Page Range | 7441-7693 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 7691 - Sequestration Order for Fiscal Year 2017 Pursuant to Section 251A of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act, as Amended | |
81 FR 7685 - Establishment of the Federal Privacy Council | |
81 FR 7587 - Government in the Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 7542 - Wireless Telecommunications Bureau Releases Updated List of Reserve-Eligible Nationwide Service Providers in Each PEA for the Broadcast Incentive Auction | |
81 FR 7493 - Trade Monitoring Procedures for Fishery Products; International Trade in Seafood; Permit Requirements for Importers and Exporters; Public Meeting; Correction | |
81 FR 7441 - Commission on Enhancing National Cybersecurity | |
81 FR 7504 - Notice of Initiation and Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Changed Circumstances Review: Drawn Stainless Steel Sinks From the People's Republic of China | |
81 FR 7500 - Citric Acid and Certain Citrate Salts From Canada: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 7503 - Light-Walled Rectangular Pipe and Tube From Turkey; Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 7502 - Certain Magnesia Carbon Bricks From Mexico and the People's Republic of China: Continuation of Antidumping Duty Orders and Countervailing Duty Order | |
81 FR 7500 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 279-Terrebonne Parish, Louisiana; Notification of Proposed Production Activity; Thoma-Sea Marine Constructors, L.L.C. (Shipbuilding); Houma, Louisiana | |
81 FR 7499 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 7454 - Visas: Documentation of Nonimmigrants Under the Immigration and Nationality Act, as Amended | |
81 FR 7556 - Accreditation and Approval of Saybolt LP as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
81 FR 7553 - Accreditation and Approval of AmSpec Services, Llc, as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
81 FR 7536 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Request (ICR) for On-Highway Motorcycle Certification and Compliance Program; EPA ICR Number 2535.01, OMB Control Number-2060-NEW | |
81 FR 7466 - Allocations of Cross-State Air Pollution Rule Allowances From New Unit Set-Asides for the 2015 Compliance Year | |
81 FR 7555 - Accreditation and Approval of AmSpec Services, LLC, as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
81 FR 7455 - Significant New Use Rule on Certain Chemical Substances | |
81 FR 7554 - Accreditation and Approval of Inspectorate America Corporation, As a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
81 FR 7499 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 7510 - Procurement List, Proposed Additions And Deletion | |
81 FR 7566 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Petition for CNMI-Only Nonimmigrant Transitional Worker, Form I-129CW; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection. | |
81 FR 7510 - Procurement List Addition | |
81 FR 7508 - Procurement List Additions and Deletions | |
81 FR 7511 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Requirements Pertaining to Third Party Conformity Assessment Bodies | |
81 FR 7526 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7538 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
81 FR 7588 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Manufacturers of Ammunition, Records and Supporting Data of Ammunition Manufactured and Disposed of | |
81 FR 7590 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; ATF Distribution Center Survey (ATF F 1370.4) | |
81 FR 7594 - National Industrial Security Program Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC) | |
81 FR 7507 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 7542 - Order Declares ACT Telecommunications, Inc.'s International Section 214 Authorization Terminated | |
81 FR 7625 - Arkansas Disaster #AR-00086 | |
81 FR 7624 - Oklahoma Disaster Number OK-00098 | |
81 FR 7624 - Arkansas Disaster # AR-00087 | |
81 FR 7623 - Michigan Disaster #MI-00054 Declaration of Economic Injury | |
81 FR 7497 - Request for Public Engagement in the Interagency Special Report `2nd State of the Carbon Cycle Report (SOCCR-2)' | |
81 FR 7533 - Idaho Power Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 7535 - Southern California Edison Company; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 7534 - Dominion Energy Marketing, Inc., Dominion Energy Manchester Street, Inc. v. ISO New England, Inc.; Notice of Complaint | |
81 FR 7535 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 7534 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 7537 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Recordkeeping and Reporting Related to RFS2 Voluntary RIN Quality Assurance Program (Renewal) | |
81 FR 7539 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Proposed Information Collection Request; Landfill Methane Outreach Program (Renewal) | |
81 FR 7538 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; EPA's ENERGY STAR Program in the Commercial and Industrial Sectors (Revision) | |
81 FR 7528 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7583 - Indian Gaming; Extension of Tribal-State Class III Gaming Compact (Crow Creek Sioux Tribe and the State of South Dakota) | |
81 FR 7565 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Immigrant Petition for Alien Worker, Form I-140; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 7585 - Certain Corrosion-Resistant Steel Products From China, India, Italy, Korea, and Taiwan; Scheduling of the Final Phase of Countervailing Duty and Antidumping Duty Investigations | |
81 FR 7567 - Additional Clarifying Guidance, Waivers and Alternative Requirements for Grantees in Receipt of Community Development Block Grant Disaster Recovery Funds Under Public Law 113-2 for the Submission of Expenditure Deadline Extension Requests and Urgent Need Certification Extensions and for the Provision of Interim Mortgage Assistance by the State of New York | |
81 FR 7557 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 7561 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 7588 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; FFL Out of Business Records Request (ATF F 5300.3A) | |
81 FR 7559 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 7558 - Notice of Adjustment of Statewide Per Capita Indicator for Recommending a Cost Share Adjustment | |
81 FR 7563 - Texas; Amendment No. 3 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 7543 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 7513 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7507 - National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration | |
81 FR 7625 - Wisconsin Central Ltd.-Trackage Rights Exemption-Lines of Union Pacific Railroad Company and Illinois Central Railroad Company | |
81 FR 7540 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
81 FR 7541 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
81 FR 7477 - Broadcast Licensee-Conducted Contests | |
81 FR 7491 - Petitions for Reconsideration of Action in a Rulemaking Proceeding | |
81 FR 7589 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Voluntary Magazine Questionnaire for Agencies/Entities Who Store Explosive Materials | |
81 FR 7587 - Stainless Steel Wire Rod From Italy, Japan, Korea, Spain, and Taiwan; Revised Schedule for the Subject Reviews | |
81 FR 7626 - Hours of Service of Drivers: Farruggio's Express, Application for Exemption | |
81 FR 7571 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Initiation of 5-Year Status Reviews of 76 Species in Hawaii, Oregon, Washington, Montana, and Idaho | |
81 FR 7583 - National Geospatial Advisory Committee; Charter Renewal | |
81 FR 7628 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request | |
81 FR 7524 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7552 - Policy Letter: Guidance for Training of Deck Officers on Vessels Subject to the International Code for Ships Operating in the Polar Waters | |
81 FR 7549 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Announcement of Office of Management and Budget Approval; Guidance for Industry on Formal Meetings With Sponsors and Applicants for Prescription Drug User Fee Act Products | |
81 FR 7544 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Manufactured Food Regulatory Program Standards | |
81 FR 7547 - Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing; Influenza Virus Neuramindase | |
81 FR 7593 - Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel; Meeting | |
81 FR 7593 - NASA International Space Station Advisory Committee; Meeting | |
81 FR 7445 - Removal of Review and Reclassification Procedures for Biological Products Licensed Prior to July 1, 1972 | |
81 FR 7630 - West Los Angeles VA Medical Center; Draft Master Plan | |
81 FR 7546 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Announcement of Office of Management and Budget Approval; Request for Samples and Protocols | |
81 FR 7548 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Announcement of Office of Management and Budget Approval; Registration of Producers of Drugs and Listing of Drugs in Commercial Distribution | |
81 FR 7547 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Announcement of Office of Management and Budget Approval; Labeling of Certain Beers Subject to the Labeling Jurisdiction of the Food and Drug Administration | |
81 FR 7543 - Characterization of Ultrahigh Molecular Weight Polyethylene Used in Orthopedic Devices; Draft Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
81 FR 7452 - Medical Devices; General and Plastic Surgery Devices; Classification of the Scalp Cooling System To Reduce the Likelihood of Chemotherapy-Induced Alopecia | |
81 FR 7548 - Annual Computational Science Symposium; Conference | |
81 FR 7446 - Anesthesiology Devices; Reclassification of Membrane Lung for Long-Term Pulmonary Support; Redesignation as Extracorporeal Circuit and Accessories for Long-Term Respiratory/Cardiopulmonary Failure | |
81 FR 7623 - Florida Disaster #FL-00110 | |
81 FR 7623 - Florida Disaster #FL-00111 | |
81 FR 7624 - Notice Seeking Exemption Under Section 312 of the Small Business Investment Act, Conflicts of Interest | |
81 FR 7563 - Infrastructure Protection Gateway Facility Surveys | |
81 FR 7569 - Mortgage and Loan Insurance Programs Under the National Housing Act-Debenture Interest Rates | |
81 FR 7584 - Certain Stainless Steel Products, Certain Processes for Manufacturing or Relating to Same, and Certain Products Containing Same; Notice of Commission Determination To Review an Initial Determination Granting in Part a Motion for Default and Other Relief and, on Review, To Affirm the Default Finding; Schedule for Filing Written Submissions on the Issues Under Review and on Remedy, Public Interest, and Bonding | |
81 FR 7594 - NASA Advisory Council; Science Committee; Meeting. | |
81 FR 7582 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
81 FR 7522 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7587 - Bulk Manufacturer of Controlled Substances Application: Noramco, Inc. | |
81 FR 7516 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7512 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 7506 - Views on the Framework for Improving Critical Infrastructure Cybersecurity | |
81 FR 7592 - Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health Charter Amendment. | |
81 FR 7546 - Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 7595 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 7596 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 7549 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 7550 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 7552 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 7550 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 7551 - National Institute on Drug Abuse; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 7550 - National Institute on Drug Abuse; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 7520 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7489 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Idaho: Interstate Transport Requirements for the 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
81 FR 7489 - Revisions to the California State Implementation Plan, San Joaquin Valley Unified Air Pollution Control District | |
81 FR 7483 - Air Plan Approval; Tennessee: Removal of I/M Program in Memphis and Revisions to the 1997 8-Hour Ozone Maintenance Plan for Shelby County, Tennessee | |
81 FR 7494 - Pacific Island Fisheries; Hawaii Bottomfish and Seamount Groundfish; Revised Essential Fish Habitat and Habitat Areas of Particular Concern | |
81 FR 7518 - 36(b)(1) Arms Sales Notification | |
81 FR 7609 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Relating To Adopting a Principles-Based Approach To Prohibit the Misuse of Material Nonpublic Information by Designated Primary Market-Makers (“DPMs”) and Lead Market-Makers (“LMMs”) | |
81 FR 7620 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Include NextShares in the Lead Market Maker Program | |
81 FR 7613 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Credit LLC; Notice of Filing, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, of Proposed Rule Change To Provide for the Clearance of Certain Asia-Pacific Credit Default Swap Contracts | |
81 FR 7599 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change to Rule 14.11(i), Managed Fund Shares, To List and Trade Shares of the SPDR DoubleLine Short Term Total Return Tactical ETF of the SSgA Active Trust | |
81 FR 7597 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change to Retroactively Apply Recently-Reduced Port Fees | |
81 FR 7618 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Delete Obsolete Rules 1000C-1009C | |
81 FR 7595 - Notice of Permits Issued Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 | |
81 FR 7619 - State Farm Associates' Funds Trust, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 7596 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 7616 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 7463 - Clean Air Act Title V Operating Permit Program Revision; West Virginia | |
81 FR 7591 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Contraband Cigarette Trafficking Act Delivery Sale Information Form-Schedule B (ATF Form 5200.26) | |
81 FR 7590 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Tobacco Inventory Report (ATF Form 5200.25) | |
81 FR 7592 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection, eComments Requested; Extension Without Change of a Previously Approved Collection Reporting and Recordkeeping for Digital Certificates | |
81 FR 7466 - Diflubenzuron; Pesticide Tolerances | |
81 FR 7473 - Benzyl acetate; Exemption From the Requirement of a Tolerance | |
81 FR 7481 - Special Local Regulation; Chesapeake Bay, Between Sandy Point and Kent Island, MD | |
81 FR 7454 - Benefits Payable in Terminated Single-Employer Plans; Interest Assumptions for Paying Benefits | |
81 FR 7532 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery | |
81 FR 7530 - State Energy Advisory Board (STEAB) | |
81 FR 7531 - Electricity Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 7653 - Medicare Program; Reporting and Returning of Overpayments | |
81 FR 7492 - Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards; Denial of Petition for Rulemaking | |
81 FR 7478 - Agriculture Acquisition Regulation, Fire Suppression and Liability | |
81 FR 7573 - Endangered Species; Issuance of Permits | |
81 FR 7631 - Federal Property Suitable as Facilities To Assist the Homeless | |
81 FR 7564 - Agency Information Collection Activities: H-2 Petitioner's Employment Related or Fee Related Notification, No Form; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection |
National Institute of Food and Agriculture
Rural Utilities Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Energy Information Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Geological Survey
Indian Affairs Bureau
Drug Enforcement Administration
Workers Compensation Programs Office
Information Security Oversight Office
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
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Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA, the Agency, or we) is removing two regulations that prescribe procedures for FDA's review and classification of biological products licensed before July 1, 1972. FDA is taking this action because the two regulations are obsolete and no longer necessary in light of other statutory and regulatory authorities established since 1972, which allow FDA to evaluate and monitor the safety and effectiveness of all biological products. In addition, other statutory and regulatory authorities authorize FDA to revoke a license for biological products because they are not safe and effective, or are misbranded. FDA is taking this action as part of its retrospective review of its regulations to promote improvement and innovation.
This rule is effective March 14, 2016.
For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to
Jessica T. Walker, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
FDA is removing two regulations that prescribe procedures for FDA's review and classification of biological products licensed before July 1, 1972, because the two regulations are obsolete and no longer necessary in light of other statutory and regulatory authorities established since 1972. These other statutory and regulatory authorities allow FDA to evaluate and monitor the safety and effectiveness of all biological products and authorize FDA to revoke a license for products because they are not safe and effective, or are misbranded.
The final rule removes §§ 601.25 and 601.26 (21 CFR 601.25 and 601.26), which prescribe procedures for FDA's review and classification of biological products licensed before July 1, 1972.
FDA is taking this action under the biological products provisions of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act), and the drugs and general administrative provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act).
Because this final rule would not impose any additional regulatory burdens, this regulation is not anticipated to result in any compliance costs and the economic impact is expected to be minimal.
In the
Since establishing the procedures under §§ 601.25 and 601.26, FDA developed new regulations to assess and ensure the safety and efficacy of biological products. FDA issued the Current Good Manufacturing Practice (cGMP) regulations, which contain the minimum cGMP for preparation of drug products, including biological products. The cGMP regulations help FDA ensure that such products meet the requirements for product safety, effectiveness, and labeling. FDA also helps ensure the safety and effectiveness of biological products through application of other regulations, such as the reporting of biological product deviations by licensed manufacturers (see 21 CFR 600.14), postmarketing reporting of adverse experiences (21 CFR 600.80), and labeling regulations (for example, 21 CFR part 201). Biological products that do not meet the requirements under these regulations are subject to license revocation under 21 CFR 601.5, which allows FDA to revoke any biologics license for a product that fails to meet applicable standards and fails to comply with
In addition, FDA continues to help ensure the safety and effectiveness of licensed biological products through the development and application of additional standards and mechanisms. These mechanisms assist FDA in evaluating and monitoring the safety and effectiveness of biological products.
FDA did not receive any comments on the proposed rule.
The final rule removes §§ 601.25 and 601.26 of the regulations, which prescribe procedures for FDA's review and classification of biological products licensed before July 1, 1972. FDA is taking this action because these regulations are obsolete and no longer necessary in light of other statutory and regulatory authorities established since 1972, which allow FDA to evaluate and monitor the safety and effectiveness of all biological products.
FDA is issuing this regulation under the biological products provisions of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 262 and 264) and the drugs and general administrative provisions of the FD&C Act (sections 201, 301, 501, 502, 503, 505, 510, 701, and 704 (21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 371, and 374)). Under these provisions of the PHS Act and the FD&C Act, we have the authority to issue and enforce regulations designed to ensure that biological products are safe, pure, and potent; and to prevent the introduction, transmission, and spread of communicable disease.
We have examined the impacts of the final rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct Agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). We believe that this final rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires Agencies to analyze regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule on small entities. Because this final rule removes regulations that are obsolete and no longer necessary in light of other current statutory and regulatory authorities, FDA certifies that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (section 202(a)) requires us to prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits, before issuing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $144 million, using the most current (2014) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This final rule would not result in any 1-year expenditure that would meet or exceed this amount.
We have determined under 21 CFR 25.30(h) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant adverse effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final rule contains no collection of information. Therefore, clearance by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 is not required.
We have analyzed this final rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13132. FDA has determined that the rule does not contain policies that would have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, the Agency has concluded that the rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications as defined in the Executive order and, consequently, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.
Administrative practice and procedure, Biologics, Confidential business information.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Public Health Service Act, and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 601 is amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 1451-1561; 21 U.S.C. 321, 351, 352, 353, 355, 356b, 360, 360c-360f, 360h-360j, 371, 374, 379e, 381; 42 U.S.C. 216, 241, 262, 263, 264; sec 122, Pub. L. 105-115, 111 Stat. 2322 (21 U.S.C. 355 note).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is issuing a final order to redesignate membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support, a preamendments class III device, as extracorporeal circuit and accessories for long-term respiratory/cardiopulmonary failure, and to reclassify the device to class II (special controls) in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent. A membrane lung device for long-term pulmonary support (>6 hours) refers to the oxygenator in an extracorporeal circuit used during long-term procedures, commonly referred to
This order is effective February 12, 2016.
Fernando Aguel, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1234, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-6326,
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Medical Device Amendments of 1976 (the 1976 amendments) (Pub. L. 94-295), the Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-629), the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 (FDAMA) (Pub. L. 105-115), the Medical Device User Fee and Modernization Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-250), the Medical Devices Technical Corrections Act (Pub. L. 108-214), the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007 (Pub. L. 110-85), and the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) (Pub. L. 112-144), among other amendments, established a comprehensive system for the regulation of medical devices intended for human use. Section 513 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c) established three categories (classes) of devices, reflecting the regulatory controls needed to provide reasonable assurance of their safety and effectiveness. The three categories of devices are class I (general controls), class II (special controls), and class III (premarket approval).
Under section 513(d) of the FD&C Act, devices that were in commercial distribution before the enactment of the 1976 amendments, May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as preamendments devices), are classified after FDA has: (1) Received a recommendation from a device classification panel (an FDA advisory committee); (2) published the panel's recommendation for comment, along with a proposed regulation classifying the device; and (3) published a final regulation classifying the device. FDA has classified most preamendments devices under these procedures.
Devices that were not in commercial distribution prior to May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as postamendments devices) are automatically classified by section 513(f) of the FD&C Act into class III without any FDA rulemaking process. Those devices remain in class III and require premarket approval unless, and until, the device is reclassified into class I or II or FDA issues an order finding the device to be substantially equivalent, in accordance with section 513(i) of the FD&C Act, to a predicate device that does not require premarket approval. The Agency determines whether new devices are substantially equivalent to predicate devices by means of premarket notification procedures in section 510(k) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and part 807 (21 CFR part 807).
A preamendments device that has been classified into class III and devices found substantially equivalent by means of premarket notification procedures (510(k)) to such a preamendments device or to a device within that type (both the preamendments and substantially equivalent devices are referred to as preamendments class III devices) may be marketed without submission of a premarket approval application (PMA) until FDA issues a final order under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360e(b)) requiring premarket approval or until the device is subsequently reclassified into class I or class II.
On July 9, 2012, FDASIA was enacted. Section 608(a) of FDASIA (126 Stat. 1056) amended section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, changing the mechanism for reclassifying a device from rulemaking to an administrative order.
Section 513(e) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may, by administrative order, reclassify a device based upon “new information.” FDA can initiate a reclassification under section 513(e) of the FD&C Act or an interested person may petition FDA to reclassify a preamendments device. The term “new information,” as used in section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, includes information developed as a result of a reevaluation of the data before the Agency when the device was originally classified, as well as information not presented, not available, or not developed at that time. (See,
Reevaluation of the data previously before the Agency is an appropriate basis for subsequent action where the reevaluation is made in light of newly available authority (see
FDA relies upon “valid scientific evidence” in the classification process to determine the level of regulation for devices. To be considered in the reclassification process, the “valid scientific evidence” upon which the Agency relies must be publicly available. Publicly available information excludes trade secret and/or confidential commercial information,
Section 513(e)(1) of the FD&C Act sets forth the process for issuing a final reclassification order. Specifically, prior to the issuance of a final order reclassifying a device, the following must occur: (1) Publication of a proposed order in the
FDA published a proposed order to reclassify this device in the
As discussed in the proposed order, FDA considered the available information on these devices and concluded that these devices could be reclassified to class II, subject to the identified special controls. As required by section 513(e)(1) of the FD&C Act, FDA convened a meeting of a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the FD&C Act with respect to the membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support on September 12, 2013, followed by a meeting on May 7, 2014. The deliberations of the device classification panels are discussed in section IV of this order. FDA received and has considered two comments on the January 8, 2013, proposed order, as discussed in section III. Therefore, FDA has met the requirements for issuing a final order under section 513(e)(1) of the FD&C Act.
FDA received two comments in response to the January 8, 2013, proposed order to reclassify membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support for conditions where imminent death is threatened by cardiopulmonary failure in neonates and infants or where cardiopulmonary failure results in the inability to separate from cardiopulmonary bypass following cardiac surgery.
One comment supported FDA's reclassification proposal but requested that the Agency clarify the population covered and the conditions included in the reclassification. According to the commenter, it seemed that the membrane lung device could be used for long-term support in neonates and infants only when imminent death is threatened by cardiopulmonary failure, but for the remaining population (
Another comment disagreed with FDA's intent to reclassify membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support, stating that “ECMO devices must remain categorized as class III devices for all indications because they are life-sustaining devices for which clinical trials are necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.” FDA disagrees with this comment. According to section 513(a)(1)(C) of the FD&C Act, a class III device is defined as a device which: (1) Cannot be classified as a class I device because insufficient information exists to determine that the application of general controls are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device; and (2) cannot be classified as a class II device because insufficient information exists to determine that the special controls would provide reasonable assurance of its safety and effectiveness; and (3) is purported or represented to be for a use in supporting or sustaining human life or for a use which is of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health; or (4) presents a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury.
Although FDA considers membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support to be life-supporting, a viewpoint that was supported by the panel members at the September 12, 2013 (2013 Panel), and May 7, 2014 (2014 Panel), device classification panel meetings, FDA believes that the available information supports FDA's determination that special controls, in addition to general controls, would be sufficient to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. Further, the 2013 and 2014 Panels largely supported reclassification of ECMO for use in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure as noted in section IV of this order. As mentioned previously and discussed further in section IV, ECMO is a tool which provides extracorporeal circulation and physiologic gas exchange of blood. The special controls identified in this final order, including clinical performance data, ensure that the device can function as intended to provide extracorporeal circulation and physiologic gas exchange of blood for the intended duration of device use. The Agency believes that the risks of ECMO devices are sufficiently understood based on valid scientific evidence and that the risks of ECMO devices can be mitigated with the special controls identified in this final order. The special controls mitigate the risks to health identified for the device as outlined in section IV, table 1. Therefore, FDA does not agree that membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support for use in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure should remain a class III device.
The commenter also expressed concern that the reclassification of these devices would mean that companies manufacturing new versions of the device would not be required to show that their products are safe and effective. The commenter suggests that classification to class II (special controls) precludes FDA from requesting clinical data for these devices. FDA disagrees with this comment. FDA believes that the identified special controls provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support for use in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent. FDA has determined that by complying with the identified special controls, the currently legally marketed devices within this classification regulation will be reasonably safe and effective when used for acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure. Future devices claiming substantial equivalence to an available predicate(s) must demonstrate that they are substantially equivalent, as defined under section 513(i) of the FD&C Act, to the predicate device and comply with all applicable FDA regulations and with the special
The commenter further expressed concern that reclassification for some indications will reduce the incentive to undertake future studies for untested indications due to the availability of the devices for “off-label” use. FDA notes in response to this comment that, generally, FDA regulates the use of a device as indicated by the party offering the device for interstate commerce.
The commenter also sought assurance from FDA that membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support for indications not identified in the proposed order would remain in class III and therefore require the submission of a PMA. FDA notes that by identifying the intended uses covered by the revised classification regulation, uses that fall outside the definition would not be subject to the order but rather would be classified under section 513 of the FD&C Act.
As required by section 513(e)(1) of the FD&C Act, FDA convened a meeting of the Circulatory System Devices Panel to consider the existing valid scientific evidence to support reclassification to class II of membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support. One meeting was held on September 12, 2013 (2013 Panel), regarding pediatric uses for ECMO and another meeting was held on May 7, 2014 (2014 Panel), regarding adult uses for ECMO (Refs. 1 and 2).
On September 12, 2013, FDA presented the risks associated with use of the membrane lung device for long-term pulmonary support. The 2013 Panel mostly agreed that the risks to health were adequately captured as presented by FDA. Several 2013 Panel members discussed whether the list of risks to health should also include information on renal dysfunction, neurologic injury, disseminated intravascular coagulation, transfusion issues, and inflammatory responses. FDA explained that such effects are more appropriately characterized not as risks to health but rather as adverse events that may result from the risks to health. The 2013 Panel understood this distinction but requested that FDA consider expanding the definition of adverse tissue reaction to include inflammatory response. FDA considered the 2013 Panel's input when updating the risks to health for the 2014 Panel and this final order.
The 2013 Panel agreed that the available scientific evidence supported the safety and effectiveness for ECMO and its accessories for conditions where the subject is at threat of imminent death caused by acute reversible respiratory failure (
The 2013 Panel also agreed that the probable benefits to health from use of the extracorporeal circuit and its accessories for long-term pulmonary and cardiopulmonary support for these uses outweigh the probable risks. As noted previously, FDA has further considered all available information and has determined that the risks to health identified for ECMO are the same across neonatal, infant, pediatric, and adult populations. This is consistent with input from the 2013 and 2014 Panels, which found that the risks to health for the pediatric and adult populations do not differ. Further, FDA believes that the available safety and effectiveness information supports use of ECMO as a tool to provide extracorporeal circulation and physiologic gas exchange of blood in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent. FDA is providing greater clarity in this final order by simplifying the identification of ECMO devices in the classification regulation to better reflect what an ECMO circuit performs, not specify patient populations or conditions to be treated. Specific indications for use for ECMO, including specific patient populations and/or conditions, are further discussed in this document.
In general, the 2013 Panel believed the special controls in the proposed order would mitigate the identified risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the extracorporeal circuit and its accessories. However, some 2013 Panel members recommended that compatibility of the various circuit accessories be evaluated to ensure that the circuit accessories can function together as intended. FDA believes that the special controls will be able to address the issue of circuit accessories' compatibility. Specifically, the following special controls from the classification regulation address this concern: (1) The design characteristics of the device must ensure that the geometry and design parameters are consistent with the intended use; (2) non-clinical performance evaluation of the device must demonstrate substantial equivalence for performance characteristics on the bench, mechanical integrity, electromagnetic compatibility(where applicable), software, durability, and reliability; and (3) labeling must include a detailed summary of the non-clinical and clinical evaluations pertinent to use of the device and adequate instructions with respect to anticoagulation, circuit setup, performance characteristics with respect to compatibility with other circuit accessories, and maintenance during a procedure.
The 2013 Panel unanimously agreed that the membrane lung device for long-term pulmonary support is life-supporting. The 2013 Panel further stated that the available scientific evidence and the proposed special controls, in conjunction with general controls, supported the reclassification to class II of membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary/cardiopulmonary support in pediatric patients. The 2013 Panel expressed concern about not having had the opportunity to review data regarding use of the device in adults, given that use of ECMO in adults had increased significantly over the years. The 2013 Panel recommended that FDA convene another meeting to review the available literature regarding use of the membrane lung device for long-term pulmonary support in adults before finalizing the proposed reclassification.
On May 7, 2014, FDA convened the 2014 Panel to discuss the classification of the membrane lung for long-term support, specifically for adult pulmonary and cardiopulmonary indications. For both pulmonary and cardiopulmonary intended uses, the 2014 Panel believed that the list of risks to health presented by FDA were comprehensive and adequately captured. Of note, in response to the 2013 Panel's recommendation regarding risks to health, FDA expanded the definition of adverse tissue reaction to include inflammatory response.
The majority of the 2014 Panel believed that the available scientific evidence is adequate to support a
The 2014 Panel agreed that FDA's list of special controls were appropriate and comprehensive. The 2014 Panel further agreed that the special controls would mitigate the identified risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for the device when used to provide long-term support in adults with acute respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary failure.
For both acute respiratory and acute cardiopulmonary indications in adults, the 2014 Panel unanimously agreed that the membrane lung device for long-term support is life-supporting. The 2014 Panel further believes that the available scientific evidence and the proposed special controls support the reclassification to class II of membrane lung devices for long-term support in adults with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure.
After considering input from both the 2013 and 2014 Panels, FDA believes that the risks to health identified can be mitigated by the special controls as outlined in Table 1.
At both the 2013 Panel and 2014 Panel meetings, FDA provided a summary of information from the clinical literature regarding specific patient populations and conditions to be treated using ECMO (Refs.1 and 2). Of note, FDA has not cleared any ECMO devices that are indicated for specific patient populations or conditions. As such, FDA believes that the intended uses included in this final order should remain broad to reflect use of ECMO as a tool to provide extracorporeal circulation and physiologic gas exchange of blood in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent. However, FDA believes that there are specific indications (patient populations and/or conditions) that would fall within this broader intended use and therefore be within the scope of this regulation as outlined in this document.
Specifically, FDA has reviewed the clinical literature and has determined that there are sufficient data available to support labeling ECMO devices for the following specific indications (patient populations and/or conditions) at this time: Meconium aspiration in neonates and infants; congenital diaphragmatic hernia in neonates and infants; pulmonary hypertension in neonates and infants; failure to wean from cardiopulmonary bypass following cardiac surgery in pediatric and adult patients; and ECMO-assisted cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults.
FDA has further evaluated data from the clinical literature and determined that the data available do not support labeling ECMO devices for certain specific indications (patient populations and/or conditions) at this time without additional clinical data from sponsors to support such uses, consistent with the identified special controls, including but not limited to: High risk percutaneous coronary intervention; trauma resuscitation; failed heart or lung transplant; acute respiratory distress syndrome; and/or acute decompensation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
For ECMO devices that have not been legally marketed prior to the effective date of the final order, or models (if any) that have been legally marketed but are required to submit a new 510(k) under § 807.81(a)(3) because the device is
Under section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, FDA is adopting its findings as published in the preamble to the proposed order (78 FR 1158) with modifications as discussed in section IV of this final order. FDA is issuing this final order to reclassify the membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support from class III to class II for use in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent, and to establish special controls. FDA is removing the regulation from 21 CFR part 868 (Anesthesiology Devices) and adding it to 21 CFR part 870 (Cardiovascular Devices) to better align this device type (and the review thereof) with other similar types of cardiovascular devices. The title and identification of § 870.4100 (21 CFR 870.4100) reflects the Agency's intent to regulate ECMO and the accessories used in ECMO under the same set of regulatory controls. However, an individual device or accessory in an ECMO circuit may already have its own classification regulation when intended for short-term use (≤6 hours) and, in those instances, such device or accessory is subject to the preexisting regulation(s).
Following the effective date of this final order, firms marketing membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support for use in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent, must comply with the particular mitigation measures set forth in the special controls.
Section 510(m) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may exempt a class II device from the premarket notification requirements under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act if FDA determines that premarket notification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the devices. FDA has determined that premarket notification is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of membrane lung devices for long-term pulmonary support for use in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent, and, therefore, this device type is not exempt from premarket notification requirements.
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final order refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 812 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0078; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subpart B, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; and the collections of information under 21 CFR part 801 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Prior to the amendments by FDASIA, section 513(e) of the FD&C Act provided for FDA to issue regulations to reclassify devices. Although section 513(e) of the FD&C Act as amended requires FDA to issue final orders rather than regulations, FDASIA also provides for FDA to revoke previously issued regulations by order. FDA will continue to codify classifications and reclassifications in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). Changes resulting from final orders will appear in the CFR as changes to codified classification determinations or as newly codified orders. Therefore, under section 513(e)(1)(A)(i) of the FD&C Act, as amended by FDASIA, in this final order, we are revoking the requirements in 21 CFR 868.5610 related to the classification of membrane lung for long-term pulmonary support as class III devices and codifying under § 870.4100 the reclassification of membrane lung for long-term pulmonary support for use in patients with acute respiratory failure or acute cardiopulmonary failure, where other available treatment options have failed, and continued clinical deterioration is expected or the risk of death is imminent into class II (special controls).
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; they are also available electronically at
Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR parts 868 and 870 are amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 371.
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 371.
(a)
(b)
(1) The technological characteristics of the device must ensure that the geometry and design parameters are consistent with the intended use, and that the devices and accessories in the circuit are compatible;
(2) The devices and accessories in the circuit must be demonstrated to be biocompatible;
(3) Sterility and shelf-life testing must demonstrate the sterility of any patient-contacting devices and accessories in the circuit and the shelf life of these devices and accessories;
(4) Non-clinical performance evaluation of the devices and accessories in the circuit must demonstrate substantial equivalence of the performance characteristics on the bench, mechanical integrity, electromagnetic compatibility (where applicable), software, durability, and reliability;
(5) In vivo evaluation of the devices and accessories in the circuit must demonstrate their performance over the intended duration of use, including a detailed summary of the clinical evaluation pertinent to the use of the devices and accessories to demonstrate their effectiveness if a specific indication (patient population and/or condition) is identified; and
(6) Labeling must include a detailed summary of the non-clinical and in vivo evaluations pertinent to use of the devices and accessories in the circuit and adequate instructions with respect to anticoagulation, circuit setup, performance characteristics with respect to compatibility among different devices and accessories in the circuit, and maintenance during a procedure.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is classifying the scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia into class II (special controls). The special controls that will apply to the device are identified in this order and will be part of the codified language for the scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia's classification. The Agency is classifying the device into class II (special controls) in order to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device.
This order is effective February 12, 2016. The classification was applicable on December 8, 2015.
Neil Ogden, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. G414, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6397.
In accordance with section 513(f)(1) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(1)), devices that were not in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976 (the date of enactment of the Medical Device Amendments of 1976), generally referred to as postamendments devices, are classified automatically by statute into class III without any FDA rulemaking process. These devices remain in class III and require premarket approval, unless and until the device is classified or reclassified into class I or II, or FDA issues an order finding the device to be substantially equivalent, in accordance with section 513(i) of the FD&C Act, to a predicate device that does not require premarket approval. The Agency determines whether new devices are substantially equivalent to predicate devices by means of premarket notification procedures in section 510(k) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and part 807 (21 CFR part 807) of the regulations.
Section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act, as amended by section 607 of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (Pub. L. 112-144), provides two procedures by which a person may request FDA to classify a device under the criteria set forth in section 513(a)(1) of the FD&C Act. Under the first procedure, the person submits a premarket notification under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act for a device that has not previously been classified and, within 30 days of receiving an order classifying the device into class III under section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act, the person requests a classification under section 513(f)(2). Under the second procedure, rather than first submitting a premarket notification under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act and then a request for classification under the first procedure, the person determines that there is no legally marketed device upon which to base a determination of substantial equivalence and requests a classification under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act. If the person submits a request to classify the device under this second procedure, FDA may decline to undertake the classification request if FDA identifies a legally marketed device that could provide a reasonable basis for review of substantial equivalence with the device or if FDA determines that the device submitted is not of “low-moderate risk” or that general controls would be inadequate to control the risks and special controls to mitigate the risks cannot be developed.
In response to a request to classify a device under either procedure provided by section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act, FDA will classify the device by written order within 120 days. This classification will be the initial classification of the device.
On March 6, 2015, Target Health, Inc. (on behalf of Dignitana AB) submitted a request for classification of the DigniCap
In accordance with section 513(f)(2) of the FD&C Act, FDA reviewed the
Therefore, on December 8, 2015, FDA issued an order to the requestor classifying the device into class II. FDA is codifying the classification of the device by adding § 878.4360 (21 CFR 878.4360).
Following the effective date of this final classification order, any firm submitting a premarket notification (510(k)) for a scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia will need to comply with the special controls named in this final order.
The device is assigned the generic name scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia, and it is identified as a scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia intended to reduce the frequency and severity of alopecia during chemotherapy in which alopecia-inducing chemotherapeutic agents are used. The device is a prescription device.
FDA has identified the following risks to health associated with this type of device and the measures required to mitigate these risks:
FDA believes that the special controls in § 878.4360(b)(1) through (6), in addition to the general controls, address these risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
Scalp cooling systems to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia are prescription devices restricted to patient use only upon the authorization of a practitioner licensed by law to administer or use the device; see 21 CFR 801.109 (
Section 510(m) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may exempt a class II device from the premarket notification requirements under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act, if FDA determines that premarket notification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. For this type of device, FDA has determined that premarket notification is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Therefore, this device type is not exempt from premarket notification requirements. Persons who intend to market this type of device must submit to FDA a premarket notification, prior to marketing the device, which contains information about the scalp cooling system to reduce the likelihood of chemotherapy-induced alopecia they intend to market.
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final order establishes special controls that refer to previously approved collections of information found in other FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in part 807, subpart E, regarding premarket notification submissions have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120, and the collections of information in 21 CFR part 801, regarding labeling, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
The following reference is on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and is available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; it is also available electronically at
Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 878 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360l, 371.
(a)
(b)
(1) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device meets all design specifications and performance requirements, and that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. This information must include testing to demonstrate accuracy of the temperature control mechanism.
(2) Performance testing must demonstrate the electromagnetic compatibility and electrical safety of the device.
(3) Software verification, validation, and hazard analysis must be performed.
(4) The patient contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible. Material names must be provided.
(5) Labeling must include the following:
(i) A statement describing the potential risk of developing scalp metastasis.
(ii) Information on the patient population and chemotherapeutic agents/regimen for which the device has been demonstrated to be effective.
(iii) A summary of the non-clinical and/or clinical testing pertinent to use of the device.
(iv) A summary of the device technical parameters, including temperature cooling range and duration of cooling.
(v) A summary of the device- and procedure-related adverse events pertinent to use of the device.
(vi) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
(6) Patient labeling must be provided and must include:
(i) Relevant contraindications, warnings, precautions, and adverse effects/complications.
(ii) Information on how the device operates and the typical course of treatment.
(iii) Information on the patient population for which there is clinical evidence of effectiveness.
(iv) The potential risks and benefits associated with use of the device.
(v) Postoperative care instructions.
(vi) A statement describing the potential risk of developing scalp metastasis.
Department of State.
Interim final rule; correction.
The Department of State published a
This correction is effective on February 19, 2016. Written comments must be received on or before April 4, 2016.
Paul-Anthony L. Magadia, U.S. Department of State, Visa Services, Legislation and Regulations Division, Washington, DC 20006, 202-485-7641; email:
The Department of State published an interim final rule on February 4, 2016 (81 FR 5906); this document corrects text in the
In the FR Doc 2016-02191, appearing on page 5906 in the
1. In the second column of page 5906, third item under
2. In the third column of page 5907, the first sentence of the discussion regarding “Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Review” is corrected to read: “The costs of this rulemaking are discussed in the companion DHS rule, RIN 1651-AB09, published in the
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Final rule.
This final rule amends the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation's regulation on Benefits Payable in Terminated Single-Employer Plans to prescribe interest assumptions under the regulation for valuation dates in March 2016. The interest assumptions are used for paying benefits under terminating single-employer plans covered by the pension insurance system administered by PBGC.
Effective March 1, 2016.
Catherine B. Klion (
PBGC's regulation on Benefits Payable in Terminated Single-Employer Plans (29 CFR part 4022) prescribes actuarial assumptions—including interest assumptions—for paying plan benefits under terminating single-employer plans covered by title IV of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. The interest assumptions in the regulation are also published on PBGC's Web site (
PBGC uses the interest assumptions in Appendix B to Part 4022 to determine whether a benefit is payable as a lump sum and to determine the amount to pay. Appendix C to Part 4022 contains interest assumptions for private-sector pension practitioners to refer to if they wish to use lump-sum interest rates determined using PBGC's historical methodology. Currently, the rates in Appendices B and C of the benefit payment regulation are the same.
The interest assumptions are intended to reflect current conditions in the financial and annuity markets. Assumptions under the benefit payments regulation are updated monthly. This final rule updates the benefit payments interest assumptions for March 2016.
The March 2016 interest assumptions under the benefit payments regulation will be 1.25 percent for the period during which a benefit is in pay status and 4.00 percent during any years preceding the benefit's placement in pay status. In comparison with the interest assumptions in effect for February 2016, these interest assumptions are unchanged.
PBGC has determined that notice and public comment on this amendment are impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This finding is based on the need to determine and issue new interest assumptions promptly so that the assumptions can reflect current market conditions as accurately as possible.
Because of the need to provide immediate guidance for the payment of benefits under plans with valuation dates during March 2016, PBGC finds that good cause exists for making the assumptions set forth in this amendment effective less than 30 days after publication.
PBGC has determined that this action is not a “significant regulatory action” under the criteria set forth in Executive Order 12866.
Because no general notice of proposed rulemaking is required for this amendment, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 does not apply.
Employee benefit plans, Pension insurance, Pensions, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
In consideration of the foregoing, 29 CFR part 4022 is amended as follows:
29 U.S.C. 1302, 1322, 1322b, 1341(c)(3)(D), and 1344.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
EPA is finalizing significant new use rules (SNURs) under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) for three chemical substances that were the subject of premanufacture notices (PMNs). This action requires persons who intend to manufacture (including import) or process any of the chemical substances for an activity that is designated as a significant new use by this rule to notify EPA at least 90 days before commencing that activity. The required notification would provide EPA with the opportunity to evaluate the intended use and, if necessary, to prohibit or limit the activity before it occurs.
This final rule is effective April 12, 2016.
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2013-0399, is available at
You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture, process, or use the chemical substances contained in this rule. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Manufacturers (including importers) or processors of one or more subject chemical substances (NAICS codes 325 and 324110),
This action may also affect certain entities through pre-existing import certification and export notification rules under TSCA. Chemical importers are subject to the TSCA section 13 (15 U.S.C. 2612) import certification requirements promulgated at 19 CFR 12.118 through 12.127 and 19 CFR 127.28. Chemical importers must certify that the shipment of the chemical substance complies with all applicable rules and orders under TSCA. Importers of chemicals subject to these SNURs must certify their compliance with the SNUR requirements. The EPA policy in support of import certification appears at 40 CFR part 707, subpart B. In addition, any persons who export or intend to export a chemical substance to a proposed or final rule are subject to the export notification provisions of TSCA section 12(b) (15 U.S.C. 2611(b)) (see § 721.20), and must comply with the export notification requirements in 40 CFR part 707, subpart D.
EPA is finalizing SNURs, under TSCA section 5(a)(2), for three very long chain chlorinated paraffin (vLCCPs—alkyl chain length of C
In the
EPA received several comments on the proposed rules for these three chemical substances, from a single commenter representing chlorinated paraffin (CP) manufacturers (including the submitter of the PMNs that are the subject of these SNURs). A full discussion of EPA's response to these comments is included in Unit V. of this document. After consideration of these comments, because the potential remains for increased exposure that formed the basis for the proposed SNURs, EPA is issuing the final rules as they were proposed for the chemical substances.
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(2)) authorizes EPA to determine that a use of a chemical substance is a “significant new use.” EPA must make this determination by rule after considering all relevant factors, including the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors, listed in Unit IV. of this rule. Once EPA determines that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use, TSCA section 5(a)(1)(B) requires persons to submit a significant new use notice (SNUN) to EPA at least 90 days before they manufacture or process the chemical substance for that use. Persons who must report are described in § 721.5.
General provisions for SNURs appear in 40 CFR part 721, subpart A. These provisions describe persons subject to the rule, recordkeeping requirements, exemptions to reporting requirements, and applicability of the final rule to uses occurring before the effective date of the final rule. Provisions relating to user fees appear at 40 CFR part 700. According to § 721.1(c), persons subject to these SNURs must comply with the same SNUN requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as submitters of PMNs under TSCA section 5(a)(1)(A). In particular, these requirements include the information submission requirements of TSCA section 5(b) and 5(d)(1), the exemptions authorized by TSCA section 5(h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(3), and (h)(5), and the regulations at 40 CFR part 720. Once EPA receives a SNUN, EPA may take regulatory action under TSCA section 5(e), 5(f), 6, or 7 to control the activities for which it has received the SNUN. If EPA does not take action, EPA is required under TSCA section 5(g) to explain in the
During review of the PMNs submitted for the three chemical substances that are subject to these final SNURs, EPA concluded that regulation was warranted under TSCA section 5(e), pending the development of information sufficient to make reasoned evaluations of the health and environmental effects of the chemical substances. The basis for these findings is outlined in Unit IV of the proposed rule. Based on these findings, a TSCA section 5(e) consent order was negotiated with the PMN submitter that required manufacture of the substances at certain cumulative,
EPA is issuing final SNURs for three chemical substances described above to achieve the following objectives with regard to the significant new uses designated in this final rule:
• EPA will receive notice of any person's intent to manufacture or process a listed chemical substance for the described significant new use before that activity begins.
• EPA will have an opportunity to review and evaluate data submitted in a SNUN before the notice submitter begins manufacturing or processing a listed chemical substance for the described significant new use.
• EPA will be able to regulate prospective manufacturers or processors of a listed chemical substance before the described significant new use of that chemical substance occurs, provided that regulation is warranted pursuant to TSCA sections 5(e), 5(f), 6, or 7.
Issuance of a SNUR for a chemical substance does not signify that the chemical substance is listed on the TSCA Chemical Substance Inventory (TSCA Inventory). Guidance on how to determine if a chemical substance is on the TSCA Inventory is available on the Internet at
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA states that EPA's determination that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use must be made after consideration of all relevant factors, including:
• The projected volume of manufacturing and processing of a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use changes the type or form of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use increases the magnitude and duration of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The reasonably anticipated manner and methods of manufacturing, processing, distribution in commerce, and disposal of a chemical substance.
In addition to these factors enumerated in TSCA section 5(a)(2), the statute authorized EPA to consider any other relevant factors.
To determine what would constitute a significant new use for the chemical substances listed in this final rule, EPA considered relevant information about the toxicity of the chemical substances, likely human exposures and environmental releases associated with possible uses, and the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors listed in this unit.
EPA received comments from the Chlorinated Paraffins Industry Association (CPIA), which represents the CP industry, including the submitter of the PMN substances that are the subject of these SNURs and other chlorinated paraffin manufacturers. CPIA's comments, and associated attachments, can be found in the public docket under ID EPA-HQ-OPPT-2013-0399-0198.
Nonetheless, EPA does have concern for these chemical substances because when released to the environment, vLCCPs are expected to rapidly partition to particulates and sediments where they are anticipated to persist in the environment with half-lives of months or greater. If they do degrade over time, these substances are expected to form shorter chain chlorinated chemicals. Based on the complex starting mixtures, lack of data on biological and abiotic reactions, and potential degradation products, there is high uncertainty regarding the fate and transport of these substances. Nevertheless, by analogy to medium chain chlorinated paraffins (MCCPs—alkyl chain length of C
MCCPs and LCCPs are expected to be PBT chemicals based on the following lines of evidence: (a) The available data on MCCPs, sediment core studies, environmental fate studies, and associated calculations, indicate transformation half-lives of months to years, depending on the environmental media. Even though there are limited data on the LCCPs, biodegradation data indicated increasing stability with increasing chain length. LCCPs are also expected to have transformation half-lives comparable to, or greater than MCCPs. Therefore, MCCPs and LCCPs are expected to be very persistent; (b)
EPA notes that its risk assessments for certain MCCP and LCCP PMNs have recently been made available for public comment in the
Regardless of the naming conventions raised by the commenter, in reviewing the studies submitted with the PMNs in this SNUR and other PMNs, and the scientific literature more broadly, EPA has concluded that that there is a continuum of effects linked to chain length and degree of chlorination. On the one end of the spectrum are SCCPs and MCCPs; more data are available on these chain lengths, and EPA has concluded that sufficient data exists to conclude that they may be PBTs. There are also some, albeit significantly less, data on the vLCCPs, most of which appear to point to a lack of effects, but the chemical composition of the test substances was poorly characterized. Ultimately, EPA is interested in specific fate and toxicity tests on vLCCPs that elucidate the relationship between degree of chlorination and alkyl chain length. The testing schema is designed to minimize the burden of testing of complex mixtures with numerous congeners.
To the extent that the commenter is suggesting that the predicted releases to surface water do not present a risk and thus do not support a significant new determination, EPA notes that a significant new use determination is not based on risk.
If uses begun after the proposed rule was published were considered ongoing rather than new, any person could defeat the SNUR by initiating the significant new use before the final rule was issued. Therefore EPA has designated the date of publication of the proposed rule as the cutoff date for determining whether the new use is ongoing. Consult the
Any person who began commercial manufacture or processing of the chemical substances identified in this rule for any of the significant new uses designated in the proposed SNUR after the date of publication of the proposed SNUR, must stop that activity before the effective date of the final rule. Persons who ceased those activities will have to first comply with all applicable SNUR notification requirements and wait until the notice review period, including any extensions, expires, before engaging in any activities designated as significant new uses. If a person were to meet the conditions of advance compliance under 40 CFR 721.45(h), the person would be considered to have met the
EPA recognizes that TSCA section 5 does not require the development of any particular test data before submission of a SNUN. The two exceptions are:
1. Development of test data is required where the chemical substance subject to the SNUR is also subject to a test rule under TSCA section 4 (see TSCA section 5(b)(1)).
2. Development of test data may be necessary where the chemical substance has been listed under TSCA section 5(b)(4) (see TSCA section 5(b)(2)).
In the absence of a TSCA section 4 test rule or a TSCA section 5(b)(4) listing covering the chemical substance, persons are required only to submit test data in their possession or control and to describe any other data known to or reasonably ascertainable by them (see § 720.50). However, upon review of PMNs and SNUNs, the Agency has the authority to require appropriate testing.
Recommended testing that would address the criteria of concern of § 721.170 can be found in Unit IV. of the proposed rule. Descriptions of tests are provided only for informational purposes. EPA strongly encourages persons, before performing any testing, to consult with the Agency pertaining to protocol selection.
SNUN submitters should be aware that EPA will be better able to evaluate SNUNs which provide detailed information on the following:
• Human exposure and environmental release that may result from the significant new use of the chemical substances.
• Potential benefits of the chemical substances.
• Information on risks posed by the chemical substances compared to risks posed by potential substitutes.
According to 40 CFR 721.1(c), persons submitting a SNUN must comply with the same notice requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as persons submitting a PMN, including submission of test data on health and environmental effects as described in § 720.50. SNUNs must be on EPA Form No. 7710-25, generated using e-PMN software, and submitted to the Agency in accordance with the procedures set forth in §§ 721.25 and 720.40. E-PMN software is available electronically at
EPA evaluated the potential costs of SNUN requirements for potential manufacturers and processors of the chemical substances in the rule. The Agency's complete Economic Analysis is available in the docket under docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2014-0390
The following is a listing of those documents used to prepare the preamble to this final rule. Additional information for this final rule can be located under docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2013-0399, which is available for inspection as specified under
This final rule establishes SNURs for chemical substances that were the subject of PMNs. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “
According to PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
The information collection requirements related to this action have already been approved by OMB pursuant to PRA under OMB control number 2070-0012 (EPA ICR No. 574). This action does not impose any burden requiring additional OMB approval. If an entity were to submit a SNUN to the
Send any comments about the accuracy of the burden estimate, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden, including through the use of automated collection techniques, to the Director, Collection Strategies Division, Office of Environmental Information (2822T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001. Please remember to include the OMB control number in any correspondence, but do not submit any completed forms to this address.
On February 18, 2012, EPA certified pursuant to RFA section 605(b) (5 U.S.C. 601
1. A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
2. The SNUR submitted by any small entity would not cost significantly more than $8,300.
A copy of that certification is available in the docket for this final rule.
This final rule is within the scope of the February 18, 2012 certification. Based on the Economic Analysis discussed in Unit VIII. and EPA's experience promulgating SNURs (discussed in the certification), EPA believes that the following are true:
• A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
• Submission of the SNUN would not cost any small entity significantly more than $8,300.
Therefore, the promulgation of the SNUR would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Based on EPA's experience with proposing and finalizing SNURs, State, local, and Tribal governments have not been impacted by these rulemakings, and EPA does not have any reasons to believe that any State, local, or Tribal government will be impacted by this final rule. As such, EPA has determined that this action does not impose any enforceable duty, contain any unfunded mandate, or otherwise have any effect on small governments subject to the requirements of UMRA sections 202, 203, 204, or 205 (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action will not have a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999).
This action does not have Tribal implications because it is not expected to have substantial direct effects on Indian Tribes. This final rule does not significantly nor uniquely affect the communities of Indian Tribal governments, nor does it involve or impose any requirements that affect Indian Tribes. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), do not apply to this final rule.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), because this is not an economically significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866, and this action does not address environmental health or safety risks disproportionately affecting children.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because this action is not expected to affect energy supply, distribution, or use and because this action is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
In addition, since this action does not involve any technical standards, NTTAA section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note), does not apply to this action.
This action does not entail special considerations of environmental justice related issues as delineated by Executive Order 12898, entitled “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations” (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Hazardous substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
7 U.S.C. 135
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, and 2625(c).
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved]
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved]
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved]
(b)
(1)
(2)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a revision to the Title V Operating Permits Program (found in West Virginia's regulations at 45CSR30) submitted by the State of West Virginia. The revision increases West Virginia's annual emission fees for its Title V Operating Permit Program to $28 per ton of emissions of a regulated pollutant from an individual source subject to the West Virginia Title V Operating Permit Program. EPA is approving the revision to West Virginia's Title V Operating Permit Program in accordance with the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This final rule is effective on March 14, 2016.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2015-0594. All documents in the docket are listed in the
Paul Wentworth, (215) 814-2183, or by email at
On October 5, 2015 (80 FR 60110), EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPR) for the State of West Virginia. In the NPR, EPA proposed approval of a revision to the West Virginia Title V Operating Permit Program. The formal program revision was submitted by the State of West Virginia on June 17, 2015.
In the June 17, 2015 program revision submittal, West Virginia included revisions to 45CSR30.8 to increase West Virginia's annual emission fees for its Title V Operating Permit Program. West Virginia increased the annual fees to $28 per ton of emissions of a regulated pollutant from an individual source subject to the West Virginia Title V Operating Permit Program. The previous rate in 45CSR30.8 was $18 per ton of regulated pollutant. This revised fee per ton became effective on May 1, 2015 and replaced the prior fee, $18 per ton, which was effective July 1, 1995 through April 30, 2015.
Other specific requirements of the program revision and the rationale for the EPA's proposed action are explained in the NPR and will not be restated here.
The WVDEP comment letter corrects the EPA's error and clarifies that the correct fee per ton of regulated pollutant emitted by a Title V permitted source is $28 per ton. As noted previously, the revision to 45CSR30.8 increasing the permit fee from $18 per ton to $28 per ton of regulated pollutant emitted meets requirements in section 502 of the CAA and 40 CFR 70.9 for the collection of sufficient Title V fees to cover permit program implementation and oversight costs. The EPA's determination that West Virginia's Title V Operating Permit Program continues to meet obligations to collect sufficient fees to implement its Title V program is not altered by our inadvertent reference to $25 per ton of regulated pollutant emitted instead of $28 per ton emitted as our analysis was based on the revised 45CSR30.8 which listed the correct fee as $28 per ton.
The EPA also finds no further comment period is needed to address the inadvertent reference to the per ton fee increase. The EPA's finding that the revised fees in 45CSR30.8 meet requirements in section 502 of the CAA and 40 CFR 70.9 was explained in the NPR, and the specific finding that the $28 per ton meets requirements for Title V permit fees to fund a Title V program is a logical outgrowth of the proposed rule. No additional notice or opportunity to comment is necessary where, as here, the final rule is “in character with the original scheme,” and does not “substantially depart [] from the terms or substance” of the proposal.
Notwithstanding the NPR's erroneous description of the revised fee being $25 per ton of regulated pollutant, the EPA's determination about the sufficiency of this fee was in fact based on our evaluation of the slightly larger $28-per-ton fee. The NPR also cited the correct provision of West Virginia law, which also would have confirmed to potential commenters that the state's proposed fee increase was to $28 per ton. The docket similarly included information clarifying that the proposed revision
Accordingly, a supplemental notice clarifying the per-ton fee would not provide any commentators with a first occasion to offer any new or different criticisms of WVDEP's Title V permit fees. Nor would any such criticism convince EPA to alter our conclusion. As stated in the NPR, WVDEP found its permit fee of $18 per ton was insufficient to allow adequate implementation of its Title V Operating Permit Program. After internal analysis, WVDEP concluded it needed the additional revenue from permit fees at $28 per ton emitted to fund sufficiently its Title V Operating Permit Program, and EPA concurs with that conclusion. Further opportunity for comment would not provide any opportunity for criticism of West Virginia's new permit fee which the EPA would find convincing. Thus, our approval of West Virginia's Title V Operating Permits Program including the revision to 45CSR30.8 is final as a “logical outgrowth” of the proposed approval announced in the NPR.
EPA is approving the June 17, 2015 Title V Operating Permit Program revision submitted by the State of West Virginia to increase Title V permit fees paid by owners or operators of Title V sources in West Virginia from $18 per ton of regulated pollutant emitted to $28 per ton of regulated pollutant emitted. The revision meets requirements in section 503 of the CAA and of 40 CFR 70.9.
This action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and imposes no additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by April 12, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action which approves the June 17, 2015 program revision submittal by the State of West Virginia as a revision to the West Virginia Title V Operating Permits Program may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401,
(g) The West Virginia Department of Environmental Protection submitted a program revision on June 17, 2015; approval effective on May 1, 2015.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule; notice of data availability (NODA).
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is providing notice of emission allowance allocations to certain units under the new unit set-aside (NUSA) provisions of the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) federal implementation plans (FIPs). EPA has completed final calculations for the second round of NUSA allowance allocations for the 2015 compliance year of the CSAPR NO
February 12, 2016.
Questions concerning this action should be addressed to Robert Miller at (202) 343-9077 or
Under the CSAPR FIPs, a portion of each state budget for each of the four CSAPR trading programs is reserved as a NUSA from which allowances are allocated to eligible units through an annual one- or two-round process. EPA has described the CSAPR NUSA allocation process in five NODAs previously published in the
EPA received no objections to the preliminary lists of new units eligible for second-round 2015 NUSA allocations of CSAPR NO
As described in the December 15 NODA, any allowances remaining in the CSAPR NO
Under 40 CFR 97.412(b)(10), 97.612(b)(10), and 97.712(b)(10), any allowances remaining in the CSAPR NO
The final unit-by-unit data and allowance allocation calculations are set forth in Excel spreadsheets titled “CSAPR_NUSA_2015_NOx_Annual_2nd_Round_Final_Data_New_Units”, “CSAPR_NUSA_2015_SO
Pursuant to CSAPR's allowance recordation timing requirements, the allocated NUSA allowances will be recorded in sources' AMS accounts by February 15, 2016. EPA notes that an allocation or lack of allocation of allowances to a given unit does not constitute a determination that CSAPR does or does not apply to the unit. EPA also notes that NUSA allocations of CSAPR NO
(Authority: 40 CFR 97.411(b), 97.611(b), and 97.711(b).)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of diflubenzuron in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. Interregional Research Project Number 4 (IR-4) requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective February 12, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before April 12, 2016, and must be filed in accordance with the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0672, is available at
Susan Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0672 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before April 12, 2016. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0672, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA has modified the levels at which some of the tolerances are being established. The reason for these changes are explained in Unit IV.D.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for diflubenzuron including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with diflubenzuron follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
For diflubenzuron, the hemopoietic system is the target site with effects including increased sulfhemoglobin and/or methemoglobin levels in rat and dog studies. In subchronic and chronic feeding studies, the primary endpoint of concern was methemoglobinemia and/or sulfhemoglobinemia. These effects were evident in both sexes of mice, rats, and dogs and were produced by more than one route of administration in rats (
The toxicity data provide no indication of an increased susceptibility to rats or to rabbits from
The Agency concluded that diflubenzuron is not carcinogenic in humans based on lack of evidence of carcinogenicity in rats and mice. PCA, a plant metabolite of diflubenzuron, tested positive for splenic tumors in male rats and hepatocellular adenomas/carcinomas in male mice in a National Toxicology Program (NTP) study.
Therefore, EPA has classified PCA as a probable human carcinogen. CPU is the major degradate found in water and is a significant metabolite in milk. CPU is structurally related to monuron (
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by diflubenzuron as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for diflubenzuron used for human risk assessment is discussed in Table 1 in Unit III.B. of the final rule published in the
1.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Section 408(b)(2)(F) of FFDCA states that the Agency may use data on the actual percent of food treated for assessing chronic dietary risk only if:
• Condition a: The data used are reliable and provide a valid basis to show what percentage of the food derived from such crop is likely to contain the pesticide residue.
• Condition b: The exposure estimate does not underestimate exposure for any significant subpopulation group.
• Condition c: Data are available on pesticide use and food consumption in a particular area, the exposure estimate does not understate exposure for the population in such area.
In addition, the Agency must provide for periodic evaluation of any estimates used. To provide for the periodic evaluation of the estimate of PCT as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(F), EPA may require registrants to submit data on PCT.
For the cancer dietary exposure analysis, the Agency estimated the PCT for existing uses as follows:
Soybeans (1%), peppers (2.5%), oranges (10%), tangerines (10%), grapefruit (25%), pear (5%), apricot (10%), peach (5%), almond, (10%), pecan (2.5%), rice (2.5%), wheat (1%), cotton (1%), artichoke (45%), peanut (10%), lemon (1%), plum (5%), and walnut (2.5%).
In most cases, EPA uses available data from United States Department of Agriculture/National Agricultural Statistics Service (USDA/NASS), proprietary market surveys, and the National Pesticide Use Database for the chemical/crop combination for the most recent 6 to 7 years. EPA uses an average PCT for chronic dietary risk analysis. The average PCT figure for each existing use is derived by combining available public and private market survey data for that use, averaging across all observations, and rounding to the nearest 5%, except for those situations in which the average PCT is less than one. In those cases, 1% is used as the average PCT and 2.5% is used as the maximum PCT. EPA uses a maximum PCT for acute dietary risk analysis. The maximum PCT figure is the highest observed maximum value reported within the recent 6 years of available public and private market survey data for the existing use and rounded up to the nearest multiple of 5%.
The Agency believes that the three conditions discussed in Unit III.C.1.iv. have been met. With respect to Condition a, PCT estimates are derived from Federal and private market survey data, which are reliable and have a valid basis. The Agency is reasonably certain that the percentage of the food treated is not likely to be an underestimation. As to Conditions b and c, regional consumption information and consumption information for significant subpopulations is taken into account through EPA's computer-based model for evaluating the exposure of significant subpopulations including several regional groups. Use of this consumption information in EPA's risk assessment process ensures that EPA's exposure estimate does not understate exposure for any significant subpopulation group and allows the Agency to be reasonably certain that no regional population is exposed to residue levels higher than those estimated by the Agency. Other than the data available through national food consumption surveys, EPA does not have available reliable information on the regional consumption of food to which diflubenzuron may be applied in a particular area.
2.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model.
Based on the Surface Water Concentration Calculator model (SWCC) for surface water the Estimated Drinking Water Concentration (EDWC) of 1.3 microgram/Liter (μg/L) (including diflubenzuron and CPU) was used to assess chronic non-cancer dietary risk. Based on the Pesticide Root Zone Model-Groundwater (PRZM-GW) model for ground water the cancer risk for CPU was assessed using the EDWC of 8.02 μg/L.
3.
Diflubenzuron is not registered for any specific use patterns that would result in residential exposure.
4.
EPA has not found diflubenzuron to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and diflubenzuron does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that diflubenzuron does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicological database for diflubenzuron is adequate for risk assessment. The non-cancer toxicity of CPU and PCA is well understood. CPU is less toxic and does not affect methemoglobin. PCA does cause methemoglobin formation but is similar in potency to diflubenzuron. Therefore, assuming equal toxicity of CPU and PCA to diflubenzuron is health protective, additional toxicity studies are not required on the metabolites.
ii. There are no clear signs of neurotoxicity following subchronic or chronic dosing in multiple species in the diflubenzuron database; therefore, there is no need for any neurotoxicity studies.
iii. There is no evidence that diflubenzuron results in increased susceptibility in
iv. The dietary exposure assessment uses conservative assumptions which will not underestimate dietary exposure and EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to diflubenzuron in drinking water. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by diflubenzuron.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
Short- and intermediate-term adverse effects were identified; however, diflubenzuron is not registered for any use patterns that would result in short- or intermediate-term residential exposure. Short- and intermediate-term risk is assessed based on short- and intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic dietary exposure. Because there is no short- or intermediate-term residential exposure and chronic dietary exposure has already been assessed under the appropriately protective cPAD (which is at least as protective as the POD used to assess short-term risk), no further assessment of short- or intermediate-term risk is necessary, and EPA relies on the chronic dietary risk assessment for evaluating short- and intermediate-term risk for diflubenzuron.
4.
EPA generally considers cancer risks in the range of 10
Considering the precision with which cancer hazard can be estimated, the conservativeness of low-dose linear extrapolation, and the rounding procedure described above, cancer risk should generally not be assumed to exceed the benchmark level of concern of the range of 10
5.
Adequate enforcement analytical methods are available for the enforcement of tolerances for residues of diflubenzuron and its metabolites in crop and livestock commodities. Three enforcement methods for diflubenzuron are published in PAM, Vol. II as Methods I, II, and III. Method I is a GC/ECD method that determines diflubenzuron in plants as derivatized 4-chloroaniline (PCA). Method II is a GC/ECD method that can separately determine residues of diflubenzuron, 4-chlorophenylurea (CPU) and PCA in eggs, milk, and livestock tissues, each as derivatized PCA. Method III is an HPLC/UV method that determines diflubenzuron per se in eggs, milk, and livestock tissues. All three methods have undergone successful Agency validations.
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has established MRLs for diflubenzuron in or on peach and nectarine at 0.5 ppm which is the same as the tolerance in the United States for the peach subgroup 12-12B at 0.50 ppm; a tolerance on plums at 0.5 ppm which is the same as the U.S. tolerance for the plum subgroup 12-12C at 0.5 ppm; and a tolerance on tree nuts at 0.2 ppm which is the same as the U.S. tolerance for the tree nut group 14-12 at 0.20 ppm, and which was raised to harmonize with Codex.
The Codex has established MRLs for diflubenzuron on chili peppers at 3 ppm, dried chili peppers at 20 ppm, and sweet peppers at 0.7 ppm which are different from the tolerances established in the U.S. for diflubenzuron on the pepper/eggplant subgroup 8-10B at 1.0 ppm. The pepper/eggplant subgroup 8-10B covers both bell and non-bell peppers and the Codex MRLs split them out into two separate tolerances which the U.S. does not do because the petition was for the entire subgroup. Based on the residue data submitted and reviewed for this action, it would not be appropriate for the U.S. tolerance to harmonize with either the chili pepper MRL of 3 ppm or the sweet pepper MRL of 0.7 ppm. Also, in regards to the dried chili pepper MRL, this is not expected to be an issue since the U.S. does not set tolerances on dried fruits and vegetables, but instead the processed food is considered to be the whole processed commodity after compensating for or reconstituting the commodity's normal moisture content.
One comment was received in response to the February 11, 2015 Notice of Filing, however, it related to a different chemical than diflubenzuron and therefore is not relevant to this action. Two comments were received in response to the December 2, 2015 Notice of Filing. One commenter opposed residues of this pesticide on food and argued that EPA should deny the petition. The Agency understands the commenter's concerns and recognizes that some individuals believe that pesticides should be banned on agricultural crops. However, the existing legal framework provided by section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) states that tolerances may be set when persons seeking such tolerances or exemptions have demonstrated that the pesticide meets the safety standard imposed by that statute. This citizen's comment appears to be directed at the underlying statute and not EPA's implementation of it; the citizen has made no contention that EPA has acted in violation of the statutory framework. The second comment stated that “without long term studies of its effects on the environment and the toxic effects on aquatic invertebrates, then there should be a slight reduction in ppm of diflubenzuron used on crops.” This comment is not relevant to the Agency's evaluation of safety of the diflubenzuron tolerances; section 408 of the FFDCA focuses on potential harms to human health and does not permit consideration of effects on the environment.
Based on an evaluation of the residue data, the Agency modified the levels at which tolerances were proposed for the existing tolerances for egg, poultry fat, and poultry meat byproducts. In addition, the Agency determined that a separate tolerance is not required for the commodity “plum, prune, dried” since residues are not found to concentrate on prunes. Lastly, some of the tolerances levels were modified to reflect the correct significant figures.
Therefore, tolerances are established, modified and removed for residues of diflubenzuron
Under 180.377(a)(1) a tolerance is established for the cottonseed subgroup 20C at 0.20 ppm; existing tolerances are changed for egg to 0.07 ppm; poultry, fat to 0.10 ppm; and poultry, meat byproducts to 0.08 ppm; and the existing tolerance for cotton, undelinted seed at 0.2 ppm is removed as unnecessary.
Under 180.377(a)(2), tolerances are established in or on the raw agricultural commodities carrot, roots at 0.20 ppm; peach subgroup 12-12B at 0.50 ppm; plum subgroup 12-12C at 0.50 ppm; nut, tree group 14-12 at 0.20 ppm; the pepper/eggplant subgroup 8-10 B at 1.0 ppm; and the following existing tolerances are removed as unnecessary: Fruit, stone, group 12, except cherry at 0.07 ppm; nut, tree, group 14 at 0.06 ppm; pistachio at 0.06 ppm; and pepper at 1.0 ppm.
Under 180.377(c) regional tolerances are established for the combined residues of diflubenzuron and its metabolites 4-chlorophenlyurea and 4-chloroaniline in or on the raw agricultural commodities alfalfa, forage at 6 ppm; alfalfa, hay at 20 ppm; and alfalfa, seed at 0.9 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
The additions and revision read as follows:
(a) General (1) * * *
(2) * * *
(c)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of benzyl acetate (CAS Reg. No. 140-11-4), when used as an inert ingredient (solvent) in pesticide formulations applied to growing crops only under 40 CFR 180.920. Technology Sciences Group, on behalf of the Huntsman Corporation, submitted a petition to EPA under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), requesting establishment of an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance. This regulation eliminates the need to establish a maximum permissible level for residues of benzyl acetate.
This regulation is effective February 12, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before April 12, 2016, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0783, is available at
Susan Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0783 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before April 12, 2016. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2014-0783, by one of the following methods:
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In the
Inert ingredients are all ingredients that are not active ingredients as defined in 40 CFR 153.125 and include, but are not limited to, the following types of ingredients (except when they have a pesticidal efficacy of their own): Solvents such as alcohols and hydrocarbons; surfactants such as polyoxyethylene polymers and fatty acids; carriers such as clay and diatomaceous earth; thickeners such as carrageenan and modified cellulose; wetting, spreading, and dispersing agents; propellants in aerosol dispensers; microencapsulating agents; and emulsifiers. The term “inert” is not intended to imply nontoxicity; the ingredient may or may not be chemically active. Generally, EPA has exempted inert ingredients from the requirement of a tolerance based on the
Section 408(c)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish an exemption from the requirement for a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
EPA establishes exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance only in those cases where it can be clearly demonstrated that the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide chemical residues under reasonably foreseeable circumstances will pose no appreciable risks to human health. In order to determine the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide inert ingredients, the Agency considers the toxicity of the inert in conjunction with possible exposure to residues of the inert ingredient through food, drinking water, and through other exposures that occur as a result of pesticide use in residential settings. If EPA is able to determine that a finite tolerance is not necessary to ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the inert ingredient, an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance may be established.
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(A), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(B), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for benzyl acetate including exposure resulting from the exemption established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with benzyl acetate follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered their validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children. Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by benzyl acetate as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies are discussed in this unit.
Benzyl acetate exhibits low levels of toxicity via the dermal route of exposure in rabbits and inhalation and oral routes of exposure in rats. It is mildly irritating to the skin and minimally irritating to the eyes in rabbits. It is not a skin sensitizer in guinea pigs.
In a 13-week feeding study in the rat, atrophic seminiferous tubules were observed in male rats at dose levels of 12,500 parts per millions (ppm) (equivalent to 900 milligrams/kilogram/day (mg/kg/day)). The NOAEL was identified as 6,250 ppm (460 mg/kg/day). In mice, following 13 weeks of exposure via the diet, decreased body weight and food consumption were observed at all doses. The LOAEL was 3,130 ppm (425 mg/kg/day). A NOAEL was not established.
In a developmental toxicity study in the rat, maternal and fetal toxicity were observed at 1,000 mg/kg/day. Maternal toxicity was manifested as decreased body weight and fetal toxicity was manifested as reduced body weights, increased incidence of dilation of the renal pelvis and skeletal variations. Although qualitative fetal susceptibility is observed, fetal effects occur in the presence of maternal toxicity and a clear NOAEL of 500 mg/kg/day was established for maternal and developmental toxicity.
The potential for benzyl acetate to be genotoxic was evaluated in a battery of
Evidence of neurotoxicity and neuronal degeneration was identified in the 13-week studies in rats and mice. Signs of neurotoxicity included tremors and ataxia that were associated with the degeneration of the glial cells in the cerebellum and hippocampus at the doses ≥12,500 ppm (≥2,000 mg/kg/day). Since these effects were induced at doses above the limit dose (1,000 mg/kg/day) and the established cRfD of 1.10 mg/kg/day, will be protective of these effects, the concern is low for these effects.
There is evidence that benzyl acetate suppresses immune function in mammalian systems in the rat however this effect occurs only at a dose that is lethal and well above the limit dose. In the 13-week feeding study in the rat, a decrease in the cellular components of the bone marrow, thymus and lymphoid follicles was observed at 50,000 ppm (3,900 mg/kg/day for males and 4,500 mg/kg/day for females), the highest dose tested and well above the limit dose. The NOAEL for this study was 12,500 ppm (900 mg/kg/day). The potential for immunotoxicity is not of concern because the effects occur well above the limit dose and the exposure to benzyl acetate through the proposed use is unlikely to occur at such a high dose.
The carcinogenicity of benzyl acetate in F
In metabolism studies approximately 90% of benzyl acetate is excreted as metabolites primarily in the urine after oral or percutaneous administration. None was detected in the adipose tissue, blood, kidney, liver, lung, muscle, skin or stomach. The major metabolite in the urine was hippuric acid and 95 to 99% of the excreted dose was in this form. Less than 4% remained in the carcass.
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
The point of departure for benzyl acetate is 110 mg/kg/day from the NTP 2-year carcinogenicity study in mice (dietary study) based on decreased in body weights in both sexes at the LOAEL of 345/375 mg/kg/day. There was no NOAEL observed in a 90-day toxicity study in mice based on the effects on body weights seen at all doses (lowest dose tested was 3,130 ppm; equal to 425 mg/kg/day); however, in a carcinogenicity study in mice no effects on body weight were seen at 110 mg/kg/day, therefore, the NOAEL for the carcinogenicity study would be protective of decreased body weights seen in a 90-day study in mice. Therefore, 90-day toxicity study in mice was not selected. This endpoint was used for all exposure scenarios. The dermal absorption and inhalation factors were 100%. The Agency applied an interspecies uncertainty factor (10X) and an intraspecies uncertainty factor (10X); the FQPA safety factor was reduced to 1X.
1.
An acute dietary risk assessment was not conducted because no endpoint of concern following a single exposure was identified in the available studies. A chronic dietary exposure assessment was completed and performed using the Dietary Exposure Evaluation Model DEEM-FCID
2.
3.
Based upon the requested use of benzyl acetate, the Agency does not expect non-occupational, non-dietary exposures. However, there is a potential for residential exposure via non-pesticidal uses such as use in cosmetics and other, pesticide uses, once it is approved. The residential exposure could occur via ingestion products containing benzyl acetate, and via dermal and inhalation routes of exposure through use of products containing benzyl acetate in residential settings. These residential pesticide exposures are considered short-term and intermediate-term in nature. Residential exposures to benzyl acetate as the result of its use as a cosmetic ingredient may be short-, intermediate- or long-term in nature. The aggregate-short term exposure assessment for benzyl acetate considers exposures from the pesticidal and nonpesticidal uses (
4.
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i. The toxicity database for benzyl acetate contains the following studies that are adequate to evaluate the potential toxicity of benzyl acetate for infants and children: A thirteen week feeding study in the rat, a 13-week feeding study in the mouse, a developmental toxicity study in the rat, several
ii. Evidence of neurotoxicity and neuronal degeneration seen in a thirteen-week study was determined not to exceed levels of concern since the effects occurred at doses that were well above the limit dose (1,000 mg/kg/day). The established cRfD is 1.10 mg/kg/day therefore is protective of these effects.
iii. Qualitative fetal susceptibility was observed in the developmental study in rats. Maternal (decrease in body weight) and fetal (reduced body weights, increased incidence of dilation of the renal pelvis and skeletal variations) toxicity were observed at 1,000 mg/kg/day, the limit dose. Since fetal toxicity occurs in the presence of maternal toxicity and a clear NOAEL of 500 mg/kg/day was established, the established cRfD (1.10 mg/kg/day) will be protective of these effects. The potential for reproduction toxicity was observed in the 13-week dietary study in rats. Atrophy of seminiferous tubules was observed in males at 12,500 ppm (900 mg/kg/day). However, the concern for reproductive toxicity is low since effects occurred at a high dose and a clear NOAEL of 6,250 ppm (460 mg/kg/day) was established.
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100% CT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to benzyl acetate in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by benzyl acetate.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
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Benzyl acetate is likely to be used as an inert ingredient in pesticide products that are registered for uses that could result in short-term residential exposure, and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with short-term residential exposures to benzyl acetate. Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for screening-level short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 150 for children ages 1 to 2 and 260 for adults. Because EPA's level of concern for benzyl acetate is a MOE of 100 or below, these MOEs are not of concern.
4.
5.
6.
An analytical method is not required for enforcement purposes since the
Therefore, an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance is established under 40 CFR 180.920 for benzyl aceetate (CAS Reg. No. 140-11-4) when used as an inert ingredient (solvent) in pesticide formulations applied to growing crops only.
This action establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the exemption in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved, for a period of three years, information collection requirements adopted in the Commission's Report and Order relating to the Amendment of the Commission's Rules Related to Broadcast Licensee-Conducted Contests. This document is consistent with the Report and Order, which stated that the Commission would publish a document in the
The amendments to 47 CFR 73.1216, published at 80 FR 64354, October 23, 2015, are effective on February 12, 2016.
Cathy Williams by email at
This document announces that, on February 3, 2016, OMB approved information collection requirements contained in the Commission's Report and Order, FCC 15-118, published at 80 FR 64354. The OMB Control Number is 3060-1209. The Commission publishes this document as an announcement of the effective date of those information collection requirements.
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the FCC is notifying the public that it received OMB approval on February 3, 2016, for the information collection
The foregoing notification is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, October 1, 1995, and 44 U.S.C. 3507.
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Office of Procurement and Property Management, U.S. Department of Agriculture
Final rule.
The Office of Procurement and Property Management (OPPM) of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) amends the Agriculture Acquisition Regulation (AGAR) by adding a new clause entitled “Fire Suppression and Liability.” Section 8205 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (2014 Act) provided the USDA Forest Service with permanent authority for Stewardship End Result Contracting by adding a new Section 604 to the Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003. Section 8205 contains a requirement that the agency use a fire liability provision in all stewardship contracts and agreements that is in substantially the same form as the fire liability provisions contained in the integrated resource timber contract in Forest Service Contract Numbered 2400-13, Part H, Section H.4. This final rule establishes a new clause in the AGAR, the USDA supplement to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), for use in Integrated Resource Service Contracts (IRSC) subject to the FAR. This new AGAR clause addresses fire liability on stewardship contracts as required in the 2014 Agricultural Act.
Effective March 14, 2016.
Ms. Ismaela Ramirez, Senior Procurement Analyst, USDA, Office of Procurement and Property Management at (202) 730-7997.
The enactment of Section 8205 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-79) establishes permanent authority to conduct Stewardship End Result Contracting projects by adding a new Section 604 to the Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003 (HFRA) (16 U.S.C. 6591c). Section 8205 of the 2014 Agricultural Act contains a requirement that the agency use a fire liability provision in all stewardship contracts and agreements that is in substantially the same form as the fire liability provisions contained in the integrated resource timber contract in Forest Service Contract Numbered 2400-13, Part H, Section H.4 and timber sale contracts conducted pursuant to Section 14 of the National Forest Management Act of 1976 (16 U.S.C. 472a).
Beginning in 1998 with the enactment of Section 347 of the Department of the Interior and Related Agencies Appropriation Act, 1999, the Forest Service has been authorized to carry out Stewardship End Result Contracting Projects; first on a pilot basis and then, through a succession of subsequent amendments, this authority was expanded. The enactment of Section 8205 of the Agricultural Act of 2014 sets forth the permanent authority for conducting Stewardship End Resulting Contracting Projects by adding a new Section 604 to the Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003. Section 8205 contains a provision that “not later than 90 days after the date of enactment of this section, the Chief of the Forest Service and the Director of the Bureau of Land Management shall issue for use in all contracts and agreements under this section fire liability provisions that are in substantially the same form as the fire liability provisions contained in— (A) integrated resource timber contracts, as described in the Forest Service Contract Numbered 2400-13, Part H, Section H.4; and (B) timber sale contracts conducted pursuant to Section 14 of the National Forest Management Act of 1976 (16 U.S.C. 472a).”
This final rule establishes a new AGAR clause for use in stewardship contracts subject to the FAR. This clause addresses fire liability on Stewardship End Result Contracting, as required in the 2014 Agricultural Act. The text of the clause is closely specified in the law.
USDA solicited comments on the interim rule on May 22, 2014. USDA received two comments at the end of the
Both comments were received from the Federal Forest Resource Coalition (FFRC), a national trade association comprised of large and small companies, regional and state associations, county governments, and others concerned about the management of our National Forests and the landscape covered by Bureau of Land Management.
Both comments recommend changes to add clarity and consistency to the language in the regulations. The comments suggest that USDA follow the requirement of implementing a liability clause for IRSC contracts that mirrored Integrated Resource Timber Contracts (IRTC). The comments from FFRC are presented below, along with USDA's responses and are grouped by the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) section numbers to which they apply.
As a result of public comments received on the interim rule, USDA will amend the CFR to add clarity and consistency that reflects the intention of the Farm Bill with regard to implementing a fire liability clause for IRSCs that mirrors current Timber Sales Contracts.
USDA certifies that this final rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities, as defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
The Paperwork Reduction Act does not apply because the final rule does not impose any record keeping or information collection requirements that require approval by the Office of Management and Budget.
The USDA has determined that this final rule falls within this category of actions and that no extraordinary circumstances exist that would require preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.
This final rule has been reviewed under USDA procedures and Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review. It has been determined that this is not a significant rule. This rule would not have an annual effect of $100 million or more on the economy, nor would it adversely affect productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health and safety, or State or local governments. This final rule would not interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency, nor raise new legal or policy issues. Finally, this final rule would not alter the budgetary impact of entitlement, grant, user fee, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of beneficiaries of such programs. Accordingly, this final rule is not subject to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) review under Executive Order (E.O.) 12866.
The USDA has analyzed this final rule in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 12630 and determined that the rule would not pose the risk of a taking of private property.
The USDA has reviewed this final rule under E.O. 12778, Civil Justice Reform. Under this rule, (1) all State and local laws and regulations that conflict with this rule or that impede its full implementation would be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect would be given to this final rule; and (3) it would require administrative proceedings before parties may file suit in court challenging its provisions.
The USDA has considered this final rule under the requirements of E.O. 13132 on Federalism and has determined that this rule conforms to the Federalism principles in the E.O. The rule would not impose any compliance costs on the States; and would not have any substantial direct effects on the States, the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Moreover, this final rule does not have tribal implications as defined by E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, and therefore advance consultation with tribes is not required.
The USDA has reviewed this final rule under E.O. 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or use and has determined that this rule would not constitute a significant energy action as defined in the E.O.
Pursuant to Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the USDA assessed the effects of this final rule on State, local, and tribal governments and the private sector. This rule would not compel the expenditure of $100 million or more by State, local, and tribal governments, or by the private sector. Therefore, a statement under Section 202 of the Act is not required.
Government procurement.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the U.S. Department of Agriculture amends 48 CFR Chapter 4, in the following manner:
5 U.S.C. 301 and 40 U.S.C. 121(c)
Insert the clause at 452.236-78,
5 U.S.C. 301 and 40 U.S.C. 121(c)
As prescribed in section 436.578, the following clause shall be inserted in Intergrated Resource Service Contracts (IRSC) awarded for the Forest Service.
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Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish special local regulations for certain waters of the Chesapeake Bay. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters located between Sandy Point, Anne Arundel County, MD and Kent Island, Queen Anne's County, MD, during a paddling event on May 14, 2016. This proposed rulemaking would prohibit persons and vessels from being in the regulated area unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Baltimore or Coast Guard Patrol Commander. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before March 14, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2015-1126 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Mr. Ronald Houck, U.S. Coast Guard Sector Baltimore, MD; telephone 410-576-2674, email
On December 28, 2015, ABC Events, Inc. notified the Coast Guard that it will be conducting the Bay Bridge Paddle from 8 a.m. until noon on May 14, 2016, to both showcase the kayak and stand up paddle board water sport for intermediate and elite paddlers, and benefit the Annapolis Chapter of the Foundation for Community Betterment and the Maryland Chapter of the Special Olympics. The paddle race is to be held under and between the north and south spans of the William P. Lane, Jr. (US-50/301) Memorial Bridges, located between Sandy Point, Anne Arundel County, MD and Kent Island, Queen Anne's County, MD. Elite paddlers will depart Sandy Point and proceed easterly along a 4.2-mile course toward Kent Island, turn around upon reaching a point near Kent Island, and proceed back to Sandy Point. Intermediate paddlers will depart Sandy Point and proceed easterly along the same 4.2-mile course toward Kent Island, however, they will turn around upon reaching the half way point (2.1 miles), and proceed back to Sandy Point. Hazards from the paddle race include event numerous event participants crossing designated shipping channels and interfering with vessels intending to operate within those channels. The COTP Baltimore has determined that potential hazards associated with the paddle race would be a safety concern for anyone intending to operate within certain waters of the Chesapeake Bay between Sandy Point and Kent Island, MD.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to protect event participants, spectators and transiting vessels on certain waters of the Chesapeake Bay before, during, and after the scheduled event.
The Coast Guard proposes this rulemaking under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1233, which authorize the Coast Guard to establish and define special local regulations.
The COTP Baltimore proposes to establish special local regulations from 7:30 a.m. until 12:30 p.m. on May 14, 2016, and, if necessary due to inclement weather, from 7:30 a.m. until 12:30 p.m. on May 15, 2016. The regulated area would cover all navigable waters of the Chesapeake Bay between and adjacent to the spans of the William P. Lane Jr. Memorial Bridges from shoreline to shoreline, bounded to the north by a line drawn parallel and 500 yards north of the north bridge span that originates from the western shoreline at latitude 39°00′36″ N., longitude 076°23′05″ W. and thence eastward to the eastern shoreline at latitude 38°59′14″ N., longitude 076°20′00″ W., and bounded to the south by a line drawn parallel and 500 yards south of the south bridge span that originates from the western shoreline at latitude 39°00′16″ N., longitude 076°24′30″ W. and thence eastward to the eastern shoreline at latitude 38°58′38.5″ N., longitude 076°20′06″ W. The duration of the regulated area is intended to ensure the safety of vessels and these navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled 8 a.m. until noon paddle event. Except for Bay Bridge Paddle participants, no vessel or person would be permitted to enter the regulated area without obtaining permission from the COTP Baltimore or a designated representative. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders (E.O.s) related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and E.O.s, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
E.O.s 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under E.O. 12866. Accordingly,
This regulatory action determination is based on the size and duration of the regulated area, which would impact a small designated area of the Chesapeake Bay for 5 hours. The Coast Guard would issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the status of the regulated area. Moreover, the rule would allow vessels to seek permission to enter the regulated area, and vessel traffic would be able to safely transit the regulated area once the Coast Guard Patrol Commander deems it safe to do so.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the regulated area may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves implementation of regulations within 33 CFR part 100 applicable to organized marine events on the navigable waters of the United States that could negatively impact the safety of waterway users and shore side activities in the event area lasting for 5 hours. The category of water activities includes but is not limited to sail boat regattas, boat parades, power boat racing, swimming events, crew racing, canoe and sail board racing. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(h) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. A preliminary environmental analysis checklist and Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online
Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1233.
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(2) Except for participants and vessels already at berth, mooring, or anchor, all persons and vessels within the regulated area at the time it is implemented are to depart the regulated area.
(3) Persons desiring to transit the regulated area must first obtain authorization from the Captain of the Port Baltimore or Coast Guard Patrol Commander. Prior to the enforcement period, to seek permission to transit the area, the Captain of the Port Baltimore can be contacted at telephone number 410-576-2693 or on Marine Band Radio, VHF-FM channel 16 (156.8 MHz). During the enforcement period, to seek permission to transit the area, the Coast Guard Patrol Commander can be contacted on Marine Band Radio, VHF-FM channel 16 (156.8 MHz) for direction.
(4) The Coast Guard may be assisted in the patrol and enforcement of the regulated area by other Federal, State, and local agencies. The Coast Guard Patrol Commander and official patrol vessels enforcing this regulated area can be contacted on marine band radio VHF-FM channel 16 (156.8 MHz) and channel 22A (157.1 MHz).
(5) The Coast Guard will publish a notice in the Fifth Coast Guard District Local Notice to Mariners and issue a marine information broadcast on VHF-FM marine band radio announcing specific event date and times.
(d)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve the State of Tennessee's May 23, 2014, State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision, submitted through the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation (TDEC) on behalf of the Shelby County Health Department (SCHD), seeking to modify the SIP by removing the Inspection and Maintenance (I/M) program in the City of Memphis, Tennessee, and by incorporating Shelby County's revised maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). Among other things, the revised maintenance plan updates the emissions inventory estimates and the motor vehicle emissions budgets (MVEBs) for the years 2006 and 2021 and contains an emissions reduction measure to offset the emissions increase expected from the termination of City of Memphis I/M program. EPA has preliminarily determined that Tennessee's May 23, 2014, SIP revision is consistent with the applicable provisions of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act).
Written comments must be received on or before March 14, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R04-OAR-2014-0250 by one of the following methods:
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Richard Wong, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Wong may be reached by phone at (404) 562-8726 or via electronic mail at
EPA is proposing to approve Tennessee's May 23, 2014, SIP revision seeking to remove the City of Memphis I/M program from the SIP and to incorporate Shelby County's revised maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS into the SIP.
Shelby County was designated as nonattainment for the carbon monoxide (CO) NAAQS on March 3, 1978.
On July 26, 1994 (59 FR 37939), EPA redesignated Shelby County to attainment for the CO standard and approved the initial 10-year CO maintenance plan for Shelby County. Subsequently, further improvements in automotive technology led to a consistent reduction in locally monitored levels of CO. On October 25, 2006, EPA approved the required second 10-year CO maintenance plan which demonstrated that I/M was no longer needed to maintain the CO NAAQS.
On April 30, 2004, EPA designated Shelby County, Tennessee, and Crittenden County, Arkansas, as nonattainment for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS, with a classification of `moderate' (hereinafter collectively referred to as the “Memphis 1997 8-hour Ozone Area”).
Following the initial designations for the 1997 8-hour ozone standard, Shelby County, the State of Tennessee, Crittenden County, and the State of Arkansas adopted additional measures to control ozone-forming emissions in the region and petitioned EPA to use its discretion under CAA section 181(a)(4) to reclassify the area from moderate to marginal. On September 22, 2004, EPA granted the petition to reclassify the area, which removed the SIP planning requirements mandated of moderate ozone nonattainment areas, including the adoption of a mandatory I/M program, and reset the attainment deadline to June 15, 2007.
The end of the 2008 ozone monitoring season resulted in a design value for the Memphis 1997 8-hour Ozone Area that met the NAAQS. Tennessee, Mississippi, and Arkansas prepared separate, but coordinated, redesignation requests and maintenance plans for their respective portions of the Area. Tennessee, on behalf of Shelby County, submitted the redesignation request and maintenance plan for its portion of the 1997 8-hour Ozone Area to EPA on February 26, 2009, prior to the attainment plan SIP revision due date.
EPA approved Tennessee's redesignation request and maintenance plan on January 4, 2010.
On March 12, 2008, EPA promulgated a revised 8-hour ozone NAAQS of 0.075 parts per million (ppm).
Section 110(l) of the CAA requires that a revision to the SIP not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (RFP) (as defined in section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the Act. Tennessee's May 23, 2014, SIP revision includes a demonstration that the requested actions comply with section 110(l) of the CAA. EPA evaluates each section 110(l) noninterference demonstration on a case-by-case basis considering the circumstances of each SIP revision.
EPA interprets 110(l) as applying to SIP revisions for all areas of the country, whether attainment, nonattainment, unclassifiable, or maintenance for one or more of the six criteria pollutants.
In nonattainment areas, EPA will generally not approve a SIP revision under 110(l) that allows additional emissions of pollutants for which the area is designated nonattainment in the absence of equivalent emissions reductions or an attainment demonstration addressing the proposed changes to the SIP. “Equivalent” emissions reductions are reductions that are equal to or greater than those reductions achieved by the control measure approved in the SIP. To show that compensating emissions reductions are equivalent, adequate justification must be provided. The compensating, equivalent reductions must represent actual emissions reductions achieved in a contemporaneous time frame to the change of the existing SIP control measure in order to preserve the status quo level of air emissions. If the status quo is preserved, noninterference is demonstrated. In addition to being contemporaneous, the equivalent emissions reductions must also be permanent, enforceable, quantifiable, and surplus.
Section 193 of the CAA prohibits the modification of control measures in effect before November 15, 1990, in a nonattainment area for any air pollutant unless the modification insures equivalent or greater emission reductions of that pollutant. Shelby County included a section 193 analysis in its SIP revision because it requested removal of the I/M program from the SIP, because Shelby County is in a nonattainment area for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS, and because I/M programs may impact ozone air quality.
Tennessee's May 23, 2014, SIP revision seeks to remove the City of Memphis I/M program from the SIP and incorporate Shelby County's revised maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS. The maintenance plan includes, among other things, an emissions reduction measure to offset the emissions increase expected from the termination of City of Memphis I/M program as well as revised emission inventory estimates and revised MVEBs based upon new modeling associated with the requested removal of the I/M program and upon the inclusion of an offset measure.
Tennessee's SIP revision includes an evaluation of the impact that the requested removal of the City of Memphis I/M program would have on attainment and maintenance of the NAAQS for each criteria pollutant. This
The SIP revision quantifies the potential emissions increases in NO
The 2013 inputs for the MOVES model were developed by interpolating TDM results for 2011 and 2015 in order to use the model to estimate the emissions increases in 2013 associated with the termination of the Memphis I/M program. The results of this modeling are provided in Table 1:
The County's on-road mobile source modeling predicts that the termination of the City of Memphis I/M program will increase 2013 ozone season VOC by approximately 0.352 tons per ozone season day and will not increase NO
Tennessee's SIP revision seeks to incorporate the emissions reductions from the closure of the Cleo facility for use as offsets for the termination of the I/M program. The company ceased operation in 2011 and submitted a letter to Shelby County on January 4, 2012, requesting termination of its Title V air permit effective at the end of 2011, making the reductions permanent and enforceable. SCHD issued a Title V termination letter on April 3, 2012. Shelby County quantified the emissions reductions associated with the Cleo facility shutdown by averaging the certified annual emissions reported by the facility to the County in 2009 and 2010, the last two full years of operation. In 2009 and 2010, Cleo reported and paid air pollution fees on actual VOC emissions of 239.1 tons and 254.5 tons, respectively, resulting in an annual average of 246.8 tpy (0.676 tpd across the calendar year). During the same operational period, Cleo averaged 1.09 tpy of NO
Shelby County evaluated the potential for the requested removal of the I/M program to interfere with maintenance of the PM NAAQS in the County because studies have shown that VOCs can be a precursor to PM in certain chemical and meteorological circumstances. The County concluded that the termination of the I/M program would not interfere with attainment or maintenance of the PM
The revised maintenance plan included in Tennessee's SIP revision contains an updated emissions inventory with emissions projections that account for the termination of the I/M program and the closure of the Cleo facility. Shelby County emissions for 2021 remain the same as those provided in the Shelby County 1997 8-hour Ozone Maintenance Plan approved by EPA on January 4, 2010 (75 FR 56), with the exception of on-road mobile and point source emissions. On-road emissions for 2006 and 2021 in the revised maintenance plan were remodeled using MOVES2010b, and they replace the on-road emissions
Point source emissions for 2006 remain the same; however, Tennessee adjusted the 2021 point source emissions for VOCs and NO
Tennessee's May 23, 2014, maintenance plan revision updates the MVEBs for 2006 and 2021 using on-road mobile source emissions estimates from MOVES and removes the MVEBs for 2009 and 2017. The revised 2021 MVEB accounts for the termination of the I/M program and the shutdown of the Cleo facility. These budgets are used by transportation authorities to assure that transportation plans, programs, and projects are consistent with, and conform to, the maintenance of acceptable air quality in the Memphis 1997 8-hour Ozone Area.
Under section 176(c) of the CAA, new transportation plans, programs, and projects, such as the construction of new highways, must “conform” to (
Under the CAA, states are required to submit, at various times, control strategy SIPs and maintenance plans for nonattainment areas. These control strategy SIPs (including RFP and attainment demonstration) and maintenance plans create MVEBs for criteria pollutants and/or their precursors to address pollution from cars and trucks. Per 40 CFR part 93, a MVEB must be established for the last year of the maintenance plan. A state may adopt MVEBs for other years as well. The MVEB is the portion of the total allowable emissions in the maintenance demonstration that is allocated to highway and transit vehicle use and emissions.
According to 40 CFR 93.118, a maintenance plan must establish MVEBs for the last year of the maintenance plan (in this case, 2021). The updated MVEBs in the revised maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS are for the base year (2006) and the last year of the first 10-year maintenance plan (2021). The 2021 MVEB reflects the total on-road mobile source emissions for 2021 plus an allocation from the available VOC and NO
The previously approved 1997 8-hour ozone maintenance plan for Shelby County contained interim MVEBs for years 2006, 2009, and 2017 in addition to the required maintenance year MVEB of 2021. The consensus formed during the interagency consultation process was that MVEBs should only be set for 2006 and 2021.
Under 40 CFR 93.101, the safety margin is the difference between the attainment level and the projected level, from all sources, of emissions in the maintenance plan. The attainment level of emissions is the level of emissions during one of the years in which Shelby County met the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS. The safety margin, in whole or in part, can be allocated to the transportation sector as long as total emissions from all categories remain below the attainment level.
For the revised 2021 MVEBs, Shelby County allocated ninety-five percent of the VOC and NO
The MVEB is constrained to assure that the total emissions from all source categories do not exceed the 2006 attainment year emissions. The MVEBs are consistent with the plan for maintaining total emissions from all source categories at or below the 2006 VOC and NO
EPA is proposing to approve Tennessee's May 23, 2014, SIP revision that seeks to remove the City of Memphis I/M program from the SIP and incorporate Shelby County's revised maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS that includes an emission reduction measure to offset the emission increases associated with the requested removal of the I/M program from the SIP. The revised maintenance plan also contains updated attainment inventories and updated MVEBs for NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submittal that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, October 7, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; reopening of comment period.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) issued a proposed rule in the
Any comments must arrive by February 29, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2015-0751 at
For comments submitted at Regulations.gov, follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from Regulations.gov. For either manner of submission, the EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
Nicole Law, EPA Region IX, (415) 947-4126,
This document reopens the public comment period established in the proposed rule published in the
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a submittal by the Idaho Department of Environmental Quality (Idaho DEQ) demonstrating that the State Implementation Plan (SIP) meets certain interstate transport requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) promulgated for nitrogen dioxide (NO
Comments must be received on or before March 14, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2015-0855 at
For information please contact John Chi at (206) 553-1185, or
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On January 22, 2010, the EPA established a primary NO
CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requires state SIPs to contain adequate provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity within a state from contributing significantly to nonattainment, or interfering with maintenance of the NAAQS in any other state.
In the December 24, 2015 submittal, the Idaho DEQ reviewed air quality monitoring data for the United States and found that all monitored areas in the country met the 2010 NO
In addition to reviewing Idaho's submittal, the EPA reviewed more recent monitoring data for NO
The EPA also reviewed regulatory provisions to control future new sources of nitrogen oxide emissions in Idaho. We note that on April 17, 2014, we approved Idaho's NO
Based on our review of the Idaho submittal, air quality monitoring data, and provisions in the current Federally-approved Idaho SIP regulating new sources, we believe it is reasonable to conclude that emissions from Idaho do not significantly contribute to nonattainment of the 2010 NO
The EPA has reviewed the December 24, 2015 submittal from the Idaho DEQ demonstrating that sources in Idaho do not significantly contribute to nonattainment, or interfere with maintenance, of the NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because this action does not involve technical standards; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Federal Communications Commission.
Petition for reconsideration.
Petitions for Reconsideration (Petitions) have been filed in the Commission's Rulemaking proceeding by Howard S. Shapiro, on behalf of Audio-Technica U.S., Inc., Laura Stefani, on behalf of Sennheiser Electronic Corp., Paul Margie, on behalf of Google Inc., Paula Boyd, on behalf of Microsoft Corporation, Stephen E. Coran, on behalf of Wireless Internet Service Providers Association, Rick Kaplan, on behalf of National Association of Broadcasters, Lawrence J. Movshin, on behalf of WMTS Coalition, Catherine Wang, on behalf of Shure Incorporated, Ari Q. Fitzgerald, on behalf GE Healthcare, Gordon Moore, on behalf of Lectrosonics, Inc. and Telecommunications Law Professionals PLLC, on behalf of Carlson Wireless Technologies, Inc. and Cal.net, Inc.
Oppositions to the Petitions must be filed on or before February 29, 2016. Replies to an opposition must be filed on or before March 25, 2016.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Hugh Van Tuyl, Policy and Rules Division, Office of Engineering and Technology, (202) 418-7506, email:
This is a summary of Commission's document, Report No. 3037, released January 12, 2016. The full text of the Petitions is available for viewing and copying in Room CY-B402, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC or may be accessed online via the Commission's Electronic
Number of Petitions Filed: 12.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Denial of petition for rulemaking.
Based on the agency's evaluation, NHTSA denies a petition for rulemaking from Mr. David K. Aberizk, P.E., of Integrated Consultants Incorporated, who requests the development of safety standards for a driver-activated vehicle regenerative braking interface with distinct rear lighting indication. The petitioner claims that the recommended changes to the relevant safety standards would allow vehicle manufacturers to better utilize the regenerator technology to increase vehicle efficiency. NHTSA finds that some features of the suggested concept are not prohibited by existing Federal motor vehicle safety standards (FMVSS) and notes that Mr. Aberizk did not demonstrate how the other features address a motor vehicle safety need. FMVSS Nos. 108 and 135 currently specify performance requirements relevant to certain permitted technologies identified in the petition.
February 12, 2016.
Ms. Lisa Gavin, Office of Crash Avoidance Standards, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
On April 14, 2012, David K. Aberizk, P.E., petitioned NHTSA requesting development of safety standards for a driver-activated vehicle regenerative braking interface with a distinct rear indicator lamp.
Mr. Aberizk states that regenerator technology is currently integrated as a component of the conventional friction braking system in electric or hybrid electric motor vehicles, which limits the potential of the device to recover energy. He claims that hybrid and electric vehicles with driver-activated regenerative braking systems (RBS) increases overall efficiency by 6 percent over existing RBS.
Mr. Aberizk recommends that the agency establish a new safety standard for regenerator engagement to adopt performance requirements, which he believes will interest automakers in embracing increased efficiency concepts, such as his operator-initiated slowing design. Mr. Aberizk provided graphic illustrations showing potential locations for an activation control device on the steering wheel or gear selector, and an expanded center high-mounted stop lamp (CHMSL) assembly. In his first information submission, Mr. Aberizk refers the reader to the Integrated Consultants Incorporated Web site for additional details on the driver-activated RBS empirical test findings and his U.S. patent, Vehicle Regenerative Deceleration Actuator and Indicator System and Method.
In his supplemental submission, Mr. Aberizk states that current RBS technologies underutilize the potential of brake regenerators to increase vehicle efficiency. With an operator-initiated slowing feature added to existing RBSs, Mr. Aberizk claims that overall efficiency increases by 6 percent in hybrid and electric vehicles, and by at least 2.5 percent for mild-hybrid vehicles. As presented, the slowing concept relies on the driver to manually engage the regenerator to slow the vehicle, independent of the brake pedal application. Finally, Mr. Aberizk included a summary of the comment and the attachment he submitted to NHTSA's notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to establish Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) Standards for model years 2017 and beyond.
Although the submission met the requirements to be accepted as a rulemaking petition, NHTSA does not endorse specific products, designs, or equipment, as Mr. Aberizk requests. NHTSA develops and issues Federal motor vehicle safety standards in order to reduce crashes, deaths and injuries resulting from motor vehicle crashes.
Mr. Aberizk requests that NHTSA define the location and geometric parameters for an operator activated slowing control device with a human-machine interface required for safe operation. Mr. Aberizk offers anecdotal observations and evaluations, but did not submit quantitative data. For vehicles configured with the slowing device, he claims a `noticeable' increase in range for test distances of 15 miles or greater, as well as a 50 to 75 percent reduction in brake pedal usage. The petition does not, however, assess how these factors, if accurate, would lead to safety benefits attributable to the driver-activated slowing concept. Additionally, NHTSA is not aware of any data that establish a correlation between
Perhaps more relevant, however, we note that a manually-enhanced feature to increase recovered braking energy is not prohibited by FMVSS No. 135, the light vehicle braking standard that includes requirements for the service brake system, associated parking brake system, and optional regenerative braking systems. FMVSS No. 135 defines RBS as an electrical energy system that is installed in an electric vehicle for recovering or dissipating kinetic energy and which uses the propulsion motor(s) as a retarder for partial braking of the electric vehicle while returning electrical energy to the propulsion battery(s) or dissipating electrical energy. FMVSS No. 135 expressly states that for an electric vehicle equipped with RBS, the RBS is considered to be part of the service brake system, if it is automatically activated by an application of the service brake control, if there is no means provided for the driver to disconnect or otherwise deactivate it, and if it is activated in all transmission positions, including neutral. For an electric vehicle that is equipped with antilock brake system (ABS) and RBS that is part of the service brake system, the ABS must control the RBS. A vehicle equipped with or without RBS must meet the stopping performance requirements of FMVSS No. 135.
Information compiled by the Federal government estimates the combined city/highway driving energy recovered by regenerative braking to be 5 to 9 percent.
In the petition, Mr. Aberizk also requests that NHTSA define the parameters for an additional rear lamp to signal vehicle slowing. Because we are denying the petition with respect to braking, we need not address the part of the petition related to lighting because without a new brake requirement, there is no need for a new lighting requirement.
In order for NHTSA to consider establishing a new safety standard, the agency must determine that a safety need exists and that the suggested concept will reduce the crash risk. For example, NHTSA completed rulemaking action to require center high mounted stop lamps as standard lighting equipment after extensive research that quantified the crash problem and estimated the safety impact and the effectiveness of the new equipment.
Finally, Mr Aberizk claims that development of safety standards will keep product liability of an operator-initiated slowing system neutral to the industry. Because NHTSA regulates motor vehicle safety and not tort liability, the agency refrains from drawing legal conclusions about Mr. Aberizk's operator-initiated slowing device.
In accordance with 49 CFR part 552, this completes the agency's review of the petition for rulemaking. NHTSA believes that the current requirements specified in FMVSS Nos. 108 and 135 do not prohibit certain features suggested in the petition. The petitioner did not demonstrate a safety need or substantiate claims of reduced crash risk associated with the petitioned concept. Therefore, NHTSA denies David K. Aberizk's petition.
49 U.S.C. 322, 30111, 30115, 30117 and 30166; delegation of authority at 49 CFR 1.95.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting; correction.
The National Marine Fisheries Service published a document in the
Mark Wildman, Office of International Affairs and Seafood Inspection; telephone: (301) 427-8350.
In the
The meeting will be held Wednesday, February 17, 2016, from 3 p.m. until 4 p.m. eastern standard time. Written comments on the proposed rule (December 29, 2015; 80 FR 81251) must be received by February 29, 2016.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of availability of fishery ecosystem plan amendment; request for comments.
NMFS announces that the Western Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) proposes to amend the Fishery Ecosystem Plan for Fisheries of the Hawaiian Archipelago. If approved, Amendment 4 would revise the descriptions of essential fish habitat (EFH) and habitat areas of particular concern (HAPC) for 14 species of bottomfish and three species of seamount groundfish in the Hawaiian Archipelago. The proposed action considers the best available scientific, commercial, and other information about the fisheries, and supports the long-term sustainability of fishery resources.
NMFS must receive comments on the proposed amendment by April 12, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0056, by either of the following methods:
•
•
The Council prepared Amendment 4 that provides background information on the proposed action. The amendment is available from
Matt Dunlap, Sustainable Fisheries Division, NMFS PIR, 808-725-5177.
NMFS and the Council manage Hawaii fisheries under the Fishery Ecosystem Plan for Fisheries of the Hawaiian Archipelago. Typically, the Council recommends conservation and management measures for NMFS to implement under the authority of Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act (16 U.S.C. 1801
The Council and NMFS have improved their understanding of the life histories and specific habitat requirements of Hawaii bottomfish and seamount groundfish. After considering the new information, the Council recommended revising the EFH and HAPC designations in the FEP.
NMFS must receive comments on the proposed amendment by April 12, 2016 for consideration in the decision to approve, partially approve, or disapprove the amendment.
The current designation for overall EFH for Hawaii bottomfish is the “water column extending from the shoreline to the outer boundary of the 200-mile EEZ [Exclusive Economic Zone] to a depth of 400 m.” The current designation for HAPC is “all escarpments and slopes between 40-280 m and three known areas of juvenile
The overall EFH for Hawaii seamount groundfish is currently defined as the “water column and bottom habitat from 0-600 m in the EEZ, bounded by latitude 29°-35° N., and longitude 171° E.,-179° W.” The seamount groundfish EFH encompasses the Hancock Seamounts, part of the northern extent of the Hawaiian Ridge, located 1,500 miles northwest of Honolulu. Currently, there are no HAPC designations for Hawaii seamount groundfish (Table 1).
Under the changes proposed in Amendment 4, the overall EFH designation for Hawaii bottomfish would remain the same,
Under the changes proposed in Amendment 4, EFH for Hawaii seamount groundfish would be an area that overlaps the Hancock Seamounts Ecosystem Management area, or the waters within the EEZ north of 28° N. and west of 180° W. The proposed revisions to EFH for seamount groundfish involve distinctions over depth ranges at various life stages. The Council is proposing to designate the same area described for EFH above as HAPC for seamount groundfish (Table 2). Previously there were no HAPC designated for seamount groundfish in the Hawaiian archipelago.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Institute of Food and Agriculture (NIFA) on behalf of the United States Global Change Research Program (USGCRP), Department of Agriculture.
Request for Public Comments on a Draft Report. Prospectus, Technical Input, and Nominations for Technical Contributors.
The U.S. Carbon Cycle Science Program and the Carbon Cycle Interagency Working Group (CCIWG), under the auspices of the U.S. Global Change Research Program (USGCRP), are initiating an Interagency Special Report entitled the 2nd State of the Carbon Cycle Report (referred to as “SOCCR-2” or “the Report” throughout this notice). The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) has agreed to be lead agency for this report as it is relevant to USDA and USDA has experience in producing a similar highly successful report of Climate Change and Food Security. The focus of SOCCR-2 will be on U.S. and North American carbon cycle processes, stocks, and flows in the context of and interactions with global scale budgets and climate change impacts in managed and unmanaged systems. Carbon stocks and fluxes in soils, water (including oceans), vegetation, aquatic-terrestrial interfaces (
Written comments on the Draft Prospectus, technical information, and nominations for technical contributors must be received by 5:00 p.m., ET on March 14, 2016.
Comments on the Draft Prospectus, technical information, and nominations for technical contributors must be submitted electronically via
USGCRP Contact: Dr. Gyami Shrestha; telephone 202-223-6262; or email:
NIFA Contact: Dr. Nancy Cavallaro; telephone 202-401-5176; or email:
The Draft Prospectus describes the proposed plans for scoping, drafting, reviewing, producing, and disseminating SOCCR-2. Comments are specifically sought on the Draft Report outline (including the draft table of contents), proposed topics, and process as outlined in the Draft Prospectus. The Draft Prospectus and instructions to submit comments can be found at
The SOCCR-2 report is a synthesis and assessment focusing on U.S. and North American carbon cycle processes, stocks, and flows in the context of and interactions with global scale budgets and climate change impacts in managed and unmanaged systems.
Current status and near-term projections for each topic will be included. If and where possible, modeling and multi-model syntheses of the carbon cycle will be included. As appropriate, each chapter will address cross-cutting themes such as: Land use change, fluxes, feedbacks, historical context, indicators and trends, societal impacts, North American and global scales (based on the 2014 National Climate Assessment regions), carbon management, impacts of decisions, and research needs. The expanded draft table of contents can be found on
Preface—The Preface will explain the importance of the carbon cycle to climate, the scope and rationale for SOCCR-2, and key developments since SOCCR-1.
Chapter 1: Global carbon cycle overview—Chapter 1 will contain an overview of major elements of the coupled global carbon cycle (
Chapter 2: Carbon cycle at scales—Chapter 2 will provide an assessment of the North American carbon cycle (scaled down from the global system in chapter 1), including updated regional, and local perspectives on key carbon stocks and flows.
Chapter 3: Carbon in natural and anthropogenic systems—major stocks, flows, uncertainties, broader social
Chapter 4: Interactions/disturbance: Impacts to the carbon cycle—Chapter 4 will focus on the role of disturbances, such as fire, ocean acidification, pathogens, land use change, etc. on the carbon cycle.
Chapter 5: Carbon cycle information, management practices, tools and needs at various scales—Chapter 5 will assess the role of recent carbon management practices and highlight the current state of carbon data management, monitoring systems, tools, and carbon relevant modeling scenarios.
Chapter 6: Synthesis, conclusions, gaps in knowledge, and (near) future outlook—Chapter 6 will provide an overarching synthesis of the current state of the carbon cycle while identifying key knowledge gaps/opportunities and a near-term outlook on the North American Carbon cycle.
The audience includes scientists, decision-makers in the public and private sectors and the general interested community across the U.S., extending to North American and global regions. The report may ultimately be used to inform policies but will not prescribe or recommend them.
The SOCCR-2 Report will be a federal interagency report. Technical contributors may be federal employees, academic scientists, private and nonprofit sector representatives, and others as appropriate and in alignment with federal requirements. The technical contributors will be selected based on their scientific expertise; demonstrated accomplishments; academic interests and knowledge in the thematic areas specified in the draft outline; time availability; and technical capability to work in this type of broad interdisciplinary and cross-cutting scientific assessment setting. The main roles and responsibilities of the technical contributors may include compiling the necessary background literature; synthesizing, analyzing and interpreting the existing science; and contributing intellectual and technical input. The process for nominating technical contributors is provided in Section III below.
A Federal Steering Committee of the USGCRP's SOCCR-2 has been established to provide guidance and coordination to the report authors and staff. The Committee members represent CCIWG member departments and agencies including National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), Department of Energy (DOE), United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) and Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
The USGCRP's 2nd State of the Carbon Cycle Report will use referenced materials derived primarily from the existing, peer-reviewed scientific literature and consistent with guidance regarding the use of other literature. This report will follow the USDA Information Quality Guidelines and administrative processes (
The written comments on the Draft Prospectus, technical information, and nominations for technical contributors called for in this notice are the first opportunities for public participation in the SOCCR-2 report process. Federal Steering committee will provide several opportunities for public engagement with the scientific community throughout the report scoping, planning and writing process via special presentations, sessions, town hall meetings and side-events at national and international scientific conferences. A public review period for the Draft SOCCR-2 will also be announced via a
SOCCR-2, with a likely release in 2017, is designed to inform the next quadrennial National Climate Assessment (due in 2018).
Interested parties are invited to assist in contributing, collecting and refining the scientific information base for this special report. To do so, parties are asked to submit recent, relevant scientific and/or technical research studies including observed, modeled and/or projected carbon cycle science information that have been peer reviewed and published or accepted for publication in scientific journals and/or government reports. All scientific literature submitted in response to this call for information must be received by 5:00 p.m., ET on March 14, 2016.
Submissions must be uploaded electronically via the link provided on
This notice seeks nominations for technical contributors to SOCCR-2 with pertinent subject matter expertise and scientific background. Potential technical contributors should be accomplished scholarly writers and have demonstrated scientific and technical expertise and academic proficiency in at least one of the carbon cycle science topics outlined in the prospectus (available via
Responses to this request must be received by 5:00 p.m., ET on March 14, 2016. Please follow instructions on
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by March 14, 2016 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
United States Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of Commission Briefing and Business Meeting.
Friday, February 19, 2016, at 9 a.m. EST.
Gerson Gomez, Media Advisor at telephone: (202) 376-8371, TTY: (202) 376-8116 or email:
This business meeting is open to the public. If you would like to listen to the briefing or business meeting, please contact the above for the call-in information.
Comments may also be submitted by email to
The Houma-Terrebonne Airport Commission, grantee of FTZ 279, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board on behalf of Thoma-Sea Marine Constructors, L.L.C. (Thoma-Sea), located in Houma, Louisiana. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on February 3, 2016.
A separate request for subzone designation at the Thoma-Sea facilities is planned and will be processed under Section 400.31 of the FTZ Board's regulations. The facilities are used for the construction and repair of oceangoing vessels. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), FTZ activity would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials and components and specific finished products described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt Thoma-Sea from customs duty payments on the foreign status components used in export production. On its domestic sales, Thoma-Sea would be able to choose the duty rate during customs entry procedures that applies to oceangoing vessels (free) for the foreign status inputs noted below. Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign status production equipment.
The components sourced from abroad include: plastic hoses; printed manuals; steel pipe fittings; doors; steel tanks; hatches/manholes; copper anodes; zinc rods; base metal mountings; outboard motors; parts of marine engines; parts of hydraulic pumps; hydraulic fluid pumps; compressors; portal/pedestal jib cranes; thruster parts; pressure-reducing valves; steel tank valves; vent check valves; machine parts of automated systems; electric motors; AC generators; speed drive controllers; power supplies; batteries; power cells; starter generators/motors; electric ignition starter parts; fuses; circuit boards; parts of electrical switching apparatus; insulated winding wire; liquid flow/level measuring instruments; parts of printed circuit assemblies; and, parts of measuring instruments (duty rate ranges from free to 5.7%).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is March 23, 2016.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Pierre Duy at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on citric acid and certain citrate salts (citric acid) from Canada. The period of review (POR) is May 1, 2014, through April 30, 2015. The review covers one producer/exporter of the subject merchandise, Jungbunzlauer Canada Inc. (JBL Canada). We preliminarily determine that sales of subject merchandise by JBL Canada were not made at prices below normal value (NV). We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Rebecca Trainor or Katherine Johnson, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-4007 or (202) 482-4929, respectively.
The merchandise covered by this order is citric acid and certain citrate salts from Canada. The product is currently classified under subheadings 2918.14.0000, 2918.15.1000, 2918.15.5000, and 3824.90.9290 of the Harmonized Tariff System of the United States (HTSUS). Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of merchandise subject to the scope is dispositive.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) and (2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Constructed export price is calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. NV is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
As a result of this review, the Department preliminarily determines that a weighted-average dumping margin of 0.00 percent exists for JBL Canada for the period May 1, 2014, through April 30, 2015.
We intend to disclose to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with these preliminary results within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Interested parties may submit case briefs not later than 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) The party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; and (3) a list of issues parties intend to be discuss. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case and rebuttal briefs. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, unless the deadline is extended.
Upon completion of the administrative review, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
We calculated importer-specific
We intend to issue instructions to CBP 41 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review.
The following deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for JBL Canada will be the rate established in the final results of this review, except if the rate is
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
As a result of the determinations by the Department of Commerce (“the Department”) and the International Trade Commission (“ITC”) that revocation of the antidumping duty (“AD”) orders on certain magnesia carbon bricks (“MCBs”) from Mexico and the People's Republic of China (“PRC”) and the countervailing duty (“CVD”) order on MCBs from the PRC would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping and countervailable subsidies and material injury to an industry in the United States, the Department is publishing a notice of continuation of the antidumping duty orders and the countervailing duty order.
Kenneth Hawkins, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6491.
On August 3, 2015 the Department published a notice of initiation of the first sunset review of the AD orders on MCBs from Mexico and the PRC, and the CVD order on MCBs from the PRC, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”).
Imports covered by the orders consist of certain chemically bonded (resin or pitch), MCBs with a magnesia component of at least 70 percent magnesia (“MgO”) by weight, regardless of the source of raw materials for the MgO, with carbon levels ranging from trace amounts to 30 percent by weight, regardless of enhancements, (for example, MCBs can be enhanced with coating, grinding, tar impregnation or coking, high temperature heat treatments, anti-slip treatments or metal casing) and regardless of whether or not anti-oxidants are present (for example, antioxidants can be added to the mix from trace amounts to 15 percent by weight as various metals, metal alloys, and metal carbides).
Certain MCBs that are the subject of this investigation are currently classifiable under subheadings 6902.10.1000, 6902.10.5000, 6815.91.0000, 6815.99.2000, and 6815.99.4000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”). While HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description is dispositive.
As a result of the determinations by the Department and the ITC that revocation of the AD and CVD orders would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping and countervailable subsidies and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(a), the Department hereby orders the continuation of the AD orders on MCBs from Mexico and the PRC and the CVD order on MCBs from the PRC. U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect AD and CVD duty cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.
The effective date of the continuation of the orders will be the date of publication in the
This five-year (“sunset”) review and this notice are in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and published pursuant to section 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4)
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily finds that Agir Haddecilik A.S. (Haddecilik) did not make sales at prices below normal value (NV) during the period of review (POR). The POR is May 1, 2014, through April 30, 2015. We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Mark Flessner or Robert James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6312 or (202) 482-0649, respectively.
The merchandise covered by the order is certain welded carbon quality light-walled steel pipe and tube, of rectangular (including square) cross section, having a wall thickness of less than 4 millimeters. The merchandise subject to the order is classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States at subheadings 7306.61.50.00 and 7306.61.70.60.
For a full description of the scope of the order, see the memorandum from Christian Marsh, Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations, to Paul Piquado, Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, entitled “Light-Walled Rectangular Pipe and Tube From Turkey: Decision Memorandum for the Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015” (Preliminary Decision Memorandum), which is dated concurrently with this notice and is hereby incorporated by reference.
As explained in the memorandum from the Acting Assistant Secretary for Enforcement & Compliance, the Department has exercised its discretion to toll all administrative deadlines due to the recent closure of the Federal Government. All deadlines in this segment of the proceeding have been extended by four business days. The revised deadline for the preliminary results of this review is now February 5, 2016.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Export price (EP) is calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Normal value (NV) is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
As a result of this review, we preliminarily determine the following weighted-average dumping margin for the period May 1, 2014, through April 30, 2015:
The Department intends to disclose to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with these preliminary results within five days of the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in all written case briefs, within 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h)(1).
Upon completion of the administrative review, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries.
We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this review.
The following deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the notice of final results of administrative review for all shipments of light-walled rectangular pipe and tube from Turkey entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication as provided by section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for Haddecilik will be the weighted-average dumping margin established in the final results of this administrative review except if the rate is
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h)(1).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is initiating a changed circumstances review (CCR) of the antidumping duty (AD) order on drawn stainless steel sinks from the People's Republic of China (PRC) with regard to Ningbo Afa Kitchen and Bath Co., Ltd. (Ningbo). We preliminarily determine that Ningbo is the successor-in-interest to Yuyao Afa Kitchenware Co., Ltd. (Yuyao) for purposes of determining AD liability. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Ross Belliveau or Brian Smith, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4952 or (202) 482-1766.
On April 11, 2013, the Department published in the
The products covered by the scope of this order are drawn stainless steel sinks with single or multiple drawn bowls, with or without drain boards, whether finished or unfinished, regardless of type of finish, gauge, or grade of stainless steel. Mounting clips, fasteners, seals, and sound-deadening pads are also covered by the scope of this order if they are included within the sales price of the drawn stainless steel sinks. For purposes of this scope definition, the term “drawn” refers to a manufacturing process using metal forming technology to produce a smooth basin with seamless, smooth, and rounded corners. Drawn stainless steel sinks are available in various shapes and configurations and may be
Excluded from the scope of the order are stainless steel sinks with fabricated bowls. Fabricated bowls do not have seamless corners, but rather are made by notching and bending the stainless steel, and then welding and finishing the vertical corners to form the bowls. Stainless steel sinks with fabricated bowls may sometimes be referred to as “zero radius” or “near zero radius” sinks.
The products covered by this order are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under statistical reporting number 7324.10.0000 and 7324.10.0010. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope is dispositive.
Pursuant to section 751(b)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act) and 19 CFR 351.216(d), the Department will conduct a CCR upon receipt of a request from an interested party for a review of an AD order which shows changed circumstances sufficient to warrant a review of the order. The information submitted by Ningbo supporting its claim that it is the successor-in-interest to Yuyao demonstrates changed circumstances sufficient to warrant such a review.
In accordance with the above-referenced regulation, the Department is initiating a CCR to determine whether Ningbo is the successor-in-interest to Yuyao. When it concludes that expedited action is warranted, the Department may publish the notice of initiation and preliminary results for a CCR concurrently.
In determining whether one company is the successor-in-interest to another, the Department examines a number of factors including, but not limited to, changes in management, production facilities, supplier relationships, and customer base.
In its December 22, 2015 submission, Ningbo provided information to demonstrate that it is the successor-in-interest to Yuyao. Ningbo states that the company's ownership, location/production facilities, management, and customer base have not changed as a result of the corporate name change. It states further that its suppliers have remained largely the same, with some suppliers added but none eliminated. To support its claims, Ningbo submitted the following documents: (1) A copy of Ningbo's old and new business licenses, issued on June 2, 2015, and November 19, 2015, respectively;
Based on the evidence on the record, we preliminarily find that Ningbo is the successor-in-interest to Yuyao. We find that Ningbo operates as the same business entity as Yuyao and that its ownership, management, production facilities, supplier relationships, and customers have not changed as a result of its name change. Thus, we preliminarily find that Ningbo should receive the same antidumping duty cash deposit rate with respect to the subject merchandise as Yuyao, its predecessor company.
Should our final results remain the same as these preliminary results, we will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection to suspend entries of subject merchandise exported by Ningbo at Yuyao's cash deposit rate, effective on the publication date of our final results.
Interested parties may submit case briefs and/or written comments not later than 14 days after the publication of this notice.
Interested parties that wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS, within 14 days of publication of this notice.
Consistent with 19 CFR 351.216(e), we intend to issue the final results of this changed circumstance review no later than 270 days after the date on which this review was initiated, or within 45 days of publication of these preliminary results if all parties agree to our preliminary finding.
We are issuing and publishing this finding and notice in accordance with sections 751(b)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.216 and 351.221(c)(3)(ii).
National Institute of Standards and Technology, Commerce.
Notice; extension of comment period.
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is extending the period for submitting comments relating to the “Framework for Improving Critical Infrastructure Cybersecurity” (the “Framework”) through February 23, 2016. In a Request for Information (RFI) that published in the
Comments must be received by 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on February 23, 2016. Comments received after February 9, 2016 and before publication of this notice are deemed to be timely.
Written comments may be submitted by mail to Diane Honeycutt, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, Stop 8930, Gaithersburg, MD 20899. Online submissions in electronic form may be sent to
All comments received in response to this RFI will be posted at
For questions about this RFI contact: Diane Honeycutt, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, Stop 8930, Gaithersburg, MD 20899 or
NIST is extending the comment period announced in the December 11, 2015 Request for Information (RFI) (80 FR 76934) through February 23, 2016. NIST is authorized by the Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2014
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Up-to-date socioeconomic data is needed to support the further development and improvement of Ocean Guardian Schools. These schools receive funding from the NOAA Office of Education and the Office of National Marine Sanctuaries. Schools may apply for funding up to five years. A number of schools have continued their Ocean Guardian School projects after the five years. From 2010-2015, the total funding received by 71 schools was $544,315.
Although the costs and sources of funding are known, there is limited information known about the economic value participants place on this program and the economic value created by these schools and their many activities. Currently, there is no information available that provides estimates of the value of education programs like Ocean Guardian to parents and teachers. Ocean Guardian Schools receive funding to develop projects to help protect the ocean in the future and promote ocean conservation and stewardship. Projects include recycling, beach clean-up days, installing rain barrels, installing wildlife structures, composting, and energy reduction.
The types of data targeted for this collection are: attitudes and preferences towards the projects and student involvement, importance of/satisfaction with the program and attributes of the program, extent of reach (are parents aware of their student's involvement and are they too learning about ocean stewardship), level of teacher, student, parent and administrative involvement, and teachers' and parents' willingness to pay. The primary focus for the survey will be to gather data on parents' and teachers' willingness to pay for this program. Specifically, researchers will collect data to determine the economic value teachers, administrators and parents place on this program. The information collected will help to inform Ocean Guardian Schools about areas for improvement and the value that their programs create for the community.
This information collection request may be viewed at reginfo.gov. Follow the instructions to view Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Groundfish Management Team (GMT) will hold two webinars that are open to the public.
The GMT webinars will be held on Tuesday, March 1, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. until 12 p.m. and on Monday, April 4, 2016, from 1:30 p.m. to 5 p.m.
To attend the webinars: (1) Join the meetings by visiting this link
Ms. Kelly Ames, Pacific Council, (503) 820-2426.
The purpose of the GMT webinars are to prepare for the March and April 2016 Pacific Council meetings. The GMT may also address other assignments relating to groundfish management. No management actions will be decided by the GMT. Public comment will be accommodated if time allows, at the discretion of the GMT Chair. The GMT's task will be to develop recommendations for consideration by the Pacific Council at its March 8-14, 2016 meeting in Sacramento, CA and its April 8-14, 2016 meeting in Vancouver, WA.
Although nonemergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section
The public listening station is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt at (503) 820-2425 at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Additions to and deletions from the procurement list.
This action adds products and a service to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities, and deletes products from the Procurement List previously furnished by such agencies.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia, 22202-4149.
Barry S. Lineback, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
On May 8, 2015 (80 FR 26548-26549) and November 16, 2015 (80 FR 70761-70762), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notices of proposed additions to the Procurement List.
After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agencies to provide the products and service and impact of the additions on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the products and service listed below are suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in any additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities other than the small organizations that will furnish the products and service to the Government.
2. The action will result in authorizing small entities to furnish the products and service to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the products and service proposed for addition to the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following products and service are added to the Procurement List:
The Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled (Committee) operates pursuant to statutory and regulatory requirements. Committee regulations state for a commodity or service to be suitable for addition to the Procurement List, each of the following criteria must be satisfied: The addition to the Procurement List must demonstrate a potential to generate employment of people who are blind or have other severe disabilities; the nonprofit agency proposing to provide the product or service to the Federal Government must be qualified to participate in the AbilityOne program as defined in separate Committee regulations; the nonprofit agency must prove itself capable to deliver the product or service at the quality standard and delivery schedule required by the Government; and the Committee reviews the level of impact on the current contractor for the commodity or service.
Federal Prison Industries (FPI) submitted a comment objecting to the proposed addition of the U.S. Army Combat Uniform Coat to the Procurement List. FPI asserts in its comments that, for items already listed on FPI's Schedule of Products like the proposed U.S. Army Combat Uniform Coat, a designated central nonprofit agency of the AbilityOne program must seek a waiver of FPI's purchase priority before requesting to add the same product to the Committee's Procurement List pursuant to 41 CFR 51-3.3. Normally, FPI products have a purchase priority over AbilityOne products, as stated in FAR subparts 8.002, 8.603 and 8.704.
However, 10 U.S.C. 2410n and DFARS subpart 208.602-70 provide that, if FPI's share for the particular product is greater than five percent of the Department of Defense (DOD) market, then DOD must use competitive and fair opportunity procedures in order to purchase additional quantities from FPI, permitting FPI to participate in such competitive process which establishes that FPI no longer has a
In fact, the FAR subparts 8.603 and 8.704 contemplate a purchasing priority “when identical supplies or services are on the Procurement List and the Schedule of Products issued by the Federal Prison Industries, Inc.” For this particular product, FPI has lost its priority by operation of law, but the AbilityOne priority remains effective.
Section 827 of National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2008 (NDAA for FY2008, now 10 U.S.C. 2410n) and supplemental Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation 208.602-70 do not apply to the Javits-Wagner-O'Day (JWOD) Act purchase priority established in 41 U.S.C. 8504 and implemented in FAR subpart 8.7. As preset forth at 10 U.S.C. 2410n, if FPI provides a significant market share of a particular product to DOD, then, by statute, DOD procurement activities may purchase a product listed in the latest edition of the Federal Prison Industries catalog for which Federal Prison Industries has a significant market share [defined as greater than 5%]
In addition, the basis for both competitive and fair opportunity procurement procedures is the Competition in Contract Act (CICA) (10 U.S.C. 2304 or 41 U.S.C. 3304) and FAR Subpart 6. Both 10 U.S.C. 2304(c)(5) and FAR Subpart 6.302-5, the implementing regulation, provide that an Agency is not required to follow CICA when expressly required by another statute to use different procurement procedures. The JWOD purchase priority, set forth at 41 U.S.C. 8504, is listed in FAR Subpart 6.302-5 as an express exception to CICA and full and open competition. While FPI is precluded by law from exercising its purchase priority for DOD procurements when it already provides greater than 5% of the market share for a particular product, competition in accordance with the Competition in Contracting Act does not apply because the JWOD purchase priority is applicable. The JWOD Act states:
(a) In General.—An entity of the Federal Government intending to procure a product or service on the procurement list referred to in section 8503 of this title shall procure the product or service from a qualified nonprofit agency for the blind or a qualified nonprofit agency for other severely disabled in accordance with regulations of the Committee and at the price the Committee establishes if the product or service is available within the period required by the entity.
(b)
Pursuant to section 8504, an exception to the JWOD priority exists for procurement of a “product that is available” from FPI. When an FPI product reaches the market share of sales specified in section 2410n the product is no longer available from FPI on a priority basis pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 4124.
Therefore, if the same product is listed on the Procurement List, then Federal agencies must purchase from the designated nonprofit agencies (assuming nonprofits are able to deliver the substantially same product in the delivery window required), and cannot elect to pursue the competitive process outlined in section 2410n while ignoring the priorities set forth in the JWOD Act 41 U.S.C. 8504, and FAR subparts 8.002, 8.603 and 8.704.
On January 8, 2016 (81 FR 916-917), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed deletions from the Procurement List.
After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the products listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.
2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the products to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the products deleted from the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following products are deleted from the Procurement List:
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Addition to the procurement list.
This action adds a service to the Procurement List that will be provided by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia, 22202-4149.
Barry S. Lineback, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
On December 18, 2015 (80 FR 79031-79032), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed additions to the Procurement List.
After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agencies to furnish the service and impact of the additions on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the service listed below is suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in any additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities other than the small organizations that will provide the service to the Government.
2. The action will result in authorizing small entities to provide the service to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the service proposed for addition to the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following service is added to the Procurement List:
The Committee finds good cause to dispense with the 30-day delay in the effective date normally required by the Administrative Procedure Act. 5 U.S.C. 553(d). This addition to the Committee's Procurement List is a reaction to the expiration of the U.S. Army help desk support services contract. The Federal customer contacted, and has worked with the AbilityOne Program since April 2015 to fulfill this service need under the AbilityOne Program. To avoid performance disruption, and the possibility that the U.S. Army will have no viable alternative but to procure this service, this addition must be effective on February 29, 2016, ensuring timely execution for a March 1, 2016, start date while still allowing 18 days for comment. Pursuant to its own regulation 41 CFR 51-2.4, the Committee has been in contact with one of the affected parties, the incumbent of the expiring contract, since May 2015 and determined that no severe adverse impact exists. The Committee also published a notice of proposed Procurement List addition in the
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed Additions to and Deletion from the Procurement List.
The Committee is proposing to add products to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities, and deletes a product previously furnished by such agency.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
If the Committee approves the proposed additions, the entities of the Federal Government identified in this notice will be required to procure the products listed below from nonprofit
The following products are proposed for addition to the Procurement List for production by the nonprofit agencies listed:
The following product is proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Notice.
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Consumer Product Safety Commission (“CPSC” or “Commission”) requests comments on a proposed extension of approval of a collection of information under the requirements pertaining to third party conformity assessment bodies, approved previously under OMB Control No. 3041-0156. The Commission will consider all comments received in response to this notice before requesting an extension of this collection of information from the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”).
Submit written or electronic comments on the collection of information by April 12, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC-2012-0026, by any of the following methods:
Robert H. Squibb, Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814; (301) 504-7815, or by email to:
CPSC seeks to renew the following currently approved collection of information:
•
○ We estimate approximately 40 new applications from independent third party conformity assessment bodies will be submitted per year, taking an estimated 75 minutes to complete the initial application materials, with an estimated burden of 50 hours per year.
○ We estimate approximately 3 firewalled third party conformity assessment bodies will apply per year, taking an estimated 8.4 hours to complete the initial application materials, with an estimated burden of 25.2 hours per year.
○ We estimate approximately 4 governmental third party conformity assessment bodies will apply per year, taking an estimated 3 hours to complete the initial application materials, with an estimated burden of 12 hours per year.
•
○ We estimate that approximately 5 third party conformity assessment bodies will take 15 minutes to update information for only those elements of information that need updating, with an estimated burden of 1.35 hours per year.
•
○ We estimate that approximately 27 third party conformity assessment bodies will take 7 minutes to comply with the subcontracting recordkeeping requirement for an estimated 68,769 subcontract test, with an estimated of approximately 8,023 hours per year.
•
○ We estimate approximately 8 third party conformity assessment bodies will withdraw yearly, taking an estimated 30 minutes to create and submit the required documentation, with an estimated burden of 4 hours per year.
•
○ We estimate that approximately 228 independent third party conformity assessment bodies each year will be audited, taking approximately 4 minutes to resubmit their Form 223 and accreditation certificate, with an estimated burden of 15.2 hours per year.
○ We estimate that approximately 18 firewalled third party conformity assessment bodies will spend 226 minutes collecting and preparing the documentation to submit for an audit, with estimated burden of about 68 hours per year.
○ We estimate approximately 25 governmental third party conformity assessment bodies will spend 1 hour collecting and preparing the documentation to submit for an audit, with estimated burden of 25 hours per year.
•
Adding all of the annual estimated burden hours results in a total of 8,224 hours for third party conformity assessment bodies per year. At $38.78 per hour, the total cost of the recordkeeping associated with the Requirements Pertaining to Third Party Conformity Assessment Bodies is approximately $318,927 (8,224 hours × $38.78 = $318,927).
The Commission solicits written comments from all interested persons about the proposed collection of information. The Commission specifically solicits information relevant to the following topics:
CNCS.
Notice.
The Corporation for National and Community Service (CNCS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce
Currently, CNCS is soliciting comments concerning its proposed renewal of the National Service Trust Voucher and Payment Request Form/National Service Trust Manual Payment Request Form (OMB #3045-0014); which is used to make payments to repay qualified student loans and to pay for the cost of attending eligible post-secondary educational institutions and approved School-to-Work programs. Prior to making the payments, CNCS will review information from the forms and compare it to information taken from the AmeriCorps members' education award account(s) to ensure that the payments meet the requirements of the law. This information collection is not required to be considered for obtaining grant funding support.
Copies of the information collection request can be obtained by contacting the office listed in the
Written comments must be submitted to the individual and office listed in the
You may submit comments, identified by the title of the information collection activity, by any of the following methods:
(1) By mail sent to: Corporation for National and Community Service, National Service Trust; Attention: Nahid Jarrett, Trust Officer, 250 E Street SW., Suite 300, Washington, DC, 20525.
(2) By hand delivery or by courier to the CNCS mailroom at the mail address given in paragraph (1) above, between 9:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
(3) By fax to: 202-606-3484, Attention: Nahid Jarrett.
(4) Electronically through
Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TTY-TDD) may call 1-800-833-3722 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
Nahid Jarrett, 202-606-6753, or by email at
CNCS is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of CNCS, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are expected to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
CNCS supports programs that provide opportunities for individuals who want to become involved in national service. The service opportunities cover a wide range of activities over varying periods of time. Upon successfully completing an agreed-upon term of service in an approved AmeriCorps program, an AmeriCorps member receives an education award.
The National Service Trust is the office within CNCS that administers the education award program. This involves tracking the service for all AmeriCorps members, ensuring that certain requirements of CNCS enabling legislation are met, and processing school and loan payments that the members authorize both manually and electronically through the MyAmeriCorps portal. With this form AmeriCorps members request Segal Education Award payments, schools and lenders certify their eligibility, and both parties certify certain legal requirements.
CNCS seeks to renew the current information collection request.
After an AmeriCorps member completes a period of national service, the individual receives an education award that can be used to pay against qualified student loans or pay for current post-secondary educational expenses. The
The information collection will otherwise be used in the same manner as the existing application. CNCS also seeks to continue using the current application until the revised application is approved by OMB. The current application is due to expire on 03/31/2016.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, DoD.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 16-05 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Thirteen (13) MK 15 Phalanx Block lB Baseline 2 Close-in Weapons System (CIWS) Guns
Eight (8) CIWS Block 1 Baseline 0 to Block 1B Baseline 2 upgrade kits
Two-hundred and sixty thousand (260,000) Rounds of 20mm MK 244 MOD 0 Armor-Piercing Discarding Sabots (APDS)
20mm dummy rounds; spares to support the installation, maintenance and operation of the MK 15 Phalanx Block l B Baseline 2 systems; classified and unclassified publications; software; training; technical assistance; installations; other technical assistance; and logistical support.
(iv)
(v)
TW-P-LFF, TW-P-LDA; P&A TW-PLHO, $320.2M, 10 October 2014.
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
*as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested a possible sale of:
Thirteen (13) MK 15 Phalanx Block 1B Baseline 2 Close-in Weapons System (CIWS) Guns
Eight (8) CIWS Block 1 Baseline 0 to Block lB Baseline 2 upgrade kits
Two-hundred and sixty thousand (260,000) Rounds of 20mm MK 244 MOD 0 Armor Piercing Discarding Sabots (APDS)
Also included in this possible sale are: 20mm dummy rounds; spares to support the installation, maintenance and operation of the MK 15 Phalanx Block 1B Baseline 2 systems; classified and unclassified publications; software; training; technical assistance; installations; other technical assistance; and logistical support. The estimated cost is $416 million.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enhance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military balance, and economic progress in the region.
The proposed sale will improve the recipient's capability in current and future defensive efforts. The recipient will use the enhanced capability as a deterrent to regional threats and to strengthen homeland defense. The recipient will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractor will be Raytheon Missile Systems Company in Tucson, Arizona. The purchaser has requested an offset of forty percent. At this time, agreements are undetermined and will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and contractor.
Implementation of this proposed sale should not require the permanent assignment of additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives outside the United States.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. Purchaser currently has forty-two (42) MK 15 Phalanx Close-In Weapon Systems (CIWS) Guns of various configurations, including Block 0, Block 1 (Baselines 0, 1 and 2), Block 1A, and Block 1B Baseline 0. Purchaser will be upgrading eight (8) of its lower configurations as well as procuring thirteen (13) additional systems, all of which will have an end configuration of Block 1B Baseline 2 configuration. The main characteristics of the MK 15 Phalanx Block l B Baseline 2 CIWS Gun are:
a. A Radar Upgrade that provides increased sensitivity on sea-skimming threats and improved low-observable performance.
b. A stabilized thermal imager and an automatic acquisition video tracker that were introduced with the Block 1B Baseline 0 configuration. These components provide the capability to engage small, high speed, maneuvering surface craft and low, slow aircraft and helicopters. The thermal imager also improves performance against Anti-Ship Cruise Missiles by carrying out more accurate angle tracking information to the fire control computer. Purchaser has already been provided this capability with the Block 1B Baseline 0 previously procured via an FMS case.
c. The Optimized Gun Barrel that was also introduced with the Block l B Baseline 0 and provides improved dispersion performance of the ammunition when the system is fired. This gun barrel also permits use of the MK 244 ammunition, an enhanced lethal cartridge capable of penetrating harder warheads in use today. Purchaser has already been provided this capability with the Block l B Baseline 0 previously procured via an FMS case.
2. Although the MK 15 Phalanx Block 1B Baseline 2 CIWS Gun is considered state-of-the-art technology, there is no Critical Program Information associated with the MK 15 Phalanx CIWS hardware, technical documentation, or software. The highest classification of the hardware to be exported is UNCLASSIFIED. The highest classification of the technical documentation to be exported is CONFIDENTIAL; there is only one CONFIDENTIAL technical manual that will be exported, which is required for the operation of the MK 15 Phalanx CIWS. The highest classification of software to be exported is UNCLASSIFIED. The MK 15 Phalanx CIWS meets Anti-Tampering requirements. Only Organizational-Level and Intermediate-Level maintenance capability will be exported. The Maintenance Plan for the MK 15 CIWS limits Intermediate-Level maintenance to the system's Gun and Ammunition Handling System.
3. A determination has been made that the recipient country can provide the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is
4. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the recipient.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 16-06 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Major Defense Equipment (MDE) includes:
Non-MDE items included are Integrated Electronic Technical Manuals (IETMs), Government-Furnished Equipment, spare and repair parts, Telemeters, Range and Test Support, contractor technical support, contractor training, contractor engineering services, and contractor logistics services. Also included are consolidation, Total Package Fielding, Material Fielding Team, Field Service Representative (FSR), U.S. Government Technical Support, and other associated equipment and services.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested a possible sale of two-hundred and fifty (250) Block I-92F MANPAD Stinger Missiles, four (4) Block I-92F MANPAD Stinger Fly-to-Buy Missiles, one (1) Captive Flight Trainer (CFT), forty two (42) Field Handling Trainers (FHTs), seventy (70) Gripstock Control Groups, seventy (70) Medium Thermal Weapon Sights (MTWS), forty-two (42) Tracking Head Trainers (THTs), four (4) Sierra Coolant Recharging Units (CRUs), one (1) Missile Go/No Go Test Set, four (4) MQM-170 Outlaw Target Drones, sixty-two (62) Identification Friend or Foe (IFF), IFF Development, one (1) Stinger Troop Proficiency Trainer (STPT). Also included are Integrated Electronic Technical Manuals (IETMs),Government Furnished Equipment, spare and repair parts, Telemeters, Range and Test Support, contractor technical support, contractor training, contractor engineering services, contractor logistics services, consolidation, Total Package Fielding, Material Fielding Team, Field Service Representative (FSR), U.S. Government Technical Support, and other associated equipment and services. The estimated value is $216,848,586.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enhance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military balance, and economic progress in the region.
The proposed sale will improve the recipient's capability in current and future defensive efforts. The recipient will use the enhanced capability as a deterrent to regional threats and to strengthen homeland defense.
The recipient intends to use these defense articles and services to modernize its armed forces and to expand its existing air defense architecture to counter threats posed by air attack. The recipient will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor involved in this program is Raytheon Missile Systems, Tucson, Arizona. The recipient normally requests industrial cooperation at forty percent, but at this time there are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require visits to the recipient by twelve (12) U.S. Government or contractor representatives for a period of six (6) weeks (Non-concurrent).
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(viii)
1. The highest classification of the Stinger 92F Reprogrammable Micro-Processor (RMP) Block I Missile and Stinger Man-Portable Air Defense System (MANPADS) hardware is CONFIDENTIAL, and the highest classification of data and information is SECRET.
a. The Stinger RMP Block I Missile, hardware, embedded software object code and operating documentation contain sensitive technology and are classified CONFIDENTIAL. The guidance section of the missile and tracking head trainer contain highly sensitive technology and are classified CONFIDENTIAL. Missile System hardware components contain sensitive critical technologies. Stinger Block I critical technology is primarily in the area of design and production know-how and not end-items. This sensitive critical technology is inherent in the hybrid microcircuit assemblies; micro-processors; magnetic and amorphous metals; purification; firmware; printed circuit boards; laser roll rate sensor; dual detector assembly; detector filters; optical coatings; ultraviolet sensors; compounding and handling of electronic, electro-optic, and optical materials; test equipment operating instructions; energetic materials fabrication and loading technology; warhead components and seeker assembly. Information on countermeasures vulnerability to electronic countermeasures, system performance capabilities and effectiveness, simulation and test data and software source code are classified up to SECRET.
b. Loss of this hardware and/or data could permit development of information leading to the exploitation of countermeasures. Therefore, if a technologically capable adversary were to obtain missile hardware or associated development or production information, the missile system could be compromised through reverse engineering techniques which could defeat the weapon system's effectiveness.
2. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the recipient.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 15-27 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested the possible sale, refurbishment, and upgrade of two (2) Oliver Hazard Perry Class Frigates (FFG-7) being provided as Excess Defense Articles (EDA). Each vessel will be equipped with the MK-92 Mod 6 Fire Control System, the SQQ-89V(9) Anti-Submarine Warfare System, the MK-75 76mm Gun System, Phalanx 20mm Close-In-Weapon System (CIWS) (Block I B), MK-13 Guided Missile Launching System (GMLS), AN/SLQ-32 Electronic Warfare System, SPS-49 Radar, SQR-19 Towed Array Sonar, SQS-56 Sonar, spare and repair parts, publications and technical documentation, personnel training and training equipment, provisioning, system integration, U.S. Government and contractor logistics, engineering, and technical support services, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $190 million.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enhance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military balance, and economic progress in the region.
The proposed sale will improve the recipient's capability in current and future defensive efforts. The recipient will use these ships to replace existing Knox Class destroyers which have reached the end of their useful service life. The EDA Oliver Hazard Perry Class Frigates (FFG-7) will be more sustainable, provide increased Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) capability as a deterrent to local threats, require less maintenance, and reduce life cycle support costs. The recipient will have no difficulty absorbing these ships and equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be selected through a competitive procurement conducted by the U.S. Government in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation. The purchaser normally requests industrial cooperation at forty percent, but at this time there are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government personnel or contractor representatives to the recipient.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The equipment to be delivered with these Oliver Perry Class Frigates (FFG-7) is similar to the equipment currently on customer ships or in inventory. This includes Close-ln- Weapon System (CIWS) (Block IB), MK 75 76mm gun, MK 13 Guided Missile Launching System (GMLS) for their STANDARD Missile (SM-1) and Harpoon Block II missiles. MK 32 SVTT is an over-the-side launching system for light weight torpedoes. The Link 11 system provides data sharing capability with other platforms. Operational performance characteristics for CIWS, Harpoon, and the MK 75 gun are classified SECRET. With the exception of CIWS IB and Harpoon Block II, all other equipment being provided in this program is considered legacy technology within the U.S. Navy.
2. The SQQ-89V(9) Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) system is being introduced to customer inventory through this program. This system represents an upgrade in capability for the customer, which will enhance the recipient's ASW capabilities. The operating system software and operating manuals are both classified SECRET. Operational performance is classified SECRET. The technical and operational elements of this system, and any related data, are classified SECRET. The SQQ-89V(9) will result in the transfer of highly accurate ASW sensing and detection capability.
3. The technical and operational elements of these systems, and any related data, are classified to protect vulnerabilities, design and performance parameters, and similar critical information. Uncontrolled release of sensitive technological information on these systems could reveal capabilities and possible vulnerabilities.
4. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar advanced capabilities.
5. A determination has been made that the recipient can provide the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
6. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the recipient.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 15-44 with attached Policy Justification.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested a possible sale of follow-on life cycle support to maintain the Multifunctional Information Distribution Systems Low Volume Terminals (MIDS/LVT-1) and Joint Tactical Information Distribution Systems (JTIDS) previously procured. The support will include spare and repair parts, support equipment, repair and return, publications and technical documentation, personnel training and training equipment, software and hardware updates, maintenance of a continental United States lab, U.S. Government and contracting engineering, logistics, and technical support services, and other related elements of program and logistics support. The estimated value is $120 million.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enhance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military balance, and economic progress in the region.
The proposed sale will enhance the recipient's operational readiness and maintenance of its existing systems. The support will improve and integrate the recipient's information flow and display of tactical aircraft, surface ships, and ground stations. The recipient will have no difficulty absorbing this support and equipment into its inventory.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not significantly alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor will be selected through a competitive procurement conducted by the U.S. Government in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Regulation. The purchaser normally requests industrial cooperation at forty percent, but at this time there are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require multiple trips to the recipient involving U.S. Government and contractor representatives to participate in training, program management, and technical reviews.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 15-74 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Also included with this request are U.S. Government and contractor technical assistance, above the line transportation costs, and other related elements of logistics and program support.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested a possible sale of two-hundred and eight (208) Javelin Guided Missiles; U.S. Government and contractor technical assistance, above the line transportation costs, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $57 million.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enhance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military balance, and economic progress in the region.
The Javelin missile will provide the recipient with increased capacity to meet its coastal and homeland defense requirements. The recipient will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The prime contractors will be Raytheon/Lockheed Martin Javelin Joint Venture of Orlando, Florida and Tucson, Arizona. The purchaser normally requests industrial cooperation at forty percent, but at this time there are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to the recipient.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(viii)
1. The Javelin Weapon System is a medium-range, man-portable, shoulder-launched, fire-and-forget, anti-tank system for infantry, scouts, and combat engineers. It may also be mounted on a variety of platforms to include vehicles and watercraft. The system weighs 49.5 pounds and has a maximum range in excess of 2,500 meters. The system is highly lethal against tanks and other systems with conventional and reactive armors. The system possesses a secondary capability against bunkers.
2. Javelin's key technical feature is the use of fire-and-forget technology which allows the gunner to fire and immediately relocate or take cover. Additional special features are the top attack and/or direct fire modes, an advanced tandem warhead and imaging infrared seeker, target lock-on before launch, and soft launch from enclosures or covered fighting positions. The Javelin missile also has a minimum smoke motor thus decreasing its detection on the battlefield.
3. The missile is autonomously guided to the target using an imaging infrared seeker and adaptive correlation tracking algorithms.
4. The Javelin Missile System hardware and the documentation are UNCLASSIFIED. The missile software which resides in the Command Launch Unit (CLU) is considered sensitive. The sensitivity is primarily in the software programs which instruct the system how to operate in the presence of countermeasures. The overall hardware is also considered sensitive in that the infrared wavelengths could be useful in attempted countermeasure development. The benefits to be derived from the sale, as outlined in the policy justification of the notification, outweigh the potential damage that could result if sensitive technology was revealed to unauthorized persons.
5. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 16-01 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Also included are the following non-MDE: Missile Support Equipment, Government-Furnished Equipment, Technical Manuals/Publications, Spare Parts, Tool and Test Equipment, Training, U.S. Government Technical
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested a possible sale of seven hundred sixty-nine (769) TOW 2B Aero Radio Frequency (RF) Missiles (BGM-71F-Series). This proposed sale also includes fourteen (14) Radio Frequency (RF) TOW 2B Aero (BGM-71F-Series) Fly-to-Buy Missiles for lot acceptance testing, forty-six (46) Improved Target Acquisition System (ITAS) Launchers, four (4) Improved Target Acquisition System (ITAS) Launcher spares, Missile support Equipment, Government-Furnished Equipment, Technical Manuals/Publications, Spare Parts, Tool and Test Equipment, Trainers, U.S. Government Technical Support/Integrated Logistical Support, Contractor Technical Support, and other associated equipment and services. The estimated cost is $268 million.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enchance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military, balance, and economic progress in the region.
The proposed sale of TOW 2B Missiles, ITAS Launchers, and technical support will advance the recipient's efforts to develop and integrated ground defense capability. A strong national defense and dedicated military force will assist the recipient in its efforts to maintain stability. The recipient will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor involved in this program is Raytheon Missile Systems (RMS) of Tucson, Arizona, and McKinney, Texas. The purchaser normally requests industrial cooperation at forty percent, but at this time there are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require the U.S. Government or contractor representatives to travel to the recipient for multiple period of equipment de-processing/fielding, system checkout, and new equipment training. There will be no more than ten contractor personnel at any one time and all efforts will take less than 16 weeks in total.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The TOW 2B Aero Radio Frequency (RF) Missile (BGM-71F-3-RF) is a fly-over-shootdown missile designed to defeat armored vehicles. TOW missiles are fired from a variety of TOW Launchers in the U .S. Army, U.S. Marine Corps and Foreign Military Sales (FMS) customer forces. The TOW 2B Aero RF missile can be launched from the same launcher platforms as the existing wire-guided TOW 2B and TOW 2B Aero missiles without modification to the launcher. The TOW 2B missile (both wire & RF) contains two tracker beacons (xenon and thermal) for the launcher to track and guide the missile in flight. Guidance commands from the launcher are provided to the missile by an RF link contained within the missile case. Software for performance data, lethality penetration, and sensors are classified SECRET.
2. The Improved Target Acquisition System (ITAS) is designed to fire all existing versions of the TOW missile and consists of a Target Acquisition Subsystem (TAS), a Fire Control Subsystem (FCS), a Li-Ion Battery Box (LBB), a modified Traversing Unit (TU) plus the standard launch tube and tripod. The ITAS provides for the integration of both the direct view optics and a second generation Standard Advanced Dewar Assembly (SADA) II thermal sensor into a single housing; direct view optics that provide viewing the target scene in daylight and non-obscured conditions; introduction of both passive and active eye safe laser-ranging; development of embedded training and training sustainment; automatic bore sight which allows the gunner to align the night vision system with the direct view optics; insertion of advanced Built-In Test/Built-In Test Equipment (BIT/BITE) which provides fault detection and recognition and go/no go status for the gunner; and an Aided Target Tracker (ATT) that provides the capability to process infrared imagery into recognizable contour features used to assist the gunner's aim point.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the recipient.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, DoD.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 15-72 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States (TECRO)
(ii)
(iii)
Thirty-Six (36) Assault Amphibious Vehicles (AAVs)
Weapons
• Thirty (30) .50 Caliber M2 machine guns
• Six (6) 7.62mm M240 machine guns
Non-MDE included with this request are: Enhanced Armored Applique Kits (EAAK); spares; training; support and test equipment; publications; contractor engineering technical services; engineering technical services; logistical, training, engineering and program support; and other technical assistance.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested a possible sale of the following:
Thirty-Six (36) Assault Amphibious Vehicles (AAVs)
Weapons
• Thirty (30) .50 Caliber M2 machine guns
• Six (6) 7.62mm M240 machine guns
Non-MDE included with this request are: Enhanced Armored Applique Kits (EAAK); spares; weapons; training; support and test equipment; publications; contractor engineering technical services; engineering technical services; logistical, training, engineering and program support; and other technical assistance. The estimated MDE cost is $300 million. The total estimated cost is $375 million.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enhance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military balance, and economic progress in the region.
The proposed sale will improve the recipient's capability in current and future defensive efforts. The recipient will use these vehicles to augment existing vehicles and will have no difficulty absorbing these new vehicles into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not significantly alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractor supporting the refurbishment has not been selected. The purchaser normally requests industrial cooperation at forty percent, but at this time there are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale should not require the permanent assignment of additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to the recipient.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The Amphibious Assault Vehicles (AAV) Al Reliability Availability Maintainability (RAM) Rebuild to Standard (RS) Family of Vehicles (FOV) end items, trainers, and components are UNCLASSIFIED. The technical and operational elements of these systems, and any related data, are classified up to SECRET to protect vulnerabilities, design and performance parameters, and similar critical information.
2. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar advanced capabilities.
3. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the recipient.
Department of Defense, Defense Security Cooperation Agency.
Notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of a section 36(b)(1) arms sales notification. This is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996.
Sarah A. Ragan or Heather N. Harwell, DSCA/LMO, (703) 604-1546/(703) 607-5339.
The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 15-45 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Four (4) Multifunctional Information Distribution Systems (MIDS) On Ship Low Volume Terminals (LVTs)
Four (4) Command and Control Processor (C2P) units
Non-MDE items included are the installation and integration of Taiwan Advanced Tactical Data Link System (TATDLS) beyond line-of-sight datalink capability on six (6) Perry Class Frigates (PFG-2) and four (4) Lafayette Class (PFG-3) ships, up to ten (10) High Frequency Radios, and ten (10) Data Terminal Sets (DTSs). Also included are spare and repair parts; support equipment; communications equipment; maintenance support; personnel training and training equipment; publications and technical documentation; U.S. Government and contractor engineering and technical support services; and other related elements of logistics and program support.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
*as defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Taipei Economic and Cultural Representative Office in the United States has requested a possible sale of four (4) Multifunctional Information Distribution Systems (MIDS) On Ship Low Volume Terminals (LVTs), and four (4) Command and Control Processor (C2P) units. Also included will be the installation and integration of Taiwan Advanced Tactical Data Link System (TATDLS) beyond line-of-sight datalink capability on six (6) Perry Class (PFG-2) and four (4) Lafayette Class (PFG-3) ships, up to ten (10) High Frequency Radios, ten (10) Data Terminal Sets (DTSs), spare and repair parts, support equipment, communications equipment, maintenance support, personnel training and training equipment, publications and technical documentation, U.S. Government and contractor engineering and technical support services, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated value is $75 million.
This sale is consistent with United States law and policy as expressed in Public Law 96-8.
This proposed sale serves U.S. national, economic, and security interests by supporting the recipient's continuing efforts to modernize its armed forces and enhance its defensive capability. The proposed sale will help improve the security of the recipient and assist in maintaining political stability, military balance, and economic progress in the region.
The proposed sale will improve the recipient's capability in current and future defensive efforts. Under this case the recipient will update the existing Perry Class (PFG-2) (six ships) and Lafayette Class (PFG-3) (four ships) ships to match the configuration of ships updated under the Po Sheng and Syun An programs. Configuring the remaining ships to include TATDLS beyond line-of-sight datalink capability will allow data sharing capability with other platforms and improve the recipient's operational readiness for the systems provided under the previous Foreign Military Sales (FMS) cases. The recipient will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not significantly alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractor is unknown at this time and will be determined during contract negotiations. The purchaser normally requests industrial cooperation at forty percent, but at this time there are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.
It is estimated that during implementation of this proposed sale a number of U.S. Government and contractor representatives will be assigned to the recipient or travel there intermittently during the program.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The equipment to be delivered under this case has been provided previously under Po Sheng TW-P-GMK and Syun An TW-P-GNU and is currently used by the customer. The efforts under this case will lead to the remaining Perry Class (PFG-2) (six ships) and Lafayette Class (PFG-3) (four ships) ships having the same configuration as ships previously integrated under Po Sheng, TW-P-GMK and Syun An, TW-P-GNU cases. The ships will have Taiwan Advanced Tactical Data Link System (TATDLS) beyond line-of-sight datalink capability, which provides data sharing capability with other platforms. The equipment being provided under this case is considered legacy technology within the U.S. Navy.
2. The Multifunctional Information Distribution System (MIDS) On Ship Low Volume Terminal (LVT) hardware, publications, performance specifications, operational capability, parameters, vulnerabilities to countermeasures, and software documentation are classified CONFIDENTIAL. The classified information to be provided is necessary for the operation, maintenance, and repair (through intermediate level) of the data link terminal, installed systems, and related software. The recipient has previously received terminals under TW-P-GNU. Commercial Signal Message Processors (CSMPs) will be integrated into terminals provided. The operating system has CONFIDENTIAL software and operating elements; operating manuals are UNCLASSIFIED.
3. The Command and Control Processor (C2P) provided will be Model 4 or equivalent, which is considered legacy technology within the U.S. Navy. The operating system has CONFIDENTIAL software and operating elements; operating manuals are CONFIDENTIAL.
4. The technical and operational elements of these systems, and any related data, are classified to protect vulnerabilities, design and performance parameters, and similar critical information. Uncontrolled release of sensitive technological information on these systems could reveal capabilities and possible vulnerabilities, which could be detrimental to the U.S. Navy.
5. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar advanced capabilities.
6. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the recipient.
Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of Open Live Board Meeting.
This notice announces a Board meeting of the State Energy Advisory Board (STEAB). The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Public Law 92-463; 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of these meetings be announced in the
March 9th, 2016, 9:00 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.; March 10th, 2016, 9:00 a.m. to 3:30 p.m.
Renaissance Arlington Capital View Hotel, 2800 South Potomac Ave., Arlington, Virginia 22202 USA.
Michael Li, Policy Advisor, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20585. Phone number 202-287-5189, and email
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces an open meeting of the Electricity Advisory Committee. The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of these meetings be announced in the
Thursday, March 17, 2016 12:00 p.m.-6:00 p.m. EST.
Friday, March 18, 2016 8:00 a.m.-12:30 p.m. EST.
The meeting will be held at the National Rural Electric Cooperative Association, 4301 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22203.
Matthew Rosenbaum, Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, U.S. Department of Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 8G-017, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585; Telephone: (202) 586-1060 or Email:
The meeting agenda may change to accommodate EAC business. For EAC agenda updates, see the EAC Web site at:
You may submit comments, identified by “Electricity Advisory Committee Open Meeting,” by any of the following methods:
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•
•
•
The following electronic file formats are acceptable: Microsoft Word (.doc), Corel Word Perfect (.wpd), Adobe Acrobat (.pdf), Rich Text Format (.rtf), plain text (.txt), Microsoft Excel (.xls), and Microsoft PowerPoint (.ppt). If you submit information that you believe to be exempt by law from public disclosure, you must submit one complete copy, as well as one copy from which the information claimed to be exempt by law from public disclosure has been deleted. You must also explain the reasons why you believe the deleted information is exempt from disclosure.
DOE is responsible for the final determination concerning disclosure or nondisclosure of the information and for treating it in accordance with the DOE's Freedom of Information regulations (10 CFR 1004.11).
U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA), Department of Energy.
30-Day Notice of Submission of Information Collection Approval from the Office of Management and Budget and Request for Comments.
As part of a Federal Government-wide effort to streamline the process to seek feedback from the public on service delivery, EIA has submitted a Generic Information Collection Request (Generic ICR): “Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery'” to OMB for approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501 et. seq.).
Comments must be submitted by March 14, 2016.
Written comments may be submitted to:
Requests for additional information should be directed to Jacob Bournazian, U.S. Energy Information Administration, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585, phone: 202-586-5562, email:
Qualitative feedback means data that provide useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but are not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population of study. This feedback will provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences and expectations. This feedback also provides an early warning of issues with service, or focuses attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve the accuracy of data reported on survey instruments or the delivery of products or services. These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between the agency and its customers and stakeholders. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
The 60-day notice was published in the
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget control number.
Executive Order (EO) 13571, Streamlining Service Delivery and Improving Customer Service.
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
a.
b.
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d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j. Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, and protests: March 8, 2015.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k.
l.
m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
n.
o.
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on February 5, 2016, pursuant to sections 206 and 306 of the Federal Power Act
Dominion certifies that copies of the complaint were served on contacts for Respondent as listed on the Commission's list of Corporate Officials.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of answers, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j. Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, protests, and recommendations is March 9, 2016. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
k. Description of Request: The licensee requests Commission approval for a variance of the minimum pool requirement at Tioga Lake, which requires that the licensee maintain the lake level within two feet of the spillway or, in dry years, at its peak for the year from May 1 through September 30. In order to facilitate maintenance work on the grizzly and outlet works, the licensee requests Commission approval to begin draining the lake starting August 1, 2016, instead of the October 1 commencement date. The associated maintenance work would occur from September 6 to October 31, 2016, during which, the licensee would maintain natural flow through the outlet works.
l. Locations of the Application: A copy of the application is available for inspection and reproduction at the Commission's Public Reference Room, located at 888 First Street NE., Room 2A, Washington, DC 20426, or by calling (202) 502-8371. This filing may also be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
n. Comments, Protests, or Motions to Intervene: Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
o. Filing and Service of Responsive Documents: Any filing must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “COMMENTS”, “PROTEST”, or “MOTION TO INTERVENE” as applicable; (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, motions to intervene, or protests must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). All comments, motions to intervene, or protests should relate to project works which are the subject of the license surrender. Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application. If an intervener files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency. A copy of all other filings in reference to this application must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed in the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) for on-highway motorcycle emissions certification and compliance” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be submitted on or before April 12, 2016.
Submit your comments, referencing docket ID number OAR-2016-0027, to EPA online using EDOCKET (our preferred method), by email to
Julian Davis, Environmental Protection Agency, 2000 Traverwood, Ann Arbor MI 48105; telephone number: (734) 214-4029; fax number: (734) 214-4869; email address:
EPA has established a public docket for this ICR under Docket ID number OAR-2016-0027, which is available for public viewing at the Air and Radiation Docket in the EPA Docket Center (EPA/DC), EPA West, Room B102, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC. The EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to
(i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(ii) Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(iii) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(iv) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval. At that time, EPA will issue another
The current ICR for on-highway motorcycle emissions certification and compliance information is set to expire on September 30, 2016. This program was previously included under the current ICR for light-duty vehicle emissions certification and in-use testing [EPA ICR No. 0783.62, OMB Control No. 2060-0104].
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), “Recordkeeping and Reporting Related to RFS2 Voluntary RIN Quality Assurance Program” (EPA ICR No. 2473.03, OMB Control No. 2060-0688)
Additional comments may be submitted on or before March 14, 2016.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OAR-2005-1121, to (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Geanetta Heard, Fuel Compliance Center, 64106J, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-343-9017; fax number: 202-565-2085; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Responsible Agency: Office of Federal Activities, General Information (202) 564-7146 or
Weekly receipt of Environmental Impact Statements (EISs), Filed 02/01/2016 Through 02/05/2016, Pursuant to 40 CFR 1506.9.
Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), “EPA's ENERGY STAR Program in the Commercial and Industrial Sectors” (EPA ICR No. 1772.07, OMB Control No. 2060-0347) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Additional comments may be submitted on or before March 14, 2016.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OAR-2006-0407, to (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Stephanie Klein, Climate Protection Partnerships Division, Mail Code: 6202A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-343-9144; fax number: 202-343-2204; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
To join ENERGY STAR, organizations are asked to complete a Partnership Letter or Agreement that establishes their commitment to energy efficiency. Partners agree to undertake efforts such as measuring, tracking, and benchmarking their organization's energy performance by using tools such as those offered by ENERGY STAR; developing and implementing a plan to improve energy performance in their facilities and operations by adopting a strategy provided by ENERGY STAR; and educating staff and the public about their Partnership with ENERGY STAR, and highlighting achievements with the ENERGY STAR, where available. In addition, Partners and any other interested party can evaluate the efficiency of their buildings using EPA's online tools (
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), “Landfill Methane Outreach Program” (EPA ICR No. 1849.07 OMB Control No. 2060-0446) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Additional comments may be submitted on or before March 14, 2016.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0078, to (1) EPA online
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Swarupa Ganguli, Climate Change Division, Office of Atmospheric Programs, 6207A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 343-9732; fax number: (202) 343-2342; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before April 12, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
Office of the Secretary.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before April 12, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Frequency of Response: Recordkeeping requirement.
The amateur radio service governed by 47 CFR part 97 of the Commission's rules, provides spectrum for amateur radio service licensees to participate in a voluntary noncommercial communication service which provides emergency communications and allows experimentation with various radio techniques and technologies to further the understanding of radio use and the development of technologies.
The information collection is used to calculate the effective radiated power (ERP) that the station is transmitting to ensure that ERP does not exceed 100 W PEP.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
In this document, the Commission declares the international section 214 authorization granted to ACT Telecommunications, Inc. (ACT) terminated given ACT's inability to comply with the express condition for holding the authorization. We also conclude that ACT failed to comply with those requirements of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended (the Act) and the Commission's rules that ensure that the Commission can contact and communicate with the authorization holder, which failures have prevented any way of addressing ACT's inability to comply with the condition of its authorization.
January 14, 2016.
Cara Grayer, Telecommunications and Analysis Division, International Bureau, at (202) 418-2960 or
This is a summary of the Commission's Order, DA 16-53, adopted and released January 14, 2016. On October 27, 2009, the International Bureau granted ACT an international section 214 authorization to provide global or limited global facility-based service and global or limited global resale service in accordance with section 63.18(e)(1) and 63.18(e)(2) of the Commission's rules. The International Bureau granted the application on the express condition that ACT abide by the commitments and undertakings contained in its Letter of Assurance (LOA) to the Department of Justice (DOJ) and the Department of Homeland Security (DHS, and with DOJ, the Executive Branch Agencies) dated October 20, 2009. On May 9, 2014, the Executive Branch Agencies notified the Commission of ACT's non-compliance with the conditions of its authorization and requested that the Commission terminate, and declare null and void and no longer in effect, the international section 214 authorization issued to ACT. We determine that ACT's international section 214 authorization to provide international services issued under File No. ITC-214-20081201-00519 has terminated for ACT's inability to comply with the LOA, an express condition for holding the section 214 international authorization. The International Bureau has provided ACT with notice and opportunity to respond to the allegations in the May 9, 2014 Executive Branch Letter concerning ACT's non-compliance with the condition of the grant. ACT has not responded to any of our multiple requests or requests from the Executive Branch Agencies. We find that ACT's failure to respond to our multiple requests demonstrates that it is unable to satisfy the LOA conditions concerning its 2012 and 2013 certifications, maintaining a current designated point of contact (POC), and providing timely notice of a change in ACT's POC status, upon which the Executive Branch Agencies gave their non-objection to the grant of the authorization to ACT, and which is a condition of the grant of its section 214 authorization.
Furthermore, after having received an international 214 authorization, a carrier “is responsible for the continuing accuracy of the certifications made in its application” and must promptly correct information no longer accurate, “and, in any event, within thirty (30) days.” ACT has failed to inform the Commission of any changes in its business status of providing international telecommunications services, as required by the rules. Nor is there any record of ACT having complied with section 413 of the Communications Act and the Commission's rules requiring it to designate an agent for service after receiving its authorization on October 27, 2009. Finally, as part of its authorization, ACT “must file annual international telecommunications traffic and revenue as required by section 43.62.” Section 43.62(b) states that “[n]ot later than July 31 of each year, each person or entity that holds an authorization pursuant to section 214 to provide international telecommunications service shall report whether it provided international telecommunications services during the preceding calendar year.” Our records indicate that ACT failed to file an annual international telecommunications traffic and revenue report indicating whether or not ACT provided services in 2014, as required by section 43.62(b) of the Commission's rules. In these circumstances, and in light of ACT's failure to respond to the Commission's rules designed to ensure its ability to communicate with the holder of the authorization also warrants termination wholly apart from demonstrating ACT's inability to satisfy the LOA conditions of its authorization.
By this Order, we grant the Executive Branch agencies' request to the extent set forth in this Order. A copy of this Order will be sent by return receipt requested to ACT at its last known addresses.
Further requests should be sent to Cara Grayer, Attorney, Telecommunications and Analysis Division, International Bureau via email at
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission's Wireless Telecommunications Bureau (Bureau) updated a list of nationwide providers qualified to bid on reserved spectrum in Auction 1002.
Kate Matraves, Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, 202-391-6272, email
This is a summary of the Bureau's Public Notice, DA No. 16-115, AU Docket No. 14-252, released February 2, 2016. The full text of this document, including the associated attachment, is available for inspection and copying from 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. ET Monday through Thursday or from 8:00 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. ET on Fridays in the FCC Reference Information Center, Portals II, 445 12th Street SW., Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554. The complete text is also available on the Commission's Web site at
The
The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau is releasing the updated list as Attachment 1 to this Public Notice. These updates reflect recently approved transactions and certain corrections requested by Verizon Wireless and T-Mobile,
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than March 1, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago (Colette A. Fried, Assistant Vice President) 230 South LaSalle Street, Chicago, Illinois 60690-1414:
1.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of the draft guidance entitled “Characterization of Ultrahigh Molecular Weight Polyethylene (UHMWPE) Used in Orthopedic Devices”. The guidance identifies the types of UHMWPE currently in use in orthopedic implants, as well as the recommended information and testing that should be included in premarket submissions for such devices. This draft guidance is not final nor is it in effect at this time.
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment of this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by May 12, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
• Mail/Hand delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions): Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION”. The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Peter Allen, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave. Bldg. 66, Rm. 1512, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6402.
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry and FDA staff entitled “Characterization of Ultrahigh Molecular Weight Polyethylene (UHMWPE) Used in Orthopedic Devices”. FDA has developed this guidance document for members of industry who submit, and FDA staff who review, information regarding orthopedic devices using UHMWPE material. This guidance is intended to provide recommendations when finalized regarding the characterization and testing of orthopedic devices that use UHMWPE materials such as conventional UHMWPE, highly crosslinked UHMWPE, and highly crosslinked UHMWPE containing vitamin E. This document also outlines the information FDA recommends industry include in a submission to FDA to characterize the UHMWPE material (
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on UHMWPE used in orthopedic devices. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
The guidance document “Characterization of Ultrahigh Molecular Weight Polyethylene (UHMWPE) Used in Orthopedic Devices” refers to previously approved information collections found in FDA regulations and guidance. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E, are approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 812 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0078; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subparts B and E, are approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subpart H, are approved under OMB control number 0910-0332; and the collections of information in the guidance document entitled “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions: The Pre-Submission Program and Meetings with Food and Drug Administration Staff” are approved under OMB control number 0910-0756.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by April 12, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
• Mail/Hand delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions): Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION”. The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
In the
In the first year of implementing the program standards, the State program conducts a baseline self-assessment to determine if it meets the elements of each standard. The State program should use the worksheets and forms contained in the draft program standards; however, it can use alternate
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
The burden has been calculated as 750 hours per respondent. This burden was determined by capturing the average amount of time for each respondent to assess the current state of the program and work toward implementation of each of the 10 standards contained in MFRPS. The hours per respondent will change as accounted for in the continuing improvement and self-sufficiency of the program.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a collection of information entitled “Request for Samples and Protocols” has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
On September 24, 2015, the Agency submitted a proposed collection of information entitled “Request for Samples and Protocols” to OMB for review and clearance under 44 U.S.C. 3507. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has now approved the information collection and has assigned OMB control number 0910-0206. The approval expires on December 31, 2018. A copy of the supporting statement for this information collection is available on the Internet at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces a forthcoming meeting of a public advisory committee of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). The meeting will be open to the public.
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Cindy Hong at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a collection of information entitled “Labeling of Certain Beers Subject to the Labeling Jurisdiction of the Food and Drug Administration” has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
On December 9, 2015, the Agency submitted a proposed collection of information entitled “Labeling of Certain Beers Subject to the Labeling Jurisdiction of the Food and Drug Administration” to OMB for review and clearance under 44 U.S.C. 3507. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has now approved the information collection and has assigned OMB control number 0910-0728. The approval expires on January 31, 2019. A copy of the supporting statement for this information collection is available on the Internet at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The invention listed in this document is owned by an Agency of the U.S. Government and is available for licensing in accordance with Federal regulations to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of Federally funded research and development.
Technology description.
The subject technology may offer an alternative to therapeutic NA inhibitors
• Prophylactic and therapeutic against influenza virus infections;
• Diagnostic tests for influenza virus infections; and
• Reagent to measure the potency of H1N1 NA in influenza virus vaccines.
• Monoclonal antibody demonstrated to be effective against circulating H1N1 influenza viruses;
• Monoclonal antibody binds a novel, conserved epitope spanning NA dimers; and
• Monoclonal antibody is well-suited for an antibody cocktail that includes anti-HA antibodies.
The Food and Drug Administration is seeking statements of capability or interest from parties interested in collaborative research to further develop, evaluate, or commercialize this technology. Parties interested in licensing or collaborative research activities for this technology should contact William Ronnenberg (see
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a collection of information entitled “Registration of Producers of Drugs and Listing of Drugs in Commercial Distribution” has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
On July 8, 2015, the Agency submitted a proposed collection of information entitled “Registration of Producers of Drugs and Listing of Drugs in Commercial Distribution” to OMB for review and clearance under 44 U.S.C. 3507. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has now approved the information collection and has assigned OMB control number 0910-0045. The approval expires on December 31, 2018. A copy of the supporting statement for this information collection is available on the Internet at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public conference.
The Food and Drug Administration, in cosponsorship with the Pharmaceutical Users Software Exchange (PhUSE) is announcing a public conference entitled “The FDA/PhUSE Annual Computational Science Symposium.” The purpose of the conference is to help the broader community align and share experiences to advance computational science. At the conference, which will bring together FDA, industry, and academia, FDA will update participants on current initiatives, and collaborative project groups will address specific challenges in accessing and reviewing data to support product development. These project groups will focus on solutions and practical ways to implement them.
The meeting will be held on March 13, 2016, from 3 p.m. to 7 p.m., and March 14 to 15, 2016, from 9 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Silver Spring Civic Building at Veterans Plaza, One Veterans Pl., Silver Spring, MD 20910, 1-240-777-5300.
Chris Decker, PhUSE FDA Liaison Director, Pharmaceutical Users Software Exchange (PhUSE), Kent Innovation Centre, Broadstairs, Kent CT10 2QQ, United Kingdom; 1-609-514-5105 (US),
Since 2008, the Office of Computational Science (formerly the Computational Science Center) of FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) has supported CDER's scientific community by offering innovative solutions that improve the scientific drug review process by integrating data, tools, services, and training. Since the first Computational Science Symposium four years ago, FDA has played an important part in the development and ongoing support of the conference and the associated PhUSE Computational Science Working Groups. The PhUSE Collaboration was formed to bring together experts from industry, FDA and other regulatory agencies, academia, and
All registrants (with the exception of a limited number of speakers and/or organizers who will have a complimentary registration) will pay a fee for this meeting to help defray the costs of facilities, materials, and food. Seats are limited, and registration will be on a first-come, first-served basis.
To register, please complete the registration form online at (
Government and nonprofit attendees and exhibitors will need an invitation code to register at the discounted rate. An invitation code can be obtained by sending an email to:
Attendees are responsible for their own hotel accommodations. Attendees making reservations at the DoubleTree by Hilton Silver Spring Hotel are eligible for a reduced rate of $189 not including applicable taxes. Those making reservations online should use the following link to receive the reduced rate:
If you need special accommodations because of disability, please contact Chris Decker (see
We expect that transcripts will be available approximately 30 days after the meeting. A transcript can be obtained either in hard copy or on CD-ROM, after submission of a Freedom of Information request. Send written requests to the Division of Freedom of Information (ELEM-1029), Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Dr., Element Bldg., Rockville, MD 20857. Send faxed requests to 301-827-9267.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a collection of information entitled “Guidance for Industry on Formal Meetings With Sponsors and Applicants for Prescription Drug User Fee Act Products” has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
On October 21, 2015, the Agency submitted a proposed collection of information entitled “Guidance for Industry on Formal Meetings With Sponsors and Applicants for Prescription Drug User Fee Act Products” to OMB for review and clearance under 44 U.S.C. 3507. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has now approved the information collection and has assigned OMB control number 0910-0429. The approval expires on December 31, 2018. A copy of the supporting statement for this information collection is available on the Internet at
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C.,
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of availability.
The Coast Guard announces the availability, in the docket, of a policy letter which provides voluntary guidance for the training of deck officers on vessels operating in polar waters. It recommends training measures that will achieve a higher level of safety for mariners working in this specialized polar environment. It is applicable to SOLAS vessels operating outside the boundary line and subject to the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code). The draft policy letter and voluntary guidance would not apply to vessels on voyages that do not operate in areas subject to the Polar Code.
This policy letter is effective on February 12, 2016.
If you have questions about this document, contact Cathleen Mauro, Marine Personnel Qualifications Division (CG-OES-1), U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 202-372-1449, or
The policy letter is available in the docket and can be viewed by going to
Current shipping trends show an increase in the number of vessels regularly transiting remote polar areas. Vessels in polar waters experience unpredictable and poor weather conditions, degraded navigation tools, threats to operating equipment and increased stability concerns. In response to the challenges faced by these vessels and the concern for their safe operation, the International Maritime Organization (IMO) has adopted a mandatory code, the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, commonly referred to as the Polar Code. The Polar Code addresses safety and environmental requirements for vessels, as well as the level of training required for deck officers, and is expected to come into force on January 1, 2017.
In order to obtain input from U.S. stakeholders and to facilitate the development of the U.S. position at the IMO on the training requirements needed to support the Polar Code, the Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee (MERPAC) chartered a working group in 2013 to address mariner training in support of the polar code. The working group developed a proposal that included the training competencies for U.S. mariners serving on ships operating in polar waters. The working group held multiple meetings and provided recommendations on minimum standards of competence, sea service, and recency requirements for polar training at the basic and advanced levels. The group also developed recommendations on how existing mariners with experience operating in polar waters would be grandfathered under the new requirements. MERPAC adopted the working group's recommendations, which provided the basis of the U.S. position regarding the relevant amendments to the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW Convention), 1978, as amended, and the Seafarers' Training, Certification and Watchkeeping Code (STCW Code). The STCW Convention and Code provide the international standards for seafarers.
Through the work of the IMO's Sub-committee on Human Element, Training and Watchkeeping (HTW), amendments to the STCW Convention and Code were developed to define the training requirements needed to support the implementation of the Polar Code. These amendments were approved by the Maritime Safety Committee on its Ninety Fifth Session (MSC 95), and are expected to be adopted by the IMO in July of 2016. The amendments are expected to enter into force on January 1, 2018.
Cognizant that there is a gap between the time the Polar Code enters into force on January 1, 2017 and the adoption of the amendments to the STCW Convention by IMO in July of 2016, the Coast Guard has developed a policy letter that recommends training guidelines for deck officers on vessels operating in polar waters. The Coast Guard is providing this guidance to
Recognizing that the operation of ships sailing in polar waters calls for specific education, training, experience and related qualifications for officers, Resolution 11 of the 2010 amendments to the STCW Convention included non-mandatory guidance on training for deck and engineer officers serving on ships operating in polar waters. The guidance is contained in Section B-V/g of the STCW Code. The training requirements of the Polar Code, however, go beyond what is addressed in Section B-V/g of the STCW Code, by utilizing a risk-assessment to addresses the applicability of different levels of training required for deck officers engaged on ships operating in polar waters. Chapter 12 of The Polar Code identifies the level of training required for deck officers on ships subject to the Polar Code taking into account the type of vessel and the ice conditions in the operating area. The levels of training are either Basic or Advanced Training for Ships Operating in Polar Waters. The interim guidance in this policy is based upon the amendments to the STCW Convention and Code supporting the mandatory training requirements in Chapter 12 of the Polar Code.
The requirements to meet the standards of competence for Basic or Advanced Training for Ships Operating in Polar Waters are defined in the STCW amendments supporting the Polar Code. A mariner may satisfy the standard of competence for Basic or Advanced Training in Polar Code Operations by meeting the respective sea service and training requirements prescribed in Enclosure (1) of the Policy Letter.
By meeting the basic or advanced training standard required by the Polar Code, mariners are also meeting the familiarization requirements of 46 CFR 15.405, which states that each credentialed mariner must be familiar with the relevant characteristics of the vessel appropriate to his or her duties and responsibilities prior to assuming those duties and responsibilities. On board a seagoing vessel, this responsibility rests with both the mariner and the employer as set forth in 46 CFR 15.1105, which requires mariners subject to STCW to complete familiarization training before performing any duty or being assigned any responsibility unless they are familiar with those duties and responsibilities and with all of the vessel's arrangements, installations, equipment, procedures, and characteristics relevant to his or her routine and emergency duties or responsibilities.
If training regulations are published, training completed to meet the requirements described in the policy letter may be evaluated on a case by case basis, and considered to meet part of the transitional provisions of the training requirements for Basic or Advanced Polar Waters Operations.
The guidance provided in this policy letter is voluntary, except where existing regulatory requirements are discussed. Although it may assist the industry, public, Coast Guard, and other Federal and State regulators in applying existing statutory and regulatory requirements, the policy letter and guidance it contains are not a substitute for applicable legal requirements nor are they regulations themselves. We note the ongoing work of the IMO in this area, in particular regarding training of personnel engaged in polar waters. Developments within this body will be taken into account during possible future revisions of the draft policy letter. During the course of local operations, each Coast Guard Captain of the Port (COTP) has discretionary authority on how best to address specific safety and security concerns within his or her area of responsibility consistent with 33 CFR 1.01-30. Nothing in the policy letter or the guidance it contains is meant to override or limit the discretion of the COTP when addressing the unique safety concerns of vessels operating in polar waters.
This notice is issued under authority of 5 U.S.C. 552(a).
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of AmSpec Services, LLC, as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that AmSpec Services, LLC, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of August 12, 2015.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec Services, LLC, 100-B Redoubt Rd., Yorktown, VA 23692, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. AmSpec Services, LLC is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
AmSpec Services, LLC is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM): Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Inspectorate America Corporation as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Inspectorate America Corporation has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of July 22, 2015.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Inspectorate America Corporation, 2947 Dutton Mill Rd., Suite A-1, Aston, PA 19014, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Inspectorate America Corporation is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Inspectorate America Corporation is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of AmSpec Services, LLC, as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that AmSpec Services, LLC, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of July 29, 2015.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec Services, LLC, 1300 North Delaware St., Paulsboro, NJ 08066, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. AmSpec Services, LLC is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of Saybolt LP as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that Saybolt LP has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of June 3, 2015.
Approved Gauger and Accredited Laboratories Manager, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Saybolt LP, 201 Deerwood Glen Dr., Deer Park TX 77536, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Saybolt LP is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
Saybolt LP is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before May 12, 2016.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1557, to Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
FEMA gives notice that the statewide per capita indicator for recommending cost share adjustments for major disasters declared on or after January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, is $137.
This notice applies to major disasters declared on or after January 1, 2016.
William Roche, Recovery Directorate, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-3834.
Pursuant to 44 CFR 206.47, the statewide per capita indicator that is used to recommend an increase of the Federal cost share from seventy-five percent (75%) to not more than ninety percent (90%) of the eligible cost of permanent work under section 406 and emergency work under section 403 and section 407 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act is adjusted annually. The adjustment to the indicator is based on the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published annually by the U.S. Department of Labor. For disasters declared on January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the qualifying indicator is $137 per capita of state population.
This adjustment is based on an increase of 0.7 percent in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for the 12-month period that ended December 2015. The Bureau of Labor
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final notice.
New or modified Base (1-percent annual chance) Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, and/or regulatory floodways (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations) as shown on the indicated Letter of Map Revision (LOMR) for each of the communities listed in the table below are finalized. Each LOMR revises the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and in some cases the Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, currently in effect for the listed communities. The flood hazard determinations modified by each LOMR will be used to calculate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and their contents.
The effective date for each LOMR is indicated in the table below.
Each LOMR is available for inspection at both the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the table below and online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) makes the final flood hazard determinations as shown in the LOMRs for each community listed in the table below. Notice of these modified flood hazard determinations has been published in newspapers of local circulation and 90 days have elapsed since that publication. The Deputy Associate Administrator for Mitigation has resolved any appeals resulting from this notification.
The modified flood hazard determinations are made pursuant to section 206 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
The new or modified flood hazard information is the basis for the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of being already in effect in order to remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
This new or modified flood hazard information, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities.
This new or modified flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings, and for the contents in those buildings. The changes in flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.
Interested lessees and owners of real property are encouraged to review the final flood hazard information available at the address cited below for each community or online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before May 12, 2016.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1551, to Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472 (202) 646-4064, or (email)
Luis Rodriguez, Chief, Engineering Management Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4064, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Watershed-based studies:
II. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas (FEMA-4245-DR), dated November 25, 2015, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas is hereby amended to include the following area among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of November 25, 2015.
National Protection and Programs Directorate, DHS.
30-day notice and request for comments; New Information Collection Request: 1670-NEW.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), National Protection and Programs Directorate (NPPD), Office of Infrastructure Protection (IP), Infrastructure Information Collection Division (IICD), Infrastructure Protection Gateway Program will submit the following Information Collection Request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until March 14, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and questions about this Information Collection Request should be forwarded to DHS/NPPD/IP/IICD, 245 Murray Lane SW., Mail Stop 0602, Washington, DC
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• Email: Include the docket number in the subject line of the message.
OMB is particularly interested in comments that:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Kimberly Sass, DHS/NPPD/IP/IICD, or
Originally under the direction of Homeland Security Presidential Directive-7 (HSPD-7) (2003) and now under the authority of Presidential Policy Directive 21 (PPD-21) (2013), DHS/NPPD/IP has developed the IP Gateway—a centrally managed repository of infrastructure capabilities allowing the Critical Infrastructure (CI) community to work in conjunction with each other toward the same goals. This collection involves the standardized recording, via a series of web-based forms, of a significant amount of information assembled during voluntary physical facility review surveys. The survey is used to analyze risks and vulnerabilities to a facility and how they can mitigate risks and vulnerabilities. Questions focus on whether specific sets of controls and operational best practices are planned, defined, implemented, measured, managed, and assessed on a regular basis across all aspects of facility use and operation. Surveys are usually completed by government personnel, but can be performed by individual site owners as well.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until March 14, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Acting Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until March 14, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until March 14, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Acting Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This notice provides additional clarifying guidance for all Community Development Block Grant Disaster Recovery (CDBG-DR) grantees in receipt of funds under the Disaster Relief Appropriations Act, 2013 (the Appropriations Act), with regard to the submission of requests for an extension of the 2-year expenditure deadline established for funds provided under the Appropriations Act and the continued use of the alternative urgent need national objective. This notice also provides an alternative requirement for New York State as a grantee in receipt of CDBG-DR funds under the Appropriations Act. This alternative requirement addresses the period of time in which interim mortgage assistance may be provided to beneficiaries in the State's housing recovery programs.
Effective Date:
Stanley Gimont, Director, Office of Block Grant Assistance, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 7286, Washington, DC 20410, telephone number 202-708-3587. Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339. Facsimile inquiries may be sent to Mr. Gimont at 202-401-2044. (Except for the “800” number, these telephone numbers are not toll-free.) Email inquiries may be sent to
The Appropriations Act (Pub. L. 113-2, approved January 29, 2013) made available $16 billion in CDBG-DR funds for necessary expenses related to disaster relief, long-term recovery, restoration of infrastructure and housing, and economic revitalization in the most impacted and distressed areas, resulting from a major disaster declared pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5121
This notice applies to all CDBG-DR grantees in receipt of allocations under the Appropriations Act, which are described within the
The Appropriations Act authorizes the Secretary to waive, or specify alternative requirements for, any provision of any statute or regulation that the Secretary administers in connection with HUD's obligation, or use by the recipient, of these funds (except for requirements related to fair housing, nondiscrimination, labor standards, and the environment). Waivers and alternative requirements are based upon a determination by the Secretary that good cause exists and that the waiver or alternative requirement is not inconsistent with the overall purposes of title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5301
For the waivers and alternative requirements described in this notice, the Secretary has determined that good cause exists and that the waiver and alternative requirements are not inconsistent with the overall purpose of the HCD Act. Grantees may request waivers and alternative requirements from the Department as needed to address specific needs related to their recovery activities. Under the requirements of the Appropriations Act, waivers must be published in the
1.
2.
To accommodate the timely expenditure of funds, HUD is modifying the temporary, streamlined urgent need waiver and alternative requirement in paragraph VI.A.1.f. of the March 5, 2013, notice (78 FR 14336). This waiver and alternative requirement supersedes the information published in the May 11, 2015, notice and will allow grantees to more effectively implement urgent recovery activities by aligning the applicable urgent need national objective criteria with the expenditure deadline on the use of funds. The March 5, 2013, notice is modified to add the following alternative requirement for grantees that receive an extension of the expenditure deadline: For activities designed to respond to a disaster-related impact that poses a serious and immediate threat to the health or welfare of the community, the grantee may continue to use the urgent need national objective until the end of the new expenditure deadline if the grantee meets the following requirements from the March 5, 2013, notice: (1) Before seeking the expenditure deadline extension, the grantee must reference in its Action Plan the type, scale, and location of the disaster-related impacts addressed by each program and/or activity that will meet the urgent need national objective; (2) before seeking the expenditure deadline extension, the grantee must identify these disaster related impacts in its Action Plan needs assessment; (3) the needs assessment must be updated as new or more detailed/accurate disaster-related impacts are known; and (4) the grantee must document how all programs and/or activities funded under the urgent need national objective respond to a disaster-related impact identified by the grantee.
3.
Under the State's existing Interim Mortgage Assistance (IMA) program, financial assistance is available to eligible applicants to the NY Rising Housing Recovery Program who demonstrate financial difficulty in paying their mortgage due to additional housing expenses incurred as a result of their primary residence no longer being habitable. Interim mortgage assistance may be provided for past, current, and future debt obligations of the mortgage, capped at $3,000 per month for a maximum of 20 months or $60,000.
On November 15, 2013, the Department approved Amendment 4 to the State's disaster recovery Action Plan to allocate $80,000,000 to the initial State IMA program. On May 27, 2014, the Department approved Amendment 6 to the State's disaster recovery Action Plan to modify the calculation of the IMA grant award based on a participant's monthly mortgage amount for their primary residence and proof of an additional housing payment. On April 13, 2014, the Department approved Amendment 8 to the State's disaster recovery Action Plan to enable the State to calculate partial IMA grant awards that reflect rental housing expenses incurred by participants while displaced, less any rental assistance received from insurance or government agencies.
At the time the State submitted a request for a modification of the alternative requirement, 454 program participants were receiving IMA assistance and approximately 25 percent of those participants were low- and moderate-income households. In its request for a modification of the alternative requirement, the State indicated that in the absence of additional time to provide assistance, 287 IMA recipients would no longer qualify for IMA funds within the succeeding 12 months and that 26 percent of those recipients were low- and moderate-income households. In its
The State proposed to implement the extended period for IMA by initially maintaining the current 20 months of assistance for IMA participants. At the end of the 20-month period of assistance, the State may subsequently determine a need for an additional 16 months of IMA, for a total not to exceed 36 months of assistance. When a need for an extension of IMA is identified, the State will conduct an inspection of the property to determine if substantial construction progress has been made. If substantial construction progress has been made, the State may provide IMA for the additional authorized period of time, for a total period of assistance up to 36 months. If the inspection indicates that substantial progress has not been made, the extension of IMA will be provided only when the recipient agrees to participate in the newly established construction program within the NY Rising Housing Recovery Program. Under the construction program, the State will contract for and manage, on behalf of the IMA recipient, the rehabilitation of the IMA recipient's home. Prior to its initial implementation of the construction program, the State will determine the need for the IMA extension in those instances where substantial construction progress has not occurred and will give priority to the rehabilitation of homes for those IMA recipients receiving a total up to 36 months of IMA.
After reviewing the State's request, and for the State of New York's IMA program only, the Department is modifying the provision of the March 5, 2013,
Within 30 days of the effective date of this notice, the State must begin to implement its construction program for IMA recipients receiving an extended period of assistance and without substantial construction progress in the rehabilitation of their home. The State must have fully implemented the construction program for all IMA recipients within 6 months of the effective date of this notice. In addition, the State's policies and procedures must:
(1) Document how the State will determine that “substantial progress” has or has not been made in the rehabilitation of an IMA recipient's home;
(2) Document how the State will determine that the amount and period of assistance to be provided under this alternative requirement is necessary and reasonable;
(3) Document how the State will prioritize the rehabilitation of homes of IMA recipients receiving a total up to 36 months of IMA;
(4) Include internal controls designed to ensure that IMA provided to recipients is being used for its authorized purpose; and
(5) Include a plan for assisting recipients that exhaust their IMA after 36 months but continue to have a need for assistance because the rehabilitation of their home has not been completed.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number for the disaster recovery grants under this notice is 14.269.
A Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) with respect to the environment has been made in accordance with HUD regulations at 24 CFR part 50, which implement section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)). The FONSI is available for public inspection between 8 a.m. and 5 p.m. weekdays in the Regulations Division, Office of General Counsel, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0500. Due to security measures at the HUD Headquarters building, an advance appointment to review the docket file must be scheduled by calling the Regulations Division at 202-708-3055 (this is not a toll-free number). Hearing- or speech-impaired individuals may access this number through TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339 (this is a toll-free number).
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
This notice announces changes in the interest rates to be paid on debentures issued with respect to a loan or mortgage insured by the Federal Housing Administration under the provisions of the National Housing Act (the Act). The interest rate for debentures issued under section 221(g)(4) of the Act during the 6-month period beginning January 1, 2016, is 2
Yong Sun, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 5148, Washington, DC 20410-8000; telephone (202) 402-4778 (this is not a toll-free number). Individuals with speech or hearing impairments may access this number through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339.
Section 224 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1715o) provides that debentures issued under the Act with respect to an insured loan or mortgage (except for debentures issued pursuant to section 221(g)(4) of the Act) will bear interest at the rate in effect on the date the commitment to insure the loan or mortgage was issued, or the date the loan or mortgage was endorsed (or initially endorsed if there are two or more endorsements) for insurance, whichever rate is higher. This provision is implemented in HUD's regulations at 24 CFR 203.405, 203.479, 207.259(e)(6), and 220.830. These regulatory provisions state that the applicable rates of interest will be published twice each year as a notice in the
Section 224 further provides that the interest rate on these debentures will be set from time to time by the Secretary of HUD, with the approval of the Secretary of the Treasury, in an amount not in excess of the annual interest rate determined by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to a statutory formula based on the average yield of all outstanding marketable Treasury obligations of maturities of 15 or more years.
The Secretary of the Treasury (1) has determined, in accordance with the provisions of section 224, that the statutory maximum interest rate for the period beginning January 1, 2016, is 2
For convenience of reference, HUD is publishing the following chart of debenture interest rates applicable to mortgages committed or endorsed since January 1, 1980:
Section 215 of Division G, Title II of Public Law 108-199, enacted January 23, 2004 (HUD's 2004 Appropriations Act) amended section 224 of the Act, to change the debenture interest rate for purposes of calculating certain insurance claim payments made in cash. Therefore, for all claims paid in cash on mortgages insured under section 203 or 234 of the National Housing Act and endorsed for insurance after January 23, 2004, the debenture interest rate will be the monthly average yield, for the month in which the default on the mortgage occurred, on United States Treasury Securities adjusted to a constant maturity of 10 years, as found in Federal Reserve Statistical Release H-15. The Federal Housing Administration has codified this provision in HUD regulations at 24 CFR 203.405(b) and 24 CFR 203.479(b).
Section 221(g)(4) of the Act provides that debentures issued pursuant to that paragraph (with respect to the assignment of an insured mortgage to the Secretary) will bear interest at the “going Federal rate” in effect at the time the debentures are issued. The term “going Federal rate” is defined to mean the interest rate that the Secretary of the Treasury determines, pursuant to a statutory formula based on the average yield on all outstanding marketable Treasury obligations of 8- to 12-year maturities, for the 6-month periods of January through June and July through December of each year. Section 221(g)(4) is implemented in the HUD regulations at 24 CFR 221.255 and 24 CFR 221.790.
The Secretary of the Treasury has determined that the interest rate to be borne by debentures issued pursuant to section 221(g)(4) during the 6-month period beginning January 1, 2016, is 2
The subject matter of this notice falls within the categorical exemption from HUD's environmental clearance procedures set forth in 24 CFR 50.19(c)(6). For that reason, no environmental finding has been prepared for this notice.
Sections 211, 221, 224, National Housing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1715b, 1715l, 1715o; Section 7(d), Department of HUD Act, 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of initiation of reviews; request for information.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), are initiating 5-year status reviews for 76 species in Hawaii, Oregon, Washington, Montana, and Idaho under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act). A 5-year status review is based on the best scientific and commercial data available at the time of the review; therefore, we are requesting submission of any new information on these species that has become available since the last review.
To ensure consideration in our reviews, we are requesting submission of new information no later than April 12, 2016. However, we will continue to accept new information about any listed species at any time.
For the 67 species in Hawaii (see table below), submit information via U.S. mail to: Deputy Field Supervisor—Programmatic; Attention: 5-Year Review; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office; 300 Ala Moana Blvd., Room 3-122, Box 50088; Honolulu, HI 96850.
For the Warner sucker, Willamette daisy, Kincaid's lupine, and rough popcornflower, submit information via U.S. mail to: Field Supervisor; Attention: 5-Year Review; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; Oregon Fish and Wildlife Office; 2600 SE 98th Ave., Suite 100; Portland, OR 97266.
For the northern Idaho ground squirrel, Bruneau Hot springsnail, Bliss Rapids, snail, Banbury Springs limpet, and Spaldings catchfly, submit information via U.S. mail to: Field Supervisor; Attention: 5-Year Review; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; Idaho Fish and Wildlife Office; 1387 S. Vinnell Way, Suite 368; Boise, ID 83709.
Gregory Koob, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office (see
Under the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
A 5-year review considers all new information available at the time of the review. In conducting these reviews, we consider the best scientific and commercial data that has become available since the listing determination or most recent status review, such as:
(A) Species biology, including but not limited to population trends, distribution, abundance, demographics, and genetics;
(B) Habitat conditions, including but not limited to amount, distribution, and suitability;
(C) Conservation measures that have been implemented that benefit the species;
(D) Threat status and trends in relation to the five listing factors (as defined in section 4(a)(1) of the Act); and
(E) Other new information, data, or corrections, including but not limited to taxonomic or nomenclatural changes, identification of erroneous information contained in the List, and improved analytical methods.
Any new information will be considered during the 5-year review and will also be useful in evaluating the ongoing recovery programs for these species.
This notice announces our active review of the 76 species listed in the table below.
To ensure that a 5-year review is complete and based on the best available scientific and commercial information, we request new information from all sources. See “What Information Do We Consider in Our Review?” for specific criteria. If you submit information, please support it with documentation such as maps, bibliographic references, methods used to gather and analyze the data, and/or copies of any pertinent publications, reports, or letters by knowledgeable sources.
If you wish to provide information for any species listed above, please submit your comments and materials to the appropriate contact in the Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office, Oregon Fish and Wildlife Office, or Idaho Fish and Wildlife Office (see
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Comments and materials received will be available for public inspection, by appointment, during normal business hours at the offices where the comments are submitted.
A list of all completed and currently active 5-year reviews addressing species for which the Pacific Region of the Service has lead responsibility is available at
This document is published under the authority of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of issuance of permits.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, have issued the following permits to conduct certain activities with endangered and threatened species under the authority of the Endangered Species Act, as amended (Act). With some exceptions, the Act prohibits activities with listed species unless a Federal permit is issued that allows such activity. We provide this list for the convenience of the public as a summary of our permit issuances for the calendar year 2015.
See the contact information in the Permits Issued section.
We have issued the following permits to conduct activities with endangered and threatened species in response to recovery permit applications that we received under the authority of section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 1. For more information about any the following
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 2. For more information about any the following permits, contact the Recovery Permit Coordinator, by email at
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 3. For more information about any the following permits, contact the Recovery Permit Coordinator, by email at
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 4. For more information about any of the following permits, contact the Recovery Permit Coordinator, by email at
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 5. For more information about any the following permits, contact the Recovery Permit Coordinator, by email at
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 6. For more information about any the following permits, contact the Recovery Permit Coordinator, by email at
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 7. For more information about any the following permits, contact the Recovery Permit Coordinator, by email at
The following permits were applied for and issued in Region 8. For more information about any the following permits, contact the Recovery Permit Coordinator, by email at
Documents and other information submitted with these applications are available for review subject to the requirements of the Privacy Act and Freedom of Information Act, by any party who submits a written request for a copy of such documents.
We provide this notice under the authority of section 10 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
U.S. Geological Survey (USGS), Interior.
Notice of a revision of a currently approved information collection (1028-0106).
We (the U.S. Geological Survey) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, and as part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on this IC. This collection is scheduled to expire on May 31, 2016.
To ensure that your comments are considered, we must receive them on or before April 12, 2016.
You may submit comments on this information collection to the Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Geological Survey, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, MS 807, Reston, VA 20192 (mail); (703) 648-7197 (fax); or
Kristi Wallace, U.S. Geological Survey, Alaska Volcano Observatory, 4210 University Drive, Anchorage, Alaska 99508, email:
The USGS provides notifications and warnings to the public of volcanic activity in the US in order to reduce the loss of life, property, and economic and societal impacts. Ash fallout to the ground can pose significant disruption and damage to buildings, transportation, water and wastewater, power supply, communications equipment, agriculture, and primary production leading to potentially substantial societal impacts and costs, even at thicknesses of only a few millimeters or inches. Additionally, fine grainedash, when ingested can cause health impacts to humans and animals. USGS will use reports entered in real time by respondents of ash fall in their local area to correct or refine ash fall forecasts as the ash cloud moves downwind. Retrospectively these reports will enable USGS to improve their ash fall models and further research into eruptive processes. This project is a database module and web interface allowing the public and Alaska Volcano Observatory (AVO) staff to enter reports of ash fall in their local area in real time and retrospectively following an eruptive event. Users browsing the AVO Web site during eruptions will be directed towards a web form allowing them to fill in ash fall information and submit the information to AVO.
Compiled ashfall reports are available in real-time to AVO staff through the AVO internal Web site. A pre-formatted summary report or table that distills information received online will show ash fall reports in chronological order with key fields including (1) date and time of ash fall, (2) location, (3) positive or negative ash fall (4) name of observer, and (5) contact information is easily viewable internally on the report so that calls for clarification can be made by AVO staff quickly and Operations room staff can visualize ashfall information quickly.
Ash fall report data will also be displayed on a dynamic map interface and show positive (yes ash) and
The ash fall report database will help AVO track eruption clouds and associated fallout downwind. These reports from the public will also give scientists a more complete record of the amount and duration and other conditions of ash fall. Getting first-hand accounts of ash fall will support model ash fall development and interpretation of satellite imagery. AVO scientists will—as time allows—be able to contact the individuals using their entered contact information for clarification and details. Knowing the locations from which ash-fall reports have been filed will improve ash fall warning messages, AVO Volcanic Activity Notifications, and make fieldwork more efficient. AVO staff will be able to condense and summarize the various ash fall reports and forward that information on to emergency management agencies and the wider public. The online form will also free up resources during exceedingly busy times during an eruption, as most individuals currently phone AVO with their reports.
We are soliciting comments as to: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the agency to perform its duties, including whether the information is useful; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) how to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) how to minimize the burden on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Please note that the comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this IC. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask OMB in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that it will be done.
U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the Secretary of the Interior has renewed the National Geospatial Advisory Committee (Committee), in accordance with Section 14(b) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act.
John Mahoney, U.S. Geological Survey, phone: 206-220-4621, email:
The Committee provides advice and recommendations to the Federal Geographic Data Committee (FGDC), through the FGDC Chair (the Secretary of the Interior or designee), related to management of Federal geospatial programs, the development of the National Spatial Data Infrastructure, and the implementation of Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-16 and Executive Order 12906. The Committee will review and comment upon geospatial policy and management issues and will provide a forum to convey views representative of non-Federal partners in the geospatial community. The Committee will conduct its operations in accordance with the provisions of the FACA.
I hereby certify that the National Geospatial Advisory Committee is in the public interest in connection with the performance of duties imposed on the Department of the Interior by Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-16 (Revised), “
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
This notice announces the extension of the Class III gaming compact between the Crow Creek Sioux Tribe and the State of South Dakota.
Effective February 12, 2016.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 219-4066.
An extension to an existing tribal-state Class III gaming compact does not require approval by the Secretary if the extension does not modify any other terms of the compact. See Pursuant to 25 CFR 293.5. The Crow Creek Sioux
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has determined to review an initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 17) by the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) finding Viraj Profiles Limited (“Viraj”) in default for spoliation of evidence and ordering the disgorgement of complainants' operating practices in Viraj's possession. On review, the Commission has determined to affirm the default finding as to Viraj. The Commission requests certain briefing from the parties on the remaining issues under review, as indicated in this notice. The Commission also requests briefing from the parties and interested persons on the issues of remedy, the public interest, and bonding.
Lucy Grace D. Noyola, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone 202-205-3438. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
The Commission instituted this investigation on October 10, 2014, based on a complaint filed by Valbruna Slater Stainless, Inc. of Fort Wayne, Indiana; Valbruna Stainless Inc., of Fort Wayne, Indiana; and Acciaierie Valbruna S.p.A. of Italy (collectively, “Valbruna”). 79 FR 61339 (Oct. 10, 2014). The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain stainless steel products, certain processes for manufacturing or relating to same, and certain products containing same by reason of the misappropriation of trade secrets, the threat or effect of which is to destroy or substantially injure an industry in the United States.
On September 8, 2015, Valbruna filed a motion for default and other relief for Viraj's failure to make and cooperate in discovery, intentional concealment and failure to preserve dispositive evidence, and misrepresentations to Valbruna and the Commission. On September 17, 2015, OUII filed a response in support of Valbruna's motion. On September 18, 2015, Viraj filed a response opposing the motion.
On December 8, 2015, the ALJ issued the subject ID (Order No. 17), granting in part Valbruna's motion for default and other relief. The ALJ found that Viraj acted in bad faith in spoliating evidence and that a sanction of default against Viraj was warranted. The ALJ also ordered Viraj to disgorge any Valbruna operating practices in its possession. The ALJ denied Valbruna's request to assert certain operating practices that the ALJ had previously excluded.
On December 16, 2015, Viraj filed a petition for review. Ta Chen also filed a petition for review, arguing that it is entitled to an evidentiary hearing. On December 23, 2015, Valbruna and OUII each filed responses to both petitions. Valbruna's response included a request for immediate entry of relief against Viraj.
Having examined the record of this investigation, including the ID, the petitions for review, and the responses thereto, the Commission has determined to review the ID. Specifically, the Commission has determined to review the ID's finding of default for spoliation of evidence as to Viraj and the ID's order that Viraj disgorge any Valbruna operating practices in its possession. On review, the Commission affirms the default finding, with supplemental reasoning described in a forthcoming opinion. The Commission clarifies that the default finding against Viraj does not preclude the remaining respondents from participating in an evidentiary hearing and contesting the allegations at issue in the investigation. The Commission expects the stay of the procedural schedule to be lifted.
In connection with its review, the Commission requests responses to the following questions only. The parties are requested to brief their positions with reference to the applicable law and the existing evidentiary record.
1. Please provide an analysis of the Commission's authority to (1) order Viraj to disgorge any Valbruna operating practices in its possession as a sanction for spoliation of evidence and (2) enforce such an order. Discuss the Commission's jurisdiction to order disgorgement by a foreign entity.
2. Please discuss whether the circumstances here provide the grounds for the issuance of immediate entry of relief against Viraj under Commission Rule 210.16(c).
In connection with the final disposition of Order No. 17, the Commission may determine that immediate relief against Viraj is warranted. If so, the Commission may (1) issue an order that could result in the exclusion of the subject articles from entry into the United States, and/or (2) issue a cease and desist order that could result in Viraj being required to cease and desist from engaging in unfair acts in the importation and sale of such articles. Accordingly, the Commission is interested in receiving written submissions that address the form of remedy, if any, that should be ordered.
If the Commission contemplates some form of remedy, it must consider the effects of that remedy upon the public interest. The factors the Commission will consider include the effect that an exclusion order and/or cease and desist orders would have on (1) the public health and welfare, (2) competitive conditions in the U.S. economy, (3) U.S. production of articles that are like or directly competitive with those that are subject to investigation, and (4) U.S. consumers. The Commission is therefore interested in receiving written submissions that address the aforementioned public interest factors in the context of this investigation.
If the Commission orders some form of remedy, the U.S. Trade Representative, as delegated by the President, has 60 days to approve or disapprove the Commission's action.
Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary at (202) 205-2000. Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of the final phase of antidumping and countervailing duty investigation Nos. 701-TA-534-538 and 731-TA-1274-1278 (Final) pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury, or the establishment of an industry in the United States is materially retarded, by reason of imports of certain corrosion-resistant steel products from China, India, Italy, Korea, and Taiwan,
Mary Messer (202) 205-3193), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting
Although the Department of Commerce has preliminarily determined that imports of certain corrosion-resistant steel products from Taiwan are not being and are not likely to be subsidized and sold in the United States at less than fair value, for purposes of efficiency the Commission hereby waives rule 207.21(b)
For further information concerning the conduct of this phase of the investigations, hearing procedures, and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and C (19 CFR part 207).
Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all
These investigations are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.21 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
February 19, 2016 at 9:30 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436,Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1. Agendas for future meetings: None.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-551-553 and 731-TA-1307-1308 (Preliminary)(Certain New Pneumatic Off-the-Road Tires from China, India, and Sri Lanka). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations on February 22, 2016; views of the Commission are currently scheduled to be completed and filed on February 29, 2016.
5. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-469 and 731-TA-1168 (Review)(Seamless Carbon and Alloy Steel Standard, Line, and Pressure Pipe from China). The Commission is currently scheduled to completed and file its determinations and views of the Commission on February 29, 2016.
6. Outstanding action jackets: None.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Effective Date: 5/8/2016.
Fred Ruggles (202-205-3187), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
Effective January 6, 2016, the Commission established a schedule for the conduct of the final phase of the subject reviews (81 FR 1642, January 13, 2016). The Commission is revising its schedule.
The Commission's new schedule for the reviews are is as follows: The prehearing staff report will be placed in the nonpublic record on May 2, 2016; the deadline for filing prehearing briefs is May 10, 2016; requests to appear at the hearing must be filed with the Secretary to the Commission not later than May 11, 2016; the prehearing conference will be held at the U.S. International Trade Commission Building on May 16, 2016, if deemed necessary; the hearing will be held at the U.S. International Trade Commission Building at 9:30 a.m. on May 18, 2016; the deadline for filing posthearing briefs is May 27, 2016; the Commission will make its final release of information on June 27, 2016; and final party comments are due on June 29, 2016.
For further information concerning these reviews see the Commission's notice cited above and the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A through E (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).
These reviews are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
Notice of application.
Registered bulk manufacturers of the affected basic classes, and applicants therefore, may file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a) on or before April 12, 2016.
Written comments should be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attention: DEA Federal Register Representative/ODXL, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152.
The Attorney General has delegated her authority under the Controlled Substances Act to the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), 28 CFR 0.100(b). Authority to exercise all necessary functions with respect to the promulgation and implementation of 21 CFR part 1301, incident to the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, importers, and exporters of controlled substances (other than final orders in connection with suspension, denial, or revocation of registration) has been redelegated to the Deputy Assistant Administrator of the DEA Office of Diversion Control (“Deputy Assistant Administrator”) pursuant to section 7 of 28 CFR part 0, appendix to subpart R.
In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a), this is notice that on August 4, 2015, Noramco, Inc., 1440 Olympic Drive, Athens, Georgia 30601, applied to be registered as a bulk manufacturer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to manufacture the listed controlled substances in bulk for distribution to its customers.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 12, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Tracey Robertson, Acting Chief, Federal Firearms Licensing Center, 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405 at email or telephone:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
Form number (if applicable): ATF F 5300.3A.
Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
4.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 14, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Rinell Lawrence, Firearms Enforcement Specialist, Firearms Industry Program, 99 New York Avenue NE. 20226 at email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
1.
2.
3.
Form number: None.
Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
4.
Abstract: ATF uses manufacturer's records information during investigations, inspections for criminal activity, or for compliance purposes.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 14, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Anita Scheddel, Program Analyst, Explosives Industry Programs Branch, 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226 at email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
Form number: None.
Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
4.
Primary: Agencies/Entities Who Store Explosive Materials.
Other: None.
Abstract: The purpose of the form is to identify the number and locations of public explosives storage facilities (magazines), including those facilities used by State and local law enforcement.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, DOJ.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until March 14, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact John Sickler, Visual Information Services Branch, 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226 at email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
1.
2.
3.
Form number: ATF F 1370.4.
Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
4.
Primary: Business or other for-profit.
Other: Individuals or households.
Abstract: The form is used to evaluate the ATF Distribution Center, and the services it provides to the users of ATF forms and publications.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 12, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact George Fodor, Office of Regulatory Affairs, Office of Enforcement Programs and Services, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives, 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226 at telephone: 202-648-7994.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
Form number (if applicable): ATF Form 5200.25.
Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
4.
Primary: Businesses or other for-profit.
Other (if applicable): None.
Abstract: The amendment to the CCTA requires a person who sells more than 10,000 cigarettes or more than 500 single-unit consumer-sized cans or packages of smokeless tobacco per month and conducts non-face-to-face consumer sales must report to ATF specific information regarding their inventory and those sales.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 12, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact George Fodor, Office of Regulatory Affairs, Office of Enforcement Programs and Services, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives, 99 New York Ave. NE., Washington, DC 20226 at telephone: 202-648-7994.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
Form number (if applicable): ATF Form 5200.26.
Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
4.
Primary: Business.
Other (if applicable): None.
Abstract: The amendment to the CCTA requires a person who sells more than 10,000 cigarettes or more than 500 single-unit consumer-sized cans or packages of smokeless tobacco per month and conducts non-face-to-face consumer sales must report to ATF specific information regarding their inventory and those sales.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 12, 2016.
If you have comments on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Barbara J. Boockholdt, Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration; Mailing Address: 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152; Telephone: (202) 598-6812.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
1.
2.
3.
Form Number:
The Department of Justice component is the Drug Enforcement Administration, Office of Diversion Control.
4.
5.
6.
If additional information is required please contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Suite 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Labor.
Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health for Part E of the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act (EEOICPA); Notice of Charter Amendment.
In accordance with section 3687 of Public Law 106-398, which was added by section 3141(a) of the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) of 2015, Executive Order 13699 (June 26, 2015), and the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and its implementing regulations issued by the General Services Administration (GSA), the Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health was established on July 2, 2015. A Charter and Membership Balance Plan were filed in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA).
The new provision added to EEOICPA by the NDAA specifies that the Director of the Advisory Board's staff must be a member of the Senior Executive Service (SES). This individual will also perform the duties of the Designated Federal Officer (DFO). The original Charter for the Advisory Board specified that the DFO would be the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (OWCP) Comptroller, a member of the SES. OWCP now amends the Charter to specify that the DFO is a member of the SES from OWCP, but not the Program Director of the EEOICPA program. The amended Charter has been filed in accordance with FACA.
You may contact Antonio Rios, Designated Federal Officer, Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, at
This is not a toll-free number.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration announces a forthcoming meeting of the Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel.
Wednesday, February 24, 2016, 1:00-2:30 p.m., Local Time.
NASA Kennedy Space Center, Headquarters Building, Room 2201, Kennedy Space Center, FL 32899.
Ms. Marian Norris, Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel Administrative Officer, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-4452 or
The Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel (ASAP) will hold its First Quarterly Meeting for 2016. This discussion is pursuant to carrying out its statutory duties for which the Panel reviews, identifies, evaluates, and advises on those program activities, systems, procedures, and management activities that can contribute to program risk. Priority is given to those programs that involve the safety of human flight. The agenda will include:
The meeting will be open to the public up to the seating capacity of the room. Seating will be on a first-come basis. This meeting is also available telephonically. Any interested person may call the USA toll free conference call number (800) 857-7040; pass code 7896588. Attendees will be required to sign a visitor's register and to comply with NASA KSC security requirements, including the presentation of a valid picture ID and a secondary form of ID, before receiving an access badge. Due to the Real ID Act, Public Law 109-13, any attendees with drivers licenses issued from noncompliant states/territories must present a second form of ID. Noncompliant states/territories are American Samoa, Illinois, Minnesota, Missouri, New Mexico, and Washington. All U.S. citizens desiring to attend the ASAP 2016 First Quarterly Meeting at the Kennedy Space Center must provide their full name, date of birth, place of birth, social security number, company affiliation and full address (if applicable), residential address, telephone number, driver's license number, email address, country of citizenship, and naturalization number (if applicable) to the Kennedy Space Center Protective Services Office no later than close of business on February 18, 2016.
All non-U.S. citizens must submit their name; current address; driver's license number and state (if applicable); citizenship; company affiliation (if applicable) to include address, telephone number, and title; place of birth; date of birth; U.S. visa information to include type, number, and expiration date; U.S. Social Security Number (if applicable); Permanent Resident (green card) number and expiration date (if applicable); place and date of entry into the U.S.; and passport information to include country of issue, number, and expiration date, to the Kennedy Space Center Protective Services Office no later than close of business on February 11, 2016. If the above information is not received by the noted dates, attendees should expect a minimum delay of two (2) hours. All visitors to this meeting will be required to process in through the KSC Badging Office, Building M6-0224, located just outside of KSC Gate 3, on SR 405, Kennedy Space Center, Florida. Please provide the appropriate data required above by email to Tina Delahunty at
At the beginning of the meeting, members of the public may make a verbal presentation to the Panel on the subject of safety in NASA, not to exceed 5 minutes in length. To do so, members of the public must contact Ms. Marian Norris at
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration announces a meeting of the NASA International Space Station (ISS) Advisory Committee. The purpose of the meeting is to review all aspects related to the safety and operational readiness of the ISS, and to assess the possibilities for using the ISS for future space exploration.
Tuesday, March 1, 2016, 2:00-3:00 p.m., Local Time.
NASA Headquarters, Glennan Conference Room (1Q39), 300 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20546. Note: 1Q39 is located on the first floor of NASA Headquarters.
Mr. Patrick Finley, Office of International and Interagency Relations, (202) 358-5684, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546.
This meeting will be open to the public up to the seating capacity of the room. This meeting is also accessible via teleconference. To participate telephonically, please contact Mr. Finley (202) 358-5684 before 4:30 p.m. Local Time on February 26, 2016. Please provide your name, affiliation, and phone number.
Attendees will be requested to sign a register and to comply with NASA security requirements, including the presentation of a valid picture ID to
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announces a meeting of the Science Committee of the NASA Advisory Council (NAC). This Committee reports to the NAC. The meeting will be held for the purpose of soliciting, from the scientific community and other persons, scientific and technical information relevant to program planning.
Thursday, March 10, 2016, 9:00 a.m. to 5:15 p.m., and Friday, March 11, 2016, 8:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., Local Time.
NASA Headquarters, Room 3H42, 300 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20546.
Ms. Ann Delo, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-0750, fax (202) 358-2779, or
The meeting will be open to the public up to the capacity of the room. This meeting will also be available telephonically and by WebEx. You must use a touch-tone phone to participate in this meeting. Any interested person may call the USA toll free conference call number 1-800-988-9663, passcode 8015, on both days, to participate in this meeting by telephone. Any interested person may call the toll number 1-517-308-9483, passcode 8015, on both days, to participate in this meeting by telephone. The WebEx link is
Attendees will be requested to sign a register and to comply with NASA security requirements, including the presentation of a valid picture ID to Security before access to NASA Headquarters. Due to the Real ID Act, Public Law 109-13, any attendees with drivers licenses issued from non-compliant states/territories must present a second form of ID. [Federal employee badge; passport; active military identification card; enhanced driver's license; U.S. Coast Guard Merchant Mariner card; Native American tribal document; school identification accompanied by an item from LIST C (documents that establish employment authorization) from the “List of the Acceptable Documents” on Form I-9]. Non-compliant states/territories are: American Samoa, Illinois, Minnesota, Missouri, New Mexico and Washington. Foreign nationals attending this meeting will be required to provide a copy of their passport and visa in addition to providing the following information no less than 10 working days prior to the meeting: Full name; gender; date/place of birth; citizenship; visa information (number, type, expiration date); passport information (number, country, expiration date); employer/affiliation information (name of institution, address, country, telephone); title/position of attendee; and home address to Ann Delo via email at
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of Advisory Committee Meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app 2) and implementing regulation 41 CFR 101-6, NARA announces the following committee meeting.
The meeting will be March 16, 2016, from 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. EST.
National Archives and Records Administration, 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Archivist's Reception Room, Room 105, Washington, DC 20408.
Robert Tringali, Program Analyst, by mail at ISOO, National Archives Building; 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20408, by telephone at (202) 357-5335, or by email at
The purpose of this meeting is to discuss National Industrial Security Program
National Science Foundation.
Notice of permits issued under the Antarctic Conservation of 1978, Public Law 95-541.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish notice of permits issued under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. This is the required notice.
Nature McGinn, ACA Permit Officer, Division of Polar Programs, Rm. 755, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22230. Or by email:
On January 7 & 8, 2016 the National Science Foundation published notices in the
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning an additional Global Expedited Package Services 3 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On February 5, 2016, the Postal Service filed notice that it has entered into an additional Global Expedited Package Services 3 (GEPS 3) negotiated service agreement (Agreement).
To support its Notice, the Postal Service filed a copy of the Agreement, a copy of the Governors' Decision authorizing the product, a certification of compliance with 39 U.S.C. 3633(a), and an application for non-public treatment of certain materials. It also filed supporting financial workpapers.
The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-99 for consideration of matters raised by the Notice.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filing is consistent with 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than February 16, 2016. The public portions of the filing can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Kenneth R. Moeller to serve as Public Representative in this docket.
1. The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-99 for consideration of the matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Kenneth R. Moeller is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding (Public Representative).
3. Comments are due no later than February 16, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning an amendment to Priority Mail Contract 85 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On February 5, 2016, the Postal Service filed notice that it has agreed to an amendment to the existing Priority Mail Contract 85 negotiated service agreement approved in this docket.
The Postal Service also filed the unredacted Amendment and supporting
The Postal Service intends for the Amendment to become effective 2 business days after the date that the Commission completes its review of the Notice.
The Commission invites comments on whether the changes presented in the Postal Service's Notice are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR 3015.5, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than February 16, 2016. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Natalie R. Ward to represent the interests of the general public (Public Representative) in this docket.
1. The Commission reopens Docket No. CP2014-60 for consideration of matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Natalie R. Ward to serve as an officer of the Commission (Public Representative) to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding.
3. Comments are due no later than February 16, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning an amendment to Priority Mail Express 19 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On February 5, 2016, the Postal Service filed notice that it has agreed to an amendment to the existing Priority Mail Express Contract 19 negotiated service agreement approved in this docket.
The Postal Service also filed the unredacted Amendment and supporting financial information under seal. The Postal Service seeks to incorporate by reference the Application for Non-Public Treatment originally filed in this docket for the protection of information that it has filed under seal. Notice at 1. The Amendment changes prices as contemplated by the terms of the original agreement.
The Postal Service intends for the Amendment to become effective 2 business days after the date that the Commission completes its review of the Notice.
The Commission invites comments on whether the changes presented in the Postal Service's Notice are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR 3015.5, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than February 16, 2016. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Kenneth R. Moeller to represent the interests of the general public (Public Representative) in this docket.
1. The Commission reopens Docket No. CP2014-74 for consideration of matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Kenneth R. Moeller to serve as an officer of the Commission (Public Representative) to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding.
3. Comments are due no later than February 16, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Exchange Act sets forth a regulatory scheme for national securities exchanges. Rule 6a-1 under the Act generally requires an applicant for initial registration as a national securities exchange to file an application with the Commission on
Initial filings on Form 1 by new exchanges are made on a one-time basis. The Commission estimates that it will receive approximately one initial Form 1 filing per year and that each respondent would incur an average burden of 880 hours to file an initial Form 1 at an average internal labor cost per response of approximately $302,694. Therefore, the Commission estimates that the annual burden for all respondents to file the initial Form 1 would be 880 hours (one response/respondent × one respondents × 880 hours/response) and an internal compliance cost of $302,694 (one response/respondent × one respondents × $302,694/response).
There currently are 18 entities registered as national securities exchanges. The Commission estimates that each registered or exempt exchange files nine amendments or periodic updates to Form 1 per year, incurring an average burden of 25 hours to comply with Rule 6a-2. The SEC estimates that the average internal labor cost for a national securities exchange per response would be approximately $9,445. The Commission estimates that the annual burden for all respondents to file amendments and periodic updates to the Form 1 pursuant to Rule 6a-2 is 4,050 hours (18 respondents × 25 hours/response × nine responses/respondent per year) and an internal compliance cost of $1,530,090 (18 respondents × $9,445/response × nine responses/respondent per year).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Nasdaq proposes to retroactively apply recently-reduced port fees charged to members and non-members for ports used to enter orders into Nasdaq systems, in connection with the use of the FIX, RASH, and OUCH trading protocols under Nasdaq Rules 7015(b) and (g) beginning January 4, 2016.
In its filing with the Commission, Nasdaq included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. Nasdaq has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to apply recently-reduced port fees charged to members and non-members for ports used to enter orders into Nasdaq systems, in connection with the use of the FIX, RASH, and OUCH trading protocols under Nasdaq Rules 7015(b) and (g) during the period from January 4, 2016 to January 19, 2016.
Effective January 4, 2016, Nasdaq increased fees for FIX Ports under Rule 7015(b) and for RASH and OUCH Ports under Rule 7015(g) from $550 per port, per month to $575 per port, per month.
Nasdaq recently encountered a few unforeseen minor, but not easily rectifiable, issues with the new implementation that potentially could have a greater impact on the market. As a consequence, Nasdaq determined that the risk associated with keeping the FPGA technology in terms of potential disruption to trading outweighed the benefit provided in terms of increased performance. Effective January 7, 2016, Nasdaq removed the FPGA hardware and reverted all FIX, RASH, and OUCH ports to the infrastructure that was in place prior to the upgrade to those ports. Nasdaq also filed a rule change with the Commission to reduce the fees assessed for FIX, RASH, and OUCH ports back to their lower levels of $550 per port, per month, which was effective January 19, 2016.
Nasdaq proposes to apply the reduced fees of $550 per port, per month during the period from January 4, 2016 to their reduction on January 19, 2016, effectively eliminating any fee increase for FIX, RASH, and OUCH ports. Subscribers to the affected ports did not enjoy the benefit of the improved hardware for any significant time, as the issues with the ports began to manifest themselves on December 30, 2015 up to the point at which Nasdaq determined to remove the hardware and revert the ports back to the infrastructure in place before. Thus, Nasdaq believes that it is inappropriate to apply the higher fees at any point during January 2016.
This proposal is consistent with the provisions of section 6 of the Act,
Retroactively applying the lower fees that were assessed prior to the upgrade to the FIX, RASH and OUCH ports effective January 4, 2016 is reasonable because the improved hardware did not provide a trouble-free benefit to subscribers for a significant time during the month of January 2016. Nasdaq did not provide an improved service for the ports in return for the increased fees paid during the period from January 4, 2016 to their reduction on January 19, 2016. The basis for the increased fees was the costs associated with purchasing hardware (capital expenditures) and supporting and maintaining the infrastructure (operating expenditures) for the FPGA enhancement. Thus, retroactively applying the reduced pre-upgrade fee is reasonable.
Applying the lower pre-upgrade fees retroactively is both an equitable allocation and not unfairly discriminatory because it will apply uniformly to all market participants that subscribed to FIX Ports under Rule 7015(b), and OUCH and RASH Ports under Rule 7015(g) during the timeframe of January 4, 2016 to January 19, 2016 based on the number of such ports subscribed. Accordingly, all subscribers to the ports under Rule 7015(b) and (g) will be assessed the fees in place prior to the increase, since they did not realize a significant and trouble-free benefit from the hardware.
The proposed rule change will not impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, Nasdaq notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable.
Nasdaq proposes to retroactively apply a lower fee since it did not provide the improved connectivity trouble-free for a significant time. Thus, Nasdaq does not believe that proposal places any burden on competition, but rather reduces fees assessed subscribers to a service, which will help maintain Nasdaq's competitiveness among equities markets.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
In its filing, Nasdaq requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay so that Nasdaq may implement the fee reduction prior to the end of its monthly billing cycle. The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. Nasdaq bills its members at the end of the month, and, as of the time of filing, it had not yet assessed the higher port fees put in place by SR-NASDAQ-2016-001. Waiver of the 30-day operative delay will not only allow Nasdaq to manage its billing process more efficiently, but it will also ensure that subscribers are not charged erroneous and inflated fees. For this reason, the Commission designates the proposed rule change to be operative upon filing.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is proposing a rule change to list and trade shares of the SPDRDoubleLine Short Term Total Return Tactical ETF (the “Fund”) of the SSgA Active Trust (the “Trust”) under BATS Rule 14.11(i) (“Managed Fund Shares”). The shares of the Fund are collectively referred to herein as the “Shares.”
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares under BATS Rule 14.11(i), which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares on the Exchange.
SSGA Funds Management, Inc. will be the investment adviser (“SSGA FM” or “Adviser”) to the Fund. The Adviser will serve as the administrator for the Fund (the “Administrator”). DoubleLine Capital LP will be the Fund's sub-adviser (“Sub-Adviser”). State Street Global Markets, LLC (the “Distributor”) will be the principal underwriter and distributor of the Fund's Shares. State Street Bank and Trust Company (the “Sub-Administrator”, “Custodian”, “Transfer Agent” or “Lending Agent”) will serve as sub-administrator, custodian, transfer agent, and, where applicable, lending agent for the Fund.
BATS Rule 14.11(i)(7) provides that, if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
According to the Registration Statement, the Fund will seek to maximize current income with a dollar-weighted average effective duration between one and three years. To achieve its objective, the Fund will invest, under normal circumstances,
The Sub-Adviser will monitor the duration of the securities held by the Fund to seek to mitigate exposure to interest rate risk.
The Sub-Adviser will actively manage the Fund's asset class exposure using a top-down approach based on analysis of sector fundamentals and rotate Fund assets among sectors in various markets to attempt to maximize return. Individual securities within asset classes will be selected using a bottom-up approach. Under normal circumstances, the Sub-Adviser will use a controlled risk approach in managing the Fund's investments. The techniques of this approach attempt to control the principal risk components of the fixed income markets and include consideration of: Security selection within a given sector; relative performance of the various market sectors; the shape of the yield curve; and fluctuations in the overall level of interest rates. In certain situations or market conditions, the Fund may temporarily depart from its normal investment policies and strategies provided that the alternative is in the best interest of the Fund. For example, the Fund may hold a higher than normal proportion of its assets in cash in times of extreme market stress.
The Fund intends to achieve its investment objective by investing, under normal circumstances, at least 80% of its net assets in a diversified portfolio of Fixed Income Securities, as defined below, subject to certain limits described below. For purposes of this filing, Fixed Income Securities are defined as the following instruments: Securities issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government or its agencies, instrumentalities or sponsored corporations; inflation protected public obligations of the U.S. Treasury (“TIPS”); securities issued or guaranteed by state or local governments or their agencies or instrumentalities (commonly known as municipal bonds);
The Fund intends to invest at least 25% of its net assets in mortgage-backed securities of any maturity or type guaranteed by, or secured by collateral that is guaranteed by, the United States Government, its agencies, instrumentalities or sponsored corporations. The Fund also may invest in privately issued mortgage-backed securities of any rating assigned by Moody's Investor Service, Inc. (“Moody's”) or Standard & Poor's Rating Service (“S&P”) or assigned by any other nationally recognized statistical rating organization (“NRSRO”) or in unrated securities that are determined by the Sub-Adviser to be of comparable quality.
The Fund may invest up to 20% of its net assets in the aggregate in non-agency ABS.
The Fund may invest in U.S. Government obligations. U.S. Government obligations are a type of bond. U.S. Government obligations include securities issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by the U.S. Government, its agencies, instrumentalities, or sponsored corporations. The Fund may also invest in TIPS of the U.S. Treasury. TIPS are a type of security issued by a government that are designed to provide inflation protection to investors.
The Fund may invest in corporate bonds.
The Fund may invest in sovereign debt. Sovereign debt obligations are issued or guaranteed by foreign governments or their agencies. Sovereign debt may be in the form of conventional securities or other types of debt instruments such as loans or loan participations. Sovereign debt obligations may be either investment grade or below investment grade.
The Fund may invest in bank loans, which include floating rate loans
The Fund may invest in CDOs, CLOs, CMOs, and CBOs. A CLO is a financing company (generally called a Special Purpose Vehicle or “SPV”), created to reapportion the risk and return characteristics of a pool of assets. While the assets underlying CLOs are typically bank loans, the assets may also include: (i) Unsecured loans, (ii) other debt securities that are rated below investment grade, (iii) debt tranches of other CLOs, and (iv) equity securities incidental to investments in bank loans. When investing in CLOs, the Fund will not invest in equity tranches, which are the lowest tranche. However, the Fund may invest in lower debt tranches of CLOs, which typically experience a lower recovery, greater risk of loss, or deferral or non-payment of interest than more senior debt tranches of the CLO. In addition, the Fund intends to invest in CLOs consisting primarily of individual bank loans of borrowers and not repackaged CLO obligations from other high risk pools. The underlying bank loans purchased by CLOs are generally performing at the time of purchase but may become non-performing, distressed or defaulted. CLOs with underlying assets of non-performing, distressed or defaulted loans are not contemplated to comprise a significant portion of the Fund's investments in CLOs. A CBO is a trust which is backed by a diversified pool of below investment grade fixed income securities. CMOs are debt obligations collateralized by mortgage loans or mortgage pass-through securities.
The Fund may purchase exchange-traded or OTC preferred securities. Preferred securities pay fixed or adjustable rate dividends to investors and have preference over common stock in the payment of dividends and the liquidation of a company's assets.
The Fund may invest in ETPs that invest in Fixed Income Securities, which include exchange traded funds registered under the 1940 Act and exchange traded notes.
While the Adviser and Sub-Adviser, under normal circumstances, will invest at least 80% of the Fund's net assets in the instruments described above, the Adviser and Sub-Adviser may invest up to 20% of the Fund's net assets in other securities and financial instruments, as described below.
The Fund may invest in repurchase agreements with commercial banks, brokers or dealers to generate income from its excess cash balances and to invest securities lending cash collateral. A repurchase agreement is an agreement under which a fund acquires a financial instrument (
The Fund may also enter into reverse repurchase agreements, which involve the sale of securities with an agreement to repurchase the securities at an agreed-upon price, date and interest payment and have the characteristics of borrowing. The Fund's exposure to reverse repurchase agreements will be covered by securities having a value equal to or greater than such commitments. Under the 1940 Act, reverse repurchase agreements are considered borrowings. The Fund does not expect to engage, under normal circumstances, in reverse repurchase agreements with respect to more than 10% of its net assets.
The Fund may invest in both exchange-traded and OTC U.S. common stocks. The Fund may also invest in exchange-traded common stocks of foreign corporations. The Fund's investments in common stock of foreign corporations may also be in the form of American Depositary Receipts (“ADRs”), Global Depositary Receipts (“GDRs”) and European Depositary Receipts (“EDRs”) (collectively “Depositary Receipts”).
The Fund may invest in convertible securities traded on an exchange or OTC. Convertible securities are bonds, debentures, notes, or other securities that may be converted or exchanged (by the holder or by the issuer) into shares of the underlying common stock (or cash or securities of equivalent value) at a stated exchange ratio.
The Fund may lend its portfolio securities in an amount not to exceed 33
In addition to repurchase agreements, the Fund may invest in short-term instruments, including money market instruments, (including money market funds advised by the Adviser), cash and cash equivalents, on an ongoing basis to provide liquidity or for other reasons. Money market instruments are generally short-term investments that may include but are not limited to: (i) Shares of money market funds (including those advised by the Adviser); (ii) obligations issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government, its agencies or instrumentalities (including government-sponsored enterprises); (iii) negotiable certificates of deposit (“CDs”), bankers' acceptances, fixed time deposits and other obligations of U.S. and foreign banks (including foreign branches) and similar institutions; (iv) commercial paper rated at the date of purchase “Prime-1” by Moody's or “A-1” by S&P, or if unrated, of comparable quality as determined by the Adviser; (v) non-convertible corporate debt securities (
The Fund may conduct foreign currency transactions on a spot (
The Fund may invest in inverse floating rate debt instruments (“inverse floaters”). Inverse floaters are a type of instrument that bears a floating or variable interest rate that moves in the opposite direction to interest rates generally or the interest rate on another security or index.
In addition to ETPs that invest in Fixed Income Securities as described in the Principal Holdings, the Fund may also invest in the securities of other non-exchange traded investment companies, including affiliated funds and money market funds, subject to applicable limitations under Section 12(d)(1) of the 1940 Act.
The Fund may invest in the securities of exchange-traded and OTC real estate investment trusts (“REITs”).
The Fund may invest up to 20% of its assets in the following derivatives: Exchange-traded futures on Treasuries or Eurodollars; U.S. exchange-traded or OTC put and call options contracts and OTC or exchange-traded swap agreements on Fixed Income Securities and/or derivatives on indices based on Fixed Income Securities
In the case of a credit default swap (“CDS”), the contract gives one party (the buyer) the right to recoup the economic value of a decline in the value of debt securities of the reference issuer if the credit event (a downgrade or default) occurs. This value is obtained by delivering a debt security of the reference issuer to the party in return for a previously agreed payment from the other party (frequently, the par value of the debt security).
CDSs may require initial premium (discount) payments as well as periodic payments (receipts) related to the interest leg of the swap or to the default of a reference obligation. The Fund will segregate assets necessary to meet any accrued payment obligations when it is the buyer of CDSs. In cases where the Fund is a seller of a CDS, if the CDS is physically settled or cash settled, the Fund will be required to segregate the full notional amount of the CDS. Such segregation will not limit the Fund's exposure to loss.
The Fund may also invest in Restricted Securities.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Restricted Securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser or Sub-Adviser
The Fund intends to qualify each year as a regulated investment company (a “RIC”) under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
The Fund's investments will be consistent with its investment objective and will not be used to seek to achieve leveraged or inverse leveraged returns (
Under normal circumstances, the combined total of corporate, sovereign, non-agency and all other debt rated below investment grade will not exceed 40% of the Fund's net assets. The Sub-Adviser will strive to allocate below investment grade securities broadly by industry and issuer in an attempt to reduce the impact of negative events on an industry or issuer. Below investment grade securities are instruments that are rated BB+ or lower by S&P or Fitch Inc. or Ba1 or lower by Moody's or equivalent ratings by another registered NRSRO or, if unrated by a NRSRO, of comparable quality in the opinion of the Sub-Adviser.
The Fund may invest up to 15% of its net assets in securities denominated in foreign currencies, and may invest beyond this limit in U.S. dollar-denominated securities of foreign issuers. The Fund may invest up to 20% of its net assets in securities and instruments that are economically tied to emerging market countries.
According to the Registration Statement, the net asset value (“NAV”) of the Fund's Shares generally will be calculated once daily Monday through Friday as of the close of regular trading on the Exchange, generally 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time (the “NAV Calculation Time”) on each day that the Exchange is open for trading, based on prices at the NAV Calculation Time. NAV per Share is calculated by dividing the Fund's net assets by the number of Fund Shares outstanding. The Fund's net assets are valued primarily on the basis of market quotations. Expenses and fees, including the management fees, will be accrued daily and taken into account for purposes of determining NAV.
Common stocks and other exchange-traded equity securities (including shares of preferred securities, convertible securities, REITs, and ETPs) generally will be valued at the last reported sale price or the official closing price on that exchange where the security is primarily traded on the day that the valuation is made. Foreign equities and exchange-listed Depositary Receipts will be valued at the last sale or official closing price on the relevant exchange on the valuation date. If, however, neither the last sale price nor the official closing price is available on the valuation date, each of these securities will be valued at either the last reported sale price or official closing price as of the close of regular trading of the principal market on which the security is listed.
Unsponsored ADRs, which are traded in the OTC market, will be valued at the last reported sale price from the OTC Bulletin Board or OTC Link LLC on the valuation date. Equity securities traded OTC will be valued based on price
Listed futures will generally be valued at the settlement price determined by the applicable exchange. Listed options will generally be valued at the last sale price on the applicable exchange. Listed swaps will be valued on the basis of quotations or equivalent indication of value supplied by a third-party pricing service or broker-dealer who makes markets in such instruments. Non-exchange traded derivatives, including OTC-traded options, swaps, and forwards, will normally be valued on the basis of quotations or equivalent indication of value supplied by a third- party pricing service or broker-dealer who makes markets in such instruments. The Fund's OTC-traded derivative instruments will generally be valued at bid prices.
According to the Adviser, U.S. Government obligations; TIPS; sovereign debt; foreign and domestic corporate bonds; ABS; TBA transactions; inverse floaters and bank loans; stripped securities; zero coupon securities; and short-term instruments will generally be valued at bid prices received from independent pricing services as of the announced closing time for trading in such instruments in the respective market. In determining the value of such instruments, pricing services determine valuations for normal institutional-size trading units of such securities using valuation models or matrix pricing, which incorporates yield and/or price with respect to bonds that are considered comparable in characteristics such as rating, interest rate and maturity date and quotations from securities dealers to determine current value. Investments having a maturity of 60 days or less are generally valued at amortized cost.
According to the Registration Statement, in the event that current market valuations are not readily available or are deemed unreliable, the Trust's procedures require the Oversight Committee (“Committee”) to determine a security's fair value, in accordance with the 1940 Act.
The NAV of Shares of the Fund will be determined once each business day, normally 4:00 p.m. Eastern time. The Fund currently anticipates that a Creation Unit will consist of 50,000 Shares, though this number may change from time to time, including prior to the listing of the Fund. The exact number of Shares that will comprise a Creation Unit will be disclosed in the Registration Statement of the Fund. The Trust will issue and sell Shares of the Fund only in Creation Units on a continuous basis, without a sales load (but subject to transaction fees), at their NAV per Share next determined after receipt of an order, on any business day, in proper form. Creation and redemption will typically occur in cash, however, the Trust retains discretion to conduct such transactions on an in-kind basis or a combination of cash and in-kind, as further described below.
The consideration for purchase of a Creation Unit of the Fund generally will consist of either (i) the in-kind deposit of a designated portfolio of securities (the “Deposit Securities”) per each Creation Unit and the Cash Component (defined below), computed as described below, or (ii) the cash value of the Deposit Securities (“Deposit Cash”) and the “Cash Component,” computed as described below. When accepting purchases of Creation Units for cash, the Fund may incur additional costs associated with the acquisition of Deposit Securities that would otherwise be provided by an in-kind purchaser. Together, the Deposit Securities or Deposit Cash, as applicable, and the Cash Component constitute the “Fund Deposit,” which represents the minimum initial and subsequent investment amount for a Creation Unit of the Fund. The “Cash Component” is an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares (per Creation Unit) and the market value of the Deposit Securities or Deposit Cash, as applicable. If the Cash Component is a positive number (
The Custodian, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), will make available on each business day, prior to the opening of business on the Exchange, the list of the names and the required amount of each Deposit Security or the required amount of Deposit Cash, as applicable, to be included in the current Fund Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day) for the Fund. Such Fund Deposit is subject to any applicable adjustments as described in the Registration Statement, in order to effect purchases of Creation Units of the Fund until such time as the next-announced composition of the Deposit Securities or the required amount of Deposit Cash, as applicable, is made available.
Shares may be redeemed only in Creation Units at their NAV next determined after receipt of a redemption request in proper form by the Fund through the Transfer Agent and only on a business day.
With respect to the Fund, the Custodian, through the NSCC, will make
Redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit will be paid either in-kind or in cash or a combination thereof, as determined by the Trust. With respect to in-kind redemptions of the Fund, redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit will consist of Fund Securities as announced by the Custodian on the business day of the request for redemption received in proper form plus cash in an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares being redeemed, as next determined after a receipt of a request in proper form, and the value of the Fund Securities (the “Cash Redemption Amount”), less a fixed redemption transaction fee and any applicable additional variable charge as set forth in the Registration Statement. In the event that the Fund Securities have a value greater than the NAV of the Shares, a compensating cash payment equal to the differential will be required to be made by or through an authorized participant by the redeeming shareholder. Notwithstanding the foregoing, at the Trust's discretion, an authorized participant may receive the corresponding cash value of the securities in lieu of the in-kind securities value representing one or more Fund Securities.
The creation/redemption order cut-off time for the Fund is expected to be 4:00 p.m. Eastern time. Creation/redemption order cut-off times may be earlier on any day that the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (“SIFMA”) (or applicable exchange or market on which the Fund's investments are traded) announces an early closing time. On days when the Exchange closes earlier than normal, the Fund may require orders for Creation Units to be placed earlier in the day.
The Fund's Web site, which will be publicly available prior to the public offering of Shares, will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund that may be downloaded. The Web site will include additional quantitative information updated on a daily basis, including, for the Fund: (1) The prior business day's reported NAV, mid-point of the bid/ask spread at the time of calculation of such NAV (the “Bid/Ask Price”),
In addition, for the Fund, an estimated value, defined in BATS Rule 14.11(i)(3)(C) as the “Intraday Indicative Value,” that reflects an estimated intraday value of the Fund's portfolio, will be disseminated. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value will be based upon the current value for the components of the Disclosed Portfolio and will be updated and widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Exchange's Regular Trading Hours.
The dissemination of the Intraday Indicative Value, together with the Disclosed Portfolio, will allow investors to determine the value of the underlying portfolio of the Fund on a daily basis and provide a close estimate of that value throughout the trading day.
The intra-day, closing, and settlement prices of exchange-listed instruments (including exchange traded Depositary Receipts, preferred securities, convertible securities, common stock, futures, ETPs, and QPTPs) will be readily available from the exchanges trading such instruments as well as automated quotation systems, published or other public sources, or online information services such as Bloomberg or Reuters. Intraday and closing price information for exchange-traded options and futures will be available from the applicable exchange and from major market data vendors. In addition, price information for U.S. exchange-traded options will be available from the Options Price Reporting Authority. Quotation information from brokers and dealers or pricing services will be available for Fixed Income Securities. Price information regarding spot currency transactions and OTC-traded derivative instruments, including options, swaps, and forward currency transactions, as well as equity securities traded in the OTC market, including Restricted Securities, inverse floaters, short-term instruments, OTC-traded preferred securities, OTC-traded ADRs, and OTC-traded convertible securities, is available from major market data vendors. Repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements will generally be available through nationally recognized data service providers through subscription arrangements.
Information regarding market price and volume of the Shares will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services. The previous day's closing price and trading volume information for the Shares will be published daily in the financial section of newspapers. Quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available on the facilities of the CTA. Information regarding U.S. exchange-listed equities will also be available on the facilities of the CTA.
The Shares will be subject to BATS Rule 14.11(i), which sets forth the initial and continued listing criteria applicable to Managed Fund Shares. The Exchange represents that, for initial and continued listing, the Fund must be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act.
With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund. The Exchange will halt trading in the Shares under the conditions specified in BATS Rule 11.18. Trading may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. These may include: (1) The extent to which trading is not occurring in the securities and/or the financial instruments composing the Disclosed Portfolio of the Fund; or (2) whether other unusual conditions or circumstances detrimental to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market are present. Trading in the Shares also will be subject to Rule 14.11(i)(4)(B)(iv), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted.
The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. BATS will allow trading in the Shares from 8:00 a.m. until 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time. The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in BATS Rule 14.11(i)(2)(C), the minimum price variation for quoting and entry of orders in Managed Fund Shares traded on the Exchange is $0.01.
The Exchange believes that its surveillance procedures are adequate to properly monitor the trading of the Shares on the Exchange during all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and the applicable federal securities laws. Trading of the Shares through the Exchange will be subject to the Exchange's surveillance procedures for derivative products, including Managed Fund Shares. The Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares and the underlying shares in exchange traded investment companies, equity securities, futures, and options via the ISG, from other exchanges who are members or affiliates of the ISG, or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its members in an Information Circular of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Circular will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) BATS Rule 3.7, which imposes suitability obligations on Exchange members with respect to recommending transactions in the Shares to customers; (3) how information regarding the Intraday Indicative Value and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (4) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Pre-Opening
In addition, the Information Circular will advise members, prior to the commencement of trading, of the prospectus delivery requirements applicable to the Fund. Members purchasing Shares from the Fund for resale to investors will deliver a prospectus to such investors. The Information Circular will also discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act.
In addition, the Information Circular will reference that the Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Information Circular will also disclose the trading hours of the Shares of the Fund and the applicable NAV Calculation Time for the Shares. The Information Circular will disclose that information about the Shares of the Fund will be publicly available on the Fund's Web site. In addition, the Information Circular will reference that the Trust is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Fund's Registration Statement.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in BATS Rule 14.11(i). The Exchange believes that its surveillance procedures are adequate to properly monitor the trading of the Shares on the Exchange during all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and the applicable federal securities laws. If the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser to the investment company shall erect a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio. The Adviser is not a registered broker-dealer, but is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented a “fire wall” with respect to such broker-dealer regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the Fund's portfolio. In the event (a) the Adviser or Sub-Adviser becomes registered as a broker-dealer or newly affiliated with a broker-dealer, or (b) any new adviser or sub-adviser is a registered broker-dealer or becomes affiliated with a broker-dealer, it will implement a fire wall with respect to its relevant personnel or broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio, and will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding such portfolio. The Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares and the underlying shares in exchange traded investment companies, equity securities, futures, and options via the ISG, from other exchanges who are members or affiliates of the ISG, or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
According to the Registration Statement, the Fund intends to achieve its investment objective by investing, under normal circumstances, at least 80% of its net assets in a diversified portfolio of Fixed Income Securities of any credit quality. The Fund's investments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to achieve leveraged or inverse leveraged returns, as stated above. While the Fund is permitted to invest without restriction in corporate bonds, the Sub-Adviser expects that, under normal circumstances, the Fund will generally seek to invest in corporate bond issuances that have at least $100,000,000 par amount outstanding in developed countries and at least $200,000,000 par amount outstanding in emerging market countries.
In addition to the holdings in Fixed Income Securities described above as part of the Fund's principal investment strategy, the Fund may also, to a limited extent (under normal circumstances, less than 20% of the Fund's net assets) and as further described above, engage in transactions in the following:
Repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, U.S. common stocks, exchange-traded foreign common stocks, Depositary Receipts, convertible securities, securities lending, short-term instruments, foreign currency transactions, inverse floaters, the securities of other investment companies, REITs, Restricted Securities, and certain options, futures, and swaps.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Restricted Securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser or Sub-Adviser
The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest in that the Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information is publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value will be disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during Regular Trading Hours. On each business day, before commencement of trading in Shares during Regular Trading Hours, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the Disclosed Portfolio that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day. Pricing information will be available on the Fund's Web site including: (1) The prior business day's reported NAV, the Bid/Ask Price of the Fund, and a calculation of the premium and discount of the Bid/Ask Price against the NAV; and (2) data in chart format displaying the frequency distribution of discounts and premiums of the daily Bid/Ask Price against the NAV, within appropriate ranges, for each of the four previous calendar quarters. Additionally, information regarding market price and trading of the Shares will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other
The intra-day, closing, and settlement prices of exchange-listed instruments (including exchange traded Depositary Receipts, preferred securities, convertible securities, common stock, futures, ETPs, and QPTPs) will be readily available from the exchanges trading such instruments as well as automated quotation systems, published or other public sources, or online information services such as Bloomberg or Reuters. Intraday and closing price information for exchange-traded options and futures will be available from the applicable exchange and from major market data vendors. In addition, price information for U.S. exchange-traded options will be available from the Options Price Reporting Authority. Quotation information from brokers and dealers or pricing services will be available for Fixed Income Securities. Price information regarding spot currency transactions and OTC-traded derivative instruments, including options, swaps, and forward currency transactions, as well as equity securities traded in the OTC market, including Restricted Securities, inverse floaters, short-term instruments, OTC-traded preferred securities, OTC-traded ADRs, and OTC-traded convertible securities, is available from major market data vendors. Repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements will generally be available through nationally recognized data service providers through subscription arrangements.
The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures relating to trading in the Shares and may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
For the above reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) by order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to adopt a principles-based approach to prohibit the misuse of material, nonpublic information by DPMs and LMMs by deleting Rule 8.91, sub-paragraph (b)(5) of Rule 8.15 and paragraph(b)(vii) of Rule 8.15A. In so doing, the Exchange would harmonize its rules related to the preventing the misuse of material, nonpublic information for every Trading Permit Holder (“TPH”). The Exchange believes that Rule 8.91, Rule 8.15(b)(5) and Rule 8.15A(b)(vii) are no longer necessary because all TPH, including DPMs and LMMs are subject to the Exchange's general principles-based requirements governing the protection against misuse of material, nonpublic information, pursuant to Rule 4.18 (Prevention of the Misuse of Material, Nonpublic Information), which obviates the need for separately prescribed requirements for a subset of market participants on the Exchange.
The Exchange has three classes of registered Market-Makers. Pursuant to Rule 8.1, a Market-Maker is an individual TPH or TPH organization that is registered with the Exchange for the purpose of making transactions as a dealer-specialist on the Exchange. All Market-Makers are subject to the requirements of Rule 8.7, which set forth the obligations of Market-Makers, including quoting activity.
Rule 8.85 outlines the obligations of DPM's, which, in addition to the Market-Maker obligations of Rule 8.7, must fulfill a number of increased obligations including providing continuous electronic quotes, assuring that each of the displayed market quotations is honored, and complying heightened with bid/ask differential requirements.
Rule 8.15 states that the Exchange may appoint, in an option class for which a DPM has not been appointed, one or more Market-Makers in good standing as LMMs and Supplemental Market-Makers (“SMMs”) to participate in opening rotation procedures for Hybrid 3.0 classes and/or to determine a formula for generating updated market quotations during the trading day. LMM's in Hybrid 3.0 classes are obligated to quote a firm two-sided market of sufficient size to accommodate a relatively active opening within the bid/ask differential requirements determined by the Exchange.
Rule 8.15A states the Exchange may appoint one or more Market-Makers in good standing with an appointment in a Hybrid-Trading system option class for which a DPM has not been appointed as LMMs. Much like DPMs LMMs in Hybrid Classes are subject to increased obligations that include providing continuous electronic quotes that comply with the bid/ask differential requirements determined by the Exchange.
Pursuant to Rules 8.15B and 8.87, the exchange may establish participation entitlements for LMM's and DPMs appointed pursuant to the aforementioned Rules. DPM's and LMM's must meet specific obligations prior to being awarded a participation entitlements [sic].
Whether operating on the CBOE Trading Floor or from a remote location, all Market-Makers, including DPMs and LMMs, have access to the same information in the Consolidated Book that is available to all other market participants. Moreover, none of the Exchange's Market-Makers have agency obligations to the Exchange's Order Book. As such, the primary distinctions between Market-Makers and DPMs and LMMs are the increased quoting requirements and allocation entitlements.
Despite the fact that Market-Makers, DPMs and LMMs have access to the same trading information as all other market participants on the Exchange, the Exchange has distinct rules governing how DPMs and LMMs may operate. Rule 8.91(a) specifies that a DPM shall maintain information barriers that are reasonably designed to prevent the misuse of material, nonpublic information with any affiliates that may conduct a brokerage business in option classes allocated to the DPM or act as a
Rule 8.15(b)(5) requires LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes maintain information barriers that are reasonably designed to prevent the misuse of material, nonpublic information with any affiliates that may conduct a brokerage business in option classes allocated to the LMM or act as specialist or Market-Maker in any security underlying options allocated to the LMM. Rule 8.15A(b)(vii) similarly requires LMMs in Hybrid classes maintain information barriers that are reasonably designed to prevent the misuse of material, nonpublic information with any affiliates that may conduct a brokerage business in option classes allocated to the LMM or act as specialist or Market-Maker in any security underlying options allocated to the LMM. Neither Rule 8.15 nor 8.15A require the prior Exchange approval of information barriers outlined in Rule 8.91.
The Exchange believes the particularized guidelines in Rules, 8.91, 8.15(b)(5) and 8.15A(b)(vii) for DPMs, LMMs in Hybrid 3.0 classes, and LMMs in Hybrid classes, respectively, are no longer necessary and proposes to delete them. Rather, the Exchange believes that Rule 4.18, governing the misuse of material, nonpublic information provides for an appropriate, principles-based approach to prevent the type of market abuses Rules 8.91, 8.15(b)(5) and 8.15A(b)(vii) are designed to address. Specifically, Rule 4.18 requires every TPH shall establish, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of such TPH's business, to prevent the misuse, in violation of the Exchange Act and Exchange Rules, of material, nonpublic information by such TPH or persons associated with such TPH. For the purposes of this Rule, conduct constituting the misuse of material, nonpublic information in violation of the Exchange Act and Exchange Rules includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) Trading in any securities issued by a corporation, partnership, Trust Issued Receipts or Units (as defined in Exchange Rules) or a trust or similar entities, or in any related securities or related options or other derivative securities, or in any related non-U.S. currency options, futures or options on futures on such currency, or any other derivatives based on such currency, or in any related commodity, related commodity futures or options on commodity futures or in any related commodity derivatives, while in possession of material, nonpublic information concerning that corporation, partnership, Trust Issued Receipts, or those Units, or that trust or similar entities;
(b) Trading in an underlying security or related options or other derivative securities, or in any related non-U.S. currency, non-U.S. currency options, futures or options on futures on such currency, or in any related commodity, related commodity futures or options on commodity futures or any other related commodities derivatives, or any other derivatives based on such currency while in possession of material nonpublic information concerning imminent transactions in the above; and
(c) Disclosing to another person or entity any material, nonpublic information involving a corporation, partnership, Trust Issued Receipts, or Units or a trust or similar entities whose shares are publicly traded or an imminent transactions in an underlying security or related securities or in the underlying non-U.S. currency of any related non-U.S. currency options, futures or options on futures on such currency, or any other derivatives based on such currency, or in any related commodity, related commodity futures or options on commodity futures or any other related commodity derivatives, for the purpose of facilitating the possible misuse of such material, nonpublic information.
Because DPMs and LMMs are already subject to the requirements of Rule 4.18, the Exchange does not believe that it is necessary to separately require specific limitations on dealings between DPMs and LMMs and affiliates. Deleting Rules 8.91, 8.15(b)(5) and 8.15A(b)(vii) would provide DPMs and LMMs with the flexibility to adapt their policies and procedures as appropriate to reflect changes to their business model, business activities, or the securities market in a manner similar to how Market-Makers on the Exchange currently operate consistent with Rule 4.18.
As noted above, DPMs and LMMs are distinguished under Exchange Rules from other types of Market-Makers only to the extent that they have certain heightened obligations and potential allocation entitlements. However, none of these heightened obligations provides different or greater access to nonpublic information than any other market participant on the Exchange. Specifically, whether on the CBOE Trading Floor or remotely, neither DPMs nor LMMs on the Exchange have access to trading information provided by the Exchange, either at, or prior to, the point of execution, that is not made available to all other market participants on the Exchange in a similar manner. Further, as noted above, DPMs and LMMs on the Exchange do not have any agency responsibilities for orders in the Order Book. Accordingly, because DPMs and LMMs do not have any trading advantages at the Exchange due to their market role, the Exchange believes that they should be subject to the same rules regarding the prevention of the misuse of material, nonpublic information, specifically Rule 4.18.
The Exchange notes that its proposed approach to use a principles-based approach to protecting against the misuse of material nonpublic information for all of its registered Market-Makers is consistent with recently filed rule changes for NYSE MKT, LLC on behalf of NYSE Amex Options, International Securities Exchange, LLC (“ISE”) and BOX Options Exchange, LLC (“BOX”).
The Exchange notes that even with this proposed rule change, pursuant to Rule 4.18, a DPM or LMM would still be obligated to ensure that its policies and procedures reflect the current state of its business and continue to be reasonably designed to prevent the misuse of material, nonpublic information. While information barriers would not specifically be required under the proposal, Rule 4.18 already requires that a TPH consider the nature of the TPH's business in structuring its policies and procedures, which may dictate that an information barrier or a functional separation be part of the appropriate set of policies and procedures that would be reasonably designed to achieve compliance with applicable securities law and regulations, and with applicable Exchange rules.
The Exchange is not proposing to change what is considered to be material, non-public information and, thus does not expect there to be any changes to the types of information that an affiliated brokerage business of a market maker could share with such market maker. In that regard, the proposed rule change will not permit the brokerage unit of a TPH firm to have access to any non-public order or quote information of affiliated market maker, including hidden or undisplayed orders and quotes on the Exchange. TPHs do not expect to receive any additional order or quote information as a result of this proposed rule change.
Further, the Exchange does not believe that there will be any material change to TPH information barriers as a result of removal of the Exchange's pre-approval requirements for DPMs. In fact, the Exchange anticipates that eliminating the pre-approval requirement should facilitate implementation of changes to TPH information barriers as necessary to protect against the misuse of material, non-public information. The Exchange also suggests that the pre-approval requirement is unnecessary because DPMs do not have agency responsibilities to the book. However, as is the case today with market makers, information barriers of new entrants would be subject to review as part of a new firm application. Moreover, the policies and procedures of market makers, including those relating to information barriers would be subject to review by FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, pursuant to a Regulatory Services Agreement.
The Exchange further notes that under Rule 4.18, a TPH would be able [sic] would be able to structure its firm to provide for its options DPMs or LMMs, as applicable, to be structured with its equities and customer-facing businesses, provided that any such structuring would be done in a manner reasonably designed to protect against the misuse of material, nonpublic information. For example, pursuant to Rule 4.18, a DPM on the Exchange could be in the same independent trading unit, a defined in Rule 200(f) of Regulation SHO,
The Exchange believes that the proposed reliance on the principles-based Rule 4.18 would ensure that a TPH that operates a DPM or LMM would be required to protect against the misuse of any material nonpublic information. As noted above, Rule 4.18 already requires that firms refrain from trading while in possession of material nonpublic information concerning imminent transactions in a security or related product. The Exchange believes that moving to a principles-based approach rather than prescribing how and when to wall off a DPM or LMM from the rest of the firm would provide TPH operating DPMs or LMMs with appropriate tools to better manage risk across a firm, including integrating options positions with other positions of the firm or, as applicable, by the respective independent trading unit. Specifically, the Exchange believes that it is appropriate for risk management purposes for a TPH operating a DPM or LMM to be able to consider both DPM/LMM traded-positions for the purposes of calculating net positions consistent with Rule 200 of Regulation SHO,
The Exchange further notes that if DPMs or LMMs are integrated with other Market-Making operations, they would be subject to existing rules that prohibit TPH from disadvantaging their customers or other market participants by improperly capitalizing of a TPH organization's access to the receipt of material nonpublic information. As such, a TPH organization that integrates its DPM or LMM operations together with equity Market-Making, would need to protect customer information consistent with existing obligations to protect such information. The Exchange has rules prohibiting TPHs from disadvantaging their customers or other market participants by improperly capitalizing on the TPH's access to or receipt of material nonpublic information. For example, Rule 4.24(e) requires Each TPH shall establish, maintain, and enforce written
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market by adopting a principles-based approach to permit a TPH operating a DPM or LMM to maintain and enforce policies and procedures to, among other things, prohibit the misuse of material nonpublic information. The proposed rule change would further eliminate restrictions on how a TPH structures its DPM and LMM operations. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is based on an approved rule of the Exchange to which DPMs and LMMs are already subject-Rule 4.18-and harmonizes the rules governing DPMs, LMMs and Market-Makers. Moreover, TPH operating DPMs and LMMs would continue to be subject to federal and Exchange requirements for protecting material nonpublic order information.
The Exchange further believes the proposal is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices and to promote just and equitable principles of trade because existing rules make clear to all TPH the type of conduct that is prohibited by the Exchange. While the proposal eliminates certain requirements relating to the misuse of material nonpublic information, DPMs, LMMs and all other TPH would remain subject to existing Exchange rules requiring them to establish and maintain systems to supervise their activities, and to create, implement, and maintain written procedures that are reasonably designed to comply with applicable securities laws and Exchange rules, including the prohibition on the misuse of material nonpublic information.
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change would still require that a TPH operating DPMs and LMMs maintain and enforce policies and procedures designed to ensure compliance with applicable federal securities laws and regulations and with Exchange rules. Even thought there would no longer be pre-approval of DPM information barriers, and DPM or LMM written policies and procedures would continue to be subject to oversight by the Exchange and therefore the elimination of specific restrictions should not reduce the effectiveness of the Exchange rules to protect against the misuse of material nonpublic information. Rather, TPH will be able to utilize a flexible, principles-based approach to modify their policies and procedures as appropriate to reflect changes to their business model, business activities, or to the securities market itself. Moreover, while specified information barriers may no longer be required, a TPH's business model or business activities may dictate that an information barrier or functional separation be part of the appropriate set of policies and procedures that would be reasonably designed to achieve compliance with applicable securities laws and regulations, and with applicable Exchange rules. The Exchange therefore believes that the proposed rule change will maintain the existing protection of investors and the public interest that is currently applicable to DPM's and LMM's, while at the same time removing impediments to and perfecting a free and open market by moving to a principles-based approach to protect against the misuse of material nonpublic information.
CBOE does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, the Exchange believes that the proposal will enhance competition by allowing DPMs and LMMs to comply with applicable Exchange rules in a manner best suited to their business models, business activities and the securities markets, thus reducing regulatory burdens while still ensuring compliance with applicable securities laws and regulations and Exchange rules. The Exchange believes that the proposal will foster a fair and orderly marketplace without being overly burdensome upon DPMs and LMMs.
Moreover, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would eliminate a burden on competition for TPH which currently exists as a result of disparate rule treatment between the options and equities markets regarding how to protect against the misuse of material, nonpublic information. For those TPH that are also members of equities exchanges their respective equity Market-Maker operations are now subject to a principles-based approach to protecting against the misuse of material nonpublic information. The Exchange believes it would remove a burden on competition to enable TPH to similarly apply a principles-based approach to protecting against the misuse of material nonpublic information in the options space. To this end, the Exchange notes that Rule 4.18 still requires a TPH that operates as a Market-Maker on the Exchange,
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not:
A. Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest;
B. impose any significant burden on competition; and
C. become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
ICC is proposing an amendment to its previously submitted proposed rule change to adopt new rules that will provide the basis for ICC to clear certain Asia-Pacific CDS contracts. Specifically, ICC proposed to amend Chapter 26 of the ICC Rulebook (“ICC Rules”) to add Subchapters 26J and 26L to provide for the clearance of iTraxx Asia/Pacific CDS contracts (“iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts”) and Standard Asia/Pacific Sovereign CDS contracts (“SAS Contracts”, collectively with iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts “Asia-Pacific CDS Contracts”). Additionally, ICC proposed to amend the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures to add two additional pricing windows to accommodate the submission of end-of-day prices relating to such Asia-Pacific CDS Contracts. Finally, ICC proposed to amend the ICC Risk Management Framework to include the risk horizon utilized for instruments traded during Asia-Pacific hours and to
In its filing with the Commission, ICC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the additional rule change in Amendment No. 1. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to adopt new rules that will provide the basis for ICC to clear Asia-Pacific CDS Contracts. Specifically, ICC proposes amending chapter 26 of the ICC Rules to add Subchapters 26J and 26L to provide for the clearance of iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts and Standard Asia/Pacific Sovereign CDS contracts (specifically the Commonwealth of Australia, the Malaysian Federation, the People's Republic of China, the Republic of Indonesia, the Republic of Korea and the Republic of the Philippines), respectively. Further, ICC proposes amending the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures to add two additional pricing windows to accommodate the submission of end-of-day prices relating to such Asia-Pacific CDS Contracts. Finally, ICC proposes amending the ICC Risk Management Framework to include the risk horizon utilized for instruments traded during Asia-Pacific hours and amending the ICC Risk Management Model Description document to add Asia-Pacific to the list of regions to be considered in General Wrong Way Risk calculations. The addition of these Asia-Pacific CDS Contracts will benefit the CDS market by providing market participants the benefits of clearing, including reduction in counterparty risk and safeguarding of margin assets pursuant to clearing house rules.
The iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts have similar terms to the CDX North American IG/HY/XO CDS contracts (“CDX NA Contracts”) currently cleared by ICC and governed by Subchapter 26A of the ICC Rules, the CDX Emerging Markets CDS contracts (“CDX EM Contracts”) currently cleared by ICC and governed by Subchapter 26C of the ICC Rules, and the iTraxx Europe CDS contracts (“iTraxx Europe Contracts”) currently cleared by ICC and governed by Subchapter 26F of the ICC Rules. Accordingly, the proposed rules found in Subchapter 26J largely mirror the ICC Rules for CDX NA Contracts in Subchapter 26A, CDX EM Contracts in Subchapter 26C, and iTraxx Europe Contracts in Subchapter 26F, with certain modifications that reflect differences in terms and market conventions between those contracts and iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts. iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts will be denominated in United States Dollars.
ICC Rule 26J-102 (Definitions) sets forth the definitions used for the iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts. The definitions are substantially the same as the definitions found in Subchapters 26A, 26C, and 26F of the ICC Rules, other than certain conforming changes.
ICC Rules 26J-309 (Acceptance of iTraxx Asia/Pacific Untranched Contracts by ICE Clear Credit), 26J-315 (Terms of the Cleared iTraxx Asia/Pacific Untranched Contract), 26J-316 (Updating Index Version of Fungible Contracts After a Credit Event or a Succession Event; Updating Relevant Untranched Standard Terms Supplement), and 26J-317 (Terms of iTraxx Asia/Pacific Untranched Contracts) reflect or incorporate the basic contract specifications for iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts and are substantially the same as under Subchapters 26A, 26C, and 26F of the ICC Rules.
SAS Contracts have similar terms to the Standard North American Corporate Single Name CDS contracts (“SNAC Contracts”) currently cleared by ICC and governed by Subchapter 26B of the ICC Rules, the Standard Emerging Sovereign CDS contracts (“SES Contracts”) currently cleared by ICC and governed by Subchapter 26D of the ICC Rules, the Standard European Corporate Single Name CDS contracts (“STEC Contracts”) currently cleared at ICC and governed by Subchapter 26G of the ICC Rules, the Standard European Financial Corporate Single Name CDS Contracts (“STEFC Contracts”) currently cleared at ICC and governed by Subchapter 26H of the ICC Rules, and the Standard Western European Corporate Single Name CDS contracts (“SWES Contracts”) currently cleared by ICC and governed by Subchapter 26I of the ICC Rules. Accordingly, the proposed rules found in Subchapter 26L largely mirror the ICC Rules for SNAC Contracts in Subchapter 26B, SES Contracts in Subchapter 26D, STEC Contracts in Subchapter 26G, STEFC Contracts in Subchapter 26H, and SWES Contracts in Subchapter 26I, with certain modifications that reflect differences in terms and market conventions between those contracts and SAS Contracts. SAS Contracts will be denominated in United States Dollars.
ICC Rule 26L-102 (Definitions) sets forth the definitions used for the SAS Contracts. “Eligible SAS Reference Entities” are defined as “each particular Reference Entity included in the List of Eligible SAS Reference Entities,” which is a list maintained, updated and published from time to time by ICC containing certain specified information with respect to each reference entity. ICC is proposing to add the Commonwealth of Australia, the Malaysian Federation, the People's Republic of China, the Republic of Indonesia, the Republic of Korea and the Republic of the Philippines to its List of Eligible SAS Reference Entities. If ICC determines to add or remove additional SAS Contracts from the List of Eligible SAS Reference Entities, it will seek approval from the Commission for such contracts (or for a class of product including such contracts) by a subsequent filing. The remaining definitions are substantially the same as the definitions found in Subchapters 26B, 26D, 26G, 26H, and 26I of the ICC Rules, other than certain conforming changes.
ICC Rules 26L-203 (Restriction on Activity), 26L-206 (Notices Required of Participants with respect to SAS Contracts), 26L-303 (SAS Contract Adjustments), 26L-309 (Acceptance of SAS Contracts by ICE Clear Credit), 26L-315 (Terms of the Cleared SAS Contract), 26L-316 (Relevant Physical Settlement Matrix Updates), 26L-502 (Specified Actions), and 26L-616 (Contract Modification) reflect or incorporate the basic contract specifications for SAS Contracts and are substantially the same as under Subchapters 26B, 26D, 26G, 26H, and 26I of the ICC Rules.
Additionally, ICC is proposing to amend the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures to add two additional pricing windows to accommodate the submission of end-of-day prices relating to such Asia-Pacific CDS Contracts. Specifically, ICC is proposing adding one pricing window at the end of the Sydney trading day to determine prices for instruments primarily traded in Sydney hours and one pricing window at the end of the Singapore trading day to determine prices for instruments primarily traded
Finally, ICC is proposing to amend the ICC Risk Management Framework to include the risk horizon utilized for instruments traded during Asia-Pacific hours and to amend the ICC Risk Management Model Description document to add Asia-Pacific to the list of regions to be considered in General Wrong Way Risk calculations.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
The addition of iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts and SAS Contracts will allow market participants an increased ability to manage risk. ICC believes that acceptance of the new contracts, on the terms and conditions set out in the ICC Rules, is consistent with the prompt and accurate clearance of and settlement of securities transactions and derivative agreements, contracts and transactions cleared by ICC, the safeguarding of securities and funds in the custody or control of ICC, and the protection of investors and the public interest, within the meaning of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Clearing of the iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts and SAS Contracts will also satisfy the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22.
Furthermore, ICC believes that the proposed changes to the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures are consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to ICC, in particular, to Section 17(A)(b)(3)(F),
Finally, ICC believes that the proposed changes to the ICC Risk Management Framework and the ICC Risk Management Model Description document are consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to ICC, in particular, to Section 17(A)(b)(3)(F),
ICC does not believe the proposed rule change would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition. The iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts and SAS Contracts will be available for clearing to all ICC Clearing Participants. The clearing of iTraxx Asia/Pacific Contracts and SAS Contracts by ICC does not preclude the offering of this product for clearing by other market participants. Further, the changes to the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures, ICC Risk Management Framework, and ICC Risk Management Model Description document apply uniformly across all market participants. Therefore, ICC does not believe the proposed rule change imposes any burden on competition that is inappropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not been solicited or received. ICC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by ICC.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICC-2016-002 and should be submitted on or before March 4,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(1) would require a clearing agency that provides CCP services to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to measure its credit exposures to its participants at least once each day, and limit its exposures to potential losses from defaults by its participants in normal market conditions so that the operations of the clearing agency would not be disrupted and non-defaulting participants would not be exposed to losses that they cannot anticipate or control. The purpose of the collection of information is to enable the clearing agency to monitor and limit its exposures to its participants.
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(2) would require a clearing agency that provides CCP services to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to: (i) Use margin requirements to limit its credit exposures to participants in normal market conditions; (ii) use risk-based models and parameters to set margin requirements; and (iii) review the models and parameters at least monthly. The purpose of the collection of information is to enable the clearing agency to maintain sufficient collateral or margin.
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(3) would require a clearing agency that provides CCP services to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to maintain sufficient financial resources to withstand, at a minimum, a default by the participant family to which it has the largest exposure in extreme but plausible market conditions, provided that a registered clearing agency acting as a central counterparty for security-based swaps shall maintain additional financial resources sufficient to withstand, at a minimum, a default by the two participant families to which it has the largest exposures in extreme but plausible market conditions, in its capacity as a central counterparty for security-based swaps. The purpose of the collection of information is to enable the clearing agency to satisfy all of its settlement obligations in the event of a participant default.
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(4) would require a clearing agency that provides CCP services to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for an annual model validation consisting of evaluating the performance of the clearing agency's margin models and the related parameters and assumptions associated with such models by a qualified person who is free from influence from the persons responsible for the development or operation of the models being validated. The purpose of the collection of information is to enable the clearing agency to obtain an assessment of its margin model by a qualified, independent person.
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(5) would require a clearing agency that provides CCP services to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide the opportunity for a person that does not perform any dealer or security-based swap dealer services to obtain membership at the clearing agency to clear securities for itself or on behalf of other persons. The purpose of the collection of information is to enable more market participants to obtain indirect access to clearing agencies.
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(6) would require a clearing agency that provides CCP services to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to have membership standards that do not require that participants maintain a portfolio of any minimum size or that participants maintain a minimum transaction volume. The purpose of the collection of information is to remove unnecessary barriers to participation in clearing agencies that provide CCP services.
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(7) would require a clearing agency that provides CCP services to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide a person that maintains net capital equal to or greater than $50 million with the ability to obtain membership at the clearing agency, provided that such persons are able to comply with other reasonable membership standards, with any net capital requirements being scalable so that they are proportional to the risks posed by the participant's activities to the clearing agency. The rule also permits a clearing agency to provide for a higher net capital requirement (
Rule 17Ad-22(c)(1) would require that each fiscal quarter (based on calculations made as of the last business day of the clearing agency's fiscal quarter), or at any time upon Commission request, a clearing agency that performs CCP services shall calculate and maintain a record of the financial resources necessary to meet the requirement in Rule 17Ad-22(b)(3) and sufficient documentation to explain the methodology it uses to compute such financial resource requirement. The purpose of the collection of information is to enable the Commission to monitor the financial resources of clearing agencies that provide CCP services.
Rule 17Ad-22(c)(2) would require a clearing agency to post on its Web site an annual audited financial statement that must (i) be a complete set of financial statements of the clearing agency for the most recent two fiscal years of the clearing agency and be prepared in accordance with U.S. generally accepted accounting principles (“U.S. GAAP”), except that for a clearing agency that is a corporation or other organization incorporated or organized under the laws of any foreign country, the financial statements may be prepared according to U.S. GAAP or International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (“IFRS”); (ii) be audited in accordance with standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board by a registered public accounting firm that is qualified and independent in accordance with Rule 2-01 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.2-01); and (iii) include a report of the registered public accounting firm that complies with paragraphs (a) through (d) of Rule 2-02 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.2-02). The purpose of the collection of information is to enable the Commission to monitor the financial resources of clearing agencies that provide CCP services.
Rule 17Ad-22(d)(1) would require clearing agencies to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for a well-founded, transparent, and enforceable legal framework for each aspect of their activities in all relevant jurisdictions. The purpose of the collection of information is to help ensure that clearing agencies' policies and procedures do not cause confusion or legal uncertainty among their participants because they are unclear, incomplete or conflict with other applicable laws or judicial precedent.
The Commission believes that 10 registered clearing agencies will incur a total burden of approximately 8,029 hours annually.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to delete obsolete Rules 1000C-1009C, collectively captioned Rules Applicable to Trading of PHLX FOREX Options
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange's rules for listing and trading PHLX FOREX Options were approved by the Commission in 2012
The Exchange also proposes to make conforming changes to Phlx Option Floor Procedure Advices F-6, Option Quote Parameters, and F-15, Minor Infractions of Position/Exercise Limits and Hedge Exemptions, removing language which is specific to PHLX FOREX Options.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed change is not designed to address any competitive issue but would merely remove rule language relating to PHLX FOREX Options that is not relevant to the Exchange's business in any respect.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B), and (C) of the Act and under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and (2) of the Act. The requested order would permit certain registered open-end investment companies to acquire shares of certain registered open-end investment companies, registered closed-end investment companies, and registered unit investment trusts (collectively, “Underlying Funds”) that are within and outside the same group of investment companies as the acquiring investment companies, in excess of the limits in section 12(d)(1) of the Act.
Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: c/o Mr. David Moore, State Farm Investment Management Corp., One State Farm Plaza, Bloomington, IL 61710-0001.
Jean E. Minarick, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6811, or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Applicants request an order to permit (a) a Fund
2. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the application. Such terms and conditions are designed to, among other things, help prevent any potential (i) undue influence over an Underlying Fund that is not in the same “group of investment companies” as the Fund of Funds through control or voting power, or in connection with certain services, transactions, and underwritings, (ii) excessive layering of fees, and (iii) overly complex fund structures, which are the concerns underlying the limits in sections 12(d)(1)(A), (B), and (C) of the Act.
3. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Nasdaq proposes to add NextShares to the list of securities eligible to be Qualified Securities under the Lead Market Maker Program of Rule 7014(f) and to make a technical change to the rule. Nasdaq will implement the proposed rule change on February 26, 2016.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Nasdaq's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, Nasdaq included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. Nasdaq has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Nasdaq is proposing to include NextShares, listed under Rule 5745, to the list of securities eligible to be treated as a Qualified Security under the Lead Market Maker (“LMM”) Program of Rule 7014(f).
The LMM Program is designed to provide incentive to market makers to make markets in certain relatively illiquid exchange-traded products (“ETPs”). To achieve this goal, Nasdaq provides credits to a designated LMM for execution of a Qualified Security. Under Rule 7014(f)(1), a security may be designated as a “Qualified Security” if: (A) It is an exchange-traded fund or index-linked security listed on Nasdaq pursuant to Nasdaq Rules 5705, 5710, 5720, or 5735; and (B) it has at least one LMM.
An LMM is a registered Nasdaq market maker for a Qualified Security that has committed to maintain minimum performance standards, which are based on certain percentages
As previously noted, Nasdaq currently includes in the program Portfolio Depository Receipts, Index Fund Shares, Securities Linked to the Performance of Indexes and Commodities (Including Currencies), Trust Issued Receipts, and Managed Fund Shares. Nasdaq is proposing to add another ETP, NextShares, as eligible to be a Qualified Security under the LMM Program.
The term NextShares means a security that (a) represents an interest in a registered investment company (“NextShares Fund”) organized as an open-end management investment company that invests in a portfolio of securities and other assets selected and managed by the NextShares Fund's investment adviser consistent with the NextShares Fund's investment objectives and policies; (b) is issued in a specified aggregate unit quantity in return for a deposit of a specified portfolio of securities and/or a cash amount with a value per NextShare equal to the NextShares Fund's net asset value; (c) when aggregated in the same specified unit quantity, may be redeemed for a specified portfolio of securities and/or cash with a value per NextShare equal to the NextShares Fund's net asset value; and (d) is traded on Nasdaq or another national securities exchange using net asset value (“NAV”)-Based Trading.
As a new and novel ETP, Nasdaq is proposing to include NextShares in its LMM Program to provide incentive to market makers to make markets in NextShares, which will help to ensure that adequate liquidity is provided in the novel product. This will benefit market participants interested in buying or selling these ETPs. As noted above, the LMM Program's performance criteria are based on an LMM's quoting at the NBBO. For purposes of the LMM Program, Nasdaq will use a NextShares' best proxy price bid and offer in comparison to an LMM's quoting at the time to determine whether it meets the performance criteria. Nasdaq will list and trade the first NextShares product on February 26, 2016 and plans to include NextShares in the LMM Program as Qualified Securities effective that day.
Nasdaq is also proposing to make a technical change to rule text in Rule 7014(f). Currently, Nasdaq describes Qualified Securities as being “exchange-traded fund or index-linked security listed on Nasdaq pursuant to Nasdaq Rules 5705, 5710, 5720, or 5735.”
Nasdaq believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
Nasdaq believes that inclusion of NextShares in the LMM Program is reasonable because the new ETP is novel, and offering incentives to market makers to provide liquidity in the product will help ensure its successful launch. The LMM Program is designed to improve liquidity in ETPs by allocating rebates to LMMs that quote at the national best bid and best offer for certain percentages of time. As additional incentive, the LMM Program
Lastly, Nasdaq believes that the proposed use of the term exchange-traded product in lieu of the terms exchange-traded fund and index-linked security is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it clarifies the rule text with a more commonly-used term to describe the securities eligible to be Qualified Securities under the LMM Program and does not change the type of securities eligible to be included in the program.
Nasdaq does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. Specifically, the change is designed to improve market quality through the application of an ETP incentive program to a type of ETP that is currently not part of the program. A new ETP product, NextShares, may have comparatively low liquidity upon listing. Including NextShares in the LMM Program is designed to improve market quality in NextShares. Lastly, to the extent market quality in NextShares improves from inclusion in the LMM Program, the proposed change may promote competition among exchanges for new NextShares listings and similar incentive programs, to the benefit of all market participants trading NextShares.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Administrative declaration of a disaster for the State of Florida dated 02/05/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street, SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's disaster declaration, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14614 C and for economic injury is 14615 0.
The State which received an EIDL Declaration # is Florida.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Administrative declaration of a disaster for the State of Florida dated 02/05/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's disaster declaration, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14616 C and for economic injury is 14617 0.
The State which received an EIDL Declaration # is Florida.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Economic Injury Disaster Loan (EIDL) declaration for the State of Michigan, dated 02/05/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's EIDL declaration, applications for economic injury disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for economic injury is 146200.
The States which received an EIDL Declaration # are Michigan.
Notice is hereby given that C3 Capital Partners III, L.P., 1511 Baltimore Avenue, Suite 500, Kansas City, MO 64108, a Federal Licensee under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, as amended (“the Act”), in connection with the financing of a small concern, has sought an exemption under Section 312 of the Act and Section 107.730, Financings which constitute Conflicts of Interest of the Small Business Administration (“SBA”) Rules and Regulations (13 CFR 107). Midwest Mezzanine Fund V SBIC, L.P., proposes providing subordinated debt and private equity financing to Drive Source International, 7900 Durand Avenue, Sturtevant, WI 53177. The financing by C3 Capital Partners III, L.P. will discharge obligations held by C3 Capital Partners II, L.P., LLC.
This financing is brought within the purview of § 107.730 of the Regulations because C3 Capital Partners III, L.P. and C3 Capital Partners II, L.P. are Associates and C3 Capital Partners II, L.P., holds over five percent of the equity in DSI, therefore this transaction requires prior SBA exemption.
Notice is hereby given that any interested person may submit written comments on the transaction, within fifteen days of the date of this publication, to the Associate Administrator for Investment and Innovation, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 Third Street SW., Washington, DC 20416.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 1.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of Oklahoma (FEMA-4247-DR), dated 12/29/2015.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the President's major disaster declaration for Private Non-Profit organizations in the State of Oklahoma, dated 12/29/2015, is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster.
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of Arkansas (FEMA-4254-DR), dated 02/05/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 02/05/2016, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14623B and for economic injury is 14624B.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Arkansas (FEMA-4254-DR), dated 02/05/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 02/05/2016, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 14621B and for economic injury is 146220.
Illinois Central Railroad Company (IC), pursuant to a written trackage rights agreement,
The transaction may be consummated on February 27, 2016, the effective date of the exemption (30 days after the exemption was filed).
WCL states that the proposed trackage rights will facilitate the efficient provision of service to and from a rail-served logistics facility at Joliet, via a switch connection located on UP's line. WCL states also that by allowing more direct service and enhancing crew utilization, the proposed transaction will improve rail operations within the Chicago terminal area to the benefit of WCL, IC, and UP.
As a condition to this exemption, any employees affected by the trackage rights will be protected by the conditions imposed in
An original and 10 copies of all pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 35992, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on Robert A. Wimbish, Fletcher & Sippel LLC, 29 North Wacker Drive, Suite 920, Chicago, IL 60606.
According to WCL, this action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c).
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at “
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces that it has received an application from Farruggio's Express (Farruggio) for an exemption from timecard requirements for its drivers who may not meet all of the conditions for utilization of the 100 air-mile radius log book exemption in that section. The request would exempt Farruggio's drivers who stay within the 100 air-mile radius, but may occasionally exceed the 12 hour limitation, from having to complete a daily record of duty status (RODS). Farruggio states that its entire fleet of commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) is equipped with Global Positioning System (GPS) vehicle tracking devices, which it believes justifies the request for this exemption and provides an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be obtained by complying with the regulations. FMCSA requests public comment on Farruggio's application for exemption.
Comments must be received on or before March 14, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Number FMCSA-2015-0460 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received without change to
For information concerning this notice, contact Mr. Richard Clemente, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 202-366-4325. Email:
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2015-0460), indicate the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide a reason for suggestions or recommendations. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comments online, go to
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
Farruggio provides service to railroad ramps and maritime piers in the eastern United States. Its regional programs also include truckload and less-than-truckload service (dry van, flat bed and reefers) as well as piggyback and container service. Farruggio expects that all of their drivers—approximately 95 to 100—and CMVs would operate under the terms of the requested exemption.
According to Farruggio, virtually all of its drivers operate within a 50- to 60-mile radius of their home terminal. They are home every day and for the most part meet the current exemption requirements and conditions of the 100 air-mile radius driver (49 CFR 395.1(e)(1)). Some of these drivers record their hours worked on an “exempt” record of duty status (RODS), while others record time in and time out and total hours worked for the day on a worksheet provided by Farruggio. This exemption request would enable Farruggio's drivers who stay within the 100 air-mile radius, but occasionally exceed the 12-hour limitation, from having to complete a daily RODS on days when they exceed the 12-hour limit. On a weekly basis, Farruggio averages about 12% of their drivers exceeding the 12-hour limitation, primarily due to waiting times at rail yards and piers. The drivers who occasionally exceed the 12-hour limitation return to the terminal within the 14-hour work limit. On average Farruggio sees less than .03% of its drivers exceeding the 14-hour limit. In the exemption request, Farruggio states that these drivers will not exceed the 14-hour rule limit.
While Farruggio meets the requirements of the 100 air-mile radius exemption, and believes that its drivers' hours are being recorded accurately, the company has embarked on the use of a vehicle recording device called the Geo Tab 7 that it says exceeds the recording requirements of the exempt RODS. Farruggio states that the use of this device further increases the safety performance of its drivers and accurately records all of their activities including on-duty and driving time as well as total hours for that day. The Geo Tab 7 has been installed in all of Farruggio's CMVs. According to the application, this system will exceed the requirements of FMCSA's final rule on Electronic Logging Devices published on December 16, 2015 (80 FR 78292). It allows Farruggio to track vehicles through the use of GPS positioning, monitors all vehicle activities through connection to the engine control module and accurately reports hours driven and hours worked daily.
Farruggio states that the use of a daily RODS or exempt log book does not enable the company to monitor and respond to certain events in a timely manner, since it is unaware of them until the RODS are audited when turned in by the drivers at the end of the week. Conversely, with the use of the electronic system, Farruggio sees events as they occur in real time and can respond immediately.
Farruggio believes that the use of the electronic system, along with its increased focus on driver training and education, goes beyond simple compliance with the Federal regulations and raises the company's efforts to more than basic compliance. The system has allowed and will continue to allow Farruggio to provide additional timely oversight of safety issues and has improved and will enable it to enhance safety and reduce fatigue. Farruggio believes that the request for exemption goes beyond what is minimally required by the present exempt RODS provisions, and will increase safety, compliance and protect the motoring public.
Farruggio states that it is committed to a partnership with FMCSA that will enhance overall vehicle safety and protect the lives of all that company drivers interact with.
If this exemption is granted, Farruggio proposes to implement the following conditions on the use of this exemption:
• Allow FMCSA and the State enforcement partners access to its data as both a monitoring and training tool. This would be provided to the Agency and State partners by granting them access at any time through Farruggio's Web portal or conducting an on-site Compliance Review of the carrier;
• Farruggio will maintain a Satisfactory safety rating;
• Farruggio's drivers will carry a copy of the exemption with them when operating the CMV;
• Farruggio will conduct a minimum of four safety meetings per year at each of their individual terminals;
• Farruggio will continue its ongoing immediate notification and training for any of its drivers who exceeds a speed limit; and
• Farruggio will continue its ongoing immediate notification and training for any of its drivers who may exceed the HOS limits.
Relating to some of these conditions listed, the electronic reporting system further enables Farruggio to track and advise its CMV drivers of the following events: (1) Idling over 5 minutes, (2) speeding, (3) dangerous driving including hard braking, harsh cornering and harsh acceleration, and (4) seat belt use. Every time a driver exceeds posted speed limits an email alert is sent to Farruggio's safety department, and company and terminal management. Drivers are notified via email and phone when safe to do so, advising them of the need to slow down. Drivers also receive email notifications, letters, and phone calls for instances of harsh cornering and hard braking. When notified of these critical events, Farruggio's drivers receive critical information on why and how to improve vehicle handling to avoid rollovers, and how to better judge following distance and other issues to avoid hard braking. Since implementation of the electronic system and Farruggio's notification of speeding events, speeding has been decreased over 95%.
A copy of Farruggio's application for exemption is available for review in the docket for this notice.
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), Department of Transportation.
Notice and request for comments.
FRA hereby gives notice that it is submitting the following information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Emergency Processing under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. FRA requests that OMB authorize the collection of information identified below seven days after publication of this Notice for a period of 180 days.
Mr. Robert Brogan, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Regulatory Safety Analysis Division, RRS-21, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Mail Stop 25, Washington, DC 20590 (telephone: (202) 493-6292) or Ms. Kimberly Toone, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Information Technology, RAD-20, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Mail Stop 35, Washington, DC 20590 (telephone: (202) 493-6132). (These telephone numbers are not toll-free.)
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13, sec. 2, 109 Stat. 163 (1995) (codified as revised at 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, require Federal agencies to provide notice to the public for comment on information collection activities before seeking approval for reinstatement or renewal by OMB. 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A); 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), 1320.10(e)(1), 1320.12(a). Specifically, FRA invites interested respondents to comment on the following summary of proposed information collection activities regarding (i) whether the information collection activities are necessary for FRA to properly execute its functions, including whether the activities will have practical utility; (ii) the accuracy of FRA's estimates of the burden of the information collection activities, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used to determine the estimates; (iii) ways for FRA to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information being collected; and (iv) ways for FRA to minimize the burden of information collection activities on the public by automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
Organizations and individuals desiring to submit comments on these information collection requirements should send them directly to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, 725 17th St. NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention: FRA Desk Officer. Comments may also be sent via email to the Office of Management and Budget at the following address:
Below is a brief summary of the currently approved ICR that FRA will submit for clearance by OMB as required under the PRA:
The information collected is used by FRA to ensure that railroads/track owners meet Federal standards for bridge safety and comply with all the requirements of this regulation. In particular, the collection of information is used by FRA to confirm that railroads/track owners adopt and implement bridge management programs to properly inspect, maintain, modify, and repair all bridges that carry trains over them for which they are responsible. Railroads/track owners must conduct annual inspections of railroad bridges. Further, railroads/track owners must incorporate provisions for internal audit into their bridge management program and must conduct internal audits of bridge inspection reports. The internal audit information is used by railroads/track owners to verify that the inspection provisions of the bridge management program are being followed and to continually evaluate the effectiveness of their bridge management program and bridge inspection activities. FRA uses this information to ensure that railroads/track owners implement a safe and effective bridge management program and bridge inspection regime.
On December 4, 2015, President Obama signed into law the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act (FAST Act) (Pub. L. 114-94). Section 11405, “Bridge Inspection Reports,” provides a means for a State or a political subdivision of a State to obtain a public version of a bridge inspection report generated by a railroad for a bridge located within their respective jurisdiction. While the FAST Act specifies that requests for such reports are to be filed with the Secretary of Transportation, the responsibility for fulfilling these requests is delegated to FRA.
FRA is revising its currently approved information collection to account for the additional burden that will be incurred by States and political subdivisions of States requesting a public version of a bridge inspection report generated by a railroad for a bridge located within their respective jurisdiction. FRA has developed a new Form titled “Bridge Inspection Report Public Version Request Form” to facilitate such requests by States and their political subdivisions. Additionally, FRA is
As provided under 49 CFR 1320.13, FRA is requesting emergency processing for this new collection of information as specified in the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and its implementing regulations. FRA cannot reasonably comply with normal clearance procedures since they would be reasonably likely to disrupt the collection of information. With the recent passage of the FAST Act, FRA expects States and their political subdivisions to immediately request a public version of bridge inspection reports that affect critical infrastructure within their jurisdiction to ensure public safety. Upon receipt of such requests, FRA will require railroads to submit to the agency a public version of the most recent bridge inspection report. Therefore, FRA is requesting OMB approval as soon as possible (
Pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3507(a) and 5 CFR 1320.5(b), 1320.8(b)(3)(vi), FRA informs all interested parties that it may not conduct or sponsor, and a respondent is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice—Correction.
On February 2, 2016, the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) published a notice in the
These corrections will be effective as of February 12, 2016.
The notice VA published in the
“The proposed timeline involves developing 60 units within the next 12 months, 150 units over the next 24 to 30 months, 280 units over the next 30 months, 280 units over the next 4 to 5 years, and 430 units over the next 6 to 10 years—all totaling 1,200 units.”
As a clarification, that sentence is being replaced with the following sentence:
“Specifically, after legislative enactment, the proposed timeline involves developing 490 units within the first 30 months, 280 additional units within 4 to 5 years, and 430 additional units within 6 to 10 years—all totaling 1,200 units.”
(b) The President shall designate one member of the Commission to serve as the Chair and one member of the Commission to serve as the Vice Chair.
(a) In developing its recommendations, the Commission shall identify and study actions necessary to further improve cybersecurity awareness, risk management, and adoption of best practices throughout the private sector and at all levels of government. These areas of study may include methods to influence the way individuals and organizations perceive and use technology and approach cybersecurity as consumers and providers in the digital economy; demonstrate the nature and severity of cybersecurity threats, the importance of mitigation, and potential ways to manage and reduce the economic impacts of cyber risk; improve access to the knowledge needed to make informed cyber risk management decisions related to privacy, economic impact, and business continuity; and develop partnerships with industry, civil society, and international stakeholders. At a minimum, the Commission shall develop recommendations regarding:
(b) In developing its recommendations, the Commission shall also identify and study advances in technology, management, and IT service delivery that should be developed, widely adopted, or further tested throughout the private sector and at all levels of government, and in particular in the Federal Government and by critical infrastructure owners and operators. These areas of study may include cybersecurity technologies and other advances that are responsive to the rapidly evolving digital economy, and approaches to accelerating the introduction and use of emerging methods designed to enhance early detection, mitigation, and management of cyber risk in the security and privacy, and business and governance sectors. At a minimum, the Commission shall develop recommendations regarding:
(A) a framework for identifying which IT services should be developed internally or shared across agencies, and for specific investment priorities for all such IT services;
(B) a framework to ensure that as Federal civilian agencies procure, modernize, or upgrade their IT systems, cybersecurity is incorporated into the process;
(C) a governance model for managing cybersecurity risk, enhancing resilience, and ensuring appropriate incident response and recovery in the operations of, and delivery of goods and services by, the Federal Government; and
(D) strategies to overcome barriers that make it difficult for the Federal Government to adopt and keep pace with industry best practices;
(c) To accomplish its mission, the Commission shall:
(d) Where appropriate, the Commission may conduct original research, commission studies, and hold hearings to further examine particular issues.
(e) The Commission shall be advisory in nature and shall submit a final report to the President by December 1, 2016. This report shall be published on a public Web site along with any appropriate response from the President within 45 days after it is provided to the President.
(b) In carrying out its mission, the Commission shall be informed by, and shall strive to avoid duplicating, the efforts of other governmental entities.
(c) The Commission shall have a staff, headed by an Executive Director, which shall provide support for the functions of the Commission. The Secretary shall appoint the Executive Director, who shall be a full-time Federal employee, and the Commission's staff. The Executive Director may also serve as the Designated Federal Officer in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. App. (FACA, the “Act”).
(d) The Executive Director, in consultation with the Chair and Vice Chair, shall have the authority to create subcommittees as necessary to support the Commission's work and to examine particular areas of importance. These subcommittees must report their work to the Commission to inform its final recommendations.
(e) The Secretary will work with the heads of executive departments and agencies, to the extent permitted by law and consistent with their ongoing activities, to provide the Commission such information and cooperation as it may require for purposes of carrying out its mission.
(b) Insofar as FACA may apply to the Commission, any functions of the President under that Act, except for those in section 6 and section 14 of that Act, shall be performed by the Secretary.
(c) Members of the Commission shall serve without any compensation for their work on the Commission, but shall be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, to the extent permitted by law for persons serving intermittently in the Government service (5 U.S.C. 5701-5707).
(d) Nothing in this order shall be construed to impair or otherwise affect:
(e) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This Notice identifies unutilized, underutilized, excess, and surplus Federal property reviewed by HUD for suitability for possible use to assist the homeless.
Juanita Perry, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 7262, Washington, DC 20410; telephone (202) 402-3970; TDD number for the hearing- and speech-impaired (202) 708-2565 (these telephone numbers are not toll-free), or call the toll-free Title V information line at 800-927-7588.
In accordance with 24 CFR part 581 and section 501 of the Stewart B. McKinney Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11411), as amended, HUD is publishing this Notice to identify Federal buildings and other real property that HUD reviewed in 2015 for suitability for use to assist the homeless. The properties were reviewed using information provided to HUD by Federal landholding agencies regarding unutilized and underutilized buildings and real property controlled by such agencies or by GSA regarding its inventory of excess or surplus Federal property.
In accordance with 24 CFR part 581.3(b) landholding agencies were required to notify HUD by December 31, 2015, the current availability status and classification of each property controlled by the Agencies that were published by HUD as suitable and available which remain available for application for use by the homeless.
Pursuant to 24 CFR part 581.8(d) and (e) HUD is required to publish a list of those properties reported by the Agencies and a list of suitable/unavailable properties including the reasons why they are not available.
Where property is described as for “off-site use only” recipients of the property will be required to relocate the building to their own site at their own expense. Homeless assistance providers interested in any such property should send a written expression of interest to HHS, addressed to Theresa Ritta, Division of Property Management, Program Support Center, HHS, Room 5B-17, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857; (301) 443-2265. (This is not a toll-free number.) HHS will mail to the interested provider an application packet, which will include instructions for completing the application. In order to maximize the opportunity to utilize a suitable property, providers should submit their written expressions of interest as soon as possible. For complete details concerning the processing of applications, the reader is encouraged to refer to the interim rule governing this program, 24 CFR part 581.
For more information regarding particular properties identified in this Notice (
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Final rule.
This final rule requires providers and suppliers receiving funds under the Medicare program to report and return overpayments by the later of the date that is 60 days after the date on which the overpayment was identified; or the date any corresponding cost report is due, if applicable. The requirements in this rule are meant to ensure compliance with applicable statutes, promote the furnishing of high quality care, and to protect the Medicare Trust Funds against fraud and improper payments. This rule provides needed clarity and consistency in the reporting and returning of self-identified overpayments.
These regulations are effective on March 14, 2016.
Joe Strazzire, (410) 786-2775.
On March 23, 2010, the Affordable Care Act was enacted. Section 6402(a) of the Affordable Care Act established a new section 1128J(d) of the Social Security Act (the Act). Section 1128J(d)(1) of the Act requires a person who has received an overpayment to report and return the overpayment to the Secretary, the state, an intermediary, a carrier, or a contractor, as appropriate, at the correct address, and to notify the Secretary, state, intermediary, carrier or contractor to whom the overpayment was returned in writing of the reason for the overpayment. Section 1128J(d)(2) of the Act requires that an overpayment be reported and returned by the later of— (A) the date which is 60 days after the date on which the overpayment was identified; or (B) the date any corresponding cost report is due, if applicable. Section 1128J(d)(3) of the Act specifies that any overpayment retained by a person after the deadline for reporting and returning an overpayment is an obligation (as defined in 31 U.S.C. 3729(b)(3)) for purposes of 31 U.S.C. 3729.
The requirements in this rule are meant to ensure compliance with applicable statutes, promote the furnishing of high quality care, and to protect the Medicare Trust Funds against fraud and improper payments. This rule provides needed clarity and consistency in the reporting and returning of self-identified overpayments. However, even without this final rule, providers and suppliers are subject to the statutory requirements found in section 1128J(d) of the Act and could face potential False Claims Act (FCA) liability, Civil Monetary Penalties Law (CMPL) liability, and exclusion from federal health care programs for failure to report and return an overpayment. Additionally, providers and suppliers continue to be required to comply with our current procedures
Section 1128J(d) of the Act provides that an overpayment must be reported and returned by the later of—(i) the date which is 60 days after the date on which the overpayment was identified; or (ii) the date any corresponding cost report is due, if applicable. This final rule states that a person has identified an overpayment when the person has or should have, through the exercise of reasonable diligence, determined that the person has received an overpayment and quantified the amount of the overpayment. Creating this standard for identification provides needed clarity and consistency for providers and suppliers on the actions they need to take to comply with requirements for reporting and returning of self-identified overpayments.
This final rule states that overpayments must be reported and returned only if a person identifies the overpayment within 6 years of the date the overpayment was received. Creating this limitation for how far back a provider or supplier must look when identifying an overpayment is necessary in order to avoid imposing unreasonable additional burden or cost on providers and suppliers.
This final rule states that providers and suppliers must use an applicable claims adjustment, credit balance, self-reported refund, or another appropriate process to satisfy the obligation to report and return overpayments. This position preserves our existing processes and preserves our ability to modify these processes or create new processes in the future.
This final rule states that a provider or supplier must (1) report and return an overpayment to the Secretary, the state, an intermediary, a carrier or a contractor to the correct address by the later of 60 days after the overpayment was identified or the date the corresponding cost report is due, and (2) notify the Secretary, the state, an intermediary, a carrier, or a contractor in writing of the reason for the overpayment. The costs associated with these requirements are the time and effort necessary for providers and suppliers to identify, report, and return overpayments in the manner described in this rule. We project an annual cost burden of between $120.87 million and $201.45 million. The former represents our low-end estimate, while the latter is our high-end estimate. Our primary, or mid-range, projection is an estimate of $161.16 million.
The requirements in this final rule are meant to ensure compliance with applicable statutes, promote the furnishing of high quality care, and to protect the Medicare Trust Funds against fraud and improper payments. The potential financial benefits of this final rule from the standpoint of its effectiveness in recouping overpayments are not easily quantifiable, as we do not have sufficient data on which to base a monetary estimate of recovered funds.
The Medicare program (title XVIII of the Act) is the primary payer of health care for approximately 50 million enrolled beneficiaries. Providers and suppliers furnishing Medicare items and services must comply with the Medicare requirements set forth in the Act and in CMS regulations. The requirements are meant to ensure compliance with applicable statutes, promote the furnishing of high quality care, and to protect the Medicare Trust Funds against fraud and improper payments. As part of our efforts to reduce fraud, waste, and abuse in the Medicare program, we twice proposed, but did
On March 23, 2010, the Affordable Care Act was enacted. Section 6402(a) of the Affordable Care Act established a new section 1128J(d) of the Act. Section 1128J(d)(1) of the Act requires a person who has received an overpayment to report and return the overpayment to the Secretary, the state, an intermediary, a carrier, or a contractor, as appropriate, at the correct address, and to notify the Secretary, state, intermediary, carrier or contractor to whom the overpayment was returned in writing of the reason for the overpayment. Section 1128J(d)(2) of the Act requires that an overpayment be reported and returned by the later of— (A) the date which is 60 days after the date on which the overpayment was identified; or (B) the date any corresponding cost report is due, if applicable. Section 1128J(d)(3) of the Act specifies that any overpayment retained by a person after the deadline for reporting and returning an overpayment is an obligation (as defined in 31 U.S.C. 3729(b)(3)) for purposes of 31 U.S.C. 3729.
Section 1128J(d)(4)(A) of the Act defines “knowing” and “knowingly” as those terms are defined in 31 U.S.C. 3729(b). In that statute the terms “knowing” and “knowingly” mean that a person with respect to information—(i) has actual knowledge of the information; (ii) acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the information; or (iii) acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the information. 31 U.S.C. 3729(b) also states that knowing and knowingly do not require proof of specific intent to defraud. Section 1128J(d)(4)(B) of the Act defines the term “overpayment” as any funds that a person receives or retains under title XVIII or XIX to which the person, after applicable reconciliation, is not entitled under such title. Lastly, section 1128J(d)(4)(C) of the Act defines the term “person” as a provider of services, supplier, Medicaid managed care organization (MCO) (as defined in section 1903(m)(1)(A) of the Act), Medicare Advantage (MA) organization (as defined in section 1859(a)(1) of the Act) or prescription drug plan (PDP) sponsor (as defined in section 1860D-41(a)(13) of the Act). Section 1128J(d)(4)(C) of the Act excludes beneficiaries from the definition of person.
In the February 16, 2012
To implement section 1128J(d) of the Act, we proposed to establish a new subpart D in part 401 of our regulations, to revise § 401.607, and to add sections to part 405 of our regulations. In response to the February 16, 2012 proposed rule, we received approximately 200 timely pieces of correspondence. In this section of this final rule, we summarize our proposals, respond to the public comments received, and detail the changes made to our proposals.
Many commenters stated their support for many provisions and goals of the proposed rule. Commenters generally agreed that providers and suppliers should promptly refund overpayments and maintain efforts to prevent and detect improper payments. While these commenters also suggested changes to certain provisions of the proposed rule, commenters stated that many of the proposed rule's requirements were reasonable. Some commenters stated they were pleased that CMS issued the proposed rule and believed it would motivate providers and suppliers to educate billing staff and practitioners on Medicare billing rules. These commenters stated they were hopeful that the rule would reduce improper payments and would help ensure the viability of the Medicare Trust Funds. Overall, we appreciate the comments expressing support for as well as the comments suggesting changes to the proposed rule.
In proposed § 401.301, we stated that subpart D sets forth the policies and procedures for reporting and returning overpayments to the Medicare program for providers and suppliers of services under Parts A and B of title XVIII. We proposed to implement the requirements set forth in section 1128J(d) of the Act only as they relate to Medicare Part A and Part B providers and suppliers. Other stakeholders, including, without limitation, MA organizations, PDPs, and Medicaid MCOs would be addressed in future rulemaking. Since then, in the May 23, 2014
We remind all stakeholders that even without a final regulation they are subject to the statutory requirements
We proposed three definitions in § 401.303. We proposed to define “Medicare contractor” as a fiscal intermediary, carrier, durable medical equipment Medicare administrative contractor (DME MAC), or Part A/Part B Medicare administrative contractor. We stated that our proposed definition captures the different contractors that would be involved in receiving reports of overpayments as well as handling the return of overpayments, consistent with the statutory requirement. Since the publication of the proposed rule, we have ceased using fiscal intermediary and carrier contracts, and accordingly we have removed these terms from the definition of “Medicare contractor” in the final rule.
“Overpayment” was proposed to be defined as any funds that a person has received or retained under title XVIII of the Act to which the person, after applicable reconciliation, is not entitled under such title. This is the same definition that appears in the statute. In section II.B. of the February 2012 proposed rule (77 FR 9181), we also included certain examples of overpayments under this proposed definition as including all of the following:
• Medicare payments for noncovered services.
• Medicare payments in excess of the allowable amount for an identified covered service.
• Errors and nonreimbursable expenditures in cost reports.
• Duplicate payments.
• Receipt of Medicare payment when another payor had the primary responsibility for payment.
We also stated in the proposed rule that, in certain circumstances, Medicare makes estimated payments for services with the knowledge that a reconciliation of those payments to actual costs will be done when the actual costs or related information becomes available, usually at a later date. Interim payments made to a provider throughout the cost year are reconciled with covered and reimbursable costs at the time the cost report is due. The statutory and proposed regulatory definition of the term overpayment acknowledges this practice and provides that an overpayment does not exist until after an applicable reconciliation takes place. When a provider files a cost report, the provider is reporting the provider's reconciliation described previously and attesting to the accuracy of the information contained on the cost report. Providers must maintain the appropriate documentation supporting the costs that are claimed on the cost report. We stated that we rely upon the information that providers submit through the cost report. Whether it is an initial submission of a cost report or an amended one, we believed that providers must accurately report any cost report-related overpayments at the time they submit any cost reports to CMS.
Finally, we proposed to define the term “Person” as a provider (as defined in § 400.202) or a supplier (as defined in § 400.202). We noted that this proposed definition does not include a beneficiary and that our proposal was consistent with the definition of a “person” in section 1128J(d)(4)(C) of the Act.
We received a number of comments regarding the definitions in proposed § 401.303.
With respect to the statements regarding fraud, waste, and abuse, we recognize that many commenters posed questions and concerns about this rule's relationship to the prevention of fraud, waste, and abuse, and the FCA. While these issues will be addressed in more detail in section II.C.1. of this final rule, we recognize that not all Medicare overpayments involve fraudulent activity (though some do). Again, overpayments are any funds that a person has received or retained under title XVIII of the Act to which the person, after applicable reconciliation, is not entitled under such title. These funds might be received or retained due to fraud or due to more inadvertent reasons.
Our general aim of this final rule is to strengthen program integrity and to ensure that the Medicare Trust Funds are protected and made whole and that taxpayer dollars are not wasted. An overpayment must be reported and returned regardless of the reason it happened—be it a human or system error, fraudulent behavior, or otherwise. However, as discussed in section II.C.4., the nature of the overpayment will affect a provider's or supplier's decision about the most appropriate mechanism and recipient of the overpayment report and refund.
In instances where interim payments are made based on estimated costs, an overpayment is not deemed to exist for purposes of this rule until an applicable reconciliation has occurred in accordance with § 401.305(c). We also disagree with the commenter's statement that Medicare's practice is to make estimated payments for services with the knowledge that a reconciliation of those payments to actual costs will be completed at a later date. While some payments are cost-based estimated payments as acknowledged in the proposed rule, many payments are not, such as claims-based payments under fee-for-service or prospective payment systems. For example, the first preamble example is a Medicare payment for non-covered services which, in most cases, would be a claims-based payment that is not an estimated payment subject to cost report reconciliation. In addition, we disagree that the term “overpayment” implies that some payment was appropriate. Section 1128J(d) of the Act defines overpayment to include any funds that a person receives or retains to which the person is not entitled after applicable reconciliation. In the case of a non-covered service, as well as others, the amount to which the person is entitled is zero.
Section 1128J(d) of the Act provides that an overpayment must be reported and returned by the later of —(i) the date which is 60 days after the date on which the overpayment was identified; or (ii) the date any corresponding cost report is due, if applicable. Proposed § 401.305(b) contained this requirement. If an overpayment is claims related, the provider or supplier would be required
In proposed § 401.305(a)(2), we stated that a person has identified an overpayment if the person has actual knowledge of the existence of the overpayment or acts in reckless disregard or deliberate ignorance of the overpayment. We stated in the preamble that we proposed this definition in part because section 1128J(d) of the Act provides that the terms “knowing” and “knowingly” have the meaning given those terms in the FCA (31 U.S.C. 3729(b)(1)). While the statutory text does not use these terms other than in the definitions, we believed the Congress' use of the term “knowing” in the Affordable Care Act was intended to apply to determining when a provider or supplier has identified an overpayment. We also stated that defining “identification” in this way gives providers and suppliers an incentive to exercise reasonable diligence to determine whether an overpayment exists. Without such a definition, some providers and suppliers might avoid performing activities to determine whether an overpayment exists, such as self-audits, compliance checks, and other research.
We also noted in the February 2012 proposed rule (77 FR 9182) that, in some cases, a provider or supplier may receive information concerning a potential overpayment that creates a duty to make a reasonable inquiry to determine whether an overpayment exists. If the reasonable inquiry reveals an overpayment, the provider or supplier then has 60 days to report and return the overpayment. On the other hand, failure to make a reasonable inquiry, including failure to conduct such inquiry with all deliberate speed after obtaining the information, could result in the provider or supplier knowingly retaining an overpayment because it acted in reckless disregard or deliberate ignorance of whether it received such an overpayment. For example, a provider that receives an anonymous compliance hotline telephone complaint about a potential overpayment may have incurred a duty to timely investigate that matter, depending on whether the hotline complaint qualifies as credible information of a potential overpayment. Whether the complaint qualifies as credible information is a factual determination. If the provider incurs a duty and diligently conducts the investigation, and reports and returns any resulting overpayments within the 60-day reporting and repayment period, then the provider would have satisfied its obligation under the proposed rule. However, if the provider fails to make any reasonable inquiry into the complaint, the provider may be found to have acted in reckless disregard or deliberate ignorance of any overpayment.
In order to assist providers and suppliers with understanding when an overpayment has been identified, we provided the following examples, which were intended to be illustrative and not an exhaustive list of circumstances:
• A provider of services or supplier reviews billing or payment records and learns that it incorrectly coded certain services, resulting in increased reimbursement.
• A provider of services or supplier learns that a patient death occurred prior to the service date on a claim that has been submitted for payment.
• A provider of services or supplier learns that services were provided by an unlicensed or excluded individual on its behalf.
• A provider of services or supplier performs an internal audit and discovers that overpayments exist.
• A provider of services or supplier is informed by a government agency of an audit that discovered a potential overpayment, and the provider or supplier fails to make a reasonable inquiry. (When a government agency informs a provider or supplier of a potential overpayment, the provider or supplier has a duty to accept the finding or make a reasonable inquiry. If the provider's or supplier's inquiry verifies the audit results, then it has identified an overpayment and, assuming there is no applicable cost report, has 60 days to report and return the overpayment. As noted previously, failure to make a reasonable inquiry, including failure to conduct such inquiry with all deliberate speed after obtaining the information, could result in the provider or supplier knowingly retaining an overpayment because it acted in reckless disregard or deliberate ignorance of whether it received such an overpayment).
• A provider of services or supplier experiences a significant increase in Medicare revenue and there is no apparent reason—such as a new partner added to a group practice or a new focus on a particular area of medicine—for the increase. However, the provider or supplier fails to make a reasonable inquiry into whether an overpayment exists. (When there is reason to suspect an overpayment, but a provider or supplier fails to make a reasonable inquiry into whether an overpayment exists, it may be found to have acted in reckless disregard or deliberate ignorance of any overpayment.)
Finally, we also discussed in the proposed rule (77 FR 9183) issues associated with overpayments that arise due to a violation of the Anti-Kickback statute (section 1128B(b)(1) and (2) of the Act). Compliance with the Anti-Kickback statute is a condition of payment. Claims that include items and services resulting from a violation of this law are not payable and constitute false or fraudulent claims for purposes of the FCA. In the proposed rule, we recognized that, in many instances, a provider or supplier is not a party to, and is unaware of the existence of, an arrangement between third parties that causes the provider or supplier to submit claims that are the subject of a kickback. For example, a hospital may be unaware that a device manufacturer has paid a kickback to a physician on the hospital's medical staff to induce the physician to implant the manufacturer's device in procedures performed at the hospital. Moreover, even if a provider or supplier becomes aware of a potential third party payment arrangement, it would generally not be able to evaluate whether the payment was an illegal kickback or whether one or both parties had the requisite intent to violate the Anti-Kickback statute.
For this reason, we stated that we believe that providers and suppliers who are not a party to a kickback arrangement are unlikely in most instances to have “identified” the overpayment that has resulted from the kickback arrangement; therefore would have no duty to report or repay it. To the extent that a provider or supplier who is not a party to a kickback arrangement has sufficient knowledge of the arrangement to have identified the resulting overpayment, we proposed that the provider or supplier report the overpayment to CMS in accordance with section 1128J(d) of the Act and corresponding regulations. Although the government may always seek repayment of claims paid that do not satisfy a condition of payment, where a kickback arrangement exists, HHS's enforcement efforts would most likely focus on holding accountable the perpetrators of that arrangement. Accordingly, we would refer the reported overpayment to OIG for appropriate action and would suspend the repayment obligation until the government has resolved the kickback matter (either by determining that no enforcement action is warranted or by obtaining a judgment, verdict, conviction, guilty plea, or settlement). Thus, if the provider has not identified the kickback or if it reported it when it did identify the kickback, our
The regulation uses a single term—reasonable diligence—to cover both proactive compliance activities to monitor claims and reactive investigative activities undertaken in response to receiving credible information about a potential overpayment. We believe that compliance with the statutory obligation to report and return received overpayments requires both proactive and reactive activities. In addition, we also clarify that the quantification of the amount of the overpayment may be determined using statistical sampling, extrapolation methodologies, and other methodologies as appropriate.
As to the circumstances that give rise to a duty to exercise reasonable diligence, we are not able to identify all factual scenarios in this rulemaking. Providers and suppliers are responsible for ensuring their Medicare claims are accurate and proper and are encouraged to have effective compliance programs as a way to avoid receiving or retaining overpayments. Indeed, many commenters told us that they have active compliance programs and that we should recognize these compliance efforts in the final rule. It was also apparent from some commenters that they do not currently engage in compliance efforts to ensure that the claims they submitted to Medicare were accurate and proper and that payments received are appropriate. We advise those providers and suppliers to undertake such efforts to ensure they fulfill their obligations under section 1128J(d) of the Act. We believe that undertaking no or minimal compliance activities to monitor the accuracy and appropriateness of a provider or supplier's Medicare claims would expose a provider or supplier to liability under the identified standard articulated in this rule based on the failure to exercise reasonable diligence if the provider or supplier received an overpayment. We also recognize that compliance programs are not uniform in size and scope and that compliance activities in a smaller setting, such as a solo practitioner's office, may look very different than those in larger setting, such as a multi-specialty group. Compliance activities may also appropriately vary based on the type of provider.
We note that in discussing the standard term ”reasonable diligence” in the preamble, we are interpreting the obligation to ”report and return the overpayment” that is contained in section 1128J(d) of the Social Security Act. We are not seeking to interpret the terms ”knowing” and ”knowingly”, which are defined in the Civil False Claims Act and have been interpreted by a body of False Claims Act case law.
As for documentation, it is certainly advisable for providers and suppliers to maintain records that accurately document their reasonable diligence efforts to be able to demonstrate their compliance with the rule.
We understand that a common way to conduct an audit is to use a probe sample and then incorporate that probe sample into a larger full sample as the basis for determining an extrapolated overpayment amount. In the probe sample, it is not appropriate for a provider or supplier to only return a subset of claims identified as overpayments and not extrapolate the full amount of the overpayment. We believe that in most cases, the extrapolation can be done in a timely manner consistent with the identification requirements of this rule and that the provider or supplier should not report and return overpayments on specific claims from the probe sample until the full overpayment is identified.
We would refer the reported overpayment and potential kickback arrangement to OIG for appropriate action and would suspend the repayment obligation until the government has resolved the kickback matter (either by determining that no enforcement action is warranted or by obtaining a judgment, verdict, conviction, guilty plea, or settlement). Our expectation is that only the parties to the kickback scheme would be required to repay the overpayment that was received by the innocent provider or supplier, except in extraordinary circumstances. As these issues are fact-specific, we are unable to speculate as to what facts would need to be present to qualify as extraordinary circumstances.
Our proposed rule acknowledged that in some instances, we make interim payments to a provider through the cost year and that the provider reconciles these payments with covered and reimbursable costs at the time the cost report is due. In proposed § 401.305(c), we stated that “applicable reconciliation” would occur when the cost report is filed. This would include an initial cost report submission or an amended cost report. We proposed two exceptions to the general rule that the applicable reconciliation occurs with the provider's submission of a cost report. The first was related to Supplemental Security Income (SSI) ratios used in the calculation of disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payment adjustment. The second exception was related to the outlier reconciliation, which is performed at the time the cost report is settled if certain thresholds are exceeded.
Similarly, commenters believed the following statement in our January 25, 2002 proposed rule (67 FR 3663) supports a more inclusive definition of applicable reconciliation: “Submission of corrected bills in conformance with our policy, within 60 days, fulfills these requirements for providers, suppliers, and individuals.”
Commenters stated that CMS' discussion of the applicable reconciliation period seemed to suggest that, other than for SSI ratios and outliers, providers will be expected to have identified a cost report-related overpayment at the time that the provider submits an initial or amended cost report. According to commenters, this suggestion is inconsistent with the purpose of the cost report settlement process, which is to assist all parties in identifying and correcting errors, and it is not until this process is completed (and sometimes long after) that providers may become aware of an overpayment. In addition, commenters objected to the position that initial or amended cost reports can serve as the basis for an overpayment, given that the determination of the amount of reimbursement due on that cost report is not final until the contractor audits the cost report and issues a written determination under 42 CFR 405.1803(a).
Commenters recommended “applicable reconciliation” in the context of cost reporting occur upon the final settlement of a provider's cost report by the MAC, so long as, upon discovery of an issue subject to cost report audits that could affect a provider's Medicare payment, the provider timely discloses the issue to a MAC for purposes of preparing a final cost report settlement.
Commenters also questioned a number of other cost report issues that they believed to be not entirely known to the provider at the time of initially filing the as-filed cost report, but which are reconciled through the audit process, and finalized with the issuance of the NPR, including—
• Home office cost statements (HOCS), providers usually file an estimate of home office costs on the hospital cost report, which is subsequently reconciled to the HOCS when the MAC audits the HOCS;
• Any interim payments such as Medicare bad debt or graduate medical education (GME), including resident “overlap” reports from the MAC;
• Sole-community hospital (SCH)/Medicare-dependent hospital (MDH) payments;
• End-stage renal disease (ESRD) payments;
• Organ payments;
• Nursing and allied health payments;
• Tentative settlement payments;
• Updated Provider Statistical & Reimbursement Report (PS&R) for claims processed after cost report submission;
• Prior-year audit adjustments, CMS rulings, and PRRB appeals; and
• HITECH Act EHR incentive payments.
If the overpayment is identified by the MAC during the cost report audit, the MAC will determine and demand the exact amount of the overpayment at
Proposed § 401.305(g) specified that overpayments must be reported and returned only if a person identifies the overpayment within 10 years of the date the overpayment was received. We proposed 10 years because this is the outer limit of the FCA statute of limitations. We also proposed amending the reopening rules at § 405.980(b) to provide that overpayments reported in accordance with § 401.305 may be reopened for a period of 10 years to ensure consistency between the reopening regulations and § 401.305(g).
Commenters also stated that the proposed 10-year period was overly burdensome. First, many commenters stated that compliance with the proposed time period would require a de facto 10-year record retention requirement and would be inconsistent with existing record retention requirements. Second, commenters stated that maintaining paper and electronic medical and billing records for the proposed 10-year period as well as the difficulties with retrieving that information from legacy systems would be costly and time-consuming. Third, commenters stated that the proposed 10-year period would increase the burden, costs, and complexity in investigating a potential overpayment. For example, commenters noted that they would likely need to create very large sample sizes to cover a 10-year timeframe. In addition, the review would need to account for any changes in the coding, including Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes (or other codes used to identify items or procedures billed), Correct Coding Initiative (CCI) editing protocols, local contractor determinations, coverage guidelines, and other CMS policies. Finally, commenters noted that staff turnover at both the provider or supplier and CMS contractor levels may create additional challenges in investigating claims filed up to 10 years ago.
Commenters offered a variety of alternative lookback periods:
• Many commenters suggested using the current reopening rules at 42 CFR 405.980, which permit contractors to reopen claims within 1 year for any reason, within 4 years for good cause, and at any time if evidence of fraud or similar fault exists. These commenters stated that § 405.980 sets forth a reasonable timeframes and providers and suppliers have built their internal processes around them.
• Other commenters recommended a 3-year lookback period for all overpayments not resulting from fraud or other intentional misconduct. These commenters generally justified a 3-year period because the Medicare and Medicaid RACs are limited to 3 years in their audits. A commenter recommended 3 years because it matched the timeframe for coordination of benefits under Part D.
• Other commenters recommended a 5-year period because it was consistent with the medical record retention requirement in the hospital conditions of participation at 42 CFR 482.24.
• Other commenters recommended a 6-year period. These commenters stated that 6 years is consistent with the more commonly applicable FCA statute of limitations as well as the statute of limitations for section 1128A of the Act, which contains a variety of civil monetary penalty (CMP) authorities applicable to Medicare and Medicaid, including the CMP applicable to section 1128J(d) of the Act. Several commenters also recommended 6 years because it is consistent with the medical record retention requirements for Part B providers under Chapter 24, 30.2 of the Medicare Claims Processing Manual and the HIPAA requirements at 45 CFR 164.316(b)(2) for maintaining documentation of compliance policies and procedures as well as various state medical record retention requirements.
• Other commenters recommended a 7-year period. These commenters stated that most, if not all, providers and suppliers retain documentation for claims they submit for a 7-year period as part of their standard record retention policies.
After review of all the issues identified by the commenters, we conclude that a 6-year lookback period would appropriately address many of the concerns about burden and cost outlined previously. Specifically, we note that, according to commenters, many providers and suppliers retain records and claims data for between 6 and 7 years based on various existing
Similarly, this final rule is not retroactive. Providers and suppliers that reported and/or returned overpayments prior to the effective date of this final rule and that made a good faith effort to comply with the provisions of section 1128J(d) of the Act are not expected to have complied with each provision of the final rule. However, all providers and suppliers reporting and returning overpayments on or after the effective date of this final rule—even overpayments received prior to the rule's effective date—must comply with the new regulatory requirements.
For example, self-referral overpayments reported to us in accordance with the CMS Voluntary Self-Referral Disclosure Protocol (SRDP) prior to the effective date of this final rule will not be governed by the 6-year lookback specified in this final rule. This includes both overpayments reported and returned (via compromise and settlement) as well as those reported and still in the process of being reviewed through the SRDP. Providers and suppliers that made a good faith effort to comply with section 1128J(d) of the Act by reporting self-referral overpayments to the SRDP, which, until now, has operated with a 4-year lookback period, are not expected to return overpayments from the fifth and sixth year through other means. Providers and suppliers reporting overpayments to the SRDP on or after the effective date of this final rule are subject to the 6-year lookback period specified in this final rule. However, at this time, we are only authorized under the Paperwork Reduction Act to collect financial analysis of overpayments that occurred during a 4-year lookback period. In connection with this final rule, we are seeking authorization from OMB to collect financial information regarding overpayments using the 6-year lookback period. Until the revised collection is approved by OMB, providers and suppliers reporting overpayments to CMS in accordance with the SRDP have no duty to provide financial information from the fifth and sixth years, that is, the 2 years outside of the currently authorized 4-year lookback period. Accordingly, until notification of changes to the SRDP lookback period, providers and suppliers submitting to the SRDP may voluntarily provide financial information from the fifth and sixth years or report and return overpayments from the fifth and sixth years through other means.
There are two time periods of concern to commenters—the time prior to the enactment of the Affordable Care Act on March 23, 2010 and the time period between March 23, 2010 and the effective date of this final rule. For the time prior to March 23, 2010, while providers and suppliers had an existing
Section 1128J(d) of the Act provides that if a person has received an overpayment, the person shall both report and return the overpayment to the Secretary, an intermediary, a carrier, or a contractor, as appropriate, at the correct address; and notify the Secretary, intermediary, carrier, or contractor to whom the overpayment was returned in writing of the reason for the overpayment.
In § 401.305(e)(1), we proposed to require the use of the existing voluntary refund process, which will be renamed the “self-reported overpayment refund process,” set forth by the applicable Medicare contractor to report and return overpayments except as provided in § 401.305(e)(2). Section 401.305(e)(2) provided that a person would satisfy the reporting obligations of this section by making a disclosure under the OIG's Self-Disclosure Protocol resulting in a settlement agreement using the process described in the OIG Self-Disclosure Protocol. The existing voluntary refund process is referenced in Publication 100-08, Chapter 4, Section 4.16 of the Medicare Program Integrity Manual. Under the existing voluntary refund process, providers and suppliers report overpayments using a form that each Medicare contractor makes available on its Web site.
In § 401.305(d) of the February 16, 2012 proposed rule (77 FR 9179), we also proposed a specific list of 13 data elements that were required in the report: (1) Person's name; (2) person's tax identification number; (3) how the error was discovered; (4) the reason for the overpayment; (5) the health insurance claim number, as appropriate; (6) date of service; (7) Medicare claim control number, as appropriate; (8) National Provider Identification (NPI) number; (9) description of the corrective action plan to ensure the error does not occur again; (10) whether the person has a corporate integrity agreement with the OIG or is under the OIG Self-Disclosure Protocol; (11) the timeframe and the total amount of refund for the period during which the problem existed that caused the refund; (12) if a statistical sample was used to determine the overpayment amount, a description of the statistically valid methodology used to determine the overpayment; and (13) a refund in the amount of the overpayment. We recognized that some of the current reporting forms may differ among the different Medicare contractors and stated we planned to develop a uniform reporting form that will enable all overpayments to be reported and returned in a consistent manner across all Medicare contractors. Until such uniform reporting form is made available, we stated in the preamble that providers and suppliers should utilize the existing form available from the Web site of the applicable Medicare contractor.
Commenters stated that, in most overpayment cases, other processes are used that are effective and efficient both for the Medicare program and providers and suppliers. Commenters repeatedly noted the claims adjustment and reversal process for Part A and B claims. The claims adjustment process for Part A claims is electronically accomplished through access to the Fiscal Intermediary Standard System (FISS). The claim adjustment is then recorded on the Provider Statistical & Reimbursement Report (PS&R). Commenters uniformly stated that it is critical that providers and suppliers be permitted to continue to use the claims adjustment process to refund overpayments, when appropriate, to ensure that the claims data is adjusted in the FISS. Claims adjustment for Part B claims is currently a paper-based process, but one in which commenters stated providers and suppliers frequently use. In both Part A and B, claims adjustments include an adjustment reason code on the claim. The claim is reprocessed and the overpayment is recouped via the remittance advice.
In addition, commenters noted that hospitals are required to submit the
Commenters suggested that CMS permit the use of the claims adjustment and credit balance report process for returning overpayments because these existing processes are well-known to providers, suppliers, and Medicare contractors and work effectively and efficiently for all parties at recouping overpayments. In many commenters' experience, Medicare contractors prefer that providers and suppliers submit adjusted bills so that each beneficiary's account properly reflects how and why the payment was adjusted or how the contractors recouped a full or partial overpayment.
Regarding obtaining a preliminary determination, we believe contractors may not be able to conclude whether the overpayment refund complied with this rule on the face of the report. The provider or supplier is ultimately responsible for complying with this rule. Contractors are instructed to refer suspected fraud to law enforcement. Any overpayment refund does not negate any potential liability the provider or supplier may have for the overpayment issue.
However, we continue to believe that, where the overpayment amount is extrapolated based on a statistical sampling methodology, it is necessary for the overpayment report to explain how the overpayment amount was calculated. The statute requires the return of an amount of money for the overpayment; therefore, it is a reasonable interpretation of the statute to require an explanation of how the overpayment amount was calculated by the provider or supplier by extrapolation. As commenters noted, statistical sampling is already used by providers and suppliers in the voluntary refund process. Therefore, we believe that requiring an explanation of the statistical sampling methodology results in little, if any, additional burden.
Given the differences in cost report-related payments and the resources needed on both the provider and the contractor's part in the cost report process, we are considering establishing a minimum monetary threshold for cost report-related overpayments. This threshold would be published in program guidance or future rulemaking.
We decline to extend this treatment to self-disclosure to entities outside of the SRDP and SDP in this final rule. The SRDP and SDP are both formal processes managed by agencies within the Department, CMS and OIG respectively. As such, we believe it is appropriate to include those processes in this rule. However, DOJ is a separate department and we are not aware of any formal self-disclosure process by DOJ that is analogous to the SRDP or SDP. Also, we are not aware of a similar MFCU process and, more importantly, Medicaid is not covered in this rulemaking.
For the most part, this final rule incorporates the provisions of the proposed rule, with the following exceptions:
• In § 401.305 we modified our proposals as follows:
++ In paragraph(a)(1), we revised the requirements for reporting and returning of overpayments to more clearly distinguish between the concepts of receiving and identifying an overpayment. A person that has received an overpayment must report and return in the form and manner required.
++ In paragraph (a)(2), we revised the requirements for reporting and returning of overpayments slightly to remove the terms “actual knowledge”, “reckless disregard”, and “deliberate ignorance” and to state that a person has identified an overpayment when the person has or should have through the exercise of reasonable diligence determined that the person has received an overpayment and quantified the amount of the overpayment. A person should have determined that the person received an overpayment if the person fails to exercise reasonable diligence and the person in fact received an overpayment.
++ Added a new paragraph (b)(2)(iii) to specify that the deadline for returning overpayments will be suspended when a person requests an extended repayment schedule as defined in § 401.603.
++ Removed proposed paragraph (d), which specified 13 specific data elements that were to be included in the report that providers and suppliers use to report and return overpayments. We subsequently renumbered paragraphs (e) through (g) as (d) through (f).
++ In paragraph (d)(1) (which was proposed paragraph (e)(1)), we revised the allowable reporting process to include an applicable claims adjustment, credit balance, self-reported refund, or other reporting process set forth by the applicable Medicare Contractor. We specified that if the person calculates the overpayment amount using a statistical sampling methodology, the person must describe the statistically valid sampling and extrapolation methodology in the report.
++ In paragraph (d)(2) (which was proposed paragraph (e)(2)), we added disclosure to the CMS Voluntary Self-Referral Disclosure Protocol (SRDP) as a method of satisfying the reporting obligations for self-identified overpayments.
++ In paragraph (f) (which was proposed paragraph(g)), we revised the lookback period from 10 years to 6 years to specify that overpayments must be reported and returned only if a person identifies the overpayment within 6 years of the date the overpayment was received. We carefully considered all of the comments on the lookback period and concluded that a 6-year time period is the most appropriate time period.
• In § 405.980, we—
++ Removed proposed paragraph (b)(6). This paragraph would only apply to reopenings initiated by the contractor.
++ Added paragraph (c)(4) to clarify that a reopening may be requested under § 405.980(c).
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are required to provide 30-day notice in the
• The need for the information collection and its usefulness in carrying out the proper functions of our agency.
• The accuracy of our estimate of the information collection burden.
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Recommendations to minimize the information collection burden on the affected public, including automated collection techniques.
The following is a discussion of the provisions, as stated in section II. of this final rule, that contain information collection requirements.
Proposed § 401.305 stated that a provider or supplier must (1) report and return an overpayment to the Secretary, the state, an intermediary, a carrier or a contractor to the correct address by the later of 60 days after the overpayment was identified or the date the corresponding cost report is due, and (2) notify the Secretary, the state, an intermediary, a carrier, or a contractor in writing of the reason for the overpayment. The burden associated with this requirement was the time and effort necessary to report and return the overpayment in the manner described at § 401.305.
For purposes of § 401.305 only, we estimated that approximately 125,000 providers and suppliers (or roughly 8.5 percent of the total number of Medicare providers and suppliers) would report and return overpayments in a typical year under our provisions. We estimated this based on the improper payment rate for the Medicare Fee-for-Service program, which was approximately 12 percent in FY 2014 and FY 2015,
We are developing an information collection request for OMB review and approval that will authorize the collection of the applicable reporting form. The public will have an opportunity to review the information collection and submit comments. We plan to announce the information collection request under the required 60-day and 30-day
We determined that the two main categories of individuals who would most likely complete and submit the applicable reporting form included: (1) Accountants and auditors (external and in-house); and (2) miscellaneous in-house administrative personnel. Each provider's and supplier's individual operations are different and, as a result,
We received a number of comments regarding our proposed ICR estimates:
There are two major changes from our projected burden in the proposed rule. First, as noted previously, we are increasing the “per report” hour burden from 2.5 hours to 6 hours. Second, we must use more recent BLS data in calculating the hourly wage.
According to BLS information for May 2014, the national estimated mean hourly wage for the category of ”accountants and auditors” was $35.42 (see
The following table shows the projected annual ICR hour and cost burdens associated with § 401.305:
Therefore, we project an annual ICR cost burden of between $120.87 million and $201.45 million. The former represents our low-end estimate, while the latter is our high-end estimate. The $161.16 million estimate represents our primary, or mid-range, projection. While we have used a range of values to illustrate the possible burden estimates that providers may incur, we cannot submit a range of values for OMB approval. For purposes of OMB review and approval, we will use the mid-range estimate related to 4 reported and returned overpayments.
We have examined the impact of this rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January 18, 2011), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96-354), section 1102(b) of the Social Security Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999), and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects; distributive impacts and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for major rules with economically significant effects ($100 million or more in any one year).
As discussed earlier in the preamble, even without a final rule, all stakeholders are subject to the statutory requirements found in section 1128J(d) of the Act and could face potential FCA
The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. Most hospitals and most other providers and suppliers are small entities, either by nonprofit status or by having revenues of less than $7.5 million to $38.5 million in any 1 year. With a maximum cost of $201,450,000, we do not believe that the reporting and returning of overpayments identified by providers and suppliers of services will have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. We are not preparing an analysis for the RFA because we have determined, and the Secretary certifies, that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 604 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital located outside of the Metropolitan Statistical Area for Medicare payment regulations and that has fewer than 100 beds. We are not preparing an analysis for section 1102(b) of the Act because we have determined and the Secretary certifies that this final rule will not have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2015, that threshold is approximately $144 million. This rule will have no consequential effect on state, local, or tribal governments or on the private sector.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it announces a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on state and local governments, preempts state law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. Since this final rule does not impose any costs on states or local governments, the requirements of Executive Order 13132 are not applicable.
As required by OMB Circular A-4 (available at link
The accounting statement does not address the potential financial benefits of this final rule from the standpoint of its effectiveness in recouping overpayments. We do not have sufficient data on which to base a monetary estimate of recovered funds. We note that the only costs associated with this final rule for providers and suppliers involve the actual researching, reporting, and returning of overpayments. For purposes of our RIA estimates, we do not deem the actual refunded overpayment as a cost since it constitutes money to which the provider or supplier was not entitled.
In light of the statutory mandate in section 6402(a) of the Affordable Care Act, we did not consider any alternatives to the implementation of the proposed provisions. However, we contemplated several operational mechanisms to alleviate the burden on the provider and supplier communities.
First, we proposed a new, unified form as part of the reporting and returning process in our proposed rule. However, the comments received indicated that this could cause needless additional burden. Instead, we elected to utilize existing processes for reporting and returning, including the voluntary refund process. This would allow providers and suppliers to use a reporting mechanism with which they are already familiar. After reviewing the
Second, we contemplated the appropriate length of time in which overpayments must be reported and returned. A time period of 10 years was proposed, as this is the outer limit of the FCA statute of limitations. We solicited comment on this issue, and as discussed at length in section II.C.3. of this final rule, we agreed with commenters that a period of 6 years was more appropriate and will reduce the burden imposed on providers and suppliers by this final rule compared to the longer proposed lookback period of 10 years.
We do not anticipate any impact on beneficiary access to care as a result of this rule. As noted previously, the only burden associated with our proposed provisions involves the ICR aspects of reporting and returning overpayments. We do not believe that this burden—which, in any event, would only affect a small percentage of providers and suppliers—would cause a particular provider or supplier to reduce the services it furnishes to beneficiaries.
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this rule was reviewed by OMB.
Claims, Freedom of information, Health facilities, Medicare, Privacy.
Administrative practice and procedure, Health facilities, Health professions, Kidney diseases, Medical devices, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas, X-rays.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services amends 42 CFR chapter IV as set forth below:
Secs. 1102, 1871, and 1874(e) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1395hh, and 1395w-5).
This subpart sets forth the policies and procedures for reporting and returning overpayments to the Medicare program for providers and suppliers of services under Parts A and B of title XVIII of the Act as required by section 1128J(d) of the Act.
For purposes of this subpart—
(a)
(2) A person has identified an overpayment when the person has, or should have through the exercise of reasonable diligence, determined that the person has received an overpayment and quantified the amount of the overpayment. A person should have determined that the person received an overpayment and quantified the amount of the overpayment if the person fails to exercise reasonable diligence and the person in fact received an overpayment.
(b)
(i) The date which is 60 days after the date on which the overpayment was identified.
(ii) The date any corresponding cost report is due, if applicable.
(2) The deadline for returning overpayments will be suspended when the following occurs:
(i) OIG acknowledges receipt of a submission to the OIG Self-Disclosure Protocol and will remain suspended until such time as a settlement agreement is entered, the person withdraws from the OIG Self-Disclosure Protocol, or the person is removed from the OIG Self-Disclosure Protocol.
(ii) CMS acknowledges receipt of a submission to the CMS Voluntary Self-Referral Disclosure Protocol and will remain suspended until such time as a settlement agreement is entered, the person withdraws from the CMS Voluntary Self-Referral Disclosure Protocol, or the person is removed from the CMS Voluntary Self-Referral Disclosure Protocol.
(iii) A person requests an extended repayment schedule as defined in § 401.603 and will remain suspended until such time as CMS or one of its contractors rejects the extended repayment schedule request or the provider or supplier fails to comply with the terms of the extended repayment schedule.
(c)
(2) In instances when the provider—
(i) Receives more recent CMS information on the SSI ratio, the provider is not required to return any overpayment resulting from the updated information until the final reconciliation of the provider's cost report occurs; or
(ii) Knows that an outlier reconciliation will be performed, the provider is not required to estimate the change in reimbursement and return the estimated overpayment until the final reconciliation of that cost report.
(d)
(2) A person satisfies the reporting obligations of this section by making a disclosure under the OIG's Self-Disclosure Protocol or the CMS Voluntary Self-Referral Disclosure Protocol resulting in a settlement agreement using the process described in the respective protocol.
(e)
(f)
Secs. 205(a), 1102, 1861, 1862(a), 1869, 1871, 1874, 1881, and 1886(k) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 405(a), 1302, 1395x, 1395y(a), 1395ff, 1395hh, 1395kk, 1395rr and 1395ww(k)), and sec. 353 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 263a).
(c) * * *
(4) A party may request that a contractor reopen an initial determination for the purpose of reporting and returning an overpayment under § 401.305 of this chapter.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) Independent agencies are encouraged to comply with the requirements of this order.
(d) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |