collection Approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) | |
83 FR 8166 - Commission Statement and Guidance on Public Company Cybersecurity Disclosures | |
83 FR 8302 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8250 - Information Collection Requirement; Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement; Requests for Equitable Adjustment | |
83 FR 8270 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8274 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8287 - Request for Nominations | |
83 FR 8251 - Availability of Draft Integrated Feasibility Report and Environmental Impact Statement for the Gulf Intracoastal Waterway: Brazos River Floodgates and Colorado River Locks Systems Feasibility Study, Brazos and Matagorda Counties, TX | |
83 FR 8251 - Policy and Procedural Guidance for Processing Requests To Alter U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Civil Works Projects Pursuant to Section 408 | |
83 FR 8249 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8278 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Announcement of Office of Management and Budget Approvals | |
83 FR 8286 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Substances Prohibited From Use in Animal Food or Feed | |
83 FR 8284 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Food and Drug Administration Recall Regulations | |
83 FR 8262 - Alternative Method for Calculating Off-Cycle Credits Under the Light-Duty Vehicle Greenhouse Gas Emissions Program: Applications From General Motors and Toyota Motor North America | |
83 FR 8259 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Revisions to the RCRA Definition of Solid Waste | |
83 FR 8261 - National Environmental Justice Advisory Council; Notification of Request for Nominations to the National Environmental Justice Advisory Council | |
83 FR 8235 - Modification of Significant New Use of a Certain Chemical Substance; Extension of Comment Period | |
83 FR 8245 - Consumer Advisory Board Subcommittee Meetings | |
83 FR 8296 - Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells and Modules From China; Notice of Commission Determinations To Conduct Full Five-Year Reviews | |
83 FR 8244 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting | |
83 FR 8244 - Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
83 FR 8245 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
83 FR 8320 - Advisory Committee: National Academic Affiliations Council; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 8317 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Multiple IRS Information Collection Requests | |
83 FR 8317 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Claim Against the United States for the Proceeds of a Government Check | |
83 FR 8318 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Generic Clearance for Voluntary Surveys To Implement E.O. 12862 | |
83 FR 8319 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Small Business Lending Fund (SBLF) Supplemental Reports | |
83 FR 8270 - World War One Centennial Commission; Notification of Upcoming Public Advisory Meeting | |
83 FR 8249 - Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery; Solicitation for New Members | |
83 FR 8236 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Scup Fishery; Framework Adjustment 10 | |
83 FR 8239 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8316 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Renewal; Comment Request; Bank Appeals Follow-Up Questionnaire | |
83 FR 8300 - Final Finding of No Significant Impact for the Proposed Rehabilitation or Replacement of Buildings at the Gulfport Job Corps Center, 3300 20th Street, Gulfport, Mississippi 39501 | |
83 FR 8255 - Brooke County Access I, LLC; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Planned Brooke County Access Project and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
83 FR 8253 - Boyce Hydro Power, LLC; Order Proposing Revocation of License | |
83 FR 8257 - Public Citizen, Inc. v. PJM Interconnection LLC; Notice of Complaint | |
83 FR 8258 - Merchant Hydro Developers LLC; Notice of Declaration of Intention and Soliciting Comments, Protests, and Motions To Intervene | |
83 FR 8299 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection; Claims Filed Under the Radiation Exposure Compensation Act | |
83 FR 8314 - E.O. 13224 Designation of Ansarul Islam, aka Ansarour Islam, aka Ansar al-Islam, aka Defenders of Islam, aka Ansar-ul-islam lil-ichad wal jihad, aka IRSAD, aka Ansar ul Islam of Malam Boureima Dicko, as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
83 FR 8291 - Accreditation and Approval of Inspectorate America Corporation (Martinez, CA), as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
83 FR 8269 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
83 FR 8293 - Accreditation and Approval of Inspectorate America Corporation (Lutcher, LA), as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
83 FR 8300 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection Comments Requested; Extension With Change of Currently Approved Collection: 2017-19 Survey of Sexual Victimization (SSV) | |
83 FR 8288 - Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines | |
83 FR 8292 - Accreditation and Approval of Coastal Gulf and International (Luling, LA), as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
83 FR 8241 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Public Employment and Payroll Forms | |
83 FR 8279 - Q11 Development and Manufacture of Drug Substances-Questions and Answers (Chemical Entities and Biotechnological/Biological Entities); International Council for Harmonisation; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 8283 - Psychopharmacologic Drugs Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 8294 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
83 FR 8298 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection; eComments Requested | |
83 FR 8280 - Center for Drug Evaluation and Research and You: Keys to Effective Engagement; Public Workshop | |
83 FR 8281 - Promoting the Use of Complex Innovative Designs in Clinical Trials; Public Meeting; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 8277 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
83 FR 8319 - Veterans and Community Oversight and Engagement Board; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 8314 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Request for Approval To Travel to a Restricted Country or Area | |
83 FR 8312 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
83 FR 8240 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8295 - Low Melt Polyester Staple Fiber (PSF) From Korea and Taiwan; Scheduling of the Final Phase of Anti-Dumping Duty Investigations | |
83 FR 8297 - Tapered Roller Bearings From China; Scheduling of a Full Five-Year Review | |
83 FR 8243 - Evaluation of National Estuarine Research Reserve; Meeting Notice | |
83 FR 8259 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; NESHAP for Epoxy Resin and Non-Nylon Polyamide Production (Renewal) | |
83 FR 8260 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; NESHAP for Cellulose Products Manufacturing (Renewal) | |
83 FR 8246 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 8257 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
83 FR 8302 - National Institutes of Health | |
83 FR 8247 - Request for Information Regarding Bureau External Engagements | |
83 FR 8306 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Modify EDGX Rule 21.1 and Related Functionality Applicable to the Exchange's Options Platform | |
83 FR 8304 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Fee Schedule | |
83 FR 8309 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change to List and Trade Shares of the Innovator S&P 500 15% Shield Strategy ETF Series, Innovator S&P 500 −5% to −35% Shield Strategy ETF Series, Innovator S&P 500 Enhance and 10% Shield Strategy ETF Series, and Innovator S&P 500 Ultra Strategy ETF Series Under Rule 14.11(i) | |
83 FR 8301 - Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments | |
83 FR 8172 - Change of Mailing Address for the Benefits Review Board | |
83 FR 8242 - Notice of Petitions by Firms for Determination of Eligibility To Apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance | |
83 FR 8289 - National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 8290 - National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 8290 - National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 8312 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Six DDTC Information Collections | |
83 FR 8241 - Manti-La Sal National Forest, Utah; Maverick Point Forest Health Project | |
83 FR 8290 - 2016.1 National Preparedness for Response Exercise Program (PREP) Guidelines | |
83 FR 8242 - Foreign-Trade Zone 231-Stockton, California; Application for Subzone Expansion, Subzone 231A; Medline Industries, Inc., Manteca, California | |
83 FR 8175 - Harmonization of Fire Protection Equipment Standards for Towing Vessels | |
83 FR 8182 - Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 141, Minimum Sound Requirements for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles | |
83 FR 8199 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
83 FR 8208 - Proposed Amendment of Class D Airspace and Class E Airspace; Biloxi, MS, and Gulfport, MS | |
83 FR 8207 - Proposed Revocation of Class E Airspace; Crows Landing, CA | |
83 FR 8165 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; Greenville, NC | |
83 FR 8210 - Proposed Amendment of Class D Airspace and Class E Airspace; Erie, PA | |
83 FR 8201 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
83 FR 8212 - User Fees for the Administration of the Toxic Substances Control Act |
Forest Service
Census Bureau
Economic Development Administration
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Army Department
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Engineers Corps
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
National Park Service
Benefits Review Board, Labor Department
Employment and Training Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action amends Class E surface airspace at Greenville, NC, by removing Pitt County Memorial Hospital Heliport from the Class E surface area airspace associated with Pitt-Greenville Airport. Helicopters departing from the heliport must now receive clearance. Consequently, the cut out from Class E surface airspace is no longer required. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport. This action also updates the geographic coordinates of the airport under Class E surface airspace and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of the earth, to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Effective 0901 UTC, May 24, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1700 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it supports IFR operations at Pitt-Greenville Airport, Greenville, NC.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 6002 and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 amends Class E surface airspace within a 4.4-mile radius of Pitt-Greenville Airport, Greenville, NC. The Pitt County Memorial Hospital Heliport no longer requires the southwest area below 200 feet from the airport for departures from the heliport. This action is for continued safety and management of IFR operations at the airport. The geographic coordinates of the airport are adjusted to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database in both Class E surface airspace and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120, E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Within a 4.4-mile radius of Pitt-Greenville Airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.4-mile radius of Pitt-Greenville Airport.
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Interpretation.
The Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) is publishing interpretive guidance to assist public companies in preparing disclosures about cybersecurity risks and incidents.
Applicable February 26, 2018.
Questions about specific filings should be directed to staff members responsible for reviewing the documents the company files with the Commission. For general questions about this release, contact the Office of the Chief Counsel at (202) 551-3500 in the Division of Corporation Finance, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.
Cybersecurity risks pose grave threats to investors, our capital markets, and our country.
As companies' exposure to and reliance on networked systems and the internet have increased, the attendant risks and frequency of cybersecurity incidents also have increased.
Companies that fall victim to successful cyber-attacks or experience
• Remediation costs, such as liability for stolen assets or information, repairs of system damage, and incentives to customers or business partners in an effort to maintain relationships after an attack;
• increased cybersecurity protection costs, which may include the costs of making organizational changes, deploying additional personnel and protection technologies, training employees, and engaging third party experts and consultants;
• lost revenues resulting from the unauthorized use of proprietary information or the failure to retain or attract customers following an attack;
• litigation and legal risks, including regulatory actions by state and federal governmental authorities and non-U.S. authorities;
• increased insurance premiums;
• reputational damage that adversely affects customer or investor confidence; and
• damage to the company's competitiveness, stock price, and long-term shareholder value.
Given the frequency, magnitude and cost of cybersecurity incidents, the Commission believes that it is critical that public companies take all required actions to inform investors about material cybersecurity risks and incidents in a timely fashion, including those companies that are subject to material cybersecurity risks but may not yet have been the target of a cyber-attack. Crucial to a public company's ability to make any required disclosure of cybersecurity risks and incidents in the appropriate timeframe are disclosure controls and procedures that provide an appropriate method of discerning the impact that such matters may have on the company and its business, financial condition, and results of operations, as well as a protocol to determine the potential materiality of such risks and incidents.
Additionally, directors, officers, and other corporate insiders must not trade a public company's securities while in possession of material nonpublic information, which may include knowledge regarding a significant cybersecurity incident experienced by the company. Public companies should have policies and procedures in place to (1) guard against directors, officers, and other corporate insiders taking advantage of the period between the company's discovery of a cybersecurity incident and public disclosure of the incident to trade on material nonpublic information about the incident, and (2) help ensure that the company makes timely disclosure of any related material nonpublic information.
In October 2011, the Division of Corporation Finance (the “Division”) issued guidance that provided the Division's views regarding disclosure obligations relating to cybersecurity risks and incidents.
In light of the increasing significance of cybersecurity incidents, the Commission believes it is necessary to provide further Commission guidance. This interpretive release outlines the Commission's views with respect to cybersecurity disclosure requirements under the federal securities laws as they apply to public operating companies.
First, this release stresses the importance of maintaining comprehensive policies and procedures related to cybersecurity risks and incidents. Companies are required to establish and maintain appropriate and effective disclosure controls and procedures that enable them to make accurate and timely disclosures of material events, including those related to cybersecurity. Such robust disclosure
Second, we also remind companies and their directors, officers, and other corporate insiders of the applicable insider trading prohibitions under the general antifraud provisions of the federal securities laws and also of their obligation to refrain from making selective disclosures of material nonpublic information about cybersecurity risks or incidents.
The Commission, and the staff through its filing review process, continues to monitor cybersecurity disclosures carefully.
Companies should consider the materiality of cybersecurity risks and incidents when preparing the disclosure that is required in registration statements under the Securities Act of 1933 (“Securities Act”) and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”), and periodic and current reports under the Exchange Act.
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In addition to the information expressly required by Commission regulation, a company is required to disclose “such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.”
In determining their disclosure obligations regarding cybersecurity risks and incidents, companies generally weigh, among other things, the potential
This guidance is not intended to suggest that a company should make detailed disclosures that could compromise its cybersecurity efforts—for example, by providing a “roadmap” for those who seek to penetrate a company's security protections. We do not expect companies to publicly disclose specific, technical information about their cybersecurity systems, the related networks and devices, or potential system vulnerabilities in such detail as would make such systems, networks, and devices more susceptible to a cybersecurity incident. Nevertheless, we expect companies to disclose cybersecurity risks and incidents that are material to investors, including the concomitant financial, legal, or reputational consequences. Where a company has become aware of a cybersecurity incident or risk that would be material to its investors, we would expect it to make appropriate disclosure timely and sufficiently prior to the offer and sale of securities and to take steps to prevent directors and officers (and other corporate insiders who were aware of these matters) from trading its securities until investors have been appropriately informed about the incident or risk.
Understanding that some material facts may be not available at the time of the initial disclosure, we recognize that a company may require time to discern the implications of a cybersecurity incident. We also recognize that it may be necessary to cooperate with law enforcement and that ongoing investigation of a cybersecurity incident may affect the scope of disclosure regarding the incident. However, an ongoing internal or external investigation—which often can be lengthy—would not on its own provide a basis for avoiding disclosures of a material cybersecurity incident.
We remind companies that they may have a duty to correct prior disclosure that the company determines was untrue (or omitted a material fact necessary to make the disclosure not misleading) at the time it was made
We expect companies to provide disclosure that is tailored to their particular cybersecurity risks and incidents. As the Commission has previously stated, we “emphasize a company-by-company approach [to disclosure] that allows relevant and material information to be disseminated to investors without boilerplate language or static requirements while preserving completeness and comparability of information across companies.”
Item 503(c) of Regulation S-K and Item 3.D of Form 20-F require companies to disclose the most significant factors that make investments in the company's securities speculative or risky.
It would be helpful for companies to consider the following issues, among others, in evaluating cybersecurity risk factor disclosure:
• The occurrence of prior cybersecurity incidents, including their severity and frequency;
• the probability of the occurrence and potential magnitude of cybersecurity incidents;
• the adequacy of preventative actions taken to reduce cybersecurity risks and the associated costs, including, if appropriate, discussing the limits of the company's ability to prevent or mitigate certain cybersecurity risks;
• the aspects of the company's business and operations that give rise to material cybersecurity risks and the potential costs and consequences of such risks, including industry-specific risks and third party supplier and service provider risks;
• the costs associated with maintaining cybersecurity protections, including, if applicable, insurance coverage relating to cybersecurity incidents or payments to service providers;
• the potential for reputational harm;
• existing or pending laws and regulations that may affect the requirements to which companies are subject relating to cybersecurity and the associated costs to companies; and
• litigation, regulatory investigation, and remediation costs associated with cybersecurity incidents.
In meeting their disclosure obligations, companies may need to
Item 303 of Regulation S-K and Item 5 of Form 20-F require a company to discuss its financial condition, changes in financial condition, and results of operations. These items require a discussion of events, trends, or uncertainties that are reasonably likely to have a material effect on its results of operations, liquidity, or financial condition, or that would cause reported financial information not to be necessarily indicative of future operating results or financial condition and such other information that the company believes to be necessary to an understanding of its financial condition, changes in financial condition, and results of operations.
Item 101 of Regulation S-K and Item 4.B of Form 20-F require companies to discuss their products, services, relationships with customers and suppliers, and competitive conditions.
Item 103 of Regulation S-K requires companies to disclose information relating to material pending legal proceedings to which they or their subsidiaries are a party.
Cybersecurity incidents and the risks that result therefrom may affect a company's financial statements. For example, cybersecurity incidents may result in:
• Expenses related to investigation, breach notification, remediation and litigation, including the costs of legal and other professional services;
• loss of revenue, providing customers with incentives or a loss of customer relationship assets value;
• claims related to warranties, breach of contract, product recall/replacement, indemnification of counterparties, and insurance premium increases; and
• diminished future cash flows, impairment of intellectual, intangible or other assets; recognition of liabilities; or increased financing costs.
The Commission expects that a company's financial reporting and control systems would be designed to provide reasonable assurance that information about the range and magnitude of the financial impacts of a cybersecurity incident would be incorporated into its financial statements on a timely basis as the information becomes available.
Item 407(h) of Regulation S-K and Item 7 of Schedule 14A require a company to disclose the extent of its board of directors' role in the risk oversight of the company, such as how the board administers its oversight function and the effect this has on the board's leadership structure.
In addition, we believe disclosures regarding a company's cybersecurity risk management program and how the board of directors engages with management on cybersecurity issues allow investors to assess how a board of directors is discharging its risk oversight responsibility in this increasingly important area.
Cybersecurity risk management policies and procedures are key elements of enterprise-wide risk management, including as it relates to compliance with the federal securities laws. We encourage companies to adopt comprehensive policies and procedures related to cybersecurity and to assess their compliance regularly, including the sufficiency of their disclosure controls and procedures as they relate to cybersecurity disclosure. Companies should assess whether they have sufficient disclosure controls and procedures in place to ensure that relevant information about cybersecurity risks and incidents is processed and reported to the appropriate personnel, including up the corporate ladder, to enable senior management to make disclosure decisions and certifications and to facilitate policies and procedures designed to prohibit directors, officers, and other corporate insiders from trading on the basis of material nonpublic information about cybersecurity risks and incidents.
Pursuant to Exchange Act Rules 13a-15 and 15d-15, companies must maintain disclosure controls and procedures, and management must evaluate their effectiveness.
A company's disclosure controls and procedures should not be limited to disclosure specifically required, but should also ensure timely collection and evaluation of information potentially subject to required disclosure, or relevant to an assessment of the need to disclose developments and risks that pertain to the company's businesses.
Exchange Act Rules 13a-14 and 15d-14
Companies and their directors, officers, and other corporate insiders should be mindful of complying with the laws related to insider trading in connection with information about cybersecurity risks and incidents, including vulnerabilities and breaches.
Beyond the antifraud provisions of the federal securities laws, companies and their directors, officers, and other corporate insiders must comply with all other applicable insider trading related rules. Many exchanges require listed companies to adopt codes of conduct and policies that promote compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations, including those prohibiting insider trading.
In addition, while companies are investigating and assessing significant cybersecurity incidents, and determining the underlying facts, ramifications and materiality of these incidents, they should consider whether and when it may be appropriate to implement restrictions on insider trading in their securities. Company insider trading policies and procedures that include prophylactic measures can protect against directors, officers, and other corporate insiders trading on the basis of material nonpublic information before public disclosure of the cybersecurity incident. As noted above, we believe that companies would be well served by considering how to avoid the appearance of improper trading during the period following an incident and prior to the dissemination of disclosure.
Companies also may have disclosure obligations under Regulation FD in connection with cybersecurity matters. Under Regulation FD, “when an issuer, or person acting on its behalf, discloses material nonpublic information to certain enumerated persons it must make public disclosure of that information.”
In cases of selective disclosure of material nonpublic information related to cybersecurity, companies should ensure compliance with Regulation FD. Companies and persons acting on their behalf should not selectively disclose material, nonpublic information regarding cybersecurity risks and incidents to Regulation FD enumerated persons
By the Commission.
Benefits Review Board, Labor.
Final rule; technical amendment.
This rule amends one section of the Benefits Review Board's regulations in order to change the mailing address for notices of appeal and correspondence sent to the Board.
This rule is effective March 28, 2018.
Mr. Thomas Shepherd, Clerk of the Appellate Boards, at 202-693-6319 or
On March 7, 1997, the Department issued a technical amendment to 20 CFR 802.204 to include a U.S. Post Office Box mailing address for filing notices of appeal with the Board. 62 FR 10666. The Department added the P.O. Box to augment timely receipt of incoming mail. Over time, the Department has found this supplemental process is not needed to ensure the timely receipt of mail. Therefore, to save costs, the Department is eliminating the P.O. Box and amending its regulations to direct that all notices of appeal and correspondence filed by mail be sent directly to the Board's offices in the Frances Perkins Department of Labor Building in Washington, DC. This document amends the relevant section in the Code of Federal Regulations governing the procedural rules of the Board in order to present the new mailing address.
This rule is promulgated by the Secretary of Labor under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 301, as well as the Black Lung Benefits Act, 30 U.S.C. 901
Section 553(b)(3) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3), provides that an agency is not required to publish a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
Because no notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this rule under section 553(b) of the APA, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act at 5 U.S.C. 601(2) do not apply to this rule, and the rule is not
This action is further not classified as a “rule” under Chapter 8 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, because it pertains to agency organization, procedure, or practice that does not substantially affect the rights or obligations of non-agency parties. See 5 U.S.C. 804(3)(C).
This rule does not contain a collection of information requirements subject to Office of Management and Budget review under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Department has reviewed this rule in accordance with the Executive Order on Federalism (Executive Order 13132, 64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999). This rule does not have federalism implications as outlined in E.O. 13132. The rule does not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
The Department has reviewed this rule under the terms of Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000) and determined it does not have “tribal implications.” The rule does not have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.” As a result, no Tribal summary impact statement has been prepared.
This rule has been drafted and reviewed in accordance with Executive Order 12866. The rule is not a “significant regulatory action” as defined by section 3(f) of the order. Accordingly, there is no requirement for an assessment of potential costs and benefits under section 6(a)(3) of Executive Order 12866. In addition, this rule is not an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.
Administrative practice and procedure, Black lung benefits, Longshore and harbor workers, Workers' compensation.
For the reasons set forth above, the Department of Labor amends 20 CFR part 802 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 30 U.S.C. 901
Any notice of appeal or other correspondence filed by mail shall be sent to the U.S. Department of Labor, Benefits Review Board, ATTN: Office of the Clerk of the Appellate Boards (OCAB), 200 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20210-0001. Notices of appeal or other correspondence may be otherwise presented to the Clerk. A copy of the notice of appeal shall be served on the deputy commissioner who filed the decision or order being appealed and on all other parties by the party who files a notice of appeal. Proof of service of the notice of appeal on the deputy commissioner and other parties shall be included with the notice of appeal.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Final regulations and removal of temporary regulations.
This document contains final regulations that provide rules for the definition of a covered entity for purposes of the fee imposed by section 9010 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, as amended. The final regulations supersede and adopt the text of temporary regulations that provide rules for the definition of a covered entity. The final regulations affect persons engaged in the business of providing health insurance for United States health risks.
Rachel S. Smith at (202) 317-6855 (not a toll-free number).
Section 9010 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA), Public Law 111-148 (124 Stat. 119 (2010)), as amended by section 10905 of PPACA, and as further amended by section 1406 of the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010, Public Law 111-152 (124 Stat. 1029 (2010)) (collectively, the Affordable Care Act or ACA) imposes an annual fee on covered entities that provide health insurance for United States health risks. All references in this preamble to section 9010 are references to section 9010 of the ACA. Section 9010 did not amend the Internal Revenue Code (Code) but contains cross-references to specified Code sections. Unless otherwise indicated, all other references to subtitles, chapters, subchapters, and sections in this preamble are references to subtitles, chapters, subchapters, and sections in the Code and related regulations. All references to “fee” in this preamble are references to the fee imposed by section 9010.
On November 27, 2013, the Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS published final regulations (TD 9643) relating to the health insurance providers fee in the
The Treasury Department and the IRS received two written comments with respect to the notice of proposed rulemaking. No public hearing was requested or held. After considering the public written comments, the final regulations adopt the proposed regulations without change and the temporary regulations are removed.
The temporary regulations provided that, for the 2015 fee year and each subsequent fee year, an entity qualified for an exclusion under section 9010(c)(2) if it qualified for an exclusion either for the entire data year ending on the prior December 31st or for the entire fee year beginning on January 1st. The temporary regulations also generally imposed a consistency requirement that bound an entity to its original selection of either the data year or the fee year (its test year) to determine whether it qualified for an exclusion under section 9010(c)(2) for the 2015 fee year and each subsequent fee year. Next, the temporary regulations imposed a special rule for any entity that uses the fee year as its test year. Finally, the temporary regulations provided that a controlled group must report net premiums written only for each person who is a controlled group member at the end of the day on December 31st of the data year and that would qualify as a covered entity in the fee year if it were a single-person covered entity (that is, not a member of a controlled group).
The Treasury Department and the IRS received two written comments in response to the proposed and temporary regulations. Both commenters agreed with the approach described in the proposed and temporary regulations. One commenter suggested that the final rules add three additional requirements. First, the commenter suggested that entities seeking to claim the non-profit exemption described in section 9010(c)(2)(C) and § 57.2(b)(2)(iii) of the Health Insurance Providers Fee Regulations be required to file a Form 8963, “Report of Health Insurance Provider Information,” or similar report indicating its exempt status for either the data year or the fee year. Second, the commenter suggested that such entities claiming exempt status for the fee year should also file a year-end statement certifying that they maintained their exempt status through the end of the fee year. The Treasury Department and the IRS received similar comments prior to issuing the final regulations. The preamble to TD 9643 (78 FR 71476) explains that the Treasury Department and the IRS declined to adopt commenters' suggestions to require an entity qualifying for an exclusion to report its net premiums written because section 9010(g)(1) applies only to covered entities. Furthermore, imposing additional filing requirements for only certain entities is contrary to Executive Order 13789, which directs the Treasury Department to reduce tax regulatory burdens. Imposing additional filing requirements for only certain entities is also contrary to Executive Order 13765, which directs the executive branch to minimize the regulatory burden of the ACA specifically. Therefore, we decline to adopt the commenter's suggestions.
Third, the commenter suggested that any entities that fail to remain exempted for the full duration of the fee year should be subject to a fee assessment at the end of the year. The final regulations do not adopt this suggestion. Section 57.6(c) of the Health Insurance Providers Fee Regulations provides that the IRS will not alter fee calculations on the basis of information provided after the end of the error correction period. Section 9010(g)(2) and § 57.3(b)(1) of the Health Insurance Providers Fee Regulations impose a penalty on covered entities that fail to timely submit Form 8963 without reasonable cause. It is possible that if an entity fails to remain exempted for the full duration of the fee year, such entity will be subject to a penalty provided for by the existing statutory and regulatory framework. An additional fee assessment for such entities is not necessary.
Certain IRS regulations, including these, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required. Because the final regulations do not impose a collection of information on small entities, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) does not apply. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, the temporary regulations that preceded the final regulations was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.
The principal author of these final regulations is Rachel S. Smith, Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.
Health insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 57 is amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805; sec. 9010, Pub. L. 111-148 (124 Stat. 119 (2010)). * * *
(b) * * *
(3)
(ii)
(iii)
* * *
(c) * * *
(3) * * *
(ii) A person is treated as being a member of the controlled group if it is a member of the group at the end of the day on December 31st of the data year. However, a person's net premiums written are included in net premiums written for the controlled group only if the person would qualify as a covered entity in the fee year if the person were not a member of the controlled group.
(b)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Interim final rule; request for comments.
The Coast Guard is issuing an interim final rule to apply changes made by the 2016 final rule,
This interim final rule is effective March 28, 2018. Comments and related material must be submitted to the online docket via
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-1060 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For information about this document, call or email LT Alexandra Miller, Office of Design and Engineering Standards, Lifesaving and Fire Safety Division (CG-ENG-4), Coast Guard; telephone 202-372-1356, email
This interim final rule harmonizes fire protection requirements regarding portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers on inspected towing vessels with the requirements for other commercial vessels in Title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), including uninspected towing vessels. The Coast Guard may regulate fire protection equipment on inspected towing vessels under statutory authority found in 46 U.S.C. 3301 and 3306, which was delegated by the Secretary of Homeland Security to the Coast Guard in DHS Delegation Number 0170.1(II)(92).
The Coast Guard issues this rule without prior notice and opportunity for public comment. Section 553(b)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act provides an exception from notice and comment requirements when an agency finds that notice and comment are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that notice and comment are unnecessary because this rule would not require a substantive change of fire protection equipment on towing vessels, and would align with regulatory requirements already met by all existing towing vessels. This rule will revise 46 CFR subchapter M to require inspected towing vessels to meet fire protection equipment requirements that already apply to other commercial vessels, including uninspected towing vessels. The Coast Guard updated these standards in its 2016
Under existing regulations, towing vessels must carry Coast Guard-approved fire extinguishers.
This rule does not change the number of extinguishers required, and an extinguisher that displays the USCG Type/Size rating may still be used if it meets all other requirements. This rule adds a grandfathering clause in section 142.231(a), identical to one that appears in 46 CFR 25.30-80 as a result of the
In addition, this rule revises maintenance requirements for fire extinguishers. Subchapter M had required extinguisher maintenance in accordance with the industry consensus standard NFPA 10, which requires certified personnel to conduct annual fire extinguishing equipment maintenance. NFPA 10 also requires monthly visual inspections and documentation by certified personnel. Section 142.240 provides for some departures from NFPA 10 to: Allow for the acceptance of state and local licenses for inspections; allow an owner, operator, or qualified crewmember to complete monthly inspections (as opposed to certified personnel); and reduce the requirements of the annual inspection for non-rechargeable extinguishers. These modifications are consistent with those put into place for other commercial vessels, including uninspected towing vessels, by the
Finally, this rule makes non-substantive changes such as replacing the term “hand-portable” with “portable.” It also updates the edition of NFPA 10 from 2007 to the 2010 edition used in the
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes or Executive orders.
Executive Orders 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”) and 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. Executive Order 13771 (“Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs”), directs agencies to reduce regulation and control regulatory costs and provides that “for every one new regulation issued, at least two prior regulations be identified for elimination, and that the cost of planned regulations be prudently managed and controlled through a budgeting process.”
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not designated this rule a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of E.O. 12866. As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, this rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This interim final rule (IFR) will update the fire safety rules in subchapter M to incorporate changes brought about by the publication of the
Table 1 presents a summary of the impacts of this rule.
The affected population consists of the U.S. flagged towing vessels subject to the provisions of subchapter M. The RA performed for the
This interim final rule contains 29 changes to the fire protection regulations in subchapter M. A summary of these changes follows:
• Made eighteen minor edits to the regulatory text to harmonize subchapter M text with
• Revised five paragraphs to either consolidate or edit existing text for clarity, or delete text that is no longer needed.
• Added three new provisions to increase industry options to comply with NFPA 10. An example is to allow for the acceptance of state and local licenses for inspections.
• Added a new paragraph to allow equipment beyond the regulatory minimum.
• Added a new paragraph to allow continued use of existing dual-label equipment.
• Added a new provision that restates current recordkeeping requirements.
Overall, the Coast Guard has not identified any costs associated with these changes. The changes and economic impacts are described in Table 2.
The primary benefit of this interim final rule is to align the fire safety rules in subchapter M with the changes brought about by the publication of the
When creating this interim final rule, the Coast Guard considered several alternatives. The previous analysis represents the preferred alternative, which will align fire protection requirements in subchapter M with the
The preferred alternative is to update the fire safety rules in subchapter M to match changes made by the
In this alternative, the Coast Guard would take no action regarding the differences between 46 CFR part 25 and 46 CFR part 142. As this would impose an inconvenience to industry by not removing the outdated labeling requirement, we reject this alternative.
This option would remove the outdated labeling requirement for fire extinguishers, but would not provide for any flexibility in applying the requirements of NFPA 10. The benefit of this alternative is the harmonization of text with other fire protection regulations, including those that already apply to uninspected towing vessels. This alternative would not add any new costs, as NFPA 10 is referenced in subchapter M, but would not offer any new compliance options.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, we have considered whether this rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.
Our economic analysis concluded that this interim final rule will have no cost impact and will not affect the small entities that own and operate the towing vessels that comprise the affected population, described above. Therefore, the Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule will have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment at the address under
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, Public Law 104-121, we offered to assist small entities in understanding this rule so that they could better evaluate its effects on them and participate in the rulemaking. The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247).
This rule calls for no new collection of information or modification of an existing collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132 (“Federalism”) if it has a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132 and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132. Our analysis is explained below.
It is well settled that States may not regulate in categories reserved for regulation by the Coast Guard. It is also well settled that all of the categories covered in 46 U.S.C. 3306, 3703, 7101, and 8101 (design, construction, alteration, repair, maintenance, operation, equipping, personnel qualification, and manning of vessels), as well as the reporting of casualties and any other category in which Congress intended the Coast Guard to be the sole source of a vessel's obligations, are within the field foreclosed from regulation by the States.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
This rule will not cause a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630 (“Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights”).
This rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, (“Civil Justice Reform”), to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13045 (“Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks”). This rule is not an economically significant rule and will not create an environmental risk to health or risk to safety that might disproportionately affect children.
This rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175 (“Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments”), because it will not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13211 (“Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use”). We have determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under that order because it is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866 and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act, codified as a note to 15 U.S.C. 272, directs agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in their regulatory activities unless the agency provides Congress, through OMB, with an explanation of why using these standards would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers, 2010 Edition, effective December 5, 2009. This standard applies to the selection, installation, inspection, maintenance, recharging, and testing of portable fire extinguishers.
Consistent with 1 CFR part 51 incorporation by reference provisions, this material is reasonably available. Interested persons have access to it through their normal course of business, may purchase it from the organization identified in 46 CFR 136.112(h), or may view a copy by means we have identified in that section.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01, Revision (Rev) 1, and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD (COMTINST M16475.1D), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have concluded that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. A Record of Environmental Consideration (REC) supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” section of this preamble.
This interim final rule (IFR) is categorically excluded under paragraphs (34)(a), (d), and (e) of Figure 2 in COMDTINST M16475.1D, and also under paragraph 6(a) of the “Appendix to National Environmental Policy Act: Coast Guard Procedures for Categorical Exclusions, Notice of Final Agency Policy” (67 FR 48243, July 23, 2002). This IFR updates 46 CFR subchapter M to harmonize fire safety standards for inspected towing vessels with those of other commercial vessels. These matters are editorial or procedural in nature; involve the inspection, equipping, equipment approval and carriage requirements of vessels; and also concern vessel safety standards. This rule supports the Coast Guard's maritime safety mission.
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Towing vessels.
Fire prevention, Incorporation by reference, Marine safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Towing vessels.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 46 CFR parts 136 and 142 as follows:
46 U.S.C. 3103, 3301, 3306, 3308, 3316, 8104, 8904; 33 CFR 1.05; DHS Delegation 0170.1.
(h) * * *
(1) NFPA 10—Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers, 2010 Edition, effective December 5, 2009, IBR approved for § 142.240(a) of this subchapter.
46 U.S.C. 3103, 3301, 3306, 3308, 3316, 8104, 8904; 33 CFR 1.05; Department of Homeland Security Delegation 0170.1.
The revision and addition read as follows:
(c) New installations of fire-extinguishing and fire-detection equipment of a type not required, or in excess of that required by this part, may be permitted—
(1) If Coast Guard approved;
(2) If accepted by the local OCMI or TPO, as applicable; or
(3) If equipment and components are listed and labeled by an independent Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL), as that term is defined in 29 CFR 1910.7, and are designed, installed, tested, and maintained in accordance with an appropriate industry standard and the manufacturer's specific guidance.
(d) Existing equipment and installations not meeting the applicable requirements of this part may be continued in service so long as they are in good condition and accepted by the local OCMI or TPO.
(d) A 40-B portable fire extinguisher must be located near the storage room or cabinet. This is in addition to the portable fire extinguishers required by tables 142.230(a) and 142.230(b) of this part.
(a) Towing vessels of 65 feet or less in length must carry at least the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers set forth in table 142.230(a).
(b) Towing vessels of more than 65 feet in length must carry—
(1) At least the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers set forth in table 142.230(b); and
(2) One 40-B portable fire extinguisher fitted in the engine room for each 1,000 brake horsepower of the main engines or fraction thereof. A towing vessel is not required to carry more than six additional 40-B portable fire extinguishers in the engine room for this purpose, regardless of horsepower.
(c) The frame or support of any semi-portable fire extinguisher fitted with wheels must be welded or otherwise permanently attached to a steel bulkhead or deck to prevent it from rolling under heavy sea conditions.
(d) Extinguishers with larger numerical ratings or multiple letter designations may be used if the extinguishers meet the minimum requirements of this section.
(a) Previously installed fire extinguishers with extinguishing capacities smaller than what is required by § 142.230 of this part need not be replaced and may be continued in service so long as they are maintained in good condition to the satisfaction of the OCMI.
(b) All new equipment and installations must meet the applicable requirements in this part for new vessels.
(a)
(1) Portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers must be inspected, maintained, and tested in accordance with the inspection, maintenance procedures, and hydrostatic pressure tests required by Chapters 7 and 8 of NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers (incorporated by reference, see § 136.112 of this subchapter), with the frequency specified by NFPA 10 and as amended here:
(i) Certification or licensing by a state or local jurisdiction as a fire extinguisher servicing agency will be accepted by the Coast Guard as meeting the personnel certification requirements of NFPA 10 for annual maintenance and recharging of extinguishers.
(ii) Monthly inspections required by NFPA 10 may be conducted by the owner, operator, person-in-charge, or a designated member of the crew.
(iii) Non-rechargeable or non-refillable extinguishers must be inspected and maintained in accordance with NFPA 10; however, the annual maintenance need not be conducted by a certified person and can be conducted by the owner, operator, person-in-charge, or a designated member of the crew.
(iv) The owner or managing operator must provide satisfactory evidence of the required servicing to the marine inspector or TPO, as applicable. If any of the equipment or records have not been properly maintained, a qualified servicing facility must perform the required inspections, maintenance procedures, and hydrostatic pressure tests. A tag issued by a qualified servicing organization, and attached to each extinguisher, may be accepted as evidence that the necessary maintenance procedures have been conducted.
(2) Fixed fire-extinguishing systems must be inspected and tested, as required by table 142.240 of this section, in addition to the tests required by §§ 147.60 and 147.65 of subchapter N of this chapter.
(c) * * *
(2) The records of inspections and tests of portable fire extinguishers and semi-portable fire-extinguishing systems may be recorded in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, or on a tag attached to each unit by a qualified servicing organization.
Federal Communications Commission.
Petition for reconsideration.
A Petition for Partial Reconsideration (Petition) has been filed in the Commission's rulemaking proceeding by Dan J. Alpert, on behalf of DA LA HUNT BROADCASTING CORP.
Oppositions to the Petition must be filed on or before March 13, 2018. Replies to an opposition must be filed on or before March 23, 2018.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20554.
Diana Sokolow, phone: 202-418-0588, email:
This is a summary of the Commission's document, Report No. 3086, released February 15, 2018. The full text of the Petition is available for viewing and copying at the FCC Reference Information Center, 445 12th Street SW, Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554. It also may be accessed online via the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System at:
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), DOT.
Final rule; response to petitions for reconsideration.
This document responds to petitions for reconsideration regarding NHTSA's December 2016 final rule which established new Federal motor vehicle safety standard (FMVSS) No. 141, “Minimum sound for hybrid and electric vehicles.” The agency received submissions from three petitioners requesting six discrete changes to the final rule, and also received technical questions from the petitioners. After consideration of the petitions and all supporting information, NHTSA has decided to grant the petitions for four of the discrete changes, deny one, and request comment in a separate document for the sixth proposed change.
Petitions for reconsideration of this final action must be received not later than April 12, 2018.
Correspondence related to this rule including petitions for reconsideration and comments should refer to the docket number in the heading of this document and be submitted to: Administrator, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Washington, DC 20590.
You may contact Mr. Thomas Healy in NHTSA's Office of the Chief Counsel regarding legal issues at (202) 366-2992 or FAX: 202-366-3820. For non-legal issues, you may contact Mr. Michael Pyne, NHTSA Office of Crash Avoidance Standards, at (202) 366-4171 or FAX: 202-493-2990.
Of the six requested changes contained in the petitions, NHTSA is granting the petition request to postpone the compliance phase-in schedule by one year. NHTSA also is granting two petition requests relating to the “Sameness” requirements in the final rule to further allow variations in alert sound across different vehicle types, and to reduce the number of compliance criteria to meet the sameness standards. In addition, NHTSA is granting a petition request to modify the regulatory language to permit the alteration of the alert sound as originally equipped on a vehicle for repairs and recall remedies. NHTSA has decided to deny one petition request to change the crossover speed, which is the speed above which the pedestrian alert sound is allowed to turn off, from 30 kilometers per hour (km/h) to 20 km/h. The agency has determined that the available information on lowering the crossover speed does not warrant making that change.
Furthermore, regarding a petition request to allow vehicles to be manufactured with a suite of driver-selectable pedestrian alert sounds, the agency is neither granting nor denying that request in this document. Instead, NHTSA intends to issue a separate document at a later date to seek comment on the issue of driver-selectable sounds.
Additionally, this document addresses a few requests for technical changes and provides a few clarifications of final rule technical requirements raised in the petitions. Lastly, this document responds to a comment on the final rule about the availability of industry technical standards incorporated by reference in the final rule.
Pursuant to the Pedestrian Safety Enhancement Act of 2010 (PSEA),
After the final rule was published, NHTSA received timely petitions for reconsideration
1. To delay by one year both the compliance phase-in schedule and the date by which all vehicle production must comply with the rule (section S9);
2. To limit the compliance criteria for the Sameness requirement (section S5.5.2) to only the digital sound file and digital processing algorithm;
3. To modify the Sameness requirement (S5.5.1) to allow alert sounds to vary by trim level or model series rather than just by make/model;
4. To modify section S8, which prohibits altering the factory-equipped alert sound, to allow recall remedies
5. To lower the crossover speed from 30 km/h (18.6 mph) to 20 km/h (12.4 mph);
6. To modify the Sameness requirement so that a vehicle can be equipped with a suite of up to five driver-selectable alert sounds.
To facilitate the agency's response to the petitions, we are treating each of these six issues as separate petition requests and addressing them individually in this document.
As fully discussed later in this rule, the agency is granting several of these petition requests, specifically the first four issues listed above. We believe the corresponding adjustments to the final rule will clarify requirements, provide more flexibility to vehicle manufacturers, and remove potential barriers to achieving compliance, while having no foreseeable impact on the safety benefits estimated in the December 2016 final rule, as this rule simply corrects an error in the original final rule related to the phase-in schedule and does not make changes that affect the substance of the required alert sound. The agency is denying the fifth item above, relating to cross-over speed, because no new data or analyses have been presented that would justify reversing the agency's previous conclusion on cross-over speed as presented in the final rule preamble. As for the last item, on driver-selectable sounds, the agency has decided to request public comment before deciding how to respond to that request, and NHTSA intends to issue a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) or other
In this document, the agency also responds to two issues raised by Nissan relating to acoustic specifications in the final rule. In addition, in response to technical questions in the Honda petition, we are providing several clarifications of some requirements.
Lastly, in this document, NHTSA is responding to two comments submitted to the docket, one from Ford regarding the legality of equipping certain vehicles used for security purposes with a means of turning off the required pedestrian alert sound, and the other from PublicResource.org regarding the availability to the general public of technical documents, including industry standards from SAE, ISO, and ANSI, incorporated by reference in the final rule.
The Alliance/Global and Honda petitions along with a supplemental submission from Alliance/Global and a supporting comment from General Motors Corporation discussed several reasons related to vehicle design, development, and manufacturing that will make it very difficult if not impossible for manufacturers to meet the final rule's compliance phase-in schedule. The petitions and supporting comments pointed out that there are significant differences between the final rule requirements and those in the NPRM, as well as differences between the final rule and a European regulation on minimum vehicle sound, that will force manufacturers to make changes to prospective vehicle designs. Even if a manufacturer had already incorporated NPRM specifications into future vehicle designs, more design lead time still is needed to accommodate final rule requirements. They also discussed the specific language used in the PSEA regarding phase-in of compliance and indicated they believe the PSEA requires NHTSA to provide an additional year of lead time before manufacturers must achieve full compliance with the standard.
In consideration of these petitions and supporting documents, the agency recognizes that hybrid and electric vehicle product cycles that are in process for model years 2019 and 2020 may already be beyond the point where they could fully meet the final rule's compliance phase-in schedule.
Thus, the agency has decided to grant the petitions from Alliance/Global and Honda with respect to extending the lead-time for compliance with the final rule. In this document, we are specifying new compliance dates which delay by one full year the date in the final rule by which a fifty percent phase-in must be achieved (revised to September 1, 2019) and the deadline date for full compliance of all vehicles subject to the requirements of the safety standard (revised to September 1, 2020). We also are making conforming changes to the dates in the Part 585 Phase-in Reporting requirements as amended by the December 14, 2016, final rule.
The automakers that petitioned NHTSA stated that vehicles of the same model can have significant differences that might affect their sound output. For example, Honda pointed out that a two-door and four-door car can have the same make/model designation. Vehicles of the same model designation also might have different powertrains and bodywork such as grille design and body cladding, which have the potential to influence both the emitted sound and the air-generated sound when the vehicle is in motion. The agency recognizes that, because of these differences, it is not accurate in all instances to consider all vehicles of the same make/model to be the same for the purposes of the FMVSS No. 141 requirement.
Where the PSEA required “the same sound or set of sounds for all vehicles of the same make and model,” it was left up to NHTSA to interpret how “model” should be defined for the purpose of regulating similarity of the pedestrian alert sound. The agency therefore has decided to grant the Alliance/Global and Honda petitions with respect to this part of the “Sameness” requirement. We are amending the final rule so that alert sounds can vary across different vehicle trim levels in addition to varying by make, model, and model year as provided in the final rule.
We note that the term “trim level” was suggested in the Alliance/Global petition as the criterion that should be used to distinguish vehicles for the purpose of the FMVSS No. 141 Sameness requirements. Honda meanwhile suggested using the term “series.” “Trim level” is not a term that is defined in NHTSA regulations, while the term “series” is defined in Part 565.12. However, according to another definition in Part 565.12, specifically the definition of “model,” a series is not considered a subset of a model, as it would appear Honda assumed it is. Therefore, we believe that the term “series” is not appropriate to use in this instance. We thus are modifying the regulatory text to account for different trim levels, but not “series.” We believe amending the requirement in this way is the best approach for identifying groups of vehicles that are required to have the same pedestrian alert sound. This also will provide the added flexibility in the Sameness requirement that manufacturers are seeking, and it is responsive to both the Alliance/Global and Honda requests on this issue.
The second change we are making to the Sameness requirements is to limit the criteria listed in paragraph S5.1.2 for verifying compliance. As requested by Alliance/Global, we are simplifying the listed criteria so that the digital sound file and the sound processing algorithms will be the only specific criteria that are required to be the same from one specimen test vehicle to another. The automakers stated that other Sameness criteria listed in the final rule, such as component part numbers, are hardware-
NHTSA has decided to grant Alliance/Global's request to amend the language in paragraph S8 of the final rule prohibiting the alteration of the alert sound originally equipped on a vehicle at the time of production. Alliance/Global and Honda state that this prohibition is unnecessarily restrictive and does not allow for “reasonable manufacturing tolerance” as required by the PSEA. Furthermore, they are concerned the final rule could prohibit vehicle repairs and recall remedies when hardware components such as an electronic control unit or body control module, which may by design be shared between the alert system and other vehicle systems, needs to be replaced.
Although the agency is uncertain that the existing final rule language which prohibits altering the alert sound originally equipped on a production vehicle would impede any vehicle repairs or remedies, we are adopting this change to clarify the existing language because it was not the agency's intention to hinder vehicle repairs or recall remedies.
NHTSA is denying Nissan's request to reduce the crossover speed from 30 km/h (18.6 mph) to 20 km/h (12.4 mph). Nissan's petition stated that NHTSA had not specifically addressed their NPRM comment regarding this issue. The Nissan petition did not provide new information or data on crossover speed that NHTSA had not considered when developing the final rule.
NHTSA notes that the final rule did specifically address a JASIC study and test data which was the basis of the Nissan NPRM comment. More importantly, NHTSA included a new analysis in the final rule to address comments, including Nissan's, about the need to evaluate crossover speed using detectability criteria rather than by other methods. The new analysis in the final rule used the Volpe detection model which previously had been used to develop the final rule's acoustic specifications. In this new analysis, data from a selection of internal combustion engine (ICE) vehicles in coast down mode (engine off to simulate an EV or HV in electric mode) was analyzed using the Volpe model to determine whether the vehicle noise at each test speed (10, 20, and 30 km/h) had reached a detectable level. NHTSA's conclusion about this new detection-based analysis was that it did not support lowering the crossover speed to 20 km/h. Since this analysis was based on detection rather than comparisons to other vehicles, we believe it was responsive to the Nissan NPRM comments on crossover speed. Given that fact and the absence of new data in Nissan's petition, NHTSA has no basis to revise our previous conclusion about crossover speed.
The agency also notes that the final rule contained other concessions that indirectly address manufacturer concerns about crossover speed. In the final rule, in addition to reducing the required number of bands from the proposed number of eight bands, all required minimum sound levels for each operating speed were reduced by 4 dB to offset potential measurement variation. By virtue of this across-the-board reduction, the required sound levels at 30 km/h in the final rule are close to the proposed levels for 20 km/h in the NPRM for this rulemaking.
Lastly, we note that safety organizations, particularly the National Federation of the Blind, have expressed their support of the 30 km/h crossover speed and have not agreed that lowering it to 20 km/h is acceptable.
The agency's position continues to be that lowering the crossover speed from the 30 km/h level, contained in both the NPRM and final rule, is not warranted by the available information, and we are denying the Nissan petition request on this issue.
NHTSA has decided to seek comment on Alliance/Global's request to allow hybrid and electric vehicles to be equipped with multiple, driver-selectable alert sounds before granting or denying this request. Amending the requirements to allow multiple sounds per vehicle would be a substantial change to the final rule. Because NHTSA did not solicit or receive comment on the number of driver-selectable sounds that should be allowed if NHTSA were to allow them, we believe it is appropriate to seek public comment before determining whether to grant this request. Therefore, in accordance with normal rulemaking administrative procedures, NHTSA tentatively plans to issue a separate document, which would provide an opportunity for public comment on this particular issue.
In addition to requesting specific changes to requirements in the final rule, the petitions raised technical issues relating to the acoustic specifications and test procedures and also asked for clarification on specific language in the final rule. These technical issues are summarized here and fully addressed later in this document.
Technical issues raised in Nissan's petition included two items: First was a request to allow the use of adjacent instead of only non-adjacent one-third octave bands for compliance; and second was a request to set the minimum band sum requirements for the 2-band compliance option to be equal to the corresponding overall SPLs of the 4-band compliance option. We note that, while Nissan phrased these two issues as petition requests, we are treating them as technical clarifications because the final rule preamble included substantial explanation of the agency's rationale for specifying non-adjacent bands for compliance as well as the agency's methodology for selecting the band sum levels for the 2-band compliance option, and we do not believe that the information presented in Nissan's petition invalidates the agency's previous analysis, as explained later in this document. After giving these two technical requests from Nissan due consideration, the agency is not making any changes to the acoustic specifications in response to these requests.
Honda's petition requested the following technical clarifications: Whether a vehicle can switch between 2-band and 4-band compliance at the different test speeds; which bands should be selected for compliance when the highest band levels above and below 1000 Hz are in adjacent rather than non-adjacent bands; and how to calculate the average of overall SPL values (section S7.1.4). Also, Honda requested that indoor testing be an option available for manufacturer certification in addition to outdoor testing.
In reviewing the regulatory text of the December 2016 final rule to address Honda's petition, NHTSA identified
A submission to the docket from
NHTSA's involvement with the safety of quiet hybrid and electric vehicles and their impact on pedestrian safety goes back at least a decade to when the agency began monitoring efforts by various outside groups on this issue. In 2008 the agency held a public meeting on the safety of quiet vehicles and, the following year, initiated a statistical study of relevant pedestrian crashes and began researching the acoustical aspects of the safety problem.
In January 2011, the U.S. Congress enacted legislation, the Pedestrian Safety Enhancement Act of 2010 (PSEA), which directed NHTSA to undertake rulemaking to create a new safety standard to require hybrid and electric vehicles to have a minimum sound level in order to help pedestrians, especially those with impaired eyesight, to detect those vehicles.
In accordance with the PSEA, NHTSA issued an NPRM
NHTSA's conducted a statistical crash data study, as cited in the final rule,
NHTSA also completed an Environmental Assessment
Pursuant to the Pedestrian Safety Enhancement Act, NHTSA issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM)
The NPRM proposed a crossover speed of 30 km/h (18.6 mph) because at that speed, based on NHTSA tests that used a “peer vehicle” comparison methodology, tire noise, wind resistance, and other noises from the vehicle eliminated the need for added alert sounds. In the agency's tests, the sound levels of a selection of electric and hybrid vehicles were evaluated and compared to the sound levels of vehicles having the same or similar make, model, and body type but operating with internal combustion engines (ICEs). For example, the sound level of a hybrid Toyota Camry in electric mode in a pass-by test at 20 km/h was directly compared to the sound level of a conventional gas-engine Toyota Camry of the same model year at the same pass-by speed of 20 km/h.
The NPRM specified an outdoor compliance test procedure based on the September 2011 version of SAE J2889-1. The compliance procedure included tests for stationary, reverse, and pass-by measurements conducted at 10 km/h (6.2 mph), 20 km/h (12.4 mph), and 30 km/h (18.6 mph). We explained in the NPRM that NHTSA believed that outdoor pass-by testing is preferable to indoor testing in hemi-anechoic chambers using chassis dynamometers because outdoor testing is more representative of the real-world interactions between pedestrians and vehicles. We also expressed concern that specifications for indoor testing were not fully developed and did not have a known level of objectivity, repeatability, and reproducibility for testing minimum vehicle sound at low speeds.
The NPRM proposed a Sameness requirement in order to ensure that hybrid and electric vehicles of the same make and model emit the same sound, as directed by the PSEA. The NPRM proposed that vehicles of the same make, model, and model year must emit the same level of sound within 3 dB(A) in each one-third octave band from 160 Hz to 5000 Hz.
As noted, the final rule was published on December 14, 2016, and established FMVSS No. 141 which applies to electric and hybrid-electric passenger cars, MPVs, light trucks, and buses with a GVWR of 10,000 pounds or less and to low speed vehicles (LSVs). The standard applies to these vehicles if they can be operated in an electric mode in the test conditions covered by the standard, without an any internal combustion engine (ICE) operation. The final rule requires hybrid and electric vehicles to emit sound at minimum levels while the vehicle is stationary (although not when the vehicle is parked,
In the final rule, the agency reduced the number of one-third octave bands for which vehicles must meet minimum sound pressure level requirements. The NPRM proposed that vehicles would
Under the 4-band compliance option, the minimum sound levels for each band are slightly lower than the values proposed in the NPRM, and the overall sound pressure of sounds meeting the 4-band option will be similar to those meeting the proposed eight-band requirements in the NPRM. Under the 2-band compliance option, the minimum sound requirements for each band are lower than those of the proposed eight-band requirements for the low and mid frequency bands (315 Hz through 3,150 Hz; the 4,000 Hz and 5,000 Hz bands are not included for the purpose of determining compliance with the 2-band requirement.) Neither the 4-band compliance option nor the 2-band compliance option include requirements for tones or broadband content that were contained in the NPRM.
For both the 2-band and 4-band compliance options, the final rule expands the range of acceptable one-third octave bands to include those between 630 Hz and 1600 Hz (these bands were excluded in the NPRM). It also reflects an across-the-board reduction in the minimum levels of 4 dB(A) to account for measurement variability which the agency's development of test procedures indicated was needed.
Reducing the number and minimum levels of required one-third octave bands while expanding the number of useable bands in the final rule provided additional flexibility to manufacturers for designing pedestrian alert systems while preserving the goal of pedestrian alert sounds that are detectable in various ambient environments.
Regarding Sameness, NHTSA revised the criteria for determining that the sound produced by two HVs or EVs of the same make, model, and model year is the same. The agency determined that the NPRM requirement for the sound produced by two specimen vehicles to be within three dB(A) in every one-third octave band between 315 Hz and 5000 Hz was technically not feasible. The final rule instead requires that HVs and EVs of the same make, model, and model year emit the same sound by specifying that those vehicles use the same alert system hardware and software, including specific items such as the same digital sound file to produce sound used to meet the minimum sound requirements. The final rule listed several other criteria including part numbers of alert system components that may be evaluated to verify compliance with the Sameness requirement.
The final rule made numerous improvements to the proposed test procedures in response to comments that were received on the NPRM.
With regard to the phase-in schedule for the safety standard, the NPRM proposed a phase-in schedule for manufacturers of HVs and EVs, with 30 percent of the HVs and EVs they produce required to comply three years before the date for full compliance established in the PSEA, 60 percent required to comply two years before the full-compliance date, and 90 percent required to comply one year before the full-compliance date. To respond to comments on that proposal, the final rule simplified the phase-in schedule by shortening it to include a single year of phase-in, rather than three years. This simplification provides somewhat more lead-time and responds to vehicle manufacturers' comments that the proposed phase-in was unnecessarily complex.
Under the final rule, half of each manufacturer's HV and EV production would have been required to comply with the final rule by September 1, 2018, and 100 percent by September 1, 2019. The phase-in does not apply to multi-stage and small volume manufacturers; all of their HV and EV production would have been required to comply with the final rule by September 1, 2019.
In response to the published final rule on Minimum Sound Requirements for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles, NHTSA received timely petitions for reconsideration (submitted by the January 30, 2017, deadline) from three sources: The Auto Alliance in conjunction with Global Automakers
These petitions requested several changes covering several aspects of the final rule. NHTSA identified the following six discrete requests for changes to specific requirements (listed here in the approximate order they appear in the Alliance/Global, Honda, and Nissan petitions):
1. To delay by one year both the compliance phase-in date and the date by which all vehicle production must comply with the rule (section S9);
2. To consolidate the compliance criteria for the Sameness requirement (section S5.5.2) to include only the digital sound file and digital processing algorithm;
3. To modify the Sameness requirement (S5.5.1) to allow alert sounds to vary by trim level or model series rather than just by make/model;
4. To modify section S8, which prohibits altering the factory-equipped alert sound, so as not to impede vehicle repairs when components of the alert system are shared with other vehicle systems;
5. To lower the crossover speed from 30 km/h (18.6 mph) to 20 km/h (12.4 mph);
6. To modify the Sameness requirement so that a vehicle can be equipped with a suite of up to five driver-selectable alert sounds.
In addition to these specific requests for amendments to the final rule, some of the petitions included requests for technical clarifications. Nissan's submission included two such requests, one concerning the minimum sound levels for 2-band and 4-band specifications, and the other regarding allowing adjacent bands for compliance. Similarly, Honda's submission pointed out a few technical clarifications they believe are needed, involving the intended use of 2-band and 4-band compliance options, the correct method
Lastly, NHTSA received one additional docket comment, from
The Alliance/Global petition addressed requirements for: Compliance phase-in schedule; equipping HVs and EVs with driver-selectable sounds; applying Sameness to each “trim level” rather than each model; limiting the Sameness compliance criteria to the digital sound file and digital algorithm; and removing any prohibition on altering vehicle components that may be shared between the alert system and other vehicle systems.
Regarding the phase-in schedule, in addition to discussing design and manufacturing considerations that would make the final rule schedule unfeasible, Alliance/Global's petition pointed out that NHTSA's interpretation of the PSEA language regarding compliance dates appeared to have changed between the NPRM and the final rule. The petition argued that the earlier interpretation was the correct one and that, under that interpretation, the agency is required to provide an additional year of lead-time before full compliance is required.
Alliance/Global submitted a supplementary letter which provided further detail on the phase-in schedule and the issue of driver-selectable sounds. On the phase-in, the supplemental submission discussed specific final rule requirements that had changed since the NPRM. It also noted several areas where the final rule is different from the UN Regulation No. 138. In their supplementary submission, Alliance/Global also indicated that, if a set of driver-selectable sounds was permitted, manufacturers would limit the number to no more than five different sounds per make, model, model year, and trim level of vehicle.
A letter in support of the Alliance/Global petition submitted by GM (submitted under a request for confidentiality) addressed the issue of phase-in schedule. This letter stated, “While GM supports NHTSA's effort to create minimum sound requirements for electric and hybrid vehicles, the final rule contains a number of additional technical challenges that will require substantial redesigns to GM's existing systems.” GM's letter also stated, “The twenty-month phase-in provided by the final rule is far less than the normal timing required to develop, validate, and certify new systems.” GM cited the final rule's volume shift requirement, different frequency range, and several design changes that will be needed in the sound generating systems that GM already has been installing in its electric and hybrid production vehicles. The GM letter cited specific hardware changes, upgrades, and replacements that their current alert systems need to be compliant with FMVSS No. 141.
Most recently, on August 4, 2017, the Alliance of Automobile Manufacturers (the Alliance), the Association of Global Automakers (Global) and the National Federation of the Blind (NFB) wrote the Deputy Secretary of the Department of Transportation requesting that the December 2016 final rule be permitted to come into effect on September 5, 2017. The letter also requested that by September 5, 2017, NHTSA amend the compliance date of the December 2016 final rule to delay the phase-in and full compliance dates by one year and by November 6, 2017, respond to the remaining technical issues in the pending petitions for reconsideration.
Honda's petition included two specific petition requests, one regarding the phase-in schedule, and the other regarding allowance for alert sounds to vary from vehicle to vehicle according to model “series” as well as make, model, and model year. The remainder of Honda's submission was concerned with technical clarifications and comments on the rule. Honda asked if it is acceptable under the 2-band and 4-band compliance specifications for a vehicle to switch back and forth between the two specifications at the different speed conditions of the test procedure. Honda also asked NHTSA to clarify section S7.1.6(e)(i) of the test procedure, noting that there could be a conflict when choosing the two highest band levels while also choosing only non-adjacent bands for the compliance evaluation. In addition, Honda asked NHTSA to clarify the calculation method for averaging overall SPLs in section 7.1.4(c) of the test procedure.
Lastly, Honda stated that indoor testing should be optional for FMVSS No. 141 compliance evaluations and is preferable because of the better stability and the efficiency of indoor sound measurements, and also because, from a harmonization standpoint, that would better align the safety standard with UN Regulation No. 138 which permits indoor measurements.
Nissan submitted a cover letter and technical slides in which they requested that NHTSA reconsider its decision in the final rule on the crossover speed, which the agency set at 30 km/h (18.6 mph). Nissan stated that they believe the crossover speed should be set at 20 km/h, and cited a previous comment
Nissan's petition also raised two technical issues. The first was a request that NHTSA allow the use of adjacent instead of only non-adjacent one-third octave bands for compliance. The second issue was a request to set the minimum band sum requirements for the 2-band compliance option to be equal to the minimum overall SPLs for the 4-band compliance option. Although these two issues raised by Nissan ask the agency to reconsider specific requirements of the final rule and request specific changes, we believe these two issues were addressed in the discussion of NHTSA's acoustic research in the final rule preamble. Thus, we have decided it is appropriate to treat these issues as technical clarifications.
A comment from
As outlined in the previous section of this document, the petitions requested a number of changes covering several aspects of the final rule. NHTSA identified six discrete requests for changes to specific requirements. As stated previously, to facilitate responding to the petitions, the agency is treating each of the six issues as separate requests and addressing each request individually below.
After considering all information provided by petitioners, NHTSA is granting four of the requested actions, denying one request (on crossover speed), and for the last item (on driver-selectable sounds), the agency has decided that it will be necessary to request public comment before deciding how to respond to that request, and NHTSA intends to issue a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) or other
In regard to the four petition requests that the agency is granting, we are amending the final rule to implement the following changes:
• Amend Section S9,
• Amend Section S5.5,
• Amend Section S5.5,
• Amend Section S8,
These amendments to the final rule and the agency's reasons for adopting them are further discussed below. In general, we believe these changes to the final rule are worthwhile refinements that will clarify the requirements, provide more flexibility to vehicle manufacturers, and remove potential barriers to achieving compliance, while having no foreseeable impact on the safety benefits estimated in the December 2016 final rule, as this rule simply corrects an error in the original final rule related to the phase-in schedule and does not make changes that affect the substance of the required alert sound.
Our decision to deny one request, as well as the agency's intent to seek comment on one issue, also are discussed in detail below. In addition, we address some technical issues raised and other comments relating to the final rule.
The agency has decided to grant the petitions from Alliance/Global and Honda with respect to extending the lead-time for compliance by extending the phase-in date and the full compliance date by one year. NHTSA is also addressing supplemental submissions from Alliance/Global and General Motors Corporation (GM) that provided information on the lead time issue.
After further consideration, we agree with the petitioners that the interpretation of the PSEA phase-in requirements provided by the agency in the NPRM is the correct interpretation and that delaying the full compliance date until September 1, 2020 is required by that interpretation. The PSEA states that, “The motor vehicle safety standard . . . shall establish a phase-in period for compliance, as determined by the Secretary, and shall require full compliance . . . on or after September 1 of the calendar year that begins 3 years after the date on which the final rule is issued.” In the NPRM, the agency had stated that the appropriate timeframe should be the calendar year beginning 36 months after the rule was issued, such that, if a rule were issued anytime in 2016, the 36-month period after the date of publication of the final rule would end sometime in 2019. Thus, the first calendar year that would begin after that date in 2019 would be calendar year 2020, meaning that full compliance should be by September 1, 2020. The agency believes that its interpretation from the NPRM continues to be the correct interpretation of the PSEA. In fact, upon review, the agency did not actually change this interpretation in the Final Rule, as the phase-in schedule and economic analysis were based on the assumption that the rule would be published in 2015, rather than 2016, which is what actually occurred. The agency now corrects this error.
Further, NHTSA agrees that, because of vehicle product cycles, it would be difficult for manufacturers to make the design modifications necessary for vehicles subject to FMVSS No. 141 to meet the current final rule phase-in schedule and full compliance date, especially in light of the significant changes from the NPRM and the uncertainty surrounding the issues raised in the petitions for reconsideration.
In the Final Rule, the agency estimated that the economic impact of the rule for MY 2020 vehicles was $42M to $41.5M in costs and $320M to $247.5M in benefits at the 3 percent and 7 percent discount rates. However, in light of the issues raised in the petitions and the more recent letter from the Alliance, Global, and NFB, the agency believes that the analysis in the final rule may likely have understated the initial costs to comply with the rule. More specifically, the analysis was based on a less aggressive phase-in schedule and as such, does not support a 100 percent compliance date of September 1, 2019. In fact, comments received indicate that the more accelerated phase-in schedule than what the agency had intended is not technically possible, which calls in to question the relationship between benefits and costs presented in the Final Rule. By delaying the compliance date by one year, the economic impacts of the rule will more closely mirror those presented in support of the Final Rule.
In this document, we are specifying new compliance dates which delay by one full year both corresponding dates in the final rule,
• Fifty percent of each manufacturer's total production of hybrid and electric vehicles, subject to the applicability of FMVSS No. 141 and produced on and after September 1, 2019, and before September 1, 2020, shall comply with the safety standard;
Immediately following the one-year phase-in, starting with model year 2021, all hybrid and electric vehicles are required to comply, as follows:
• 100 percent of each manufacturer's production of hybrid and electric
In making these changes to the compliance schedule, we believe this will afford manufacturers the additional flexibility and lead time needed to accommodate customary vehicle design cycles, thus addressing the schedule concerns expressed in their petitions.
As a consequence of the revised phase-in schedule, it is necessary to make conforming adjustments to the Part 585 reporting requirements in order to align them with the new phase-in period. The conforming changes to Part 585 are detailed below.
When a new safety regulation is phased in over a period of time, NHTSA requires manufacturers to submit production data so the agency can track and verify adherence to the phase-in schedule. Part 585 of Title 49 of the CFR contains the requirements for Phase-in Reporting for various FMVSS. To implement the one-year, 50-percent phase-in for FMVSS No. 141, the December 2016 final rule included amendments to Part 585, appending new Subpart N, to provide for tracking of production data so that the agency can verify that the requisite minimum percentage of vehicles are in compliance during the phase-in.
As a result of the amended phase-in schedule contained in this document, we are making corresponding adjustments to the phase-in reporting dates of Part 585, Subpart N, as amended in the December 14, 2016, final rule. This entails adding one year to the due dates in the following paragraphs of Part 585, Subpart N: § 585.130 `Applicability'; § 585.132 `Response to Inquiries'; § 585.133 `Reporting Requirements'; and § 585.130 `Records.' These revisions appear in the regulatory text at the end of this document.
The petitions from Alliance/Global and Honda requested that NHTSA amend section S5.5.1 of the Sameness requirement in the final rule regulatory text. That section required all vehicles of the same make, model, and model year to use the same pedestrian alert sound system and be designed to have the same sound. This requirement originated from the PSEA which stipulated that the safety standard “shall require manufacturers to provide, within reasonable manufacturing tolerances, the same sound or set of sounds for all vehicles of the same make and model. . . .”
The automakers stated that vehicles of the same model can have significant differences unrelated to the alert sound system that might affect their sound output. For example, Honda pointed out that a two-door and four-door car can have the same model designation. Vehicles of the same model designation also might have different powertrains and bodywork such as grille design and body cladding, which have the potential to influence both emitted sound and the air-generated sound when the vehicle is in motion.
Alliance/Global requested that NHTSA add the term “trim level” to “make, model, and model year” in S5.5.1 so that vehicles of the same make/model would be required to have the same sound only if the vehicles also have the same trim level designation. This would give manufacturers flexibility to allow the alert sound to vary among vehicles that, while having the same make/model designation, may nevertheless be physically different in significant ways. Honda made a similar request but, instead of the term “trim level,” Honda requested using the term “series.”
The agency recognizes that, because of the possibility of physically significant differences between vehicles within a model line, it is not practical to consider all vehicles of the same make/model to be the same for the purposes of the pedestrian alert sound. The agency therefore has decided to grant the Alliance/Global and Honda petitions with respect to this aspect of the “Sameness” requirement. We are amending the final rule so that alert sounds can vary across different vehicle trim levels and also by vehicle body type, in addition to varying by make, model, and model year as provided in the final rule.
For the revised requirement, “body type” is added and is used as defined in 49 CFR 565.12(b) which states, “
The request on this issue in Alliance/Global petition used the term “trim level” as the designation criterion that would distinguish vehicles for the purpose of Sameness requirements in FMVSS No. 141, while Honda suggested using the term “series.” We note that “trim level” is not a term that is defined anywhere in NHTSA regulations, while the term “series” is defined in Part 565.12.
For this revised requirement, “trim level” is defined to mean a subset of vehicles within the same model designation and with the same body type which are alike in their general level of standard equipment, such as a “base” trim level of a vehicle model. Other trim levels within a model might include a “sport” version or “luxury” version. These depend on the trim designations that are used by different manufacturers. Generally, different trim levels comprise no more than a few different versions of a given model. For the purposes of FMVSS No. 141, minor differences including different wheel rim styles or merely being equipped with a sunroof should not be considered to constitute different trim levels. Trim levels should be considered to be different only if they represent vehicle differences that are likely to alter vehicle-emitted sound. We are including a definition of “trim level” in section S4 of the regulatory text to reflect this.
We believe relaxing the final rule in this manner will adequately distinguish between groups of vehicles that, based on their physical similarity, can reasonably be required to have the same pedestrian alert sound. This change will provide the added flexibility in meeting the Sameness requirement that the manufacturers are seeking. At the same time, this change is acceptable from a regulatory standpoint given that the agency's understanding of the PSEA language was to allow for variation of alert sounds across different groups of vehicles so long as vehicles that are the same in most other respects would have the same alert sound. As pointed out by petitioners, vehicles of the same model might not be the same in many respects, but vehicles of the same trim level would be the same.
The regulatory text of sections S4 and S5.5.1 amended per the above discussion appears at the end of this document.
The petitions from Alliance/Global and Honda raised concerns about the wording in S5.5.2 of the Sameness requirement. Paragraph S5.5.2 states that a “pedestrian alert system” includes all hardware and software components that are used to generate the alert sound. That section goes on to specifically list the types of vehicle components, including both hardware and software, that comprise a pedestrian alert system and that must be the same on any two vehicles of the same make, model, and model year. Among the listed items that must be the same are “alert system hardware components including speakers, speaker modules, and control modules, as evidenced by specific details such as part numbers and technical illustrations.”
The petitioners believe that this requirement is overly design-restrictive. In particular, they are concerned that requiring part numbers to be the same is not feasible. Alliance/Global stated, “The regulatory text as written places part-number specific restrictions on a vast number of components and as a result creates a major impediment for manufacturing.” They also state, “OEMs may choose to source components from more than one vendor, and requiring the use of the `same' hardware and software may preclude that competitive process.” They go on to say that the final rule is inconsistent with the Vehicle Safety Act stipulation that each FMVSS must permit a manufacturer to select any technology that can meet the performance requirements. Similarly, Honda's petition stated that, in cases where a shared component such as an ECU that serves multiple vehicle functions is modified during a model year due to changes in vehicle systems other than the alert system, “the ECU part number would change, thus causing a violation of the Sameness requirement.”
The agency has decided to amend the Sameness requirements as requested to limit the criteria listed in the final rule for verifying compliance so that the digital sound file and the sound processing algorithm will be the only criteria that are required to be the same from one specimen test vehicle to another. The petitioners stated that other Sameness criteria listed in the final rule are hardware-based criteria, such as component part numbers, and should not be included because it appears to disregard the statutory requirement to allow “reasonable manufacturing tolerances.” Also, requiring hardware-based Sameness would unnecessarily impede competitive sourcing of components and related vehicle manufacturing and assembly practices. For example, automakers may source a component from different suppliers, such that the components have dissimilar part numbers even though they are built to the same OEM specification and have the same performance. Alliance/Global also cited a legal precedent under which NHTSA regulations generally must avoid being design-restrictive except when there is a valid safety justification.
To implement the amendment described above, the agency is adopting new language based largely on that suggested by Alliance/Global. The revisions to paragraph S5.5.2 acknowledge two types of design of a digital sound-generating system. In simple terms, one type uses a digitally coded source, such as a digitally recorded sound file, which is processed by a controller program and played back through the speaker system. Another type creates the sound without a source file using programmed algorithms that generates the signal that is played back through the speaker system.
Section S8 of the final rule has the heading “Prohibition on altering the sound of a vehicle subject to this standard.” This requirement is unchanged from what the agency proposed in the NPRM, and it originated from a PSEA requirement stating that the safety standard must “prohibit manufacturers from providing any mechanism for anyone other than the manufacturer or the dealer to disable, alter, replace, or modify the sound” except to remedy a noncompliance or defect.
NHTSA's interpretation of the purpose of this requirement in the PSEA was to prevent access to vehicle features which control the alert sound system so that it could not be modified, adjusted, or reprogramed in a way that would change the emitted sound or render it noncompliant. In other words, the alert system needs to be tamper-resistant to some extent. For example, a vehicle's owner-accessible setup menus should not include a setting that disables the alert system.
The Alliance/Global expressed concern with NHTSA's wording of this requirement in the final rule. They stated, “An OEM may decide to install a body controller or other component that may not be dedicated solely to FMVSS 141 compliance, but which is installed—in part—to comply with FMVSS 141. The PSEA does not preclude actions to repair such a body controller for reasons unrelated to FMVSS 141, yet the final rule appears to preclude such repairs.” They also state that the requirement in the final rule exceeds the authority granted by the PSEA. Alliance's/Global's petition contained suggested edits to the regulatory text that would remove the potential conflict in the regulatory text.
Alliance/Global also stated that the final rule was unnecessarily restrictive on this issue, and it did not allow for “reasonable manufacturing tolerance” as stipulated in the PSEA. Furthermore, they along with Honda are concerned the final rule could prohibit vehicle repairs or create other obstacles to vehicle updates when components such as an electronic control unit or body control module are shared between the alert system and other vehicle systems.
We have decided to grant the request to modify the final rule with respect to this issue. Although the agency is uncertain that the existing final rule language in section S8 actually would impede any vehicle repair or upgrade, we are adopting this change because the language should be clear, and because it was not the agency's intention to hinder any vehicle repair or remedy unrelated to the pedestrian alert system.
The amended text we are adopting is that suggested by Alliance/Global. The revisions appear in the amended text of section S8 at the end of this document.
Nissan's petition request to lower the crossover speed revisits the issues raised in Nissan's comments to the NPRM. Nissan stated that NHTSA did not specifically address their May 19, 2014 submission to the NPRM docket on crossover speed. Nissan's petition for reconsideration did not provide any new information or data that was not already considered by the agency when developing the final rule.
NHTSA notes that the final rule specifically addressed a JASIC study
The agency also notes that the final rule contained concessions that indirectly address manufacturer concerns about crossover speed. In the final rule, the minimum number of required one-third octave band components was reduced from the proposed number of eight bands. In addition, all of the required minimum sound levels for each operating speed were reduced by 4 dB to offset potential measurement variation. By virtue of these changes to the acoustic specifications, the overall level of sounds meeting the final rule acoustic requirements at 30 km/h (60 to 64 dB(A) for the 4-band option) is very similar to the overall level of sounds meeting the NPRM's proposed 8-band requirements at 20 km/h (approx. 62 dB(A)).
For all the reasons stated above, the agency's position continues to be that lowering the crossover speed from the 30 km/h level contained in both the NPRM and final rule is not warranted, and we are denying the Nissan petition request on this issue.
Nissan's petition raised two technical issues in addition to the petition request on crossover speed addressed above. First was a request to allow the use of adjacent instead of only non-adjacent one-third octave bands for compliance; and second was a request to set the minimum band sum requirements at each test speed for the 2-band compliance option to be equal to the corresponding overall SPLs of the 4-band compliance option.
After considering these two technical requests from Nissan, the agency is not making any changes to the acoustic specifications related to these issues. We note that, while Nissan phrased these two issues as petition requests, we are treating them as technical clarifications because Nissan's petition did not directly respond to or acknowledge the discussion and explanation in the final rule preamble as to the agency's rationale for specifying non-adjacent bands for compliance and the agency's methodology for selecting the band sum levels for the 2-band compliance option. The preamble included a lengthy discussion of detectability research the agency conducted after the NPRM had been published.
On the first issue, the question of adjacency of bands, Nissan cited a Zwicker loudness model that, according to Nissan, shows a frequency band will mask an adjacent band when the sound level difference between the two bands reaches 6 dB or more (in one-third octave band frequencies). Nissan pointed out that the difference from any band to an adjacent one in the final rule's required minimum levels is less than 4 dB for all of the bands included.
Our response to this is that the masking data cited by Nissan applies to the masking of a component at the center of its one-third octave band. If the masker is shifted toward the signal, while still in its own one-third octave band, masking can take place at levels significantly less than 6 dB.
Although it may be possible, depending on the ambient, to achieve detectability using adjacent bands, there still would be greater susceptibility to the combined masking effects due to adjacent components and the ambient that are enough to make a barely perceptible component not perceptible. This phenomenon appears to have influenced results of NHTSA's validation study
NHTSA also is concerned that an acoustic specification allowing adjacent one-third octave bands is vulnerable to poor design practice, in that a single tone placed at the cut-off frequency of a one third octave band could be credited for two bands (one on either side of the cut-off, with a level in both bands about 3 dB lower than the tone). A signal like this, though it might technically meet a 2-band criterion with adjacent bands allowed, would disregard NHTSA's findings about the importance of spreading signal components across a wide frequency range to create robust sounds detectable in a variety of ambient sound profiles.
For these reasons, we do not agree with Nissan that adjacent bands should be allowed in the 2-band and the 4-band compliance requirements of the FMVSS No. 141 final rule. Furthermore, specifying non-adjacent bands imposes only a minor limitation on alert sound design, and we did not find any reason given in Nissan's submission why this requirement is unreasonable, impractical, or burdensome to an extent that it should be deleted. Therefore, the agency has decided not to amend the final rule with respect to the non-adjacency issue raised in Nissan's petition.
Regarding the second technical issue in Nissan's petition, they requested that the band sums at each test speed for the 2-band compliance option should be set equal to the overall SPL levels for the 4-band compliance option. In response, we first point out that the agency's reasons for specifying higher band sums when using the 2-band option are discussed in the preamble of the December 2016 final rule.
In comparing the 2-band and 4-band options, robustness is achieved for the latter by requiring acoustic energy at threshold levels in a minimum of four bands and specifying that these four bands span a minimum of nine one-third octave bands. The idea is that for an ambient of 55 dB(A), either the masking components would match those used for determining thresholds or masking components would tend not to spread across a wide range of nine one-third octave bands. Thus, there is a high likelihood with a 4-band alert signal that some portion of the vehicle's sound will be detectable in an ambient that is 55 dB(A) or lower so that it can be heard by pedestrians. The 2-band option has fewer bands and thus fewer opportunities to have a signal coincide with an advantageous ambient level. Instead, it achieves robustness by requiring a greater overall level (higher band sum) from the two bands (one below 800 Hz and one at or above 1000 Hz) that have the most acoustical energy. There is a fundamental tradeoff between loudness versus sound bandwidth when comparing the 2-band and 4-band options.
In summary, NHTSA believes that the approach taken in the final rule for setting the band sum levels for the 2-band option is reasonable and justifiable, and Nissan's petition did not include any research or other information that would persuade the agency to take a different approach. Therefore, we are not making the requested change to the final rule.
Honda made several comments in its petition about technical clarifications they believe are needed in the final rule. The first issue was whether a vehicle can switch between 2-band and 4-band compliance at the different test speeds.
The answer is `yes', it is acceptable to switch between compliance with the 2-band and 4-band options for different test conditions (stationary, reverse, 10 km/h, 20 km/h, and 30 km/h). In any test to verify compliance with FMVSS No. 141, the measured sound of a vehicle at each test condition would be checked for compliance with both the 2-band and 4-band requirements. For example, sound measurements of a vehicle in a 10 km/h pass-by test would be evaluated relative to both the 2-band and 4-band specifications, and the vehicle could achieve compliance by meeting one or both specifications. At 20 km/h, the evaluation of both the 2-band and 4-band specifications would be repeated independent of which specification was complied with at 10 km/h, and the vehicle could again comply with one or both specifications. As long as the measured sound at a given test speed meets at least one of the two optional specifications, then it would comply for the particular test speed.
Regarding evaluating the relative volume change requirement (S5.4) for vehicles that switch between 2-band and 4-band compliance, we note that relative volume change is based on a band sum of the whole range of 13 bands in the measured sound at each test condition, calculated per S7.6 of the test procedure. Because the criterion is the band sum of all the bands, relative volume change evaluation does not depend on which of the two minimum sound level options, 2-band or 4-band, is complied with in each test condition, and there is no conflict if a vehicle switches between the two specifications for different test conditions.
Another technical clarification requested by Honda was in regard to section S7.1.6(e) of the December 2016 final rule. That section of the test procedure specifies which one-third octave bands should be selected for compliance evaluations under the 2-band compliance option. The requirement states that the two bands with the highest levels, one below 1000 Hz and the other at or above 1000 Hz, should be selected. Honda said that it is unclear which bands should be selected in the event that the two bands with the highest levels are adjacent,
NHTSA recognizes this discrepancy and agrees that some clarification is needed. The intent of the final rule was that the two one-third octave bands (one below and one at or above 1000 Hz) with the highest SPLs that are, at the same time, non-adjacent would be selected, but the text does not specify what happens if the two bands with the highest SPLs are adjacent. In that case, to maintain non-adjacency, another band having the next-largest SPL would have to be substituted for either the 800 Hz or 1000 Hz band. This substitution involves at least two permutations of band selection. In one permutation, the 800 Hz band would be selected along with the band above 1000 Hz with the second-largest SPL of the bands at or above 1000 Hz. In the other permutation, the 1000 Hz band would be selected along with the band below 800 Hz with the second-largest SPL of the bands at or below 800 Hz. Both combination of two bands selected according to these restrictions are then evaluated according to S7.1.6(e)(ii) and at least one must comply with the applicable requirements in section S5 of the Standard.
To make this clear, we are revising the regulatory text of paragraph S7.1.6(e)(i) in a manner similar to what Honda suggested.
As a consequence of Honda's request to clarify this language, the agency identified two additional places in the regulatory text—in paragraphs S7.1.5(e) and in S7.3.5(e)—where it is necessary to insert similar amended text because those two paragraphs are analogous to S7.1.6(e), that is, all three of these paragraphs address an equivalent step in the procedure, with the only difference being the test speed. In the two additional paragraphs, S7.1.5(e) and S7.3.5(e), we also note that some of the text that was of concern to Honda in S7.1.6(e) was inadvertently omitted from the final rule. Specifically, those two paragraphs should have included the sentence, “One band shall be below 1000 Hz and one band shall be at or greater than 1000 Hz.”
To clarify the text and accurately state the procedural step for selection of bands to be evaluated for compliance with the 2-band option, the agency is revising S7.1.5(e) and S7.3.5(e) using the same amended text as for S7.1.6(e), described above, except with different paragraph references within the text, as appropriate. The amended text for these two paragraphs is included at the end of this document.
In addition to the above text clarifications and corrections, in section S7.1.5(e) of the December 2016 final rule, text applying to one-third octave band selection for the 4-band compliance option, but not for the 2-band compliance option was included. The iterative process to select a combination of four bands to be used to evaluate compliance does not apply for the 2-band option. Therefore, the agency is deleting that sentence from three sections of the test procedure where it is not relevant. The amended text appears at the end of this document.
Lastly, in making the above text changes, the agency identified a few minor mistakes and inconsistencies in the wording of related requirements. In sub-paragraphs S7.1.5(d)(ii) and S7.1.5(e)(ii), the words “of this paragraph” are unnecessary because the exact paragraph reference numbers are included in the text. Furthermore, the phrase “of this paragraph” could lead to a misunderstanding as it is not entirely
Similarly, to enhance S7.4 for pass-by tests above 20 km/h up to 30 km/h and S7.5 for pass-by tests at 30 km/h, we are adding an analogous statement to clarify which S5 requirements apply at those test speeds. In addition to this edit, we are re-wording S7.4 to more clearly express the pass-by speeds that may be tested. Finally, we are re-wording and adding an additional sentence to S7.3.6 so that pass-by test speeds above zero up to 10 km/h are explicitly included and to include specific reference to the appropriate requirement tables in S5 for both the zero to 10 km/h pass-by speed range and the greater than 10 km/h up to 20 km/h pass-by speed range.
NHTSA is making these technical changes in section S7 as part of the amendments in this document to respond to Honda's request and to correct inconsistencies and minor errors in the regulatory text. All technical changes and corrections discussed above appear in the amended regulatory text at the end of this document.
Another technical question in Honda's petition was how to correctly calculate the average of the overall SPL values in section S7.1.4 of the test procedure. The answer to Honda's question is that a linear average is taken, which is the sum of the SPL values divided by four. The result is rounded to a tenth of a decibel, as specified in the test procedure. We also point out, as discussed in more detail in the following paragraph, that NHTSA intends to provide a computer program for compliance evaluation that will automatically execute all necessary calculations including averaging overall SPLs for S7.1.4(c).
As a general response to Honda's comments, we note that the agency has been developing a “NHTSA Compliance Tool” for FMVSS No. 141, which is a programmed, computer-based application to facilitate compliance testing. As discussed in the final rule preamble,
The last technical issue raised in Honda's petition was about indoor testing. Honda stated that indoor testing should be optional, and it is preferable for certification of vehicles to FMVSS No. 141. Honda also stated that indoor testing is accommodated in the European regulation, United Nations Economic Commission for Europe Regulation (UN ECE) No. 138,
In response to this, the agency points out that the preamble of the December 2016 final rule addressed indoor testing
The comment from Publicresource.org expressed concern with public availability of technical documents that were incorporated by reference into the final rule. However, their docket submission did not specify any particular reasons that they believe various parties such as consumer protection groups, small manufacturers, hobbyists, and students would not have adequate access to these reference documents. Thus, NHTSA is not able to provide a response to more adequately address any concerns they might have. Given that the subject documents from SAE, ISO, and ANSI are copyrighted material, the agency followed its normal practice in making them publicly available, which includes keeping a printed copy of each of the reference documents on hand at NHTSA headquarters. Printed copies of the referenced documents are also available at the National Archives and Records Administration. The public availability of documents incorporated by reference was discussed in Section VI of the December 14, 2016, final rule.
Pursuant to the process established under 49 CFR part 553.37, after carefully considering all aspects of the petition, except for the request regarding driver selectable sounds, NHTSA has decided to grant the petitions discussed above without further proceedings.
Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, and the Department of Transportation's regulatory policies require this agency to make determinations as to whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to OMB review and the requirements of the aforementioned Executive Orders. The Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as one that is likely to result in a rule that may:
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or
(2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order.
We have considered the potential impact of this final rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, and the Department of Transportation's regulatory policies and procedures and have determined that today's final rule is not significant for any of the aforementioned reasons. This final rule only makes minor adjustments to the existing requirements of FMVSS No. 141. We are adjusting the phase-in schedule and its reporting requirements to give manufacturers additional time to comply with the requirements of the final rule. We are also making several minor amendments to the rule to clarify the rule's requirements. We thus anticipate that the economic impacts of this final rule will be limited.
Executive Order 13771 titled “Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs,” directs that, unless prohibited by law, whenever an executive department or agency publicly proposes for notice and comment or otherwise promulgates a new regulation, it shall identify at least two existing regulations to be repealed. In addition, any new incremental costs associated with new regulations shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs. Only those rules deemed significant under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” are subject to these requirements. As discussed above, this rule is not a significant rule under Executive Order 12866 and, accordingly, is not subject to the offset requirements of 13771.
NHTSA has determined that this rulemaking is a deregulatory action under E.O. 13771, as it imposes no costs and, instead, amends FMVSS No. 141 to give manufacturers of hybrid and electric vehicles greater flexibility during the manufacturing process and when sourcing parts that comprise the alert sound system. This final rule also provides flexibility to manufacturers by allowing them to differentiate hybrid and electric vehicles of different trim levels within a vehicle model by allowing vehicles of different trim levels to produce different sounds. This final rule also amends FMVSS No. 141 to delay the date by which manufacturers are required to fully comply with the requirements of the standard by one year.
Delaying the compliance date of FMVSS No. 141 for one year will result in a cost savings to manufacturers of hybrid and electric vehicles to which the standard applies of $21M to $20.75M for MY 2019 and $21M to $20.75M75 for MY 2020 at the three and seven percent discount rates, respectively. These cost savings will accrue because manufacturers of hybrid and electric vehicles to which the standard applies will not have to comply with the phase-in requirements of the standard until September 1, 2019 and will not have to fully comply with the standard's requirements until September 1, 2020. NHTSA contends that these cost savings estimates are conservative and that the true cost savings of the rule are likely to be higher because, as discussed above, the cost benefit analysis accompanying the December 2016 final rule assumed a longer compliance lead time and did not account for costs that may have been necessary to comply with the rule in a shorter time period.
The policy statement in section 1 of Executive Order 13609 provides, in part:
The regulatory approaches taken by foreign governments may differ from those taken by U.S. regulatory agencies to address similar issues. In some cases, the differences between the regulatory approaches of U.S. agencies and those of their foreign counterparts might not be necessary and might impair the ability of American businesses to export and compete internationally. In meeting shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues, international regulatory cooperation can identify approaches that are at least as protective as those that are or would be adopted in the absence of such cooperation. International regulatory cooperation can also reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements.
In the preamble to the December 2016 final rule we discussed the reasons for the differences in the regulatory approach taken by foreign governments that have addressed this issue. As stated above, we are declining to adopt a test procedure for indoor testing included in UN ECE Reg. No. 138. NHTSA's test procedures are not requirements that manufacturers must follow when certifying vehicles to the FMVSS and manufacturers are free to choose whatever certification method they wish as long as the manufacturer can demonstrate a good faith basis for certification.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
I hereby certify that this rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This final rule does not make any significant changes to the existing FMVSS No. 141. Instead, this rule aligns the phase-in requirements with manufacturers' design and production cycles, and makes other minor adjustments to specific regulatory text to facilitate manufacturer compliance with the new FMVSS No. 141. It also clarifies some technical requirements and test procedures. The final requirements as amended in this document afford more lead time, and somewhat greater clarity and flexibility to vehicle manufacturers while maintaining the safety goals and benefits of the enabling statute, the PSEA, under which FMVSS No. 141 was created.
NHTSA has examined today's final rule pursuant to Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and concluded that no additional consultation with States, local governments or their representatives is mandated beyond the rulemaking process. The agency has concluded that the rulemaking would not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant consultation with State and local officials or the preparation of a
NHTSA rules can have preemptive effect in two ways. First, the National Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act contains an express preemption provision:
When a motor vehicle safety standard is in effect under this chapter, a State or a political subdivision of a State may prescribe or continue in effect a standard applicable to the same aspect of performance of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment only if the standard is identical to the standard prescribed under this chapter. 49 U.S.C. 30103(b)(1).
It is this statutory command by Congress that preempts any non-identical State legislative and administrative law addressing the same aspect of performance.
The express preemption provision described above is subject to a savings clause under which “[c]ompliance with a motor vehicle safety standard prescribed under this chapter does not exempt a person from liability at common law.” 49 U.S.C. 30103(e). Pursuant to this provision, State common law tort causes of action against motor vehicle manufacturers that might otherwise be preempted by the express preemption provision are generally preserved. However, the Supreme Court has recognized the possibility, in some instances, of implied preemption of State common law tort causes of action by virtue of NHTSA's rules—even if not expressly preempted.
This second way that NHTSA rules can preempt is dependent upon the existence of an actual conflict between an FMVSS and the higher standard that would effectively be imposed on motor vehicle manufacturers if someone obtained a State common law tort judgment against the manufacturer—notwithstanding the manufacturer's compliance with the NHTSA standard. Because most NHTSA standards established by an FMVSS are minimum standards, a State common law tort cause of action that seeks to impose a higher standard on motor vehicle manufacturers will generally not be preempted. However, if and when such a conflict does exist—for example, when the standard at issue is both a minimum and a maximum standard—the State common law tort cause of action is impliedly preempted.
Pursuant to Executive Order 13132, NHTSA has considered whether this rule could or should preempt State common law causes of action. The agency's ability to announce its conclusion regarding the preemptive effect of one of its rules reduces the likelihood that preemption will be an issue in any subsequent tort litigation.
To this end, the agency has examined the nature (
NHTSA solicited comments from the States and other interested parties on this assessment of issues relevant to E.O. 13132 in the NPRM. However, we did not receive any comments with regard to this issue.
When promulgating a regulation, Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that the agency must make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation, as appropriate: (1) Specifies in clear language the preemptive effect; (2) specifies in clear language the effect on existing Federal law or regulation, including all provisions repealed, circumscribed, displaced, impaired, or modified; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard, while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) specifies in clear language the retroactive effect; (5) specifies whether administrative proceedings are to be required before parties may file suit in court; (6) explicitly or implicitly defines key terms; and (7) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship of regulations.
Pursuant to this Order, NHTSA notes as follows. The preemptive effect of this final rule is discussed above in connection with Executive Order 13132. NHTSA notes further that there is no requirement that individuals submit a petition for reconsideration or pursue other administrative proceeding before they may file suit in court.
Executive Order 13045, “Protection of Children from Environmental Health and Safety Risks,” (62 FR 19885; April 23, 1997) applies to any proposed or final rule that: (1) Is determined to be “economically significant,” as defined in Executive Order 12866, and (2) concerns an environmental health or safety risk that NHTSA has reason to believe may have a disproportionate effect on children. If a rule meets both criteria, the agency must evaluate the environmental health or safety effects of the rule on children, and explain why the rule is preferable to other potentially effective and reasonably feasible alternatives considered by the agency. This final rule is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not economically significant.
Under the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (NTTAA) (Pub. L. 104-113), “all Federal agencies and departments shall use technical standards that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies, using such technical standards as a means to carry out policy objectives or activities determined by the agencies and departments.” Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
Pursuant to the above requirements, the agency conducted a review of voluntary consensus standards to determine if any were applicable to this final rule. For the specific provisions that we are adjusting in this rule, there were no applicable consensus standards.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of
NHTSA has analyzed this rulemaking action for the purposes of the National Environmental Policy Act. The agency has determined that implementation of this action would not have any significant impact on the quality of the human environment. NHTSA has also determined that the changes in this final rule would not change the findings in the Final Environmental Assessment prepared in connection with the final rule.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), a person is not required to respond to a collection of information by a Federal agency unless the collection displays a valid OMB control number. While this final rule adjusts the timing of the phase-in reporting requirements to match the manufacturer's production year (
The Department of Transportation assigns a regulation identifier number (RIN) to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. You may use the RIN contained in the heading at the beginning of this document to find this action in the Unified Agenda.
Imports, Incorporation by reference, Motor vehicle safety, Reporting and recordkeeping, Tires.
In consideration of the foregoing, NHTSA amends 49 CFR part 571 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 322, 30111, 30115, 30117, and 30166; delegation of authority at 49 CFR 1.95.
“Trim level” is defined to mean a subset of vehicles within the same model designation with the same body type and which are alike in their general level of standard equipment, such as a “base” trim level of a vehicle model. Vehicles with only minor trim differences that are unlikely to affect vehicle-emitted sound are not considered different for the purposes of this safety standard.
S5.5 * * *
S5.5.1 Any two vehicles of the same make, model, model year, body type, and trim level (as those terms are defined in 49 CFR 565.12 or in section S4 of this safety standard) to which this safety standard applies shall be designed to have the same pedestrian alert sound when operating under the same test conditions and at the same speed including any test conditions and speeds for which an alert sound is required in Section S5 of this safety standard.
S5.5.2 For the purposes of this requirement, the pedestrian alert sound of vehicles which meet the applicable requirements in S5.1 through S5.4 of this standard are deemed to be the same if the digital source of the sound, if any, is the same and if the algorithms that either generate the sound directly or process the digital source to generate the sound are the same.
S7.1 Stationary vehicle in forward gear.
S7.1.5 Select one-third octave bands to be used for evaluating compliance with detection requirements for a stationary vehicle.
(d) For alerts designed to meet the four-band requirements of S5.1 of this standard:
(ii) Compare the average corrected sound pressure level from S7.1.5(c) in each of the four one-third octave bands selected in paragraph S7.1.5(d)(i) to the required minimum level of the corresponding one-third octave band specified in paragraph S5.1.1, Table 1, to determine compliance.
(e) For alerts designed to meet the two-band requirements of S5.2 of this standard:
(i) Select the two one-third octave bands, one below 1000 Hz and one at or above 1000 Hz, having the largest A-weighted SPL values within the range of 315 Hz up to 3150 Hz and that are non-adjacent to each other to evaluate according to S7.1.5(e)(ii), below. In the event that the pair of bands with the largest SPL values are the 800 Hz and 1000 Hz bands, then select both of the following pairs to evaluate according S7.1.5(e)(ii): The 800 Hz band along with the band having the second-largest A-weighted SPL value from the 1000 Hz and above bands; and, the 1000 Hz band along with the band having the second-largest A-weighted SPL value from the 800 Hz and below bands. At least one of the band pairs selected as specified in this paragraph shall meet the minimum requirements when evaluated according to S7.1.5(e)(ii).
(ii) Compare the average corrected sound pressure level from S7.1.5(c) in each of the two one-third octave bands selected in paragraph S7.1.5(e)(i) to the required minimum level of the corresponding one-third octave band specified in paragraph S5.2, Table 6. Also, compare the band sum of the two bands to the required minimum band sum in Table 6.
S7.1.6 Select one-third octave bands to be used for evaluating compliance with directivity requirements for a stationary vehicle.
(d) For alerts designed to meet the four-band requirements of S5.1 of this standard:
(ii) Compare the average corrected sound pressure level from S7.1.6(c) in each of the four one-third octave bands selected in paragraph S7.1.6(d)(i) to the required minimum level of the corresponding one-third octave band specified in paragraph S5.1.1, Table 1, to determine compliance.
(e) For alerts designed to meet the two-band requirements of S5.2 of this standard:
(i) Select the two one-third octave bands, one below 1000 Hz and one at or above 1000 Hz, having the largest A-weighted SPL values within the range of 315 Hz up to 3150 Hz and that are non-adjacent to each other to evaluate according to S7.1.6(e)(ii), below. In the event that the pair of bands with the largest SPL values are the 800 Hz and 1000 Hz bands, then select both of the following pairs to evaluate according S7.1.6(e)(ii): The 800 Hz band along with the band having the second-largest A-weighted SPL value from the 1000 Hz and above bands; and, the 1000 Hz band along with the band having the second-largest A-weighted SPL value from the 800 Hz and below bands. At least one of the band pairs selected as specified in this paragraph shall meet the minimum requirements when evaluated according to S7.1.6(e)(ii), below.
(ii) Compare the average corrected sound pressure level from S7.1.6(c) in each of the two one-third octave bands selected in paragraph S7.1.6(e)(i) to the required minimum level of the corresponding one-third octave band specified in paragraph S5.2, Table 6. Also, compare the band sum of the two bands to the required minimum band sum in Table 6.
S7.2
S7.3.5 Select one-third octave bands to be used for evaluating compliance with the constant speed pass-by requirements.
(d) For alerts designed to meet the four-band requirements of S5.1 of this standard:
(e) For alerts designed to meet the two-band requirements of S5.2 of this standard:
(i) Select the two one-third octave bands, one below 1000 Hz and one at or above 1000 Hz, having the largest A-weighted SPL values within the range of 315 Hz up to 3150 Hz and that are non-adjacent to each other to evaluate according to S7.3.5(e)(ii), below. In the event that the pair of bands with the largest SPL values are the 800 Hz and 1000 Hz bands, then select both of the following pairs to evaluate according S7.3.5(e)(ii): The 800 Hz band along with the band having the second-largest A-weighted SPL value from the 1000 Hz and above bands; and, the 1000 Hz band along with the band having the second-largest A-weighted SPL value from the 800 Hz and below bands. At least one of the band pairs selected as specified in this paragraph shall meet the minimum requirements when evaluated according to S7.3.5(e)(ii), below.
(ii) Compare the average corrected sound pressure level from S7.3.5(c) in each of the two one-third octave bands selected in paragraph S7.3.5(e)(i) to the required minimum level of the corresponding one-third octave band specified in paragraph S5.2, Table 6. Also, compare the band sum of the two bands to the required minimum band sum in Table 6.
S7.3.6 The procedures in S7.3.1 through S7.3.5 may be repeated for any pass-by test speed greater than 0 km/h and less than 20 km/h. For test speeds greater than 0 km/h and less than 10 km/h, the minimum sound level requirements are contained in S5.1.1, Table 1, for four-band compliance and in S5.2, Table 6, for two-band compliance. For test speeds greater than or equal to 10 km/h and less than 20 km/h, the minimum sound level requirements are contained in S5.1.3, Table 3, for 4-band compliance and in S5.2, Table 6, for 2-band compliance.
S7.4
S7.5
S8
(a) Disable, alter, replace, or modify any element of a vehicle installed as original equipment for purposes of complying with this Standard, except in connection with a repair of a vehicle malfunction or to remedy a defect or non-compliance; or
(b) Provide any person with any mechanism, equipment, process, or device intended to disable, alter, replace, or modify the sound emitting capability of a vehicle subject to this standard, except in connection with a repair of vehicle malfunction or to remedy a defect or non-compliance.
S9
S9.1
(a) A manufacturer's average annual production of hybrid and electric vehicles on and after September 1, 2016, and before September 1, 2019;
(b) A manufacturer's total production of hybrid and electric vehicles on and after September 1, 2019, and before September 1, 2020.
S9.2
49 U.S.C. 322, 30111, 30115, 30117, and 30166; delegation of authority at 49 CFR 1.95
This subpart applies to manufacturers of hybrid and electric passenger cars, trucks, buses, multipurpose passenger vehicles, and low-speed vehicles subject to the phase-in requirements of § 571.141, S9.1
At any time during the production year ending August 31, 2019, each manufacturer shall, upon request from the Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, provide information identifying the
(a) Phase-in reporting requirements. Within 60 days after the end of the production year ending August 31, 2019, each manufacturer shall submit a report to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration concerning its compliance with the requirements of Standard No. 141 Minimum Sound Requirements for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles (49 CFR 571.141) for its vehicles produced in that year. Each report shall provide the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section and in § 585.2 of this part.
Each manufacturer shall maintain records of the Vehicle Identification Number for each vehicle for which information is reported under § 585.133 until December 31, 2024.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports that additional areas of Boeing Material Specification (BMS) 8-39 flexible urethane foam were found during a routine inspection. This proposed AD would require an inspection for foam insulation on the dripshield above the overhead panel support structure and replacement if necessary. For certain airplanes, this proposed AD would also require replacement of foam insulation on the overhead panel support structure. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by April 12, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; internet
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Scott Craig, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Section, FAA, Seattle ACO Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone and fax: 206-231-3566; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received reports indicating additional areas of BMS 8-39 flexible urethane foam were found during the accomplishment of AD 2013-11-04, Amendment 39-17464 (78 FR 33193, June 4, 2013) (“AD 2013-11-04”). AD 2013-11-04 was prompted by operator or in-service reports of burned BMS 8-39 urethane foam, and a report from the airplane manufacturer indicating that airplanes were assembled, throughout various areas of the airplane (including flight deck and cargo compartments), with seals made of BMS 8-39 urethane foam, a material with fire-retardant properties that deteriorate with age. AD 2013-11-04 requires replacing certain seals made of BMS 8-39 urethane foam.
BMS 8-39 urethane foam fire retardants are mixed into, but are not chemically connected with, the remaining components of the foam. Over time, this condition will cause the fire retardant properties to have decreased effectiveness. The concern is hidden areas where fire cannot easily be detected and suppressed. Aged BMS 8-39 foam exposed to an ignition source provides a potential fuel source for fire propagation. The degradation of the foam increases the potential for an uncontrolled fire below the passenger compartment floor and other locations outside the areas covered by smoke detection and fire protection systems. This condition, if not corrected, could result in loss of control of the airplane during a fire.
We reviewed Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-25-0621, Revision 1, dated August 4, 2017. This service information describes procedures for a general visual inspection for foam insulation on the dripshield above the overhead panel support structure and replacement if necessary. This service information also describes procedures for replacement of foam insulation on the overhead panel support structure. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-25-0621, Revision 1, dated August 4, 2017, as described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 132 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by April 12, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-25-0621, Revision 1, dated August 4, 2017.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 25, Equipment/furnishings.
This AD was prompted by reports that additional areas of Boeing Material Specification (BMS) 8-39 flexible urethane foam were found during a routine inspection pursuant to a previously issued AD. The degradation of the foam over time increases the potential for an uncontrolled fire below the passenger compartment floor and other locations outside the areas covered by smoke detection and fire protection systems. We are issuing this AD to address BMS 8-39 flexible urethane foam found in certain areas of an airplane, which, if exposed to an ignition source, could cause loss of control of the airplane during a fire.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-25-0621, Revision 1, dated August 4, 2017, do all applicable actions identified as “RC” (required for compliance) in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-25-0621, Revision 1, dated August 4, 2017.
For purposes of determining compliance with the requirements of this AD: Where Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-25-0621, Revision 1, dated August 4, 2017, uses the phrase “the original issue date
This paragraph provides credit for the corresponding actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-25-0621, dated December 10, 2014.
(1) The Manager, Seattle ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO Branch, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Scott Craig, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Section, FAA, Seattle ACO Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone and fax: 206-231-3566; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2016-12-09, for certain Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes; and Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes. AD 2016-12-09 requires removing fasteners, doing a rototest inspection of fastener holes, installing new fasteners, oversizing the holes and doing rototest inspections for cracks if necessary, and repairing any cracking that was found. Since we issued AD 2016-12-09, an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicates that certain fastener holes are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This proposed AD would add airplanes to the effectivity, add repetitive inspections of the fastener holes at frame (FR) 40, and, for certain airplanes, require a modification, which terminates the inspections. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by April 12, 2018.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone: +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax: +33 5 61 93 45 80; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone and fax: 206-231-3229.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as WFD. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
We issued AD 2016-12-09, Amendment 39-18558 (81 FR 38573, June 14, 2016) (“AD 2016-12-09”), for certain Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes, and Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes. AD 2016-12-09 was prompted by reports that cracks were found on an adjacent hole of certain frames of the center wing box (CWB). AD 2016-12-09 requires removing fasteners, doing a rototest inspection of fastener holes, installing new fasteners, oversizing the holes and doing rototest inspections for cracks if necessary, and repairing any cracking that was found. We issued AD 2016-12-09 to detect and correct cracking on certain holes of the CWB, which could affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Since we issued AD 2016-12-09, an evaluation by the DAH indicates that the fastener holes at FR40 of the inside and outside CWB (above and below bottom skin) are subject to WFD.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2017-0069, dated April 25, 2017 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A330-200, -200 Freighter, and -300 series airplanes, and Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
During accomplishment of A330 Airworthiness Limitation Item (ALI) task 57-11-04 on the rear fitting of the Frame (FR) 40 between stringers (STR) 38 and STR39 on both LH [left-hand] and RH [right-hand] sides of the fuselage, cracks were found on an adjacent hole. After reaming at second oversize of the subject hole, the crack was still present. As a result of a sampling inspection program, additional crack findings were reported on this adjacent hole on other A330 and A340 aeroplanes.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the centre fuselage of the aeroplane.
Prompted by these findings, EASA issued AD 2014-0149 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2016-12-09] to require removal of the fasteners and repetitive Special Detailed Inspection (SDI) of fastener holes at FR40 vertical web above or below Centre Wing Box (CWB) lower panel reference on both LH and RH sides of the fuselage, and, depending on findings, accomplishment of the applicable corrective actions. That [EASA] AD excluded certain aeroplanes from the Applicability, on which Airbus modification (mod) 55792 or mod 55306 had been embodied in production.
Since EASA AD 2014-0149 was issued, prompted by complementary fatigue analyses correlated with in-service findings, Airbus published Service Bulletin (SB) A330-57-3115 Revision 01 and SB A340-57-4124 Revision 02, which introduced revised thresholds and intervals for the repetitive inspections of the inside CWB (above bottom skin), and an alleviation of the number of holes to be inspected, for post-mod 44360 and pre-mod 55306 configuration aeroplanes.
In addition, for aeroplanes in post-mod 44360, post-mod 55306 and pre-mod 205225 configuration, Airbus developed mod 206051, introducing reinforcement of the structural integrity of the inside CWB (above bottom skin) area, and published associated Airbus SB A330-57-3129 and SB A340-57-4136, as applicable, which avoids the need for required repetitive inspections for the inside of the CWB.
Finally, Airbus published SB A330-57-3116 Revision 01 and SB A330-57-4125 Revision 01, as applicable, to expand their Effectivity to include aeroplanes in post-mod 44360 and post-mod 49202 configuration for inspections of the outside CWB (below bottom skin), and introduced revised thresholds and intervals for the repetitive inspections of the outside CWB, and to provide an alleviation of the number of holes to be inspected. The repetitive inspection program for aeroplanes in pre-mod 44360 configuration remains unchanged.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD partially retains the requirements of EASA AD 2014-0149, which is superseded, and requires new repetitive inspections of the fastener holes at FR40 of the inside and the outside CWB (above and below bottom skin), and the implementation of the modification of the inside CWB, as terminating action of the repetitive SDI.
Required actions also include oversizing certain holes, installing new fasteners, and repairing any cracking that is found.
The compliance times for the inspections range depending on airplane operation and utilization. The earliest initial flight-cycle compliance time is 13,500 flight cycles. The earliest initial flight-hour compliance time is 57,000 flight hours. The latest initial flight-cycle compliance time is 30,900 flight cycles. The latest initial flight-hour compliance time is 162,000 flight hours. The earliest repetitive flight-cycle compliance time is 5,950 flight cycles. The earliest repetitive flight-hour compliance time is 24,300 flight hours. The latest repetitive flight-cycle compliance time is 7,400 flight cycles. The latest repetitive flight-hour compliance time is 40,400 flight hours. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the internet at
Airbus has issued the following service information. This service information describes procedures for removing the fasteners and doing a repetitive rototest inspection of fastener holes at FR40 vertical web on both sides, checking for the existence of a repair done as specified by a repair design approval sheet (RDAS), installing new fasteners in transition fit, oversizing the holes, and repairing any crack found. This service information is distinct because it applies to different airplane models and configurations.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3114, Revision 01, dated January 13, 2017.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3115, Revision 01, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3116, Revision 01, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4123, Revision 01, dated January 13, 2017.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4124, Revision 02, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4125, Revision 01, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016.
Airbus has also issued the following service information. This service information describes procedures for modification of certain fastener holes. The modification includes a rotating probe inspection for cracking, related investigative actions (checks of the hole diameter), and corrective actions (repair). This service information is distinct because it applies to different airplane models and configurations.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3129, dated October 5, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3130, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3131, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3132, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4136, dated October 5, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4137, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4138, dated November 23, 2016.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4139, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
The compliance time for the replacement specified in this proposed AD for addressing WFD was established to ensure that discrepant structure is replaced before WFD develops in airplanes. Standard inspection techniques cannot be relied on to detect WFD before it becomes a hazard to flight. We will not grant any extensions of the compliance time to complete any AD-mandated service bulletin related to WFD without extensive new data that would substantiate and clearly warrant such an extension.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 99 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition repairs specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by April 12, 2018.
This AD replaces AD 2016-12-09, Amendment 39-18558 (81 FR 38573, June 14, 2016) (“AD 2016-12-09”).
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this AD, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers, except those on which Airbus Repair Instructions R57115092 have been embodied in service on both right-hand (RH) and left-hand (LH) sides.
(1) Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, and -243 airplanes.
(2) Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes.
(3) Model A330-301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes.
(4) Model A340-211, -212, and -213 airplanes.
(5) Model A340-311, -312, and -313 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by reports that cracks were found on an adjacent hole of certain frames of the center wing box (CWB). We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of certain holes of certain frames of the CWB, which could affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) For the actions required by paragraphs (h), (i), and (j) of this AD, use the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (g)(1)(vi) of this AD.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3114, Revision 01, dated January 13, 2017 (CWB inspection area: Below) (for Model A330-300 series airplanes in pre-modification 44360 configuration).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3115, Revision 01, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016 (CWB inspection area: Above) (for Model A330-200 and -300 series airplanes in pre-modification 55306 and pre-modification 55792 configuration).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3116, Revision 01, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016 (CWB inspection area: Below) (for Model A330-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360 configuration).
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4123, Revision 01, dated January 13, 2017 (CWB inspection area: Below) (for Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes in pre-modification 44360 configuration).
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4124, Revision 02, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016 (CWB inspection area: Above) (for Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes in pre-modification 55306 and pre-modification 55792 configuration).
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4125, Revision 01, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016 (CWB inspection area: Below) (for Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360 configuration).
(2) For the modification required by paragraph (o)(1) of this AD, use the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (g)(2)(i) through (g)(2)(vi) of this AD.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3130, dated November 23, 2016 (for Model A330-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360, post-Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3131, and pre-modification 49202 configuration).
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3131, dated November 23, 2016 (for Model A330-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360 and pre-modification 55306 configuration).
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3132, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016 (for Model A330-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360 configuration).
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4137, dated November 23, 2016 (for Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360, post-Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4138, and pre-modification 49202 configuration).
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4138, dated November 23, 2016 (for Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360 and pre-modification 55306 configuration).
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4139, including Appendices 01 and 02, dated November 23, 2016 (for Model A340-200 and -300 series airplanes in post-modification 44360 configuration).
Except as specified in paragraphs (l)(2), (l)(3), (p) of this AD: Before exceeding the applicable threshold specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance” of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, or within the compliance time specified in table 1 to paragraph (h) of this AD, whichever occurs later; remove the fasteners and accomplish a special detailed inspection (SDI) of the fastener holes at frame (FR) 40 vertical web, on both LH and RH sides, of the affected CWB lower panel area, and, as applicable, check for the existence of a repair done as specified by a repair design approval sheet (RDAS), in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the
If no crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD: Before further flight, install new fasteners in the transition fit, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD: Before further flight, oversize the holes to the first oversize in comparison with the current hole diameter, and do an SDI for cracks, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
(1) If no cracking is found during the SDI required by the introductory text of paragraph (j) of this AD: Before further flight, install new fasteners in the transition fit, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
(2) If any cracking is found during the SDI required by the introductory text of paragraph (j) of this AD: Before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA. If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
Although the applicable service information specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD does not include that requirement.
(1) Where the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (g) and (m) of this AD specifies contacting Airbus for appropriate action: Before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA. If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
(2) Where paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD specifies a compliance time in terms of a “Threshold” and “Grace Period,” this AD requires compliance at the later of the applicable threshold and grace period.
(3) When it is determined that no RDAS is found to exist for the FR40 area it is acceptable to accomplish the first SDI before exceeding the applicable threshold, instead of “before next flight”, as specified in the applicable service information specified in paragraph (g)(1)(ii), (g)(1)(iii), (g)(1)(v) and (g)(1)(vi) of this AD.
For airplanes in post-modification 55306 and pre-modification 205225 configuration: Before exceeding the applicable compliance time specified in table 2 to paragraph (m) of this AD, as applicable, or within 18 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later; modify the inside CWB (above bottom skin), including doing a rotating probe inspection for cracking and all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3129, dated October 5, 2016; or Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4136, dated October 5, 2016; as applicable; except as required by paragraph (l)(1) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight.
(1) Accomplishment on an airplane of the initial and repetitive inspections required by paragraph (h) of this AD terminates the requirements of ALI task 57-11-02 and task 57-11-04 of the applicable Airbus Airworthiness Limitation Section (ALS) Part 2, Damage Tolerant (DT) ALI, for that airplane.
(2) Modification of an airplane as required by paragraph (m) of this AD terminates the requirements of ALI task 57-11-02 of the applicable Airbus ALS Part 2, DT ALI, for that airplane.
(1) Modification of a post-modification 44360 airplane by multiple cold working, including doing a rotating probe inspection for cracking and all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable Airbus service information specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (l)(1) of this AD, constitutes terminating action for the repetitive SDI required by paragraph (h) of this AD for that airplane, provided the modification is accomplished within the applicable compliance times specified in the applicable Airbus service information specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
(2) If, during any inspection of a post-modification 44360 airplane, as required by paragraph (h) of this AD, a crack previously repaired by an Airbus RDAS is detected only on the LH or RH side, it is permitted to do the modification specified in paragraph (o)(1) of this AD on the non-repaired side. Doing the modification constitutes terminating action for the repetitive SDI required by paragraph (h) of this AD on the modified side only.
For post-modification 44360 airplanes and pre-modification 55306 airplanes that have been inspected before the effective date of this AD as required by AD 2016-12-09: It is permitted to defer the next due inspection to 18 months after the effective date of this AD, provided the previous inspection interval, as applicable, depending on airplane configuration and utilization, as specified in the service information used in the previous inspection is not exceeded.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (h) through (j) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (q)(1)(i) through (q)(1)(vi) of this AD. This service information was incorporated by reference in AD 2016-09-11, Amendment 39-18509 (81 FR 27986, May 9, 2016).
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3114, dated March 12, 2013.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3115, April 4, 2013.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-57-3116, dated March 12, 2013.
(iv) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4123, dated March 12, 2013.
(v) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4124, Revision 01, dated August 22, 2013.
(vi) Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4125, dated March 12, 2013.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (h) through (j) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A340-57-4124, dated April 4, 2013. This service information is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(3) This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (h) through (j) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (q)(3)(i) through (q)(3)(viii) of this AD. This service information is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(i) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11023270, Issue B, dated July 12, 2011.
(ii) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11029170, Issue C, dated September 6, 2011.
(iii) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11029171, Issue B, dated September 6, 2011.
(iv) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11029172, Issue B, dated September 6, 2011.
(v) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11029173, Issue B, dated September 6, 2011.
(vi) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11023714, Issue B, dated July 12, 2011.
(vii) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11030740, Issue C, dated September 22, 2011.
(viii) Airbus Technical Disposition LR57D11030741, Issue B, dated September 22, 2011.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2017-0069, dated April 25, 2017, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact, Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone and fax: 206-231-3229.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone: +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax: +33 5 61 93 45 80; email:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to remove Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface at Crows Landing Airport, Crows Landing, CA. This airspace is wholly contained within the Sacramento en route airspace area and duplication is not necessary.
Comments must be received on or before April 12, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: (800) 647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-1088; Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-25, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW, Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it clarifies airspace designations by eliminating the redundancy.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (Docket No. FAA-2017-1088; Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-25) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2017-1088, Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-25”. The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
On June 20, 2017, the FAA published a final rule in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by removing Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface at Crows Landing Airport, Crows Landing, CA. The existing airspace area designated for Crows Landing airport is wholly contained within the Sacramento en route airspace area, and duplication is not necessary.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017 and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class D airspace, Class E surface airspace, Class E airspace designated as an extension (by removing NOTAM part-time status), and Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Keesler Air Force Base (AFB), Biloxi, MS, and Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport, (formerly Gulfport-Biloxi Regional Airport), Gulfport, MS. The geographic coordinates for these airports and the Keesler TACAN navigation aid would be adjusted in the associated Class D and E airspace to match the FAA's aeronautical database. Also, an editorial change would be made to the Class E extension airspace legal descriptions replacing “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement” for these airports. This action would enhance the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at these airports.
Comments must be received on or before April 12, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg. Ground Floor, Rm. W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone (800) 647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify the Docket No. FAA-2017-0865; Airspace Docket No. 17-ASO-19, at the beginning of your comments. You
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1700 Columbia Ave, College Park, Georgia 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D and Class E airspace at Keesler AFB, Biloxi, MS, and Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport, Gulfport, MS, to support IFR operations at these airports.
Interested persons are invited to comment on this rule by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. You may also submit comments through the internet at
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2017-0865; Airspace Docket No. 17-ASO-19.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is considering an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by amending Class D airspace and Class E airspace designated as an extension, at Keesler AFB, Biloxi, MS, and Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport (formerly Gulfport-Biloxi Regional Airport, Gulfport, MS), by removing the part-time Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) status of each airport.
This proposal also would amend the geographic coordinates of these airports and the Keesler TACAN navigation aid to be in concert with the FAA's aeronautical database.
This action also notes the airport name change of Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport from Gulfport-Biloxi Regional Airport.
Finally, this action would replace the term “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term `Chart Supplement” in the legal descriptions for Keesler AFB, and Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport, in Class D and Class E surface airspace.
Class D and E airspace designations are published in Paragraphs 5000, 6002, 6004 and 6005, respectively of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL within a 4.2-mile radius of Keesler AFB, excluding the portion west of long. 89°00′00″ W. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL within a 4.5-mile radius of Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport; excluding that portion of airspace within the Biloxi, MS, Class D airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
Within a 4.2-mile radius of Keesler AFB, excluding the portion west of long. 89°00′00″ W. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 1.4 miles each side of the Keesler TACAN 204° radial, extending from the 4.2-mile radius of Keesler AFB to 6 miles southwest of the TACAN.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 3.3 miles each side of Gulfport VORTAC 130° and 322° radials, extending from the 4.5-mile radius of Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport to 7 miles southeast and northwest of the VORTAC; excluding that portion within the Biloxi, MS, Class D and E airspace areas.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Gulfport-Biloxi International Airport and within a 6.5-mile radius of Keesler AFB and within 2 miles each side of Keesler TACAN 204° radial, extending from the 6.5-mile radius to 10.6 miles southwest of the TACAN.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class D airspace, Class E surface airspace, and Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D surface area, by updating the name to Erie International Airport/Tom Ridge Field, Erie, PA. This action also proposes to amend Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface in Erie, PA, by updating the name to St. Vincent Health Center Heliport. This action also would update the geographic coordinates of the airport and heliport, and would replace the outdated term “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement” in the legal descriptions of associated Class D and E airspace to match the FAA's aeronautical database.
Comments must be received on or before April 12, 2018.
Send comments on this proposal to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone (800) 647-5527 or (202) 366-9826. You must identify the Docket No. FAA-2017-1195; Airspace Docket No. 17-AEA-24, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, Atlanta, Georgia 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class D and Class E airspace at Erie International Airport/Tom Ridge Field and St Vincent Health Center Heliport, Erie, PA, to support IFR operations at the airport.
Interested persons are invited to comment on this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (Docket No. FAA-2017-1195 and Airspace Docket No. 17-AEA-24) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-1195; Airspace Docket No. 17-AEA-24.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this document may be changed in light of the comments received. All comments submitted will be available for examination in the public docket both before and after the comment closing date. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is considering an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to amend Class D airspace, Class E surface airspace, and Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D surface area, by updating the airport name to Erie International Airport/Tom Ridge Field (formerly Erie International Airport). The geographic coordinates also would be amended to be in concert with the FAA's aeronautical database. Additionally, this action would make an editorial change to the airspace legal description replacing “Airport/Facility Directory” with “Chart Supplement”.
This action also would amend Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface by updating the heliport name to St. Vincent Health Center Heliport (formerly Life Star Base Heliport), Erie, PA. These changes would enhance the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport and heliport. In addition, this action would remove extension information from the Class E surface airspace description of the airport, as it duplicates the Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D surface area description, which is now continuous.
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraphs 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,200 feet MSL within a 4.2-mile radius of Erie International Airport/Tom Ridge Field. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific days and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective days and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 4.2-mile radius of Erie International Airport/Tom Ridge Field. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific days and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective days and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface extending northeast of the Erie International Airport/Tom Ridge Field 4.2-mile radius from within 4 miles northwest of the Erie VORTAC 054° radial to 3.5 miles southeast of the Erie ILS localizer northeast course then extending southwest from a point located along the Erie localizer northeast course 9.2 miles NE of lat. 42°07′30″ N, long. 80°05′36″ W, to the 4.2-mile radius of the airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.7-mile radius of Erie International Airport/Tom Ridge Field, and within 4.4 miles each side of the 054° bearing from the airport extending from the 6.7-mile radius to 14 miles northeast of the airport and within a 6-mile radius of St. Vincent Health Center Heliport.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
As permissible under section 26(b) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA or the Act), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA or the Agency) is proposing to set user fees applicable to any person required to submit information to EPA under the TSCA section 4 or a notice, including an exemption or other information, to be reviewed by the Administrator under TSCA section 5, or who manufactures (including imports) a chemical substance that is the subject of a risk evaluation under TSCA section 6(b). This notice of proposed rulemaking provides a description of proposed TSCA fees and fee categories for fiscal years 2019, 2020, and 2021, and explains the methodology by which the proposed TSCA user fees were determined and would be determined for subsequent fiscal years. In proposing these new TSCA user fees, the Agency also proposes amending long standing user fee regulations governing the review of premanufacture notices, exemption applications and notices, and significant new use notices. After implementation of final TSCA user fees regulations, certain manufacturers and processors would be required to pay a prescribed fee for each notice, exemption application and data set submitted or chemical substance subject to a risk evaluation in order for EPA to recover certain costs associated with carrying out certain work under TSCA. With this action, EPA is also proposing standards for determining which persons qualify as small business concerns and thus would be subject to lower fee payments.
Comments must be received on or before April 27, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2016-0401, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
You may be affected by this action if you manufacture (including import), distribute in commerce, or process a chemical substance (or any combination of such activities) and are required to submit information to EPA under TSCA sections 4 or 5 or if you manufacture a chemical substance that is the subject of a risk evaluation under TSCA section 6(b). The following list of North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include companies found in major NAICS groups:
• Chemical Manufacturers (NAICS code 325),
• Petroleum and Coal Products (NAICS code 324), and
• Chemical, Petroleum and Merchant Wholesalers (NAICS code 424).
The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA), 15 U.S.C. 2601
Pursuant to TSCA section 26(b), EPA is proposing to establish and collect fees from certain manufacturers (including importers) and processors to defray some of the Agency costs related to activities under TSCA sections 4, 5, 6 and 14. EPA is requesting comment on its proposed user fees and the methodology used for determining the amounts. EPA is also proposing and taking comment on standards for determining which persons qualify as small business concerns and thus would be subject to lower fee payments. Paragraph 4 of TSCA section 26(b) requires that EPA, in setting fees, establish lower fees for small businesses.
The 2016 amendments to TSCA authorize EPA to establish fees to defray some of the costs of administering certain provisions of the law. The TSCA Service Fee Fund (the Fund) in the U.S. Treasury will hold funds to defray some of the costs of administering TSCA sections 4, 5, and 6 and of “collecting, processing, reviewing, and providing access to and protecting from disclosure as appropriate” information on chemical substances under TSCA section 14. The Agency proposes to collect payment from manufacturers and processors, as appropriate, who: Are required to submit information under TSCA section 4; submit a notice, exemption application, or other information under TSCA section 5; and who manufacture a chemical substance that is the subject of a risk evaluation under TSCA section 6(b). These fees are intended to achieve the goals articulated by Congress to provide a sustainable source of funds for EPA to fulfill its legal obligations to conduct activities such as risk-based screenings, designation of applicable substances as High- and Low-Priority, conducting risk evaluations to determine whether a chemical substance presents an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment, requiring testing of chemical substances and mixtures, and evaluating and reviewing manufacturing and processing notices, as required under TSCA sections 4, 5 and 6, as well as management of chemical information under TSCA section 14.
EPA has evaluated the potential incremental economic impacts of this action. The Agency analyzed a three-year period, since the statute requires EPA to reevaluate and adjust, as necessary, the fees every three years. The Economic Analysis (Ref. 2), which is available in the docket, is briefly summarized here and discussed in more detail in Unit IV.
The annualized fees collected from industry for the proposed option (identified as Option C in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 2)), are approximately $20.05 million. This total does not include the fees collected for manufacturer-requested risk evaluations. Total fee collections were calculated by multiplying the estimated number of actions per fee category anticipated each year, by the corresponding proposed fee. For the proposed option, TSCA section 4 fees account for less than one percent of the total fee collection, TSCA section 5 fees for approximately 43 percent, and TSCA section 6 fees for approximately 56 percent. Annual fees collected by EPA are expected to total approximately $20.05 million.
Under the proposed option, the total fees collected from industry for a risk evaluation requested by manufactures are estimated to be $1.3 million for chemicals included in the Work Plan and $2.6 million for chemicals not included in the Work Plan.
EPA estimates that 18.5 percent of TSCA section 5 submissions will be from small businesses that are eligible to pay discounted fees because they have average annual sales of less than $91 million in the three preceding years. Total annualized fees for TSCA section 5 collected from small businesses are estimated to be $550,000 (Ref. 2).
For TSCA sections 4 and 6, discounted fees for eligible small businesses and fees for all other affected firms may differ over the three-year period that was analyzed, since the fee paid by each firm is dependent on the number of affected firms per action. Based on past TSCA section 4 actions and data related to the first ten chemicals identified for risk evaluations under TSCA as amended, EPA estimates annualized fees collected from small businesses for TSCA section 4 and TSCA section 6 to be approximately $37,000 and $2.6 million, respectively.
EPA estimates that total fees paid by small businesses will account for about 16 percent of the approximately $20.05 million fees to be collected for TSCA sections 4, 5, and 6 actions. The annualized total industry fee collection for small businesses is estimated to be approximately $3.2 million.
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In 1976, TSCA section 26(b) provided EPA with authority to require, by rule, the payment of fees by persons required to submit data under TSCA sections 4 and 5. TSCA section 26(b) capped the maximum fees for small business at $100 and fees for all other entities at $2,500. It was not until the Agency published a final a rule in 1988 that EPA began requiring and collecting fees from manufacturers and processors to pay for premanufacture notices (PMNs), and other submissions under TSCA section 5. Although authorized under the statute, the Agency has not historically collected fees for data submitted under TSCA section 4 and no TSCA section 4 fees rule was ever promulgated by EPA.
Since 1988, with regard to submissions by small business concerns, the Agency has collected $100 for each TSCA section 5 PMN, consolidated PMN, significant new use notice (SNUN), and certain exemption applications and notices. For submissions by all other manufacturers or processors, EPA has collected $2,500 for each TSCA section 5 PMN, and consolidated PMN notices other than intermediate PMNs, SNUNs and certain exemption applications and notices and $1,000 for intermediate PMNs. These fees were set prior to the June 2016 amendments to TSCA and do not reflect the current cost of administering the TSCA sections associated with these submissions. In the past several fiscal years, EPA has consistently generated approximately $1.1 million annually in fee revenue. The fees go to the General Fund of the U.S. Treasury and do not defray EPA's costs. With the finalization of the TSCA User Fees rule, EPA's annually appropriated funds will be supplemented with the user fees to cover some of the costs of administering TSCA, including the costs incurred by the Agency in addressing additional requirements imposed by the June 2016 amendments.
On June 22, 2016, the “Frank R. Lautenberg Chemical Safety for the 21st Century Act” was signed into law, amending numerous sections of TSCA. The amendments give EPA improved authority to take actions to protect people and the environment from the effects of chemicals. The amendments also expand EPA's existing TSCA fee authority and allow the Agency to establish and collect fees sufficient to defray some of the costs of administering certain TSCA requirements.
The amendments remove the $100 cap on fees collected from small businesses and the $2,500 cap on fees from other manufacturers and processors. Instead, the amendments require that, if fees are established for work under TSCA sections 4, 5 and/or 6, the Agency set lower fees for small business concerns and establish the fees so that they are designed to collect 25% of the Agency's costs to carry out work under section 4, 5, 6 and 14 of the Act or $25,000,000, whichever is lower. In addition, in the case of a manufacturer-requested risk evaluation, the Agency is authorized to establish fees sufficient to defray 50% of the costs associated with conducting a manufacturer-requested risk evaluation on a chemical included in the
Currently, fees are only collected for certain submissions under section 5 of TSCA. These fees are established in 40 CFR 700.45. Under the Lautenberg Act's amendments to TSCA, EPA has authority to require payment from manufacturers and processors who:
• Are required to submit information by test rule, test order or enforceable consent agreement (TSCA section 4);
• Submit notification of or information related to intent to manufacture a new chemical or significant new use of a chemical (TSCA section 5);
• Manufacture or process a chemical substance that is subject to a risk evaluation, including a risk evaluation conducted at the request of a manufacturer (TSCA section 6(b)).
Beginning in fiscal year 2019 (October 1, 2018 through September 30, 2019), EPA is required to adjust fees, as necessary, every three years to reflect inflation and ensure that fees are sufficient to collect 25% of the costs to the Agency in administering sections 4, 5, 6 and 14 of the Act. Before establishing new fees or revising any existing fees, the Agency is required to consult with manufacturers and processors, or their representatives.
Additional information on the new law is available on EPA's website at
Prior to this notice of proposed rulemaking, EPA engaged with members of the public (or their representatives) potentially subject to the fees. The Agency held a public meeting and webinar on August 11, 2016, and an industry-specific consultation meeting and webinar on September 13, 2016, in accordance with TSCA section 26(b)(4)(E). The Agency sought comments from industry on various aspects of the proposed rulemaking, including the amendment of existing TSCA section 5 fees, the establishment of new fees for TSCA sections 4 and 6 activities, and small business considerations. As part of EPA's efforts to consult with industry on the proposed fees and the methodology for establishing the fees, the Agency also opened a docket and collected written comments from stakeholders. To view the comments received prior to this notice of proposed rulemaking, go to
The commenters included representatives from industry, trade associations, and an environmental group and provided a diversity of perspectives. Overall, there was a general expression of support for the new law, for ensuring that the Agency has the funding necessary to implement the requirements of the recent amendments to TSCA, and for EPA's inclusive approach for gathering industry input into the setting of fees. Most of the commenters expressed support for a fair, simple, and efficient fee structure. The majority of commenters also expressed support for industry consortia-based management of fee collection for TSCA sections 4 and 6 activities.
EPA sought input from industry on the relative apportionment of fees that should be assessed for administering TSCA sections 4, 5, and 6 activities and on the factors that the Agency should consider when structuring the fees. All industry commenters recommended that fees be assessed based on the level of effort required of EPA for undertaking
The Agency also sought comment from industry on lower fees for small businesses. Many trade associations reaffirmed the need for lower fees for small businesses. All commenters that mentioned small businesses recommended that the TSCA definition of a small business be updated, though there was diverse opinion on how; recommendations included an inflation-adjusted, revenue-based standard and an employee-based definition.
EPA considered all of these comments in the development of the proposed rule. EPA welcomes comment from stakeholders on all aspects of the Agency's proposed fee structure during the public comment period opened with this document.
EPA also looked to federal user fee guidance in designing the proposed TSCA user fees. Office of Management and Budget Circular A-25 on User Charges (Ref. 3) and the GAO User Fees Design Guide (Ref. 4) contain information that is relevant to the administrative processes of setting, revising, collecting, and administration of fees. As EPA discusses its rationale for setting the TSCA fees in the remainder of this preamble, the Agency will rely on the policies and principles identified in these two federal guidance documents. Circular A-25 explains, for executive agencies, the scope and type of activities subject to user fee charges and the basis on which user fees should be set. EPA followed the Circular A-25 guidance in identifying the relevant direct and indirect costs to be recovered by user fees including, but not limited to, an appropriate share of personnel costs, including salaries and fringe benefits; management and supervisory costs; costs of research, establishment of standards and regulations; physical overhead; and other indirect costs including supply costs and travel.
The Agency plans to periodically review the user fees to provide assurance that existing charges are adjusted to reflect unanticipated changes in costs, and plans to readjust, as necessary, the fees to account for these changes, as well as inflation. TSCA 26(b)(4)(F) sets the readjustment schedule at three year intervals. As required in TSCA section 26 and discussed in the GAO Guide, parties potentially subject to fees or their representatives will be consulted and asked to provide input when the fees are reviewed and updated to reflect changes in program costs.
The Agency is proposing a process by which TSCA user fees would be established for fiscal year 2019 through 2022 and then adjusted for inflation every three years, beginning in fiscal year 2022, based on applicable Producer Price Index (PPI) values available from the U.S. Department of Labor. Fees for fiscal year 2022 and later would be calculated by multiplying each fee identified for fiscal years 2019 through 2021 by the most current PPI value available at the beginning of the three-year adjustment period, beginning with October 1, 2021. EPA would provide public notice of the inflation-adjusted fee amounts most likely through posting to the Agency's web page by the beginning of each three-year fee adjustment cycle (
EPA is proposing to establish and collect fees from manufacturers and processors of chemical substances pursuant to TSCA section 26(b). As discussed previously in Unit II.A., EPA currently collects fees for PMNs, certain PMN exemption applications and notices, and SNUNs submitted under TSCA section 5. The Agency is proposing to expand the categories of activities for which fees are collected and increase the amount of fees required for certain activities under TSCA sections 4, 5 and 6. This proposal lays out the fee categories and payment amounts that the Agency believes are both reasonable and appropriate to begin collecting in fiscal year 2019; they are intended to provide a sustainable source of funds to defray approximately 25 percent of the costs to carry out the activities specified in TSCA section 26(b), as well as 50% or 100% of the costs of risk evaluations requested by manufacturers, depending on the chemical.
Because EPA will not begin collecting fees until fiscal year 2019, EPA believes it is appropriate to look to TSCA section 26(b)(4)(F) for the parameters which must be applied for setting fees. TSCA section 26(b)(4)(F) requires EPA, “beginning with the fiscal year that is 3 years after the date of enactment [June 22, 2016],” to adjust fees as necessary so they are sufficient to defray approximately 25 percent of the costs to carry out the activities of TSCA sections 4, 5, 6 and 14, other than the costs of manufacturer-requested risk evaluations. Further, the fees shall defray 50% or 100% of the costs of risk evaluations requested by manufacturers, depending on the chemical. EPA acknowledges that fees were initially to be established under the authority of TSCA section 26(b)(4)(B), which provides different parameters, most notably a cap on fees of $25 million. However, given the timing of this fee rule proposal such that fees won't be collected under fiscal year 2019, EPA believes it is more appropriate to set these fees based on the parameters that are required to be in effect by fiscal year 2019. EPA also notes that because the estimated costs for covered activities are under $100 million and costs defrayed under $25 million, the cap on fees found in TSCA 26(b)(4)(B) would have had no bearing on the proposed fees in any case.
EPA considered industry comments regarding the fee structure. Several predominant themes emerged through consultation with industry. Many commenters felt that EPA should charge fees that are proportional to EPA costs for undertaking the activities. This was consistent with one the considerations that EPA applied in setting the proposed fees—equity as determined by proportionality between EPA costs and the fee associated with each activity. EPA notes that the statute does not require such proportionality. In fact, the fee triggers under the law (for example, submission of a section 5 notice) are distinct from EPA activities for which costs can be defrayed by the fees collected. Thus, EPA could, consistent with TSCA, collect fees for section 5 submissions that exceed the cost of processing the section 5 submissions, so long as the fees in the aggregate are not designed to exceed 25% of the costs to EPA of carrying out sections 4, 5, 6 and
As mentioned previously in Unit II.B., EPA has authority to collect fees from manufacturers and processors who:
• Are required by test rule, test order or enforceable consent agreement to submit information (TSCA section 4);
• Submit notification of or information related to intent to manufacture a new chemical or significant new use of a chemical (TSCA section 5);
• Manufacture or process a chemical substance that is subject to a risk evaluation, including a risk evaluation conducted at the request of a manufacturer (TSCA section 6(b)).
Although EPA has authority to collect fees from both manufacturers and processors of chemical substances, EPA is proposing to focus fee collection on manufacturers. EPA is proposing to collect fees from processors only when processors submit a SNUN under section 5 or when a section 4 activity is tied to a SNUN submission by a processor. The Agency feels the effort of trying to identify a representative group of processors for the other three fee-triggering actions would be overly burdensome and expects many processors would be missed. The Agency believes this approach is the simplest and most straightforward way to assess fees for conducting risk evaluations under TSCA section 6 and other TSCA section 4 testing. Furthermore, EPA expects that manufacturers required to pay user fees will have a better sense of the universe of processors and will pass some of the costs on to them. The Agency is seeking public comment on this approach.
For certain actions for which a fee will be charged, such as new chemical submissions under section 5, fee payers will self-identify by virtue of the submission they make to the Agency. For others, such as risk evaluations under section 6, EPA plans to look to recent Chemical Data Reporting (CDR) submissions to identify manufacturers (including importers) subject to section 6 fees. The CDR Rule, issued under the authority of TSCA section 8(a), requires chemical substance manufacturers to give EPA information on the chemicals they manufacture domestically or import into the United States. Information is collected every four years; data were most recently collected in 2016, including 2012-2015 production volume information and 2015 manufacturing, processing and use information. The next submission period will be in 2020. EPA acknowledges that CDR data may not contain the entire list of companies subject to a fee, and failure by EPA to identify companies subject to a fee does not remove their obligation to pay. EPA proposes to use CDR data to identify a preliminary list of companies. EPA also seeks comment on whether to adopt a process that would allow time for public input for adding to that preliminary list before finalization. EPA seeks public comment on this approach.
The Agency is also interested in comments on using other sources to identify those subject to payment of fees. These sources include, for example, information reported to the Toxics Release Inventory (TRI), and notice of commencement (NOC) submissions under EPA's TSCA New Chemicals Review Program. EPA may also look to information reported to the Agency under the TSCA inventory active/inactive notification rule. Each of these data sources provides information that may be useful in identifying manufacturers and processors of chemical substances who may be required to pay TSCA user fees. The TRI under section 313 of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act, currently covers over 650 chemicals. Facilities that manufacture, process or otherwise use these chemicals in amounts above established levels must submit annual TRI reports on each chemical. Facilities that report to TRI include larger facilities involved in chemical manufacturing. Under section 5 of TSCA, manufacturers are required to submit a NOC to the Agency within 30 days following the start of manufacture of a new chemical substance (
EPA believes that assigning fees across TSCA sections 4, 5 and 6 is the most equitable and efficient approach for allocating costs to the manufacturers and processors detailed in Unit III.A. Those manufacturers and processors would be expected to bear the burden, and receive benefits, of TSCA reviews conducted by the Agency.
The Agency's proposed fee methodology is intended to fully recover the amount specified in the statute per TSCA section 26(b)(4)(F). The estimated annual Agency costs of carrying out TSCA section 4, 5, 6 and 14, without including the costs associated with manufacturer-requested chemical risk evaluations, are approximately $80.2 million. Based on these cost estimates, EPA anticipates collecting approximately $20.05 million in fees each year. In addition, the Agency intends to collect fees from manufacturers to recover a portion of costs incurred by EPA in conducting chemical risk evaluations requested by manufacturers. EPA expects this fee amount will be $1.3 million for per chemical for chemicals on the Work Plan and $2.6 million per chemical for chemicals not on the Work Plan.
EPA determined the anticipated costs associated with TSCA sections 4, 5, 6 and 14 activities, including both program costs and indirect costs (see Table 1). For fiscal year 2019 through fiscal year 2021, these costs were estimated to be approximately $80.2 million per year. More detail on how anticipated costs were calculated follows in Unit III.B.2.
After estimating the annual costs of administering TSCA section 4, 5, 6 and 14, the Agency had to determine how the costs would be allocated over the narrower set of activities under TSCA section 4, 5 and 6, which trigger a fee. The Agency took an approach to determining user fees that parsed the fees based on the type of submission or fee triggering event. This allows allocation of costs more equitably among the submissions and their related costs.
Costs assume that each TSCA section 4 activity will cover one to 7 chemicals. While testing required by test orders is likely to be completed in under a year, test rules and enforceable consent agreements are likely to take two years to complete. This estimate is based on EPA's prior experience with test rules and ECAs. To estimate the costs of reviewing test data, we assume that on average, data will be submitted to EPA for seven tests on each chemical.
The estimated cost to the Agency of each test order is approximately $279,000. Each test rule is estimated to cost approximately $844,000 and each enforceable consent agreement is estimated to cost approximately $652,000. These cost estimates include submission review and are based on projected full-time equivalent (FTE) and extramural support needed for each activity divided by the number of orders, rules and ECAs EPA assumes will be worked on over a three-year period. Several of these activities (rules and ECAs) are expected to span two years, as noted earlier so those estimates are based on the annual estimated costs multiplied by two. The annual cost estimate of administering TSCA section 4 in fiscal year 2019 through fiscal year 2021 is $3,543,000 (Ref. 5: Table 8).
Examples of the notices or other information that manufacturers and processors are required to submit under TSCA section 5 are PMNs, significant new use notifications (SNUNs), microbial commercial activity notices (MCANs), and numerous types of exemption notices and applications (
EPA's TSCA section 5 efforts under the previous law are well understood through experience that spans several decades. The Agency has historical data on costs, as well as the number of different section 5 submission types sent to the Agency each year. In 1987, the costs for the Agency to process a PMN were approximately up to $15,000 per submission, depending on the amount of detailed analysis necessary; these estimates did not include indirect costs. Recent data on the number of annual submissions is found at
The provisions of TSCA, as amended, result in additional TSCA section 5 Agency costs that arise primarily from the requirement to review the intended, known or reasonably foreseen activities associated with the chemical, and the requirement to make an affirmative risk determination, and from development of significant new use rules (SNURs) and orders that result from our analysis and findings under TSCA, as amended. Therefore, the Agency used the cost estimates from prior experience as a starting point and then added estimates for the costs of these additional responsibilities.
EPA's cost estimates include the costs of processing, reviewing, and making determinations, and the Agency's costs of taking any regulatory action such as
Costs associated with section 5 exemption notices and applications include processing and reviewing the application, retaining records, and related activities. The average cost of an exemption is $5,600. This estimate is based on projected FTE and extramural support needed for these actions divided by the number of submissions the Agency assumes will be received each year once fees are in place which is 560. Our estimate of number of submissions is based on submissions received in FY 16 (Ref. 5: Table 10).
The annual cost estimate of administering TSCA section 5 in fiscal year 2019 through fiscal year 2021 is $28,600,000. Approximately $25,500,000 is attributed to PMNs, SNUNs and MCANs; another approximately $3,149,000 is attributed to section 5 exemptions notices and applications for LVEs, LoREXs, TMEs, TERAs, Tier IIs and film articles.
TSCA section 6 cost estimates have been informed by the Agency's experience completing assessments for several TSCA Work Plan Chemicals, including N-methylpyrrolidone, antimony trioxide, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, and 1,3,4,6,7,8-Hexahydro-4,6,6,7,8,8-hexamethylcyclopenta[γ]-2-benzopyran (HHCB) and by the Agency's experience addressing risks identified from particular uses of a chemical. TSCA section 6 risk evaluation costs include the cost of information gathering, considering human and environmental hazard, environmental fate, and exposure assessments. Costs also include the use of the ECOTOX knowledge and Health and Environmental Research Online (HERO) databases, among others. Other costs include scoping (including problem formulation, conceptual model and analysis plan), developing and publishing the draft evaluation, conducting and responding to peer review and public comment, and developing the final evaluation, which includes a risk determination.
Under TSCA section 6, the Agency also has obligations to take action to address any unreasonable risks identified from a chemical. Cost estimates for risk management activities have been informed, in part, by EPA's recent risk reduction actions on several chemicals, including the use of N-methylpyrrolidone in paint and coating removal and trichloroethylene in both commercial vapor degreasing and aerosol degreasing and for spot cleaning in dry cleaning facilities. Section 6(a) of TSCA provides authority for EPA to ban or restrict the manufacture, processing, distribution in commerce, and commercial use of chemicals, as well as any manner or method of disposal of chemicals.
In addition to considering previous experience with TSCA Workplan chemicals described above, EPA also benchmarked risk evaluation costs against cost associated with conducting risk assessments for pesticides under the Pesticide Registration Improvement Act (PRIA). The Agency chose the costs of conducting reviews for new conventional food-use pesticide active ingredients as the most relevant comparison to an existing chemical review under TSCA based on the scope and complexity of the assessments and the data considered in conducting the reviews. EPA estimates the cost of completing a risk assessment and risk management decision for a new conventional food use pesticide active ingredient to be approximately $2,900,000 which includes direct cost estimates provided by the Office of Pesticide Programs and indirect costs at 28.14%. The primary rationale for the increased cost estimate for a risk evaluation under TSCA when compared to a new pesticide review under PRIA are that the scope of an existing chemical assessment under TSCA is expected to be broader in terms of conditions of use and exposure scenarios that must be assessed and uncertainties associated with implementing a new evaluation program. EPA also expects that risk management costs will be higher under TSCA since rulemaking is required to implement any mitigation that is considered appropriate whereas most mitigation for a pesticide can be achieved directly through changes to the product labeling and/or terms and conditions of the registration.
The breakdown of costs for an average three-year EPA-initiated chemical risk evaluation is shown in Table 2.
For purposes of this proposal, EPA is estimating that manufacturer-requested risk evaluations will cost less than EPA-initiated risk evaluations on high-priority substances. Specifically, EPA is estimating the average actual cost of a manufacturer-requested risk evaluation to be $2,600,000. There are a number of factors supporting this cost estimate and the assumption that manufacturer-requested risk evaluations will actually cost less than EPA-initiated risk evaluations. First, as required in the Risk Evaluation rule finalized in June 2017, (40 CFR 702.37) manufacturers requesting a risk evaluation must provide EPA with a list of existing information that would be adequate for EPA to conduct an evaluation. The upfront provision of data by manufacturers would limit the amount of subsequent work that the Agency would need to undertake to evaluate the chemical. Second, EPA believes that manufacturers who choose to submit risk evaluation requests to EPA will likely do so in cases where they believe the chemical is less likely to present an unreasonable risk. At this time, EPA believes that manufacturers are more likely to request risk evaluations on chemicals that are low hazard or low exposure, or are otherwise fairly straightforward to analyze. As such, EPA is estimating that these risk evaluations will be less costly than an average EPA-initiated risk evaluation on a high-priority chemical. While EPA does not yet have experience in receiving these types of requests from manufacturers, or undertaking these risk evaluations, these cost estimates represent EPA's best judgment based on past and current activities and the expectation that manufacturers are more likely to submit low hazard, low exposure chemicals for review. For the first 10 chemical risk evaluations that EPA is currently undergoing, for example, there are significant differences in the level of effort necessary to complete the evaluations, with some being substantially less complicated and therefore less burdensome than others. EPA expects manufacturer-requested risk evaluations to be on the less complicated end of the spectrum.
The annual cost estimate of administering TSCA section 6 in fiscal year 2019 through 2021 is $43,618,000. Approximately $32,370,000 is attributed to risk evaluation work on 25 chemical risk evaluations; another approximately $6,584,000 is attributed to risk management efforts; another approximately $2,091,000 is attributed to support from the Office of Research and Development (ORD) for alternative animal testing and methods development and enhancement, and approximately $2,573,000 is attributed to the annual process of designating chemicals as High- or Low-priority substances (Ref. 5: Table 11).
EPA accounts for some indirect costs in the costs associated with TSCA sections 4, 5, 6 and 14 by the inclusion of an indirect cost factor. This rate is multiplied by and then added to the program costs. An indirect cost rate is determined annually for all of EPA offices by the Agency's Office of the Controller, according to EPA's indirect cost methodology and as required by Federal Accounting Standards Advisory Board's Statement of Federal Financial Accounting Standards No. 4: Managerial Cost Accounting Standards and Concepts. An indirect cost rate of 28.14% was applied to direct program costs of work conducted by EPA's Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention, based on FY 2016 data (Ref. 7). Some of the direct program costs included in the TSCA sections 4, 5, 6 and 14 estimates are for work performed in other Agency offices (
EPA is proposing three fee categories for TSCA section 4 activities. The proposed fee associated with a test order is $10,000. The proposed fee associated with a test rule is $32,000 and the fee proposed for an enforceable consent agreement is $25,000. EPA expects these fees will be paid by consortia, assuming that multiple companies manufacture the same chemical, and is requesting consortia assign comparatively lower fees for small businesses than for large businesses in the consortia. Consistent with comments previously received, the Agency is proposing to provide flexibility to manufacturers to form consortia to allocate these fees amongst those members involved in each submission activity.
Two categories of fees, with different fee amounts, are being proposed for TSCA section 5 submissions. EPA chose to lump activities with similar Agency costs together in order to develop a simple fee structure. The fee being proposed for each PMN, SNUN and MCAN is $16,000. The proposed fee for each LoREX, LVE, TME, Tier II, film article and TERA is $4,700.
EPA is proposing to continue the practice of allowing consolidation of PMNs, consolidation of MCANs, and in some cases, consolidation of a synthetic sequence, for up to six closely similar chemical substances with similar use, structure, and probable toxicology at the same time and for the same fee as a single chemical substance. See 48 FR 21734, May 13, 1983. Consolidated PMNs (and MCANs) benefit submitters by reducing the administrative burden of developing multiple section 5 submission forms for manufacture of two or more structurally related new chemical substances that have similar use, exposure, environmental release, and test data. EPA's review process is also better facilitated by reviewing similar substances simultaneously.
EPA limits the number of substances that may be included in a consolidated PMN to six. EPA announced a policy that it would accept submission of consolidated notices, subject to the approval of each submission, in the preamble of the May 13, 1983
Persons who intend to submit a consolidated notice should first contact EPA for approval before submission of the notice; through that process, EPA can determine if the criteria for consolidation are met. Substances should be adequately similar chemically and toxicologically; planned uses must should be similar enough for combined review; and intended volumes must should not be excessively different. Consolidations are typically not granted for more than six substances in one notice, nor for substances which are not chemically and toxicologically similar. Novel or category chemicals are more likely to be approved for consolidation if the intended uses and volumes are similar.
EPA intends to eliminate the “intermediate PMN” fee class. EPA currently charges a reduced fee of $1,000 for the submission of PMN for each chemical intermediate in a synthetic pathway when accompanied by a PMN for the final substance on that pathway, and a full $2,500 user fee for the final substance. The original intent of this reduced fee was to encourage manufacturers to submit these notices together. The Agency however, has not realized advantages in reviewing these notices together; each intermediate takes about the same amount of effort to review as does the “final” chemical substance on that pathway. For this reason, the Agency proposes to eliminate the reduced fee for intermediate PMN submissions and will take comment on this approach.
EPA is not proposing to assess greater fees for submissions containing CBI claims. At least six commenters opposed fees for such claims, or suggested that the Agency collect only nominal payments under TSCA section 14. While the CBI costs are considered in the fee-defrayable costs, EPA is not proposing to charge an additional fee for submissions and activities that contain CBI.
In order to distribute the full costs to be defrayed among the fee payment-triggering events in a way that is proportional to the costs of the work associated with those events, EPA identified different fee categories, based on the section of TSCA under which the event is covered and the effort and burden for EPA to conduct the work associated with the triggering event. EPA identified eight distinct fee categories. The two fee categories under section 5 are further broken out below for transparency.
The annual estimated costs for fee categories under TSCA section 4, including both direct and indirect program costs are shown in Table 3. Please note that the costs presented in Tables 3, 4 and 5 do not include costs associated with CBI reviews, alternative testing methods development, risk management for existing chemicals or prioritization of existing chemicals. Costs associated with those activities are part of the overall costs of administering sections 4, 5, 6 and 14 and, as such, are included in the overall cost estimates previously in Table 1.
The estimated annual costs for fee categories under TSCA section 5, including both direct and indirect program costs are shown in Table 4.
The estimated annual costs for fee categories under TSCA section 6, including both program and indirect costs are shown in Table 5.
Because of the different costs associated with the different fee triggering events, the Agency chose to start by differentiating fees among the 8 categories discussed in Table 6. Fees for each triggering activity were then calculated for each of these separate fee categories using the following mathematical expression:
During the public meeting in August 2016 and the Industry-specific consultation meeting in September 2016, some commenters suggested that the bulk of the Agency's cost recovery should fall under TSCA section 6. About half of the industry commenters explicitly opposed assessment of fees for submission of information under TSCA section 4. Several of these and other commenters were willing to consider fees for TSCA section 4 submissions, but only to account for the Agency's effort to review the data from these submissions and only if the fees were kept to a nominal amount, representing a minimal portion of EPA'S overall cost recovery. Further, commenters requested that the Agency
EPA considered a number of options for setting fee levels taking into account feedback received during the consultation with industry stakeholders. With respect to the section 4 fees, the Agency is proposing to set fee levels for each subcategory at roughly 3.5% of the activity cost. This low fee level relative to program costs was chosen in part to take into account the fact that manufacturers and processors are investing resources already in conducting the testing yet recognizes that the Agency does expend resources issuing orders and reviewing data under this section of the statute (Ref. 5).
With respect to the section 5 fees, the Agency is proposing to set two basic fee levels as mentioned above. The Agency is proposing to set fee levels for each notice subcategory at roughly 29% of the activity cost. Exemption category fees were then set at roughly
To make up the difference in funds that would not be collected under TSCA section 4 or 5 based on these proposed fee levels, the Agency proposes to set the risk evaluation fee to be approximately 35% of the costs of those (Ref. 5). Overall, that results in the bulk of the fees expected to be collected under this proposed allocation coming from manufacturers of chemicals subject to EPA-initiated risk evaluations. The Agency considered this approach in part to try to set section 5 fees at levels that would minimize the potential impact on innovation and competitive standing.
TSCA states the percentage of costs to be collected for manufacturer-requested risk evaluations. Namely, TSCA specifies that manufacturers be assessed fifty percent of the costs of a risk evaluation for a chemical on EPA's Work Plan and 100 percent of the costs incurred by the Agency to conduct a risk evaluation for a chemical not on the Work Plan.
The fee amounts being proposed today are summarized in Table 6.
The Agency is interested in hearing from stakeholders regarding this approach for setting fees for the different categories of activities.
EPA's Sustainable Futures program encourages chemical developers to use the Agency's models and methods to screen new chemicals for potential risk early in the development process, with the goal of producing safer chemicals more reliably and more quickly, saving time and money, and in turn, getting safer chemicals into the market. Companies that graduate from Sustainable Futures can earn expedited review of TSCA section 5 for prescreened new chemical notices. Prescreening chemicals for hazard concerns helps companies anticipate and avoid developing chemicals of concern. As described in the
The annualized fees estimated to be collected under this proposed approach total approximately $20.05 million in fiscal year 2019 through 2021, with an additional $3.5 million in annualized fees expected from manufacturer-requested chemical risk evaluations during the three-year period. While TSCA section 6(b)(4)(E)(ii) sets minimum requirements on the number of ongoing manufacturer-requested risk evaluations if EPA receives a sufficient number of compliant requests (25% of the number of ongoing EPA-initiated chemical risk evaluations), we do not expect to receive a sufficient number of manufacturer requests over the next three years to meet this threshold. Manufacturers are likely to wait until the initial chemical risk evaluations are completed to see how the process plays out. The Agency estimates receiving a total of five manufacturer requests for chemical risk evaluations during the next three years—two for risk evaluations on Work Plan chemicals and three for risk evaluations on chemicals not included in the Work Plan.
In developing this proposal, the Agency considered its experiences in implementing its fee collection program for pesticide registration actions. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) amendments passed by Congress in 2004 created a registration service fee system for applications for specific pesticide registration, amended registration, and associated tolerance actions.
Activities conducted as part of the pesticide registration program and those to be conducted as part of the new chemical approval review program are similar in many respects. Both involve applications to the Agency to make a risk determination for a chemical substance prior to its introduction into the marketplace. In each program, the Agency conducts an independent
In conducting this analysis, the Agency recognizes that while there are valuable insights to be gained from its experiences implementing PRIA for the past 13 years that there are also important differences that also need to be understood when applying lessons learned from that program to a fee collection program under TSCA. One difference is that comprehensive data requirements have been established for pesticide registration applications under 40 CFR 158 whereas similar data requirements are not in place for chemical substances under TSCA.
Another difference is the time frames allowed for making a determination on a pesticide registration application vs. reviews of chemical substances. The time frames for pesticide registration decisions vary significantly based on the type of application being submitted to the Agency. For a new pesticide active or inert ingredient, the closest relatable set of categories to a new chemical under TSCA, the time frames for a decision range from 8 to 24 months. Under TSCA, the Agency has a shorter time frame, 90 days with possible extension to 180 days, in which to make a decision on most new chemicals. The length of the decision time frames can have an impact on the queuing of actions and resources in that having to conduct a similarly scoped review in a shorter time period would be more resource intensive.
In seeking to benchmark the fees being proposed for new chemical activities under TSCA, the Agency compared expected level of effort for a new chemical review to PRIA categories which might be expected to have a similar level of effort. EPA focused on the categories for the registration of new active ingredients in pesticides. The time frames associated with these reviews range from 8 months (new inert ingredient not for use on food) to 24 months (several categories). The fees for these categories range from $11,025 for a new non-food inert ingredient to $627,568 for a new conventional active ingredient for use on food crops. The most analogous PRIA categories to a new chemical review under TSCA based on data and/or the nature of the assessments needed are believed to be: PRIA Category I004- Approval of new non-food use inert ingredient ($11,025 fee and 8-month review period), and PRIA Category B600—New biopesticide active ingredient; non-food use ($19,146 fee and 13-month review period). The fees identified in this proposal for new chemicals fall within the range of these analogous categories.
Considering the 90-day review period for a new chemical under TSCA, the Agency also considered PRIA categories with a similar decision time frame. Only six of the 189 PRIA categories have decision time frames of three months. One of these is to repackage an existing end use product as a manufacturing use product with identical uses (a relatively small change to a product label with no data review) while the others are for reviewing a single study protocol, reviewing a rebuttal to an Agency protocol review or to make a preliminary determination on a waiver request for a biopesticide. Each have a fee of $2,530. All of these categories are very limited in terms of data review and the scope of the decision to be made and would not be considered analogous to a new chemical determination under TSCA.
In addition to the proposed fee structure, the Agency considered two other methodologies for calculating user fees. Option A involved setting the fees for each fee category at 33% of the estimated costs to the Agency in conducting work associated with that particular activity without further adjustment. In this option, fees for test orders, test rules, and enforceable consent agreements are considerably higher than the fees being proposed today and new chemical notices fees are increased while risk evaluations and new chemical exemptions are lower.
The Agency also considered an approach, Option B, in which test orders, test rule and ECA fees were set at 10% of the estimated costs to the Agency but PMN fees were set based on the inflation-adjusted amount of currently existing fees. That resulted in lower PMN, MCAN, and SNUN fees. Exemption fees were set at
The annualized fees estimated to be collected under these alternative approaches are approximately the same as those estimated to be collected under the approach being proposed today.
EPA is proposing reduced fees for small businesses. These reduced fees are summarized in Table 8.
EPA set the proposed small business fees at an 80% reduction compared to the base fee for each category. In one case, for PMN and related actions, the proposed small business fee reduction is 82.5%. This slightly higher percentage reduction is due to the concern for the potential impact on small businesses of higher fee levels. The proposed small business fees for each category fee is only triggered when there is one entity subject to the fee, and that entity is a small business or if there is a consortium paying the fee and all members of that consortium are small businesses. By way of comparison, PRIA fees may be reduced for small businesses by a maximum of 75% under certain conditions.
EPA is also proposing to revise the size standard used to identify businesses that can qualify as a “small business concern” under TSCA for the purposes of fee collection. A regulatory definition for a small business that makes a submission under TSCA section 5 was promulgated in 1988 and is based on the annual sales value of the business's parent company. 40 CFR 700.43 currently states: “Small business concern means any person whose total annual sales in the person's fiscal year preceding the date of the submission of the applicable section 5 notice, when combined with those of the parent company (if any), are less than $40 million.”
The Agency is proposing several changes to this definition. Consistent with the definition of small manufacturer or importer at 40 CFR 704.3, EPA proposes to increase the current revenue threshold of $40 million using the Producer Price Index (PPI) for Chemicals and Allied Products, as compiled by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics. [Data series WPU06 at
Pursuant to 13 CFR 121.903(a)(1)(ii), the Agency also proposes to change the time frame over which annual sales values are used when accounting for a business's revenue. Instead of using just one year preceding the date of submission, the Agency is proposing to average annual sales values over the three years preceding the submission. EPA proposes to apply this updated definition—adjusted for inflation and averaging sales revenue over three years—to not only TSCA section 5 submissions, but also to TSCA sections 4 and 6 submissions as well.
The Agency is seeking comment on this approach and is specifically interested in comment on whether an employee-based size standard would be more appropriate than a
Further, with respect to small business size standards, the Agency has recently committed to revisiting the definition of small businesses as it relates to the TSCA section 8(a) data reporting regulations (82 FR 56824). Due to the urgent need for the Agency to promulgate this regulation and expeditiously collect the fees, the Agency believes that upcoming rulemaking will provide a venue for a more expansive consideration of appropriate size standards for industries subject to TSCA and offer the public with further opportunities to comment on the size standard. In addition to considering comments submitted in response to this proposal, the Agency is committed to evaluating the results of the 8(a) rulemaking process and, in the event that the reporting and fee standards differ, to determine if the size standards set through that process should be harmonized with the small business definition for fees. This harmonization could be implemented in a subsequent rulemaking for the next three-year fee cycle (FY22-FY25).
Not every person subject to this rule must individually submit fees to EPA. TSCA section 26(b)(4)(C) allows for payment of fees by consortia of manufacturers and processors. EPA is proposing to allow joint submissions under TSCA section 5 and is permitting the formation of, and payment by, consortia for submissions under TSCA sections 4 and 6. Joint submitters of a TSCA section 5 notice would be required to remit the applicable fee identified in paragraph (b) of this section for each section 5 notice submitted. Only one fee is required for each submission, regardless of the number of joint submitters for that notice. To qualify for the fee identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, each joint submitter of a TSCA section 5 notice must qualify as a small business concern under § 700.43. This approach aligns with comments received from industry during the consultation process.
Any consortium formed to jointly submit TSCA user fees would be expected to notify EPA of such intent. Once established, it would be up to the consortium to determine how the user fee would be split among the members. EPA strongly encourages consortia to set lower fees for small business concerns; Congress intended small business to be afforded lower fee payments (TSCA 26(b)(4)(A)).
If, after 30 days, a consortium is unable to reach agreement on splitting the user fee, the principal sponsor must notify EPA, so EPA can calculate the
The U.S. Department of the Treasury has determined that federal agencies should move away from receiving payments by check, and transition to electronic methods of payment. EPA proposes to accept payment of fees through two different electronic payment options:
Fedwire is generally used for foreign payments. With this method of electronic payment, payers authorize a financial institution to initiate an electronic (wire transfer) payment to the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. Credit Gateway, which is operated by a commercial bank, then allows federal agencies to access their money from Fedwire. Credit Gateway processes transactions and settles them at Federal Reserve Banks.
EPA proposes that those subject to fees could use any payment method of their choice supported by the Department of the Treasury's
There is precedent for advance payments of user fees in several of the Agency's existing user fee programs. For example, EPA's Office of Pesticide Programs and EPA's Office of Air and Radiation fee programs typically require advance payment prior to administering program services involving the review of applications for the various certifications and registrations administered by those programs. This follows the guidance outlined in OMB Circular No. A-25, which states that user charges will “be collected in advance of, or simultaneously with, the rendering of services.” (Ref. 3)
EPA is proposing to collect lump sum payment of the entire user fee for section 5 notices prior to reviewing each submission or undertaking the activity associated with the fee. EPA is proposing to require fee payment at the time a TSCA section 5 notice (this includes an exemption) is submitted.
EPA is proposing to allow fee submitters for test orders, test rules, ECAs and EPA-initiated chemical risk evaluations time to associate with a consortium and work out fee payments within that consortium. Payment for fee categories under TSCA section 4 (
For manufacturer-requested risk evaluations, EPA is proposing to collect a fee when EPA grants the request to conduct the evaluation. Payment will be required within 30 days of EPA providing such notice.
EPA is also proposing that user fees will begin to be incurred starting on October 1, 2018. As discussed above, TSCA section 26(b)(4)(F) requires EPA, “beginning with the fiscal year that is 3 years after the date of enactment [June 22, 2016],” to adjust fees as necessary so they are sufficient to defray a portion of EPA's costs. Since Congress expected fees to already be in place by October 1, 2018 such that they may need adjusting, EPA believes it is reasonable for all actions for which a fee is proposed to be subject to fees as of October 1, 2018. EPA will not, however, collect any fees until the final rule resulting from this proposal is effective. Instead, EPA intends to record actions that would be expected to trigger payment of fees and once the rule is final send invoices to the affected parties indicating. The invoices would reflect timing for payments and amounts based on the final rule.
EPA will continue to refund any fee paid for a section 5 notice whenever EPA determines that the notice or fee was not required. See,
TSCA section 26(b)(4)(G) permits EPA to refund fees, or a portion of fees, for notices submitted under TSCA section 5 that are later withdrawn and for which the Agency conducts no substantive work unless the Agency determines that the submitter unduly delayed the process. EPA proposes to refund a consistent 75% of the user fee to the submitter if the notice is withdrawn within 10 business days. This percentage is consistent with the approach for refunds for withdrawn actions under PRIA. Beyond ten business days, EPA is likely to have already conducted substantial review work that qualifies as substantive work for which no refund is authorized under TSCA 26(b)(4)(G). Up to three significant milestones of the PMN review process can take place within 10 business days. The Chemical Review/Search Strategy Meeting occurs between Day 8 and 12; the Structure Activity Team Meeting occurs between Day 9 and 13; and Development of Exposure/Release Assessments occurs between Day 10 and 19. EPA feels that tying the refund time period to a certain number of days is a simpler and more efficient
EPA does not have authority to, and therefore will not, provide refunds under any other circumstances.
Failure to comply with any requirement of a rule promulgated under TSCA is a prohibited act under TSCA section 15 and is subject to penalties under TSCA section 16. When the fee payment requirements are finalized, failure to pay the appropriate fee at the required time would subject each manufacturer and processor who is subject to the fee payment to penalties of as much as the maximum statutory amount per day ($38,114 as of January 2017) until the required fee is paid. Each person subject to fees would be subject to such penalties regardless of whether they intend to pay independently, as a joint submitter or through consortia. Specifically, each member of a consortium, and each joint submitter, is individually responsible for payment of the fee, and subject to penalties for non-payment, until the fee is actually paid.
EPA is proposing to start collecting fees the day after the final TSCA user fees regulations are published in the
EPA is proposing minor changes to several of its regulations that cross-reference the part 700 fees regulations, specifically parts 720, 723, 725, 790 and 791. Amending the regulatory text in these parts will ensure that existing regulations appropriately reference the regulatory text being proposed. EPA is proposing minor updates for implementing the fee requirements for test marketing exemptions at § 720.38; premanufacture notification regulations at § 720.45(a)(5); instant photographic and peel-apart film articles exemptions at § 723.175; amendments to regulations covering MCANs and exemption requests at § 725.25 and § 725.33; minor amendments at § 790.45 and § 790.59; and a modification to the general provisions for data reimbursement found at § 791.39.
EPA has evaluated the potential costs for manufacturers and processors of chemical substances for this proposed rule. Overall, EPA developed eight fee categories for activities under TSCA sections 4, 5, and 6. TSCA section 4 fee categories include test orders, test rules, and ECAs. TSCA section 5 fee categories include PMNs and consolidated PMNs, SNUNs, MCANs and consolidated MCANs, LoREXs, LVEs, TMEs, Tier II exemptions and TERAs. Finally, TSCA section 6 fee categories include Agency-initiated risk evaluations, manufacturer-requested risk evaluations for Work Plan chemicals, and manufacturer-requested risk evaluations for non-Work Plan chemicals.
For the baseline, EPA used a historical average of the 2013 through 2016 submissions for each TSCA section 5 action (Ref. 12) as the estimate of the number of submissions per fee category for the next three years. TSCA section 4 test orders are new under TSCA and the average number of such actions expected per year represents an EPA estimate. For the other TSCA section 4 actions (test rules and ECAs), EPA also estimated the expected number of such actions per year. The amended TSCA regulations specify the number of risk evaluations that EPA must have ongoing over the next three years. EPA uses the mandated number of risk evaluations to estimate the cost of the proposed rule for TSCA section 6 activities. Under the recent amendments to TSCA, EPA assumes that the number of TSCA section 4 activities (test rules and ECAs) would change from the baseline as the Agency seeks additional test data and information on chemical substances, TSCA section 5 activities would decrease as a result of higher fees and the new statutory requirement for affirmative determination, and TSCA section 6 risk evaluations initiated over the next several years would increase before leveling off in accordance with statutory requirements. The Agency expects to have between 20 and 30 risk evaluations ongoing in any given year at different stages in the review process, including manufacturer-requested evaluations. The Agency seeks comment on these assumptions.
EPA estimates the total fee collection by multiplying the proposed fees with the number of expected activities under full implementation for each section. For test rules and ECAs, EPA has not promulgated any in the recent past and has estimated the number of activities that EPA will likely need to issue to meet our requirements. EPA based the estimates of the future number of TSCA section 5 submissions on the historical number of submissions for all TSCA section 5 notices and exemptions. EPA further assumes that the number of submissions under each TSCA section 5 fee category will decline by approximately 10% as a result of (a) higher fees on PMNs, MCANs, and SNUNs; (b) new fees for exemption notices; and (c) the requirement that EPA make an affirmative determination on every new chemical. Previously, new chemicals could enter the marketplace unless EPA made a specific determination that regulatory controls were needed. Now, an affirmative safety determination must be made before a new chemical can enter the marketplace and before a significant new use is allowed for an existing chemical. EPA's assumption that there will be a 10% decrease in submissions under TSCA section 5 follows the same assumption made back in 1987 when TSCA section 5 fees were first proposed (Ref. 12).
TSCA section 6 risk evaluations are a new activity under the amended TSCA. In the past, EPA developed risk assessments. This risk assessment process has been replaced by risk evaluations and EPA uses manufacturer data for the first 10 chemicals identified for this process to estimate the average number of impacted firms per chemical and proportion of firms impacted that are small businesses.
The annualized fees collected from industry for the proposed option (identified as Option C in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 2)) are approximately $20.05 million. This total does not include the fees collected for manufacturer-requested risk evaluations. Total fee collections were calculated by multiplying the estimated number of actions per fee category anticipated each year, by the corresponding proposed fee. For the proposed option, TSCA section 4 fees account for less than one percent of the total fee collection, TSCA section 5 fees for approximately 43 percent, and TSCA section 6 fees for approximately 56 percent. Annual fees collected by EPA
Under the proposed option, the total fees collected from industry for a risk evaluation requested by manufactures are estimated to be $1.3 million for chemicals included in the Work Plan and $2.6 million for chemicals not included in the Work Plan.
For small businesses, EPA estimates that 18.5 percent of TSCA section 5 submissions will be from small businesses that are eligible to pay discounted fees because they have average annual sales of less than $91 million in the three preceding years. Total annualized fees for TSCA section 5 collected from small businesses are estimated to be $550,000 (Ref. 2).
For TSCA sections 4 and 6, discounted fees for eligible small businesses and fees for all other affected firms may differ over the three-year period that was analyzed, since the fee paid by each firm is dependent on the number of affected firms per action. Based on past TSCA section 4 actions and data related to the first ten chemicals identified for risk evaluations under TSCA as amended, EPA estimates annualized fees collected from small businesses for TSCA section 4 and TSCA section 6 to be approximately $37,000 and $2.6 million, respectively.
For each of the three years to be covered by this proposed rule, EPA estimates that total fees paid by small businesses will account for about 16 percent of the approximately $20.05 million fees to be collected for TSCA sections 4, 5, and 6 actions. The annualized total industry fee collection for small businesses is estimated to be approximately $3.2 million.
For this proposed rule, affected manufacturers (including importers) and processors of chemical substances would be required to pay a specified user fee to be established for actions regulated under TSCA. The fees to be paid by industry would defray the cost for EPA to administer TSCA sections 4, 5, 6, and 14. Absent this proposed regulation, EPA costs to administer these sections of TSCA would be borne by taxpayers through budget appropriations from general revenue. As a result of this proposed rule, 25% of EPA costs to administer TSCA section 4, 5, 6, and 14 and activities paid from general revenue would be transferred via the user fees to industry. Although these user fees may be perceived by industry as direct private costs, from an economic perspective, they are transfer payments rather than real social costs. Therefore, the total social cost of this proposed rule does not include the fees collected from industry by EPA. Rather, it includes the opportunity costs incurred by industry, such as the cost to read and familiarize themselves with the proposed rule, determine their eligibility for paying reduced fees, notify EPA of participation in a consortium, and arrange to submit fee payments. The total social cost of the proposed rule also includes the additional costs to EPA to administer TSCA sections 4, 5, 6, and 14.
The total opportunity cost to industry is approximately $58,000 and the additional Agency burden is approximately $1,000, yielding a total social cost of approximately $59,000 for this proposed rule.
EPA is specifically seeking additional information and data that the Agency could consider in developing the final economic analysis. In particular, EPA is seeking data that could facilitate EPA's further evaluation of the potentially affected industry and firms, including data related to potential impacts on those small businesses that would be subject to user fees.
EPA seeks comments on all aspects of the fee categories being proposed for manufacturers and processors in Unit III.B.4 and welcomes comments on how the various fees and fee categories discussed could be combined in different ways to achieve an overall fee structure amounting to 25% of the Agency's costs to administer TSCA sections 4, 5, 6 and 14.
In addition, the Agency would appreciate specific comments on the decision to not include a fee category for risk management under TSCA section 6(a) and the decision to eliminate the existing intermediate PMN fee category, which currently provides a discount to manufacturers who submit intermediate PMNs at the same time as a final PMN. The Agency will still accept intermediate PMN submissions, but will charge a full PMN fee for each chemical. We recognize there may be minimal efficiencies with intermediate submissions submitted at the same time as a final PMN and are seeking comment on the elimination of this fee category for PMN submissions.
The Agency is interested in comments on the fee amounts being proposed today, as well as the alternative fees considered; proposed and alternative fee amounts are shown in Table 9. EPA is also interested in comments on the proposal to waive exemption fees on TMEs submitted at the same time as a PMN, SNUN, or MCAN from a company that has graduated from the Agency's Sustainable Futures program.
EPA is proposing several changes to the size standard used to identify businesses that can qualify as a “small business concern” for purposes of fees and seeks comment on the proposed approach as discussed in Unit III. The Agency is also interested in comments on the reduced fee amounts being proposed for those businesses that can qualify as a “small business concern.”
The Agency is seeking comment on this approach and is specifically interested in comment on whether an employee-based size standard would be more appropriate than a receipts-based size standard and what that employee level should be; whether the size standard, be it receipts-based or employee-based, should vary from industry to industry to reflect differences among the impacted industries; and what other factors and data sources the Agency should consider, besides inflation, when developing the size standard to qualify for reduced fee amounts.
Further, with respect to small business size standards, the Agency has recently committed to revisiting the definition of small businesses as it relates to the TSCA Section 8(a) data reporting regulations (82 FR 56824). Due to the urgent need for the Agency to promulgate this regulation and expeditiously collect fees, the Agency believes that upcoming rulemaking will provide a venue for a more expansive consideration of appropriate size standards for industries subject to TSCA and offer the public with further opportunities to comment on the size standard. In addition to considering comments submitted in response to this proposal, the Agency is committed to evaluating the results of the 8(a) rulemaking process and, in the event that the reporting and fee standards differ, to determine if the size standards set through that process should be harmonized with the small business definition for fees. This harmonization could be implemented in a subsequent rulemaking for the next three-year fee cycle (FY22-FY25).
The Agency is interested in comments pertaining to the electronic payment of fees. If, for some reason, neither
The following is a listing of the documents that are specifically referenced in this document. The docket includes these documents and other information considered by EPA, including documents that are referenced within the documents that are included in the docket, even if the referenced document is not physically located in the docket. For assistance in locating these other documents, please consult the technical person listed under
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is a significant regulatory action that was submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011).
Any changes made in response to OMB recommendations have been documented in the docket for this action as required by section 6(a)(3)(E) of Executive Order 12866. EPA prepared an economic analysis of the potential costs and benefits associated with this action (Ref. 2), which is available in the docket and discussed in Unit IV.
This action is expected to be subject to the requirements for regulatory actions specified in Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). Details on the estimated costs of this proposed rule can be found in EPA's analysis (Ref. 2) of the potential costs and benefits associated with this action, which is available in the docket and is summarized in Unit IV.
The information collection requirements in this proposed rule have been submitted to OMB for review and approval under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The information collection activities associated with the proposed rule include familiarization with the regulation, small business discount eligibility determination, informing EPA of participation in consortia, and electronic payment of fees through
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information
Submit your comments on the Agency's need for this information, the accuracy of the provided burden estimates, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden to EPA using the docket identified at the beginning of this proposed rule. You may also send your ICR-related comments to OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs via email to
Pursuant to section 605(b) of the RFA, 5 U.S.C. 601
EPA has determined that 84 small businesses may be affected annually by section 4 actions; 190 small businesses may be affected by section 5 actions (164 may pay discounted fees and the remaining 26 would pay the general industry fee); and 24 small business firms may be affected by section 6 actions. As a result, EPA estimates that, of the 298 small businesses paying fees every year, all may have annual cost-revenue impacts less than 1%.
EPA continues to be interested in the potential impacts of this proposed rule on small entities that are required to pay user fees and welcomes comments on issues related to such impacts.
This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. As such, the requirements of sections 202, 203, 204, or 205 of UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, do not apply to this action.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999).
This action does not have tribal implications because it will not have any effect on tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of Executive Order 13045. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not establish an environmental standard intended to mitigate environmental health risks or safety risks.
This action is not a “significant energy action” as defined in Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on energy supply, distribution, or use. This action is proposing service fees for TSCA, which will not have a significant effect on the supply, distribution or use of energy.
Since this action does not involve any technical standards, NTTAA section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note) does not apply to this action.
EPA believes that this action does not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994). This action does not affect the level of protection provided to human health or the environment.
When implemented, the user fees collected under this proposed rule will assist the Agency in carrying out various requirements under TSCA, including conducting risk evaluations, risk-based screenings, authorizing testing of chemical substances and mixtures, and evaluating and reviewing manufacturing and processing notices, as required under TSCA sections 4, 5, and 6. Although not directly impacting environmental justice-related concerns, the fees will enable the Agency to better protect human health and the environment, including in low-income and minority communities.
Chemicals, Environmental protection, Hazardous substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, User fees.
Chemicals, Environmental protection, Hazardous substances, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Chemicals, Environmental protection, Hazardous substances, Phosphate, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Chemicals, Environmental protection, Hazardous substances, Imports, Labeling, Occupational safety and health, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Chemicals, Confidential business information, Environmental protection, Hazardous substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Chemicals, Environmental
Therefore, EPA proposes to amend 40 CFR parts 700, 720, 723, 725, 790 and 791 as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2625 and 2665, 44 U.S.C. 3504.
(a)
(b)
(c) After [DATE 1 DAY AFTER PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE IN THE
The revisions and additions read as follows:
Definitions in section 3 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 2602), as well as definitions contained in §§ 704.3, 720.3, 723.175(b), 725.3, and 790.3 of this chapter, apply to this subpart unless otherwise specified in this section. In addition, the following definitions apply:
(a)
(2) Manufacturers and/or processors of chemical substances and mixtures required to test these chemical substance and mixtures under a TSCA section 4(a) test rule, test order, or enforceable consent agreement shall remit for each such test rule, order, or enforceable consent agreement the applicable fee identified in paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with the procedures in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
(3) Manufacturers of chemical substances and mixtures required to test these chemical substance and mixtures under a TSCA section 4(a) test rule, test order, or enforceable consent agreement other than a test rule, test order, or enforceable consent agreement described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall remit for each such test rule, order, or enforceable consent agreement the applicable fee identified in paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with the procedures in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
(4) Manufacturers of a chemical substance that is subject to a risk evaluation under section 6(b) of the Act, shall remit for each such chemical risk evaluation the applicable fee identified in paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with the procedures in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. Manufacturers will be identified through the most current Chemical Data Reporting (CDR) submissions. While EPA will attempt to identify manufacturers through CDR data, failure to identify a manufacturer that is subject to a risk evaluation fee does not remove their obligation to pay the associated fee.
(b)
(1)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(iv)
(v)
(vi) Persons shall remit a total of twenty percent of the applicable user fee under paragraph (b)(2)(vi), (b)(2)(vii) or (b)(2)(viii) of this section for a test rule, test order, or enforceable consent agreement.
(vii) Persons shall remit a total fee of twenty percent of the applicable user fee under paragraphs (b)(2)(ix) of this section for an EPA-initiated risk evaluation.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(c)
(2) Updated fee amounts for PMNs, SNUNs, MCANs, exemption applications and manufacturer-requested chemical risk evaluation requests apply to submissions received by the Agency on or after October 1 of every three-year fee adjustment cycle beginning in fiscal year 2022 (October 1, 2021). Updated fee amounts also apply to test rules, test orders, enforceable consent agreements and EPA-initiated chemical evaluations that are “noticed” on or after October 1 of every three-year fee adjustment cycle, beginning in fiscal 2022.
(3) The Agency will initiate industry consultation prior to making fee adjustments. If it is determined that no additional adjustment is necessary beyond for inflation, EPA will provide public notice of the inflation-adjusted fee amounts most likely through posting to the Agency's web page by the beginning of each three-year fee adjustment cycle (
(d)
(e)
(2) Any consortium formed to split the cost of the applicable user fee under section 4 of the Act is required to remit the appropriate fee identified in paragraph (b) of this section for each test rule, test order, or enforceable consent agreement regardless of the number of manufacturers and/or processors in that consortium. For the consortium to qualify for the fee identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, each person in the consortium must qualify as a small business concern under § 700.43 of this chapter. Failure to provide notice or submit fee payment pursuant to this paragraph (e)(2) constitutes a violation by each consortium member.
(i) Notification must be provided to EPA that a consortium has formed. The notification must be accomplished within 30 days of the effective date of a test order or test rule under section 4 of the Act or within 30 days of the signing of an enforceable consent agreement under section 4 of the Act. If timely notification has occurred, additional entities may join the consortia after the notification period.
(ii) Notification must be rendered in a .pdf file and submitted electronically via the Agency's electronic reporting software (
(A) Full name, address, telephone number and signature of principal sponsor;
(B) Name(s) and contact information for each manufacturer and/or processor associating with the consortium.
(iii) It is up to the consortium to determine how fees will be split among the persons in the consortium.
(iv) Consortia are encouraged to set lower fees for small business concerns participating in the consortium.
(v) If a consortium is unable to come to terms on how user fees will be split among the persons in the consortium, the principal sponsor must notify EPA in writing before the user fee is due under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(vi) If a consortium provides notice to EPA under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section, EPA will assess fees to all persons of the consortium as described under paragraph (e)(4) of this section and provide an additional 30 days for those persons to submit fees.
(3) Any consortium formed to split the cost of the applicable user fee supporting a risk evaluation under section 6(b) of the Act is required to remit the appropriate fee identified in paragraph (b) of this section for each risk evaluation, regardless of the number of manufacturers in that consortium. For the consortium to qualify for the fee identified in paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section, each person in the consortium must qualify as a small business concern under § 700.43 of this chapter. Failure to provide notice or submit fee payment pursuant to this paragraph (e)(3) constitutes a violation by each consortium member.
(i) Notification must be provided to EPA that a consortium has formed. The notification must be accomplished within 30 days of the publication of the final scope of a chemical risk evaluation under section 6(b)(4)(D) of the Act or within 30 days of EPA providing notification to a manufacturer that a manufacturer-requested risk evaluation has been granted.
(ii) Notification must be rendered in a .pdf file and submitted electronically via the Agency's electronic reporting software (
(A) Full name, address, telephone number and signature of principal sponsor;
(B) Name(s) and contact information for each manufacturer and/or processor associating with the consortium.
(iii) It is up to the consortium to determine how fees will be split among the persons in the consortium.
(iv) Consortia are encouraged to set lower fees for small business concerns participating in the consortium.
(v) If a consortium is unable to come to terms on how user fees will be split among the persons in the consortium, the principal sponsor must notify EPA in writing before the user fee is due.
(vi) If a consortium provides notice to EPA under paragraph (e)(3)(v) of this section, EPA will assess fees to all persons of the consortium as described under paragraph (e)(4) of this section and provide an additional 30 days for those persons to submit fees.
(4) If multiple persons are subject to user fees triggered by section 4 or 6(b) of the Act and no consortium is formed, EPA will determine the portion of the total applicable user fee to be remitted by each person subject to the requirement. Each person's share of the applicable user fee specified in paragraph (b) of this section shall be in proportion to the total number of manufacturers and/or processors of the chemical substance, with lower fees for small businesses:
(5) If multiple persons are subject to user fees triggered by section 4 or 6(b) of the Act and some inform EPA of their intent to form a consortium while others choose not to associate with the consortium, EPA will determine the portion of the total applicable user fee to be remitted by each person outside the consortium and by the consortium, per paragraph (e)(4) of this section. For purposes of calculating the portion of the total applicable user fee to be remitted by each person outside the consortium, EPA will consider each person within the consortium as “one” person. The balance of the applicable user fee remaining is the responsibility of the consortium; EPA will inform consortium of this requisite user fee amount.
(f)
(2) Timing of payment for user fees incurred between October 1, 2018 and [the effective date of this rule will be inserted at the final rule stage]. User fees required by paragraph (b) of this section for which the fee-triggering action or
(3) Timing of payment for user fees incurred after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE]. User fees required by paragraph (b) of this section for which the fee-triggering action or event occurred after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] shall be paid at the following time:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(B) For manufacturer-requested risk evaluations under section 6(b)(4)(C)(ii) of the Act, the applicable user fee specified in paragraph (b) of this section shall be paid in full not later than 30 days after EPA provides the submitting manufacture(s) notice that it has granted the request.
(4)(i) Persons who submit a TSCA section 5 notice shall place an identifying number and a payment identity number on the front page of each TSCA section 5 notice submitted. The identifying number must include the letters “TS” followed by a combination of 6 numbers (letters may be substituted for some numbers). The payment identity number may be a “
(ii) Persons who are required to submit a letter of intent to conduct testing per § 790.45 of this chapter shall place a payment identity number on the front page of each letter submitted. The identifying number must include the letters “TS” followed by a combination of 6 numbers (letters may be substituted for some numbers). The payment identity number may be a “
(iii) Persons who sign an enforceable consent agreement per § 790.60 of this chapter shall place a payment identity number within the contents of the signed agreement. The identifying number must include the letters “TS” followed by a combination of 6 numbers (letters may be substituted for some numbers). The payment identity number may be a “
(5)(i) Each person who remits the fee identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for a PMN, consolidated PMN, intermediate PMN, or SNUN shall insert a check mark for the statement, “The company named in part 1, section A is a small business concern under 40 CFR 700.43 and has remitted a fee of $2,800 in accordance with 40 CFR 700.45(b).” under “CERTIFICATION” on page 2 of the Premanufacture Notice for New Chemical Substances (EPA Form 7710-25). This form is available on EPA's website at
(ii) Each person who remits the fee identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for a LVE, LoREX, TERA, TMEA, or Tier II exemption request under TSCA section 5 shall insert a check mark for the statement, “The company named in part 1, section A is a small business concern under 40 CFR 700.43 and has remitted a fee of $940 in accordance with 40 CFR 700.45(b).” in the exemption application.
(iii) Each person who remits the fee identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for an exemption notice under § 723.175 of this chapter shall include the words, “The company or companies identified in this notice is/are a small business concern under 40 CFR 700.43 and has/have remitted a fee of $940 in accordance with 40 CFR 700.45(b).” in the certification required in § 723.175(i)(1)(x) of this chapter.
(iv) Each person who remits the fee identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for a MCAN or consolidated MCAN for a microorganism shall insert a check mark for the statement, “The company named in part 1, section A is a small business concern under 40 CFR 700.43 and has remitted a fee of $2,800 in accordance with 40 CFR 700.45(b).” in the certification required in § 725.25(b) of this chapter.
(6)(i) Each person who remits a fee identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for a PMN, consolidated PMN, intermediate PMN, or SNUN shall insert a check mark for the statement, “The company named in part 1, section A has remitted the fee of $16,000 specified in 40 CFR 700.45(b).” under “CERTIFICATION” on page 2 of the Premanufacture Notice for New Chemical Substances (EPA Form 7710-25).
(ii) Each person who remits a fee identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for a LVE, LoREX, TERA, TMEA, or Tier II exemption request under TSCA section 5 shall insert a check mark for the statement, “The company named in part 1, section A has remitted the fee of $4,700 specified in 40 CFR 700.45(b).” in the exemption application.
(iii) Each person who remits the fee identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for an exemption notice under § 723.175 of this chapter shall include the words, “The company or companies identified in this notice has/have remitted a fee of $4,700 in accordance with 40 CFR 700.45(b).” in the certification required in § 723.175(i)(1)(x) of this chapter.
(iv) Each person who remits the fee identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for a MCAN for a microorganism shall insert a check mark for the statement, “The company named in part 1, section A has remitted the fee of $16,000 in accordance with 40 CFR 700.45(b).” in the certification required in § 725.25(b) of this chapter.
(g)
(i) That the chemical substance that is the subject of a PMN, consolidated PMN, exemption request, or exemption notice, is not a new chemical substance as of the date of submission of the notice,
(ii) In the case of a SNUN, that the notice was not required,
(iii) The notice is incomplete under either § 720.65(c), § 723.50(e)(3) or § 725.33, of this chapter,
(iv) That as of the date of submission of the notice: The microorganism that is the subject of a MCAN or consolidated MCAN is not a new microorganism; nor is the use involving the microorganism a significant new use; or
(v) When the Agency fails to make a determination on a notice by the end of the applicable notice review period under § 720.75 or § 725.50 of this chapter, unless the Agency determines that the submitter unduly delayed the process, or
(vi) When the Agency fails to approve, or deny an exemption request within the applicable period under § 720.38(d), § 723.50(g) or § 725.50(b) of this chapter, unless the Agency determines that the submitter unduly delayed the process.
(h)
(2) Once withdrawn, any future submission related to the TSCA section 5 notice must be submitted as a new notice.
(a) EPA will not consider a TSCA section 5 notice to be complete unless the appropriate certification under § 700.45(e) is included and until the appropriate remittance under § 700.45(b) has been submitted as provided in § 700.45(e). EPA will notify the submitter of a section 5 notice that it is incomplete in accordance with §§ 720.65(c) and 725.33(b)(1) of this chapter.
(b) Failure to submit the appropriate remittance specified under § 700.45(b) for a test order, test rule, enforceable consent agreement, or EPA-initiated risk evaluation as provided in § 700.45(e) is a violation of TSCA and enforceable under section 15 of the Act.
(c) EPA will not initiate a manufacturer-requested risk evaluation that the Agency has otherwise determined to be complete unless the appropriate remittance under § 700.45(b) has been submitted as provided in § 700.45(e).
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, and 2613.
(b) * * *
(6) A user fee payment identity number, as required in 40 CFR 700.45(e)(3).
(f) When applying for a test marketing exemption, persons are subject to user fees in accordance with 40 CFR 700.45.
(a) * * *
(5) If a manufacturer cannot provide all the information specified in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section because the new chemical substance is manufactured using a reactant having a specific chemical identity claimed as confidential by its supplier, the manufacturer must submit a notice directly to EPA containing all the information known by the manufacturer about the chemical identity of the reported substance and its proprietary reactant. In addition, the manufacturer must ensure that the supplier of the confidential reactant submit a letter of support directly to EPA providing the specific chemical identity of the confidential reactant, including the CAS number, if available, and the appropriate PMN or exemption number, if applicable. The letter of support must reference the manufacturer's name and PMN User Fee Identification Number. The statutory review period will commence upon receipt of both the notice and the letter of support.
15 U.S.C. 2604.
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(iv) Remit the applicable user fee specified in § 700.45(b) of this chapter.
(h) * * *
(3) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) * * *
(C)
(iii)
(xi) User fee payment ID number. The manufacturer or processor must include a payment identity number on the front page of the notice.
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, 2613, and 2625.
(i)
(a) * * *
(9) The submitter does not remit the fees required by § 700.45(b) of this chapter.
(10) The submitter does not include an identifying number and a payment identity number.
15 U.S.C. 2603.
(c) * * *
(7) A payment identity number on the front page of the letter, as required in § 700.45(e)(3) of this chapter.
(g) Manufacturers and processors subject to a test rule described in § 790.40 and required to comply with the requirements of that test rule as provided in § 790.42(a) must remit the applicable user fee specified in § 700.45(b) of this chapter.
(c) Persons who fail to pay the requisite user fee as specified in § 700.45(b) of this chapter will be in violation of the rule.
(a) * * *
(18) Payment identity number, as required in § 700.45(e)(3) of this chapter.
(d)
(b) The Agency considers failure to comply with any aspect of a consent agreement, including the failure to pay requisite user fees as specified in § 700.45 of this chapter, to be a “prohibited act” under section 15 of TSCA, subject to all the provisions of the Act applicable to violations of section 15. Section 15(1) of TSCA makes it unlawful for any person to fail or refuse to comply with any rule or order issued under section 4. Consent agreements adopted pursuant to this part are “orders issued under section 4” for purposes of section 15(1) of TSCA.
15 U.S.C. 2603 and 2607.
The revision reads as follows:
(b)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; extension of comment period.
EPA issued a proposed rule in the
The comment period for the proposed rule published February 8, 2018 (83 FR 5598) is extended. This document extends the comment period for 17 days, from February 23, 2018, to March 12, 2018. Comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2011-0941, must be received on or before March 12, 2018.
Follow the detailed instructions provided under
This document extends the public comment period established in the
To submit comments, or access the docket, please follow the detailed instructions provided under
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Hazardous Substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes modifications to the commercial scup quota periods, as recommended by the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council. The proposed change would move the month of October from the Summer Period to the Winter II Period. This rule is intended to increase fishing opportunities by allowing for more scup to be landed by extending the Winter II Period when possession limits are higher.
Comments must be received by 5 p.m. local time, on March 13, 2018.
An environmental assessment (EA) was prepared for this action and describes the proposed measures and other considered alternatives, and provides an analysis of the impacts of the proposed measures and alternatives. Copies of the Scup Commercial Quota Period Modification Framework, including the EA, are available on request from Dr. Christopher M. Moore, Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, Suite 201, 800 North State Street, Dover, DE 19901. These documents are also accessible via the internet at
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2018-0001, by either of the following methods:
1. Go to
2. Click the “Comment Now!” icon, complete the required fields, and
3. Enter or attach your comments.
Emily Gilbert, Fishery Policy Analyst, (978) 281-9244.
Scup (
Currently, the scup commercial quota is broken into three periods: Winter I (January 1 through April 30) receives 45.11 percent of the annual quota; Summer (May 1 through October 31) receives 38.95 percent; and Winter II (November 1 through December 31) receives an initial 15.94 percent with any unused Winter I quota rolled over into Winter II. Federal trip limits are imposed during the two Winter Periods; states impose landing restrictions during the Summer Period. The Council established these quota periods in 1997 to recognize that there are two commercial fishing fleets (62 FR 27978; May 22, 1997). Larger vessels harvest scup offshore during the winter months and smaller vessels harvest scup inshore during the summer. Without the quota periods and Federal trip limits, the larger vessels would be able to fish the full annual quota early in the year, leaving no quota for the smaller inshore fleet.
The scup stock was declared rebuilt in 2009 based on the findings of a stock assessment. The commercial scup quota nearly doubled between 2010 and 2011. From 2011 to 2016, commercial scup landings have been 20 to 47 percent below the annual commercial quota. Stakeholders have stated that the more restrictive possession limits during the Summer Period, compared to the Winter I and II Periods, have prevented fishermen from landing high volumes of scup when they are available. This limits the ability of the fishery to achieve the annual commercial quota and results in forgone yield.
In order to address these limits on the ability of the fishery to achieve the annual commercial quota, this action would move the month of October from the Summer Period to the Winter II Period (Table 1). This action would facilitate more landings at higher possession limits during longer periods of time. This change would be effective for October 2018 and is expected to have positive socioeconomic impacts compared to maintaining the status quo quota periods.
This action only considers a change to the seasons of the three quota periods. It is not changing the possession limits or the amount of quota allocated annually to each period.
The Council has reviewed the proposed rule regulations as drafted by NMFS and deemed them to be necessary and appropriate as specified in section 303(c) of the MSA.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council conducted an evaluation of the potential socioeconomic impacts of the proposed measures in conjunction with an environmental assessment. According to the commercial ownership database, 526 affiliate firms were issued scup permits during the 2014-2016 period, with 517 of those business affiliates categorized as small businesses and nine categorized as large businesses. Scup represented approximately 1.2 percent of the average receipts of the small entities considered and less than 1 percent of the average receipts of the large entities considered over this time period. This action does not affect the for-hire recreational fishery.
Analyses conducted in support of this action indicate that modifications to the commercial quota periods will result in higher scup landings and increased revenues when compared to current conditions by increasing the scup possession limit during the month of October. As such, this action is expected to increase potential fishing opportunities available to small commercial fishing entities. Because this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
There are no new reporting or recordkeeping requirements contained in any of the alternatives considered for this action.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 648 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(c) * * *
(1) The annual commercial quota will be allocated into three periods, based on the following percentages:
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) For the Winter I and Summer quota periods, landings in excess of the allocation will be deducted from the appropriate quota period for the following year in the final rule that establishes the annual quota. The overage deduction will be based on landings for the current year through September 30 and on landings for the previous calendar year that were not included when the overage deduction was made in the final rule that established the period quotas for the current year. If the Regional Administrator determines during the fishing year that any part of an overage deduction was based on erroneous landings data that were in excess of actual landings for the period concerned, he/she will restore the overage that was deducted in error to the appropriate quota allocation. The Regional Administrator will publish notification in the
(a) * * *
(1)
(5)
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by March 28, 2018 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques and other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by March 28, 2018 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC, 20503. Commentors are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by March 26, 2018 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Forest Service, USDA.
Withdrawal of notice of intent to prepare environmental impact statement.
The Manti-La Sal National Forest is withdrawing the Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement for the Maverick Point Forest Health Project. The original NOI was published in the
Questions concerning withdrawal of the NOI should be addressed to Michael Diem (District Ranger) at the following address: Moab/Monticello Ranger District, Manti-La Sal National Forest, P.O. Box 820, Monticello, Utah 84535, phone: 435-587-2041.
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m., Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
U.S. Census Bureau, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
To ensure consideration, written comments must be submitted on or before April 27, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to Dale C. Kelly, Chief, International Trade Management Division, U.S. Census Bureau, Room 5K158, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233; or by email
The Census Bureau plans to request clearance for the collection tools necessary to conduct the public employment and payroll program, which consists of an annual collection of information. During the upcoming three years, we intend to conduct the 2019 Annual Survey of Public Employment & Payroll, the 2020 Annual Survey of Public Employment & Payroll, and the 2021 Annual Survey of Public Employment & Payroll.
Under Title 13, Sections 161 and 182, of the United States Code, the Secretary of Commerce is authorized to conduct the public employment and payroll program, which collects and disseminates state and local government data by function for full-time and part-time employees, payroll, and number of part-time hours worked.
The burden hours we will request are based on the expected 2019, 2020 and 2021 Annual Survey of Public Employment & Payroll collection from 16,357 respondents for each survey year. In addition, burden hours include data received via data arrangements, which are explained in further detail within the method of collection section.
The state and local government statistics produced cover national, state, and local aggregates on various functions with comparative detail for individual governments for the pay period that includes March 12.
The Census Bureau provides these employment data to the Bureau of Economic Analysis for constructing the functional payrolls in the public sector of the Gross Domestic Product; payroll being the single largest component of current operations. The public employment and payroll program has increasingly been used as the base for reimbursable programs conducted by the Census Bureau for other Federal agencies such as: (1) The government portion of the Medical Expenditure Panel Survey commissioned by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality to provide timely, comprehensive information about health care use and costs in the United States, and (2) the Criminal Justice Expenditure and Employment Survey, sponsored by the Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS), which provides criminal justice expenditure and employment data on spending and personnel levels.
Statistics are produced as data files in electronic formats. The program has disseminated comprehensive and comparable governmental statistics since 1940. The users of the public employment and payroll program data include Federal agencies, state and local governments and related organizations, public interest groups, and many business, market, and private research organizations
An estimated 20,231 state agencies, county governments, consolidated city-county governments, independent cities, towns, townships, special district governments, and public school systems designated for the 2019, 2020 or 2021 Annual Survey of Public Employment & Payroll will be sent a mailed invitation for internet collection or their data will be collected through a data sharing arrangement between the Census Bureau and the governmental unit.
The Census Bureau developed central collection arrangements with state and large local government officials to collect the data from their dependent agencies and report to the Census Bureau as a central respondent. Based on the 2017 Census of Governments, Survey of Public Employment & Payroll, these arrangements eliminate the need to individually canvass approximately 3,716 state agencies and 158 school systems. The arrangements reduce burden by greatly reducing the number of people who have to complete an on-line form as the data are acquired from a centralized source instead of from multiple sources. Currently, the Census Bureau has central collection arrangements with forty-six states and four local school district governments.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice and opportunity for public comment.
The Economic Development Administration (EDA) has received petitions for certification of eligibility to apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance from the firms listed below. Accordingly, EDA has initiated investigations to determine whether increased imports into the United States of articles like or directly competitive with those produced by each of the firms contributed importantly to the total or partial separation of the firms' workers, or threat thereof, and to a decrease in sales or production of each petitioning firm.
Any party having a substantial interest in these proceedings may request a public hearing on the matter. A written request for a hearing must be submitted to the Trade Adjustment Assistance Division, Room 71030, Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230, no later than ten (10) calendar days following publication of this notice. These petitions are received pursuant to section 251 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
Please follow the requirements set forth in EDA's regulations at 13 CFR 315.9 for procedures to request a public hearing. The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance official number and title for the program under which these petitions are submitted is 11.313, Trade Adjustment Assistance for Firms.
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Port of Stockton, California, grantee of FTZ 231, requesting an additional site within Subzone 231A on behalf of Medline Industries, Inc. (Medline). The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on February 15, 2018.
Subzone 231A was approved on March 4, 2007 (72 FR 14516, 03/28/2007) and expanded on August 4, 2015 (80 FR 47897, 08/10/2015). The subzone currently consists of three sites:
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Christopher Kemp of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is April 9, 2018. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to April 23, 2018.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Christopher Kemp at
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before April 27, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Carolyn Doherty, National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), Office for International Affairs and Seafood Inspection, 1315 East-West Hwy., Silver Spring, MD, 20910; (301) 427-8385 or
This request is for extension of a current information collection.
Native Americans may conduct certain aboriginal subsistence whaling under the Whaling Convention Act in accordance with the provisions of the International Whaling Commission (IWC). In order to respond to obligations under the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling, the IWC, and the Whaling Convention Act, whaling captains participating in these operations must submit certain information to the relevant Native American whaling organization about strikes on and catch of whales. Anyone retrieving a dead whale is also required to report. Captains must place a distinctive permanent identification mark on any harpoon, lance, or explosive dart used, and must also provide information on the mark and self-identification information. The relevant Native American whaling organization receives the reports, compiles them, and submits the information to NOAA.
The information is used to monitor the hunt and to ensure that quotas are not exceeded. The information is also provided to the IWC, which uses it to monitor compliance with its requirements.
Reports may be made by phone, fax, email, or in writing. Information on equipment marks must be made in writing. No form is used.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Office for Coastal Management (OCM), National Ocean Service (NOS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice.
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Office for Coastal Management will hold a public meeting to solicit comments for the performance evaluation of the Hudson River National Estuarine Research Reserve.
For the specific date, time, and location of the public meeting, see
You may submit comments on the Hudson River National Estuarine Research Reserve by any of the following methods:
Ralph Cantral, Senior Advisor, Policy, NOAA Office for Coastal Management, 2234 South Hobson Avenue, Charleston, South Carolina 29405-2413, by phone at (843) 740-1143, or via email to
Sections 312 and 315 of the Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA) require NOAA to conduct periodic evaluations of federally-approved National Estuarine Research Reserves. The process includes a public meeting, consideration of written public comments, and consultations with interested Federal, state, and local agencies and members of the public. For the evaluation of National Estuarine Research Reserves, NOAA will consider the extent to which the state has met the national objectives, adhered to its management plan approved by the Secretary of Commerce, and adhered to the terms of financial assistance under the Coastal Zone Management Act. When the evaluation is completed, NOAA's Office for Coastal Management will place a notice in the
Specific information on the periodic evaluation of reserves that are the subject of this notice are detailed below as follows:
You may participate and submit oral comments at the public meeting scheduled as follows:
Written comments must be received on or before May 18, 2018.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Working Group of the Northeast Trawl Advisory Panel (NTAP) of the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council will hold a meeting.
The meeting will be held on Monday, March 5, beginning at 10 a.m. and conclude by 3 p.m. For agenda details, see
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The purpose of this Working Group meeting is to: (1) Develop plans for work on the F/V Nobska, (2) compare NEFSC/Northeast Area Monitoring and Assessment Program gear performance, (3) determine priorities for future gear efficiency work, (4) evaluate the effects of NEFSC gear spread on survey indices, and (5) develop recommendations for NTAP's focus for the next 1-3 years.
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council will hold a meeting of its Law Enforcement Technical Committee (LETC), in conjunction with the Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commission's Law Enforcement Committee (LEC).
The meeting will convene on Tuesday, March 13, 2018, starting 8:30 a.m. and will adjourn at 5 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Sheraton Bay Point Resort, located at 4114 Jan Cooley Drive, Panama City Beach, FL 32408; telephone: (850) 236-6000.
Mr. Steven Atran, Senior Fishery Biologist, Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council;
The items of discussion on the agenda are as follows:
Joint Gulf Council's Law Enforcement Technical Committee and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commission's Law Enforcement Committee Meeting Agenda, Tuesday, March 13, 2018, 8:30 a.m. Until 5 p.m.
The Agenda is subject to change. The latest version of the agenda along with other meeting materials will be posted on the Council's file server, which can be accessed by going to the Council website at
The Law Enforcement Technical Committee consists of principal law enforcement officers in each of the Gulf States, as well as the NOAA Law Enforcement, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, the U.S. Coast Guard, and the NOAA General Counsel for Law Enforcement.
Although other non-emergency issues not on the agenda may come before this group for discussion, in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Actions will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in the agenda and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Kathy Pereira at the Gulf Council Office (see
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a four-day public meeting to undertake an independent review to assess past Council performance and solicit suggestions for improvement. Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held from Tuesday, March 13 through Friday, March 16, 2018, beginning at 9 a.m. on Tuesday and at 8:30 a.m. Wednesday through Friday.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The New England Fishery Management Council is conducting an independent review to: (1) Assess past performance; (2) gather feedback on strengths and weaknesses of the Council process and operations; and (3) identify potential areas for improvements. The review will be conducted by an independent six-member panel of fishery managers and scientists from other regions. Each member has a strong understanding of U.S. federal fisheries management but no recent affiliation with the New England Council. Some also have international experience. Non-Executive sessions will be open to the public. Conclusions and recommendations of the panel will be presented to the Council at a future meeting.
Additional information on the review is available on the Council website,
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Notice of public subcommittee meetings.
This notice sets forth the announcement of two public subcommittee meetings of the Consumer Advisory Board (CAB or Board) of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (CFPB or Bureau). The notice also describes the functions of the Board its subcommittees.
The Consumer Advisory Board Consumer Lending subcommittee meeting will take place on Wednesday, February 28, 2018 from approximately 1:00 p.m. to 2:30 p.m. eastern standard time via conference call. The Consumer Advisory Board Mortgages and Small Business Lending Markets subcommittee meeting will take place on Tuesday, March 13, 2018 from approximately 1:00 p.m. to 2:30 p.m. eastern standard time via conference call.
Crystal Dully, Outreach and Engagement Associate, 202-435-9588,
Section 3 of the Charter of the Consumer Advisory Board states that:
The purpose of the Board is outlined in section 1014(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act, which states that the Board shall “advise and consult with the Bureau in the exercise of its functions under the Federal consumer financial laws” and “provide information on emerging practices in the consumer financial products or services industry, including regional trends, concerns, and other relevant information.”
To carry out the Board's purpose, the scope of its activities shall include providing information, analysis, and recommendations to the Bureau. The Board will generally serve as a vehicle for market intelligence and expertise for the Bureau. Its objectives will include identifying and assessing the impact on consumers and other market participants of new, emerging, and changing products, practices, or services.
Typically, the subcommittees meet during the in person advisory group meetings as well as in between via conference calls. Each subcommittee has an advisory group member who serves as the chair and staff from the CFPB's Advisory Board and Councils Office to assist the chair in conducting the meeting.
The Consumer Lending subcommittee focuses on policy issues related to small dollar lending, debt collection, debt relief, auto lending, consumer reporting, and alternative data. The Mortgages and Small Business Markets Lending subcommittee focuses on policy issues related to mortgage origination, mortgage securitization and servicing, marketing service agreements, subprime lending, reverse mortgages, the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA), mortgage insurance, risk monitoring, and small business lending.
Written comments will be accepted from interested members of the public and should be sent to
Individuals who wish to join the Consumer Advisory Board Consumer Lending subcommittee meeting must RSVP to
A summary of these meetings will be available after the meeting on the CFPB's website
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Notice and request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) is proposing to renew with change the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an existing information collection titled, “Financial Coaching Program for Veterans and Low-income Consumers.”
Written comments are encouraged and must be received on or before March 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Comments in response to this notice are to be directed towards OMB and to the attention of the OMB Desk Officer for the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection. You may submit comments, identified by the title of the information collection, OMB Control Number (see below), and docket number (see above), by any of the following methods:
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In general, all comments received will become public records, including any personal information provided. Sensitive personal information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, should not be included.
Documentation prepared in support of this information collection request is available at
The initial information collection request for the administrative data collected by coaches from financial coaching clients for programmatic and performance monitoring purposes was approved in 2015 and expires on February 28, 2018. In 2015, the Financial Coaching program was extended beyond the initial program period and subsequently, this request is for an extension of administrative data collection. In addition, this information request includes a modification, to add five questions to the administrative data collection. The five questions are part of the Financial Well-being Survey, which received approval under OMB Control Number 3170-0063 in order to measure the level of financial well-being of American adults and key sub-populations. This will help us understand the progress clients are making and is also in line with the Bureau's overall efforts to be more consistent in the information we are collecting.
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Notice and request for information.
The Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) seeks comments and information from interested parties to assist the Bureau in assessing its public and non-public external engagements, including but not limited to field hearings, town halls, roundtables, and meetings of the Advisory Board and Councils.
Comments must be received by May 29, 2018.
You may submit responsive information and other comments, identified by Docket No. CFPB-2018-0005, by any of the following methods:
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All submissions in response to this request for information, including attachments and other supporting materials, will become part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Sensitive personal information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, or names of other individuals, should not be included. Submissions will not be edited to remove any identifying or contact information.
Zixta Martinez, Associate Director, External Affairs, at 202-435-9745. If you require this document in an alternative electronic format, please contact
In addition to using notice and comment to seek feedback on regulations from external stakeholders, the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection has historically conducted external engagements, such as field hearings, town halls, roundtables, non-public meetings, and public meetings of the Bureau's Advisory Board and Councils, to discuss and receive feedback on its work.
To assess its external engagements, the Bureau is, as described below,
To ensure that the Bureau hears regularly from diverse external stakeholders, it conducts public and non-public meetings, including field hearings, town halls, roundtables, and meetings of its Advisory Board and Councils.
The Bureau's field hearings are organized around a specific topic and take place in geographically diverse locations throughout the United States. Field hearings are announced on the Bureau's website, are open to the public, and are livestreamed on the Bureau's website. The hearings typically begin with introductory remarks by a Bureau staff member, state or local officials, the CFPB Director, followed by a panel discussion with industry representatives, nonprofit organizations, academics, or other subject matter experts. After the panel discussion, a CFPB staff member invites audience input about the specific topic and/or discussion. Participation is open to all field hearing attendees. Field hearings are available to view as archived videos on the Bureau's website at
Town halls may be open to the public or invitation-only and are sometimes co-hosted by another organization. They are historically organized around a specific topic or financial education. Town halls typically include remarks by the CFPB Director or a CFPB staff person, followed by an audience comment period. Sometimes town halls will include a small discussion panel made up of the CFPB Director or CFPB staff and an external stakeholder, such as an industry representative or a member of a nonprofit organization. To date, the Bureau has held 33 field hearings and 15 town halls in over 40 cities.
Roundtables are invitation-only events with the CFPB Director or CFPB staff to discuss particular issues. Roundtables have historically included industry representatives, nonprofit organizations, academics, or other interested parties.
The Bureau has organized four formal advisory groups (Advisory Board and Councils):
• The Consumer Advisory Board (CAB);
• The Community Bank Advisory Council (CBAC);
• The Credit Union Advisory Council (CUAC); and
• The Academic Research Council (ARC).
The CAB is required by section 1014(a) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act). The purpose of the CAB is “to advise and consult with the Bureau in the exercise of its functions under the Federal consumer financial laws, and to provide information on emerging practices in the consumer financial products or services industry, including regional trends, concerns, and other relevant information.” 12 U.S.C. 5494(a). The CAB is a source of market intelligence and expertise for the agency; the CAB also advises and consults with Bureau staff about various aspects of the Bureau's work. The Bureau has established three other advisory groups. The CBAC advises the Bureau about the effects of regulating consumer financial products or services from the unique perspectives of community banks, and the CUAC does the same from the unique perspectives of credit unions. The ARC advises the Bureau about research methodologies, data collection, and analytic strategies and provides feedback about research and strategic planning.
Since their establishment in 2012, the Bureau's advisory groups have convened in-person and via conference call to fulfill their designated purpose. In addition to service on the full advisory group, members also typically serve on a subcommittee that is focused on particular issues. Advisory group meetings can take place during one day or a series of days, depending on the meeting objectives. The meeting structure typically includes remarks by the CFPB Director and discussions among members and Bureau subject matter experts. At meetings of the CAB, there are also presentations from CAB members about consumer finance trends and themes. In addition, when advisory group meetings are held outside of Washington, DC, they have historically included a segment where members of the public may provide comment on issues that they care about. Advisory group meetings are announced to the public via the
The Bureau aims to conduct engagements in locations throughout the United States in order to engage with the public and inform its work. The Bureau expects that entities that have engaged with the Bureau are likely to have useful information and perspectives about Bureau engagements. The Bureau is especially interested in better understanding how it may improve or revise its engagements to better achieve the Bureau's statutory objectives.
The following list of areas of interest represents a preliminary attempt by the Bureau to identify elements of Bureau processes related to external engagements on which it should focus. This non-exhaustive list is meant to assist in the formulation of comments and is not intended to restrict the issues that may be addressed. In addressing these areas, the Bureau requests that commenters identify with specificity the Bureau practices at issue, providing examples where appropriate.
The Bureau is seeking feedback on all aspects of conducting future external engagements, including the following areas of interest:
1. Strategies for seeking public and private feedback from diverse external stakeholders on the Bureau's work;
2. Structures for convening diverse external stakeholders and the public to discuss Bureau work in ways that maximize public participation and constructive input, including but not limited to structures utilized by the Bureau to date, such as field hearings, town halls, roundtables, and meetings of the advisory groups;
3. Processes for transparency in determining topics, locations, timing, frequency, participants, and other important elements of both public and private events;
4. Vehicles for soliciting public and private perspectives from outside of Washington, DC on the Bureau's work;
5. Strategies for promoting transparency of external engagements, including Advisory Board and Council meetings, while protecting confidential business information and encouraging frank dialogue;
6. Strategies and channels for distributing information about external engagements to maximize awareness and participation; and
7. Other approaches, methods, or practices not currently utilized by the Bureau that would elicit constructive input on the Bureau's work.
12 U.S.C. 5511(c).
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice and request for resumes from highly qualified individuals to be considered for Advisory Committee membership.
The Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery is an independent Federal advisory committee chartered to provide the Secretary of Defense, through the Secretary of the Army, independent advice and recommendations on Arlington National Cemetery, including, but not limited to cemetery administration, the erection of memorials at the cemetery, and master planning for the cemetery. The Secretary of the Army may act on the Committee's advice and recommendations. The Committee is comprised of no more than nine (9) members. Subject to the approval of the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of the Army appoints no more than seven (7) of these members. The purpose of this notice is to solicit resumes from a wide range of highly qualified individuals desiring appointment to the Committee. Appointment as a members of the Committee and its sub-committees may be made for terms of service ranging from one to four years. All nominees by the Secretary of the Army for Secretary of Defense for approval must be preeminent authorities in their respective fields of interest or expertise. This notice solicits submissions of resumes from interested and highly qualified individuals to fill Committee membership vacancies that may occur through September 30, 2018.
All nominations must be received no later than May 1, 2018.
Individuals interested in being considered for appointment may submit a resume and contact information (address and phone number) to the Department of the Army through the Committee's Designated Federal Officer at the following address: Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery, ATTN: Alternate Designated Federal Officer (ADFO) (Mr. Keating), Arlington National Cemetery, Arlington, VA 22211.
Mr. Timothy P. Keating, Alternate Designated Federal Officer, by email at
The Advisory Committee on Arlington National Cemetery was established pursuant to Title 10, United States Code Section 4723. The selection, service and appointment of members of the Committee are publicized in the Committee Charter, available on the Arlington National Cemetery website
a. Selection. The Committee Charter provides that the Committee shall be comprised of no more than nine members, all of whom are preeminent authorities in their respective fields of interest or expertise. Of these, no more than seven members are nominated by the Secretary of the Army.
By direction of the Secretary of the Army, all resumes submitted in response to this notice will be presented to and reviewed by a panel of three senior Army leaders. Potential nominees shall be prioritized after review and consideration of their resumes for: demonstrated technical/professional expertise; preeminence in a field(s) of interest or expertise; potential contribution to membership balance in terms of the points of view represented and the functions to be performed; potential organizational and financial conflicts of interest; commitment to our Nation's veterans and their families; and published points of view relevant to the objectives of the Committee. The panel will provide the DFO with a prioritized list of potential nominees for consideration by the Executive Director, Army National Military Cemeteries for an initial recommendation to the Secretary of the Army. The Executive Director, Army National Military Cemeteries, the Secretary of the Army, and the Secretary of Defense are not limited or bound by the recommendations of the Army senior leader panel. Sources in addition to this
b. Service. The Secretary of Defense may approve the appointment of a Committee member for a one-to-four year term of service; however, no member, unless authorized by the Secretary of Defense, may serve on the Committee or authorized subcommittee for more than two consecutive terms of service. The Secretary of the Army shall designate the Committee Chair from the total Advisory Committee membership. The Committee meets at the call of the DFO, in consultation with the Committee Chair. It is estimated that the Committee meets four times per year.
c. Appointment. The operations of the Committee and the appointment of members are subject to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended) and departmental implementing regulations, including Department of Defense Instruction 5105.04, Department of Defense Federal Advisory Committee Management Program, available at
Additional information about the Committee is available on the internet at:
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice.
The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance, the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by March 28, 2018.
DFARS 217.7004, Exchange of Personal Property. Paragraph (a) of this section requires that solicitations which contemplate exchange (trade-in) of personal property and application of the exchange allowance to the acquisition of similar property (see 40 U.S.C. 481), shall include a request for offerors to state prices for the new items being acquired both with and without any exchange (trade-in allowance).
DFARS 217.7404-3, Undefinitized Contract Actions. Paragraph (b) of this section requires contractors to submit a “qualifying proposal” in accordance with the definitization schedule provided in the contract. A qualifying proposal is defined in DFARS 217.7401(c) as a proposal containing sufficient information for the DoD to do complete and meaningful analyses and audits of the information in the proposal, and any other information that the contracting officer has determined DoD needs to review in connection with the contract.
DFARS 217.7505, Acquisition of Replenishment Parts. Paragraph (d) of this section permits contracting officers to include in sole-source solicitations that include acquisition of replenishment parts, a provision requiring that the offeror supply with its proposal, price and quantity data on any Government orders for the replenishment part issued within the most recent 12 months (see 10 U.S.C. 2452 note, Spare Parts and Replacement Equipment, Publication of Regulations).
DFARS 252.217-7012, Liability and Insurance. Paragraph (d)(3) of this clause requires the contractor to show evidence of casualty, accident, and liability insurance under a master agreement for vessel repair and alteration.
DFARS 252.217-7012. Paragraphs (f) and (g) of the require the contractor to notify the contracting officer of any property loss or damage for which the Government is liable and to submit to the contracting officer a request, with supporting documentation, for reimbursement of the cost of replacement or repair.
DFARS 252.217-7026, Identification of Sources of Supply. This provision requires the apparently successful offeror to identify its sources of supply. The Government is required under 10 U.S.C. 2384 to obtain certain information on the actual manufacturer or sources of supplies it acquire.
DFARS 252.217-7028, Over and Above Work. Paragraphs (c) and (e) of this clause require the contractor to submit to the contracting officer a work request and proposal for “over and above work” or work discovered during the course of performing overhaul, maintenance, and repair efforts that is within the general scope of the contract, not covered by the line item(s) for the basic work under the contract, and necessary in order to satisfactorily complete the contract.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice and request for comments regarding a proposed extension of an approved information collection requirement.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, DoD announces the proposed extension of a public information collection requirement and seeks public comment on the provisions thereof.
DoD will consider all comments received by April 27, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by OMB Control Number 0704-0397, using any of the following methods:
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Comments received generally will be posted without change to
Ms. Mark Gomersall, 571-372-6099. The information collection requirements addressed in this notice are available electronically on the internet at:
The clause at DFARS 252.243-7002, Requests for Equitable Adjustment, is prescribed at DFARS 243.205-71 for use in solicitations and contracts, including solicitations and contracts using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial items that are estimated to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold. The clause requires contractors to certify that requests for equitable adjustment that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold are made in good faith and that the supporting data are accurate and complete. The clause also requires contractors to fully disclose all facts relevant to the requests for adjustment.
U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Extension of comment period.
On February 5, 2018, the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) published a notice announcing the availability of a draft Engineer Circular (EC), which is an agency policy document, for a 30-day comment period. This draft EC provides the proposed policies and procedures related to how USACE will process certain requests by others to alter a USACE civil works project pursuant to Section 14 of the Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899, as amended (more commonly referred to as Section 408). This notice announces the extension of the comment period by an additional 30 days. The extension of the comment period is a result of requests by entities to allow more time to submit their comments. The draft EC is available for review on the USACE Section 408 website (
The public comment period that began on February 5, 2018 (83 FR 5075) is extended until April 6, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by docket number COE-2018-0003 by any of the following methods:
Ms. Tammy Conforti at 202-761-4649, email
In the February 5, 2018 issue of the
Department of the Army, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice of availability.
Pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Galveston District (USACE) announces the release of the Draft Integrated Feasibility Report and Environmental Impact Statement (DIFR-EIS) for the Recommended Plan of the Gulf Intracoastal Waterway (GIWW): Brazos River Floodgates (BRFG) and Colorado River Locks (CRL) Systems Feasibility Study, Brazos and Matagorda Counties, TX. The DIFR-EIS documents the existing condition of environmental resources in and around areas considered for development, and potential impacts on those resources as a result of implementing the alternatives.
The Galveston District will hold a public meeting for the DIFR-EIS on March 13, 2018 from 6:00-8:00 p.m. USACE will accept written public comments on the DIFR-EIS from February 26, 2018 to April 11, 2018. Comments on the DIFR-EIS must be postmarked by April 11, 2018.
The public meeting will be held at the West Columbia Civic Center, 516 E. Brazos Ave. (State Highway 35), West Columbia, TX 77486. Comments may be submitted at the public meeting or mailed to the District Engineer, P.O. Box 1229, Galveston, TX 77553. Comments may also be sent to the District Engineer via email at
Galveston District Public Affairs Office at 409-766-3004 or
Authority: The lead agency for this proposed action is USACE. This study has been prepared in response to the provision of funds in the Energy and Water Development Appropriations Act of 1998, under the authority of Section 216 of the 1970 Flood Control Act. The non-federal sponsor is the Texas Department of Transportation (TxDOT).
In 1940, six 75-foot-wide gated structures, which were designed to control flows and silt into the GIWW at the Brazos and Colorado Rivers, were completed. The gates are closed during higher flow events, which generally carry more sediments, thus reducing shoaling and therefore dredging in the GIWW. Although the structural improvements on both rivers helped to reduce shoaling, they created their own set of delays to navigation. The narrow opening of the gated structure creates an impedance to the flow of water causing the water to swell and rise locally, which accelerates the water through the structure, creating hazardous navigation conditions. At a certain level of swell, or head differential, navigation is deemed too hazardous and the river crossing is closed to navigation. The 75-foot-wide opening also requires tows that are assembled to two barges wide to break down to single wide to traverse the structures. The narrow gate opening and crossing geometry create hazardous cross currents and eddies, which when coupled with winds and other drivers are the cause for numerous vessel impacts (allisions) to the structures.
These problems combine to create massive average delays to navigation, which became the single-most important economic driver and decision point for the study process. The study process includes an in-depth investigation of the existing practices and conditions for navigation as well as an extrapolation of these practices and conditions into the future to establish a baseline, or without-project condition, to which all improvements, measures/alternatives, can be measured.
The Colorado River crossing portion of the plan will also be in the existing channel alignment and include gate removal of the riverside gate structures while retaining the outer gates, creating a wider (125 feet) channel and much longer forebay, reducing barge allisions with the guidewalls. For the Colorado crossing, full gated structures remain, resulting in minimal changes to sediment distribution patterns. The current cost estimate for construction is approximately $36.9M including contingencies.
To quantitatively analyze and compare alternatives, monetized benefits of the alternatives were estimated using a stand-along model developed and approved for use by this study. Benefits were compared to costs to develop benefit-cost ratios (BCR) and net benefits estimates. The system BCR for the Recommended Plan is 2.5.
Potential hazardous, toxic, and radioactive waste (HTRW) concerns may occur at the BRFG and CRL facilities, such as possible lead paint on the structures and potential for contaminants in sediment deposits in the areas. These areas will be tested as appropriate and, depending on the sediment sample results, there will be additional efforts for disposal, treatment, or additional health and safety requirements during construction.
The impact analysis determined there would be only minor impacts to soils and waterbottoms, water quality, turbidity, protected wildlife species (
The document can also be viewed and downloaded from the Galveston District website:
1. Boyce Hydro Power, LLC (Boyce Hydro or licensee) is in violation of numerous provisions of its license for the Edenville Hydroelectric Project No. 10808 (Edenville Project), the Federal Power Act (FPA), and multiple Commission regulations and orders, including a Compliance Order issued pursuant to section 31(a) of the Federal Power Act.
2. On October 16, 1998, the Commission issued a license for the Edenville Project, a 4.8-megawatt (MW) hydroelectric project located in Gladwin and Midland counties, Michigan.
3. Boyce Hydro's license includes terms and conditions concerning dam safety, property rights, water quality, public recreation and safety, and other areas of public concern. Boyce Hydro has a long history of non-compliance with those terms and conditions and with related provisions in the FPA and Commission regulations and orders. The Compliance Order, which was issued pursuant to section 31 of the FPA on June 15, 2017, detailed this history and staff's multi-year effort to bring Boyce Hydro into compliance.
4. Ordering Paragraphs (A) through (M) of the Compliance Order required Boyce Hydro to provide specific plans, specifications, reports and other information to address the violations identified in that order and to come into compliance with the Commission's regulations and the terms of its license. On July 14, 2017, and July 27, 2017, the licensee filed two requests for more time to comply with certain requirements in the Compliance Order. By orders issued July 25, 2017, and August 15, 2017, the extensions that the licensee requested were granted, with the exception of one portion of the second requested extension, which the order determined could be completed in the time provided in the first extension without the need for a second.
5. Boyce Hydro failed to comply with obligations set out in each of the ordering paragraphs in the Compliance Order, except for the obligations to acquire and document certain property rights (although the lack of designs for the new and revised spillways makes it difficult to determine if it has acquired all necessary property rights)
6. Boyce Hydro violated the following ordering paragraphs in the Compliance Order and associated orders extending time:
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7. Boyce Hydro failed to make the filings required by ordering paragraphs (B), (D), (F), (G), (J), and (K) of the Compliance Order. It claims to have started the process of preparing the design package for the Tobacco River Auxiliary Spillway that was required by Ordering Paragraph (B), but it requested an additional four to five-month extension to complete that design package.
8. Boyce Hydro did not seek rehearing of the Compliance Order, and it has admitted that it failed to meet the obligations imposed by that order.
9. Under section 31(b) of the FPA,
10. This order provides notice that we propose to revoke the license for the Edenville Project No. 10808 under section 31(b). As explained in the Compliance Order, Boyce Hydro has failed for many years to comply with significant license and safety requirements, notwithstanding having been given opportunities to come into compliance. The Compliance Order set out specific parameters for Boyce Hydro to achieve compliance with its license. The licensee failed to meet nearly all the obligations in the Compliance Order, even after Commission staff granted multiple extensions.
11. The licensee may request an evidentiary hearing before an Administrative Law Judge within 30 days of this issuance date of this order.
(A) Pursuant to section 31(b) of the FPA, 16 U.S.C. 823b(b) (2012), the Commission proposes to revoke the license for the Edenville Project No. 10808.
(B) Boyce Hydro may request an evidentiary hearing within 30 days of the issuance date of this order.
By the Commission.
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Brook County Access Project involving construction and operation of facilities by Brooke County Access I, LLC (BCAI), in Washington County, Pennsylvania and Brooke County, West Virginia. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before March 22, 2018.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on October 17, 2017, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. PF18-2-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this planned project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the planned facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
A fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know? is available for viewing on the FERC website (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (PF18-2-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
BCAI plans to construct and operate a varying diameter natural gas transmission pipeline from interconnects with Energy Transfer Partner's Revolution Cryogenic Facility and the National Fuel Gas Supply Corporation's (National Fuel) Line N natural gas mainline in Washington County, Pennsylvania, to a proposed
The Project includes the construction and operation of the following facilities:
• Approximately 16 miles of new 16- to 20-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline;
• bi-directional pig launcher and receiver system on each end of the new pipelines;
• three new meter stations and mainline valve settings at milepost 0.0 at the Revolution Cryogenic Plant interconnect, milepost 2.21 at the National Fuel interconnect, and at milepost 15.57 inside the Power Facility.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
Construction of the planned facilities would disturb about 225 acres of land for the aboveground facilities and the pipeline. Following construction, BCAI would maintain about 105 acres for permanent operation of the projects facilities; the remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses. About 27 percent of the planned pipeline route parallels existing pipeline, utility, or road rights-of-way.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the planned project under these general headings:
• Geology and soils;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• vegetation and wildlife;
• endangered and threatened species;
• cultural resources;
• land use;
• air quality and noise;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate possible alternatives to the planned project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
Although no formal application has been filed, we have already initiated our NEPA review under the Commission's pre-filing process. The purpose of the pre-filing process is to encourage early involvement of interested stakeholders and to identify and resolve issues before the FERC receives an application. As part of our pre-filing review, we have begun to contact some federal and state agencies to discuss their involvement in the scoping process and the preparation of the EA.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before we make our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues related to this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office(s), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the planned project.
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
Once BCAI files its application with the Commission, you may want to become an intervenor which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
Take notice that on February 20, 2018, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 824e and 825d and Rule 206 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (FERC or Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.206, Public Citizen, Inc. (Complainant) filed a formal complaint against PJM Interconnection LLC (PJM or Respondent) alleging that PJM failed to disclose millions of dollars in electoral campaign contributions and lobbying expenditures to its stakeholders or to FERC, in violation of Commission precedent and potential violation of just and reasonable rates, all as more fully explained in the complaint.
The Complainant certifies that a copy of the complaint has been served on the Respondent.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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i.
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, protests, and motions to intervene using the Commission's eFiling system at
k.
When a Declaration of Intention is filed with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, the Federal Power Act requires the Commission to investigate and determine if the project would affect the interests of interstate or foreign commerce. The Commission also determines whether or not the project: (1) Would be located on a navigable waterway; (2) would occupy public lands or reservations of the United States; (3) would utilize surplus water or water power from a government dam; or (4) would be located on a non-navigable stream over which Congress has Commerce Clause jurisdiction and would be constructed or enlarged after 1935.
l.
m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), “NESHAP for Epoxy Resin and Non-Nylon Polyamide Production” (EPA ICR No. 1681.09, OMB Control No. 2060-0290), to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through April 30, 2018. Public comments were previously requested, via the
Additional comments may be submitted on or before March 28, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OECA-2013-0347, to: (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change, including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Patrick Yellin, Monitoring, Assistance, and Media Programs Division, Office of Compliance, Mail Code 2227A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-2970; fax number: (202) 564-0050; email address:
Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit the information collection request (ICR), Revisions to the RCRA Definition of Solid Waste (EPA ICR No. 2310.04, OMB Control No. 2050-0202) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Before doing so, the EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through April 30, 2018. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before April 27, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OLEM-2018-0013, online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless
Tracy Atagi, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 703-308-8672; fax number: 703-308-8880; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
• Under the generator-controlled exclusion at 40 CFR 261.4(a)(23), the tolling contractor has to maintain at its facility for no less than three years records of hazardous secondary materials received pursuant to its written contract with the tolling manufacturer, and the tolling manufacturer must maintain at its facility for no less than three years records of hazardous secondary materials shipped pursuant to its written contract with the tolling contractor. In addition, facilities performing the recycling of hazardous secondary materials under the generator-controlled exclusions at 40 CFR 261.4(a)(23) to maintain documentation of their legitimacy determination onsite.
• Under the verified recycler exclusion at 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24), a verified hazardous secondary materials recycler or an intermediate facility who has obtained a solid waste variance must meet the following conditions: Having financial assurance in place, having trained personnel, and meeting emergency preparedness and response conditions.
• Under the remanufacturing exclusion at 40 CFR 261.4(a)(27), both the hazardous secondary material generator and the remanufacturer must maintain records of shipments and confirmations of receipts for a period of three years from the dates of the shipments.
• Under the revised speculative accumulation requirement in 261.1(c)(8), all persons subject to the speculative accumulation requirements must label the storage unit by indicating the first date that the material began to be accumulated.
This ICR renewal does not include the burden associated with filling out form 8700-12 because that burden is included in ICR 2050-0024. The remaining burden will eventually be included in ICR 2050-0053, at which time this ICR will be withdrawn.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has submitted an information collection request (ICR), “NESHAP for Cellulose Products Manufacturing,” EPA ICR No. 1974.08, OMB Control No. 2060-0488, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through April 30, 2018. Public comments were previously requested, via the
Additional comments may be submitted on or before March 28, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OECA-2014-0080, to: (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change, including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Patrick Yellin, Monitoring, Assistance, and Media Programs Division, Office of Compliance, Mail Code 2227A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-2970; fax number: (202) 564-0050; email address:
Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Request for nominations to the National Environmental Justice Advisory Council (NEJAC).
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) invites nominations from a diverse range of qualified candidates to be considered for appointment to its National Environmental Justice Advisory Council (NEJAC). The NEJAC was chartered to provide advice regarding broad, cross-cutting issues related to environmental justice. This notice solicits nominations to fill approximately four (4) new vacancies for terms through September, 2019. To maintain the representation outlined by the charter, nominees will be selected to represent: academia (2 vacancies); business and industry (1 vacancy); and state and local government (1 vacancy). Vacancies are anticipated to be filled by September 2018. Sources in addition to this
Nominations should be submitted in time to arrive no later than Friday, April 13, 2018.
Submit nominations electronically with the subject line NEJAC Membership 2018 to
Karen L. Martin, NEJAC Program Manager, U.S. EPA; email:
The NEJAC is a federal advisory committee chartered under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), Public Law 92-463. EPA established the NEJAC in 1993 to provide independent consensus advice to the EPA Administrator about a broad range of environmental issues related to environmental justice. The NEJAC conducts business in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (5 U.S.C. App. 2) and related regulations.
The Council consists of 30 members (including a Chairperson and two Vice-Chairpersons) appointed by EPA's Administrator. Members serve as non-federal stakeholders representing: Six (6) from academia, four (4) from business and industry; seven (7) from community based organizations; six (6) from non-governmental/environmental organizations; four (4) from state and local governments; and three (3) from tribal governments and indigenous organizations, of which one member serves as a liaison to the National Tribal Caucus. Members are appointed for one (1), two (2) or three (3)-year terms with the possibility of reappointment for another term.
The NEJAC usually meets face-to-face twice a year, generally in the Spring and the Fall. Additionally, members may be asked to participate in teleconference meetings or serve on work groups to develop recommendations, advice letters, and reports to address specific policy issues. The average workload for members is approximately 5 to 8 hours per month. EPA provides reimbursement for travel and other incidental expenses associated with official government business.
• The background and experience that would help members contribute to the diversity of perspectives on the committee (
• demonstrated experience with environmental justice and community sustainability issues at the national, state, or local level;
• excellent interpersonal and consensus-building skills;
• ability to volunteer time to attend meetings 2-3 times a year, participate in teleconference meetings, attend listening sessions with the Administrator or other senior-level officials, develop policy recommendations to the Administrator, and prepare reports and advice letters; and
• willingness to commit time to the committee and demonstrated ability to work constructively and effectively on committees.
• Current contact information for the nominee, including the nominee's name, organization (and position within that organization), current business address, email address, and daytime telephone number.
• Brief Statement describing the nominees interest in serving on the NEJAC.
• Résumé and a short biography (no more than 2 paragraphs) describing the professional and educational qualifications of the nominee, including a list of relevant activities, and any current or previous service on advisory committees.
• Letter[s] of recommendation from a third party supporting the nomination. Letter[s] should describe how the nominee's experience and knowledge will bring value to the work of the NEJAC.
Other sources, in addition to this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is requesting comment on applications General Motors (GM), and Toyota Motor North America (Toyota) for off-cycle carbon dioxide (CO
Comments must be received on or before March 28, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ- OAR-2017-0754, to the Federal eRulemaking Portal:
Roberts French, Environmental Protection Specialist, Office of Transportation and Air Quality, Compliance Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 2000 Traverwood Drive, Ann Arbor, MI 48105. Telephone: (734) 214-4380. Fax: (734) 214-4869. Email address:
EPA's light-duty vehicle greenhouse gas (GHG) program provides three pathways by which a manufacturer may accrue off-cycle carbon dioxide (CO
Under the regulations, a manufacturer seeking to demonstrate off-cycle credits with an alternative methodology (
• Use modeling, on-road testing, on-road data collection, or other approved analytical or engineering methods;
• Be robust, verifiable, and capable of demonstrating the real-world emissions benefit with strong statistical significance;
• Result in a demonstration of baseline and controlled emissions over a wide range of driving conditions and number of vehicles such that issues of data uncertainty are minimized;
• Result in data on a model type basis unless the manufacturer demonstrates that another basis is appropriate and adequate.
Further, the regulations specify the following requirements regarding an application for off-cycle CO
• A manufacturer requesting off-cycle credits must develop a methodology for demonstrating and determining the benefit of the off-cycle technology, and carry out any necessary testing and analysis required to support that methodology.
• A manufacturer requesting off-cycle credits must conduct testing and/or prepare engineering analyses that demonstrate the in-use durability of the technology for the full useful life of the vehicle.
• The application must contain a detailed description of the off-cycle technology and how it functions to reduce CO
• The application must contain a list of the vehicle model(s) which will be equipped with the technology.
• The application must contain a detailed description of the test vehicles selected and an engineering analysis that supports the selection of those vehicles for testing.
• The application must contain all testing and/or simulation data required under the regulations, plus any other data the manufacturer has considered in the analysis.
Finally, the alternative methodology must be approved by EPA prior to the manufacturer using it to generate credits. As part of the review process defined by regulation, the alternative methodology submitted to EPA for consideration must be made available for public comment.
General Motors (GM) is requesting GHG credits for alternators with improved efficiency relative to a baseline alternator. This request is for the 2010 to 2016 model years. Automotive alternators convert mechanical energy from a combustion engine into electrical energy that can be used to power a vehicle's electrical systems. Alternators inherently place a load on the engine, which results in increased fuel consumption and CO
GM is also applying for off-cycle GHG credits for the use of active climate control seat technologies. Based on GM's analysis, they are requesting credits equal to 2.3 grams CO
The technology used by GM uses a combination of ventilation fans and cooling devices. Active cooling to the seat back is provided by the installation of thermoelectric devices (TED) and a blower which provides positive, temperature controlled airflow pushed towards the occupant. The seat cushion also features a blower operating in a pull mode, drawing the air surrounding the occupant into the seat cushion. The foams in both seating surfaces include a textile spacer fabric that facilitates lateral airflow under occupant load. The seat covers are made of cloth and backed by an additional layer of textile spacer fabric to promote airflow to the occupant.
GM performed a series of simulations on three vehicle platforms, demonstrating credit values of 1.7 and 2.1 grams/mile for cars and trucks,
Using the alternative methodology approach discussed above, Toyota is applying for credits for an air conditioning compressor manufactured by Denso that results in air conditioning efficiency credits beyond those provided in the regulations. This request is for the 2013 and subsequent model years. This compressor, known as the Denso SAS compressor, improves the internal valve system within the compressor to reduce the internal refrigerant flow necessary throughout the range of displacements that the compressor may use during its operating cycle. The addition of a variable crankcase suction valve allows a larger mass flow under maximum capacity and compressor start-up conditions (when high flow is ideal), and then it can reduce to smaller openings with reduced mass flow in mid- or low-capacity conditions. The refrigerant exiting the crankcase is thus optimized across the range of operating conditions, reducing the overall energy consumption of the air conditioning system. EPA first approved credits for General Motors (GM) for the use of the Denso SAS compressor in 2015,
The credits calculated for the Denso SAS compressor would be in addition to the credits of 1.7 grams/mile for variable-displacement A/C compressors already allowed under EPA regulations.
Toyota is requesting an off-cycle GHG credit of 1.1 grams CO
EPA has reviewed the applications for completeness and is now making the applications available for public review and comment as required by the regulations. The off-cycle credit applications submitted by GM and Toyota (with confidential business information redacted) have been placed in the public docket (see
EPA is providing a 30-day comment period on the applications for off-cycle credits described in this notice, as specified by the regulations. The manufacturers may submit a written rebuttal of comments for EPA's consideration, or may revise an application in response to comments. After reviewing any public comments and any rebuttal of comments submitted by manufacturers, EPA will make a final decision regarding the credit requests. EPA will make its decision available to the public by placing a decision document (or multiple decision documents) in the docket and on EPA's website at the same manufacturer-specific pages shown above. While the broad methodologies used by these manufacturers could potentially be used for other vehicles and by other manufacturers, the vehicle specific data needed to demonstrate the off-cycle emissions reductions would likely be different. In such cases, a new application would be required, including an opportunity for public comment.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before April 27, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
The revised Section 73.3613(d)(2) is as follows:
Joint sales agreements: Joint sales agreements involving radio stations where the licensee (including all parties under common control) is the brokering entity, the brokering and brokered stations are both in the same market as defined in the local radio multiple ownership rule contained in § 73.3555(a), and more than 15 percent of the advertising time of the brokered station on a weekly basis is brokered by that licensee. Confidential or proprietary information may be redacted where appropriate but such information shall be made available for inspection upon request by the FCC.
47 CFR Section 73.3613 currently requires each licensee or permittee of a commercial or noncommercial AM, FM, TV or International broadcast station shall file with the FCC copies of the following contracts, instruments, and documents together with amendments, supplements, and cancellations (with the substance of oral contracts reported in writing), within 30 days of execution thereof:
(a)
(1) All network affiliation contracts, agreements, or understandings between a TV broadcast or low power TV station and a national network. For the purposes of this paragraph the term network means any person, entity, or corporation which offers an interconnected program service on a regular basis for 15 or more hours per week to at least 25 affiliated television licensees in 10 or more states; and/or any person, entity, or corporation controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person, entity, or corporation.
(2) Each such filing on or after May 1, 1969, initially shall consist of a written instrument containing all of the terms and conditions of such contract, agreement or understanding without reference to any other paper or document by incorporation or otherwise. Subsequent filings may simply set forth renewal, amendment or change, as the case may be, of a particular contract previously filed in accordance herewith.
(3) The FCC shall also be notified of the cancellation or termination of network affiliations, contracts for which are required to be filed by this section.
(b)
(1) Articles of partnership, association, and incorporation, and changes in such instruments;
(2) Bylaws, and any instruments effecting changes in such bylaws;
(3) Any agreement, document or instrument providing for the assignment of a license or permit, or affecting, directly or indirectly, the ownership or voting rights of the licensee's or permittee's stock (common or preferred, voting or nonvoting), such as:
(i) Agreements for transfer of stock;
(ii) Instruments for the issuance of new stock; or
(iii) Agreements for the acquisition of licensee's or permittee's stock by the issuing licensee or permittee corporation. Pledges, trust agreements, options to purchase stock and other executory agreements are required to be filed. However, trust agreements or abstracts thereof are not required to be filed, unless requested specifically by the FCC. Should the FCC request an abstract of the trust agreement in lieu of the trust agreement, the licensee or permittee will submit the following information concerning the trust:
(A) Name of trust;
(B) Duration of trust;
(C) Number of shares of stock owned;
(D) Name of beneficial owner of stock;
(E) Name of record owner of stock;
(F) Name of the party or parties who have the power to vote or control the vote of the shares; and
(G) Any conditions on the powers of voting the stock or any unusual characteristics of the trust.
(4) Proxies with respect to the licensee's or permittee's stock running for a period in excess of 1 year, and all proxies, whether or not running for a period of 1 year, given without full and detailed instructions binding the nominee to act in a specified manner. With respect to proxies given without full and detailed instructions, a statement showing the number of such proxies, by whom given and received, and the percentage of outstanding stock represented by each proxy shall be submitted by the licensee or permittee within 30 days after the stockholders' meeting in which the stock covered by such proxies has been voted. However, when the licensee or permittee is a corporation having more than 50 stockholders, such complete information need be filed only with respect to proxies given by stockholders who are officers or directors, or who have 1% or more of the corporation's voting stock. When the licensee or permittee is a corporation having more than 50 stockholders and the stockholders giving the proxies are not officers or directors or do not hold 1% or more of the corporation's stock, the only information required to be filed is the name of any person voting 1% or more of the stock by proxy, the number of shares voted by proxy by such
(5) Mortgage or loan agreements containing provisions restricting the licensee's or permittee's freedom of operation, such as those affecting voting rights, specifying or limiting the amount of dividends payable, the purchase of new equipment, or the maintenance of current assets.
(6) Any agreement reflecting a change in the officers, directors or stockholders of a corporation, other than the licensee or permittee, having an interest, direct or indirect, in the licensee or permittee as specified by § 73.3615.
(7) Agreements providing for the assignment of a license or permit or agreements for the transfer of stock filed in accordance with FCC application Forms 314, 315, 316 need not be resubmitted pursuant to the terms of this rule provision.
(c)
(2)
(d)(1)
(e) The following contracts, agreements or understandings need not be filed but shall be kept at the station and made available for inspection upon request by the FCC; subchannel leasing agreements for Subsidiary Communications Authorization operation; franchise/leasing agreements for operation of telecommunications services on the television vertical blanking interval and in the visual signal; time sales contracts with the same sponsor for 4 or more hours per day, except where the length of the events (such as athletic contests, musical programs and special events) broadcast pursuant to the contract is not under control of the station; and contracts with chief operators.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice advises interested persons that the Federal Communications Commission's (FCC or Commission) Communications Security, Reliability, and Interoperability Council (CSRIC) VI will hold its fourth meeting.
March 28, 2018.
Federal Communications Commission, Room TW-C305 (Commission Meeting Room), 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20554.
Jeffery Goldthorp, Designated Federal Officer, (202) 418-1096 (voice) or
The meeting will be held on March 28, 2018, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. in the Commission Meeting Room of the Federal Communications Commission, Room TW-C305, 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20554.
The CSRIC is a Federal Advisory Committee that will provide recommendations to the FCC to improve the security, reliability, and interoperability of communications systems. On March 19, 2017, the FCC, pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, renewed the charter for the CSRIC for a period of two years through March 18, 2019. The meeting on March 28, 2018, will be the Fourth meeting of the CSRIC under the current charter. The FCC will attempt to accommodate as many attendees as possible; however, admittance will be limited to seating availability. The Commission will provide audio and/or video coverage of the meeting over the internet from the FCC's web page at
Open captioning will be provided for this event. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. Requests for such accommodations should be submitted via email to
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before April 27, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before April 27, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
In 1996, the Declaration of Conformity (DoC) procedure was established in a Report and Order, FCC 96-208,
(a) The Declaration of Conformity equipment authorization procedure, 47 CFR 2.1071, requires that a manufacturers or equipment supplier test a product to ensure compliance with technical standards that limit radio frequency emissions.
(b) Additionally, the manufacturer or supplier must also include a DoC (with the standards) in the literature furnished with the equipment, and the equipment manufacturer or supplier must also make this statement of conformity and supporting technical data available to the FCC, at the Commission's request.
(c) The DoC procedure represents a simplified filing and reporting procedure for authorizing equipment for marketing.
(d) Finally, testing and documentation of compliance are needed to control potential interference to radio communications. The data gathering are necessary for investigating complaints of harmful interference or for verifying the manufacturer's compliance with the Commission's rules.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before March 28, 2018.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the web page
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
The Federal Communications Commission has received Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for a new information collection pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995. An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number, and no person is required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Comments concerning the accuracy of the burden estimates and any suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the person listed in the
Nicole Ongele, Office of the Managing Director, at (202) 418-2991, or via email:
This information collection addresses the eligibility requirements that New York winning bidders must meet before the Wireline Competition Bureau (Bureau) will authorize them to receive Connect America Phase II support. For each New York winning bid that includes Connect America-eligible areas, the Commission will authorize Connect America support up to the total reserve prices of all of the Connect America Phase II auction eligible census blocks that are included in the bid, provided that New York has committed, at a minimum, the same dollar amount of New York support to the Connect America-eligible areas in that bid. Before Connect America Phase II support is authorized, the Bureau will closely review the winning bidders to ensure that they have met the eligibility requirements adopted by the Commission and that they are technically and financially qualified to meet the terms and conditions of Connect America support. To aid in collecting this information regarding New York State's winning bidders and the applicants' ability to meet the terms and conditions of Connect America Phase II support in a uniform fashion, the Commission has created the proposed new FCC Form 5625, which parties should use in their submissions with the FCC.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than March 12, 2018.
1.
World War One Centennial Commission, GSA.
Meeting notice.
Notice of this meeting is being provided according to the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. This notice provides the schedule and agenda for the March 20, 2018 meeting of the World War One Centennial Commission (the Commission). The meeting is open to the public.
Registered speakers/organizations will be allowed five minutes, and will need to provide written copies of their presentations. Requests to comment, together with presentations for the meeting, must be received by Friday, March 9, 2018, by 5:00 p.m., EST, and may be provided by email to
The meeting will be held telephonically. The call will be convened at the Offices of the World War One Centennial Commission at 1800 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20006. This location is handicapped accessible. Persons attending in person are requested to refrain from using perfume, cologne, and other fragrances.
Contact Daniel S. Dayton at
Daniel S. Dayton, Designated Federal Officer, World War One Centennial Commission, 701 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Ste. 123, Washington, DC 20004, telephone 202-380-0725 (
The World War One Centennial Commission was established by Public Law 112-272 (as amended), as a commission to ensure a suitable observance of the centennial of World War I, to provide for the designation of memorials to the service of members of the United States Armed Forces in World War I, and for other purposes. Under this authority, the Commission will plan, develop, and execute programs, projects, and activities to commemorate the centennial of World War I, encourage private organizations and State and local governments to organize and participate in activities commemorating the centennial of World War I, facilitate and coordinate activities throughout the United States relating to the centennial of World War I, serve as a clearinghouse for the collection and dissemination of information about events and plans for the centennial of World War I, and develop recommendations for Congress and the President for commemorating the centennial of World War I. The Commission does not have an appropriation and operates on donated funds.
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces the intention of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve the proposed changes to the currently approved information collection project:
This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments on this notice must be received by March 28, 2018.
Written comments should be submitted to: AHRQ's OMB Desk Officer by fax at (202) 395-6974 (attention: AHRQ's desk officer) or by email at
Doris Lefkowitz, AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer, (301) 427-1477, or by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521, AHRQ invites the public to comment on this proposed information collection. For over thirty years, results from the
Major changes continue to take place in the health care delivery system. The MEPS is needed to provide information about the current state of the health care system as well as to track changes over time. The MEPS permits annual estimates of use of health care and expenditures and sources of payment for that health care. It also permits tracking individual change in employment, income, health insurance and health status over two years. The use of the National Health Interview Survey as a sampling frame expands the MEPS analytic capacity by providing another data point for comparisons over time.
Households selected for participation in the MEPS-HC are interviewed five times in person. These rounds of interviewing are spaced about 5 months apart. The interview will take place with a family respondent who will report for him/herself and for other family members.
The only change to the MEPS-HC from the previous OMB clearance is an update to the existing Adult Self-Administered Questionnaire (SAQ).
The MEPS-HC has the following goal:
To provide nationally representative estimates for the U.S. civilian noninstitutionalized population for:
The MEPS-MPC will contact medical providers (hospitals, physicians, home health agencies and institutions) identified by household respondents in the MEPS-HC as sources of medical care for the time period covered by the interview, and all pharmacies providing prescription drugs to household members during the covered time period. The MEPS-MPC is not designed to yield national estimates as a stand-alone survey. The sample is designed to target the types of individuals and providers for whom household reported expenditure data was expected to be insufficient. For example, Medicaid enrollees are targeted for inclusion in the MEPS-MPC because this group is expected to have limited information about payments for their medical care.
The MEPS-MPC collects event level data about medical care received by sampled persons during the relevant time period. The data collected from medical providers include:
Data collected from pharmacies include:
The MEPS-MPC has the following goal:
• To serve as an imputation source for and to supplement/replace household reported expenditure and source of payment information. This data will supplement, replace and verify information provided by household respondents about the charges, payments, and sources of payment associated with specific health care encounters.
There are no changes to the MEPS-MPC from the previous OMB clearance.
This study is being conducted by AHRQ through its contractors, Westat and RTI International, pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to conduct and support research on health care and on systems for the delivery of such care, including activities with respect to the cost and use of health care services and with respect to health statistics and surveys. 42 U.S.C. 299a(a)(3) and (8); 42 U.S.C. 299b-2.
To achieve the goals of the MEPS-HC the following data collections are implemented:
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To achieve the goal of the MEPS-MPC the following data collections are implemented:
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Dentists, optometrists, psychologists, podiatrists, chiropractors, and others not providing care under the supervision of a MD or DO are considered out of scope for the MEPS-MPC.
Exhibit 1 shows the estimated annualized burden hours for the respondents' time to participate in the MEPS-HC and the MEPS-MPC. The MEPS-HC Core Interview will be completed by 15,093* (see note below Exhibit 1) “family level” respondents, also referred to as RU respondents. Since the MEPS-HC consists of 5 rounds of interviewing covering a full two years of data, the annual average number of responses per respondent is 2.5 responses per year. The MEPS-HC core requires an average response time of 92 minutes to administer. The Adult SAQ will be completed once a year by each person in the RU that is 18 years old and older, an estimated 28,254 persons. The Adult SAQ requires an average of 7 minutes to complete. The Diabetes care SAQ will be completed once a year by each person in the RU identified as having diabetes, an estimated 2,345 persons, and takes about 3 minutes to complete. The authorization form for the MEPS-MPC Provider Survey will be completed once for each medical provider seen by any RU member. The 14,489 RUs in the MEPS-HC will complete an average of 5.4 forms, which require about 3 minutes each to complete. The authorization form for the MEPS-MPC Pharmacy Survey will be completed once for each pharmacy for any RU member who has obtained a prescription medication. RUs will complete an average of 3.1 forms, which take about 3 minutes to complete. About
All medical providers and pharmacies included in the MEPS-MPC will receive a screening call and the MEPS-MPC uses 7 different questionnaires; 6 for medical providers and 1 for pharmacies. Each questionnaire is relatively short and requires 2 to 15 minutes to complete. The total annual burden hours for the MEPS-MPC are estimated to be 18,876 hours. The total annual burden for the MEPS-HC and MPC is estimated to be 86,702 hours.
Exhibit 2 shows the estimated annual cost burden associated with the respondents' time to participate in this information collection. The annual cost burden for the MEPS-HC is estimated to be $1,618,328; the annual cost burden for the MEPS-MPC is estimated to be $316,532. The total annual cost burden for the MEPS-HC and MPC is estimated to be $1,934,860.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces the intention of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve the proposed information collection project
Comments on this notice must be received by April 27, 2018.
Written comments should be submitted to: Doris Lefkowitz, Reports Clearance Officer, AHRQ, by email at
Copies of the proposed collection plans, data collection instruments, and specific details on the estimated burden can be obtained from the AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer.
Doris Lefkowitz, AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer, (301) 427-1477, or by emails at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521, AHRQ invites the public to comment on this proposed information collection. The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 (Patient Safety Act), signed into law on July 29, 2005, was enacted in response to growing concern about patient safety in the United States and the Institute of Medicine's 1999 report,
In order to implement the Patient Safety Act, the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) issued the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Final Rule (Patient Safety Rule, see Attachment B) which became effective on January 19, 2009. The Patient Safety Rule establishes a framework by which hospitals, doctors, and other health care providers may voluntarily report information to PSOs, on a privileged and confidential basis, for the aggregation and analysis of patient safety events. In addition, the Patient Safety Rule outlines the requirements that entities must meet to become and remain listed as PSOs and the process by which the Secretary of HHS (Secretary) will accept certifications and list PSOs.
When specific statutory requirements are met, the information collected and the analyses and deliberations regarding the information receive confidentiality and privilege protections under this legislation. The Secretary delegated authority to the Director of the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) to enforce the confidentiality protections of the Patient Safety Act (
Pursuant to the Patient Safety Rule (42 CFR 3.102), an entity that seeks to be listed as a PSO by the Secretary must certify that it meets certain requirements and, upon listing, would meet other criteria. To remain listed for renewable three-year periods, a PSO must re-certify that it meets these obligations and would continue to meet them while listed. The Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule also impose other obligations discussed below that a PSO must meet to remain listed. In accordance with the requirements of the Patient Safety Rule (see,
With this submission, AHRQ is requesting approval of the following proposed administrative forms:
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OCR is requesting approval of the following administrative form:
In addition, AHRQ is requesting approval for a set of common definitions and reporting formats (hereafter Common Formats). As authorized by 42 U.S.C. 299b-23(b) and the Patient Safety Rule, AHRQ coordinates the development of the Common Formats that allow PSOs and health care providers to voluntarily collect and submit standardized information regarding patient safety events to fulfill the national learning system as envisioned by the Patient Safety Act.
The forms described above, other than the PSO Voluntary Relinquishment Form, are revised collection instruments that were previously approved by OMB in 2008, 2011, and 2014. AHRQ will use these forms, other than the Patient Safety Confidentiality Complaint Form, to obtain information necessary to carry out its authority to implement the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule. This includes obtaining initial and subsequent certifications from entities seeking to be or remain listed as PSOs and for making the statutorily-required determinations prior to and during an entity's period of listing as a PSO. This information is used by the PSO Program Office housed in AHRQ's Center for Quality Improvement and Patient Safety.
OCR will use the Patient Safety Confidentiality Complaint Form to collect information for the initial assessment of an incoming complaint. The form is modeled on OCR's form for complaints alleging violation of the privacy of protected health information. Use of the form is voluntary. It may help a complainant provide the essential information. Alternatively, a complainant may choose to submit a complaint in the form of a letter or electronically. An individual who needs help to submit a complaint in writing may call OCR for assistance.
The information collection forms that are the subject of this notice will be implemented at different times and frequencies due to the voluntary nature of: Seeking listing and remaining listed as a PSO, filing an OCR Patient Safety Confidentiality Complaint Form, and using the Common Formats. The burden estimates are based on the average of the forms submissions received over the past three years.
Exhibit 1 shows the estimated annualized burden hours for the respondent to provide the requested information, and Exhibit 2 shows the estimated annualized cost burden associated with the respondents' time to
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility, and; for OCR's enforcement of confidentiality; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the information collection request titled Monitoring and Reporting System for the Division of Community Health's Cooperative Agreement Programs to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. CDC previously published a “Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations” notice on September 16, 2017 to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies. CDC received three comments related to the previous notice. This notice serves to allow an additional 30 days for public and affected agency comments.
CDC will accept all comments for this proposed information collection project. The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments that:
(a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including, through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(e) Assess information collection costs.
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Monitoring and Reporting System for the Division of Community Health's Cooperative Agreement Programs (OMB No. 0920-1053, expiration March 31, 2018)—Revision—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
In September 2014, the Division of Community Health (DCH), CDC, announced a new cooperative agreement program,
CDC seeks OMB approval to collect information from the 49
The information system collects information to enable the accurate, reliable, uniform and timely submission to CDC of each awardee's work plan and progress reports. Monitoring allows CDC to: (1) Determine whether an awardee is meeting performance goals; (2) make adjustments in the type and level of technical assistance provided to awardees; and (3) provide oversight of the use of federal funds.
CDC also requests OMB approval to conduct targeted, special purpose information collections on an as-needed basis. Due to substantial interest in the
CDC seeks approval for one year to collect the necessary data. Also, CDC requires cooperative agreement awardee semi-annual progress reporting participation, but voluntary for some special-purpose data collections.
There are no costs to respondents other than their time. CDC estimates no change to the average burden per response for routine, semi-annual reporting (estimated at three hours). The total estimated annualized burden hours for an additional year of information collection are 588.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing a list of information collections that have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Ila S. Mizrachi, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-7726,
The following is a list of FDA information collections recently approved by OMB under section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507). The OMB control number and expiration date of OMB approval for each information collection are shown in table 1. Copies of the supporting statements for the information collections are available on the internet at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance entitled “Q11 Development and Manufacture of Drug Substances—Questions and Answers (Chemical Entities and Biotechnological/Biological Entities).” The guidance was prepared under the auspices of the International Council for Harmonisation (ICH), formerly the International Conference on Harmonisation. The guidance consists of questions and answers that were developed to clarify the principles for selecting starting materials described in the ICH guidance “Q11 Development and Manufacture of Drug Substances”, published November 20, 2012. The guidance is intended to provide additional clarification and to promote convergence on the considerations for the selection and justification of starting materials. The questions and answers focus on chemical entity drug substances, and provide recommendations on the information that should be provided in marketing authorization applications and/or master files to justify the starting materials.
The announcement of the guidance is published in the
You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building,
In recent years, regulatory authorities and industry associations from around the world have participated in many important initiatives to promote international harmonization of regulatory requirements under the ICH. FDA has participated in several ICH meetings designed to enhance harmonization and FDA is committed to seeking scientifically based harmonized technical procedures for pharmaceutical development. One of the goals of harmonization is to identify and reduce differences in technical requirements for drug development among regulatory agencies.
ICH was established to provide an opportunity for harmonization initiatives to be developed with input from both regulatory and industry representatives. FDA also seeks input from consumer representatives and others. ICH is concerned with harmonization of technical requirements for the registration of pharmaceutical products for human use among regulators around the world. The six founding members of the ICH are the European Commission; the European Federation of Pharmaceutical Industries Associations; the FDA; the Japanese Ministry of Health, Labour, and Welfare; the Japanese Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association; and the Pharmaceutical Research and Manufacturers of America. The Standing Members of the ICH Association include Health Canada and Swissmedic. Any party eligible as a Member in accordance with the ICH Articles of Association can apply for membership in writing to the ICH Secretariat. The ICH Secretariat, which coordinates the preparation of documentation, operates as an international nonprofit organization and is funded by the Members of the ICH Association.
The ICH Assembly is the overarching body of the Association and includes representatives from each of the ICH members and observers. The Assembly is responsible for the endorsement of draft guidelines and adoption of final guidelines. FDA publishes ICH guidelines as FDA guidances.
In the
After consideration of the comments received and revisions to the guideline, a final draft of the guideline was submitted to the ICH Assembly and endorsed by the regulatory agencies in August 2017.
The guidance consists of questions and answers that were developed to clarify the principles for selecting starting materials described in the ICH guidance “Q11 Development and Manufacture of Drug Substances,” published November 20, 2012 (77 FR 69634). The guidance provides guidance on selecting and justifying starting materials, in particular for the synthesis of chemical entity drug substances.
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Q11 Development and Manufacture of Drug Substances—Questions and Answers (Chemical Entities and Biotechnological/Biological Entities).” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the document at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public workshop.
The Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) is announcing the following public workshop entitled “CDER and You: Keys to Effective Engagement.” The purpose of the public workshop is to build upon previous efforts to help advocates understand how they can engage with FDA to enhance drug development and safety. This marks the third annual CDER public workshop for patient advocacy groups.
The public workshop will be held on April 3, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 3 p.m.
The public workshop will be held at the FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20903. Entrance for the public workshop participants (non-FDA employees) is through Building 1 where routine security check procedures will be performed. For parking and security information, please refer to
Chris Melton, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and
FDA's CDER is announcing a public workshop entitled, “CDER and You: Keys to Effective Engagement.” This workshop is intended to help the public learn effective ways for engaging with CDER. There will be educational presentations about the drug approval process, an interactive panel featuring patient advocates who will offer engagement guidance, as well as an opportunity for questions and answers following many of the presentations. Finally, presenters will highlight innovative new procedures for requesting a meeting with CDER staff.
Registration is free and based on space availability, with priority given to early registrants. Early registration is recommended because seating is limited; therefore, FDA may limit the number of participants from each organization. Registrants will receive confirmation when they have been accepted. If time and space permit, onsite registration on the day of the public workshop will be provided beginning at 8 a.m. We will let registrants know if registration closes before the day of the public meeting/public workshop.
If you need special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Chris Melton no later than March 26, 2018 (See
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Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA, the Agency, or we) is announcing the following public meeting entitled “Promoting the Use of Complex Innovative Designs in Clinical Trials.” The topic to be discussed is the use of complex innovative designs (CID) in clinical trials of drugs and biological products to inform regulatory decision making. This meeting will inform development of a guidance document as required by the 21st Century Cures Act (Cures Act) and is being conducted to meet the performance goal of convening a public workshop on CID included in the sixth authorization of the Prescription Drug User Fee Act (PDUFA VI), part of the FDA Reauthorization Act of 2017 (FDARA). This meeting will also inform the development of a CID pilot program. FDA is seeking comments on the use of CID to inform regulatory decision making and is also seeking input on the CID pilot program.
The public meeting will be held on March 20, 2018, from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by April 20, 2018. See the
The public meeting will be held at the FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503, Section A), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Entrance for the public meeting participants (non-FDA employees) is through Building 1 where routine security check procedures will be performed. For parking and security information, please refer to
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 20, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Robyn Bent, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 21, Rm. 3541, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-2572,
This public meeting is intended to support FDA guidance development as required under section 3021 of the Cures Act. Section 3021 of the Cures Act directs FDA to develop a guidance document to address several areas related to CID, including the use of complex innovative clinical trial designs, ways sponsors may obtain feedback on technical issues related to simulations, the submission of resulting information, the types of quantitative information that should be submitted for review, and recommended analysis methodologies. Before issuing the guidance, FDA is required to conduct a public meeting to gather input from the wider community of stakeholders, including academic and medical researchers, expert practitioners, drug developers, and other interested persons.
The public meeting is also intended to meet a performance goal FDA agreed to under FDARA, in accordance with the PDUFA Reauthorization Performance Goals and Procedures Fiscal Years 2018 Through 2022 letter (PDUFA VI letter), which is available at
The purpose of this public meeting is to (1) facilitate discussion and information sharing about the use of CID in drug development and regulatory decision making and (2) obtain input from stakeholders about the CID pilot program.
The meeting will consist of four sessions. The sessions will focus on (1) complex adaptive designs; (2) other innovative designs such as use of external/historical control subjects, Bayesian designs, and master protocols; (3) clinical trial simulations for confirmatory trial design and planning; and (4) the CID pilot program. Following each session there will be an opportunity for public comment.
After this public meeting, FDA will consider the stakeholder input from the meeting and the public docket, launch the pilot program by the end of fiscal year 2018, and publish a draft guidance within 18 months of the meeting.
Meeting updates, the agenda, and background materials (if any) will be made available at:
Registration is free and based on space availability, with priority given to early registrants. Persons interested in attending this public meeting must register by March 13, 2018. Early registration is recommended because seating is limited; therefore, FDA may limit the number of participants from each organization. Onsite registration on the day of the meeting will be based on space availability. If you need special accommodations because of a disability, please contact Robyn Bent (see
FDA will also hold an open public comment period at the meeting to give the public an opportunity to present their comments. Registration for open public comment will occur at the registration desk on the day of the meeting on a first-come, first-served basis.
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Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Psychopharmacologic Drugs Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to FDA on regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The meeting will be held on March 27, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
Tommy Douglas Conference Center, the Ballroom, 10000 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20903. The conference center's telephone number is 240-645-4000. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2018-N-0650. The docket will close on March 23, 2018. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by March 23, 2018. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before March 23, 2018. The
Comments received on or before March 13, 2018, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by FDA.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Kalyani Bhatt, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that FDA is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
For press inquiries, please contact the Office of Media Affairs at
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Kalyani Bhatt (see
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by March 28, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Jonna Capezzuto, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-3794,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
Section 701 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act charges the Secretary of Health and Human Services, through FDA, with the responsibility of assuring recalls (21 U.S.C. 371, Regulations and Hearings, and 21 CFR part 7, Enforcement Policy, Subpart C, Recalls (Including Product Corrections)—Guidance on Policy, Procedures, and Industry Responsibilities which pertain to the recall regulations and provide guidance to manufacturers on recall responsibilities). The regulations and guidance apply to all FDA-regulated products (
These responsibilities of companies conducting recalls include providing FDA with complete details of the recall including: (1) Reason(s) for the removal or correction, risk evaluation, quantity produced, distribution information, firm's recall strategy, a copy of any recall communication(s), and a contact official (§ 7.46); (2) notifying direct accounts of the recall, providing guidance regarding further distribution, giving instructions as to what to do with
A search of the FDA database was performed to determine the number of recalls that took place during fiscal years 2014 to 2016. The resulting number of total recalls and terminations (8,560) from this database search were then averaged over the 3 years, and the resulting per year average of recalls and terminations (2,853) are used in estimating the current annual reporting and third party disclosure burden in this notice.
FDA estimates, in the following tables, the total annual reporting and third party burden to collect and provide the required information to be 584,477 hours.
In the
The following is a summary of the estimated annual burden hours for recalling firms (manufacturers, processors, and distributors) to comply with the reporting requirements of FDA's recall regulations. Recognizing that there may be a vast difference in the information collection and reporting time involved in different recalls of FDA's regulated products, this summary reflects numbers across FDA.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
We request firms that voluntarily remove or correct foods and drugs (human or animal), cosmetics, medical devices, biologics, and tobacco to immediately notify the appropriate FDA District Office of such actions. The firm is to provide complete details of the recall reason, risk evaluation, quantity produced, distribution information, firms' recall strategy, and a contact official as well as requires firms to notify their direct accounts of the recall and to provide recipients with a ready means of reporting to the recalling firm. The estimates in table 1 are multiplied across the FDA product centers to arrive at a reporting burden estimate of 71,325 for firm initiated recall and recall communications.
We request that recalling firms provide periodic status reports so FDA can ascertain the progress of the recall. This request only applies to firms with active recalls, and periodic status reports are estimated to be reported every 2 to 4 weeks. The estimates in table 1 are multiplied across the FDA product centers to arrive at a reporting burden estimate of 370,890 hours for recall status reports.
We provide the firms an opportunity to request in writing that FDA end the recall. The Agency estimates it will receive 2,853 responses annually based on the average number of terminations over the past 3 fiscal years. The estimates in table 1 are multiplied across the FDA product centers to arrive at a reporting burden estimate of 28,530 for termination of a recall.
We request that firms prepare and maintain a current written contingency plan for use in initiating and effecting a recall in accordance with §§ 7.40 through 7.49, 7.53, and 7.55; use sufficient coding of regulated products to make possible positive lot identification and to facilitate effective recall of all violative lots and maintain such product distribution records as are necessary to facilitate location of products that are being recalled. Such records should be maintained for a period of time that exceeds the shelf life and expected use of the product and is at least the length of time specified in other applicable regulations concerning records retention. The estimates in table 1 are multiplied across the FDA product centers to arrive at a reporting burden estimate of 42,795 for enforcement policy.
We request that firms notify their consignees of the recall and to provide recipients with a ready means of reporting to the recalling firm.
The estimates in table 2 are multiplied across the FDA product centers to arrive at a total third party disclosure burden estimate of 70,937.
FDA regulates many different types of products including, but not limited to, medical products, food and feed, cosmetics, and tobacco products. FDA notes that not all third-party disclosures provided by firms to their consignees are similar in nature and may entail different methods and mediums of communication. The total burden hours have decreased since the last information collection approval based on a reduction in the number of respondents.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by March 28, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Ila S. Mizrachi, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10 a.m.-12 p.m., 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-7726,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
This information collection supports Agency regulations regarding substances prohibited from use in animal food or feed. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is a progressive and fatal neurological disorder of cattle that results from an unconventional transmissible agent. BSE belongs to the family of diseases known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs). All TSEs affect the central nervous system of infected animals. Our regulation at § 589.2001 (21 CFR 589.2001) entitled “Cattle materials prohibited in animal food or feed to prevent the transmission of bovine spongiform encephalopathy” is designed to further strengthen existing safeguards against the establishment and amplification of BSE in the United States through animal feed. The regulation prohibits the use of certain cattle origin materials in the food or feed of all animals. These materials are referred to as “cattle materials prohibited in animal feed” or CMPAF. Under § 589.2001, no animal feed or feed ingredient can contain CMPAF. As a result, we impose requirements on renderers of specifically defined cattle materials, including reporting and recordkeeping requirements. For purposes of the regulation, we define a renderer as any firm or individual that processes slaughter byproducts, animals unfit for human consumption, including carcasses of dead cattle, or meat scraps. Reporting and recordkeeping requirements are necessary because once materials are separated from an animal it may not be possible, without records, to know whether the cattle material meets the requirements of our regulation.
Renderers that receive, manufacture, process, blend, or distribute
Renderers that receive, manufacture, process, blend, or distribute
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Except where otherwise noted, this estimate is based on our estimate of the number of facilities affected by the final rule entitled “Substances Prohibited From Use in Animal Food or Feed” published in the
Our estimate of the reporting burden for designation under § 589.2001(f) is based on estimates in the final rule entitled “Substances Prohibited From Use in Animal Food or Feed” published in the
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Request for Nominations to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment.
HRSA is seeking nominations of four qualified candidates to be considered for appointment as members of the CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment (Committee). The Committee consists of 18 public
Written nominations for membership to the Committee must be received on or before May 30, 2018. Packages received after this time will not be considered for the current membership cycle. (See
Submit your electronic nomination package by electronic mail to
CDR Holly Berilla, HRSA, HIV/AIDS Bureau by email at
The CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment was established under Section 222 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, [42 U.S.C. Section 217a], as amended.
The purpose of the Committee is to advise the Secretary, HHS; the Director, CDC; and the Administrator, HRSA regarding objectives, strategies, policies, and priorities for HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STD prevention and treatment efforts including surveillance of HIV infection, AIDS, viral hepatitis, and other STDs, and related behaviors; epidemiologic, behavioral, health services, and laboratory research on HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STDs; identification of policy issues related to HIV/viral hepatitis/STD professional education, patient healthcare delivery, and prevention services; Agency policies about prevention of HIV, viral hepatitis and other STDs, treatment, healthcare delivery, and research and training; strategic issues influencing the ability of CDC and HRSA to fulfill their missions of providing prevention and treatment services; programmatic efforts to prevent and treat HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STDs; and support to the Agencies in their developoment of responses to emerging health needs related to HIV, viral hepatitis, and other STDs.
Members selected will be considered special government employees (SGEs) and may be invited to serve four (4) year terms. SGEs are eligible to receive a stipend and reimbursement for per diem and any travel expenses incurred for attending Committee meetings, as authorized by section 5 U.S.C. 5703 for persons employed intermittently in government service. Approved nominees will be invited to serve during calendar year 2019.
The following information must be included in the electronic nomination package for each individual to be considered for nomination: (1) A statement clearly indicating the name and affiliation of the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
HHS is required to ensure that the membership of the Committee is balanced in terms of points of view represented. Every effort is made to ensure that individuals from a broad representation of geographic areas, gender, ethnic and minority groups, as well as individuals with disabilities are given consideration for membership and therefore, HHS encourages nominations of qualified candidates from these groups. HHS also encourages geographic diversity in the composition of the Committee. Appointments shall be made without discrimination based on age, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, and cultural, religious, or socioeconomic status.
Individuals who are selected for appointment will be required to provide detailed information regarding their financial holdings, consultancies, and research grants or contracts. Disclosure of this information is necessary in order to determine if the selected candidate is involved in any activity that may pose a potential conflict with the official duties to be performed as a member of the Committee.
Health Resources and Service Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, notice is hereby given that a meeting is scheduled for the Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines (ACCV). This meeting will be open to the public. Information about the ACCV and the agenda for this meeting can be obtained by accessing the following website:
The meeting will be held on March 8, 2018, at 10:00 a.m. ET.
This meeting will be held via Adobe Connect meeting and conference call. This is not an in-person meeting. The public can join the meeting by:
1. (Audio Portion) Calling the conference phone number (800) 988-0218 and providing the following information:
Leader Name: Dr. Narayan Nair.
Password: 9302948.
2. (Visual Portion) Connecting to the ACCV Adobe Connect Meeting using the following URL:
Anyone requesting information regarding the ACCV should contact Annie Herzog, Program Analyst, Division of Injury Compensation Programs (DICP), HRSA in one of three ways: (1) Send a request to the following address: Annie Herzog, Program Analyst, DICP, HRSA, 5600 Fishers Lane, 08N146B, Rockville, Maryland 20857; (2) call (301) 443-6593; or (3) send an email to
The ACCV will meet on Thursday, March 8, 2018, beginning at 10:00 a.m. via Adobe Connect Meeting; however, meeting times and information to join the meeting and/or conference call could change. For the latest information regarding meeting start time and information to join the meeting and/or conference call, please check the ACCV website:
The ACCV was established by section 2119 of the Public Health Service Act (the Act) (42 U.S.C. 300aa-19), as enacted by Public Law (Pub. L.) 99-660, and as subsequently amended, and advises the Secretary of HHS (the Secretary) on issues related to implementation of the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP).
Other activities of the ACCV include: Recommending changes to the Vaccine Injury Table at its own initiative or as the result of the filing of a petition; advising the Secretary in implementing section 2127 of the Act regarding the need for childhood vaccination products that result in fewer or no significant adverse reactions; surveying federal, state, and local programs and activities related to gathering information on injuries associated with the administration of childhood vaccines, including the adverse reaction reporting requirements of section 2125(b) of the Act; advising the Secretary on the methods of obtaining, compiling, publishing, and using credible data related to the frequency and severity of adverse reactions associated with childhood vaccines; consulting on the development or revision of Vaccine Information Statements; and, recommending to the Director of the National Vaccine Program research related to vaccine injuries which should be conducted to carry out the VICP.
The agenda items for the March 8, 2018, meeting will include, but are not limited to, updates from DICP, Department of Justice (DOJ), National Vaccine Program Office (NVPO), Immunization Safety Office (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention), National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (National Institutes of Health) and Center for Biologics, Evaluation and Research (Food and Drug Administration). A draft agenda and additional meeting materials will be posted on the ACCV website:
Members of the public will have the opportunity to provide comments. Oral comments will be honored in the order they are requested and may be limited as time allows. Requests to make oral comments or provide written comments to the ACCV should be sent to Annie Herzog by March 5, 2018, using the address and phone number above. Individuals who plan to participate and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify Annie Herzog, using the address and phone number above at least 10 days prior to the meeting.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health Special Emphasis Panel.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health Special Emphasis Panel.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health Special Emphasis Panel.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of availability and request for comments.
The U.S. Coast Guard solicits public comment on the regulatory analysis of the potential deregulatory savings that may result from the revisions proposed in the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines. The Coast Guard also continues to seek public comment on
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before March 26, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-0894 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For information about the regulatory analysis, call Mr. Jonathan Smith, Office of Marine Environmental Response Policy, 202-372-2675. For information about the proposed 2016.1 PREP Guidelines you may call:
The Coast Guard encourages you to submit comments on the proposed 2016.1 PREP Guidelines and the regulatory analysis of the potential deregulatory savings that may result from the revisions proposed in the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
On December 22, 2017, on behalf of the Preparedness for Response Exercise Program Compliance, Coordination, and Consistency Committee (PREP 4C), we published for public comment the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines (82 FR 60693). The revisions proposed in the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines constitute the first change to the 2016 PREP Guidelines. In this notice, we seek public comment on the regulatory analysis of the potential deregulatory savings that may result from the revisions proposed in the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines. Additionally, throughout the public comment period for the regulatory analysis of the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines, we will continue to accept comments that directly pertain to the revisions proposed in the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines. These revisions are detailed in a new “Record of Changes” that we have incorporated into the 2016.1 PREP Guidelines. The 2016.1 PREP Guidelines are available for review in docket USCG-2017-0894, as described in the
This notice is issued under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 33 U.S.C. 1225, 1231, 1321(j), and 2735.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Inspectorate America Corporation (Martinez, CA), has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of January 25, 2017.
Inspectorate America Corporation (Martinez, CA) was accredited and approved, as a commercial gauger and laboratory as of January 25, 2017. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for January 2020.
Dr. Justin Shey, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Inspectorate America Corporation, 3772 Pacheco Boulevard, Martinez, CA 94553 has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Inspectorate America Corporation is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Inspectorate America Corporation is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Coastal Gulf and International (Luling, LA), as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Coastal Gulf and International (Luling, LA), has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of July 19, 2017.
Coastal Gulf and International (Luling, LA) was accredited and approved, as a commercial gauger and laboratory as of July 19, 2017. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for July 2020.
Dr. Justin Shey, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Coastal Gulf and International, 13615 River Road, Luling, LA 70070 has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Coastal Gulf and International is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Coastal Gulf and International is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Inspectorate America Corporation (Lutcher, LA), has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of April 4, 2017.
Inspectorate America Corporation (Lutcher, LA) was accredited and approved, as a commercial gauger and laboratory as of April 4, 2017. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for April 2020.
Dr. Justin Shey, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Inspectorate America Corporation, 2184 Jefferson Highway, Lutcher, LA 70071 has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Inspectorate America Corporation is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Inspectorate America Corporation is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before January 27, 2018, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by March 13, 2018.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW, MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before January 27, 2018. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Nominations submitted by State Historic Preservation Officers:
A request for removal has been made for the following resources:
Vale Independent Order of Odd Fellows Hall, 122 Main St. S, Vale, OT16000822
Additional documentation has been received for the following resource:
Nominations submitted by Federal Preservation Officers:
The State Historic Preservation Officer reviewed the following nomination and responded to the Federal Preservation Officer within 45 days of receipt of the nomination and supports listing the property in the National Register of Historic Places.
60.13 of 36 CFR Part 60.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before February 3, 2018, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by March 13, 2018.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW, MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before February 3, 2018. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Nominations submitted by State Historic Preservation Officers:
Additional documentation has been received for the following resources:
Nominations submitted by Federal Preservation Officers:
The State Historic Preservation Officer reviewed the following nominations and responded to the Federal Preservation Officer within 45 days of receipt of the nominations and supports listing the properties in the National Register of Historic Places.
60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of the final phase of antidumping investigation Nos. 731-TA-1378-1379 (Final) pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury, or the establishment of an industry in the United States is materially retarded, by reason of imports of low melt polyester staple fiber (PSF) from Korea and Taiwan, provided for in subheading 5503.20.0015 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, preliminarily determined by the Department of Commerce to be sold at less-than-fair-value.
February 2, 2018.
Christopher Robinson ((202) 205-2542), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
Excluded from the scope of the investigations are any products covered by the existing antidumping duty order on certain polyester staple fiber from Korea and Taiwan.
For further information concerning the conduct of this phase of the investigations, hearing procedures, and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and C (19 CFR part 207).
Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all other parties to the investigations (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
These investigations are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.21 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice that it will proceed with full reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of
February 5, 2018.
Mary Messer (202-205-3193), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
For further information concerning the conduct of these reviews and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A through E (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).
On February 5, 2018, the Commission determined that it should proceed to full reviews in the subject five-year reviews pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)). The Commission found that both the domestic and respondent interested party group responses to its notice of institution (82 FR 50681, November 1, 2017) were adequate.
These reviews are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
March 2, 2018 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1. Agendas for future meetings: None.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-593-596 and 731-TA-1401-1406 (Preliminary) (Large Diameter Welded Pipe from Canada, China, Greece, India, Korea, and Turkey). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations on March 5, 2018; views of the Commission are currently scheduled to be completed and filed on March 12, 2018.
5. Outstanding action jackets: None.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
March 1, 2018 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1. Agendas for future meetings: None.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. No. 731-TA-1104 (Second Review) (Polyester Staple Fiber from China). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determination and views of the Commission by March 15, 2018.
5. Outstanding action jackets: None.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of a full review pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty order on tapered roller bearings from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury within a reasonably foreseeable time. The Commission has determined to exercise its authority to extend the review period by up to 90 days.
February 20, 2018,
Keysha Martinez (202-205-2136), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
For further information concerning the conduct of this review and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).
Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the review must be served on all other parties to the review (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
The Commission has determined that this review is extraordinarily complicated and therefore has determined to exercise its authority to extend the review period by up to 90 days pursuant to 19 U.S.C.1675(c)(5)(B).
This review is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
Criminal Justice Information Services Division, Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Training Division's Curriculum Management Section (CMS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published allowing for a 60 day comment period.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 28, 2018.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to U.S. Department of Justice, Federal Bureau of Investigation. Contact Kimberly A. Webber, Global Operations Section, CJIS Division Intelligence Group, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services Division (CJIS), Biometric Technology Center, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306; telephone (304) 625-4164; facsimile (304) 625-2198. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Civil Division, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Civil Division, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional days until March 28, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attn: DOJ Desk Officer. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20530 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.
60-Day Notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office of Justice Programs, Bureau of Justice Statistics, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 27, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Ramona Rantala, Statistician, Bureau of Justice Statistics, 810 Seventh Street NW, Washington, DC 20531 (email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Office of Job Corps, Employment and Training Administration (ETA), Labor.
Publication of Final Finding of No Significant Impact.
The Department of Labor (DOL or Department), ETA, Office of Job
Marsha Fitzhugh, Division of Facilities and Asset Management, Office of Job Corps, ETA, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-4463, Washington, DC 20210; Telephone (202) 693-3000 (this is not a toll-free number).
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.
The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice at least once monthly of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when agencies no longer need them for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives of the United States and to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking administrative, legal, research, or other value. NARA publishes notice in the
NARA must receive requests for copies in writing by March 28, 2018. Once NARA finishes appraising the records, we will send you a copy of the schedule you requested. We usually prepare appraisal memoranda that contain additional information concerning the records covered by a proposed schedule. You may also request these. If you do, we will also provide them once we have completed the appraisal. You have 30 days after we send to you these requested documents in which to submit comments.
You may request a copy of any records schedule identified in this notice by contacting Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA) using one of the following means:
You must cite the control number, which appears in parentheses after the name of the agency that submitted the schedule, and a mailing address. If you would like an appraisal report, please include that in your request.
Margaret Hawkins, Director, by mail at Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA), National Archives and Records Administration, 8601 Adelphi Road, College Park, MD 20740-6001, by phone at 301-837-1799, or by email at
NARA publishes notice in the
Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records on paper, film, magnetic tape, and other media. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing records retention periods and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. These schedules provide for timely transfer into the National Archives of historically valuable records and authorize the agency to dispose of all other records after the agency no longer needs them to conduct its business. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.
The schedules listed in this notice are media neutral unless otherwise specified. An item in a schedule is media neutral when an agency may apply the disposition instructions to records regardless of the medium in which it creates or maintains the records. Items included in schedules submitted to NARA on or after December 17, 2007, are media neutral unless the item is expressly limited to a specific medium. (See 36 CFR 1225.12(e).)
Agencies may not destroy Federal records without Archivist of the United States' approval. The Archivist approves destruction only after thoroughly considering the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value.
In addition to identifying the Federal agencies and any subdivisions requesting disposition authority, this notice lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records (or notes that the schedule has agency-wide applicability when schedules cover records that may be accumulated throughout an agency); provides the control number assigned to each schedule, the total number of schedule items, and the number of temporary items (the records proposed for destruction); and includes a brief description of the temporary records. The records schedule itself contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their disposition. If NARA staff has prepared an appraisal memorandum for the schedule, it also includes information about the records. You may request additional information about the disposition process at the addresses above.
1. Department of Agriculture, Foreign Agricultural Service (DAA-0166-2018-0047, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Case Files of disposed or excessed real property.
2. Department of Defense, Defense Logistics Agency (DAA-0361-2018-0002, 2 items, 1 temporary item). Records related to forms and publications. Proposed for permanent retention are publication master record sets and authentication files.
3. Department of Defense, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (DAA-
4. Department of Health and Human Services, National Institutes of Health (DAA-0443-2017-0004, 3 items, 2 temporary items). Internal policy and procedures approved beneath the director-level such as administrative, background, and working files created during the policy drafting process. Proposed for permanent retention are the finalized policy and procedure records approved at the director-level, including directives, reports, and guides.
5. Department of Homeland Security, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (DAA-0566-2017-0036, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records include certificates that no agency record exists on a particular individual, decision, or action, and related documentation.
6. Department of Justice, Justice Management Division (DAA-0060-2017-0025, 2 items, 1 temporary item). Correspondence between the Department and individual members of Congress, primarily constituent referrals, duplicated in the files of Department components. Proposed for permanent retention is correspondence between the Department and Congressional committees and chairs.
7. Department of Justice, Office of Justice for Victims of Overseas Terrorism (DAA-0060-2017-0012, 4 items, 2 temporary items). Records relating to DOJ advocacy on behalf of victims of overseas terrorism. Proposed for permanent retention are historical records of overseas terrorism events, and victim expense reimbursement records.
8. Department of the Treasury, Internal Revenue Service (DAA-0058-2017-0023, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records of staffing assignments for call center operations.
9. National Indian Gaming Commission, Division of Legislative Affairs (DAA-0600-2017-0009, 6 items, 4 temporary items). Records include legislation background files, pending legislation review files, routine Congressional correspondence, and related working files. Proposed for permanent retention are final Congressional hearing files and reports to Congress.
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Notice.
The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) will be submitting the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before March 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimates, or any other aspect of these information collections, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for NCUA, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission may be obtained by contacting Dawn Wolfgang at (703) 548-2279, emailing
By Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, the National Credit Union Administration, on February 21, 2018.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Environmental assessment and finding of no significant impact; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing an environmental assessment (EA) and finding of no significant impact (FONSI) for an exemption request by the National Institutes of Health (NIH). The NIH requested an exemption from the NRC transportation regulations that require NRC licensees to follow the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) hazardous material regulations.
The EA and FONSI referenced in this document are available on February 20, 2018.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0033 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
•
•
• NRC's PDR: You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's PDR, Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Bernard White, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6577; email:
The NRC is reviewing a request from NIH (or applicant), dated January 19, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17306A532), for an exemption in accordance with section 71.12 of title 10 of the
The exemption request by NIH would facilitate the movement of an irradiator 0.3 miles through a private parking lot, across a public road, and through another private parking lot to reach its destination. The irradiator will be lifted and moved using a forklift.
Since the movement by NIH will be accomplished using a motor vehicle operated by a Federal government employee solely for noncommercial Federal government purposes, according to 49 CFR 171.1(d)(5), the activity is not subject to DOT's hazardous material regulations. However, since NIH holds an NRC license under 10 CFR part 30, NIH is subject to 10 CFR 71.5, “Transportation of licensed material.” The regulations in 10 CFR 71.5 require an NRC licensee to comply with the DOT regulations in 49 CFR parts 107, 171 through 180, and 390 through 397, whether or not the DOT regulations are applicable to a shipment of licensed material.
The EA defines the NRC's proposed action (
The EA evaluates the potential environmental impacts of granting the exemption from the regulations in 10 CFR 71.5, so that the movement of the irradiator will not be subject to the DOT's hazardous material regulations. The only potential impacts from the proposed movement of the irradiator would be radiological impacts associated with an accident scenario. The analysis in the EA shows that the radiological impacts (direct, indirect, or cumulative) would be no greater than those for a transport of the irradiator if it were accomplished in accordance with the DOT regulations. Any non-radiological impacts, such as impacts to noise, visual/scenic, or socioeconomic environment, would be no greater than those for any other transport that meets all of the DOT regulations.
The NRC provided the State of Maryland and the DOT a draft copy of this EA for a 30-day review on January 17, 2018 (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML18025B814 and ML18025B815). The State of Maryland did not respond and the NRC did not receive any comments on the draft EA and FONSI from DOT (ADAMS Accession No. ML18033A079).
The NRC staff has determined that the exemption from the requirements in 10 CFR 71.5 would have no impact on historic and cultural resources or ecological resources and, therefore, no consultations are necessary under Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act and Section 7 of the Endangered Species Act, respectively.
The NRC staff has prepared an EA and FONSI in support of the proposed action. The EA is available at ADAMS Accession No. ML18036A042. The NRC staff has concluded that the proposed action, granting an exemption to NIH from the transportation requirements in 10 CFR 71.5 for this one-time movement of an irradiator, will not significantly impact the quality of the human environment, and that the proposed action is the preferred alternative. On the basis of the environmental assessment, the NRC concludes that the proposed action will not have a significant effect on the quality of the human environment. Accordingly, the NRC has determined not to prepare an environmental impact statement for the proposed action.
Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 20th day of February 2018.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend the MIAX Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) to change the application of a fee waiver relating to certain market data feed products.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule to change the application of a fee waiver relating to certain market data feed products offered by the Exchange—namely, the Exchange's Administrative Information Subscriber (“AIS”) market data feed, and the Exchange's Complex Top of Market (“cToM”) market data feed.
When the Exchange first launched trading in complex orders in October 2016, the Exchange began offering its cToM market data feed.
The Exchange began offering its AIS market data feed product in April 2013.
As a result of the AIS fee waiver provision, a subscriber who only subscribes to AIS will be charged the AIS monthly fee ($1,250.00 for Internal Distributors and $1,750.00 for External Distributors). A subscriber who subscribes to both ToM and AIS will be charged the ToM monthly fee ($1,250.00 for Internal Distributors and $1,750.00 for External Distributors). However, a subscriber who subscribes to both cToM and AIS will be charged no fees.
The Exchange did not intend for subscribers to receive the AIS feed for free as a result of receiving the cToM feed for free. Thus, until such time as the Exchange adopts a fee for cToM, the Exchange proposes to eliminate the fee waiver for subscribers to receive the AIS feed for free solely by receiving the cToM feed.
The Exchange is not proposing to modify any other aspect of either the AIS market data feed product or the cToM market data feed product. The Exchange is solely eliminating the fee waiver for a subscriber of cToM, which is currently free, to also receive a subscription to AIS for free. Accordingly, effective with this change, a subscriber who wishes to subscribe to both cToM and AIS will be charged the AIS monthly fee ($1,250.00 for Internal Distributors and $1,750.00 for External Distributors).
The Exchange initially filed the proposal on January 30, 2018 (SR-MIAX-2018-03). That filing was withdrawn and replaced with the current filing (SR-MIAX-2018-04).
The Exchange believes that its proposal to amend its Fee Schedule is consistent with Section 6(b)
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the application of a fee waiver relating to certain market data feed products offered by the Exchange—namely, the Exchange's AIS market data feed, and the Exchange's cToM market data feed—is reasonable, equitable, and not unfairly discriminatory. The proposal to eliminate the ability of a subscriber to subscribe to cToM (for free), to also subscribe to the AIS feed (for free), is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade by providing MIAX Options participants with access to the same market data products with a reasonably designed fee structure and fee incentives. Because there is no charge to subscribe to the cToM market data feed, the Exchange believes that a subscription to cToM should not entitle a subscriber to receive for free, another market data feed product which, when subscribed to without the cToM market data feed, is fee liable. Furthermore, the proposed changes to the application of the fee waiver are fair and equitable and not unreasonably discriminatory because they apply equally to all MIAX Options participants as the market data feeds are available for purchase for all MIAX Options participants, and access to such market data is offered on terms that are not unfairly discriminatory.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would promote transparency by providing MIAX Options participants with access to the same market data products with a reasonably designed fee structure and fee incentives. Because there is no charge to subscribe to the cToM market data feed, the Exchange believes that a subscription to cToM should not entitle a subscriber to receive for free, another market data feed product which, when subscribed to without the cToM market data feed, is fee liable. Additionally, respecting intra-market competition, the value-added features relating to complex orders in the [sic] either the AIS feed or the cToM market data product are available to all subscribers, thus providing all subscribers to the data products with an even playing field with respect to information and access to trade complex orders on MIAX Options. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees and fee waivers to remain competitive with other exchanges and to attract order flow to the Exchange.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to modify Rule 21.1 of Exchange's rules and related functionality applicable to the Exchange's options platform (“EDGX Options”) in preparation for the technology migration of the Exchange's affiliated options exchanges onto the same technology as the Exchange.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
In 2016, the Exchange and its affiliates Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc. (“BYX”), Cboe EDGA Exchange, Inc. (“EDGA”), and Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”) received approval to affect a merger (the “Merger”) of the Exchange's then-current indirect parent company, Bats Global Markets, Inc., with Cboe Global Markets f/k/a CBOE Holdings, Inc. (“Cboe”), the direct parent of Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Cboe Options”) and Cboe C2 Exchange, Inc. (“C2 Options”, and together with the Exchange, BZX, and Cboe Options the “Cboe Affiliated Exchanges”).
The Exchange is proposing to adopt periodic but relatively minor changes to functionality in order to reduce risk in connection with the technology migration described above; this proposal is related to one such proposed change but is primarily intended to add language to the Exchange's rules regarding ports that are referenced in the Exchange's fee schedule. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to add language to Rule 21.1 to define various types of ports used to submit orders to and receive information from the Exchange. In addition, the Exchange proposes to modify the operation of bulk order entry ports, as described below.
The Exchange currently provides access to EDGX Options to Users
The Exchange proposes to define three different types of ports, specifically, physical ports, logical ports, and bulk order ports. The Exchange notes that bulk order ports is a type of logical port and that there are other types of logical ports that are not specifically identified in the proposed rule. The Exchange believes that a separate definition is warranted for bulk order ports given the specific functionality provided through such ports but that the other types of logical ports are sufficiently described in the proposed definition of logical port.
The Exchange proposes to define a “physical port” as a port that provides a physical connection to the System. The Exchange also proposes to note that a physical port may provide access to multiple logical ports.
The Exchange proposes to define a “logical port” or “logical session” as a port that provides Users with the ability within the System to accomplish a specific function through a connection,
The Exchange proposes to define a “bulk order port” as a logical port that provides Users with the ability to submit bulk messages to enter, modify or cancel orders designated as Post Only Orders, provided such orders are entered with a Time-in-Force of Day or GTD with an expiration time on that trading day. The Exchange does not currently limit bulk order ports to Post Only Orders and further describes this proposed limitation below.
In addition to codifying the three types of ports in the Exchange's Rules, as set forth above, the Exchange proposes to restrict the type of messages that may be submitted through bulk order ports to orders submitted as Post Only Orders with a Time-in-Force of Day or a Time-in-Force of GTD with an expiration time on that trading day. Post Only Orders are defined in Rule 21.1(d)(8) as “orders that are to be ranked and executed on the Exchange pursuant to Rule 21.8 (Order Display and Book Processing) or cancelled, as appropriate, without routing away to another options exchange except that the order will not remove liquidity from the EDGX Options Book.” Rule 21.1(d)(8) further provides that “[a] Post Only Order that is not subject to the Price Adjust process that would lock or cross a Protected Quotation of another options exchange or the Exchange will be cancelled.” The Time-in-Force of DAY is defined in Rule 21.1(f)(3) to mean, “for an order so designated, a limit order to buy or sell which, if not executed expires at market close.” The Time-in-Force of GTD is defined in Rule 21.(f)(1) to mean “for orders so designated, that if after entry into the System, the order is not fully executed, the order (or the unexecuted portion thereof) shall remain available for potential display and/or execution for the amount of time specified by the entering User unless canceled by the entering party.” In sum, Post Only Orders with a Time-in-Force of Day or GTD are orders that will be posted to and displayed by the Exchange, rather than removing liquidity or routing to another options exchange. As noted above, the Exchange proposes to limit the acceptable messages with the time in force of GTD to orders with an expiration time on the applicable trading day.
As a general matter, and as further described below, the proposed change is intended to limit the use of bulk order ports to liquidity provision, particularly by, but not limited to, market makers registered with the Exchange. In turn, the Exchange believes it unnecessary to allow orders entered via bulk order entry ports to be able to last beyond the trading day on which they were entered. The Exchange notes that while, as a general matter, bulk order entry provides an efficient way for a market participant to conduct business on the Exchange by allowing the bundling of multiple instructions in a single message, the main purpose of such functionality has always been to encourage quoting on exchanges.
The Exchange proposes this change in order to provide functionality that is more similar to quoting functionality available on Cboe Options and C2 Options. In particular, the Exchange has never differentiated between a quote or an order on entry. Rather, Users submit orders to the Exchange regardless of the capacity of the order (
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes the proposed amendment will reduce complexity and increase the understanding of the Exchange's operations for all Users of the Exchange. In particular, the Exchange is promoting transparency by adopting definitions within Rule 21.1 to describe various ports used to access the Exchange that are currently described on the Exchange's fee schedule and in filings previously made by the Exchange.
The Exchange further believes that the proposed modification to the operation of bulk order entry ports such that only Post Only Orders with a time in force of DAY or GTD may be entered, modified or cancelled through such ports will protect investors and the public interest and maintain fair and orderly markets by offering specific functionality through which Users can submit orders that will result in quotations on the Exchange. In particular, the options markets are quote driven markets dependent on liquidity providers to an even greater extent than equities
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposal will further promote consistency between the Exchange and its affiliated exchanges, and is part of a larger technology integration that will ultimately reduce complexity for Users of the Exchange that are also participants on other Cboe Affiliated Exchanges. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will have any direct impact on inter-market competition. The Exchange does not believe that restricting bulk order entry ports to orders that will be displayed as quotations will impose any burden on intra-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In particular, while the Exchange believes it could be appropriate to propose to limit such functionality to registered market makers, the Exchange has not proposed such limitation at this time. As such, bulk order entry functionality will still be available to all Users of the Exchange, as it is today.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On November 7, 2017, Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange” or “BZX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares under BZX Rule 14.11(i), which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares on the Exchange. In total, the Exchange is proposing to list and trade Shares of up to twelve monthly series of each of the Funds. The Shares would be offered by Innovator ETFs Trust (“Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust.
The Shield Funds are actively managed funds that seek to outperform the Cboe S&P 500 15% Buffer Protect Index Series (“Shield Index”) before expenses are taken into account. The Shield Index is designed to provide investment returns that, over a period of approximately one year, match those of the S&P 500 Index, up to a maximized annual return (“Shield Cap Level”),
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The Ultra Shield Funds are actively managed funds that seek to provide total returns that exceed that of the Cboe S&P 500 30% (−5% to −35%) Buffer Protect Index Series (“Ultra Shield
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The Ultra Shield Index is designed to produce these outcomes by including theoretically “purchased” and “written” FLEX Options that, when layered upon each other, are designed to buffer against losses of the S&P 500 Index.
Under Normal Market Conditions, each Ultra Shield Fund would attempt to achieve its investment objective by taking positions that provide performance exposure substantially similar to the exposure provided by components of the Ultra Shield Index.
The Enhance and Shield Funds are actively managed funds that would seek to provide investment returns during the outcome period that exceed the gains of the S&P 500 Index, up to a maximized annual return (“Enhance and Shield Cap Level”),
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The portfolio managers of the Enhance and Shield Funds would seek to produce those results by investing primarily in FLEX Options or standardized options contracts listed on a U.S. exchange that reference either the S&P 500 Index or ETFs that track the S&P 500 Index.
The Ultra Funds are actively managed funds that would seek to provide during the outcome period total returns that exceed those of the S&P 500 Index, up to a maximized annual return (“Ultra Cap Level”).
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The portfolio managers of the Ultra Funds would seek to produce those results by investing primarily in FLEX Options or standardized options contracts listed on a U.S. exchange that reference either the S&P 500 Index or ETFs that track the S&P 500 Index. The portfolio managers would purchase and write FLEX Options that, when layered upon each other, are designed to exceed
As mentioned above, under Normal Market Conditions, each Fund would seek to achieve its respective investment objective by investing primarily in U.S. exchange-listed FLEX Options on the S&P 500 Index. Each of the Funds might invest its net assets (in the aggregate) in other investments which the Adviser or Sub-Adviser believes would help each Fund meet its investment objective and that would be disclosed at the end of each trading day (“Other Assets”).
The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Exchange Act
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Exchange Act,
Under the proposal, the defined outcome strategies for each Fund are designed to participate in market gains and losses within pre-determined ranges over a specified period. Specifically, these outcomes are predicated on the Shares being bought at the beginning and sold at the end of the designated outcome period. The Commission notes that market participants may buy and sell Shares of the Funds at any time. Accordingly, with respect to the performance of the Shares at any time other than the commencement of the applicable outcome period, the Commission seeks commenters' views on the sufficiency of the information provided in the proposed rule change to support a determination that the listing and trading of the Shares would be consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Exchange Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written views, data, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) or any other provision of the Exchange Act, or the rules and regulations thereunder. Although there do not appear to be any issues relevant to approval or disapproval that would be facilitated by an oral presentation of views, data, and arguments, the Commission will consider, pursuant to Rule 19b-4, any request for an opportunity to make an oral presentation.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposal should be approved or disapproved by March 19, 2018. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by April 2, 2018.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Small Business Administration.
30-Day notice.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is publishing this notice to comply with requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) which requires agencies to submit proposed reporting and recordkeeping requirements to OMB for review and approval, and to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before March 28, 2018.
Comments should refer to the information collection by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030,
A copy of the Form OMB 83-1, supporting statement, and other documents submitted to OMB for review may be obtained from the Agency Clearance Officer.
Small Business Lending Companies (SBLC's) and Non-Federally Regulations Lenders (NFRL's) are generally non-depository lending instructions authorized by SBA primarily to make loans under sections 7(a) of the Small Business Act. As sole regulator of these institutions, SBA requires them to submit audited financial statements annually as well as interim, quarterly financial statements and other reports to facilitate the agency's oversight lenders.
Comments may be submitted on (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information.
Notice of request for public comments.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collections described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on these collections from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collections to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to April 27, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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You must include the DS form number (if applicable), information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Andrea Battista, SA-1, 12th Floor, Directorate of Defense Trade Controls, Bureau of Political Military Affairs, U.S. Department of State, Washington, DC 20522-0112, via phone at (202) 663-3136, or via email at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
The export, temporary import, and brokering of defense articles, including technical data, and defense services are authorized by The Department of State, Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC) in accordance with the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (“ITAR,” 22 CFR parts 120-130) and section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act. Those who manufacture, broker, export, or temporarily import defense articles, including technical data, or defense services must register with the Department of State and obtain a decision from the Department as to whether it is in the interests of U.S. foreign policy and national security to approve covered transactions. Also, registered brokers must submit annual reports regarding all brokering activity that was transacted, and registered manufacturers and exporter must maintain records of defense trade activities for five years.
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Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the person known as Ansarul Islam, also known as Ansarour Islam, also known as Ansar al-Islam, also known as Defenders of Islam, also known as Ansar ul-islam lil-ichad wal jihad, also known as IRSAD, also known as Ansar ul Islam of Malam Boureima Dicko, committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
Notice.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
Submit comments directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) up to March 28, 2018.
Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). You may submit comments by the following methods:
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
The Secretary of State may exercise authority, under 22 U.S.C. 211a, Executive Order 11295 (August 5, 1966), and 22 CFR 51.63, to invalidate all U.S. passports for travel to a country or area if he determines that any of three conditions exist: The country is at war with the United States; armed hostilities are in progress in the country or area; or there is imminent danger to the public health or physical safety of U.S. travelers in the country or area. The regulations of the Department of State provide that an individual's passport may be considered for validation for travel to, in, or through a country or area despite such restriction if the individual's travel is determined to fall within one of several categories established by the regulations. 22 CFR 51.64. Without the requisite validation, use of a U.S. passport for travel to, in, or through a restricted country or area may justify revocation of the passport for misuse under 22 CFR 51.62(a)(2) and subject the traveler to felony prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 1544 for misuse of a passport or other applicable laws.
The categories of persons specified in 22 CFR 51.64(b) as being eligible for consideration for passport validation are as follows:
(a) An applicant who is a professional reporter and journalist whose trip is for the purpose of collecting and making available to the public information about the restricted country or area;
(b) An applicant who is a representative of the American Red Cross or the International Committee of the Red Cross on an officially sponsored Red Cross mission;
(c) An applicant whose trip to the restricted country or area is justified by compelling humanitarian considerations; or
(d) An applicant whose trip to the restricted country or area is otherwise in the national interest.
The proposed information collection solicits data necessary for the Passport Services Directorate to determine whether an applicant is eligible to receive a special validation in his or her U.S. passport book permitting the applicant to make one round-trip to a restricted country or area. The information requested consists of the applicant's name; a copy of the front and back of the applicant's valid government-issued photo identification card with the applicant's date of birth and signature; current contact information, including telephone number and mailing address; and a statement explaining the reason that the applicant thinks his or her trip is in the national interest, supported by documentary evidence. Failure to provide the requested information may result in denial of a special validation to use a U.S. passport to travel to, in, or through a restricted country or area.
Effective September 1, 2017, upon determining that there is imminent danger to the public health or physical safety of U.S. travelers in the Democratic People's Republic of Korea (DPRK), the Secretary of State imposed a passport restriction with respect to travel to the DPRK. The estimated number of recipients represents the Department of State's estimate of the annual number of special validation requests individuals who wish to use their U.S. passport to travel to the DPRK will submit, based on the current number of requests following the implementation of the Secretary of State's passport restriction. At this time, there are no other countries or areas that are the subject of passport restrictions pursuant to 22 CFR 51.63.
Instructions for individuals seeking to apply for a special validation to use a U.S. passport to travel to, in, or through a restricted country or area is posted on a web page maintained by the Department (
Information collected in this manner will be used to facilitate the granting of special validations to U.S. nationals who are eligible. The primary purpose of soliciting the information is to establish whether an applicant is within one of the categories specified in the regulations of the Department of State codified at 22 CFR 51.64(b) and therefore eligible to be issued a U.S. passport containing a special validation enabling him or her to make one round-trip to a restricted country or area, and to facilitate the application for a passport of such applicants.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.
Notice and request for comment.
The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on a continuing information collection as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Currently, the OCC is soliciting comment concerning the renewal of an existing collection titled “Bank Appeals Follow-Up Questionnaire.”
You should submit written comments by April 27, 2018.
Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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You may review comments and other related materials that pertain to this information collection beginning on the date of publication of the second notice for this collection
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Shaquita Merritt, OCC Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490, for persons who are deaf or hearing impaired, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, Suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219.
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the OMB for each collection of information that they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) to include agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of title 44 requires federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on:
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information shall have practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Internal Revenue Service, Treasury.
Notice of renewal of the Art Advisory Panel of the Commissioner of Internal Revenue.
The charter for the Art Advisory Panel has been renewed for a two-year period beginning February 3, 2018.
Maricarmen R. Cuello, C:AP:SO:ART, 51 SW 1st Avenue, Miami, FL 33130, Telephone No. (305) 982-5364 (not a toll free number).
Notice is hereby given under section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2), that the Art Advisory Panel of the Commissioner of Internal Revenue, a necessary committee that is in the public interest, has been renewed for an additional two years beginning on February 3, 2018.
The Panel helps the Internal Revenue Service review and evaluate the acceptability of property appraisals submitted by taxpayers in support of the fair market value claimed on works of art involved in Federal Income, Estate or Gift taxes in accordance with sections 170, 2031, and 2512 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
For the Panel to perform this function, Panel records and discussions must include tax return information. Therefore, the Panel meetings will be closed to the public since all portions of the meetings will concern matters that are exempted from disclosure under the provisions of section 552b(c)(3), (4), (6) and (7) of Title 5 of the U.S. Code. This determination, which is in accordance with section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, is necessary to protect the confidentiality of tax returns and return information as required by section 6103 of the Internal Revenue Code.
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
Comments should be received on or before March 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Jennifer Quintana by emailing
44 U.S.C. 3501
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
Comments should be received on or before March 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Jennifer Quintana by emailing
44 U.S.C. 3501
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The
Comments should be received on or before March 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Jennifer Quintana by emailing
44 U.S.C. 3501
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
Comments should be received on or before March 28, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Jennifer Quintana by emailing
44 U.S.C. 3501
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Veterans and Community Oversight and Engagement Board (Board) will meet on March 20-21, 2018, at 11301 Wilshire Boulevard, Building 500, Room 1281, Los Angeles, CA. Both meeting sessions will begin at 8:00 a.m. (PST) and adjourn at 5:00 p.m. (PST). The meetings are open to the public.
The Board is a statutory Board established by the West Los Angeles Leasing Act of 2016 on September 29, 2016. The purpose of the Board is to provide advice and make recommendations to the Secretary of Veterans Affairs on: Identifying the goals of the community and Veteran partnership; improving services and outcomes for Veterans, members of the Armed Forces, and the families of such Veterans and members; and on the implementation of the Draft Master Plan approved by the Secretary on January 28, 2016, and on the creation and implementation of any successor master plans.
On March 20, the agenda will include information briefings on the Greater Los Angeles Draft Master Plan Integrated Project Team, a detailed status briefing on the implementation of the Draft Master Plan, and Cross Committee collaboration briefings provided by the Committee Managers from the Minority Veterans Advisory Committee and Homeless Veterans Advisory Committee. On March 21, the Committee's subcommittees on Outreach and Community Engagement, Services and Outcomes, and Master Plan will report out on activities since the last meeting.
Public comments will be received from 8:30-9:50 a.m. on March 21, 2018. Individuals wishing to make a public comment should contact Laureen Barone at
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act that a meeting of the National Academic Affiliations Council (NAAC) will be held April 3, 2018-April 4, 2018 at 811 Vermont Avenue NW, VA Office of Academic Affiliations Conference Room, 4th Floor, Washington DC The meeting sessions are open to the public and are scheduled as follows:
The purpose of the Council is to advise the Secretary on matters affecting partnerships between VA and its academic affiliates.
On April 3, 2018, the Council will review the status of its previous recommendations and receive a series of informational briefings on the budget of the VA Office of Academic Affiliations and the Veterans Equitable Resource Allocation formula for clinical educational activities. During a working lunch, NAAC members will meet with the Chair of the National Research Advisory Council to discuss areas of mutual interest among both committees. During the afternoon, the Council will explore the recent activities of the NAAC Diversity and Inclusion Subcommittee and VA's current affiliations with minority serving institutions. At the close of the day, The Council will receive a presentation on VA's Care in the Community efforts and discuss their potential impact on the VA education mission.
On April 4, 2018, the Council will receive presentations on VA's ongoing efforts to ensure the accountability and oversight of graduate medical education funds and the Office of Academic Affiliations' innovation portfolio. After lunch, the Council will have an open discussion with Dr. Carolyn Clancy, the Executive in Charge for the Veterans Health Administration and Dr. Christopher Vojta, the Principal Deputy Under Secretary for Health. The Council will receive public comments from 4:45 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. on April 3, 2018 and again at or before 2:00 p.m. to 2:15 p.m. on April 4, 2018.
Interested persons may attend and present oral statements to the Council. A sign-in sheet for those who want to give comments will be available at the meeting. Individuals who speak are invited to submit a 1-2 page summary of their comments at the time of the meeting for inclusion in the official meeting record. Oral presentations will be limited to five minutes or less, depending on the number of participants. Interested parties may also provide written comments for review by the Council prior to the meeting or at any time, via email to,
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |