Page Range | 39007-39333 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 39007 - Addressing China's Laws, Policies, Practices, and Actions Related to Intellectual Property, Innovation, and Technology | |
82 FR 39310 - Medicare Program; Cancellation of Advancing Care Coordination Through Episode Payment and Cardiac Rehabilitation Incentive Payment Models; Changes to Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement Payment Model (CMS-5524-P) | |
82 FR 39113 - Annual Notice of Interest Rates for Federal Student Loans Made Under the William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program Prior to July 1, 2013 | |
82 FR 39111 - Annual Notice of Variable Interest Rates of Federal Student Loans Made Under the Federal Family Education Loan Program Prior to July 1, 2010 | |
82 FR 39025 - Safety Zone; Willamette River, Lake Oswego, OR | |
82 FR 39133 - Finished Carbon Steel Flanges From India and Italy; Determinations | |
82 FR 39098 - Relaxation of the Federal Reid Vapor Pressure (RVP) Gasoline Volatility Standard for Shelby County (Memphis), Tennessee | |
82 FR 39124 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
82 FR 39124 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
82 FR 39038 - Community Right-To-Know; Adopting 2017 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Codes for Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) Reporting | |
82 FR 39101 - Community Right-To-Know; Adopting 2017 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Codes for Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) Reporting | |
82 FR 39127 - Submission for OMB Review; 30-Day Comment Request Chimpanzee Research Use Form (Office of the Director) | |
82 FR 39134 - Granting of Relief; Federal Firearms Privileges | |
82 FR 39145 - SEC Advisory Committee on Small and Emerging Companies | |
82 FR 39144 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 39143 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 39142 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 39023 - Safety Zone; St. Marys River, Sault Ste. Marie, MI | |
82 FR 39139 - James A. FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant; Consideration of Approval of Transfer of License and Conforming Amendment | |
82 FR 39125 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
82 FR 39019 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Carquinez Strait, Martinez, CA | |
82 FR 39130 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Permit Applications | |
82 FR 39138 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive Foreign Patent License | |
82 FR 39123 - Information Collection Approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) | |
82 FR 39151 - Commercial Driver's License Standards: Application for Exemption; Daimler Trucks North America (Daimler) | |
82 FR 39152 - Commercial Driver's License Standards: Application for Renewal of Exemption; Daimler Trucks North America (Daimler) | |
82 FR 39120 - Piedmont Municipal Power Agency v. Duke Energy Carolinas, LLC; Notice of Complaint | |
82 FR 39118 - Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 39150 - Presidential Declaration of a Major Disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of New Hampshire | |
82 FR 39047 - Atlantic Highly Migratory Species; Atlantic Bluefin Tuna Fisheries | |
82 FR 39019 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, Palm Beach, FL | |
82 FR 39020 - Safety Zone; Port Huron Float-Down, St. Clair River, Port Huron, MI | |
82 FR 39122 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Plywood and Composite Wood Products National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) Risk and Technology Review (RTR) | |
82 FR 39136 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revisions to a Currently Approved Collection | |
82 FR 39137 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revisions to a Currently Approved Collection | |
82 FR 39137 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revisions to a currently approved collection | |
82 FR 39134 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Approval of a New Collection | |
82 FR 39135 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Approval of a New Collection | |
82 FR 39044 - Subsistence Taking of Northern Fur Seals on the Pribilof Islands; Final Annual Subsistence Harvest Levels for 2017-2019 | |
82 FR 39276 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to a Low-Energy Geophysical Survey in the Northeastern Pacific Ocean | |
82 FR 39132 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest | |
82 FR 39107 - In the Matter of: Yasser Ahmad Obeid, Inmate Number: 60923-018, FCI Yazoo City Medium, Federal Correctional Institution, P.O. Box 5888, Yazoo City, MS 39194 | |
82 FR 39110 - In the Matter of: Jose Luis Benavides-Cira, Inmate Number: 85055-379, Great Plains Correctional Institution, P.O. Box 400, Hinton, OK 73047 | |
82 FR 39109 - In the Matter of: Ricardo Humberto Varela, Inmate Number: 85044-379, Federal Correctional Institution Bastrop, P.O. Box 1010, Bastrop, TX 78602 | |
82 FR 39106 - In the Matter of: Wenxia Man, a/k/a Wency Man, Inmate Number: 50772-298, FCI Dublin, 5701 8th Street-Camp Parks, Dublin, CA 94568 | |
82 FR 39103 - In the Matter of: David L. Maricola, Inmate Number: 96672-038, FCI Fort Dix, P.O. Box 2000, Joint Base MDL, NJ 08640 | |
82 FR 39133 - Cut-to-Length Carbon-Quality Steel Plate From India, Indonesia, and Korea; Scheduling of Full Five-Year Reviews; Correction | |
82 FR 39105 - In the Matter of: Mansour Moghtaderi Zadeh, a/k/a Mansour Zadeh, a/k/a Mita Zarek, a/k/a Mita Zadeh currently incarcerated at: Inmate Number: 43594-013, Rivers Correctional Institution, P.O. Box 630, Winton, NC 27986, and with prior known addresses at: 16 Kyraikou Matsi Ave., 3rd Floor, 1082 Nicosia, Cyprus, and Strovolou 77, Strovolos Center Suite 202, Strovolos P.C. 2018, Nicosia, Cyprus and P.O. Box 23973, 1687 Nicosia, Cyprus | |
82 FR 39104 - In the Matter of: Alexandre Dos Anjos Oliveira, Inmate Number: 05753-104, McRae Federal Correctional Institution, P.O. Drawer 55030, McRae Helena, GA 31055; Order Denying Export Privileges | |
82 FR 39148 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Further Clarify When Nasdaq PSX Will Utilize the Secondary Source of Data Pursuant to Rule 3304 | |
82 FR 39145 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Further Clarify When the Exchange Will Utilize the Secondary Source of Data Pursuant to Rule 4759 | |
82 FR 39155 - Request for Applications for the IRS Advisory Committee on Tax Exempt and Government Entities | |
82 FR 39156 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request Relating to CPEO Forms | |
82 FR 39103 - Foreign-Trade Zone 75-Phoenix, Arizona; Withdrawal of Application for Subzone Expansion; Conair Corporation, Glendale, Arizona | |
82 FR 39157 - Geriatrics and Gerontology Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting Cancellation | |
82 FR 39111 - Certain Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products From the People's Republic of China: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review | |
82 FR 39131 - Low Melt Polyester Staple Fiber From Korea and Taiwan; Determination | |
82 FR 39153 - Pipeline Safety: Meetings of the Gas Pipeline Advisory Committee and the Liquid Pipeline Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 39103 - Opportunity To Comment on the Applicants for the South Carolina Area Consisting of the Entire State of South Carolina, Except Those Export Port Locations Within the State, Which Are Serviced by the South Carolina Department of Agriculture | |
82 FR 39122 - New York Independent System Operator, Inc.; Notice of Filing | |
82 FR 39122 - Canton Mountain Wind, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 39120 - Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 39119 - Ohio River System LLC; Notice of Application | |
82 FR 39121 - Texas Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 39118 - Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 39117 - Village of Waterbury; Notice of Preliminary Determination of a Qualifying Conduit Hydropower Facility and Soliciting Comments and Motions To Intervene | |
82 FR 39142 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 39116 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 39090 - Air Plan Approval; Alabama; Regional Haze Plan and Prong 4 (Visibility) for the 2012 PM2.5 | |
82 FR 39083 - Air Plan Approval; South Carolina: Minor Source Permit Program Revisions | |
82 FR 39070 - Air Plan Approval; Alabama; Cross-State Air Pollution Rule | |
82 FR 39067 - ABMC Privacy Program | |
82 FR 39065 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Deblois, ME | |
82 FR 39027 - Air Plan Approval; NC; Air Curtain Burners | |
82 FR 39097 - Air Plan Approval; NC; Air Curtain Burners | |
82 FR 39035 - Air Plan Approval: Alabama; Transportation Conformity | |
82 FR 39078 - Air Plan Approval; Alabama; Transportation Conformity | |
82 FR 39031 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Virginia; Revisions To Implement the Revocation of the 1997 Ozone NAAQS | |
82 FR 39097 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Virginia; Revisions To Implement the Revocation of the 1997 Ozone NAAQS | |
82 FR 39030 - Promulgation of State Implementation Plan Revisions; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2010 SO2 | |
82 FR 39079 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; South Carolina; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan | |
82 FR 39160 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Designation of Critical Habitat for the Endangered New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina and South Atlantic Distinct Population Segments of Atlantic Sturgeon and the Threatened Gulf of Maine Distinct Population Segment of Atlantic Sturgeon | |
82 FR 39124 - Patient Safety Organizations: Voluntary Relinquishment From the Specialty Benchmarks PSO | |
82 FR 39151 - E.O. 13224 Designation of Hizbul Mujahideen, aka Hizb-ul-Mujahideen, aka HM as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
82 FR 39150 - In the Matter of the Designation of Hizbul Mujahideen Also Known as Hizb-ul-Mujahideen Also Known as HM as a Foreign Terrorist Organization Pursuant to Section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as Amended | |
82 FR 39018 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 39013 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 39009 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 39011 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 39128 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
82 FR 39154 - Notice of OFAC Sanctions Actions | |
82 FR 39049 - Large Financial Institution Rating System; Regulations K and LL | |
82 FR 39062 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes |
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 17, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 17, 2017.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
RESCINDED: On July 13, 2017 (82 FR 32230), the FAA published an Amendment in Docket No. 31141, Amdt No. 3753 to Part 97 of the Federal Aviation Regulations under section 97.23, 97.25, 97.29 and 97.33, the following entries for Livermore, CA, Orlando, FL, and Muscatine, IA, effective August 17, 2017, and are hereby rescinded in their entirety:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 17, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 17, 2017.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
RESCINDED: On July 13, 2017 (82 FR 32228), the FAA published an Amendment in Docket No. 31139, Amdt No. 3751 to Part 97 of the Federal Aviation Regulations under section 97.29 and 97.33. The following entries for Orlando, FL, effective July 20, 2017, are hereby rescinded in their entirety:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 17, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 17, 2017.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420) Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
This amendment provides the affected CFR sections, and specifies the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure and the amendment number.
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes contained for each SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as modified by FDC permanent NOTAMs.
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 17, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 17, 2017.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420)Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082 Oklahoma City, OK. 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
This amendment provides the affected CFR sections, and specifies the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure and the amendment number.
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes contained for each SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as modified by FDC permanent NOTAMs.
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979) ; and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal regulations, Part 97, (14 CFR part 97), is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Union Pacific Railroad Drawbridge across the Carquinez Strait, mile 7.0, at Martinez, CA. The deviation is necessary to allow the bridge owner to conduct emergency repairs. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position during the deviation period.
This deviation is effective from 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. on August 23, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2017-0770, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Carl T. Hausner, Chief, Bridge Section, Eleventh Coast Guard District; telephone 510-437-3516; email
The Union Pacific Railroad Company has requested a temporary change to the operation of the Union Pacific Railroad Drawbridge, over the Carquinez Strait, mile 7.0, at Martinez, CA. The drawbridge navigation span provides a vertical clearance of 70 feet above Mean High Water in the closed-to-navigation position. The draw operates as required by 33 CFR 117.5. Navigation on the waterway is commercial and recreational.
The drawspan will be secured in the closed-to-navigation position from 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. on August 23, 2017, to allow the bridge owner to conduct emergency repairs. This temporary deviation has been coordinated with the waterway users. No objections to the proposed temporary deviation were raised.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation with request for comments.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the operation of the Flagler Memorial (SR A1A), Royal Park (SR 704), and the Southern Boulevard (SR 700/80) bridges, across the Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway (AICW), miles 1020.8, 1022.6 and 1024.7 at Palm Beach, Florida. This deviation will test for 180 days a change to the drawbridge operation schedules to determine whether a permanent change to the schedules is needed. This deviation is necessary to reduce traffic congestion and ensure the safety of the roadways, while meeting the needs of waterways users, whenever the President of the United States, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service are present or expected to be
This deviation is effective from September 1, 2017, until February 27, 2018.
Comments and related material must reach the Coast Guard on or before October 16, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-0273 using Federal eRulemaking Portal at
See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Eddie Lawrence with the Seventh Coast Guard District Bridge Office; telephone 305-415-6946, email
When the President of the United States, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service are present or expected to be present at Mar-a-Lago, traffic backups have been caused by drawbridge openings in the Palm Beach area. The increase in traffic occurs due to the closure of Southern Boulevard when the President is visiting Mar-a-Lago. This requires through traffic to use the Flagler Memorial and Royal Park Bridges to cross the Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway (AICW). Due to the increased traffic using the Flagler Memorial and Royal Park bridges when the President is in town, the Mayor of Palm Beach has asked the Coast Guard and the bridge owner, Florida Department of Transportation, to test a change to the operating regulations of those bridges.
During this temporary deviation, the Flagler Memorial and Royal Park Bridges will only be required to open once an hour, on the quarter and half hour, respectively, starting at 2:15 p.m. through 5:30 p.m. during the weekdays only. The Flagler memorial Bridge will open at 2:15 p.m., 3:15 p.m., 4:15 p.m. and 5:15 p.m., weekdays, if vessels are requesting an opening. The Royal Park (Middle) Bridge will open at 2:30 p.m., 3:30 p.m., 4:30 p.m. and 5:30 p.m., weekdays, if vessels are requesting an opening.
The operating schedule of the Southern Boulevard Bridge, which is closest to Mar-a-Lago and also crosses the AICW, will not be affected during the aforementioned times. However it will be allowed to remain closed whenever the presidential motorcade is in transit. At all other times all three bridges will operate per their normal schedules. The current operating regulation is under 33 CFR 117.261 at paragraphs (u), (v), and (w), respectively.
This general deviation will have an impact on marine traffic while alleviating some vehicle traffic backups. Tugs with tows are not exempt from this regulation.
The Coast Guard will inform waterway users of the schedule changes through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners, so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation. Mariners should also listen to local news organizations to determine when the President, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service are visiting Mar-a-Largo.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35. The Coast Guard will continue to evaluate the impact to mariners navigating this area during the closure periods and is requesting comments be submitted during the first 60 days of this deviation.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at anytime. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies.
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone on the waters of the St. Clair River in the vicinity of Port Huron, MI. This zone is intended to restrict and control movement of vessels in a portion of the St. Clair River. Though this is an unsanctioned, non-permitted marine event, this zone is necessary to provide for the safety of life on the navigable waters near Port Huron, MI, during a float down event.
This temporary final rule is effective from 12 p.m. through 8 p.m. August 20, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this temporary rule, call or email Tracy Girard, Prevention Department, Sector Detroit, Coast Guard; telephone 313-568-9564, or email
During the afternoon of August 20, 2017, a non-sanctioned public event is scheduled to take place. The event is advertised over various social-media sites, in which a large number of persons float down a segment of the St. Clair River, using inner tubes and other similar floatation devices. The 2017 Float-Down event will occur between approximately 12 p.m. and 8 p.m. on August 20, 2017. This event has taken place in the month of August annually since 2009.
No private or municipal entity requested a marine event permit from the Coast Guard for this event, and it has not received state or federal permits since its inception. The event has drawn over 3,000 participants of various ages annually. Despite plans put together by federal, state and local officials, emergency responders and law enforcement officials have been overburdened pursuing safety during this event. Medical emergencies, people drifting across the international border, and people trespassing on residential property when trying to get out of the water before the designated finish line are some of the numerous difficulties encountered during the Float-Down event.
During the 2014 Float-Down event, a 19-year-old participant died. During the 2016 float down, a wind shift caused thousands of U.S. citizen rafters with no passports to drift into Canadian waters. The current and wind made it impossible for the rafters to paddle back into U.S. waters, causing significant coordination with the Canadian authorities. Despite these events, promotional information for the event continues to be published. More than 3,000 people are again anticipated to float down the river this year. No public or private organization holds themselves responsible as the event sponsor. Therefore, the Coast Guard does not receive full and final details regarding the event or the number of participants until the time of the event.
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because doing so would be impracticable. The Coast Guard did not receive the final details of this float down event until there was insufficient time remaining before the event to publish an NPRM.
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this temporary rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The legal basis for the rule is the Coast Guard's authority to establish safety zones: 33 U.S.C. 1231; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1. The Captain of the Port Detroit (COTP) determined the float down poses significant risk to public safety and property. The likely combination of large numbers of participants, strong river currents, limited rescue resources, and difficult emergency response scenarios could easily result in serious injuries or fatalities to Float-Down participants and spectators. Therefore, the COTP is establishing a safety zone around the event location to help minimize risks to safety of life and property during this event.
This rule establishes a safety zone from 12 p.m. to 8 p.m. on August 20, 2017. The safety zone will begin at Lighthouse Beach and encompass all U.S. waters of the St. Clair River bound by a line starting at a point on land north of Coast Guard Station Port Huron at position 43°00.416′ N.; 082°25.333′ W., extending east to the international boundary to a point at position 43°00.416′ N.; 082°25.033′ W., following south along the international boundary to a point at position 42°54.500′ N.; 082°27.683′ W., extending west to a point on land just north of Stag Island at position 42°54.500′ N.; 082°27.966′ W., and following north along the U.S. shoreline to the point of origin (NAD 83).
Entry into, transiting, or anchoring within the safety zone is prohibited unless authorized by the COTP or a designated representative. Vessel operators must contact the COTP or his on-scene representative to obtain permission to transit through this safety zone. Additionally, no one under the age of 18 will be permitted to enter the safety zone if they are not wearing a Coast Guard-approved Personal Floatation Device (PFD). The COTP or his on-scene representative may be contacted via VHF Channel 16.
The COTP or his designated on-scene representative will notify the public of the enforcement of this rule by all appropriate means, including a Broadcast Notice to Mariners and Local Notice to Mariners.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes and executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. Executive Order 13771 (“Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs”), directs agencies to reduce regulation and control regulatory costs and provides that “for every one new regulation issued, at least two prior regulations be identified for elimination, and that the cost of planned regulations be prudently managed and controlled through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, this rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017 titled `Reducing
We conclude that this rule is not a significant regulatory action. This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-year of the safety zone. Vessel traffic will not be able to safely transit around this safety zone which will impact a designated area of the St. Clair River from 12 p.m. thru 8 p.m. on August 20, 2017. Moreover, the Coast Guard will issue Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone so vessel owners and operators can plan accordingly.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in the
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969(42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting eight hours on August 20, 2017 that will prohibit entry within the 7 mile portion of St. Clair River. It is categorically excluded under section 2.B.2, figure 2-1, paragraph 34(g) of the Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration (REC) supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated in the
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and record keeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) The safety zone is closed to all vessel traffic, except as may be permitted by the Captain of the Port Detroit or his on-scene representative.
(3) The “on-scene representative” of the Captain of the Port Detroit is any Coast Guard commissioned, warrant or petty officer or a Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Detroit to act on his behalf.
(4) Vessel operators shall contact the Captain of the Port Detroit or his on-scene representative to obtain permission to enter or operate within the safety zone. The Captain of the Port Detroit or his on-scene representative may be contacted via VHF Channel 16 or at 313-568-9464. Vessel operators given permission to enter or operate in the regulated area must comply with all directions given to them by the Captain of the Port Detroit or his on-scene representative.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters within a 200-yard radius of the position of the grounded vessel, M/V CALUMET on the north end of Sugar Island. The safety zone is needed to provide for the safety of life and property on the navigable waters during emergency salvage operations onboard a bulk carrier that ran aground. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Sault Ste. Marie.
This rule is effective with actual notice from August 10, 2017 until August 17, 2017. This rule is effective without actual notice on August 17, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email LTJG Sean V. Murphy, Waterways Management Chief, Sector Sault Ste. Marie, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 906-635-3223, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because M/V CALUMET ran aground on the north side of Sugar Island in the St. Marys River on the night of 09 August 2017 and immediate action is needed to investigate the incident and respond to the potential safety hazards associated with salvage of the vessel. It is impracticable to publish an NPRM because the Coast Guard must establish this safety zone by 10 August 2017.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Sault Ste. Marie (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with emergency salvage operations starting 10 August 2017 will be a safety concern for anyone within a 200-yard radius of the aground vessel in position 46-29.3N 084-18.1W. This rule is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone while the incident is investigated and the vessel is salvaged.
This rule establishes a safety zone from August 10, 2017 to August 17, 2017. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters within 200 yards of the aground M/V CALUMET in position 46-29.3N 084-18.1W. The duration of the zone is intended to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in these navigable waters while the incident is investigated and the vessel is salvaged. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive Orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, and limited duration of the safety zone. We conclude that this rule is not a
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
(1) This rule will affect the following entities, some of which may be small entities: the owners and operators of vessels intending to transit or anchor in a portion of the navigable waters in the St. Marys River, Sault Ste. Marie, MI.
(2) This safety zone will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities for the following reasons: There is ample room in the channel for recreational vessels to transit outside of the safety zone. The Coast Guard will notify mariners before activating the zone by appropriate means which may include but are not limited to an Advisory Notice and Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting 7 days that will prohibit entry within 200 yards of the aground M/V CALUMET. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative by calling the Sector Sault Ste. Marie Command Center at 906-635-3319. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
(d)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters of the Willamette River in the vicinity of George Rogers Park in Lake Oswego, OR. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters during a fireworks display on September 9, 2017. This regulation prohibits persons and vessels from being in the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Columbia River or a designated representative.
This rule is effective from September 9, 2017 from 7:30 p.m. through 10:00 p.m.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email LCDR Laura Springer, Waterways Management Division, Marine Safety Unit Portland, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 503-240-9319, email
Western Display Fireworks, Ltd. will be conducting a fireworks display from 8:30 p.m. to 9 p.m. on September 9, 2017. The Fireworks are to be launched from the beach at George Rogers Park. Hazards from firework displays include accidental discharge of fireworks, dangerous projectiles, and falling hot embers or other debris. The Captain of the Port Sector Columbia River (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with the fireworks to be used in this display would be a safety concern for anyone within a 400-foot radius of the barge used to launch the fireworks display.
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because to do so would be impracticable as it would not be possible to conduct notice and comment rulemaking prior to the date of the event.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Port Columbia River (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with the fireworks display on September 9, 2017 will be a safety concern for anyone within a 400 foot radius of launch site. This rule is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone before, during and after the scheduled event.
This rule establishes a safety zone from 7:30 p.m. until 10:00 p.m. on September 9, 2017. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters within 400 feet of the barge being used to launch the fireworks display from position 45°24′36.30″ N., 122°39′34.75″ W. on the Willamette River in Lake Oswego, OR. The duration of the zone is intended to ensure the safety of vessels and these navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled 7:30 p.m. to 10:00 p.m. fireworks display. No vessel or person would be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-day of the safety zone. Vessel traffic would be able to safely transit around this safety zone which would impact a small designated area of the Willamette River for two hours during the evening when vessel traffic is
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting less than two and a half hours that will prohibit entry within 400 feet of the barge used to launch the fireworks display. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Environmental Protection Agency.
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve portions of revisions to the North Carolina State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of North Carolina through the North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (formerly the North Carolina Department of Environment and Natural Resources), Division of Air Quality (DAQ), on October 14, 2004, March 24, 2006, and January 31, 2008. The revisions which EPA is approving are changes to the air curtain burner regulation of the North Carolina SIP. These revisions are part of North Carolina's strategy to meet and maintain the national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). EPA has taken or will take action with respect to all other portions of these SIP revisions. This action is being taken pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) and its implementing regulations.
This direct final rule is effective October 16, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by September 18, 2017. If adverse comment is received, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2007-0085 at
Sean Lakeman or Nacosta C. Ward, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Lakeman can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9043 or via electronic mail at
In this rulemaking, EPA is taking direct final action to approve portions of the revisions to the North Carolina SIP submitted on October 14, 2004, March 24, 2006, and January 31, 2008. EPA is taking direct final action on the changes to 15A NCAC Subchapter 2D—Air Pollution Control Requirements, Section .1904,
North Carolina submitted revisions to 15A NCAC Subchapter 2D—Air Pollution Control Requirements, Section .1904,
The changes contained in the October 14, 2004, SIP submission require that permits be obtained for air curtain burners as defined by 40 CFR 60.2245 through 60.2265, permanent burning sites or materials transported from burning site to burning site. These permitted air curtain burners must also have a certified visible emissions reader onsite at all times and during the operation of the burner to ensure that the visible emissions can be read for compliance purposes. A provision has also been added to cease operation of air curtain burners in fine particulate matter (PM
North Carolina's submission modifies the provision which governs air curtain burning where burning should be at least 500 feet away from any dwelling, group of dwellings, or commercial or institutional establishment or other occupied structure not located on the property where the burning is conducted. These burning occurrences must be approved before the initiation of the burn. The daily log at permanent air curtain burner sites must be maintained onsite for two years and be available for inspection. If an owner or operator is using a different technology or method other than an air curtain burner as defined under 2D Section .1902,
This SIP revision increases the six-minute average plume opacity limit during operation from five percent to ten percent. North Carolina states that the purpose of this change is to align the state rule with federal requirements. The revision also extends the allowed startup time of the burners from 30 to 45 minutes. The revision does not change an existing allowance for one six-minute period with an average opacity of more than ten percent but no more than 35 percent during any one-hour period.
On April 11, 2017, DAQ submitted a non-interference or section 110(l) demonstration which describes how these changes will not interfere with the attainment and maintenance of the NAAQS. North Carolina states there are
The changes contained in the March 24, 2006, SIP submission are clarifications to existing text in the regulation. The changes make the regulation applicable to air curtain burners in general and not only those currently identified in paragraph (a), which are burners subject to 40 CFR 60.2245-60.2265 or located at permanent burning sites or where materials are transported in from another burning site. The term “ozone forecast area” is also being replaced with “air quality forecast area” in order to address all pollutants instead of only ozone.
The changes contained in the January 31, 2008, SIP submission expand the scope of the types of air curtain burners for which air quality permits must be issued to also include air curtain burners subject to 40 CFR 60.2810 through 60.2870, 60.2970 through 60.2975, and 60.3062 through 60.3069. The changes specify the opacity standards to which the various air curtain burner types are subject as outlined in 40 CFR part 60, instead of the opacity standards as previously outlined in the existing subparagraphs of the regulation. Lastly, the recordkeeping and reporting requirements have also been expanded to note the applicability of the additional requirements for owner and operators of air curtain burners subject to 40 CFR 60.2810 through 60.2870, 60.2970 through 60.2975, and 60.3062 through 60.3069.
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of 15A NCAC Subchapter 2D—
EPA is approving the aforementioned revisions to the North Carolina SIP submitted by the State of North Carolina on October 14, 2004, March 24, 2006, and January 31, 2008, pursuant to section 110 because these revisions are consistent with the CAA. Changes to the other sections in these submissions will be or have been processed in a separate action, as appropriate, for approval into the North Carolina SIP. As noted above, EPA is not taking action on changes to 15A NCAC Subchapter 2D—Air Pollution Control Requirements, Section .1201,
EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial submittal and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a document withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All adverse comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. EPA will not institute a second comment period. Parties interested in commenting should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on October 16, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 16, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving elements of State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions from the State of Colorado to demonstrate the State meets infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) promulgated for sulfur dioxide (SO
This rule is effective on September 18, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R08-OAR-2013-0557. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Abby Fulton, Air Program, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Region 8, Mail Code 8P-AR, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202-1129, (303) 312-6563,
Infrastructure requirements for SIPs are set forth in section 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA. Section 110(a)(2) lists the specific infrastructure elements that a SIP must contain or satisfy. The elements that are the subject of this action are described in detail in our notice of proposed rulemaking published on June 6, 2017 (82 FR 25999).
In our proposed rule, the EPA proposed to approve some infrastructure elements and to take no action on others for the 2010 SO
No comments were received on our June 6, 2017 notice of proposed rulemaking.
For reasons expressed in the proposed rule, the EPA is taking final action to approve infrastructure elements from the State's certifications as shown in Table 1. Elements we are taking no action on are reflected in Table 2.
A comprehensive summary of infrastructure elements and new rules being approved into the Colorado SIP through this final rule action are provided in Table 1 and Table 2.
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described
• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under Section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 16, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See CAA Section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Greenhouse gases, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
40 CFR part 52 is amended to read as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(d) The Colorado Department of Public Health and Environment provided submissions to meet infrastructure requirements for the State of Colorado for the 2010 SO
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to approve revisions to the Commonwealth of Virginia state implementation plan (SIP). The revisions pertain to amendments made to the Virginia Administrative Code. These amendments updated the State Air Pollution Control Board's Regulations for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution to be consistent with EPA's final rule implementing the 2008 ozone national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) and revoking the 1997 ozone NAAQS.
This rule is effective on October 16, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse written comment by September 18, 2017. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0382 at
Sara Calcinore, (215) 814-2043, or by e-mail at
Ground level ozone is formed when nitrogen oxides (NO
EPA is required to review and reevaluate the ozone NAAQS every 5 years in order to consider updated information regarding the effects of ozone on human health and the environment. Since February 8, 1979, the date of the first ozone NAAQS promulgation, EPA has reviewed and revised the ozone standard to protect the public health and welfare. On July 18, 1997, EPA promulgated a revised ozone NAAQS, referred to as the 1997 ozone NAAQS, of 0.08 ppm averaged over eight hours. 62 FR 38855. This 8-hour ozone NAAQS was determined to be more protective of public health than the previous 1979 1-hour ozone NAAQS. In 2008, EPA revised the 8-hour ozone NAAQS from 0.08 to 0.075 ppm. The 0.075 ppm standard is referred to as the 2008 ozone NAAQS.
On March 6, 2015, EPA established a final rule addressing a range of nonattainment area SIP requirements for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. 80 FR 12264. This final rule also revoked the 1997 ozone NAAQS as of April 6, 2015 and established anti-backsliding requirements that became effective once the 1997 ozone NAAQS was revoked. The anti-backsliding provisions in 40 CFR 51.1105 require States to retain all applicable control requirements for the 1997 ozone NAAQS, while enabling areas, where possible, to focus planning efforts on meeting the more protective 2008 ozone NAAQS.
On February 10, 2017, the Commonwealth of Virginia Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) submitted a formal SIP revision (Revision G16). The SIP revision consists of amendments made to the Virginia Administrative Code to reflect the revocation of the 1997 ozone NAAQS according to the final rule established by EPA on March 6, 2015 implementing the 2008 ozone NAAQS.
The February 10, 2017 SIP revision submittal includes amended versions of provisions in the State Air Pollution Control Board's Regulation for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution including 9VAC5-20-204, 9VAC5-30-55, 9VAC5-151-20, and 9VAC5-160-30, which were adopted by the State Air Pollution Control Board on September 9, 2016 and effective November 16, 2016. Virginia requests that EPA approve this submittal so that these amended regulations become part of the Virginia SIP.
The amendment to 9VAC5-20-204 added text to the section stating that the list of Northern Virginia moderate nonattainment areas under the 1997 ozone NAAQS is no longer effective after April 6, 2015, the effective date of the revocation of the 1997 ozone NAAQS.
EPA's review of this material indicates the February 10, 2017 submittal is approvable as it revises regulations to be consistent with EPA's final rule implementing the 2008 ozone NAAQS.
EPA is approving the Virginia SIP revision submitted on February 10, 2017, which includes revisions to several sections of the Virginia Administrative Code, including 9VAC5-20-204, 9VAC5-30-55, 9VAC5-151-20, and 9VAC5-160-30 which will be incorporated by reference into the Virginia SIP. EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because EPA views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comment. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of today's
In 1995, Virginia adopted legislation that provides, subject to certain conditions, for an environmental assessment (audit) “privilege” for voluntary compliance evaluations performed by a regulated entity. The legislation further addresses the relative burden of proof for parties either asserting the privilege or seeking disclosure of documents for which the privilege is claimed. Virginia's legislation also provides, subject to certain conditions, for a penalty waiver for violations of environmental laws when a regulated entity discovers such violations pursuant to a voluntary compliance evaluation and voluntarily discloses such violations to the Commonwealth and takes prompt and appropriate measures to remedy the violations. Virginia's Voluntary Environmental Assessment Privilege Law, Va. Code Sec. 10.1-1198, provides a privilege that protects from disclosure documents and information about the content of those documents that are the product of a voluntary environmental assessment. The Privilege Law does not extend to documents or information that: (1) Are generated or developed before the commencement of a voluntary environmental assessment; (2) are prepared independently of the assessment process; (3) demonstrate a clear, imminent and substantial danger to the public health or environment; or (4) are required by law.
On January 12, 1998, the Commonwealth of Virginia Office of the Attorney General provided a legal opinion that states that the Privilege Law, Va. Code § 10.1-1198, precludes granting a privilege to documents and information “required by law,” including documents and information “required by federal law to maintain program delegation, authorization or approval,” since Virginia must “enforce federally authorized environmental programs in a manner that is no less stringent than their federal counterparts. . . .” The opinion concludes that “[r]egarding § 10.1-1198, therefore, documents or other information needed for civil or criminal enforcement under one of these programs could not be privileged because such documents and information are essential to pursuing enforcement in a manner required by federal law to maintain program delegation, authorization or approval.” Virginia's Immunity law, Va. Code Sec. 10.1-1199, provides that “[t]o the extent consistent with requirements imposed by federal law,” any person making a voluntary disclosure of information to a state agency regarding a violation of an environmental statute, regulation, permit, or administrative order is granted immunity from administrative or civil penalty. The Attorney General's January 12, 1998 opinion states that the quoted language renders this statute inapplicable to enforcement of any federally authorized programs, since “no immunity could be afforded from administrative, civil, or criminal penalties because granting such immunity would not be consistent with federal law, which is one of the criteria for immunity.”
Therefore, EPA has determined that Virginia's Privilege and Immunity statutes will not preclude the Commonwealth from enforcing its program consistent with the federal requirements. In any event, because EPA has also determined that a state audit privilege and immunity law can affect only state enforcement and cannot have any impact on Federal enforcement authorities, EPA may at any time invoke its authority under the CAA, including, for example, sections 113, 167, 205, 211 or 213, to enforce the requirements or prohibitions of the state plan, independently of any state enforcement effort. In addition, citizen enforcement under section 304 of the CAA is likewise unaffected by this, or any, state audit privilege or immunity law.
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the revisions to 9VAC5-20-204, 9VAC5-30-55, 9VAC5-151-20, and 9VAC5-160-30 of the State Air Pollution Control Board's Regulation for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution discussed in Section II of this preamble. Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update of the SIP compilation.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land as defined
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 16, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
This action to approve revised provisions of the Virginia Administrative Code including 9VAC5-20-204, 9VAC5-30-55, 9VAC5-151-20, and 9VAC5-160-30 for inclusion in the Virginia SIP may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a portion of a revision to the Alabama State Implementation plan (SIP) submitted by the State of Alabama on May 8, 2013, for the purpose of amending the transportation conformity rules to be consistent with Federal requirements.
This direct final rule is effective October 16, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by September 18, 2017. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0174 at
Kelly Sheckler, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. The telephone number is (404) 562-9222. Ms. Sheckler can also be reached via electronic mail at
In the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act), Congress recognized that actions taken by federal agencies could affect a State, Tribal, or local agency's ability to attain and maintain the national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). Congress added section 176(c) (42 U.S.C. 7506) to the CAA to ensure federal agencies' proposed actions conform to the applicable SIP, Tribal Implementation Plan (TIP) or Federal Implementation Plan (FIP) for attaining and maintaining the NAAQS. That section requires federal entities to find that the emissions from the federal action will conform with the purposes of the SIP, TIP or FIP or not otherwise interfere with the State's or Tribe's ability to attain and maintain the NAAQS.
The CAA Amendments of 1990 clarified and strengthened the provisions in section 176(c). Because certain provisions of section 176(c) apply only to highway and mass transit funding and approvals actions, EPA published two sets of regulations to implement section 176(c). The Transportation Conformity Regulations, (40 CFR part 51, subpart T, and 40 CFR part 93, subpart A) first published on November 24, 1993 (58 FR 62188),
When promulgated in 1993, the Federal Transportation Conformity Rule at 40 CFR 51.395 mandated that the transportation conformity SIP revisions incorporate several provisions of the rule in verbatim form, except insofar as needed to give effect to a stated intent in the revision to establish criteria and procedures more stringent than the requirements stated in these sections.
Transportation conformity is required under section 176(c) of the CAA to ensure that federally-supported highway projects, transit projects, and other activities are consistent with (“conform to”) the purpose of the SIP. Transportation conformity currently applies to areas that are designated nonattainment, as well as those areas redesignated to attainment after 1990 (maintenance areas), with plans developed under section 175A of the Act for the following transportation related pollutants: Ozone, particulate matter (PM
On August 10, 2005, the SAFETEA-LU was signed into law and provided changes to the CAA that streamlined the requirements for conformity SIPs at section 176(c). Prior to SAFETEA-LU, states were required to address all of the Federal conformity rule's provisions in their conformity SIPs. After SAFETEA-LU amended CAA section 176(c)(4)(E) and EPA revised 40 CFR 51.390 to be consistent with those amendments, states are required to address and tailor only three sections of the conformity rule in their transportation conformity SIPs. (The requirement that states adopt the Federal conformity rule verbatim results in the need for states to submit a SIP revision within one year of EPA's adoption of any changes, including minor changes, to the rule.) The three sections of the federal rule which must meet a state's individual circumstances are: 40 CFR 93.105, which addresses consultation procedures; 40 CFR 93.122(a)(4)(ii), which requires that written commitments be obtained for control measures that are not included in a Metropolitan Planning Organization's transportation plan and transportation improvement program prior to a conformity determination, and that such commitments be fulfilled; and, 40 CFR 93.125(c) which requires that written commitments be obtained for mitigation measures prior to a project level conformity determination, and that project sponsors must comply with such commitments. In general, states are no longer required to submit conformity SIP revisions that address the other sections of the conformity rule, and they are able to streamline their SIP-approved conformity requirements consistent with changes made through SAFETEA-LU.
EPA has approved several revisions to the Alabama SIP to incorporate transportation conformity requirements consistent with the Federal regulations. Initially, on May 11, 2000, EPA approved Alabama's SIP revision to address consultation requirements for transportation conformity.
On May 8, 2013, the Alabama Department of Environmental Management submitted a SIP revision to EPA to make two changes to its transportation conformity requirements. First, the State changed its regulations at Alabama Administrative Code section 335-3-17-.01,
On March 14, 2012, EPA finalized the rule entitled “Transportation Conformity Rule Restructuring Amendments.”
EPA has reviewed Alabama's submittal to ensure consistency with the current CAA, as amended by SAFETEA-LU, and EPA regulations governing state procedures for transportation and general conformity (40 CFR part 93, subparts A and B). The May 8, 2013, SIP revision, upon final approval by EPA, removes specific provisions of Alabama Administrative Code section 335-3-17-.01, “
In this rule, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is
Pursuant to section 110 of the CAA, EPA is approving the revision to the Alabama SIP regarding the State's transportation conformity requirements. The approval of Alabama's conformity SIP revisions will align the Alabama SIP with the current federal conformity requirements, as amended by SAFETEA-LU, and the most recent EPA regulations governing state procedures for transportation conformity.
EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial submittal and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a document withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. EPA will not institute a second comment period. Parties interested in commenting should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on October 16, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 16, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
EPA is updating the list of North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes subject to reporting under the Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) to reflect the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) 2017 NAICS code revision. As a result of this action, facilities would be required to use 2017 NAICS codes when reporting to TRI beginning with TRI reporting forms that are due on July 1, 2018, covering releases and other waste management quantities for the 2017 calendar year. EPA is also modifying the list of exceptions and limitations associated with NAICS codes in the CFR for TRI reporting purposes by deleting the descriptive text. EPA believes that these amendments are non-controversial and does not expect to receive any adverse comments. However, in addition to this direct final rule, elsewhere in this issue of the
This final rule is effective on November 15, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by September 18, 2017. If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2007-0197, is available at
You may be potentially affected by this action if you own or operate facilities that have 10 or more full-time employees or the equivalent of 20,000 employee hours per year that manufacture, process, or otherwise use toxic chemicals listed on the TRI, and that are required under section 313 of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) or section 6607 of the Pollution Prevention Act (PPA) to report annually to EPA and States or Tribes their environmental releases or other waste management quantities of covered chemicals. (A rule was published on April 19, 2012 (77 FR 23409), requiring facilities located in Indian country to report to the appropriate tribal government official and EPA instead of to the state and EPA.)
The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Facilities included in the following NAICS manufacturing codes (corresponding to Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) codes 20 through 39): 311*, 312*, 313*, 314*, 315*, 316, 321, 322, 323*, 324, 325*, 326*, 327, 331, 332, 333, 334*, 335*, 336, 337*, 339*, 111998*, 211112*, 212324*, 212325*, 212393*, 212399*, 488390*, 511110, 511120, 511130, 511140*, 511191, 511199, 512220, 512230*, 519130*, 541712*, or 811490*. (*Exceptions and/or limitations exist for these NAICS codes.)
• Facilities included in the following NAICS codes (corresponding to SIC codes other than SIC codes 20 through 39): 212111, 212112, 212113 (corresponds to SIC code 12, Coal
• Federal facilities. Under Executive Order 13693 (80 FR 15871, March 25, 2015), all Federal facilities are required to comply with the provisions set forth in section 313 of EPCRA and section 6607 of the PPA. On June 10, 2015, the White House Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) issued
If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the technical person listed in the
EPA is taking this action under sections 313(g)(1) and 328 of EPCRA, 42 U.S.C. 11023(g)(1) and 11048. In general, section 313 of EPCRA requires owners and operators of covered facilities in specified SIC codes that manufacture, process, or otherwise use listed toxic chemicals in amounts above specified threshold levels to report certain facility specific information about such chemicals, including the annual releases and other waste management quantities. Section 313(g)(1) of EPCRA requires EPA to publish a uniform toxic chemical release form for these reporting purposes, and it also prescribes, in general terms, the types of information that must be submitted on the form. Congress also granted EPA broad rulemaking authority to allow the Agency to fully implement the statute. EPCRA section 328 states that: “The Administrator may prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out this chapter.” 42 U.S.C. 11048.
In response to OMB's revisions to the NAICS codes effective January 1, 2017, EPA is amending 40 CFR part 372 to include 2017 NAICS codes for TRI reporting. EPA is also modifying the list of exceptions and limitations of NAICS codes for TRI reporting purposes in the CFR.
Under this action, TRI reporting requirements remain unchanged. However, due to the 2017 NAICS modifications, some facilities will need to modify their reported NAICS codes as outlined in the table below, which identifies only the revised TRI NAICS reporting codes and is not an exhaustive list of all NAICS reporting codes subject to EPCRA section 313 and PPA section 6607. A complete listing of all TRI covered facilities can be found in the regulations at 40 CFR 372.23.
Crosswalk tables between all 2012 NAICS codes and 2017 NAICS codes can be found on the Internet at
EPA is also modifying the list of exceptions and limitations of NAICS codes for TRI reporting purposes in the CFR. Because NAICS codes may cross-reference some SIC codes in both TRI-covered and non-covered TRI sectors, EPA has historically included descriptive text in 40 CFR part 372 to help indicate exceptions and limitations to TRI coverage for a specific NAICS code in line with the previous SIC code descriptors. However, NAICS codes are updated every five years, and these updates may require EPA to revise this text describing an exception or limitation to the scope of a particular NAICS code. Consequently, this descriptive text does not always align fully with SIC codes' full descriptions.
For example, historically, 40 CFR part 372 would list NAICS code 323211 with the following exception: “Exception is limited to facilities primarily engaged in reproducing text, drawings, plans, maps, or other copy, by blueprinting, photocopying, mimeographing, or other methods of duplication other than printing or microfilming (
Moving forward, in 40 CFR part 372, EPA will not include descriptive text for SIC codes when listing the limitations and exceptions applicable to TRI-covered NAICS codes. Instead, the Agency will simply list the SIC codes, including their titles, as applicable limitations and exceptions. Because exceptions and limitations are included in 40 CFR part 372.23(b) & (c) to align the listing of NAICS codes with the list of SIC codes covered by TRI reporting requirements as shown in 40 CFR part 372.23(a), the SIC codes rather than the descriptive text defines the types of facilities covered by TRI. By removing the descriptive text from the exceptions and limitations listed in these two paragraphs, this action mitigates potential confusion caused by qualitative descriptions of SIC codes and does not alter the universe of the facilities affected by TRI reporting requirements. Facilities with questions regarding the SIC code descriptions should refer to the SIC manual, available at:
On April 9, 1997, OMB published a
In the
Given the nature of this action, EPA is therefore taking this action by publishing this direct final rule and a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking elsewhere in this issue of the
1.
2.
EPA analyzed the potential costs and benefits associated with this action, and determined that since this action will not add or remove any reporting requirements, there is no net increase in respondent burden or other economic impacts to consider.
Submit your relevant adverse comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2007-0197, by one of the following methods:
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•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011).
This action does not impose any new information collection burden. Facilities that are affected by the rule are already required to report their industrial classification codes on the approved reporting forms under section 313 of EPCRA and 6607 of the PPA. In addition, OMB has previously approved the information collection requirements contained in 40 CFR part 372 under the provisions of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501
EPA certifies that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA, 5 U.S.C. 601
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action would impose no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications, as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999). It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). This final rule will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it is not economically significant as defined in Executive Order 12866, and because EPA does not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children.
This action is not a “significant energy action” as defined in Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution or use of energy.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards that would require Agency consideration under NTTAA section 12(d), 15 U.S.C. 272 note.
EPA has determined that the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action would not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
This action is subject to the CRA, 5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Community right-to-know, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Toxic chemicals.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 11023 and 11048.
(b) The facility is in a Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) (as in effect on January 1, 1987) major group or industry code listed in § 372.23(a), for which the corresponding North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) (as in effect on January 1, 2017, for reporting year 2018 and thereafter) subsector and industry codes are listed in § 372.23(b) and (c) by virtue of the fact that it meets one of the following criteria:
(b) NAICS codes that correspond to SIC codes 20 through 39.
(c) NAICS codes that correspond to SIC codes other than SIC codes 20 through 39.
(h)
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; Final annual fur seal subsistence harvest levels.
Pursuant to the regulations governing the subsistence taking of North Pacific fur seals (
Effective September 18, 2017.
Two Final Environmental Impact Statements (EISs), one Draft EIS, annual subsistence harvest reports, and other references are available on the Internet at the following address:
Michael Williams, NMFS Alaska Region, 907-271-5117,
The Eastern Pacific stock of northern fur seals (fur seals) is considered depleted under the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), 16 U.S.C. 1361,
On May 18, 2017 (82 FR 22797), NMFS published the summary of the 2014-2016 fur seal harvests and provided a 30-day comment period on the estimates of the number of fur seals expected to be taken annually to satisfy the subsistence requirements of the Pribilovians of each island for 2017-2019. In that notice, NMFS estimated the annual subsistence needs for 2017-2019 would be 1,645 to 2,000 fur seals for St. Paul Island and 300 to 500 fur seals for St. George Island and provided background information related to these estimates.
NMFS did not make any changes from the proposed notice of annual harvest levels. The harvest levels for each island remain the same and therefore the annual harvest levels remain 1,645 to 2,000 fur seals for St. Paul Island and 300 to 500 fur seals for St. George Island.
NMFS received nine distinct comments from four parties on the notice of the 2017-2019 proposed annual harvest estimates (82 FR 22797; May 18, 2017). A summary of the comments received and NMFS's responses follows.
NMFS arrived at the authorized harvest level of 1,645 to 2,000 fur seals for St. Paul Island and 300 to 500 fur seals for St. George Island after considering these factors, consulting with Tribal representatives, and reviewing information in the environmental analyses which indicated that harvests up to this level will not have significant consequences for the fur seal population (NMFS 2005, 2014, and 2017). While NMFS acknowledges a decline in pup production, NMFS explained in the proposed notice that fur seal reproduction depends disproportionately on females. Consequently, the subsistence harvest of fur seals is limited to males that have not reached adulthood. Further, harvest at the maximum allowable level on St. George and St. Paul Islands would amount to 21.2 percent of the Potential Biological Removal (PBR) level (
In addition, NMFS has modeled and analyzed the population consequences of various harvest levels and age and sex restrictions on the harvest using alternative methods besides PBR, and has come to a similar determination: That the harvests of non-breeding male fur seals at the upper limit defined do not measurably effect the abundance or reproductive potential of the fur seal population, even in light of the observed decline in the population (NMFS 2005, 2014). Analysis provided in the 2017 draft SEIS on population consequences of various harvest levels and age and sex restrictions for St. Paul Island is also consistent with those conclusions.
Pribilovians forego opportunities to stockpile fur seal meat during the harvest season due to practical limitations and costs of freezer space, limited availability of volunteer harvesters due to competition with wage-earning jobs, and competition for available labor from the local halibut fishery. The Pribilovians have repeatedly indicated that seal meat is not interchangeable or replaceable with other meat. No other marine mammals are available in the same manner on the Pribilof Islands. Steller sea lion and harbor seal hunting primarily occurs during the winter and spring in the nearshore waters of the Pribilof Islands when few if any fur seals are present, and the harvest levels are modest due to limited availability. Approximately 20 Steller sea lions were successfully retrieved each year on St. Paul over the past five years (Aleut Community of St. Paul Island unpublished data), and changes in any one year most likely represent a natural change in availability rather than the ability to substitute for the fur seal harvest by increasing hunting effort for sea lions.
There are no data available to evaluate how changes in availability of one subsistence resource may be offset by another, and the Pribilovians have indicated that subsistence resources are not inter-changeable or replaceable. Pribilovians rely on fur seals to provide a significant portion of their annual meat requirement. In addition, as indicated in the response to Comment 2, the fur seal harvest provides a cultural sharing opportunity to connect the community with their environment and history. Even when fewer seals are harvested, the cultural component is important. Shortfalls of meat based on their availability can be offset, but not replaced, by greater use of store-bought or other subsistence resources. Both Pribilof communities regularly experience a lack of diversity and availability of store-bought and wild foods. The price and availability of store-bought and wild food on the Pribilof Islands can undermine food security and impact estimates of the number of fur seals necessary to meet the subsistence requirements of the Pribilovians. Further, community members must regularly choose between spending time pursuing subsistence resources to maintain cultural practices and food security versus spending time in wage-earning jobs to purchase store-bought foods and other necessities.
In addition, previous efforts by NMFS to quantify the yield of meat per seal (58 FR 42027, August 6, 1993) created significant delays in the harvest process on St. Paul Island. This was largely a function of scientists and managers having to weigh and measure people's food multiple times on the killing field. The additional handling ultimately extended the duration of the harvest, extended the time that seals were held in groups on the harvest grounds prior to stunning, and required harvesters to volunteer for longer periods.
NMFS prepared an EIS evaluating the impacts on the human environment of the subsistence harvest of northern fur seals, which is available on the NMFS Web site (see
This proposed action is authorized under 50 CFR 216.72(b) and is not significant for the purposes of Executive Orders 12866 and 13563.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation, Department of Commerce, certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration at the proposed action stage that it would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The harvest of northern fur seals on the Pribilof Islands, Alaska, is for subsistence purposes only, and the estimate of subsistence need would not have an adverse economic impact on any small entities. Background information related to the certification was included in the proposed estimates published in the
This action does not contain any collections of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act.
This action does not contain policies with federalism implications sufficient to warrant preparation of a federalism assessment under E.O. 13132 because this action does not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Nonetheless, NMFS worked closely with local governments in the Pribilof Islands, and these estimates of subsistence use and need were prepared by the local governments in St. Paul and St. George, with assistance from NMFS officials.
Executive Order 13175 of November 6, 2000 (25 U.S.C. 450 Note), the executive Memorandum of April 29, 1994 (25 U.S.C. 450 note), the American Indian Native Policy of the U.S. Department of Commerce (March 30, 1995), the Department of Commerce's Tribal Consultation Policy (including the Department of Commerce Administrative Order 218-8, April 26, 2012), and the NOAA Procedures for Government-to-Government Consultation With Federally Recognized Indian Tribes and Alaska Native Corporations (November 12, 2013) outline the responsibilities of NMFS in matters affecting tribal interests. Section 161 of Public Law 108-100 (188 Stat. 452) as amended by section 518 of Public Law 108-447 (118 Stat. 3267) extends the consultation requirements of E.O. 13175 to Alaska Native corporations. NMFS contacted the tribal governments of St. Paul and St. George Islands and their respective local Native corporations (Tanadgusix and Tanaq) about setting the next three years' subsistence requirements and considered their input in formulating the proposed action. NMFS notified the tribal governments and Native corporations when the proposed action published in the
This rule is not expected to be an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure of the coastwide General category fishery.
NMFS closes the coastwide General category fishery for large medium and giant (
Effective 11:30 p.m., local time, August 16, 2017, through August 31, 2017.
Sarah McLaughlin or Brad McHale, 978-281-9260.
Regulations implemented under the authority of the Atlantic Tunas Convention Act (ATCA; 16 U.S.C. 971
NMFS is required, under § 635.28(a)(1), to file a closure notice with the Office of the Federal Register for publication when a BFT quota is reached or is projected to be reached. On and after the effective date and time of such notification, for the remainder of the fishing year or for a specified period as indicated in the notification,
The base quota for the General category is 466.7 mt. See § 635.27(a). Each of the General category time periods (January, June through August, September, October through November, and December) is allocated a “subquota” or portion of the annual General category quota. Although it is called the “January” subquota, the regulations allow the General category fishery under this quota to continue until the subquota is reached or March 31, whichever comes first. The subquotas for each time period are as follows: 24.7 mt for January; 233.3 mt for June through August; 123.7 mt for September; 60.7 mt for October through November; and 24.3 mt for December. Any unused General category quota rolls forward within the fishing year, which coincides with the calendar year, from one time period to the next, and is available for use in subsequent time periods. On December 19, 2016, NMFS published an inseason action transferring 16.3 mt of BFT quota from the December 2017 subquota to the January 2017 subquota period (81 FR 91873). For 2017, NMFS also transferred 40 mt from the Reserve to the General category effective March 2, resulting in an adjusted General category quota of 506.7 mt (82 FR 12747, March 7, 2017).
Based on the best available landings information for the General category BFT fishery, NMFS has determined that the General category June through August 2017 subquota of 233.3 mt has been reached (
Fishermen may catch and release (or tag and release) BFT of all sizes, subject to the requirements of the catch-and-release and tag-and-release programs at § 635.26. All BFT that are released must be handled in a manner that will maximize their survival, and without removing the fish from the water, consistent with requirements at § 635.21(a)(1). For additional information on safe handling, see the “Careful Catch and Release” brochure available at
The Assistant Administrator for NMFS (AA) finds that it is impracticable and contrary to the public interest to provide prior notice of, and an opportunity for public comment on, this action for the following reasons:
The regulations implementing the 2006 Consolidated HMS FMP and amendments provide for inseason retention limit adjustments and fishery closures to respond to the unpredictable nature of BFT availability on the fishing grounds, the migratory nature of this species, and the regional variations in the BFT fishery. These fisheries are currently underway and the quota for the subcategory has already been exceeded. Delaying this action would be contrary to the public interest because the subquota has already been exceeded and any delay could lead to further exceedance, which may result in the need to reduce quota for the General category later in the year and thus could affect later fishing opportunities. Therefore, the AA finds good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) to waive prior notice and the opportunity for public comment. For all of the above reasons, there also is good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d) to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness.
This action is being taken under 50 CFR 635.28(a)(1), and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
6 U.S.C. 971
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board).
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Board is seeking comment on a proposed new rating system for its supervision of large financial institutions. The proposed “Large Financial Institution Rating System” is closely aligned with the Federal Reserve's new supervisory program for large financial institutions. The proposed rating system would apply to all bank holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more; all non-insurance, non-commercial savings and loan holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more; and U.S. intermediate holding companies of foreign banking organizations established pursuant to the Federal Reserve's Regulation YY. The proposed rating system includes a new rating scale under which component ratings would be assigned for capital planning and positions, liquidity risk management and positions, and governance and controls; however, a standalone composite rating would not be assigned. The Federal Reserve proposes to assign initial ratings under the new rating system during 2018. The Federal Reserve is also seeking comment on proposed revisions to existing provisions in Regulations K and LL so they would remain consistent with certain features of the proposed rating system.
Comments must be received no later than October 16, 2017.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments by following the instructions for submitting comments at
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All public comments will be made available on the Board's Web site at
Richard Naylor, Associate Director, (202) 728-5854, Vaishali Sack, Manager, (202) 452-5221, April Snyder, Manager, (202) 452-3099, Bill Charwat, Senior Project Manager, (202) 452-3006, Division of Supervision and Regulation, Scott Tkacz, Senior Counsel, (202) 452-2744, or Christopher Callanan, Senior Attorney, (202) 452-3594, Legal Division, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th and C Streets NW., Washington, DC 20551. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD) users may contact (202-263-4869).
The 2007-2009 financial crisis demonstrated the risks that large financial institutions (LFIs) pose to U.S. financial stability. As a group, these institutions were overleveraged, had insufficient capital to support their risks, and relied heavily on short-term wholesale funding that was susceptible to runs. This excessive risk-taking, combined with similar behavior outside the regulated financial sector, left the U.S. economy vulnerable. The ensuing financial crisis led to a deep recession and the loss of nearly nine million jobs.
In response, since the financial crisis, the Federal Reserve has placed materially heightened supervisory expectations on LFIs. The Federal Reserve has developed a supervisory program specifically designed to address the risks posed by such firms to U.S. financial stability. The Federal Reserve established the Large Institution Supervision Coordinating Committee (LISCC) in 2010 to coordinate its supervisory oversight for the systemically important firms that pose the greatest risk to U.S. financial stability.
In 2012, the Federal Reserve implemented a new consolidated supervisory program for LFIs (referred to as the “LFI supervision framework”) described in SR letter 12-17.
“Operational strength and resilience” is defined as maintaining effective governance and controls to provide for continuity of the consolidated organization and its core business lines, critical operations, and banking offices, and promote compliance with laws and regulations, including those related to consumer protection, through a range of conditions.
“Critical operations” are a firm's operations, including associated services, functions and support, the failure or discontinuance of which, in the view of the firm or the Federal Reserve would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
Under SR letter 12-17, “banking offices” are defined as U.S. depository institution subsidiaries and the U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banking organizations (FBOs). The Federal Reserve expects to use the LFI rating system to inform future revisions to other supervisory rating systems used to assess the U.S. operations of FBOs.
The LFI supervision framework includes heightened expectations regarding capital and liquidity, including both the amount of capital and liquidity and the related planning and risk management practices. The LFI supervision framework also outlined expectations for a firm's maintenance of operational strength and resilience and its compliance with laws and regulations, as provided by effective governance and control practices.
The Federal Reserve has not modified its supervisory rating system for bank holding companies since the 2007-2009 financial crisis. Since 2004, the Federal Reserve has used the “RFI/C(D)” rating system (referred to as the “RFI rating system”) to communicate its supervisory assessment of every bank holding company (BHC) regardless of its asset size, complexity, or systemic importance.
The Federal Reserve has only applied the RFI rating system to saving and loan holding companies (SLHCs) on an indicative basis since assuming supervisory responsibility for those firms from the Office of Thrift Supervision in 2011. The Federal Reserve has proposed to apply the RFI rating system to SLHCs on a fully implemented basis, excluding SLHCs engaged in significant insurance or commercial activities.
Given the systemic risks posed by LFIs and the corresponding changes to the Federal Reserve's supervisory expectations and oversight of those firms, the Federal Reserve believes that a new rating system would be more effective than the RFI rating system for evaluating LFIs. The RFI rating system remains a relevant and effective tool for developing and communicating supervisory assessments for community and regional holding companies. Therefore, the RFI rating system will continue to be used in the supervision of these organizations.
The proposed LFI rating system provides a supervisory evaluation of whether a firm possesses sufficient financial and operational strength and resilience to maintain safe and sound operations through a range of conditions. The proposed LFI rating system is designed to:
• Fully align with the Federal Reserve's current supervisory programs and practices, which are based upon the LFI supervision framework's core objectives of reducing the probability of LFIs failing or experiencing material distress and reducing the risk to U.S. financial stability;
• Enhance the clarity and consistency of supervisory assessments and communications of supervisory findings and implications; and
• Provide appropriate incentives for LFIs to maintain financial and operational strength and resilience, including compliance with laws and regulations, by more clearly defining the supervisory consequences of a given rating.
Under the proposed LFI rating system, the Federal Reserve would evaluate and assign ratings for the following three components:
• Capital Planning and Positions
• Liquidity Risk Management and Positions
• Governance and Controls
The Capital Planning and Positions component rating would encompass assessments of (i) the effectiveness of the governance and planning processes used by a firm to determine the amount of capital necessary to cover risks and exposures, and to support activities through a range of conditions; and (ii) the sufficiency of a firm's capital positions to comply with applicable regulatory requirements and to support the firm's ability to continue to serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions. Findings from CCAR for LISCC firms and certain other large and complex LFIs,
Under SR letter 15-18, a “large and complex firm” is defined as any domestic BHC or intermediate holding company (IHC) that is not a LISCC firm and that has total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more or consolidated total on-balance sheet foreign exposure of $10 billion or more.
The Liquidity Risk Management and Positions component rating would encompass assessments of (i) the effectiveness of a firm's governance and risk management processes used to determine the amount of liquidity necessary to cover risks and exposures, and to support activities through a range of conditions; and (ii) the sufficiency of a firm's liquidity positions to comply with applicable regulatory requirements and to support the firm's ongoing obligations through a range of conditions.
Horizontal examinations help to ensure that the liquidity positions and risk management practices of firms with similar liquidity risk profiles are evaluated in a consistent manner. LISCC firms are subject to the Comprehensive Liquidity Analysis and Review (CLAR), which is an annual horizontal exercise that assesses both liquidity positions and risk management. Other LFI firms are subject to more narrow horizontal examinations depending on their risk profile. The Federal Reserve also conducts targeted examinations of specific areas that are of high risk to an individual firm or have not been covered by a recent horizontal examination.
The Federal Reserve evaluates each firm's risk management practices by reviewing the processes that firms use to identify, measure, monitor, and manage liquidity risk and make funding decisions. The Federal Reserve evaluates a firm's liquidity positions against applicable regulatory requirements, and assesses the firm's ability to support its obligations through other means, such as its funding concentrations.
The Governance and Controls component rating would evaluate the effectiveness of a firm's (i) board of directors, (ii) management of core business lines and independent risk management and controls, and (iii) recovery planning (for domestic LISCC firms only).
At this time, recovery planning expectations only apply to domestic BHCs subject to the Federal Reserve's LISCC supervisory framework.
There are eight domestic firms in the LISCC portfolio: (1) Bank of America Corporation; (2) Bank of New York Mellon Corporation; (3) Citigroup, Inc.; (4) Goldman Sachs Group, Inc.; (5) JP Morgan Chase & Co.; (6) Morgan Stanley; (7) State Street Corporation; and (8) Wells Fargo & Company. In this guidance, these eight firms may collectively be referred to as “domestic LISCC firms.”
Unlike other supervisory rating systems, including the RFI rating system, the Federal Reserve would not assign a standalone composite rating under the proposed LFI rating system. The Federal Reserve believes assigning a standalone composite rating is not necessary because the three proposed LFI component ratings are designed to clearly communicate supervisory assessments and associated consequences for each of the core areas (capital, liquidity, and governance and controls) considered critical to a firm's strength and resilience. It is unlikely that the assignment of a standalone composite rating would convey new or additional information regarding supervisory assessments, and a standalone composite rating could dilute the clarity and impact of the component ratings.
Each LFI component rating would be assigned using a multi-level scale (
Supervisors may assign a “Satisfactory Watch” component rating which indicates that the firm is generally considered safe and sound; however certain issues are sufficiently material that, if not resolved in a timely manner in the normal course of business, would put the firm's prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at risk. This would be consistent with existing supervisory practice where supervisors generally indicate to a firm that a rating downgrade is a strong possibility if the firm fails to resolve identified weaknesses in a timely manner. The “Satisfactory Watch” rating may also be used for firms previously rated “Deficient” when circumstances warrant.
In considering whether supervisory issues are likely to be resolved in the normal course of business, the Federal Reserve will assess the firm's ability to remediate or mitigate these issues (through compensating controls and/or a reduced risk profile) in a timely manner without material changes to, or investments in, a firm's governance, risk management or internal control structures, practices, or capabilities.
A “Satisfactory Watch” rating is not intended to be used for a prolonged period. Firms that receive a “Satisfactory Watch” rating would have a specified timeframe to fully resolve issues leading to that rating (as is the case with all supervisory issues), generally no longer than 18 months.
When a firm is rated “Satisfactory Watch,” supervisors would focus on determining whether a firm's issues are related to each other, similar in nature or root cause, or constitute a pattern reflecting deeper governance or risk management weaknesses, warranting a downgrade to a “Deficient” rating.
As noted above, the LFI supervision framework—as described in SR 12-17 and accompanied by the issuance of enhanced regulatory requirements, supervisory expectations and practices—has been established over recent years to enhance the ability of large systemically important firms to sustain operations through a range of stressful conditions and events. Introduction of a new rating system that is comprehensively aligned with the LFI supervision framework represents the natural next step in the build-out of this program. As such, transition to the proposed LFI rating system is intended to be evolutionary and expected to be routine in most respects for affected firms.
Approaches to assessing an LFI's financial strength and resilience via effective capital and liquidity governance and planning, and sufficiency of related positions, are more prominent in the proposed LFI rating system versus the RFI rating system, and are fully reflective of current supervisory practices and expectations. Key conclusions of LFI supervision activities, including CCAR and CLAR, will be directly reflected within the Capital and Liquidity component rating assignments. By contrast, the RFI rating system was not designed to readily accommodate the results of these activities.
Similarly, the key elements within the Governance and Controls component rating, which underlie a firm's operational resilience and overall risk management, are also consistent with current practices. Most of these elements can be traced to supervisory expectations for risk management and internal controls first introduced in 1995, and subsequently carried forth into the RFI rating system in 2004.
The Governance and Controls component rating also provides an updated approach to assessing the effectiveness of risk management and control activities as conducted (i) directly within a firm's business line operations (where risk-taking activities are initiated and implemented), and (ii) throughout a firm's independent risk management and controls. More recently, key expectations regarding the alignment of a firm's strategy with its risk tolerance and risk management capabilities were included in SR letter 12-17, and are also reflected within capital planning guidance issued in 2015.
The chart included below in Section X, “Comparison of the RFI and LFI Rating Systems,” broadly compares and illustrates the structural differences between the two rating systems.
Statutes and regulations applicable to LFIs grant a number of privileges to well managed firms.
A “Deficient-1” component rating could be a barrier for a firm seeking the Federal Reserve's approval to engage in new or expansionary activities, unless the firm can demonstrate that (i) it is making meaningful, sustained progress in resolving identified deficiencies and issues; (ii) the proposed new or expansionary activities would not present a risk of exacerbating current deficiencies or issues or lead to new concerns; and (iii) the proposed activities would not distract the board or senior management from remediating current deficiencies or issues.
The Federal Reserve would be extremely unlikely to approve any proposal seeking to engage in new or expansionary activities from a firm with a “Deficient-2” component rating.
Under the Bank Holding Company Act (BHC Act) and the Home Owners' Loan Act,
A “Deficient-1” component rating would often be an indication that the firm should be subject to either an informal or formal enforcement action, and may also result in the designation of the firm as being in “troubled condition.”
The Federal Reserve would use the proposed LFI rating system to evaluate and communicate the supervisory condition of all bank holding companies that have total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more; all non-insurance, non-commercial savings and loan holding companies that have total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more; and all U.S. intermediate holding companies (IHCs) of foreign banking organizations established pursuant to section 252.153 of the Federal Reserve's Regulation YY.
The Federal Reserve has only applied the RFI rating system to saving and loan holding companies (SLHCs) on an indicative basis since assuming supervisory responsibility for those firms from the Office of Thrift Supervision in 2011. The Federal Reserve has proposed to apply the RFI rating system to SLHCs on a fully implemented basis, excluding SLHCs engaged in significant insurance or
Until final adoption of a LFI rating system, the Federal Reserve will continue to evaluate firms using the existing RFI rating system. Holding companies with less than $50 billion in total consolidated assets would continue to be evaluated using the RFI rating system.
The Federal Reserve proposes to assign initial LFI ratings to all applicable firms during 2018. Due to differences in the timing of supervisory cycles across the portfolios that comprise the LFI supervisory program, firms in one portfolio may receive their initial LFI ratings at different times during the year than firms in another portfolio.
During the initial LFI rating supervisory cycle, each applicable firm would receive all three component ratings under the LFI rating system concurrently. Consistent with current Federal Reserve practice on the assignment and communication of supervisory ratings by examiners, ratings under the proposed LFI rating system would be assigned and communicated to firms on at an annual basis, and more frequently as warranted. After the initial LFI rating supervisory cycle, examiners may assign and communicate individual component ratings on a rolling basis to the firms. Under the proposed LFI rating system, the Federal Reserve would continue to generally rely to the fullest extent possible on the information and assessments developed by other relevant supervisors and functional regulators. In accordance with the Federal Reserve's regulations governing confidential supervisory information,
The proposed LFI rating system would apply if a firm reports total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more, calculated based on the average of the firm's total consolidated assets in the four (4) most recent quarters as reported on the firm's quarterly financial reports filed with the Federal Reserve. A firm that meets this criteria would generally receive the three LFI component ratings within one year of becoming subject to the LFI rating system. A firm would continue to be rated under the LFI rating system until it has less than $45 billion in total consolidated assets, based on the average total consolidated assets as reported on the firm's four (4) most recent quarterly financial reports filed with the Federal Reserve. The Federal Reserve may determine to apply the RFI rating system or another applicable rating system in certain limited circumstances.
Concurrent with issuing this proposal, the Board is issuing another proposal for public comment addressing supervisory expectations for boards of directors of all Federal Reserve-supervised institutions.
The following section provides a summary of the planned guidance relating to a firm's management of core business lines and independent risk management and controls, as well as a summary of the proposed guidance relating to the effectiveness of a firm's board of directors.
The supervisory assessment of a firm's management of core business lines and independent risk management and controls would have three components: (1) Expectations for senior management with respect to both core business lines and independent risk management and controls; (2) expectations for the management of core business lines (CBLs); and (3) expectations for independent risk management (IRM) and controls.
Senior management oversees both the management of core business lines and independent risk management and controls. The supervisory assessment of the effectiveness of senior management would include senior management's role in managing the firm's day-to-day operations, promoting safety and soundness and compliance with internal policies and procedures, laws, and regulations, including those related to consumer protection.
Senior management is responsible for implementing the firm's strategy and risk tolerance as approved by the firm's board. Senior management should implement the strategic and risk objectives across the firm such that they support the firm's long-term resiliency and safety and soundness, including the firm's resilience to a range of stressed conditions. Senior management should ensure that the firm's infrastructure, staffing, and resources are sufficient to carry out the firm's strategic objectives.
Senior management should maintain and implement an effective risk management framework and ensure the firm can appropriately manage risk consistent with its strategy and risk
Senior management is responsible for ensuring the resolution of key issues and effective firm-wide communication, including to and from the board of directors. Senior management should have in place robust mechanisms for keeping apprised of, among other things, current and emerging risks to the firm and other material issues, including by maintaining robust management information systems.
Senior management should have in place succession and contingency staffing plans for key positions and have compensation and performance management programs that promote and enforce prudent risk-taking behaviors and business practices.
The Federal Reserve would consider the effectiveness of the management of core business lines in meeting its supervisory expectations.
CBL management should establish for each core business line specific business and risk objectives that align with the firm-wide strategy and risk tolerance.
CBL management should identify, measure, and manage current and emerging risks that stem from CBL activities and external factors. CBL management should also incorporate appropriate feedback from independent risk management (IRM) on business line risk positions, implementation of the risk tolerance, and risk management practices, including risk mitigation.
CBL management should manage the CBL's activities so they remain within risk limits established by IRM, consult with senior management before permitting any breaches of the limits, and follow appropriate procedures for obtaining exceptions to limits. CBL management should also adhere to the firm's policies and procedures for vetting new business products and initiatives, and escalate to senior management any required changes or modifications to risk management systems or internal control policies and procedures arising from the adoption of a new business or initiative.
CBL management should provide a CBL with sufficient resources and infrastructure to meet financial goals and strategic objectives while maintaining operational and financial resilience in a range of operating conditions, including stressful ones. Resources and infrastructure include sufficient personnel with appropriate training and expertise and management information systems.
CBL management should develop and maintain an effective system of sound and appropriate internal controls for its CBL that ensures compliance with laws and regulations.
CBL management should establish policies and guidelines that delineate accountability, set forth clear lines of management authority within the CBL, and align desired behavior with the firm's performance management incentives. CBL management should hold employees accountable for conduct that is inconsistent with the firm's policies or board and senior management directives or that could result in violations of law. CBL management should inform senior management of improper conduct when appropriate, including individual instances and when there are identified patterns of misconduct. CBL management should have ongoing and effective means to prevent, detect, and remediate risk management and compliance failures.
The Federal Reserve would assess whether the firm's independent risk management and controls meet supervisory expectations. This assessment would focus on three related areas: The independent risk management function, internal controls, and internal audit.
A CRO must have sufficient capability and experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial institutions.
The CRO should inform the board of directors if his or her stature, independence, or authority is not sufficient or is at risk of being insufficient to provide unbiased and independent assessments of the firm's risks, risk management activities, and system of internal controls.
The CRO should notify senior management and the board of directors when activities or practices at the firm-
The CRO should support the independence of IRM from the business lines by establishing clearly defined roles and responsibilities and reporting lines.
The firm should have a CAE, appointed by the board, with sufficient capability, experience, independence, and stature to manage the internal audit function's responsibilities.
IRM should evaluate whether the firm's risk tolerance appropriately captures the firm's material risks, whether it aligns with the firm's strategic plan and the corresponding business activities, and whether it is consistent with the capacity of the risk management framework. IRM, including through the CRO, should provide input to both senior management and the board to assist in the development, evaluation, and approval of the firm's risk tolerance. IRM should also determine whether the firm's risk profile is consistent with the firm's risk tolerance and assess whether the firm's risk management framework has the capacity to manage the risks outlined in the risk tolerance.
Under direction of the CRO, IRM should establish enterprise-wide risk limits as well as more granular risk limits, as appropriate, that are consistent with the firm's risk tolerance for the firm's full set of risks. IRM should monitor and update risk limits as appropriate, especially as the firm's risk tolerance, risk profile, or external conditions change. IRM should identify significant trends in risk levels to evaluate whether risk-taking and risk management practices are consistent with the firm's strategic objectives. IRM should escalate to senior management material breaches to the firm's risk tolerance and enterprise-wide risk limits, as well as instances where IRM's conclusions differ from those of CBLs.
IRM should identify and measure under both normal and stressful operating conditions, where possible, current and emerging risks within and across business lines and risk types, as well as any other relevant perspective. Common risk types include credit, market, operational, liquidity, interest rate, legal, and compliance (such as consumer protection and Bank Secrecy Act/anti-money laundering).
IRM should aggregate risks across the entire firm and assess those risks relative to the firm's risk tolerance. IRM should identify material or critical concentrations of risks and assess the likelihood and potential impact of those risks on the firm. IRM should identify information gaps, uncertainties, or limitations in risk assessments for the board of directors and senior management, as appropriate.
Risk reporting should cover current and emerging risk, risk exposure and adherence to risk limits and risk concentrations as well as the firm's ongoing strategic, capital, and liquidity planning processes. Risk reporting should enable prompt escalation and remediation of material problems; enhance appropriate and timely responses to identified problems; provide current and forward-looking perspectives; and support or influence strategic decision-making.
Developing and maintaining effective internal controls are the responsibility of senior management, IRM, and CBL management. Accordingly, a firm should appropriately assign management responsibilities for the establishment and maintenance of internal controls. To foster an appropriate control culture within the firm, adequate control activities should be integrated into the daily functions of all relevant personnel.
A firm should have mechanisms to monitor and test internal controls and to identify and escalate issues that appear to compromise the effectiveness of internal controls. The scope, frequency, and depth of testing should consider the complexity of the firm, the results of risk assessments, and the number and significance of the deficiencies identified during prior testing. A firm should test and monitor internal controls using a risk-based approach, prioritizing efforts on controls in areas of highest risk and less effective controls.
A firm should evaluate and communicate internal control deficiencies in a timely manner to those parties responsible for taking corrective action, including senior management.
The internal audit function should examine, evaluate, and perform an independent assessment of the effectiveness of the firm's risk management framework and internal control systems and report findings to senior management and the firm's audit committee. The Federal Reserve would assess the extent to which a firm complies with existing guidance on internal audit.
Concurrent with this proposal, the Board is issuing a related proposal for public comment addressing supervisory expectations for boards of directors of all Federal Reserve-supervised institutions. The Federal Reserve conducted a multi-year review of the practices of boards of directors, particularly at the largest financial institutions, which considered the factors that make boards effective, the challenges boards face, how boards influence the safety and soundness of their firms, and the impact of the Federal Reserve's expectations for boards of directors in existing supervisory guidance. The proposed guidance relating to boards of directors and its accompanying notice published in the
The proposal would refocus existing supervisory expectations on a board's core responsibilities by more clearly distinguishing the roles and responsibilities of the board from those of senior management; eliminating redundant, outdated, or irrelevant supervisory expectations for boards; and ensuring that supervisory guidance is more closely aligned.
The proposal contains three parts, the first of which includes proposed supervisory guidance addressing effective boards of directors (proposed BE guidance), which would apply to the largest depository institution holding companies supervised by the Federal Reserve. The proposed BE guidance identifies five key attributes of effective boards of directors and would provide the framework the Federal Reserve would use to assess a firm's board of directors. The proposed BE guidance also would clarify supervisory expectations for boards as distinct from expectations for senior management.
The second part of the proposal would revise certain supervisory expectations for boards to ensure they are aligned with the Federal Reserve's supervisory framework, and would eliminate redundant, outdated, or irrelevant supervisory expectations. These changes reflect the Federal Reserve's review of approximately 170 existing supervisory expectations contained in 27 Supervision and Regulation letters (SR letters), and would apply to bank and savings and loan holding companies of all sizes.
The third part of the proposal includes proposed supervisory guidance that would replace Federal Reserve SR letter 13-13
Upon finalizing the LFI rating system, the Federal Reserve expects to issue supervisory guidance to update and align the consolidated supervisory framework, including SR letter 12-17, to be fully consistent with any modifications made through the final adoption of the LFI rating system as well as supervisory guidance relating to governance and controls.
In the future, the Federal Reserve may propose to revise the LFI rating system to include an additional rating component to assess the sufficiency of resolution planning efforts undertaken by LISCC firms (and perhaps other select LFIs) to reduce the impact on the U.S. financial system in the event of the firm's failure. This proposed revision to the LFI rating system would be issued for notice and comment.
References to holding company ratings are included in a number of the Federal Reserve's existing regulations. In certain cases, the regulations are narrowly constructed such that they contemplate only the assignment of a standalone composite rating using a numerical rating scale. This is consistent with the current RFI rating system but is not compatible with the proposed LFI rating system. Three provisions in the Federal Reserve's existing regulations are written in this manner, including two in Regulation K and one in Regulation LL. In Regulation K, section 211.2(z) of Regulation K includes a definition of “well managed” which in part requires a bank holding company to have received a composite rating of 1 or 2 at its most recent examination or review; and section 211.9(a)(2) requires an investor (which by definition can be a bank holding company) to have received a composite rating of at least 2 at its most recent examination in order to make investments under the general consent or limited general consent procedures contained in sections 211.9(b) and (c). In Regulation LL, section 238.54(a)(1) restricts savings and loan holding companies from commencing certain activities without the Federal Reserve's prior approval unless the company received a composite rating of 1 or 2 at its most recent examination.
To ensure that the Federal Reserve's regulations are consistent and compatible with all aspects of both the RFI rating system as well as the proposed LFI rating system, the Federal Reserve proposes to amend those three regulatory provisions so they would apply to entities which receive numerical composite ratings as well as to entities which do not receive numerical composite ratings (including firms subject to the proposed LFI rating system).
The proposed LFI rating system includes several structural changes from the RFI rating system. The following table provides a broad comparison between the two rating systems.
The Board invites comments on all aspects of the proposed LFI rating system, including
(1) Are there specific considerations beyond those outlined in this proposal that should be considered in the Federal Reserve's assessment of whether an LFI has sufficient financial and operational strength and resilience to maintain safe and sound operations?
(2) Does the proposal clearly describe the firms that would be subject to the LFI rating system, and those firms that would continue to be subject to the RFI rating system?
(3) Does the proposal clearly describe the supervisory expectations for senior management in the evaluation of a firm's governance and controls under the proposed LFI rating system?
(4) Does the proposal clearly describe how and under what circumstances a “Satisfactory Watch” rating would or would not be assigned? Does that rating provide appropriate messaging and incentives to firms to correct identified deficiencies?
(5) Should the LFI rating system be revised at a future date to assess the sufficiency of a firm's resolution planning efforts undertaken to reduce the impact on the financial system in the event of the firm's failure? If yes, what should the Federal Reserve specifically consider in conducting that assessment?
(6) Are there options that should be considered to enhance the transparency of LFI ratings in order to incent more timely and comprehensive remediation of supervisory deficiencies or issues?
(7) What specific issues should the Federal Reserve consider when using the LFI rating system to inform future revisions to other supervisory rating systems used to assess the U.S. operations of foreign banking organizations?
There is no collection of information required by this proposal that would be subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Board is providing an initial regulatory flexibility analysis with respect to this proposed rule. The Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
Under regulations issued by the Small Business Administration, a small entity includes a depository institution, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company with assets of $550 million or less (small banking organizations). As of June 1, 2017, there were approximately 3,539 small banking organizations. As described above, the proposed LFI rating system would apply only to all bank holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more; all non-insurance, non-commercial savings and loan holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more; and U.S. intermediate holding companies of foreign banking organizations established pursuant to section 252.153 of the Federal Reserve's Regulation YY. Small banking organizations would therefore not be subject to the proposed LFI rating system. Similarly, the proposed rule would make conforming changes to several regulations to reflect certain aspects of the proposed LFI rating system, but would not change the operation of those regulations for any entity that would not be subject to the proposed LFI rating system. As a result, neither the proposed LFI rating system nor the proposed rule should have any impact on small banking organizations. In light of the foregoing, the Board believes that the proposed LFI rating system will not have a significant economic impact on small banking organizations supervised by the Board.
Section 722 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act requires the Board to use plain language in all proposed and final rules published after January 1, 2000. The Board invites comment on how to make this proposed rule easier to understand. For example:
• Has the Board organized the material to suit your needs? If not, how could the proposal be more clearly stated?
• Does the proposal contain technical language or jargon that is not clear? If so, what language requires clarification?
• Would a different format (grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphing) make the proposal easier to understand? If so, what changes would make the proposal easier to understand?
• Would more, but shorter, sections be better? If so, what sections should be changed?
• What else could the Board do to make the proposal easier to understand?
Exports, Federal Reserve System, Foreign banking, Holding companies, Investments, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Banks, Banking, Federal Reserve System, Holding companies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Board proposes to amend 12 CFR parts 211 and 238 as follows:
(z)
(a) * * *
(2)
5 U.S.C. 552, 559; 12 U.S.C. 1462, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467, 1467a, 1468, 1813, 1817, 1829e, 1831i, 1972; 15 U.S.C. 78
(a) * * *
(1) The holding company received a rating of satisfactory or above prior to January 1, 2008, or thereafter, either received a composite rating of “1” or “2” or be considered satisfactory under the applicable rating system in its most recent examination, and is not in a troubled condition as defined in § 238.72, and the holding company does not propose to commence the activity by an acquisition (in whole or in part) of a going concern; or
The Federal Reserve will use the large financial institution (LFI) rating system to evaluate and communicate the condition and prospects of domestic bank holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more, certain savings and loan holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more, and U.S. intermediate holding companies of foreign banking organizations.
The LFI rating system draws from the supervisory objectives set forth in the
“Financial strength and resilience” is defined as maintaining effective capital and liquidity governance and planning processes, and sufficiency of related positions, to provide for continuity of the consolidated organization and its core business lines, critical operations, and banking offices through a range of conditions.
“Operational strength and resilience” is defined as maintaining effective governance and controls to provide for continuity of the consolidated organization and its core business lines, critical operations, and banking offices, and promote compliance with laws and regulations, including those related to consumer protection, through a range of conditions.
“Critical operations” are a firm's operations, including associated services, functions and support, the failure or discontinuance of which, in the view of the firm or the Federal Reserve would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
Under SR letter 12-17, “banking offices” are defined as U.S. depository institution subsidiaries and the U.S. branches and agencies of FBOs. The Federal Reserve expects to use the LFI rating system to inform future revisions to other rating systems used to assess the U.S. operations of FBOs.
• Fully align with the Federal Reserve's current supervisory programs and practices, which are based upon the LFI supervision framework's core objectives of reducing the probability of LFIs failing or experiencing material distress and reducing the risk to U.S. financial stability;
• Enhance the clarity and consistency of supervisory assessments and communications of supervisory findings and implications; and
• Provide appropriate incentives for LFIs to maintain financial and operational strength and resilience, including compliance with laws and regulations, by more clearly defining the consequences of a given rating.
Consistent with current practice, LFI ratings will be assigned and communicated to firms on at least an annual basis, and more frequently as warranted to reflect the conclusions of supervisory activities performed by the Federal Reserve. In determining the LFI rating and identifying supervisory issues requiring corrective action by a firm, the Federal Reserve will generally rely to the fullest extent possible on the information and assessments developed by other relevant supervisors and functional regulators.
The LFI rating framework provides a supervisory evaluation of whether a firm possesses sufficient financial and operational strength and resilience to maintain safe and sound operations through a range of conditions.
The LFI rating system is comprised of three components, described below:
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A “business line” is a defined unit or function of a financial institution, including associated operations and support, that provides related products or services to meet the firm's business needs and those of its customers. “Core business lines” are defined as those business lines in which a significant control disruption, failure or loss event would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, franchise value, or result in significant consumer harm. Supervisory expectations applicable to management of core business lines apply equally to the management of critical operations. Additionally, critical operations are to be sufficiently resilient to be maintained, continued, and funded even in the event of a firm's material financial distress or failure.
At this time, recovery planning expectations only apply to domestic BHCs subject to the Federal Reserve's LISCC supervisory framework. Should the Federal Reserve expand the scope of recovery planning expectations to encompass additional firms, this rating will reflect such expectations for the broader set of firms.
There are eight domestic firms in the LISCC portfolio: (1) Bank of America Corporation; (2) Bank of New York Mellon Corporation; (3) Citigroup, Inc.; (4) Goldman Sachs Group, Inc.; (5) JP Morgan Chase & Co.; (6) Morgan Stanley; (7) State Street Corporation; and (8) Wells Fargo & Company. In this guidance, these eight firms may collectively be referred to as “domestic LISCC firms.”
Each LFI component rating is assigned along a multi-level scale (
Supervisors may assign a “Satisfactory Watch” component rating which indicates that the firm is generally considered safe and sound; however certain issues are sufficiently material that, if not resolved in a timely manner in the normal course of business, would put the firm's prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at risk.
A “Satisfactory Watch” rating is not intended to be used for a prolonged period. Firms that receive a “Satisfactory Watch” rating will have a specified timeframe to fully resolve issues leading to that rating (as is the case with all supervisory issues), generally no longer than 18 months.
When a firm is rated “Satisfactory Watch,” supervisors would focus on determining whether a firm's issues are related to each other, similar in nature or root cause, or constitute a pattern reflecting deeper governance or risk management weaknesses, warranting a downgrade to a “Deficient” rating.
The weighting of individual elements within each LFI component rating will depend on their relative contribution to the rating definitions outlined below. For example, a limited number of significant deficiencies—or even just one significant deficiency—noted for management of a single core business line could be viewed as sufficiently important to warrant a “Deficient” Governance and Controls component rating, even if the firm meets supervisory expectations under the Governance and Controls component in all other respects.
A standalone composite rating is not assigned under the LFI rating system. The three LFI component ratings are designed to clearly communicate supervisory assessments and associated consequences to a firm for the core areas (capital, liquidity, and governance and controls) considered critical to an LFI's strength and resilience.
Under the LFI rating system, a firm must be rated “Satisfactory” or “Satisfactory Watch” for each of its component ratings to be considered “well managed” in accordance with various statutes and regulations.
The LFI rating system is comprised of three component ratings:
The Capital Planning and Positions component rating evaluates (i) the effectiveness of a firm's governance and planning processes used to determine the amount of capital necessary to cover risks and exposures, and to support activities through a range of conditions; and (ii) the sufficiency of a firm's capital positions to comply with applicable regulatory requirements and to support the firm's ability to continue to serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions.
In developing this rating, the Federal Reserve will evaluate:
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A firm's capital planning and positions are considered sound and broadly meet supervisory expectations. Specifically:
• A firm is capable of producing sound assessments of capital adequacy through a range of conditions;
• A firm's current and projected capital positions comply with regulatory requirements, and support its ability to absorb current and potential losses, to meet obligations, and to continue to serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions.
Although a firm rated “Satisfactory” may have supervisory issues requiring corrective action, the firm is effectively mitigating the issues or the Federal Reserve has deemed the issues as unlikely to present a threat to the firm's ability to maintain safe and sound operations.
In select circumstances, a “Satisfactory Watch” component rating may be assigned. In these instances a firm's capital planning and positions are generally considered sound; however certain supervisory issues are sufficiently material that, if not resolved by the firm in a timely manner during the normal course of business, would put the firm's prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at risk.
A “Satisfactory Watch” rating may be assigned to a firm that meets these characteristics regardless of its prior rating (that is, it may be assigned to a firm previously rated “Satisfactory” or “Deficient”). In either instance, the Federal Reserve will not use the “Satisfactory Watch” rating for a prolonged period. In most instances, the firm will either (i) resolve the issues in a timely manner and be assigned a “Satisfactory” rating, or (ii) fail to resolve the issues and be downgraded to a “Deficient” rating, as its inability to resolve those issues in a timely manner would indicate that the firm does not possess sufficient financial and operational capabilities to maintain its safety and soundness through a range of conditions.
The Federal Reserve will provide an expected timeframe for the firm to remediate or mitigate each issue leading to the “Satisfactory Watch” rating, and will closely monitor the firm's progress.
Although a firm's current condition is not considered to be materially threatened, there are deficiencies in capital planning or positions that put its prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at significant risk. Its practices and capabilities do not meet supervisory expectations, as:
• Deficiencies in a firm's capital planning processes are not effectively mitigated. These deficiencies limit the firm's ability to effectively assess capital adequacy through a range of conditions; and/or
• A firm's projected capital positions may be insufficient to absorb potential losses, and to support its ability to meet prospective obligations and serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions.
These deficiencies require timely corrective action focused on restoring and maintaining capital planning capabilities and capital positions consistent with assignment of a “Satisfactory” component rating. To support supervisory efforts—and ensure the immediate attention of the firm's board and senior management towards restoring financial and operational strength and resilience as necessary to maintain the firm's safety and soundness through a range of conditions—there is a strong presumption that the firm will be subject to an informal or formal enforcement action by the Federal Reserve.
A “Deficient-1” component rating could be a barrier for a firm seeking the Federal Reserve's approval of a proposal to engage in new or expansionary activities, unless the firm can demonstrate that (i) it is making meaningful, sustained progress in resolving identified deficiencies and issues; (ii) the proposed new or expansionary activities would not present a risk of exacerbating current deficiencies or issues or lead to new concerns; and (iii) the proposed activities would not distract the board or senior management from remediating current deficiencies or issues.
Deficiencies in a firm's capital planning or positions present a material threat to its safety and soundness, or have already put the firm in an unsafe and unsound condition. Its practices and capabilities fall well short of supervisory expectations, as:
• A firm's capital planning processes are insufficient to effectively assess capital adequacy through a range of conditions; and/or
• A firm's current and projected capital positions are insufficient to absorb current or potential losses, and to support its ability to meet current and prospective obligations and serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions.
To address these deficiencies, a firm is required to (i) implement comprehensive corrective measures sufficient to restore and maintain satisfactory capital planning capabilities and adequate capital positions; and (ii) demonstrate the sufficiency, credibility, and readiness of contingency planning and options in the event of further escalation of financial or operational deficiencies. To support supervisory efforts and ensure the immediate attention of the firm's board and senior management in addressing threats to safety and soundness, there is a strong presumption that the firm will be subject to a formal enforcement action.
The Federal Reserve would be extremely unlikely to approve any proposal from a firm with a “Deficient-2” rating to engage in new or expansionary activities.
The Liquidity Risk Management and Positions component rating evaluates (i) the effectiveness of a firm's governance and risk management processes used to determine the amount of liquidity necessary to cover risks and exposures, and to support activities through a range of conditions; and (ii) the sufficiency of a firm's liquidity positions to comply with applicable regulatory requirements and to support the firm's ongoing obligations through a range of conditions.
In developing this rating, the Federal Reserve will evaluate:
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•
A firm's liquidity risk management and positions are considered sound and broadly meet supervisory expectations. Specifically:
• A firm is capable of producing sound assessments of liquidity adequacy through a range of conditions;
• A firm's current and projected liquidity positions comply with regulatory requirements, and support its ability to meet current and prospective obligations and to continue to serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions.
Although a firm rated “Satisfactory” may have supervisory issues requiring corrective action, the firm is effectively mitigating the issues or the Federal Reserve has deemed the issues as unlikely to present a threat to the firm's ability to maintain safe and sound operations.
In select circumstances, a “Satisfactory Watch” component rating may be assigned. In these instances a firm's liquidity risk management and positions are generally considered sound; however certain supervisory issues are sufficiently material that, if not resolved by the firm in a timely manner during the normal course of business, would put the firm's prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at risk.
A “Satisfactory Watch” rating may be assigned to a firm that meets these characteristics regardless of its prior rating (that is, it may be assigned to a firm previously rated “Satisfactory” or “Deficient”). In either instance, the Federal Reserve will not use the “Satisfactory Watch” rating for a prolonged period. In most instances, the firm will either (i) resolve the issues in a timely manner and be assigned a “Satisfactory” rating, or (ii) fail to resolve the issues and be downgraded to a “Deficient” rating, as its inability to resolve those issues in a timely manner would indicate that the firm does not possess sufficient financial and operational capabilities to maintain its safety and soundness through a range of conditions.
The Federal Reserve will provide an expected timeframe for the firm to remediate or mitigate each issue leading to the “Satisfactory Watch” rating, and will closely monitor the firm's progress.
Although a firm's current condition is not considered to be materially threatened, there are deficiencies in liquidity risk management or positions that put its prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at significant risk. Its practices and capabilities do not meet supervisory expectations, as:
• Deficiencies in a firm's liquidity risk management processes are not effectively mitigated. These deficiencies limit the firm's ability to effectively assess liquidity adequacy through a range of conditions; and/or
• A firm's projected liquidity positions may be insufficient to support its ability to meet prospective obligations and serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions.
These deficiencies require timely corrective action, focused on restoration and maintenance of liquidity risk management capabilities and liquidity positions consistent with assignment of a “Satisfactory” component rating. To support supervisory efforts—and ensure the immediate attention of the firm's board and senior management towards restoring financial and operational strength and resilience as necessary to maintain the firm's safety and soundness through a range of conditions—there is a strong presumption that the firm will be subject to an informal or formal enforcement action by the Federal Reserve.
A “Deficient-1” component rating could be a barrier for a firm seeking the Federal Reserve's approval of a proposal to engage in new or expansionary activities, unless the firm can demonstrate that (i) it is making meaningful, sustained progress in resolving identified deficiencies and issues; (ii) the proposed new or expansionary activities would not present a risk of exacerbating current deficiencies or issues or lead to new concerns; and (iii) the proposed activities would not distract the board or senior management from remediating current deficiencies or issues.
Deficiencies in a firm's liquidity risk management or positions present a material threat to its safety and soundness, or have already put the firm in an unsafe and unsound condition. Its practices and capabilities fall well short of supervisory expectations, as:
• A firm's liquidity risk management processes are insufficient to perform an effective assessment of liquidity adequacy through a range of conditions; and/or
• A firm's current and projected liquidity positions are insufficient to support its ability to meet current and prospective obligations and serve as a financial intermediary through a range of conditions.
To address these material deficiencies, a firm is required to immediately (i) implement comprehensive corrective measures sufficient to provide for the restoration and continued maintenance of satisfactory liquidity risk management capabilities and adequate liquidity positions; and (ii) demonstrate the sufficiency, credibility and readiness of contingency planning and options in the event of further escalation of financial or operational deficiencies. To support supervisory efforts and ensure the immediate attention of the firm's board and senior management in addressing threats to safety and soundness, there is a strong presumption that the firm will be subject to a formal enforcement action.
The Federal Reserve would be extremely unlikely to approve any proposal from a firm with a “Deficient-2” rating to engage in new or expansionary activities.
The Governance and Controls component rating evaluates the effectiveness of a firm's (i) board of directors, (ii) management of core business lines and independent risk management and controls, and (iii) recovery planning (for domestic LISCC firms only). This rating assesses a firm's effectiveness in aligning strategic business objectives with the firm's risk tolerance and risk management capabilities; maintaining strong, effective, and independent risk management and control functions, including internal audit; promoting compliance with laws and regulations, including those related to consumer protection; and otherwise providing for the ongoing resiliency of the firm.
In developing this rating, the Federal Reserve will evaluate:
•
•
The extent to which:
○ Senior management effectively and prudently manages the day-to-day operations of the firm and provides for ongoing resiliency; implements the firm's strategy and risk tolerance; maintains an effective risk management framework and system of internal controls; and promotes prudent risk taking behaviors and business practices, including compliance with laws and regulations.
○ Core business line management executes business line activities consistent with the firm's strategy and risk tolerance; identifies and manages risks; and ensures an effective system of internal controls for its operations.
○ Independent risk management effectively evaluates whether the firm's risk tolerance appropriately captures material risks and is consistent with the firm's risk management capacity; establishes and monitors risk limits that are consistent with the firm's risk tolerance; identifies and measures the firm's risks; and aggregates, assesses and reports on the firm's risk profile and positions. Additionally, the firm demonstrates that its system of internal controls is appropriate and tested for effectiveness. Finally, internal audit effectively and independently assesses the firm's risk management framework and internal control systems, and reports findings to senior management and the firm's audit committee.
•
A firm's governance and control practices are considered sound and broadly meet supervisory expectations. Specifically, a firm's practices and capabilities are sufficient to align strategic business objectives with the firm's risk tolerance and risk management capabilities; maintain strong and independent risk management and control functions, including internal audit; promote compliance with laws and regulations; and otherwise provide for the firm's ongoing resiliency through a range of conditions.
Although a firm rated “Satisfactory” may have supervisory issues requiring corrective action, the firm is effectively mitigating the issues or the Federal Reserve has deemed the issues as unlikely to present a threat to the firm's ability to maintain safe and sound operations.
Supervisors may assign a “Satisfactory Watch” component rating, which indicates that governance and controls are generally considered sound; however certain supervisory issues are sufficiently material that, if not resolved by the firm in a timely manner during the normal course of business, would put the firm's prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at risk.
A “Satisfactory Watch” rating may be assigned to a firm which meets these characteristics regardless of its prior rating (that is, it may be assigned to a firm previously rated “Satisfactory” or “Deficient”). In either instance, the Federal Reserve will not use the “Satisfactory Watch” rating for a prolonged period. In most instances, the firm will either (i) resolve the issues in a timely manner and be assigned a “Satisfactory” rating, or (ii) fail to resolve the issues and be downgraded to a “Deficient” rating, as its inability to resolve those issues in a timely manner would indicate that the firm does not possess sufficient financial and operational capabilities to maintain its safety and soundness through a range of conditions.
The Federal Reserve will provide an expected timeframe for the firm to remediate or mitigate each issue leading to the “Satisfactory Watch” rating, and will closely monitor the firm's progress.
Although a firm's current condition is not considered to be materially threatened, there are deficiencies in a firm's governance or controls that put its prospects for remaining safe and sound through a range of conditions at significant risk.
The firm's practices and capabilities do not meet supervisory expectations, and deficiencies limit its ability to align strategic business objectives with the firm's risk tolerance and risk management capabilities; maintain strong and independent risk management and control functions, including internal audit; promote compliance with laws and regulations; and/or otherwise provide for the firm's ongoing resiliency through a range of conditions.
These deficiencies require timely corrective action by the firm, focused on restoring and maintaining its governance and control capabilities consistent with a “Satisfactory” component rating. To support supervisory efforts—and ensure the immediate attention of the firm's board and senior management towards restoring financial and operational strength and resilience as necessary to maintain the firm's safety and soundness through a range of conditions—there is a strong presumption that the firm will be subject to an informal or formal enforcement action by the Federal Reserve.
A “Deficient-1” component rating could be a barrier for a firm seeking the Federal Reserve's approval of a proposal to engage in new or expansionary activities, unless the firm can demonstrate that (i) it is making meaningful, sustained progress in resolving identified deficiencies and issues; (ii) the proposed new or expansionary activities would not present a risk of exacerbating current deficiencies or issues or lead to new concerns; and (iii) the proposed activities would not distract the board or senior management from remediating current deficiencies or issues.
Deficiencies in a firm's governance or controls present a material threat to its safety and soundness, or have already put the firm in an unsafe and unsound condition.
Its practices and capabilities fall well short of supervisory expectations, and are insufficient to align strategic business objectives with the firm's risk tolerance and risk management capabilities; maintain strong and independent risk management and control functions, including internal audit; promote compliance with laws and regulations; and/or otherwise provide for the firm's ongoing resiliency.
To address these material deficiencies, a firm is required to (i) implement comprehensive corrective measures sufficient to restore and maintain appropriate governance and control capabilities; and (ii) demonstrate the sufficiency, credibility and readiness of contingency planning and options in the event of further escalation of financial or operational deficiencies. To support supervisory efforts and ensure the immediate attention of the firm's board and senior management in addressing threats to safety and soundness, there is a strong presumption that the firm will be subject to a formal enforcement action.
The Federal Reserve would be extremely unlikely to approve any proposal from a firm with a “Deficient-2” rating to engage in new or expansionary activities.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2014-03-
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by October 2, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Samuel Lee, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Section, FAA, Los Angeles ACO Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5262; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On January 21, 2014, we issued AD 2014-03-07, Amendment 39-17744 (79 FR 9392, February 19, 2014) (“AD 2014-03-07”), for certain The Boeing Company Model MD-11 and MD-11F airplanes. AD 2014-03-07 superseded AD 2009-26-16, Amendment 39-16155 (74 FR 69249, December 31, 2009). AD 2014-03-07 requires inspecting certain locations of the wire bundles of the center upper auxiliary fuel tank for damage, and corrective action if necessary. AD 2014-03-07 also requires installing nonmetallic barrier/shield sleeving, new clamps, new attaching hardware, and a new extruded channel. AD 2014-03-07 resulted from reports that identified additional locations where inspections and corrective actions of the center upper auxiliary fuel tank are needed. We issued AD 2014-03-07 to reduce the potential of ignition sources inside fuel tanks, which, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in fuel tank explosions and consequent loss of the airplane.
Since we issued AD 2014-03-07, we determined that, for certain airplanes, it is necessary to inspect the wire bundles at additional center upper auxiliary fuel tank locations for damage. We have also expanded the applicability to add one airplane (Line Number 579) that is also affected by the identified unsafe condition.
We reviewed Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016. This service information describes procedures for inspecting certain wire bundles of the center auxiliary fuel tank for damage, and repairing or replacing damaged wires. This service information also describes procedures for installing barrier/shield sleeving, clamping, and an extruded channel. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would retain all requirements of AD 2014-03-07. This proposed AD would add inspection requirements for certain airplanes and expand the applicability. This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Difference between this Proposed AD and Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016, specifies to contact the manufacturer for certain instructions, but this proposed AD would require using repair methods, modification deviations, and alteration deviations in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 125 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We have determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this AD action by October 2, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2014-03-07, Amendment 39-17744 (79 FR 9392, February 19, 2014) (“AD 2014-03-07”).
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model MD-11 and MD-11F airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by fuel system reviews conducted by the manufacturer that indicated the need to inspect wire bundles at certain locations of the center upper auxiliary fuel tanks in addition to inspection locations required by AD 2014-03-07. We are issuing this AD to reduce the potential of ignition sources inside fuel tanks, which, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in fuel tank explosions and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2014-03-07, with revised service information. For airplanes identified in Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 1, dated June 18, 2009: Within 60 months after February 4, 2010 (the effective date of AD 2009-26-16, Amendment 39-16155 (74 FR 69249, December 31, 2009)), do the actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(5) of this AD, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 1, dated June 18, 2009; Revision 4, dated November 29, 2011; or Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016; except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD. As of the effective date of this AD, only Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016, may be used. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1) Do a general visual inspection of the wire bundles between Stations 1238.950 and 1361.000 to determine if wires touch the upper surface of the center upper auxiliary fuel tank, and mark the location, as applicable.
(2) Do a detailed inspection for splices and damage of all wire bundles above the center upper auxiliary fuel tank between Stations 1218.950 and 1381.000.
(3) Do a detailed inspection for damage (burn marks) of the upper surface of the center upper auxiliary fuel tank.
(4) Do a detailed inspection for damage (burn marks) on the fuel vapor barrier seal.
(5) Install a nonmetallic barrier/shield sleeving, new clamps, new attaching hardware, and a new extruded channel.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2014-03-07, with revised service information. For airplanes in Group 1, Configuration 2; Group 2, Configuration 2; and Group 5, Configuration 2; as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 4, dated November 29, 2011: Within 60 months after March 26, 2014 (the effective date of AD 2014-03-07), do a detailed inspection of wire bundles for splices and damage (chafing, arcing, and broken insulation) and damage (burn marks) on the upper surface of the center upper auxiliary fuel tank and fuel vapor barrier seal; install barrier/shield sleeving and clamping; and do all applicable corrective actions at the applicable locations specified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(3) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 4, dated November 29, 2011; or Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016; except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD. As of the effective date of this AD, only Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016, may be used for the actions required by this paragraph. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1) For Group 1, Configuration 2 airplanes, between Stations 1238.950 and 1381.000, Stations 1238.950 and 1256.000, and Stations 1238.950 and 1256.800, depending on passenger or freighter configuration.
(2) For Group 2, Configuration 2 airplanes, between Stations 1238.950 and 1275.250, and Stations 1238.950 and 1275.250, passenger configuration only.
(3) For Group 5, Configuration 2 airplanes, between Stations 1381.000 and 1238.950.
For Groups 1, 2, and 5 Configuration 2 airplanes, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016: Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD, do the actions required by paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016.
(1) Do a general visual inspection of the wire bundles at the additional center upper auxiliary fuel tank locations to determine if wires touch the upper surface of the fuel tank, and mark the location as applicable.
(2) Do a detailed inspection of the wire bundles for splices and damage on the upper surface of the center upper auxiliary fuel tank and fuel vapor barrier seal; install barrier/shield sleeving, clamping, and extruded channels, as applicable; and do all applicable corrective actions before further flight; except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD.
For airplane Line Number 579: Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD, do the actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(5) of this AD, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016, except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
Where Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 1, dated June 18, 2009; Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 4, dated November 29, 2011; or Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 6, dated July 1, 2016; specifies to contact The Boeing Company for repair instructions: Before further flight, repair the auxiliary fuel tank using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (m) of this AD.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before March 26, 2014 (the effective date of AD 2014-03-07), using the service information specified in paragraphs (l)(1)(i) or (l)(1)(ii) of this AD.
(i) Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 2, dated November 18, 2010.
(ii) Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 3, dated June 3, 2011.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before March 26, 2014 (the effective date of AD 2014-03-07), using Boeing Service Bulletin MD11-28-126, Revision 3, dated June 3, 2011.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles ACO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (n)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) AMOCs approved previously for AD 2014-03-07 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Samuel Lee, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Section, FAA, Los Angeles ACO Branch, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5262; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface in Deblois, ME, to accommodate new area navigation (RNAV) global positioning system (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures (SIAPs) serving Deblois Flight Strip. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport.
Comments must be received on or before October 2, 2017.
Send comments on this rule to: U. S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg Ground Floor Rm W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; Telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826.You must identify the Docket No. FAA-2015-2891; Airspace Docket No. 15-ANE-1, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit and review received comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia 30320; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This proposed rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Deblois Flight Strip, Deblois, ME, to support IFR operations in standard instrument approach procedures at the airport.
Interested persons are invited to comment on this proposed rule by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-2891 and Airspace Docket No. 15-ANE-1) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2015-2891; Airspace Docket No. 15-ANE-1.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is considering an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Deblois Flight Strip, Deblois, ME, providing the controlled airspace required to support the new RNAV (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at the airport.
Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February
This proposal would be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Deblois Flight Strip, and within 1-mile either side of a 135° bearing from the airport, extending from the 7-mile radius to 10.5 miles southeast of the airport.
American Battle Monuments Commission.
Proposed rule.
This rule provides guidance and assigns responsibility for the privacy program under the American Battle Monuments Commission (ABMC) pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 and applicable Office of Management Budget (OMB) guidance.
Send comments on or before October 16, 2017.
You may send comments, identified by RIN number, by the following method:
• Federal Rulemaking Portal:
Follow the instructions for submitting comments. All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number or RIN for this document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing at
Edwin L. Fountain, General Counsel, American Battle Monuments Commission, 2300 Clarendon Boulevard Suite 500, Arlington VA 22201,
The authority for this rulemaking is 5 U.S.C. 552a, the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, which requires the implementation of the Act by Federal agencies.
This action ensures that ABMC's collection, use, maintenance, or dissemination of information about individuals for purposes of discharging its statutory responsibilities will be performed in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974 and applicable OMB guidance. This rule:
• Establishes rules of conduct for ABMC personnel and ABMC contractors involved in the design, development, operation, or maintenance of any system of records.
• Establishes appropriate administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to ensure the security and confidentiality of records and to protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to their security or integrity that could result in substantial harm, embarrassment, inconvenience, or unfairness to any individual about whom information is maintained.
• Ensures that guidance, assistance, and subject matter expert support are provided ABMC staff, contractors and the public as needed in the implementation and execution of and compliance with the ABMC Privacy Program.
• Ensures that laws, policies, procedures, and systems for protecting individual privacy rights are implemented throughout ABMC.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule benefits the public and the United States Government by providing clear procedures for members of the public, contractors, and employees to follow with regard to the ABMC privacy program. This rule has been designated a not significant regulatory action.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1532) requires agencies to assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2016, that threshold is approximately $146 million. This rule will not mandate any requirements for State, local, or tribal governments, nor will it affect private sector costs.
The ABMC certifies this proposed rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. Ch. 6) because it would not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. This rule will not have a substantial effect on the States; the relationship between the National Government and the States; or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of Government.
It has been determined that this rule does not impose reporting or record keeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Privacy.
5 U.S.C. 552a(f).
The regulations in this part set forth ABMC's procedures under the Privacy Act, as required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(f), with respect to systems of records maintained by ABMC. The rules in this part apply to all records maintained by ABMC that are retrieved by an individual's name or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. These regulations establish procedures by which an individual may exercise the rights granted by the Privacy Act to determine whether an ABMC system of records contains a record pertaining to him or her; to gain access to such records; and to request correction or amendment of such records. These rules should be read together with the Privacy Act, which provides additional information about records maintained on individuals.
The definitions in subsection (a) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(a)) apply to this part. In addition, as used in this part:
Inquiries about ABMC's systems of records or implementation of the Privacy Act should be sent to the following address: American Battle Monuments Commission, Office of the General Counsel, 2300 Clarendon Boulevard, Suite 500, Arlington VA 22201.
The following procedures apply to records that are contained in an ABMC system:
(a) You may request to be notified if a system of records that you name contains records pertaining to you, and to review any such records, by writing to the Office of the General Counsel (see § 407.3). You also may call the Office of the General Counsel at (703) 696-6902 on business days, between the hours of 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., to schedule an appointment to make such a request in person. A request for records should be presented in writing and should identify specifically the ABMC system(s) involved. Your request to access records pertaining to you will be treated as a request under both the Privacy Act, as implemented by this part, and the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), as implemented by part 404 of this title (36 CFR 404.1 through 404.10).
(b) Access to the records, or to any other information pertaining to you that is contained in the system, shall be provided if the identification requirements of § 407.5 are satisfied and the records are determined otherwise to be releasable under the Privacy Act and these regulations. ABMC shall provide you an opportunity to have a copy made of any such records about you. Only one copy of each requested record will be supplied, based on the fee schedule in § 407.8.
(c) ABMC will comply promptly with requests made in person at scheduled appointments, if the requirements of this section are met and the records sought are immediately available. ABMC will acknowledge, within 10 business days, mailed requests or personal requests for records that are not immediately available, and the information requested will be provided promptly thereafter.
(d) If you make your request in person at a scheduled appointment, you may, upon your request, be accompanied by a person of your choice to review your records. ABMC may require that you furnish a written statement authorizing discussion of your records in the accompanying person's presence. A record may be disclosed to a representative chosen by you upon your proper written consent.
(e) Medical or psychological records pertaining to you shall be disclosed to you unless, in the judgment of ABMC, access to such records might have an adverse effect upon you. When such a determination has been made, ABMC may refuse to disclose such information directly to you. ABMC will, however, disclose this information to you through a licensed physician designated by you in writing.
(f) If you are unsatisfied with an adverse determination on your request to access records pertaining to you, you may appeal that determination using the procedures set forth in § 407.7(a).
ABMC will require reasonable identification of all individuals who
(a) The amount of personal identification required will of necessity vary with the sensitivity of the record involved. In general, if you request disclosure in person, you will be required to show an identification card, such as a driver's license, containing your photograph and sample signature. However, with regard to records in ABMC systems that contain particularly sensitive and/or detailed personal information, ABMC reserves the right to require additional means of identification as are appropriate under the circumstances. These means include, but are not limited to, requiring you to sign a statement under oath as to your identity, acknowledging that you are aware of the criminal penalties for requesting or obtaining records under false pretenses or falsifying information (see 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3); 18 U.S.C. 1001).
(b) If you request disclosure by mail, ABMC will request such information as may be necessary to ensure that you are properly identified and for a response to be sent. Authorized means to achieve this goal include, but are not limited to, requiring that a mail request include a signed, notarized statement asserting your identity or a statement signed under oath as described in subsection (a) of this section.
(a) You are entitled to request amendments to or corrections of records pertaining to you that you believe are not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete, pursuant to the provisions of the Privacy Act, including 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(2). Such a request should be made in writing and addressed to the Office of the General Counsel (see § 407.3).
(b) Your request for amendments or corrections should specify the following:
(1) The particular record that you are seeking to amend or correct;
(2) The ABMC system from which the record was retrieved;
(3) The precise correction or amendment you desire, preferably in the form of an edited copy of the record reflecting the desired modification; and
(4) Your reasons for requesting amendment or correction of the record.
(c) ABMC will acknowledge a request for amendment or correction of a record within 10 business days of its receipt, unless the request can be processed and the individual informed of the General Counsel's decision on the request within that 10-day period.
(d) If after receiving and investigating your request, the General Counsel agrees that the record is not accurate, timely, or complete, based on a preponderance of the evidence, then the record will be corrected or amended promptly. The record will be deleted without regard to its accuracy, if the record is not relevant or necessary to accomplish the ABMC function for which the record was provided or is maintained. In either case, you will be informed in writing of the amendment, correction, or deletion. In addition, if accounting was made of prior disclosures of the record, all previous recipients of the record will be informed of the corrective action taken.
(e) If after receiving and investigating your request, the General Counsel does not agree that the record should be amended or corrected, you will be informed promptly in writing of the refusal to amend or correct the record and the reason for this decision. You also will be informed that you may appeal this refusal in accordance with § 407.7.
(f) Requests to amend or correct a record governed by the regulations of another agency will be forwarded to such agency for processing, and you will be informed in writing of this referral.
(a) You may appeal a refusal to amend or correct a record to the Secretary of ABMC. Such appeal must be made in writing within 30 business days of your receipt of the initial refusal to amend or correct your record. Your appeal should be sent to the Office of the General Counsel (see § 407.3), should indicate that it is an appeal, and should include the basis for the appeal.
(b) The Secretary will review your request to amend or correct the record, the General Counsel's refusal, and any other pertinent material relating to the appeal. No hearing will be held.
(c) The Secretary shall render his or her decision on your appeal within 30 business days of its receipt by ABMC, unless the Secretary, for good cause shown, extends the 30-day period. Should the Secretary extend the appeal period, you will be informed in writing of the extension and the circumstances of the delay.
(d) If the Secretary determines that the record that is the subject of the appeal should be amended or corrected, the record will be so modified, and you will be informed in writing of the amendment or correction. Where an accounting was made of prior disclosures of the record, all previous recipients of the record will be informed of the corrective action taken.
(e) If your appeal is denied, you will be informed in writing of the following:
(1) The denial and the reasons for the denial;
(2) That you may submit to ABMC a concise statement setting forth the reasons for your disagreement as to the disputed record. Under the procedures set forth in subsection (f) of this section, your statement will be disclosed whenever the disputed record is disclosed; and
(3) That you may seek judicial review of the Secretary's determination under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1).
(f) Whenever you submit a statement of disagreement to ABMC in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the record will be annotated to indicate that it is disputed. In any subsequent disclosure, a copy of your statement of disagreement will be disclosed with the record. If ABMC deems it appropriate, a concise statement of the Secretary's reasons for denying your appeal also may be disclosed with the record. While you will have access to this statement of the Secretary's reasons for denying your appeal, such statement will not be subject to correction or amendment. Where an accounting was made of prior disclosures of the record, all previous recipients of the record will be provided a copy of your statement of disagreement, as well as any statement of the Secretary's reasons for denying your appeal deemed appropriate.
(a) ABMC will charge no fees for search time or for any other time expended by ABMC to review a record. However, ABMC may charge fees where you request that a copy be made of a record to which you have been granted access. Where a copy of the record must be made in order to provide access to the record (
(b) Copies of records made by photocopy or similar process will be charged to you at the rate of $0.15 per page. Where records are not susceptible to photocopying (
(c) Special and additional services provided at your request, such as certification or authentication, postal insurance, and special mailing arrangement costs, will be charged to you at the rates set forth in § 404.7(e) of this chapter.
(d) You may request that a copying fee not be charged or, alternatively, be reduced, by submitting a written petition to ABMC's General Counsel (see § 407.3) asserting that you are indigent. If the General Counsel determines, based on the petition, that you are indigent and that ABMC's resources permit a waiver of all or part of the fee, the General Counsel may, in his or her discretion, waive or reduce the copying fee.
(e) All fees shall be paid before any copying request is undertaken. Payments shall be made by check or money order payable to “American Battle Monuments Commission.”
(a) The Office of the General Counsel shall maintain a log containing the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record to any person or to another agency. Such accounting also shall contain the name and address of the person or agency to whom each disclosure was made. This log need not include disclosures made to ABMC employees in the course of their official duties, or pursuant to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
(b) ABMC will retain the accounting of each disclosure for at least five years after the disclosure for which the accounting is made or for the life of the record that was disclosed, whichever is longer.
(c) ABMC will make the accounting of disclosures of a record pertaining to you available to you at your request. Such a request should be made in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 407.4. This paragraph (c) does not apply to disclosures made for law enforcement purposes under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7).
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve portions of the October 26, 2015, and May 19, 2017, State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions from Alabama replacing the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) federal implementation plan (FIP). Under CSAPR, large electricity generating units (EGUs) in Alabama are subject to FIP provisions requiring the units to participate in a federal allowance trading program for ozone season emissions of nitrogen oxides (NO
Comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0415 at
Ashten Bailey, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Bailey can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9164 or via electronic mail at
EPA is proposing to approve the portions of the October 26, 2015, and May 19, 2017, SIP revisions from Alabama concerning CSAPR
The portions of the SIP revisions proposed for approval would incorporate into Alabama's SIP state allowance trading program regulations for ozone season NO
Section II of this document summarizes relevant aspects of the CSAPR federal trading programs and FIPs as well as the range of opportunities states have to submit SIP revisions to modify or replace the FIP requirements while continuing to rely on CSAPR's trading programs to address the states' obligations to mitigate interstate air pollution. Section III describes the specific conditions for approval of such SIP revisions. Section IV contains EPA's analysis of Alabama's SIP submittal. Section V addresses incorporation by reference. Section VI sets forth EPA's proposed action on the submittal. Section VII addresses statutory and Executive Order reviews.
EPA issued CSAPR in July 2011 and the CSAPR Update
CSAPR includes provisions under which states may submit and EPA will approve SIP revisions to modify or replace the CSAPR FIP requirements while allowing states to continue to meet their transport-related obligations using either CSAPR's federal emissions trading programs or state emissions trading programs integrated with the federal programs, provided that the SIP revisions meet all relevant criteria.
States can submit two basic forms of CSAPR-related SIP revisions effective for emissions control periods in 2017 or later years.
Under the second alternative—a “full” SIP revision—a state may submit a SIP revision that upon approval replaces a CSAPR federal trading program for the state with a state trading program integrated with the federal trading program, so long as the state trading program is substantively identical to the federal trading program or does not substantively differ from the federal trading program except as discussed above with regard to the allowance allocation and/or applicability provisions.
The CSAPR regulations identify several important consequences and limitations associated with approval of a full SIP revision. First, upon EPA's approval of a full SIP revision as correcting the deficiency in the state's SIP that was the basis for a particular set of CSAPR FIP requirements, the obligation to participate in the corresponding CSAPR federal trading program is automatically eliminated for units subject to the state's jurisdiction without the need for a separate EPA withdrawal action, so long as EPA's approval of the SIP revision as meeting the requirements of the CSAPR regulations is full and unconditional.
Each CSAPR-related abbreviated or full SIP revision must meet the following general submittal conditions:
•
In addition to the general submittal conditions, a CSAPR-related abbreviated or full SIP seeking to address the allocation or auction of emission allowances must meet the following further conditions:
•
•
•
•
•
In addition to the general submittal conditions, a CSAPR-related abbreviated or full SIP revision seeking to expand applicability under the CSAPR NO
•
•
In addition to the general submittal conditions and the other applicable conditions described above, a CSAPR-related full SIP revision must meet the following further conditions:
•
•
•
In the CSAPR rulemaking, among other findings, EPA determined that air pollution transported from Alabama would unlawfully affect other states' ability to attain or maintain the 1997 8-hour Ozone NAAQS.
On October 26, 2015, Alabama submitted to EPA a SIP revision including provisions that, if approved, would incorporate into Alabama's SIP state trading program regulations that would replace the CSAPR federal trading program regulations with regard to Alabama units' ozone season NO
With regard to form, some of the individual rules for each Alabama CSAPR state trading program are set forth as full regulatory text—notably the rules addressing program applicability, emissions budgets and variability limits, and allowance allocations—but most of the rules incorporate the corresponding federal trading program section or sections by reference. Several of the Alabama rules adopt cross-references to other Alabama rules in place of cross-references to specific federal trading program sections that would be replaced by those other Alabama rules.
With regard to substance, the rules for the Alabama CSAPR state ozone season trading program differ from the corresponding CSAPR federal trading program regulations in three main ways. First, the applicability provisions in the Alabama rules require participation in Alabama's CSAPR state trading programs only for units in Alabama, not for units in any other state or in Indian country within the borders of Alabama or any other state. Second, the Alabama rules set forth a methodology for allocating emission allowances among Alabama units that differs from the default allowance allocation provisions in the federal trading program regulations.
Each SIP revision was submitted to EPA by a letter from the Director of the Alabama Department of Environmental Management. The letters and enclosures describe steps taken by Alabama to provide public notice prior to adoption of the state rules.
EPA has previously approved portions of Alabama's October 26, 2015, submittal replacing the FIPs for the CSAPR NO
As described in section IV.A above, at this time EPA is taking action on the portions of Alabama's ozone season submittals designed to replace the federal CSAPR NO
Together, the Alabama ozone season submittals seek in part to replace the default allowance allocation provisions in the CSAPR federal trading program regulations for ozone season NO
Paragraph 335-3-8-.46(1) of the Alabama rules sets forth total amounts of 13,211 CSAPR NO
As discussed in section IV.B.2 above, paragraph 335-3-8-.46(1) of the Alabama rules sets forth the total amount of CSAPR Ozone Season Group 2 NO
Paragraphs 335-3-8-.46(2)(a) through (d) of the Alabama rules provide for all allowance allocations to Alabama units established under the Alabama rules to be submitted to EPA by the following deadlines: Allocations for the control periods in 2019 and 2020, by June 1, 2017; allocations for the control periods in 2021 and 2022, by June 1, 2018; and allocations for later control periods, by June 1 of the fourth or fifth year before the year of the control period. These submission deadlines match or precede the submission deadlines discussed in section III above (specifically, the deadlines under 40 CFR 52.38(b)(9)(iii)(B) for allocations to units considered existing units for CSAPR purposes and the submission deadlines under § 52.38(b)(9)(iii)(C) for allocations to other units). Alabama's SIP revision therefore meets the conditions under 40 CFR 52.38(b)(9)(iii)(B) and (C) requiring that the SIP revision provide for submission of state-determined allowance allocations to EPA by the deadlines specified in those provisions.
The Alabama rules include no provisions allowing alteration of allocations after the allocation amounts have been provided to EPA and no provisions allowing alteration of any allocations made and recorded by EPA under the federal trading program regulations, thereby meeting the condition under 40 CFR 52.38(b)(9)(iii)(D).
With the exception of the provisions addressing the allowance allocation methodology discussed above, the Alabama state trading program rules generally incorporate sections of the corresponding federal trading program regulations by reference or set forth full text that is very similar to the text in the corresponding federal trading program regulations.
In addition to the clearly non-substantive or expressly authorized
Second, paragraphs 335-3-8-.52(2)(a), and 335-3-8-.55(2)(a) of the Alabama rules provide that, like EPA, the Department will not adjudicate certain private legal disputes. Because the Department is not required to adjudicate such disputes under the federal trading program regulations in any event, these additions to the text of the state trading program rules merely clarify that the Department is not undertaking a new adjudication responsibility under the state trading programs. EPA therefore considers these additions to be non-substantive changes.
Third, paragraph 335-3-8-.61 of the Alabama rule substitutes references to Alabama rule 335-3-8-.46(3)(i) (the Alabama rule addressing units incorrectly allocated allowances). Because the Alabama rule substitution seeks to replace 40 CFR 97.811(c) with 333-3-8.46(3)(i), which in turn incorporates by reference 40 CFR 97.811(c), EPA proposes to find that the provisions are substantively identical.
Fourth, paragraph 335-3-8-.65 of the Alabama rules substitutes references for Alabama rule 335-3-8-.41 (the Alabama rule covering retired unit exemptions). This substitution is appropriate as it substitutes Alabama's retired unit exemption for the CSAPR retired unit exemptions at 40 CFR 97.805. With the exception of the notification required above and changes related to identification of the state trading program instead of the federal trading program, Alabama has incorporated the text of 40 CFR 97.805 into Alabama Rule 335-3-8-.41. Because the referenced provisions are substantively identical, EPA proposes to determine that these substitutions have no substantive effect.
Finally, paragraphs 335-3-8-.42(2)(a) and (b) of the Alabama rules substitute references to Alabama rule 335.3.16-.13(3) (the Alabama rule addressing minor permit modification procedures) for references to 40 CFR 70.7(e)(2) (the minor permit modification procedures section of the federal regulations governing state operating permit programs under CAA title V) in the federal trading program regulations regarding title V permit requirements. As applied to Alabama units only, the substituted Alabama rule provisions are substantively identical to the provisions in 40 CFR 70.7(e)(2) that would be replaced. Because in the context of Alabama's CSAPR state trading programs these particular provisions need to address only Alabama units and not units from other states participating in the CSAPR trading programs, EPA proposes to determine that these substitutions have no substantive effect.
For the reasons discussed above, EPA has preliminarily determined that none of the textual additions or substitutions made to the CSAPR federal trading program regulations in Alabama's corresponding CSAPR state trading program rules are substantive, and that Alabama's SIP revision therefore meets the condition under 40 CFR 52.38(b)(9) of making no substantive changes to the provisions of the federal trading program regulations beyond the provisions addressing allowance allocations.
With the following exceptions, the Alabama rules comprising Alabama's CSAPR state trading program for ozone season NOx emissions either incorporate by reference or adopt full-text replacements for all of the provisions of 40 CFR 97.802 through 97.835. The first exception is that Alabama rule 335-3-8-.46, which generally addresses the amount of emissions budget and related quantities, omits the provisions of 40 CFR 97.810 setting forth the amounts of all emissions budgets, NUSAs, Indian country NUSAs, and variability limits for other states. Omission of the budget, NUSA, Indian country NUSA, and variability limit provisions for other states from state trading programs in which only Alabama units participate does not undermine the completeness of the state trading programs.
The second exception is that Alabama rule 335-3-8-.46, generally addressing allowance allocations, omits 40 CFR 97.811(b)(2) and 97.812(b), concerning EPA's administration of Indian country NUSAs. Omission of these provisions from Alabama's state trading program rules is required, as discussed in section IV.B.9 below.
The third exception is that Alabama rule 335-3-8-.56, which generally incorporates by reference the federal trading programs' recordation schedule provisions, excludes from incorporation by reference 40 CFR 97.821(a), (b), (h), (i) and (j) concerning EPA's schedule for recording certain allowance allocations. The federal trading program provisions at § 97.821(a) and (b), which address recordation of allocations to units considered existing units for CSAPR purposes of allowances for the compliance periods in 2017 and 2018, do not need to be included in Alabama's state trading program rules because those allocations have already been recorded. The federal trading program provision at § 97.821(h), which address recordation of allocations from Indian country NUSAs, are appropriately excluded from state trading programs because a state may not administer an Indian country NUSA. The federal trading program provision at § 97.821(i) and (j), which address recordation of second-round NUSA allocations, are not needed in Alabama's state trading program rules because Alabama would provide EPA the amounts of its NUSA allocations on the earlier schedule applicable to allocations to units considered existing units for CSAPR purposes.
Because none of the omissions undermines the completeness of Alabama's state trading programs and because, as discussed in section IV.B.6 above, EPA has preliminarily determined that Alabama's SIP revision makes no other substantive changes to the provisions of the federal trading program regulations beyond the provisions addressing allowance allocations, Alabama's SIP revision meets the condition under 40 CFR 52.38(b)(9) that the SIP revision must adopt complete state trading program regulations substantively identical to the complete federal trading program regulations at 40 CFR 97.802 through
Paragraph 335-3-8-.40(1)(a)1 of the Alabama rules substitute the term “the State of Alabama,” and paragraph 335-3-8-.40(1)(b) of the Alabama rules similarly substitute the term “the State” (meaning Alabama), for the phrase “a State (or Indian country within the borders of such State)” in the corresponding federal trading program regulations at 40 CFR 97.810(a)(1) and (b). These provisions of the Alabama rules define the units that are required to participate in Alabama's CSAPR state trading programs. The substitutions appropriately exclude units located in other states and units located in Indian country within the borders of Alabama or any other state, thereby limiting the applicability of Alabama's state trading programs to units that are subject to Alabama's jurisdiction. These substitutions do not substantively change the provisions of CSAPR's federal trading program regulations. The remaining Alabama rules do not substitute for the term “State” as used in the federal trading program regulations. EPA proposes to find that Alabama's SIP revision therefore meets the condition under 40 CFR 52.38(b)(9)(v) that the SIP revision may substitute the name of the state for the term “State” as used in the federal trading program regulations, but only to the extent that EPA determines that the substitutions do not substantively change the provisions of the federal trading program regulations.
The Alabama rules do not set forth any full text provisions directly addressing units in Indian country within the state's borders. As discussed in section IV.B.8 above, paragraph 335-3-8-.40(1)(a)1 of the Alabama rule define the units required to participate in Alabama's state trading programs in a manner that appropriately excludes units located in Indian country within Alabama's borders from coverage under Alabama's CSAPR state trading programs. Although various other provisions of the CSAPR federal trading program regulations incorporated by reference into the Alabama rules without modification refer to units in Indian country, the clear exclusion of any such units from coverage under the state trading program applicability provisions—in other words, the fact that such units are not “TR NOx Ozone Season Group 2 units” for purposes of the state trading program—renders the remaining provisions of Alabama's state trading program rules inoperative as to the units. EPA therefore interprets the Alabama rules as not imposing any requirements on units located in Indian country within the State's borders.
As discussed in section IV.B.7 above, Alabama rule 335-3-8-.46, which addresses allowance allocations under the state trading programs, contains no provisions replacing 40 CFR 97.811(b)(2) or 97.812(b), the portions of the federal trading program regulations governing allocations of allowances from Indian country NUSAs. Thus, the Alabama rules do not include any express state rule provisions concerning administration of Indian country NUSAs. Further, Alabama rules 335-3-8-.56, which generally incorporate by reference the federal trading programs' recordation schedule provisions, excludes 40 CFR 97.821(h), addressing recordation of Indian country NUSA allocations. Similarly, paragraph 335-3-8-.46(3)(i) of the Alabama rules, which incorporates by reference the federal trading program regulations generally addressing corrections of incorrect allocations, excludes 40 CFR 97.811(c)(5)(iii), addressing corrections of certain incorrect Indian country NUSA allocations. EPA therefore interprets the Alabama state rules as sufficiently excluding provisions addressing administration of the Indian country NUSA provisions under the federal trading programs.
In summary, EPA has preliminarily determined that Alabama's SIP revision adequately meets the condition under 40 CFR 52.38(b)(9)(vi) that a SIP submittal must not impose any requirement on any unit in Indian country within the borders of the State and must exclude certain provisions related to administration of Indian country NUSAs.
In this rule, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference ADEM Administrative Code rules 335-3-8-.39 through 335-3-8-.70, state effective on June 9, 2017, comprising Alabama's TR NO
EPA is proposing to approve the portions the Alabama ozone season submittals concerning the establishment for Alabama units of CSAPR state trading programs for ozone season NO
EPA promulgated the FIP provisions requiring Alabama units to participate in the federal CSAPR NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve the portion of a revision to the Alabama State Implementation plan submitted by the State of Alabama on May 8, 2013, for the purpose of amending the transportation conformity rules to be consistent with Federal requirements.
Comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0174 at
Kelly Sheckler, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW.,
In the Final Rules Section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule; supplemental.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is issuing a supplement to its proposed approval of a revision to the South Carolina State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of South Carolina through the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SC DHEC) on December 28, 2012. South Carolina's SIP revision (Progress Report) addresses requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) and EPA's rules that require each state to submit periodic reports describing progress towards reasonable progress goals (RPGs) established for regional haze and a determination of the adequacy of the state's existing SIP addressing regional haze (regional haze plan). EPA's proposed approval of South Carolina's Progress Report was published in the
Comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2013-0389 at
Michele Notarianni, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Notarianni can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9031 and via electronic mail at
Each state is required to submit a progress report in the form of a SIP revision during the first implementation period that evaluates progress towards the RPGs for each mandatory Class I federal area (Class I area)
SC DHEC submitted its first regional haze plan on December 17, 2007, and submitted its Progress Report on December 28, 2012. The Progress Report and accompanying cover letter included a determination that South Carolina's existing regional haze plan requires no substantive revision to achieve the established regional haze visibility improvement and emissions reduction goals for 2018. EPA proposed to find that the State's Progress Report satisfied the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g) and (h) in a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) published on January 17, 2014 (79 FR 3147). Today's notice supplements that 2014 NPRM by more fully explaining and soliciting comment on the basis for the Agency's proposed approval as it relates to the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR) and CSAPR.
In accordance with requirements in EPA's Regional Haze Rule (RHR), South Carolina's Progress Report describes the progress made towards the RPGs of Class I areas in and outside South Carolina that are affected by emissions from South Carolina's sources.
South Carolina's Progress Report included a description of the status of measures in its regional haze plan; a summary of the emissions reductions achieved; an assessment of the visibility conditions for Cape Romain Wilderness Area, the only Class I area in the State; an analysis of the changes in emissions from sources and activities within the State; an assessment of any significant changes in anthropogenic emissions within or outside the State that have limited or impeded visibility improvement progress in Class I areas impacted by the State's sources; an assessment of the sufficiency of the regional haze plan to enable South Carolina and states affected by South Carolina's sources to meet the RPGs for their Class I areas; and a review of the State's visibility monitoring strategy. As explained in the 2014 NPRM, EPA proposed to find that South Carolina's Progress Report adequately addressed the applicable provisions under 40 CFR 51.308(g).
In addition, South Carolina simultaneously submitted a determination pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(h) that its regional haze plan is sufficient to enable the State and states affected by South Carolina's sources to achieve the RPGs for Class I areas affected by South Carolina's sources. The State also declared that further revision of the existing regional haze plan was not needed at that time. As explained in detail in the 2014 NPRM, EPA proposed to determine that South Carolina had adequately addressed 40 CFR 51.308(h) because visibility has improved at Cape Romain; sulfur dioxide (SO
Decisions by the courts regarding EPA rules addressing the interstate transport of pollutants have had a substantial impact on EPA's review of the regional haze plans of many states. In 2005, EPA issued regulations allowing states to rely on CAIR to meet certain requirements of the RHR.
On June 28, 2012 (77 FR 38509), EPA finalized a limited approval of South Carolina's regional haze plan addressing the first implementation period for regional haze. In a separate action, published on June 7, 2012 (77 FR 33642), EPA finalized a limited disapproval of regional haze plans from South Carolina and several other states because these plans relied on CAIR to meet certain regional haze requirements, and also amended the Regional Haze Rule to provide that participation by a state's EGUs in a CSAPR trading program for a given pollutant—either a CSAPR federal trading program implemented through a CSAPR FIP or an integrated CSAPR state trading program implemented through an approved CSAPR SIP revision—qualifies as a BART alternative for those EGUs for that pollutant.
Following these EPA actions, however, the D.C. Circuit issued a decision in
On May 26, 2017, South Carolina submitted a draft SIP revision for parallel processing that adopts provisions for participation in the CSAPR annual NO
CAIR was in effect at the time that South Carolina submitted its Progress Report on December 28, 2012, and the State included an assessment of the emission reductions from the implementation of CAIR in its report. South Carolina's Progress Report discussed the status of the litigation concerning CAIR and CSAPR, but because CSAPR was not at that time in effect, South Carolina did not take actual emissions reductions from CSAPR into account in assessing its regional haze plan. For the same reason, in the 2014 NPRM, EPA did not assess at that time the impact of CSAPR nor the CSAPR FIP on the abilities of South Carolina and its neighbors to meet their RPGs.
The purpose of this supplemental proposal is to seek comment on the effect of the D.C. Circuit's 2015 decision on the Agency's assessment of South Carolina's Progress Report and the State's determination that its existing regional haze plan need not be revised at this time. Given the complex background summarized above, EPA is proposing to determine that South Carolina appropriately took CAIR into account in its Progress Report. CAIR was in effect during the 2007-2011 period addressed by South Carolina's Progress Report. EPA approved South Carolina's regulations implementing CAIR as part of the South Carolina SIP on October 16, 2009 (74 FR 53167), and at the time of submission of its Progress Report, neither South Carolina nor EPA had taken any action to remove CAIR from the South Carolina SIP.
The State's Progress Report also demonstrated that Class I areas in other states impacted by South Carolina sources were on track to meet their RPGs as discussed in the 2014 NPRM.
In addition, EPA also believes that reliance upon CAIR reductions to show South Carolina's progress towards meeting its RPGs from 2007-2011 is consistent with the Agency's prior actions. During the continued implementation of CAIR per the direction of the D.C. Circuit through October 2014, EPA approved redesignations of areas to attainment of the 1997 PM
EPA's December 3, 2014, interim final rule sunset CAIR compliance requirements on a schedule coordinated with the implementation of CSAPR compliance requirements. Because CSAPR should result in greater emissions reductions of SO
At the present time, the requirements of CSAPR apply to sources in South Carolina under the terms of a FIP. If EPA approves South Carolina's May 26, 2017, SIP revision that incorporates the CSAPR requirements into its SIP, the requirements of CSAPR for annual NO
EPA notes that the RHR provides for periodic evaluation and assessment of a state's reasonable progress towards achieving the national goal of natural visibility conditions under the CAA section 169A(b). The regional haze regulations at 40 CFR 51.308 required states to submit initial SIPs in 2007 providing for reasonable progress towards the national goal for the first implementation period from 2008 through 2018.
In summary, EPA proposes to approve South Carolina's Progress Report. EPA solicits comments on this supplemental proposal, but only with respect to the specific issues raised in this notice concerning the Agency's interpretation of the term “implementation plan” in the RHR, and EPA's proposed agreement with South Carolina's assessment that the current regional haze plan for South Carolina, in combination with EPA's CSAPR FIP or an approved CSAPR SIP, need not be revised at this time to achieve the established RPGs for South Carolina and other impacted states in light of the status of CAIR through 2014 and CSAPR starting in 2015. EPA is not reopening the comment period on any other aspect of the January 17, 2014, NPRM as an adequate opportunity to comment on those issues has already been provided. The purpose of this supplemental proposal is limited to review of South Carolina's Progress Report in light of the D.C. Circuit's 2015 ruling on CSAPR. This supplemental proposal reflects EPA's desire for public input into how it should proceed in light of this decision when acting on the State's pending Progress Report, in particular the requirements that the State assess whether the current implementation plan is sufficient to ensure that RPGs are met.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandates or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Act; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rule for South Carolina does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because it does not have substantial direct effects on an Indian Tribe. The Catawba Indian Nation Reservation is located within the state of South Carolina. Pursuant to the Catawba Indian Claims Settlement Act, S.C. Code Ann. 27-16-120, “all state and local environmental laws and regulations apply to the [Catawba Indian Nation] and Reservation and are fully enforceable by all relevant state and local agencies and authorities.” EPA notes this action will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve changes to South Carolina's State Implementation Plan (SIP) to revise minor new source review (NSR) regulations. EPA is proposing to approve portions of SIP revisions modifying these regulations as submitted by the State of South Carolina, through the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SC DHEC), on the following dates: October 1, 2007, July 18, 2011, June 17, 2013, August 8, 2014, January 20, 2016, and July 27, 2016. This action is being proposed pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act).
Comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0359 at
D. Brad Akers, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Akers can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9089 or via electronic mail at
On October 1, 2007, July 18, 2011, June 17, 2013, August 8, 2014, January 20, 2016, and July 27, 2016, SC DHEC submitted SIP revisions to EPA for approval that involve changes to South Carolina's minor source permitting regulations to clarify and streamline the State's federally-approved preconstruction and operating permitting program. This program requires minor stationary sources planning to construct or modify sources of air pollutants to first obtain a construction permit and to obtain and maintain operating permits in accordance with the South Carolina Code of Regulations Annotated (S.C. Code Ann. Regs.) at Regulation 61-62.1, Section II—“Permit Requirements.” The portion of the SIP-approved permitting program covering construction permits is generally referred to as the minor source permitting program or the minor NSR program to distinguish it from additional permitting requirements for major sources of air pollutants.
EPA is not acting on a portion of the revisions to Regulation 61-62.1, Section II—“Permit Requirements.” Specifically, EPA is not acting on the renumbering and minor administrative language changes to paragraph G.6.—“Emergency Provisions,” in the October 1, 2007, submittal, nor the minor additional language changes to this portion of the minor source permitting regulations included in the August 8, 2014, submittal.
At this time, EPA is not acting on the following changes included in the October 1, 2007, submittal: Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 4—“Emissions from Process Industries”; and Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 5.2—“Control of Oxides of Nitrogen (NO
EPA is also not acting on changes in the July 18, 2011, submittal to the following regulations in South Carolina's SIP: Regulation 61-62.1, Section I—“Definitions”; Regulation 61-62.3—“Air Pollution Episodes”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 1—“Emissions from Fuel Burning Operations”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 4—“Emissions from Process Industries”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 6—“Alternative Emission Limitation Options (Bubble)”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7—“Prevention of Significant Deterioration”; and Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1—“Nonattainment New Source Review.” EPA approved the changes to Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 2—“Ambient Air Quality Standards,” included in the July 18, 2011, submittal, on April 3, 2013 (78 FR 19994).
EPA is not acting on the changes included in the June 17, 2013, submittal to the following regulations: Regulation 61-62.1, Section I—“Definitions”; Regulation 61-62.1, Section IV—“Source Tests”; Regulation 61-62.3—“Air Pollution Episodes”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 4—“Emissions from Process Industries”; and
Additionally, EPA is not acting on the changes included in the August 8, 2014, submittal to the following regulations: Regulation 61-62.1, Section I—“Definitions”; Regulation 61-62.1, Section IV—“Source Tests”; Regulation 61-62.1, Section V—“Credible Evidence”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 1—“Emissions from Fuel Burning Equipment”; and Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 4—“Emissions from Process Industries.” EPA approved the changes to Regulation 61-62.1, Section III—“Emissions Inventory and Emissions Statement,” included in the August 8, 2014, submittal, on June 12, 2015 (80 FR 33413) and May 31, 2017 (82 FR 24851).
EPA is also not acting on the changes included in the January 20, 2016, submittal to the following regulations: Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 5—“Volatile Organic Compounds”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7.1—“Nonattainment New Source Review”; and Regulation 61-62.6—“Control of Fugitive Particulate Matter.”
Finally, EPA is not acting on the changes included in the July 27, 2016, submittal to the following regulations: Regulation 61-62.1, Section I—“Definitions”; Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 4—“Emissions from Process Industries”; and Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 5.2—“Control of Oxides of Nitrogen (NO
South Carolina has a SIP-approved minor source permitting program at Regulation 61-62.1, Section II—“Permit Requirements.” These regulations include requirements for obtaining preconstruction and operating permits for different types of minor sources. The program covers “true minor” sources, which have the potential to emit (PTE) of certain pollutants below major sources thresholds for new sources and modifications. The SIP-approved minor source permitting program also includes provisions for issuing permits that establish federally enforceable emission limits to restrict the PTE of certain pollutants below major source and major modification applicability thresholds: “synthetic minor” permits establish these limits for sources obtaining construction permits, and “conditional major” permits establish these emission limits in the corresponding operating permits. South Carolina initially revised its minor NSR and FESOP rules in the October 1, 2007, submittal to clarify and streamline requirements for obtaining minor source construction and operating permits. The July 18, 2011, June 17, 2013, August 8, 2014, January 20, 2016, and July 27, 2017, submittals make other clarifying and administrative changes, which are discussed for each subsection of the regulation below.
EPA has reviewed the proposed changes to the minor source construction and operating permitting regulations and preliminarily finds them to be consistent with CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l), EPA's minor NSR regulations found at 40 CFR 51.160—164, and the criteria applicable to an approvable State FESOP program.
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.A—“Construction Permits” specifies applicability and certain requirements for obtaining permits for sources seeking to construct or modify emissions units. The October 1, 2007, submittal makes several changes to paragraph A. as follows: (1) Adds allowed preconstruction activities at subparagraph A.1.d. for true minor sources (
The July 18, 2011, submittal makes subsequent clarifying and administrative changes to Section II.A., consolidating former subparagraph A.1.a. and paragraph A.5. into an introductory paragraph applicable to the entirety of Regulation 61-62.1, Section II. The submittal also makes other renumbering and administrative edits to the remaining subparagraphs.
The language moved to an introductory paragraph for Section II states: (1) The regulation will not supersede any state or federal requirements nor special permit conditions unless it imposes a more restrictive limit; (2) sources must comply with all terms, conditions, and limitations of any permit issued by SC DHEC for sources or activities at its facility; and (3) a source's permit status may change if new regulatory requirements become applicable. The effect of moving this language from subsection A. is to clarify that it is applicable to all of Section II—meaning it applies to any types of permits issued by the SC DHEC rather than only construction permits.
The August 8, 2014, submittal further modifies Section II.A. by making administrative edits and adding additional allowed preconstruction activities for true minor sources at subparagraph A.1.c, originally added in the October 1, 2007, submittal as subparagraph A.1.d.
The revision to subparagraph A.1.c.—added to the Regulation as A.1.d. in the October 1, 2007, submittal, renumbered in the July 18, 2011, submittal, and updated in the August 8, 2014, submittal—allows certain preconstruction activities prior to obtaining a final construction permit, provided that specific conditions are met. EPA has preliminarily determined that the preconstruction activities provision is consistent with the requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l), and federal regulations at 40 CFR 51.160—51.164.
Section 110(a)(2)(C) of the CAA requires that state SIPs include a program for regulating the construction and modification of stationary sources as necessary to ensure that the NAAQS are maintained. Federal regulations at 40 CFR 51.160(b) require states to have legally enforceable procedures to prevent construction or modification of a source if it would violate any SIP control strategies or interfere with attainment or maintenance of the NAAQS. Federal regulations limit the types of allowed preconstruction activities for new and modified major sources at 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(xv), 51.166(b)(11), and 52.21(b)(11) and, as discussed below, South Carolina has adopted these provisions into its SIP. But federal regulations do not impose a corresponding limitation on preconstruction activities for minor sources. SC DHEC provided additional clarification of its allowed minor source preconstruction activities in a December 30, 2016, letter, which is included in the Docket for this proposed action. In this letter, SC DHEC first explains that “[a]llowed preconstruction activities are extremely limited in nature and do not include construction of that actual process unit itself.” The State also points to a requirement under Section II.C.3.n. that sources applying for
SC DHEC also points to its memorandum regarding allowed preconstruction activities for major sources prior to obtaining PSD permits.
In its December 30, 2016 letter, SC DHEC references Section II.A.1.d., which clearly states that the owners or operators of any sources that would not qualify for the issuance of a construction permit assume the financial risk of commencing the preconstruction activities listed in Section II.A.1.c. SC DHEC also notes that a source could be subject to an enforcement action under Section II.F.2. and Section II.J.1.e.—or subject to permit revocation under Section II.J.1.b—if the source either did not comply with the regulations during construction or would not have qualified for the preconstruction activities undertaken.
Because SC DHEC does not allow for the construction of process units, there are no increased emissions associated with any of the preconstruction activities allowed at Section II.A.1.c.i.-xvii. The gatekeeping applicability language at Section II.A.1.c. and major NSR applicability provisions at Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 7(a)(2) and Standard No. 7.1(a)(1), provide that no major sources or modifications may engage in the preconstruction activities allowed under Section II.A.1.c.i.-xvii. Additionally, SC DHEC does not allow synthetic minor sources to conduct the preconstruction activities. Finally, SC DHEC has legally enforceable procedures to prevent construction or modification of a source if it would violate SIP control strategies or interfere with attainment or maintenance of the NAAQS, as required by 40 CFR 51.160(b).
The changes to South Carolina's minor NSR program are not inconsistent with the requirements of the CAA and EPA's regulations, and are therefore approvable as part of the SIP. EPA is therefore proposing to approve the aforementioned changes to subsection A. and the introductory portion of Section II pursuant to the CAA and 40 CFR 51.160-164.
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.B.—“Exemptions from the Requirement to Obtain a Construction Permit” specifies which types of minor sources are exempt from obtaining minor source construction permits. The October 1, 2007, submittal makes several changes to subsection II.B. as follows: (1) Renumbers existing Section II.F. to Section II.B. and modifies the title to clarify that the paragraph applies only to construction permits; (2) adds language specifying that future source modifications or new regulatory requirements may trigger the need to obtain a permit for exempted facilities; (3) clarifies that the exemption for boilers and space heaters applies to those firing virgin solid and liquid fuels; (4) adds an exemption for boilers and space heaters firing only virgin gas fuels rated 10 million British thermal units per hour or less; (5) modifies the number of hours for testing and maintenance for exempted emergency generators; (6) modifies subparagraph B.2.h. to exempt additional sources with emissions less than the threshold of 1 pound per hour (lb/hr) PTE of sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and carbon monoxide; (7) adds the requirement for SC DHEC to periodically publish a list of sources exempted from the construction permit requirement under subparagraphs B.2.a.-g.—and any other sources determined to qualify for permit exemptions based on subparagraph B.2.h.—in the
The July 18, 2011, submittal makes subsequent revisions to clarify requirements and qualifications at Section II.B., as follows: (1) Adds language to subparagraph B.2.h. to require that emissions calculations or other information necessary to demonstrate a source qualifies for the exemption must be kept on site and provided to SC DHEC upon request; (2) revises language in paragraph B.3. to clarify that source types which are added to the list of exempted sources will be determined not to interfere with attainment or maintenance of any state or federal standard; (3) adds language stating that SC DHEC reserves the right to require a construction permit on a case-by-case basis, and that case-by-case determinations will consider, but not be limited to, “the nature and amount of the pollutants, location, proximity to residences and commercial establishments, etc.”; and (4) makes administrative edits to existing language.
Finally, the August 8, 2014, submittal makes additional changes to paragraph II.B., including: (1) Administrative edits to the title of the paragraph and to references and subparagraphs throughout; (2) revises the PTE criteria in subparagraph B.2.h. to a 5 ton per year (tpy) threshold rather than 1 lb/hr, and adds language to state that sources with higher PTE may be exempted under this subparagraph if they demonstrate that they are not subject to any applicable state or federal limits or requirements; (3) amends paragraph B.3. to include language asserting that SC DHEC may develop emission thresholds for exemption that are determined will not interfere with attainment or maintenance of state or federal standards to include in the list maintained pursuant to this paragraph, and that SC DHEC could be petitioned to consider adding additional sources to this list; and (4) adds paragraph B.5. stating that sources of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) with a PTE greater than the emission threshold listed in subparagraph B.2.h. may be exempted from the requirement to obtain a
Section 110(a)(2)(C) of the CAA requires that SIPs include a program for regulating the construction and modification of stationary sources as necessary to ensure that the NAAQS are maintained. Federal regulations at 40 CFR 51.160(e) require that states identify the types and sizes of sources subject to review and the basis for determining which sources are subject. Additionally, CAA section 110(l) provides that EPA shall not approve a revision to a plan if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in CAA section 171), or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. SC DHEC has determined that specific sources listed at paragraphs B.1. and B.2. do not require permits because their size is not such that they are expected to interfere with attainment or maintenance of state or federal standards, including reasonable further progress.
SC DHEC's December 30, 2016, letter provides additional clarification for certain changes made to Section II.B. Subparagraph B.2.f. extends the testing and maintenance operation threshold for exempting emergency generators from 250 hours to 500 hours per year. SC DHEC considered CAA section 110(l), and asserts that the state expects no increase in actual emissions as a result of raising this exemption threshold. SC DHEC explains that the 500 hours per year threshold is commonly used to determine the PTE for title V and other major source applicability determinations, consistent with an EPA guidance memorandum.
SC DHEC in its letter also addresses changes made to subparagraph II.B.h. potentially allowing certain sources with PTE exceeding the thresholds of this subparagraph to be exempt from the requirement to obtain a construction permit. SC DHEC asserts that this provision is primarily intended to apply to sources with PTE only slightly above the thresholds in subparagraph II.B.h. SC DHEC notes the safeguards built into the language that sources subject to any applicable requirements are not exempt from obtaining construction permits. The letter then steps through an example of the process that small sources of VOC emissions would undergo, including an assessment of any potentially applicable requirements related to NAAQS, toxics, or hazardous air pollutants; consideration of the PTE relative to major source thresholds; and any other special considerations. SC DHEC determines the applicability of construction permits for these sources under close scrutiny on a case-by-case basis. This process in determining which types and sizes of sources need to undergo preconstruction review and permitting, afforded the State pursuant 40 CFR 51.160(e), is sufficient to protect the NAAQS and prevent interference with reasonable further progress, consistent with CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
SC DHEC's change to paragraph II.B.3. notes that SC DHEC may develop emission thresholds for exemptions that are not determined not to interfere with attainment or maintenance or any state or federal standard. EPA understands this language to reflect SC DHEC's flexibility for determining which types and sizes of sources need to undergo preconstruction review and permitting pursuant 40 CFR 51.160(e), and understands that these thresholds would need to be in the SIP, similar to Subparagraph II.B.h. The compiled list is available on SC DHEC's Web site.
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.C—“Construction Permit Applications,” specifies the requirements for sources applying for and obtaining construction permits. The October 1, 2007, submittal makes several changes to subsection C. as follows: (1) Renumbers former paragraph A.2. to standalone subsection C and changes the title to specify that the requirements apply to construction permit applications; (2) makes administrative edits, including renumbering; (3) adds paragraph C.3. to reference SC DHEC forms which were created to ease the permit application process; and (4) renumbers former subparagraphs B.2.a.-g. to C.3.a.-p., reformatting and clarifying what information may be required in addition to the SC DHEC forms, including more specific process, chemical, and emissions information used to determine PTE, an air quality analysis demonstrating protection of the NAAQS, and a regulatory applicability determination.
The July 18, 2011, submittal further modifies Section II.C. at subparagraphs C.3.c.-d. to make administrative edits. South Carolina's August 8, 2014, submittal makes additional administrative and clarifying edits. The January 20, 2016, submittal also makes minor administrative edits. Finally, the July 27, 2016, submittal makes one change to subparagraph C.2.m. to clarify that scale drawings of the facility must include buildings that might affect dispersion of emissions.
EPA has reviewed the changes made to the construction permit application requirements and is proposing to approve them into the SIP, pursuant to CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.D.—“General Construction Permits” provides regulations by which SC DHEC can issue general construction permits for similar sources. South Carolina's October 1, 2007, submittal adds these provisions to the minor NSR program for construction permits to facilitate the permitting process for similar sources
The August 8, 2014, submittal makes administrative and clarifying edits to subsection II.D. throughout. EPA has reviewed the changes made to the minor NSR permitting program and is proposing to approve them into the SIP, pursuant to CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.E.—“Synthetic Minor Construction Permits” specifies requirements for obtaining construction permits with federally enforceable emissions limits to restrict PTE for sources. South Carolina's October 1, 2007, submittal revises the paragraph for synthetic minor sources as follows: (1) Renumbers subsection II.H. to subsection II.E.; (2) makes administrative and clarifying amendments to the title and throughout the paragraph to clearly indicate that this paragraph pertains to construction permits and to update references; (3) removes former subparagraphs II.2.c.-f. as these requirements are now redundant and covered by other portions of subsection E. or Section II; (4) adds paragraph E.3. to list required synthetic minor permit conditions; (5) adds administrative language to make applications for general synthetic minor construction permits consistent with other construction permit applications; and (6) adds paragraph E.5. to list additional requirements for synthetic minor construction permit applications relative to other minor construction permit applications.
The August 8, 2014, submittal makes changes to subsection II.E. to update administrative language and references throughout the paragraph. The July 27, 2016, submittal also makes administrative edits to subparagraph E.2.b. EPA has reviewed the changes made to the requirements covering synthetic minor construction permits and is proposing to approve them into the SIP, pursuant to CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l), and 40 CFR 51.160-164.
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.F.—“Operating Permits” specifies requirements for obtaining minor source operating permits. South Carolina's October 1, 2007, submittal makes several changes to subsection II.F. to clarify and add requirements, including: (1) Renumbering subsection II.B. to II.F.; (2) adding paragraph F.1. to require sources to record the actual date of initial startup and submit it to SC DHEC; (3) adding paragraph F.2. to require certification that construction was completed in accordance with the specifications of the construction permit, to require any variances from the construction permit to be addressed, and to assert that construction variances which would trigger new requirements will be considered construction without a permit; (4) adding language to clarify that title V sources may comply with the Section II.F operating permit requirements by submitting a permit modification request under 61-62.70.7(e) ; (5) adding language to clarify that the existing requirement to provide a written request to SC DHEC for a new or revised operating permit applies to minor sources and those major sources not yet covered by a title V permit; (6) adding subparagraph F.3.c. to specify that the written request for a new or revised operating permit must include a list of sources put into operation and the actual initial startup dates for those sources; (7) making other administrative edits throughout the paragraph; and (8) moving paragraph B.2. regarding permit renewals to a standalone subsection II.H.
The August 8, 2014 and July 27, 2016, submittals make administrative changes to Section II.F.—“Operating Permits.” EPA has reviewed the changes made to the existing SIP requirements for applying for an operating permit and is proposing to approve them into the SIP, pursuant to CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.G.—“Conditional Major Operating Permits” specifies requirements for obtaining operating permits with federally enforceable emissions limits to restrict PTE for sources. South Carolina's October 1, 2007, submittal makes several changes to subsection II.G. to clarify applicability and requirements as follows: (1) Adds language to specify that paragraph II.G. applies to sources requesting federally enforceable limits to restrict PTE below major source thresholds; (2) adds language to specify that sources which received synthetic minor construction permits and that are not subject to title V will receive conditional major operating permits; (3) adds permit shield language to note that if the renewal request is submitted pursuant to paragraph II.H., conditional major sources can operate under the most recent conditional major permit until SC DHEC processes the renewal request; (4) adds language to note that the written request provided by new sources needs to include any additional information specified in subparagraph G.5.; (5) adds language and clarifies existing language to note that the permit conditions, including special conditions to verify compliance with operational and emissions limits, are located at subsection II.J.; (6) modifies existing language to specify additional requirements for conditional major operating permit applications only; (7) removes requirements pertaining to construction permit application requirements because subsections II.C. and II.E. otherwise cover these requirements; (8) removes requirements pertaining to standard operating permit applications because those are otherwise covered by subsection II.F.; (9) adds language to specify that the general information requirements in construction permit applications at paragraph C.3. also apply to conditional major operating permits; and (10) makes other administrative language changes throughout the paragraph.
The July 18, 2011, August 8, 2014, and July 27, 2016, submittals make additional administrative changes to subsection II.G. EPA has reviewed the changes made to SC DHEC's conditional major source program, which is a portion of the FESOP minor source program, and agrees that the revisions made to subsection II.G. clarify the requirements for obtaining conditional major operating permits. Further, EPA has determined that the conditional operating permit program remains consistent with the criteria for
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.H.—“Operating Permit Renewal Request” specifies requirements for renewing operating permits for minor sources. South Carolina's October 1, 2007, submittal makes several changes to subsection II.H. to clarify applicability and requirements as follows: (1) Renumbers former paragraph B.2. to make a standalone subsection at II.H.; (2) adds paragraph H.1. to clarify that operating permits must be renewed through a written request; (3) adds paragraph H.2. to clarify that subsection II.H does not apply to title V sources; (4) adds language to specify that sources must submit permit renewal requests no later than 90 days prior to expiration of the existing operating permit; (5) revises language to expand the type of information needed to verify special permit conditions; (6) adds language to require more specific information in the renewal request, including changes in the source information required for construction permits under paragraph C.3.; and (7) makes administrative language changes throughout the paragraph.
The July 18, 2011, June 17, 2013, August 8, 2014, and July 27, 2016, submittals make several administrative edits and correct typographical errors throughout subsection II.H. EPA has reviewed the changes made to the operating permit renewal requirements and believes these changes are more specific and help to ensure SC DHEC has the best information possible when evaluating renewal requests. EPA has also preliminarily determined that the changes will not interfere with attainment or maintenance of the NAAQS, reasonable further progress, or other applicable CAA requirements. EPA is therefore proposing to approve these changes into the SIP, pursuant to CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.I.—“Registration Permits” provides regulations by which SC DHEC can issue registration permits, covering the construction and operation of similar sources. South Carolina's October 1, 2007, submittal adds these provisions to the minor source construction and operating permitting program to facilitate the permitting process for similar true minor sources qualifying for and applying for coverage permits for specific source categories. The purpose of this registration permitting minor source program is to protect the NAAQS while simplifying the permitting process for similar true minor sources. The difference between registration permits and general construction permits or general operating permits is that this program develops permits for specific source categories exclusively for true minor sources.
The October 1, 2007, submittal provides the following requirements for registration permits under paragraph II.I: (1) Registration permits will be developed by SC DHEC and will specify all applicable requirements for construction and operation of similar true minor sources; (2) registration permits will be developed only for true minor sources; (3) sources can submit applications for coverage by certifying qualification for, and agreeing to the conditions of, registration permits, and sources later determined not to qualify for the registration permit are subject to enforcement; (4) approval to operate under a permit is a final permit action for the purposes of judicial review; and (5) sources will adhere to general requirements under paragraph II.J.1., and any other special permit conditions necessary to verify compliance with operational and emission limits.
The July 18, 2011, submittal makes subsequent changes to subsection II.I. as follows: (1) Makes administrative edits; (2) adds language to assert that regardless of qualification for registration permits, SC DHEC reserves the right to require construction and operating permits, as determined on a case-by-case basis; and (3) changes language to clarify that registration permits shall contain any applicable permit conditions under subsection II.J., rather than all permit conditions listed in paragraph II.J., as SC DHEC finds appropriate.
The August 8, 2014, submittal includes other changes to paragraph II.I., including administrative edits throughout and adding language to assert that SC DHEC can reopen registration permits for cause or to include new standards or regulations that become applicable during the lifetime of the permit. The August 8, 2014, submittal also removes language at subparagraph I.1.a. requiring SC DHEC to provide notice and opportunity for public participation prior to developing new registration permits. However, the State withdrew this change from EPA's consideration in a letter dated August 7, 2017.
EPA has reviewed the changes made to the registration permit requirements, as clarified by the State's August 7, 2017, letter, and is proposing to approve them into the SIP, pursuant to CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l), and 40 CFR part 51, subpart I.
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.J.—“Permit Conditions” specifies required standard and special permit conditions. The October 1, 2007, submittal combines the standard and special permit conditions into a standalone section for required permit conditions. This submittal makes the following changes at paragraph J.: (1) Renumbers former subsection II.C. to II.J. and modifies the title to reflect that the subsection applies to all permit types; (2) requires sources to submit reports as specified in applicable permits, laws, regulations, or standards; (3) adds language to assert that a source may be subject to enforcement if it fails to construct in accordance with the application and any issued construction permit, or constructs without applying for approval; (4) adds language to clarify the time period over which construction permits are valid; (5) renumbers paragraph G.4. to paragraph J.2. and modifies the title to clarify that what follows are special permit conditions; (6) adds language stating that SC DHEC will require special permit conditions as it finds appropriate, such as operational limits or reporting and recordkeeping requirements; (7) removes former subparagraph G.4.g., which states conditions to limit PTE must be federally enforceable, because the State otherwise imposes this requirement for synthetic minor construction permits at subparagraph E.3. and conditional major operating permits at subparagraph G.5.; and (8) makes administrative language changes throughout subsection II.J.
One change made to subparagraph J.1.d., formerly C.4., in the October 1, 2007, submittal regards when emissions reports need to be made. In the place of a specific quarterly timeframe, the change directs sources to comply with reporting requirements derived from applicable permit requirements, laws and regulations, or standards. There are no specific reporting requirements for
The July 18, 2011, submittal makes further revisions to subsection II.J., including: (1) Adding language stating that false information or misrepresentation in a permit application is grounds for permit revocation; (2) adding language stating that the issued construction or operating permit must be kept at the facility and that records must be kept as prescribed on site for at least five years; and (3) making administrative and clarifying edits. The August 8, 2014, submittal makes additional administrative changes.
EPA has reviewed the changes to standard and special permit requirements for the minor source construction and operating permit program and is proposing to approve them into the SIP pursuant to CAA section 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.K.—“Exceptions” sets forth factors that SC DHEC shall consider in determining whether to impose alternative emissions limits, compliance schedules, or other restrictions. The October 1, 2007, submittal makes non-substantive changes to this subsection, including renumbering this existing subsection from II.D. to II.K., and making administrative language changes. EPA is therefore proposing to approve the aforementioned changes into the SIP pursuant to CAA sections 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.M.—“Transfer of Ownership/Operation” specifies procedures for owners or operators of sources to undertake if the ownership or operation is transferred to another party. The October 1, 2007, submittal makes minor changes to this regulation to renumber existing subsection II.E. to subsection II.M. and to add more specific requirements for the written request to transfer ownership or operation of a source. The August 8, 2014, submittal makes only administrative changes to language in this subsection.
EPA has reviewed the changes to this existing portion of the minor source permitting regulations and is proposing to approve the aforementioned changes into the SIP pursuant to CAA section 110(a)(2)(C) and 110(l).
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.N.—“Public Participation Procedures,” specifies the public participation requirements for sources applying for and obtaining federally enforceable minor source construction and operating permits. The October 1, 2007, submittal makes several changes to subsection N. as follows: (1) Renumbers existing paragraph G.5. to create a standalone paragraph for public participation and clarify that these procedures can apply to other types of permit requests rather than only conditional major source operating permits; (2) adds language providing SC DHEC with discretion to require notice of permitting activity, even when not otherwise required by the State's regulations; (3) adds language stating that SC DHEC can use means other than publishing in newspapers, the
The July 18, 2011, submittal makes one clarifying edit to reflect that an approved construction permit is required prior to the commencement of construction. The August 8, 2014, submittal makes administrative and clarifying edits to subsection II.N., including: (1) Adding language to subparagraph N.1. to identify the SC DHEC Web site as another method of notifying the public of permitting activity; (2) reformatting and revising paragraph N.2. to list the required elements of the public notice; (3) revising language to identify how SC DHEC will address and record comments, and broadening the SC DHEC procedures to note that the State will respond to all comments rather than only those received in writing or at the public hearing; (4) removing language requiring SC DEHC to respond to all comments in writing; and (5) making administrative edits.
The changes in the October 1, 2007, submittal to allow for other methods of public notice, and in the August 8, 2014, submittal to explicitly list the SC DHEC Web site as a possible method of public notice are consistent with the minor source permitting regulations at 40 CFR 51.161. EPA has existing policy asserting that the public notice requirement for minor source permitting activities at 40 CFR 51.161(b)(3) is media-neutral, meaning that the public notice requirement can be met as long as the State interprets the method to be “prominent advertising.”
EPA has reviewed the public notice requirements and preliminarily finds that the changes currently before the Agency are not inconsistent with the CAA and EPA's implementing regulations, including the criteria for approving FESOP programs.
Regulation 61-62.1, Section II.O.—“Inspection and Entry,” specifies requirements to allow SC DHEC officials to enter and inspect facilities. South Carolina's July 18, 2011, submittal adds these provisions to the minor source construction and operating permitting program to allow for verification of adherence to permit conditions. The August 8, 2014, submittal makes one additional administrative change to the introductory language at subsection II.O. The ability for SC DHEC to enter and inspect facilities enables the State to oversee the minor source permitting program, including assisting in potential enforcement actions. EPA is therefore proposing to approve this subsection
In this rule, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference South Carolina Regulation 61-62.1, Section II—“Permit Requirements,” effective June 24, 2016,
EPA is proposing to approve portions of revisions to the South Carolina SIP submitted by SC DHEC to EPA on October 1, 2007, July 18, 2011, June 17, 2013, August 8, 2014, January 20, 2016, and July 27, 2016. Specifically, EPA is proposing to approve the changes to S.C. Code Ann. Regs. 61-62.1, Section II—“Permit Requirements,” as discussed above, pursuant to CAA section 110(a)(2)(C), section 110(l), and 40 CFR 51.160—164.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to take the following four actions regarding the Alabama State Implementation Plan (SIP), contingent upon a final determination from the Agency that a state's participation in the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) continues to meet the Regional Haze Rule (RHR)'s criteria to qualify as an alternative to the application of Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART): Approve the portion of Alabama's October 26, 2015, SIP submittal seeking to change reliance from the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR) to CSAPR for certain regional haze requirements; convert EPA's limited approval/limited disapproval of Alabama's July 15, 2008, regional haze SIP to a full approval; approve the visibility prong of Alabama's infrastructure SIP submittals for the 2012 Fine Particulate Matter (PM
Comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No EPA-R04-OAR-2017-0104 at
Michele Notarianni, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Notarianni can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9031 or via electronic mail at
Section 169A(b)(2)(A) of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) requires states to submit regional haze SIPs that contain such measures as may be necessary to make reasonable progress towards the natural visibility goal, including a requirement that certain categories of existing major stationary sources built between 1962 and 1977 procure, install, and operate BART as determined by the state. Under the RHR, states are directed to conduct BART determinations for such “BART-eligible” sources that may be anticipated to cause or contribute to any visibility impairment in a Class I area. Rather than requiring source-specific BART controls, states also have the flexibility to adopt an emissions trading program or other alternative program as long as the alternative provides greater reasonable progress towards improving visibility than BART.
EPA demonstrated that CAIR would achieve greater reasonable progress than BART in revisions to the regional haze program made in 2005.
Due to the D.C. Circuit's 2008 ruling that CAIR was “fatally flawed” and its resulting status as a temporary measure following that ruling, EPA could not fully approve regional haze SIPs to the extent that they relied on CAIR to satisfy the BART requirement and the requirement for a LTS sufficient to achieve the state-adopted RPGs. On these grounds, EPA finalized a limited disapproval of Alabama's regional haze SIP on June 7, 2012, triggering the requirement for EPA to promulgate a FIP unless Alabama submitted and EPA approved a SIP revision that corrected the deficiency.
In the June 7, 2012, limited disapproval action, EPA also amended the RHR to provide that participation by a state's EGUs in a CSAPR trading program for a given pollutant—either a CSAPR federal trading program implemented through a CSAPR FIP or an integrated CSAPR state trading program implemented through an approved CSAPR SIP revision—qualifies as a BART alternative for those EGUs for that pollutant.
Numerous parties filed petitions for review of CSAPR in the D.C. Circuit, and on August 21, 2012, the court issued its ruling, vacating and remanding CSAPR to EPA and ordering continued implementation of CAIR.
On November 10, 2016, EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) explaining the Agency's belief that the potentially material changes to the scope of CSAPR coverage resulting from the D.C. Circuit's remand will be limited to the withdrawal of the FIP provisions providing SO
Alabama's October 26, 2015, SIP submittal also seeks to correct the deficiencies identified in the June 7, 2012, limited disapproval of its regional haze SIP by replacing reliance on CAIR with reliance on CSAPR.
By statute, SIPs meeting the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA are to be submitted by states within three years (or less, if the Administrator so prescribes) after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS to provide for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the new or revised NAAQS. EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) require states to address basic SIP elements such as for monitoring, basic program requirements, and legal authority that are designed to assure attainment and maintenance of the newly established or revised NAAQS. More specifically, section 110(a)(1) provides the procedural and timing requirements for infrastructure SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) lists specific elements that states must meet for the infrastructure SIP requirements related to a newly established or revised NAAQS. The contents of an infrastructure SIP submission may vary depending upon the data and analytical tools available to the state, as well as the provisions already contained in the state's implementation plan at the time in which the state develops and submits the submission for a new or revised NAAQS.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) has two components: 110(a)(2)(D)(i) and 110(a)(2)(D)(ii). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) includes four distinct components, commonly referred to as “prongs,” that must be addressed in infrastructure SIP submissions. The first two prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I), are provisions that prohibit any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from contributing significantly to nonattainment of the NAAQS in another state (prong 1) and from interfering with maintenance of the NAAQS in another state (prong 2). The third and fourth prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), are provisions that prohibit emissions activity in one state from interfering with measures required to prevent significant deterioration of air quality in another state (prong 3) or from interfering with measures to protect visibility in another state (prong 4). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) requires SIPs to include provisions ensuring compliance with sections 115 and 126 of the Act, relating to interstate and international pollution abatement.
Through this action, EPA is proposing to approve the prong 4 portion of Alabama's infrastructure SIP submissions for the 2010 1-hour NO
On June 2, 2010, EPA revised the 1-hour primary SO
On January 22, 2010, EPA promulgated a new 1-hour primary NAAQS for NO
On December 14, 2012, EPA revised the annual primary PM
On March 12, 2008, EPA revised the 8-hour Ozone NAAQS to 0.075 parts per million.
The requirement for states to make a SIP submission of this type arises out of section 110(a)(1). Pursuant to section 110(a)(1), states must make SIP submissions “within 3 years (or such shorter period as the Administrator may prescribe) after the promulgation of a national primary ambient air quality standard (or any revision thereof),” and these SIP submissions are to provide for the “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of such NAAQS. The statute directly imposes on states the duty to make these SIP submissions, and the requirement to make the submissions is not conditioned upon EPA's taking any action other than promulgating a new or revised NAAQS. Section 110(a)(2) includes a list of specific elements that “each such plan” submission must address.
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of section 110(a)(1) and (2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment plan SIP” submissions to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of Title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submissions required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of section 169A of the CAA, and nonattainment new source review (NSR) permit program submissions to address the permit requirements of CAA, Title I, part D.
Section 110(a)(1) addresses the timing and general requirements for infrastructure SIP submissions and section 110(a)(2) provides more details concerning the required contents of these submissions. The list of required elements provided in section 110(a)(2) contains a wide variety of disparate provisions, some of which pertain to required legal authority, some of which pertain to required substantive program provisions, and some of which pertain to requirements for both authority and substantive program provisions.
The following examples of ambiguities illustrate the need for EPA to interpret some section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) requirements with respect to infrastructure SIP submissions for a given new or revised NAAQS. One example of ambiguity is that section 110(a)(2) requires that “each” SIP submission must meet the list of requirements therein, while EPA has long noted that this literal reading of the statute is internally inconsistent and would create a conflict with the nonattainment provisions in part D of Title I of the CAA, which specifically address nonattainment SIP requirements.
Another example of ambiguity within section 110(a)(1) and (2) with respect to infrastructure SIPs pertains to whether states must meet all of the infrastructure SIP requirements in a single SIP submission, and whether EPA must act upon such SIP submission in a single action. Although section 110(a)(1) directs states to submit “a plan” to meet these requirements, EPA interprets the CAA to allow states to make multiple SIP submissions separately addressing infrastructure SIP elements for the same NAAQS. If states elect to make such multiple SIP submissions to meet the infrastructure SIP requirements, EPA can elect to act on such submissions either individually or in a larger combined action.
Ambiguities within section 110(a)(1) and (2) may also arise with respect to infrastructure SIP submission requirements for different NAAQS. Thus, EPA notes that not every element of section 110(a)(2) would be relevant, or as relevant, or relevant in the same way, for each new or revised NAAQS. The states' attendant infrastructure SIP submissions for each NAAQS therefore could be different. For example, the monitoring requirements that a state might need to meet in its infrastructure SIP submission for purposes of section 110(a)(2)(B) could be very different for different pollutants, because the content and scope of a state's infrastructure SIP submission to meet this element might be very different for an entirely new NAAQS than for a minor revision to an existing NAAQS.
EPA notes that interpretation of section 110(a)(2) is also necessary when EPA reviews other types of SIP submissions required under the CAA. Therefore, as with infrastructure SIP submissions, EPA also has to identify and interpret the relevant elements of section 110(a)(2) that logically apply to these other types of SIP submissions. For example, section 172(c)(7) requires attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D to meet the “applicable requirements” of section 110(a)(2); thus, attainment plan SIP submissions must meet the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(A) regarding enforceable emission limits and control measures and section 110(a)(2)(E)(i) regarding air agency resources and authority. By contrast, it is clear that attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D would not need to meet the portion of section 110(a)(2)(C) that pertains to the prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) program required in part C of Title I of the CAA, because PSD does not apply to a pollutant for which an area is designated nonattainment and thus subject to part D planning requirements. As this example illustrates, each type of SIP submission may implicate some elements of section 110(a)(2) but not others.
Given the potential for ambiguity in some of the statutory language of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2), EPA believes that it is appropriate to interpret the ambiguous portions of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) in the context of acting on a particular SIP submission. In other words, EPA assumes that Congress could not have intended that each and every SIP submission, regardless of the NAAQS in question or the history of SIP development for the relevant pollutant, would meet each of the requirements, or meet each of them in the same way. Therefore, EPA has adopted an approach under which it reviews infrastructure SIP submissions against the list of elements in section 110(a)(2), but only to the extent each element applies for that particular NAAQS.
Historically, EPA has elected to use guidance documents to make recommendations to states for infrastructure SIPs, in some cases conveying needed interpretations on newly arising issues and in some cases conveying interpretations that have already been developed and applied to individual SIP submissions for particular elements.
As an example, section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) is a required element of section 110(a)(2) for infrastructure SIP submissions. Under this element, a state must meet the substantive requirements of section 128, which pertain to state boards that approve permits or enforcement orders and heads of executive agencies with similar powers. Thus, EPA reviews infrastructure SIP submissions to ensure that the state's SIP appropriately addresses the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) and section 128. The 2013 Guidance explains EPA's interpretation that there may be a variety of ways by which states can appropriately address these substantive statutory requirements, depending on the structure of an individual state's permitting or enforcement program (
As another example, EPA's review of infrastructure SIP submissions with respect to the PSD program requirements in section 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), and (J) focuses upon the structural PSD program requirements contained in part C and EPA's PSD regulations. Structural PSD program requirements include provisions necessary for the PSD program to address all regulated sources and NSR
For other section 110(a)(2) elements, however, EPA's review of a state's infrastructure SIP submission focuses on assuring that the state's SIP meets basic structural requirements. For example, section 110(a)(2)(C) includes,
With respect to certain other issues, EPA does not believe that an action on a state's infrastructure SIP submission is necessarily the appropriate type of action in which to address possible deficiencies in a state's existing SIP. These issues include: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions from sources during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction (SSM) that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions;
EPA's approach to review of infrastructure SIP submissions is to identify the CAA requirements that are logically applicable to that submission. EPA believes that this approach to the review of a particular infrastructure SIP submission is appropriate, because it would not be reasonable to read the general requirements of section 110(a)(1) and the list of elements in section 110(a)(2) as requiring review of each and every provision of a state's existing SIP against all requirements in the CAA and EPA regulations merely for purposes of assuring that the state in question has the basic structural elements for a functioning SIP for a new or revised NAAQS. Because SIPs have grown by accretion over the decades as statutory and regulatory requirements under the CAA have evolved, they may include some outmoded provisions and historical artifacts. These provisions, while not fully up to date, nevertheless may not pose a significant problem for the purposes of “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of a new or revised NAAQS when EPA evaluates adequacy of the infrastructure SIP submission. EPA believes that a better approach is for states and EPA to focus attention on those elements of section 110(a)(2) of the CAA most likely to warrant a specific SIP revision due to the promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS or other factors.
For example, EPA's 2013 Guidance gives simpler recommendations with respect to carbon monoxide than other NAAQS pollutants to meet the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), because carbon monoxide does not affect visibility. As a result, an infrastructure SIP submission for any future new or revised NAAQS for carbon monoxide need only state this fact in order to address the visibility prong of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II).
Finally, EPA believes that its approach with respect to infrastructure SIP requirements is based on a reasonable reading of section 110(a)(1) and (2) because the CAA provides other avenues and mechanisms to address specific substantive deficiencies in existing SIPs. These other statutory tools allow EPA to take appropriately tailored action, depending upon the nature and severity of the alleged SIP deficiency. Section 110(k)(5) authorizes EPA to issue a “SIP call” whenever the Agency determines that a state's implementation plan is substantially inadequate to attain or maintain the NAAQS, to mitigate interstate transport, or to otherwise comply with the CAA.
CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires a state's implementation plan to contain provisions prohibiting sources in that state from emitting pollutants in amounts that interfere with any other state's efforts to protect visibility under part C of the CAA (which includes sections 169A and 169B). The 2013 Guidance states that these prong 4 requirements can be satisfied by approved SIP provisions that EPA has found to adequately address any contribution of that state's sources that impacts the visibility program requirements in other states. The 2013 Guidance also states that EPA interprets this prong to be pollutant-specific, such that the infrastructure SIP submission need only address the potential for interference with protection of visibility caused by the pollutant (including precursors) to which the new or revised NAAQS applies.
The 2013 Guidance lays out how a state's infrastructure SIP may satisfy prong 4. One way that a state can meet the requirements is via confirmation in its infrastructure SIP submission that the state has an approved regional haze SIP that fully meets the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308 or 51.309. 40 CFR 51.308 and 51.309 specifically require that a state participating in a regional planning process include all measures needed to achieve its apportionment of emission reduction obligations agreed upon through that process. A fully approved regional haze SIP will ensure that emissions from sources under an air agency's jurisdiction are not interfering with measures required to be included in other air agencies' plans to protect visibility.
Alternatively, in the absence of a fully approved regional haze SIP, a state may meet the requirements of prong 4 through a demonstration in its infrastructure SIP submission that emissions within its jurisdiction do not interfere with other air agencies' plans to protect visibility. Such an infrastructure SIP submission would need to include measures to limit visibility-impairing pollutants and ensure that the reductions conform with any mutually agreed regional haze RPGs for mandatory Class I areas in other states.
Alabama's August 20, 2012, 2008 8-hour Ozone infrastructure SIP submission; April 23, 2013, and December 9, 2015, 2010 1-hour NO
EPA is proposing to approve the regional haze portion of the State's October 26, 2015, SIP revision and convert EPA's previous action on Alabama's regional haze SIP from a limited approval/limited disapproval to a full approval because final approval of this portion of the SIP revision would correct the deficiencies that led to EPA's limited approval/limited disapproval of the State's regional haze SIP. Specifically, EPA's approval of this portion of Alabama's October 26, 2015, SIP revision would satisfy the SO
As described above, EPA is proposing to take the following actions, contingent upon a final determination that CSAPR continues to qualify as an alternative to the application of BART under the RHR: (1) Approve the regional haze portion of Alabama's October 26, 2015, SIP submission to change reliance from CAIR to CSAPR; (2) convert EPA's limited approval/limited disapproval of Alabama's July 15, 2008, regional haze SIP to a full approval; (3) approve the prong 4 portion of Alabama's April 23, 2013, and December 9, 2015, 2010 1-hour NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Are not “significant regulatory actions” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• are not economically significant regulatory actions based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• are not significant regulatory actions subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• are not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• do not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate Matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve portions of revisions to the North Carolina State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the State of North Carolina through the North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (formerly the North Carolina Department of Environment and Natural Resources (NCDENR)), Division of Air Quality (DAQ), on October 14, 2004, March 24, 2006, and January 31, 2008. The proposed revisions are changes to the air curtain burner regulation of the North Carolina SIP and are part of North Carolina's strategy to meet and maintain the national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). EPA has taken or will take action with respect to all other portions of these SIP revisions. This action is being taken pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) and its implementing regulations.
Written comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2007-0085 at
Sean Lakeman or Nacosta C. Ward, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Lakeman can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9043 or via electronic mail at
In the Final Rules section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) proposes to approve the state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the Commonwealth of Virginia which includes revised provisions of the State Air Pollution Control Board's Regulations for the Control and Abatement of Air Pollution
Comments must be received in writing by September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0382 at
Sara Calcinore, (215) 814 2043, or by email at
For further information, please see the information provided in the direct final action, with the same title, that is located in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a request from Tennessee for EPA to relax the Federal Reid Vapor Pressure (RVP) standard applicable to gasoline introduced into commerce from June 1 to September 15 of each year for Shelby County, Tennessee (Memphis or Area). Specifically, EPA is proposing to amend the regulations to allow the RVP standard for Shelby County to change from 7.8 pounds per square inch (psi) to 9.0 psi for gasoline. EPA has preliminarily determined that this change to the Federal RVP regulation is consistent with the applicable provisions of the Clean Air Act (CAA).
Written comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017 unless a public hearing is requested by September 1, 2017. If EPA receives such a request, we will publish information related to the timing and location of the hearing and a new deadline for public comment.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2017-0146, to the
For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit
David Dickinson, Office of Transportation and Air Quality, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 343-9256; fax number: (202) 343-2804; email address:
The contents of this preamble are listed in the following outline:
Entities potentially affected by this proposed rule are fuel producers and distributors involved in the supplying of gasoline to Shelby County, TN.
The above table is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide for readers regarding entities likely to be
The statutory authority for this action is granted to EPA by sections 211(h) and 301(a) of the CAA, as amended; 42 U.S.C. 7545(h) and 7601(a).
EPA will not hold a public hearing on this matter unless a request is received by the person identified in the
EPA is proposing to approve a request from Tennessee to change the summertime Federal RVP standard for Shelby County from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi by amending EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 80.27(a)(2). In a separate rulemaking, noted below, EPA has already approved a CAA section 110(l) non-interference demonstration which concludes that relaxing the Federal RVP requirement from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi for gasoline sold from June 1 to September 15 of each year in Shelby County would not interfere with the maintenance of the ozone national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) and the maintenance of the other NAAQS, or with any other applicable CAA requirement. When Tennessee previously requested that Shelby County be redesignated to attainment for the 2008 ozone standard, Tennessee took a conservative approach for the maintenance plan demonstration by modeling 9.0 psi for the RVP requirements as opposed to 7.8 psi. Tennessee did not, at that time, request the relaxation of the Federal RVP requirements for Shelby County. More recently, Tennessee requested a relaxation of the Federal RVP requirements. This has necessitated a demonstration that relaxing the Federal RVP requirement from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi for gasoline sold from June 1 to September 15 of each year in Shelby County would not interfere with maintenance of any NAAQS, including the 2008 and 2015 ozone NAAQS, or any other applicable CAA requirement, under CAA section 110(l). Therefore, by a subsequent rulemaking, EPA approved Tennessee's non-interference demonstration for its already approved maintenance plan for the 2008 ozone NAAQS.
The preamble for this rulemaking is organized as follows: Section III.B. provides the history of the Federal gasoline volatility regulation. Section III.C. describes the policy regarding relaxation of gasoline volatility standards in ozone nonattainment areas that are redesignated as attainment areas. Section III.D. provides information specific to Tennessee's request for Shelby County.
On August 19, 1987 (52 FR 31274), EPA determined that gasoline nationwide was becoming increasingly volatile, causing an increase in evaporative emissions from gasoline-powered vehicles and equipment. Evaporative emissions from gasoline, referred to as volatile organic compounds (VOC), are precursors to the formation of tropospheric ozone and contribute to the nation's ground-level ozone problem. Exposure to ground-level ozone can reduce lung function, thereby aggravating asthma and other respiratory conditions, increase susceptibility to respiratory infection, and may contribute to premature death in people with heart and lung disease.
The most common measure of fuel volatility that is useful in evaluating gasoline evaporative emissions is RVP. Under CAA section 211(c), EPA promulgated regulations on March 22, 1989 (54 FR 11868) that set maximum limits for the RVP of gasoline sold during the regulatory control periods that were established on a state-by-state basis in that final rule. The regulatory control periods addressed the portion of the year when peak ozone concentrations were expected. These regulations constituted Phase I of a two-phase nationwide program, which was designed to reduce the volatility of gasoline during the high ozone season. On June 11, 1990 (55 FR 23658), EPA promulgated more stringent volatility controls as Phase II of the volatility control program. These requirements established maximum RVP standards of 9.0 psi or 7.8 psi (depending on the state, the month, and the area's initial ozone attainment designation with respect to the 1-hour ozone NAAQS).
The 1990 CAA Amendments established new CAA section 211(h) to address fuel volatility. CAA section 211(h) requires EPA to promulgate regulations making it unlawful to sell, offer for sale, dispense, supply, offer for supply, transport, or introduce into commerce gasoline with an RVP level in excess of 9.0 psi during the high ozone season. CAA section 211(h) also prohibits EPA from establishing a volatility standard more stringent than 9.0 psi in an attainment area, except that EPA may impose a lower (more stringent) standard in any former ozone nonattainment area redesignated to attainment.
On December 12, 1991 (56 FR 64704), EPA modified the Phase II volatility regulations to be consistent with CAA section 211(h). The modified regulations prohibited the sale of gasoline with an RVP above 9.0 psi in all areas designated attainment for ozone, effective January 13, 1992. For areas designated as nonattainment, the regulations retained the original Phase II standards published on June 11, 1990 (55 FR 23658), which included the 7.8 psi ozone season limitation for certain areas. As stated in the preamble to the Phase II volatility controls and reiterated in the proposed change to the volatility standards published in 1991, EPA will rely on states to initiate changes to their respective volatility programs. EPA's policy for approving such changes is described below in Section III.C.
As stated in the preamble for EPA's amended Phase II volatility standards (56 FR 64706), any change in the gasoline volatility standard for a nonattainment area that was subsequently redesignated as an attainment area must be accomplished through a separate rulemaking that revises the applicable standard for that area. Thus, for former 1-hour ozone nonattainment areas where EPA mandated a Phase II volatility standard of 7.8 psi RVP in the December 12, 1991 rulemaking, the federal 7.8 psi gasoline RVP requirement remains in effect, even after such an area is redesignated to
As explained in the December 12, 1991 rulemaking, EPA believes that relaxation of an applicable gasoline RVP standard is best accomplished in conjunction with the redesignation process. In order for an ozone nonattainment area to be redesignated as an attainment area, CAA section 107(d)(3) requires the state to make a showing, pursuant to CAA section 175A, that the area is capable of maintaining attainment for the ozone NAAQS for ten years. Depending on the area's circumstances, this maintenance plan will either demonstrate that the area is capable of maintaining attainment for ten years without the more stringent volatility standard or that the more stringent volatility standard may be necessary for the area to maintain its attainment with the ozone NAAQS. Therefore, in the context of a request for redesignation, EPA will not relax the gasoline volatility standard unless the state requests a relaxation and the maintenance plan demonstrates that the area will maintain attainment for ten years without the need for the more stringent volatility standard. Similarly, a maintenance plan may be revised to relax the gasoline volatility standard if the state requests a relaxation and the maintenance plan demonstrates that the area will maintain attainment for the duration of the maintenance plan.
On April 12, 2017, Tennessee, through the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation (TDEC or State), submitted a request to relax the Federal gasoline RVP requirement in Shelby County. The State also submitted a CAA section 110(l) non-interference demonstration for approval by EPA. The non-interference demonstration shows that the relaxation would not interfere with maintenance of the 2008 ozone NAAQS or any other applicable CAA requirement including the 2015 ozone NAAQS. Tennessee did not request relaxation of the Federal RVP standard from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi when TDEC originally submitted the CAA section 175A maintenance plan for the 2008 ozone NAAQS that was approved on June 23, 2016 (81 FR 40816).
On July 7, 2017, EPA approved Tennessee's April 12, 2017 request for approval of the CAA section 110(l) non-interference demonstration. In that rulemaking, EPA included an evaluation of Tennessee's CAA section 110(l) non-interference demonstration for Shelby County.
In this action, EPA is proposing to approve Tennessee's request to relax the summertime ozone season gasoline RVP standard for Shelby County from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi. Specifically, EPA is proposing to amend the applicable gasoline RVP standard to allow the gasoline RVP requirements at 40 CFR 80.27(a)(2) for Shelby County to change from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi. This proposal is based on EPA's separate approval of Tennessee's April 12, 2017 request for a non-interference demonstration approval and EPA's June 23, 2016 approval of the redesignation request and maintenance plan for the 2008 ozone NAAQS as described above.
This action is not a “significant regulatory action” under the terms of Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and therefore was not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action is not expected to be an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866.
This action does not impose any new information collection burden under the provisions of the
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. The small entities subject to the requirements of this action are refiners, importers or blenders of gasoline that choose to produce or import low RVP gasoline for sale in Tennessee, and gasoline distributers and retail stations in Tennessee. This action, if finalized, would relax the Federal RVP standard for gasoline sold in Shelby County, Tennessee during the summertime ozone season (June 1 to September 15 of each year) to allow the RVP for gasoline sold in this county to rise from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi. This rule does not impose any requirements or create impacts on small entities beyond those, if any, already required by or resulting from the CAA section 211(h) Volatility Control program. Therefore, this action would have no net regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities.
This proposed rule does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action would implement mandates that are specifically and explicitly set forth in CAA section 211(h) without the exercise of any policy discretion by EPA.
This action does not have federalism implications. It would not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). This proposed rule would affect only those refiners, importers or blenders of gasoline that choose to produce or import low RVP gasoline for sale in Shelby County and gasoline distributers and retail stations in the Area. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action would not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations because it does not affect the applicable ozone NAAQS which establish the level of protection provided to human health or the environment. This rule would relax the applicable volatility standard of gasoline during the summer, possibly resulting in slightly higher mobile source emissions. However, Tennessee has demonstrated in its non-interference demonstration that this action will not interfere with maintenance of the ozone NAAQS in Shelby County for the 2008 ozone NAAQS, or with any other applicable requirement of the CAA. Therefore, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority or low-income populations are not an anticipated result. The results of this evaluation are contained in EPA's proposed and final rules for Tennessee's non-interference demonstration. A copy of Tennessee's April 12, 2017 letter requesting that EPA relax the gasoline RVP standard, including the technical analysis demonstrating that the less stringent gasoline RVP would not interfere with continued maintenance of the 2008 ozone NAAQS in Shelby County, or with any other applicable CAA requirement, has been placed in the public docket for this action.
The statutory authority for this action is granted to EPA by sections 211(h) and 301(a) of the Clean Air Act, as amended; 42 U.S.C. 7545(h) and 7601(a).
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedures, Air pollution control, Fuel additives, Gasoline, Motor vehicle and motor vehicle engines, Motor vehicle pollution, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
EPA is proposing to update the list of North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes subject to reporting under the Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) to reflect the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) 2017 NAICS code revision. As a result of this proposal, facilities would be required to use 2017 NAICS codes when reporting to TRI beginning with TRI reporting forms that are due on July 1, 2018, covering releases and other waste management quantities for the 2017 calendar year. EPA is also modifying the list of exceptions and limitations associated with NAICS codes in the CFR for TRI reporting purposes by deleting the descriptive text. EPA believes that the proposed amendments are non-controversial and does not expect to receive any adverse comments. Therefore, in addition to this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, in the “Rules and Regulations” section of today's
Comments must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2007-0197, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
For further information about the proposed update to TRI's covered NAICS codes, please see the information provided in the direct final action, with the same title, that is located in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this issue of the
Environmental protection, Community right-to-know, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Toxic chemicals.
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA), USDA.
Notice and request for comments.
GIPSA requests comments on the applicants for designation to provide official services in the South Carolina Area that was open for designation. South Carolina Department of Agriculture (SCDA) applied for the entire State of South Carolina. D.R. Schaal Agency, Inc. (Schaal) applied for all or part of the State of South Carolina.
GIPSA will consider comments received by September 18, 2017.
We invite you to submit comments on these applicants. You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Sharon Lathrop, 816-891-0415 or
In the May 22, 2017,
There were two applicants for the South Carolina Area, comprised of the entire State of South Carolina, except those export port locations which are serviced by SCDA, which was open for designation: SCDA applied for the entire area currently assigned to them. Schaal applied for the entire State or the following nine counties within the State of South Carolina: Allendale, Bamberg, Barnwell, Beaufort, Charleston, Colleton, Georgetown, Hampton, and Jasper.
GIPSA is publishing this notice to provide interested persons the opportunity to present comments concerning the applicants. Commenters are encouraged to submit reasons and pertinent data for support or objection to the designation of the applicants. All comments must be submitted to QACD at the above address or at
7 U.S.C. 71-87k.
The City of Phoenix, Arizona, grantee of FTZ 75, submitted an application, docketed on May 16, 2017, requesting expanded subzone status for the facilities of Conair Corporation (Conair), Subzone 75A, located in Glendale, Arizona (82 FR 25239, June 1, 2017). The City of Phoenix subsequently requested and obtained approval for the expanded subzone status for Conair under the alternative site framework. As a result, the City of Phoenix has withdrawn the initial application requesting expanded subzone status. For further information, contact Christopher Kemp at
On August 24, 2016, in the U.S. District Court for the District of Massachusetts, David L. Maricola (“Maricola”) was convicted of violating Section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778 (2012)) (“AECA”). Specifically, Maricola was convicted of, among other things, 19 counts of knowingly and willfully exporting and attempting to export from the United States to various countries defense articles designated on the United States Munitions List, namely, firearm parts, without the required U.S. Department of State licenses. Maricola was sentenced to 33 months in prison, three years of supervised release, and a $3,200 assessment.
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Maricola's conviction for violating the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Maricola to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from Maricola.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Maricola's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Maricola's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Maricola had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly,
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
On April 9, 2015, in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of Florida, Alexandre Dos Anjos Oliveira (“Oliveira”) was convicted of violating Section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778 (2012)) (“AECA”). Specifically, Oliveira was convicted of knowingly and willfully attempting to export from the United States to Brazil firearm barrels, cylinders, receivers, components, parts, and accessories designated as defense articles on the United States Munitions List, without the required State Department licenses. Oliveira was sentenced to 38 months in prison, one year of supervised release, and a $100 assessment.
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Oliveira's conviction for violating Section 38 of the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Oliveira to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from Oliveira.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Oliveira's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of five (5) years from the date of Oliveira's conviction. I also have decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Oliveira had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly, it is hereby
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
On December 14, 2016, in the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia, Mansour Moghtaderi Zadeh, a/k/a Mansour Zadeh, a/k/a Mita Zarek, a/k/a Mita Zadeh (“Zadeh”), was convicted of violating the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701,
Section 766.25 of the Regulations provides, in pertinent part, that “[t]he Director of the Office of Exporter Services, in consultation with the Director of the Office of Export Enforcement, may deny the export privileges of any person who has been convicted of a violation of the EAA [Export Administration Act], the EAR, or any order, license, or authorization issued thereunder; any regulation, license or order issued under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701-1706); 18 U.S.C. 793, 794 or 798; section 4(b) of the Internal Security Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 783(b)); or section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778).” 15 CFR 766.25(a);
BIS has received notice of Zadeh's conviction for violating IEEPA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Zadeh to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has received a seven-page submission from Zadeh, via his U.S. counsel.
Based upon my review, including of Zadeh's submission, and my consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Zadeh's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of ten (10) years from the date of Zadeh's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Zadeh had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly,
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
On August 19, 2016, in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of Florida, Wenxia Man, a/k/a Wency Man (“Wenxia Man”), was convicted of violating Section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778 (2012)) (“AECA”). Specifically, Wenxia Man was convicted of knowingly and willfully conspiring to export and cause
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Wenxia Man's conviction for violating the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Wenxia Man to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from Wenxia Man.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Wenxia Man's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Wenxia Man's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Wenxia Man had an interest at the time of her conviction.
Accordingly,
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
On December 17, 2014, in the U.S. District Court for the Middle District of Florida, Tampa Division, Yasser Ahmad Obeid (“Obeid”) was convicted of
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Obeid's conviction for violating Section 38 of the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Obeid to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from Obeid.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Obeid's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Obeid's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Obeid had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly,
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
On February 8, 2016, in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of Texas, Ricardo Humberto Varela (“Varela”) was convicted of violating Section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778 (2012)) (“AECA”). Specifically, Varela was convicted of intentionally and knowingly conspiring and agreeing to knowingly and willfully export and cause to be exported from the United States to Mexico defense articles designated on the United States Munitions List, namely, 5.56 caliber rifles, without the required U.S. Department of State licenses. Varela was sentenced to 46 months in prison, three years of supervised release, and a $200 assessment.
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Varela's conviction for violating the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Varela to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from Varela.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Varela's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of five years from the date of Varela's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Varela had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly,
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
On November 30, 2015, in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of Texas, Jose Luis Benavides-Cira was convicted of violating Section 38 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2778 (2012)) (“AECA”). Specifically, Jose Luis Benavides-Cira was convicted of intentionally and knowingly conspiring and agreeing with other persons to knowingly and willfully export, and cause to be exported, from the United States to Mexico defense articles designated on the United States Munitions List, namely, 5.56 caliber rifles, without the required U.S. Department of State licenses. Jose Luis Benavides-Cira was sentenced to 46 months in prison and a $100 assessment.
Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or “Regulations”)
BIS has received notice of Jose Luis Benavides-Cira's conviction for violating Section 38 of the AECA, and has provided notice and an opportunity for Jose Luis Benavides-Cira to make a written submission to BIS, as provided in Section 766.25 of the Regulations. BIS has not received a submission from Jose Luis Benavides-Cira.
Based upon my review and consultations with BIS's Office of Export Enforcement, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Jose Luis Benavides-Cira's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of five years from the date of Jose Luis Benavides-Cira's conviction. I have also decided to revoke all licenses issued pursuant to the Act or Regulations in which Jose Luis Benavides-Cira had an interest at the time of his conviction.
Accordingly,
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding its administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain crystalline silicon photovoltaic products from the People's Republic of China (PRC) covering the period February 1, 2016, through January 31, 2017.
Applicable August 17, 2017.
Aleksandras Nakutis, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement & Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3147.
On February 8, 2017, the Department published in the
On April 10, 2017, the Department published in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the parties that requested a review withdraw the request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. Topray Solar and the petitioner withdrew their requests for review by the 90-day deadline, and no other parties requested an administrative review of this order. Therefore, we are rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain crystalline silicon photovoltaic products from the PRC covering the period February 1, 2016 to January 31, 2017.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Antidumping duties shall be assessed at an amount equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions directly to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as the only reminder to importers of their responsibility, under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2), to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement may result in the presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is published in accordance with section 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
The Chief Operating Officer for Federal Student Aid announces the variable interest rates for the period July 1, 2017, through June 30, 2018, for certain loans made under the Federal Family Education Loan (FFEL) Program. The Chief Operating Officer takes this action to give notice of FFEL Program loan variable interest rates to the public.
This notice is applicable August 17, 2017.
Rene Tiongquico, U.S. Department of
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Individuals with disabilities can obtain this document in an accessible format (
Section 427A of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA) (20 U.S.C. 1077a), provides formulas for determining the interest rates charged to borrowers on loans made under the FFEL Program, including Federal Subsidized and Unsubsidized Stafford Loans, Federal PLUS Loans, and Federal Consolidation Loans.
The FFEL Program includes loans with variable interest rates and loans with fixed interest rates. Most loans made under the FFEL Program before July 1, 2006, have variable interest rates that change each year. In most cases, the variable interest rate formula that applies to a particular loan depends on the date of the first disbursement of the loan. The variable rates are determined annually and are effective for each 12-month period beginning July 1 of one year and ending June 30 of the following year.
Under section 427A(l) of the HEA, FFEL Program loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2006, and before July 1, 2010, have a fixed interest rate. Interest rates for these loans may be found in a
Federal Consolidation Loans made prior to November 13, 1997, and on or after October 1, 1998, have a fixed interest rate that is based on the weighted average of the loans that are consolidated. Interest rates for Federal Consolidation Loans made between November 13, 1997, and September 30, 1998, are provided in Chart 3.
FFEL variable interest rates are based on formulas that use the bond equivalent rate of the 91-day Treasury bill auctioned at the final auction held before June 1 of each year plus a statutorily established add-on. These formulas apply to: All Federal Subsidized and Unsubsidized Stafford Loans first disbursed before October 1, 1992, that have been converted to variable rate loans; all Federal Subsidized and Unsubsidized Stafford Loans first disbursed on or after October 1, 1992, and before July 1, 2006; Federal PLUS Loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 1998, and before July 1, 2006; and Federal Consolidation Loans for which the Federal Consolidation Loan application was received on or after November 13, 1997, and before October 1, 1998. In each case, the calculated rate is capped by a maximum interest rate. The bond equivalent rate of the 91-day Treasury bills auctioned on May 30, 2017, which is used to calculate the interest rates on these loans, is 0.976 percent rounded up to 0.98 percent.
For Federal PLUS loans first disbursed before July 1, 1998, the interest rate is based on the weekly average of the one-year constant maturity Treasury yield, as published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System for the last day of the calendar week ending on or before June 26 of each year, plus a statutory add-on percentage. The calculated rate is capped by a maximum interest rate. The weekly average of the one-year constant maturity Treasury yield published on June 26, 2017, which is used to calculate the interest rate on these loans, is 1.22 percent.
For Federal Consolidation loans for which the application was received by the lender on or after November 13, 1997, the interest rate that includes portions of Federal Consolidation Loans attributable to loans made by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under subpart I of part A of title VII of the Public Health Service Act, is based on the average of the bond equivalent rates of the 91-day Treasury bills auctioned for the quarter ending June 30, 2017, plus a statutory add-on percentage. There is no maximum interest rate for these loans. The average of the bond equivalent rates of the 91-day Treasury bill auctioned for the quarter ending on June 30, 2017, which is used to calculate the interest rate on these loans, is 0.92 percent.
This notice includes three charts containing specific information on the calculation of variable interest rates for loans made under the FFEL Program:
Chart 1 contains information on the interest rates for Federal Subsidized and Unsubsidized Stafford Loans that were made as fixed-rate loans, but were subsequently converted to variable-rate loans.
Chart 2 contains information on the interest rates for variable-rate Federal Subsidized and Unsubsidized Stafford Loans.
Chart 3 contains information on the interest rates for variable-rate Federal PLUS Loans, certain Federal Consolidation Loans, and Consolidation Loans that include loans made by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under subpart I of part A of title VII of the Public Health Service Act.
The FFEL Program loans represented by the second row of the chart were only made to “new borrowers” on or after July 23, 1992. Whether the FFEL Program loans represented by the third through sixth rows of Chart 1 were made to a specific borrower depends on the interest rate on the borrower's existing loans (see the “Original Fixed Interest Rate” column in Chart 1) at the time the borrower received the loan(s) on or after July 23, 1992, and prior to July 1, 1994.
In Charts 2 and 3, a dagger following a date in a cohort field indicates that the
The FFEL Program loans represented in the first row in Chart 2 were only made to “new borrowers” on or after October 1, 1992. The FFEL Program loans represented in the second row in Chart 2 were only made to “new borrowers” on or after July 1, 1994. The FFEL Program loans represented in the third row in Chart 2 must—in addition to having been first disbursed on or after July 1, 1994, and before July 1, 1995—have been made for a period of enrollment that began on or included July 1, 1994.
The last row in Chart 3 refers to portions of Federal Consolidation Loans attributable to loans made by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under subpart I of part A of title VII of the Public Health Service Act.
No new loans have been made under the FFEL Program since June 30, 2010.
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
This notice is applicable August 17, 2017.
The Chief Operating Officer for Federal Student Aid announces the interest rates for loans made under the William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan (Direct Loan) Program prior to July 1, 2013. For loans that have a variable interest rate, the rates announced in this notice are in effect for the period July 1, 2017, through June 30, 2018. The Chief Operating Officer takes this action to give notice of Direct Loan interest rates to the public.
Rene Tiongquico, U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE., 11th floor, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 377-4270 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Individuals with disabilities can obtain this document in an accessible format (
Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Number: 84.268.
Section 455(b) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA) (20 U.S.C. 1087e(b)), specifies the interest rates charged to borrowers for Federal Direct Subsidized Stafford/Ford Loans (Direct Subsidized Loans), Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford/Ford Loans (Direct Unsubsidized Loans), Federal Direct PLUS Loans (Direct PLUS Loans), and Federal Direct Consolidation Loans (Direct Consolidation Loans), collectively referred to as “Direct Loans.” The interest rates for Direct Loans may be variable or fixed.
Direct Subsidized Loans, Direct Unsubsidized Loans, and Direct PLUS Loans that were first disbursed before July 1, 2006, and Direct Consolidation Loans for which the application was received before February 1, 1999, have variable interest rates that are determined each year in accordance with formulas specified in section 455(b) of the HEA. The variable interest rate formula that applies to a particular loan depends on the date of the first disbursement of the loan or, for some Direct Consolidation Loans, the date the application for the loan was received. The variable rates are determined annually and are effective for each 12-month period beginning July 1 of one year and ending June 30 of the following year.
Except for Direct PLUS Loans that were first disbursed before July 1, 1998, the variable interest rates for most types of Direct Loans are based on formulas that use the bond equivalent rates of the 91-day Treasury bills auctioned at the final auction held before June 1 of each year, plus a statutory add-on percentage. In each case, the calculated rate is capped by a maximum interest rate. The bond equivalent rate of the 91-day Treasury bills auctioned on May 30, 2017, which is used to calculate the interest rates on these loans, is 0.976 percent rounded up to 0.98 percent.
The interest rate for Direct PLUS Loans that were first disbursed on or after July 1, 1994, and before July 1, 1998, is based on the weekly average of the one-year constant maturity Treasury yield, as published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System for the last day of the calendar week ending on or before June 26 of each year, plus a statutory add-on percentage. The calculated rate is capped by a maximum interest rate. The weekly average of the one-year constant maturity Treasury yield published on June 26, 2017, which is used to calculate the interest rate on these loans, is 1.22 percent.
Charts 1 through 4 in this notice show the interest rates for variable-rate Direct Loans that are in effect for the period July 1, 2017, through June 30, 2018.
Direct Subsidized Loans, Direct Unsubsidized Loans, and Direct PLUS Loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2006, and before July 1, 2013, and Direct Consolidation Loans for which the application was received on or after February 1, 1999, have fixed interest rates. The fixed interest rates for Direct Subsidized Loans, Direct Unsubsidized Loans, and Direct PLUS Loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2006, and before July 1, 2013, and Direct Consolidation Loans for which the application was received on or after February 1, 1999 may be found in a
Interest rates for Direct Subsidized Loans, Direct Unsubsidized Loans, and Direct PLUS Loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2013, and before July 1, 2018, are published in earlier
• For loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2013, and prior to July 1, 2014, see 78 FR 59011.
• For loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2014, and prior to July 1, 2015, see 79 FR 37301.
• For loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2015, and prior to July 1, 2016, see 80 FR 42488.
• For loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2016, and prior to July 1, 2017, see 81 FR 38159.
• For loans first disbursed on or after July 1, 2017, and prior to July 1, 2018, see 82 FR 29062.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On August 4, 2017, the Village of Waterbury filed a notice of intent to construct a qualifying conduit hydropower facility, pursuant to section 30 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), as amended by section 4 of the Hydropower Regulatory Efficiency Act of 2013 (HREA). The proposed Guptil Road 4.0 kW In-conduit Hydroelectric Net-Metered Project (Guptil Road Project) would have an installed capacity of 4 kilowatts (kW), and would be located along a 12-inch diameter potable water pipeline. The project would be located near the Village of Waterbury in Washington County, Vermont.
A qualifying conduit hydropower facility is one that is determined or deemed to meet all of the criteria shown in the table below.
Deadline for filing motions to intervene is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.
Anyone may submit comments or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210 and 385.214. Any motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified deadline date for the particular proceeding.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
Take notice that on August 2, 2017, Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC (Florida Gas), 1300 Main Street, Houston, Texas 77002, filed in the above referenced Docket, a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205, 157.208, and 157.216 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA) for authorization to abandon approximately 6.7 miles of the 8-inch-diameter Rinker Lateral, associated measurement and regulation station, and appurtenant facilities, all located in Miami-Dade County, Florida (Rinker Facilities Abandonment Project), all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection.
The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions concerning this prior notice request should be directed to Blair Lichtenwalter, Senior Director of Certificates, Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC, 1300 Main St., Houston, Texas, 77002, or call (713) 989-2605, or fax (713) 989-1205, or via email
Specifically, Florida Gas proposes to abandon in place the Rinker Lateral, which originates downstream of Lateral Line Valve (LLV) 20-90B at Mile Post 914.0 on Florida Gas's mainline and the Rinker Measurement and Regulation Station located at Rinker Portland Cement Corp's plant. Florida Gas also proposes to abandon by removal LLV 20-90B. Florida Gas states that Rinker Lateral and facilities have not been used to provide interruptible or firm transportation in over two years. Florida Gas further states that proposed abandonment would eliminate additional capital and/or operating expenditures which could potentially result in an increased net operating loss for Florida Gas as time goes on.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Any person may, within 60 days after the issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. Any person filing to intervene or the Commission's staff may, pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's Regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA) (18 CFR 157.205) file a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the time allowed for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests, and interventions via the internet in lieu of paper. See 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii) and the instructions on the Commission's Web site (
Take notice that on July 31, 2017, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC (Columbia), 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 700, Houston, Texas 77002-2700, filed in Docket No. CP17-477-000 a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.216 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), as amended, requesting authorization to abandon two injection/withdrawal (I/W) wells, along with the associated pipelines and appurtenances at its Lucas Storage Field, located in Ashland and Richland Counties, Ohio. Columbia states that the Lucas 10697 and 10722 I/W wells have historically performed poorly in relation to other wells in the Lucas Storage Field and, based the age of the wells, the wells would require an extensive case replacement job. Columbia asserts that the proposed abandonment of the Lucas 10697 well includes the abandonment of 977 feet of 3.5-inch-diameter pipeline and appurtenances and the proposed abandonment of the Lucas 10722 well includes the abandonment of 4.5-inch-diameter pipeline and appurtenances. Columbia avers that there will be no change to the existing boundary, total inventory, reservoir pressure, reservoir and buffer boundaries, or the certificated capacity of the Lucas Storage Field as a result of the proposed abandonment, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Linda Farquhar, Manager, Project Determinations & Regulatory Administration, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC, 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 700, Houston, Texas, 77002-2700, by telephone at (832) 320-5685, by fax at (832) 320-6685, or by email at
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to section 157.205 of the regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205), a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for filing a protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentary, will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that on August 3, 2017, Ohio River System LLC (ORS), 8111 Westchester Drive, Suite 600, Dallas, Texas 75225, filed in Docket No. CP17-482-000 an application pursuant to section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) requesting a limited jurisdiction certificate in order to provide jurisdictional transportation service on its Ohio River System gathering facilities (ORS System). ORS further seeks a determination by the Commission that the proposed interstate transportation service will not otherwise affect the status of the ORS System as a gathering system not otherwise subject to the Commission's jurisdiction or affect the non-jurisdictional status of any other operation in which ORS is currently engaged. ORS proposes to provide 150,000 million British thermal units per day of interstate transportation service, via displacement, for Rover Pipeline LLC (Rover) to allow Rover's shippers to deliver gas to Rockies Express Pipeline LLC's system utilizing the ORS System. The Rover system will interconnect with the ORS System near Cadiz, Ohio and no new facilities are proposed to be constructed, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Alan Vaina, Senior Vice President, Energy Transfer Partners, L.P., 6051 Wallace Road Ext, Suite 399, Wexford, Pennsylvania 15090, by telephone at (878) 332-2220, or by email at
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit seven copies of filings made in the proceeding with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that on August 10, 2017, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.206 and 385.212 (2017) and sections 206 and 306 of the Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 824(e) and 825(e), Piedmont Municipal Power Agency (Complainant) filed a formal complaint against Duke Energy Carolinas, LLC (Respondent) alleging that, Respondent assessed and collected charges that violate the service agreement on file with the Commission, all as more fully explained in the complaint.
The Complainant states that certifies copies of the complaint were served on the contacts for Respondent as listed on the Commission's list of Corporate Officials.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on August 4, 2017, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC (Columbia), 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 700, Houston, Texas 77002-2700, filed in Docket No. CP17-483-000 a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.216 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Columbia's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP83-76-000, to abandon approximately six miles of 6-inch-diameter steel pipe (Line H-107), along with the associated appurtenances and exposures, located in Hocking County, Ohio.
Columbia asserts that the proposed abandonment will not affect its ability to maintain service to its customers. Columbia Gas of Ohio, the Local Distribution Company, will be running a new line to the town of Carbon Hill to continue service to all customers and the abandonment of Line H-107 will take place after the new line is in place. Columbia estimates the cost of the abandonment to be $824,672, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Linda Farquhar, Manager, Project Determinations & Regulatory Administration, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC, 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 700, Houston, Texas, 77002-2700, by telephone at (832) 320-5685, by facsimile at (832) 320-6685, or by email at
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to section 157.205 of the regulations under the
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding, or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commenters, will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that on August 1, 2017, Texas Gas Transmission, LLC (Texas Gas), 9 Greenway Plaza, Suite 2800, Houston, Texas 77046 filed a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.216(b) of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act for authorization to abandon certain natural gas pipeline assets, ancillary facilities and appurtenances, located in Terrebonne Parish, Louisiana and Louisiana State waters. Specifically, Texas Gas proposes to (1) abandon in place approximately 3.61 miles of 8.625-inch-diameter pipeline, known as the Bay Junop to Bay Round 8-inch pipeline; (2) abandon in place approximately 10.05 miles and abandon by removal approximately 0.24 miles of 8.625-inch-diameter pipeline, known as the Bay Round to Block 8 8-inch pipeline; and (3) abandon by removal the Bay Round Platform and the Brammer Old Camp Pass Platform. These Facilities have been idled since 2012 and abandonment avoids the ongoing maintenance costs of unused existing natural gas pipeline assets. There will be no impact to any customer's service as a result of the abandonment, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions regarding this Application should be directed to Kathy D. Fort, Manager, Certificates and Tariffs, Texas Gas Transmission, LLC, 610 West 2nd Street, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, by phone (270) 688-6825, or by email at
Any person may, within 60 days after the issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. Any person filing to intervene or the Commission's staff may, pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205) file a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the time allowed for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenter's will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with he Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenter's will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentary, will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests, and interventions via the internet in lieu of paper. See 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii) and the instructions on the Commission's Web site (
Take notice that on August 10, 2017, pursuant to section 211 of the Federal Power Act
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Canton Mountain Wind, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is August 30, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has submitted an information collection request (ICR), for the “Plywood and Composite Wood Products National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) Risk and Technology Review (RTR)” (EPA ICR No. 2552.01, OMB Control No. 2060—NEW) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a request for approval of a new collection. Public comments were previously requested via the
Additional comments may be submitted on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OAR-2016-0243, to (1) EPA online using
The EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change, including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
John Bradfield, Sector Policies and Programs Division (E143-03), Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, NC 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-3062; fax number: (919) 541-3470; email address:
Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
The ICR will provide specific, required information, including emission inventories, compliance demonstrations, process changes, and information about control technologies/practices adopted since the application of maximum achievable control technology (MACT). The ICR will be sent to all known operators of PCWP facilities that are major sources for hazardous air pollutants (HAP) regulated by the PCWP NESHAP and synthetic area sources that may have used technology to avoid major source status triggering NESHAP applicability. The information collection seeks to collect facility-level information (
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has received Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for a revision of a currently approved public information collection pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number, and no person is required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. Comments concerning the accuracy of the burden estimates and any suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the person listed in the
Cathy Williams, Office of the Managing Director, at (202) 418-2918, or email:
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than September 13, 2017.
1.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than September 5, 2017.
1.
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of delisting.
The Patient Safety Rule authorizes AHRQ, on behalf of the Secretary of HHS, to list as a PSO an entity that attests that it meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for listing. A PSO can be “delisted” by the Secretary if it is found to no longer meet the requirements of the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule, when a PSO chooses to voluntarily relinquish its status as a PSO for any reason, or when a PSO's listing expires. AHRQ has accepted a notification of voluntary relinquishment from the Specialty Benchmarks PSO of its status as a PSO, and has delisted the PSO accordingly.
The directories for both listed and delisted PSOs are ongoing and
Both directories can be accessed electronically at the following HHS Web site:
Eileen Hogan, Center for Quality Improvement and Patient Safety, AHRQ, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 06N94B, Rockville, MD 20857; Telephone (toll free): (866) 403-3697; Telephone (local): (301) 427-1111; TTY (toll free): (866) 438-7231; TTY (local): (301) 427-1130; Email:
The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005, 42 U.S.C. 299b-21 to b-26, (Patient Safety Act) and the related Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Final Rule, 42 CFR part 3 (Patient Safety Rule), published in the
HHS issued the Patient Safety Rule to implement the Patient Safety Act. AHRQ administers the provisions of the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule relating to the listing and operation of PSOs. The Patient Safety Rule authorizes AHRQ to list as a PSO an entity that attests that it meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for listing. A PSO can be “delisted” if it is found to no longer meet the requirements of the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule, when a PSO chooses to voluntarily relinquish its status as a PSO for any reason, or when a PSO's listing expires. Section 3.108(d) of the Patient Safety Rule requires AHRQ to provide public notice when it removes an organization from the list of federally approved PSOs.
AHRQ has accepted a notification from the Specialty Benchmarks PSO, a component entity of Market Share, LLC, PSO number P0113, to voluntarily relinquish its status as a PSO. Accordingly, the Specialty Benchmarks PSO was delisted effective at 12:00 Midnight ET (2400) on July 12, 2017.
The Specialty Benchmarks PSO has patient safety work product (PSWP) in its possession. The PSO will meet the requirements of section 3.108(c)(2)(i) of the Patient Safety Rule regarding notification to providers that have reported to the PSO and of section 3.108(c)(2)(ii) regarding disposition of PSWP consistent with section 3.108(b)(3). According to section 3.108(b)(3) of the Patient Safety Rule, the PSO has 90 days from the effective date of delisting and revocation to complete the disposition of PSWP that is currently in the PSO's possession.
More information on PSOs can be obtained through AHRQ's PSO Web site at
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the information collection project titled “Assessing Education Agency Staff Perceptions of School Climate and Youth Access to Services.” This study provides in-depth assessment of HIV and STD prevention efforts in three local education agencies funded by CDC's Division of Adolescent and School Health.
Written comments must be received on or before October 16, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2017-0056 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Leroy A. Richardson, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information
Assessing Education Agency Staff Perceptions of School Climate and Youth Access to Services (OMB Control Number 0920-1048, expiration date 2/28/2018)—Revision—Division of Adolescent and School Health (DASH), National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
HIV infections remain high among young men who have sex with men (YMSM). The estimated number of new HIV infections increased between 2008 and 2010 both overall and among MSM ages 13 to 24. Furthermore, sexual risk behaviors associated with HIV, other sexually transmitted disease (STD), and pregnancy often emerge in adolescence. For example, 2015 Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System (YRBSS) data revealed 41.2% of U.S. high school students reported having had sex, and among those who had sex in the previous three months, only 56.9% reported having used a condom during last sexual intercourse. In addition, 2015 YRBSS data revealed high school students identifying as gay, lesbian, and bisexual were more likely to report engaging in sexual risk-taking behaviors than heterosexual students.
Given the disproportionate risk for HIV among YMSM ages 13-24, it is important to find ways to reach the younger youth (
However, conducting HIV and STD prevention work (particularly work that is designed to specifically meet the needs of YMSM), can be challenging. School is not always a welcoming environment for lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and questioning (LGBTQ) youth. Harassment, bullying, and verbal and physical assault are often reported, and such unsupportive environments and victimization among LGBT youth are associated with a variety of negative outcomes, including truancy, substance use, poor mental health, HIV and STD risk, and even suicide.
The CDC requests a one-year OMB approval for the revision of the information collection entitled, “Assessing Education Agency Staff Perceptions of School Climate and Youth Access to Services.” The information collection uses 2 separate, but complementary, information collections to conduct assessment of HIV and STD prevention efforts that are taking place in three local education agencies (LEA) funded by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Division of Adolescent and School Health (DASH) under strategy 4 (School-Centered HIV/STD Prevention for Young Men Who Have Sex with Men) of PS13-1308:
The first information collection will involve collecting information from a total of up to 735 LEA employees in 3 LEAs through a Web-based instrument tailored to each LEA. The instrument will include items that ask education agency staff about professional development, referral practices, community linkages/partners, school climate for LGBTQ youth, school policies and practices, and staff comfort levels in helping address the health needs of YMSM.
The second information collection will be conducted in only 1 LEA (Broward County Public Schools) and is designed to provide an in-depth assessment of one LEA as a way to supplement the Web-based data collection with more detailed information. This information collection will involve in-person interviews with up to 44 LEA employees (2 district level employees, and up to 6 school level employees in each of 7 schools) to learn about six domains that can impact school climate: Policy, practice, programs, professional development, place, and pedagogy.
Both the Web-based instrument and in-person interviews will be administered in the 2017-2018 school year as the final data collection in a series of data collections for the 5-year PS13-1308 cooperative agreement. Although some staff may have participated in previous years' data collections, this is not a longitudinal design and individual staff member responses will not be tracked across the years. No personally identifiable information will be collected.
All school staff members will receive informed consent forms prior to participation in the information collection. The consent form explains the study and also explains participants may choose not to complete the Web-based instrument or participate in the interviews with no penalty and no impact on their job or relationship with the LEA. Participation is completely voluntary.
For the Web-based instrument, the estimated burden per response ranges from 20-25 minutes. This variation in burden is due to the slight variability in skip patterns that may occur with certain responses and variations in the reading speed of respondents. The burden estimates presented here are based on the assumption of a 25-minute response time per response. The estimated annualized burden of this data collection is 306 hours for respondents. There are no costs to respondents other than their time.
For the Web-based instrument, the estimated burden per response ranges from 60-90 minutes, depending on whether the respondent is a district-level administrator, a school-level administrator, or another school staff member. The burden estimates
The two information collections combine for a total estimated annualized burden of 367 hours for respondents.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30-days of the date of this publication.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to the: Office of Management and Budget, Office of Regulatory Affairs,
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments, contact: The Division of Program Coordination, Planning, and Strategic Initiatives, OD, NIH, Building 1, Room 260, 1 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892; or call non-toll-free number 301-402-9852; or email your request, including your address, to
The Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health, may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 10.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice lists communities where the addition or modification of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or the regulatory floodway (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations), as shown on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) for each community, is appropriate because of new scientific or technical data. The FIRM, and where applicable, portions of the FIS report, have been revised to reflect these flood hazard determinations through issuance of a Letter of Map Revision (LOMR). The LOMR will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings. For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown in the table below and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
These flood hazard determinations will become effective on the dates listed in the table below and revise the FIRM panels and FIS report in effect prior to this determination for the listed communities.
From the date of the second publication of notification of these changes in a newspaper of local circulation, any person has 90 days in which to request through the community that the Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation reconsider the changes. The flood hazard determination information may be changed during the 90-day period.
The affected communities are listed in the table below. Revised flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Submit comments and/or appeals to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
The specific flood hazard determinations are not described for each community in this notice. However, the online location and local community map repository address where the flood hazard determination information is available for inspection is provided.
Any request for reconsideration of flood hazard determinations must be submitted to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
The modifications are made pursuant to section 201 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
These flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. The flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.
The affected communities are listed in the following table. Flood hazard determination information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance No. 97.022, “Flood Insurance.”
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications for a permit to conduct activities intended to enhance the survival of endangered or threatened species. Federal law prohibits certain activities with endangered species unless a permit is obtained.
We must receive any written comments on or before September 18, 2017.
Send written comments by U.S. mail to the Regional Director, Attn: Carlita Payne, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Ecological Services, 5600 American Blvd. West, Suite 990, Bloomington, MN 55437-1458; or by electronic mail to
Carlita Payne, (612) 713-5343.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications for a permit to conduct activities intended to enhance the survival of endangered or threatened
The Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
A permit granted by us under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA authorizes the permittee to conduct activities with U.S. endangered or threatened species for scientific purposes, enhancement of propagation or survival, or interstate commerce (the latter only in the event that it facilitates scientific purposes or enhancement of propagation or survival). Our regulations implementing section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA for these permits are found at 50 CFR 17.22 for endangered wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.32 for threatened wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.62 for endangered plant species, and 50 CFR 17.72 for threatened plant species.
We invite local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies and the public to comment on the following applications. Please refer to the permit number when you submit comments. Documents and other information the applicants have submitted with the applications are available for review, subject to the requirements of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
Proposed activities in the following permit requests are for the recovery and enhancement of survival of the species in the wild.
The proposed activities in the requested permits qualify as categorical exclusions under the National Environmental Policy Act, as provided by Department of the Interior implementing regulations in part 46 of title 43 of the CFR (43 CFR 46.205, 46.210, and 46.215).
We seek public review and comments on these permit applications. Please refer to the permit number when you submit comments. Comments and materials we receive in response to this notice are available for public inspection, by appointment, during normal business hours at the address listed in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
On the basis of the record
Pursuant to section 207.18 of the Commission's rules, the Commission also gives notice of the commencement
On June 27, 2017, Nan Ya Plastics Corporation, America, Livingston, New Jersey filed a petition with the Commission and Commerce, alleging that an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury by reason of LTFV imports of low melt polyester staple fiber from Korea and Taiwan. Accordingly, on June 27, 2017, the Commission, pursuant to section 733(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1673b(a)), instituted antidumping duty investigation Nos. 731-TA-1378-1379 (Preliminary).
Notice of the institution of the Commission's investigations and of a public conference to be held in connection therewith was given by posting copies of the notice in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, Washington, DC, and by publishing the notice in the
The Commission made these determinations pursuant to section 733(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1673b(a)). It completed and filed its determinations in these investigations on August 11, 2017. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4720 (August 2017), entitled
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Intellectual Ventures II LLC on August 11, 2017. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain thermoplastic-encapsulated electric motors, components thereof, and products and vehicles containing same II. The complaint names as respondents Aisin Seiki Co., Ltd. of Japan; Aisin Holdings of America, Inc. of Seymour, IN; Aisin Technical Center of America, Inc. of Northville, MI; Aisin World Corporation of America of Northville, MI; Asmo Co. Ltd. of Japan; ASMO North America, LLC of Statesville, NC; ASMO North Carolina, Inc. of Statesville, NC; Bayerische Motoren Werke AG of Germany; BMW of North America, LLC of Woodcliff Lake, NJ; BMW Manufacturing Co., LLC of Greer, SC; Denso Corporation of Japan; Denso International America, Inc. of Southfield, MI; Honda Motor Co., Ltd. of Japan; Honda North America, Inc. of Torrance, CA; American Honda Motor Co., Inc. of Torrance, CA; Honda of America Mfg., Inc. of Marysville, OH; Honda Manufacturing of Alabama, LLC of Lincoln, AL; Honda R & D Americas, Inc. of Torrance, CA; Mistuba Corporation of Japan; American Mitsuba Corporation of Mount Pleasant, MI; Nidec Corporation of Japan; Nidec Automotive Motor Americas, LLC of Auburn Hills, MI; Toyota Motor Corporation of Japan; Toyota Motor North America, Inc., of New York, NY; Toyota Motor Sales, U.S.A., Inc. of Torrance CA; Toyota Motor Engineering & Manufacturing North America, Inc. of Erlanger, KY; Toyota Motor Manufacturing, Indiana, Inc. of Princeton, IN; and Toyota Motor Manufacturing, Kentucky, Inc. of Georgetown, KY. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders, and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3243”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Correction of notice.
Correction is made to the December 20, 2017 hearing day in the
In the
On the basis of the record
The Commission, pursuant to sections 705(b) and 735(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b) and 19 U.S.C. 1673d(b)), instituted these investigations effective June 30, 2016, following receipt of a petition filed with the Commission and Commerce by Weldbend Corporation, Argo, Illinois and Boltex Mfg. Co., L.P., Houston, Texas. The final phase of the investigations was scheduled by the Commission following notification of preliminary determinations by Commerce that imports of finished carbon steel flanges from India were subsidized within the meaning of section 703(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1671b(b)) and that imports of finished carbon steel flanges from India and Italy were sold at LTFV within the meaning of 733(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1673b(b)).
The Commission made these determinations pursuant to sections 705(b) and 735(b) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b) and 19 U.S.C. 1673d(b)). It completed and filed its determinations in these investigations on August 14, 2017. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4717 (August 2017), entitled
By order of the Commission.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF), Department of Justice (DOJ).
Notice of granting of restoration of Federal firearms privileges.
Action Manufacturing Company (Action), has been granted relief from the disabilities imposed by Federal laws by the Director of ATF with respect to the acquisition, receipt, transfer, shipment, transportation, or possession of firearms.
Vivian S. Chu, Enforcement Programs and Services; Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice; 99 New York Avenue NE., Washington, DC 20226; telephone (202) 648-7070.
The Attorney General is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the Gun Control Act of 1968 (GCA), 18 U.S.C. Chapter 44. He has delegated that responsibility to the Director of ATF, subject to the direction of the Attorney General and the Deputy Attorney General. 28 CFR 0.130(a). ATF has promulgated regulations that implement the provisions of the GCA in 27 CFR part 478.
Section 922(g) of the GCA prohibits certain persons from shipping or transporting any firearm in interstate or foreign commerce, or receiving any firearm which has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce, or possessing any firearm in or affecting commerce. These prohibitions apply to any person who—
(1) Has been convicted in any court of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;
(2) Is a fugitive from justice;
(3) Is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance;
(4) Has been adjudicated as a mental defective or committed to a mental institution;
(5) Is an alien illegally or unlawfully in the United States; or with certain exceptions, aliens admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa;
(6) Has been discharged from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions;
(7) Having been a citizen of the United States, has renounced U.S. citizenship;
(8) Is subject to a court order that restrains the person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner or child of such intimate partner; or
(9) Has been convicted in any court of a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence.
The term “person” is defined in section 921(a)(1) as including “any individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, society, or joint stock company.” Section 925(c) of the GCA provides that a person who is prohibited from possessing, shipping, transporting, or receiving firearms or ammunition may make application to the Attorney General to remove the firearms disability imposed under section 922(g) “if it is established to his satisfaction that the circumstances regarding the disability, and the applicant's record and reputation, are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that the granting of the relief would not be contrary to the public interest.” The Attorney General has delegated the authority to grant relief from firearms disabilities to the Director of ATF.
Section 925(c) further provides that “[w]henever the Attorney General grants relief to any person pursuant to this section he shall promptly publish in the
Since 1992, Congress has prohibited ATF from expending appropriated funds to investigate or act upon applications for relief from federal firearms disabilities. However, since 1993 Congress has authorized ATF to expend appropriated funds to investigate and act upon applications filed by corporations for relief from Federal firearms disabilities.
An application to ATF for relief from Federal firearms disabilities under 18 U.S.C. 925(c) was submitted for Action. In the matter under review, Action was convicted in Federal court of crimes punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year. Specifically, Action was convicted on May 21, 2014, in the United States District Court for the Eastern District of Pennsylvania, for violations of 42 U.S.C. 6928(d)(2) and 49 U.S.C. 5124.
Pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 925(c), on May 22, 2017, Action was granted relief by ATF from the disabilities imposed by Federal law, 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(1), with respect to the acquisition, receipt, transfer, shipment, transportation, or possession of firearms as a result of these convictions. It has been established to ATF's satisfaction that the circumstances regarding Action's disabilities and its record and reputation are such that Action will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety, and that the granting of the relief would not be contrary to the public interest.
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 16, 2017.
Written comments and/or suggestion regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Cathy Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women (OVW) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 16, 2017.
Written comments and/or suggestion regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Cathy Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women (OVW) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 16, 2017.
Written comments and/or suggestion regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Cathy Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
OVW is proposing revisions to the progress reporting form to reflect statutory changes as a result of the reauthorization of grant programs in 2013 which included permitting grant funds to support the provision of legal services and the addition of new strategies to address sexual assault and special needs of victims in remote areas including providing training for Community Health aides involved in Indian Health Services programs.
(5)
(6)
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women (OVW) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 16, 2017.
Written comments and/or suggestion regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Cathy Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
OVW is proposing revisions to the progress reporting form to reflect statutory changes as a result of the reauthorization of VAWA grant programs in 2013 which added nine new purpose areas: training prosecutors; improving the response of the criminal justice system to immigrant victims; developing and promoting legislation and policies to enhance best practices for responding to domestic violence, dating violence, sexual assault, and stalking; developing Sexual Assault Forensic Examiner programs; developing Sexual Assault Response Teams or similar CCRs to sexual assault; improving investigation and prosecution of sexual assault and treatment of victims; providing HIV testing, counseling, and prophylaxis for victims; addressing sexual assault evidence backlogs including notifying and involving victims; and developing multi-disciplinary high-risk teams for reducing domestic violence and dating violence homicides.
(5)
(6)
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women (OVW) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 16, 2017.
Written comments and/or suggestion regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Cathy Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
OVW is proposing revisions to the progress reporting form to reflect statutory changes as a result of the reauthorization of VAWA grant programs in 2013 which added seven new purpose areas: Developing and promoting legislation and policies to enhance best practices for responding to domestic violence, dating violence, sexual assault, and stalking; Developing Sexual Assault Response Teams and related coordinated community responses to sexual assault; improving investigation and prosecution of sexual assault cases and appropriate treatment of victims; responding to sexual assault against men, women, and youth in correctional settings; responding to backlogs of sexual assault evidence including developing protocols and policies for notifying and involving victims; improving responses to male and female victims whose ability to access traditional services and responses is affected by their sexual orientation or gender identity; and supporting prevention or educational programming (limited to five percent of the award amount). The reauthorization also ensured that domestic violence, dating violence, sexual assault, and stalking are included in all the statutory purpose areas and added legal assistance in purpose area for “victim assistance”.
(5)
(6)
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of intent to grant exclusive U.S. and foreign patent license.
NASA hereby gives notice of its intent to grant an exclusive patent license to practice the invention described and claimed in U.S. Patent No. 9,011,789, entitled “Treatment System for Removing Halogenated Compounds from Contaminated Sources” and Canadian Patent No. 2,868,843, entitled “Removing Halogenated Compounds from Contaminated Systems” (NASA Case No. KSC-13579) to ecoSPEARS, LLC having its principal place of business in Winter Springs, Florida. The aforementioned U.S. and foreign patents
The prospective exclusive license may be granted unless NASA receives written objections, including evidence and argument no later than September 1, 2017 that establish that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements regarding the licensing of federally owned inventions as set forth in the Bayh-Dole Act and implementing regulations. Competing applications completed and received by NASA no later than September 1, 2017 will also be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated exclusive license. Objections submitted in response to this notice will not be made available to the public for inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the Freedom of Information Act.
Objections relating to the prospective license may be submitted to Patent Counsel, Office of the Chief Counsel, Mail Code CC-A, NASA John F. Kennedy Space Center, Kennedy Space Center, FL 32899. Email:
Jonathan Leahy, Patent Attorney, Office of the Chief Counsel, Mail Code CC-A, NASA John F. Kennedy Space Center, Kennedy Space Center, FL 32899. Telephone: 321-867-6553; Facsimile: 321-867-1817.
This notice of intent to grant an exclusive patent license is issued in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(c)(1) and 37 CFR 404.7(b)(1). The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned to the United States of America as represented by the Administrator of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration. The prospective exclusive license will comply with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7.
Information about other NASA inventions available for licensing can be found online at
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Application for direct transfer of license; opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) received and is considering approval of an application filed by Exelon Generation Company, LLC and its wholly owned subsidiary, Exelon FitzPatrick, LLC (collectively, “the applicants”) on July 24, 2017. The applicants seek NRC's approval of the direct transfer of ownership of Facility Operating License No. DPR-59 for the James A. FitzPatrick Nuclear Power Plant (FitzPatrick) and general license for the Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation from Exelon Generation Company, LLC, to Exelon FitzPatrick, LLC. The NRC is also considering amending the renewed facility operating license for administrative purposes to reflect the proposed transfer. The application contains sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI).
Comments must be filed by September 18, 2017. A request for a hearing must be filed by September 6, 2017. Any potential party as defined in § 2.4 of title 10 of the
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Booma Venkataraman, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2934, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0177 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2017-0177 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC is considering the issuance of an order under § 50.80 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations (10 CFR), approving the direct transfer of control of FitzPatrick, currently held by Exelon Generation Company, LLC. The transfer would be to Exelon FitzPatrick, LLC. The NRC is also considering amending the renewed facility operating licenses for administrative purposes to reflect the proposed transfer.
Following approval of the proposed direct transfer of control of the license, Exelon FitzPatrick, LLC would acquire ownership of the facility. Exelon Generation Company, LLC would be responsible for the operation and maintenance of FitzPatrick.
No physical changes to FitzPatrick or operational changes are being proposed in the application.
The NRC's regulations at 10 CFR 50.80 state that no license, or any right thereunder, shall be transferred, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license, unless the Commission gives its consent in writing. The Commission will approve an application for the direct transfer of a license if the Commission determines that the proposed transferee is qualified to hold the license, and that the transfer is otherwise consistent with applicable provisions of law, regulations, and orders issued by the Commission.
Before issuance of the proposed conforming license amendment, the Commission will have made findings required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's regulations.
As provided in 10 CFR 2.1315, unless otherwise determined by the Commission with regard to a specific application, the Commission has determined that any amendment to the license of a utilization facility or to the license of an Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation, which does no more than conform the license to reflect the transfer action involves no significant hazards consideration and no genuine issue as to whether the health and safety of the public will be significantly affected. No contrary determination has been made with respect to this specific license amendment application. In light of the generic determination reflected in 10 CFR 2.1315, no public comments with respect to significant hazards considerations are being solicited, notwithstanding the general comment procedures contained in 10 CFR 50.91.
Within 30 days from the date of publication of this notice, persons may submit written comments regarding the license transfer application, as provided for in 10 CFR 2.1305. The Commission will consider and, if appropriate, respond to these comments, but such comments will not otherwise constitute part of the decisional record. Comments should be submitted as described in the
Within 20 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309(d), the petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements for standing: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.309(f), the petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated in the proceeding. Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner must provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to the specific sources and documents on which the petitioner intends to rely to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant or licensee on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions must be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy the requirements at 10 CFR 2.309(f) with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene. Parties have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that party's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions must be filed no later than 20 days from the date of publication of this notice. Petitions and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii). The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submission (E-Filling)” section of this document.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission no later than 20 days from
If a hearing is granted, any person who is not a party to the proceeding and is not affiliated with or represented by a party may, at the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of his or her position on the issues but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition), any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities that request to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions may be found in the Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC and on the NRC's Web site at
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing adjudicatory documents in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
The Commission will issue a notice or order granting or denying a hearing request or intervention petition, designating the issues for any hearing that will be held and designating the Presiding Officer. A notice granting a hearing will be published in the
For further details with respect to this application, see the application dated July 24, 2017.
Any person who desires access to proprietary, confidential commercial information that has been redacted from the application should contact the applicants by telephoning David P. Helker, Exelon Corporation, at 610-765-5525 for the purpose of negotiating a confidentiality agreement or a proposed protective order with the applicants. If no agreement can be reached, persons who desire access to this information may file a motion with the Secretary and addressed to the Commission that requests the issuance of a protective order.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on August 9, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Exchange Act provides a framework for self-regulation under which various entities involved in the securities business, including national securities exchanges and national securities associations (collectively, self-regulatory organizations or “SROs”), have primary responsibility for regulating their members or participants. The role of the Commission in this framework is primarily one of oversight; the Exchange Act charges the Commission with supervising the SROs and assuring that each complies with and advances the policies of the Exchange Act.
The Exchange Act was amended by the Commodity Futures Modernization Act of 2000 (“CFMA”). Prior to the CFMA, federal law did not allow the trading of futures on individual stocks or on narrow-based stock indexes (collectively, “security futures products”). The CFMA removed this restriction and provided that trading in security futures products would be regulated jointly by the Commission and the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”).
The Exchange Act requires all SROs to submit to the SEC any proposals to amend, add, or delete any of their rules. Certain entities (Security Futures Product Exchanges) would be notice registered national securities exchanges only because they trade security futures products. Similarly, certain entities (Limited Purpose National Securities Associations) would be limited purpose national securities associations only because their members trade security futures products. The Exchange Act, as amended by the CFMA, established a procedure for Security Futures Product Exchanges and Limited Purpose National Securities Associations to provide notice of proposed rule changes relating to certain matters.
The collection of information is designed to provide the Commission with the information necessary to determine, as required by the Exchange Act, whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules thereunder. The information is used to determine if the proposed rule change should remain in effect or abrogated.
The respondents to the collection of information are SROs. Three respondents file an average total of approximately 3 responses per year.
In addition to filing its proposed rule changes, and any amendments thereto, with the Commission, a respondent is also required to post each of its proposals and any amendments thereto, on its Web site. This process takes approximately 0.5 hours to complete per proposal and 0.5 hours per amendment. Thus, for the approximately 3 responses and 0 amendments,
Compliance with Rule 19b-7 is mandatory. Information received in response to Rule 19b-7 is not kept confidential; the information collected is public information.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The primary purpose of Rule 17a-10 is to obtain the economic and statistical data necessary for an ongoing analysis of the securities industry. Paragraph (a)(1) of Rule 17a-10 generally requires broker-dealers that are exempted from the requirement to file monthly and quarterly reports pursuant to paragraph (a) of Exchange Act Rule 17a-5 (17 CFR 240.17a-5) to file with the Commission the Facing Page, a Statement of Income (Loss), and balance sheet from Part IIA of Form X-17A-5
Paragraph (a)(2) of Rule 17a-10 requires a broker-dealer subject to Rule 17a-5(a) to submit Schedule I of Form X-17A-5 with its Form X-17A-5 for the calendar quarter ending December 31 of each year. The burden associated with filing Schedule I of Form X-17A-5 is accounted for in the PRA filing associated with Rule 17a-5.
Paragraph (b) of Rule 17a-10 provides that the provisions of paragraph (a) do not apply to members of national securities exchanges or registered national securities associations that maintain records containing the information required by Form X-17A-5 and which transmit to the Commission copies of the records pursuant to a plan which has been declared effective by the Commission.
The Commission estimates that approximately 38 broker-dealers will spend an average of 12 hours per year complying with Rule 17a-10. Thus, the total compliance burden is estimated to be approximately 456 burden-hours per year.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information at the following Web site:
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 17f-2(e) requires every member of a national securities exchange, broker, dealer, registered transfer agent, and registered clearing agency (“covered entities”) claiming an exemption from the fingerprinting requirements of Rule 17f-2 to make and keep current a statement entitled “Notice Pursuant to Rule 17f-2” (“Notice”) containing the information specified in paragraph (e)(1) to support their claim of exemption.
Rule 17f-2(e) contains no filing requirement. Instead, paragraph (e)(2) requires covered entities to keep a copy of the Notice in an easily accessible place at the organization's principal office and at the office employing the persons for whom exemptions are claimed and to make the Notice available upon request for inspection by the Commission, appropriate regulatory agency (if not the Commission), or other designated examining authority. Notices prepared pursuant to Rule 17f-2(e) must be maintained for as long as the covered entity claims an exemption from the fingerprinting requirements of Rule 17f-2. The recordkeeping requirement under Rule 17f-2(e) assists the Commission and other regulatory agencies with ensuring compliance with Rule 17f-2. This rule does not involve the collection of confidential information.
We estimate that approximately 75 respondents will incur an average burden of 30 minutes per year to comply with this rule, which represents the time it takes for a staff person at a covered entity to properly document a claimed exemption from the fingerprinting requirements of Rule 17f-2 in the required Notice and to properly retain the Notice according to the entity's record retention policies and procedures. The total annual burden for all covered entities is approximately 38 hours (75 entities × .5 hours, rounded up).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 350l
Form N-17f-2 (17 CFR 274.220) under the Investment Company Act is entitled “Certificate of Accounting of Securities and Similar Investments in the Custody of Management Investment Companies.” Form N-17f-2 is the cover sheet for the accountant examination certificates filed under rule 17f-2 (17 CFR 270.17f-2) by registered management investment companies (“funds”) maintaining custody of securities or other investments. Form N-17f-2 facilitates the filing of the accountant's examination certificates prepared under rule 17f-2. The use of the form allows the certificates to be filed electronically, and increases the accessibility of the examination certificates to both the Commission's examination staff and interested investors by ensuring that the certificates are filed under the proper Commission file number and the correct name of a fund.
Commission staff estimates that it takes: A. On average 1.25 hours of fund accounting personnel at a total cost of $255 to prepare each Form N-17f-2;
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, and is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms. Complying with the collections of information required by Form N-17f-2 is mandatory for those funds that maintain custody of their own assets. Responses will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The Commission requests written comments on: A. Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information has practical utility; B. the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burdens of the collection of information; C. ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and D. ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE.,
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Notice of meeting.
The Securities and Exchange Commission Advisory Committee on Small and Emerging Companies is providing notice that it will hold a public meeting on Wednesday, September 13, 2017, in Multi-Purpose Room LL-006 at the Commission's headquarters, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC. The meeting will begin at 9:30 a.m. (ET) and will be open to the public. The meeting will be webcast on the Commission's Web site at
The public meeting will be held on Wednesday, September 13, 2017. Written statements should be received on or before September 11, 2017.
The meeting will be held at the Commission's headquarters, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC. Written statements may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet submission form (
• Send an email message to
• Send paper statements to Brent J. Fields, Federal Advisory Committee Management Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Statements also will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. All statements received will be posted without change; we do not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly.
Julie Z. Davis, Senior Special Counsel, at (202) 551-3460, Office of Small Business Policy, Division of Corporation Finance, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-3628.
In accordance with Section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C.-App. 1, and the regulations thereunder, William H. Hinman, Designated Federal Officer of the Committee, has ordered publication of this notice.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to further clarify when the Exchange will utilize the Secondary Source of data pursuant to Rule 4759.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to clarify when the Exchange will utilize the Secondary Source of data pursuant to Rule 4759. Rule 4759 lists the proprietary and network processor feeds that are utilized for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, as well as for the regulatory compliance processes related to those functions. Rule 4759 also lists Secondary Sources of data that are utilized in emergency market conditions, and only until those emergency conditions are resolved. The Exchange proposes to amend this rule to describe how the BX trading system decides when to use the Primary or Secondary Source of data. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 4759 to clarify that the Primary Source of data is used unless it is delayed by a configurable amount compared to the
The Exchange believes that this clarification is necessary in light of the re-launch of NYSE MKT as NYSE American, which is scheduled for July 24, 2017.
Currently, the BX trading system utilizes proprietary market data as the Primary Source for the following markets that provide a reliable proprietary data feed: NYSE MKT, NASDAQ OMX BX, DirectEdge A, DirectEdge X, CHX, NYSE, NYSE Arca, NASDAQ, NASDAQ OMX PSX, BATS Y-Exchange, and BATS Exchange. For each of these markets, the Exchange uses SIP data as the Secondary Source.
With the upcoming launch of NYSE American, the Exchange believes that its current rule should be amended to better reflect intentional delays to the Primary Source of data. Specifically, the Exchange desires to make clear that even otherwise normal operation of the Primary Source of data may result in the Exchange electing the Secondary Source of data if that operation includes an intentional delay. This would be the case even if such operation would not normally be deemed an emergency market condition. Although the Exchange's process for determining which data to use will not change at this time,
As explained earlier in this proposed rule change, the Exchange employs an automated, real-time, process to determine if there is an emergency market condition pursuant to Rule 4759. In particular, the Exchange determines whether there is an emergency market condition by comparing the timestamp of the Primary Source of data with the timestamp of the Secondary Source of data. The Exchange believes that a significant delay in the Primary Source of data compared to the Secondary Source is an emergency market condition because such a delay is not consistent with normal operation of such data feeds. The Exchange does not believe that the current emergency market conditions language is clear, however, when dealing with markets such as NYSE American that have employed an intentional delay in the data disseminated over the direct data feeds utilized by the Exchange as the Primary Source of data. Currently, the Primary Source of data is used unless it is delayed by a configurable amount compared to the Secondary Source of data. The Exchange then reverts to the Primary Source of data once the delay has been resolved. The Primary Source of data may be delayed due to technical issues that would normally be considered an emergency market condition, or during otherwise normal operation of the Primary Source of data if an intentional delay has been implemented. In this respect, the Exchange notes that even NYSE Arca—an affiliate of NYSE American—has decided to use SIP data as the primary source of data for NYSE American due to the intentional delay of messages on their proprietary market data.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and protects investors and the public interest because it provides additional transparency around when BX will elect to use the Secondary Source of data for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, and for regulatory compliance purposes. The proposed rule change does not change the operation of the Exchange or its use of data feeds; rather it clarifies when the Exchange will elect
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issue but rather would provide members and other market participants with information about when BX will utilize its Secondary Source of data. The Exchange believes that this change will increase transparency around the operation of the Exchange without any significant impact on competition.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to a proposed rule change to further clarify when Nasdaq PSX (“PSX”) will utilize the Secondary Source of data pursuant to Rule 3304.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to clarify when PSX will utilize the Secondary Source of data pursuant to Rule 3304. Rule 3304 lists the proprietary and network processor feeds that are utilized for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, as well as for the regulatory compliance processes related to those functions. Rule 3304 also lists Secondary Sources of data that are utilized in emergency market conditions, and only until those emergency conditions are resolved. The Exchange proposes to amend this rule to describe how the PSX trading system decides when to use the Primary or Secondary Source of data. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 3304 to clarify that the Primary Source of data is used unless it is delayed by a configurable amount compared to the Secondary Source of data.
The Exchange believes that this clarification is necessary in light of the re-launch of NYSE MKT as NYSE American, which is scheduled for July 24, 2017.
Currently, the PSX trading system utilizes proprietary market data as the Primary Source for the following markets that provide a reliable proprietary data feed: NYSE MKT, NASDAQ OMX BX, DirectEdge A, DirectEdge X, CHX, NYSE, NYSE Arca, NASDAQ, NASDAQ OMX PSX, BATS Y-Exchange, and BATS Exchange. For each of these markets, the Exchange uses SIP data as the Secondary Source.
With the upcoming launch of NYSE American, the Exchange believes that its current rule should be amended to better reflect intentional delays to the Primary Source of data. Specifically, the Exchange desires to make clear that even otherwise normal operation of the Primary Source of data may result in the Exchange electing the Secondary Source of data if that operation includes an intentional delay. This would be the
As explained earlier in this proposed rule change, the Exchange employs an automated, real-time, process to determine if there is an emergency market condition pursuant to Rule 4759 [sic]. In particular, the Exchange determines whether there is an emergency market condition by comparing the timestamp of the Primary Source of data with the timestamp of the Secondary Source of data. The Exchange believes that a significant delay in the Primary Source of data compared to the Secondary Source is an emergency market condition because such a delay is not consistent with normal operation of such data feeds. The Exchange does not believe that the current emergency market conditions language is clear, however, when dealing with markets such as NYSE American that have employed an intentional delay in the data disseminated over the direct data feeds utilized by the Exchange as the Primary Source of data. Currently, the Primary Source of data is used unless it is delayed by a configurable amount compared to the Secondary Source of data. The Exchange then reverts to the Primary Source of data once the delay has been resolved. The Primary Source of data may be delayed due to technical issues that would normally be considered an emergency market condition, or during otherwise normal operation of the Primary Source of data if an intentional delay has been implemented. In this respect, the Exchange notes that even NYSE Arca—an affiliate of NYSE American—has decided to use SIP data as the primary source of data for NYSE American due to the intentional delay of messages on their proprietary market data.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market and protects investors and the public interest because it provides additional transparency around when PSX will elect to use the Secondary Source of data for the handling, routing, and execution of orders, and for regulatory compliance purposes. The proposed rule change does not change the operation of the Exchange or its use of data feeds; rather it clarifies when the Exchange will elect the Secondary Source of data pursuant to Rule 3304. Currently, Rule 4759 [sic] indicates that the Exchange will fail over to the Secondary Source of data if there is an emergency market condition but does not specify what counts as an emergency market condition pursuant to the rule. In fact, the Exchange has an automated, real-time, process for determining whether an emergency market condition exists by measuring the amount of delay between the Primary and Secondary Sources of data. The proposed rule change therefore clarifies that the Exchange will elect the Secondary Source of data if the Primary Source of data is delayed by a configurable amount (made available to members via Equity Trader Alert), and will then revert to the Primary Source of data once the delay has been resolved. The Secondary Source of data may be elected even during otherwise normal operation because of intentional delays in the dissemination of market data over an exchange's proprietary market data feeds. The Exchange believes that this change is appropriate in light of the launch of the NYSE American exchange, which will come with an intentional delay of market data provided through proprietary data products used by PSX as the Primary Source of data. The Exchange believes the additional transparency of the operation of the Exchange as described in the proposed rule change will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, protect investors and the public interest.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issue but rather would provide members and other market participants with information about when PSX will utilize its Secondary Source of data. The Exchange believes that this change will increase transparency around the operation of the Exchange without any significant impact on competition.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of New Hampshire (FEMA-4329-DR), dated 08/09/2017.
Issued on 08/09/2017.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing And Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 08/09/2017, Private Non-Profit organizations that provide essential services of a governmental nature may file disaster loan applications at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 15245B and for economic injury is 152460.
Based upon a review of the Administrative Record assembled in this matter, and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I conclude that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that the relevant circumstances described in section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (hereinafter “INA”) (8 U.S.C. 1189), exist with respect to Hizbul Mujahideen, also known as Hizb-ul-Mujahideen, also known as HM.
Therefore, I hereby designate the aforementioned organization and its
This determination shall be published in the
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the person known as of Hizbul Mujahideen, also known as Hizb-ul-Mujahideen, also known as HM, committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; grant of application for exemption.
FMCSA announces its decision to grant an exemption to Daimler Trucks North America (Daimler) for one of its commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers. Daimler requested a 5-year exemption from the Federal requirement to hold a U.S. commercial driver's license (CDL) for Mr. Philipp Helbing, a project engineer for the Daimler Trucks and Bus Division. Mr. Helbing holds a valid German commercial license and wants to test-drive Daimler vehicles on U.S. roads to better understand product requirements for these systems in “real world” environments, and verify results. Daimler believes the requirements for a German commercial license ensure that holders of the license will likely achieve a level of safety equal to or greater than that of drivers who hold a U.S. State-issued CDL.
This exemption is applicable August 17, 2017 and expires August 17, 2022.
Mr. Thomas Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 614-942-6477. Email:
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews the safety analyses and the public comments, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
On behalf of Mr. Philipp Helbing, Daimler has applied for a 5-year exemption from 49 CFR 383.23, which prescribes licensing requirements for drivers operating CMVs in interstate or intrastate commerce. Mr. Helbing is
The exemption would allow Mr. Helbing to operate CMVs in interstate or intrastate commerce to support Daimler field tests designed to meet future vehicle safety and environmental requirements and to develop improved safety and emission technologies. Mr. Helbing needs to drive Daimler vehicles on public roads to better understand “real world” environments in the U.S. market. According to Daimler, Mr. Helbing will typically drive for no more than 6 hours per day for 2 consecutive days, and that 10 percent of the test driving will be on two-lane State highways, while 90 percent will be on Interstate highways. The driving will consist of no more than 200 miles per day, for a total of 400 miles during a two-day period on a quarterly basis. He will in all cases be accompanied by a holder of a U.S. CDL who is familiar with the routes to be traveled.
Mr. Helbing would be required to comply with all applicable Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) (49 CFR parts 350-399) except the CDL provisions described in this notice.
Mr. Helbing holds a valid German commercial license, and as explained by Daimler in its exemption request, the requirements for that license ensure that the same level of safety is met or exceeded as if this driver had a U.S. CDL. Furthermore, according to Daimler, Mr. Helbing is familiar with the operation of CMVs worldwide.
FMCSA has previously determined that the process for obtaining a German commercial license is comparable to, or as effective as, the requirements of part 383, and adequately assesses the driver's ability to operate CMVs in the U.S. Since 2012, FMCSA has granted Daimler drivers similar exemptions [May 25, 2012 (77 FR 31422); July 22, 2014 (79 FR 42626); March 27, 2015 (80 FR 16511); October 5, 2015 (80 FR 60220); December 7, 2015 (80 FR 76059); December 21, 2015 (80 FR 79410)].
On May 15, 2017, FMCSA published notice of this application and requested public comments (82 FR 22378). No comments were submitted.
Based upon the merits of this application, including Mr. Helbing's extensive driving experience and safety record, FMCSA has concluded that the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, in accordance with § 381.305(a).
FMCSA grants Daimler and Philipp Helbing an exemption from the CDL requirement in 49 CFR 383.23 to allow Mr. Helbing to drive CMVs in this country without a U.S. State-issued CDL, subject to the following terms and conditions: (1) The driver and carrier must comply with all other applicable provisions of the FMCSRs (49 CFR parts 350-399); (2) the driver must be in possession of the exemption document and a valid German commercial license; (3) the driver must be employed by and operate the CMV within the scope of his duties for Daimler; (4) at all times while operating a CMV under this exemption, the driver must be accompanied by a holder of a U.S. CDL who is familiar with the routes traveled; (5) Daimler must notify FMCSA in writing within 5 business days of any accident, as defined in 49 CFR 390.5, involving this driver; and (6) Daimler must notify FMCSA in writing if this driver is convicted of a disqualifying offense under § 383.51 or § 391.15 of the FMCSRs.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136(e), the exemption will be valid for 5 years unless revoked earlier by the FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if: (1) Mr. Helbing fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption results in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would be inconsistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), as implemented by 49 CFR 381.600, during the period this exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation applicable to interstate or intrastate commerce that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a firm or person operating under the exemption.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; granting of application for renewal of exemption.
FMCSA announces its decision to grant Daimler Trucks North America's (Daimler) application for renewal of an exemption from the requirement for a commercial driver's license (CDL) for one of its commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers, Sven Ennerst. Mr. Ennerst has operated safely under this exemption since July 22, 2014. The renewal allows Mr. Ennerst, a Daimler engineering executive who holds a German commercial license, to continue to test-drive Daimler CMVs on U.S. roads to improve Daimler's understanding of product requirements in “real world” environments. FMCSA has concluded that this exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved if Mr. Ennerst were required to obtain a U.S. CDL.
This exemption is renewed effective July 22, 2017 and will expire July 22, 2022.
Mr. Thomas Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 614-942-6477. Email:
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews the safety analyses and the public comments, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
Daimler has applied for a renewal of an exemption for one of its engineers from 49 CFR 383.23, which prescribes licensing requirements for drivers operating CMVs in interstate or intrastate commerce. This driver, Sven Ennerst, holds a valid German commercial license but is unable to obtain a CDL in any of the U.S. States due to residency requirements. A copy of the request for renewal, dated February 15, 2017, is in the docket identified at the beginning of this notice.
Effective July 22, 2015, FMCSA renewed for 2 years Mr. Ennerst's previous 1-year exemption (80 FR 45576, July 30, 2015). That exemption expired on July 22, 2017. Detailed information about the qualifications and experience of Mr. Ennerst was provided by Daimler in its original application, a copy of which is in the docket referenced above. Renewal of the exemption will enable Mr. Ennerst to operate CMVs in interstate or intrastate commerce to support Daimler field tests designed to meet future vehicle safety and environmental requirements and to develop improved safety and emission technologies. According to Daimler, Mr. Ennerst will typically drive for no more than 6 hours per day for 2 consecutive days, and 10 percent of the test driving will be on two-lane State highways, while 90 percent will be on interstate highways. The driving will consist of no more than 200 miles per day, for a total of 400 miles during a two-day period on a quarterly basis. He will in all cases be accompanied by a holder of a U.S. CDL who is familiar with the routes to be traveled. Daimler requests that the exemption cover the maximum allowable duration of 5 years.
Daimler has explained in prior exemption requests that the German knowledge and skills tests and training program ensure that Daimler's drivers operating under the exemption will achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety obtained by complying with the U.S. requirement for a CDL.
FMCSA has previously determined that the process for obtaining a German commercial license is comparable to, or as effective as, the requirements of part 383, and adequately assesses the driver's ability to operate CMVs in the U.S. Since 2012, FMCSA has granted Daimler drivers similar exemptions [May 25, 2012 (77 FR 31422); July 22, 2014 (79 FR 42626); March 27, 2015 (80 FR 16511); October 5, 2015 (80 FR 60220); July 12, 2016 (81 FR 45217); July 25, 2016 (81 FR 48496)].
On May 15, 2017, FMCSA published notice of this application and requested public comments (82 FR 22371). No comments were submitted.
Based upon the merits of this application, including Mr. Ennerst's extensive driving experience and safety record, FMCSA has concluded that the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, in accordance with § 381.305(a).
FMCSA grants Daimler and Sven Ennerst an exemption from the CDL requirement in 49 CFR 383.23 to allow Mr. Ennerst to drive CMVs in this country without a U.S. State-issued CDL, subject to the following terms and conditions: (1) The driver and carrier must comply with all other applicable provisions of the FMCSRs (49 CFR parts 350-399); (2) the driver must be in possession of the exemption document and a valid German commercial license; (3) the driver must be employed by and operate the CMV within the scope of his duties for Daimler; (4) at all times while operating a CMV under this exemption, the driver must be accompanied by a holder of a U.S. CDL who is familiar with the routes traveled; (5) Daimler must notify FMCSA in writing within 5 business days of any accident, as defined in 49 CFR 390.5, involving this driver; and (6) Daimler must notify FMCSA in writing if this driver is convicted of a disqualifying offense under § 383.51 or § 391.15 of the FMCSRs.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136(e), the exemption will be valid for 5 years unless revoked earlier by the FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if: (1) Mr. Ennerst fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption results in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would be inconsistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), as implemented by 49 CFR 381.600, during the period this exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation applicable to interstate or intrastate commerce that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a firm or person operating under the exemption.
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
Notice of advisory committee meetings.
This notice announces both a public meeting of the Technical
The GPAC and LPAC will meet in a joint session on September 6, 2017, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., and the GPAC only will meet on September 7, 2017, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. and on September 8, 2017, from 8:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. ET. Members of the public who wish to attend in person are asked to register no later than August 28, 2017. Individuals requiring accommodations, such as sign language interpretation or other ancillary aids, are asked to notify PHMSA by August 28, 2017. For additional information see the
The meetings will be held at a location yet to be determined in the Washington, DC metropolitan area. The location, agenda, and any additional information for the meetings will be published on the following pipeline advisory committee meeting and registration page:
The meetings will not be webcast; however, presentations will be available on the meeting Web site and posted on the E-Gov Web site,
These meetings will be open to the public. Members of the public who attend in person will also be provided an opportunity to make a statement during the meetings.
If you wish to receive confirmation of receipt of your written comments, please include a self-addressed, stamped postcard with the following statement: “Comments on PHMSA-2016-0136.” The docket clerk will date stamp the postcard prior to returning it to you via the U.S. mail.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), the DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. The DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
For information about the meeting, contact Cheryl Whetsel by phone at 202-366-4431 or by email at
The GPAC and LPAC will meet in a joint session to discuss a variety of topics to keep committee members up-to-date on the pipeline safety program and policy issues.
The GPAC will be considering the proposed rule titled “Safety of Gas Transmission and Gathering Pipelines,” which was published in the
Prior to these meetings, PHMSA will finalize the agendas and will publish them on the PHMSA meeting page at
The GPAC and the LPAC are statutorily mandated advisory committees that advise PHMSA on proposed gas pipeline and hazardous liquid pipeline safety standards, respectively, and their associated risk assessments. The committees are established in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2, as amended) and 49 U.S.C. 60115. The committees consist of 15 members with membership evenly divided among Federal and State governments, the regulated industry, and the general public. The committees advise PHMSA on the technical feasibility, reasonableness, cost-effectiveness, and practicability of each proposed pipeline safety standard.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one or more persons that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated
OFAC's actions described in this notice were applicable on July 28, 2017, as further specified below.
The Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's Web site (
On July 28, 2017, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
1. AMIR AL MO'MENIN INDUSTRIES (a.k.a. AMIR-AL-MO'MENIN COMPLEX; a.k.a. AMIROLMOMENIN FACTORIES; a.k.a. AMIROLMOMENIN INDUSTRIES), Esfahan, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR] (Linked To: SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP).
Designated pursuant to section l(a)(iv) of Executive Order 13382 of June 28, 2005, “Blocking Property of Weapons of Mass Destruction Proliferators and Their Supporters” (“E.O. 13382”) for being owned or controlled by SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
2. SHAHID CHERAGHI INDUSTRIES, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR] (Linked To: SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP).
Designated pursuant to section l(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for being owned or controlled by SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
3. SHAHID KALHOR INDUSTRIES, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR] (Linked To: SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP).
Designated pursuant to section l(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for being owned or controlled by SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
4. SHAHID KARIMI INDUSTRIES, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR] (Linked To: SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP).
Designated pursuant to section l(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for being owned or controlled by SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
5. SHAHID RASTEGAR INDUSTRIES, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR] (Linked To: SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP).
Designated pursuant to section l(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for being owned or controlled by SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
6. SHAHID VARAMINI INDUSTRIES, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR] (Linked To: SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP).
Designated pursuant to section l(a)(iv) of E.O. 13382 for being owned or controlled by SHAHID HEMMAT INDUSTRIAL GROUP, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13382.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Tax Exempt and Government Entities Division, Treasury.
Notice and request for applicants or nominations.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) is requesting applications for membership to serve on the Advisory Committee on Tax Exempt and Government Entities (ACT). Applications will be accepted for the following vacancies that will occur in June 2018: Two (2) Employee Plans (with additional experience in federal, state and local governments preferred); one (1) Exempt Organizations (with additional experience in tax-exempt bonds preferred); and one (1) Tax Exempt Bonds (with additional experience in exempt organizations preferred). To ensure an appropriate balance of membership, final selection from qualified candidates will be determined based on experience, qualifications and other expertise.
Written applications or nominations must be received on or before September 18, 2017.
Submit all applications and nominations to
Application: Applicants must use the ACT Application Form (Form 12399-C) on the IRS Web site (
Mark O'Donnell, 202-317-8632,
The Advisory Committee on Tax Exempt and Government Entities (ACT), governed by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, is an organized public forum for discussion of relevant employee plans, exempt organizations, tax-exempt bonds, and federal, state, local and Indian tribal government issues between officials of the IRS and representatives of the above communities. The ACT enables the IRS to receive regular input with respect to the development and implementation of IRS policy
The Secretary of the Treasury invites those individuals, organizations and groups affiliated with employee plans, exempt organizations, tax-exempt bonds, and federal, state, local and Indian tribal governments to nominate individuals for membership on the ACT. Nominations should describe and document the proposed member's qualifications for ACT membership, including the nominee's past or current affiliations and dealings with the particular community or segment of the community that he or she would represent (such as, employee plans). Nominations should also specify the vacancy for which they wish to be considered. The Department of the Treasury seeks a diverse group of members representing a broad spectrum of persons experienced in employee plans, exempt organizations, tax-exempt bonds, and federal, state, local and Indian tribal governments. Nominees must go through a clearance process before selection by the Department of the Treasury. In accordance with Department of the Treasury Directive 21-03, the clearance process includes, among other things, pre-appointment and annual tax checks, and an FBI criminal and subversive name check, fingerprint check and security clearance.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 14737, Request for Voluntary IRS Certification of a Professional Employer Organization (Application), Form 14737-A, CPEO Responsible Individual Personal Attestation, Form 14751 Certified Professional Employer Organization Surety Bond, Form 8973, Certified Professional Employer Organization/Customer Reporting Agreement.
Written comments should be received on or before October 16, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to L. Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224. Please send separate comments for each specific information collection listed below. You must reference the information collection's title, form number, reporting or record-keeping requirement number, and OMB number (if any) in your comment. To obtain additional information, or copies of the information collection and instructions, or copies of any comments received, contact LaNita Van Dyke, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet, at
Currently, the IRS is seeking comments concerning the following forms, and reporting and record-keeping requirements:
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
The Department of Veterans Affairs gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the meeting of the Geriatrics and Gerontology Advisory Committee, previously scheduled to be held at the Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Conference Room 630, Washington, DC 20420, on September 18-19, 2017,
For more information, please contact Alejandra Paulovich, Program Analyst, Geriatrics and Extended Care Services at (202) 461-6016 or via email at
(b) This memorandum shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This memorandum is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
(d) You are hereby authorized and directed to publish this memorandum in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
We (NMFS) are issuing this final rule to designate critical habitat for the threatened Gulf of Maine distinct population segment (DPS) of Atlantic sturgeon, the endangered New York Bight DPS of Atlantic sturgeon, the endangered Chesapeake Bay DPS of Atlantic sturgeon, the endangered Carolina DPS of Atlantic sturgeon and the endangered South Atlantic DPS of Atlantic sturgeon pursuant to the Endangered Species Act (ESA). Specific occupied areas designated as critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine DPS of Atlantic sturgeon contain approximately 244 kilometers (km; 152 miles) of aquatic habitat in the following rivers of Maine, New Hampshire, and Massachusetts: Penobscot, Kennebec, Androscoggin, Piscataqua, Cocheco, Salmon Falls, and Merrimack. Specific occupied areas designated as critical habitat for the New York Bight DPS of Atlantic sturgeon contain approximately 547 km (340 miles) of aquatic habitat in the following rivers of Connecticut, Massachusetts, New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, and Delaware: Connecticut, Housatonic, Hudson, and Delaware. Specific occupied areas designated as critical habitat for the Chesapeake Bay DPS of Atlantic sturgeon contain approximately 773 km (480 miles) of aquatic habitat in the following rivers of Maryland, Virginia, and the District of Columbia: Potomac, Rappahannock, York, Pamunkey, Mattaponi, James, Nanticoke, and the following other water body: Marshyhope Creek. Specific occupied areas designated as critical habitat for the Carolina DPS of Atlantic sturgeon contain approximately 1,939 km (1,205 miles) of aquatic habitat in the following rivers of North Carolina and South Carolina: Roanoke, Tar-Pamlico, Neuse, Cape Fear, Northeast Cape Fear, Waccamaw, Pee Dee, Black, Santee, North Santee, South Santee, and Cooper, and the following other water body: Bull Creek. Specific occupied areas designated as critical habitat for the South Atlantic DPS of Atlantic sturgeon contain approximately 2,883 km (1,791 miles) of aquatic habitat in the following rivers of South Carolina, Georgia, and Florida: Edisto, Combahee-Salkehatchie, Savannah, Ogeechee, Altamaha, Ocmulgee, Oconee, Satilla, and St. Marys Rivers.
This rule becomes effective September 18, 2017.
The final rule, maps, Final Impacts Analysis Reports and Final Regulatory Flexibility Analyses used in preparation of this final rule are available on the NMFS Greater Atlantic Regional Fisheries Office (GARFO) Web site at
Lynn Lankshear, NMFS, GARFO at the address above or at 978-282-8473; Andrew Herndon, NMFS, SERO at the address above or at 727-824-5312; or Marta Nammack, NMFS, Office of Protected Resources at 301-427-8469.
In 2012, we listed five DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon under the ESA: Four were listed as endangered (New York Bight DPS and Chesapeake Bay DPS; 77 FR 5880; February 6, 2012; Carolina DPS and South Atlantic DPS; 77 FR 5914; February 6, 2012) and one as threatened (Gulf of Maine DPS; 77 FR 5880; February 6, 2012). On March 18, 2014, two non-governmental organizations filed a lawsuit alleging we had violated the ESA by failing to issue proposed and final rules designating critical habitat for the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs. Pursuant to a court-ordered settlement agreement, as modified, we agreed to submit proposed rules designating critical habitat for all DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon to the Office of the Federal Register by May 30, 2016. NMFS met that deadline and the two proposed critical habitat rules for the five Atlantic sturgeon DPSs were published on June 3, 2016. The proposed designations can be found at 81 FR 35701 for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon and at 81 FR 36077 for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon. A subsequent correction notice clarifying the types of manmade structures not included in the proposed designation for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs was published on June 28, 2016 (81 FR 41926). On February 11, 2016, NMFS and the USFWS published a final rule, Implementing Changes to the Regulations for Designating Critical Habitat (81 FR 7414) (the Implementation rule). As the Implementation rule discussed, the changes to these regulations were meant to more clearly describe the Services' past and ongoing practices for designating critical habitat. The proposed rules designating critical habitat for Atlantic sturgeon were largely drafted at the time the final Implementation rule was published, and were based on past practices incorporated into that rule. Thus, no substantive changes were made to the Atlantic sturgeon proposed rules as a result of finalizing the Implementation rule.
We solicited comments from the public on all aspects of the proposed rules and held public hearings in Gloucester, Massachusetts; Brunswick, Georgia; Charleston, South Carolina; and Morehead City, North Carolina. The initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) and the draft Impacts Analysis (DIA) prepared for each proposed rule pursuant to section 4(b)(2) of the ESA were made available for public review and comment along with the proposed rules. Upon request, we re-opened the public comment period of both proposed rules for an additional 15 days, from September 29, 2016, to October 14, 2016 (81 FR 66911; Sept. 29, 2016); the entire public comment period totaled 105 days. After receiving public comment, we decided to complete the critical habitat designations with one final rule. Combining the designations into a single final rule will provide greater clarity to the public about the total extent of the Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat designations, reduce redundancy, and enable the public to better understand the need to designate the affected areas.
Final regulatory flexibility analyses (FRFAs) and final Impacts Analysis reports (IAs) updating the initial analyses and reports, that were published with the proposed rules, have been prepared to accompany this final rule. Combining the regional FRFAs and
We determined that a key conservation objective for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs is to increase the abundance of each DPS by facilitating increased successful reproduction and recruitment to the marine environment. We know that each of these DPSs is at a low level of abundance and that successful reproduction and recruitment, which are essential to the conservation of the species, occur in a limited number of rivers for each DPS. Based on the best scientific information available for the life history needs of the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs, the physical features essential to the conservation of the species and that may require special management considerations or protection are:
(1) Hard bottom substrate (
(2) Aquatic habitat with a gradual downstream salinity gradient of 0.5 up to as high as 30 ppt and soft substrate (
(3) Water of appropriate depth and absent physical barriers to passage (
(i) Unimpeded movement of adults to and from spawning sites;
(ii) Seasonal and physiologically dependent movement of juvenile Atlantic sturgeon to appropriate salinity zones within the river estuary; and
(iii) Staging, resting, or holding of subadults or spawning condition adults.
Water depths in main river channels must also be deep enough (
(4) Water, between the river mouth and spawning sites, especially in the bottom meter of the water column, with the temperature, salinity, and oxygen values that, combined, support:
(i) Spawning;
(ii) Annual and interannual adult, subadult, larval, and juvenile survival; and
(iii) Larval, juvenile, and subadult growth, development, and recruitment (
We determined that the key conservation objectives for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon are to increase the abundance of each DPS by facilitating increased survival of all life stages and facilitating adult reproduction and juvenile and subadult recruitment into the adult population. We determined the physical features essential to the conservation of the species and that may require special management considerations or protection, which support the identified conservation objectives, are:
(1) Hard bottom substrate (
(2) Transitional salinity zones inclusive of waters with a gradual downstream gradient of 0.5- up to 30 ppt and soft substrate (
(3) Water of appropriate depth and absent physical barriers to passage (
(i) Unimpeded movement of adults to and from spawning sites;
(ii) Seasonal and physiologically-dependent movement of juvenile Atlantic sturgeon to appropriate salinity zones within the river estuary; and
(iii) Staging, resting, or holding of subadults or spawning condition adults.
Water depths in main river channels must also be deep enough (at least 1.2 m) to ensure continuous flow in the main channel at all times when any sturgeon life stage would be in the river.
(4) Water quality conditions, especially in the bottom meter of the water column, between the river mouths and spawning sites with temperature and oxygen values that support:
(i) Spawning;
(ii) Annual and inter-annual adult, subadult, larval, and juvenile survival; and
(iii) Larval, juvenile, and subadult growth, development, and recruitment. Appropriate temperature and oxygen values will vary interdependently, and depending on salinity in a particular habitat. For example, 6.0 mg/L DO or greater likely supports juvenile rearing habitat, whereas DO less than 5.0 mg/L for longer than 30 days is less likely to support rearing when water temperature is greater than 25 °C. In temperatures greater than 26 °C, DO greater than 4.3 mg/L is needed to protect survival and growth. Temperatures of 13 to 26 °C likely to support spawning habitat.
There are two subspecies of Atlantic sturgeon—the Gulf sturgeon (
Although there is considerable variability among species, all sturgeon species (Order
Atlantic sturgeon have all of the above traits. They occur along the eastern coast of North America from Hamilton Inlet, Labrador, Canada to Cape Canaveral, Florida, United States (Bigelow and Welsh, 1925; Dees, 1961; Vladykov and Greeley, 1963; NMFS and U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS), 2007; T. Savoy, CT DEEP, pers. comm.). Atlantic sturgeon are a long-lived, late-maturing, estuarine-dependent, anadromous species with a maximum lifespan of up to 60 years, although the typical lifespan is probably much shorter (Sulak and Randall, 2002; Balazik
Analysis of stomach contents for adults, subadults (
An anadromous species, Atlantic sturgeon spawns in freshwater of rivers that flow into a coastal estuary. Spawning adults migrate upriver in the spring, typically during February and March in southern systems, April and May in mid-Atlantic systems, and May and July in Canadian systems (Murawski and Pacheco, 1977; Smith, 1985; Bain, 1997; Smith and Clugston, 1997; Caron
Spawning typically occurs in flowing water upriver of the salt front of estuaries and below the fall line of large rivers (Borodin, 1925; Leland, 1968; Scott and Crossman, 1973; Crance, 1987; Bain
Within minutes of being fertilized, the eggs become sticky and adhere to the substrate for the relatively short and temperature-dependent period of larval development (Ryder, 1888; Vladykov and Greeley, 1963; Murawski and Pacheco, 1977; Smith
Larval Atlantic sturgeon (
The next phase of development, referred to as the juvenile stage, lasts months to years in brackish waters of the natal estuary (Holland and Yelverton, 1973; Dovel and Berggen, 1983; Waldman
The distribution of Atlantic sturgeon juveniles in the natal estuary is a function of physiological development and habitat selection based on water quality factors of temperature, salinity, and DO, which are inter-related environmental variables. In laboratory studies with salinities of 8 to 15 ppt and temperatures of 12 and 20 °C (53.6 and 68 °F), juveniles less than a year old (also known as young-of-year [YOY]) had reduced growth at 40 percent DO saturation, grew best at 70 percent DO saturation, and selected conditions that supported growth (Niklitschek and Secor, 2009 I; Niklitschek and Secor, 2009 II). Similar results were obtained for age-1 juveniles (
Once suitably developed, Atlantic sturgeon leave the natal estuary and enter marine waters (
The exact spawning locations for Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPS Atlantic sturgeon are unknown but inferred based on the location of freshwater, hard substrate, water depth, tracking of adults to upriver locations and the behavior of adults at those locations, historical accounts of where the caviar fishery occurred, capture of YOY and, in limited cases, capture of larvae and eggs. Spawning sites at multiple locations within the tidal-affected river likely help to ensure successful spawning given annual changes in the location of the salt wedge.
We requested comments on the proposed rule to designate critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon (81 FR 35701; June 3, 2016) and on the proposed rule to designate critical habitat for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon (81 FR 36077; June 3, 2016) for a 90-day period. Following requests from the public, we re-opened the public comment period for an additional 15 days (81 FR 66911; Sept. 29, 2016), for a total comment period of 105 days. Five public hearings were also held on the following dates and in the following locations:
1. Thursday, July 21, 2016, 3 to 5 p.m., Gloucester, Massachusetts.
2. Thursday, July 21, 2016, 6 to 8 p.m., Gloucester, Massachusetts.
3. Monday, June 20, 2016, 7 to 9 p.m., Brunswick, Georgia.
4. Tuesday, June 21, 2016, 7 to 9 p.m., Charleston, South Carolina.
5. Thursday, June 23, 2016, 7 to 9 p.m., Morehead City, North Carolina.
In addition to the public hearings, during which substantive comments on the proposed designations could be provided by the public, we held a public informational meeting prior to each public hearing in Massachusetts, Georgia, South Carolina, and North Carolina. We also held public informational meetings in Annapolis, Maryland on July 13, 2016, and in Portland, Maine on July 18, 2016. These informational meetings reviewed the purpose of designating critical habitat and answered procedural questions. We did not accept public comment or answer substantive questions about the areas proposed for designation at the informational meetings; rather, we provided information on the public comment process. To further facilitate public participation, the proposed rules were made available on our regional Web pages and comments were accepted during public hearings, and via standard mail, facsimile, and through the Federal eRulemaking portal. In addition to the proposed rules, the correction notice for the proposed rule for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs, maps of the proposed critical habitat units, and the DIAs supporting our conclusions under section 4(b)(2) of the ESA were made publicly available.
Twenty-one people attended the public hearings for the proposed rule to designate critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon, either in-person or via telephone, and we received 1,577 responses to the request for public comments on the proposed rule and supporting documents through
We reviewed all comments received for substantive issues relevant to the proposed critical habitat rules. Some comments resulted in changes between the proposed and final designation. Changes between the proposed designations and final designation are highlighted in the “Summary of Changes From the Proposed Rules” section of this rule. The relevant public comments received, both written and oral, are addressed below. We have responded to the comments received on the proposed rule for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon separately from our responses to the comments received on the proposed rule for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon because it would be difficult for a commenter to identify his or her individual comment and our response if we merged the comment responses. However, we have assigned comments to major issue categories and, where appropriate, have combined similar comments from multiple members of the public or referenced the response to identical comments received on both proposed rules. We received some comments related to the listing and DPS delineation and comments critical of our final rule Implementing Changes to the Regulations for Designating Critical Habitat (81 FR 7414; February 11, 2016); those comments are not relevant to this
There has been very little effort to detect the presence of Atlantic sturgeon in the Susquehanna River in recent times. Receivers were placed in the Susquehanna River to detect acoustically tagged Atlantic sturgeon in 2010 and 2011 but, at that time, we made it clear that an absence of detections was not confirmation of absence of the species in the river, given the low number of Atlantic sturgeon that were acoustically tagged and the limited number of receivers placed in the river below Conowingo Dam.
Fish behavior rather than fish abundance influences whether a sturgeon enters a fish lift that was designed for a different fish species. Therefore, absence of Atlantic sturgeon in the fish lift also does not equate to absence of Atlantic sturgeon in the river below a dam. Many of the rivers for which we have more abundant documentation of Atlantic sturgeon presence also have dams with fish lifts (
The Maryland Reward Program relied upon reports of Atlantic sturgeon incidentally caught in fishing gear. The Program operated when directed fishing for, and incidental capture of, Atlantic sturgeon was prohibited and when abundance of Atlantic sturgeon was unknown and estimated to be low (thus later necessitating listing under the ESA). The lack of reported captures of Atlantic sturgeon in the Susquehanna can be explained by any number of factors including whether: Fishing was occurring in the Susquehanna when Atlantic sturgeon were present, the gear type fished was conducive to catching Atlantic sturgeon, or the fisherman reported the capture. Similarly, to assess whether the absence of USFWS tagging database records for Atlantic sturgeon captures in the Susquehanna reflects absence of Atlantic sturgeon in the Susquehanna River, a measure of the amount of effort to search for, capture, and tag Atlantic sturgeon in the Susquehanna River must be provided. Based on the best scientific information available, there was no directed effort to search for, capture, and tag Atlantic sturgeon in the Susquehanna River. Therefore, the absence of records in the USFWS tagging database does not inform the presence or absence of Atlantic sturgeon in the river.
The lack of evidence for Atlantic sturgeon presence in the Susquehanna based on the scientific studies or recreational fishing in the river is more likely the result of methods and gear that do not effectively capture sturgeon. Sturgeon tend to sink rather than float when exposed to electroshocking (Moser
Since the listing of the Chesapeake Bay DPS in 2012, increased effort to detect Atlantic sturgeon in the Pamunkey, Nanticoke, and Rappahannock Rivers has led to the discovery of Atlantic sturgeon spawning populations and sturgeon presence that were undetected before the listing. These include a spawning population in the Pamunkey River (Hager
For Atlantic sturgeon, we identified the geographical area occupied based on the species' well-known anadromous life history, including returning to natal rivers to spawn, spawning behaviors, and habitat common to sturgeon species and verified for Atlantic sturgeon, as well as the need to protect spawning and reproductive habitat for population growth and conservation of the species, among other factors. Some portion of each river population returns to its natal river to spawn every year, and if spawning occurs and is successful, young sturgeon use the natal river to forage, develop and mature every year.
We identified the Piscataqua River and portions of the Salmon Falls and Cocheco Rivers as a potential critical habitat area for the Gulf of Maine DPS because the physical features are present. We considered whether the identified area was essential to the conservation of the Gulf of Maine DPS and concluded that it was, given the capture of a large female Atlantic sturgeon with eggs, at the head-of-tide in the Salmon Falls River in South Berwick, Maine on June 18, 1990, thus demonstrating behavior consistent with spawning was occurring in the system. We also took into consideration the limited number of other rivers with spawning and rearing habitat in the Gulf of Maine DPS, the continuing threats to the DPS, the threats to the features of critical habitat, and the uncertainty for how much spawning and rearing habitat is necessary to recover the Gulf of Maine DPS. Together, this information supports our conclusion that the Piscataqua River, and portions of the Salmon Falls and Cocheco Rivers, are part of the geographical area occupied by the Gulf of Maine DPS and these areas are essential to the conservation of the Gulf of Maine DPS.
We are not surprised that there have been very few incidental captures of Atlantic sturgeon in fisheries or research surveys and studies conducted in the Piscataqua River. We know from other river systems that capture of any of the Atlantic sturgeon life stages can be difficult even when the proper gear for capturing Atlantic sturgeon is used, and used at the time and in the area where Atlantic sturgeon are likely to occur. Atlantic sturgeon populations in a number of rivers were considered extirpated at one point, only later to find that genetically unique populations were present (
The use of telemetry tags for Atlantic sturgeon and more widespread use of receiver arrays has provided new information on Atlantic sturgeon spawning behavior and whether or when staging occurs. In the James River, some males moved straight to the hypothesized spawning ground without any apparent staging period while others occurred downriver in brackish water during the summer before moving upstream in August or early September; still others occurred farther upriver for a period of time before the spawning period (Balazik and Musick, 2015). Given the various movement patterns, it is not clear to what extent staging occurs or, for those fish that do appear to stage, whether it is essential for successful reproduction. Therefore, we have not included specific staging areas as a physical or biological feature of Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat. However, we recognize new research may lead to better identification regarding whether, where, and when Atlantic sturgeon stage. Therefore, the feature addressing access includes open passage between the river mouth and spawning sites to support life history needs associated with reproduction such as staging, resting, or holding of spawning condition adults.
Sand waves are a common feature of the Hudson River and Delaware Bay as well as other rivers and bays (
We considered the information provided by the commenters in the report they provided with their comments and references cited within that report. Unfortunately, the report itself does not provide any new information regarding pH and levels of calcium and magnesium ions. The report mentions a 1976 study that indicated spawning of the European Atlantic sturgeon had been successful in the Rione River of the Russian Caucasus when the pH ranged from 7.4-7.6. The report also states that a pH level of 6.8-7.7 is acceptable to various species of sturgeon (Holcik
The dissolved oxygen levels and water temperature values set forth in the proposed rules for the Atlantic Sturgeon DPSs were examples based on the best available information for conditions in different rivers occupied by Atlantic sturgeon and observed responses of sturgeon to these variables. Water quality factors of temperature, salinity and dissolved oxygen are inter-related environmental variables. Dissolved oxygen concentrations in water can fluctuate given a number of factors including water temperature (
Like salinity and dissolved oxygen, water temperature fluctuates in the dynamic rivers and estuaries used by Atlantic sturgeon. The scientific literature for Atlantic sturgeon does not always include the water temperature where Atlantic sturgeon are detected or captured. There may also be differences in temperature tolerance of Atlantic sturgeon that originate from different rivers, and differences in temperature tolerance within the same river depending on the life stage. Therefore, while we generally know the ranges of water temperature and dissolved oxygen in which Atlantic sturgeon occur, we cannot identify a single “best” water temperature or dissolved oxygen level for all Atlantic sturgeon, in all rivers, under all circumstances.
We stated in the preamble of the proposed rule for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs that, “Specific areas designated as critical habitat based on the four features are not expected to have water with oxygen concentration of 6 mg/L and the specific water temperatures at all times and within all parts of the
We also disagree with the commenters' characterization that we made non-specific assertions regarding the special management needs of the PBFs that may be necessary as a result of global climate change. The proposed rule specifically identifies the impact from global climate change's impacts to water temperature and DO, as potential threats to the survival and recovery of Atlantic sturgeon in the southeastern United States.
The purpose of designating critical habitat is to prevent the destruction or adverse modification of the habitat as a result of Federal activities. Section 7(a)(1) of the ESA requires Federal agencies to use their authorities in furtherance of the purposes of the ESA (
The commenter did not include any riverine-specific information regarding the areal influence of changes to salinity, temperature and DO, or sea level rise. We are designating as critical habitat the river areas that capture the varying distribution of the PBFs and that are appropriate to encompass the habitat essential for the conservation of the species. The designation includes all habitat required for reproduction and recruitment essential for the recovery of the DPSs, and reflects consideration of in-river changes that may result from climate change (
We considered whether any designations of unoccupied habitat were essential for the conservation of the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight or Chesapeake Bay DPSs because of the function they are likely to serve as climate changes, and we determined there were no such areas. We will continue to review Atlantic sturgeon habitat needs as new information about potential effects from climate change becomes available. Consistent with NMFS guidance in the context of individual section 7 consultations, we will consider how climate change interacts with a proposed action's effects on the PBFs in assessing an action's impacts on the critical habitat's
We agree that presence of a barrier does not necessarily constitute the upstream extent of critical habitat; however, in the case of the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon, the barriers included to denote the upstream limit of the designation are the same designators as the upstream limit of the area occupied and therefore are appropriate in this case. We recognize that the upstream limits of the area occupied at the time of listing is not necessarily the historical upstream limit (
Some of the literature available for Atlantic sturgeon uses the term “critical habitat” in reference to areas where Atlantic sturgeon occur. However, the literature is not applying the term “critical habitat” as it is defined in the ESA. Similarly, the word “essential” has been used in the literature, but it is not used in the same context as it is in the critical habitat regulations. The Background of our regulations (81 FR 7414; February 11, 2016) explains that “[t]he purpose of critical habitat is to identify the areas that are essential to the species' recovery.” The explanation makes clear that critical habitat is the specific area(s) essential to species recovery.
We reviewed the critical habitat designations for the Southern DPS of green sturgeon and for Gulf sturgeon in the event there were similarities in the life history of sturgeon species that could inform the essential PBFs for the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs. Marine waters were designated for Gulf sturgeon and the Southern DPS of green sturgeon based on information that certain marine waters were a migratory/connectivity corridor for subadult and adult sturgeon between estuaries and marine foraging areas. However, unlike the Southern DPS of green sturgeon and Gulf sturgeon, the available information for Atlantic sturgeon foraging in marine waters (Johnson
The scientific information available on Atlantic sturgeon forage items does not provide the specificity we need in identifying PBFs that are essential to the DPSs. The available information indicates that Atlantic sturgeon are opportunistic, benthic-cruisers that consume benthic prey over soft (unconsolidated) substrates. Other than being benthic prey, the specific Atlantic sturgeon prey items identified in the literature were common and vary between sites. Therefore, it is not possible to determine if gravel-sand and sand substrate types are essential habitat features for Atlantic sturgeon prey or, because Atlantic sturgeon are opportunistic foragers, the sturgeon happen to be feeding over these substrate types because they are ubiquitous, and we lack information to define prey, substrates or feeding areas more specifically for Atlantic sturgeon.
We cited in the preamble of the proposed rules the literature that identifies Atlantic sturgeon aggregation areas. The term “aggregation” as it is used in the literature for Atlantic sturgeon is not defined by any particular quantitative measure. The number of areas described in the literature as an “Atlantic sturgeon aggregation area” demonstrates the ubiquitous nature of Atlantic sturgeon in the marine range as well as the liberal use of the term for characterizing the presence of Atlantic sturgeon in an area. For example, the commenters referred to literature identifying Atlantic sturgeon feeding areas in the Bay of Fundy and Long Island Sound. Our background information cited to literature describing other Atlantic sturgeon foraging areas, including areas with mud bottom, gravelly-sand substrate, and sand substrate. Stein
The commenters referred to Laney
We cannot designate critical habitat based on the presence of the species alone. Therefore, while we acknowledge there is literature that identifies aggregation areas where Atlantic sturgeon are generally found, it does not provide specificity as to the purpose of the aggregations or the features that support those purposes. Therefore, we do not believe it provides the information we need to meet the statutory and regulatory requirements to designate critical habitat.
The commenters stated that the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs use a narrow migratory corridor within marine waters and we should designate this narrow corridor as critical habitat. The commenters' characterization of these waters as a “narrow corridor” is subjective. As we described in the preamble for the proposed rules, Atlantic sturgeon generally occur within the 50 m depth contour. However, the literature is not consistent for the depth contour where Atlantic sturgeon occur in the marine environment. Based on fisheries-dependent data for incidental captures of Atlantic sturgeon, Stein
The commenters also pointed to the findings of Breece
The Breece
Finally, the commenters stated that Atlantic sturgeon aggregation areas in marine and nearshore estuarine waters should be designated as critical habitat because these require special management and protection as a result of vessel strikes of Atlantic sturgeon from ships using the marine corridors, strikes from turbine blades in tidal estuaries, impingement and entrainment in water intakes, fisheries bycatch, and other threats to the fish including dredging, sand mining, pipeline and other construction, wind farm development, and impaired water quality. However, special management considerations or protection in the context of critical habitat designations are the methods or procedures useful in protecting the PBFs essential to the conservation of the listed species. The threats described by the commenters are threats to individual Atlantic sturgeon and not their habitat.
It appears that the commenter is requesting that we identify the specific areas within the Delaware River where each of the features occurs; however, this goes beyond the scope of what is required in a critical habitat designation. (see
We do not use temporal designations for critical habitat because the PBFs are either present year round or will be present at some expected time during the year that cannot be predicted with precision (
In 2015, a receiver placed at rkm 144 of the Pamunkey River, 5 km above the Route 360 Bridge, regularly detected 18 acoustically-tagged, adult sturgeon during the summer and early fall. The commenter believes that the occurrence of the adults in freshwater of the Pamunkey River during the spawning period (Hager
The commenter also recommended extending the upriver boundary of the Mattaponi critical habitat unit by 10 rkm above the Route 360 bridge to rkm 122. In the summer and early fall of 2015, one tagged adult female Atlantic sturgeon ascended the Mattaponi River and was detected at the uppermost receiver located near the Route 360 bridge crossing. This is during the time and in an area where spawning would be expected to occur. Based on the time series of detections at this receiver, the commenter believes this individual moved past the receiver upstream, then moved back down again.
We did not revise the upriver boundary of the critical habitat designation on the Mattaponi River. We have considered the information provided by VIMS. While their data analysis suggests to them that the fish moved further upriver, there is no evidence that it moved upriver and, even if it did, these are the movements of just one fish. We cannot determine whether the movements of this fish are representative of all Atlantic sturgeon that occur in the Mattaponi or are movements of a vagrant fish. Additionally, critical habitat is based on the presence of the essential PBFs. VIMS did not provide information that the PBFs of critical habitat occur in the Mattaponi River upriver of the Route 360 Bridge crossing. Therefore, we are not changing the upriver boundary for the York River critical habitat unit in the Mattaponi River.
Our review of this best available information confirmed that critical habitat for the Chesapeake Bay DPS occurs in the Nanticoke River and its tributary, Marshyhope Creek. Designation of the area is a natural outgrowth of the proposed rule given that we stated in the proposed rule that we suspected spawning was occurring in Marshyhope Creek, a tributary of the Nanticoke, and we stated in the Impacts Analysis and Biological Information Source Document that we were awaiting receipt of substrate information and would consider designating critical habitat in the River if we received additional information that confirmed that the PBFs are present. The PBFs may require special management considerations or protection as a result of activities, such as dredging and construction projects (
We are not, however, designating critical habitat in the Nanticoke River and Marshyhope Creek as two separate areas as recommended by MD DNR, and we are not designating critical habitat in Broad Creek or Deep Creek. Critical habitat that is designated within the geographical area occupied by the species is based on the presence of the PBFs. While information on salinity and water quality is generally available, information on hard substrate (
Based on the PBFs essential to the conservation of the Chesapeake Bay DPS, the Nanticoke River system critical habitat unit consists of the waters of the Nanticoke River from the Maryland State Route 313 Bridge crossing near Sharptown, MD, to where the main stem discharges at its mouth into the Chesapeake Bay as well as Marshyhope Creek from its confluence with the Nanticoke River and upriver to the Maryland State Route 318 Bridge crossing near Federalsburg, MD, for a total of 60 rkm of aquatic habitat.
As described in our regulations at 50 CFR 424.12(b)(1) and the proposed rule, critical habitat must contain the PBFs essential to the conservation of the DPS, and that may require special management or protection. The Cataract Dam is located downriver of freshwater, and Atlantic sturgeon do not pass upriver of the dam. The dam is at the location of a natural falls that would be impassable to Atlantic sturgeon even if the dam was not present. As a result, hard bottom substrate (
For the other waterways named by the commenter, we do not have information on whether Atlantic sturgeon spawn or spawned in that particular waterway. Atlantic sturgeon can be identified to their river of origin based on genetic analysis, likely due to their strong affinity for natal homing (
Critical habitat designations are based on the best available scientific information. We cannot commit to a schedule for designating additional critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, or Chesapeake Bay DPS because we cannot predict when information will be available to inform any potential future modification of this critical habitat designation or any new designation.
Designating critical habitat that includes multiple potential spawning areas helps to ensure Atlantic sturgeon can select the best spawning site, given the natural annual variations in environmental conditions within the river estuary. When several habitats, each satisfying the requirements for designation as critical habitat, are located in proximity to one another, an inclusive area may be designated as critical habitat (50 CFR 424.12(d)). Therefore, within the geographical area occupied by the DPS in each river, we considered all areas that contained the PBFs that are essential to the particular DPS and identified the boundaries, accordingly. As described in the response to a previous comment, we concluded for purposes of the critical habitat designations that unoccupied habitat was not essential to the conservation of the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, or Chesapeake Bay DPS.
We are aware of the report by Moberg and DeLucia (2016) that focused on DO levels for survival of Delaware River natal juveniles in low salinity waters. However, the water quality feature for critical habitat is the interrelated variables of salinity, DO, and water temperature that are necessary for use of the habitat rather than fish survival. Fish avoid, when possible, habitats that would result in their death, and studies have shown that fish avoidance of habitat occurs before the DO levels of the habitat have dropped so low as to be deadly (Breitburg 2002; EPA, 2003). Studies have also shown that the DO concentration at which the fish will begin to avoid habitat is approximately equal to the DO concentration that reduces their growth rate. Therefore, identifying the temperature, DO, and salinity values that result in reduced Atlantic sturgeon growth can serve as a proxy for identifying the temperature, DO, and salinity values that result in Atlantic sturgeon habitat avoidance.
We considered the available information on Atlantic sturgeon growth, and temperature, DO, and salinity (Breitburg, 2002; EPA, 2003; Niklitscheck and Secor 2009; Niklitscheck and Secor 2010; Allen
The best available information supports the conclusion that there are two spawning groups of Atlantic sturgeon returning to the James River, one in the spring and one in the fall. Spawning occurs in different areas of the river for each group. Such a difference is not unexpected given changes in the location of an estuary's salt wedge from spring to fall. Even in rivers where only one spawning season is currently known, spawning Atlantic sturgeon may select for the best spawning site in the river estuary, given the environmental conditions at the time (
Upon reexamination of the information for the PBFs, we determined that PBF 2 (
The proposed 16 rkm of the Susquehanna River does not have a salinity gradient and is unlikely to have a salinity gradient in the future. Because this PBF is not present in the lowermost 16 rkm of the Susquehanna River, and we determined that the coexistence of all four PBFs is required for successful reproduction and recruitment of the Chesapeake Bay DPS, the lowermost 16 rkm of the Susquehanna River are not included in critical habitat for the Chesapeake Bay DPS. Further information on the salinity, substrate, and water quality below the Conowingo Dam is available at
We also took into account the dynamic environment in which the PBFs occur. Some of the PBFs occur in more than one location or occur in a location at certain times of the year. For example, hard bottom substrate in low salinity waters (0.0 to 0.5 ppt) may be available farther downriver in the spring than in the fall, depending on seasonal changes in freshwater input, or may be available farther downriver in one year compared to another, depending on the freshwater input to the estuary in that particular year. Likewise, the exact boundaries of the transitional salinity zone will fluctuate with seasonal changes in flow, annual changes in flow, and even tide cycles. The boundaries of the critical habitat areas account for these cyclical changes that are reasonably expected to occur based on the best available information for the particular river within which we are designating critical habitat.
The commenter's determination that activities associated with the Indian Point nuclear facility would not destroy or adversely modify the critical habitat is not a comment on the designation, but rather a conclusion of the effects of the activities that would be considered in an ESA section 7 consultation. Even if we agreed with that conclusion, there is no means to exclude an area based on the potential impacts of the operations of one facility. We also note that the critical habitat designated in the vicinity of Indian Point could be affected by other Federal actions independent of Indian Point (
We considered impacts of designating critical habitat for the New York Bight DPS, and concluded there was no basis to exclude any particular area from the proposed critical habitat because of the conservation benefits of the critical habitat designations to the species and to society. While we cannot quantify nor monetize these benefits, we believe they
We concluded that critical habitat was not determinable when the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs were listed as endangered and threatened in 2012. We failed to meet the one-year timeframe for designating critical habitat. We proposed critical habitat in June 2016. We have used the best available information to determine the essential PBFs that may require special management considerations or protection and identify where those PBFs occur to develop the critical habitat designation. While we agree that more information on the exact location of Atlantic sturgeon spawning would be generally informative and could allow us to better manage the species, the absence of this more specific information did not impair our ability to develop the critical habitat designation. This is in part because our critical habitat designation was not designed to include only spawning habitat.
The proposed rule described the PBFs and provided an explanation, in the context of Atlantic sturgeon life history, of why the PBFs are essential to the conservation of the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs. We provided the same background as well as the list of cited literature in the Impacts Analysis and Biological Information Source Document.
All of the PBFs are necessary for successful Atlantic sturgeon spawning and recruitment of offspring to the marine environment. Adults need habitat suitable for spawning, for traveling to and from spawning sites, and for staging, resting, and holding before and after spawning. The offspring need habitats in the natal estuary suitable for rearing. The habitat needed by juvenile Atlantic sturgeon changes as they grow and develop in the natal estuary. All juvenile habitat types in the natal estuary are needed for successful rearing of the offspring. Laboratory studies have shown differences in Atlantic sturgeon growth with different combinations of the combined variables of DO, water temperature, and salinity. Captures of Atlantic sturgeon juveniles in the natal estuary, likewise, reveal differences in the distribution of larger, older Atlantic sturgeon juveniles compared to smaller, younger Atlantic sturgeon juveniles. Therefore, we identified the boundaries of each critical habitat area that encompassed the PBFs essential to the conservation of each Atlantic sturgeon DPS and that may require special management considerations or protection. When several habitats, each satisfying the requirements for designation as critical habitat, are located in proximity to one another, an inclusive area may be designated as critical habitat (50 CFR 424.12(d)).
The boundaries of each critical habitat unit are consistent with how we have designated critical habitat for other species in rivers (
We cannot use ephemeral reference points (
The Delaware River critical habitat unit extends from the upstream point of tidal influence (identified by a bridge that crosses the river at that boundary) downriver to where the river enters the Delaware Bay. A mouth of a river is often considered to be rkm 0 of that river. However, in this case, New Jersey regulations count the mouth of the Delaware Bay (
The purpose of designating critical habitat is to contribute to species' conservation (
Critical habitat designations do not stop or prevent Federal agency actions. The sole ESA requirement with respect to designated critical habitat is that Federal agencies consult with us (or the USFWS for species under their jurisdiction) on any Federal agency action (
For those activities conducted by private citizens that include a Federal agency action (
Federal agency actions that are necessary to maintain safe navigation (
There are also misconceptions about what we can exclude and what we must not include in critical habitat designations. We must not include as part of a critical habitat designation any lands or other geographical areas owned or controlled by the Department of Defense (DOD) or designated for its use, that are subject to an INRMP prepared under section 101 of the Sikes Act, if we determine that such plan provides a conservation benefit to the species, and its habitat, for which critical habitat is proposed for designation. We also do not designate critical habitat within foreign countries or in other areas outside of United States jurisdiction (50 CFR 424.12(h)). We can exclude an area from a critical habitat designation based on economic, national security, or other relevant impacts if the benefits of exclusion outweigh those of inclusion, so long as the exclusion will not result in the extinction of the species concerned. However, we are not required to exclude particular areas from a critical habitat designation based on any of these impacts.
As required, we did consider the economic impacts, impacts to national security, and other relevant impacts of the critical habitat designations, including the conservation benefits of
We considered at the proposed rule stage, the concerns expressed by the Navy that designating critical habitat in the Kennebec River critical habitat unit adjacent to Bath Iron Works, a private shipbuilder for the Navy, would affect the Navy's ability to build and test current and future classes of surface ships, resulting in a risk to military readiness and national security. The Navy described the activities likely to occur as: Flooding and dewatering dry docks, updating and maintaining pier structures, including pile driving, and dredging activities to maintain proper channel and berthing depths. The essential PBFs of critical habitat in the area are salinity suitable for older juveniles, open passage for juveniles suitably developed to leave the natal river, open passage for adults traveling through the area to and from spawning areas, open passage for subadults traveling through the area, and soft substrate. Maintaining and/or updating pier structures may affect open passage and substrate (
The commenter did not establish how the critical habitat designation would impact security zones around private facilities, including the Indian Point nuclear facility in the Hudson River referenced by the commenter, that are meant to keep unauthorized vessel traffic at a distance from a facility. We do not foresee that the existence of the security zone and measures in place to maintain that security zone will affect the PBFs of critical habitat. For example, maintaining the security zone does not alter the substrate or the water temperature, nor does it block passage of Atlantic sturgeon moving through the area. Given that, we do not anticipate any impacts of the critical habitat designation on national security related to the security zone at the nuclear facility on the Hudson River. Given the lack of any impact to national security, and the benefit of designating critical habitat for the New York Bight DPS, we are using our discretion to not exclude the security zone area from the critical habitat designation in the Hudson River.
The regulations at 33 CFR 334.260 describe three areas of the York River associated with Naval Weapons Station Yorktown. Public access is prohibited or restricted in some manner (
The regulations at 33 CFR 334.270 for waters of the York River adjacent to Cheatham Annex Depot of Naval Weapons Station Yorktown restrict access by the public. No loitering is permitted within the area, and oystermen may work their own leaseholds or public bottom within the area, provided they obtain special permission from the Officer in Charge, Cheatham Annex Depot, Naval Supply Center, Williamsburg, Virginia. The Officer in Charge, Cheatham Annex Depot, is responsible for enforcing the regulations at 33 CFR 334.270.
Based on the information provided in the regulations of Title 33, the areas described by sections 334.260 and 334.270 are controlled by the DOD and are within the scope of the INRMP for Naval Weapons Station Yorktown. We determined that the INRMP provides a conservation benefit to the Chesapeake Bay DPS of Atlantic sturgeon and its habitat, for which critical habitat is proposed for designation. Therefore, critical habitat for the Chesapeake Bay DPS will not include the specific lands or other geographic areas of Naval Weapons Station Yorktown, including the Restricted Areas described in sections 334.260 and 334.270. Consultation under section 7(a)(2) of the ESA is not required for any Federal agency action that may affect the features of Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat occurring within the areas described at 33 CFR 334.260 and 33 CFR 334.270. However, consultation under section 7(a)(2) of the ESA is required for Federal agency actions if the proposed action may affect any ESA-listed species.
The remaining part of the Lower James River Boat Training Area (
In their comments, the Navy states that designating critical habitat: could shut down, limit or delay operations as a result of the need to consult under section 7 of the ESA; could increase the frequency and scope of consultation requirements; and would likely result in project delays and additional mitigation requirements or modifications not considered during planning. Our ESA section 7 consultation history with the Navy does not support the Navy's speculation. The consultation history demonstrates that Navy activities, including training, pier maintenance, and dredging, have occurred since the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs were listed under the ESA in 2012. As described above, we expect any consultation necessary to consider the effects of Navy actions on designated critical habitat for these DPSs will be coextensive with consultations on the effects of the proposed action on the sturgeon. Further, the GARFO ESA Section 7 Team has developed methods and tools to help action agencies requesting consultation, and to help expedite the consultation process.
Finally, as described in our response to Comment 38, there are conservation benefits of the critical habitat designations, both to the species and to society. While we cannot quantify or monetize these benefits, we believe they are not negligible. Once we exclude an area from a critical habitat designation, we lose the ability to consider the effects of Federal agency actions that could adversely modify or destroy designated critical habitat. This could allow for actions to proceed that would result in the loss of habitat containing the PBFs essential to the conservation of a DPS, hindering or even preventing recovery of the particular DPS. Therefore, given the benefits of designation, we did not exclude any particular area from the critical habitat units.
Section 4(a)(3)(B) of the ESA prohibits designating as critical habitat any lands or other geographical areas owned or controlled by the DOD or designated for its use, that are subject to an INRMP prepared under section 101 of the Sikes Act (16 U.S.C. 670a), if the Secretary determines in writing that such plan provides a conservation benefit to the species, and its habitat, for which critical habitat is proposed for designation. We determined that the INRMP for NSF Dahlgren provides a benefit to the Chesapeake Bay DPS and its habitat. However, the PRTR is outside of the scope of that INRMP. The scope of the INRMP for NSF Dahlgren is described as natural resources management on those lands and near-shore areas at Naval Support Facility Dahlgren that are: Owned by the United States and administered by the Navy; used by the Navy via license, permit, or lease for which the Navy has been assigned management responsibility; withdrawn from the public domain for use by the Navy for which the Navy has been assigned management responsibility; and, leased lands on the installation and areas occupied by non-DOD entities. Specifically, the INRMP describes the NSF Dahlgren as divided “into two land masses by Upper Machodoc Creek. Mainside encompasses 2,678 acres on the northern side of Upper Machodoc Creek and is used for operational and support activities and military housing. Pumpkin Neck, located to the south of Upper Machodoc Creek, is 1,641 acres and supports two large testing areas and scattered testing facilities.” In addition, the INRMP states that NSF Dahlgren maintains real estate transactions to “18 small range stations located along the Potomac River Test Range (PRTR) to support [its] primary tenant's, Naval Surface Warfare Center, Dahlgren Division (NSWCDD), over water testing activities.” The INRMP describes the PRTR Complex which is five land based firing ranges and one water range, the PRTR. However, both the INRMP and the Water Range Sustainability Environmental Program Assessment describe the PRTR as the responsibility of the NSWCDD. The regulations at 33 CFR 334.230 also identify the PRTR as controlled by the NSWCDD, including for closing one or more of the three danger zones on a full-time or intermittent basis in the interest of public safety during hazardous operations.
The Navy, in their comment, described the PRTR as associated with NSF Dahlgren. The INRMP description of the land and nearshore areas for NSF Dahlgren supports use of “associated with” rather than “part of.” For example, with the exception of Figure 2-4 depicting the five land based firing ranges and the PRTR, the illustrations in the INRMP do not include the PRTR as part of NSF Dahlgren. Throughout the INRMP, the Potomac River is described as being adjacent to NSF Dahlgren whereas certain Potomac River tidal tributaries are described as within the installation, and NSF Dahlgren is described as having only approximately 6.4 km (4 miles) of Potomac River shoreline.
The INRMP explains that management of the Dahlgren base previously transferred from the NSWCDD to Naval District Washington (NDW), which was re-designated as NDW West Area and, in 2005, became NSF Dahlgren. The Water Range Sustainability Environmental Program Assessment explains that NSF Dahlgren is responsible for oversight and maintenance of the land and all structures assigned and constructed on or in the land, and the NSWCDD controls the PRTR during hazardous operations, in the interest of public safety. Both the INRMP and the Water Range Sustainability Environmental Program Assessment state the Potomac River is under the jurisdiction of the State of Maryland. In August 2016, we contacted the Navy and received confirmation that the Navy does not manage the lands or waters of the Potomac River that are the PRTR.
We agree that the PRTR is designated for use by the Navy. However, based on the INRMP, the regulations, and the Water Range Sustainability Environmental Program Assessment, the PRTR is not part of those lands or near shore areas at NSF Dahlgren that are “owned by the U.S. and administered by the Navy; used by the Navy via license, permit, or lease for which the
In revisiting our determination, we considered whether the NSF Dahlgren INRMP provides a conservation benefit to the Chesapeake Bay DPS of Atlantic sturgeon if the lands and waters of the PRTR were subject to the INRMP. We concluded that the INRMP does not because the management practices in the INRMP offer limited protection to the habitat within the PRTR, and the PRTR covers most of the area that we are designating as the Potomac River critical habitat unit. Designating this area as critical habitat provides a benefit to the Chesapeake Bay DPS, and the PBFs in this area are essential to the conservation of the DPS. Therefore, management practices in the INRMP would have to provide a similar conservation benefit, either directly or indirectly addressing the PBFs that may require special management considerations or protection.
We considered the economic impacts of designating critical habitat in the James River, impacts to national security, and the expected impact to species recovery resulting from the designation. While we have used the best available information and an approach designed to avoid underestimating impacts, many of the potential impacts are speculative and may not occur in the future.
Our conservative identification of potential incremental economic impacts indicates that any such impacts, if they were to occur, would be very small and likely to consist solely of the administrative costs of consultation. We recognize the potential that ESA section 7 consultation stemming from these designations may, sometime in the future, result in project modifications and associated costs. However, discussions with Federal action agencies identified no instances of past project modifications that would have been necessary as a result of Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat having been designated, and these discussions and correspondence with Federal agencies yielded no suggestions that project modifications are likely to result from this designation in the future. Further, even if modifications were to be required to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat, it is extremely unlikely that modifications that would be required to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat would not also be required to avoid jeopardizing the species. Therefore, project modification costs resulting solely from these critical habitat designations are likely to be small, if they were to occur.
In our proposed rule, we explained our preliminary determination that we would not exercise our discretion to consider exclusions. However, based on input received during the public review process raising concerns about the impacts and uncertainties associated with unoccupied critical habitat, and questions raised about the nature of the conservation values these unoccupied units provide, we determined that conducting a discretionary exclusion analysis for areas of unoccupied critical habitat areas in the Carolina and South Atlantic DPS was warranted. Given that occupied units are currently used by Atlantic sturgeon for reproduction and recruitment, and due to the severely depressed levels of all river populations in all 5 DPSs, occupied units are far too valuable to both the conservation and the continuing survival of Atlantic sturgeon to be considered for exclusion.
Section 4(b)(2) of the ESA provides that the Secretary may exclude any area from critical habitat if he determines that the benefits of such exclusion outweigh the benefits of specifying such area as part of the critical habitat. This is true unless he determines, based on the best scientific and commercial data available, that the failure to designate such area as critical habitat will result in the extinction of the species concerned. The legislative history regarding section 4(b)(2) exclusion analyses suggests that the consideration and weight given to impacts is within the Secretary's discretion (H.R. 95-1625), and the Secretary is not required to give economic or any other `relevant impact' predominant consideration in his specification of critical habitat.
Based on that analysis, we have elected to exclude the Santee-Cooper river system (CU1) and Savannah River (SAU1) unoccupied units of critical habitat, because the benefits of exclusion (that is, avoiding some or all of the impacts that would result from designation) outweigh the benefits of designation.
The economist who drafted the economic analysis contacted Federal agencies for input on the number and type of modifications that may occur as a result of critical habitat designations. The Federal agencies did not identify any modifications. We used a 10-year history of ESA section 7 consultations to inform the number and type of ESA section 7 consultations likely to occur in the future. To address uncertainty, the economist provided three different scenarios that affected the overall estimated costs associated with the critical habitat designations. Despite receiving information from Federal agencies that no modifications were anticipated, the economist also presented information for modification costs based on consultations for Federal agency actions that may affect ESA-listed salmon species, as salmon were considered a reasonable proxy for Atlantic sturgeon for this analysis. For example, project modifications might include date restrictions, use of silt fences, upland disposal of excavated material, maintenance of all heavy equipment to minimize pollutant release, use of a bubble curtain to minimize sound effects, and pollution and erosion control.
We consider the incremental impacts of critical habitat designations (
There are conservation benefits of the critical habitat designations, both to the species and to society. While we cannot quantify nor monetize these benefits, we believe they are not negligible and are an incremental effect of the designations.
We disagree with the commenter's claim that consultation with NMFS does not result in demonstrated benefits to listed species. Informal consultation (
We, as the consulting agency, cannot foresee every circumstance that might require ESA section 7 consultation. However, based on the best available information for the presence of Atlantic sturgeon and other ESA-listed species in the Kennebec River critical habitat unit, information from Federal agencies regarding anticipated agency actions and past modifications to projects as a result of ESA section 7 consultation, and the past 10-year consultation history, we determined the most likely scenario is that agency actions that may affect critical habitat, and thus require ESA section 7 consultation, may also affect listed species, including Atlantic sturgeon. Therefore, designating critical habitat is unlikely to result in an increase in the number of ESA section 7 consultations. Consultation that has been completed may need to be reinitiated if the reinitiation triggers have been met. Reinitiation is required when a new species is listed or critical habitat designated that may be affected by the identified action. We anticipate that consultations will need to be reinitiated once the final rule is effective. However, this does not necessarily mean that permits will be reopened or that actions will need to be modified. Modifications to ongoing activities would only be required where a Federal agency has ongoing discretionary control and when the action is likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat and we issue a biological opinion that includes reasonable and prudent alternatives. It is important to note that in nearly all existing section 7 consultations on Atlantic sturgeon, we have included an analysis of effects to habitat.
We have been working closely with action agencies during the rulemaking process and have provided information on the triggers for reinitiation as well as when conference under section 7(a)(4) of the ESA is necessary. Further information about ESA section 7 consultation is available at
Currently, there are two biological opinions for federally funded, authorized, or implemented actions to support fisheries research and sampling in Federal and state waters from Virginia through Maine. These are programmatic consultations for (1) the Northeast Fisheries Science Center's (NEFSC) fisheries and ecosystem research, and (2) surveys undertaken under the USFWS issuance of funds from the Wildlife and Sport Fish Restoration Program to 11 Northeast states and the District of Columbia. Neither of these biological opinions considers effects of the action(s) to proposed critical habitat for any Atlantic sturgeon DPS because the biological opinions were completed before the proposed critical habitat designations.
In a memo to the Greater Atlantic Regional Fisheries Office, the NEFSC determined, following publication of the critical habitat proposed rule, that the actions described in our biological opinion that considered their NEFSC's fisheries and ecosystem research program are not likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of proposed critical habitat. We concurred with the determination. Therefore, because we do not anticipate any changed circumstances, we do not anticipate the need to reinitiate the NEFSC programmatic consultation at this time. We will continue to work with the NEFSC and the USFWS to expeditiously complete ESA section 7 consultations necessary for fisheries research and fisheries monitoring.
The features of Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat are expected to be present year-round. Therefore, “dredge windows” are more effective for avoiding effects to ESA-listed species than for avoiding effects to Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat. Regardless, we would ensure that any recommendations to the USACE or any other party are based on the best available information.
We included mention of the 1870s era data as part of our review of information for the critical habitat designations, and evidence of fall spawning in rivers where Atlantic sturgeon spawn. However, as we stated in the Background section of the proposed rule, spring is the only currently known spawning period for the New York Bight DPS. There is no information that fall spawning currently occurs in the Hudson River.
The Greater Atlantic Region, Protected Resources Division provides information on the ESA section 7 consultation process, including technical assistance, and the Expedited Consultation Program on our Web site. For further information, see
Informal consultation is an optional process that includes all discussions, correspondence, etc., between us and the Federal agency to assist the Federal agency in determining whether formal consultation is required. Informal consultation can be initiated as early as the effects of a proposed Federal action can be identified. We provide information at the web addresses listed above to help Federal agencies determine, at the earliest opportunity, whether and when to initiate consultation with us. We also provide technical assistance to Federal agencies related to questions of whether and where species and designated critical habitat occur to help action agencies determine whether their actions may affect listed species or critical habitat. The ESA section 7 implementing regulations (50 CFR 402.11) address “early consultation” as a preliminary consultation requested by a Federal agency on behalf of a prospective permit or license application prior to the filing of an application for a Federal permit or license. The ESA and its implementing regulations do not identify the earliest opportunity for consultation; however, in practice, the earliest opportunity for entering into formal consultation is when there is a proposed action that is far enough along in development that the effects can be predicted and are reasonably certain to occur.
The VADEQ issued a VPDES permit to Dominion Chesterfield Power Station on September 23, 2016. For further information on this permit, go to
A representative of Virginia Power and Electric Company notified us of the incidental entrainment of the two Atlantic sturgeon larvae following their identification. We began discussions with their staff regarding application for an ESA section 10(a)(1)(B) Incidental Take Permit, including submission of a Habitat Conservation Plan (HCP), in
The critical habitat designations for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon were proposed more than 4 years after the DPSs were listed as endangered or threatened. We began the process of designating critical habitat in 2012. We initially provided a comment period of 90 days, 30 days longer than typical for critical habitat designations. In response to requests for extension, we reopened the comment period for an additional 15 days of comment, making the total comment period 105 days.
We must hold a public hearing on a proposed critical habitat designation at the request of the public. Despite receiving no such requests, we chose to hold two public hearings and announced those in the proposed rule and on our Web page, in emails sent to our distribution lists, and a newspaper with regional readership. We made the public hearings available by telephone as well as in person to increase opportunities for the interested public that would otherwise have had to travel to the hearing location. We did not receive any public comments during the public hearings, and we did not receive any requests for additional public hearings. We also held four informational meetings during which we provided an overview of the proposed rule as a slide presentation, answered procedural questions to help the public formulate their comments, and clarified the instructions for submitting comments. Additionally, we posted information on our Web page, including the slide deck presented at the public information meetings and public hearings, and held an informational webinar for Federal agencies. We used our discretion to go beyond the requirements of the ESA and its implementing regulations and provided multiple means for public participation.
The designation of critical habitat provides a significant regulatory protection—the requirement that Federal agencies ensure, in consultation with the Services under section 7(a)(2) of the ESA, that their actions are not likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. The Federal Government, through its role in water management, flood control, regulation of resource extraction and other industries, Federal land management, and the funding, authorization, and implementation of myriad other activities, may propose actions that may affect critical habitat. The designation of critical habitat ensures that the Federal Government considers the effects of its actions on habitat important to species' conservation and avoids or modifies those actions that are likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. There are conservation benefits of the critical habitat designations, both to the species and to society. While we cannot quantify or monetize these benefits, we believe they are not negligible and are an incremental effect of the designations.
Genetic analyses have shown that Atlantic sturgeon natal to the Delaware River have a unique genetic structure. Such uniqueness arises when adults characteristically return to spawn in the river in which they were spawned and mixing with other populations is limited.
Year after year, male and female Atlantic sturgeon in spawning condition occur in the Delaware River in areas and at times when spawning would occur. In addition, the reporting and retrieval of dead large, adult Atlantic sturgeon in the Delaware River, sometimes with evidence of spawning condition such as ripe eggs or milt, occurs more frequently in the spring; the time period when we expect Atlantic sturgeon spawn in the Delaware River.
The opportunity to witness sturgeon spawning is difficult given the environment in which they spawn, and human observation of spawning sturgeon is potentially harmful to sturgeon (
With respect to the example provided by the commenter, the commenter mischaracterized our use of the language cited from the Indian Point Biological Opinion. We provided the text in the biological opinion and cited the source of the information as part of the review of available literature for Atlantic sturgeon in the Hudson River. The best available information that we used to describe the PBFs of Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat is cited in the Background of this rule and in the Impacts Analysis and Biological Source Document for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs.
The commenter seems to believe that because our determinations differ from SCDNR's on certain aspects of the designation, for example the use of shortnose sturgeon as a proxy for Atlantic sturgeon or how to interpret the lack of data regarding Atlantic sturgeon presence in certain stretches of a river, our rule did not use the best scientific information available. Our determinations were based on the 2007 Atlantic sturgeon status review (ASSRT, 2007), the ESA listing rules (77 FR 5914; February 6, 2012), scientific research reports, information and data gathered during the peer-review process, a database developed by the U.S. Geological Survey for mapping environmental parameters within East Coast rivers to identify sturgeon habitat, as well as information on the location of sturgeon spawning activity from scientific reports. We also reviewed reports from a NMFS-funded multi-year, multi-state grant on movement and migration of Atlantic sturgeon that included information collected by the SCDNR. Finally, the SCDNR provided a peer-reviewer to evaluate the biological information that went into the proposed rule. The reviewer provided critiques which were incorporated into the proposed rule. Thus, while the SCDNR may disagree with our approach in certain cases (
As stated previously, we have chosen to exercise our discretion under section 4(b)(2) of the ESA and exclude unoccupied units of critical habitat, including the reservoirs of Lake Moultrie and Lake Marion.
Prior to the construction of the Santee-Cooper Project, the Santee River system supported a significant spawning population of Atlantic sturgeon. As described in the final listing rule (77 FR 5880; February 6, 2012), based on Secor (2002), the Santee-Cooper system had some of the highest historical landings of Atlantic sturgeon in the Southeast. From 1970-1995, 151 subadult Atlantic sturgeon, including age-1 juveniles, were collected from the Santee River (Collins and Smith, 1997). In 2004, 15 subadult Atlantic sturgeon were captured in surveys targeting shortnose sturgeon in the Santee River estuary with a juvenile Atlantic YOY captured the year prior in the Santee River (77 FR 5880; February 6, 2012). These data, considered the best scientific information available, provide evidence of an existing spawning population in the Santee River. The best scientific information available also indicates the PBFs essential to the conservation and recovery of the species occur in the Santee River, including potential spawning habitat in the reach of the river below Wilson Dam. Fish passage that is a requirement of the new hydropower license to the South Carolina Public Service Authority (SCPSA) will provide access to historical spawning grounds once passage is implemented. Thus, an occupied critical habitat designation is appropriate to protect the PBFs existing below the dams.
Additionally, in March 2011, SCDNR captured 19 adult shortnose sturgeon in the tailrace of the Pinopolis Dam and tagged 18 with acoustic telemetry tags and released them; the other fish had been tagged previously. Two of the tagged shortnose sturgeon moved through Pinopolis Lock, through Lakes Marion and Moultrie, and both fish entered the Wateree River. One shortnose sturgeon was recorded on the receiver at the Wateree Tailrace (approximately
There is little information on sturgeon movement in the Congaree River and Broad River. However, biological information was available for us to prescribe sturgeon passage when relicensing the Columbia Hydropower Project in 2002 given: (1) The 1.758 acres (7,115 square meters) of shoal habitats that exist above the project, and (2) the Broad River was likely an important spawning habitat for sturgeons (DOC, 2002).
However, as stated previously, we have decided to exercise our discretion under section 4(b)(2) of the ESA and exclude these unoccupied areas from the designation.
For similar reasons, we believe our upstream boundary on the Combahee-Salkehatchie River is correct. Post
In requesting that we designate the St. Johns River, Florida as critical habitat, the commenters contend: (1) The St. Johns River may have historically had a subpopulation of Atlantic sturgeon; (2) freshwater spawning and rearing habitats are available in the Ocklawaha River, a tributary to the St. Johns River; and (3) spawning habitat exists above the Kirkpatrick Dam on the St. Johns River, which would become accessible if the dam were breached or removed. To this latter point, the commenters provided a letter from the U.S. Forest Service indicating the removal of the dam infrastructure and restoration of the Ocklawaha River would result in substantial downstream and upstream benefits. The commenters indicated that while they could not predict exactly when the Ocklawaha River would be accessible to Atlantic sturgeon, the U.S. Forest Service's support for the removal of the dam and restoration of the river creates a reasonable assumption that the Kirkpatrick Dam will be “passable in the future.” Further, they suggested designating the area as critical habitat may hasten the restoration of the river to its natural course.
The same commenters also stated the South Atlantic DPS is endangered with only nine rivers listed to produce juveniles over the entire DPS range but listing a tenth (the St. Johns) river would add another river with the potential to produce juveniles in the DPS. They also suggest colonizing juveniles (and adults) are available from the Altamaha River, which is within easy swimming range (about 200 miles; 321 km) from the St. Johns River. Finally, they indicated that fish in the southernmost rivers in the species' range will likely have adaptations important for the entire range of subpopulations in the DPS during the future period of climate warming. They stated, “Subpopulations in the South Atlantic can share genetic adaptations within their DPS and with more northerly DPS during spawning to more quickly adapt the species to a changing environment.”
Based on that analysis, we have elected to exclude the Santee-Cooper river system (CU1) and Savannah River (SAU1) unoccupied units of critical habitat. We determined the benefits of exclusion (that is, avoiding some or all of the impacts that would result from designation) outweigh the benefits of designation.
In terms of costs to permittees, we took a conservative approach in estimating that each type of Federal action that could involve a third-party permittee, would actually involve a permittee in the future, and included estimated administrative costs for those entities in our analysis (see IA, Section 3.3.1).
Our review determined no category of future Federal action would have routes of effects solely to the PBF(s) of critical habitat and not also have potential routes of adverse effects to Atlantic and/or shortnose sturgeon. However, in the case of USACE issuance of permits under section 404 of the CWA or section 10 of the Rivers and Harbors Act (RHA), we conservatively estimated that every one of these future actions would result in incremental impacts because these types of actions could in theory be implemented while migratory sturgeon are not present in a project's action area. Regarding the specific types of costs mentioned by the commenter, it is not clear that these costs would be attributable incrementally to the ESA, and would not instead be a baseline requirement of the FPA that governs the re-licensing process. If the types of activities are identified by FERC as required to comply with the ESA, it is likely that these studies and meetings would address potential impacts to both sturgeon and critical habitat, and as such these costs are part of the baseline requirement to consult to evaluate potential impacts to these species. Thus, we do not agree that designation of critical habitat would create the additional, incremental costs suggested by the commenter.
Section 316(b) of the CWA requires cooling water intake structures (CWIS) to reflect the best technology available (BTA) for minimizing adverse environmental impacts. Adverse environmental impacts include, but are not limited to, impingement and entrainment of organisms at CWIS, and changes in flow regime, caused by the withdrawal of water. Under section 316(b), the EPA is required to issue regulations on the design and operation of intake structures to minimize adverse impacts. The EPA issued its Final Regulations to Establish Requirements for Cooling Water Intake Structures at Existing Facilities and Amend Requirements at Phase I Facilities on August 15, 2014 (79 FR 48300). The following is a summary of EPA's description of the main components of the rule as follows. First, existing facilities that withdraw at least 25 percent of their water from an adjacent waterbody exclusively for cooling purposes and have a design intake flow of greater than 2 million gallons (7.6 million liters) per day (MGD) are required to reduce fish impingement under the final regulations. To ensure flexibility, the owner or operator of the facility will be able to choose one of seven options for meeting best technology available requirements for reducing impingement. Second, existing facilities that withdraw very large amounts of water—at least 125 MGD (473 million liters per day)—are required to conduct studies to help their permitting authority determine whether and what site-specific controls, if any, would be required to reduce the number of aquatic organisms entrained by cooling water systems. This decision process would include public input. Third, new units that add electrical generation capacity at an existing facility are required to add technology that achieves one of two alternatives under the national BTA standards for entrainment for new units at existing facilities. Under the first alternative new unit entrainment standard, the owner or operator of a facility must reduce actual intake flow (AIF) at the new unit, at a minimum, to a level commensurate with that which can be attained by the use of a closed-cycle recirculating system. Under the second alternative new units entrainment standard, the owner or operator of a facility must demonstrate to the permit issuer (
The commenters did not provide information for us to determine whether and to what extent they are affected by EPA's section 316(b) regulations. Nonetheless, we do not believe this critical habitat designation will increase any impacts to commenters related to section 316(b), for the following reasons. The Services consulted with EPA on the impacts of its nationwide application of the section 316(b) rule and issued a biological opinion concluding the rule would not jeopardize any listed species or destroy or adversely modify any critical habitat under the Services' jurisdictions (USFWS and NMFS, 2014). No additional consultations are required under the biological opinion and EPA's rule; instead, the Services are engaged by permit issuers (EPA, or state or Tribal governments) in a 60-day review of permits under consideration, prior to the permits being published for public comment. A provision of EPA's rule requires affected permit applicants to include threatened or endangered species or critical habitat that may be in the action area of their facilities in the assessments required for their permit applications. The Services may provide recommendations on measures to protect listed species, including measures that would minimize any incidental take of listed species, and/or avoid likely jeopardy to a listed species or destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat. If we reviewed a 316(b) permit application for a CWIS in Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat, we would first evaluate whether there are any routes of adverse effects to listed species or to the critical habitat. Conceivably, CWIS could affect the water quality essential features of water depth, temperature, DO and salinity values, depending on the amount and timing of the water withdrawals/discharges. However, any such effects would also affect listed species including Atlantic and shortnose
At the same time, dredging may adversely affect Atlantic and shortnose sturgeon. The types of adverse effects are not likely to be temporary and limited to periods of sturgeon absence, and they are likely to be implemented in lower parts of the units where sturgeon can be expected to be present year-round. Thus, adverse effects of navigation maintenance dredging activities are likely to involve coextensive formal consultations to address impacts to both the species and the essential PBFs. Removal or covering of spawning substrate could interfere with the services this PBF is designed to provide—settlement of fertilized eggs and refuge, growth and development of early life stages. These effects to the essential PBF would also be adverse effects to sturgeon eggs, larvae and early life stages that were not able to settle, grow, develop or seek refuge. Project modifications to address both these impacts to the PBF and the sturgeon could involve limiting the amount or location of substrate removed, or turbidity controls to prevent sediment deposition on hard substrate. Similarly, adverse effects of dredging in removing the soft substrate PBF that would interfere with provision of juvenile foraging services, could also injure or kill juveniles seeking to use that foraging habitat. Coextensive project modifications might be similar to those mentioned for impacts to the hard substrate feature. Changing the salinity regime by deepening harbors and parts of rivers would remove portions of the transitional salinity zone feature that is being designated to provide foraging and developmental habitat services to juveniles; loss of portions of this habitat could impede development of juveniles using the remaining habitat, or prevent the habitat from supporting some juveniles. Coextensive project modifications that might be required to prevent or lessen these impacts could involve changes in the depth of deepening a harbor, port, or river. The deepening of harbors and ports may also create hypoxic zones which would impact the water quality PBF that is designed to ensure survival of sturgeon. Coextensive project modifications that might be required to prevent hypoxic zones could include limiting the amount of deepening or requiring the use of aeration systems. Thus, we did not assert there would be no project modifications to avoid adverse effects to critical habitat, but as described above, project modifications would address adverse impacts to both critical habitat and sturgeon, thus the costs of such modifications would not be incremental impacts of this rule.
The Navy described training activities that occur on the lower Neuse River as including small boat launch and recovery, high-speed boat tactics training, small boat defense drills, and small arms fire. We do not see a route of potential effects from these activities to the PBFs of critical habitat, and thus there would be no additional consultation burdens beyond any requirements to address impacts to the species. Thus, the designation would not impact military training related to national security in these areas.
With respect to the consultation requirements for the bottom disturbing activities identified, as outlined in the IA, our review of all Federal actions that may adversely affect designated Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat determined none of those types of actions, including federally-permitted fishery research, would solely affect the PBFs of critical habitat and not also have potential routes of adverse effects to Atlantic and/or shortnose sturgeon. We acknowledge that actions occurring within designated critical habitat will require an analysis and additional administrative cost to ensure Federal actions are not likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. Yet, those additional analyses will be added to consultations that would occur anyway, to consider potential impacts to sturgeon. Therefore, the designation of critical habitat is not anticipated to cause the significant additional costs or delays suggested by the commenter.
We evaluated all existing dams and other structures that are upstream of the proposed upper boundaries of all of the critical habitat units. We found that for the specific existing facilities at issue, dams outside of critical habitat and upstream from a dam that forms the boundary of critical habitat are not expected to have adverse effects to either unoccupied or occupied critical habitat and would not require consultation. This is due to large distances between upstream dams and the dams that form the boundary of critical habitat, and the presence of intervening structures, dams, or water bodies that dilute the effects of upstream dams relative to the effects of dams on the border of critical habitat.
In our long history of past and ongoing consultations, we have considered the effects that in-river activities (including dredging) would have on both Atlantic and shortnose sturgeon and their shared habitats, where applicable. A main focus of all our past consultations on Federal actions in rivers (
Based on the comments received for the proposed rule, Designation of Critical Habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic Sturgeon (81 FR 35701; June 3, 2016), we have made several changes in the final rule:
1. The boundary for the upstream extent of the Pamunkey River, has been moved upstream by 14 rkm. This change was based on a comment we received from the Virginia Institute of Marine Science that, based on new data, the area with suitable hard bottom substrate and used by spawning Atlantic sturgeon in the York River System extends farther upstream on the Pamunkey River than what we proposed. This supplements the existing data we relied upon for the proposed rule. We determined that the additional 14 km of Pamunkey River habitat was essential to the conservation of the Chesapeake Bay DPS and should be part of the designated critical habitat for the York River System. The York River System critical habitat unit now includes 206 rkm instead of 192 rkm.
2. The 16 rkm of the proposed Susquehanna River Critical Habitat Unit are not designated as critical habitat. We received comments requesting removal of the Susquehanna River critical habitat unit and comments requesting inclusion of the upper Chesapeake Bay. Upon review, we determined that PBF number 2 (a salinity gradient to support juvenile growth and physiological development) is not present in the Susquehanna River unit, and is not likely to be present in the future. Therefore, because we determined that the coexistence of all four features is essential to reproduction and recruitment, based on the information available, the lowermost 16 rkm of the Susquehanna River do not contain the PBFs essential to the reproduction or recruitment of the Chesapeake Bay DPS and we are not designating this area as Chesapeake Bay DPS critical habitat.
3. The 60 rkm of the Nanticoke River from the Maryland State Route 313 Bridge crossing near Sharptown, MD, to where the main stem discharges at its mouth into the Chesapeake Bay as well as Marshyhope Creek from its confluence with the Nanticoke River and upriver to the Maryland State Route 318 Bridge crossing near Federalsburg, MD, are designated as critical habitat for the Chesapeake Bay DPS, and it will be called the Nanticoke River critical habitat unit. We announced in the supplementary document for the
4. We corrected the map for the James River critical habitat unit. The map used in the proposed rule incorrectly placed the downriver boundary of critical habitat in the area of Hampton Roads. The textual description of the James River critical habitat in the proposed rule was correct.
5. The table describing the states and counties in which critical habitat is being designated has been updated. It now includes Dorchester and Wicomico Counties on the Nanticoke River.
6. The description of PBF number 2 includes two changes. The phrase “between the river mouths and spawning sites” replaces “downstream of spawning sites.” As previously written, we were concerned the public might construe “downstream of spawning sites” to include bays or sounds below rkm 0; this was not our intent. We believe the change more accurately reflects the boundaries of critical habitat. Additionally, the words “up to as high as ” were added after 0.5 and before 30 to clarify acceptable salinity ranges. Because the freshwater inputs vary from year to year, and river to river, it is possible that during a high freshwater flow year, the salinity levels within a unit may never reach 30 ppt. As previously written, the wording suggested that the gradual downstream gradient would have to encompass the entire 0.5-30 ppt salinity range; this was not our intent. This change is meant to acknowledge that the entire salinity range is not required.
7. In PBF number 3, the examples of what may constitute barriers were expanded, and the phrase “at least 1.2 m” replaces “≥1.2 m” for clarity.
8. The phrase “between the river mouths and spawning sites” was inserted in the language of PBF number 4. This change clarifies the areas designated as critical habitat as described under PBF number 2. Additionally, for clarity of the example, the phrase “6 mg/L DO or greater” replaces “6 mg/L dissolved oxygen.”
9. We have included and clarified in regulatory provisions for all five DPSs that manmade structures that do not provide the essential PBFs are not included in critical habitat.
Based on the comments received for the proposed rule, Critical Habitat for the Endangered Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic Sturgeon (81 FR 36077; June 3 2016), we have made several changes in the final rule:
10. The boundary for the upstream extent of the Ogeechee River has been moved downstream by 28 rkm, from the confluence of North Fork and South Fork Ogeechee Rivers to Mayfield Mill Dam; the Unit now includes 420 rkm instead of 448 rkm.
11. The boundary for the upstream extent of the Black River, South Carolina, has been moved downstream by 50 rkm from Interstate Highway 20 to Interstate Highway 95; the Unit now includes 203 rkm instead of 253 rkm.
12. The description of South Atlantic Unit 3 has been updated to include a number of significant branches of the Savannah River that we intended to be considered critical habitat, and were included in the maps of the critical habitat unit, but were not specifically mentioned in the regulatory text. The unit description now includes: The Back River, Middle River, Front River, Little Back River, South River, Steamboat River, and McCoy's Cut.
13. Carolina Unoccupied Unit 1 has been removed due to uncertainty regarding whether that stretch of the Cape Fear River contains spawning habitat that would make it essential to the conservation of the species.
14. We have chosen to exercise our discretion under section 4(b)(2) of the ESA and exclude Carolina Unoccupied Unit 2 and South Atlantic Unoccupied 1,
15. The table describing the states and counties in which critical habitat is being designated has been updated. It now includes Monroe and Wilcox counties on the Ocmulgee River, Treutlen County on the Oconee River, and Warren County on the Ogeechee River. All four counties occur in Georgia and were inadvertently omitted from the table. Additionally, we changed the upstream boundary of the Black River, South Carolina, and the Ogeechee River, Georgia, and removed all three unoccupied critical habitat units entirely. As a result of these changes, Calhoun, Fairfield, Kershaw, Lee, Lexington, New Berry, Sumter, Orangeburg, and Richland counties, South Carolina; Columbia, Edgefield and Taliaferro counties, Georgia; and Bladen County, North Carolina, will no longer be affected; those counties have been removed from the table. We also removed Irwin and Jasper counties, Georgia, from the list because they are not affected by any critical habitat unit.
16. The description of PBF number 1 initially referred to “suitable hard bottom substrate (
17. The description of PBF number 2 includes three changes. Initially it said “[t]ransitional salinity zones inclusive of waters with a gradual downstream gradient of 0.5-30 ppt and soft substrate (
18. In PBF number 3, we were concerned the term “physical” might be confusing to the public with regards to the full suite of potential barriers that can impede sturgeon movement. As a result, we provided additional examples of physical barriers, including thermal plumes, turbidity, and sound.
19. The phrase “between the river mouths and spawning sites” replaces “downstream of spawning sites” in the language of PBF number 4. This change clarifies the areas designated as critical habitat as described under PBF number 2.
20. For the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs, paragraph (iii) of PBF
Additionally, an example used in paragraph (iii) of PBF number 4 referenced a single value of DO that was likely to support juvenile rearing habitat (
21. Seven rkms of the Cooper River, South Carolina, are no longer being designated as critical habitat pursuant to section 4(a)(3)(B) of the ESA. Our analysis determined the Joint Base Charleston base has an INRMP that provides an applicable benefit to the species that would have been otherwise afforded by critical habitat, and therefore the area of the Cooper River is not eligible for designation as critical habitat for Atlantic sturgeon.
22. We have clarified our reasoning for determining the upstream extent of each unit in the descriptions of each river.
We used the same approach to identify and designate critical habitat for the five DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon. However, our approach for designating critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon was described in the supplemental information to the Impacts Analysis, whereas our approach for designating critical habitat for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic Sturgeon was described in the proposed rule (81 FR 36077; June 3, 2016). Therefore, much of the information in the Impacts Analysis and proposed rule is repeated in this final rule that designates critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon to show that we used the same approach for all five DPSs.
Critical habitat represents the habitat that contains the PBFs that are essential to the conservation of the listed species and that may require special management considerations or protection (78 FR 53058; August 28, 2013). For example, specifying the geographical location of critical habitat facilitates implementation of section 7(a)(1) of the ESA by identifying areas where Federal agencies can focus their conservation programs and use their authorities to further the purposes of the ESA by carrying out programs for the conservation of listed species. Designating critical habitat also provides a significant regulatory protection by ensuring that the Federal Government considers the effects of its actions in accordance with section 7(a)(2) of the ESA and avoids or modifies those actions that are likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. This requirement is in addition to the section 7 requirement that Federal agencies ensure that their actions are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of ESA-listed species. Critical habitat requirements do not apply to citizens engaged in activities on private land that do not involve a Federal agency. However, designating critical habitat can help focus the efforts of other conservation partners (
Critical habitat is defined by section 3 of the ESA as (1) the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed, on which are found those physical or biological features (a) essential to the conservation of the species and (b) which may require special management considerations or protection; and (2) specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination by the Secretary that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species (16 U.S.C. 1532(5)(A)). Conservation is defined in section 3 of the ESA as “to use and the use of all methods and procedures which are necessary to bring any endangered species or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to this chapter are no longer necessary” (16 U.S.C. 1532(3)). Therefore, critical habitat includes specific areas within the occupied geographical area of the species at the time of listing that contains the features essential for the species' recovery. Critical habitat may also include unoccupied areas determined to be essential to species' conservation and recovery. However, section 3(5)(C) of the ESA clarifies that except in those circumstances determined by the Secretary, critical habitat shall not include the entire geographical area which can be occupied by the threatened or endangered species.
To identify and designate critical habitat, we considered information on the distribution of Atlantic sturgeon, the major life stages, habitat requirements of those life stages, and conservation objectives that can be supported by identifiable PBFs. In the final rule listing the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon (77 FR 5880; February 6, 2012), destruction, modification or curtailment of habitat, overutilization, lack of regulatory mechanisms for protecting the fish, and other natural or manmade factors (
Accordingly, our step-wise approach for identifying potential critical habitat areas for the five Atlantic sturgeon DPSs was to determine: The geographical area occupied by each DPS at the time of listing; the PBFs essential to the conservation of the DPSs; whether those PBFs may require special management considerations or protection; the specific areas of the occupied geographical area where these PBFs occur; and, whether any unoccupied areas are essential to the conservation of any DPS.
“Geographical area occupied by the species” in the definition of critical habitat is interpreted to mean the entire
The listing rules identified the known spawning rivers for each of the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs but did not describe the in-river ranges for the DPSs. The river ranges of each DPS consist of all areas downstream of the first obstacle to upstream migration (
Within the geographical area occupied by the species, critical habitat consists of specific areas on which are found those PBFs essential to the conservation of the species and that may require special management considerations or protection. PBFs are defined as the features that support the life-history needs of the species, including water characteristics, soil type, geological features, sites, prey, vegetation, symbiotic species, or other features. A feature may be a single habitat characteristic, or a more complex combination of habitat characteristics. Features may include habitat characteristics that support ephemeral or dynamic habitat conditions. Features may also be expressed in terms relating to principles of conservation biology, such as patch size, distribution distances, and connectivity (50 CFR 424.02).
The ability of subadults to find and access food is necessary for continued survival, growth, and physiological development to the adult life stage. Likewise, given that Atlantic sturgeon mature late and do not necessarily spawn annually, increased adult survival would improve the chances that adult Atlantic sturgeon spawn more than once. We determined that facilitating increased survival of all Atlantic sturgeon life stages as well as successful adult reproduction, and juvenile and subadult recruitment into the adult population, would likely increase the abundance of each DPS. We considered these conservation objectives to help us identify the physical or biological features of the critical habitat designations when we reviewed the literature describing the various types of habitat used by the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon for the various life functions.
Within the area occupied by Atlantic sturgeon, we considered the various types of habitat used by the DPSs for various life functions. Atlantic sturgeon spend the majority of their adult lives in offshore marine waters. They are known to travel extensively up and down the East Coast. As summarized in a number of summary documents, including the Atlantic Sturgeon Status Review (ASSRT, 2007) and the ASMFC's review of Atlantic coast diadromous fish habitat (Green
Atlantic sturgeon use estuarine areas for foraging, growth, and movement. Atlantic sturgeon subadults and adults in non-spawning condition use estuarine waters seasonally, presumably for foraging opportunities, although evidence in the form of stomach content collection and analysis is limited (Savoy and Pacileo, 2003; Dzaugis, 2013). We considered all studies that have collected Atlantic sturgeon stomach contents. All of the prey species identified are indicative of benthic foraging, but different types of prey were consumed and different substrates were identified for the areas where Atlantic sturgeon were foraging (Bigelow and Schroeder, 1953; Johnson
Atlantic sturgeon spawning behavior and early life history have been extensively studied and are fairly well understood, though the exact location of spawning sites on many rivers (particularly in the Southeast) is not known or can change from time to time as water depth and substrate availability changes. However, there is substantial information in the scientific literature indicating the physical characteristics of Atlantic sturgeon spawning and early life history habitat. Therefore, to evaluate potential critical habitat, we focused on identifying the PBFs that support Atlantic sturgeon reproduction and survival of early life stages.
The scientific literature indicates that Atlantic sturgeon spawning occurs well upstream, at or near the fall line of rivers, over hard substrate consisting of rock, pebbles, gravel, cobble, limestone, or boulders (Gilbert, 1989; Smith and Clugston, 1997). Hard substrate is required so that highly adhesive Atlantic sturgeon eggs have a surface to adhere to during their initial development and young fry can use the interstitial spaces between rocks, pebbles, cobble, etc., to hide from predators during downstream movement and maturation (Gilbert, 1989; Smith and Clugston, 1997).
Very low salinity (
Minimum water depths for Atlantic sturgeon spawning are necessary to: (1) Allow adult fish to access spawning substrate, (2) adequately hydrate and aerate newly deposited eggs, and (3) facilitate successful development and downstream movement of newly spawned Atlantic sturgeon. However, water depth at these important spawning areas in the Southeast can be dynamic and portions of rivers may be dry or have little water at times due to natural seasonal river fluctuations, temporary drought conditions, and/or regulation by manmade structures such as dams; thus, these sites require protection to provide consistent services for sturgeon. The scientific literature indicates that Atlantic sturgeon spawn in water depths from 3-27 m (9.8-88.6 ft) (Borodin, 1925; Leland, 1968; Scott and Crossman, 1973; Crance, 1987; Bain
We considered fluid dynamic features as another potential essential feature of Atlantic sturgeon spawning critical habitat. The scientific literature provides information on the importance of appropriate water velocity within Atlantic sturgeon spawning habitat and provides optimal flows for some rivers. Atlantic sturgeon spawn directly on top of gravel in fast flowing sections often containing eddies or other current breaks. Eddies promote position holding between spawning individuals, trap gametes facilitating fertilization, and diminish the probability of egg dislocation by currents—facilitating immediate adhesion of eggs to the gravel substrate (Sulak and Clugston, 1999). However, velocity data are lacking for many rivers, and where data are available, the wide fluctuations in velocity rates on a daily, monthly, seasonal, and annual basis make it difficult to identify a range of water velocity necessary for the conservation of the species. However, we do know that water flow must be continuous.
Adult Atlantic sturgeon must be able to safely and efficiently move from downstream areas into upstream spawning habitats in order to successfully spawn. In addition, larvae and juvenile Atlantic sturgeon must be able to safely and efficiently travel from the upstream spawning areas downstream to nursery and foraging habitat. Therefore, an essential PBF for Atlantic sturgeon spawning is unobstructed migratory pathways for safe movement of adults to and from upstream spawning areas as well as safe movement for the larvae and juveniles moving downstream. An unobstructed migratory pathway means an unobstructed river or a dammed river that still allows for passage.
Water quality can be a critically limiting factor to Atlantic sturgeon in the shallow, warm, poorly oxygenated rivers of the southeast United States. Conditions in these river systems can change rapidly, particularly in rivers managed for hydropower production, and conditions can quickly become suboptimal or lethal for sturgeon. We considered essential water quality PBFs that support movement and spawning of adults and growth and development of juvenile Atlantic sturgeon. The distribution of Atlantic sturgeon juveniles in the natal estuary is a function of physiological development and habitat selection based on water quality factors of temperature, salinity, and DO, which are inter-related environmental variables. In laboratory studies with salinities of 8 to 15 ppt and temperatures of 12 and 20 °C, juveniles less than a year old had reduced growth at 40 percent DO saturation, grew best at 70 percent DO saturation, and selected conditions that supported growth (Niklitschek and Secor, 2009 I; Niklitschek and Secor, 2009 II). Results obtained for age-1 juveniles (
In summary, within the area occupied by Atlantic sturgeon, we considered the various types of habitat used by the species for various life functions. We determined that Atlantic sturgeon spend the majority of their adult lives in offshore marine waters where they are known to travel extensively up and down the East Coast. However, we could not identify any PBFs in marine waters essential to the conservation of the species. We also determined Atlantic sturgeon subadults and adults use estuarine areas for foraging, growth, and movement. The ability of subadults to find and access food is necessary for continued survival, growth, and physiological development to the adult life stage. Likewise, given that Atlantic sturgeon mature late and do not necessarily spawn annually, increased adult survival would improve the chances that adult Atlantic sturgeon spawn more than once. Therefore, we determined a conservation objective for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs is to increase the abundance of each DPS by facilitating increased survival of all life stages. After examining the information available on spawning and early life history behavior and habitat, we also concluded that facilitating adult reproduction and juvenile and subadult recruitment into the adult population are other conservation objectives for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon. We could not identify any specific PBFs essential to the conservation of the species that support adult and subadult foraging in estuarine or marine environments. We determined that protecting spawning areas, juvenile development habitat, the in-river habitats that allow adults to reach the spawning areas and newly spawned sturgeon to make a safe downstream migration, and water quality to support all life stages, will facilitate meeting the conservation objectives discussed above.
Given the biological needs and tolerances, and environmental conditions for Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon as summarized previously, and the habitat-based conservation objectives, we identified the following PBFs essential to their conservation. As we have discussed, these PBFs may be ephemeral or vary spatially across time. Thus, areas designated as critical habitat are not required to have the indicated values at all times and within all parts of the area:
• Hard bottom substrate (
• Aquatic habitat with a gradual downstream salinity gradient of 0.5 up to as high as 30 ppt and soft substrate (
• Water of appropriate depth and absent physical barriers to passage (
• Water, between the river mouth and spawning sites, especially in the bottom meter of the water column, with the temperature, salinity, and oxygen values that, combined, support: Spawning; annual and interannual adult, subadult, larval, and juvenile survival; and larval, juvenile, and subadult growth, development, and recruitment (
Given the biological needs and tolerances, and environmental conditions for Atlantic sturgeon in rivers of the Southeast as summarized previously, and the habitat-based conservation objectives, we identified the following PBFs essential to Atlantic sturgeon conservation. As we have discussed, these PBFs may be ephemeral or vary spatially across time. Thus, areas designated as critical habitat are not required to have the indicated values at all times and within all parts of the area:
• Hard bottom substrate (
• Aquatic habitat inclusive of waters with a gradual downstream gradient of 0.5 up to as high as 30 ppt and soft substrate (
• Water of appropriate depth and absent physical barriers to passage (
• Water quality conditions, especially in the bottom meter of the water column, between the river mouths and spawning sites with temperature and oxygen values that support: (1) Spawning; (2) annual and inter-annual adult, subadult, larval, and juvenile survival; and (3) larval, juvenile, and subadult growth, development, and recruitment. Appropriate temperature and oxygen values will vary interdependently, and depending on salinity in a particular habitat. For example, 6.0 mg/L DO or greater likely supports juvenile rearing habitat, whereas DO less than 5.0 mg/L for longer than 30 days is less likely to support rearing when water temperature is greater than 25 °C. In temperatures greater than 26 °C, DO greater than 4.3 mg/L is needed to protect survival and growth. Temperatures of 13 to 26 °C likely support spawning habitat.
The definition of critical habitat instructs us to identify specific areas on which the PBFs essential to the species' conservation are found. Our regulations state that critical habitat will be defined by specific limits using reference points and lines on standard topographic maps of the area, and referencing each area by the state, county, or other local governmental unit in which it is located (50 CFR 424.12(c)). To identify where the PBF(s) occur within areas occupied by Atlantic sturgeon, we reviewed the best scientific information available,
Information on documented spawning in specific areas in the Southeast is rare, but some does exist. For example, large sections of the Altamaha River have been found to support Atlantic sturgeon spawning activities for many years (Peterson
There are large areas of most rivers where data are still lacking. The available data also may represent a snapshot in time, while the exact location of a habitat feature may change over time (
For Southeast rivers, when data were not available for certain rivers or portions of occupied rivers, we used our general knowledge of Atlantic sturgeon spawning and applied river-specific information to determine the location of PBFs essential to spawning. We considered salinity tolerance during the earliest life stages to determine appropriate habitat for larvae to develop as they mature. Available telemetry data suggest that most Atlantic sturgeon spawning activity in the Savannah and Altamaha Rivers starts around rkm 100 (Post
To encompass all areas important for Atlantic sturgeon spawning, reproduction, and recruitment within rivers where spawning is believed to occur or may occur, we identified specific areas of critical habitat from the mouth (rkm 0) of each spawning river to the upstream extent of the spawning habitat. For rivers that are not dammed and do not reach the fall line, an easily identifiable landmark (
To identify specific habitats used by an Atlantic sturgeon DPS in occupied rivers, we considered the best scientific information available that described: (1) Capture location and/or tracking locations of Atlantic sturgeon identified to its DPS by genetic analysis; (2) capture location and/or tracking locations of adult Atlantic sturgeon identified to its DPS based on the presence of a tag that was applied when the sturgeon was captured as a juvenile in its natal estuary; (3) capture or detection location of adults in spawning condition (
Several large coastal rivers within the geographical area occupied by the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon do not appear to support spawning and juvenile recruitment or to contain suitable habitat features to support spawning. These rivers are the Chowan and New Rivers in North Carolina; the Waccamaw (above its confluence with Bull Creek which links it to the Pee Dee River), Sampit, Ashley, Ashepoo, and Broad-Coosawhatchie Rivers in South Carolina; and the St. Johns River in Florida. We have no information, current or historical, of Atlantic sturgeon using the Chowan and New Rivers in North Carolina. Recent telemetry work by Post
The Roanoke River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of juveniles, the collection of eggs, and the tracking location of adults. Further, there was information indicating the historical use of the Roanoke River by Atlantic sturgeon.
Atlantic sturgeon were historically abundant in the Roanoke River and Albemarle Sound, but declined dramatically in response to intense fishing effort in the late 1800s (Armstrong and Hightower, 2002). There is still a population present in the Albemarle Sound and Roanoke River (Armstrong and Hightower, 2002; Smith
Historical records and recent research provide accounts of Atlantic sturgeon spawning within the fall zone (rkm 204-242) of the Roanoke River (Yarrow, 1874; Worth, 1904; Armstrong and Hightower, 2002; Smith
Historical and current data indicate that spawning occurs in the Roanoke River, where both adults and small juveniles have been captured. Since 1990, the NCDMF has conducted the Albemarle Sound Independent Gill Net Survey (IGNS). From 1990 to 2006, 842 sturgeon were captured ranging from 15.3 to 100 cm fork length (FL), averaging 47.2 cm FL. One hundred and thirty-three (16 percent) of the 842 sturgeon captured were classified as YOY (41 cm total length (TL), 35 cm FL); the others were subadults (ASSRT, 2007). A recent study by Smith
A scientific survey also shows the presence of adult Atlantic sturgeon in the Roanoke River. Using side-scan sonar, Flowers and Hightower (2015) conducted surveys near the freshwater-saltwater interface with repeated surveys performed over 3 days. The surveys detected 4 Atlantic sturgeon greater than 1 m TL. Based on these detections, an abundance estimate for riverine Atlantic sturgeon of 10.9 (95 percent confidence interval 3-36) fish greater than 1 m was calculated for the Roanoke River. This estimate does not account for fish less than 1 m TL, occurring in riverine reaches not surveyed, or in marine waters.
The Tar-Pamlico River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on the evidence of spawning and the capture of juveniles. The Tar-Pamlico River, one of two major tributaries to Pamlico Sound, is dammed. However, all riverine spawning habitat is accessible to Atlantic sturgeon in the Tar-Pamlico River, because the lower-most dam, the Rocky Mount Mill Pond Dam (rkm 199), is located at the fall line.
Evidence of spawning was reported by Hoff (1980), after the capture of very young juveniles in the Tar River. Two juveniles were observed dead on the bank of Banjo Creek, a tributary to the Pamlico System (ASSRT, 2007). A sampling program similar to the Albemarle Sound IGNS collected 14 Atlantic sturgeon in 2004. These fish ranged in size from 460 to 802 mm FL and averaged 575 mm FL. The NCDMF Observer Program reported the capture of 12 Atlantic sturgeon in the Pamlico Sound from April 2004 to December 2005; these fish averaged 600 mm TL (ASSRT, 2007).
The Neuse River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of small juveniles. Bain (1997) reports that “early juveniles” (20-440 mm FL) remain in their natal rivers until they become “intermediate juveniles” (450-630 mm FL) and begin gradually emigrating from the river during periods of rapid growth. Hoff (1980) reports sturgeon studies in the Neuse and Pamlico Rivers and Pamlico Sound captured low numbers of small (400-600 mm TL) sturgeon. The NCDMF Observer Program and an independent gill net survey report the captures of Atlantic sturgeon in the Neuse River were low during the period 2001-2003, ranging from zero to one fish/year. However, in 2004, this survey collected 5 Atlantic sturgeon ranging from 470-802 mm FL; none could be classified as early juveniles and 3 could be classified as intermediate juveniles. In 2005, 23 Atlantic sturgeon were captured ranging from 365-650 mm FL; 9 could be classified as early juveniles and 14 could be classified as intermediate juveniles. From 2006-2013, another nine Atlantic sturgeon were captured ranging in size from 480-2,300 mm FL; the most caught in any given year during that period was four (2004). Of those nine animals, none would be classified as early juveniles but four could be classified as intermediate juveniles. One 720 mm TL Atlantic sturgeon was captured in 2014. Seventeen Atlantic sturgeon were caught in 2015 ranging in size from 365-1,435 mm FL; four could be classified as early juveniles and eight could be classified as intermediate juveniles. In 2016, three Atlantic sturgeon were captured ranging in size from 464-656 mm FL; none could be classified as early juveniles and two could be classified as intermediate juveniles (M. Loeffler, NCDMF, to A. Herndon, NMFS, pers. comm. March 2017). From 2002-2003, four Atlantic sturgeon (561-992 mm FL) were captured by North Carolina State University personnel sampling in the Neuse River (Oakley, 2003). Similarly, the NCDMF Observer Program documented the capture of 12 Atlantic sturgeon in the Pamlico Sound from April 2004 to December 2005; none of these were YOY or spawning adults, averaging approximately 600 mm TL (ASSRT, 2007). Three additional specimens of YOY captured in the Neuse River in 1974 were found in a collection at North Carolina State University (J. Hightower, NCSU, to A. Herndon, NMFS, pers. comm. March 2017). An additional record of a YOY captured in the Neuse River in 1974, was provided by the North Carolina Museum of Natural Sciences (G. Hogue, NCMNS, to A. Herndon, NMFS, pers. comm. March 2017). Because sturgeon cannot pass above the Milburnie Dam, we believe that dam is likely the farthest upstream extent of spawning habitat accessible to Atlantic sturgeon.
The Cape Fear and Northeast Cape Fear Rivers were identified as spawning rivers for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of juveniles, the capture of adults in spawning condition, and the tracking location of adults, and information indicating the historical use by Atlantic sturgeon. In the late 1800s, the Cape Fear River had the largest landings of sturgeon in the southeastern United States (Moser and Ross, 1995). While species identification (
A gill net survey for adult shortnose and juvenile Atlantic sturgeon was conducted in the Cape Fear River drainage from 1990 to 1992, and replicated from 1997 to 2005. Each sampling period included two overnight sets. The 1990-1992 survey captured 100 Atlantic sturgeon below Lock and Dam #1 (rkm 95). In 1997, 16 Atlantic sturgeon were captured below Lock and
Recent telemetry work conducted in the Cape Fear and Northeast Cape Fear Rivers showed that subadult Atlantic sturgeon movement and distribution followed seasonal patterns (Loeffler and Collier in Post
Further evidence of the importance of this system is demonstrated by the movement patterns of one of five adult Atlantic sturgeon tagged during the study that has shown site fidelity. This individual fish was in ripe and running condition at the time of tagging. This fish subsequently returned to the Cape Fear River system each of the following years (2013 and 2014) and has been detected farther upstream in both the Cape Fear (rkm 95) and Northeast Cape Fear (rkm 132) rivers than any tagged subadult fish during this study. This fish did not use the fish passage rock arch ramp at Lock and Dam #1; however, at the time when it was present at the base of the dam, the rock arch ramp structure was only partially complete. In all years of the study this fish had movement patterns that are consistent with spawning behavior, and this demonstrates that both the Northeast Cape Fear and Cape Fear Rivers may be important spawning areas. While telemetry data have not indicated Atlantic sturgeon presence above Lock and Dam #1, we believe the fish passage present at the dam is successful or that fish pass through the lock. We base this determination on reports of Atlantic sturgeon above Lock and Dam #1 (F. Rohde, NMFS, pers. comm. to J. Rueter, NMFS, July 14, 2015). Because sturgeon cannot currently pass above the Lock and Dam #2, we believe that dam is likely the farthest upstream extent of spawning habitat currently accessible to Atlantic sturgeon in the occupied unit of the river. The Northeast Cape River is not dammed and does not extend all the way to the fall line. For these reasons we used an easily identifiable landmark (
The Pee Dee River System was identified as providing spawning habitat used by Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of juveniles, the capture of adults in spawning condition, and the tracking location of adults. Captures of age-1 juveniles from the Waccamaw River during the early 1980s suggest that a reproducing population of Atlantic sturgeon existed in that river, although the fish could have been from the nearby Pee Dee River (Collins and Smith 1997). Additionally, telemetry data from tagged adult Atlantic sturgeon appear to show individuals making spawning runs into the Pee Dee River by traveling up the Waccamaw River, through Bull Creek, and into the Pee Dee River. (B. Post, SCDNR, pers. comm. to J. Rueter, NMFS, July 9, 2015).
Based on preliminary analyses of sturgeon detections during their study, Post
The Black River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of juveniles and the tracking location of adults. During a telemetry study from 2011 to 2014, Post
The Santee-Cooper River system was identified as a spawning river system for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of YOY. The Santee River basin is the second largest watershed on the Atlantic Coast of the United States; however, with the completion of Wilson Dam in the 1940s, upstream fish migrations were restricted to the lowermost 145 rkms of the Santee River. Following construction of the Wilson and Pinopolis Dams, the connectivity between the coastal plain and piedmont was lost. In the 1980s, a fish passage facility at the St. Stephen powerhouse, designed to pass American shad and blueback herring, was completed that attempted to restore connectivity throughout the system. The passage facility has not been successful for Atlantic sturgeon (Post
Historically, the Cooper River was a small coastal plain river that fed into Charleston Harbor. The completion of the Santee Cooper hydropower project in the 1940s dramatically changed river discharge in the Cooper River. From the 1940s into the 1980s, nearly all river discharge of the Santee River was diverted through the Santee Cooper project, run through the hydroelectric units in Pinopolis Dam, and discharged down the Tailrace Canal and into the Cooper River. In the 1980s, the Rediversion Project redirected part of the system's discharge back to the Santee River; however, a significant discharge of freshwater still flows into the Cooper River. The Cooper River provides the dominant freshwater input for the Charleston Harbor and provides 77 rkm of riverine habitat (Post
The capture of 151 subadults, including age-1 fish, from 1970-1995 indicates a population exists in the Santee River (Collins and Smith, 1997). Four juvenile Atlantic sturgeon, including YOY, were captured in the winter of 2003, one in the Santee and three in the Cooper Rivers (McCord, 2004). These data support the existence of a spawning population, but SCDNR biologists working in the Santee-Cooper system believe the smaller fish are pushed into the system from the Pee Dee and/or Waccamaw Rivers during flooding conditions (McCord, 2004). This hypothesis is based on the lack of access to suitable spawning habitat due to the locations of the Wilson Dam on the Santee River, the St. Stephen Powerhouse on the Rediversion Canal, and the Pinopolis Dam on the Cooper River. Nonetheless, the Santee-Cooper River system appears to be important foraging and refuge habitat and could serve as important spawning habitat once access to historical spawning grounds is restored through a fishway prescription under the FPA (NMFS, 2007). In addition, hard substrate that could be used for spawning exists in the reach of the Santee River below the Wilson Dam, but has been rendered inaccessible by inadequate flow regimes below the dam. We anticipate this will be addressed in the new hydropower license for the Santee-Cooper project.
In a recent telemetry study by Post
The Edisto is the largest river in the Ashepoo, Combahee, Edisto (ACE) Basin. It begins in the transition zone between piedmont and coastal plain and is unimpeded for its entire length. It is the longest free flowing blackwater river in South Carolina. During excessive rainy seasons it will inundate lowlands and swamps, and the flow basin increases to a mile (1.6 km) wide or more. The Edisto River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of an adult in spawning condition and capture location and tracking of adults.
Spawning adults (39 in 1998) and YOY (1,331 from 1994-2001) have been captured in the ACE basin (Collins and Smith, 1997; ASSRT, 2007). One gravid female was captured in the Edisto River during sampling efforts in 1997 (ASSRT, 2007). Seventy-six Atlantic sturgeon were tagged in the Edisto River during a 2011 to 2014 telemetry study (Post
The Combahee-Salkehatchie River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on capture location and tracking locations of adults and the spawning condition of an adult. Spawning adults (39 in 1998) and YOY (1,331 from 1994-2001) have been captured in the ACE basin (Collins and Smith, 1997; ASSRT, 2007). One running ripe male was captured in the Combahee River during a sampling program in 1997 (ASSRT, 2007). Seven Atlantic sturgeon were captured and five were tagged during a 2010 and 2011 telemetry study (Post
The Savannah River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on capture location and tracking locations of adults and the collection of larvae. Forty-three Atlantic sturgeon larvae were collected in upstream locations (rkm 113-283) near presumed spawning locations (Collins and Smith, 1997). Seven Atlantic sturgeon were also tagged from 2011 to 2014 and distinct movement patterns were evident (Post
The Ogeechee River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on tracking of adults and YOY. Seventeen Atlantic sturgeon (each measuring less than 30 cm TL) considered to be YOY were collected in 2003 by the Army's Environmental and Natural Resources Division (AENRD) at Fort Stewart, Georgia. An additional 137 fish were captured by the AENRD in 2004. Nine of these fish measured less than 41 cm TL and were considered YOY. During a telemetry study from 2011 to 2014, there were no capture or tagging efforts conducted in the Ogeechee River; however, 40 Atlantic sturgeon were detected in the Ogeechee River (Ingram and Peterson, 2016). A rock shoal exists at the fall line on the Ogeechee River. However, it is possible that during certain high flow periods Atlantic sturgeon could pass above those shoals. Instead, the impassable Mayfield Mill Dam likely represents the extent of upstream spawning habitat accessible to Atlantic sturgeon on the Ogeechee River.
The Altamaha River and its major tributaries, the Oconee and Ocmulgee Rivers, were identified as spawning rivers for Atlantic sturgeon based on capture location and tracking of adults and the capture of adults in spawning condition. The Altamaha River supports one of the healthiest Atlantic sturgeon subpopulations in the Southeast, with over 2,000 subadults captured in trammel nets in a 2003-2005 study, 800 of which were nominally age-1 as indicated by size (ASSRT, 2007). A survey targeting Atlantic sturgeon was initiated in 2003 by the University of Georgia. By October 2005, 1,022 Atlantic sturgeon had been captured using trammel and large gill nets. Two hundred and sixty-seven of these fish were collected during the spring spawning run in 2004 (74 adults) and 2005 (139 adults). From these captures, 308 (2004) and 378 (2005) adults were estimated to have participated in the spring spawning run, representing 1.5 percent of Georgia's historical spawning stock (females) as estimated from U.S. Fish Commission landing records (Schueller and Peterson, 2006; Secor 2002).
In a telemetry study by Peterson
Forty-five adult Atlantic sturgeon were captured and tagged from 2011 to 2013 (Ingram and Peterson, 2016). Telemetry data from the tagged individuals indicated that the fish were present in the system from April through December. Twenty-six fish made significant (>160 rkm) migrations upstream with eight fish making the migration in at least two of the years and four making the migration in all three years of the study. No site fidelity was apparent based on these data; however, an upriver site near the confluence of the Ocmulgee (rkm 340-350) was visited by multiple fish in multiple years. Fish migrated upstream into both the Ocmulgee and Oconee Rivers, but the majority entered the Ocmulgee River. The maximum extent of these upriver migrations was rkm 408 in the Ocmulgee River and rkm 356 in the Oconee River (Ingram and Peterson, 2016).
Two general migration patterns were observed for fish in this system. Early upriver migrations that began in April-May typically occurred in two steps, with fish remaining at mid-river locations during the summer months before continuing upstream in the fall. The late-year migrations, however, were typically initiated in August or September and were generally non-stop. Regardless of which migration pattern was used during upstream migration, all fish exhibited a one-step pattern of migrating downstream in December and early January (Ingram and Peterson, 2016). Sinclair Dam is approximately 15 rkm above the fall line on the Oconee River and represents the upstream boundary of critical habitat on the river. The Juliette Dam on the Ocmulgee River is approximately 40 rkm above the fall line and represents the upstream boundary of critical habitat on the river.
The Satilla River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of adults in spawning condition. Ong
The St. Marys River was identified as a spawning river for Atlantic sturgeon based on the capture of YOY Atlantic sturgeon. Atlantic sturgeon were once thought to be extirpated in the St. Marys River. However, nine Atlantic sturgeon were captured in sampling efforts between May 19 and June 9, 2014. Captured fish ranged in size from 293 mm (YOY) to 932 mm (subadult). This is a possible indication of a slow and protracted recovery in the St. Marys (D. Peterson, UGA, pers. comm. to J. Rueter, NMFS PRD, July 8, 2015). The main stem of the St. Marys River runs out well before the fall line. Thus, we believe the upstream extent of spawning habitat in the river is at the confluence of the Middle Prong St. Marys and St. Marys Rivers.
Using this information, we identified 14 areas within the geographical area occupied by the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs, at the time of listing, that contain the PBFs essential to conservation of the species. Our descriptions of the critical habitat units and PBFs for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs use both the terms “river mouth” and “rkm 0.” Those terms are interchangeable and we use them as such.
The ordinary high water mark on each bank of the river and shorelines is the lateral extent of the following occupied critical habitat units:
We concluded that each of the PBFs defined above for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon may require special management considerations or protection. Barriers (
The PBFs essential for successful Atlantic sturgeon reproduction and recruitment may also require special management considerations or protection as a result of global climate change. Conditions in the rivers of the Southeast used by sturgeon already threaten the species' survival and recovery due to exceedances of temperature tolerances and the sensitivity of sturgeon to low DO levels; these impacts will worsen as a result of global climate change and predicted warming of the U.S. Atlantic Coast. Many communities and commercial facilities withdraw water from the rivers containing the PBFs essential to Atlantic sturgeon reproduction. Water withdrawals during drought events can affect flows, depths, and the position of the salt wedge, further impacting the water flow necessary for successful sturgeon reproduction, and they can also affect DO levels. Attempts to control water during floods (
ESA section 3(5)(A)(ii) defines critical habitat to include specific areas outside the geographical area occupied if the areas are determined by the Secretary to be essential for the conservation of the species. Our regulations at 50 CFR 424.12(g) also state: “The Secretary will not designate critical habitat within foreign countries or in other areas outside of the jurisdiction of the United States.”
There are riverine areas outside of the geographical area occupied by the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs as a result of dams and natural falls. We considered whether these unoccupied areas were essential to the conservation of the respective DPSs and concluded that they were not essential because nearly all known historical habitat is accessible to the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs (ASSRT, 2007; 77 FR 5880; February 6, 2012) and, because additional unoccupied habitat is not necessary in light of any
For the Carolina and South Atlantic DPS, we had proposed to designate areas of unoccupied critical habitat. However, based on input received during the public review process, we reconsidered those proposals. After discussion with USFWS and state resource managers, we are uncertain whether the Cape Fear River unoccupied unit (
Section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) of the ESA prohibits designating as critical habitat any lands or other geographical areas owned or controlled by the DOD, or designated for its use, that are subject to an INRMP prepared under section 101 of the Sikes Act (16 U.S.C. 670a), if the Secretary determines in writing that such plan provides a benefit to the species for which critical habitat is proposed for designation. The legislative history to this provision explains:
The conferees would expect the [Secretary] to assess an INRMP's potential contribution to species conservation, giving due regard to those habitat protection, maintenance, and improvement projects and other related activities specified in the plan that address the particular conservation and protection needs of the species for which critical habitat would otherwise be proposed. Consistent with current practice, the Secretary would establish criteria that would be used to determine if an INRMP benefits the listed species for which critical habitat would be proposed. (Conference Committee report, 149 Cong. Rec. H. 10563 (November 6, 2003)).
Our regulations at 50 CFR 424.12(h) provide that in determining whether an applicable benefit is provided, we must consider:
(1) The extent of the area and features present;
(2) The type and frequency of use of the area by the species;
(3) The relevant elements of the INRMP in terms of management objectives, activities covered, and best management practices, and the certainty that the relevant elements will be implemented; and
(4) The degree to which the relevant elements of the INRMP will protect the habitat from the types of effects that would be addressed through a destruction-or-adverse-modification analysis.
In accordance with section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) of the ESA, the particular areas of the U.S. Military Academy—West Point, New York, Joint Base Langley—Eustis, Virginia, Marine Corps Base Quantico, Virginia, Naval Support Facility Dahlgren, and Naval Weapons Station Yorktown, that overlap with a New York Bight DPS or Chesapeake Bay DPS critical habitat unit are not part of the designated critical habitat unit because the INRMP for each facility provides a benefit to the respective Atlantic sturgeon DPS and its habitat. A copy of the letter providing our determination for each facility is provided in Appendix C of the Impacts Analysis and Biological Source Document for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon. That Appendix also includes our analysis supporting the conclusion that the relevant INRMPs provide the types of benefits to Atlantic sturgeon described in our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(h)); therefore, that analysis is not repeated here.
Joint Base Charleston (JBC) in South Carolina is the only installation controlled by the DOD which coincides with any area under consideration for critical habitat for the Carolina DPS. Prior to development of the proposed rule, we asked JBC to determine if they owned or controlled any lands that should not be designated as critical habitat pursuant to section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) of the ESA. They responded stating they did not believe they owned or controlled any lands eligible for section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) non-inclusion. However, during the public comment period, the Navy requested in writing that the restricted area on the Cooper River, South Carolina (defined at 33 CFR 334.460), not be designated as critical habitat, citing that it is covered by the 2015 INRMP for JBC and should not be included pursuant to ESA section 4(a)(3)(B)(i).
The regulations at 33 CFR 334.460 identify 16 specific areas, including some far from JBC. We determined the areas described in those regulations fall into three categories: (1) Areas outside the boundaries of critical habitat and therefore ineligible for non-designation consideration under section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) and not included in critical habitat (no need to request that these areas not be included); (2) areas within the boundaries of critical habitat, but not subject to an INRMP, and thus ineligible for non-designation consideration; and (3) areas within critical habitat, subject to an INRMP, which are eligible for non-designation consideration.
Of the 16 areas identified in 33 CFR 334.460, we determined seven entire areas (33 CFR 334.460 (a)(2), (3), (7), (8)(i), (11)-(13)), and a portion of another (33 CFR 334.460 (a)(1)—Noisette Creek), did not meet the definition of critical habitat and were ineligible for non-designation consideration. We determined four additional areas (33 CFR 334.460 (a)(1), (4)-(6)) were in the second category and also ineligible for non-designation consideration.
However, we did conclude the five remaining areas (33 CFR 334.460 (a)(8)(ii)-(iv), (9), (10)) fell under the JBC INRMP and were eligible for non-designation consideration. The JBC INRMP covers the lands encompassed by JB CHS Air (formerly Joint Base Charleston Air Force Base) in Charleston County and lands encompassed by JB CHS Weapons (formerly Naval Weapons Station Charleston) in Charleston and Berkeley Counties. JB CHS Air also includes North Auxiliary Airfield in Orangeburg County. Within the area covered by the INRMP, three of the four PBF(s) could be present (all but the spawning substrate). Atlantic sturgeon are expected to use the features in this area in the same way that they would all other areas of designated critical habitat; in other words, there is nothing unique or limiting about the critical habitat in this area.
The INRMP for JBC acknowledges that the estuarine waters of the Cooper River in the vicinity of JBC Weapons provide foraging and migratory habitat for Atlantic sturgeon. The INRMP notes that water pollution at JBC Weapons is a concern due to the large amount of essential fish habitat on and around the installation. The INRMP discusses that there are 26 water quality monitoring stations in the vicinity of JBC that are on the Clean Water Act section 303(d) list of impaired waterbodies, that these stations are located in a designated TMDL watershed, and that 16 of the stations are located within the Cooper River drainage surrounding JBC Weapons. While none of the monitoring stations have a TMDL, in 2013 the State of South Carolina revised their TMDL for DO for Charleston Harbor, and the Cooper, Ashley and Wando Rivers (SCDHEC, 2013). In the revised TMDL, the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SCDHEC) notes that a number of monitoring stations in the covered area, including the Cooper River, are designated as not supporting aquatic life use due to low DO. SCDHEC also notes that available data and modeling indicate that regulated and unregulated stormwater and nonpoint sources are not contributing to allowable DO depression on main stem segments in Charleston Harbor, or the Cooper, Ashley, and Wando Rivers. JBC Weapons has three NPDES permits—one industrial and two stormwater. JBC is implementing a Stormwater Management Plan that addresses water quality for the entire storm sewer collection system.
Section 7.4 of the INRMP addresses management of threatened and endangered species, species of concern, and their habitats. In the subsection for Atlantic sturgeon, the INRMP
(1) Repairing/revitalizing stormwater drainage systems;
(2) Updating the Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan and the Stormwater Management Plan;
(3) Repairing forestry roads and culverts;
(4) Including performance-based goals in grounds maintenance to help minimize erosion and sediment transport to the Cooper River;
(5) Implementing BMPs to improve water quality discharged to the Cooper River, including training, identifying and correcting illicit discharges, enforcing erosion and sedimentation controls;
(6) Limiting dredge operations in the Nuclear Power Training Unit ship channel and other shipping/receiving facilities to the minimum extent required;
(7) Maintaining and/or developing protective buffer strips where feasible around wetlands along streams; and
(8) Practicing ecologically-sound forest management.
These activities provide a benefit to the PBFs identified in the critical habitat designations, particularly the transitional salinity zone/soft substrate and water quality PBFs, by reducing sediment and nutrient discharges into nearshore waters, which addresses some of the conservation and protection needs that critical habitat would afford. These activities are similar to those that we describe below as project modifications for avoiding or reducing adverse effects to the critical habitat. Therefore, were we to consult with the DOD on the activities in the INRMP that may affect the critical habitat, we would likely not require any project modifications based on the best management practices in the INRMP. Further, the INRMP includes provisions for monitoring and evaluating conservation effectiveness, which will ensure continued benefits to the species. The INRMP must be reviewed by participating Federal and state resource management agencies on a regular basis, but not less often than every five years. JB CHS will also provide us an opportunity to review the INRMP, as protected species under our jurisdiction (
Section 4(b)(2) of the ESA requires that we consider the economic impact, impact on national security, and any other relevant impact, of designating any particular area as critical habitat. Additionally, the Secretary has the discretion to consider excluding any area from critical habitat if [s]he determines, based upon the best scientific and commercial data available, the benefits of exclusion (that is, avoiding some or all of the impacts that would result from designation) outweigh the benefits of designation. The regulations at 50 CFR 424.19(h) provide the framework for how we intend to implement section 4(b)(2) of the ESA. These regulations were revised in 2016 (81 FR 7413; February 11, 2016). In particular, Congress has authorized the Secretary to “exclude any area from critical habitat if [s]he determines that the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of specifying such area as part of the critical habitat, unless [s]he determines, based on the best scientific and commercial data available, that the failure to designate such area as critical habitat will result in the extinction of the species concerned” (ESA section 4(b)(2)). Because the authority to exclude is discretionary, exclusion is not required for any particular area, under any circumstances; however, under the final policy (81 FR 7226; February 11, 2016), if NMFS determines it is appropriate to conduct an exclusion analysis on some or all areas of a designation, it is our general practice to exclude an area when the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion.
The ESA provides the Services with broad discretion in how to consider impacts. See, H.R. Rep. No. 95-1625, at 17, reprinted in 1978 U.S.C.C.A.N. 9453, 9467 (1978) (“Economics and any other relevant impact shall be considered by the Secretary in setting the limits of critical habitat for such a species. The Secretary is not required to give economics or any other ‘relevant impact' predominant consideration in his specification of critical habitat . . . The consideration and weight given to any particular impact is completely within the Secretary's discretion.”). Courts have noted the ESA does not contain requirements for any particular methods or approaches. See,
The following discussion of impacts summarizes the analysis contained in our final Impacts Analysis and Biological Source Document for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon. The administrative cost of conducting ESA section 7 consultations was determined to be the primary source of economic impacts as a result of designating critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs. The number of incremental consultations over the next 10 years will likely be relatively small, because Atlantic sturgeon of a given life stage are likely to be either directly or indirectly affected by the Federal activities projected to occur within the proposed critical habitat. Since nearly all, if not all, the ESA section 7 consultations we anticipate to occur over the next 10 years will need to evaluate potential effects to both the Atlantic sturgeon DPS(s) present in the area and the critical habitat, the impacts will be coextensive. Therefore, the low administrative cost estimates are the most realistic cost estimates. The projected low administrative costs of designating all of the Gulf of Maine DPS critical habitat units total $816,574.20 over the next 10 years. The projected low administrative costs for the New York Bight DPS critical habitat units total $1,418,299.30 over the next 10
We considered information provided by the Navy for impacts to national security the Navy expects to result from critical habitat designation for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs. We determined that any resulting ESA section 7 consultations for Navy activities within the critical habitat areas will likely be coextensive and that based on this, as well as the types of activities the Navy will undertake in the critical habitat, there will be no impacts to national security resulting from the designation of critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight or Chesapeake Bay DPS.
There are a number of potential beneficial impacts of designating critical habitat that extend beyond the conservation benefits to Atlantic sturgeon. Because it is often difficult to quantify the benefits of designating critical habitat, Executive Order (EO) 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, provides guidance on assessing costs and benefits. The EO directs Federal agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives, and to select those approaches that maximize net benefits.
The designation of critical habitat will provide conservation benefits such as improved education and outreach by informing the public about areas and features important to the conservation of the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs. Specifying the geographical location of critical habitat facilitates implementation of section 7(a)(1) of the ESA by identifying areas where Federal agencies can focus their conservation programs and use their authorities to further the purposes of the ESA. Designating critical habitat can also help focus the efforts of other conservation partners (
Based on our consideration of impacts, we are not excluding any areas from the critical habitat designations for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon based on economic, national security, or other relevant impacts. The designation of critical habitat will provide conservation benefits such as improved education and outreach by informing the public about areas and features important to the conservation of the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs. There are also a number of potential beneficial impacts of designating critical habitat that extend beyond the conservation benefits to Atlantic sturgeon. For example, protecting essential PBFs of sturgeon habitat, including preserving water quality and natural flow regimes, will benefit other organisms that are co-located in these areas. While we cannot quantify nor monetize the benefits, we believe they are not negligible and would be an incremental benefit of this designation. Therefore, we have declined to exercise our discretion to exclude any particular area from the proposed critical habitat units for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon.
The Impacts Analysis and Biological Source Document for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs provides specific information on the Economic, National Security and Other Relevant Impacts considered for the critical habitat designations for these DPSs and therefore is not repeated here. Specific information for these impacts as well as the determination for Discretionary Exclusions under section 4(b)(2) for the critical habitat designations for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs is provided below.
The following discussion of impacts summarizes the analysis contained in our final “Impacts Analysis of Critical Habitat Designation for the Carolina and South Atlantic Distinct Population Segments of Atlantic Sturgeon (
The primary impacts of a critical habitat designation result from the ESA section 7(a)(2) requirement that Federal agencies ensure their actions are not likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat, and that they consult with us in fulfilling this requirement. Determining these impacts is complicated by the fact that section 7(a)(2) also requires that Federal agencies ensure their actions are not likely to jeopardize the species' continued existence. One incremental impact of designation is the extent to which Federal agencies modify their proposed actions to ensure they are not likely to destroy or adversely modify the critical habitat beyond any modifications they would make because of listing and the results of a jeopardy analysis. When the same modification would be required due to impacts to both the species and critical habitat, the impact of the designation is coextensive with the ESA listing of the species (
The Impacts Analysis describes the projected future Federal activities that would trigger section 7 consultation requirements because they may affect the PBF(s), and consequently may result in economic costs or negative impacts. The report also identifies the potential national security and other relevant impacts that may arise due to the critical habitat designation, such as positive impacts that may arise from conservation of the species and its habitat, state and local protections that may be triggered as a result of designation, and education of the public to the importance of an area for species conservation.
Economic impacts of the critical habitat designation result through implementation of section 7 of the ESA in consultations with Federal agencies to ensure their proposed actions are not likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. These economic impacts may include both administrative and project modification costs; economic impacts that may be associated with the conservation benefits of the designation are described later.
When identifying costs, we examined the ESA section 7 consultation record over the last 10 years, as compiled in our PCTS database, to identify the types of Federal activities that may adversely affect Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat. We also requested that Federal action agencies provide us with information on future consultations if we omitted any future actions likely to affect the proposed critical habitat. No new categories of activities were identified through this process. Of the types of past consultations that “may affect” some or all of the PBF(s) in any unit of critical habitat, we determined that no activities would solely affect the PBFs essential for conservation. That is, all categories of the activities we identified that could impact the PBFs also had the potential of “take” resulting from the listing of the species.
In the proposed rule we identified 15 categories of activities implemented by 10 different Federal entities as likely to recur in the future and have the potential to affect the PBF(s). Based on comments from EPA, we added a category for EPA for the triennial approval of state water quality standards. Listed below is the agency, description of the activity, and total number of projected consultations anticipated over the next 10 years indicated in parentheses:
1. USACE—Navigation maintenance dredging, harbor expansion (14);
2. USACE—Water Resources Development Act (WRDA) flood control, ecosystem restoration studies (6);
3. USACE—WRDA dam operations, repair, fishway construction (3);
4. USACE—Clean Water Act (CWA) section 404/Rivers and Harbors Act (RHA) section 10 permitting—dredge, fill, construction (20);
5. Federal Highway Administration (FHWA)—Bridge repair, replacement (67);
6. U.S. Coast Guard (USCG)—Bridge repair, replacement permitting (3);
7. FERC—Hydropower licensing (5);
8. FERC—Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) facilities, pipelines authorization (5);
9. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)—Nuclear power plant construction/operation licensing (8);
10. NMFS—ESA research and incidental take permitting (section 10) (46);
11. USFWS—Fishery management grants (11);
12. EPA—Nationwide pesticide authorizations (9);
13. EPA—State water quality standard reviews (12);
14. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)—Disaster assistance/preparation grants (5); and
15. Department of Energy (DOE)—Nuclear fuel management (3).
In total, we estimated that 217 activities would require section 7 consultation over the next 10 years to consider impacts to Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs. As discussed in more detail in our final IA, all the activities identified as having the potential to adversely affect one or more of the PBF(s) also have the potential to take Atlantic sturgeon. For most, if not all, of the projected future activities, if the effects to critical habitat will be adverse and require formal consultation, those effects would also constitute adverse effects to the species, either directly when they are in the project area, or indirectly due to the effects on their critical habitat. This is due to the ecological functions of these PBFs. For example, water quality is being identified as an essential PBF to facilitate successful spawning, annual and inter-annual adult, larval, and juvenile survival, and larval, juvenile and subadult growth, development, and recruitment. Effects to the water quality PBF that impede that conservation objective could injure or kill individual Atlantic sturgeon, for example, by preventing adult reproduction, or rendering reproduction ineffective or resulting in reduced growth or mortality of larvae, juveniles or subadults. In these circumstances, the same project modifications would be required to address effects to both the species and effects to the critical habitat. Thus, projects that adversely affect the PBF(s) are likely to always also take the species and the project impacts would not be incremental.
For some of the projected activities, it may be feasible to conduct the action when sturgeon are out of the action area. If effects to critical habitat are temporary such that the PBF(s) return to their pre-project condition by the time the sturgeon return and rely on the PBFs, there might not be any adverse effects to either the species or the critical habitat. In these circumstances, consultations would be fully incremental consultations only on critical habitat, and the consultations would be informal (
Costs of the nine EPA nationwide pesticide consultations were treated differently. These consultations will involve all listed species and all designated critical habitat under our jurisdiction, and thus costs attributable solely to this final rule designating critical habitat for Atlantic sturgeon are expected to be only a very small part of that cost. To be conservative, we added nine consultations to each critical habitat unit for all five DPSs. We spread the costs of these 9 consultations ($5,080 each) evenly across all 31 critical habitat units. This resulted in a total cost of $1,474.84 per unit over 10 years.
The 12 consultations on EPA approval of state water quality standards were also treated differently. EPA expects to conduct three statewide consultations regarding their approval of state water quality standards in each of the four states covered by the designation of critical habitat for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs. For these two DPSs, we have split the incremental administrative costs of 3 statewide consultations ($15,240) equally across all the units within each state, added these costs to the 10-year totals, and derived the annual totals from these figures, because these are not annual actions. We added the costs projected across two states to units that occur in two states. Total costs for these consultations are $3,048 per unit in North Carolina, $2,540 per unit in Georgia, and $2,177.14 in South Carolina. Costs for units bordering 2 states are $5,225.14 in the Pee Dee River unit, $4,717.14 in the Savannah River unit, and $17,780 in the St. Marys unit (the costs of the 3 statewide water quality standards (WQS) consultations in Florida are attributed wholly to this single unit in the state, added to the costs of Georgia WQS consultations). We have added three consultations to the number expected in each unit, but the total number of consultations for each DPS consists of three consultations per each state with units in that DPS. This approach avoids underestimating the costs in any unit but would overestimate the total costs expected.
In our impacts analysis, we concluded that none of the projected future activities are likely to require project modifications to avoid adverse effects to critical habitat PBFs that would be different from modifications required to avoid adverse effects to sturgeon. In other words, we projected no incremental costs for actions in a critical habitat unit other than the administrative costs of section 7 consultations. While there may be serious adverse impacts to critical habitat from projected future projects that require project modifications to avoid destroying or adversely modifying critical habitat, impacts of these magnitudes to the PBF(s) as defined would also result in adverse effects to Atlantic sturgeon, either directly when they are in the project area, or indirectly as harm, resulting from impacts to their habitat that result in injury or death. The same project modifications would be required to avoid destroying or adversely modifying critical habitat and avoiding jeopardy, or minimizing take of Atlantic sturgeon caused by impacts to its habitat.
Based on our final Impacts Analysis for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs, we project that the costs that will result from the designation of critical habitat will total $1,154,475 over the next 10 years. The total incremental cost resulting from the designation for the Carolina DPS is $526,447, and the total incremental cost resulting from the designation for the South Atlantic DPS is $628,027, over 10 years. The annual cost per-unit ranges widely from $873 (Carolina Unit 6—Black River, Carolina DPS) to $23,523 (South Atlantic Unit 3—Occupied Savannah River, South Atlantic DPS).
Previous critical habitat designations have recognized that impacts to national security result if a designation would trigger future ESA section 7 consultations because a proposed military activity “may affect” the PBFs essential to the listed species' conservation. Anticipated interference with mission-essential training or testing or unit readiness, through the additional commitment of resources to an adverse modification analysis and expected requirements to modify the action to prevent adverse modification of critical habitat, has been identified as a negative impact of critical habitat designations. (See,
On February 14, 2014, and again in October 7, 2015, we sent letters to the DOD and the Department of Homeland Security requesting information on national security impacts of the proposed critical habitat designations, and we received responses from the Navy, Air Force, Army, and USCG. We discuss the information contained within the responses thoroughly in the Impacts Analysis, and we summarize the information below.
The Navy's first submission provided information on its facilities and operations. However, the Navy was not able to make a full assessment of whether there would be any national security impacts. The Navy indicated that as we define our PBF(s) and areas more precisely, they would be able to provide a more detailed response to our requests and would update their INRMPs as necessary for the protection of Atlantic sturgeon and its critical habitat. The Navy's second submission noted that Naval Submarine Base Kings Bay was adjacent to the South Atlantic DPS critical habitat unit in the St. Marys River. The Navy stated it did not own or control any land or waters within the St. Marys channel, but that the TRIDENT-class submarines used 4.9 km of the waterway transiting to and from the Atlantic Ocean. The Navy stated that any operational or dredging restrictions that would impede maintenance of the channel from the Intracoastal Waterway and St. Marys channel intersection, downstream, could pose a national security risk. Typically we consult with the USACE for dredging actions, and in this case the Navy would be the permit applicant. We determined that dredging has the potential to affect critical habitat, but we also concluded that consultations for effects of dredging on critical habitat will be fully-coextensive with consultations to address impacts to sturgeon (both shortnose and Atlantic). The effects of dredging on PBF(s) would also result in injury or death to individual sturgeon, and thus constitute take. Removal or covering of spawning substrate could prevent effective spawning or result in death of eggs or larvae that are spawned. Changing the salinity regime by deepening harbors and parts of rivers could result in permanent decreases of available foraging and developmental habitat for juveniles. These types of adverse effects are not likely to be temporary and limited to periods of sturgeon absence. Thus, adverse effects of dredging activities identified by the Navy would be likely to be coextensive in formal consultations to address impacts to both the species and the PBF(s), and thus no new requirements or project modifications are anticipated as a result of the critical habitat designation. Therefore, after considering the action identified by the Navy at Kings Bay, we find there will be no impact on national security as a consequence of the critical habitat designation for these actions.
Both the Navy and Air Force expressed concern that designating the Cooper River, including the riverine
The Army noted that Military Ocean Terminal-Sunny Point was located on the Cape Fear River, North Carolina, and Fort Stewart was located on the Ogeechee River, Georgia. The Army was not able to make a full assessment whether there would be any national security impacts and concluded that technical assessments to occur between the installations and NMFS at the regional level would identify any specific impacts.
The USCG provided information on its facilities and operations. The USCG was not able to make a full assessment whether there would be any national security impacts. The USCG indicated that as we develop our PBF(s) and areas more precisely in the final rule, they would be able to provide a more detailed response to our requests. Our PCTS database indicated the USCG consulted with us three times on authorizations for bridge repairs or replacements. In developing this final rule we determined if those actions were conducted in the future, the activities may affect critical habitat PBFs, but the effects would be fully coextensive with effects to the listed sturgeons. Based on this information regarding potential future USCG action in Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat, we do not expect any national security impacts as a consequence of the critical habitat designation.
Based on a review of our PCTS database, and the information provided by the Navy, Air Force, Army, and USCG on their activities conducted within the specific areas being designated as Atlantic sturgeon critical habitat, we determined that only one military action identified as a potential area of national security impact has routes of potential adverse effects to PBF(s)—river channel dredging. As discussed, this activity will require consultation due to potential impacts to listed Atlantic and shortnose sturgeon, and any project modifications needed to address impacts to these species would also address impacts to critical habitat. Thus, no incremental project modification impacts are expected due to this designation. On this basis, we conclude there will be no national security impacts associated with the critical habitat designation for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon.
Other relevant impacts of critical habitat designations can include conservation benefits to the species and to society, and impacts to governmental and private entities. The Impacts Analysis for the designation of critical habitat for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs discusses conservation benefits of designating the 14 occupied and 2 unoccupied areas, and the benefits of conserving the Carolina and South Atlantic sturgeon DPSs to society, in both ecological and economic metrics.
As discussed in the Impacts Analysis for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs and summarized here, Atlantic sturgeon currently provide a range of benefits to society. Given the positive benefits of protecting the PBFs essential to the conservation of these DPSs, this protection will in turn contribute to an increase in the benefits of this species to society in the future as the species recovers. While we cannot quantify nor monetize these benefits, we believe they are not negligible and would be an incremental benefit of this designation. However, although the PBFs are essential to the conservation of Atlantic sturgeon DPSs, critical habitat designation alone will not bring about the recovery of the species. The benefits of conserving Atlantic sturgeon are, and will continue to be, the result of several laws and regulations.
The Impacts Analysis identifies both consumptive (
Education and awareness benefits stem from the critical habitat designation when non-Federal government entities or members of the general public responsible for, or interested in, Atlantic sturgeon conservation change their behavior or activities when they become aware of the designation and the importance of the critical habitat areas and features. Designation of critical habitat raises the public's awareness that there are special considerations that may need to be taken within the area. Similarly, state and local governments may be prompted to carry out programs to complement the critical habitat designation and benefit the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon. Those programs would likely result in additional impacts of the designation. However, it is impossible to quantify the beneficial effects of the awareness gained or the secondary impacts from state and local programs resulting from the critical habitat designation.
In our proposed rule, we described our preliminary determination that we would not perform a discretionary exclusion analysis. Input received during the public comment period resulted in our determination that an exclusion analysis for the unoccupied Santee-Cooper and Savannah River units was warranted. On the other hand, given that occupied units are currently used by Atlantic sturgeon for reproduction and recruitment, and due to the severely depressed levels of all river populations, occupied units are far too valuable to both the conservation and the continuing survival of Atlantic sturgeon to be considered for exclusion.
Based on the analysis included in our IA, the likely benefits of excluding the unoccupied Santee-Cooper and Savannah river units include avoiding consultation costs of $23,972 and $11,272 over ten years, respectively. In addition, there may be ancillary benefits of exclusion to Federal agencies that would conduct activities in these areas, and to their project applicants.
Our qualitative analysis of the benefits derived from designation include benefits associated with section 7 consultations (
We determined the potential economic impacts of the designation of unoccupied critical habitat are relatively small. We determined there are significant conservation benefits associated with designation of unoccupied critical habitat, but we could not conclude that these benefits are incremental impacts of including the unoccupied units in the designation. Therefore, it is our judgment that the benefits of excluding the unoccupied Santee-Cooper and Savannah River units outweigh the benefits of including these units in the designation.
Exclusion of these unoccupied units will not result in the extinction of the Carolina or South Atlantic DPS of Atlantic sturgeon. Atlantic sturgeon will need the additional spawning habitat in these units to increase their reproductive success and population growth in order to recover, and thus if these habitats were lost to sturgeon they would not recover. However, based on the Federal actions expected to occur in these areas over the next ten years, and because the areas are protected through a number of baseline requirements including the listing of shortnose sturgeon, we do not expect impacts to these areas would prevent them from supporting Atlantic sturgeon conservation once fish passage to these areas is established in the near future.
We also note that FERC and USACE submitted some significant new information late during the interagency review process on the final rule, outside of the public comment period. One agency suggested exclusion of unoccupied critical habitat was needed to prevent third party litigation seeking fish passage or removal of dams the agency owns and operates on the Cape Fear River to allow migration of sturgeon. That agency estimated the average cost to provide fish passage would range from $8 million and $15 million. The other agency submitted hypothetical costs that might result if consultation were required solely to protect unoccupied critical habitat from the effects of numerous facilities they regulate in the watersheds extending hundreds of miles above the proposed unoccupied units. Cost estimates provided by that agency ranged from $0 to over $1.7 million annually for the range of facilities identified. Those estimates were projected based on past environmental compliance costs for similar facilities. We decided to remove the unoccupied Cape Fear unit because it is not essential to sturgeon conservation. Because we decided to exclude the unoccupied Santee-Cooper and Savannah River units based on the impacts identified in our proposed impacts assessment, and because the public was not afforded an opportunity to review and comment on the new cost information and assumptions, consideration of this late input was not necessary and did not play a role in our determinations. If the types of impacts identified by these agencies would be potential impacts of including the unoccupied units in the designation, it would bolster our conclusion that the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion.
We conclude that specific areas meet the definition of critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon, that a critical habitat designation is prudent, and that critical habitat is determinable.
We found approximately 244 km (152 miles) of aquatic habitat within the Penobscot, Kennebec, Androscoggin, Piscataqua, Cocheco, Salmon Falls, and Merrimack Rivers are critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine DPS of Atlantic sturgeon. We found approximately 547 km (340 miles) of aquatic habitat within the Connecticut, Housatonic, Hudson, and Delaware Rivers are critical habitat for the New York Bight DPS of Atlantic sturgeon. We found approximately 773 km (480 miles) of aquatic habitat within the Potomac, Rappahannock, York, Pamunkey, Mattaponi, James, Nanticoke Rivers and Marshyhope Creek are critical habitat for the Chesapeake Bay DPS of Atlantic sturgeon.
We found approximately 1,939 km (1,205 miles) of aquatic habitat within the Roanoke, Tar-Pamlico, Neuse, Cape Fear, Northeast Cape Fear, Waccamaw, Pee Dee, Black, Santee, North Santee, South Santee, and Cooper Rivers and Bull Creek are critical habitat for the Carolina DPS of Atlantic sturgeon.
Likewise, we found approximately 2,883 km (1,791 miles) of aquatic habitat within the Edisto, Combahee-Salkehatchie, Savannah, Ogeechee, Altamaha, Ocmulgee, Oconee, Satilla, and St. Marys Rivers are critical habitat for the South Atlantic DPS of Atlantic sturgeon.
Section 4(b)(8) of the ESA requires that to the maximum extent practicable, we describe briefly and evaluate, in any proposed or final regulation to designate critical habitat, those activities that may destroy or adversely modify such habitat or that may be affected by such designation. As described in our Impacts Analysis and Biological Source Document for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon, and in our final Impacts Analysis for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon, a wide variety of activities may affect critical habitat and, when carried out, funded, or authorized by a Federal agency, will require an ESA section 7 consultation because they may affect one or more of the PBFs of critical habitat. Such activities include in-water construction for a variety of Federal actions, dredging for navigation, harbor expansion or sand and gravel mining, flood control projects, bridge repair and replacement, hydropower licensing, natural gas facility and pipeline construction, ESA research and incidental take permits or fishery research grants, and CWA TMDL program management. Private entities may also be affected by these critical habitat designations if they are a proponent of a project that requires a Federal permit, Federal funding is received, or the entity is involved in or receives benefits from a Federal project. Future activities will need to be evaluated with respect to their potential to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. For example, activities may adversely modify the substrate essential PBF by removing or altering the
We believe this critical habitat designation provides Federal agencies, private entities, and the public with clear notification of critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon, the PBF(s), and the boundaries of those habitats. These designations allow Federal agencies and others to evaluate the potential effects of their activities on critical habitat to determine if ESA section 7 consultation with us is needed, given the specific definition of each PBF.
On December 16, 2004, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued its Final Information Quality Bulletin for Peer Review (Bulletin), establishing minimum peer review standards, a transparent process for public disclosure of peer review planning, and opportunities for public participation. The OMB Bulletin, implemented under the Information Quality Act (Pub. L. 106-554), is intended to enhance the quality and credibility of the Federal Government's scientific information and applies to influential scientific information or highly influential scientific assessments disseminated on or after June 16, 2005. The biological information describing the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs, and the information in the draft economic impacts analyses supporting the critical habitat designation for the five DPSs is considered influential scientific information and subject to peer review. To satisfy our requirements under the OMB Bulletin, we obtained independent peer review of the biological information and the information used to draft the impacts analyses. We incorporated the peer review comments into the proposed rules prior to dissemination. Comments received from peer reviewers were summarized and are available on the web at:
We have determined that an environmental analysis as provided for under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 for critical habitat designations made pursuant to the ESA is not required. See
The ESA does not require use of any particular methodology in the consideration of impacts pursuant to section 4(b)(2) (see,
As explained in the FRFA for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight and Chesapeake Bay DPSs, the economic analysis described and estimated the number of small entities to which this rule may apply. These estimates are based on the best available information and take into account uncertainty. Using the number of employees as the criteria for determining whether or not an establishment is a small business, on average, 99 percent of businesses in the counties and cities in which the
To address uncertainty, costs were estimated as low, medium, and high. However, this approach likely overestimates the costs because the majority of consultations have been informal and, thus, have lower costs than formal consultations. In addition, this analysis was based on the critical habitat areas as defined by hydrographic unit codes. We subsequently revised and narrowed how we define the boundaries of the critical habitat units. As a result, fewer small businesses are likely to be affected by the critical habitat designations than were projected based on the information available to the economist at that time. Finally, because Atlantic sturgeon are present in the areas that we are designating as critical habitat, consultation is likely to have occurred even if critical habitat was not designated. Therefore, the section 7 consultation costs attributed to the designation of critical habitat, alone, are likely to be very small.
We considered the effect to small businesses throughout our analysis and, as stated above, there will be no significant economic impact to small businesses; therefore, it was unnecessary to make any changes from the proposed rule with the goal of minimizing any significant economic impacts on small entities. It is unlikely that the rule will significantly reduce profits or revenue for small businesses. The administrative costs of ESA section 7 consultation are likely to be small given, in the absence of critical habitat designation, nearly the same number and type of consultations would have occurred to consider the effects of Federal actions on the Atlantic sturgeon DPSs.
In the IRFA, we considered the alternative of not proposing critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, or Chesapeake Bay DPS. We rejected this alternative because we determined the PBFs forming the basis for the critical habitat designations are essential to the conservation of the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs. The lack of protection of the critical habitat PBFs from adverse modification and/or destruction could result in continued declines in abundance of these Atlantic sturgeon DPSs, would not provide for the conservation of the DPSs, and would not meet the legal requirements of the ESA.
We also analyzed designating a subset of the identified critical habitat areas. We rejected this alternative because designating only some of the areas containing the PBFs that are essential to the conservation of each DPS would not provide for the conservation of the DPSs and, thus, this alternative does not meet the legal requirements of the ESA.
Finally, we analyzed designating all critical habitat areas identified for the DPS. We analyzed the economic, national security, and other relevant impacts of designating critical habitat. Our conservative identification of potential, incremental, economic impacts indicates that any such impacts, if they were to occur, would be very small. Any incremental economic impacts will consist solely of the administrative costs of consultation; no project modifications are projected to be required to address impacts solely to the proposed critical habitat. There are conservation benefits of the critical habitat designations, both to the species and to society. While we cannot quantify nor monetize these benefits, we believe they are not negligible and are an incremental effect of the designations.
This final rule does not introduce any new reporting, record-keeping requirements, or other compliance requirements.
As explained in the FRFA for the Carolina and Southeast DPSs, this final rule is needed to comply with the ESA's requirement to designate critical habitat to the maximum extent prudent and determinable when species are listed as threatened or endangered. The objective of this rule is to identify Atlantic sturgeon habitat areas and features, the protection of which will support the conservation of these endangered DPSs.
The FRFA estimates the number of small entities to which the rule may apply, based on the information in the Impacts Report. The SBA has established size standards for all for-profit economic activities or industries in the North American Industry Classification System (13 CFR 121.201; 78 FR 37398; June 20, 2013; 78 FR 77343, December 23, 2013; 79 FR 33467, June 12, 2014) (
Businesses in North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Subsector 325320, Pesticide and Other Agricultural Chemical Manufacturing, could be involved in 5 projected nationwide pesticide authorization consultations. A small business in this subsector is defined by the SBA as having 1,000 employees. Businesses in NAICS Sector 22 (Utilities) could be involved in 14 consultations projected to occur for hydropower licensing, LNG facility or pipelines authorization, or nuclear power plant construction/operation licensing. For hydropower generation and natural gas distribution enterprises, a small business is defined by the SBA as one having a total of 500 employees. For nuclear power generation, a small business is defined by the SBA as one having a total of 750 employees. Businesses in NAICS Sector 54 could be involved as contractors assisting with ESA section 7 consultation in any of the 155 projected future Federal actions that could involve third parties. Relevant subsectors could include 541370, Surveying and Mapping, 541620, Environmental Consulting Services, or 541690, Other Scientific and Technical Consulting Services. A small business in any of these subsectors is defined by the SBA as one having average annual receipts of $15 million.
Businesses in NAICS Sector 23, Construction, could be involved in a number of categories of projected future actions, where they could incur administrative costs of construction. These could include businesses from the subsector 237120, Oil and Gas Pipeline and Related Structures Construction, or subsector 237310, Highway, Street, and Bridge Construction. A small business in subsector 237120 has average annual receipts of $36.5 million, and a small business in subsector 237310 has average annual receipts of $36.5 million. Businesses in subsector 238, Other Specialty Trade Contractors, could be involved as construction contractors in 20 future USACE section 404/RHA permitting actions and 5 FEMA disaster assistance actions. Small businesses in this subsector have average annual receipts of $15 million.
Cities could be involved in many of the 70 projected bridge repair or replacement projects, and some proportion of the 20 projected section 404/RHA permitting actions. The SBA defines a small governmental jurisdiction as cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts with a population of less than 50,000.
Our consultation database does not track the identity of past third parties involved in consultations, or whether the third parties were small entities; therefore we have no basis to determine the percentage of the 155 third parties that may potentially be involved in future consultations due to impacts to critical habitat that may be small businesses, small nonprofits or small government jurisdictions.
There is no indication in the data evaluated in the Impacts Analysis Report, which serves as the basis for this FRFA, that the designation would place small entities at a competitive disadvantage compared to large entities. Incremental economic impacts due to the designation for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs will be minimal overall. These costs will result from participation in the Section 7 consultation process, and will be spread over 14 critical habitat units totaling over 2,996 river miles (4,822 rkm) in 4 states. Federal agencies will bear the majority of the costs (59 percent to 83 percent), which will be limited to administrative costs of consultation for all parties involved. There are no apparent concentrations of costs. For most if not all of the Federal activities predicted to occur in the next 10 years, if the effects to critical habitat will be adverse and require formal consultation, those effects would also constitute adverse effects to Atlantic sturgeon or shortnose sturgeon, either directly when they are in the project area, or indirectly due to the effects on their habitat, and these consultations would be coextensive formal consultations. Assuming a third party would be involved and incur costs for each of the 179 projects in all of the categories of Federal activity that involved third parties in the past, the costs to third parties that could be involved in the projected future consultations other than those with EPA would be between $880 and $2,080 for each action for coextensive formal consultations, and between $1,500 and $3,000 for each of the 23 fully incremental informal consultations we conservatively estimated could be required due to the rule. The total costs over the next 10 years to all third parties for these 2 classes of actions would be between $30,000 and $60,000 for the incremental informal consultations and between $136,400 and $322,400 for the coextensive formal consultations. The total costs over the next 10 years to third parties involved in the EPA pesticides consultations are conservatively estimated to be $25,072 across all units.
There are no record-keeping or reporting requirements associated with the rule. Third parties would only be required to keep records or submit reports pursuant to ESA section 7 consultations on future proposed projects that may affect critical habitat. Similarly, there are no other compliance requirements in the rule. There are no professional skills necessary for preparation of any report or record.
We considered the effect to small businesses throughout our analysis and, as stated above, there will be no significant economic impact to small businesses. Changes from the proposed rule that would minimize significant economic impacts on small entities were therefore unnecessary.
In the IRFA, we considered the alternative of not proposing new critical habitat for the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon. We rejected this alternative because we determined designating critical habitat for Atlantic sturgeon is prudent and determinable, and the ESA requires critical habitat designation in that circumstance. In the IRFA, we also analyzed the alternative of including all large coastal rivers from the North Carolina/Virginia border southward to the St Johns River, Florida, in the designation, instead of just documented spawning rivers. This alternative would likely have involved many more consultations on Federal actions each year, potentially impacting many more small entities. Several large coastal rivers within the geographical area occupied by the Carolina and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon do not appear to support spawning and juvenile recruitment or to contain suitable habitat features to support spawning and we determined it would not promote Atlantic sturgeon conservation by including those rivers in the rule.
The longstanding and distinctive relationship between the Federal and tribal governments is defined by treaties, statutes, executive orders, judicial decisions, and agreements, which differentiate tribal governments from the other entities that deal with, or are affected by, the Federal Government. This relationship has given rise to a special Federal trust responsibility involving the legal responsibilities and obligations of the United States toward Indian Tribes and the application of fiduciary standards of due care with respect to Indian lands, tribal trust resources, and the exercise of tribal rights.
Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, outlines the responsibilities of the Federal Government in matters affecting tribal interests. If NMFS issues a regulation with tribal implications (defined as having a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes), we must consult with those governments or the Federal Government must provide funds necessary to pay direct compliance costs incurred by tribal governments. The critical habitat designations for Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs do not have tribal implications because designated critical habitat will not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
Under E.O. 12630, Federal agencies must consider the effects of their actions on constitutionally protected private property rights and avoid unnecessary takings of property. A taking of property includes actions that result in physical invasion or occupancy of private property, and regulations imposed on private property that substantially affect its value or use. In accordance with E.O. 12630, this rule would not have significant takings implications. The designation of critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon will not impose additional burdens on land use or affect property values. Therefore, a takings implication assessment is not required.
The designation of critical habitat is not expected to have a disproportionately high effect on minority populations or low-income populations.
This final rule will not produce a Federal mandate. The designation of critical habitat does not impose a legally-binding duty on non-Federal government entities or private parties. The only regulatory effect is that Federal agencies must ensure that their actions
This rule will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, a Small Government Action Plan is not required.
The OMB determined that this final rule is significant under Executive Order 12866 because it may create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency. Final Economic and Regulatory Impact Review Analyses and 4(b)(2) analyses as set forth and referenced herein have been prepared to support the exclusion process under section 4(b)(2) of the ESA. To review these documents see
In addition, as explained above, OMB classified this rule as significant under E.O. 12866. Therefore, this final rule is considered an E.O. 13771 regulatory action. This rule is not subject to the requirements of E.O. 13771 because this rule results in no more than
Pursuant to the Executive Order on Federalism, E.O. 13132, we determined that this final rule does not have significant federalism effects and that a federalism assessment is not required. However, in keeping with Department of Commerce policies and consistent with ESA regulations at 50 CFR 424.16(c)(1)(ii), we requested information from, and coordinated this critical habitat designation with, appropriate state resource agencies in Maine, New Hampshire, Massachusetts, Connecticut, Rhode Island, New York, New Jersey, Delaware, Maryland, Virginia, the District of Columbia, North Carolina, South Carolina, Georgia, and Florida.
Under section 307(c)(1)(A) of the Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA) (16 U.S.C. 1456(c)(1)(A)) and its implementing regulations, each Federal activity within or outside the coastal zone that has reasonably foreseeable effects on any land or water use or natural resource of the coastal zone shall be carried out in a manner which is consistent to the maximum extent practicable with the enforceable policies of approved State coastal management programs. We have determined that any effects of this designation of critical habitat on coastal uses and resources in Maine, New Hampshire, Massachusetts, Connecticut, New York, New Jersey, Delaware, Pennsylvania, Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina, Georgia and Florida are not reasonably foreseeable at this time. However, the State of North Carolina suggested SERO's consistency determination regarding designating critical habitat was incomplete and did not meet the requirements of the CZMA and its implementing regulations. The State maintained SERO submitted an incomplete negative determination, because it had not provided an evaluation of the North Carolina coastal program's enforceable policies; SERO disagrees. While SERO recognizes the State's goals of coastal resource protection and economic development, it determined that any effects of the proposed action on North Carolina's coastal uses and resources are not reasonably foreseeable at this time. As indicated in SERO's negative determination, this designation of critical habitat will not restrict any coastal uses, affect land ownership, or establish a refuge or other conservation area; rather, the designation affects only the ESA section 7 consultation process for Federal actions. These consultations will consider effects of Federal actions on coastal uses and resources to the extent they overlap with critical habitat. We considered the range of Federal actions that this designation may affect (
Executive Order 13211 requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking an action expected to lead to the promulgation of a final rule or regulation that is a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866 and is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. OMB Guidance on Implementing E.O. 13211 (July 13, 2001) states that significant adverse effects could include any of the following outcomes compared to a world without the regulatory action under consideration: (1) Reductions in crude oil supply in excess of 10,000 barrels per day; (2) reductions in fuel production in excess of 4,000 barrels per day; (3) reductions in coal production in excess of 5 million tons per year; (4) reductions in natural gas production in excess of 25 million cubic feet per year; (5) reductions in electricity production in excess of 1 billion kilowatt-hours per year or in excess of 500 megawatts of installed capacity; (6) increases in energy use required by the regulatory action that exceed any of the thresholds above; (7) increases in the cost of energy production in excess of one percent; (8) increases in the cost of energy distribution in excess of one percent; or (9) other similarly adverse outcomes. A regulatory action could also have significant adverse effects if it: (1) Adversely affects in a material way the productivity, competition, or prices in the energy sector; (2) adversely affects in a material way productivity, competition or prices within a region; (3) creates a serious inconsistency or otherwise interferes with an action taken or planned by another agency regarding energy; or (4) raises novel legal or policy issues adversely affecting the supply, distribution or use of energy arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in E.O. 12866 and 13211. We do not believe this rule will have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. The only Federal actions we may consult on that may have material effects on energy are FERC hydropower licensing and Nuclear Regulatory Commission actions. These actions have the potential to adversely affect sturgeon as well as its
This final rule does not contain any new or revised collection of information. This rule, if adopted, would not impose recordkeeping or reporting requirements on State or local governments, individuals, businesses, or organizations.
A complete list of all references cited in this rulemaking can be found on our Web sites at
Endangered and threatened species.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we amend 50 CFR part 226 as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1533.
Critical habitat is designated for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, Chesapeake Bay, Carolina, and South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon as described in paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section. The maps, clarified by the textual descriptions in paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section, are the definitive source for determining the critical habitat boundaries.
(a)
(1) Hard bottom substrate (
(2) Aquatic habitat with a gradual downstream salinity gradient of 0.5 up to as high as 30 parts per thousand and soft substrate (
(3) Water of appropriate depth and absent physical barriers to passage (
(i) Unimpeded movement of adults to and from spawning sites;
(ii) Seasonal and physiologically dependent movement of juvenile Atlantic sturgeon to appropriate salinity zones within the river estuary; and
(iii) Staging, resting, or holding of subadults or spawning condition adults. Water depths in main river channels must also be deep enough (
(4) Water, between the river mouth and spawning sites, especially in the bottom meter of the water column, with the temperature, salinity, and oxygen values that, combined, support:
(i) Spawning;
(ii) Annual and interannual adult, subadult, larval, and juvenile survival; and
(iii) Larval, juvenile, and subadult growth, development, and recruitment (
(5) Pursuant to ESA section 4(a)(3)(B)(i), critical habitat for the New York Bight and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon does not include the following areas owned or controlled by the Department of Defense, or designated for its use, that are subject to an integrated natural resource management plan prepared under section 101 of the Sikes Act (16 U.S.C. 670a), and for which we have determined that such plan provides a conservation benefit to the species, and its habitat, for which critical habitat is designated.
(i) The Department of the Army, U.S. Military Academy—West Point, NY;
(ii) The Department of the Air Force, Joint Base Langley—Eustis, VA;
(iii) The Department of the Navy, Marine Corps Base Quantico, VA;
(iv) The Department of the Navy, Naval Weapons Station Yorktown, VA; and,
(v) The Department of the Navy, Naval Support Facility Dahlgren, VA.
(6) Pursuant to ESA section 3(5)(A)(i), critical habitat for the Gulf of Maine, New York Bight, and Chesapeake Bay DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon does not include existing (already constructed), as of September 18, 2017, manmade structures that do not provide the physical features such as aids-to-navigation (ATONs), artificial reefs, boat ramps, docks, or pilings within the legal boundaries of designated critical habitat.
(b)
(1) Hard bottom substrate (
(2) Aquatic habitat inclusive of waters with a gradual downstream gradient of 0.5 up to as high as 30 parts per thousand and soft substrate (
(3) Water of appropriate depth and absent physical barriers to passage (
(i) Unimpeded movement of adults to and from spawning sites;
(ii) Seasonal and physiologically dependent movement of juvenile Atlantic sturgeon to appropriate salinity zones within the river estuary; and
(iii) Staging, resting, or holding of subadults or spawning condition adults. Water depths in main river channels must also be deep enough (at least 1.2 meters) to ensure continuous flow in the
(4) Water quality conditions, especially in the bottom meter of the water column, with temperature and oxygen values that support:
(i) Spawning;
(ii) Annual and inter-annual adult, subadult, larval, and juvenile survival; and
(iii) Larval, juvenile, and subadult growth, development, and recruitment. Appropriate temperature and oxygen values will vary interdependently, and depending on salinity in a particular habitat. For example, 6.0 mg/L dissolved oxygen or greater likely supports juvenile rearing habitat, whereas dissolved oxygen less than 5.0 mg/L for longer than 30 days is less likely to support rearing when water temperature is greater than 25 °C. In temperatures greater than 26 °C, dissolved oxygen greater than 4.3 mg/L is needed to protect survival and growth. Temperatures of 13 to 26 °C likely support spawning habitat.
(5) Pursuant to ESA section 4(a)(3)(B)(i), critical habitat for the Carolina DPS of Atlantic sturgeon does not include certain waters of the Cooper River, South Carolina, adjacent to Joint Base Charleston. These areas are described in 33 CFR 334.460(a)(8)(ii)-(iv), 33 CFR 334.460(a)(9), and 33 CFR 334.460(a)(10).
(6) Pursuant to ESA section 3(5)(A)(i), critical habitat for the Carolina and the South Atlantic DPSs of Atlantic sturgeon does not include existing (already constructed), as of September 18, 2017, manmade structures that do not provide the physical features such as aids-to-navigation (ATONs), artificial reefs, boat ramps, docks, or pilings within the legal boundaries of designated critical habitat.
(c)
(d)
(1) Penobscot River main stem from the Milford Dam downstream to where the main stem river drainage discharges at its mouth into Penobscot Bay;
(2) Kennebec River main stem from the Ticonic Falls/Lockwood Dam downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into the Atlantic Ocean;
(3) Androscoggin River main stem from the Brunswick Dam downstream to where the main stem river drainage discharges into Merrymeeting Bay;
(4) Piscataqua River from its confluence with the Salmon Falls and Cocheco rivers downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into the Atlantic Ocean as well as the waters of the Cocheco River from its confluence with the Piscataqua River and upstream to the Cocheco Falls Dam, and waters of the Salmon Falls River from its confluence with the Piscataqua River and upstream to the Route 4 Dam; and
(5) Merrimack River from the Essex Dam (also known as the Lawrence Dam) downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into the Atlantic Ocean.
(6) Maps of the Gulf of Maine DPS follow:
(e)
(1) Connecticut River from the Holyoke Dam downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into Long Island Sound;
(2) Housatonic River from the Derby Dam downstream to where the main stem discharges at its mouth into Long Island Sound;
(3) Hudson River from the Troy Lock and Dam (also known as the Federal Dam) downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into New York City Harbor; and
(4) Delaware River at the crossing of the Trenton-Morrisville Route 1 Toll Bridge, downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into Delaware Bay.
(5) Maps of the New York Bight DPS follow:
(f)
(1) Potomac River from the Little Falls Dam downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into the Chesapeake Bay;
(2) Rappahannock River from the U.S. Highway 1 Bridge, downstream to where the river discharges at its mouth into the Chesapeake Bay;
(3) York River from its confluence with the Mattaponi and Pamunkey rivers downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into the Chesapeake Bay as well as the waters of the Mattaponi River from its confluence with the York River and upstream to the Virginia State Route 360 Bridge of the Mattaponi River, and waters of the Pamunkey River from its confluence with the York River and upstream to the Nelson's Bridge Road Route 615 crossing of the Pamunkey River;
(4) James River from Boshers Dam downstream to where the main stem river discharges at its mouth into the Chesapeake Bay at Hampton Roads; and
(5) Nanticoke River from the Maryland State Route 313 Bridge crossing near Sharptown, MD to where the main stem discharges at its mouth into the Chesapeake Bay as well as Marshyhope Creek from its confluence with the Nanticoke River and upriver to the Maryland State Route 318 Bridge crossing near Federalsburg, MD.
(6) Maps of the Chesapeake Bay DPS follow:
(g)
(1) Carolina Unit 1 includes the Roanoke River main stem from the Roanoke Rapids Dam downstream to rkm 0;
(2) Carolina Unit 2 includes the Tar-Pamlico River main stem from the Rocky Mount Millpond Dam downstream to rkm 0;
(3) Carolina Unit 3 includes the Neuse River main stem from the Milburnie Dam downstream to rkm 0;
(4) Carolina Unit 4 includes the Cape Fear River main stem from Lock and Dam #2 downstream to rkm 0 and the Northeast Cape Fear River from the upstream side of Rones Chapel Road Bridge downstream to the confluence with the Cape Fear River;
(5) Carolina Unit 5 includes the Pee Dee River main stem from Blewett Falls Dam downstream to rkm 0, the Waccamaw River from Bull Creek downstream to rkm 0, and Bull Creek from the Pee Dee River to the confluence with the Waccamaw River;
(6) Carolina Unit 6 includes the Black River main stem from Interstate Highway 95 downstream to rkm 0 (the confluence with the Pee Dee River); and
(7) Carolina Unit 7 includes the Santee River main stem from the Wilson Dam downstream to the fork of the North Santee River and South Santee River distributaries, the Rediversion Canal from the St. Stephen Powerhouse downstream to the confluence with the Santee River, the North Santee River from the fork of the Santee River and South Santee River downstream to rkm
(8) Maps of the Carolina DPS follow:
(h)
(1) South Atlantic Unit 1 includes the North Fork Edisto River from Cones Pond downstream to the confluence with the South Fork Edisto River, the South Fork Edisto River from Highway 121 downstream to the confluence with the North Fork Edisto River, the Edisto River main stem from the confluence of the North Fork Edisto River and South Fork Edisto River tributaries downstream to the fork at the North Edisto River and South Edisto River distributaries, the North Edisto River from the Edisto River downstream to rkm 0, and the South Edisto River from the Edisto River downstream to rkm 0;
(2) South Atlantic Unit 2 includes the main stem Combahee-Salkehatchie River from the confluence of Buck and Rosemary Creeks with the Salkehatchie River downstream to the Combahee River, the Combahee River from the Salkehatchie River downstream to rkm 0;
(3) South Atlantic Unit 3 includes the main stem Savannah River (including the Back River, Middle River, Front River, Little Back River, South River, Steamboat River, and McCoy's Cut) from the New Savannah Bluff Lock and Dam downstream to rkm 0;
(4) South Atlantic Unit 4 includes the main stem Ogeechee River from the Mayfield Mill Dam downstream to rkm 0;
(5) South Atlantic Unit 5 includes the main stem Oconee River from Sinclair Dam downstream to the confluence with the Ocmulgee River, the main stem Ocmulgee River from Juliette Dam downstream to the confluence with the Oconee River, and the main stem Altamaha River from the confluence of the Oconee River and Ocmulgee River downstream to rkm 0;
(6) South Atlantic Unit 6 includes the main stem Satilla River from the confluence of Satilla and Wiggins Creeks downstream to rkm 0; and
(7) South Atlantic Unit 7 includes the main stem St. Marys River from the confluence of Middle Prong St. Marys and the St. Marys Rivers downstream to rkm 0.
(8) Maps of the South Atlantic DPS follow:
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; proposed incidental harassment authorization; request for comments.
NMFS has received a request from the Scripps Institution of Oceanography (SIO) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to a low-energy marine geophysical survey in the northeastern Pacific Ocean. Pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is requesting comments on its proposal to issue an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to incidentally take marine mammals during the specified activities. NMFS will consider public comments prior to making any final decision on the issuance of the requested MMPA authorization and agency responses will be summarized in the final notice of our decision.
Comments and information must be received no later than September 18, 2017.
Comments should be addressed to Jolie Harrison, Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service. Physical comments should be sent to 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910 and electronic comments should be sent to
Jordan Carduner, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401. Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at:
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
On March 20, 2017, NMFS received a request from SIO for an IHA to take marine mammals incidental to conducting a low-energy marine geophysical survey in the northeastern Pacific Ocean. On July 5, 2017, we deemed SIO's application for authorization to be adequate and complete. SIO's request is for take of a small number of 27 species of marine mammals by Level B harassment and Level A harassment. Neither SIO nor NMFS expects mortality to result from this activity, and, therefore, an IHA is appropriate. The planned activity is not expected to exceed one year, hence, we do not expect subsequent MMPA incidental harassment authorizations would be issued for this particular activity.
SIO proposes to conduct a low-energy marine seismic survey offshore Oregon and Washington in the northeastern Pacific Ocean over the course of five days in September 2017. The proposed survey would occur off the Oregon continental margin out to 127.5° W. and between ~43 and 46.5° N. (See Figure 1 in IHA application). Water depths in the survey area are ~130-2600 m. The proposed survey would involve one source vessel, the R/V
The seismic survey would be carried out for five days. The
The survey would occur in the northeastern Pacific Ocean off the Oregon continental margin out to 127.5° W. and between ~43 and 46.5° N. Two potential survey areas off the Oregon continental margin have been proposed (See Figure 1 in IHA application). One potential survey area, referred to by SIO as the Astoria Fan area, is located off northern Oregon off the mouth of the Columbia River and near the Astoria Canyon. The other potential survey area, referred to as the southern Oregon area, is located off the southern Oregon margin. Both the proposed Astoria Fan and Southern Oregon survey areas are located at least 23 kilometers (km) from the U.S. west coast over water depths ~130-2600 meters (m). SIO will ultimately select one of these two potential areas for the survey (
SIO plans to conduct a low-energy seismic survey off the coasts of Oregon and Washington. The proposed surveys involve an Early Career Seismic Chief Scientist Training Cruise which aims to train scientists on how to effectively plan seismic surveys, acquire data, and manage activities at sea. In addition, the survey would provide critical data to understand the sediment and crustal structure within the Cascadia continental margin. The proposed survey would take place on the active continental margin of the U.S. west coast where a variety of sedimentary and tectonic settings are available, providing many targets of geologic interest to a wide range of research cruise participants.
The procedures to be used for the seismic survey would be similar to those used during previous seismic surveys by SIO and would use conventional seismic methodology. The survey would involve one source vessel, the R/V
Two potential sites off the Oregon continental margin, referred to by SIO as the Astoria Fan and southern Oregon sites, have been proposed for the survey (see Figure 1 in the IHA application). Only one of the two sites will be surveyed. Each of the proposed survey sites has several science targets. The southern Oregon survey includes the paleo objectives, a long plate transect that crosses Diebold Knoll, and a detailed survey of the megaslump segment of the Cascadia subduction zone, which has no previous seismic data. The Astoria Fan survey includes flexure, accretionary wedge mechanisms and gas hydrates as objectives; it covers a major seismic gap. The scientists on board would be responsible for modifying the survey to fit the allocated cruise length while meeting the project objectives, including choosing which survey or what portion of each survey to conduct.
The total line km for the Southern Oregon survey would be 1013 km, ~5 percent of which would be in intermediate water (100-1000 m), with the remainder in water deeper than 1000 m. The total length for the Astoria Fan survey would be 1057 km, with ~23 percent of line km in intermediate water and the remainder in water >1000 m. No effort during either survey would occur in shallow water <100 m deep. For purposes of this proposed IHA, the total track distance to be surveyed is estimated to be no greater than ~1057 km, which is the line km of the longer of the two potential surveys. There would be additional seismic operations in the survey area associated with airgun testing and repeat coverage of any areas where initial data quality is sub-standard. To account for these additional seismic operations, 25 percent has been added in the form of operational days, which is equivalent to adding 25 percent to the proposed line km to be surveyed.
In addition to the operations of the airgun array, a multibeam echosounder (MBES) and a sub-bottom profiler (SBP) would also be operated from the
The
During the survey, The
Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see “Proposed Mitigation” and “Proposed Monitoring and Reporting”).
Section 4 of the application summarizes available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history, of the potentially affected species. Additional information regarding population trends and threats may be found in NMFS' Stock Assessment Reports (SAR;
Table 2 lists all species with expected potential for occurrence in the northeastern Pacific Ocean and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and ESA and potential biological removal (PBR), where known. For taxonomy, we follow Committee on Taxonomy (2016). PBR is defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (as described in NMFS' SARs). While no mortality is anticipated or authorized here, PBR and annual serious injury and mortality from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species and other threats.
Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS' stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. All managed stocks in this region are assessed in NMFS' U.S. Pacific SARs (
All species that could potentially occur in the proposed survey area are included in Table 2. However, as described below, the spatial occurrence of the North Pacific right whale and dwarf sperm whale are such that take is
We have reviewed SIO's species descriptions, including life history information, distribution, regional distribution, diving behavior, and acoustics and hearing, for accuracy and completeness. We refer the reader to Section 4 of SIO's IHA application, rather than reprinting the information here. Below, for the 27 species that are likely to be taken by the activities described, we offer a brief introduction to the species and relevant stock(s) as well as available information regarding population trends and threats, and describe any information regarding local occurrence.
Humpback whales are found worldwide in all ocean basins. In winter, most humpback whales occur in the subtropical and tropical waters of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres (Muto
There are five stocks of humpback whales, one of which occurs along the U.S. west coast: The California/Oregon/Washington Stock, which includes animals that appear to be part of two separate feeding groups, a California and Oregon feeding group and a northern Washington and southern British Columbia feeding group (Calambokidis
Humpback whales were listed as endangered under the Endangered Species Conservation Act (ESCA) in June 1970. In 1973, the ESA replaced the ESCA, and humpbacks continued to be listed as endangered. NMFS recently evaluated the status of the species, and on September 8, 2016, NMFS divided the species into 14 distinct population segments (DPS), removed the current species-level listing, and in its place listed four DPSs as endangered and one DPS as threatened (81 FR 62259; September 8, 2016). The remaining nine DPSs were not listed. The Mexico DPS and the Central America DPS are the only DPSs that are expected to occur in the survey area. The Mexico DPS is listed as threatened and the Central America DPS is listed as endangered under the ESA (81 FR 62259; September 8, 2016). The California/Oregon/Washington stock is considered a depleted and strategic stock under the MMPA.
The blue whale has a cosmopolitan distribution and tends to be pelagic, only coming nearshore to feed and possibly to breed (Jefferson
Blue whale densities along the U.S. west coast including Oregon are believed to be highest in shelf waters, with lower densities in deeper offshore areas (Becker
Five blue whale sightings were reported in the proposed project area off Oregon/Washington during 1991-2008; one sighting occurred within the nearshore portion of the proposed Astoria Fan survey area, and four sightings occurred nearshore, east of the Southern Oregon survey area (Carretta
Fin whales are found throughout all oceans from tropical to polar latitudes. The species occurs most commonly offshore but can also be found in coastal areas (Aguilar 2009). Most populations migrate seasonally between temperate waters where mating and calving occur in winter, and polar waters where feeding occurs in summer (Aguilar 2009). However, recent evidence suggests that some animals may remain at high latitudes in winter or low latitudes in summer (Edwards
The North Pacific population summers from the Chukchi Sea to California and winters from California southwards (Gambell 1985). Aggregations of fin whales are found year-round off southern and central California (Dohl
The sei whale occurs in all ocean basins (Horwood 2009) but appears to prefer mid-latitude temperate waters (Jefferson
Sei whales are rare in the waters off California, Oregon, and Washington (Brueggeman
The minke whale has a cosmopolitan distribution ranging from the tropics and subtropics to the ice edge in both hemispheres (Jefferson
Gray whales occur along the eastern and western margins of the North Pacific. During summer and fall, most whales in the Eastern North Pacific stock feed in the Chukchi, Beaufort and northwestern Bering Seas, with the exception of a relatively small number of whales (approximately 200) that summer and feed along the Pacific coast between Kodiak Island, Alaska and northern California (Carretta
According to predictive density distribution maps, low densities of gray whales could be encountered throughout the Astoria Fan and Southern Oregon survey areas (Menza
Sperm whales are widely distributed across the entire North Pacific and into the southern Bering Sea in summer, but the majority are thought to be south of 40° N. in winter (Rice 1974, 1989; Gosho
Pygmy sperm whales are found in tropical and warm-temperate waters throughout the world (Ross and Leatherwood 1994) and prefer deeper waters with observations of this species in greater than 4,000 m depth (Baird
Killer whales have been observed in all oceans and seas of the world (Leatherwood and Dahlheim 1978). Although reported from tropical and offshore waters (Heyning and Dahlheim 1988), killer whales prefer the colder waters of both hemispheres, with greatest abundances found within 800 km of major continents (Mitchell 1975). Along the west coast of North America, killer whales occur along the entire
Eight killer whale stocks are recognized within the Pacific U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone. Of these, two stocks occur in the proposed project area: the West Coast Transient stock which occurs from Alaska through California, and the Eastern North Pacific Offshore stock which occurs from Southeast Alaska through California. Killer whales are not listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA (with the exception of the endangered Southern Resident DPS which does not occur in the survey area), and the West Coast Transient stock and Eastern North Pacific Offshore stock are not designated as depleted or strategic under the MMPA.
False killer whales are found worldwide in tropical and warm-temperate waters (Stacey
Short-finned pilot whales are found in all oceans, primarily in tropical and warm-temperate waters (Carretta
In the eastern North Pacific Ocean, harbor porpoise are found in coastal and inland waters from Point Barrow, along the Alaskan coast, and down the west coast of North America to Point Conception, California (Gaskin 1984). Harbor porpoise are known to occur year-round in the inland transboundary waters of Washington and British Columbia, Canada (Osborne
Harbor porpoises inhabit coastal Oregon and Washington waters year-round, although there appear to be distinct seasonal changes in abundance there (Barlow 1988; Green
The Dall's porpoise is distributed throughout temperate to subantarctic waters of the North Pacific and adjacent seas (Jefferson
Bottlenose dolphins are widely distributed throughout the world in tropical and warm-temperate waters (Perrin
Striped dolphins are found in tropical to warm-temperate waters throughout the world (Carretta
Striped dolphins regularly occur off California (Becker
The short-beaked common dolphin is found in tropical and warm temperate oceans around the world (Perrin 2009). Short-beaked common dolphins are the most abundant cetacean off California, and are widely distributed between the coast and at least 300 nautical miles from shore. It ranges as far south as 40° S. in the Pacific Ocean, is common in coastal waters 200-300 m deep, and is also associated with prominent underwater topography, such as sea mounts (Evans 1994).
Few sightings of short-beaked common dolphins have been made off Oregon, and no sightings exist for Washington waters (Carretta
Pacific white-sided dolphins are endemic to temperate waters of the North Pacific Ocean, and common both on the high seas and along the continental margins (Brownell
Based on year-round aerial surveys off Oregon/Washington, the Pacific white-sided dolphin was the most abundant cetacean species (Green
Northern right-whale dolphins are endemic to temperate waters of the North Pacific Ocean. Off the U.S. west coast, they have been seen primarily in shelf and slope waters, with seasonal movements into the Southern California Bight (Leatherwood and Walker 1979; Dohl
Risso's dolphins are found in tropical to warm-temperate waters (Carretta
Cuvier's beaked whale is the most widespread of the beaked whales occurring in almost all temperate, subtropical, and tropical waters and even some sub-polar and polar waters (MacLeod
Baird's beaked whales are distributed throughout deep waters and along the continental slopes of the North Pacific Ocean (Balcomb 1989, Macleod
Mesoplodont beaked whales are distributed throughout deep waters and along the continental slopes of the North Pacific Ocean. The six species known to occur in this region are: Blainville's beaked whale (
The primary range of the California sea lion includes the coastal areas and offshore islands of the eastern North Pacific Ocean from British Columbia, Canada, to central Mexico, including the Gulf of California (Jefferson
California sea lions are coastal animals that often haul out on shore throughout the year. Off Oregon and Washington, peak numbers occur during the fall. During aerial surveys off the coasts of Oregon and Washington during 1989-1990, California sea lions were sighted at sea during the fall and winter, but no sightings were made during June-August (Bonnell
Steller sea lions range along the North Pacific Rim from northern Japan to California (Loughlin
During surveys off the coasts of Oregon and Washington, Bonnell
Harbor seals inhabit coastal and estuarine waters off Baja California, north along the western coasts of the continental U.S., British Columbia, and Southeast Alaska, west through the Gulf of Alaska and Aleutian Islands, and in the Bering Sea north to Cape Newenham and the Pribilof Islands. They haul out on rocks, reefs, beaches, and drifting glacial ice and feed in marine, estuarine, and occasionally fresh waters. Harbor seals generally are non-migratory, with local movements associated with tides, weather, season, food availability, and reproduction (Scheffer and Slipp 1944; Fisher 1952; Bigg 1969, 1981).
Jeffries
Northern elephant seals gather at breeding areas, located primarily on offshore islands of Baja California and California, from approximately December to March before dispersing for feeding. Males feed near the eastern Aleutian Islands and in the Gulf of Alaska, while females feed at sea south of 45° N. (Stewart and Huber, 1993; Le Boeuf
Northern fur seals occur from southern California north to the Bering Sea and west to the Okhotsk Sea and Honshu Island, Japan. Two stocks of northern fur seals are recognized in U.S. waters: an eastern Pacific stock and a California stock (formerly referred to as the San Miguel Island stock). Only the California stock is expected to occur in the proposed survey area. Due to differing requirements during the annual reproductive season, adult males and females typically occur ashore at different, though overlapping, times. Adult males occur ashore and defend reproductive territories during a 3-month period from June through August while adult females are found ashore for as long as 6 months (June-November). The northern fur seals spends ~90 percent of its time at sea, typically in areas of upwelling along the continental slopes and over seamounts (Gentry 1981). The remainder of its life is spent on or near rookery islands or haulouts.
Bonnell
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section later in this document includes a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The “Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination” section considers the content of this section, the “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section, and the “Proposed Mitigation” section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and how those impacts on individuals are likely to impact marine mammal species or stocks.
This section contains a brief technical background on sound, the characteristics of certain sound types, and on metrics used in this proposal inasmuch as the information is relevant to the specified activity and to a discussion of the potential effects of the specified activity on marine mammals found later in this document.
Sound travels in waves, the basic components of which are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude. Frequency is the number of pressure waves that pass by a reference point per unit of time and is measured in hertz (Hz) or cycles per second. Wavelength is the distance between two peaks or corresponding points of a sound wave (length of one cycle). Higher frequency sounds have shorter wavelengths than lower frequency sounds, and typically attenuate (decrease) more rapidly, except in certain cases in shallower water. Amplitude is the height of the sound pressure wave or the “loudness” of a sound and is typically described using the relative unit of the decibel (dB). A sound pressure level (SPL) in dB is described as the ratio between a measured pressure and a reference pressure (for underwater sound, this is 1 microPascal (μPa)) and is a logarithmic unit that accounts for large variations in amplitude; therefore, a relatively small change in dB corresponds to large changes in sound pressure. The source level (SL) represents the SPL referenced at a distance of 1 m from the source (referenced to 1 μPa) while the received level is the SPL at the listener's position (referenced to 1 μPa).
Root mean square (rms) is the quadratic mean sound pressure over the duration of an impulse. Root mean square is calculated by squaring all of the sound amplitudes, averaging the squares, and then taking the square root of the average (Urick, 1983). Root mean square accounts for both positive and negative values; squaring the pressures makes all values positive so that they may be accounted for in the summation of pressure levels (Hastings and Popper, 2005). This measurement is often used in the context of discussing behavioral effects, in part because behavioral effects, which often result from auditory cues, may be better expressed through averaged units than by peak pressures.
Sound exposure level (SEL; represented as dB re 1 μPa
When underwater objects vibrate or activity occurs, sound-pressure waves are created. These waves alternately compress and decompress the water as
Even in the absence of sound from the specified activity, the underwater environment is typically loud due to ambient sound. Ambient sound is defined as environmental background sound levels lacking a single source or point (Richardson
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•
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The sum of the various natural and anthropogenic sound sources at any given location and time—which comprise “ambient” or “background” sound—depends not only on the source levels (as determined by current weather conditions and levels of biological and human activity) but also on the ability of sound to propagate through the environment. In turn, sound propagation is dependent on the spatially and temporally varying properties of the water column and sea floor, and is frequency-dependent. As a result of the dependence on a large number of varying factors, ambient sound levels can be expected to vary widely over both coarse and fine spatial and temporal scales. Sound levels at a given frequency and location can vary by 10-20 dB from day to day (Richardson
Sounds are often considered to fall into one of two general types: Pulsed and non-pulsed (defined in the following). The distinction between these two sound types is important because they have differing potential to cause physical effects, particularly with regard to hearing (
Pulsed sound sources (
Non-pulsed sounds can be tonal, narrowband, or broadband, brief or prolonged, and may be either continuous or non-continuous (ANSI, 1995; NIOSH, 1998). Some of these non-pulsed sounds can be transient signals of short duration but without the essential properties of pulses (
Airgun arrays produce pulsed signals with energy in a frequency range from about 10-2,000 Hz, with most energy radiated at frequencies below 200 Hz. The amplitude of the acoustic wave emitted from the source is equal in all directions (
As described above, a MBES and a SBP would also be operated from the
Here, we first provide background information on marine mammal hearing before discussing the potential effects of the use of active acoustic sources on marine mammals.
• Low-frequency cetaceans (mysticetes): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 7 Hz and 35 kHz, with best hearing estimated to be from 100 Hz to 8 kHz;
• Mid-frequency cetaceans (larger toothed whales, beaked whales, and most delphinids): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 150 Hz and 160 kHz, with best hearing from 10 to less than 100 kHz;
• High-frequency cetaceans (porpoises, river dolphins, and members of the genera
• Pinnipeds in water; Phocidae (true seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 50 Hz to 86 kHz, with best hearing between 1-50 kHz;
• Pinnipeds in water; Otariidae (eared seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between 60 Hz and 39 kHz, with best hearing between 2-48 kHz.
The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall
For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2016) for a review of available information. Twenty four marine mammal species (all cetaceans) have the reasonable potential to co-occur with the proposed survey activities. Please refer to Table 2. Of the cetacean species that may be present, 6 are classified as low-frequency cetaceans (
Richardson
We describe the more severe effects certain non-auditory physical or physiological effects only briefly as we do not expect that use of airgun arrays are reasonably likely to result in such effects (see below for further discussion). Potential effects from impulsive sound sources can range in severity from effects such as behavioral disturbance or tactile perception to physical discomfort, slight injury of the internal organs and the auditory system, or mortality (Yelverton
1.
When PTS occurs, there is physical damage to the sound receptors in the ear (
Relationships between TTS and PTS thresholds have not been studied in marine mammals, and there is no PTS data for cetaceans but such relationships are assumed to be similar to those in humans and other terrestrial mammals. PTS typically occurs at exposure levels at least several decibels above (a 40-dB threshold shift approximates PTS onset;
For mid-frequency cetaceans in particular, potential protective mechanisms may help limit onset of TTS or prevent onset of PTS. Such mechanisms include dampening of hearing, auditory adaptation, or behavioral amelioration (
TTS is the mildest form of hearing impairment that can occur during exposure to sound (Kryter, 1985). While experiencing TTS, the hearing threshold rises, and a sound must be at a higher level in order to be heard. In terrestrial and marine mammals, TTS can last from minutes or hours to days (in cases of strong TTS). In many cases, hearing sensitivity recovers rapidly after exposure to the sound ends. Few data on sound levels and durations necessary to elicit mild TTS have been obtained for marine mammals.
Marine mammal hearing plays a critical role in communication with conspecifics, and interpretation of environmental cues for purposes such as predator avoidance and prey capture. Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
Finneran
Currently, TTS data only exist for four species of cetaceans (bottlenose dolphin, beluga whale, harbor porpoise, and Yangtze finless porpoise) exposed to a limited number of sound sources (
Critical questions remain regarding the rate of TTS growth and recovery after exposure to intermittent noise and
2.
Habituation can occur when an animal's response to a stimulus wanes with repeated exposure, usually in the absence of unpleasant associated events (Wartzok
Available studies show wide variation in response to underwater sound; therefore, it is difficult to predict specifically how any given sound in a particular instance might affect marine mammals perceiving the signal. If a marine mammal does react briefly to an underwater sound by changing its behavior or moving a small distance, the impacts of the change are unlikely to be significant to the individual, let alone the stock or population. However, if a sound source displaces marine mammals from an important feeding or breeding area for a prolonged period, impacts on individuals and populations could be significant (
Changes in dive behavior can vary widely, and may consist of increased or decreased dive times and surface intervals as well as changes in the rates of ascent and descent during a dive (
Disruption of feeding behavior can be difficult to correlate with anthropogenic sound exposure, so it is usually inferred by observed displacement from known foraging areas, the appearance of secondary indicators (
Visual tracking, passive acoustic monitoring, and movement recording tags were used to quantify sperm whale behavior prior to, during, and following exposure to airgun arrays at received levels in the range 140-160 dB at distances of 7-13 km, following a phase-in of sound intensity and full array exposures at 1-13 km (Madsen
Variations in respiration naturally vary with different behaviors and alterations to breathing rate as a function of acoustic exposure can be expected to co-occur with other behavioral reactions, such as a flight response or an alteration in diving. However, respiration rates in and of themselves may be representative of annoyance or an acute stress response. Various studies have shown that
Marine mammals vocalize for different purposes and across multiple modes, such as whistling, echolocation click production, calling, and singing. Changes in vocalization behavior in response to anthropogenic noise can occur for any of these modes and may result from a need to compete with an increase in background noise or may reflect increased vigilance or a startle response. For example, in the presence of potentially masking signals, humpback whales and killer whales have been observed to increase the length of their songs (Miller
Cerchio
Castellote
Seismic pulses at average received levels of 131 dB re 1 µPa
Avoidance is the displacement of an individual from an area or migration path as a result of the presence of a sound or other stressors, and is one of the most obvious manifestations of disturbance in marine mammals (Richardson
A flight response is a dramatic change in normal movement to a directed and rapid movement away from the perceived location of a sound source. The flight response differs from other avoidance responses in the intensity of the response (
Behavioral disturbance can also impact marine mammals in more subtle ways. Increased vigilance may result in costs related to diversion of focus and attention (
Many animals perform vital functions, such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing, on a diel cycle (24-hour cycle). Disruption of such functions resulting from reactions to stressors such as sound exposure are more likely to be significant if they last more than one diel cycle or recur on subsequent
Stone (2015) reported data from at-sea observations during 1,196 seismic surveys from 1994 to 2010. When large arrays of airguns (considered to be 500 in
3.
Neuroendocrine stress responses often involve the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system. Virtually all neuroendocrine functions that are affected by stress—including immune competence, reproduction, metabolism, and behavior—are regulated by pituitary hormones. Stress-induced changes in the secretion of pituitary hormones have been implicated in failed reproduction, altered metabolism, reduced immune competence, and behavioral disturbance (
The primary distinction between stress (which is adaptive and does not normally place an animal at risk) and “distress” is the cost of the response. During a stress response, an animal uses glycogen stores that can be quickly replenished once the stress is alleviated. In such circumstances, the cost of the stress response would not pose serious fitness consequences. However, when an animal does not have sufficient energy reserves to satisfy the energetic costs of a stress response, energy resources must be diverted from other functions. This state of distress will last until the animal replenishes its energetic reserves sufficiently to restore normal function.
Relationships between these physiological mechanisms, animal behavior, and the costs of stress responses are well-studied through controlled experiments and for both laboratory and free-ranging animals (
4.
Under certain circumstances, marine mammals experiencing significant masking could also be impaired from maximizing their performance fitness in survival and reproduction. Therefore, when the coincident (masking) sound is man-made, it may be considered harassment when disrupting or altering critical behaviors. It is important to distinguish TTS and PTS, which persist after the sound exposure, from masking, which occurs during the sound exposure. Because masking (without resulting in TS) is not associated with abnormal physiological function, it is not considered a physiological effect, but rather a potential behavioral effect.
The frequency range of the potentially masking sound is important in determining any potential behavioral impacts. For example, low-frequency signals may have less effect on high-frequency echolocation sounds produced by odontocetes but are more likely to affect detection of mysticete communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as those produced by surf and some prey species. The masking of communication signals by anthropogenic noise may be considered as a reduction in the communication space of animals (
Masking affects both senders and receivers of acoustic signals and can potentially have long-term chronic effects on marine mammals at the population level as well as at the individual level. Low-frequency ambient sound levels have increased by as much as 20 dB (more than three times in terms of SPL) in the world's ocean from pre-industrial periods, with most of the increase from distant commercial shipping (Hildebrand 2009). All anthropogenic sound sources, but especially chronic and lower-frequency signals (
Vessel collisions with marine mammals, or ship strikes, can result in death or serious injury of the animal. Wounds resulting from ship strike may include massive trauma, hemorrhaging, broken bones, or propeller lacerations (Knowlton and Kraus 2001). An animal at the surface may be struck directly by a vessel, a surfacing animal may hit the bottom of a vessel, or an animal just below the surface may be cut by a vessel's propeller. Superficial strikes may not kill or result in the death of the animal. These interactions are typically associated with large whales (
Pace and Silber (2005) also found that the probability of death or serious injury increased rapidly with increasing vessel speed. Specifically, the predicted probability of serious injury or death increased from 45 to 75 percent as vessel speed increased from 10 to 14 kn, and exceeded 90 percent at 17 kn. Higher speeds during collisions result in greater force of impact, but higher speeds also appear to increase the chance of severe injuries or death through increased likelihood of collision by pulling whales toward the vessel (Clyne, 1999; Knowlton
The
It is possible for ship strikes to occur while traveling at slow speeds. For example, a hydrographic survey vessel traveling at low speed (5.5 kt) while conducting mapping surveys off the central California coast struck and killed a blue whale in 2009. The State of California determined that the whale had suddenly and unexpectedly surfaced beneath the hull, with the result that the propeller severed the whale's vertebrae, and that this was an unavoidable event. This strike represents the only such incident in approximately 540,000 hours of similar coastal mapping activity (
Although the likelihood of the vessel striking a marine mammal is low, we require a robust ship strike avoidance protocol (see “Proposed Mitigation”), which we believe eliminates any foreseeable risk of ship strike. We anticipate that vessel collisions involving a seismic data acquisition vessel towing gear, while not impossible, represent unlikely, unpredictable events for which there are no preventive measures. Given the required mitigation measures, the relatively slow speed of the vessel towing gear, the presence of bridge crew watching for obstacles at all times (including marine mammals), the presence of marine mammal observers, and the short duration of the survey (5.5 days), we believe that the possibility of ship strike is discountable and, further, that were a strike of a large whale to occur, it would be unlikely to result in serious injury or mortality. No incidental take resulting from ship strike is anticipated, and this potential effect of the specified activity will not be discussed further in the following analysis.
Marine mammals strand for a variety of reasons, such as infectious agents, biotoxicosis, starvation, fishery interaction, ship strike, unusual oceanographic or weather events, sound
Use of military tactical sonar has been implicated in a majority of investigated stranding events, although one stranding event was associated with the use of seismic airguns. This event occurred in the Gulf of California, coincident with seismic reflection profiling by the R/V
Marine mammals could be affected by accidentally spilled diesel fuel from a vessel associated with proposed survey activities. Quantities of diesel fuel on the sea surface may affect marine mammals through various pathways: surface contact of the fuel with skin and other mucous membranes, inhalation of concentrated petroleum vapors, or ingestion of the fuel (direct ingestion or by the ingestion of oiled prey) (
Information on seismic airgun impacts to zooplankton, which represent an important prey type for mysticetes, is limited. However, McCauley
In general, impacts to marine mammal prey are expected to be limited due to the relatively small temporal and spatial overlap between the proposed survey and any areas used by marine mammal prey species. The proposed survey would occur over a relatively short time period (5.5 days) and would occur over a very small area relative to the area available as marine mammal habitat in the northeast Pacific Ocean. We do not have any information to suggest the proposed survey area represents a significant feeding area for any marine mammal, and we believe any impacts to marine mammals due to adverse affects to their prey would be insignificant due to the limited spatial and temporal
Soundscapes are also defined by, and acoustic habitat influenced by, the total contribution of anthropogenic sound. This may include incidental emissions from sources such as vessel traffic, or may be intentionally introduced to the marine environment for data acquisition purposes (as in the use of airgun arrays). Anthropogenic noise varies widely in its frequency content, duration, and loudness and these characteristics greatly influence the potential habitat-mediated effects to marine mammals (please see also the previous discussion on masking under “Acoustic Effects”), which may range from local effects for brief periods of time to chronic effects over large areas and for long durations. Depending on the extent of effects to habitat, animals may alter their communications signals (thereby potentially expending additional energy) or miss acoustic cues (either conspecific or adventitious). For more detail on these concepts see,
Problems arising from a failure to detect cues are more likely to occur when noise stimuli are chronic and overlap with biologically relevant cues used for communication, orientation, and predator/prey detection (Francis and Barber 2013). Although the signals emitted by seismic airgun arrays are generally low frequency, they would also likely be of short duration and transient in any given area due to the nature of these surveys. As described previously, exploratory surveys such as these cover a large area but would be transient rather than focused in a given location over time and therefore would not be considered chronic in any given location.
In summary, activities associated with the proposed action are not likely to have a permanent, adverse effect on any fish habitat or populations of fish species or on the quality of acoustic habitat. Thus, any impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to cause significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals or their populations.
This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes proposed for authorization through this IHA, which will inform both NMFS' consideration of whether the number of takes is “small” and the negligible impact determination.
Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
Authorized takes would primarily be by Level B harassment, as use of the seismic airguns have the potential to result in disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals. There is also some potential for auditory injury (Level A harassment) to result, primarily for high frequency cetaceans and phocid pinnipeds. Auditory injury is unlikely to occur for low- and mid-frequency species given very small modeled zones of injury for those species. The proposed mitigation and monitoring measures are expected to minimize the severity of such taking to the extent practicable. As described previously, no mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the take is estimated.
Described in the most basic way, we estimate take by considering: (1) Acoustic thresholds above which NMFS believes the best available science indicates marine mammals will be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of permanent hearing impairment; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and (4) and the number of days of activities. Below, we describe these components in more detail and present the exposure estimate and associated numbers of take proposed for authorization.
Using the best available science, NMFS has developed acoustic thresholds that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur PTS of some degree (equated to Level A harassment).
These thresholds were developed by compiling and synthesizing the best available science and soliciting input multiple times from both the public and peer reviewers to inform the final product, and are provided in Table 4 below. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the thresholds are described in NMFS 2016 Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at:
Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity that will feed into estimating the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds.
The proposed survey would entail the use of a 2-airgun array with a total discharge of 90 in
For modeling of radial distances to predicted isopleths corresponding to harassment thresholds in deep water (>1,000 m), LDEO used the deep-water radii for various Sound Exposure Levels obtained from LDEO model results down to a maximum water depth of 2,000 m (see Figure 2 in the IHA application). Radial distances to predicted isopleths corresponding to harassment thresholds in intermediate water depths (100-1,000 m) were derived by LDEO from the deep-water distances by applying a correction factor (multiplication) of 1.5, such that observed levels at very near offsets fall below the corrected mitigation curve (Fig. 16 in Appendix H of NSF-USGS 2011). LDEO's modeling methodology is described in greater detail in the IHA application (LGL 2017) and we refer to the reader to that document rather than repeating it here.
Predicted distances to Level A harassment isopleths, which vary based on marine mammal functional hearing groups (Table 3), were calculated based on modeling performed by LDEO using the Nucleus software program and the NMFS User Spreadsheet, described below. The updated acoustic thresholds for impulsive sounds (such as airguns) contained in the Technical Guidance (NMFS 2016) were presented as dual metric acoustic thresholds using both SEL
The values for SEL
In order to more realistically incorporate the Technical Guidance's weighting functions over the seismic array's full acoustic band, unweighted spectrum data for the
Note that because of some of the assumptions included in the methods used, isopleths produced may be overestimates to some degree, which will ultimately result in some degree of overestimate of Level A take. However, these tools offer the best way to predict appropriate isopleths when more sophisticated 3D modeling methods are not available, and NMFS continues to develop ways to quantitatively refine these tools and will qualitatively address the output where appropriate. For mobile sources, such as the proposed seismic survey, the User Spreadsheet predicts the closest distance at which a stationary animal would not incur PTS if the sound source traveled by the animal in a straight line at a constant speed.
In this section we provide the information about the presence, density, or group dynamics of marine mammals that will inform the take calculations.
The best available scientific information was considered in conducting marine mammal exposure estimates (the basis for estimating take). For most cetacean species, densities calculated by Barlow (2016) were used.
Systematic, offshore, at-sea survey data for pinnipeds are more limited than those for cetaceans. Densities for the Steller sea lion, California sea lion, northern elephant seal, and northern fur seal were calculated using the methods in U.S. Navy (2010) with updated abundance estimates from Carretta
There is some uncertainty related to the estimated density data and the assumptions used in their calculations, as with all density data estimates. However, the approach used is based on the best available data.
Here we describe how the information provided above is brought together to produce a quantitative take estimate. In order to estimate the number of marine mammals predicted to be exposed to sound levels that would result in Level B harassment or Level A harassment, radial distances to predicted isopleths corresponding to the Level A harassment and Level B harassment thresholds are calculated, as described above. We then use those distances to calculate the area(s) around the airgun array predicted to be ensonified to sound levels that exceed the Level A and Level B harassment thresholds. The total ensonified area for the survey is then calculated, based on the areas predicted to be ensonified around the array and the trackline distance. In this case, 25 percent was added in the form of operational days, which is equivalent to adding 25 percent to the proposed line km to be surveyed, to account for potential additional seismic operations as described above. The marine mammals predicted to occur within the ensonified areas, based on estimated densities, are expected to be incidentally taken by the proposed survey.
To summarize, the estimated density of each marine mammal species within an area (animals/km
No density data were available for the false killer whale or the bottlenose dolphin in the proposed survey area, as these species are not typically observed in the proposed survey area (Carretta
It should be noted that the proposed take numbers shown in Table 8 are believed to be conservative for several reasons. First, in the calculations of estimated take, 25 percent has been added in the form of operational survey days (equivalent to adding 25 percent to the proposed line km to be surveyed) to account for the possibility of additional seismic operations associated with airgun testing, and repeat coverage of any areas where initial data quality is sub-standard. Additionally, marine mammals would be expected to move away from a sound source that represents an aversive stimulus. However, the extent to which marine mammals would move away from the sound source is difficult to quantify and is therefore not accounted for in take estimates shown in Table 8.
For some marine mammal species, we propose to authorize a different number of incidental takes than the number of incidental takes requested by SIO (see Table 7 in the IHA application for requested take numbers). For instance, for several species, SIO increased the take request from the calculated take number to 1 percent of the estimated population size. However, we do not believe it is likely that 1 percent of the estimated population size of those species will be taken by SIO's proposed survey, therefore we propose to authorize take numbers as shows in Table 8, which we believe are based on the best available information.
To calculate distances to isopleths corresponding to Level A harassment thresholds using Peak SPL
In order to issue an IHA under Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, “and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking” for certain subsistence uses (latter not applicable for this action). NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).
In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, we carefully consider two primary factors:
(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned) the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned), and
(2) the practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
SIO has reviewed mitigation measures employed during seismic research surveys authorized by NMFS under previous incidental harassment authorizations, as well as recommended best practices in Richardson
To reduce the potential for disturbance from acoustic stimuli associated with the activities, SIO has proposed to implement the following mitigation measures for marine mammals:
(1) Vessel-based visual mitigation monitoring;
(2) Establishment of an exclusion zone and buffer zone;
(3) Shutdown procedures;
(4) Ramp-up procedures; and
(5) Ship strike avoidance measures.
In addition to these measures, NMFS proposes the following additional mitigation measure:
(1) Shutdown for killer whales observed at any distance.
PSO observations would take place during all daytime airgun operations and nighttime start ups (if applicable) of the airguns. If airguns are operating throughout the night, observations would begin 30 minutes prior to sunrise. If airguns are operating after sunset, observations would continue until 30 minutes following sunset. Following a shutdown for any reason, observations would occur for at least 30 minutes prior to the planned start of airgun operations. Observations would also occur for 30 minutes after airgun operations cease for any reason. Observations would also be made during daytime periods when the
(i) During seismic operations, three visual PSOs would be based aboard the
The
The PSOs must have no tasks other than to conduct observational effort, record observational data, and communicate with and instruct relevant vessel crew with regard to the presence of marine mammals and mitigation requirements. PSO resumes would be provided to NMFS for approval. At least one PSO must have a minimum of 90 days at-sea experience working as PSOs during a deep penetration seismic survey, with no more than eighteen months elapsed since the conclusion of the at-sea experience. One “experienced” visual PSO would be designated as the lead for the entire protected species observation team. The lead would serve as primary point of contact for the vessel operator.
The PSOs must have successfully completed relevant training, including completion of all required coursework and passing a written and/or oral
An exclusion zone is a defined area within which occurrence of a marine mammal triggers mitigation action intended to reduce the potential for certain outcomes,
The 100 m radial distance of the standard EZ is precautionary in the sense that it would be expected to contain sound exceeding peak pressure injury criteria for all marine mammal hearing groups (Table 7) while also providing a consistent, reasonably observable zone within which PSOs would typically be able to conduct effective observational effort. In this case, the 100 m radial distance would also be expected to contain sound that would exceed the Level A harassment threshold based on sound exposure level (SEL
Our intent in prescribing a standard exclusion zone distance is to (1) encompass zones within which auditory injury could occur on the basis of instantaneous exposure; (2) provide additional protection from the potential for more severe behavioral reactions (
PSOs would also establish and monitor a 200 m buffer zone. During use of the acoustic source, occurrence of marine mammals within the buffer zone (but outside the exclusion zone) would be communicated to the operator to prepare for potential shutdown of the acoustic source. The buffer zone is discussed further under
If a marine mammal is detected outside the EZ but is likely to enter the EZ, and if the vessel's speed and/or course cannot be changed to avoid having the animal enter the EZ, the airguns would be shut down before the animal is within the EZ. Likewise, if a marine mammal is already within the EZ when first detected, the airguns would be shut down immediately.
Following a shutdown, airgun activity would not resume until the marine mammal has cleared the 100 m EZ. The animal would be considered to have cleared the 100 m EZ if the following conditions have been met:
• It is visually observed to have departed the 100 m EZ, or
• it has not been seen within the 100 m EZ for 15 min in the case of small odontocetes, or
• it has not been seen within the 100 m EZ for 30 min in the case of mysticetes and large odontocetes, including sperm, pygmy sperm, and beaked whales.
This shutdown requirement would be in place for all marine mammals, with the exception of small delphinoids under certain circumstances. As defined here, the small delphinoid group is intended to encompass those members of the Family Delphinidae most likely to voluntarily approach the source vessel for purposes of interacting with the vessel and/or airgun array (
We propose this small delphinoid exception because shutdown requirements for small delphinoids under all circumstances represent practicability concerns without likely commensurate benefits for the animals in question. Small delphinoids are generally the most commonly observed marine mammals in the specific geographic region and would typically be the only marine mammals likely to intentionally approach the vessel. As described below, auditory injury is extremely unlikely to occur for mid-frequency cetaceans (
A large body of anecdotal evidence indicates that small delphinoids commonly approach vessels and/or towed arrays during active sound production for purposes of bow riding, with no apparent effect observed in those delphinoids (
At any distance, shutdown of the acoustic source would also be required upon observation of any of the following:
• A killer whale;
• a large whale (
• an aggregation of large whales of any species (
These would be the only three potential situations that would require shutdown of the array for marine mammals observed beyond the 100 m EZ. Southern Resident DPS killer whales are not expected to occur in the area of the proposed survey as the easternmost track lines of the proposed survey (those that approach nearest to shore) are further west than the migratory range of the Southern Resident stock off Oregon and southern Washington (pers. comm., B. Hanson, NMFS Northwest Fishery Science Center to J. Carduner, NMFS OPR, April 12, 2017). As the Eastern North Pacific Southern Resident stock would be expected to occur closer to shore than the proposed survey area, the survey is not expected to encounter any individuals from this stock. However, as the known migratory range of the Southern Resident DPS occurs near the proposed survey area, and due to the precarious conservation status of the Southern Resident killer whale DPS, NMFS believes it is reasonable to implement measures that are conservative and also practicable in order to prevent the potential for a Southern Resident killer whale to be exposed to airgun sounds. Thus the requirement to shut down the array upon observation of a killer whale at any distance is designed to avoid any potential for harassment of any Southern Resident killer whales.
Ramp-up of an acoustic source is intended to provide a gradual increase in sound levels following a shutdown, enabling animals to move away from the source if the signal is sufficiently aversive prior to its reaching full intensity. Ramp-up would be required after the array is shut down for any reason. Ramp-up would begin with the activation of one 45 in
PSOs would be required to monitor during ramp-up. During ramp up, the PSOs would monitor the EZ, and if marine mammals were observed within or approaching the 100 m EZ, a shutdown would be implemented as though the full array were operational. If airguns have been shut down due to PSO detection of a marine mammal within or approaching the 100 m EZ, ramp-up would not be initiated until all marine mammals have cleared the EZ, during the day or night. Criteria for clearing the EZ would be as described above.
Thirty minutes of pre-clearance observation are required prior to ramp-up for any shutdown of longer than 30 minutes (
The operator would be required to notify a designated PSO of the planned start of ramp-up as agreed-upon with the lead PSO; the notification time should not be less than 60 minutes prior to the planned ramp-up. A designated PSO must be notified again immediately prior to initiating ramp-up procedures and the operator must receive confirmation from the PSO to proceed. The operator must provide information to PSOs documenting that appropriate procedures were followed. Following deactivation of the array for reasons other than mitigation, the operator would be required to communicate the near-term operational plan to the lead PSO with justification for any planned nighttime ramp-up.
If a marine mammal is detected outside the EZ, based on its position and the relative motion, is likely to enter the EZ, the vessel's speed and/or direct course could be changed. This would be done if operationally practicable while minimizing the effect on the planned science objectives. The activities and movements of the marine mammal (relative to the seismic vessel) would then be closely monitored to determine whether the animal is approaching the EZ. If the animal appears likely to enter the EZ, a shutdown of the seismic source would cocur. Typically, during seismic operations, the source vessel is unable to change speed or course and one or more alternative mitigation measures (as described above) would need to be implemented.
Based on our evaluation of the applicant's proposed measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the proposed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
In order to issue an IHA for an activity, Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth, “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104 (a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.
Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors.
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks.
• Effects on marine mammal habitat (
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
SIO submitted a marine mammal monitoring and reporting plan in section XIII of their IHA application. Monitoring that is designed specifically to facilitate mitigation measures, such as monitoring of the EZ to inform potential shutdowns of the airgun array, are described above and are not repeated here.
SIO's monitoring and reporting plan includes the following measures:
As described above, PSO observations would take place during daytime airgun operations and nighttime start ups (if applicable) of the airguns. During seismic operations, three visual PSOs would be based aboard the
PSOs would record data to estimate the numbers of marine mammals exposed to various received sound levels and to document apparent disturbance reactions or lack thereof. Data would be used to estimate numbers of animals potentially `taken' by harassment (as defined in the MMPA). They would also provide information needed to order a shutdown of the airguns when a marine mammal is within or near the EZ. When a sighting is made, the following information about the sighting would be recorded:
1. Species, group size, age/size/sex categories (if determinable), behavior when first sighted and after initial sighting, heading (if consistent), bearing and distance from seismic vessel, sighting cue, apparent reaction to the airguns or vessel (
2. Time, location, heading, speed, activity of the vessel, sea state, visibility, and sun glare.
All observations and shutdowns would be recorded in a standardized format. Data would be entered into an electronic database. The accuracy of the data entry would be verified by computerized data validity checks as the data are entered and by subsequent manual checking of the database. These procedures would allow initial summaries of data to be prepared during and shortly after the field program and would facilitate transfer of the data to statistical, graphical, and other programs for further processing and archiving. The time, location, heading, speed, activity of the vessel, sea state, visibility, and sun glare would also be recorded at the start and end of each observation watch, and during a watch whenever there is a change in one or more of the variables.
Results from the vessel-based observations would provide:
1. The basis for real-time mitigation (airgun shutdown).
2. Information needed to estimate the number of marine mammals potentially taken by harassment, which must be reported to NMFS.
3. Data on the occurrence, distribution, and activities of marine mammals in the area where the seismic study is conducted.
4. Information to compare the distance and distribution of marine mammals relative to the source vessel at times with and without seismic activity.
5. Data on the behavior and movement patterns of marine mammals seen at times with and without seismic activity.
NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
To avoid repetition, our analysis applies to all the species listed in Table 2, given that NMFS expects the anticipated effects of the proposed seismic survey to be similar in nature. Where there are meaningful differences between species or stocks, or groups of species, in anticipated individual responses to activities, impact of expected take on the population due to differences in population status, or impacts on habitat, NMFS has identified species-specific factors to inform the analysis.
NMFS does not anticipate that serious injury or mortality would occur as a result of SIO's proposed seismic survey, even in the absence of proposed mitigation. Thus the proposed authorization does not authorize any mortality. As discussed in the
We propose to authorize a limited number of instances of Level A harassment (Table 8) for four species. However, we believe that any PTS incurred in marine mammals as a result of the proposed activity would be in the form of only a small degree of PTS and not total deafness that would not be likely to affect the fitness of any individuals, because of the constant movement of both the
Potential impacts to marine mammal habitat were discussed previously in this document (see
The activity is expected to impact a very small percentage of all marine mammal stocks that would be affected by SIO's proposed survey (less than 7 percent each for all marine mammal stocks). Additionally, the acoustic “footprint” of the proposed survey would be very small relative to the ranges of all marine mammals that would potentially be affected. Sound levels would increase in the marine environment in a relatively small area surrounding the vessel compared to the range of the marine mammals within the proposed survey area. The seismic array would be active 24 hours per day throughout the duration of the proposed survey. However, the very brief overall duration of the proposed survey (five days) would further limit potential impacts that may occur as a result of the proposed activity.
The proposed mitigation measures are expected to reduce the number and/or severity of takes by allowing for detection of marine mammals in the vicinity of the vessel by visual and acoustic observers, and by minimizing the severity of any potential exposures via shutdowns of the airgun array. Based on previous monitoring reports for substantially similar activities that have been previously authorized by NMFS, we expect that the proposed mitigation will be effective in preventing at least some extent of potential PTS in marine mammals that may otherwise occur in the absence of the proposed mitigation.
Of the marine mammal species under our jurisdiction that are likely to occur in the project area, the following species are listed as endangered under the ESA: Humpback, blue, fin, sei, and sperm whales. Population estimates for humpback whales for the North Pacific have increased substantially from 1,200 in 1966 to approximately 18,000-20,000 whales in 2004 to 2006 (Calambokidis
NMFS concludes that exposures to marine mammal species and stocks due to SIO's proposed seismic survey would result in only short-term (temporary and short in duration) effects to individuals exposed, or some small degree of PTS to a very small number of individuals of four species.. Animals may temporarily avoid the immediate area, but are not expected to permanently abandon the area. Major shifts in habitat use, distribution, or foraging success are not expected. NMFS does not anticipate the proposed take estimates to impact annual rates of recruitment or survival.
In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our preliminary determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect the marine mammal species or stocks through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:
• No mortality is anticipated or authorized;
• The anticipated impacts of the proposed activity on marine mammals would primarily be temporary behavioral changes due to avoidance of the area around the survey vessel. The relatively short duration of the proposed survey (5 days) would further limit the potential impacts of any temporary behavioral changes that would occur;
• The number of instances of PTS that may occur are expected to be very small in number (Table 8). Instances of PTS that are incurred in marine mammals would be of a low level, due to constant movement of the vessel and of the marine mammals in the area, and the nature of the survey design (not concentrated in areas of high marine mammal concentration);
• The availability of alternate areas of similar habitat value for marine mammals to temporarily vacate the survey area during the proposed survey to avoid exposure to sounds from the activity;
• The proposed project area does not contain areas of significance for feeding, mating or calving;
• The potential adverse effects on fish or invertebrate species that serve as prey species for marine mammals from the proposed survey would be temporary and spatially limited;
• The proposed mitigation measures, including visual and acoustic monitoring and shutdowns, are expected to minimize potential impacts to marine mammals.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS preliminarily finds that the total marine mammal take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.
As noted above, only small numbers of incidental take may be authorized under Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA
The numbers of marine mammals that we propose for authorization to be taken, for all species and stocks, would be considered small relative to the relevant stocks or populations (approximately 6.8 percent for bottlenose dolphins, and less than 5 percent for all other species and stocks). Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS preliminarily finds that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
Section 7(a)(2) of the ESA of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531
The NMFS Permits and Conservation Division is proposing to authorize the incidental take of 5 species of marine mammals which are listed under the ESA: The humpback whale (Mexico DPS), sei whale, fin whale, blue whale and sperm whale. We have requested initiation of Section 7 consultation with the Interagency Cooperation Division for the issuance of this IHA. NMFS will conclude the ESA section 7 consultation prior to reaching a determination regarding the proposed issuance of the authorization.
As a result of these preliminary determinations, NMFS proposes to issue an IHA to SIO for conducting a seismic survey in the northeast Pacific Ocean in September, 2017, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated. This section contains a draft of the IHA itself. The wording contained in this section is proposed for inclusion in the IHA (if issued).
1. This IHA is valid for a period of one year from the date of issuance.
2. This IHA is valid only for marine geophysical survey activity, as specified in the SIO IHA application and using an airgun array aboard the R/V
3. General Conditions.
(a) A copy of this IHA must be in the possession of SIO, the vessel operator and other relevant personnel, the lead PSO, and any other relevant designees of SIO operating under the authority of this IHA.
(b) The species authorized for taking are listed in Table 8. The taking, by Level A and Level B harassment only, is limited to the species and numbers listed in Table 8. Any taking exceeding the authorized amounts listed in Table 8 is prohibited and may result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of this IHA.
(c) The taking by serious injury or death of any species of marine mammal is prohibited and may result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of this IHA.
(d) During use of the airgun(s), if marine mammal species other than those listed in Table 8 are detected by PSOs, the acoustic source must be shut down to avoid unauthorized take.
(e) SIO shall ensure that the vessel operator and other relevant vessel personnel are briefed on all responsibilities, communication procedures, marine mammal monitoring protocol, operational procedures, and IHA requirements prior to the start of survey activity, and when relevant new personnel join the survey operations.
4. Mitigation Requirements.
The holder of this Authorization is required to implement the following mitigation measures:
(b) SIO must use at least three (3) dedicated, trained, NMFS-approved PSO. The PSOs must have no tasks other than to conduct observational effort, record observational data, and communicate with and instruct relevant vessel crew with regard to the presence of marine mammals and mitigation requirements. PSO resumes shall be provided to NMFS for approval.
(c) At least one PSO must have a minimum of 90 days at-sea experience working as a PSO during a deep penetration seismic survey, with no more than eighteen months elapsed since the conclusion of the at-sea experience. One “experienced” visual PSO shall be designated as the lead for the entire protected species observation team. The lead PSO shall serve as primary point of contact for the vessel operator.
(d) Visual Observation.
(i) During survey operations (
(ii) Visual monitoring must begin not less than 30 minutes prior to ramp-up, including for nighttime ramp-ups of the airgun array, and must continue until one hour after use of the acoustic source ceases or until 30 minutes past sunset.
(iii) PSOs shall coordinate to ensure 360° visual coverage around the vessel from the most appropriate observation posts and shall conduct visual observations using binoculars and the naked eye while free from distractions and in a consistent, systematic, and diligent manner.
(iv) PSOs may be on watch for a maximum of four consecutive hours followed by a break of at least one hour between watches and may conduct a maximum of 12 hours observation per 24 hour period.
(v) During good conditions (
(e) Exclusion Zone and buffer zone—PSOs shall establish and monitor a 100 m EZ and 200 m buffer zone. The zones shall be based upon radial distance from
(i) Ramp-up—A ramp-up procedure, is required at all times as part of the activation of the acoustic source. Ramp-up would begin with one 45 in
(ii) If the airgun array has been shut down due to a marine mammal detection, ramp-up shall not occur until all marine mammals have cleared the EZ. A marine mammal is considered to have cleared the EZ if:
(A) It has been visually observed to have left the EZ; or
(B) It has not been observed within the EZ, for 15 minutes (in the case of small odontocetes) or for 30 minutes (in the case of mysticetes and large odontocetes including sperm, pygmy sperm, and beaked whales).
(iii) Thirty minutes of pre-clearance observation of the 100 m EZ and 200 m buffer zone are required prior to ramp-up for any shutdown of longer than 30 minutes. This pre-clearance period may occur during any vessel activity. If any marine mammal (including delphinids) is observed within or approaching the 100 m EZ during the 30 minute pre-clearance period, ramp-up may not begin until the animal(s) has been observed exiting the EZ or until an additional time period has elapsed with no further sightings (
(iv) During ramp-up, PSOs shall monitor the 100 m EZ and 200 m buffer zone. Ramp-up may not be initiated if any marine mammal (including delphinids) is observed within or approaching the 100 m EZ. If a marine mammal is observed within or approaching the 100 m EZ during ramp-up, a shutdown shall be implemented as though the full array were operational. Ramp-up may not begin again until the animal(s) has been observed exiting the 100 m EZ or until an additional time period has elapsed with no further sightings (
(v) If the airgun array has been shut down for reasons other than mitigation (
(vi) Ramp-up at night and at times of poor visibility shall only occur where operational planning cannot reasonably avoid such circumstances. Ramp-up may occur at night and during poor visibility if the 100 m EZ and 200 m buffer zone have been continually monitored by visual PSOs for 30 minutes prior to ramp-up with no marine mammal detections.
(vii) The vessel operator must notify a designated PSO of the planned start of ramp-upA designated PSO must be notified again immediately prior to initiating ramp-up procedures and the operator must receive confirmation from the PSO to proceed.
(f) Shutdown requirements—An exclusion zone of 100 m shall be established and monitored by PSOs. If a marine mammal is observed within, entering, or approaching the 100 m exclusion zone all airguns shall be shut down.
(i) Any PSO on duty has the authority to call for shutdown of the airgun array. When there is certainty regarding the need for mitigation action on the basis of visual detection, the relevant PSO(s) must call for such action immediately.
(ii) The operator must establish and maintain clear lines of communication directly between PSOs on duty and crew controlling the airgun array to ensure that shutdown commands are conveyed swiftly while allowing PSOs to maintain watch.
(iii) When a shutdown is called for by a PSO, the shutdown must occur and any dispute resolved only following shutdown.
(iv) The shutdown requirement is waived for dolphins of the following genera:
(v) Upon implementation of a shutdown, the source may be reactivated under the conditions described at 4(e)(vi). Where there is no relevant zone (
(vi) Shutdown of the array is required upon observation of a whale (
(vii) Shutdown of the array is required upon observation of an aggregation (
(viii) Shutdown of the array is required upon observation of a killer whale at any distance.
(g) Vessel Strike Avoidance—Vessel operator and crew must maintain a vigilant watch for all marine mammals and slow down or stop the vessel or alter course, as appropriate, to avoid striking any marine mammal, unless such action represents a human safety concern. A visual observer aboard the vessel must monitor a vessel strike avoidance zone around the vessel according to the parameters stated below. Visual observers monitoring the vessel strike avoidance zone can be either third-party observers or crew members, but crew members responsible for these duties must be provided sufficient training to distinguish marine mammals from other phenomena.
(i) The vessel must maintain a minimum separation distance of 100 m from large whales, unless such action represents a human safety concern. The following avoidance measures must be taken if a large whale is within 100 m of the vessel:
(A) The vessel must reduce speed and shift the engine to neutral, when feasible, and must not engage the engines until the whale has moved outside of the vessel's path and the minimum separation distance has been established unless such action represents a human safety concern.
(B) If the vessel is stationary, the vessel must not engage engines until the whale(s) has moved out of the vessel's path and beyond 100 m unless such action represents a human safety concern.
(ii) The vessel must maintain a minimum separation distance of 50 m from all other marine mammals, with an exception made for animals described in 4(e)(iv) that approach the vessel. If an animal is encountered during transit, the vessel shall attempt to remain
(iii) Vessel speeds must be reduced to 10 knots or less when mother/calf pairs, pods, or large assemblages of cetaceans are observed near the vessel unless such action represents a human safety concern.
(h) Miscellaneous Protocols.
(i) The airgun array must be deactivated when not acquiring data or preparing to acquire data, except as necessary for testing. Unnecessary use of the acoustic source shall be avoided. Operational capacity of 90 in
(ii) Testing of the acoustic source involving all elements requires normal mitigation protocols (
5. Monitoring Requirements.
The holder of this Authorization is required to conduct marine mammal monitoring during survey activity. Monitoring shall be conducted in accordance with the following requirements:
(a) The operator must provide a night-vision device suited for the marine environment for use during nighttime ramp-up pre-clearance, at the discretion of the PSOs. At minimum, the device should feature automatic brightness and gain control, bright light protection, infrared illumination, and optics suited for low-light situations.
(b) PSOs must also be equipped with reticle binoculars (
(c) PSO Qualifications
(i) PSOs must have successfully completed relevant training, including completion of all required coursework and passing a written and/or oral examination developed for the training program.
(ii) PSOs must have successfully attained a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university with a major in one of the natural sciences and a minimum of 30 semester hours or equivalent in the biological sciences and at least one undergraduate course in math or statistics. The educational requirements may be waived if the PSO has acquired the relevant skills through alternate experience. Requests for such a waiver must include written justification. Alternate experience that may be considered includes, but is not limited to (1) secondary education and/or experience comparable to PSO duties; (2) previous work experience conducting academic, commercial, or government-sponsored marine mammal surveys; or (3) previous work experience as a PSO; the PSO should demonstrate good standing and consistently good performance of PSO duties.
(d) Data Collection—PSOs must use standardized data forms, whether hard copy or electronic. PSOs shall record detailed information about any implementation of mitigation requirements, including the distance of animals to the acoustic source and description of specific actions that ensued, the behavior of the animal(s), any observed changes in behavior before and after implementation of mitigation, and if shutdown was implemented, the length of time before any subsequent ramp-up of the acoustic source to resume survey. If required mitigation was not implemented, PSOs should submit a description of the circumstances. We require that, at a minimum, the following information be reported:
(i) PSO names and affiliations.
(ii) Dates of departures and returns to port with port name.
(iii) Dates and times (Greenwich Mean Time) of survey effort and times corresponding with PSO effort.
(iv) Vessel location (latitude/longitude) when survey effort begins and ends; vessel location at beginning and end of visual PSO duty shifts.
(v) Vessel heading and speed at beginning and end of visual PSO duty shifts and upon any line change.
(vi) Environmental conditions while on visual survey (at beginning and end of PSO shift and whenever conditions change significantly), including wind speed and direction, Beaufort sea state, Beaufort wind force, swell height, weather conditions, cloud cover, sun glare, and overall visibility to the horizon.
(vii) Factors that may be contributing to impaired observations during each PSO shift change or as needed as environmental conditions change (
(viii) Survey activity information, such as acoustic source power output while in operation, number and volume of airguns operating in the array, tow depth of the array, and any other notes of significance (
(ix) If a marine mammal is sighted, the following information should be recorded:
(A) Watch status (sighting made by PSO on/off effort, opportunistic, crew, alternate vessel/platform);
(B) PSO who sighted the animal;
(C) Time of sighting;
(D) Vessel location at time of sighting;
(E) Water depth;
(F) Direction of vessel's travel (compass direction);
(G) Direction of animal's travel relative to the vessel;
(H) Pace of the animal;
(I) Estimated distance to the animal and its heading relative to vessel at initial sighting;
(J) Identification of the animal (
(K) Estimated number of animals (high/low/best);
(L) Estimated number of animals by cohort (adults, yearlings, juveniles, calves, group composition, etc.);
(M) Description (as many distinguishing features as possible of each individual seen, including length, shape, color, pattern, scars or markings, shape and size of dorsal fin, shape of head, and blow characteristics);
(N) Detailed behavior observations (
(O) Animal's closest point of approach (CPA) and/or closest distance from the center point of the acoustic source;
(P) Platform activity at time of sighting (
(Q) Description of any actions implemented in response to the sighting (
6. Reporting.
(a) SIO shall submit a draft comprehensive report on all activities and monitoring results within 90 days of the completion of the survey or
(b) Reporting injured or dead marine mammals:
(i) In the event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner not prohibited by this IHA (if issued), such as serious injury or mortality, SIO shall immediately cease the specified activities and immediately report the incident to NMFS. The report must include the following information:
(A) Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the incident;
(B) Vessel's speed during and leading up to the incident;
(C) Description of the incident;
(D) Status of all sound source use in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
(E) Water depth;
(F) Environmental conditions (
(G) Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
(H) Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
(I) Fate of the animal(s); and
(J) Photographs or video footage of the animal(s).
Activities shall not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS will work with SIO to determine what measures are necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. SIO may not resume their activities until notified by NMFS.
(ii) In the event that SIO discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
(iii) In the event that SIO discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the specified activities (
7. This Authorization may be modified, suspended or withdrawn if the holder fails to abide by the conditions prescribed herein, or if NMFS determines the authorized taking is having more than a negligible impact on the species or stock of affected marine mammals.
We request comment on our analyses, the draft authorization, and any other aspect of this Notice of Proposed IHA for the proposed seismic survey by SIO. Please include with your comments any supporting data or literature citations to help inform our final decision on the request for MMPA authorization.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule proposes to cancel the Episode Payment Models (EPMs) and Cardiac Rehabilitation (CR) incentive payment model and to rescind the regulations governing these models. It also proposes to revise certain aspects of the Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement (CJR) model, including: Giving certain hospitals selected for participation in the CJR model a one-time option to choose whether to continue their participation in the model; technical refinements and clarifications for certain payment, reconciliation and quality provisions; and a change to increase the pool of eligible clinicians that qualify as affiliated practitioners under the Advanced Alternative Payment Model (APM) track.
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This
The purpose of this proposed rule is to propose to cancel the Episode Payment Models (EPMs) and the Cardiac Rehabilitation (CR) incentive payment model, established by the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation (Innovation Center) under the authority of section 1115A of the Social Security Act (the Act), and to rescind the regulations at 42 CFR part 512. Additionally, this proposed rule proposes to prospectively make participation voluntary for all hospitals in approximately half of the geographic areas selected for participation in the Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement (CJR) model (that is, in 33 of the 67 Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSAs) selected; (see 80 FR 73299 Table 4)) and for low-volume and rural hospitals in all of the geographic areas selected for participation in the CJR model. We are also proposing several technical refinements and clarifications for certain CJR model payment, reconciliation, and quality provisions, and a change to the criteria for the Affiliated Practitioner List to broaden the CJR Advanced Alternative Payment Model (APM) track to additional eligible clinicians.
We note that review and reevaluation of policies and programs, as well as revised rulemaking, are within an agency's discretion, and that discretion is often exercised after a change in administration occurs. The EPMs and the CR incentive models were designed as mandatory payment models and implemented via notice and comment rulemaking to test the effects of bundling cardiac and orthopedic care beginning in 2018 and further incentivizing higher value care. The CJR model was also designed as a mandatory payment model established via notice and comment rulemaking to test the effects of bundling on orthopedic episodes involving lower extremity joint replacements; we note that the CJR model began on April 1, 2016 and is currently in its second performance year.
While we continue to believe that cardiac and orthopedic episode models offer opportunities to redesign care processes and improve quality and care coordination across the inpatient and post-acute care spectrum while lowering spending, after careful review, we have determined that it is appropriate to propose to rescind the regulations at 42 CFR part 512, which relate to the EPMs and CR incentive payment model, and reduce the geographic scope of the CJR model for the following reasons. First, we believe that requiring hospitals to participate in additional episode payment models at this time is not in the best interest of the agency or the affected providers. Many providers are currently engaged in voluntary initiatives with CMS, and we expect to continue to offer opportunities for providers to participate in voluntary initiatives, including episode-based payment models. We are concerned that engaging in large mandatory episode payment model efforts at this time may impede our ability to engage providers, such as hospitals, in future voluntary efforts. Similarly, we also believe that reducing the number of providers required to participate in the CJR model will allow us to continue to evaluate the effects of such a model while limiting the geographic reach of our current mandatory models. We considered altering the design of the EPMs and the CR incentive payment model to allow for voluntary participation and to take into account other feedback on the models, but as this would potentially involve restructuring the model design, payment methodologies, financial arrangement provisions and/or quality measures, we did not believe that such alterations would offer providers enough time to prepare for such changes, given the planned January 1, 2018 start date. In addition, if at a later date we decide to test these models, or similar models, on a voluntary basis, we would not expect to implement them through rulemaking, but rather would use methods of soliciting applications and securing participants' agreement to participate consistent with how we have implemented other voluntary models. Finally, we believe that canceling the EPMs and CR incentive payment model, as well as altering the scope of the CJR model, offers CMS greater flexibility to design and test other episode-based payment models, while still allowing us to test and evaluate the impact of the ongoing CJR model on enhancing the quality of care while reducing costs. Hospitals in the CJR model have been participating for more than a year and a half, and we have begun to give hospitals in the model financial and quality results from the first performance year. In many cases, CJR hospitals have made investments in care redesign, and we want to recognize such investments and commitments to improvement while reducing the overall number of hospitals that are required to participate.
We seek public comment on the proposals contained in this proposed rule, and also on any alternatives considered.
We do not anticipate that our proposal to cancel the EPMs and CR incentive payment model prior to the start of those models will have any costs to providers. As shown in our impact analysis in section V. of this proposed rule, we estimate that the CJR model changes we are proposing will reduce the previously projected CJR model savings (82 FR 603) by approximately $90 million. Therefore, we estimate that the total CJR model impact after the changes in this proposed rule will save the Medicare program $204 million, instead of $294 million, over the remaining 3-year performance period (2018 through 2020) of the CJR model. Our impact analysis has some degree of uncertainty and makes assumptions as discussed in section V. of this proposed rule. In addition to these estimated impacts, as with many of the Innovation Center models, the goals that participants are attempting to achieve include improving overall quality of care, enhancing participating provider infrastructure to support better care management and reducing costs. We anticipate there will continue to be a broader focus on care coordination and quality improvement through the CJR model among hospitals and other providers and suppliers within the Medicare program that may lead to better care management and improved quality of care for beneficiaries.
Under the authority of section 1115A of the Social Security Act (the Act), through notice-and-comment rulemaking, CMS' Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation (Innovation Center) established the Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement model in a final rule titled “Medicare Program; Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement Payment Model for Acute Care Hospitals Furnishing Lower Extremity Joint Replacement Services” published in the November 24, 2015
The effective date for most of the provisions of the EPM final rule was February 18, 2017, and in the EPM final rule we specified an effective date of July 1, 2017 for certain CJR model regulatory changes intended to align with a July 1, 2017 applicability, or start, date for the EPMs and CR incentive payment model. On January 20, 2017, the Assistant to the President and Chief of Staff issued a memorandum titled “Regulatory Freeze Pending Review” that instructed Federal agencies to temporarily postpone the effective date for 60 days from the date of the memorandum for regulations that had been published in the
As we stated in the May 19, 2017 final delay rule (82 FR 22897), we received a number of comments on the models that did not relate to the start date change comment solicitation. These additional comments suggested that we reconsider or revise various model aspects, policies and design components; in particular, many of these comments suggested that we should make participation in the models voluntary instead of mandatory. We did not respond to these comments in the May 19, 2017 final delay rule, as the comments were out of scope of that rulemaking, but we stated that we might take them into consideration in future rulemaking.
Our specific proposals are discussed in the following sections of this proposed rule.
In the January 3, 2017 EPM final rule, we established three bundled payment models for acute myocardial infarction (AMI), coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), and surgical hip/femur fracture treatment (SHFFT) episodes, and a Cardiac Rehabilitation (CR) incentive payment model. These models are similar to other Innovation Center models and focus on more complex cases where we believe improvements in care coordination and other care redesign efforts offer the potential for improved patient outcomes and more efficient use of resources. Many stakeholders, including commenters responding to the March 21, 2017 IFC, have expressed concerns about the provider burden and challenges these new models present. As we noted in the May 19, 2017 final delay rule (82 FR 22896), which finalized a January 1, 2018 start date for the EPMs and the CR incentive payment model, we would engage in notice and comment rulemaking on these models if we believed it to be warranted. We also noted that we received 47 submissions in response to the March 21, 2017 IFC. These responses contained a mix of in- and out-of-scope comments (82 FR 22899). In the May 19, 2017 final delay rule (82 FR 22897), we noted that in addition to commenting on the change to the effective date for the EPMs and CR incentive payment model and certain provisions of the CJR model, commenters highlighted concerns with the models' design, including but not limited to participation requirements, data, pricing, quality measures, episode length, CR and skilled nursing facility (SNF) waivers, beneficiary exclusions and notification requirements, repayment, coding, and model overlap issues. Specifically, many commenters were opposed to the mandatory participation requirements, arguing that the mandatory nature of these models would force many providers who lack familiarity, experience, or proper infrastructure to quickly support care redesign efforts for a new bundled payment system. Many commenters were concerned that the mandatory nature of these models might harm patients and providers before CMS knows how these models might affect access to care, quality or outcomes in various locations. Additionally, commenters were concerned that unrelated services would be incorporated into episode prices under the finalized price setting methodology, which bases prices on MS-DRGs and identifies excluded, unrelated services rather than included, related services based on clinical review. Commenters also expressed concern that this pricing approach would result in diagnosis codes that would be classified as included services, when in fact these services have no clinical relevance to the episode(s). Commenters were further concerned with the fact that CMS will progressively incorporate regional data into EPM target prices, where 100 percent of the EPM target price would be based on regional data by performance year 4. Commenters also took issue with the quality measures established for the SHFFT model, stating that these measures are not clinically related to the target population and are inappropriate for use in assessing the care provided to beneficiaries in the SHFFT model. In addition, commenters requested revisions to the CABG EPM to allow participants the option to use a CABG
Commenters also expressed concerns about the design of the CR incentive payment model waivers. Commenters stated that current direct supervision requirements would continue to contribute to a lack of access to cardiac rehabilitation services and would inhibit providers' ability to redesign care for the CR incentive payment model. Commenters suggested broadening the CR physician supervision waiver because the current waivers would not cover non-model beneficiaries who might be obtaining services concurrently with model participants and are therefore not sufficient. Other commenters were concerned with the precedence rules for model overlap with Models 2, 3 and 4 of the Innovation Center's Bundled Payments for Care Improvement (BPCI) initiative.
In the May 19, 2017 final delay rule (82 FR 22895), we stated that we might consider these public comments in future rulemaking. Based on our additional review and consideration of this stakeholder feedback, we have concluded that certain aspects of the design of the EPMs and the CR incentive payment model should be improved and more fully developed prior to the start of the models, and that moving forward with the implementation of the EPMs and CR incentive payment model as put forth in the January 3, 2017 EPM final rule would not be in the best interest of beneficiaries or providers at this time. Based on our acknowledgment of the many concerns about the design of these models articulated by stakeholders, we are proposing to cancel the EPMs and CR incentive payment model before they begin. Accordingly, we propose to rescind 42 CFR part 512 in its entirety.
We seek public comment on our proposal to cancel the EPMs and CR incentive payment model.
We note that, if the proposal to cancel the EPMs and CR incentive payment model is finalized, providers interested in participating in bundled payment models may still have an opportunity to do so during calendar year (CY) 2018 via new voluntary bundled payment models. Building on the BPCI initiative, the Innovation Center expects to develop new voluntary bundled payment model(s) during CY 2018 that would be designed to meet the criteria to be an Advanced APM. We also note the strong evidence base and other positive stakeholder feedback that we have received regarding the CR incentive payment model. As we further develop the Innovation Center's portfolio of models, we may revisit this model and will consider stakeholder feedback for a potential new voluntary initiative.
The CJR model began on April 1, 2016. The CJR model is currently in the second performance year, which includes episodes ending on or after January 1, 2017 and on or before December 31, 2017. The third performance year, which includes all CJR episodes ending on or after January 1, 2018 and on or before December 31, 2018, would necessarily incorporate episodes beginning before January 2018. The fifth, and last, performance year would end on December 31, 2020. Currently, with limited exceptions, hospitals located in the 67 geographic areas selected for participation in the CJR model must participate in the model through December 31, 2020; that is, their participation in the CJR model is mandatory unless the hospital is an episode initiator for a lower-extremity joint replacement (LEJR) episode in the risk-bearing period of Models 2 or 4 of the BPCI initiative. Hospitals with a CCN primary address in the 67 selected geographic areas that participated in Model 1 of the BPCI initiative, which ended on December 31, 2016, began participating in the CJR model when their participation in the BPCI initiative ended.
Based on smaller, voluntary tests of episode-based payment models and demonstrations, such as the Acute Care Episode (ACE) demonstration and the BPCI initiative, that have indicated a potential to improve beneficiaries' care while reducing costs (see ACE evaluation at:
After further consideration of stakeholder feedback, including responses we received on the March 21, 2017 IFC, we are proposing certain revisions to the mandatory participation requirements for the CJR model to allow us to continue to evaluate the effects of the model while limiting the geographic reach of our current mandatory models. Specifically, we are proposing that the CJR model would continue on a mandatory basis in approximately half of the selected geographic areas (that is, 34 of the 67 selected geographic areas), with an exception for low-volume and rural hospitals, and continue on a voluntary basis in the other areas (that is, 33 of the 67 selected geographic areas).
The geographic areas for the CJR model are certain Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSAs) that were selected following the requirements in § 510.105 as discussed in the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73297 through 73299). In § 510.2, an MSA is defined as a core-based statistical area associated with at least one urbanized area that has a population of at least 50,000. In selecting the 67 MSAs for inclusion in the CJR model, the 196 eligible MSAs were stratified into 8 groups based on MSA average wage adjusted historic LEJR episode payments and MSA population size (80 FR 41207). Specifically, we classified MSAs according to their average LEJR episode payment into four categories based on the 25th, 50th and 75th percentiles of the distribution of the 196 potentially selectable MSAs as determined in the exclusion rules as applied in the CJR model proposed rule (80 FR 41198). This approach ranked the MSAs relative to one another and created four equally sized groups of 49. The population distribution was divided at the median point for the MSAs eligible for potential selection, creating 8 groups. Of the 196 eligible MSAs, we chose 67 MSAs via a stratified random selection process as discussed in the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73291). In reviewing our discussion of the MSA selection and the MSA volume needed to provide adequate statistical power to evaluate the impact of the model in the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73297), we have determined that reducing the mandatory MSA volume in half by selecting the 34
The original determination of the sample size need in the CJR model final rule was constructed to be able to observe a 2-percent reduction in wage-adjusted episode spending after 1 year. This amount was chosen based on the anticipated amount of the discount applied in the target price. In considering the degree of certainty that would be needed to generate reliable statistical estimates, we assumed a 20 percent chance of false positive and a 30 percent chance of a false negative. Using these parameters, we determined that the number of MSAs needed ranged from 50 to 150. In order to allow for some degree of flexibility, we selected 75 MSAs, which were narrowed to 67 due to final exclusion criteria.
As we reviewed the CJR model for this proposed rule, we noted that, excluding quarterly reconciliation amounts, evaluation results from BPCI Model 2 have indicated possible reductions in fee-for-service spending of approximately 3 percent on orthopedic surgery episodes for hospitals participating in the LEJR episode bundle. (
To select the 34 MSAs that would continue to have mandatory participation (except for low-volume and rural hospitals), we took the distribution of average wage-adjusted historic LEJR episode payments for the 67 MSAs using the definition described in the CJR model final rule, ordered them sequentially by average wage-adjusted historic LEJR episode payments, and then selected the 34 MSAs with the highest average payments. Under this proposal to reduce the number of MSAs with mandatory participation, the remaining 33 MSAs would no longer be subject to the CJR model's mandatory participation requirements; that is, hospital participation would be voluntary in these 33 MSAs.
After dividing the 67 MSAs into 34 mandatory and 33 voluntary MSAs as described previously, we examined selected MSA characteristics. In order to determine whether a good balance was maintained across MSA population size, we examined the number of MSAs below and above the median population point of the 196 MSAs eligible for potential selection. We observed that a good balance of MSA population size was maintained (17 out of 34 mandatory and 17 out of 33 voluntary MSAs had a population above the median population). While the 34 MSAs that would continue to have mandatory participation have higher spending on average, these MSAs all include providers with average cost episodes in addition to providers with high cost episodes. In general, we note that hospitals located in higher cost areas have a greater potential to demonstrate significant decreases in episode spending. However, within the higher cost MSAs, there is still significant variation in characteristics and experiences of the included hospitals. We anticipate the evaluation will be able to assess the generalizability of the findings of the CJR model by examining variations of performance within the participating hospitals who represent a wide range of hospital and market characteristics. Therefore, we are proposing that the CJR model would have 34 mandatory participation MSAs (identified in Table 1) and 33 voluntary participation MSAs (identified in Table 2) for performance years 3, 4, and 5.
Specifically, we are proposing that, unless an exclusion in § 510.100(b) applies (that is, for certain hospitals that participate in the BPCI initiative), participant hospitals in the proposed 34 mandatory participation MSAs that are not low-volume or rural (as defined in § 510.2 and discussed in the following paragraphs) would continue to be required to participate in the CJR model. We are also proposing that hospitals in the proposed 33 voluntary participation MSAs and hospitals that are low-volume or rural (as defined in § 510.2 and discussed in the following paragraphs) would have a one-time opportunity to notify CMS, in the form and manner specified by CMS, of their election to continue their participation in the CJR model on a voluntary basis (opt-in) for performance years 3, 4, and 5. Hospitals that choose to participate in the CJR model and make a participation election that complies with proposed § 510.115 would be subject to all model requirements. Hospitals in the proposed 33 voluntary participation MSAs and low-volume and rural hospitals (as defined in § 510.2 and discussed in the following paragraphs) that do not make a participation election would be withdrawn from the CJR model as described later in this section of this proposed rule.
We are proposing to exclude and automatically withdraw low-volume hospitals in the proposed 34 mandatory participation MSAs, as identified by CMS (see Table 3), from participation in the CJR model effective February 1, 2018. Since some low-volume hospitals may want to continue their participation in the CJR model, we are proposing to allow low-volume hospitals to make a one-time, voluntary participation election that complies with the proposed § 510.115 in order for the low-volume hospital to continues its participation in the CJR model. We are proposing to define a low-volume hospital in § 510.2 as a hospital identified by CMS as having fewer than 20 LEJR episodes in total across the 3 historical years of data used to calculate the performance year 1 CJR episode target prices. Note that under this definition, all hospitals listed in Table 3 would meet the definition of a low-volume hospital, but this list would not be inclusive of all hospitals that could be identified by CMS as a low-volume hospital. For example, a new hospital (with a new CCN) that opens in a mandatory MSA during the remaining years of the CJR model would not have any LEJR episodes during the historical years of data used to calculate the performance year 1 CJR episode target prices. Under our proposal, we intend that any hospital with a new CCN that comes into existence after the proposed voluntary participation election period would not be required and/or eligible to join the CJR model. Note that our proposed policy for new hospitals
We are also proposing to exclude and automatically withdraw rural hospitals from participation in the CJR model effective February 1, 2018. Since some rural hospitals may want to continue their participation in the CJR model, we are proposing to allow rural hospitals to make a one-time, voluntary participation election that complies with the proposed § 510.115 in order for the rural hospital to continues its participation in the CJR model. Specifically, we are proposing that rural hospitals (as defined in § 510.2) with a CCN primary address in the 34 mandatory participation MSAs would have a one-time opportunity to opt-in to continue its participation in the CJR model during the proposed voluntary participation election period. We are proposing that a hospital's change in rural status after the end of the voluntary participation election period would not change the hospital's CJR model participation requirements. Specifically, we are proposing that hospitals in the proposed 34 mandatory participation MSAs that are neither low-volume or rural hospitals during the proposed voluntary participation election period would be required to participate in the CJR model for performance years 3, 4, and 5, and that these hospitals would continue to be required to participate in the CJR model even if they subsequently become a rural hospital. Similarly, we are proposing that a rural hospital that makes a voluntary participation election during the one-time opportunity would be required to continue participating in the CJR model if that hospital no longer meets the definition of rural hospital in § 510.2. We are proposing this approach so that CMS can identify the hospitals, by CCN, that would participate in the model for the remainder of performance year 3 and performance years 4 and 5 at the conclusion of the proposed voluntary participation election period and so that there would be less confusion about which hospitals are CJR model participants. We seek comment on this proposal.
As stated previously in this section, we are proposing a one-time participation election period for hospitals with a CCN primary address located in the voluntary participation MSAs listed in Table 2, low-volume hospitals specified in Table 3, and rural hospitals in the mandatory participation MSAs. Based on the anticipated timing for when the final rule implementing this proposal would be published, we propose that the voluntary participation election period would begin January 1, 2018, and would end January 31, 2018. We must receive the participation election letter no later than January 31, 2018. We are proposing that the hospital's participation election letter would serve as the model participant agreement. Voluntary participation would begin February 1, 2018, and continue through the end of the CJR model, unless sooner terminated. Thus, participant hospitals located in the voluntary participation MSAs listed in Table 2, the low-volume hospitals specified in Table 3, and the rural hospitals in the 34 mandatory participation MSAs that elect voluntary participation would continue in the CJR
To specify their participation election, we are proposing that hospitals would submit a written participation election letter to CMS in a form and manner specified by CMS. We intend to provide templates that can easily be completed and submitted in order to limit the burden on hospitals seeking to opt-in. If a hospital with a CCN primary address located in the voluntary participation MSAs or a low-volume or rural hospital in the mandatory participation MSAs does not submit a written participation election letter by January 31, 2018, the hospital's participation in performance year 3 would end, all of its performance year 3 episodes would be canceled, and it would not be included in the CJR model for performance years 4 and 5.
We are proposing a number of requirements for the participation election letter and that the hospital's participation election letter would serve as the model participant agreement. First, we are proposing that the participation election letter must include all of the following:
• Hospital Name.
• Hospital Address.
• Hospital CCN.
• Hospital contact name, telephone number, and email address.
• If selecting the Advanced APM track, attestation of CEHRT use as defined in § 414.1305.
Second, we are proposing that the participation election letter must include a certification in a form and manner specific by CMS that—
• The hospital will comply with all requirements of the CJR model (that is, 42 CFR 510) and all other laws and regulations that are applicable to its participation in the CJR model; and
• Any data or information submitted to CMS will be accurate, complete and truthful, including, but not limited to, the participation election letter and any quality data or other information that CMS uses in reconciliation processes or payment calculations or both.
We solicit feedback on this proposed certification requirement, including whether the certification should include different or additional attestations.
Finally, we are proposing that the participation election letter be signed by the hospital administrator, chief financial officer (CFO) or chief executive officer (CEO).
We are proposing that, if the hospital's participation election letter meets these criteria, we would accept the hospital's participation election. Once a participation election for the CJR model is made and is effective, the participant hospital would be required to participate in all activities related to the CJR model for the remainder of the CJR model unless the hospital's participation is terminated sooner.
We note that episodes end 90 days after discharge for the CJR model and episodes that do not start and end in the same calendar year will be attributed to the following performance year. For example, episodes that start in October 2017 and do not end on or before December 31, 2017 are attributed to performance year 3. Our methodology for attributing these episodes to the subsequent performance year would be problematic in cases where a hospital with a CCN primary address located in a voluntary participation MSA or a rural hospital or a low-volume hospital, as specified by CMS, has not elected to voluntarily continue participating in the model. Therefore, for a hospital with a CCN primary address located in a voluntary participation MSA, or a rural hospital or a low-volume hospital, as specified by CMS, that does not elect voluntary participation during the one-time voluntary participation election period, we are proposing that all episodes attributed to performance year 3 for that hospital would be canceled and would not be included in payment reconciliation. Such hospitals would have their participation in the CJR model withdrawn effective February 1, 2018. We note that this proposal is consistent with our policy for treatment of episodes that have not ended by or on the last day of performance year 5 and cannot be included in performance year 5 reconciliation due to the end of the model (see Table 8 of the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73326)).
We are proposing to define a low-volume hospital, mandatory MSA, and voluntary MSA, to change the definition of participant hospital in § 510.2, and to amend the specification of the
We believe our proposed opt-in approach to allow for voluntary participation in the CJR model by certain hospitals would be less burdensome on such hospitals than a potential alternative approach of requiring hospitals to opt-out of the model. In developing the proposal to allow eligible hospitals located in the proposed 33 voluntary participation MSAs and low-volume and rural hospitals located in the 34 mandatory participation MSAs to elect voluntary participation, we considered whether to propose that hospitals would have to make an affirmative voluntary participation election (that is, an opt-in approach) or to propose that these hospitals would continue to be required to participate in the CJR model unless written notification was given to CMS to withdraw the hospital from the CJR model (that is, an opt-out approach). We believe an opt-in approach would be less burdensome on hospitals, because it would not require participation in the CJR model for hospitals located in the proposed 33 voluntary participation MSAs and for low-volume and rural hospitals located in the 34 mandatory participation MSAs unless the hospital affirmatively chose it. Further, we believe requiring an affirmative opt-in election would result in less ambiguity about a hospital's participation intentions as compared to an opt-out approach. Specifically, with an opt-in approach, a hospital's participation election would document each hospital's choice, whereas under an opt-out approach there could be instances where hospitals fail to timely notify CMS of their desire to withdraw from participation and are thus included in the model and subject to potential repayment amounts. For these reasons, we have proposed an opt-in approach. We seek comment on this proposal and the alternative considered.
We also believe that our proposed approach to make the CJR model primarily concentrated in the higher cost MSAs where the opportunity for further efficiencies and care redesign may be more likely and allow voluntary participation in the lower cost MSAs and for low-volume and rural hospitals allows the Innovation Center to focus on areas where the opportunity for further efficiencies and care redesign may be more likely, while still allowing hospitals in the voluntary MSAs the opportunity to participate in the model. In developing this proposed rule, we considered that hospitals in the CJR model have been participating for over a year and a half as of the timing of this proposed rule, and we have begun to give hospitals in the model financial and quality results from the first performance year. In many cases, participant hospitals have made investments in care redesign, and we want to recognize such investments and commitments to improvement while reducing the overall number of hospitals that are required to participate. We also considered stakeholder feedback that suggested we make participation in the CJR model voluntary, and the model size necessary to detect at least a 3-percent reduction in LEJR episode spending. Taking these considerations into account, we considered whether revising the model to allow for voluntary participation in all, some, or none of the 67 selected MSAs would be feasible.
As discussed in section V. of this proposed rule, the estimated impact of the changes to the CJR model proposed in this proposed rule reduces the overall estimated savings for performance years 3, 4, and 5 by $90 million. If voluntary participation was allowed in all of the 67 selected MSAs, the overall estimated model impact would no longer show savings, and would likely result in additional costs to the Medicare program. If participation was limited to the proposed 34 mandatory participation MSAs and voluntary participation was not allowed in any MSA, the impact to the overall estimated model savings over the last three years of the model would be closer to $30 million than the $90 million estimate presented in section V. of this proposed rule, because our modeling, which does not include assumptions about behavioral changes that might lower fee-for-service spending, estimates that 60 to 80 hospitals will choose voluntary participation. Since we estimate that these potential voluntary participants would be expected to earn only positive reconciliation payments under the model, these positive reconciliation payments would offset some of the savings garnered from mandatory participants. However, as many current hospital participants in all of the 67 MSAs are actively invested in the CJR model, we are proposing to allow voluntary participation in the 33 MSAs that were not selected for mandatory participation and for low-volume and rural hospitals. We seek comment on our proposed approach and the alternatives considered.
A summary of the proposed changes to the CJR model participation requirements is shown in Table 4.
We note that for the CJR model evaluation, the data collection methods and key evaluation research questions under the proposed reformulated approach (that is, the proposal for voluntary opt-in elections discussed in section III.B.1 of this proposed rule) would remain similar to the approach presented in the CJR model final rule. The evaluation methodology for the CJR model would be consistent with the standard Innovation Center approaches we have taken in other voluntary models such as the Pioneer Accountable Care Organization (ACO) Model. Cooperation and participation in model-related activities by all hospitals that participate in the CJR model would continue to be extremely important to the evaluation. Therefore, with respect to model-related evaluation activities, we propose to add provisions in § 510.410(b)(1)(i)(G) to specify that CMS may take remedial action if a participant hospital, or one of its collaborator, collaboration agent, or downstream collaboration agent fails to participate in model-related evaluation activities conducted by CMS and/or its contractors for any performance year in which the hospital participates. We believe the addition of this provision would make participation and collaboration requirements for the CJR model evaluation clear to all participant hospitals and in particular to hospitals that are eligible to elect voluntary participation. We seek comment on our proposed regulatory change.
In this proposed rule, we are proposing to make participation in the CJR model voluntary in 33 MSAs and for low-volume and rural hospitals in the remaining 34 MSAs via the proposed opt-in election policy discussed in section III.B.1 of this proposed rule. In order to keep hospitals in all MSAs selected for participation in the CJR model actively participating in the model, we are soliciting comment on ways to further incentivize eligible hospitals to elect to continue participating in the CJR model for the remaining years of the model and to further incentivize all participant hospitals to advance care improvements, innovation, and quality for beneficiaries throughout LEJR episodes.
Additionally, we note that, under the CJR refinements established in the January 3, 2017 EPM final rule, the total amount of gainsharing payments for a performance year paid to physicians, non-physician practitioners, physician group practices (PGPs), and non-physician practitioner group practices (NPPGPs) must not exceed 50 percent of the total Medicare approved amounts under the Physician Fee Schedule for items and services that are furnished to beneficiaries during episodes that occurred during the same performance year for which the CJR participant hospital accrued the internal cost savings or earned the reconciliation payment that comprises the gainsharing payment being made (§ 510.500(c)(4)). Similarly, distribution arrangements are limited as specified in § 510.505(b)(8), and downstream distribution arrangements are limited as specified in § 510.506(b)(8). These program integrity safeguards, which are consistent with the gainsharing caps in other Innovation Center models, were included to avoid setting an inappropriate financial incentive that may result in stinting, steering or denial of medically necessary care (80 FR 73415 and 73416). While we are not proposing in this rule any changes to the gainsharing caps for these models, we have heard various opinions from stakeholders, including the Medicare Payment Advisory Commission (MedPAC), on the relative benefit of such limitations on gainsharing and in this proposed rule we are soliciting comment on this requirement and any alternative gainsharing caps that may be appropriate to apply to physicians, non-physician practitioners, PGPs, and NPPGPs.
In the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73474), we discussed how specific International Classification of Diseases (ICD)—Clinical Modifications (CM) procedure codes define group of procedures included in the Hospital-level risk-standardized complication rate (RSCR) following elective primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) and/or total knee arthroplasty (TKA) (NQF #1550) (Hip/Knee Complications) measure. In discussing quality measures in general, the ICD-CM codes relative to defining a measure cohort are updated annually and are subject to change. For example, in the EPM final rule (82 FR 389), we itemized specific ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM codes for Hip/Knee Complications measure. As quality measures are refined and maintained, the ICD-CM code values used to identify the relevant diagnosis and/or procedures included in quality measures can be updated. For example, CMS' Center for Clinical Standards and Quality (CCSQ) has recently updated the list of ICD-10 codes used to identify procedures included in the Hip/Knee Complications measure. We did not intend for our preamble discussions of certain ICD-CM codes used, for example, to identify procedures included in the Hip/Knee Complications measures, and therefore the PRO cohorts for the CJR model, to set a policy that would define the relevant cohorts for the entirety of the CJR model. We should have also directed readers to look for the most current codes on the CMS quality Web site at
In the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73348) rule, we discussed our method of setting target prices using all historical episodes that would represent our best estimate of historical volume and payments for participant hospitals when an acquisition, merger, divestiture, or other reorganization results in a hospital with a new CCN. When a reorganization event occurs during a performance year,
In the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73450), we established 9 HCPCS G-codes to report home telehealth evaluation and management (E/M) visits furnished under the CJR telehealth waiver as displayed in Table 5. These codes have been payable for CJR model beneficiaries since the CJR model began on April 1, 2016. Pricing for these 9 codes is updated each calendar year to reflect the work and malpractice (MP) relative value units (RVUs) for the comparable office and other outpatient E/M visit codes on the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (MPFS). As we stated in the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73450), in finalizing this pricing method for these codes, we did not include the practice expense (PE) RVUs of the comparable office and other outpatient E/M visit codes in the payment rate for these unique CJR model services, based on the belief that practice expenses incurred to furnish these services are marginal or are paid for through other MPFS services. However, since the publication of the CJR model final rule, stakeholders have expressed concern that the zero value assigned to the PE RVUs for these codes results in inaccurate pricing. Stakeholders assert that there are additional costs related to the delivery of telehealth services under the CJR model such as maintaining the telecommunications equipment, software and security and that, while these practice expense costs are not equivalent to in-person service delivery costs, they are greater than zero. In considering the pricing concerns voiced by stakeholders, we recognize that there are resource costs in practice expense for telehealth services furnished remotely, however, we do not believe the current PE methodology and data accurately account for these costs relative to the PE resource costs for other services. This belief previously led us to assign zero PE RVUs in valuing these services, but because we recognize that there are some costs that are not being accounted for by the current pricing for these CJR model codes, we believe an alternative to assigning zero PE RVUs would be to use the facility PE RVUs for the analogous in-person services. While we acknowledge that assigning the facility PE RVUs would not provide a perfect reflection of practice resource costs for remote telehealth services under the CJR model, in the absence of more specific information, we believe it is likely a better proxy for such PE costs than zero. Therefore, we are proposing to use the facility PE RVUs for the analogous services in pricing the 9 CJR HCPCS G codes shown in Table 5. Additionally, we are proposing to revise § 510.605(c)(2) to reflect the addition of the RVUs for comparable codes for the facility PE to the work and MP RVUs we are currently using for the basis for payment of the CJR telehealth waiver G codes.
Under the Quality Payment Program, the Advanced APM track of the CJR model does not include eligible clinicians on a Participation List; rather the CJR Advanced APM track currently includes eligible clinicians on an Affiliated Practitioner List as defined under § 414.1305 and described under § 414.1425(a)(2) of the agency's Quality Payment Program regulations. As such, the Affiliated Practitioner List for the CJR model is the “CMS-maintained list” of eligible clinicians that have “a contractual relationship with the Advanced APM Entity [for CJR, the participant hospital] for the purposes of supporting the Advanced APM Entity's quality or cost goals under the Advanced APM.” As specified in our regulations at § 414.1425(a)(2), CMS will use this list to identify the eligible clinicians who will be assessed as Qualifying APM Participants (QPs) for the year. CMS will make QP determinations individually for these eligible clinicians as specified in §§ 414.1425(b)(2), (c)(4), and 414.1435.
In the EPM final rule, we stated that a list of physicians, nonphysician practitioners, or therapists in a sharing arrangement, distribution arrangement, or downstream distribution arrangement, as applicable, would be considered an Affiliated Practitioner List of eligible clinicians who are affiliated with and support the Advanced APM Entity in its participation in the Advanced APM for purposes of the Quality Payment Program. An in-depth discussion of how the clinician financial arrangement list is considered an Affiliated Practitioner List can be found in section V.O. of the EPM final rule (82 FR 558 through 563). The clinician financial arrangements list (§ 510.120(b)) will be used by CMS to identify eligible clinicians for whom we would make a QP determination based on services furnished through the Advanced APM track of the CJR model.
Stakeholders have expressed a desire for model changes that would also include in the clinician financial arrangement list physicians, non-physician practitioners, and therapists without a financial arrangement under the CJR model, but who are affiliated with and support the Advanced APM Entity in its participation in the Advanced APM for purposes of the Quality Payment Program.
We agree with stakeholders that these physicians, non-physician practitioners, and therapists should have their contributions to the Advanced APM Entity's participation in the Advanced APM recognized under the Quality Payment Program; however, since these
To increase opportunities for eligible clinicians supporting CJR model participant hospitals by performing CJR model activities and who are affiliated with participant hospitals to be considered QPs, we are proposing that each physician, nonphysician practitioner, or therapist who is not a CJR collaborator during the period of the CJR model performance year specified by CMS, but who does have a contractual relationship with the participant hospital based at least in part on supporting the participant hospital's quality or cost goals under the CJR model during the period of the performance year specified by CMS, would be added to a clinician engagement list.
In addition to the clinician financial arrangement list that is considered an Affiliated Practitioner List for purposes of the Quality Payment Program, we propose the clinician engagement list would also be considered an Affiliated Practitioner List. The clinician engagement list and the clinician financial arrangement list would be considered together an Affiliated Practitioner List and would be used by CMS to identify eligible clinicians for whom we would make a QP determination based on services furnished through the Advanced APM track of the CJR model. As specified in § 414.1425, as of our regulations, adopted in the Calendar Year (CY) 2017 Quality Payment Program final rule (81 FR 77551) (hereinafter referred to as the 2017 QPP final rule), those physicians, nonphysician practitioners, or therapists who are included on the CJR model Affiliated Practitioner List as of March 31, June 30, or August 31 of a QP performance period would be assessed to determine their QP status for the year. As discussed in the 2017 QPP final rule (81 FR 77439 and 77440), for clinicians on an Affiliated Practitioner List, we determine whether clinicians meet the payment amount or patient count thresholds to be considered QPs (or Partial QPs) for a year by evaluating whether individual clinicians on an Affiliated Practitioner List have sufficient payments or patients flowing through the Advanced APM; we do not make any determination at the APM Entity level for Advanced APMs in which eligible clinicians are not identified on a Participation List, but are identified on an Affiliated Practitioner List. CMS makes the QP determination based on Part B claims data, so clinicians need not track or report payment amount or patient count information to CMS.
This proposal would broaden the scope of eligible clinicians that are considered Affiliated Practitioners under the CJR model to include those without a financial arrangement under the CJR model but who are either directly employed by or contractually engaged with a participant hospital to perform clinical work for the participant hospital when that clinical work, at least in part, supports the cost and quality goals of the CJR model. We propose that the cost and quality goals of the additional affiliated practitioners who are identified on a clinician engagement list because they are contracted with a participant hospital must include activities related to CJR model activities, that is, activities related to promoting accountability for the quality, cost, and overall care for beneficiaries during LEJR episodes included in the CJR model, including managing and coordinating care; encouraging investment in infrastructure, enabling technologies, and redesigned care processes for high quality and efficient service delivery; the provision of items and services during a CJR episode in a manner that reduces costs and improves quality; or carrying out any other obligation or duty under the CJR model.
Like the requirements of the clinician financial arrangement lists specified at § 510.120(b), for CMS to make QP determinations for eligible clinicians based on services furnished through the CJR Advanced APM track, we would require that accurate information about each physician, nonphysician practitioner, or therapist who is not a CJR collaborator during the period of the CJR model performance year specified by CMS, but who is included on a clinician engagement list, be provided to CMS in a form and manner specified by CMS on a no more than quarterly basis. Thus, we propose that each participant hospital in the Advanced APM track of the CJR model submit to CMS a clinician engagement list in a form and manner specified by CMS on a no more than quarterly basis. We propose this list must include the following information on eligible clinicians for the period of the CJR model performance year specified by CMS:
• For each physician, nonphysician practitioner, or therapist who is not a CJR collaborator during the period of the CJR model performance year specified by CMS but who does have a contractual relationship with a participant hospital based at least in part on supporting the participant hospital's quality or cost goals under the CJR model during the period of the CJR model performance year specified by CMS:
++ The name, TIN, and NPI of the individual.
++ The start date and, if applicable, the end date for the contractual relationship between the individual and participant hospital.
Further, we propose that if there are no individuals that meet the requirements to be reported, as specified in any of § 510.120 (b)(1) through (3) of the EPM final rule or § 510.120(c) as proposed here, the participant hospital must attest in a form and manner required by CMS that there are no individuals to report.
Given that this proposal would require submission of a clinician engagement list, or an attestation that there are no eligible clinicians to be included on such a list, to reduce burden on participant hospitals, we would collect information for the clinician engagement list and clinician financial arrangement list at the same time.
We seek comments on the proposal for submission of this information. We are especially interested in comments about approaches to information submission, including the periodicity and method of submission to CMS that would minimize the reporting burden on participant hospitals while providing CMS with sufficient information about eligible clinicians to facilitate QP determinations.
For each participant hospital in the CJR Advanced APM track, we propose that the participant hospital must maintain copies of its clinician engagement lists and supporting documentation (that is, copies of employment letters or contracts) of its clinical engagement lists submitted to CMS. Because we would use these lists to develop Affiliated Practitioner Lists used for purposes of making QP determinations, these documents would be necessary to assess the completeness and accuracy of materials submitted by a participant hospital and to facilitate monitoring and audits. For the same reason, we further propose that the participant hospital must retain and provide access to the required documentation in accordance with § 510.110.
We conducted the initial reconciliation for performance year 1 of the CJR model in early 2017, and expect to make reconciliation payments to CJR participant hospitals by the end of September 2017 to accommodate the performance year 1 appeals process timelines. We will conduct the subsequent reconciliation calculation for performance year 1 of the CJR model beginning in the first quarter of 2018, which may result in additional amounts to be paid to participant hospitals or a reduction to the amount that was paid for performance year 1. However, the results of the performance year 1 subsequent reconciliation calculations will be combined with the performance year 2 initial reconciliation results before reconciliation payment or repayment amounts are processed for payment or collection. Changes to the CJR model established in the EPM final rule impact this process.
The improvements to the CJR model quality measures and composite quality score methodology, which were finalized in the EPM final rule (82 FR 524 through 526), were intended to be effective before the CJR model's performance year 1 initial reconciliation. However, as noted in section II. of this proposed rule, the effective date for certain EPM final rule provisions, including those amending §§ 510.305 and 510.315 to improve the quality measures and composite quality score methodology, were delayed until May 20, 2017. As a result, the CJR reconciliation reports issued in April 2017 were created in accordance with the provisions of §§ 510.305 and 510.315 in effect as of April 2017; that is, the provisions finalized in the CJR model final rule. In early 2018, we would perform the performance year 1 subsequent reconciliation calculation in accordance with the provisions §§ 510.305 and 510.315 in effect as of early 2018, that is, established in the EPM final rule. Applying the provisions established in the EPM final rule to the performance year 1 subsequent reconciliation calculation may result in significant differences between the reconciliation payments calculated during the performance year 1 initial reconciliation and the performance year 1 subsequent reconciliation. We anticipate that these differences will be greater than those that would be expected as a result of using more complete claims and programmatic data that will be available for the subsequent reconciliation (due to the additional 12 months of time that will occur between the initial and subsequent reconciliation calculations), more accurate identification of model overlap and exclusion of episodes, as well as factoring in adjustments to account for shared savings payments, and post-episode spending, as specified in § 510.305(i). Specifically, the methodology used to determine the quality-adjusted target price for the performance year 1 subsequent reconciliation calculation will differ from the methodology used to determine the quality-adjusted target price for the performance year 1 initial reconciliation calculation as follows: The quality-adjusted target price would be recalculated to apply the amended reductions to the effective discount factors (§ 510.315(f)), which would be determined after recalculating the composite quality scores, including applying more generous criteria for earning quality improvement points (that is, a 2 decile improvement rather than 3 decile improvement as specified in amended § 510.315(d)). Using the recalculated quality-adjusted target price, the net payment reconciliation amount (NPRA) would be recalculated and will include application of post-episode spending reductions (§ 510.305(j)), as necessary, after determining the limitations on loss or gain. Thus, calculating performance year 1 reconciliation payments using these two different provisions may result in a range of upward or downward adjustments to participant hospitals' performance year 1 payment amounts. We note that a downward adjustment to the performance year 1 payment amounts would require payment recoupment, if offset against a performance year 2 initial reconciliation payment amount is not feasible, which may be burdensome for participant hospitals.
In developing this proposed rule, we also considered whether there might be benefit in further delaying the amendments to §§ 510.305 and 510.315 such that the same calculations would be used for both the performance year 1 initial reconciliation and the subsequent performance year 1 reconciliation, and the use of the amended calculations would begin with the performance year 2 initial reconciliation. We believe such an approach would impact future CJR model implementation and evaluation activities. Because determining the performance year 2 composite quality score considers the hospital's quality score improvement from its performance year 1 score, using different methodologies across performance years would require a mechanism to account for differences in the quality score methodology, for example we would have to develop a reliable crosswalk approach. If we were to develop and use a crosswalk approach, participants and other stakeholders would need to be informed about the crosswalk methodology in order to validate data analyses across performance years and that usage of the crosswalk would be ongoing throughout the model's duration for consistency across performance years. This methodology could add substantial complexity to this time-limited model. We also considered that the composite quality score for some participant hospitals may be higher under the revised scoring methodology. Delaying use of the revised scoring methodology may disadvantage these participants if their composite quality score would be higher and result in a more favorable discount percentage or allow the hospital to qualify for a reconciliation payment. Therefore, we believe the best approach is to apply the quality specifications as established in the EPM final rule (that is, the amendments to §§ 510.305 and 510.315 that became effective May 20, 2017) to performance year 1 subsequent reconciliation calculations to ensure that reconciliation calculations for subsequent performance years will be calculated using the same methodology and to improve consistency across performance years for quality improvement measurement. Thus, for the reasons noted previously, we are not proposing to change the amendments to §§ 510.305 and 510.315 that became effective May 20, 2017. We seek comment on whether using an alternative approach, such as the quality composite score methodology from the CJR model final rule for the performance year 1 subsequent reconciliation, would ensure better consistency for analyses across CJR performance years.
Based on questions we received from participant hospitals during the performance year 1 reconciliation process, we are proposing to make two technical changes to the CJR model regulations to clarify the use of the CMS Price (Payment) Standardization Detailed Methodology, posted on the QualityNet Web site at
As stated in section 1115A(d)(3) of the Act, Chapter 35 of title 44, United States Code, shall not apply to the testing and evaluation of models under section 1115A of the Act. As a result, the information collection requirements contained in this proposed rule need not be reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. However, we have, summarized the anticipated cost burden associated with the information collection requirements in the Regulatory Impact Analysis section of this proposed rule.
We have examined the impacts of this rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January 18, 2011), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96-354), section 1102(b) of the Social Security Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999) and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)), and Executive Order 13771 on Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs (January 30, 2017).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for major rules with economically significant effects ($100 million or more in any 1 year). This proposed rule proposes to cancel the EPMs and the CR incentive payment model in advance of their start date and proposes several revisions to the design of the CJR model; these proposals impact a subset of hospitals under the IPPS. Therefore, it would have a relatively small economic impact; as a result, this proposed rule does not reach the $100 million threshold and thus is neither an “economically significant” rule under E.O. 12866, nor a “major rule” under the Congressional Review Act.
As discussed previously, review and reevaluation of policies and programs, as well as revised rulemaking, are within an agency's discretion, especially after a change in administration occurs. After review and reevaluation of the CJR model final rule, the EPM final rule and the public comments we received in response to the March 21, 2017 IFC, in addition to other considerations, we have determined that it is necessary to propose to rescind the regulations at 42 CFR part 512 and to reduce the geographic scope of the CJR model for the following reasons. First, we believe that requiring hospitals to participate in additional episode models at this time is not in the best interest of the agency or affected providers. We are concerned that engaging in large mandatory episode payment model efforts at this time may impede our ability to pursue and engage providers, such as hospitals, in future voluntary efforts. Similarly, we also believe that reducing the number of providers required to participate in the CJR model would allow us to continue to evaluate the effects of such a model while limiting the geographic reach of our current mandatory models. Finally, we believe that canceling the EPMs and CR incentive payment model, as well as altering the scope of the CJR model, offers CMS maximum flexibility to design alternative episode-based models and make potential improvements to these models as suggested by stakeholders, while still allowing us to test and evaluate the impact of the CJR model on the quality of care and expenditures.
This proposed rule is also necessary to propose improvements to the CJR model for performance years 3, 4, and 5. We are proposing a few technical refinements and clarifications for certain payment, reconciliation and quality provisions, and a change to the criteria for the Affiliated Practitioner List to broaden the CJR Advanced APM track to additional eligible clinicians. We believe these proposed refinements would address operational issues identified since the start of the CJR model.
In section III. of the preamble to this proposed rule, we discuss our proposals to amend the regulations governing the CJR model. We present the following estimated overall impact of these proposed changes to the CJR model. Table 6 summarizes the newly calculated estimated impact for the CJR model for the last 3 years of the model.
The modeling methodology for provider performance and participation is consistent with the methodology used in modeling the CJR impacts in the EPM final rule (82 FR 596). However, we updated our analysis to include an opt-in option for hospitals in 33 of the 67 MSAs selected for participation in the CJR model (all but 4 of these MSAs are from the lower cost groups), while maintaining mandatory participation for the remaining 34 MSAs (all of which are from the higher cost groups), and allowing for the exclusion of low-volume and rural hospitals in these 34 MSAs from mandatory participation and allowing them to choose voluntary participation (opt-in). We would expect the number of mandatory participating hospitals from year 3 forward to decrease from approximately 700, which is approximately the number of current CJR participants, to approximately 393. We assumed that if a hospital would exceed its target pricing such that it would incur an obligation of repayment to CMS of 3 percent or more in a given year, that hospital would not elect voluntary participation in the model for the final three performance years. We assumed no low-volume providers would participate, noting that including them in impacts would not have any noticeable effects due to their low claims volume. For purposes of
We seek comment on our assumptions about the number of hospitals that would elect voluntary participation in the CJR model. Due to a lack of available data, we did not account for participant investment in the impact analysis model we used for this proposed rule. However, we would expect that those who choose to voluntarily participate would have made investments in the CJR model that enable them to perform well and that they would anticipate earning positive reconciliation payments. For those hospitals choosing not to voluntarily participate, we would expect that the cost of any investments they may have made based on their participation in performance years 1 and 2 of the CJR model would be outweighed by the reconciliation payment obligations they would expect to incur if they continued to participate. The 60 to 80 participants we expect to continue participating in the model through the voluntary election process are not included in our previous estimate of 393 CJR participants in the mandatory MSAs. Thus, in total we expect approximately 450 to 470 participants in the CJR model for the final three performance years. The participation parameters were chosen to reflect both the anticipated risk aversion of providers, and an expectation that many participants do not remain in an optional model or demonstration when there is an expectation that the hospital would incur an obligation of repayment to CMS. These assumptions reflect the experience with other models and demonstrations. The value of 3 percent may be somewhat larger than the level of repayment at which providers would opt-in, but the value was chosen to allow for the uncertainty of expected claims. We note that the possibility of shifting episodes from CJR model participant hospitals to low-volume or other non-participating hospitals exists and that we did not include any assumptions of this potential behavior in our financial impact modeling. We seek comment on our model assumptions that shifting of episodes will not occur. The new calculations estimate that the CJR model would result in a net Medicare program savings of approximately $204 million over the 3 remaining performance years (2018 through 2020). This represents a reduction in savings of approximately $90 million from the estimated net financial impacts of the CJR model in the EPM final rule (82 FR 603).
Our previous analyses of the CJR model did not explicitly model for utilization changes, such as improvements in the efficiency of service during episodes. However, these behavioral changes would have minimal effect on the Medicare financial impacts. If the actual costs for an episode are below the discounted bundled payment amount, then CMS distributes the difference between these two amounts to the participant hospital, up to a capped amount. Similarly, if actual costs for an episode are above the discounted bundled payment amount, then the participant hospital pays CMS the difference between these amounts, up to a capped amount. Due to the uncertainty of estimating the impacts of this model, actual results could be higher or lower than this estimate.
Our analysis presents the cost and transfer payment effects of this proposed rule to the best of our ability.
We believe that the proposal to cancel the EPMs and CR incentive payment model would not affect beneficiaries' freedom of choice to obtain healthcare services from any individual or organization qualified to participate in the Medicare program, including providers that are making care improvements within their communities. Although these models seek to incentivize care redesign and collaboration throughout the inpatient and post-acute care spectrum, the models have not yet begun. As the current baseline assumes these models would become effective on January 1, 2018, and that these models would incentivize care improvements that would likely result in an increase in quality of care for beneficiaries, it is possible that the proposal to cancel these models could cause hospitals that potentially made improvements in care in anticipation of the start of these models to delay or cease these investments, which could result in a reversal of any recent quality improvements. However, we believe the concerns raised by stakeholders and the lack of time to consider design improvements for these models prior to the January 1, 2018 start date outweigh potential reversal of any recent improvements in care potentially made by some hospitals and warrant cancellation of these models at this time while we engage with stakeholders to identify future tests for bundled payments and incentivizing high value care.
We believe that the proposed changes to the CJR model discussed in this proposed rule, specifically focusing the model on higher cost MSAs in which participation would continue to be mandatory and allowing low-volume and rural hospitals and all participant hospitals in lower cost MSAs to choose voluntary participation, would maintain the potential benefits of the CJR model for beneficiaries in many areas while providing a substantial number of
The changes to the CJR model proposed in this proposed rule do not substantially alter our previous impacts of the impact on small, geographically rural hospitals specified in either the EPM final rule (82 FR 606) and the CJR model final rule (80 FR 73538) because we continue to believe that few geographically rural hospitals will be included in the CJR model. In addition, the proposal to allow all rural hospitals (as defined in § 510.2) that are not otherwise excluded the opportunity to elect to opt-in to the CJR model instead of having a mandatory participation requirement may further reduce the likelihood that rural hospitals would be included in the model. We solicit public comment on our estimates and analysis of the impact of our proposals on small rural hospitals.
The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities, if a rule has a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. We estimate that most hospitals and most other providers and suppliers are small entities, either by virtue of their nonprofit status or by qualifying as small businesses under the Small Business Administration's size standards (revenues of less than $7.5 to $38.5 million in any 1 year; NAIC Sector—62 series). States and individuals are not included in the definition of a small entity. For details, see the Small Business Administration's Web site at
For purposes of the RFA, we generally consider all hospitals and other providers and suppliers to be small entities. We believe that the provisions of this proposed rule relating to acute care hospitals would have some effects on a substantial number of other providers involved in these episodes of care including surgeons and other physicians, skilled nursing facilities, physical therapists, and other providers. Although we acknowledge that many of the affected entities are small entities, and the analysis discussed throughout this proposed rule discusses aspects of episode payment models that may or would affect them, we have no reason to assume that these effects would reach the threshold level of 3 percent of revenues used by HHS to identify what are likely to be “significant” impacts. We assume that all or almost all of these entities would continue to serve these patients, and to receive payments commensurate with their cost of care. Hospitals currently experience frequent changes to payment (for example, as both hospital affiliations and preferred provider networks change) that may impact revenue, and we have no reason to assume that this would change significantly under the changes proposed in this rule.
Accordingly, we have determined that this proposed rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. We solicit public comments on our estimates and analysis of the impact of our proposals on those small entities.
The changes proposed in this proposed rule would have a minimal additional burden of information collection for CJR model participant hospitals. The two areas which this proposed rule may increase participant burden include providing clinician engagement lists and submitting opt-in documentation (for eligible hospitals who choose to opt-in to the CJR model).
Clinician engagement list submission for the CJR model would require that participants submit on a no more than quarterly basis a list of physicians, nonphysician practitioners, or therapists who are not a CJR model collaborator during the period of the CJR model performance year specified by CMS but who do have a contractual relationship with a CJR model participant hospital based at least in part on supporting the participant hospital's quality or cost goals under the CJR model during the period of the performance year specified by CMS.
For hospitals eligible to opt-in to the CJR model that elect to participate in the model, CMS intends to provide a template that can be completed and submitted prior to the proposed January 31, 2018 submission deadline. As stated previously, we estimate that the number of hospitals that will elect voluntary participation in CJR is 60 to 80. As stated previously, this template would be designed to minimize burden on participants, particularly since all necessary information required to effectively opt-in will be included within the template. Using wage information from the Bureau of Labor Statistics for medical and health service managers (Code 11-9111), we assumed a rate of $105.16 per hour, including overhead and fringe benefits (
We seek comment on our assumptions and information on any costs associated with this work.
If regulations impose administrative costs on private entities, such as the time needed to read and interpret this proposed rule, we should estimate the cost associated with regulatory review. Due to the uncertainty involved with accurately quantifying the number of entities that will review the rule, we assume that the total number of unique commenters on the EPM proposed rule will be the number of reviewers of this proposed rule. We acknowledge that this assumption may understate or overstate the costs of reviewing this rule. It is possible that not all commenters reviewed the precedent rule in detail, and it is also possible that some reviewers chose not to comment on the proposed rule. For these reasons we thought that the number of past commenters on the EPM proposed rule
We also recognize that different types of entities are in many cases affected by mutually exclusive sections of this proposed rule, however for the purposes of our estimate we assume that each reviewer reads approximately 100 percent of the rule. We seek comments on this assumption.
Using the wage information from the BLS for medical and health service managers (Code 11-9111), we estimate that the cost of reviewing this rule is $105.16 per hour, including overhead and fringe benefits
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2017, that is approximately $148 million. This proposed rule does not include any mandate that would result in spending by state, local or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector in the amount of $148 million in any 1 year.
We do not believe that there is anything in this proposed rule that either explicitly or implicitly preempts any state law, and furthermore we do not believe that this proposed rule would have a substantial direct effect on state or local governments, preempt state law, or otherwise have a federalism implication.
Executive Order 13771, titled Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs (82 FR 9339), was issued on January 30, 2017. This proposed rule, if finalized as proposed, is not expected to be subject to the requirements of E.O. 13771 because it is estimated to result in no more than
Throughout this proposed rule, we have identified our proposed policies and alternatives that we have considered, and provided information as to the effects of these alternatives and the rationale for each of the proposed policies. We considered but did not propose to allow voluntary participation in all of the 67 selected MSAs in the CJR model because the overall estimated CJR model impact would no longer show savings, and would likely result in costs. An entirely voluntary CJR model would likely result in costs due to the assumption that, in aggregate, hospitals that expect to receive a positive reconciliation payment from Medicare would elect to opt-in to the model while hospitals that expect to owe Medicare a reconciliation amount would not likely elect to participate in the model. We also considered but did not propose limiting participation to the proposed 34 mandatory participation MSAs and not allowing voluntary participation in any of the 67 selected MSAs. If participation was limited to the proposed 34 mandatory participation MSAs and voluntary participation was not allowed in any MSA, the impact to the overall estimated model savings over the last three years of the model would be closer to $30 million than the $90 million estimate presented in section V. of this proposed rule, because our modeling does not include assumptions about behavioral changes that might lower fee-for-service spending. Since our impact model estimates that 60 to 80 hospitals would choose voluntary participation and that these potential voluntary participants would be expected to earn only positive reconciliation payments under the model, these positive payments to the voluntary participants would offset some of the savings garnered from mandatory participants. However, we are proposing to allow voluntary participation in the proposed 33 voluntary participation MSAs and for low-volume and rural hospitals to permit hospitals that have made investments in care redesign and commitments to improvement to continue to participate in the model for the remaining 3 years. We believe our proposal would benefit a greater number of beneficiaries because a greater number of hospitals would be included in the CJR model.
Instead of proposing to cancel the EPMs and CR incentive payment model, we considered altering the design of these models to allow for voluntary participation but as this would potentially involve restructuring the model design, payment methodologies, financial arrangement provisions and/or quality measures, we did not believe that such alterations would offer providers enough time to prepare for such changes, given the planned January 1, 2018 start date. In addition, if at a later date we decide to offer these models, or similar models, on a voluntary basis, we would not expect to implement them through rulemaking, but rather would establish them consistent with the manner in which we have implemented other voluntary models.
We solicit and welcome comments on our proposals, on the alternatives we have identified, and on other alternatives that we should consider, as well as on the costs, benefits, or other effects of these.
As required by OMB Circular A-4 under Executive Order 12866 (available at
This analysis, together with the remainder of this preamble, provides the Regulatory Impact Analysis of a rule. As a result of this proposed rule, we estimate that the financial impact of the changes to the CJR model proposed here would result in a reduction to previously estimated savings by $90 million over the 3 remaining performance years (2018 through 2020) although we note that the CJR model would still be estimated to save the Medicare program approximately $204 million over the remaining three performance years.
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this rule was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
Because of the large number of public comments we normally receive on
Administrative Practice and Procedure, Health facilities, Health professions, Medicare, and Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative Practice and Procedure, Health facilities, Health professions, Medicare, and Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, under the authority at section 1115A of the Social Security Act, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services proposes to amend 42 CFR Chapter IV, as follows:
Secs. 1102, 1115A, and 1871 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302, 1315(a), and 1395hh).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(1) During performance years 1 and 2 of the CJR model and the period from January 1, 2018 to January 31, 2018 of performance year 3, a hospital (other than a hospital excepted under § 510.100(b)) with a CCN primary address located in one of the geographic areas selected for participation in the CJR model in accordance with § 510.105.
(2) Beginning February 1, 2018, a hospital (other than a hospital excepted under § 510.100(b)) that is one of the following:
(i) A hospital with a CCN primary address located in a mandatory MSA as of February 1, 2018 that is not a rural hospital or a low-volume hospital on that date.
(ii) A hospital that is a rural hospital or low-volume hospital with a CCN primary address located in a mandatory MSA that makes an election to participate in the CJR model in accordance with § 510.115.
(iii) A hospital with a CCN primary address located in a voluntary MSA that makes an election to participate in the CJR model in accordance with § 510.115.
(a)
(1) All counties within each of the selected MSAs are selected for inclusion in the CJR model.
(2) Beginning with performance year 3, the selected MSAs are designated as either mandatory participation MSAs or voluntary participation MSAs.
(a)
(1) Hospitals (other than those excluded under § 510.100(b)) with a CCN primary address in a voluntary MSA.
(2) Low-volume hospitals with a CCN primary address in a mandatory MSA.
(3) Rural hospitals with a CCN primary address in a mandatory MSA.
(b)
(c)
(1) Includes the following:
(i) Hospital name.
(ii) Hospital address.
(iii) Hospital CCN.
(iv) Hospital contact name, telephone number, and email address.
(v) Model name (that is, CJR model).
(vi) Attestation of CEHRT use as specified in § 510.120(a)(1) (if the hospital is choosing to participate in the Advanced APM track).
(2) Includes a certification that the hospital will—
(i) Comply with all applicable requirements of this part and all other laws and regulations applicable to its participation in the CJR model; and
(ii) Submit data or information to CMS that is accurate, complete and truthful, including, but not limited to, the participation election letter and any quality data or other information that CMS uses in its reconciliation processes.
(3) Is signed by the hospital administrator, CFO or CEO.
(4) Is submitted in the form and manner specified by CMS.
The revision and additions read as follows:
(c)
(1) For each physician, nonphysician practitioner, or therapist who is not a CJR collaborator during the period of the CJR model performance year specified by CMS but who does have a contractual relationship with the participant hospital based at least in part on supporting the participant hospital's quality or cost goals under the CJR model during the period of the performance year specified by CMS:
(i) The name, TIN, and NPI of the individual.
(ii) The start date and, if applicable, the end date for the contractual relationship between the individual and participant hospital.
(2) [Reserved]
(d)
(e)
(2) The participant hospital must retain and provide access to the required documentation in accordance with § 510.110.
(b)
(1) The beneficiary does any of the following during the episode:
(i) Ceases to meet any criterion listed in § 510.205.
(ii) Is readmitted to any participant hospital for another anchor hospitalization.
(iii) Initiates an LEJR episode under BPCI.
(iv) Dies.
(2) For performance year 3, the participant hospital did not submit a participation election letter that was accepted by CMS to continue participation in the model.
(b) * * *
(6)
(d) * * *
(1) Beginning 2 months after the end of each performance year, CMS does all of the following:
(i) Performs a reconciliation calculation to establish an NPRA for each participant hospital.
(ii) For participant hospitals that experience a reorganization event in which one or more hospitals reorganize under the CCN of a participant hospital performs—
(A) Separate reconciliation calculations (during both initial and subsequent reconciliations for a performance year) for each predecessor participant hospital for episodes where anchor hospitalization admission occurred before the effective date of the reorganization event; and
(B) Reconciliation calculations (during both initial and subsequent reconciliations for a performance year) for each new or surviving participant hospital for episodes where the anchor hospitalization admission occurred on or after the effective date of the reorganization event.
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) * * *
(G) Failing to participate in CJR model-related evaluation activities conducted by CMS or its contractors or both.
(c) * * *
(2) CMS waives the payment requirements under section 1834(m)(2)(B) of the Act to allow the distant site payment for telehealth home visit HCPCS codes unique to this model.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |